Professional Documents
Culture Documents
QUESTIONS in
COMPREHENSIVE REVIEWER IN
COMMUNICATIONS
ENGINEERING
Philander U. Lomboy, ECE
Benedetto D. Villanueva, ECE
dB/NOISE
1. A current change that is equal to twice its original value will correspond to a change of
a. 3 dB
b. 9 dB
c. 10 dB
d. 6 dB
2. What does a power difference of -3dB mean?
a. A loss of one third of the power
b. A loss of one-half of the power
c. A loss of 3 watts of power
d. No significant change
3. A gain of 60 dB is the same as a gain of
a. 10 volts/volt
b. 100 volts/volt
c. 1000 volts/volt
d. 10,000 volts/volt
4. ______ is mathematically equal to the logarithm to the base ten of the power ratio P1
over P2.
a. bel
b. dB
c. bel/10
d. dB/2
5. Noise that is produced by the active components within the receiver.
a. Thermal
b. External
c. Internal
d. White
6. Noise due to random variation in the arrival of charge carriers at the output electrode of
an active device
a. Shot
b. Impulse
c. Thermal
d. Dynamic
7. A network has a loss of 20 dB. What power ratio corresponds to this loss
a. 0.01
b. 0.1
c. 10
d. 100
8. A receiver connected to an antenna whose resistance is 60 ohms has an equivalent noise
resistance of 40 ohms. Calculate the receivers noise figure in decibels and its equivalent
noise temperature.
a. 1.67 & 194K
b. 2.23 & 194K
c. 1.67 & 174K
d. 2.23 & 194K
9. _____ Noise is the most prevalent noise found in urban areas and is normally caused by
the arc discharge from automobile or aircraft ignition systems, induction motors,
switching gears, high voltage lines and the like.
a. Industrial
b. Johnson
c. Flicker
d. Mixer
10. The noise figure of a totally noiseless device is
a. Unity
b. Infinity
c. Zero
d. 100
11. Indicate the noise whose source is in a category different from that of the other three.
a. Solar
b. Cosmic
c. Atmospheric
d. Galactic
12. The ratio(in dB) of the power of a signal at point to the power of the same signal at the
reference point.
a. Transmission Level Point
b. Noise Figure
c. S/N Ratio
d. Neper
13. A network has a power gain of -3dB. If the input power is 100 watts, the output power is
a. 50 watts
b. 55 watts
c. 60 watts
d. 62 watts
14. Which of the following types of noise becomes of great importance at high frequencies?
a. Shot
b. Random
c. Impulse
d. Transmit time
15. The input current of a network is 190 uA and the output is 1.3 uA. The loss in decibels is
a. 20.2
b. 21.6
c. 28.6
d. 43.3
16. If a network connected in series have a gain of -0.5 dB, -0.3dB, -2dB and 6.8dB, the
overall gain is
a. 2 dB
b. -2dB
c. 4 dB
d. -4dB
17. What is the gain, in dB, if the output to input ratio is 1000.
a. 20
b. 30
c. 40
d. 10
18. The following characteristics of noise exept
a. Unwanted energy
b. Predictable in character
c. Present in the channel
d. Due to any cause
19. The equivalent noise temperature of the amplifier is 25 K what is the noise figure?
a. 10.86
b. 1.086
c. 0.1086
d. 1.86
20. A receiver connected to an antenna whose resistance is 50 ohms has an equivalent noise
resistance of 30 ohms. What is the receivers noise temperature?
a. 464K
b. 754K
c. 400K
d. 174K
21. A theoretical antenna has a gain of 1dB. Its gain in nepers is
a. 8.686
b. 0.1151
c. 6.868
d. 0.5111
22. What is the equivalent output of a circuit in dBm, if it has an output of 10 watts?
a. 10 dBm
b. 30dBm
c. 20dBm
d. 40dBm
23. An amplifier with an input resistance of 1000 ohms is operating over a 4 MHz bandwidth.
Calculate the rms voltage if the amplifier is operating at 27 C.
a. 8.14 nV
b. 8.14 uV
c. 6.6 nV
d. 6.6 uV
24. The value of a resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise power generated is
therefore
a. Halved
b. Quadrupled
c. Doubled
d. Unchanged
25. One of the following is not a useful quantity for comparing the noise performance of
receivers.
a. Input noise voltage
b. Equivalent noise resistance
c. Noise temperature
d. Noise figure
26. Any unwanted form of energy that tends to interfere with the wanted signal is called
a. Noise
b. Spectrum
c. Radiation
d. Absorption
27. The correct symbol for decibel is
a. DB
b. dB
c. Db
d. db
28. _____ is the noise created outside the receiver.
a. Internal
b. External
c. Shot
d. Industrial
29. _____ is the noise created by man.
a. Solar
b. Industrial
c. Extraterrestrial
d. Galactic
30. A voltage change that is equal to twice its original value correspond to a change of
a. 3dB
b. 6dB
c. 9dB
d. 10dB
31. Indicate the voltage level in dB with reference to one volt. This unit is used in video or
TV measurement
a. dBW
b. dBk
c. dBm
d. dBV
32. which of the following is not an actual amount of power?
a. dB
b. dBm
c. dBw
d. dBk
33. In noise analysis, the reference temperature is
a. 75 K
b. 250 K
c. 290 K
d. 300 K
34. Noise from distant panels, stars, galaxies and other celestial objects are called
a. Cosmic
b. Extraterrestrial
c. Galactic
d. Black body
35. Indicate which one of the following types of noise does not occur in transistors
a. Shot noise
b. Flicker noise
c. Partition noise
d. Resistance noise
36. Which of the following is not a source of space noise
a. Sun
b. Star
c. Lightning
d. Black body
37. Noise that is due to the random and rapid motion of the charge carriers inside a resistive
component.
a. Johnson
b. Thermal Agitation
c. White
d. All of the above
38. Indicate the false statement. The square of the thermal noise voltage generated by a
resistor is proportional to
a. Its resistance
b. Its temperature
c. Boltzmanns Constant
d. The bandwidth over which it is measured
39. In a communication system, noise is likely to affect the signal
a. At the transmitter
b. In the channel
c. In the information source
d. At the destination
40. The noise power generated by a resistor is proportional to
a. Temperature
b. Bandwidth
c. a and b
d. NOTA
41. Thermal noise is also known as
a. Gaussian Noise
b. White Noise
c. Johnson noise
d. All of the above
42. This type of noise has a power spectrum which decreases with increasing frequency. It is
most important at low frequencies from 0 to about 100 Hz).
a. Shot noise
b. Flicker noise
c. Diode noise
d. BJT noise
43. Industrial noise extends up to what frequency?
a. 500 MHz
b. 500 GHz
c. 500 THz
d. 500 KHz
44. Impulse Noise is
a. A function of current
b. A shot duration pulse
c. Dependent of frequency
d. Dependent of temperature
45. When the power ratio of the output to input of a circuit is 200. What is the gain in dB?
a. 23
b. 46
c. -23
d. -46
46. What is the reference level for random noise measurement, FIA weighted?
a. -82 dBm
b. -90 dBm
c. -85 dBm
d. -77 dBm
47. A 10 dB pad has an output level of -3 dBm. The level at the input is:
a. 13 dBm
b. -7 dBm
c. 1 dBm
d. 7 dBm
48. The sum of three signals of 45dBm each is ______ dBm.
a. 45
b. 135
c. 20
d. 50
49. It is characterized by high amplitude peaks of short duration in the total noise spectrum
a. Intermodulation voice
b. Impulse noise
c. Dropout
d. Phase hits
50. Originally was determined by measuring the interfering effect of noise in a Type 144
handset. A tone of 1 kHz, having a power level of 90dBm was selected as the reference
level.
a. Noise figure
b. S/N ratio
c. Signal Figure
d. Figure of Merit
51. A power level of 50 uW could be expressed as:
a. 1.39 dBm
b. -4.3 dBm
c. 1 dBm
d. -13 dBm
52. If a power of 0.25mW is launched into a fiber system with an overall loss of 15 dB the
output power would be:
a. 250 u/W
b. 31.6 uW
c. 7.9 uW
d. 15 dBm
53. A system having an input power of 2 mW an output power of 0.8mW has a loss of:
a. 2.98 dBm
b. 3.98 dB
c. 3.98 uW
d. 1.98 mW
54. An output of -10 dB means that the power has been
a. Halved in value
b. Increased by a factor of 10
c. Reduced by a factor of 10
d. Doubled
55. Any unwanted form of energy interfering the reception of wanted signal is called
a. Noise
b. Sideband
c. Harmonics
d. Modulation
56. Is the reduction of signal amplitude as it passed over the transmission medium.
a. Noise
b. Distortion
c. Attenuation
d. Interference
57. Signal waveform perturbation or deviation caused by imperfect response of the system to
the desired signal
a. Noise
b. Aliasing
c. Distortion
d. Interference
58. Signal attenuation can be corrected by
a. Filtering
b. Modulation
c. Equalization
d. Amplification
59. Distortion in a waveform can be corrected by
a. Filtering
b. Modulation
c. Equalization
d. Amplification
60. Signal contamination by extraneous or external sources, such as, other transmitters,
power lines, and machinery.
a. Noise
b. Distortion
c. Harmonics
d. Interference
61. Man-made or industrial noise is also known as
a. Noise
b. Distortion
c. Interference
d. Thermal Noise
62. The noise performance of a receiver or circuit. It is expressed as ratio of the S/N power at
the output.
a. Noise figure
b. S/N ratio
c. Signal figure
d. Figure of merit
63. Noise that is caused by natural disturbances such as lightning discharge.
a. Static noise
b. Space noice
c. Atmospheric noise
d. A or C
64. Atmospheric or static noise becomes less severe at frequencies
a. Below 30 KHz
b. Between 30 KHz and 300 KHz
c. Between 300 KHz and 30 MHz
d. Above 30 MHz
65. Considered as space noise or extraterrestrial noise
a. Solar noise
b. Cosmic noise
c. Black-body noise
d. All of the above
66. Which statement is true
a. Industrial noise is usually of impulse type
b. Distant stars produce atmospheric noise
c. Active switches are sources of man-made noise
d. Static noise is due to lightning discharges and other natural electric disturbances
occurring in the atmosphere.
67. Noise performance of microwave system is usually expressed in terms of
a. Noise voltage, Vn=
b. Noise power, Pn = KTB
c. Noise temperature, Te = (F 1)290
d. Noise figure, F = (S/N)I / (S/N)o
68. Which circuit contributes most to the noise at the receiver?
a. RF amplifier
b. Mixer
c. Detector
d. Local Oscillator
69. Which noise figure represents the lowest noise?
a. 1.5 dB
b. 2.0 dB
c. 3.7 dB
d. 4.1 dB
70. Denote the interference of noise in dB above an adjusted reference noise. The adjusted
reference noise level was a 1 kHz tone, set at -85 dBm
a. dBa
b. dBm
c. dBa0
d. pWp
71. The extent of noise referred to a test tone level of zero dBm.
a. dBa
b. dBm
c. dBa0
d. pWp
72. An amplifier operating over a 4 MHz bandwidth has a 100 input resistance and is
operating at 300K. Determine the noise power generated.
a. 1.656 x 10-14 Watts
b. 1656 nW
c. 1.656 pW
d. 1.656 uW
73. Generally used when noise readings are measured using the C-message weighting
network. The reference level was 1 kHz tone, set at -90 dBm
a. dBa
b. dBm
c. dBaO
d. dBmC
74. The measurement of noise was made with a C-message filter, and the reading is taken at
a test point where the level is zero dBm.
a. dBaO
b. dBmCo
c. dBa
d. dBmC
75. Which of the following is not an important cause of distortion in DC signaling
a. line resistance
b. line inductance
c. line capacitance
d. all of the above
76. There are a number of different sources of radio noise, the most important being
a. Galactic noise
b. Man-made noise
c. Atmospheric noise
d. All f the above
77. The amount of noise power is measured using a psophometric weighting network. This
unit of measurement is generally used in Europe where the standard reference tone is 800
hertz, 1 picowatt.
a. dBa
b. dBm
c. dBaO
d. pWp
78. Noise produced mostly by lightning discharges in thunderstorms.
a. White noise
b. Industrial noise
c. Atmospheric noise
d. Extraterrestrial noise
79. Propagation of man made noise is chiefly by
a. Transmission over power lines and by ground wave
b. Space wave
c. Sky wave
d. None of these
80. A more precise evaluation of the quality of a receiver as far as noise is concerned
a. S/N
b. VSWR
c. Noise factor
d. Noise margin
81. NIF stands for
a. Non-intrinsic figure
b. Noise interference figure
c. Noise improvement factor
d. Narrow intermediate frequency
82. External noise fields are measured in terms of
a. Dc values
b. Rms values
c. Peak values
d. Average values
83. Form of interference caused by rain, hail, snow or dust storms
a. Shot noise
b. Galactic noise
c. Impulse noise
d. Precipitation static
84. Extra-terrestrial noise is observable at frequencies from
a. 0 to 20KHz
b. 8 MHz to 1.43 GHz
c. 5 to 8 GHz
d. 15 to 160 MHz
85. Industrial noise is observable from
a. 15 to 160 MHz
b. 200 to 3000 MHz
c. 0 to 10 kHz
d. 8 Mhz to 1.43 GHz
86. Noise that becomes significant at VHF range and above
a. Atmospheric
b. Transit-time
c. Galactic
d. White
87. Noise figure for an amplifier with noise is always
a. 0 dB
b. Infinite
c. Less than 1
d. Greater than 1
88. The noise generated by the tube, transistor or integrated circuit in an amplifier.
a. White noise
b. Amplification noise
c. Active noise
d. Dynamic Noise
89. Electrical noise inherent to a particular device, circuit or system that remains when no
other signal is present.
a. Shot noise
b. Thermal noise
c. Background noise
d. Static noise
90. A wideband form of impulse noise generated by the electric arc in the spark plugs of an
internal combustion engine. This noise is a common problem in mobile radio system.
a. Thermal noise
b. Shot noise
c. Amplification noise
d. Ignition noise
91. The amount of power in dB referred to one Kilowatt
a. dBW
b. dBk
c. dBm
d. Dbv
92. Noise in any form of electromagnetic interference that can be traced to non-natural
causes.
a. Man-made noise
b. Distortion
c. External noise
d. Internal noise
93. The frequency range wherein noise is said to be intense.
a. Noise equivalent bandwidth
b. Spectral response
c. Cut-off frequency
d. Noise cut-off frequency
94. Refers to the temperature that corresponds to the spectral energy distribution of a noise.\
a. Absolute temperature
b. Temperature band
c. Noise-equivalent temperature
d. Critical temperature
95. A passive circuit, usually consisting of capacitance and/or inductance, that I inserted in
series with the a-c power cord of an electronic device which will allow the 60-Hz current
to pass and suppressed high frequency noise components.
a. Noise filter
b. Noise limiter
c. Noise floor
d. Noise quieting
96. What do you call the level of background noise, relative to some reference signal.
a. Noise figure
b. Minimum noise
c. Reference noise
d. Noise floor
97. A circuit often used in radio receivers that prevents externally generated noise from
exceeding amplitude. They are also called noise clippers
a. Noise floor
b. Noise filter
c. Noise limiter
d. Noise clamper
98. It is referred to as a short burst of electromagnetic energy.
a. Pulse
b. Noise pulse
c. Spike
d. Noise floor
99. The reduction of internal noise level in a frequency-modulated (FM) receiver as a result
of an incoming signal.
a. Noise quieting
b. Noise limiting
c. Noise suppression
d. Noise degredation
100. Noise generated within electronic equipment by either passive or active components.
a. Shot noise
b. Thermal noise
c. Circuit noise
d. External noise
Modulation
1. In practice, the transmission lines are almost connected to antennas that have a _____.
a. Resistive load whose resistance is greater than the characteristic impedance of the
line
b. Resistive load whose resistance is less than the characteristic impedance of
the line
c. Resistive load at the resonant frequency
d. Capacitive load
2. When the transmission line is matched to the load, it
a. Transfers maximum current to the load
b. Transfers maximum voltage to the load
c. Transfers maximum power to the load
d. Reduces the load current
3. Conventional transmission media include
a. Twisted cable pair
b. Waveguide
c. Fiber optic cable
d. All of these
4. To couple a coaxial line to a parallel wire line, it is best to use a _____
a. Slotted line
b. Directional coupler
c. Balun
d. All of these
5. Impedance inversion may be obtained with
a. An open circuited stub
b. A short circuited stub
c. A quarterwave line
d. A half-wave line
6. To be properly matched, the ratio of maximum to minimum voltage along a transmission
line should be equal to
a. 50
b. 10
c. 2
d. 1
7. When ZL Zo, the powersent down the line toward the load is called the
a. The incident power
b. The reflected power
c. The power dissipation
d. The carrier power
8. For transmission line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use a
a. Balun
b. Broadband directional coupler
c. Double stub
d. Single adjustable stub
9. A short section of a transmission line, open or shorted that is used to match the
impedance of the line to that of an antenna or transmitter.
a. Slotted line
b. Stub
c. Wavetrap
d. Lecher wire
10. The property of a material that determines how much electrostatic energy can be stored
per unit volume when voltage is applied
a. Permeability
b. Magnetic effect
c. Capacitance
d. Permittivity
11. The value of the total opposition of the transmission media to the flow of electromagnetic
field energy is called
a. Characteristic impedance
b. Velocity factor
c. Standing waves
d. Reflected waves
12. When mismatch is great, this power actually cause damage to the transmitter or the line
itself.
a. The incident power
b. The reflected power
c. The power dissipation
d. The carrier power
13. What is the velocity factor for non-foam dielectric 50 or 75 ohm flexile coaxial cable
such as RG 8, 11, 58 and 59?
a. 270
b. 0.10
c. 0.66
d. 0.30
14. The measure of the superiority of a material over a vacuum as a path for magnetic lines
of force is
a. Permittivity
b. Permeability
c. Conductivity
d. Resistivity
15. The number of standing waves on the wire is equal to the length of the wire divided by a
half wavelength. The principle which allows antennas to operate at different frequencies
which are integral multiples of the fundamental frequency is called_______.
a. Harmonic operation
b. Decimonic operation
c. Electromagnetic reverberation
d. Asynchronous operation
16. A coax line has an attenuation of 2.4 dB per 100 ft. the attenuation for 2.75 ft. is _____
dB.
a. 2.4
b. 4.8
c. 3.3
d. 6.6
17. When a quarter wave stub is used to match a 600 ohm antenna to aline of 52 ohms, the
impedance of the matching stub must be ____ ohms.
a. 176
b. 200
c. 150
d. 300
18. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line is determined by
a. Its length
b. Its height above ground
c. Its physical construction
d. The operating frequency
19. When the diameter of two conductors of a two-wire transmission line is held constant, the
effect of decreasing the distance between the conductors is to
a. Decrease the impedance
b. Increase the surge impedance
c. Increase the radiation resistance
d. Decrease SWR
20. Considering a coaxial transmission line, maximum voltage on the line divided by the
minimum voltage equals the
a. Characteristic impedance
b. ISWR
c. VSWR
d. Inductive reactance
21. In a transmission line, if the SWR or maximum current to a minimum current ratio of 2:1,
the ratio of the maximum voltage to the minimum voltage is
a. 1:4
b. 4:1
c. 1:2
d. 2:1
22. Transmission lines are either balanced or unbalanced with respect to
a. Negative terminal
b. Input
c. Ground
d. Positive terminal
23. The load is properly matched with the transmission line if the standing wave ratio is
equal to
a. 50
b. 10
c. 5
d. 1
24. The radiation resistance of a quarterwave antenna is
a. 49 ohms
b. 288 ohms
c. 72 ohms
d. 144 ohms
25. A radio transmission line of 500 ohms impedance is to be connected to an antenna having
an imepedance of 200 ohms. What is the impedance of a quarter wave matching line?
a. 300
b. 316
c. 316.5
d. 361
26. The VSWR for a line terminated in its Zo is
a. 0
b. 1
c. 1.5
d. Infinity
27. Which of the following is used to measure SWR?
a. Multimeter
b. Reflectometer
c. Spectrum analyzer
d. Oscilloscope
28. A 75 j50 ohm load is connected to a coaxial transmission line of Zo = 75 ohms at 10
GHz. The best method of matching consists in connecting
a. A short circuited stub at the load
b. A capacitance at some specific distance from the load
c. An inductance at the load
d. A short-circuited stub at some specific distance from the load
29. For a two-wire line, Zo is higher when
a. The wire size is small with respect to the spacing of the conductors
b. The spacing is varied in accordance with the frequency
c. The D:d ratio is smaller
d. The wire is large with respect to the spacing of the conductors
30. A resultant wave due to the combination of incident and reflected wave
a. Electromagnetic wave
b. Sine wave
c. Standing wave
d. Current
31. For transmission line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use a
a. Balun
b. Broadband directional coupler
c. Double stub
d. Single stub
32. If the load impedance matches the characteristic impedance of the line, there are _____
standing waves.
a. More
b. Less
c. No
d. Ten(10)
33. VSWR stands for
a. Voltage sending wave ratio
b. Voltage receiving wave ratio
c. Very small wave radiation
d. Voltage standing wave ratio
34. Reflections on a transmission line can occur when
a. Impedance of the source and load are matched
b. Impedance of the source and the load are mismatched
c. Resonance conditions are obtained
d. Power transfer between source and load is maximum
35. A transmission line with characteristic impedance (Zo) of 300 ohms is terminated in a
resistance load (RI). If by measurement, the minimum and maximum voltage through the
load are 12 and 20 micro volts, respectively, what is the SWR?
a. 1.67
b. 0.6
c. 6.7
d. 3.67
36. A measure of the mismatched between line and load impedance is called as
a. Reflection coefficient
b. Standing wave ratio
c. Loss
d. Standing waves
37. Transmission lines when connected to antenna have
a. Capacitive load
b. Resistive load whose resistance is less than characteristic impedance
c. Resistive load at the resonant frequency
d. Resistive load whose resistance is greater than the characteristic impedance of the
line
38. At matched condition, SWR is equal to
a. Zero
b. One
c. 100
d. Infinite
39. An HF transmission line has a characteristic impedance of 600 ohms and is terminated by
an antenna. The SWR along the line when the antenna impedance is 500 ohms is
a. 1.2:1
b. 1:2.1
c. 2:1
d. 1:2
40. A characteristic of an infinite transmission line is that
a. The impedance in equals impedance out
b. It carries waves at the velocity of light
c. It can be connected to mismatched loads
d. The impedance varies with the length of the line
41. A quarter wave transmission line shorted at the end:
a. Has the characteristics of parallel tuned circuit
b. Has the characteristics of a series tuned circuit
c. Has a minimum current at the end
d. Reflects a low impedance to the supply
42. The outer conductor of a coaxial transmission line is usually grounded at the:
a. Input and output
b. Output only
c. Input only
d. Point of infinite resistance
43. A certain feedline has a high SWR. It can be caused by:
a. An impedance mismatched
b. Use of non-resonant line
c. Matching the load to the line
d. Excessive transmitter output
44. If the input impedance of an antenna is 300 ohms and it is fed with a 600 ohm balanced
transmission line, the SWR on the line is
a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 0.5
45. A radio transmission line of 300 ohms impedance to be connected to an antenna having
an input impedance of 150 ohms. The impedance if a quarter wave matching line is ___
ohms
a. 212
b. 450
c. 600
d. 150
46. The ratio of the reflected voltage to the incident voltage on the transmission line is
termed as
a. Reflection coefficient
b. Standing wave ratio
c. Loss
d. Standing waves
47. Indicate the three types of transmission line energy losses
a. Radiation, I(squared) R and dielectric Heating
b. Conductor heating, dielectric heating and radiation resistance
c. I(squared)R, RL and temperature
d. Dielectric separation insulation breakdown and radiation
48. Termination means
a. Load connected to the output end of a transmission line
b. Result of disconnecting a line from a transmitter
c. Looking back impedance of a line with no load
d. Result of cutting both ends of a conductor
49. When transmission line uses ground return, it is called a/n _____ line.
a. Ungrounded
b. Unbalanced
c. Grounded
d. Balanced
50. Permeability is the measure of superiority of a material over a vacuum as a path of
magnetic lines of force. The permeability of free space is equal to _____ henry/meter
a. 1.257 x 10-6
b. 1.527 x 10-6
c. 7.251 x 10-6
d. 5.217x10-6
51. The most commonly used transmission line is a
a. Two-wire balanced line
b. Single line
c. Three-wire line
d. Coax
52. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not depend upon its
a. Length
b. Conductor diameter
c. Conductor spacing
d. Thickness of armor
53. What is the impedance of a balance 4-wire with a diameter of 0.25cm and spaced 2.5 cm
apart using an insulator with a dielectric constant of 2.56?
a. 100 ohms
b. 65 ohms
c. 75 ohms
d. 50 ohms
54. It is required to match a 73-ohm antenna to a 600 ohm polyethylene coaxial feeder line,
with a velocity factor of 0.66 by means of a quarter wave matching a transformer. At a
frequency of 150MHz, the impedance of the matching section is____ ohms.
a. 209.28
b. 310.5
c. 150.28
d. 450.82
55. If the terminating impedance is exactly equal to the characteristic impedance of the
transmission line, the return loss is____
a. Zero
b. Infinity
c. One
d. Negative
56. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line is the impedance measured at the
____ when its length is infinite.
a. Shorted end of the line
b. Midsection
c. Input
d. Output
57. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line is 70 ohms and has a load of 35 ohms.
The SWR and reflection coefficient are _____ and _____ respectively
a. 2 and 0.333
b. 1 and 0.666
c. 2 and 0.666
d. 1 and 0.333
58. It is required to match a 200 ohm load to a 300 ohm transmission line to reduce the SWR
and attain resonace. A quarter wave transformer used, directly connected to the load has a
Zo of ____ ohms.
a. 245
b. 425
c. 524
d. 254
59. What quarter wave transformer will match a 100 ohm-lne to an antenna whose value is
175 ohms?
a. 150 ohms
b. 137.5 ohms
c. 132.29 ohms
d. 16.58 ohms
60. The mismatch between antenna and transmission line impedance cannot be corrected by
a. Using an LC network
b. Adjusting antenna length
c. Using a balun
d. Adjusting the length of the transmission line
61. A pattern of voltage and current variation along a transmission line not terminated in ints
characteristic impedance is called
a. An electric field
b. Radio waves
c. Standing waves
d. Magnetic field
62. The most desirable value of SWR on a transmission line is
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. Infinity
63. In transmission lines, the most desisrable reflection coefficient is
a. Zero
b. 0.5
c. 1
d. Infinity
64. At very high frequencies, transmission lines are used as _____.
a. Tuned circuits
b. Antennas
c. Insulators
d. Resistors
65. What is the reflection coefficient of a 100 ohm characteristic impedance line and a 300
ohm load?
a. 0.25
b. 0.3
c. 0.5
d. 0.75
66. The minimum voltage along a transmission line is 260 volts, while the maximum is 390
volts. The SWR is
a. 0.67
b. 1.0
c. 1.2
d. 1.5
67. A single conductor running from the transmitter to the antenna
a. RG-8/U
b. Single line wire
c. Twin-lead
d. Microstrip
68. What characteristic impedance is needed to match a 50-ohm line to a 300 ohm-load?
a. 221 ohms
b. 122 ohms
c. 212 ohms
d. 112 ohms
69. Indicate the false statement. The SWR on a transmission line is infinity; the line is
terminated in
a. Short circuit
b. A complex impedance
c. An open circuit
d. A pure reactance
70. A (75 j50) load is connected to a coaxial transmission line of Zo = 75 at 10 GHz.
The best method of matching consists in connecting
a. A short circuited stub
b. An inductance at the load
c. A capacitance at some specific distance from the load
d. A short circuited stub at some specific distance from the load
71. The velocity factor of a transmission line
a. Depends on the dielectric constant of the material used
b. Increases the velocity along the transmission line
c. Is governed by the skin effect
d. Is higher for a solid dielectric than for air
72. What is the characteristic impedance of a single wire with diameter d=0.25mm placed at
the center between grounded parallel planes separated by 1mm apart. The wire is held by
a material with a velocity factor of 0.75
a. 85 ohms
b. 63 ohms
c. 50 ohms
d. 75 ohms
73. Coaxial lines are used on those system operating ________.
a. Below 2 GHz
b. At 300 MHz
c. Above 10 KHz
d. Above 10 GHz
74. Referred to the dielectric constant of a transmission line material
a. Inductance and capacitance
b. Velocity factor
c. Characteristic impedance
d. Propagation velocity
75. The main advantage of the two-hole directional coupler is
a. Low directional coupling
b. Poor directivity
c. High SWR
d. Narrow bandwidth
76. To couple a coaxial line to a parallel-wire line, it is best to use a
a. Slotted line
b. Balun
c. Directional coupler
d. Quarter-wave transformer
77. What is the meaning of the term velocity factor of a transmission line?
a. The index of shielding for coaxial cable
b. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of
light in a vacuum
c. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance
d. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line divided by the velocity of light
in a vacuum
78. A transmission line consisting of two conductors that have equal resistance per unit
length.
a. Unbalance line
b. Open-wire line
c. Balanced line
d. Coaxial line
79. Which if the following is not a common transmission line impedance?
a. 50
b. 75
c. 120
d. 300
80. For a maximum absorption of power at the antenna, the relationship between the
characteristic impedance of the line Zo and the load impedance Zl should be
a. Zo = ZL
b. Zo > ZL
c. Zo < ZL
d. Zo = 0
81. Which of the following determines the characteristics of a transmission line?
a. Inductance
b. Capacitance
c. Physical dimensions
d. Length
82. In the study of transmission cable, twin lead is also referred to as a ______ .
a. Twisted pair
b. Double cable
c. Ribbon cable
d. Open pair
83. A 50 coax is connected to a 73 the SWR is
a. 0.685
b. 1
c. 1.46
d. 2.92
84. A ratio expressing the percentage of incident voltage reflected on a transmission line is
known as the
a. Velocity factor
b. Standing-wave ratio
c. Reflection coefficient
d. Line efficient
85. Three feet is one wavelength at a frequency of
a. 100 MHz
b. 164 MHz
c. 300 MHz
d. 328 MHz
86. An open quarter-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a(n)
a. Series resonant circuit
b. Parallel resonant circuit
c. Capacitor
d. Inductor
87. A shorted half-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a(n)
a. Capacitor
b. Inductor
c. Series resonant circuit
d. Parallel resonant circuit
88. At UHF and microwave frequencies, transmission lines are commonly used as
a. Antenna
b. Coupler
c. Resonant circuit
d. Transformer
89. The transmission medium subjects the transmitted signal to be
a. Modulated
b. Amplified
c. Attenuated
d. Boosted
90. Transmission line is a two-wire cable that connects the transmitter to the antenna or the
antenna to the receiver. The purpose of the transmission line is to
a. Amplify the RF signal
b. Modulate the signal
c. Carry the RF energy for the desired distance
d. All of the above
91. These conductors are uniformly spaced by insulators. They have low losses at low
medium frequencies and are economical to construct and maintained
a. Coaxial cables
b. Open-wire transmission lines
c. Optical cables
d. Waveguides
92. To prevent radiation losses and interference from external sources, the inner conductor of
this transmission line is completely enclosed with a metal sheath or braid
a. Coaxial cable
b. Open-wire transmission lines
c. Optical cables
d. Waveguides
93. The term balanced line means that
a. Both conductors carry currents that flow in opposite directions
b. Conductors present equal capacitance to ground
c. One conductor is connected to ground
d. Both A and B
94. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line is determined by:
a. Its operating frequency
b. Its length
c. Its physical size and arrangement
d. The signal applied at the input terminal
95. The disturbance parameters of the transmission line are: the series resistance; the series
inductance; the shunt capacitance and the shunt conductance. What parameter was
determined due to dielectric losses?
a. Series resistance
b. Series inductance
c. Shunt capacitance
d. Shunt conductance
96. Shunt capacitance was determined due to:
a. Conductors were closed to each other
b. The length and diameter of the conductors
c. Dielectric loses
d. Flux linkages
97. Series resistances was determined due to:
a. Conductors were closed to each other
b. The length and diameter of the conductors
c. Dielectric losses
d. Flux linkages
98. At radio frequencies was determined due to:
a. Characteristic
b. Inductive reactance is much larger than the shunt conductance
c. Capacitive reactance is much larger than the shunt conductance
d. Both b and c
99. Determine the characteristic impedance of a transmission line which has a capacitance of
30 pF/m and an inductance of 75 nH/m
a. 5
b. 50
c. 500
d. 5 K
100. If a charge in the dielectric material decreases the capacitance, the characteristic
impedance is
a. Kept constant
b. Decreased
c. Increased
d. Halved
Wave Propagation
1. Indicate which of the following frequencies cannot be used for reliable beyond-the-
horizon terrestrial communications without repeaters:
a. 20 kHz
b. 15 MHz
c. 900 MHz
d. 12 GHz
2. A ship-to-ship communications system is plagued by fading. The best solution seems to
be the use of
a. A more directional antenna
b. A broadband antenna
c. Frequency diversity
d. Space diversity
3. A range of microwave frequencies more easily passed by the atmosphere than are the
others is called a
a. Window
b. Critical frequency
c. Gyro frequency range
d. Resonance in the atmosphere
4. Frequencies in the UHF range propagate by means of
a. Ground waves
b. Sky waves
c. Surface waves
d. Space waves
5. Tropospheric scatter is used with frequencies in the following range:
a. HF
b. VHF
c. UHF
d. VLF
6. When microwave signals follow the curvature of the earth, this is known as
a. The Faraday effect
b. Ducting
c. Tropospheric scatter
d. Iosnospheric reflection
7. Helical antennas are often used for satellite tracking at VHF because of
a. Troposcatter
b. Superrefraction
c. Ionospheric refraction
d. The Faraday effect
8. _______________ consists basically of a thin film strip in intimate contact with one side
of a flat dielectric substrate, with a similar thin-film ground plane conductor on the other
side of the substrate.
a. Strip line
b. Lecher wire
c. Microstrip
d. Stub
9. Waveguide is a
a. Device used to determine the wavelength of a signal
b. Hollow metal tube used for transmission of microwave energy
c. Plastic tubular transmission line for high RF network
d. Braided wire used for transmission of HF
10. Transmission lines which can convey electromagnetic waves only in higher order modes
are usually called
a. Coaxial cable
b. Twisted pair
c. Power lines
d. Waveguides
11. In order to reduce cross-sectional dimensions, the waveguide to use is
a. Circular
b. Ridge
c. Rectangular
d. Elliptical
12. A signal propagated in a waveguide has a full wave of electric intensity change between
the two farther walls, and no component of the electric field in the direction of
propagation. The mode is
a. TE1,1
b. TE1,0
c. TM2,2
d. TE2,0
13. When a particular mode is excited in a waveguide, there appears an extra electric
component, in the direction of propagation. The resulting mode is
a. Transverse electric
b. Transverse magnetic
c. Longitudinal
d. Transverse electromagnetic
e. None of these
14. The wavelength of a wave in a waveguide
a. Is greater than in free space
b. Depends on waveguide dimensions and free space wavelength
c. Is inversely proportional to the phase velocity
d. Is directly proportional to the group velocity
15. When electromagnetic waves are propagated in a waveguide, they
a. Travel along the broader walls of the guide
b. Are reflected from walls but not travel along them
c. Travel through the dielectric without touching the walls
d. Travel along the 4 walls of the waveguides
16. When microwave signals follow the curvature of the earth, this is known as
a. Faraday Effect
b. Deducting
c. Tropospheric Scatter
d. Ionospheric Reflection
17. A waveguide mode in which there is no component of electric field in the direction of
propagation given in the British European standards.
a. H-mode
b. E-mode
c. TE mode
d. M-mode
18. The extra strength needed in order to assure that enough signal reaches the receiving
antenna and must be made available to compensate for fades; computed as the difference
between the received signal strength and the threshold level
a. Fade Margin
b. Threshold Level
c. Noise Figure
d. RSL
19. The use of redundant system to reduce the effects of multipath fading is
a. Combining
b. Modulation
c. Multiplexing
d. Diversity
20. A profile graph of the microwave energy path
a. Shows the cross section of the earths surface
b. Determines LOS or site technical feasibility
c. Determines the actual clearance, antenna heights and system reliability
d. All of the preceding
21. In locating microwave relay stations, the systems designer must consider
a. Terrain obstructions and reflection points
b. Site security and navigational hazards
c. Availability of power, water source and accessible roads
d. All of the above
22. A microwave path over which radio waves barely touches the obstruction is called
a. Line of Sight
b. Obstructed Path
c. Grazing Path
d. Crooked Path
23. What is the function of regenerative repeater?
a. To eliminate bias distortion
b. To help in the loading of the telegraphs lines
c. To reduce required signal levels
d. To reshape the pulses after they have become distorted
24. A situation when there is no change in attenuation or no gain, no loss occurs when
________ % of the first Fresnel radius clears a path obstruction in microwave systems.
a. 45%
b. 60%
c. 75%
d. 85%
25. ____________ are concentric circular zones about a direct path of a microwave signal
called Huygens radiation center, forming an imaginary solid called an ellipsoid
__________.
a. Temperature zone
b. Skip zone
c. Fresnel zone
d. Fraunhoffer zone
26. Waveguides are used mainly for microwave transmission because
a. They depend on straight line propagation
b. Losses are heavy at lower frequencies
c. They are bulky at lower frequencies
d. No generator is powerful enough to excite them
27. A waveguide assembly that lets the radar transmitter and receiver share an antenna is
called
a. Translator
b. Diplexer
c. Flip-flop
d. duplexer
28. ________________ is a graph wherein the terrain in which the microwave beam should
traverse.
a. Topograph
b. Radio path profile
c. Fresnel graph
d. Net path graph
29. The Fresnel zone is the circular zone about the _______ path.
a. Reflected
b. Direct
c. LOS
d. Refracted
30. The radius in the circular zone is in the first Fresnel zone when the reflected path is
_______ longer than the direct path.
a. /2
b.
c. /4
d. /8
31. At __________ of the first Fresnel zone is a condition where there is no gain and no loss.
a. 0.5
b. 0.6
c. 0.7
d. 0.8
32. The weakest signal the receiver could accept to be considered satisfactory.
a. Threshold
b. Fade margin
c. RSL
d. NPL
33. The frequency band from 8 to 12 GHz is known as the band.
a. C
b. Ku
c. X
d. Ka
34. The difference between the Received Signal Level and the FM Improvement Threshold
a. System Gain
b. Noise Threshold
c. Fade Margin
d. Reliability
35. A Fade Margin of 28 dB has a reliability of
a. 99%
b. 99.9%
c. 99.99%
d. 99.999%
36. Topographical maps are used for microwave communications systems design because
_________ are shown, thereby elevations are known.
a. Latitudes
b. Longitudes
c. Contour lines
d. Scales
37. The dominant mode in a rectangular waveguide.
a. TEM
b. TE1,1
c. TE1,0
d. TM1,1
38. The velocity of a resultant wave as it travels through the waveguide.
a. Speed of light
b. Group velocity
c. Phase velocity
d. Incident velocity
39. The principal mode for a circular waveguide.
a. TE1,0
b. TM2,0
c. TE1,1
d. TEM
40. A type of waveguide that reduces the cutoff wavelength, increases bandwidth and
allows for a variation of the characteristics impedance.
a. Ridge
b. Rectangular
c. Tee
d. Twisted
41. The subscript which indicates the number of /2 s along the waveguide height.
a. m
b. n
c. a
d. b
42. The international equivalent of the TE mode
a. H
b. E
c. Z
d. TEM
43. The smallest free space wavelength that is just unable to propagate in the waveguide
under given conditions.
a. Guide
b. Phase
c. Cut-off
d. Group
44. The characteristic wave impedance of a waveguide in the TE mode is _______ that of
the TM mode.
a. Equal to
b. Higher than
c. Lower than
d. NOTA
45. The following are methods of exciting waveguides except
a. Slot coupling
b. Antennas
c. Flanges
d. Direct coupling
46. Higher order mode-waveguides are not used in practice because they have ______ cut-
off frequencies.
a. Low
b. High
c. Indeterminate
d. Fixed
47. Indicate which of the following cannot be followed by the word waveguide
a. Elliptical
b. Flexible
c. Coaxial
d. Ridged
48. A piston attenuator is a
a. Vane attenuator
b. Waveguide below cut-off
c. Mode filter
d. Flap attenuator
49. Which of the following waveguide tuning components is not easily adjustable?
a. Screw
b. Stub
c. Iris
d. Plunger
50. Which of the following is not a waveguide termination component?
a. Tapered pyramid
b. Post
c. Tapered resistance card
d. Stepped resistance card
51. What microwave component can sample part of the power travelling through the
waveguide?
a. Directional coupler
b. Magic tee
c. Circulator
d. Re-entrant cavity
52. The following are gases used for LASERs except
a. Helium
b. Neon
c. Argon
d. ruby
53. Also known as the optical maser
a. Ruby maser
b. LASER
c. Quantum mechanics
d. GaAs maser
54. Paramagnetic means _____________ magnetic
a. Almost
b. Fully
c. Slightly
d. Electro
55. Tuning the ruby maser is done by adjusting the _________ to alter the energy level of
the ferrous chromium.
a. Electric field
b. Magnetic field
c. Pumping of electrons
d. Electromagnetic field
56. To overcome the very narrow bandwidth in ruby maser, _______ is used.
a. Magnetron
b. TWT
c. IMPATT diode
d. Gunn diode
57. The following are applications of masers except
a. Radioastronomy
b. Radiotelescope
c. Radar
d. ET communications
58. A parametric amplifier is a device which amplifies signal by varying the
a. Resistance
b. Reactance
c. Magnetic field
d. Electric field
59. The following are parts of the parametric amplifier except
a. Idling circuit
b. Pump circuit
c. Tuned circuit
d. Filter circuit
60. The number of cavities in a magnetron used in practice.
a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 10
61. Changing the anode voltage to change the velocity of the electrons in a magnetron tube
a. Frequency pushing
b. Frequency pulling
c. Strapping
d. Pumping
62. The lowest frequency that will propagate through the waveguide while operating in a
particular mode.
a. Critical frequency
b. Cut-off frequency
c. MUF
d. UHF
63. The mode of a waveguide where there is no component of magnetic field in the direction
of propagation
a. TE
b. TM
c. H
d. TEM
64. The following are slow wave structures used to retard the RF field in a TWT except
a. Helix
b. Attenuator
c. Waveguide coupled cavity
d. NOTA
65. A rectangular waveguide is 5.1 cm by 2.4 cm. The cut-off frequency for the dominant
mode is
a. 2.94 GHz
b. 6.25 GHz
c. 664 MHz
d. 57.7 GHz
66. Calculate the cut-off wavelength, the guide wavelength and the characteristic impedance
of a circular waveguide whose internal diameter is 4 cm for a 10 GHz signal propagated
in it in the dominant mode. (kr=1.84)
a. 6.83 cm, 3 cm, 420
b. 3 cm , 6.83 cm, 420
c. 6.83 cm, 3.34 cm, 420
d. 6.83 cm, 3.34 cm, 338
67. A wave is propagated in a parallel plane waveguide. The frequency is 6 GHz and the
plane separation is 3 cm. The cut-off wavelength for the dominant mode, the group and
phase velocities are
a. 5 cm, 166 Mm/sec,543 Mn/sec
b. 6 cm, 166 Mm/sec,543 Mn/sec
c. 6 cm, 543 Mm/sec,166 Mn/sec
d. 5 cm, 543 Mm/sec,166 Mn/sec
68. If the MTBF of a communication circuit is 20,000 hours and its MTTR is 5 hours, what
is its unavailability?
a. 0.00025
b. 99.975%
c. 0.25 %
d. 00.975%
69. What would be the ERP, in watts if the transmitter output is 30 dBm and the
transmission line loss is 20 dB and the antenna connected to it has a power gain of 60 dB?
a. 10,000 watts
b. 1000 watts
c. 100 watts
d. 10 watts
70. Also referred to as the Transferred Electron Device
a. Magnetron
b. TWT
c. Gunn diode
d. APD
71. Also known as the Esaki diode
a. Gunn
b. Tunnel
c. IMPATT
d. PIN diode
72. The following are negative resistance amplifiers except
a. Tunnel
b. Gunn
c. IMPATT
d. PIN diode
73. Regarded as the oldest semiconductor device
a. Shottky Barrier diode
b. PIN diode
c. Point contact diode
d. Triode
74. Also called the hot electron diode
a. PIN diode
b. ESBAR
c. APD
d. Gunn diode
75. Also called tunnel rectifiers
a. Backward diode
b. Schottky barrier diode
c. APD
d. PIN diode
76. Varactors are variable __________ diode.
a. Reactance
b. Capacitance
c. Inductance
d. Resistance
77. Diodes designed to store energy in their capacitance during forward bias and generates
harmonics in the reverse bias.
a. Step recovery
b. Gunn
c. APD
d. IMPATT
78. A cross between the TWT and the magnetron in its operation
a. CFA
b. BWO
c. EIA
d. Twystron
79. The following are parts of a multicavity klystron except
a. Buncher cavity
b. Catcher cavity
c. Cathode
d. Attenuator
80. The very first microwave transistors
a. GaAs FET
b. Si BJT
c. MIC
d. NOTA
81. The most common microwave FET which is also known as the MESFET
a. Dual GaAs FET
b. Si BJT
c. MIC
d. Schottky Barrier Gate
82. It looks like a shorter, thicker TWT
a. CFA
b. BWO
c. EIA
d. Twystron
83. A Twystron is a hybrid combination of
a. TWT and Magnetron
b. TWT and Klystron
c. TWT and Ubitron
d. TWT and gyrotron
84. A multicavity klystron with interconnected multigap cavities
a. TWT
b. Twystron
c. EIA
d. Gyrotron
85. SAW propagate in
a. GaAs
b. InP
c. Stripline
d. Quartz crystal
86. The output from a laser is monochromatic; this means that it is
a. Infrared
b. Narrow beam
c. Polarized
d. Single frequency
87. The ruby laser differs from the ruby maser in that the former
a. Does not require pumping
b. Needs no resonator
c. Is an oscillator
d. Produces much lower powers
88. The transmission system using two ground planes
a. Microstrip
b. Elliptical waveguide
c. Parallel wire line
d. Stripline
89. A BWO is based on the
a. Rising sun magnetron
b. CFA
c. Coaxial magnetron
d. TWT
90. One of the following is unlikely to be used as a pulsed device
a. Multicavity klystron
b. BWO
c. CFA
d. TWT
91. A microwave tube amplifier uses an axial magnetic field and a radial electric field
a. Reflex klystron
b. Coaxial magnetron
c. TW magnetron
d. CFA
92. The attenuator is used in the TWT to
a. Help bunching
b. Prevent oscillation
c. Prevent saturation
d. Increase gain
93. The glass tube of a TWT may be coated with aquadag to
a. Help focusing
b. Provide attenuation
c. Improve bunching
d. Increase gain
94. The cavity magnetron uses strapping to
a. Prevent mode jumping
b. Prevent cathode back heating
c. Ensure bunching
d. Improve the phase focusing effect
95. Compared with equivalent transmission lines, 3-GHz waveguides (indicate false
statement)
a. Are less lossy
b. Can carry higher powers
c. Are less bulky
d. Have lower attenuation
96. Indicate the false statement. When the free-space wavelength of a signal equals the cut-
off wavelength of the guide
a. The group velocity of the signal becomes zero
b. The phase velocity of the signal becomes infinite
c. The characteristic impedance of the guide becomes infinite
d. The wavelength within the waveguide becomes infinite
97. A disadvantage of microstrip with respect to stripline circuits is that the former
a. Do not lend themselves to printed-circuit techniques
b. Are more likely to radiate
c. Are bulkier
d. Are more expensive and complex to manufacture
98. In order to couple two generators to a waveguide system without coupling them to each
other, one could not use a
a. Rat-race
b. E-plane T
c. Hybrid ring
d. Magic T
99. A PIN diode is
a. A metal semiconductor point-contact diode
b. A microwave mixer diode
c. Often used as a microwave detector
d. Suitable for use as a microwave switch
100. For handling high powers, the best transmission medium is
a. Stripline
b. Microstrip
c. Rectangular waveguide
d. Coaxial line
54. What do you call of a satellite used to provide satellite services within a single country?
a. Orbital satellite
b. Geostationary satellite
c. Nonsynchronous satellite
d. Domestic satellite or domsat
55. Which of the following is not an advantage of geosynchronous orbit?
a. No need to switch from one satellite to another as satellites orbit overhead, therefore,
no breaks of transmission due to switching times.
b. High-altitude geosynchronous satellites can cover a much larger area
c. Geosynchronous satellites require higher transmit powers and more sensitive
receivers because of the longer distances and greater path loss.
d. Satellite remains almost stationary in respect to a given earth station, therefore,
expensive tracking equipment is not required at the earth stations.
56. Which of the following parameters (height of the satellite from earth, travel time, rotation
period, and the satellites line of sight) refer to low-altitude satellite?
a. 19,000 25,000 mi; 6,879 mi/hr; 24 hr; and 24-h availability time, respectively
b. 6,000 12,000 mi; 12,189 mi/hr; 5 12 hr; and 2- 4 hr per orbit, respectively
c. 100 300 mi; 17,500 mi/hr; 1 hr, and or less per orbit, respective
d. 50 95 mi; 25,600 mi/hr, hr; and 1/8 or less per orbit, respectively
57. There are two primary classifications of communications satellite; one uses the angular
momentum of its spinning body to provide roll and yaw relative to earths surface while
an internal subsystem provides roll and yaw stabilization. What are they?
a. gyroscopic satellites
b. delayed repeater satellites
c. passive and active satellites
d. spinners and three-axis stabilizer satellites
58. How do radiation patterns or beams from a satellite antenna categorized?
a. Spot
b. Earth
c. Zonal
d. All of these
59. A ____________ satellite with an orbital period of one sidereal day or nominally, 24 h
a. Bent-pipe satellite
b. Processing satellite
c. Geostationary satellite
d. ANIK-D communications satellite
60. 19,000 25,000 mi height; 6, 879 mi/hr travel time; 24-hr rotation; and 24-hr availability
time belong to what satellite?
a. Low-altitude satellites (circular orbit)
b. Medium-altitude satellites (elliptical orbit)
c. High-altitude satellites (geosynchronous orbit)
d. GLONASS
61. An orbit when the satellite rotates in a path above the equator.
a. Polar orbit
b. Inclines orbit
c. Equatorial orbit
d. Geosynchronous orbit
62. Orbiting satellite system in Russia which means lightning or news flash, used for
television broadcasting. It uses a highly inclined elliptical orbit with apogee at about
40,000 km and perigee at about 1,000 km.
a. Molniya system
b. Molnya system
c. Molnia system
d. All are correct
63. Polar and inclined orbits refer to what?
a. Any other orbital path, and rotation above the equator, respectively
b. Any other orbital path, and rotation that takes over the north and south poles,
respectively
c. Rotation that takes over the north and south poles, and any other orbital path,
respectively
d. Rotation above the equator, and rotation that takes over the north and south poles,
respectively
64. ____________ means the farthest distance from earth a satellite orbit reaches while
____________ is the minimum distance.
a. Apogee and perigee, respectively
b. Perigee and apogee, respectively
c. A and B are the same
d. None of these
65. Refers to the line joining the perigee and apogee through the center of the earth
a. Line of sight
b. Line of nodes
c. Equatorial nelt
d. Line of apsides
66. The point where the orbit crosses the equatorial plane going from north to south; and the
point where the orbit crosses the equatorial plane going from south to north refer to
a. Ascending node
b. Descending node
c. Ascending node and descending node, respectively
d. Descending node and ascending node, respectively
67. What is the line joining the ascending and descending nodes through the center of the
earth?
a. Line of apsides
b. Line of nodes
c. Line of shoot
d. Line of sight
68. Refers to the horizontal pointing of an antenna.
a. Look angle
b. Elevation
c. Azimuth
d. Spot
69. What is meant by the angle of elevation?
a. The angle formed between the direction of travel of a wave radiated from an earth
station antenna and the horizontal.
b. The horizontal pointing of an antenna
c. The angle subtended at the earth station antenna between the satellite and the
horizontal
d. A or C is right
70. The range of frequencies used by communications satellites?
a. From 1 GHz up to 3 GHz
b. From 1 GHz up to 30 GHz
c. From 30 GHz up to 300 GHz
d. From 300 GHz up to 350 GHz
71. Otherwise considered as radio repeater in the sky.
a. Transponder
b. Satellite
c. Sputnik
d. Courier
72. How does interference between uplink and downlink signals be prevented?
a. By using different ground stations
b. By using different satellites
c. By using different carrier frequencies
d. All of these
73. An electronic system called transponder of the communications satellite is used
a. For frequency translations
b. To retransmit signals
c. To receive signals
d. All of the above
74. What do you call of the signal path from the transmitter to satellite and from the satellite
to earth-based receiver?
a. Downlink and uplink, respectively
b. Downlink
c. Uplink and downlink, respectively
d. Uplink
75. Why is it that the uplink is always higher in frequency than the downlink?
a. Because the uplink suffers greater spreading or free-space loss of frequency than its
lower counterpart
b. Since an earth station aims upward with well-controlled antenna sidelobes
c. A and B are correct
d. None of these
76. What is frequency hopping?
a. A form of CDMA where a digital code is used to continually change the frequency of
the carrier
b. Available bandwidth is partitioned into smaller frequency bands and the total
transmission time is subdivided into smaller time slots
c. Each earth stations within a CDMA network is assigned a different frequency
hopping pattern in which each transmitter hops or switched from one frequency band
to the next according to their assigned pattern
d. All of these
77. What is meant by satellite footprint?
a. Is the earth area that the satellite can receive from or transmit to
b. Is the function of both the satellite orbit and height, and the type of antenna the
satellite uses.
c. The geographical representation of the satellite antennas radiation pattern.
d. All of the above
78. What (is)are the advantage(s) using 1-GHz and higher frequencies?
a. Large amount of information can be sent due to large available bandwidth
b. Propagation characteristics are very consistent
c. Signal wavelengths are shorter
d. All of these are correct
79. What is meant by link budget?
a. The sum of all the signal gains and losses along the way.
b. The difference of the signal gains and losses along the way
c. Identifies the system parameters and is used to determine the projected C/N and E b/No
ratios at both the satellite and earth stations receivers for a given modulation scheme
and desired Pq.
d. A or C is right
80. How can satellite maintains its desired orbit consistently?
a. Using small on-board rocket trusters
b. Through using guidance system
c. By telemetry channel
d. All of these
81. A satellite consists of any subsystem functions incorporated into a single system. What is
the subsystem responsible for providing the primary dc power and the regulated,
secondary supply voltages for the satellite circuits?
a. Communication channel subsystem
b. Telemetry subsystem
c. Power subsystem
d. Antennas
82. How do communications satellites powered?
a. By a bank of batteries whose charge is maintained by an array of solar cells
b. Liquid fuel
c. Nuclear
d. AC power
83. _____________ is the total power consumption for the satellite operation?
a. About 10W
b. About 150W
c. About 2000W
d. About 25000 W
84. As the height of a satellite orbits gets lower, the speed of the satellite
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains the same
d. None of the above
85. The main function of a communications satellite is the
a. Repeater
b. Reflector
c. Beacon
d. Observation platform
86. The key electronic component in a communications satellite is the
a. Telemetry
b. On-board computer
c. Command and control system
d. Transponder
87. A circular orbit around the equator with a 24-h period is called a(n)
a. Elliptical orbit
b. Geostationary orbit
c. Polar orbit
d. Transfer obit
88. A satellite stays in orbit because the following two factors are balanced.
a. Satellite weight and speed
b. Gravitational pull and inertia
c. Centripetal force and speed
d. Satellite weight and the pull of the moon and sun
89. The height of a satellite in a synchronous equatorial orbit is
a. 100 mi
b. 6800 mi
c. 22,300 mi
d. 35, 860 mi
90. Most satellites operate in which frequency band?
a. 30 to 300 MHz
b. 300 MHz to 3 GHz
c. 3 GHz to 30 GHz
d. Above 300 GHz
91. The main power sources for a satellite are
a. Batteries
b. Solar cells
c. Fuel cells
d. Thermoelectric generators
92. The maximum height of an elliptical orbit is called the
a. Perigee
b. Apex
c. Zenith
d. Apogee
93. Batteries are used to power all satellite subsystems
a. At all times
b. Only during emergencies
c. During eclipse periods
d. To give the solar arrays a rest
94. The satellite subsystems that monitors and controls the satellite is the
a. Propulsion subsystem
b. Power subsystem
c. Communications subsystem
d. Telemetry, tracking, and command subsystem
95. The basic technique used to stabilized a satellite is
a. Gravity-forward motion balance
b. Spin
c. Thrusters control
d. Solar panel orientation
96. The jet thrusters are usually fired to
a. Maintain altitude
b. Put the satellite into the transfer orbit
c. Inject the satellite into the geosynchronous orbit
d. Bring the satellite back to the earth
97. Most commercial satellite activity occurs in which band(s)?
a. L
b. C and Ku
c. X
d. S and P
98. How can multiple earth stations share a satellite on the same frequencies?
a. Frequency reuse
b. Multiplexing
c. Mixing
d. They cant
99. The typical bandwidth of a satellite band is
a. 36 MHz
b. 40 MHz
c. 70 MHz
d. 500 MHz
100. Which of the following is not usually a part of a transponder?
a. LNA
b. Mixer
c. Modulator
d. HPA