HYDERABAD INSTITUTE OF EXCELLENCE

EAMCET PRACTICE PAPERS

PAPER-1

1. Kinetic energy of electron in the hydrogen atom is +1.51 eV. Number of waves made by the electron
in that orbit is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
2. Ratio of number of Lyman spectral lines to Paschen spectral lines in an hydrogen atom, when
electron transition takes from 5th orbit to first orbit is
1) 4:3 2) 2:1 3) 1:2 4) 4:6
3. In which of the following reactions large amount of energy is released ?
    2
1) O g   1e  Og  2) O g   1e  Og2 3) S  1e  S 4) S  1e  S
4. IP1, IP2 , IP3 , IP4 and IP5 values of an element ‘M’ are 28.2 eV, 46.8 eV, 82.1 eV, 276 eV and 305 eV
respectively. Its sulphate formula is
1) MSO4 2) M 2  SO4 3 3) M 3  SO4 2 4) M 2 S2O4
5. Hybridisation of ‘Xe’ in XeO3 and XeO4 are respectively

1) sp3 , sp3 2) sp2 , sp2 3) sp2 , sp3 4) sp3 , sp 2

6. Number of unit cells present in 29.25 grams of NaCl is
1) N/4 2) N/2 3) N/8 4) 2N
7. When pressure of a gas is increased by three times; RMS velocity of the molecules
1) increases by 3 times 2) decreases by 3 times 3) increases by 9 times 4) remains same
8. Assertion(A) : The solubility of NaCl is more in ordinary water than in heavy water
Reason(R) : The dielectric constant of ordinary water is more than heavy water
1) A & R true, and R is not the correct explanation to A
2) A & R true, and R is the correct explanation to A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
0 H SO
9. CaC2  H 2O  X 
Fe/500 C
Y 
2 4
 Z . In the conversion of Y  Z the electrophile is
 
1) SO3 2) NO2 3) H 2 SO4 4) SO3

CH 3  N  CH 3

CH 3
10. CH3  CH2  CH2  NH2 ; CH3  CH2  NH  CH3 and are
1) Positional isomers 2) Chain isomers 3) Functional isomers 4) Both 1 & 3
11. Which of the following cannot give yellow precipitate when treated with iodine and alkali (hot) ?

1|Page
UDAY
 CH 3  C  CH 3
1) CH3  CH2  OH 2) CH3  CHO 3) HCHO 4)

12. Which of the following has more ionic strength ?

1) NaCl 2) KCl 3) RbCl 4) CsCl
Cu CN 
13. HC  CH  HCN 
2 2
 X ; Formula of ‘X’ and its use is
1) H2C  CH  CN ; soap industry 2) H2C  CH  CN ; polymer industry

CH 2  CH 2  CN

3) H2C  CH 2 ; insecticide 4) CN ; Laundry

CH 3  C  CH 2  CHO

NO2
14. IUPAC Name of the compound is
1) 2-Flouro-2-Nitro butanal 2) 3-Flouro-3-Nitro butanol
3) 3-Flouro-3-Nitro butanal 4) 2-Flouro-2-Nitro butanol
15. The volume of CO2 liberated at (STP) when 12 g of 80% lime stone is completely

decomposed is
1) 22.42 litres 2) 12.24 litres 3) 2.152 litres 4) 44.8 litres
16. Four samples of water A,B,C and D of water have BOD values 20,80,120 and 160 ppm
respectively. Which is more polluted ?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D
17. Orbital over lapping of Banana bond in diborane is
1) sp2  s  sp2 2) sp3  s  sp2 3) sp3  s  sp3 4) sp  p  sp

18. A mixture of Na2CO3  NaHCO3 solutions is titrated against standard HCl solution. The

results are given (a) Using methyl orange indicator, the titre value is ‘x’ c.c HCl for 100 ml
mixture
(b) Using phenolphthalein indicator, the titre value is ‘y’ c.c. of HCl for 100 ml mixture
The volume of HCl required for NaHCO3 in the mixture is

1)  2y  x  ml 2)  2x  y  ml 3)  x  2 y  ml 4)  x  y  ml

2|Page
UDAY
19. Match the following
List – I (Name of the silicate) List – II (Formula)
1) Thortveitite A) Be3 Al2 Si6O18

2) Willemite B) Zn2  SiO4 

3) Spodumene C) Ln2  Si2O7 

4) Beryl D) LiAl  SiO3 2

1) 1  A, 2  B,3  C, 4  D 2) 1  D, 2  A,3  B, 4  C
3) 1  C , 2  B,3  D, 4  A 4) 1  C , 2  B,3  A, 4  D

20. Number of lone pairs and bond pairs present on XeF4 molecule are respectively
1) 2 & 3 2) 2 & 4 3) 4 & 2 4) 2 & 2
21. Number of P-O-P bonds present in PO
4 6 & PO
4 10 are respectively

1) 4 & 4 2) 6 & 6 3) 4 & 6 4) 6 & 4

22. Products formed when Hypo solution reacts with chlorine are
1) Na2 SO3 , HCl, S 2) Na2 SO4 , HCl , S

3) Na2 S , HCl , S 4) Na2 SO4 , HCl, H2O

2 F2  2 NaOH  2 NaF  ' X ' 2 H 2O

23.
(Cold . Dilute)
Hybridisation & Bond angle of ‘X’ are respectively
1) sp3 ,1030 2) sp2 ,1030 3) sp,1030 4) dsp2 ,1030

24. Which of the following Alloys is used to reduce Nitrites (or) Nitrates to NH3 ?
1) Duralumin 2) Devarda’s alloy 3) German silver 4) Brass
dry Ag O C H COOAg
25. HCl
A 
AlCl  B 
Hot
2  C 
ConHI  D 
2 5  C2 H5COOC2 H5
3

Where A and D respectively

1) C2 H4 , C2 H5 I 2) C2 H5OH , C2 H5  O  C2 H5

3) C2 H5OH , CH3 3 COH 4)  CH3 3 COH ,  CH3 2 CHOH

26. 50 ml of 0.2 M – HCl solution is added 50 ml of 0.1 M – KOH solution. The p H of the

resultant solution is log5  0.6990

1) 1.6990 2) 1.3010 3) 7 4) 2.5990

3|Page
UDAY
27. If the solubility product of AgCl is 1.6 109 mole2 / litre2 , its solubility is

1) 1.6 109 mole / litre 2) 0.8 105 mole / litre 3) 4 105 mole / litre 4)

16 105 mole / litre

28. If 50% of a chemical reaction is completed in 30 minutes, the time taken to complete the
90% of the reaction is
1) 60 minutes 2) 50 minutes 3) 40 minutes 4) 100 minutes
29. When four moles of each N2 & H2 are taken in one litre vessel, at equilibrium 2 moles NH3

is formed  N2  3H 2 2 NH3  . Then Kc of the reaction is

1) 1.33litre2 / mol 2 2) 2.33litre2 / mol 2 3) 3.33 litre2 / mol 2 4) 4.33 litre2 / mol 2
30. The difference between heat of reaction at constant pressure and heat of reaction at
constant volume for the reaction N2 g   3H 2 g  2NH3 g  at 5270 C in kcal is

1) - 3.2 2) - 6.4 3) - 1.6 4) - 32

31. The time (in hours) required to decompose 18 grams of water electrically by passing 2 amp
current is
1) 26.8 2) 2.68 3) 0.268 4) 0.0268
32. Which of the following is emulsifier for water in benzene ?
1) soap 2) casein 3) kerosene 4) solid HgI 2

N 2Cl 
 CH3CH 2OH   N2  HCl  ' X '
33.
‘X’ is
1) CH3COCH3 2) C2 H6 3) CH3CHO 4) CH 2  CH2

NO2

2  x  H      Hydrazobenzene  4 H 2O  No.of  bonds in ( A ) 

Zn  alc KOH

( A)
34.

NO2

2  y  H  
Li Al H 4
 Azobenzene  4 H 2O  No.of  bonds ( B)
( B)

Ratio between x,y and A,B respectively are

4|Page
UDAY
 1)5:4 and 6:7 2) 4:5 and 7:6 3) 5:2 and 6:7 4) 2:5 and 7:6
35. The specific rotation for   D  glu cos e  1110 ,   D  glu cos e  190 . An
equilibrium mixture containing  and  - forms has specific rotation of 52.70 . The
percentage composition of the different anomers is
1)   form  60%   form  40% 2)   form  36%   form  64%
3)   form  30%   form  70% 4)   form  45.6%
  form  54.4%
36. Which of the following has anti-blood clotting action ?
1) Phenacetin 2) Ibuprofin 3) Aspirin 4) Paracetamol
37. Which of the following is correct statement regarding biodegradable polymers ?
1) All biodegradable polymers are polyesters 2) Poly lactic acid is a poly amide
3) Nylon – 2- Nylon – 6 is a polyester
4) Dextron was the first biodegradable polymer used

CH 3 COOH

KMnO , KOH H O
  Heat

4  x  3 

38.
CH 2  CH 2  CH 3 COOH

K M nO ,K O H H O
  H ea

4  
t  y  3  


x and y are respectively

COOK COOK CHO CHO

1) 2)
COOK CHO CHO COOH

3) 4)
39. Bauxite containing iron oxide as impurity is purified by
1) Hall-Herouit process 2) Serpeck’s process 3) Hoope’s process 4) Baeyer’s process

5|Page
UDAY
 40. Which of the following characteristics represents triclinic structure?
1) a  b  c ;      900 2) a  b  c ;      900
3) a  b  c ;      900 4) a  b  c ;      900

KEY :

1) 3 2) 2 3) 3 4) 2 5) 1 6) 3 7) 4 8) 1 9) 4 10) 3
11) 3 12) 1 13) 2 14) 3 15) 3 16) 4 17) 3 18) 3 19) 3 20) 2
21) 2 22) 2 23) 1 24) 2 25) 1 26) 2 27) 3 28) 4 29) 1 30) 1
31) 1 32) 4 33) 3 34) 1 35) 2 36) 3 37) 4 38) 1 39) 4 40) 1

PAPER-2

121. The molecular weight of O2 and SO2 are 32 and 64 respectively. At 150C and 150 mm Hg
pressure, one litre of O2 contains ‘N’ molecules. The number of molecules in two litres of
SO2 under the same conditions or temperature and pressure will be
1) N/2 2) N 3) 2N 4) 4N
122. Helium atom is two times heavier than a hydrogen molecule at 298K, the average kinetic
energy of helium is
1) two times that of a hydrogen molecule 2) same as that of a hydrogen molecule
3) four times that of a hydrogen molecule 4) half that of a hydrogen molecule
123. The edge length of face centred unit cubic cell is 508 pm. If the radius of the cation is 110
pm, the radius of the anion is
1) 144 pm 2) 288 pm 3) 618 pm 4) 398 pm
124. The orbital diagram in which Aufbau principle is violated is

2s
1) 2p 2) 2s 2p 3) 2s 2p 4) 2s 2p

125. Consider the following statements :

I. A sigma (  ) bond is formed when two s-orbitals overlap

6|Page
UDAY
 II. A pi (  ) bond is formed when two p-orbitals axially overlap
III. A  bond is weaker than  -bond
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
1) I and II 2) II and III 3) I alone 4) II alone
126. The boiling point of an azeotropic mixture of water and ethanol is less than that of water and
ethanol. The mixture shows
1) negative deviations from Raoult’s law 2) positive deviations from Raoult’s law
3) no deviation from Raoult’s law
4) deviations which cannot be predicted from the given information
127. If an endothermic reaction is non-spontaneous at freezing point of water and becomes
feasible at its boiling point, then
1) H is –ve, S is +ve 2) H and S both are +ve
3) H and S both are -ve 4) H is +ve, S is –ve

128. Which of the following will not change the concentration of ammonia in the equilibrium
N2(g)+3H2(g) 2NH3(g); H =-x kJ
1) Increase of pressure 2) Increase of temperature
3) Decrease of volume 4) Addition of catalyst
129. Which of the following is most soluble ?
1) Bi2S3 (Ksp = 1  10-67) 2) MnS (Ksp = 7  10-18)
3) CuS (Ksp = 8  10-37) 4) Ag2S (Ksp = 6  10-51)
130. In which of the following reactions, hydrogen is acting as an oxidizing agent ?
1) With iodine to give hydrogen iodide 2) With lithium to give lithium hydride
3) With nitrogen to give ammonia 4) With sulphur to give hydrogen sulphide
131. The standard potential for the cell Zn : Zn2+ (1M)||Cu2+ (1M) ; Cu in volts is
(E0 for Zn2+ /Zn = -0.76 ; E0 for Cu2+ /Cu = +0.34)
1) -0.76 + (-0.34) 2) -0.34 + 0.76 3) 0.34 – (-0.76) 4) -0.76 - (+0.34)
132. The minimum energy necessary to permit a reaction is
1) Internal energy 2) Threshold energy
3) Activination energy 4) Free energy
133. Deficiency of which of the following vitamine causes haemorrhage and lenthens time of blood
clolling
1) Vitamin - A 2) Vitamin - E 3) Vitamin - C 4) Vitamin - K

7|Page
UDAY
134. Which of the following is required in lowest concentration for coagulating a sol having
positively charged colloidal particle ?
1) KCl 2) K2SO4 3) K3[Fe(CN)6] 4) K4[Fe(CN)6]
135. The maximum valency of halogen group element with respect to oxygen is
1) 1 2) 5 3) 6 4) 7
136. Which of the following does not illustrate the anomalous properties of Li ?
1) The melting and boiling points of Li are comparatively high
2) Li forms a nitride Li3N unlike group of alkali metals
3) Li is much softer than the other alkali group metals
4) Li+ ion and its compounds are more heavily hydrated than those of the rest of the group
137. The decreasing order of the second ionization potential of K, Ca and Ba is
1) K > Ca > Ba 2) Ca > Ba > K 3) Ba > K > Ca 4) K > Ba > Ca
138. Which of the following is used in high temperature thermometry ?
1) Al 2) Ga 3) Tl 4) Hg
139. Identify the correct statement with respect to carbon monoxide ?
1) it combines with water to form carbonic acid 2) it reacts with haemoglobin in red blood cells
3) it is a powerful oxidizing agent 4) it is used to prepare aerated drinks

140. Which is not an acidic salt ?

1) NaH2PO3 2) NaH2PO2 3) Na3HP2O6 4) Na2H2P2O7
141. Hypo is used in photograph for
1) Developing picture 2) Picture printig
3) The colour of picture 4) The fixation of picture
142. Which of the following halogens has metallic character ?
1) F2 2) Cl2 3) Br2 4) I2
143. Molecular shapes of SF4, CF4 and XeF4 are
1) The same, with 2, 0 and 1 lone pairs of electrons respectively
2) The same, with 1, 1 and 1 lone pairs of electrons respectively
3) Different, with 0, 1 and 2 lone pairs of electrons respectively
4) Different, with 1, 0 and 2 lone pairs of electrons respectively
144. The absorption of hydrogen by platinum is known as
1) Hydrogenation 2) Reduction
3) Dehydrogenation 4) Occulusion
145. Froth floatation process may be used to increas the concentration of the mineral in

8|Page
UDAY
 1) Chalcopyrites 2) Bauxite 3) Haematite 4) Calamine
146. Assertion : The highest oxidation state of chromium in its compounds is +6.
Reason : The electronic configuration of chromium violates Hund’s rule
1) Both assertion and reason are correct, and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2) Assertion and reason are correct, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3) Assertion is correct, but reason is incorrect
4) Assertion is incorrect, but reason is correct
147. The coordination and oxidation number of ‘X’ in the compound respectively are [X(SO4)
(NH3)5] Cl will be
1) 10 and 3 2) 6 and 4 3) 2 and 6 4) 6 and 3
148. Which one among the following pairs of ions cannot be separated by H2S in dilute
hydrochloric acid ?
1) Bi3, Sn4+ 2) Al3+, Hg2+ 3) Zn2+, Cu2+ 4) Ni2+, Cu2+
149. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List – I List – II
A) Nylon 1) Polyester
B) Terylene 2) Polytetrafluoroethylene
C) Teflon 3) Synthetic rubber
D) Neoprene 4) Polyamide
1) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 2) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
3) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2 4) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
150. The passage of current liberates H2 at cathode and Cl2 at anode. The solution is
1) Copper chloride in water 2) NaCl in water
3) Ferric chloride in water 4) AuCl3 in water
151. A hydrocarbon has C = 85.72% and remaning H. The hydrocarbon is
1) C2H4 2) C2H6 3) C2H2 4) CH4
152. The total number of isomers for C4H8 is
1) 5 2) 6 3) 7 4) 8
153. Nucleophilicity order is correctly represented by
1) CH3  NH2  HO  F 2) CH3 NH2  HO F

3) CH3  NH2  HO  F 4) NH2  F  HO  CH3

154. Ethyne can be oxidised to oxalic acid by using
1) Chronic acid 2) Alkaline KMnO4

9|Page
UDAY
 3) Hypochlorous acid 4) All reagents
155. Which of the following substances does not give iodoform reaction ?
1) C6H5COCH3 2) CH3OH 3) CH3CH2OH 4) CH3CHO
156. Reaction between sodium ethoxide and bromoethane yields
1) Methyl ethyl ether 2) Dimethyl ether 3) Diethyl ether 4) Propane
NaOH
157. The reaction C2H5CHO + CH3CHO   C2H5CH=CHCHO + H2O is known as
1) Clemenson’s reaction 2) Simple Aldol condensation
3) Crossed Aldol condensation 4) Cannizzaro reaction
158. Which of the following compounds will react with NaHCO3 solution to give sodium salt and
carbon dioxide ?
1) Acetic acid 2) n-Hexanol 3) Acetic acid and phenol 4) Phenol
159. Aniline reacts with NaNO2 and HCl at ice temperature to give
1) Nitroaniline 2) Phenol
3) Chloroaniline 4) Diazonium chloride
160. Glucose cannot be classified as
1) A hexose 2) A carbohydrate 3) An oligosaccarude 4) An aldose

Answers
1) 3 2) 2 3) 1 4) 2 5) 3 6) 2 7) 2 8) 4 9) 2 10) 2
11) 3 12) 2 13) 4 14) 4 15) 4 16) 3 17) 1 18) 2 19) 2 20) 2
21) 1 22) 4 23) 4 24) 4 25) 1 26) 3 27) 4 28) 1 29) 4 30) 2
31) 1 32) 2 33) 3 34) 2 35) 2 36) 3 37) 2 38) 1 39) 4 40) 3

PAPER-3

46. Which of the following combinations are correct

I) Debroglie's theory - dual nature of matter
II) Bohr's theory - dual nature of electron
III) Schrodinger equation - dual nature of electron
IV) Plank's equation - dual nature of light
a) All b) I, III, IV only c) I, II, III only d) II, IV only
47. In which of the following conversion there is no change in hybridisation of central atom

10 | P a g e
UDAY
 a) NH 3  NH 4 b) BF3  BF4 c) PCl5  PCl6 d) SiF4  SiF62
48. Which of the following has highest ionisation potential
a) He b) Li+ c) Na+ d) Be+2
49. Dalton's law is not applicable to a mixture of
a) N2  O2 b) He  Ne c) H 2  O2 d) NH3  HCl
50. 1mole ammonia contain
a) 6.023 1023 atoms b) 10 moles of electrons
c) three atoms of hydrogen d) 1 mole of nitrogen
51. Which of the following is used to remove both temporary and permanant hardness of water
a) Soap b) Washing soda c) Slaked lime d) Both a and b
52. Which of the following salt dissolves in excess NaOH
a) AlCl3 b) FeSO4 c) FeCl3 d) AgNO3
53. Which of the following is partially ionic
a) BeH 2 b) MgH2 c) CaH2 d) SrH2
54. Which of the following is not true about potash alum
a) It is used as styptic b) It is used as mordant
c) It undergoes anionic hydrolysis d) It is a double salt
55. Which of the following has highest calorofic value
a) Water gas b) Producer gas c) Coal gas d) Carburetted water gas
56. Wrong statement about XeO3 is
a) It is hygroscopic b) It contains a lone pair on central atom
c) 'Xe' is in second excited state d) It contains three d  p bonds
57. DO values of four water samples A, B, C, D are 1ppm, 4ppm, 2ppm and 0.5ppm respectively.
The best sample is
a) B b) D c) C d) A
58. Which of the following is not a IUPAC name
I) Ethylene chloride II) Acetylene tetra chloride
III) Hexachloro benzene IV) Methyl formate
a) All b) II, III, IV only c) I, II, IV only d) I, II only
59. Which of the following molecule cannot show structural isomerism
a) Acetic acid b) Acetaldehyde c) Ethylalcohol d) Ethylene
60. Stationary phase in paper chromatography is
a) Solid only b) Solid (or) liquid c) Liquid only d) Liquid (or) gas
61. Which of the following is not a pair of diastereomers

11 | P a g e
UDAY
 a) Maleic acid and fumaric acid b)  -glucose and  -glucose
c) (+) - tartaric acid and mesotartaric acid d) D (-)-fructose and L(+)-fructose

62. C2 H4 
Cl2
CCl4
 A 
alc. KOH
 B 
NaNH2
Mineral oil
C 
KMnO4 / OH
 D . Incorrect statement is

a) A is a vicinal dihalide b) B is allyl halide

c) C has two acidic hydrogens d) D is a dicarboxylic acid
63. Be2C 
H 2O
 A 
3 moles Cl2
h
 B 
(CH3 )2 CO
 C . C is

a) 30 alcohol b) a ketone c) a trichloro ketone d) a 20 alcohol

NaNO2  HCl
64. C6 H5OH 
Zn
 A Conc. HNO3
Conc. H SO , below 600 C
 B 
Sn / HCl
 C 273 K
  D . Wrong match is
2 4

a) A-Aromatic hydrocarbon b) B-oil of mirbane

c) C-weak base in aqueous solution d) D-Stable at high temperature
65. C2 H 5OH 
onemole
Cl2
A 
PCl5
 B 
aq KOH
C 
Li AlH 4
D . Regarding 'D' incorrect statement is

a) It is an alkane b) It is used as a fuel

c) It is highly soluble in water d) It reacts with RMgX to give an alkane
66. Most acidic of the following is
a) HCOOH b) CH3COOH c) CF3COOH d) C6 H5OH

67. The halogen atom not present in halothane is

a) Fluorine b) Iodine c) Chlorine d) Bromine
68. Which of the following does not contain a primary amine group
a) Glycine b) Tryptophan c) Proline d) Asparatic acid
69. Which of following is a homopolymer
a) Nylon 6, 6 b) PET c) Nylon-2-Nylon-6 d) Nylon-6
70. Which of the following is an anti depressant drug
a) Valium b) Morphine c) Iproniazid d) Aspirin
71. Assertion (A) : Glucose contains an aldehyde group
Reason (R) : Glucose reacts with mild oxidising agent to produce a mono carboxylic acid
containing six carbon atoms
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true but (R) is false d) (A) is false but (R) is true
72. False statement about a catalyst is
a) It can initiate a process b) It is required in small quantities
c) It may undergo a physical change d) It is selective in its action

12 | P a g e
UDAY
73. Which of the following has highest vapour pressure
a) 0.1M K4[Fe(CN )6 ] b) 0.1M urea c) 0.1M Na2 SO4 d) 0.2M NaCl

74. Density of a solution is 1g/cc. Most concentrated solution is

a) 1N b) 1m c) 1M d)all are equally concentrated
75. HBr  H 2O H 3O  Br  , reaction proceeds in
a) Foward direction b) Backward direction c) Cannot be predicted
d) Both forward and backward reactions are equally favoured
76. 100ml of 0.1M H2 SO4 is mixed with 100ml 0.1M NaOH solution and the solution is diluted to

one litre. pH of the resulting solution is

a) 12 b) 7 c) 2 d) 8
77. For the process the NH 4 HS( s ) NH3( g )  H 2 S( g ) . Partial pressure of ammonia at equilibrium

is 20atm. Total pressure at equilibrium is........atm

a) 40 b) 400 c) 20 d) 80
78. The reaction A( g )  B( g )  C( g ) proceeds by first order kinetics. The initial pressure of A is

100mm. After 10 minutes the total pressure is 150mm. Rate constant of the reaction
is.......min–1
a) 10 b) 0.2303 c) 0.0693 d) 0.693
79. 0
EZn 2
/ Zn
 0.76V ; EFe
0
2
/ Fe
 0.44V ; EMF of the cell Fe(s) / Fe2 (1M ) / / Zn2 (1M ) / Zn(s) is

a) -0.32V b) +0.32V c) -1.2V d) +1.2V

80. Bond angle is less than 1090 28 for

I) O3 II) OF2 III) SCl2 IV) NH3

a) All b) I, II, IV only c) II, III, IV only d) II, IV only
81. Which of the following is non-spontaneous at all temperatures
a) solubility of iodine in water b) formation of ozone from oxygen
c) oxidation of Cl  by Br2 d) All of these

82. Enthalpy of combustion for graphite, hydrogen and ethylene are -394, -286 and -1410
kJ/mole respectivel. Enthalpy of formation of ethylene is.............kJ/mole
a) +50 b) -50 c) -2770 d) +2770
83. Which of the following acid forms two types of salts
a) H3 PO4 b) H3 PO3 c) H 4 P2O7 d) both b and c

13 | P a g e
UDAY
84. MgCl2 .2H 2O 
X
 MgCl2 . X is

a) 3500 C b) dry HCl, 3500 C c) Cl2 / h d) 8900 C

85. The element exhibiting highest oxidation state belongs to ........ group
a) 7th b) 8th c) 9th d) 10th
86. [Co( NH3 )5 Br]SO4 and [Co( NH3 )5 SO4 ]Br are .......... isomers
a) Hydrate b) Ligand c) Ionisation d) Coordination
87. 3 pz orbital is represented as
a)  (3,1,1) b)  (3,1, 0) c)  (3,1, 1) d)  (3, 0,1)
88. Which of the following has largest atomic radius
a) La b) Lu c) Ce d) Eu
89. Electron affinity and ionisation potential of an element are x ev/atom and y ev/atom
respectively. Electronegativity of the element is
x y x y x y
a) x + y b) c) d)
5.6 544 129
90. What weight of 50% pure limestone can liberate 2.24l of carbondioxide at STP
a) 5g b) 20g c) 2.5g d) 10g
***

CHEMISTRY

46) b 47) a 48) d 49) d 50) b 51) d 52) a 53) b 54) c 55) c
56) c 57) a 58) c 59) d 60) c 61) d 62) b 63) a 64) d 65) a
66) c 67) b 68) c 69) d 70) c 71) a 72) a 73) b 74) c 75) a
76) c 77) a 78) c 79) a 80) c 81) d 82) a 83) d 84) b 85) b
86) c 87) b 88) d 89) b 90) b

PAPER-4

121. M 2SO4 (M is a monovalent metal ion) has a K sp of 3.2  105 at 25°C. The maximum
+

concentration of SO42  ions possible in a saturated solution of this solid is

14 | P a g e
UDAY
 1) 4  104 M 2) 5  106 M 3) 2  102 M 4) 8  103 M
122. M (OH ) x has a K sp of 4  109 and its solubility is 103 M. The value of x is
1) 4 2) 1 3) 3 4) 2
123. When equal volumes of the following solutions are mixed, the precipitation of AgCl( K sp =

1.8  1010 ) will occur with

1) 104 M ( Ag  ) and 104 M (Cl  ) 2) 105 M ( Ag  ) and 105 M (Cl  )

3) 105 M ( Ag  ) and 106 M (Cl  ) 4) 1010 M ( Ag  ) and 1010 M (Cl  )

124. Why does only As 3 get precipitated as As2S3 and not Zn 2  as ZnS when H2S is passed

through an acidic solution containing As 3 and Zn 2  ?

1) The solubility product of As2S3 is less than that of ZnS

2) Enough As 3 ions are present in an acidic medium

3) A zinc salt does not ionize in an acidic medium
4) The solubility product changes in the presence of an acid
125. 50mL of a solution containing 103 mol of Ag  is mixed with 50mL of a 0.1M HCl solution.
How many moles of Ag  remains in solution ( K sp of AgCl = 1.0  1010 ) ?

1) 2.5  109 2) 2.5  107 3) 2.5  108 4) 2.5  1010

126. When CH3COONa is added to CH3COOH the pH of CH3COOH .

1) increases 2) decreases 3) remains same 4) becomes zero

127. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

1) Specific conductance of an electrolytic solution decreases with dilution
2) Conductance of an electrolytic solution increases with dilution
3) Equivalent conductance of an electrolytic solution increases with dilution
4) Conductance of an electrolytic solution decreases with dilution
128. The conductance of a solution of an electrolyte is equal to that of its specific conductance.
The cell constant of the conductivity cell is equal to
1) resistance 2) faraday 3) zero 4) unity
2
129. The equivalent conductance of an acetic acid solution of concentration 0.01M is 1.65m S m
mol 1 at 298 K. The dissociation constant of acetic acid at this temperature is (given,
0  39.0m S m2 mol 1 )
1) 1.8  104 2) 4.0  1010 3) 1.8  105 4) 1.8  106

130. The increase in equivalent conductance of a weak electrolyte with dilution is due to
1) increase in degree of dissociation and decrease in ionic mobility
2) decrease in degree of dissociation and decrease in ionic mobility

15 | P a g e
UDAY
 3) increase in degree of dissociation and increase in ionic mobility
4) decrease in degree of dissociation and increase in ionic mobility
1/2
131. The variation of equivalent conductance of strong electrolyte with (concentration) is
represented by

 

1) c 2) c

 

3) c 4) c
132. Which pair will show common ion effect ?
1) BaCl2  Ba( NO3 )2 2) NaCl  HCl
3) NH4OH  NH4Cl 4) NaCN  KCN

133. Which of the following has the lowest value of Ksp at 25°C ?
1) Mg (OH )2 2) Ca (OH )2 3) Ba (OH )2 4) Be (OH )2

134. Sodium metal in liquid ammonia is

1) an ionic conductor 2) an electronic conductor
3) a mixed conductor 4) non-conductor

135. Assertion(A): The conductivity of 0.1M solutions of different electrolytes is same.

Reason (R): The conductivity depends on the size of the ions.
1) Both A and R are true and R explains A 2) Both A and R are true but R doesn’t explain A
3) Both A and R are false 4) A is false but R is true

136. Specific conductivity of a solution

1) increases with dilution 2) decreases with dilution
3) remains unchanged with dilution 4) First increases then decreses

137. The resistance of 1N solution of acetic acid is 250 ohm when measured in a cell of cell
constant 1.15 cm1 . The equivalent conductance (in ohm cm equi ) of 1N acetic acid is
-1 2 -1

1) 4.6 2) 9.2 3) 18.4 4) 0.023

16 | P a g e
UDAY
138. The equivalent conductivity of 0.1M weak acid is 100 times less than that at infinite dilution.
The degree of dissociation is
1) 100 2) 10 3) 0.01 4) 0.001

139. Highest conductance is expected for the ion in aqueous state.

1) Li  2) Na  3) Rb  4) Cs 

-1
140. For an electrolytic solution of 0.05 mole litre , the conductivity has been found to be
-1 -1
0.0110  cm . The molar conductivity (in Scm mole ) is
2

1) 0.055 2) 550 3) 0.22 4) 220

141. The common name of 2-methyl – 1 -propanol

1) 2-methyl1-2-propanol 2) Sec.butyl alcohol
3) Isobutyl alcohol 4) Tertiary butyl alcohol

142. When equal weights of methyl alcohol and ethyl alcohol react with excess of sodium metal the
volume of H 2 liberated is more in the case of
1) C2 H5 OH 2) CH3 OH 3) Equal in both 4) H 2 is not liberated

143. In the conversion of starch to ethyl alcohol, the following enzymes are used
1) Invertase, Zymase, Emulsin 2) Maltase, Zymase, Emulsin
3) Diastase, Maltase, Zymase 4) Invertase, Diastase, Zymase

144. Assertion (A) : CaCl2 can’t be used for drying ethyl alcohol
Reason (R) : Ethyl alcohol forms addition compound with CaCl2
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false 4) (A) is false but (R) is true

145. Phenol is prepared commercially form

1) Ethylbenzene 2) Isopropylbenzene 3) n-propylbenzene 4) Toluene

146. The acidic character of phenol is due to

1) Greater resonance stabilization of phenoxide ion over phenol
2) Greater resonance stabilization of phenol over phenoxide ion
3) Because of tautomerism occurring in phenol
4) Because oxygen is more electronegative of phenol, ethyl alcohol and water is

147. Which of the following compound gives ethylmethyl ketone on oxidation

1) Propan – 2-ol 2) Butan-1-ol 3) Butan-2-ol 4)2-Methyl butan-2-ol

17 | P a g e
UDAY
 Cl 3Cl
148. CH3CH 2OH  2  CH3CHO  2  Cl CCHO
3
step 1 step  2
In the above reaction the role of Cl2 in step – 1 & step – 2 respectively is :
1) Oxidation, chlorination 2) Reduction, Chlorination
3) Oxidation, addition 4) Reduction, substitution
149. Rate of electrophilic substitution reaction in phenol is
1) Equal to that to benzene 2) Faster than that of benzene
3) Slower than that of benzene 4) Very slower than that Nitrobenzene

150. 2 – Methyl phenol is

1) m - cresol 2) o - cresol 3) m - xylene 4) o - xylene

151. Phenol on heating with aq. KOH and chloroform undergoes

1) Kolbe reaction 2) Rosenmund reaction
3) Reimer Tiemann reaction 4)Cannizzaro reaction

152. Which of the following has the least value of pKa ?

OH OH

OH
OH NO2

1) 2) CH 3 3) 4) NO2

153. When ethyl hydrogen sulphate is heated with excess of alcohol at 410 K, the product obtained
is
1) Ethane 2) Ethylene 3) Diethyl ether 4) Diethyl sulphate

154. The alcohol which is least soluble in water is

OH OH
1) 2)

OH
OH
3) 4)

155. How many isomeric alcohols having molecular formula C5H11OH would give positive
iodoform test ?

18 | P a g e
UDAY
 1) 2 2) 1 3) 3 4) 4

156. Which of these alcohols can be prepared by reaction of Grignard reagent with a ketone,
followed by hydrolysis ?
1) 2-Methyl-1-butanol 2) 2-Methyl-2-butanol
3) 3-Methyl-2-butanol 4) 3-Methyl-1-butanol

157.

COOH CH COCl

3  A ' A ' is
NaOH
OH

COCH3 COOH

1)
OCOCH3 2)
OCOCH 3

COOCOCH3 COCH3

OH OH
3) 4)

158. Assertion (A) : Phenol decomposes NaHCO3 solution to evolve CO2 gas
Reason (R) : Picric acid is 2, 4, 6 - trinitrophenol
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false 4) (A) is false but (R) is true

159. Which of the following alcohol gives blue colour in victor mayer test ?
1) n – propyl alcohol 2) Isopropyl alcohol
3) Isobutyl alcohol 4)Tertiary butyl alcohol

160. The electrophile in Reimer Tiemann reaction is

1) AlCl3 2) BF3 3) CS2 4) CCl2

1) 3 2) 4 3) 1 4) 1 5) 3 6) 1 7) 4 8) 4 9) 3 10) 3

11) 1 12) 3 13) 4 14) 3 15) 4 16) 2 17) 1 18) 3 19) 4 20) 4

21) 3 22) 2 23) 3 24) 1 25) 2 26) 1 27) 3 28) 1 29) 2 30) 2

19 | P a g e
UDAY
31) 3 32) 4 33) 3 34) 4 35) 1 36) 2 37) 2 38) 4 39) 2 40) 4

PAPER-5

CHEMISTRY
121) The following are some statements about electrolytic cell
A) in this, chemical energy converted into electrical energy
B) in this cell, electrons flow from cathode to anode
C) in this, cell reduction takes place at cathode
D) in this, cathode is a +ve electrode
The correct combination is
1) only B 2) only C 3) only C,D 4) only B,C
122) In electrolysis of dilute H2 SO4 , what is liberated at anode in presence of inert electrode ?

1) H2 2) SO2 3) SO3 4) O2

123) Products of electrolysis of aq NaCl using inert Pt electrodes

1) Cl2 at anode, H 2 at cathode 2) Cl2 , NaOH at anode H 2 at cathode

3) H2 , NaOH at anode, Cl2 at cathode 4) None of the above

124) When aqueous CuSO4 is electrolysed using inert Pt electrodes, the following changes

occur
1) Colour disappears 2) pH decreases
3) Conc of CuSO4 solution decreases 4) All

125) The following ion/s is/are not discharged either at cathode or at anode, during electrolysis
in aqueous solution (By using ‘pt’ electrodes)
1) SO42 2) NO3 3) K  4) All

126) At given temperature, the conductivities at infinite dilution of NH4Cl , NaOH and NaCl

are 128, 217.8 and 109.9 ohm1 cm2eq 1. If the equivalent conductance of 0.01N solution of

NH4OH is 9.3 ohm1cm2eq 1, then the degree of ionization of NH4OH at given
temperature is
1) 0.039 2) 0.1 3) 0.39 4) 0.62

20 | P a g e
UDAY
 127) The correct relationship between electrochemical equivalent (e) and chemical equivalent
(E) of a substance liberated at the electrode is
1) e  E  96500 2) e  96500  E 3) e  E  96500 4) e  E  96500
128) Molten CuCl2 is electrolysed using platinum electrode. The reaction occurring at anode is

1) 2Cl   Cl2 g   2e 2) Cl2 g   2e  2Cl 

3) Cu 2  2e  Cu s  4) Cu s   Cu 2  2e

129) Which of the following reaction is possible at anode ?

1) 2Cr 3  7 H 2O  Cr2O72  14H  2) F2  2 F 

1
3) O2  2 H   H 2O 4) Cu 2  2e  Cu
2
130) After the electrolysis of aqueous solution of NaCl using Pt electrodes, the p H of the
solution
1) increases 2) decreases 3) remains constant 4) becomes zero
131) During the electrolysis of aqueous solution of the following, molarity of the solution
increases without changing the chemical composition
1) NaCl 2) HCl 3) CuSO4 4) H2 SO4

132) What is the electrochemical equivalent (in g.coulomb1 ) of silver ? (at wt.Ag = 108, Faraday)
1) 108 F 2) 108 / F 3) F / 108 4) 1/108 F
133) (A) : Hydrogen gas always evolved only at cathode during electrolysis
(R) : H  ions undergo reduction by gaining electrons at cathode
The correct answer is
1) Both A and R are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true and R is false 4) A is false and R is true

134) One faraday of electricity is passed separately through one litre of one molar aqueous
solutions of
I) AgNO3 II) SnCl4 III) CuSO4 . The number of moles of Ag, Sn and

Cu deposited at cathode are respectively

1) 1,0.25, 0.5 2) 1,0.5, 0.25 3) 0.5, 1, 0.25 4) 0.25, 0.5, 1

21 | P a g e
UDAY
 135) The electrolysis of an aqueous solution of KNO3 between platinum electrode gives

1) K at the cathode NO2 at the anode 2) H2 at cathode and O2 at anode

3) H2 at cathode and NO2 at anode 4) K at cathode and O2 at anode

136)
A B C
1M CuSO4 1M CuSO4 1M KCl

Pt electrodes Cu electrodes Pt electrodes

If volume of aq. Electrolytic solution is maintained constant in all the cells, P H changes
in A, B and C during electrolysis is (in the same order) :
1) increases in all the three 2) decreases in all three
3) increases, constant, decreases 4) decreases, constant, increases
137) At given temperature, the conductivities at infinite dilution of NH4Cl , NaOH and NaCl

are 128, 217.8 and 109.9 Ohm1cm2eq 1. Calculate equivalent of NH4OH at same

temperature in Ohm1cm2eq1
1) 235.9 2) 20.1 3) 199.8 4) 23.59
138) According to 2nd law of Faraday’s electrolysis the correct one is
wt.of H 2 liberated eq.wt.of H 2 mAg EAg
i)  ii) 
wt.of Cl2 liberated eq.wt.of Cl2 mcu ECu

mAg ECu mH 2 EH 2
iii)  iv) 
mCu EAg mCu ECu

The correct combination is

1) only ii,iv 2) only i 3) only i,ii,iv 4) only ii,iii


139) The value of  
m for KCl and KNO3 are 149.86 and 154.96  cm mol . Also cl is
1 2 1


71.440 hm1 Cm2 mol 1. The value of NO3
is

1) 76.54 ohm1cm2 mol 1 2) 133.08 ohm1cm2 mol 1

3) 37.7 ohm1cm2 mol 1 4) unpredictable

22 | P a g e
UDAY
 140) Copper can be deposited from acidified copper sulphate and alkaline cuprous cyanide. If
the same current is passed for a definite time :
1) The amount of copper deposited from acidic copper sulphate will be higher
2) The amount of copper deposited from alkaline cuprous cyanide will be higher
3) The same amount of copper will be deposited 4) None of the above
141) Which of the following having least pka value
OH OH
No2
No2 No2
OH OH
No2
No2 No2
1) 2) 3) 4)
142) The acidic character of phenol is due to
1) Greater resonance stabilization of phenoxide ion over phenol
2) Greater resonance stabilization of phenol over phenoxide ion
3) Because of tautomerism occurring in phenol
4) Because oxygen is more electronegative than hydrogen
143) Phenol on heating with KOH and chloroform undergoes
1) Kolbe reaction 2) Resenmund reaction
3) Reimer Tiemann reaction 4) Cannizzaro reaction
144) Assertion (A): Phenols are more acidic than alcohols
Reason (R): Phenoxide is more stable than alkoxide due to resonance
1) Both A and R are true and R explains A
2) Both A and R are true and R doesn’t explain A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
145) When phenol is treated with excess bromine water, it gives
1) m – Bromophenol 2) o – and p – Bromophenols
3) 2, 4 – dibromophenol 4) 2, 4, 6 – Tribromophenol
146) The IUPAC name of methyl isopropyl ketone is
1) 3 – methyl – 2 – penxtanone 2) 3 – methyl butan -2 one
3) 2 – pentanone 4) 2 – methyl pentetanone
147) Which carboxylic acid/s gives acetaldehyde on strong heating in presence of catalyst
1) Only formic acid 2) Only acetic acid
3) Mixture of formic acid and acetic acid 4) Calcium acetate

23 | P a g e
UDAY
 148) Alkenes can be converted into aldehydes and ketones by an acidified aqueous solution of
Pd Cl2 and Cu Cl2 This process is known as
1) Wacker’s process 2) Williamson’s synthesis
3) Pyrolysis 4) Clemmenson’s reduction
149) 2,2 – Dichloro propane treated with aq KOH gives an unstable product. It is
1) CH 3CO CH 3 2) CH3CH  OH  CH3

3) CH3C  OH 2 CH3 4) CH3CH  OH  CH 2CHO

150) Ketones cannot be prepared by

1) Rosenmund’s reaction 2) The hydrolysis of terminal gem dihalides
3) The oxidation of primary alcohols 4) All of these
151) The number metameric ethers possible with the formula C4 H10O

1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 5
152) In Williamson’s synthesis, ethoxyethane is prepared by
1) Passing ethanol over heated alumina
2) heating sodium ehoxide with ethyl bromide
3) Treating ethyl alcohol with excess of H2 SO4 at 430 – 440 K

4) heating ethanol with dry Ag2O

153) The products obtained when CH3  O  C2 H5 reacts with cold and dil HI

1) CH3  I  C2 H5OH 2) CH3OH  C2 H5 I

3) 50%CH3 I  50%C2 H5OH 4) 2C2 H5OH

154) C2 H5OC2 H5  Cl2 

dark
 X , X is
1) Trichloro diethyl ether 2) Dichloro diethyl ether
3) Trichloro acetaldehyde 4) All the three

155) In the reaction C2 H5OC2 H5  CO  BF3

1500 C 500 atm
 X , What is X?

1) Diethyl carbonate 2) Ethyl carbonate

3) Diethyl peroxide 4) Ethyl propionate
156) In which of the following reactions ethyl chloride is not formed ?

1) C2 H5OC2 H5  PCl5   2) C2 H5OC2 H5  CH3COCl  
AlCl3

h
3) C2 H5OC2 H5  Cl2   4) C2 H5OH  PCl3 

24 | P a g e
UDAY
 C2 H 5  O  CH  CH 3

CH 3
157) The IUPAC name of is
1) Ethoxy propane 2) 1, 1 –dimethyl ether 3) 2 – ethoxy isopropane 4) 2 – ethoxy propane
158) The organic compound which gives peroxy compound on exposure to atmospheric air in
the presence of sun light is
1) C2 H5OC2 H5 2) CHCl3 3) CH 3CH 2OH 4) CH3CHO

159) The products found when diethyl ether is reacted with cold HI are
1) C2 H5 I  C2 H5OH 2) 2C2 H5 I  H2O

3) 2C2 H5OH 4) C2 H5O  O  C2 H5  H2O

160) Diethyl ether is formed when ethyl alcohol is heated with

1) Conc. H2 SO4 at 1700 C 2) Conc. H2 SO4 at 1400 C

3) Al2O3 at 3600 C 4) AlCl3 at 1400 C

1) 2 2) 4 3) 1 4) 4 5) 4 6) 1 7) 2 8) 1 9) 1 10) 1
11) 4 12) 2 13) 4 14) 1 15) 2 16) 4 17) 1 18) 3 19) 1 20) 2
21) 4 22) 1 23) 3 24) 1 25) 4 26) 2 27) 3 28) 1 29) 3 30) 4
31) 2 32) 2 33) 1 34) 2 35) 4 36) 3 37) 4 38) 1 39) 1 40) 2

PAPER-6

CHEMISTRY
121. The reaction taking place at anode in H 2  O2 fuel cell is

1) O2 ( g )  2H2O( )  4e  4OH (aq) 2) H 2 ( g )  2OH (aq)  2H 2O(l )  2e

3) O2 ( g )  2H2O(l )  4OH (aq)  4e 4) 2H2 ( g )  O2 ( g )  2H2O(l )

122. At 250C, the reduction potential of hydrogen electrode is – 0.236 V . The pH of the acid
solution used for the construction of the electrode is
1) 2 2) 4 3) 3 4) 1
123. Zinc is used to protect corrosion of iron because

25 | P a g e
UDAY
 1) E red. of Zn < E red. of iron 2) E red. of Zn > E red. of iron
3) E red. of Zn = E red. of iron 4) Zn is cheaper than iron
124. The standard reduction potential values of three metallic cations X, Y and Z are 0.52, - 3.03
and
– 1.18 V respectively. The order of reducing power of the corresponding metals is
1) Y > Z > X 2) X > Y > Z 3) Z > Y > X 4) Z > X > Y

125. From the following E0 values of half cells

i) A + e–  A– ; E0 = – 2.24 V

ii) B– + e–  B2– ; E0 = + 0.25 V

iii) C– + 2e–  C3– ; E0 = – 1.25 V

iv) D + 2e–  D2– ; E0 = + 1.68 V

What combination of two half cells would result in a cell with a largest potential
1) ii and iii 2) ii and iv 3) i and iii 4) i and iv
126. The EMF of the cell for the cell reaction Zn | ZnCl2 || NiSO4 | Ni approximately is
(0.2 M ) (0.02 M )

E 0 Zn2 | Zn  0.76V , E 0 Ni 2 | Ni  0.24V

1) 1.03 V 2) – 1.03 V 3) 0.49 V 4) - 0.49 V
127. Assertion (A): When iron rod is immersed in NaCl solution such that half of its length is
corroded and other half part when exposed to air is not corroded.
Reason (R): Metal portion with more access of O2 corrodes
1) Both A and R are true and R explains A 2) Both A and R are true but R does not explains A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
128. During the discharging of lead storage battery the reaction occurring at the anode is
represented by
2 2
1) Pb Pb 2e 2) Pb 2e Pb
2
3) PbSO4 Pb SO4 2 4) PbSO4 PbO2 4H SO4 2 2e
129. The EMF of the galvanic cell, Mg  Cu2  Mg 2  Cu is,
Given E 0Mg 2
|Mg
 2.37 V ; E 0Cu2|Cu   0.34 V

1) 2.03 V 2) -1.3 6 V 3) 2.71 V 4) -2.71 V

130. At what concentration of ZnSO4 the reduction potential of zinc electrode is – 0.82 V (SRP of
Zinc electrode is -0.76V)
1) 0.01 M 2) 0.1 M 3) 0.02 M 4) 0.2 M

26 | P a g e
UDAY
131. The SRP value of chlorine electrode is + 1.36 V, Then the single electrode potential of Pt, Cl2

(1 atm) | Cl– (0.01 M) is

1) –1.36 V 2) + 1.36 V 3) +1.48 V 4) –1.42 V
132. Blue colour is obtained when a wire of copper is immersed in aqueous solution of silver
nitrate. It is due to the formation

1) Ag 2) Cu+ ion 3) Ag+ion 4) Cu+2 ion

133. Consider the cell given below
Ags | Ag || Cu2 | Cus

Ag   e  Ag; E0 = x

Cu2  2e  Cu; E0 = y

The E0 of the cell is

1) x + 2y 2) 2x + y 3) y-2x 4) y-x
134. The S.R.P. of Cu2 | Cu,Hg 2 / Hg and Zn2 | Zn are respectively 0.34V, 0.85V and -0.76V. The
correct statement is:

1) Cu reduces Zn+2 2) Zn is oxidised by Cu+2

3) Zn reduces both Cu, Hg 4) Hg reduces Zn+2

135. By how much will the potential of Ag+1 | Ag electrode change, if the aqueous solution of

Ag+1 is diluted by 10 times

1) increase by 0.03V 2) decrease by 0.03V 3) increase by 0.059V 4) decrease by 0.059V
136. For the following reaction ,NH4HS(s) NH3(g) + H2S(g), the total pressure at

equilibrium is 20 atm. The value of Kp is

1) 100 atm2 2) 225 atm2 3) 30 atm2 4) 15 atm

137. Favourable conditions for the formation of Ammonia by Haber’s process are ……P and
…...T
1) High, high 2) High, low 3) Low, high 4) Low, low

138. In an exothermic reaction A –1. The enthalpy of

the reaction is 240 KJ mol–1. The activation energy of the reverse reaction B

1) 340 KJ mol–1 2) 480 KJ mol–1 3) 200 KJ mol–1 4) 280 KJ mol–1

139. The hydrolysis of an ester in alkaline medium is a

27 | P a g e
UDAY
 1) First order, unimolecular reaction 2) second order, bimolecular reaction
3) first order, bimolecular reaction 4) second order, unimolecular reaction
140. In a first order reaction, the concentration of the reactant, decreases from 0.8M to 0.4M in
15 minutes. The time taken for the concentration to change from 0.1M to 0.025M is
1) 30 minutes 2) 15 minutes 3) 7.5 minutes 4) 60 minutes
COOH

COOH
COOH OH

OCH3
141. I. II. III. NO2 IV.
The correct order of acidic nature of the above compounds is
1) I > II > III > IV 2) III > II > I > IV 3) I = IV > II > III 4) III > II > IV > I

142. 2C6H5NO2 

4 LiAlH
 X + 4H2O. The number of  and  bonds present in the compound
‘X’ is
1) 27  .6  2) 27  , 7  3) 25  , 6  4) 25  , 7 
143. Carbyl amine reaction with chloroform and alcoholic KOH is given by
I) n – butyl amine II) Isobutyl amine
III) Secondary butyl amine IV) Tertiary butyl amine
1) All 2) I, II only 3) III, IV only 4) I, II, IV only
144. Identify A and B in the reaction

CH3CH3  CH3 COOH  CH3CH2OH

B A

A B
1. HI + Red P LiAlH4
2. Ni /  LiAlH4
3. LiAlH4 HI + Red P
4. Pd – BaSO4 Zn + HCl
145. The correct order of increasing order of basic nature for the bases C6H5NH2(A), NH3(B),
C2H5NH2(C) and (C2H5)2NH(D) is
1) A < B < C < D 2) B < C < A < D 3) D < C < B < A 4) A < C < D < B
1mole Cl

Re d P 
2
  KCN H  / H2O
 B 
146. CH3COOH A C. Hence ‘C’ is
1) Oxalic acid 2) Maleic acid 3) Fumaric acid 4) Malonic acid
147. Nitrobenzene is converted to aniline. In this reaction the equivalent weight of nitrobenzene is
1) 61.5 2) 20.5 3) 50 4) 31.7
H O / 
148. CH3COOH + NH3 → X  
2
 Y. Y on hydrolysis gives P + Q. ‘P’ and ‘Q’
28 | P a g e
UDAY
 respectively are
1) CH3COOH and NH3 2) CH3H2OH and NH4Cl
3) CH3COOC2H5 + NO2 4) CH3CH2 ONO + CO2
149. Which among the following undergoes haloform test but cannot give Fehling’s test ?
1) Ethanal 2) Propanone 3) Ethanoic acid 4) Butan-1-ol
150. When acetic acid is treated with P4O10, compound A is obtained along with H2O. ‘A’ reacts
with
aniline in the presence of pyridine to give
1) Benzanilide 2) Acetanilide 3) Benzalidene aniline 4) Phenyl isocyanide
151. In rubber industry, which of the following acts as an antioxidant
1) C2H5NH2 2) C6H5NHSO2C6H5 3) C6H5CH=NC6H5 4) C6H5N2Cl
152. CH3COOH + Ca   X + CaCO3; X  distillation  Y. The functional group in ‘Y’ is
Dry

1) – CHO 2) – CO - 3) – COOH 4) – O –
153. Assertion (A): C6H5 – COOH is stronger acid than CH3 – COOH
Reason (R): sp2 carbon atom of C6H5 – group is more electronegative than the sp3 carbon
atom
of – CH3 group
1) A is true, R is true and R is correct explanation of A
2) A is true, R is true and R is not correct explanation of A
3) A is true, R is false 4) A is false, R is true
154. Correct statements regarding acetic acid are
A) Its boiling point is greater than that of water
B) It exists as polymer in water
C) It liberates hydrogen gas when reacted with sodium metal
D) it liberates CO2 with sodium bicarbonate
1) A, B 2) B, C, D 3) A,C, D 4) A, B, C
Zn  KOH
155. 1 mole of nitrobenzene + x [H]   A
Zn NH Cl
1 mole of nitrobenzene + y [H]  4 B. The ratio of x and y is
1) 5 : 4 2) 5 : 2 3) 1 : 1 4) 3 : 2
156. The correct order of spin only magnetic moment (in BM) of Mn , Cr and V+2 is
+2 +2

1) Mn+2 > V+2 > Cr+2 2) V+2 > Cr+2>Mn+2 3) Mn+2 > Cr+2 >V+2 4) V+2 > Cr+2> Mn+2
157. Which of the following exhibit Geometrical isomerism (a, b = ligand, AA = bidentate ligand)

1)  Ma2b2  2)  M  AA2  3)  Ma6  4)  Ma5b

158. One mole of octahedral complex [ Co (NH3)x(Cl)y]Clz with excess silver nitrate solution gives
two
moles of silver chloride precipitate. Then the values of x, y, z are respectively
1) 4, 2, 1 2) 5, 1, 3 3) 6, 0, 3 4) 5, 1, 2
159. The EAN of Ni in K2[Ni(CN)4] is
1. 36 2) 38 3) 34 4) 54
160. In K2[Ni(CN)4] the primary valency of the central metal ion is satisfied by
1. K+ ions 2) Two CN-1 ions 3) Four CN-1 ions 4) Both K+ & CN-1
ions

29 | P a g e
UDAY
121) 2 122) 2 123) 1 124) 1 125) 4 126) 3 127) 3 128) 1 129) 3 130) 1

131) 3 132) 4 133) 4 134) 2 135) 4 136) 1 137) 2 138) 1 139) 2 140) 1

141) 2 142) 4 143) 1 144) 3 145) 1 146) 4 147) 2 148) 1 149) 2 150) 2

151) 3 152) 2 153) 1 154) 3 155) 1 156) 3 157) 1 158) 4 159) 3 160) 2

PAPER-7

121. The rate of formation of

SO3 in the reaction 2SO2  O2  2SO3 is 100 g min 1 . Rate
O
of disappearance of 2 is
1) 50g min -1 2) 100g min-1 3) 20g min-1 4) 40g min-1
122. The increase in rate constant of a reaction is more when the temperature increases from
1) 280-290 K 2) 320-330 K 3) 340-350 K 4) 360-370 K
123. Which one of the following reaction is an example of first order reaction
2N2O5   2N2O4  O2 2H O 
2 2 2H2O  O2
1) 2)
3) Radio active decay 4) All the above
1
A2  B  C
124. The reaction 2 in a gaseous phase shows an increase in pressure from
d  A2 
100mm to 120 mm in 5 min. So dt is
1) 18 mm.min-1 2) 4mm.min-1 3) 16mm min-1 4) 8mm min-1
125. An endothermic reaction A  B has an activation energy 15 Kcal. mole-1 and the
enthalpy of reaction is 5 kcal. mole-1. The activation energy of backward reaction is
1) 20kcal. mole-1 2) 15 kcalmole-1 3) 10 kcal.mole-1 4) zero
126. For the reaction A  products, concentration of 'A' is changed from 0.044 M to 0.032 in
25 min, average rate during this interval is

1)
0.0048 molelt 1.sec1 2)
0.00048 molelt 1.sec1
4 1 1
3)
4.8 10 mole.lt .min 4)
0.048 molelt 1.sec1
   
127. The correct order of Cl  O bond energy in ClO , ClO2 , ClO3 , ClO4 is

30 | P a g e
UDAY
 1)
ClO  ClO2  ClO3  ClO4 2)
ClO4

 ClO3

 ClO2

 ClO

3)
ClO4   ClO2  ClO3  ClO  4)
ClO3

 ClO   ClO2  ClO4

128. Rate constant of a reaction is found to be

2 105 lit mol1 sec1 then the order of
reaction is
1) zero 2) first 3) second 4) third
129. Assertion (A) : Order of reaction is evaluated from the mechanism of a reaction
Reason (R) : Order of reaction can be zero
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is True but R is False. 4) R is True but A is False.

130. For
N2O5  2NO2  1/ 2O2 ; it is formed that
d  N 2O5  d  NO2  d O2 
  K1  N 2O5  ;  K 2  N 2O5  ;  K3  N 2O5 
dt dt dt

the correct relation is

1)
K1  2, K2  3K3 2)
K1  K2  K3 3) 2K1  4K2  K3 4)
2K1  K2  4K3
131. The following are some statements about halogens
A) Chlorine reacts with excess of ammonia and forms
B) Iron reacts with chlorine to form ferrous chloride
C) Fluorine oxidises potassium hydrogen sulphate to potassium sulphate
D) Bleaching powder is a mixed salt
The correct answer is
1) A & C 2) B & D 3) A & D 4) A,C&D

132. The rate constant of a reaction at 200 K is 10 times less than rate constant at 400 K. Then
the value of activation energy (R=universal gas constant)
1) 921.2 R 2) 1842.4 R 3) 460.6 R 4) 230. 3R
133. For the first order reaction Products, which one of the following is the correct plot of log(a-
x) versus time?

log(a-x) log(a-x)

1) t 2) t

31 | P a g e
UDAY
 log(a-x) log(a-x)

3) t 4) t
134. In 3d series which element has highest melting point value and highest IP value respectively
are
1) V, Zn 2) Zn,V 3) Cr, Cu 4) Cr, Ni
 Ni  CO 4 
135. The oxidation state of Ni in  is
1) + II 2) zero 3) +III 4) +IV

136.
CrO42 and MnO4 ions exhibit colour due to
1) Presence of unpaired electrons in d-orbitals of Cr and Mn
2) Charge transfer phenomenon 3) d-d transition
4) close packing crystal structures

k  A  B
m n
137. The rate law for a reaction between the substance A and B is given by rate =
on
halving the concentration of A and doubling the concentration of B, the ratio of new rate to
the earlier rate of reaction will be

1) m + n 2) n - m 3) 2mn 4) 2nm
fast
2O3  3O2 O3 O2  O
138. The chemical reaction proceeds as follows and .
O  O3 
 2O2 The rate law expression is
slow

r  k O3  r  k O3  O2  r  k O3 O2 

2 2 1 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
r  k O3 O2 
2

139. a)
 Ca 2 , Cl  , x
CaOCl2  cold water 
2 
b)
CaOCl2  hot water 
 Ca , Cl ,y

c)
CaOCl2 
longstanding
 Ca 2 , Cl 1, y
x and y are
 
1)
ClO  , ClO2 2)
ClO  , ClO3 3)
ClO2 , ClO3

4)
ClO3 , ClO4


32 | P a g e
UDAY
140. 50 g of a good sample of
CaOCl2 is made to react with
CO2 . The volume of
Cl2
liberated at S.T.P is
1) 5.6 lit 2) 11.2 lit 3) 22. 4 lit 4) 4.48 lit

4HF  X
F2  H 2O
141.
6HF  Y Cl2  H 2O 
 HCl  Z

The correct statement is

1) x, y are ozonised oxygen, Z is hypochlorous acid
2) x is paramagnetic, y is diamagnetic, Z is bleaching agent
3) Bromine water is less bleaching agent than Z.
4) All the above

142. For easy transportation,

F2 is converted into

1)HF 2) NaF 3)
ClF3 4)
F2O

143.
Cl2 can not form addition compounds with

1) NO 2) CO 3)
SO2 4)
H 2S

144. When Chlorine is made to react with

Na2 S 2O3 , the products formed are

1)
Na2SO3  S  HCl 2)
Na2SO4  S  HCl

3)
Na2S  S  HCl 4)
Na2SO4  HCl

145. I) Fluorine reacts with cold, dilute alkalies liberating 2 gas

O
II) Chlorine reacts with hot, conc. alkalies to form chlorides and chlorates
III) Bromine reacts with cold, dil. alkali to form bromide and hypobromite
The correct combination is
1) Only I & II are correct 2) Only II and III are correct
3) Only I and II are correct 4) Only III is correct

146. The hybridisation of chlorine in

ClO  , ClO2 , ClO3 and
ClO4 ions are

1) sp 3 , sp 3d , sp 3d 2 , sp 3d 3 2) sp 3d 3 , sp 3d 2 , sp 3d , sp 3

3) sp 2 , sp 2 , sp 2 , sp 2 4) sp 3 , sp 3 , sp 3 , sp 3
147. The anhydride of perchloric acid is

1) 2 Cl O 2) 2 ClO 3) 2 6 Cl O 4) 2 7 Cl O
148. Among the oxyacids of chlorine the strongest acid & strongest oxidising agent are

1)
HClO, HClO2 2)
HClO, HClO3 3)
HClO, HClO4 4)
HClO4 , HClO

33 | P a g e
UDAY
149. For which one of the following values log K is maximum (K = rate constant)

1)
A  106 , Ea  50 K .Cal , T  500 K 2)
A  104 , Ea  100 Cal , T  300 K

3)
A  10 , Ea  10 Cal , T  600 K
8
4)
A  102 , Ea  200 K .Cal , T  400 K
150. Which of the following graph is kinetically wrong
concentration

concentration
of reactants

of products
1) time 2) time
reactants

products
rate of
rate of

3) time 4) time
2A  B 
C  D
151. Rate law for from the following data
S.No. [A] (M) [B] (M) Rate M/S
1 0.01 0.01 2.5
2 0.01 0.02 5
3 0.03 0.02 45
1 2 1
r  K  A3  B  r  K  A 3  B  2 r  K  A  B  r  K  A  B1
3 1 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
xA  yB 
 z.C
152.
d  A d  B  d C 
  1.5
If , dt dt dt then x, y and z are
1) 1, 1, 1 2) 3, 2, 3 3) 3, 3, 2 4) 2, 2, 3
3
153. Units of rate constant of 2 order is
3 3
mole 1 lit 1  lit 1 2  mole  21
    .   
1) lit time
2) mole time 3)  mole  time 4)  lit  time
154. Which of the following pairs of ions are colourless

34 | P a g e
UDAY
 3 2
1)
Ti , Cu 2)
Sc 3 , Zn 2 3)
Co 2
, Fe 3
4)
Ni 2 , V 3
155. For a reaction and at 300K. The value of 'K' at 310K will be
1) 8.4 10 2) 8.4 10 3) 4.2 10
5 10 5
4) zero
156. The following pairs of ions have the same electronic configuration
1) Cr 3 and Fe3 2) Fe3 and Co3 3) Fe3 and Mn2 4) Sc3 and Cr 3
157. Configuration Element
1 5
1)
5s 4d A) Cu
1 10
2)
6s 5d B) Pd
1 10
3)
4s 3d C) Mo
o 10
4)
5s 4d D) Cr
E) Au
The correct match is
1) 1 - E, 2 - C, 3 - A, 4 - B 2) 1 - C, 2 - E, 3 - B, 4 - A
3) 1 - C, 2 - E, 3 - A, 4 - B 4) A - C, 2 - A, 3 - A, 4 - B
158. The number of unpaired 'd' electrons in is equal to that of
1) s - electrons in Mg 2) s - electrons in Ne 3) p - electrons in 4) d - electrons in Fe
159. Which is not true with regard to transition elements
1) they readily form complex compounds 2) they show variable valency
3) their ions are colourless 4) their ions contains partially filled 'd' orbitals
160. Stable oxidation state of cobalt is +III due to
1) half filled 'd' orbitals 2) completely filled 'd' orbitals
3) half filled orbitals 4) completely filled orbitals

KEY

121) 3 122) 1 123) 4 124) 4 125) 3 126) 3 127) 2 128) 3 129) 4 130) 4

131) 3 132) 1 133) 2 134) 1 135) 2 136) 2 137) 4 138) 2 139) 2 140) 1

141) 4 142) 3 143) 4 144) 2 145) 2 146) 4 147) 4 148) 4 149) 3 150) 4

151) 4 152) 3 153)2 154)2 155)3 156)3 157)3 158)4 159)3 160) 4

35 | P a g e
UDAY
 PAPER-8

 w
136. 0.6%   aqueous NH2CO NH2 is isotonic with
v

 w
a) 0.1M aqueous KCl b) 0.6%   aqueous KCl
v
 w
c) 0.1M aqueous C6 H12O6 d) 0.6%   aqueous C6 H12O6
v
137. Aqueous solution contains 4 solutes A, B, C, D of different masses. If sum of the mole
fractions of A, B and D is 0.4 then mole fraction of ‘C’ may be
a) 0.8 b) 0.55 c) 0.6 d) 0.05
138. Molality of an aqueous solution 4.5m. mole fraction of solute is
a) 0.45 b) 0.2 c) 0.075 d) 0.1
139. For which one of the following reaction, the graph of G against T is almost horizontal to
temperature axis
(a) C  O  CO (b) 2C  O  2CO
 s  2 g  2 g   s  2 g  g
(c) 2CO O  2CO (d) 2Mg O  2MgO
g 2 g  2 g  s 2 g  s
140. In the Bessemerization process, Bessemer Converter is lined with 'X' when pig iron contains
phosphorous, while it is lined with 'Y' when pig iron contains manganese as impurity. Here X
and Y are
a) SiO2, SiO2 b) CaO, CaO c) SiO2, CaO d) CaO, SiO2

141. Set - I Set - II

1) Ostwald-Dynamic method A) Osmotic pressure
2) Cotrell’s method B) Depression of F.P
3) Rast’s camphor method C) Elevation of B.P
4) Berkeley and Hartley’smethod D) Lowering of vapour pressure
Correct match is
a) A  4, B  3, C  2, D  1 b) A  1, B  2, C  3, D  4
c) A  2, B  3, C  4, D  1 d) A  2, B  4, C  3, D  1
142. Incorrect statement about the manufacture of steel from pig iron is
a) The quality of steel manufactured in open hearth process is very high
b) The composition of steel can be controlled in Bessemer process
c) Iron ore, scrap iron and low grade pig iron can not be used in Bessemer process
d) Loss of iron due to slag formation is minimised in open - hearth process
143. The purest form of commercial iron is

a) Pig iron b) Cast iron c) Wrought iron d) Pig iron and cast iron
144. Which of the following metals can be used for precipitation of silver from sodium
argentocyanide solution

36 | P a g e
UDAY
 a) Zn b) Cu c) Al d) All
145. (A) : Reduction of Cr2O3 with Aluminium is possible.
(R) : G 0 f  of Cr2O3 is - 540 kj/mole and G 0 f  of Al2O3 is - 827
kj/mole.
a) Both A and R are true and R explains A b) Both A and R are true and R is not explains A
c) A is true, R is false d) A is false, R is true
146. Heating mixture of Cu2O and Cu2 S will give

a) Cu + SO2 b) Cu + SO3 c) CuO + CuS d) Cu2SO3

147. The process of smelting is usually carried out in
a) Reverberatory furnace b) Blast furnace c) Open hearth furnace d) Muffle furnace
148. Which method of purification is represented by the following equitations
Ti  2I 2 
523 K
TiI 4 
1700 K
Ti  2I 2
a) Mond process b) Van Arkel method c) Zone refining d) Poling
149. Which of the following represents the graph between log P (on y-axis) and 1/T on x-axis ?
where P is vapour pressure of liquid.

a) b) c) d)
150. In Blast furnace in the zone of reduction at 4000C - 7000C the reaction occuring is
a) Fe O CO Fe O CO b) CaO SiO2 CaSiO3
2 3 3 4 2
c) FeO C Fe CO d) Fe O 3CO 2Fe 3CO
2 3 2
151. Silver containing lead impurity can be purified by
a) Pattison’s process b) parke’s process c) Cupellation d) Hoope’s process

152. Assertion (A): In the metallurgy of Cu, in blast furnace only Cu2S is formed but no Fes is
formed
Reason (R): Copper has greater affinity towards sulphur while Fe has greater affinity
towards
oxygen
a) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, R is false. d) A is false, R is true.
153. Assertion (A) : In the extraction of Ag by Cyanide process, Air must be blown in the solution
of Ag2S in dil NaCN
Reason (R): Continuous air blow oxidises Na2S to Na2SO4 and prevents backward reaction

a) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, R is false. d) A is false, R is true.

37 | P a g e
UDAY
154. Water gas is used to reduce
a) NiO 2) UCl4 3) Fused NaCl d) ZnO
155. The chemical composition of 'slag' formed during smelting process in the extraction of
copper is
(a) Cu O+FeS (b) FeSiO (c) CuFeS (d) Cu S+FeS
2 3 2 2
156. Which of the following is not a roasting process

(a) 2ZnS  3O2  2ZnO  2SO2  (b)

2CuFeS2  O2  Cu2 S fused   2 FeS fused   2SO2 
600C 630
(c) Ag2 S  2 NaCl  2O2   2 AgCl  Na2 SO4 (d) ZnS  O2    ZnSO4
157. Assertion (A) : Efficiency of Reverboratory furnace is less.
Reason (R) : In Reverboratory furnace, heat content of the waste gases cannot be used
repeatedly.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, R is false (d) A is false but R is true
158. Regarding purification of metal

A) Carbon powder added also reduces metal oxide to metal in "poling" process

B) Zone refining method is suitable for the purification of semi conductors

C) Zn, Cd, Hg are purified by distillation process.

D) During electrolytic refining of acidified solution or molten salt, pure metal is deposited at
anode
Correct statement is

(a) All are correct (b) Only A & C are correct

(c) Only B & C are correct (d) Only A, B & C are correct
159. The heat capacity of liquid water at constant pressure, CP is 18 Cal deg-1 mol-1. The value
of heat capacity of water at constant volume, CV is approximately
a) 18 Cal deg-1 mol-1 b) 16 Cal deg-1 mol-1
c) 10.8 Cal deg-1 mol-1 d) Cannot be predicted
160. Among
I) 18g water at 298 K II) 18g steam at 373 K III) 18g ice at 263 K IV) 9g ice at 263 K
correct order of internal energy
a) IV > II > I > III b) II > I > III > IV c) III > IV > I > II d) III > I > IV > II
161. If the sequence of bases in DNA is 51 TGAACCCTT 31 , the sequence of bases in m - RNA is
a) 31 ACUUGGGAA 51 b) 31 TCUUGGGTT 51
c) 51 ACUUCCCAA 31 d) 31 TUCUGTUTU 51
162. Which of the following statements about DNA is not correct ?

38 | P a g e
UDAY
 a) It has a double helix structure b) Exterior width of double helix is 2nm
c) The two strands in a DNA molecule are exactly similar
d) It contains the pentose sugar, 2` – deoxyribose

163. Match the following

Set - A Set - B
A) Replication 1) formation of RNA from DNA
B) Transcription 2) synthesis of copy of DNA
C) Translation 3) single strand of DNA
D) Template 4) synthesis of proteins by RNA
Now, correct match is
A B C D A B C D
a) 4 3 2 1 b) 1 2 4 3
c) 2 1 4 3 d) 2 1 3 4
164. DNA finger printing is useful for
a) Identifying the criminals b) Determining the paternity of individual
c) Identifying the dead bodies d) All
165. Insulin has two polypeptide chains, these polypeptide chains are held together by
a) Peroxy linkage b) Disulphide linkage c) Diazo bonding d) H - bonding
166. Waxes are esters of higher fatty acids with long chain
a) Monohydric alcohols b) Dihydric alcohols c) Trihydric alcohols d) All the three above
167. Lecithin and cephalin are
a) Neutral fats b) Glycolipids c) Waxes d) Phospholipids
168. Which of the following lipid does not contain phosphoric acid
a) Lecithin b) Cephalin c) Sphingomyelins d) Glycolipids
169. Spermaceti is an ester of
a) Palmitic acid, Cetyl alcohol b) Stearic acid , cetyl alcohol
c) Palmitic acid, myricyl alcohol d) Stearic acid, cholesterol
170. Select the intensive properties from the following.
I) Temperature II) Mass III) Volume IV) Molar heat
capacity
a) I, Only b) I, III c) I, IV d) II, III
171. Cyclohexanol on oxidation with conc.nitric acid gives
a) Terephthalic acid b) Adipic acid c) p-xylene d) phthalic acid
172. H3PO4 
gentle
heating
 X 
strong
heating
Y
X and Y respectivley are
a) HPO3 & H4P2O7 b) H4P2O6 & HPO3 c) H4P2O7 & HPO3 d) H4P2O7 & HPO2
173. (A) : NH3 is a liquid while the other hydrides of V-A Group elements are gases at room
temp.
(R) : NH3 possess inter molecular hydrogen bonds in liquid state.
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true but (R) is false d) (A) is false but (R) is true

39 | P a g e
UDAY
174. A gas expands from 1.5L to 6.5L against a constant pressure of 0.5 atm. During this process
the gas also absorbs 100 J heat, the change in internal energy of the gas is
a) +152.5 J b) 252.5 J c) 352.5 J d) – 152.5 J
175. Standard enthalpy is not zero for
a) liquid Bromine b) graphite c) liquid water d) rhombic sulphur
176. Nitrous acid decomposes to give
a) HNO3, NO b) HNO3, N2O3 c) HNO3, NO2 d) H2N2O2, N2O
177. Estradiol is responsible for the development of
a) Primary male characters b) Secondary female characters
c) Primary female characters d) Secondary male characters
178. Synthetic testosterone promotes
a) Menstrual cycle b) Muscle growth c) Respiration d) Birth control agents

179. How many position isomers are possible for C17 H33COOH

a) 18 b) 17 c) 16 d) 9
180. LIST - 1 LIST - 2
A) NCl3 + H2O  1) HOCl
B) PCl3 + H2O  2) H3PO3
C) PCl5 + H2O  3) H3PO4
D) NF3 + H2O  4) H3PO2
5) No Hydrolysis
The correct match is
a) A  1, B  2, C  3, D  5 b) A  2, B  4, C  2, D  5
c) A  3, B  2, C  1, D  4 d) A  5, B  3, C  2, D  1

***
KEY

1) c 2) d 3) c 4) a 5) d 6) a 7) b 8) c 9) d 10) a
11) a 12) b 13) b 14) c 15) d 16) c 17) a 18) a 19) a 20) b
21) b 22) a 23) d 24) a 25) b 26) a 27) c 28) c 29) d 30) b

31) a 32) d 33) d 34) a 35) c 36) b 37) c 38) d 39) d 40) c

41) a 42) b 43) b 44) c 45) a

PAPER-9

40 | P a g e
UDAY
 CHEMISTRY
46. The monomer of nylon -6 is
1) Chloroprene 2) Isoprene 3) Caprolactam 4) Styrene
47. If the number average molecular weight and weight average molecular weight of a polymer
are 40,000 and 60,000 respectively, the polydispersity index of the polymer is
1) >1 2) <1 3) 1 4) 0
48. A polymer used as blood plasma, i.e life saving substance is
1) Polyvinyl pyroolidone 2) PTFE
3) Urea formaldehyde resin 4) Polymethyl methacrylate
49. The role of zinc stearate in the process of vulcanization is
1) To accelerate the process 2) To slow down the process
3) To stop the process 4) To initiate the process
50. The correct statement/s regarding PHBV is
I) Excess amounts of hydroxyl butanonic acid makes the polymer more flexible
II) Excess amounts of hydroxyl pentanoic acid makes the polymer more tough
III) It is used in orthopaedic devices
1) all 2) III only 3) I and II 4) I and III
51. A polymer sample contain 40% molecules of molecular mass 20,000,40% have 30,000 and
the rest have 60,000 the number average molecular weight of polymer is
1) 36,000 2) 32,000 3) 43,333 4) 41,000
52. The polymer used in paints and Lacquers is
1) Glyptal 2) Polystyrene 3) Bekalite 4) Neoprene
53. Dextrin is used in
I) Sizing paper II) Adhesive
III) Cotton cell wall material IV) Confectionary
1) I and II only 2) II and III only 3) I,II and IV only 4) All
54. Percentage of sulphur in EBONITE RUBBER
1) 35-40% 2) 40-45% 3) 45-55% 4) 37-39%

55. Number average molecular mass ( M n ) and weight average molecular mass M w of
synthetic polymers are related as
1) M n  M w 2) M n  M w 3) M n  M w 4) Mn  Mw

56. H (vap) for water is 40.7Kj mol-1. The entropy of vapourisation of water is
1) -40.7 KJ mol-1 2) 407 J mol-1 K-1 3) 109 J mol-1 K-1 4) 722 J mol-1
57. The enthalpies of formation of C2H4(g),CO2(g) and H2O(l) at 250C and 1atm pressure are
52, -394 and -286 kJ mol-1. The enthalpy combustion of C2H4 will be
1) +1412 kJ mol-1 2) -1412kJmol-1 3) +141.2kJmol-1 4) -141.2kJ
mol-1
58. AB,A2 and B2 are diatomic molecules. If the bond enthalpies of A2, AB and B2 are in the
ratio 1:1:0.5 and enthalpy of formation of AB from A2 and B2 is -100KJ mol-1. What is the
bond energy of A2

41 | P a g e
UDAY
 1) 200KJ mol-1 2) 100 KJ mol-1 3) 300 KJ mol-1 4) 400 KJ
-1
mol
59. At 00C ice and water are in equilibrium and H = 6.0 kJ then S will be
1) 22 JK-1 mol-1 2) 35 JK-1mol-1 3) 48 JK-1 mol-1 4) 100 JK-1
mol-1
60. For an endothermic reaction, S is positive. The reaction is
1) Feasible when TS > H 2) feasible when H>TS
3) Feasible at all temperatures 4) not feasible at all
61. One mole of ice is converted into water at 273K. The entropies of H2O(s) and H2O(l) are
38.20 and 60.01 J mol-1 K-1 respectively. The enthalpy change for the conversion is
1) 59.54J mol-1 2) 5954J mol-1 3) 595.4J mol-1 4) 320.6J mol-1
62. Sign of G is positive at low temperature when
1) H is positive and S is positive 2) H is negative and S is negative
3) H is negative and S is positive 4) H is negative and S is zero
63. Heat content and temperature are
1) Intensive properties 2) Extensive properties
3) Extensive and intensive properties respectively 4) Intensive and Extensive properties
respectively
64. 1gram graphite on combustion in oxygen liberates 7.82K.cals of heat. The amount of hest
evolved when one mole of oxygen is used in this oxidation process is
1) 7.82 k.cal 2) 78.2 k.cal 3) 9.384 k.cal 4) 93.84 k.cal
65. If an endothermic reaction is non-spontaneous at the freezing point of water and becomes
feasible at its boiling point, then
1) H=+ve & S = -ve 2) H = +ve & S = +ve 3) H =-ve & S = -ve 4) H –ve & S
= +ve
66. The hats of combustion for C,H2 and CH4 are -349, -241.8 and -906.7KJ respectively. The
heat of formation of CH4 is
1) 174.1 KJ 2) 274.1 KJ 3) 374.1 KJ 4) 74.1 KJ
67. The sequence in which metals of groups 8, 9, 10 form the first triad is
1) Iron, nickel, cobalt 2) Nickel, cobalt, iron
3) Iron, cobalt, nickel 4) Cobalt, nickel, iron
3+
68. The colour of Ti (H2O)6 ion is due to
1) Excitation of electron from t2g to eg orbital 2) Presence of water molecules
3) Intratomic transfer of electrons 4) None of the above
69. The maximum oxidation state of osmium is
1) + 6 2) + 7 3) + 8 4) + 5
70. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons ?
1) Mg2+ 2) Ti3+ 3) V3+ 4) Fe2+
71. The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that
1) Zr and Y have about the same radius 2) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
3) Zr and Hf have about the same radius 4) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state
72. Which of the following statement is not correct

42 | P a g e
UDAY
 1) La(OH)3 is less basic than Lu(OH)3
2) In lanthanide series, ionic radius of decreases from La3+ to Lu3+ ion
3) La is actually an element of transition series rather than lanthanides
4) Atomic radius of Zr and Hf are same because of lanthanide contraction
73. Arrange Ce3+, La3+, Pm3+ and Yb3+ in increasing order of their ionic radii
1) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ < La3+ 2) Ce3+ < Yb3+ < Pm3+ < La3+
3) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < La3+ < Ce3+ 4) Pm3+ < La3+ < Ce3+ < Yb3+
74. The radius of La3+ (At.No.of La = 57) is 1.06A0, Which one of the following given values
will be closest to the radius of Lu3+ (At.No.of Lu = 7a)
1) 1.40A0 2) 1.06 A0 3) 0.85 A0 4) 1.60 A0
75. The primary and secondary valency of Co in the complex CoCl3 5NH3 respectively are
1) 6 and 3 2) 3 and 6 3) 4 and 3 4) 3 and 5
76. Which of the following statement regarding transition elements is false
1) They form complexes readily 2) All of their ions are colourless
3) They are capable of showing variable valencies
4) Their atoms contain partially filled d orbitals
77. Ozone is an
1) Isotope O2 2) Isomer of O2
3) Allotropic form of oxygen 4) Isomorphic form of oxygen
78. As a fixing reagent in photography, Na2S2O3 is used for
1) Preventing over developing and fogging 2) Reducing the solubility of AgBr
3) converting silver bromide into metallic silver 4) Dissolving out un reacted silver halide
79. During bleaching action SO2 converts into
1) H2S2O7 2) H2SO4 3) H2SO3 4) SO3
80. The hybridization of sulphur in S2Cl2 molecule is
1) sp2 2) sp3 3) sp 4) sp3d
81. The ion with pyramidal shape is
1) S2O82 2) SO42 3) SO32 4) S2O32

82. Fluorine reacts with cold and dil. NaOH and the products are
1) HF  NaF  O2 2) NaF  H2O  O2 3) NaF  H 2O  OF2 4)
HF  H2O  NaF

83. Oxidation states of chlorine in the products when chlorine reacts with cold and dil. NaOH
are
1) -1, +5 2) -1,+3 3) -1,+1 4) 0,-1
84. Mustard gas formula is

43 | P a g e
UDAY
 1)  C2 H5 3 CCH 2Cl 2) CH3Cl 3)  C2 H4Cl 2 S 4) C2 H4Cl2

85. The correct order of reactivity of hydrogen halides with ethyl alcohol is
1) HI  HBr  HCl  HF 2) HBr  HCl  HI  HF
3) HCl  HBr  HF  HI 4) HF  HCl  BHr  HI
86. Iodine dissolves in aqueous KI due to the formation of
1) I 4 2) I 3 3) I 2 4) I 

87. In the known interhalogen compounds the maximum oxidation state of halogen atom is
1) 8 2) 7 3) 5 4) 1
88. Which of the following set of elements are transition elements?
1) Ac,Rf,Hs 2) Cs,Ba,La 3) Ga,In,Ti 4) Po,At,Rn
89. Calamine is the mineral of
1) Ti 2) Co 3) Zn 4) Fe
90. Number of ionizable and non – ionizable Cl- ions in CoCl35NH3 respectively are
1) 0,3 2) 1,2 3) 2,1 4) 3,0

1) 3 2) 1 3) 1 4) 1 5) 2 6) 2 7) 1 8) 3 9) 2 10) 1
11) 3 12) 2 13) 4 14) 1 15) 1 16) 2 17) 1 18) 3 19) 4 20) 2
21) 4 22) 3 23) 1 24) 3 25) 4 26) 3 27) 1 28) 1 29) 3 30) 2
31) 2 32) 3 33) 3 34) 2 35) 2 36) 3 37) 3 38) 3 39) 3 40) 1
41) 2 42) 2 43) 1 44) 3 45) 3

136. Xenon cannot react with

a) Cl2 b) OSeF5 c) OTeF5 d) F2

137. Which of the following is a super fluid

a) He at 4.2K b) He at 2.2K c) He at 25K d) He at 273K
138. In Fischer Ringe’s process 10% of X and 90% of Y is used. X is
a) CaF2 b) CaC2 c) CaCl2 d) CaCN2
139. During fractional distillation of liquid air helium and neon are separated using

44 | P a g e
UDAY
 a) Liquid O2 b) Liquid N2 c) Liquid CO2 d) Liquid H2

140. Assertion (A) : At high temperature inert gas adsorbed on coconut charcoal get desorbed
Reason (R) : Inert gases on coconut charcoal are physically adsorbed
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true but (R) is false d) (A) is false but (R) is true
141. In Ramsey-Rayleigh I method ‘X’ is useful in removing oxygen as ‘Y’. In Fischer-Ringe’s
process ‘Y’ oxidizes ‘Z’ to ‘A’. Z is
a) N2 b) CO c) CO2 d) NO

142. Number of d  p bonds in XeO3 are same as present in

a) ClO3 b) ClO4 c) SO3 d) CO32

143. …………is used to detect thickness of metal sheets
a) Rn b) Xe c) Kr d) Ar
144. First noble gas compound prepared was
a) XeF6 b) Xe Pt F4 c) Xe Pt F6 d) XeO F4
145. The inert gas whose boiling point is closest to oxygen is
a) Ar b) Kr c) Xe d) Ne
146. Which of the following is hygroscopic and explosive
a) XeO4 b) XeF4 c) XeF6 d) XeO3

147. IUPAC name of CH3CH2COOCH  CH2 is

a) Vinyl propanoate b) Ethenyl propanoate c) Vinyl propionate d) Ethyl propenoate
148. CH3OH is called as
a) Carbinol b) Wood spirit c) Methanol d) All
149. IUPAC name of benzyl alcohol is
a) Phenol b) Hydroxy methyl benzene
c) Phenyl methanol d) 1-hydroxy-1-phenyl methane
150. Common name of 1, 2-dichloro ethane is
a) Ethylidene chloride b) Ethylene dichloride
c) Acetylene dichloride d) Ethane dichloride
151. IUPAC name of CH (COOH )3 is
a) Methane 1, 1, 1-tricraboxylic acid b) 2-carboxy propane dioicacid
c) Tricarboxy methane d) Dicarboxy ethanoic acid

45 | P a g e
UDAY
 152. Number of isomeric alkenes (structural and stereo) with the formula C4 H8
a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 4
153. Number of optically active isomers for 2, 3-butane diol are
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6
154. The molecule which cannot show geometrical isomerism is
a) CH3  CH  CHCl b) CH3CH  NOH

c) 1, 2-dichloro cyclopropane d) CH3CH  C(CH3 )2

155. Number of conformational isomers possible for ethane are

a) 1 b) 3 c) 2 d) Infinite
156. Acetaldehyde is isomeric with
a) Acetone b) Vinyl alcohol c) Epoxide d) Both b and c
157. Minimum number of carbon atoms required for an unsubstituted alkane to exhibit optical
isomerism
a) 1 b) 4 c) 6 d) 7
158. Formula of canary yellow solution formed to identify phosphorous in organic compound is
a) ( NH4 )3 PO4 MoO4 b) ( NH4 )3 PO4 MoO3 c) ( NH4 )3 PO412MoO3 d) ( NH4 )2 MoO4

159. Organic compound (containing S, N) is heated with excess sodium to prepare sodium
fusion extract. This extract cannot give
a) Prussian blue colour with FeSO4 & FeCl3 b) Black precipitate with lead acetate

c) Voilet colour with sodium nitroprusside d) Red colour with FeCl3

160. 0.35 grams of an organic compound produced 0.17 grams of ammonia in kjeldahl method.
Percentage of nitrogen in the compound is
a) 28 b) 50 c) 40 d) 60
161. 0.32grams of an organic compound in carius method precipitated 0.466grams of BaSO4 .

Percentage of sulphur in the organic compound is

a) 20 b) 40 c) 60 d) 10
162. Which of the following is not an electrophile
a) SO2 b) : CH2 c) CO d) BF3

163. Most reactive of the following is

  
a) C H 3 b) C H 3 c) C H 3 d) All are equally reactive
164. Which of the following can act both as electrophile and nucleophile

46 | P a g e
UDAY
 a) SO2 b) SCl4 c) CH3CN d) All of these

165. Regarding methyl carbanion the incorrect statement is

a) Central atom is sp3 hybridized b) It has pyramidal shape
c) Central atom is surrounded by eight valence electron
d) It is paramagnetic
166. Most stable carbocation is
   
a) C H 3 b) CH 3 C H 2 c) (CH3 )2 C H d) (CH 3 )3 C

167. CH 3  CH  CH 2  HBr 

R2O2
 CH3CH 2CH 2 Br . This reaction is an example is
a) Electrophilic addition b) Free radical addition
c) Nucleophilic addition d) Free radical substitution
168. Electrophilic substitution reactions are the characteristic reactions of
a) Aromatic compounds b) Alkanes
c) Alkenes d) Carbonyl compounds
169. Which of the following cannot be used for dehydrohalogenation
a) CH3ONa b) NaNH2 c) alc. KOH d) Cu / 3000 C

170. In Duma’s method nitrogen is estimated as

a) NH3 b) N2 c) ( NH4 )2 SO4 d) ( NH4 )3 PO4

171. Which of the following is insoluble in NH4OH

a) AgI b) AgBr c) AgCl d) All of these
172. Metamerism is not exhibited by
a) Aldehydes b) Ketones c) Ethers d) Esters
173. Which of the following is not a   chloro compound
a) CH2Cl  COOH b) CH2Cl  CH2OH c) CH3  CO  CH2Cl d)

CH3CHCl  O  CH2  CH3

174. IUPAC name of CH3  CH (CH3 )  CH (C2 H5 )  CH3 is
a) 2-ethyl-3-methyl butane b) 3-ethyl-2-methyl butane
c) 2, 3-dimethyl pentane d) 1-isopropyl butane
175. Number of structural isomers possible by the monochlorination of isopentane are
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
176. Which of the following cannot show configurational isomerism
a) 2-butene b) Lactic acid c) Oleic acid d) n-butane

47 | P a g e
UDAY
 177. Number of isomers possible with the formula C10 H22 are
a) 35 b) 18 c) 9 d) 75
178. 30 butyl alcohol and isobutyl alcohol are……. Isomers
a) Chain b) Positional c) Functional d) Metamers
179. Which of the following is not an IUPAC name
a) Benzene amine b) Cyclohexanol
c) Cyclobutane carboxylic acid d) Benzene hexachloride
180. Which of the following is not denoted by secondary suffix
a) –CHO b) CONH 2 c)  NO2 d) –OH
***

Key : CHEMISTRY
136) a 137) b 138) c 139) d 140) a 141) b 142) b 143) c 144) c 145) a
146) d 147) b 148) d 149) c 150) b 151) a 152) d 153) a 154) d 155) d
156) d 157) d 158) c 159) d 160) c 161) a 162) c 163) a 164) d 165) d
166) d 167) b 168) a 169) d 170) b 171) a 172) a 173) b 174) c 175) b
176) d 177) d 178) b 179) d 180) c

PAPER-10

46. (A) : CH3COOH; (B) C2H5COOH; (C)C6H5COOH and (D) HCOOH. The decreasing order
of the pKa values of these carboxylic acids is
1) D > C > A > B 2) C > B > A > D 3) B > A > C > D 4) D > A > B > C

47. In the Fischer’s esterfication from ethanol and ethanoic acid, the correct bond cleavages are
1) O – H of C2H5OH and C – O of CH3COOH
2) O – H of C2H5OH and O – H of CH3COOH
3) C – O of C2H5OH and O – H of CH3COOH
4) C – O of C2H5OH and C – O of CH3COOH

48. Kolbe’s electrolysis of concentrated aqueous potassium salt of ‘X’ of gives ethane at anode.
PCl3
P2O5
X   Y ; X   Z . The organic compounds ‘Y’ and ‘Z” are respectively

48 | P a g e
UDAY
 1) CH3COOCH3 and CH3COCl 2) CH3COOCOCH3 and CH3COCl
3) CH3COOCOCH3 and CH2ClCHO 4) CH3COOCH3 and CH2ClCHO
 2
H ,Cr2 O7 NH 3
49. HC  CH   A   B. Compound ‘B’ on heating at 400 K gives

1) C2H5NHCH3 2) CH3 NH2 3) CH3CONH2 4) C2H5NH2

50. A) Sandmeyer reaction i) C6H5NH2  C6H5NC

B) Hofmann’s mustard oil reaction ii) C6H5CONH2  C6H5NH2

C) Carbylamine reaction iii) C6H5N2Cl  C6H5Cl

D) Hofmann’s hypobromite reaction iv) C6H5NH2  C6H5NCS

The correct match is

1) A – iii, B – ii; C – i; D - iv 2) A – iv, B – iii; C – i; D – ii
3) A – iii, B – iv; C – i; D - ii 4) A – iii, B – iv; C – ii; D - i

51. The medium in which ethanol is converted to ethanal using PDC as oxidant
1) methylene dichloride 2) carbondisulphide
3) nitrobenzene 4) diethylether

52. Compound ‘x’ reacts with compound ‘y in the presence of ‘z’ giving 3-hydroxybutanal. Then
‘x’ ‘y’ and ‘z’ are respectively
1) CH3CHO, CH3CHO and NaCl 2) CH3CHO,CH3COCH3 and HCl
3) CH3CHO, CH3CHO and NaOH 4) C2H5COCH3, CH3CHO and NaOH

53. (A) CH3COOH; (B) CH3COOC2H5- ; (C) C6H5CHO; (D) CH3COCl ; (E) C6H5COCH3
and

(F) CH3CHOHCH3. Iodoform reaction is given by

1) only E and F 2) only A, B, D and E
3) only C and D 4) only C, D and F

54. 2-Methyl-2-propanol can be obtained by which of the following reactions

(i)CH MgBr,ether (i)C H MgBr,ether
1) CH3CHO 
3
  2) CH3CHO 
2 5
 

(ii)H3O (ii)H3O

(i)CH MgBr,ether (i)C H MgBr,ether

3) CH3COCH3 
3
  4) CH3COCH3 
2 5
 

(ii)H3O (ii)H3O

49 | P a g e
UDAY
55. Acetone cannot be identified from acetaldehyde by using
1) 2, 4-DNP 2) Schiff’s reagent 3) Ammonical silver cation 4) Fehling’s solution

dil.NaOH heat
56. C6H5CHO + CH3CHO   A 
 H O B . Number of sp hybridised carbon atoms
2
2

in the final product ‘B’

1) 2 2) 4 3) 9 4) 5
0
H2 SO4 Sn,HCl NaNO2 ,HCl,0 C
57. C6H6+HNO3  X   Y   Z . The end organic product ‘Z’ in the
above sequence of reaction is
1) C6H5NH2 2) C6H5N2Cl 3) C6H5NHOH 4) C6H5NCl2

58. An alloy of two metals ‘M’ and ‘N’ crystallises in cubic close packed lattice in which all
lattice points are occupied by atoms of ‘M’. If 25% of tetrahedral voids and 100% of
octahedral voids are occupied by atoms of ‘N’, the composition of alloy is
1) M2N3 2) MN 3) M3N2 4) M2N

59. Assertion (A) : Dioxygen molecule has a magnetic moment of 2.83 BM

Reason (R) : Two unpaired electrons are present in a molecule of dioxygen

1) both A and R are true, R properly explains A
2) both A and R are true R does not explain A
3) A is true and R is false 4) A is false and R is true

60. If ‘a’ is the edge length of alkali metal B.C.C. structure, the radius of one atom of the metal is
a a 3a 3a
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 2 4 2 2
61. ‘x’ is a metal and ‘y’ is a semi conductor. Upon heating, conductivity
1) of x increases and of y increases 2) of x decreases and of y increases
3) of x decreases and of y decreases 4) of x increases and of y decreases

62. ZnS has structure similar to that of diamond. The ratio of radii of cation and anion in ZnS
may be
1) 0.93 2) 0.72 3) 0.52 4) 0.36

63. A) Crystal acts as a difraction grating to x-rays

B) Metallic bond in iron is weaker than that in potassium

C) Density of substance decreases upon Frenkel defect

D) Colourless zinc oxide becomes yellow upon heating

50 | P a g e
UDAY
 1) A, B and C are true 2) B, C and D are true
3) A and D are true 4) C and D are true

64. Forward reaction of the equilibrium, CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g) is favoured by

1) adding more lime stone at equilibrium
2) removing some lime at equilibrium
3) by increasing pressure
4) by increasing temperature
65. Certain amount of dinitrogen tetraoxide present in a closed vessel exerts 1 atm pressure at
270C. If the temperature is raised to 3270C, 40%of the substance decomposes to nitrogen
dioxide. Then the pressure of the equilibrium mixture is
1) 1.2 atm 2) 1.6 atm 3) 2.4 atm 4) 2.8 atm

66. Which of the following chemical equilibrium is not influenced with a change in pressure
1) 2SO3(g) 2SO2(g)+O2(g) 2) 2HI(g) H2(g) +I2(g)
3) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) 4) N2(g) +3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

67. Equilibrium Equilibrium constant

H2CO3(aq) H+(aq) +HCO3-(aq) x mol L-1
HCO3-(aq) H+(aq)+CO32-(aq) y mol L-1
H2CO3(aq) 2H+(aq) + CO32-(aq) z mol2L-2
Numerical values of x, y and z are related as
1) x + y = z 2) x  y  z 3) x > y > z 4) z > x > y

68. Which of the following is not a characteristic property of chemical equilibrium

1) change in concentration does not effect equilibrium at constant temperature
2) all the reactants and all the products are present at equilibrium
3) equilibrium is always dynamic, but not static
4) catalyst increases the rate of forward and backward reactions to the same extent

69. The vapour pressures of (i) acetic acid, (ii) mercury, (iii) ethanol and (iv) sodium chloride are
in the order
1) ii > i > iii > iv 2) iii > i > ii > iv
3) i > iii > ii > iv 4) ii > iii > i > iv

51 | P a g e
UDAY
70. Correct graph for a fixed mass of ideal gas

PV
PV T
1) T 2)

T T

PV
PV
3) 4) T
T
4)
T
T
71. Temperature at which a real gas obeys ideal gas law over an appreciable range of pressure is
called
1) inversion temperature 2) critical temperature
3) ideal temperature 4) Boyle temperature

72. The average kinetic energies of helium (mol.wt.4), methane (mol.wt.16) and sulphurdioxide
(mol.wt.64), at certain temperature are respectively x, y and z kJmol-1. The ratio of x, y and
z is
1) 1 : 4 : 16 2) 1 : 2 : 4 3) 1 : 1 : 1 4) 4 : 2 : 1

73. The volume of an ideal gas at a pressure of 105Pa and 273.15K is

1) 23.40 dm3mol-1 2)22.71 dm3mol-1 3) 24.38 dm3mol-1 4) 24.79 dm3mol-1

74. 2 grams of hydrogen undergoes effusion through a small hole of a vessel in 23 min. Under
similar conditions the mass of oxygen that undergoes effusion through the small hole from
same size of another vessel.
1) 4g 2) 8g 3) 16g 4) 32g

75. Pressure exerted by 2 grams of helium present in a vessel is 1.5 atm. If 4 grams of gas ‘x’ is
introduced into the same vessel keeping the condition constant, the pressure is 2.25 atm. Gas
‘x’ is
1) hydrogen 2) methane 3) oxygen 4) sulphurdioxide

76. Critical temperatures of carbondioxide, ammonia and oxygen are respectively 304, 405 and

154 K. The gas that can be liquified first, when cooling is started from 500 K

52 | P a g e
UDAY
 1) carbondioxide 2) ammonia
3) oxygen 4) all at once

77. Postulate of kinetic gas theory that explains the pressure exerted by a gas is due to
1) volume of gas molecules is almost zero compared to volume of gas
2) molecules of gas colloides with the inner walls of container
3) average kinetic energy of gas molecules is constant at a given temperature
4) there exists no atrraction and no repulsion between gas molecules

78. At 00C, certain mass of argon present in a 10L steel vessel exerts a pressure of 2 atm.The
temperature at which the pressure is 1 atm is
1) 00C 2) 0K 3) -136.50C 4) -136.5K

79. Velocity of a gas molecule decreases with an increases in

1) temperature 2) density
3) pressure at constant volume 4) volume at constant pressure

80. Molecules of liquid hydrogenchloride are held with

1) London, dispersion forces 2) Dipole-induced dipole forces

3) Dipole-dipole forces 4) Induced dipole—induced dipole forces

81. Formal charge on the middle oxygen atom in Lewis structure of ozone molecule is
1) +1 2) 0 3) -1 4) -2
82. The shape of sulphite and sulphate anions are respectively
1) pyramidal and tetrahedral 2) pyramidal and square polar_
3) square polar and tetrahedral 4) square polar and pyramidal

83. Correct increasing order of oxygen-oxygen bond energies

1) H2O2 < O2 < O3 2) H2O2 < O3 < O2 3) O3 < H2O2 < O2 4) O2 < H2O2 < O3

84. Which of the following conversion leads to an increase in stability based on molecular orbital
model
1) N2  N2+ 2) N2  N2 3) O2  O2+ 4) O2  O2

85. Maximum number of hydrogen bonds formed by a molecule of water

1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
86. Least stable among the following based on concept of resonance
1) OCl- 2) ClO2- 3) ClO3- 4) ClO4-

53 | P a g e
UDAY
87. Ratio of number of hybrid orbitals and pure atomic orbitals used in the formation of
acetylene molecule
1) 4 : 3 2) 1 : 1 3) 3 : 4 4) 2 : 3

88. Which among the following contains polar bonds but the molecule is nonpolar?

1)NCl3 2)BF3 3)CHCl3 4)H2O

89. Volatility of which of the following is least?

1) n-butane 2) Neo pentane 3) Iso pentane 4) n-pentane
90. Bonds present in potassium ferricyanide are
1) ionic and covalent only 2) ionic and dative only
3) covalent and dative only 4) ionic, covalent and dative

Answers
46) 3 47) 1 48) 2 49) 3 50) 3 51) 1 52) 3 53) 1 54) 3 55) 1
56) 3 57) 2 58) 1 59) 1 60) 3 61) 2 62) 4 63) 3 64) 4 65) 4
66) 2 67) 3 68) 1 69) 2 70) 2 71) 4 72) 3 73) 2 74) 2 75) 2
76) 2 77) 2 78) 3 79) 2 80) 3 81) 1 82) 1 83) 2 84) 3 85) 4
86) 1 87) 4 88) 2 89) 4 90) 4

54 | P a g e
UDAY