Aamc MCAT Test 9

MCAT
Practice Test 9
Association of American Medical Colleges
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Physical Sciences
Time: 100 minutes
Questions: 1-77
Most questions in the Physical Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive passage.
After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group. Some questions are not
based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other. If you are not certain of an answer,
eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining
alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet. A
periodic table is provided for your use. You may consult it whenever you wish.
(202-828-0690).
1 Periodic Table of the Elements 2
H He
1.0 4.0
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.9 9.0 10.8 12.0 14.0 16.0 19.0 20.2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
23.0 24.3 27.0 28.1 31.0 32.1 35.5 39.9
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
39.1 40.1 45.0 47.9 50.9 52.0 54.9 55.8 58.9 58.7 63.5 65.4 69.7 72.6 74.9 79.0 79.9 83.8
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
85.5 87.6 88.9 91.2 92.9 95.9 (98) 101.1 102.9 106.4 107.9 112.4 114.8 118.7 121.8 127.6 126.9 131.3
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
Cs Ba La* Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
132.9 137.3 138.9 178.5 180.9 183.9 186.2 190.2 192.2 195.1 197.0 200.6 204.4 207.2 209.0 (209) (210) (222)
87 88 89 104 105 106 107 108 109
Fr Ra Ac Unq Unp Unh Uns Uno Une
(223) (226) (227) (261) (262) (263) (262) (265) (267)
58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
* Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
140.1 140.9 144.2 (145) 150.4 152.0 157.3 158.9 162.5 164.9 167.3 168.9 173.0 175.0
90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
232.0 (231) 238.0 (237) (244) (243) (247) (247) (251) (252) (257) (258) (259) (260)
Passage I 1. A solution contains 0.1 M Mg2+(aq), 0.1 M
A group of students investigated the properties of Ca2+(aq), and 0.1 M Sr2+(aq). All three ions can
solutions containing Na+, Mg2+, Ca2+, Sr2+, and Ba2+. be precipitated if which two reagents are added to
the solution?
Flame Test
The students prepared 0.1 M aqueous solutions of A) Reagents 1 and 2
each metal nitrate. They dipped a Pt loop into each B) Reagents 1 and 3
solution and heated a drop of each solution over a
flame. They recorded the color of the flame (Table 1). C) Reagents 2 and 3
They repeated the flame test with Unknown A, a D) Reagents 2 and 4
solution that contained two of the metal nitrates.
Solubility Test 2. A test tube contains 2 mL of 0.1 M Ca2+(aq). A
precipitate will most likely form if which of the
The students prepared 1.0 M aqueous solutions of
following reagents is added to the tube?
four reagents.
A) 1.0 M HCl(aq)
Reagent 1 = NH3(aq)
Reagent 2 = (NH4)2SO4(aq) B) 1.0 M NaOH(aq)
Reagent 3 = (NH4)2C2O4(aq) C) 1.0 M H2SO4(aq)
Reagent 4 = (NH4)2CO3(aq)
D) 1.0 M Na2CO3(aq)
They combined 1.0 mL of each metal nitrate solution
with 1.0 mL of each reagent, and the solution either
remained clear or a white precipitate formed (Table 3. The students added Reagent 2 to a test tube
1). containing 0.1 M Ca2+(aq) and 0.1 M Sr2+(aq).
Which of the following procedures will best
Table 1 Results of Flame Test and Solubility Test of enable the students to recover a fairly pure sample
Metal Nitrate Solutions of SrSO4(s) from this mixture?
Appearance of solution after reagent was A) Allowing the water to evaporate and collecting the
Color added solid that remains in the tube
of Reagent Reagent Reagent Reagent
Metal ion flame 1 2 3 4 B) Pouring the mixture through a filter, collecting the
Na+(aq) yellow clear clear clear clear insoluble substance, and allowing the water to
2+ no white evaporate from the insoluble substance
Mg (aq) clear clear clear
color ppt C) Pouring the mixture through a filter, collecting the
2+ white white
Ca (aq) red clear clear
ppt ppt
filtrate containing the soluble substance, then
white white white
allowing the water to evaporate from the filtrate
Sr2+(aq) red clear
ppt ppt ppt D) Adding Reagent 3, pouring the mixture through
2+ white white white a filter, collecting the filtrate containing the
Ba (aq) green clear
ppt ppt ppt
soluble substance, and allowing the water to
Unknown white white white white
A
red
ppt ppt ppt ppt
evaporate from the filtrate
Note: ppt = precipitate
Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright
4. The information in Table 1 suggests that which of 5. A solution contains either Ca2+(aq) or Sr2+(aq).
the following substances has the smallest Ksp? Which of the following actions will best enable the
students to identify the ion in the solution?
A) MgSO4
A) Performing a flame test
B) MgC2O4
B) Adding Reagent 1
C) CaSO4
C) Adding Reagent 2
D) CaC2O4
D) Adding Reagent 3
Passage II 6. Which of the following graphs best illustrates how
charge accumulates on the plates of the capacitor
Students constructed the electrical circuit shown
after the switch is closed?
below to study capacitors. A battery with a voltage of
10 V is connected through a switch to a capacitor and A)
a 500- resistor. The capacitor is constructed from
two flat metal plates, each with a surface area of 5.0
105 m2. The plates are separated by 1.0 103 m, and
the space between the plates is a vacuum. The
connecting wires have no resistance. After the switch
is closed and the capacitor is fully charged, a particle B)
with a charge of 8.0 1019 C and a speed of 1.0 m/s
is injected midway between the capacitor plates.
C)
Figure 1 Circuit
D)
7. If the speed of the charged particle described in the

passage is increased by a factor of 2, the electrical
force on the particle will:
A) decrease by a factor of 2.
B) remain the same.
C) increase by a factor of 2.
D) increase by a factor of 4.
8. Making which of the following changes to a circuit

element will increase the capacitance of the
capacitor described in the passage?
A) Replacing the 500- resistor with a 250- resistor
B) Replacing the 10-V battery with a 20-V battery
C) Increasing the separation of the capacitor plates
D) Increasing the area of the capacitor plates
9. A charged particle with a mass of m and a charge 11. Which of the following best describes the motion
of q is injected midway between the plates of a of a negatively charged particle after it has been
capacitor that has a uniform electric field of E. injected between the plates of a charged, parallel-
What is the acceleration of this particle due to the plate capacitor? (Note: Assume that the area
electric field? between the plates is a vacuum.)
A) Eq/m A) It moves with constant speed toward the positive
plate.
B) Em/q
B) It moves with constant speed toward the negative
C) mq/E
plate.
D) Emq
C) It accelerates toward the positive plate.
10. Another capacitor, identical to the original, is D) It accelerates toward the negative plate.
added in series to the circuit described in the
passage. Compared to the original circuit, the
equivalent capacitance of the new circuit is:
A) 1/2 as great.
B) the same.
C) 2 times as great.
D) 4 times as great.
Passage III 13. The formation of one mole of which oxygenate
shown in Table 1 releases the most energy?
Gasoline is a mixture of nonpolar hydrocarbons
that reacts with oxygen in an automobile engine to A) ETOH
produce energy, carbon dioxide, and water vapor. If B) MTBE
the gasoline burns too rapidly, a metal piston can be
slammed against a metallic part, resulting in a C) ETBE
knocking sound and a reduction in engine D) TAME
efficiency. The octane rating of a gasoline is a
measure of its antiknock qualities. The higher the
14. What are the coefficients for oxygen and carbon
octane rating of a hydrocarbon mixture, the slower it
dioxide, respectively, if the equation shown
burns and the smoother the piston operates.
below is balanced?
The octane rating scale derives its name from
isooctane (C8H18), a hydrocarbon with good 1CH3OCH3( ) + ? O2(g) __ H2O(g) + ? CO2(g)
antiknock qualities. A 90:10 mixture of isooctane and A) 2 and 1
heptane (C7H16) has an octane rating of 90.
B) 2 and 2
Oxygenates are oxygen-containing compounds that
can be added to a gasoline to increase the octane C) 3 and 1
rating. Two oxygenates currently in use are MTBE D) 3 and 2
and ETOH. Data for these oxygenates and two other
potential additives are shown in Table 1. A
disadvantage of MTBE is that it has a strong and 15. Which of the following nonoxygenated analogs
offensive odor that humans can smell even at of MTBE is most likely to mimic MTBE in its
concentrations below 0.26 ppm in air. antiknock properties?
A) C4H9Si(CH3)3
Table 1 Data for Gasoline Additives
B) C4H9N(CH3)2
Vapor Heat of C) C4H9SCH3
pressure formation
Octane (torr, 25C) (kJ/mole) D) C4H9P(CH3)2
Additive Formula rating
MTBE C4H9OCH3 110 25 580
16. The entropy change for the combustion reaction
ETOH C2H5OH 115 58 278
of gasoline is always greater than zero because
ETBE C4H9OC2H5 112 20 675
the:
TAME C5H11OCH3 111 15 680
A) number of gaseous molecules in the products
12. What type of intermolecular interaction can always exceeds the number of gaseous molecules
ETOH undergo with water that MTBE can NOT? in the reactants.
A) van der Waals B) enthalpy change is always positive.
B) Dipoledipole C) temperature of the combustion is always more

than 100C.
C) Hydrogen bonding
D) free energy change is always positive.
D) Covalent bonding
17. Which compound shown in Table 1 evaporates 18. If one mole of each additive shown in Table 1
fastest at 30C? undergoes complete combustion, which
compound requires the least amount of oxygen?
A) MTBE
A) MTBE
B) ETOH
B) ETOH
C) ETBE
C) ETBE
D) TAME
D) TAME
Passage IV
19. A collection of an unspecified number of
The detection of low-frequency pressure waves in
neighboring gas columns, or pipes, can
stars, infrasonic waves, offers astronomers an insight
reasonably be used to represent the layer of a star
into stellar structure. Such waves are observed in the
in which pressure waves occur because the:
Sun (with frequencies around 3.3 103 s1) and are
now being detected in large, bright nearby stars. In A) harmonic frequencies of a pipe are independent of
one method of detecting them, one looks for Doppler its diameter.
shifts in light emissions; the Doppler-shifted light B) harmonic frequencies of a pipe are independent of
shows periodicities typical of the pressure waves its length.
producing the motion.
C) speed of sound in gas confined to a pipe is
The pressure waves can be likened to standing independent of gas density.
waves in a pipe open at both ends, and an inner layer
D) speed of sound propagating upward against
of the star can be taken as a large number of
gravity decreases with height.
neighboring, outwardly directed columns of gas
much like a collection of pipes. The relationships
derived for ordinary pipes are then useful. In a gas of 20. As an aid in identifying the various resonant
density and bulk modulus B, the harmonic pressure-wave frequencies in the Sun and stars,
frequencies fn for a pipe of length L are given by one can use the fact that:
A) the Doppler-shifted light is easily recognized,
being polarized in a way that is characteristic of
hydrogen.
where n = 1, 2, 3, . . . , the speed of sound vs is B) the Doppler-shifted light stands out, being
steadier in intensity than the unshifted light
emissions that accompany it.
C) resonant frequencies are always separated by
and the constant B is defined in terms of pressure increments that are equal to a basic number
and volume changes multiplied by an integer.
D) resonant frequencies in hydrogen gas depend
strongly on its degree of gas ionization, which, in
turn, depends on temperature.
Observations are difficult because of the small

velocity changes in the gas, about 1 m/s, associated 21. In the newer observational technique discussed,
with the pressure waves. One needs abundant data one makes use of the fact that:
(large, bright stars) to separate the Doppler shifts due A) the hydrogen gas in the observed stellar
to pressure waves from those of thermal origin. A atmospheres is completely ionized.
new, different observational technique may help.
B) stellar atmospheres are open to space, so that
Stellar atmospheres are mostly hydrogen atoms, and
pressure and temperature are independent of
many are in an excited statethe electron in energy
volume.
level 2. The fraction in level 2 is extremely
temperature sensitive, increasing as T 6. So slight C) pressure waves in stars propagate upward very
pressure changes vary the intensity of light at the slowly, generally at about 1 m/s.
wavelengths associated with transitions into or out D) light is absorbed or emitted whenever electrons
of level 2. These, in fact, are mostly from level 2 to move from one energy level to another.
level 3, which is associated with light of wavelength
0.6563 106 m.
22. The surface temperature of one of the
observed
stars is 6000 K. The fraction of its surface
hydrogen atoms having electrons in energy
level
2 then increases by how much for each 1 K
temperature rise?
A) (6001/5999)6 1.002, so 2 parts in 1000
6
B) (6001/6000) 1.001, so 1 part in 1000
6
C) (274/273) 1.02, so 2 parts in 100
6
D) (461/460) 1.01, so 1 part in 100
These questions are not based on a descriptive 25. If the second floor and the top floor of a building
passage and are independent of each other. are separated by a distance of 100 m, what is the
approximate difference between the air pressures
23. H2O is liquid at room temperature, whereas H2S, of the two levels? (Note: Air density = 1.2
H2Se, and H2Te are all gases. Which of the kg/m3 and gravitational acceleration = 10 m/s2.
following best explains why H2O is liquid at Neglect the compressibility of air.)
room temperature?
A) 600 N/m2
A) Hydrogen bonds form between H2O molecules.
B) 800 N/m2
B) Oxygen lacks d orbitals. C) 1000 N/m2
C) H2O has a lower molecular weight. D) 1200 N/m2
D) H2O is more volatile.
26. What is the pH of a .001 M NaOH solution?
24. A) .001
B) 3
C) 7
D) 11
How do the pressures Pw and Pm compare,

measured at the bottom of two identical
containers filled to the levels shown in the figure
with water and mercury? (Note: Density of
water = 1 g/cm3; density of mercury = 14 g/cm3.)
A) Pm = 2Pw
B) Pm = 7Pw
C) Pm = 14Pw
D) Pm = 28Pw
Passage V and d orbitals of similar energy form sd hybrid
orbitals, enhancing the reaction.
The interaction between metals and hydrocarbons
is important in both biological and industrial Table 2 Rate Constants, k (1012 cm3 s1), at Three
catalysis. Researchers are probing the fundamental Pressures
chemistry of these interactions by measuring the gas-
phase reactivity of transition-metal atoms with Pressure (torr) Pressure (torr)
hydrocarbons. In a typical reaction, metal atoms are Metal 0.5 0.8 1.1 Metal 0.5 0.8 1.1
introduced into a helium buffer gas at the head of a Ti NR Ni 0.5
73-cm fast-flow tube. Table 1 shows the initial helium Zr 59 28 Pd 15
and metal gas-flow conditions. Hf 29 28 28 Pt 387 376 351
V NR Cu NR
Table 1 Initial Flow Conditions
Nb 314 Ag NR
Pressure Mole fraction Metal velocity Ta 9.6 8.4 Au NR
(torr) He (cm s1)
0.5 0.93 8160 27. Why did the researchers choose helium as a
0.8 0.96 9070 buffer gas?
1.1 0.98 9420 A) It is chemically inert and has no effect on the rate.
B) It catalyzes the reaction, increasing the rate.
A large excess of a hydrocarbon gas such as C) It collides with metal atoms, decreasing their
ethene is then injected into the metal gas stream, and kinetic energy and the rate.
the rate of the reaction is measured by monitoring the
concentration of unreacted metal versus reaction time D) Its atoms are approximately the same size as the
(distance/velocity). metal atoms, and they have no effect on the rate.
Equation 1 shows a proposed one-step reaction 28. If the reaction tube described in the passage is 2 cm
mechanism for the reaction of a metal (M) with a in diameter and an initial heliummetal mixture
hydrocarbon (HC). displays ideal gas behavior, which of the following
expressions gives the number of moles of He in the
M(g) + HC(g) product
tube at 1.1 torr and 298 K? (Note: R = 0.082 L atm
Equation 1 K1 mol1.)
A) [(1.1)()(1)2(0.98)]/[(1000)(760)(0.082)(298)]
If the HC(g) is in a large excess, its concentration
is considered to be constant, and the rate expression B) [(1.1)()(1)(73)2(0.98)]/[(1000)(760)(0.082)(298)]
shown in Equation 2 is obtained, in which [M] is the C) [(1.1)()(2)2(73)(0.98)(4.0)]/[(1000)(760)(0.082)(298)]
concentration of metal at time t, and k and k1 are rate
constants. D) [(1.1)()(1)2(73)(0.98)]/[(1000)(760)(0.082)(298)]
ln [M/Mo] = k1[HC]t = kt
Equation 2
Several rate constants reported for metal reactions
with ethene at 298 K are shown in Table 2 (NR = no
reaction). The researchers suggest that two effects
involving metal orbitals influence the reaction rate. A
full valence s subshell hinders reaction, and valence s
29. What does a nonlinear plot of ln [M] versus t 31. The metals shown in Table 2 belong to which
indicate about the concentration of the block of elements in the periodic table?
hydrocarbon (HC) and the reaction mechanism? A) s
A) The HC is not in excess, and the mechanism is B) p
M + heat M* (fast)
M* + HC product (slow) C) d
B) The HC is in excess, and the mechanism is D) f
M + heat M* (fast)
M* + HC product (slow) 32. Ta reacts slower than Nb (Table 2) because:
C) The HC is not in excess, and the mechanism is A) the valence s orbitals of Ta have a much higher
M + heat M* (slow) energy than do its valence d orbitals.
M* + HC product (fast) B) the valence s orbitals of Ta have a much lower
D) The HC is in excess, and the mechanism is energy than do its valence d orbitals.
M + heat M* (slow) C) the valence s orbitals of Nb have a much higher
M* + HC product (fast) energy than do its valence d orbitals.
D) Ta forms especially stable sd hybrid orbitals.
30. According to Table 2 and information in the
passage, the reactivity of platinum (5d 96s1)
33. Which of the following expressions gives the
relative to gold (5d 106s1) is attributable to the
percent mass of hafnium (Hf) in an initial
metalHC interaction, which involves:
mixture of HeHf at 0.5 torr?
A) only valence s electrons.
A) [(0.93)(4.0)(100)]/[(0.07)(178.5) + (0.93)(4.0)]
B) sd hybrid orbitals.
B) [(90.07)(72)(100)]/[(0.07)(972) + (0.93)(2)]
C) sp hybrid orbitals.
C) [(0.07)(178.5)(100)]/[(0.07)(178.5)+(0.93)(4.0)]
C) only valence d electrons.
D) [(0.07)(200.6)(100)]/[(0.07)(200.6) + (0.93)(4.0)]
Passage VI
Experiment 2
The effectiveness of a tire is determined by its The road conditions are the same as for
coefficients of kinetic and static friction under Experiment 1 but the tire is now allowed to roll. At
different road conditions. The coefficient of static some instant the axle of the rolling tire is locked as if
friction is defined by S = F(max static)/F(normal), brakes were applied. The tire skids 24.0 m before
and for kinetic friction K = F(kinetic)/F(normal). coming to rest. During the skid the speed decreases
The forces refer to the maximum static frictional steadily for 2.00 s before the tire comes to rest.
force required to start a tire moving, the normal force
exerted by the road supporting the tire, and the kinetic (Note: Approximate the acceleration due to
frictional force on a rolling tire. These coefficients are gravity as 10 m/s2.)
properties of the road and tire surfaces. The
coefficients are measured in two experiments. 34. In Experiment 1, the acceleration of the hub of
the tire during the first 4 s is:
Experiment 1
A tire is mounted on a wheel whose axle is locked A) a nonzero constant in the direction of the frictional
so that the tire cannot roll on the road. The axle force.
carries weights to a total mass of 500 kg (axle plus B) a nonzero constant in the direction of the pulling
wheel and tire) to simulate the load the tire would force.
experience during normal use. A light rope pulls
horizontally on the axle. During the experiment, the C) increasing steadily as the pulling force increases.
force on the rope is steadily increased until the tire D) constant and zero.
begins to skid along the road without rotating. Once
the tire starts to skid, the dragging force is reduced to
35. What is the coefficient of static friction in
the minimum needed to maintain a steady speed.
Experiment 1?
Table 1 shows the pulling force versus time data for a
measurement made on a dry road. A) 1.5
Table 1 Data from Experiment 1 B) 1500

C) 6000 N
Time (s) Force (N)
0 0 D) 7500 N
1 1500
2 3000 36. What is the coefficient of kinetic friction in
3 4500 Experiment 1?
4 6000 A) 1500 N
5 7500
B) 6000 N
6 6000
7 6000 C) 1.2
8 6000 D) 1.5
9 6000
37. The initial translational kinetic energy of the
wheel system in Experiment 2 (just before 38. If a tire with a radius of 0.5 m is rolling with an
applying the brakes): angular frequency of 30 rad/s, how far will the
axle travel in 2 s?
A) is less than the magnitude of work required to
stop the tire. A) 5 m
B) is equal to the magnitude of work required to stop B) 10 m
the tire. C) 20 m
C) is greater than the magnitude of work required to D) 30 m
stop the tire.
D) cannot be determined from the information given.
Passage VII 40. Which of the following mixtures, with each
component present at a concentration of 0.1 M,
The compounds nitric acid (HNO3), nitrous acid
has a pH closest to 7?
(HNO2), acetic acid (CH3COOH), hypochlorous acid
(HClO), and ammonium nitrate (NH4NO3), are all A) HClO(aq) and NaClO(aq)
water soluble and produce acidic solutions. The Ka B) HNO2(aq) and NaNO2(aq)
values for these compounds are given in Table 1.
C) CH3COOH(aq) and NaCH3COO(aq)
Table 1 Ka Values
D) HNO3(aq) and NaNO3(aq)
Compound Ka, 25C
HNO3 Large 41. Which of the following equations correctly
HNO2 4.5 104 represents the dissolution of NH4NO3(s) in
CH3COOH 1.8 105 water?
HClO 3.2 108 A)
NH4NO3 5.6 1010 NH4NO3(s) NH4(aq) + NO3(aq)
The titration of these acids with sodium hydroxide

can be done using an indicator to signal the endpoint. B)
Table 2 contains information about some common NH4NO3(s) NH4(aq) + NO3+(aq)
acid-base indicators.
Table 2 Indicator Properties C)
NH4NO3(s) NH2+(aq) + NO2(aq) + H2O
Acidic Basic
Indicator pH range
color color
D)
Methyl
0.153.2 yellow violet NH4NO3(s) NH4+(aq) + NO3(aq)
violet
Methyl red 4.46.2 red yellow
Phenol red 6.48.2 colorless purple
10.8 42. When 2.0 mL of 0.1 M NaOH(aq) is added to
Nitramine colorless brown
13.0 100 mL of a solution containing 0.1 M HClO(aq)
and 0.1 M NaClO(aq), what type of change in the
39. Which of the following solutions has the lowest pH of the solution takes place?
pH at 25C? A) A slight (<0.1 pH unit) increase
A) 0.1 M HNO2(aq) B) A slight (<0.1 pH unit) decrease
B) 0.1 M CH3COOH(aq) C) A significant (>1.0 pH unit) increase
C) 0.1 M HClO(aq) D) A significant (>1.0 pH unit) decrease
D) 0.1 M NH4NO3(aq)
43. What is the best explanation for the fact that a
solution of NaNO2(aq) is basic?
A) NO2 is hydrolyzed with the formation of OH
(aq) ions.
B) Na+ is hydrolyzed with the formation of OH (aq)
ions.
C) NaNO2(aq) decreases the Ka of HNO2(aq).
D) NaNO2(aq) increases the Ka of HNO2(aq).
Passage VIII 44. Suppose that the atmospheric pressure suddenly
dropped at one end of a large lake, inducing a
One can sometimes obtain a fairly good
seiche like that shown in Figure 1. The
description of a phenomenon by focusing on a few
atmospheric pressure differential between the two
key characteristics of a system and ignoring the
ends of a lake is directly proportional to the:
subtleties. For example, in the flow of a liquid, fairly
decent results can sometimes be obtained by ignoring A) frequency of the oscillations.
the viscosity of the liquid. (Physicist Richard B) period of the oscillations.
Feynman called the approximation of viscousless
water dry water.) C) wave speed.
D) amplitude of the oscillations.
An approximate expression for the fundamental
frequency f of liquid sloshing in a tank (as in Figure
1) is given by 45. The principal restoring force responsible for
maintaining the sloshing oscillations in a body
f = (3gH)1/2/L of dry water for which surface tension is very
small is the:
where H is the height of the liquid, L is the length of
the tank, and g denotes the acceleration due to A) gravitational force.
gravity, 10 m/s2. This equation assumes that the liquid B) viscosity of the water.
lacks viscosity and surface tension, and that the liquid
surface is always flat throughout the sloshing cycle. C) atmospheric pressure above the water.
Calculations using these simplifying assumptions D) hydrostatic pressure at the bottom of the
result in uncertainties of about 10%. container.
The sloshing modes are called seiches. They have
been observed in lakes, bays, and swimming pools. 46. Compute the period of oscillation for the
Amplitudes of seiches in Lake Geneva in Switzerland fundamental mode of a seiche induced in a lake
have been observed as large as 5 ft. A seiche in Lake that averages a depth of 30 m, with a length of
Michigan in 1954 had an amplitude of some 10 ft and 6000 m over which the wave propagates.
swept away several people who were fishing from A) 50 s
piers. Such seiches can be caused by seismic
B) 200 s
disturbances or sudden changes in the atmospheric
pressure above one region of a lake. C) 300 s
D) 400 s
47. The actual oscillating surface in Figure 1 would

not remain precisely flat; it would have a half-
sine-wave shape. Use this fact to determine the
wavespeed v of the fundamental mode of
oscillation.
A) v = (2gH)1/2
B) v = (3gH)1/2
Figure 1 The fundamental sloshing mode of a tank
of liquid. The sloshing occurs between C) v = (3gH)1/2/
extremes I and III, while II denotes the D) v = 2(3gH)1/2/
equilibrium level.
48. It was argued in the passage that certain 50. Regarding Figure 1, which velocity profile
simplifying assumptions led to the equation for depicted below best shows the variation in
frequency, which gives frequencies no more than velocities across the airliquid interface of II just
10% different from the observed seiche after I has occurred?
frequencies. This equation would prove to be A)
greatly in error, though, for a:
A) container with a large width L.
B) location where the acceleration of gravity is not
10 m/s2.
B)
C) liquid that is very viscous.
D) liquid with zero surface tension.
49. Assume that a pan of dry water is

momentarily disturbed. Which of the following
concepts best explains why the resulting sloshing
oscillations persist for a fairly long time? C)
A) Energy conservation
B) Momentum conservation
C) Newtons third law
D)
D) Archimedes principle
These questions are not based on a descriptive 53. Which action involves more work: lifting a
passage and are independent of each other. weight from A to B or lowering the weight from
B to A?
51. In which of the following does sound travel most
rapidly?
A) Air (0C)
B) Water (10C)
C) Iron (20C)
D) Sound travels at approximately the same speed in
all of the above.
52.
When beryllium ( Be) is bombarded with
deuterons ( H) of 10 MeV energy, a deuteron is
absorbed and a neutron is emitted. Which of the
following is formed? A) Lifting from A to B
A) B) Lowering from B to A
Li
C) Equal work in both actions
B)
Be D) No work is required using a pulley.
C)
B
54. What is the standard emf for the galvanic cell in
D) which the following overall reaction occurs?
B
2Na(s) + Cl2(g) 2Na+(aq) + 2Cl(aq)
E red
Half-reaction (V)
Na (aq) + e Na(s)
+
2.71
Cl2(g) + 2e 2Cl(aq) +1.36
A) 1.35 V
B) +1.35 V
C) +4.07 V
D) +6.78 V
55. Which of the following shows the electron

configuration of chlorine in NaCl?
A) 1s22s22p63s23p4
B) 1s22s22p63s23p5
C) 1s22s22p63s23p6
D) 1s22s22p63s23p44s2
Passage IX 56. Which of the following statements could explain
the frequently bluish color of EQLs?
Earthquake lights (EQLs) have been reported for
centuries. These lights are seen in association with A) Sodium salts are common in the earths crust, and
seismic activity and have been reported at distances sodium emissions can be quite bright.
hundreds of kilometers from the earthquake, and B) In transparent substances, dispersion effects are in
often at sea or near large bodies of water. EQLs are general greater for longer wavelengths.
usually blue or bluish-white, but yellow lights have
occasionally been reported. The source of EQLs has C) The ultraviolet radiation is absorbed by molecules
not been identified, but it has recently been suggested that then fluoresce at yet shorter wavelengths.
that they are produced by sonoluminescence (SL), the D) The ultraviolet radiation is absorbed by molecules
production of light by sound waves in a liquid. that then fluoresce at yet longer wavelengths.
SL occurs when bubbles form in the liquid during
the rarefaction phase of a sound wave and are then 57. During their compression, little heat is lost by
rapidly compressed during the compressional phase conduction from the hot vapor bubbles
of the wave. The rapid compression causes a large responsible for SL effects because:
increase in the temperature of the gas inside the A) the process occurs too rapidly for heat loss to be
bubble, causing light to be emitted. Both continuum appreciable.
emission, with a blackbody spectrum, and line
emission from atoms and molecules have been B) the heat is carried on the advancing wavefront.
observed in the laboratory from SL in water. C) the surrounding liquid is subjected to the same
compressional force.
SL has been produced in water in the laboratory
by sound waves carrying an energy density of about D) convection predominates over other processes in
10 erg/cm3. Advancing seismic wavefronts carry a liquids at ordinary temperatures.
kinetic energy density e, given by
58. Heating of the vapor bubbles occurs during the
e = 22(A/)2 compression phase of the passing waves in SL
because:
in which is the density of the ambient medium, A is
the wave amplitude, and is the wave period. A) the heat of vaporization of water is high and
Estimates of these quantities obtained from ground- serves as a barrier to the effect.
motion records of earthquakes give values for e that B) constructive interference in the wave motion is
are often consistent with the SL hypothesis. greater than at other times.
The SL spectrum of pure water peaks at a C) work is being done on the vapor bubbles by
wavelength of 3.10 107 m in the ultraviolet. forces external to them at that time.
Dissolved salts might contribute to the yellow color.
D) energy propagates primarily by means of
Sodium has, in fact, a particularly strong
transverse waves at that time.
characteristic emission at 5.89 107 m.
59. Atomic hydrogen has a characteristic spectral
emission at a wavelength of 6.56 107 m that
might contribute to EQLs. What color is this
characteristic H emission?
A) Violet
B) Blue
C) Green
D) Red
Passage X
61. What is the oxidation number of aluminum in
Aluminum is obtained commercially by the
Na[Al(OH)4](aq)?
electrolysis of Al2O3, which is the major compound in
the ore bauxite. Pure Al2O3 is obtained from bauxite A) +1
by the Bayer process. B) +2
The finely ground ore is treated with concentrated C) +3
NaOH (3538%) for 68 hours at a high temperature
D) +4
and pressure, converting Al2O3 into Al(OH)3(aq),
which then reacts with NaOH(aq) to produce
Na[Al(OH)4] as shown in Equation 1. 62. What is the geometry of the hexafluoroaluminate
ion (AlF63)?
Al(OH)3(aq) + NaOH(aq) Na[Al(OH)4](aq) A) Octahedral
Equation 1
B) Tetrahedral
The aqueous base converts the major impurity in C) Trigonal bipyramidal
the ore, Fe2O3, into the insoluble Fe(OH)3, which is
removed by filtration. D) Hexagonal
After the impurity is removed, carbon dioxide is 63. Approximately how much Al2O3 is required to
passed through the mixture to precipitate Al(OH)3, make 100 kg of Al?
which is collected and dehydrated at 1000C to yield
pure Al2O3 (equations 2 and 3). A) 500 kg
B) 200 kg
2Na[Al(OH)4](aq) + CO2(g) Na2CO3(aq) +
2Al(OH)3(s) + H2O() C) 80 kg
Equation 2 D) 50 kg
2Al(OH)3(s) + heat Al2O3(s) + 3H2O(g) 64. In the reaction shown in Equation 1, Al(OH)3
Equation 3 acts as what kind of acid or base?
The Al2O3 is mixed with Na3AlF6, a compound A) Lewis acid
that lowers the melting point of Al2O3 from over B) Lewis base
2000C to about 950C, making the electrolysis of the
molten salt commercially viable. Pure aluminum is C) Brnsted acid
produced by the reaction shown in Equation 4. D) Brnsted base
2Al2O3() 4Al(s) + 3O2(g)

65. At which electrode is aluminum produced in a
Equation 4 galvanic cell and in an electrolytic cell?
A) At the anode in both cells
60. Aluminum belongs to what block of elements in
the periodic table? B) At the cathode in both cells
A) s C) At the anode in the galvanic cell and cathode in
the electrolytic cell
B) p
D) At the cathode in the galvanic cell and anode in
C) d
the electrolytic cell
D) f
66. In the reaction shown in Equation 2, three moles
of Al(OH)3 is chemically equivalent to what
volume of CO2(g) measured at 1 atm and 0C?
A) 11.2 L
B) 16.8 L
C) 22.4 L
D) 33.6 L
Passage XI
An experimental system is assembled to measure
the focal lengths of lenses and mirrors. The system
consists of objects, lenses, mirrors, and devices for
locating images. It is placed on a metered optical
bench. The system is operated in several Figure 3 Diverging lens
configurations.
Converging Lens 67. Changing which of the following will change the
To measure the focal length of a converging lens, focal length of the convex mirror in Figure 2?
an object is placed at A, the 0-cm mark of an optical A) Index of refraction of the mirror
bench, and a converging lens is placed at B, the 30-
cm mark of the bench. This situation forms an image B) Radius of curvature of the mirror
at D, the 90-cm mark as shown in Figure 1. C) Position of the lens at B
D) Focal length of the lens at B
68. As the light passes from the air into the glass, it
makes an angle a in air and an angle l in the
lens material, relative to the normal at the
surface. What equation relates the angles l and
Figure 1 Optical bench
a?
Convex Mirror A) a = l
A convex mirror is inserted between the
converging lens (B) and the image position (D). B) 1/a = 1/l
When the mirror is located at C (50-cm mark), the C) nasin a = nlsin l
light rays are reflected back along the incoming path,
as shown in Figure 2. The dashed lines between D) na/sin a = nl/sin l
points C and D indicate the path of light rays before
the convex mirror is inserted. 69. The converging lens in Figure 1 is removed and
the diverging lens is placed in position B, as
shown in the figure below. Which of the
following best describes the light rays from the
diverging lens in this configuration?
Figure 2 Convex mirror

Diverging Lens
The convex mirror is removed from the setup, and A) Converging rays
a diverging lens is placed at position C (50-cm mark) B) Parallel rays in and out
so that the new image is observed at E (110-cm
mark), as shown in Figure 3. C) Reflected rays diverging
D) Diverging rays
70. If a very bright light source shines on a mirror,
the mirror may become warm because: 71. Visible light travels more slowly through an
optically dense medium than through a vacuum.
A) all of the light is reflected, and, by momentum
conservation, the molecules in the mirror move, A possible explanation for this could be that the
light:
producing heat energy.
B) some of the light passes through the mirror, and, A) is absorbed and re-emitted by the atomic structure
of the optically dense medium.
by energy conservation, potential energy is
produced. B) is absorbed and re-emitted by the nucleus of the
C) some of the light is absorbed by the mirror, and, material in the optically dense medium.
by energy conservation, thermal energy is C) bounces around randomly inside of the optically
produced. dense medium before emerging.
D) none of the light is reflected, and, by energy D) loses amplitude as it passes through the optically
conservation, mass is converted to energy. dense medium.
These questions are not based on a descriptive 76.
passage and are independent of each other.
72. What is the conjugate base of the bisulfate ion

(HSO4)?
A) H+
B) OH
C) SO42
D) H2SO4
73. If the magnitude of a positive charge is tripled,

what is the ratio of the original value of the A block of weight W is pulled across a rough
electric field at a point to the new value of the floor by a rope that exerts a force T on the block.
electric field at that same point? The frictional force between the floor and the
block is F. Which of the following expressions
A) 1:2 equals the frictional force F when the block
B) 1:3 moves with a constant speed?
C) 1:6 A) T
D) 1:9 B) W T
C) T sin
74. A 7-N force and an 11-N force act on an object at D) T cos
the same time. Which of the following CANNOT
be the magnitude of the sum of these forces?
77. When an element undergoes decay, a nuclear
A) 2 N neutron is converted to a nuclear proton as the
B) 8 N nucleus emits an electron. What happens to the
atomic number and atomic mass of an element
C) 12 N
that undergoes decay?
D) 18 N
A) The atomic number increases, but the atomic
mass stays approximately the same.
75. A student plans to add HCl to a solution
containing Pb(NO3)2(aq). To determine how B) The atomic number stays the same, but the atomic
much Pb2+ will precipitate from solution when mass decreases.
the HCl is added, the student needs to know C) Both the atomic number and the atomic mass
which of the following? decrease.
A) Ka for HCl D) The atomic number decreases, but the atomic
B) Ka for HNO3 mass stays approximately the same.
C) Ksp for PbCl2

D) Keq for the reaction Pb2+ + 2 e Pb
Verbal Reasoning
Time: 85 minutes
Questions: 78-137
There are nine passages in the complete Verbal Reasoning test. Each passage is followed by several questions.
After reading a passage, select the one best answer to each question. If you are not certain of an answer,
alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet.
(202-828-0690).
Passage I an object, living out others sense of her experience,
not her own, and becoming mad as the sole way of
A phenomenon such as female fiction does not breaking through an unyielding situation. In this view,
exist, but in the 1960s there began to appear novels Berthas plight is more archetypically female than
about the female experience by both male and Janes, by far, since Jane is moving in a fairy tale of
female writers. It is necessary to separate these books sorts in which elements yield to her, whereas Bertha
from anything called female fiction, which would has moved in the real world of power. There is, I feel,
suggest that the culture bifurcates into two distinct no male novelist who could have picked up the thread
experiences, one male and one female. That such of Berthas existence and turned it into an emblem, as
experiences differ, there can be no disagreement; but Jean Rhys did; and here alone we note the way the
that such experiences overlap, there should also be no female novelist can perceive aspects of experience
disagreement. I concur with Elaine Showalters that remain (at least in our era) outside the reach of
statement: the male writer. Reading back from Rhys, we
experience Jane Eyre differently.
Women writers should not be studied
as a distinct group on the assumption that More recently, Virginia Woolf has become a
they write alike, or even display stylistic powerful influence in analyses of the female
resemblances distinctively feminine. But experience by U.S. writers. Not only her fiction and
women do have a special literary history literary essays but a book such as A Room of Ones
susceptible to analysis, which includes Own (1929) have served to reinforce what many
such complex considerations as the women writers were already saying. Woolf offered,
economics of their relation to the literary also, something of an aesthetic, in that she asserted
marketplace, the effects of social and women had to develop a prose of their own. After
political changes in womens status upon mentioning Newman, Sterne, Dickens, Thackeray,
individuals, and the implications of among others, she says: The weight, the pace, the
stereotypes of the woman writer and stride of a mans mind are too unlike her own. She
restrictions of her artistic autonomy. quotes a typical early-nineteenth-century sentence and
adds: That was a mans sentence; behind it one can
There is by now a sizable body of fiction that
see Johnson, Gibbon, and the rest. It was unsuited for
focuses on female experiences or conditions, in which
a womans use. She sums up: There is no reason to
women must find their way personally,
think that the form of the epic or of the poetic play
professionally, socially, in what is basically a
suits a woman any more than the sentence suits her.
patriarchy. This term we may define as any society in
But all the older forms of literature were hardened
which men control authority and determine the roles
and set by the time she became a writer. The novel
women should or should not play.
alone was young enough to be soft in her hands.
An example of the female imagination at work
comes in the following way. In Jane Eyre, Bertha, the 78. The passage discussion of male and female
madwoman in the attic, is presented as the element experience assumes that:
that must be eliminated in order for Rochester and A) female experience is entirely different from male
Jane to complete their destiny together. Imprisoned in experience.
the upper reaches of Thornfield, she is a threat to
foreground order and stability, a principle of chaos, in B) there is a degree of similarity between female and
fact. Since Charlotte Bront was writing a romance, male experience.
Bertha could become expendable. C) male experience is inferior to female experience.
In a society more oriented to the overall female D) female experience almost always influences male
experience, Jean Rhys in Wide Sargasso Sea experience.
perceived in Bertha the characteristic victim of a
male-dominated society, a woman moved around as
79. According to the author, a characteristic of many 81. The author suggests that Berthas imprisonment
novels of female experience is that they: in the upper reaches of Thornfield:
A) portray women struggling to achieve identity in a
I. could have been explored equally well by
patriarchy.
male or female novelists.
B) display a distinctively feminine prose style. II. provided Jean Rhys with an archetypal
C) present female characters from a male point of symbol of the plight of women.
view. III. functioned for Charlotte Bront primarily
as a plot device.
D) portray female characters as emblems.
A) I only
80. The author asserts that the novelist Jean Rhys: B) I and II only
A) reworked the character of Bertha in a way no C) I and III only
male writer could have. D) II and III only
B) created a new literary form based on adaptations
of older works. 82. According to the passage, Virginia Woolf
C) created a distinctively feminine prose style that is believed the novel was more suitable to women
difficult for male writers to imitate. writers than was the epic or the poetic play
because the:
D) misunderstood Bronts novel Jane Eyre.
A) novel was a more recent and thus more flexible
genre.
B) novel did not depend on a mans sentence for
its effect.
C) epic and poetic play were newer genres.
D) epic and poetic play required that women develop
a prose of their own.
Passage II We are therefore led to two interesting questions:
What are the giant nuclei, and where do they come
What makes clouds turn into rain? More from? First, there can be no doubt that winds blowing
specifically, the question is: How do the tiny droplets over the oceans pick up a substantial load of salt
of a cloud coalesce into water drops big enough to fall particles. Second, it is equally plain that the winds
as rain? transport a great deal of salt from the sea over the
land. Systematic surveys have verified that salt
The beam of a searchlight pointed upward at night
particles, large and small, are spread through the
shows that even apparently clear air is actually a
atmosphere, from the ground up into high altitudes.
soup of particles. The air may contain anywhere
from 10,000 to 100,000 particles per cubic inch. Next, there is statistical evidence of a relationship
When the relative humidity is high, water vapor between the amount of salt carried inland from the sea
condenses on many particles and begins to form and the amount of salt in our rainfall. Salt greedily
droplets; this condensation accounts for the haziness takes up water from the air, as anyone who has dealt
of the air on a muggy day and for the poor visibility with a salt shaker on a humid morning is well aware.
you may have noticed while flying in an airplane A salt crystal kept in damp air collects enough water
below a cloud. An actual cloud materializes when the to dissolve completely into a droplet. All of this
humidity reaches a certain critical value which turns certainly seems to indicate that salt particles act as
most of the dust particles into water droplets. Under nuclei to produce raindrops and precipitation. The
the right conditions, the cloud droplets combine idea gains further support from the finding that the
rapidly into raindrops; a concentration of 10,000 number of drops per unit volume in rain over the sea
cloud droplets per cubic inch yields one raindrop per is about the same as the number of salt particles in
10 cubic inches. There are two general theories about ocean air.
the way this takes place.
One is the ice-crystal theory. In the cold upper 83. In order for the process described in paragraph
regions of a high cloud, the droplets are supercooled. 3 to occur, the temperature of ice crystals in a
If ice crystals are present, they evaporate the droplets cloud must be higher than that of:
and then absorb the vapor, much as crystals of A) calcium chloride crystals.
calcium chloride and other drying agents absorb
moisture. The ice crystals, feeding on the cloud B) the upper regions of the cloud.
droplets, may grow to a large size and either fall as C) the lower regions of the cloud.
snow or melt into rain. But rain can fall from warm
D) the supercooled droplets.
clouds as well as cold. How is it generated in clouds
that lack ice crystals and supercooled droplets?
84. According to the passage, a cloud is formed
We must find some other mechanism that can when:
combine droplets into big drops, bringing us to the
A) water vapor condenses on a dust particle.
second theory, which suggests that large particles
grow into raindrops by sweeping up the smaller B) ice crystals absorb vapor from supercooled
droplets. The big particles form comparatively large droplets.
cloud droplets, which, as they move through the C) humidity turns a large number of dust particles
cloud, pick up the smaller droplets in their path, just into water droplets.
as a rolling drop of mercury gathers up any mercury
drops it encounters. Thus the larger dust nuclei in a D) large salt particles absorb water.
cloud can grow to the size of a raindrop. A cloud will
produce rain, according to this theory, when it
contains sufficient moisture and a suitable number of
giant nuclei.
85. On the sole basis of the passage, one could 87. Which of the following statements most strongly
conclude that it might be possible to reduce the challenges the authors assertions about the way
rainfall in a region by: raindrops are formed in clouds at subfreezing
temperatures?
A) warming the clouds.
A) Humidity in a region must be extremely high in
B) decreasing the number of particles in the air.
order to turn most of its dust particles to water
C) cooling the clouds. droplets.
D) increasing the amount of salt in the clouds. B) A concentration of 10,000 cloud droplets per
cubic inch yields one raindrop per 100 cubic
86. The passage assertion that salt is largely inches.
responsible for rainfall from warm clouds is C) No ice crystals are present in the upper regions of
based on evidence that: clouds at high altitudes.
I. salt particles are spread throughout the D) Calcium chloride crystals do not absorb as much
atmosphere. moisture as do ice crystals.
II. the amount of salt in rainfall is related to
the amount of salt carried inland from the 88. Assume that a particular inland region in a warm
sea. climate receives a great deal of rain. Given the
III. the number of drops per unit volume in information in the passage, which of the
rain over the sea is similar to that of salt following proposed explanations of this
particles in ocean air. phenomenon is the LEAST plausible?
A) III only A) There is very little wind over the region.
B) I and III only B) There is an especially high percentage of salt
C) II and III only particles in the regions atmosphere.
D) I, II, and III C) The region is located near an ocean.

D) There is an especially high percentage of large
particles in the clouds over the region.
Passage III might have to teach prudent and uncertain Europeans.
He added to Crvecoeurs earlier sketch a more
One of the first to speak of the specifically penetrating and complex understanding of the new
American character was J. Hector St. John de society, informed by republican convictions and a
Crvecoeur, a French settler who published his deep sensitivity to the place of religion in human life.
Letters from an American Farmer in 1782. He set the
tone for many future discussions when he observed In Democracy in America, de Tocqueville was
that Americans tended to act with far greater personal concerned to understand the nature of the democratic
initiative and self-reliance than Europeans and that society he saw everywhere coming into existence but
they tended to be unimpressed by social rank or long most fully exemplified in the United States. He
usage. appreciated the commercial and entrepreneurial spirit
that Crvecoeur had emphasized but saw it as having
Schooled by the philosophes of the eighteenth- ambiguous and problematic implications for the
century French Enlightenment, Crvecoeur had no future of American freedom.
difficulty appraising the typical American as a kind of
new man, an emancipated, enlightened individual De Tocqueville argued that while the physical
confidently directing energies toward the circumstances of the United States had contributed to
environment, both natural and social, aiming to wring the maintenance of a democratic republic, laws had
from it a comfortable happiness. Crvecoeur wrote of contributed more than those circumstances, and mores
the American that: Here the rewards of his industry (moeurs) more than the laws. Indeed, he stressed
follow with equal steps the progress of his labour; his throughout the book that their mores had been the key
labour is founded on the basis of nature, self-interest; to the Americans success in establishing and
can it want a stronger allurement? The rational, self- maintaining a free republic and that undermining
interested individual had emerged as Economic Being American mores was the most certain road to
and, as such, was conceived as living most naturally undermining the free institutions of the United States.
in the conditions of a competitive market in which He spoke of mores somewhat loosely, defining them
trade and exchange would replace traditional ranks variously as habits of the heart; notions, opinions,
and loyalties as the coordinating mechanism of social and ideas that shape mental habits; and the sum of
life. moral and intellectual dispositions of men in society.
But Crvecoeurs exclusive emphasis on this
89. The passage suggests that the example of an
aspect of American culture and character blinded him
eighteenth-century American businessperson
to other facets. He did not see what many Americans
who succeeded in a competitive market but did
of his generation did, that a purely economic person
NOT fit comfortably into a self-governing
would be as unsuited to a self-governing society as
society would best support the view of:
would the rank-bound subject of traditional regimes.
Fortunately, another Frenchman, Alexis de A) Crvecoeur.
Tocqueville, who visited the United States in the B) de Tocqueville.
1830s, gave a much more adequate view.
C) Enlightenment thinkers.
For de Tocqueville, the optimism of the
D) French revolutionaries.
Enlightenment had been tempered by the experience
of the French Revolution and its aftermath, and the
prophecies of the early political economists were
finding an alarmingly negative fulfillment in the
industrial infernos of English mill towns. De
Tocqueville came to the United States as a
sympathetic observer, eager to determine the lessons
the first fifty years of the first truly modern nation
90. According to the passage, de Tocqueville
thought that the key to Americas success as a 94. On the basis of the passage, a comparison of
republic was its: Crvecoeurs and de Tocquevilles views of
A) laws. America might reasonably lead to the conclusion
that:
B) physical circumstances.
A) both Crvecoeur and de Tocqueville were
C) competitive market economy. pessimistic about Americas future.
D) citizens moral and intellectual dispositions. B) de Tocqueville was somewhat more pessimistic
than Crvecoeur about Americas future.
91. The passage suggests that de Tocquevilles C) Crvecoeur was somewhat more pessimistic than
analysis of America might have been more de Tocqueville about Americas future.
accurate than Crvecoeurs because de
Tocqueville possessed: D) both Crvecoeur and de Tocqueville were
extremely optimistic about Americas future.
A) a conviction that Americans were purely an
economic people.
95. Which of the following conclusions can
B) a belief in republican principles. justifiably be drawn from the passage?
C) a bias in favor of rational self-interest.
I. Crvecoeur believed that economic
D) an eighteenth-century education. advancement was linked to individual
self-interest.
92. According to passage information, which of the II. De Tocqueville believed that undermining
following factors would be the best example of American mores would threaten the
the mores of which de Tocqueville speaks in countrys free institutions.
Democracy in America? III. Crvecoeur and de Tocqueville both
predicted a swift demise for the American
A) Social rank
experiment.
B) French philosophy
A) I only
C) Religious faith
B) II only
D) Entrepreneurial spirit
C) I and II only
93. According to the passage, the optimism of French D) II and III only
Enlightenment scholars was called into question
by:
I. the economic development of Americans.

II. the French Revolution and its aftermath.
III. conditions in English mill towns.
A) I and II only
B) I and III only
C) II and III only
D) I, II, and III
Passage IV For the foreseeable future, epigraphers are
unlikely to run out of mysteries to ponder. The causes
Epigraphers are frequently asked the percentage of the late-Classic collapsea calamity as sudden and
of the Mayan glyphs that have been deciphered. The as far-reaching as the fall of Romeremain an
question itself is ill-defined. Often epigraphers have a enigma. Because monument carving ceased, as far as
good idea of a glyphs meaning; they can say we know, after a.d. 909, we may never have a
something like This glyph means birth. But the revealing record of that Meso-American apocalypse.
ultimate goal of decipherment is to be able to Ill tell you what they were worried about,
understand the glyphs as the Maya did. Limited epigrapher Linda Schele says. They were worried
though the carved inscriptions may be, epigraphers about war at the end. Ecological disasters, too.
have wrung from them knowledge that immeasurably Deforestation. Starvation. I think the population rose
deepens, even revolutionizes, our grasp of the Classic to the limit the technology could bear. They were so
Maya. Perhaps most important, the glyphs appear to close to the edge, if anything went wrong, it was all
lay to rest for good the notion of a peaceful, over.
contemplative civilization.
One of the burning questions at the moment is the
On the evidence, the Maya were every bit as extent to which writing systems other than the Mayan
bloody and warlike as the Aztecs. Their rulers developed in the New World. Maya was long
validated their reigns and celebrated the completion considered the only true writing system developed in
of time cycles through ritual bloodletting. Graphic the Americas. Now we know that another written
depictions of these gruesome rites appear on language, perhaps belonging to the Olmec people,
monuments that were known by the nineteenth developed more or less independently. The La
century, but Mayanists, influenced by the Mojarra (Olmec) language may have fewer signs than
conventional wisdom, resisted their implications. The Maya and may thus represent an even more phonetic,
Maya apparently never confederated; they always less logographic system.
lived in feuding city-states, and their stelae repeatedly
celebrate the victories of one over another. At least
96. According to the passage, the reason the La
until the last century and a half before the collapse of
Mojarra writing system is thought to have been
their empire, warfare was a highly stylized business.
more phonetic than the Mayan system is that:
On a number of important matters, the A) fewer glyphs were used in the La Mojarra writing
inscriptions shed no light. They tell us nothing system.
whatsoever about the Mayan economy and trade,
subjects that linger in a lacuna of ignorance. On the B) the Mayan writing system was less logographic.
other hand, decipherment has begun to penetrate C) the La Mojarra language evolved from the Mayan
some of the more sophisticated corners of ancient language.
Mayan thought. In a landmark 1989 paper, Stuart and
D) fewer examples of the La Mojarra writing system
Houston demonstrated that an oft-occurring glyph,
exist.
catalogued as T539, was pronounced way and alluded
to the Meso-American notion of a co-essence, an
animal or celestial phenomenon that was believed to
share in the consciousness of the person who
owned it. This powerful decipherment implies that
many of the supernatural figures that used to be called
gods or underworld denizens by iconographers
should rather be thought of as mystic doppelgngers
to Mayan heroes.
97. Is Scheles interpretation of Mayan concerns 99. According to the passage, the late-Classic Mayan
directly supported by evidence presented in the collapse probably occurred during which of the
passage? following time periods?
A) Yes; it is based on evidence from the Mayan A) Before A.D. 700
glyphs. B) Between A.D. 700 and 800
B) Yes; it is supported by the calamitous fall of the C) Between A.D. 800 and 900
Mayan civilization.
D) After A.D. 900
C) No; it is contradicted by the warlike nature of
Mayans.
100. Which of the following statements, if true,
D) No; it is not explicitly supported by passage would best support the view that Mayan
information. civilization was peaceful and contemplative,
given the recent translations of Mayan glyphs
98. According to passage information, which of the discussed in the passage?
following factors distinguishes the Maya from
A) Mayan depictions of warfare and violent rites
the Aztecs? were purely symbolic.
A) The Aztecs probably engaged in ritual
B) Mayan rulers maintained control of their subjects
bloodletting. through torture.
B) The Maya probably created their own writing
C) The late-Classic Mayan civilization was
system. destroyed by a more warlike people.
C) The Aztec writing system was probably less
D) Mayan city-states governed local matters, but a
logographic and more phonetic than the Mayan.
central government ruled supreme.
D) The Aztecs probably used more glyphs than the
Mayans.
Passage V agricultural life. There were commercial elements in
colonial agriculture almost from the earliest days, but
Americans were raised with a sentimental there were also large numbers of the kind of
attachment to rural living and with a series of notions independent yeomen idealized in the myth.
about rural people and rural life that I have chosen to
designate as the agrarian myth. The agrarian myth Between 1815 and 1860, the character of
represents a kind of homage that Americans have paid American agriculture was transformed. The
to the fancied innocence of their origins. independent yeoman, outside of exceptional or
isolated areas, almost disappeared before the
Like any complex of ideas, the agrarian myth relentless advance of commercial agriculture. The
cannot be defined in a phrase, but its component cash crop converted the yeoman into a small
themes form a clear pattern. Its hero was the yeoman entrepreneur, and the development of horse-drawn
farmer, its central conception the notion that he is the machinery made obsolete the simple old agrarian
ideal man and the ideal citizen. Unstinted praise of symbol of the plow. Farmers ceased to be free of what
the special virtues of the farmer and the special values the early agrarian writers had called the corruptions
of rural life was coupled with the assertion that of trade. They were, to be sure, still independent, in
agriculture, as a calling uniquely productive and the sense that they owned their own land. They were a
uniquely important to society, had a special right to hardworking lot in the old tradition. But no longer did
the concern and protection of government. The they grow or manufacture what they needed: They
yeoman, who owned a small farm and worked it with concentrated on the cash crop and began to buy more
the aid of his family, was the incarnation of the and more of their supplies from the country store.
simple, honest, independent, healthy, happy human
being. Because he lived in close communion with The triumph of commercial agriculture not only
beneficent nature, his life was believed to have a rendered obsolete the objective conditions that had
wholesomeness and integrity impossible for the given to the agrarian myth so much of its original
depraved populations of cities. force, but also showed that the ideal implicit in the
myth was contesting the ground with another, even
In origin the agrarian myth was not a popular but stronger idealthe notion of opportunity, of career,
a literary idea, a preoccupation of the upper classes, of the self-made man. The same forces in American
of those who enjoyed a classical education, read life that had given to the equalitarian theme in the
pastoral poetry, experimented with breeding stock, agrarian romance its most compelling appeal had also
and owned plantations or country estates. It was unleashed in the nation an entrepreneurial zeal
clearly formulated and almost universally accepted in probably without precedent in history, a rage for
America during the last half of the eighteenth century. business, for profits, for opportunity, for
advancement.
By the early nineteenth century it had become a
mass creed, a part of the countrys political folklore
and its nationalist ideology. The roots of this change 101. The central argument of the passage is that the
may be found as far back as the American agrarian myth:
Revolution, which, appearing to many Americans as A) has no factual basis in the realities of American
the victory of a band of embattled farmers over an agricultural life.
empire, seemed to confirm the moral and civic
superiority of the yeoman, made the farmer a symbol B) is a sentimental representation of the role that
of the new nation, and wove the agrarian myth into its agriculture played in American life.
patriotic sentiments and republican idealism. C) accurately reflects the nature of American
agriculture, both in the past and today.
To what extent was the agrarian myth actually
false? When it took form in America during the D) understates the negative aspects of life on the
eighteenth century, its stereotypes did indeed farm in America.
correspond to many of the realities of American
102. The passage suggests that the agrarian myth 105. According to the passage, the agrarian myth
originated: implied that yeoman farmers were:
A) in literature. A) honest entrepreneurs.
B) on country estates in Europe. B) classically educated.
C) on small farms owned and worked by yeoman C) sentimentally patriotic.
farmers. D) happy and industrious.
D) among the urban elite who romanticized the
virtues of the simple life of the farmer. 106. Which of the following assertions, if true,
would most weaken the main point of the
103. Based on the passage, the agrarian myth passage?
assumes that: A) The contribution made by American farmers to
victory in the Revolutionary War has been greatly
I. yeoman farmers are wholesome and exaggerated.
honest.
II. yeoman farmers are morally superior to B) The agrarian myth was what might be called a
most citizens. noble lie: it was false but generally beneficial.
III. agriculture deserves special treatment C) The agrarian myth played a part in the thinking of
from the government. only a handful of Americans during the
A) I only eighteenth and nineteenth centuries.
B) I and II only D) American farmers during the eighteenth and
nineteenth centuries had very little in common
C) II and III only
with the idealized yeoman farmer of the agrarian
D) I, II, and III myth.
104. Based on the passage, the agrarian myth 107. What does the passage suggest about whether
became part of a mass creed because: or not the agrarian myth was false?
A) the countrys nationalist ideology stood in need of A) It was clearly false, because it bore little
the kind of patriotic sentiments that the agrarian resemblance to actual farm life in America at the
myth could provide. time.
B) farmers were credited with having played a major B) Very few people lived the life idealized in the
role in the American victory in the Revolutionary myth.
War.
C) It conformed to reality only in its commercial
C) most of the American population lived on family elements.
farms during the late eighteenth century.
D) Its stereotypes corresponded to many of the
D) the yeoman farmer, as an ideal, corresponded to realities of early American agricultural life.
many of the realities of American life in the late
eighteenth century.
108. As it is used in the first sentence, sentimental 110. The passage suggests that the same forces that
most nearly means: encouraged the equalitarian theme in the
agrarian myth led to the:
A) irrational.
A) rejection of the newly emerging enthusiasm for
B) emotional.
business, profits, opportunity, and advancement.
C) fictitious.
B) demise of the agrarian myth because it
D) injudicious. contributed to the growing independence of the
individual farmer.
109. According to the passage, what was the effect of C) emergence of an unprecedented entrepreneurial
the triumph of commercial agriculture? zeal.
A) It largely removed those conditions that had given D) growing power of the agrarian myth as a social
the agrarian myth much of its original force. myth in nineteenth- and twentieth-century
B) It reinforced the objective conditions that gave the America.
agrarian myth much of its original force.
C) It showed that the agrarian myth contradicted the
newly emerging theme of the self-made man.
D) It brought the nation one step closer to becoming
an industrialized economic giant.
Passage VI nations of history have founded on aggression the
civilization that then supported for a time, but for a
Nature is extraordinarily fertile and ingenious in time only, great periods of human culture, that
devising means, but it has no ends that the human flourished at their height just as the substructure
mind has been able to discover or comprehend. crumbled. Animals made humans possible, and
Perhaps, indeed, the very conception of an end or conquerors prepared the way for poets and
ultimate purpose is exclusively human; but at least it philosophers, but neither poet nor philosopher can
must be said that the most characteristically human survive long after the conquest.
effort is to transform a means into an end.
Nor need we be surprised to see nations enfeebled
Sensibility and intelligence arose in the animal in by civilization as though by vice. That detachment
order to serve animal purposes, for through the first, it of mind from its function which makes philosophy
was able to distinguish those things that favor the possible and which encourages dispassionate analysis
survival of it and its race, and through the second, it is exactly parallel to the detachment of the sexual
was able to go about in a more efficient manner to functions from their purposes, which results in the
secure them. Both were, like all things in nature, cult of the senses. Thought for thoughts sake is a
merely means toward the achievement of that kind of perversion. Civilizations die from
humanly incomprehensible end, mere survival. But philosophical calm, irony, and the sense of fair play
the philosopher-artist has detached both from their quite as surely as they die of debauchery.
natural places.
Nor can it be said that to understand this paradox
When sensibility has been detached from its of humanism helps us in any way to solve it. The
animal setting, it may develop into a quest for that analysis that we perform is, indeed, itself an example
self-justifying beauty which is humanly valuable but of one of those exercises of the mind that is perverse
biologically useless. When intelligence is detached, it because it does not serve as a means toward a natural
not only tends to paralyze natural impulse by end. And when we have admitted that the human
criticizing natural aims but develops certain ideal is one that the human animal cannot even
intellectual virtues which are biological vices. We are, approach without tending to destroy itself, we have,
for example, inclined to regard skepticism, irony, and by that very admission, diminished our biological
above all, the power of dispassionate analysis as the fitness.
marks of the most distinctly human intelligence. We
admire anyone whose reason is capable of more than
scheming, whose logic is not the mere rationalization 111. Which of the following statements best
of desires. summarizes the central problem addressed by
the passage?
But intelligence as detached as this is a vital
liability. It puts its possessor at a disadvantage in A) Truth and beauty are unattainable illusions.
dealing with those whose intelligence faithfully B) Sensibility and intelligence are biologically
serves their purpose by enabling them to scheme for useless.
their ends and to justify to themselves their desires.
Such is the animal function of intelligence, and C) Unbiased thought is inconsistent with human
whenever it develops beyond this level, it inhibits survival.
rather than aids that effective action in the pursuit of D) We are most fully human when we behave like
natural ends which was the original function of mind. animals.
The same process occurs in every nation that has
developed a national mind capable of detachment and
has passed beyond that stage of invigorating delusion
which could make it fancy itself master by right of an
inherent superiority. One after another, the great
112. Which of the following statements, if true, 114. Which of the following passage contentions
would most directly undermine the authors might it be possible to refute by clear
central argument? counterexamples?
A) Some highly developed civilizations are I. The intelligence of poets tends to
peaceable. paralyze natural impulse.
II. Transforming means into ends is the
B) Aggressive people are often much admired. most characteristically human effort.
C) Nonhuman animals often behave altruistically. III. The great nations of history were
founded on aggression.
D) Logic is not always the mere rationalization of
desires. A) II only
B) III only
113. Suppose that persons of average intelligence C) I and II only
tend to have higher incomes than those of very
intelligent persons. The author would be most D) I and III only
likely to argue that this difference exists
because: 115. Some research into unconscious motivation
A) competitive success reduces ones interest in art suggests that even apparently impartial thought
and philosophy. processes may be deeply self-serving. What is
the relevance of this consideration to the
B) intelligence and competitive success are
authors argument?
unrelated.
A) It weakens the distinction drawn between
C) the more intelligent one is, the more one despises
animal and human uses of intelligence.
material success.
B) It challenges the assumption that humans value
D) a highly developed intelligence inhibits
dispassionate analysis.
competitive action.
C) It supports the observation that intellectual
detachment is biologically useless.
D) It strengthens the contention that some uses of
intelligence are biological vices.
Passage VII person who had been synesthetic lost that experience
after suffering brain damage that also resulted in color
The perception of a color when one hears words is blindness. These findings suggest that color-
the most common example of the phenomenon of grapheme synesthesia depends on activity within the
synesthesia. Synesthesia can be visual-tactile, visual- visual cortex that is initiated by the responding of
gustatory, tactile-visual, or almost any combination of certain cells specialized to integrate such features as
two senses, but reports are dominated by visually color and shape.
related synesthesias, and olfactory and gustatory
synesthesias are less common. Two possible reasons A different view suggests that subcortical limbic
for this difference are the proximity in the cortex of areas are more important for synesthesia. A crucial
the visual areas to the auditory and motor areas, the part of the reasoning behind this hypothesis lies in the
areas implicated in taste and olfaction being relatively argument that only humans can make cross-modal
distant, and the fact that vision dominates normal associations. This argument is mistaken. It is widely
behavior and is therefore more likely to form known that monkeys can make cross-modal
associations with the other senses. associations, and it is by no means clear that the
cortex is not involved. For example, Haenny recorded
The nature of the color-word associations made from neurons in cortical visual area V4 while
by synesthetes is surprising. The link is not between monkeys were performing orientation discrimination
meaning and color, or sound and color, but between tasks and found that many neurons responded to the
the visual appearance of the first letter of the word visual orientation of the stimuli, as one might expect
and color. Thus, a subject reporting the perception of from this visual area, but that many were also
red on hearing the word photograph would also report sensitive to the tactile orientation of a grooved plate if
perceiving red on hearing the word palladium but a its orientation was relevant to the task. Further
different color on hearing the word fish. The evidence implicating visual areas in cross-modal
experience is described more accurately, then, as a transfer comes from a study in which monkeys were
color-grapheme association than as a color-word impaired in the learning of tactile-visual associations
association. This association is not so far removed following lesions of the cortical area dedicated to the
from the normal experience of linking the letters of a processing of tactile sensations.
word with its sound. For example, it takes longer to
decide that enough and bough do not rhyme than to
116. Which of the following research findings would
make this decision about rough and how.
undermine the argument about the development
The finding that the association is graphemic in of color-word synesthesia?
color-word synesthesia greatly constrains the possible A) Left-handed children are especially likely to be
explanations of the experience. Grapheme perception synesthetic.
is not present at birth and only begins to develop
when a child is learning to write. This fact opens up B) Color-word synesthesia can develop in literate
the possibility that color-grapheme synesthesia adults.
emerges during a critical period of maximum C) Color-word synesthesia can accompany the
plasticity in the visual system, when it is involved in earliest attempts to read.
learning to link letters with sounds and strings of
D) Damage to the visual cortex seldom results in
letters with objects.
synesthesia.
Evidence from neuropsychological studies also
points to the visual system. In 1893, Phillipe reported
that 30 out of 150 blind subjects reported colored
hearing after losing the sense of sight, a finding that is
consistent with the remedial plasticity that occurs
following cortical damage. In another case, a seeing
117. According to the authors explanation, one pair 119. As the word is used in the passage, a grapheme
of words that would be likely to evoke the same is best described as:
synesthetic experience is: A) the synesthetic element of a letter.
A) know and no. B) the written representation of a syllable.
B) knit and kit. C) one of the units of a spoken word.
C) snuff and enough. D) one of the units of a written word.
D) cite and site.
120. Which of the following phenomena is an
118. The author implies that visual synesthesia can example of synesthesia?
occur because certain neurons respond to the A) Thinking of the sound of words while silently
co-occurrence of a particular color and shape. reading
A plausible hypothesis is that such cells
evolved because they increased processing B) Hearing a loud note when seeing the word
speed in the identification of: trumpet
A) dangerous predators on the basis of incomplete C) Mentally generating a tune while following
visual information. written notes
B) group members by either their appearance or their D) Visualizing a scene while listening to a
vocalizations. description
C) appropriate foods by any combination of
characteristics.
D) environmental forms and patterns associated with
the home territory.
Passage VIII When read according to the rules of Latin
grammar (Even in Arcady, there am I), the phrase
Poussin had come to Rome one or two years after had been consistent and easily intelligible as long as
Guercino had left it. And a few years later the words could be attributed to a deaths-head and as
(presumably about 1630), he produced the earlier of long as the shepherds were suddenly and
his two Et in Arcadia ego compositions. Being a frighteningly interrupted in their walk. These
classicist, Poussin revised Guercinos composition by conditions are manifestly true of Guercinos painting,
adding the Arcadian river god Alpheus and by and they are also true, if in a considerably lesser
transforming the decaying masonry into a classical degree, of Poussins earlier picture.
sarcophagus.
When facing the Louvre painting, however, the
But in spite of these improvements, Poussins beholder finds it difficult to accept the inscription in
picture does not conceal its derivation from its literal, grammatically correct, significance. In the
Guercinos. In the first place, it retains to some extent absence of a deaths-head, the ego in the phrase might
the element of drama and surprise: The shepherds seem to refer to the tomb itself. But it is infinitely
approach as a group from the left and are more natural to ascribe the words to the person buried
unexpectedly stopped by the tomb. In the second therein. Such is the case with 99 percent of all
place, there is still the actual skull, placed upon the epitaphs.
sarcophagus above the word Arcadia, although it has
become quite small and inconspicuous and fails to Thus Poussin himself, while making no verbal
attract the attention of the shepherds, who seem to be change in the inscription, invites, almost compels, the
more intensely fascinated by the inscription than they beholder to mistranslate it by relating the ego to a
are shocked by the deaths-head. dead person and by connecting the et with ego instead
of with Arcadia. The development of his pictorial
After another five or six years, however, Poussin vision had outgrown the significance of the literary
produced a second and final version of the Et in formula, and we may say that those who, under the
Arcadia ego theme, the famous picture in the Louvre. influence of the Louvre picture, decided to render the
And in this painting we can observe a radical break phrase Et in Arcadia ego as I, too, lived in Arcady,
with the medieval, moralizing tradition. The element rather than as Even in Arcady, there am I, did
of drama and surprise has disappeared. Instead of two violence to Latin grammar but justice to the meaning
or three Arcadians approaching from the left in a of Poussins art.
group, we have four, symmetrically arranged on
either side of a sepulchral monument. Instead of being
121. Which of the following conclusions about Latin
checked in their progress by an unexpected and
is a logical inference from the passage?
terrifying phenomenon, they are absorbed in calm
discussion and pensive contemplation. The form of A) Ego refers to the dead.
the tomb is simplified into a plain rectangular block, B) It is a particularly ambiguous language.
and the deaths-head is eliminated altogether.
C) Et can mean both even and too.
Here, then, we have a basic change in
D) A change in word order can change meaning.
interpretation. The Arcadians are not so much warned
of an implacable future as they are immersed in
mellow meditation on a beautiful past. In short,
Poussins Louvre picture no longer shows a dramatic
encounter with Death but a contemplative absorption
in the idea of mortality. We are confronted with a
change from thinly veiled moralism to undisguised
elegiac sentiment.
122. Suppose that a painting contained words with 125. According to the author, which details of
no apparent relevance to the scene depicted. Poussins Louvre painting support the belief
The passage suggests that in discussing this that it reveals his decision to reject the
painting, the passage author would be most moralizing tradition in art?
likely to:
I. A classical tomb
A) assume that the artist intended to puzzle the
II. A pagan river god
viewer.
III. A symmetrical composition
B) interpret the scene on the basis of the words.
A) II only
C) interpret the words on the basis of the scene.
B) III only
D) discuss the scene without reference to the words.
C) I and II only
123. By the end of the eighteenth century, the D) I and III only
inscription on Poussins second Arcadia
painting was translated as Even in Arcady, 126. What is the significance to the passage
there am I only in England. In conjunction argument of the information that the shepherds
with passage information, this fact most are already at the tomb rather than approaching
strongly implies that in comparison with other it?
Europeans, the English were: A) It shows that they are not surprised by the
A) less familiar with Latin grammar. reminder of death.
B) less receptive to medieval moralizing. B) It indicates the classicism of Poussins vision.
C) more sophisticated in their response to art. C) It ensures that the viewer interprets the inscription
as an epitaph.
D) more influenced by the Guercino painting.
D) It emphasizes the simplicity of the tomb.
124. Suppose that when Poussins Louvre painting is
cleaned, a skull is discovered on the tomb. This 127. Which of the following statements, if true,
discovery means that the authors thesis about would most weaken the authors reasoning
this painting: about the historical significance of the changes
introduced in Poussins second Arcadia
A) has been confirmed.
painting?
B) is more plausible.
A) Guercinos Arcadia painting contains as many
C) is less plausible. classical elements as do either of Poussins
D) has been disproved. versions.
B) The skull in Guercinos Arcadia painting is small
and inconspicuous.
C) The painting was completed by one of Poussins
students.
D) Many of Poussins later paintings have strongly
moralistic themes.
128. The authors discussion accords best with the 130. What can be inferred from the passage about
idea that paintings: Guercinos Et in Arcadia ego painting?
A) convey ideas through the objects they represent. A) It was painted in a way quite different from
Poussins method.
B) reveal the artists subconscious wishes.
B) It encourages a grammatical translation of the
C) are determined by abstract aesthetic decisions.
phrase.
D) tempt viewers to search for nonexistent messages.
C) It was painted toward the end of Guercinos life.
129. As used in the passage, the term elegiac is D) It was not characteristic of the art of its time.
closest in meaning to:
A) piously hopeful.
B) serenely reflective.
C) profoundly grieving.
D) poetically praising.
Passage IX account for this acceptance. In any case, the tendency
during recent decades has been to limit planning to
Chemistry and physics began with the observation the here and now. The future is imagined not as a
of gross phenomena, such as those relevant to really new venture but as a mere extension of the past.
cooking, distillation, medicine, falling bodies, and
celestial movements. These sciences reached the level To escape from this static and paralyzing view of
of mathematical abstraction only after a long period civilized life, it will be necessary to construct multiple
of detailed familiarity with concrete phenomena. The models of possible futures different from the present
behavioral and social sciences must now pass through state of affairs and to imagine courses of action that
a phase in which a core of concrete facts relevant to would bring such futures into being. Since
the mind and to society slowly accrue before they can anticipations govern the policies of change, they
arrive at meaningful abstract formulations of their paradoxically, but very effectively, become the
problems. When that stage has been reached, they causative agents of change. Causative anticipations
may reexamine their relation to the natural sciences differ from predictions in that the future they describe
and perhaps become partly anchored in physiology, must not only be possible but also embody
ecology, and other biological sciences. considerations of the desirable. They imply value
judgments as to what is desirable or not, good or bad,
Science and the technologies derived from it can and thus inevitably give a direction to the social and
best contribute to civilization not through a further scientific enterprise.
expansion of the mega-machine but by helping in the
maintenance of the ecological balance and in the Contemporary humanity seems to be poised
development of human potentialities. This change between passive acceptance of scientific technology
will be made difficult by attitudes inherited from the for its own sake, violent rejection of it, and conscious
nineteenth and early twentieth centuries. We have use of it for some ultimate concern. The social
trained our social reflexes for technological ferment that is beginning to agitate the community of
advances, however trivial their goals and scientists gives hope that humanity still has a chance
deleterious their long-range effects. Instead of to control its destiny by imposing a direction on the
conveying a teleological quality, the word progress scientific endeavor and, in particular, by consciously
now means just moving on, even though the forward planning the scientific technology that will shape the
motion is on a road that leads to disaster or despair. modern world.
Worthwhile goals for social progress must be
formulated before planning can provide a desirable
and enjoyable structure for the human effort. 131. The author apparently thinks that society today
plans for the future by:
Concern with the future used to be expressed in
the form of literary exercises, or at best of purely A) envisioning a model of the way it should evolve.
social utopias, formulated on the basis of certain B) assessing all possible future scenarios.
theological, political, or economic beliefs, shared by
C) tailoring technological advances to the needs of
the members of the utopian group. Utopias are no
people.
longer fashionable today, partly because we lack a
stable ground of generally accepted values to provide D) extending the present situation through piecemeal
the hard foundation on which to construct viable innovations.
social systems. It may be also that the eclipse of
human beings normative functions results from the
acceptance by many scientists and sociologists of the
view that the world of science and technology sets its
own arising ends. A tired resignation to the
imperatives of economics and scientific technology
along with the collapse of the old metaphysics may
132. Which of the following statements, if true, 135. The author expresses hope that society will
would most weaken the authors argument impose pressure on the scientific community to
about the way society should plan for the create a better future as a result of:
future? A) the restructuring of political systems.
A) Having a goal firmly in mind decreases the B) a greater trust in the ability of the scientific
chances of achieving that goal. community.
B) People tend to be less happy living in societies C) the failure of the behavioral and social sciences.
with planned economies.
D) greater focus on science as an agent of change.
C) People tend to be less happy living in
technologically advanced societies.
136. As used in the passage, teleological most nearly
D) People tend to be happier living in means:
technologically advanced societies.
A) religious.
133. Which of the following factors is NOT part of B) purposive.
the authors explanation of the reason that C) innovative.
utopian thinking is now unfashionable?
D) unorthodox.
A) The lack of consensus about what is desirable
B) The idea that science will furnish itself with goals 137. According to the passage, a precondition for
C) The collapse of the old metaphysics effective scientific planning is the:
D) The failure of utopian social experiments in the A) formulation of desirable social goals.
nineteenth and early twentieth centuries B) suspension of value judgments.
C) formulation of a single, unified plan for success.
134. Implicit in the authors ideas about the future
and the role of science is the belief that D) acceptance and trust of the scientific community
judgments about what is good or bad are: by society.
A) best decided democratically.
B) inappropriate for scientists to make.
C) best decided by historical research.
D) an appropriate part of scientific planning.
Writing Sample
Time: 60 minutes
2 Prompts, separately timed:
30 minutes each
This is a test of your writing skills. The test consists of two parts. You will have 30 minutes to complete each
part. Use your time efficiently. Before you begin writing each of your responses, read the assignment carefully
to understand exactly what you are being asked to do. Because this is a test of your writing skills, your
response to each part should be an essay of complete sentences and paragraphs, as well organized and clearly
written as you can make it in the time allotted.
(202-828-0690).
138. Consider this statement:
The primary goal of every business should be to maximize profits.
Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above
statement means. Describe a specific situation in which maximizing profits might not be the
primary goal of a business. Discuss what you think determines whether or not the primary goal of
a business should be to maximize profits.
139. Consider this statement:
Advancements in communication technology have reduced the quality of human interaction.
Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above
statement means. Describe a specific situation in which advancements in communication
technology have not reduced the quality of human interaction. Discuss what you think determines
whether or not advancements in communication technology have reduced the quality of human
interaction.
Biological Sciences
Time: 100 minutes
Questions: 140 - 216
Most questions in the Biological Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive passage.
After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group. Some questions are not
based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other. If you are not certain of an answer,
alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet. A
periodic table is provided for your use. You may consult it whenever you wish.
(202-828-0690).
1 Periodic Table of the Elements 2
H He
1.0 4.0
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.9 9.0 10.8 12.0 14.0 16.0 19.0 20.2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
23.0 24.3 27.0 28.1 31.0 32.1 35.5 39.9
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
39.1 40.1 45.0 47.9 50.9 52.0 54.9 55.8 58.9 58.7 63.5 65.4 69.7 72.6 74.9 79.0 79.9 83.8
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
85.5 87.6 88.9 91.2 92.9 95.9 (98) 101.1 102.9 106.4 107.9 112.4 114.8 118.7 121.8 127.6 126.9 131.3
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
Cs Ba La* Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
132.9 137.3 138.9 178.5 180.9 183.9 186.2 190.2 192.2 195.1 197.0 200.6 204.4 207.2 209.0 (209) (210) (222)
87 88 89 104 105 106 107 108 109
Fr Ra Ac Unq Unp Unh Uns Uno Une
(223) (226) (227) (261) (262) (263) (262) (265) (267)
58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
* Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
140.1 140.9 144.2 (145) 150.4 152.0 157.3 158.9 162.5 164.9 167.3 168.9 173.0 175.0
90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
232.0 (231) 238.0 (237) (244) (243) (247) (247) (251) (252) (257) (258) (259) (260)
Passage I 141. Which gene would produce a product that acts
predominately on or in the cell in which it is
A healthy weight has been defined as a body mass synthesized, ob or db?
index (BMI) of 25 or less. BMI = w/h2, where w is
weight (kg) and h is height (m). Studies suggest that A) db because it encodes a hormone specific to fat
genes account for about 40% of the factors that cells
determine BMI. Two genes affecting weight in mice B) db because it encodes a hormone receptor
are related to leptin, a hormone that is released by fat
cells and required for maintaining normal weight. C) ob because it encodes a hormone
One gene (designated ob) codes for leptin, and the D) ob because it encodes a protein specific to fat
other gene (designated db) codes for a leptin receptor. cells
Stable weight is also believed to be regulated by
metabolic feedback loops linking the brain, fat cells,
142. Which statement(s) in the passage link(s) leptin
the digestive tract, and muscles. Two hypotheses have
to weight regulation?
been proposed to explain the biological basis of
weight control.
I. 40% of BMI is determined by genes.
Set Point Hypothesis II. The db gene in mice influences weight.
The brain regulates body weight just as a III. The ob gene in mice influences weight.
thermostat maintains a constant room temperature. A) I only
The brain adjusts metabolism and behavior to
maintain a predetermined body weight. Genes also B) II only
influence the set point, which can increase with age C) I and III only
but only to the extent dictated by inheritance. Diet
D) II and III only
and exercise cannot reset the set point over the long
term.
143. What do both the set point hypothesis and the
Settling Point Hypothesis settling point hypothesis seek to explain?
Body weight is determined by the interaction of
A) How multiple, interacting factors determine body
two factorsmetabolism and geneswith the
weight
environment. Depending on genotype, various
metabolic feedback loops may allow weight to be B) How individual factors acting alone influence
stabilized at a new level. Thus, in an environment body weight
where high-calorie food is plentiful, individuals with C) How metabolism and the environment influence
a genetic predisposition to obesity will tend to body weight
become more overweight than those without such a
predisposition. D) How the environment and behavior influence
body weight
140. What type or class of chemical messenger
traveling in the blood would most probably link
the brain with the digestive tract and fat cells in
the control of body weight?
A) Neurotransmitters
B) Digestive enzymes
C) Protein receptors
D) Hormones
144. Which hypothesis implies that a person can 146. In one study, diets of obese and lean subjects
deliberately alter his or her own body were adjusted so that members of both
maintenance weight? populations either gained or lost weight.
Subjects who lost weight used 15% fewer
A) The set point hypothesis because a thermostat can
calories than would be predicted to maintain
be reset
their new weights. Subjects who gained weight
B) The set point hypothesis because the set point can had to eat 15% more calories than would be
change with age predicted to maintain their new weights. These
C) The settling point hypothesis because, with the results best support which hypothesis?
correct genotype, ones metabolism may allow A) The set point hypothesis because the metabolic
weight to stabilize at a new level changes seen would favor a return to the subjects
D) The settling point hypothesis because diet and original weight
exercise cannot reset the set point B) The set point hypothesis because the metabolic
changes seen would not favor a return to the
145. One type of metabolic feedback loop that subjects original weight
influences weight control involves the C) The settling point hypothesis because the
regulation of glucose levels in the blood. Which experimental diet has a positive effect on subjects
organ in the digestive system participates in this with a genetic predisposition to obesity
regulation by breaking down glycogen?
D) The settling point hypothesis because the
A) Stomach experimental diet has a positive effect on subjects
B) Liver without a genetic predisposition to obesity
C) Pancreas
D) Small intestine
Passage II 147. A researcher studies sections of embryonic
agnathan brains and discovers a transitory stage
A classic example of a negative feedback control in which a pituitary portal system develops. In
system in mammals is the regulation of hypothalamic regard to the evolution of the vertebrate
and pituitary secretions by hormones from the gonads neuroendocrine axis, this finding best supports
(ovaries or testes). the hypothesis that adult agnathans:
The adult reproductive system is ultimately A) represent a degenerative state.
regulated by the neuropeptide gonadotropin-releasing B) represent an ancestral state.
hormone (GnRH). GnRH is released from the
hypothalamus of the brain and transported via a C) resemble adult mammals.
portal-vessel system to the anterior pituitary. Here D) resemble embryonic mammals.
GnRH stimulates pituitary cells to secrete the two
gonadotropins, luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-
148. Suppose a newly discovered fossil agnathan
stimulating hormone (FSH), which then act on the
skull (with its enclosed fossilized brain) shows
gonads, causing them to produce steroid hormones.
a fully vascular connection between the
When the sex steroids enter the circulation, they feed
hypothalamus and the pituitary. This finding
back to the hypothalamus and pituitary, inhibiting
supports which of the following statements
further release of GnRH and gonadotropins.
about the evolution of the vertebrate
All living vertebrates except the Agnatha (the hypothalamic-pituitary axis?
jawless fishes) have a functional hypothalamic- A) Ancient agnathans possess degenerate axes.
pituitary axis (a portal-vessel system connecting the
two structures) that is similar to the mammalian B) Ancient agnathan axes are similar to existing bird
system. The Agnatha have no direct vascular axes.
connection between the hypothalamus and the C) Existing agnathan axes are similar to ancient
anterior pituitary, and there is no evidence that the vertebrate axes.
hypothalamus secretes hormones that regulate
D) Mammals are more similar to existing agnathans
pituitary function. Two hypotheses have been
than to ancient agnathans.
suggested to explain this difference.
Agnathans represent an ancestral state, and a 149. Which of the following is a negative feedback
vascular connection evolved later in the system involving the anterior pituitary?
vertebrate lineage.
A) LH suppression of estrogen release
Agnathans represent a degenerative state, and
a previously existing vascular connection was B) LH stimulation of GnRH release
lost in this specialized group. C) GnRH suppression of estrogen release
D) Estrogen suppression of LH release
150. In the year 2010, a paleontologist provides 151. In the adult female rat, cyclical changes in sex
convincing evidence that existing agnathans steroids secreted by the developing follicle
have been incorrectly classified and should switch to a positive feedback mechanism
belong to an earlier and previously undescribed around the time of ovulation. The positive
vertebrate class. Fossils of this newly described feedback mechanism by which LH secretion is
class lack a pituitary portal system. This finding affected can best be described as:
suggests that the new class of vertebrates A) an inhibition of LH by progesterone.
(including agnathans):
B) an inhibition of LH by GnRH.
A) represents a degenerative state.
C) a stimulation of LH by LH.
B) represents an ancestral state.
D) a stimulation of LH by estrogen.
C) represents a newly derived state.
D) is similar to other classes of living vertebrates. 152. In an adult female mammal, a greatly decreased
production of FSH will most likely result in a
decrease in all of the following factors
EXCEPT:
A) progesterone production.
B) estrogen production.
C) GnRH production.
D) follicle maturation.
Passage III 154. What is the maximum number of moles of
cyclohexene that can be formed by the reaction
The acid-catalyzed dehydration of alcohols, a
in the passage?
common method of preparing alkenes, is
accomplished by heating the alcohol in the presence A) 0.01
of an acid, such as H3PO4. If the alcohol is secondary B) 0.1
or tertiary, the dehydration reaction is typically an E1
process in which an intermediate carbocation is C) 1.0
formed. A group of students prepared cyclohexene by D) 10.0
dehydrating cyclohexanol using the following
procedure.
155. Which of the following was the most likely
A simple distillation apparatus was assembled, reason for washing the distillate with aqueous
and the receiving flask was immersed in an ice-water Na2CO3?
bath. The students put 10.0 g of cyclohexanol (bp A) To neutralize any remaining acid
161C) into the reaction flask, then added 2 mL of
85% H3PO4 and some boiling chips. The contents of B) To react with any remaining cyclohexanol
the flask were thoroughly mixed, and the mixture was C) To protonate the carbocation intermediate
heated. (Note: The students were careful not to heat
D) To destroy the excess magnesium sulfate
the contents of the flask above 90C.)
As the reaction progressed, a mixture including 156. The students were careful to keep the
the product was removed by distillation. The distillate temperature of the reaction flask under 90C to
was poured into a separatory funnel and washed with prevent:
aqueous Na2CO3 and NaCl. The aqueous washes were
A) the unreacted cyclohexanol from distilling.
discarded, and the organic layer was decanted into a
flask and dried over anhydrous magnesium sulfate. B) the product cyclohexene from distilling.
The crude cyclohexene (bp 83C, density = 0.811 C) the product cyclohexene from decomposing.
g/mL) was distilled, the yield was calculated, and the
product was tested for unsaturation. D) rearrangement of the carbocation intermediate.
153. Which of the following is most likely the 157. The difference between the boiling points of
function of the ice-water bath in the passage? cyclohexanol and cyclohexene most likely can
A) To prevent the reaction mixture from being be attributed to which of the following factors?
heated above 90C A) Steric hindrance
B) To prevent impurities from evaporating from the B) Orbital hybridization
reaction flask
C) Hydrogen bonding
C) To aid in the condensation of the distillate
D) Thermal stability
D) To aid in the evaporation of the distillate
158. The students started with 0.25 mol of
cyclohexanol and isolated 21.3 mL of
cyclohexene. Which of the following
expressions shows the number of moles of
cyclohexene isolated by the students?
A) (21.3 .811/82)(100/.25)
B) 21.3/.811
C) 21.3 .811 82
D) (21.3 .811)/82
Passage IV 160. Exponential growth of the bacterial population
in Figure 1 occurs between points:
A patient had a persistent skin abscess. To
determine what microbial organism was responsible I. A and B.
and to choose an appropriate antibiotic treatment II. B and C.
path, the wound was cultured. After isolation of a III. C and D.
predominant microbial colony, a study of the
A) I only
organisms growth was initiated. The data collected
from this growth rate study are shown in Figure 1. B) III only
Nutrient culture medium was inoculated with the C) I and II only
microbes at point A and allowed to grow for several
hours. Standard culture plate counts were made every D) I and III only
hour for 17 hours, and all incubations took place
under the same conditions of temperature, moisture, 161. Which of the following compounds could
and oxygen concentration. Antibiotic Z was added to contribute to the nitrogen requirement in the
the culture at point B. growth medium?
A) Glucose
B) Glycerol
C) Glycine
D) n-Hexanoic acid
162. If antibiotic Z acts by inhibiting translation, its

cellular site of action would most likely be the:
A) nucleus.
B) cell membrane.
C) lysosomes.
D) ribosomes.
Figure 1 Results of growth study
163. The approximate generation time (doubling
159. Which of the following organelles is(are) found time) observed between points A and B in
in both bacterial and eukaryotic cells? Figure 1 is:
I. Plasma membrane A) 30 min.

II. Mitochondrion B) 1 h.
III. Endoplasmic reticulum
C) 2 h.
A) I only
D) 5 h.
B) II only
C) I and II only
D) I and III only
164. A semilogarithmic plot of the data used to
generate Figure 1 would look like which of the
following graphs?
A)
B)
C)
D)
These questions are not based on a descriptive 167. Compound A is shown below.
passage and are independent of each other.
165. When a biological membrane separates two

fluid compartments with different solute
concentrations, an osmotic pressure differential
between the two compartments can arise Compound A
because the membrane:
A) dissolves only nonpolar substances. Which of the following structures has a
configuration that is identical to that of
B) allows the passage of solute molecules only. Compound A?
C) allows the passage of solvent molecules but not
most solute molecules. A)
D) has electrical charges that attract some solute
particles while repelling others.
166. B)
C)
D)
The above graph represents an action potential
recorded from the cell body of a neuron. What
type of ion movement is causing the 168. Albumin is the major blood osmoregulatory
depolarization of the neuronal membrane at the protein. The most likely effect of a sharp rise in
time denoted by the arrow? the level of serum albumin is:
A) Sodium ions are moving into the neuron down a A) a drop in blood pressure.
concentration gradient. B) an increase in immune response.
B) Sodium ions are being moved out of the neuron C) an efflux of albumin into the interstitial fluids.
via active transport.
D) an influx of interstitial fluid into the bloodstream.
C) Potassium ions are moving out of the neuron down
a concentration gradient.
D) Potassium ions are being moved into the neuron
via active transport.
Passage V which allows diffusion of solutes with molecular
weights up to 10002000 daltons, depending on the
Healthy kidneys function to excrete toxic size of the membrane pores. Protein molecules are too
metabolic byproducts and return needed substances to large to diffuse through the membrane. After the
the bloodstream, thereby maintaining a relatively solutes have passed through the membrane, they are
constant blood plasma solute concentration. For washed away in the dialysate fluid; excess fluid and
people with chronic renal failure, hemodialysis is a waste products are thus removed from the patients
life-sustaining procedure. Figure 1 shows features of bloodstream. Table 1 lists concentrations of various
an early hemodialysis unit design. Figure 2 shows a solutes in normal plasma, in plasma from a typical
more recent, improved hemodialysis unit. renal failure patient before dialysis, and the range of
solute concentrations used in dialysate solutions.
Table 1 Solute Concentrations
Dialysate range
Normal Renal
Solute Low High
plasma failure
140 138 128 140
Sodium
mEq/L mEq/L mEq/L mEq/L
100 92 95 110
Chloride
4.0 5.0 1.0 2.0
Potassium
24 18 35 40
Bicarbonate
20 60
Urea
Figure 1 Early hemodialysis unit mg/100 mg/100 0 0
nitrogen
mL mL
1 4
Creatinine mg/100 mg/100 0 0
mL mL
Solution pH 7.40 7.35 6.80 7.80
169. The osmotic concentration of plasma proteins

in the venous side of capillaries helps reduce
the amount of interstitial fluid in tissues by
inducing:
A) passive H2O diffusion along a concentration
gradient.
Figure 2 Improved hemodialysis unit B) passive ion diffusion along an electrochemical

gradient.
Blood from the patient is pumped through a C) facilitated ion transport along an electrochemical
dialysis filter, which is bathed in dialysate fluid that is gradient.
continuously pumped out of the dialyzing chamber.
After passing through the dialyzing chamber, the D) active H2O transport mediated by an ATP-
blood is returned to the patient. The dialysis dependent pump.
membrane is made of a thin semiporous material,
170. Capillaries in the kidney and elsewhere in the 173. Why are high concentrations of sodium
body maintain fluid homeostasis by balancing included in the dialysate (Table 1)?
hydrostatic and osmotic pressures. Which of the A) To induce water movement from the blood into
following is the initial effect of a blood clot the dialysate fluid
forming on the venous side of a capillary bed?
B) To maintain a high osmotic pressure in the
A) Net fluid flow in the direction of interstitial spaces dialysate solution
will increase.
C) To maintain isotonicity of the dialysate solution
B) Net fluid flow in the direction of interstitial spaces
with blood
will decrease.
D) To compensate for the urea nitrogen and
C) Capillary osmotic pressure will increase. creatinine in the blood
D) Capillary osmotic pressure will decrease.
171. Which of the following changes in flow rate or

in solute concentrations would NOT occur if
the blood inflow rate were increased, increasing
the pressure in the dialysis chamber?
A) The blood volume reaching the outflow tube per
unit time would increase.
B) The osmotic concentration of proteins in the
dialysate fluid would increase.
C) The osmotic concentration of proteins in the
blood outflow would increase or remain
unchanged.
D) The filtration rate across the dialysis membrane
would increase.
172. Bicarbonate ions in the blood and the dialysate

are important for maintaining physiological
levels of:
A) water.
B) chloride.
C) hydrogen ions.
D) glucose.
174. Which of the following figures (AD) shows
expected solute filtration rates (mEq/mL-min)
as a function of molecular weight for two
dialysis membranes: Membrane 1 with large
pores and Membrane 2 with small pores?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Passage VI 175. A person with genotype I A I A S s will express the
A antigen in which of the following places?
Two antigens that are expressed on the surfaces of
erythrocyte plasma membranes produce the A-B-O A) In saliva and on erythrocytes
blood series in humans. Antigen production is B) Neither in saliva nor on erythrocytes
controlled by two genes (Figure 1). Substance H is
produced by a gene that has a dominant allele (H) and C) Only on erythrocytes
a rare inactive allele (h). Gene I has one functionless D) Only in saliva
allele (i) and two codominant alleles (I A and I B). I A
and I B produce enzymes that transform substance H
176. Ulex extract most likely reacts with what
into the A and B antigens.
component of type O blood?
A) Antigen A
B) Substance H
C) Secretor gene antigens
D) Enzyme products of the i allele
Figure 1 Pathways of antigen formation 177. A person with the genotype hhSS would
Table 1 lists the possible I locus genotypes and express which of the following antigens?
their corresponding blood types. Individuals with A) A and B in saliva, but not on erythrocytes
genotypes I AI A or I BI B convert nearly all of their
B) A and B on erythrocytes, but not in saliva
substance H into surface antigens. Individuals with
genotypes I Ai or I Bi leave a significant amount of C) Neither A nor B antigens
their substance H unchanged. D) B on erythrocytes only
Table 1 Genotypes of the A-B-O Blood Types
178. Which of the following best explains why
Blood type adults with the Bombay blood type lack the A
Genotype
and B antigens?
ii O
I I or I A i
A A
A A) Such individuals lack the I A and I B alleles.
I BI B or IBi B B) Such individuals lack substance H.
I AI B AB
C) Expression of the h allele inactivates the enzymes
produced by I A and I B.
The very rare individuals with the hh genotype are
said to have the Bombay blood type. They are distinct D) Expression of the h allele suppresses expression of
from type O individuals: an extract from the plant the I gene.
Ulex reacts with type O blood to cause clumping of
erythrocytes, but it causes no reaction with Bombay 179. If Ulex extract is added to blood from a type A
type blood. donor, will clumping of erythrocytes occur?
A secretor gene controls the secretion of the A A) Yes, but only if the donors genotype is I A i
and B antigens into saliva and semen, but it does not B) Yes, but only if the donors genotype is I AI A
affect the expression of erythrocyte surface antigens.
Expression of the dominant allele (S) allows antigen C) No, because the erythrocytes lack the A antigen
secretion; the recessive allele (s) is nonfunctional. D) No, because the H allele is present
Passage VII
The bromination of 2,2-dimethylbutane IV was
A group of students investigated the free radical attempted under the same conditions without success.
halogenation of 2,3-dimethylbutane I, Reaction 1.
Reaction 2
Finally, the students carried out a competitive
bromination experiment using a mixture of II and V
(Reaction 3). The product of the bromination of
Compound II was the only product observed.
Reaction 1
The reaction was monitored by gas
chromatography, which showed the initial formation
of the monobromo product II followed by the rapid
conversion to the dibromo product III. Data obtained
at one point in the reaction are given in Table 1. The
retention times of authentic samples of I, II, and III,
at equal concentrations, used as standards, are given
in Table 2.
Table 1 Reaction 3
Reaction mixture Retention Peak area 180. Compound II can also be prepared by treatment
from Reaction 1 time (s) (cm2) of 2,3-dimethyl-2-butanol with:
Peak 1 60 5 A) Br2/light.
Peak 2 74 10
B) Br2/CCl4.
Table 2 C) NaBr.
Compound Retention Peak area D) HBr.
(standards) time (s) (cm2)
I 40 10
II 60 10
III 75 10
181. Which of these cycloalkanes will undergo free 183. What stereochemical outcome is expected in
radical bromination most rapidly? the formation of Compound II?
A) A) It would be formed as a pair of enantiomers,
because invasion of the bromine radical can
approach from either side.
B) B) It would be formed as a pair of enantiomers,

because inversion is faster than carbonbromine
bond formation.
C) It would be formed as a pair of diastereomers,
C) because the bromine radical can approach from
either side.
D) It is an optically inactive compound, because it
has no chiral carbon.
D)
184. The 1H NMR of Compound II would consist
of:
A) two singlets.
182. According to the gas chromatographic data in B) a doublet and a septet.
Table 1, what is the composition of the reaction
mixture from Reaction 1? C) a singlet, a doublet, and a septet.
A) 33% II and 67% III D) two singlets, a doublet, and a septet.
B) 33% III and 67% II

C) 45% II and 55% III
D) 45% III and 55% II
Passage VIII
During metabolism, carbohydrates are converted
into many other biologically important oxygen-
containing compounds.
In glycolysis, phosphate esters and anhydrides are
particularly important. A phosphate ester can be
thought of as the product of the reaction between an
alcohol and phosphoric acid (Equation 1).
Figure 1 Intermediates in carbohydrate metabolism
185. Which of the following compounds is the

precursor for the oxygen atoms in the
glycolysis intermediates?
A) Glucose
B) Atomic oxygen (O)
Equation 1 C) Molecular oxygen (O2)

D) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
A phosphate anhydride is the product of the
reaction of an organic acid and phosphoric acid
(Equation 2). 186. Which of the following classifications apply to
dihydroxyacetone?
I. Alcohol
II. Ketone
III. Carbohydrate
IV. Acetal
A) I and II only
B) III and IV only
Equation 2
C) I, II, and III only
The intermediates of the citric acid cycle are D) I, II, and IV only
carboxylic acids or their -keto derivatives. One key
intermediate, pyruvate, is a molecular link between
glycolysis, the pathway in which it is produced from
the carbohydrate glucose, and the citric acid cycle, the
pathway in which it is metabolized to CO2.
Figure 1 shows the structures of some
intermediates in carbohydrate metabolism.
187. Which of the following structures is the enol 189. The four five-carbon carbohydrates shown below
form of pyruvate? illustrate principles of carbohydrate nomenclature.
A)
B)
Another five-carbon carbohydrate is xylulose. Which

of the following statements apply(applies) to
xylulose?
C)
I. It is an isomer of deoxyribose.
II. It is an isomer of ribose.
III. It is an isomer of xylose.
A) I only
D) B) II only
C) I and III only
D) II and III only
188. A reaction in the citric acid cycle is shown
below. (The equation is not balanced.)
This reaction would be described as:
I. oxidationreduction.
II. decarboxylation.
III. isomerization.
A) I only
B) II only
C) Both I and II
D) Both I and III
These questions are not based on a descriptive 193. Which of the compounds shown below can
passage and are independent of each other. form hydrogen bonds with water?
190. One characteristic common to arteries, veins, CH3CH2CH3 CH3CH2NH2

and capillaries is the: Compound 1 Compound 2
A) presence of a layer of endothelial cells. A) Compound 1 only
B) presence of numerous valves that prevent the B) Compound 2 only
backflow of blood.
C) Both compounds
C) ability to actively dilate or constrict in regulating
D) Neither compound
blood flow.
D) ability to supply surrounding tissues with 194. The term -helix refers to what kind of protein
nutrients by filtration and diffusion. structure?
A) Primary
191. Tissue that is very active metabolically, such as
skeletal muscle, contains large numbers of: B) Secondary
A) nuclei. C) Tertiary
B) fat deposits. D) Quaternary
C) blood capillaries.
D) lymphatic vessels.
192. The finches observed by Darwin on the

Galapagos Islands are an example of adaptive
radiation. In order to set up conditions that
would produce adaptive radiation, it would be
necessary to place members of:
A) one species in one rapidly changing environment.
B) one species in several different environments.
C) several very similar species in the same
environment.
D) several unlike species in one environment to
compete for the same resources.
Passage IX Table 1 Effects of Peptide A
Bone remodeling is a cyclic process involving OB OC

bone resorption by osteoclasts (OC), followed by activity activity [Osteoblatin]
bone formation by osteoblasts (OB). How this event Group (units) (units) (ng/mL)
is triggered is uncertain. A new drug, Peptide A, 1. OB only 10 NA 0
binds to specific sites on the plasma membranes of 2. OB + Peptide A 9 NA 9
OB, the bone-forming cells. Two experiments were 3. OC only NA 1 NA
done to study Peptide A. 4. OC + Peptide A NA 2 NA
5. OB + OC 11 1 0
Experiment 1
6. OB + OC +
Peptide A was added to the growth medium of 2 23 50
Peptide A
cultured OB. The medium and cells were analyzed 24
(NA = not applicable)
hours later. The only apparent effect of Peptide A on
OB was an increase in the production and secretion of Peptide B competes with Peptide A for the same
a peptide called osteoblatin. Figure l shows these plasma membrane receptors; however, Peptide B has
results. Upon further investigation, osteoblatin was no effect on the OB, does not stimulate osteoblatin
found to be 97% homologous to osteoactivin, a production, and competitively inhibits Peptide A.
peptide that markedly stimulates osteoclastic bone
resorption.
195. Which conclusion about Peptide A receptor
binding can be reached from Figure 1?
A) Peptide A requires 100% receptor binding to
produce the most osteoblatin.
B) Peptide A produces the most osteoblatin possible
at less than 100% receptor binding.
C) At 50% binding to its receptors, Peptide A
produces 50% of the maximal amount of
osteoblatin.
D) Peptide A continues to stimulate increasing levels
of osteoblatin production at over 50% receptor
binding.
Figure 1 Effect of Peptide A on osteoblatin

196. When OB is incubated with a constant
Experiment 2 concentration of Peptide A (25 ng/mL) and
Growth medium with and without Peptide A (25 increasing concentrations of Peptide B,
ng/mL) was then incubated with OB only, OC only, osteoblatin concentration:
or OB plus OC. After 24 hours, the medium and cells A) increases exponentially.
were tested for the amount of osteoblatin secreted, for
bone-forming activity (OB activity), and for bone- B) increases linearly.
resorbing activity (OC activity). The results are C) remains constant.
shown in Table 1.
D) decreases.
197. What can be concluded about Peptide A from 199. To most effectively study the effect of Peptide
Experiment 2? A on transcription of the osteoblatin gene, a
scientist should determine the:
A) It is ineffective in stimulating osteoclastic
activity. A) sequence of the osteoblatin gene.
B) It acts directly on OC to increase bone resorption. B) amount of osteoblatin mRNA in the cell.
C) It acts indirectly through OB to increase bone C) amount of osteoblatin peptide in the cell.
resorption. D) total RNA in the cell.
D) It acts directly on OB to increase bone formation.
200. The overall effect of Peptide A on bone is to:
198. In Experiment 2, which three groups A) increase bone mass.
demonstrated cell line viability and allowed the
determination of basal cellular activities? B) decrease bone mass.
A) Groups 1, 2, and 3 C) narrow haversian canals.
B) Groups 1, 3, and 5 D) maintain constant bone mass.
C) Groups 2, 4, and 6
D) Groups 4, 5, and 6
Passage X
Butylated hydroxy toluene (BHT), 2,6-di-tert-
butyl-4-methylphenol, is an important antioxidant in
the food, petroleum, and rubber industries. It is
prepared by an acid-catalyzed reaction between para-
cresol and 2-methylpropene, as shown in Figure 1. Compound 1
201. According to the passage, which of the

following compounds can serve as an
antioxidant?
A)
Figure 1 Synthesis of BHT

B)
Autoxidation is a chain reaction that occurs in
compounds containing easily removed hydrogen
atoms. Figure 2 shows the first three steps in the
mechanism of autoxidation.
Initiation C)
Step 1: RH R + H
Propagation
Step 2: R + O2 RO2
Step 3: RO2 + RH RO2H + R
Figure 2 Autoxidation D)
A radical (R) is formed in Step 1 by the

homolytic cleavage of a bond. The radical reacts
with atmospheric oxygen in Step 2 to form a peroxy
radical (R-O-O). In Step 3, the peroxy radical
abstracts a hydrogen atom from the starting material 202. Compared to the activation energy for the
to produce a hydroperoxide (R-O-O-H) and a new hydrogen-atom abstraction from BHT, the
radical. This type of oxidative chain reaction causes activation energy for the reaction between a
the spoilage of food and the deterioration of rubber BHT radical and peroxy radical is:
articles.
A) less.
Antioxidants such as BHT inhibit the chain B) equal.
reaction. The rate-controlling step in the antioxidation
process is the formation of a BHT radical by the C) greater.
removal of a hydrogen atom from BHT. The BHT D) impossible to determine from the data given.
radical terminates the chain reaction by coupling with
a peroxy radical, yielding a quinone such as
Compound 1.
203. Which of the following phenols can undergo
intra- molecular hydrogen bonding? 204. A 1H NMR spectrum of BHT contains how
many unique (nonequivalent) proton signals?
A)
A) 4
B) 5
C) 12
B)
D) 24
C)
D)
Passage XI 206. To be an effective therapy, an antisense gene
that is incorporated into a genome that contains
A new strategy of drug design uses nucleic acid
the target gene must be:
macromolecules to prevent the expression of a gene.
The target of the drug can be a gene in a bacterial cell, A) on the same chromosome as the target gene but
a cancer cell, or a virus-occupied eukaryotic cell; the not necessarily be physically adjacent.
macromolecular drug can be either produced within a B) on the same chromosome as the target gene and
biological system or added to it. Normally produced must be physically adjacent.
messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules are known as the
sense RNA. Antisense nucleic acids, which are C) regulated in a similar manner as the target gene.
complementary to a portion of the sense mRNA, can D) coded on the same strand of DNA as the target
be synthesized. The antisense molecules will bind gene.
specifically to the sense mRNA and prevent the
production of the natural gene product. 207. Phenylketonuria is a genetic disorder caused by
A problem encountered in the design of antisense a mutation in the gene for the enzyme
drugs was that oligonucleotides may only persist for a phenylalanine hydroxylase, which eliminates its
matter of minutes before they are degraded by cellular enzymatic activity. Could an antisense drug
processes. Antisense drugs became feasible when help individuals with this disorder?
phosphorothioate analogs of the oligonucleotides A) Yes, if it binds to the mRNA of the phenylalanine
were developed; these analogs can exist for days or hydroxylase gene and prevents its translation
weeks within the cell.
B) Yes, if it is incorporated into the chromosome and
Genes that produce an antisense sequence can also prevents the expression of the phenylalanine
be synthesized and added to the genome of hydroxylase gene
organisms. In this manner antisense and sense RNA C) No, because mRNA does not persist in the
molecules could be produced simultaneouslyin cytoplasm of the cell
effect, preventing the production of the gene product
permanently. D) No, because blockage of phenylalanine
hydroxylase gene expression will not remedy the
original disorder
205. When used as described in the passage,
antisense drugs prevent:
208. Which of the following nucleotide sequences
A) DNA replication. describes an antisense molecule that can
B) RNA transcription. hybridize with the mRNA sequence 5-
C) RNA translation. CGAUAC-3?
D) cell replication. A) 5-GCTATG-3

B) 5-GCUAUG-3
C) 3-GCUAUG-5
D) 3-GCAUAG-5
209. An effective and efficient method for the 210. If oligonucleotides such as mRNA were not
delivery of an antisense gene could be: degraded rapidly by intracellular agents, which
of the following processes would be most
A) orally as an emulsified product.
affected?
B) microinjection into individual body cells.
A) The production of tRNA in the nucleus
C) intravenously as a nonantigenic, blood-stable
B) The coordination of cell differentiation during
product.
development
D) infection of an embryo by a virus modified to
C) The diffusion of respiratory gases across the cell
carry the gene.
membrane
D) The replication of DNA in the nucleus
These questions are not based on a descriptive 214. If chromosomal duplication before tetrad
passage and are independent of each other. forma-tion occurred twice during
spermatogenesis, while the other steps of
211. Which of the following describes a primary meiosis proceeded normally, which of the
function of the myelin sheath? following would result from a single
spermatocyte?
A) It provides nutrients to motor neurons.
A) One tetraploid sperm
B) It regulates synaptic vesicle discharge.
B) Four diploid sperm
C) It guides dendrite growth and branching.
C) Four haploid sperm
D) It increases the rate of conduction of action
potentials. D) Eight haploid sperm
212. When muscles in the skin contract and cause 215. All of the following occur during normal
the hair of an animal to stand on end, the skin inspiration of air in mammals EXCEPT:
could be functioning as a regulator of: A) elevation of the rib cage.
A) pH. B) relaxation of the diaphragm.
B) salt excretion. C) reduction of pressure in the pleural cavity.
C) body temperature. D) contraction of the external intercostal rib muscles.
D) skeletal muscle tone.
216. Radioactively labeled uracil is added to a
213. Of the isomeric alcohols (compounds 14), culture of actively dividing mammalian cells. In
which is most reactive in an SN1 reaction with which of the following cell structures will the
HBr? uracil be incorporated?
A) Chromosomes
B) Ribosomes
C) Lysosomes
D) Nuclear membrane
A) Compound 1
B) Compound 2
C) Compound 3
D) Compound 4
Physical Sciences 56 (A) (B) (C) (D) 110 (A) (B) (C) (D) 162 (A) (B) (C) (D)
1 (A) (B) (C) (D) 57 (A) (B) (C) (D) 111 (A) (B) (C) (D) 163 (A) (B) (C) (D)
22 (A) (B) (C) (D) 132 (A) (B) (C) (D) 184 (A) (B) (C) (D)
23 (A) (B) (C) (D) Verbal Reasoning 133 (A) (B) (C) (D) 185 (A) (B) (C) (D)
28 (A) (B) (C) (D) 82 (A) (B) (C) (D) 190 (A) (B) (C) (D)
29 (A) (B) (C) (D) 83 (A) (B) (C) (D) Writing Sample 191 (A) (B) (C) (D)
30 (A) (B) (C) (D) 84 (A) (B) (C) (D) 138 192 (A) (B) (C) (D)
31 (A) (B) (C) (D) 85 (A) (B) (C) (D) 139 193 (A) (B) (C) (D)
32 (A) (B) (C) (D) 86 (A) (B) (C) (D) 194 (A) (B) (C) (D)
33 (A) (B) (C) (D) 87 (A) (B) (C) (D) Biological Sciences 195 (A) (B) (C) (D)
55 (A) (B) (C) (D) 109 (A) (B) (C) (D) 161 (A) (B) (C) (D)

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7. If the speed of the charged particle described in the

8. Making which of the following changes to a circuit

A) van der Waals B) enthalpy change is always positive.

B) Dipoledipole C) temperature of the combustion is always more

Observations are difficult because of the small

How do the pressures Pw and Pm compare,

Table 1 Data from Experiment 1 B) 1500

The titration of these acids with sodium hydroxide

47. The actual oscillating surface in Figure 1 would

49. Assume that a pan of dry water is

55. Which of the following shows the electron

2Al2O3() 4Al(s) + 3O2(g)

Figure 2 Convex mirror

72. What is the conjugate base of the bisulfate ion

73. If the magnitude of a positive charge is tripled,

C) Ksp for PbCl2

D) I, II, and III C) The region is located near an ocean.

I. the economic development of Americans.

The primary goal of every business should be to maximize profits.

Advancements in communication technology have reduced the quality of human interaction.

162. If antibiotic Z acts by inhibiting translation, its

I. Plasma membrane A) 30 min.

165. When a biological membrane separates two

169. The osmotic concentration of plasma proteins

Figure 2 Improved hemodialysis unit B) passive ion diffusion along an electrochemical

171. Which of the following changes in flow rate or

172. Bicarbonate ions in the blood and the dialysate

B) B) It would be formed as a pair of enantiomers,

A) 33% II and 67% III D) two singlets, a doublet, and a septet.

B) 33% III and 67% II

185. Which of the following compounds is the

Equation 1 C) Molecular oxygen (O2)

Another five-carbon carbohydrate is xylulose. Which

This reaction would be described as:

190. One characteristic common to arteries, veins, CH3CH2CH3 CH3CH2NH2

192. The finches observed by Darwin on the

Bone remodeling is a cyclic process involving OB OC

Figure 1 Effect of Peptide A on osteoblatin

201. According to the passage, which of the

Figure 1 Synthesis of BHT

A radical (R) is formed in Step 1 by the

D) cell replication. A) 5-GCTATG-3

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