PREBOARD IN ELECTRONICS SYSTEMS AND 8.

What is the effective radiated power of a repeater

TECHNOLOGY with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feline
loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB
To commit an error for the first time is a mistake. To commit antenna gain?
the same error the next time is a CHOICE. A. 317 W
B. 2000 W
-DGM C. 126 W
D. 260 W
1. ________ is a standard whereby mobile phones can
gain access to specially tailored Internet websites. 9. Which of the following is standardized as part of
A. Bluetooth GSM phase 2+ that can offer theoretical data speeds
B. GPRS of upto 115 kbit/s?
C. WAP A. EDGE
D. EDGE B. GPRS
C. WAP
2. What noise is a transient short-duration disturbance D. Bluetooth
distributed essentially uniformly over the useful
passband of a transmission system? 10. A ______ is essentially a cell site that is mounted on
A. Flicker noise a flatbed tractor-trailer used for emergency purposes.
B. Transit-time noise A. COW
C. Shot noise B. BULL
D. Impulse noise C. CALF
D. PONY
3. What is the insertion loss of connector type splices
for a single mode optical fiber? 11. Which of the following best describes a dip-meter?
A. 0.51 dB A. An SWR meter
B. 0.49 dB B. A counter
C. 0.31 dB C. A variable LC oscillator with metered feedback
D. 0.38 db current
D. A field strength meter
4. In the European standard, the aurial transmitter
maximum radiated power is ______ of peak visual 12. Which is space diversity system?
transmitter power. A. Two or more antennas operating on two different
A. 10% frequencies?
B. 30% B. Two transmitters operating at same frequencies
C. 20% C. Two or more antennas operating on the same
D. 40% frequency
D. Two antennas from two different transmitters
5. What is the common up-converter and down-
converter IF for microwave communications? 13. What part or section of a TV receiver that separates
A. 60 MHz the sound and video signals?
B. 80 MHz A. IF stage
C. 120 MHz B. Video amplifier
D. 70 MHz C. Video detector
D. Burst separator
6. What is the data link protocol that is used in
asynchronous transmission for transferring files from 14. What is the channel number of an FM station with a
one computer to another? carrier frequency of 99.5 MHz?
A. A modem A. 256
B. X modem B. 258
C. B modem C. 257
D. C modem D. 259

7. What distortion is not caused by transmission line 15. In a triple conversion superheterodyne receiver, diode
characteristics? mixer stages are operated
A. Phase distortion A. In the linear region
B. Pulse shape distortion B. In the nonlinear region
C. Spacing bias distortion C. As class A amplifiers
D. Amplitude distortion D. As class B amplifiers
16. In ISDN, what is the basic access B channel data D. A3H
rate?
A. 32 kbps 25. Which of the following is not a bounded medium?
B. 64 kbps A. Coaxial line
C. 144 kbps B. Two-wire line
D. 16 kbps C. Waveguide
D. Free space
17. What is the channel spacing for MF-HF voice
frequencies? 26. What is affected by the distance between the listener
A. 2.8 kHz and the source of the sound because the intensity
B. 500 Hz varies inversely with the square of the distance?
C. 3.5 kHz A. Volume
D. 3 kHz B. Pitch
C. Loudness
18. What is the quantization signal-to-noise ratio if an 8- D. Frequency
bit PCM code is used?
A. 40 dB 27. Comparing the capacities of a DVD and an ordinary
B. 50 dB CD, DVD is ______ time bigger than CD.
C. 60 dB A. 10
D. 65 dB B. 20
C. 15
19. What is the emission designation of a single sideband D. 25
reduced carrier signal?
A. H3E 28. Locking on to a defined target is known as
B. J3E A. Homing
C. R3E B. Referencing
D. B8E C. Searching
D. Defining
20. What is the most commonly used intermediate
frequency of radar receivers? 29. What causes the maximum usable frequency to vary?
A. 40 MHz A. The temperature of the ionosphere
B. 60 MHz B. The speed of the winds in the upper atmosphere
C. 70 MHz C. The type of weather just below the ionosphere
D. 30 MHz D. The amount of radiation received from the sun

21. The input signal of a travelling wave tube is 30. What limits the sensitivity of a receiver?
A. The power supply of the receiver
introduced at
B. The power output of a transmitter
A. Cathode
C. The noise floor of the receiver
B. Anode
D. The distance between the transmitter and
C. Cathode end of the helix
D. Collector end of the helix receiver

22. What determines the ability of radar to determine the 31. What is the standard test tone used for audio
bearing to a target? measurements?
A. Speed of light A. 100 Hz
B. Speed of target B. 500 Hz
C. Antenna directivity C. 1000 Hz
D. Frequency of signal D. 2000 Hz

23. What is the minimum number of bits required in a 32. What causes image interference?
A. Low gain
PCM code for a range of 10,000?
B. High IF
A. 12
C. Poor front-end selectivity
B. 9
D. Low signal-to-noise ratio
C. 14
D. 10
33. What frequency band is referred to as the metric
24. The antenna current is doubled when the modulation waves?
A. VHF
index is doubled in ______ AM system.
B. UHF
A. A5C
C. HF
B. A3J
D. SHF
C. A3
 C. When the chairman of the board is a Filipino
34. A waveguide passive component that brings a smooth D. When the president of the
change in the direction of axis maintained corporation/association is a Filipino
perpendicular to the plane of polarization?
A. L bend 42. ______ is a term in the test language for noise testing
B. H bend in telephone circuits that means a one-syllable word
C. T bend consisting of a consonant, a vowel, and another
D. X bend consonant.
A. Logatom
35. How far is the visual carrier from the lowest B. Nosfer
frequency in the spectrum of a monochrome TV C. Ore
broadcast channel following the NTSC standard? D. Belcore
A. 1.5 MHz
B. 1.25 MHz 43. Why are frequency modulation transmitters more
C. 4.5 MHz efficient?
D. 0.25 MHz A. Because their power is increased by class C
amplifiers
36. What aircraft deviation is measured by an ILS B. Because their power is increased by class A
localizer? amplifiers
A. Altitude C. Because their power is increased by class B
B. Ground speed
amplifiers
C. Vertical
D. Because their power is increased by class AB
D. Horizontal
amplifiers
37. Skip zone is otherwise known as
A. Empty zone 44. A 1000W carrier is amplitude modulated to a depth
B. Shadow zone of 85%. Calculate the total power of the modulated
C. Null zone wave?
D. Zone of silence A. 1361.25 W
B. 680.62 W
38. In the American standard, the aural transmitter C. 1425 W
maximum radiated power is _____ of peak visual D. 712.5 W
transmitter power.
A. 10 % 45. Which is not an ITU sector?
B. 30 % A. ITU-W
C. 20 % B. ITU-R
D. 40 % C. ITU-T
D. ITU-D
39. What character signifies the start of the test for
46. What is the process of cancelling the effect on
Bisync?
A. STX internal device capacitance in radio transmitters?
B. SOH A. Degaussing
C. BCC B. Neutralization
D. ETX C. Ionization
D. Stabilization
40. A low frequency audible periodic variation in pitch of
47. Which of the following is the basic synthesizer
sound output in high fidelity sound reproduction
circuit?
system?
A. Frequency divider
A. Flutter
B. Frequency multiplier
B. Wow
C. PLL
C. String vibration
D. Mixer
D. Radio sound
48. Which one is not an important characteristic of the
41. When can a corporation or association incorporated
physical layer?
under the Philippine laws and with foreign investors
A. Electrical
be granted radio station license? B. Logical
A. When 60% of the capital is owned by Filipino C. Mechanical
citizens D. All of the choices
B. When 50% of the capital is owned by Filipino
citizens
49. What is the typical separation between the two 58. How many sidebands are present in the J3E mode?
conductors in a parallel wire line? A. Two sidebands and a carrier
A. 0.001 to 0.01 m B. One upper sideband
B. 200 to 500 mm C. One lower sideband
C. 0.635 to 15.24 cm D. Two carriers and one sideband
D. 2.5 to 5 in.
59. A component that samples the microwave signal
50. In t-carrier system, t3 has a bit rate of travelling in one direction down to the transmission
A. 560.160 Mbps line
B. 44.376 Mbps A. Isolator
C. 44.736 Mbps B. Combiner
D. 560.106 Mbps C. Directional coupler
D. Attenuator
51. In radio signal emission designation, the fifth symbol
means 60. What does OMB stand for?
A. Details of signals A. Optical media board
B. Type of information transmitted B. Organization of medical biologist
C. Nature of multiplexing C. Optical medium board
D. Nature of signal modulating the main carrier D. Optimum main board

52. What is the channel spacing for SITOR frequencies? 61. A test method of comparing two audio systems by
A. 500 Hz switching inputs so that the same recording is heard
B. 170 Hz in rapid succession over one given system and then
C. 300 Hz
the other.
D. 3 kHz
A. B test
B. A test
53. Which of the following is the new name of CCITT?
C. AB test
A. ITU-T
D. C test
B. ITU-R
C. ITU-S
62. And ITU-T specification code that deals with the
D. ITU-D
telephone circuits.
54. Which of the following frequencies is normally used A. X series
B. T series
for distress and safety communications?
C. V series
A. 4209.5 kHz
D. I series
B. 490 kHz
C. 518 kHz
63. What digital carrier transmits a digital signal at
D. 2174.5 kHz
274.176 Mbps?
55. What is the difference between available power and A. T1
B. T3
power budget?
C. T2
A. Power margin
D. T4
B. Extra power
C. Fade margin
64. What signal-to-noise ratio is required for satisfactory
D. System gain
television reception?
56. A matched termination in which the electromagnetic A. 10 dB
B. 30 dB
energy is absorbed by water.
C. 40 dB
A. Maximum power transfer
D. 20 dB
B. Load
C. Load water
65. How many telephone channels are there in AT 2 line?
D. Basin
A. 50
B. 90
57. What do you call the electrical conduction in a
C. 83
photosensitive material which is not exposed to D. 96
radiation?
A. Dark conductance 66. What optical source radiates light uniformly in all
B. Pure conductance directions?
C. Black out A. Isotropic source
D. Super conductance B. Lambertian source
C. Voltage source
 D. Ideal source D. The front panel

67. What is the spectrum of stereophonic FM signal? 75. What is the term used in telephony and telegraphy for
A. 19 to 38 kHz irregular disturbing radiation due to various causes
B. 30 to 53 kHz and in a particular produced by arc transmitters
C. 59.5 to 74.5 kHz
causing a rushing sound in receiving telephones?
D. 88 to 108 MHz
A. Fax tone
B. Mush
68. What is the required quality factor for an SSB filter
C. Hiss
with the following data: center frequency= 1 MHz, D. Crosstalk
the desired attenuation level of the unwanted
sideband= 80 dB and the separation between 76. What device in a waveguide system used for stopping
sidebands= 200 Hz? or diverting electromagnetic wave as desired?
A. 1,250 A. Mechanical switch
B. 12,500 B. Electric switch
C. 125,000 C. Push-button switch
D. 25,000 D. Waveguide switch

69. What do you call the reflection of a part of incident 77. What is the maximum power that can be obtained
light at the interface of two media that have different from a microwave tube at 10 GHz?
refractive indices? A. 500 W
A. Snells reflection B. 10 W
B. Fresnel reflection C. 50 W
C. Lambertian reflection D. 20 W
D. Huygens reflection
78. What do you call a cable consisting of twisted pairs
70. Which conference in the ITU-structure does the of conductors, each separately insulated?
telecommunication standardization bureau report? A. Microstrip line
A. World telecommunication standardization B. Strip line
conference C. Quad
B. ITU-development sector D. Coaxial cable
C. Radio regulation board
D. The secretary general 79. What mixer type has the lowest spurious signals?
A. Double-balanced
71. What region around a broadcasting transmitter in B. Single-balanced
C. Super-heterodyner
which satisfactory reception of broadcasting signal is
D. Heterodyner
not obtained?
A. Fringe area 80. What are the electromagnetic radiations of
B. Primary are
wavelengths less than 300 angstroms?
C. Secondary area
A. X-rays
D. Tertiary area
B. Ultraviolet rays
C. Infrared
72. What do you call the random noise seen on radar
D. Microwaves
display screen?
A. Impulse noise 81. What is known as the alignment of the three color
B. Atmospheric noise
guns to a common point?
C. Grass
A. Confetti
D. Johnson noise
B. Divergence
C. Convergence
73. Which of the following antennas receives signals
D. Synchronization
equally well from all directions in a horizontal plane?
A. Hetz antenna 82. What is the department order that governs
B. Vertical Marconi antenna
commercial radio operator?
C. Yagi antenna
A. Department Order No. 5
D. Helical antenna
B. Department Order No. 23
C. Department Order No. 88
74. Where is the brightness control located in a TV?
D. Department Order No. 44
A. The audio section
B. The video section
83. The computer which initiates information transfer
C. The grid-cathode circuit
A. Master
 B. Station 92. ______ is slow moving cord-like mass of plasma
C. Slave across the suns surface.
D. Mainframe A. Filament
B. Solar flare
84. Which of the following antennas require good C. Prominence
grounding? D. Solar spot
A. Yagi antenna
B. Hertz antenna 93. At what particular wavelength is solar flux
C. Marconi antenna measured?
D. Isotropic antenna A. 10.7 mm band
B. 10.7 m band
85. Which circuit detects frequency modulated signal? C. 10.7 cm band
A. Modulator D. 10.7 nm band
B. Discriminator
C. Demodulator 94. What is the approximate intensity of the magnetic
D. Modem field at the earths surface?
A. 32,000 nT
86. What synchronization is provided so that the start and B. 62,000 nT
end of message is identified? C. 32,000 T
A. Carrier D. 62,000 T
B. Character
C. Bit 95. What is the intensity of the magnetic field at the
D. Clock earths north pole?
A. 32,000 nT
87. A form of regenerative repeater for transmitting B. 62,000 nT
signals over a long cable received through a relay in a C. 32,000 T
clearer form. D. 62,000 T
A. Active generator
B. Active repeater 96. What do you call a satellite weighing less than 1 kg?
C. Interpolator A. Nanosat
D. Audio generator B. Picosat
C. Femtosat
88. What is the minimum propagation delay of a D. Microsat
geostationary satellite?
A. 278 ms 97. The first creature in space was carried by which of
B. 239 ms the following spacecrafts in November 3, 1957?
C. 300 ms A. Sputnik 1
D. 600 ms B. Sputnik 3
C. Sputnik 2
89. In measuring crosstalk using dBx unit the reference D. Explorer 1
power is
A. 1 mW 98. The wireless evolution is achieved through the GSM
B. 1 W family of wireless technology platforms which
C. 1 pW include but except one of the following. Which one is
D. 6 mW NOT a member of the GSM family?
A. GSM
90. A spot on the suns visible surface where the B. EDGE
magnetic flux lines converge? C. GPRS
A. Sunspot D. CDMA
B. Filament
C. Solar spot 99. Which of the following is an enhancement of GSM
D. Prominence including the GPRS?
A. 1G
91. ______ is a slow moving large mass of plasma on the B. 2.5G
suns surface. C. 2G
A. Filament D. 3G
B. Solar flare
C. Prominence 100. A low power, short range wireless technology
D. Proton flare designed to provide a replacement for serial cables is
called ______.
 A. WAP A. Gain-to-Equivalent Noise Temperature Ratio
B. GPRS (G/Te)
C. Bluetooth B. Energy of Bit-to-Noise Density Ratio (Eb/No)
D. EDG C. Carrier-to-Noise Density Ratio (C/No)
D. Bit energy
1. What significant element of sound refers to its characteristic
tonal quality? 10. What noise is observable at frequencies in the range from
A. Pitch about 8 MHz to somewhat 1.5 GHz?
B. Tempo A. Industrial noise
C. Rhythm B. Atmospheric noise
D. Timbre C. Space noise
D. Shot noise
2. What is the velocity of sound in wood?
A. 5800 m/s 11. A special horn antenna consisting of a parabolic cylinder
B. 5000 m/s joined to a pyramidal horn.
C. 3300 m/s A. Hoghorn
D. 3700 m/s B. Cass-horn
C. Pyramidal horn
3. What is the typical loudness level of a watch ticking? D. Conical horn
A. 0 phon
B. 40 phons 12. How many telegraph channels are there in the basic voice
C. 20 phons band channels?
D. 60 phons A. 24
B. 96
4. The typical length of the rhombic antenna is ____. C. 48
A. 2 to 8 D. 672
B. 10 to 20
C. 1 to 3
D. 5 to 10 13. Which of the following is oldest multiplexing scheme?
A. Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM)
5. What is the carrier frequency of supergroup 10? B. Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)
A. 2724 kHz C. Code Division Multiplexing (CDM)
B. 2356 kHz D. Space Division Multiplexing (SDM)
C. 2108 kHz
D. 3100 kHz 14. What carrier system multiplexes 96 voice band channels
into a single 6.312 Mbps data signal?
A. T1 carrier system
6. In SPADE system, how many PCM-encoded voice band B. T2 carrier system
channels are there? C. T1C carrier system
A. 800 D. T3 carrier system
B. 600
C. 300 15. What is the metric subdivision of VHF band?
D. 240 A. Metric
B. Millimetric
7. The product of the radiated RF power of a transmitter and C. Decimetric
the gain of the antenna system in a given direction relative to D. Centimetric
an isotropic radiator is called ____.
A. Effective Radiated Power (ERP) 16. In satellite communications, what means of attitude
B. Effective Isotropic Radiated Power (EIRP) control is using the angular momentum of the spinning body
C. Radiated Power to provide the roll and yaw stabilization?
D. Transmit Power A. Spin stabilization
B. Radial stabilization
8. The product of antenna input power and the antenna power C. Three-axis stabilization
gain expressed in kW is called __. D. Station keeping
A. Effective Radiated Power (ERP)
B. Effective Isotropic Radiated Power (EIRP) 17. Which of the following is NOT a porous absorber?
C. Radiated Power A. Prefabricated tiles
D. Transmit Power B. Plasters and spray on materials
C. Acoustic blankets
9. What satellite system parameter represents the quality of a D. Membrane absorber
satellite or an earth station receiver?
18. What historical satellite broadcasted live the 1964 27. Who will appoint the chairman and 2 members of the
Olympic games from Tokyo, Japan for the first time? board of Electronics Engineering?
A. Syncom I A. The Senate President
B. Syncom III B. The President
C. Syncom II C. The Supreme Court
D. Syncom IV D. The Commission on Appointment

19. In transmission line, which of the following is the first step 28. How many nominees per position of the Electronics
in the procedure of using stub matching? Engineering Board are nominated by IECEP to PRC?
A. Calculate stub susceptance. A. 3
B. Calculate load admittance B. 5
C. Connect stub to load C. 4
D. Transform conductance to resistance D. 6

20. What type of balun (balanced-to-unbalanced) is used in 29. According to RA 9292, how many days after the board
high frequency applications? exam the results will be released?
A. Transformer type balun A. Within 5 days
B. A specially configured coaxial transmission line B. Within 15 days
C. A specially configured parallel-wire line C. Within 20 days
D. A /2 transformer balun D. Within 3 days

21. ____ is defined as any radiation of energy by means of 30. How many removal examination (s) will be given to an
electromagnetic wave. examinee who obtains a passing rating in the majority of the
A. Emission subjects but obtains a rating in the other subject (s) below
B. Radiation seventy percent (70%) but not lower than sixty percent (60%)?
C. Radio A. 1
D. Broadcasting B. 3
C. 2
22. In what year did Hertz discover radio waves? D. Unlimited
A. 1844
B. 1873 31. Which of the following determines the acoustic behavior
C. 1887 of gases?
D. 1895 A. Density
B. Pressure
23. Which of the following phenomena is possible is free C. Temperature
space medium? D. All of the choices
A. Reflection of radio wave
B. Diffraction of radio wave 32. In what medium sound travels the faster?
C. Refraction of radio wave A. Vacuum
D. Attenuation of radio wave B. Solid
C. Liquid
24. What is the reactance property at the input of a shorted D. Gas
quarter wavelength line?
A. A parallel LC circuit 33. For a loudness level between 110 and 120 dB, the
B. A pure inductive reactance maximum daily exposure limit is ____ minute (s).
C. A series LC circuit A. 1
D. A pure capacitive reactance B. 60
C. 20
25. An early satellite owned by US Department of Defense D. 45
that lasted only for 17 days
A. Courier 34. A porous material is far more efficient at high than low
B. Echo frequency absorption. How to improve sound absorption at
C. Score lower frequencies using this absorber?
D. Westar 1 A. Increase the thickness
B. Decrease the thickness
26. Which of the following is the consolidation of H. No. 5224 C. Mount with and airspace behind
and S. No. 2683? D. Both A and C above
A. RA 9292
B. RA 5734 35. Which of the following describes a TDM frame?
C. RA 7925 A. A 250-s frame
D. RA 6849 B. A 125-s frame
C. A 500-s frame
 D. A 60-s frame 44. A radio communications link is to be established via the
ionosphere. The maximum virtual height of the layer is 100
36. ____ system transmits frequency-division-multiplexed km at the midpoint of the path and the critical frequency is 2
voice band signals over a coaxial cable for distances up to MHz. The distance between stations is 600 km. determine the
4000 miles. optimum working frequency?
A. T carrier A. 6.32 MHz
B. X carrier B. 2.1 MHz
C. L carrier C. 5.4 MHz
D. F carrier D. 1.8 MHz

37. What is the spectrum range of U600 mastergroup? 45. Part of a microwave link can be approximated by free
A. 60 108 kHz space conditions. The antenna gain are each 40 dB, the
B. 564 3084 kHz frequency is 10 GHz, and the path length is 80 km. Calculate
C. 312 552 kHz the receive power for a transmitted power of 10 W?
D. 60 -2788 kHz A. 0.871 W
B. 871 W
38. Which frequency reuse method is less effective because of C. 0.871 mW
Faradays effect? D. 871 nW
A. Dual polarization
B. Reducing antenna beamwidth 46. What is the approximate critical frequency of the E layer?
C. Zonal rotation A. 4 MHz
D. Spin stabilization B. 5 MHz
C. 6 MHz
39. Three telephone circuits, each having an S/N ratio of 44 D. 3 MHz
dB, are connected in tandem. What is the overall S/N ratio?
A. 44 dB 47. What is the approximate single-hop nighttime range of F2
B. 39.2 dB layer?
C. 41 dB A. 3840 km
D. 43.52 dB B. 3000 km
C. 4130 km
40. What is the noise factor if the equivalent noise temperature D. 2350 km
is 25 K?
A. 1.09 48. What ionospheric layer has a daytime approximate critical
B. 0.09 frequency of 8 MHz?
C. 0.36 dBm A. F2 layer
D. 0.36 B. F1 layer
C. E layer
41. A ground station is operating to a geostationary satellite at D. D layer
a 5 angle of elevation. Calculate the round-trip time between
ground station and satellite. 49. Determine the additional absorption (sabines) contributed
A. 275 s by 10 persons in a room.
B. 275 ms A. 47
C. 137.5 s B. 4.7
D. 137.5 ms C. 0.47
D. 470
42. Calculate the reverberation time of a living room 8 ft high,
13 ft wide and 20 ft long. The total absorption of the building 50. A frequency of 3000 Hz has how many octaves above
structure inside the room is 180.7 sabines with four persons 1000 Hz?
present in the room. A. 1.6 octaves
A. 0.5 ms B. 2.1 octaves
B. 0.05 s C. 1 octave
C. 0.5 s D. 3 octaves
D. 5 ms
51. The loudness level increased from 40 to 56 phons. What is
43. What is the number of levels required in a PCM system the increase in loudness sensation?
with S/N ratio of 40 dB? A. 3 times
A. 64 B. 4.5 times
B. 128 C. 2 times
C. 256 D. 4 times
D. 512
52. In the North American TDM system, what is the
transmission rate in Mbps of T3 carrier system?
 A. 44.736
B. 6.312 61. If temperature change is 19C, what amount of change to
C. 3.152 sound velocity is possible?
D. 274.176 A. 11.53 ft/s
B. 11.53 m/s
53. What is the data rate in Mbps of a single satellite C. 19.304 ft/s
transponder considering an S/N of 30 dB? D. 19.304 m/s
A. 35.8
B. 3.58 62. In the above problem, what is the new velocity of sound
C. 358 assuming dry air medium?
D. 3580 A. 343 ft/s
B. 3430 m/s
54. What condition occur when the refractive index of the air C. 343 m/s
decreases with height much more rapidly the normal? D. 342 m/s
A. Refraction
B. Superrefraction 63. In acoustics, if the volume of the room is 200 m3 then at
C. Subrefraction what frequency the coefficient of absorption is measured?
D. Diffraction A. 120 kHz
B. 120 Hz
55. What do you call the increase of temperature with height? C. 100 Hz
A. Temperature inversion D. 150 Hz
B. Normal inversion
C. Ducting 64. What is the approximate bandwidth of an FM system with
D. Superrefraction 10 kHz of modulating frequency and a 150 kHz of frequency
deviation?
56. ____ is a term given to the region where superrefraction A. 300 kHz
occurs. B. 320 kHz
A. Strata C. 150 kHz
B. Duct D. 200 kHz
C. Isothermal region
D. Tropospheric region 65. Which of the following layers of the ionosphere has no
effect on sky wave propagation during daytime?
57. Which of the following wavelengths where absorption of A. D
electromagnetic waves becomes peak due to vibrational B. E
resonances in the water vapor molecule? C. F1
A. 1.35 cm and 1.7 mm D. F2
B. 1.5 mm and 5 mm
C. 1.35 dm and 1.7 cm 66. What phenomenon causes the radio-path horizon distance
D. 1.5 cm and 5mm to exceed the geometric horizon?
A. Diffraction
58. Oxygen molecule absorption peaks to electromagnetic B. Ducting
wave are at what wavelengths? C. Reflection
A. 1.35 cm and 1.7 mm D. Refraction
B. 5 mm and 2.5 mm
C. 5 cm and 2.5 cm 67. How to maximize the skip distance?
D. 1.35 mm and 1.7 m A. Using the smallest possible radiation angle and
highest possible frequency
59. What instrument normally measures the virtual height of B. Using the smallest possible radiation angle and
ionosphere? lowest possible frequency
A. Ionosonde C. Using the biggest possible radiation angle and
B. Altimeter highest possible frequency
C. Field meter D. Using the biggest possible radiation angle and
D. Radar lowest possible frequency

60. The angle of elevation of the antenna beam is 20. 68. For a space wave transmission, the radio horizon distance
Calculate the transmission-path distance for an ionospheric of a receiving antenna with a height of 64 meters is
transmission that utilizes a layer of virtual height 200 km. Use approximately
flat-earth approximation. A. 8 km
A. 966 km B. 32 km
B. 2100 km C. 64 km
C. 1100 km D. 256 km
D. 405 km
69. What bandwidth is needed to support a capacity of 128 C. elliptical
kbps when the signal power to noise power ratio in decibels is D. circular only
100?
A. 19224 Hz 78. How does spatial isolation technique in satellite
B. 3853 Hz communications avoid interference?
C. 19244 Hz A. Use of different polarity antennas
D. 3583 Hz B. Use of different types of antennas
C. Employment of highly directional spot-beam
70. Which of the following systems uses frequency band 870- antennas
885 MHz as a transmit band of its base station? D. Use of low gain antennas
A. TACS
B. NTT 79. An area on earth covered by a satellite radio beam is called
C. NMT ____.
D. AMPS A. SSP
B. Region
71. A transmitted signal 5 meters in wavelength is received by C. footprint
an antenna coil having a 50- resistance and a 0.01 H D. primary area
inductance. What is the capacitance of the tuner shunting the
antenna coil at this point? 80. The American concert pitch A is equivalent to which if the
A. 0.704 fF following frequencies?
B. 0.704 F A. 440 Hz
C. 0.704 nF B. 435 Hz
D. 0.704 mF C. 260 Hz
D. 255 Hz
72. Which of the following is the basic component of a
communications satellite receiver? 81. The international pitch A is equivalent to ___ Hz.
A. On-board computer A. 435
B. Reflector B. 440
C. Telemetry C. 260
D. Transponder D. 255

73. The reverberation time of a 184.2 cubic meters broadcast 82. The speed of the satellite increases as its height in orbit
studio is 0.84 sec. Find the absorption effect of the materials gets
used in metric sabines. A. lower
A. 35.3 B. higher
B. 10.96 C. closer to the moon
C. 379.8 D. closer to the sun
D. 109.6
83. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 50
74. What is the highest frequency that can be sent straight watts transmitter power output \, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB
upward and be returned to earth? duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain?
A. MUF A. 158 W
B. Gyro frequency B. 39.7 W
C. Skip frequency C. 251 W
D. Critical frequency D. 69.9 W

75. What is the most important specification of loudspeakers 84. A cellular standard known as the cdmaOne.
and microphones? A. IS-95
A. Frequency response B. IS-136
B. Power density C. IS-54
C. Field Strength D. IS-100
D. Gain
85. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 50
76. Atmospheric attenuation is an attenuation which is due to watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB
A. mist and fog duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain?
B. gasses in the atmosphere A. 300 W
C. water vapor and oxygen B. 315 W
D. rain C. 31.5 W
D. 69.9 W
77. Satellite orbits around the earth are ____ orbits.
A. circular 86. Which Ethernet system is restricted only to 100 m?
B. either elliptical or circular A. 10 Base T
 B. 20 Base 2 C. 60 W
C. 10 Base 5 D. 379 W
D. 10 Base 1
94. What do you call a short bit sequence sent typically 128
87. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 75 bits in digital signatures?
watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB A. Hash
duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain? B. Public key
A. 600 W C. Private key
B. 75 W D. Password
C. 18.75 W 95. What medium is used by IBM token ring network that
D. 150 W operates at either 4 Mbps or 16 Mbps?
A. Twisted pair
88. Which of the following regulates the ownership and B. Coaxial cable
operation of radio and television stations in the country? C. Fiber-optic
A. PD 576-A D. Parallel-wire line
B. PD 756
C. PD 657 96. What is known as the final stage in the evolution of the
D. PD 677 GSM standard?
A. WAP
89. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 75 B. GPRS
watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB C. EDGE
duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain? D. Bluetooth
A. 37.6 W
B. 237 W 97. According to KBP revised radio code which airtime below
C. 150 W is classified class D for AM stations?
D. 23.7 W A. 6:00 AM to 12:00 NN
B. 12:00 NN to 6:00 PM
90. In GSM cellular system, the speech coding rate is ____. C. 9:00 PM to 12 Midnight
A. 13 kbps D. 12:00 Midnight to 5:00 AM
B. 8 kbps
C. 15 kbps 98. Encryption of data is important to ensure its privacy. It is
D. 20 kbps most commonly achieved by using a ____.
A. public-key encryption
91. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 100 B. private-key encryption
watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB C. password-key encryption
duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain? D. character set encryption
A. 800 W
B. 126 W 99. The speech coding rate in D-AMPS is ____.
C. 12.5 W A. 8 kbps
D. 1260 W B. 13 kbps
C. 15 kbps
92. Which NTC memorandum circular governs the rules and D. 20 kbps
regulations about the manufacture, acquisition, sale and
service of radio communication equipment? 100. Which of the following principal musical intervals is
A. MC No. 2-05-88 considered dissonant?
B. MC No. 2-04-88 A. 7:8
C. MC No. 2-07-88 B. 1:2
D. MC No. 2-09-88 C. 5:8
D. 3:5
93. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 120 GOD BLESS!!!
watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB
duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain? Prepared by:
A. 601 W Engr. Denver G. Magtibay, ECT
B. 240 W