Bupersinst 1430.16F

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Advancement Exam Study Guide
BUPERSINST 1430.16F
ADVANCEMENT MANUAL FOR THE

ADVANCEMENT OF ENLISTED PERSONNEL
OF U.S. NAVY AND U.S. NAVAL RESERVE
200 Questions and Answers
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BUPERSINST 1430.16F (WITH CHANGE-1), ADVANCEMENT MANUAL FOR

THE ADVANCEMENT OF ENLISTED PERSONNEL OF U.S. NAVY AND U.S.
NAVAL RESERVE
(200 Questions)
Chapter 1
1. Which ranks will personnel automatically advance to without local action so long as
they meet the minimum time in rate (TIR) requirements? (Page 1-3)
E2 and E3
2. What are the competitive examinations used as a part of that E4 through E7
advancement candidates take? (Page 1-3)
FMS
3. What does advancement to E7, E8, and E9 require? (Page 1-5)
Selection board
4. Which advancement candidates are designated SBE on the basis of their CO/OIC
recommendation and their TIR eligibility? (Page 1-5)
E8 and E9
5. What convenes the annual selection boards? (Page 1-5)
Chief of Naval Personnel (CHNAVPERS)
6. How often are Special Boards normally held, or as required, to consider any member
who was eligible but not properly considered by the last regular board? (Page 1-5)
Annually
7. How many months after the regular board convened do applicants have to submit a
request for a special enlisted selection board to NAVPERSCOM? (Page 1-6)
9
8. What is the sole approval authority for convening special enlisted selection boards?
(Page 1-6)
CHNAVPERS
9. Which selection board requires E6 personnel to pass the E7 advancement-in-rate
examination prior to submitting a package? (Page 1-6)
LDO
10. Which instruction provides information on the selection of senior enlisted personnel
for promotion to commissioned officer status? (Page 1-7)
OPNAVINST 1420.1A
11. What is responsible for developing, publishing, and distributing Navy-wide
advancement-in-rate examinations for the purpose of testing and rank-ordering personnel
who are qualified for advancement? (Page 1-10)
NETPDTC
12. No later than how many days prior to the first AEDC will NETPDTC publish a
quarterly schedule with the exact dates of upcoming AEDCs? (Page 1-11)
120
13. How many SMEs will usually be designated by NPDC to participate in the rating
AEDC? (Page 1-11)
6

14. No later than how many days prior to the scheduled AEDC should SME nominations
be received by NETPDTC? (Page 1-12)
45
15. Approximately how long prior to the commencement of the AEDC will NETPDTC
provide accounting data and arrange lodging for the SMEs? (Page 1-12)
2-weeks
16. How many years for most ratings are Topic/Sub-topic Subject/Sub-Subject Matrixes
planned out? (Page 1-13)
2
Chapter 1: Quiz 1
Audio Study Guide
Chapter 2
1. What is the most important advancement eligibility requirement? (Page 2-2)

CO/OIC recommendation
2. How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E1-E2? (Page 2-2)
9
9
6
12
36
36
36
36
10. What publication defines the path of advancement? (Page 2-2)
NAVPERS l8068F
11. What form should be used to enter the actual designation date for rating conversions
in the same paygrade? (Page 2-2)
NAVPERS 1070/604
12. Which MILPERSMAN article contains guidance on personnel designations other
than those graduating from A school? (Page 2-2)
MILPERSMAN 1440-050
13. What contain procedures for establishing eligibility for entry into closed/open ratings
with regards to Rating Entry for General Apprentices (REGA) and Career Reenlistment
Objectives (CREO), and Enlisted Career Management Objectives (ECMO)
ALNAVRESFORs for drilling Navy Reservists? (Page 2-2)

NAVADMINs
14. How long prior to selection board convening must personnel who are Selection Board
Eligible submit for a change of rating in order to receive a review by the selection board
in the new rating? (Page 2-3)
1 month
15. MILPERSMAN 1440-010 along with which other article contain the methods for
changing from one path of advancement to another? (Page 2-3)
1160-090
16. What authority is required to participate in Navy-wide examinations for change in
rating? (Page 2-3)
NAVPERSCOM (PERS-811/812)
17. Which type of alien has been lawfully admitted to the U.S. for permanent residence
under an immigration visa? (Page 2-4)
Immigrant alien
18. How many years is the naturalization residency requirement reduced down to after 3
years of honorable service in the U.S. Armed Forces? (Page 2-5)
3
19. Which MILPERSMAN article contains naturalization instructions for
servicemembers? (Page 2-5)
MILPERSMAN 5352-010
20. Which type of aliens are defined as other than immigrant aliens? (Page 2-6)
Foreign nationals
21. Which valid certificate must all ACs possess? (Page 2-6)
FAA 7220-1
22. Which instruction contains PC (*Note: PCs dont exist anymore so this would
probably be LSs) rating entry requirements? (Page 2-6)
OPNAVINST 5112.6C
23. Reserve personnel in what status are NOT eligible for participation in a Navy-wide
advancement examination? (Page 2-8)
Records Review
24. Except for Fleet Reservists recalled to active duty, E6, E7, and E8 members who have
submitted formal written requests for transfer to the FLTRES are ineligible for further
advancement consideration, unless the request is mandated by what? (Page 2-9)
HYT
25. Which mobilized personnel are not required to complete the LDP requirement for
advancement due to the limited duration of active duty? (Page 2-11)
Individual Ready Reserve (IRR)
26. Which MILPERSMAN article designates that nondesignated personnel who have an
A school request approved are not authorized to participate in an advancement
examination for any other rating? (Page 2-11)
MILPERSMAN 1440-050
27. Personnel in what paygrades that are ordered to a Class "A" school incorporating a
lengthy course of instruction shall be converted in rating at an equal paygrade after
successful completion of the basic or A-1 phase of that course of instruction? (Page 2-12)
E1 through E5

28. Which date is the advancement candidate's Service in Paygrade (SIPG) computed for
advancement purposes? (Page 2-13)
TED
29. What does the Department of Defense (DOD) prescribe as the minimum active
service a person must have to compete as a regular candidate for advancement? (Page 2-
13)
TAFMS
30. What is the date from which an advancement candidate's total service in paygrade is
considered to have commenced for the purpose of computing advancement eligibility for
the next higher paygrade? (Page 2-15)
TIR
31. What is defined as those members not under a Navy contract at time of reentry to
naval service or Navy Reservists attached to the IRR? (Page 2-15)
Break in service
32. A break in service of what duration for NAVETs returning to active duty or to
Drilling Reserve in the same paygrade held at discharge, release, or transfer to the IRR
will have an adjusted TIR date? (Page 2-15)
24 hours
33. Lost time exceeding how many days as a result of an unauthorized absence, sick-
misconduct, misconduct, or confinement is not creditable in computing service in
paygrade? (Page 2-18)
15
34. What paygrades (one paygrade only) do COs/OICs have the authority to reinstate
members to anytime after reduction in rate, without referral to higher authority? (Page 2-
19)
E2 or E3
35. What holds the only reinstatement authority to reinstate E4 through E6 paygrades?
(Page 2-20)
NAVPERSCOM (PERS-811/812)
36. Up to what amount of the required TIR for Sailors in paygrades E5 and E6 who
received an Early Promote promotion recommendation on their most recent observed
periodic evaluation in their current paygrade can be waived by COs/OICs? (Page 2-20)
1 year
37. For up to how many consecutive examination cycles covered by the most recent
observed periodic evaluation report can COs authorize Early TIR waivers? (Page 2-20)
Two
38. How long must personnel have served as an E6 prior to participation in the E7
examination for LDO purposes? (Page 2-21)
1 year
Chapter 2: Quiz 1 | Chapter 2: Quiz 2
Audio Study Guide
Chapter 3

1. Who is responsible for worksheet preparation for each candidate participating in the
Navy-wide advancement cycle (E4 through E7) including LDO Program candidates?
(Page 3-1)
Educational Service Office (ESO)
2. At least how long prior to the scheduled examination should ESOs prepare worksheets
for eligible candidates? (Page 3-1)
1 month
3. Approximately how many days prior to the scheduled examination date should the
ESO review each advancement exam candidates worksheet? (Page 3-1)
10
4. What is the maximum number of award points authorized for E6 advancement exam
candidates? (Page 3-6)
12
5. How many award points is a Medal of Honor worth when calculating the FMS for E4-
E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
10
6. How many award points is a Navy Cross worth when calculating the FMS for E4-E6
advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
5
7. How many award points is a Distinguished Service Medal or Cross worth when
calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
4
8. How many award points is a Silver Star Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6
4
9. How many award points is a Legion of Merit worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6
4
10. How many award points is a Distinguished Flying Cross worth when calculating FMS
for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
4
11. How many award points is a Navy and Marine Corps Medal worth when calculating
FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
3
12. How many award points is a Bronze Star Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-
E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
3
13. How many award points is a Purple Heart worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6
3
14. How many award points is a Defense Meritorious Service Medal worth when
3
15. How many award points is a Meritorious Service Medal worth when calculating FMS
3

16. How many award points is an Air Medal (Strike/Flight) worth when calculating FMS
3
17. How many award points is a Joint Service Commendation Medal worth when
3
18. How many award points is a Navy and Marine Corps Commendation Medal worth
when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
3
19. How many award points is an Executive Letter of Commendation worth when
2
20. How many award points is a Joint Service Achievement Medal worth when
2
21. How many award points is a Navy and Marine Corps Achievement Medal worth
2
22. How many award points is a Combat Action Ribbon worth when calculating FMS for
E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
2
23. How many award points is a Gold Life Saving Medal worth when calculating FMS
2
24. How many award points is a Good Conduct Medal (Navy or Marine Corps) worth
2
25. How many award points is a Navy Reserve Meritorious Service Medal worth when
2
26. How many award points is a Letter of Commendation (Flag/Senior Executive
Service) worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-
6)
1
27. What is the maximum number of points for letters of commendation signed by a flag,
general or Senior Executive Service (SES) officer that will be credited towards the
awards factor for E4, E5, and E6 candidates? (Page 3-7)
Two
28. Which awards are considered Letters of Commendation that are signed by flag
officers? (Page 3-7)
Gold and Silver Wreath
29. PMA is required for each advancement candidate except for E8/9 and E7 PEP
candidates who have already achieved an advancement examination standard score of
what or greater and have been identified as Selection Board Eligible? (Page 3-8)
50
30. What is an Early Promote evaluation recommendation worth? (Page 3-8)

4.0
31. What is an Must Promote evaluation recommendation worth? (Page 3-8)
3.8
32. What is a Promotable evaluation recommendation worth? (Page 3-8)
3.6
33. What is a Progressing evaluation recommendation worth? (Page 3-8)
3.4
34. What is a Significant Problems evaluation recommendation worth? (Page 3-8)
2.0
35. What should requests for correction or addition to awards factor after the
advancement exam be submitted to? (Page 3-11)
NETPDTC
Audio Study Guide
Chapter 4
1. The preferred method for ordering examinations is via verification of TIR eligibility
listing on the internet at the which examination ordering web site? (Page 4-1)
NETPDTC
2. Which examinations will be used for candidates who did not take the examination on
the regularly scheduled day? (Page 4-2)
Substitute
Chapter 4: Quiz 1
Audio Study Guide
Chapter 5
1. The integrity of what is dependent on the security of the examinations and is of

paramount importance to equitable advancement opportunity? (Page 5-1)
NEAS
2. Which type of mail may be used to transfer an examination to another activity? (Page
5-2)
U.S. Registered Mail
3. What should a detailed message or letter report be submitted to in the case of missing
examinations, evidence of tampering, or any other discrepancies? (Page 5-3)
NAVPERSCOM
4. When examinations are received from activities other than which command then a
receipt must be sent to the forwarding command as the examinations remain charged to
the original receiving activity? (Page 5-3)
NETPDTC (N321)
5. What must approval be obatined from prior to transferring examinations to non-Navy
activities/other services? (Page 5-5)
NAVPERSCOM

6. Which border color on examination covers identifies exams that are confidential in
nature? (Page 5-8)
Blue
7. What type of combination lock can be used to secure a space that will be used to stow
examinations and completed answer sheets? (Page 5-8)
Three-tumbler
Chapter 5: Quiz 1
Audio Study Guide
Chapter 6
1. Who reviews all the directives pertinent to the advancement system with all other
designated personnel prior to examination administration? (Page 6-1)
ESO
2. What type of pencil or electrographic black lead pencil must exam candidates use?
(Page 6-2)
#2
3. Which ratings are not authorized to use preprogrammed construction, electrician,
plumbing, or other calculators that are specifically designed for tradesman use? (Page 6-
3)
Seabee
4. Which advancement exam candidates are authorized to use general scientific
calculators that are not programmable? (Page 6-3)
Engineering Aid (EA)
5. What are not authorized to be worn during the examination? (Page 6-3)
Wristwatches
6. What is the maximum number of days that an operational commander may delay the
administration of advancement examinations for seagoing or aviation units operating in
company or based outside continental United States (OCONUS) provided that candidates
have no means of communicating with personnel who are taking the examination in the
interim? (Page 6-4)
10
7. What is the maximum number days that ship COs/OICs that are proceeding
independently can administer examinations past the regularly scheduled examination
date? (Page 6-5)
10
8. What must specifically authorize the administration of advancement exams prior to the
scheduled administration date? (Page 6-5)
NAVPERSCOM
9. Within how many working days of receipt, but not later than the date specified in the
applicable NAVADMIN must all substitute examinations be administered and answer
sheets forwarded to NETPDTC (N322)? (Page 6-5)
7
10. Advancement examination shall not be used if they are missing more than how many
questions? (Page 6-6)

10
11. What is the required ratio of proctors to advancement exam candidates when
administering advancement exams? (Page 6-6)
1:25
12. Give completed answer sheets the same handling and stowage as afforded to what
type of documents? (Page 6-7)
FOUO
13. What must authority be requested from with justification from a medical officer for
the oral administration of advancement examinations? (Page 6-7)
NAVPERSCOM
14. How should advancement exam candidates names be grouped when personnel from
more than one activity have been examined? (Page 6-9)
Activity
15. What should examination returns for each paygrade be forwarded to by the close of
business the day after administration of each advancement examination? (Page 6-9)
NETPDTC
16. Which contract stipulates that CONUS Installations and Ships Inport CONUS will
send answer sheets via overnight delivery? (Page 6-9)
GSA
17. Which USPS mail service will Overseas Shore Commands use to send in
advancement exam answer sheets? (Page 6-9)
3-day express
18. Who is solely responsible for ensuring that all examination booklets and related
testing materials are accurately accounted for and destroyed? (Page 6-10)
CO/OIC
19. Which manual contains the destruction procedures to be followed after administering
the advancement examination for destroying all examination booklets, used and unused,
and scratch paper? (Page 6-10)
SECNAV M-5510.36
20. How long must copies of reports be maintained locally at the command for the
destruction and receipts for transfer of examinations? (Page 6-11)
2 years
21. Within how many days after the last drill weekend of the month that the advancement
examination was administered must the unused inactive reserve examinations be
destroyed? (Page 6-11)
5
22. At least how many consecutive days in one of the eligible areas are Sailors required
to serve to be considered an eligible assignment? (Page 6-11)
30
23. Which day in January are Active Duty E7 Regular advancement examinations
administered? (Page 6-13)
3rd Thursday
24. Which day in March and September are Active Duty E6 Regular advancement
examinations administered? (Page 6-13)
1st Thursday

2nd Thursday
3rd Thursday
27. If Sailors are within how many days of a pending deployment to Iraq, Afghanistan, or
the Horn of Africa and they are eligible in all other respects for participation in the E4 to
E7 advancement examinations than they are authorized to take early examinations? (Page
6-14)
60
28. No more than how many days prior to deployment date (to include the indoctrination
and training pipeline but not including any personal leave) will commands submit early
examination requests in the same format as a substitute examination request? (Page 6-15)
90
29. The EMF along with what else are used by NETPDTC to automatically validate all
personnel who are TIR eligible for E8/9? (Page 6-19)
IMAPMIS
30. Approximately how many months prior to the convening date of E8/9 selection
boards will NETPDTC forward an Examination Status Verification Report (ESVR)
listing all E7/8 TIR eligible personnel? (Page 6-19)
3
Audio Study Guide
Chapter 7
1. How many annual advancement cycles are there for E4 through E6 candidates? (Page
7-1)
Two
2. Who has online access to E4-E9 advancement results? (Page 7-1)
ESO
3. How many days after advancement exam results have been published will individual
Sailors have the capability of downloading their individual Profile Sheets? (Page 7-1)
Five
4. What does NETPDTC post online in addition to profile sheets to issue examination
results? (Page 7-1)
Examination Status Verification Report (ESVR)
5. What are advancements and striker designation authorities issued on in addition to the
Profile Sheet? (Page 7-1)
Rating Change Authorization (RCA)
6. What lists eligible candidates to be considered (SELBD ELIGIBLE) by a selection
board that is convened by CHNAVPERS? (Page 7-2)
ESVR

7. How will the official list of personnel selected for advancement be disseminated by
CHNAVPERS upon conclusion of the selection board? (Page 7-2)
NAVADMIN
8. What will be forwarded by NETPDTC (N321) for all E4 through E7 candidates
following each Navy-wide advancement examination? (Page 7-15)
Examination Profile Information Sheet
9. Which point factor is included in the FMS of E4 through E6 candidates who achieve a
relatively high score on a Navy-wide advancement examination/have relatively high
PMAs during an examination cycle in which the candidate competed for advancement
but was not advanced because of quota limitations? (Page 7-15)
PNA
10. PNA points are comprised of written examination SS and what else? (Page 7-15)
PMA
11. How many of the most recent exam cycles in that paygrade are PNA points creditable
for? (Page 7-15)
Five
12. A maximum of how many PNA points for any one advancement cycle may be
received by a candidate? (Page 7-15)
Three
13. What is the maximum cumulative PNA point total that may be credited to candidates?
(Page 7-15)
15
14. What are PNA points multiplied by to obtain the PNA factor (maximum of 30 points)
for FMS calculations? (Page 7-16)
2
15. How many PNA points towards future exams will advancement exam candidates be
credited with when they score in the top 25th percentile but do not advance? (Page 7-16)
1.5
16. What is the only thing used by NETPDTC (N321) to track PNA point credit? (Page
7-16)
Social security number
17. What day of the month are E2/E3 advancements automatically posted on by
NAVPERSCOM? (Page 7-16)
16th
18. Which MILPERSMAN article governs striker identification? (Page 7-18)
MILPERSMAN 1440-050
19. If an administrative error precludes the advancement of a member to paygrade E2 or
E3 on the earliest date on which the candidate is fully qualified, the advancement may be
established "as of" the date the member would have been advanced had the error not
occurred, provided the backdating does not under any circumstance exceed how long?
(Page 7-18)
6 months
20. Under no circumstances is an advancement effected after the limiting date without
approval of what? (Page 7-19)
NAVPERSCOM

21. What form should be used to effect an advancement, change in rate, or striker
identification? (Page 7-19)
NAVPERS 1070/604
22. Which MILPERSMAN article grants COs/OICs the authority to frock enlisted
personnel? (Page 7-21)
MILPERSMAN 1420-060
23. How many years of active duty in grade unless such members are entitled by law to a
higher retired grade upon retirement must non-disability (voluntary) retirement for
members serving in grades E7, E8, and E9 require? (Page 7-21)
2
24. How many years of active service entitles members to retire at the higher paygrade
without serving the minimum 2 year TIG? (Page 7-21)
30
25. Withholding advancements because of Physical Fitness Assessment (PFA) failure
must be accomplished via compliance with which instruction? (Page 7-28)
OPNAVINST 6110.1H
26. What is the sole means of withdrawing a members recommendation for advancement
that must be completed prior to requesting invalidation of an authorized advancement?
(Page 7-30)
EVAL/FITREP
27. Which U.S. Navy Regulations article provides authority for the request of COs mast
at which questions may be raised with the CO/OIC if a member believes that the
withholding or withdrawal of their advancement is inaccurate, unjust, or wrongly
submitted? (Page 7-32)
Article 1151
28. Advancing temporary officers to permanent enlisted rates requires a NAVPERS
1070/604 entry in the enlisted field service record and what entry mailed for inclusion in
the official officer record citing this instruction as authority for advancement? (Page 7-
34)
NAVPERS 1070/613
Audio Study Guide
Chapter 8
1. Which program was established to promote Sailors in pay grades E1 through E5 in

recognition of uncommon valor and extraordinary deeds demonstrated while engaged in,
or in direct support of, combat operations? (Page 8-1)
Combat Meritorious Advancement Program (CMAP)
2. Executive Order along with what else designate combat and direct support combat
zones? (Page 8-1)
Congressional Action
3. A 1-year TIR waiver is authorized for the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program
for advancement to what paygrade? (Page 8-2)

E6
4. What has the overall authority for the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program?
(Page 8-2)
CHNAVPERS
5. How many quotas per quarter is authorized for each approval authority
(COMUSNAVCENT, COMNAVSPECWARCOM, and COMUSMARCENT) for the
Combat Meritorious Advancement Program for advancing personnel to E-2? (Page 8-2)
Unlimited
(COMUSNAVCENT, COMNAVSPECWARCOM, and COMUSMARCENT) for the
Combat Meritorious Advancement Program for advancing personnel to E-3? (Page 8-2)
6
(COMUSNAVCENT, COMNAVSPECWARCOM, and COMUSMARCENT) for
advancing personnel to E-4 through the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program?
(Page 8-2)
4
(Page 8-2)
2
9. How many quotas per quarter are authorized for each approval authority
(Page 8-2)
1
10. Within how many years of the meritorious action/performance in combat must
nominations be submitted for the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program? (Page 8-3)
1
11. Which instruction contains the guidelines for Combat Meritorious Advancement
Program nominations that contain classified information? (Page 8-3)
SECNAV M-5510.30
12. How many years should copies of CMAP documents be retained? (Page 8-4)
2
Chapter 8: Quiz 1
Audio Study Guide
Chapter 9
1. How will Sailors who die while in a selectee or Passed Not Advanced (PNA) status be
advanced? (Page 9-1)
Posthumously
2. What form will the CNO (N135C) prepare upon receipt of an posthumous
advancement authorization to indicate a posthumous advancement? (Page 9-2)

DD 1300
Chapter 9: Quiz 1
Audio Study Guide
Chapter 10
1. What is the highest paygrade that may be held by recruiters to be eligible for
meritorious advancement under the recruiter meritorious advancement program? (Page
10-1)
E-6
2. What has final EROY or ERROY approval after selection boards have reviewed all
nominations? (Page 10-1)
COMNAVCRUITCOM
3. What is the minimum TIR that must be met by the EROY and ERROY prior to
effecting the meritorious advancement to the next paygrade? (Page 10-1)
1 year
4. What will COMNAVCRUITCOM forward their EROY and ERROY selections to for
issuance of advancement authorization? (Page 10-2)
NAVPERSCOM
Chapter 10: Quiz 1
Audio Study Guide
Chapter 11
1. Which program allows COs to advance eligible personnel in paygrades E3 through E5

to the next higher paygrade without reference to higher authority? (Page 11-1)
Command Advancement Program (CAP)
2. What year was the Command Advancement Program (CAP) established? (Page 11-1)
1978
3. Which MILPERSMAN article took away the COs authority to designate strikers?
(Page 11-2)
MILPERSMAN 1440-050
4. What is the maximum percentage of CAP quotas that COs can use for CREO Group 3
ratings? (Page 11-2)
33%
5. CAPs may be effected only by Commanding Officers of commands that are designated
as which type of sea duty? (Page 11-2)
2 or 4
6. Which individual manpower authorization form is used by Commanding Officers who
are responsible for more than one UIC to base their CAP quotas on? (Page 11-3)
OPNAV 1000/2
7. What are CAP quotas based on for each individual UIC? (Page 11-3)
Billets Authorized (BA)

8. What is the latest date each year that each Type 2 or 4 command must submit an
annual CAP Certification Report to NAVPERSCOM (PERS-811/812) (copy to the
Immediate Superior in Command (ISIC))? (Page 11-4)
January 15th
Chapter 11: Quiz 1
Audio Study Guide
Chapter 12
1. What rank is the enlisted selection board president? (Page 12-1)

O-6
2. Who establishes the maximum selection board quotas (Active and FTS) for each
rating? (Page 12-1)
CNO (N13)
3. What drives advancement opportunity in the Navy? (Page 12-1)
Vacancies
4. What percent of the Navys total end-strength may be E8s and E9s? (Page 12-2)
3.5%
5. Which requirement has been established by the Department of Defense (DOD) that
must be met prior to a members advancement to a given paygrade? (Page 12-2)
Total Active Federal Military Service (TAFMS)
6. How many years of Total Active Federal Military Service (TAFMS) are required to be
eligible for advancement to E-7? (Page 12-2)
11
16
19
9. What is the maximum percentage of the total number of Sailors in the E7/8/9
paygrades that may have less than the prescribed TAFMS? (Page 12-2)
10%
10. What convenes the enlisted selection boards? (Page 12-3)
CHNAVPERS
11. Where are the permanent records for each rating maintained? (Page 12-3)
Electronic Military Personnel Records System (EMPRS)
12. What is the electronic snapshot of the official record referred to as? (Page 12-3)
PSR
13. Who is the only person that can submit unofficial correspondence to the President of
the selection board? (Page 12-3)
Candidate
14. What is the single most important factor that influences selection during the enlisted
selection board? (Page 12-4)
Sustained superior performance

15. How many different selection board panel members review each candidates record?
(Page 12-4)
Two
16. What is the process called when the enlisted selection board panel arranges all the
candidates from top to bottom once the review of an entire rating is complete? (Page 12-
4)
Slating
17. What is the final approval authority for all enlisted selection board recommendations?
(Page 12-5)
CHNAVPERS
18. What is the official announcement made to individual Navy commands that must be
in the commands possession prior to frocking of selectees? (Page 12-5)
NAVADMIN
Chapter 12: Quiz 1
Audio Study Guide
Additional Training
BUPERSINST 1430.16F, ADVANCEMENT MANUAL FOR THE

ADVANCEMENT OF ENLISTED PERSONNEL OF U.S. NAVY AND U.S.
NAVAL RESERVE
Reference | Reviews | Sample Quiz | Randomized Quiz | Chapter 1: Quiz 1 | Chapter 2: Quiz
1 | Chapter 2: Quiz 2 | Chapter 3: Quiz 1 | Chapter 3: Quiz 2 | Chapter 4: Quiz 1 | Chapter 5:
Quiz 1 | Chapter 6: Quiz 1 | Chapter 6: Quiz 2 |Chapter 7: Quiz 1 | Chapter 7: Quiz
2 | Chapter 8: Quiz 1 | Chapter 9: Quiz 1 | Chapter 10: Quiz 1 | Chapter 11: Quiz 1 | Chapter
12: Quiz 1
Audio Study Guide: Comprehensive | Chapter 1 | Chapter 2 | Chapter 3 | Chapter 4 | Chapter

5 | Chapter 6 | Chapter 7 | Chapter 8 | Chapter 9 | Chapter 10 | Chapter 11 | Chapter 12

Bupersinst 1430.16F

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