Professional Documents
Culture Documents
2. Initial pap smear of a woman who is not sexually active should begin at the age of:
a. 35
b. 18
c. 21
d. 15
4. The following are normal cervical findings during spectrum examination EXCEPT:
a. A round external os in a nullipara
b. A fishmouth-like external os in a parous woman
c. Stellate lacerations in a woman who has delivered vaginally
d. NOTA
5. Women between ages 40-64 should have the ff tests done EXCEPT:
a. An annual pap smear
b. Mammography every 1-2 years until the age of 40
c. Cholesterol levels every 5 years
d. Fasting glucose testing every 3 years after age 45
6. Which among the following is the appropriate speculum for the patient:
a. A small Graves speculum for a 60 year old nulligravid
b. A Pederson speculum for a 12 year old
c. A large Graves speculum for a primigravid who underwent cesarean section due
to breech presentation
d. A small Graves speculum for a sexually active 18 year old
7. Upon doing a bimanual examination of your patient, you are unable to palpate the uterus
but were able to do so on rectovaginal examination. Your patients uterus is:
a. Anteverted
b. First degree retroverted
c. Second degree retroverted
d. Third degree retroverted
12. It is an important surgical landmark for it provides direct access to the cul-de-sac of
Douglas
a. Portio vaginalis
b. Transformation zone
c. Posterior fornix
d. A & C
14. The layer of the endometrium which responds to the fluctuating hormonal level is/are
a. Stratum basale
b. Compactum stratum
c. Superficial spongy stratum
d. A & B
e. B & C
15. 2 major arteries, the uterine and ovarian arteries, supply the uterus. The uterine artery
originates from the hypogastric artery whereas the ovarian artery originates from:
a. Internal iliac artery
b. External iliac artery
c. Aorta
d. Hypogastric artery
16. The 3 prominent ligaments that provides anatomic mobility for the ovary are the
a. Posterior portion of the broad ligament, suspensory ligament and ovarian
ligament
b. Infundibulopelvic ligament, ovarian ligament and mesosalpinx
c. Anterior portion of the broad ligament, suspensory ligament and ovarian ligament
d. Mesovarium, mesosalpinx, and ovarian ligament
18. The primary muscles of the pelvic diaphragm are the levator ani and coccygeus muscles.
Its 3 components are the ff
a. Ischiocavernosus, pubococcygeus and puborectalis
b. Pubococcygeus, iliococcygeus and puborectalis
c. Pubococcygeus, sacrotuberous and puborectalis
d. Sacrotuberous, iliococcygeus and pubococcygeus
20. The segment of the fallopian tube which has the most highly developed musculature is
the
a. Interstitial segment
b. Isthmic segment
c. Ampullary segment
d. Infundibulum
21. The most common benign, slow growing cyst in the vulva whose contents are cheesy in
character
a. Sebaceous cyst
b. Epidermal inclusion cyst
c. Bartholins duct cyst
d. Lipoma
22. A permanent, epithelialized, saclike projection that arises from the posterior urethra is a
a. Diverticulum of the urethra
b. Urethro-vaginal fistula
c. Urethral caruncle
d. NOTA
25. A 23 y/o G1P1 (1001) is found to have a uterine myoma that has a widest diameter of 8
cms. Management will be
a. Observation
b. Use of GnRh agonist
c. Myomectomy
d. Hysterectomy
26. A cystadenoma with viscid contents is probably a
a. Cystadenofibroma
b. Mucinous cystadenoma
c. Serous cystadenoma
d. Dermoid cyst
28. A 24 y/o G0 came in at the ER with complains of sudden, severe, right hypogastric pain.
On history taking, she just had sexual contact 4 hours ago, her LMP was Dec. 16, 2009.
On PE, her abdomen was soft, (+) direct and rebound tenderness on the RLQ. Pelvic
examination revealed cervix is firm, long, close, uterus small, (+) small adnexal mass on
the RLQ tender. Pregnancy test was negative. Given the ff information, what is your initial
diagnosis?
a. Adnexal torsion
b. Acute appendicitis
c. Ruptured endometrioma
d. Ruptured corpus luteum cyst
33. Which among the ff uterine anomalies have been associated with spontaneous or
recurrent abortions?
a. Bicornuate uterus
b. Didelphic uterus
c. Arcuate uterus
d. Unicornuate uterus
34. A single chamber vagina and cervix with a complete or partial septate uterus and two
uterine bodies
a. Didelphic
b. Bicornuate
c. Septate
d. B & C
35. The uterus appears as a single organ but contains a midline septum that is either partial
or complete
a. Didelphic
b. Bicornuate
c. Septate
d. Arcuate
36. AJ, 16 y/o presents with primary amenorrhea with cyclic cramping. What is your
diagnosis?
a. Imperforate hymen
b. Transverse vaginal septum
c. Vaginal adenosis
d. A & B
37. The presence of which of the ff will give you a definitive diagnosis of AJ?
a. Bulging at the introitus
b. Hematocolpos
c. Abdominal mass
d. Mucocolpos
39. Embryologic formation of the genitourinary system where the medial aspect of the more
caudal portion of the mullerian ducts fuse forming a median septum occurs
a. At the beginning of the 10th week
b. 10th to 13th week
c. 13th to 20th week
d. B & C
41. All the ff are risk factors for pelvic organ prolapse EXCEPT
a. Pregnancy and childbirth
b. Obesity
c. Menopause
d. Occupation, heavy lifting
e. NOTA
43. Ligation of the sac and approximation of the uterosacral ligament is the treatment in:
a. Cystocele
b. Rectocele
c. Enterocele
d. Uterine prolapse
e. Uretherocele
45. This hernia develops secondary to the weakness of the pubovesicocervical fascia
a. Cystocele
b. Rectocele
c. Enterocele
d. Uterine prolapse
e. Uretherocele
47. Which of the ff conditions can be managed with the use of pessary?
a. Cystocele
b. Rectocele
c. Uterine prolapse
d. A & C
e. AOTA
50. Invasion of the ff by malignant cells produces retraction of the skin which is a sign of
advanced breast ca
a. Areola
b. Montgomery glands
c. Coopers ligaments
d. Collecting ducts
e. A & B
54. The second most common type of benign disease of the breast
a. Fibrocystic change
b. Fibroadenoma
c. Cystosarcoma phyllodes
d. Intraductal papilloma
e. Fat necrosis
58. This neoplasia tends to have a multicentric origin in the same breast and tends to involve
both breasts
a. Infiltrating lobular carcinoma
b. Infiltrating ductal carcinoma
c. Intraductal carcinoma
d. Inflammatory carcinomas
e. Pagets disease
59. This type of neoplasia is recognized clinically as a rapidly growing, highly malignant
carcinoma
a. Infiltrating lobular carcinoma
b. Infiltrating ductal carcinoma
c. Intraductal carcinoma
d. Inflammatory carcinomas
e. Pagets disease
60. Which of the ff statements is/are true regarding Bartholins gland enlargement
a. Bartholins duct cyst is usually asymptomatic
b. In Bartholins gland abscess, organism involved are usually organism involved in
STD infection
c. A Bartholins duct cyst is usually due to obstruction of the duct from trauma or
non-specific infection
d. A & C are correct
e. AOTA
61. Which among the ff lower genital tract infections is associated with the development of
intraepithelial neoplasia of the lower genital tract
a. Molluscum contangiosum
b. Herpes simplex virus
c. HPV infection
d. HIV infection
e. AOTA
62. A 30 y/o G3P3 presents with fever and myalgia. After 6 days she developed painful and
pruritic vesicles appeared on the vulva with inguinal lymphadenopathy noted. The most
likely diagnosis is
a. Syphilis
b. Herpes simplex virus
c. HPV
d. Lymphgranuloma venereum
63. After 7 days, the vulvar lesions disappeared without scarring. You should advise the ff
a. Since this is a viral infection, the disease is self limiting and the patient is already
cured
b. The patient is not anymore contagious since the vesicles disappeared already
c. The disease is characterized by the recurrent infections of less severe intensity
than the primary infection
d. B & C are correct
e. NOTA
64. Administration of antiviral drug to the above patient, such as Acyclovir will result in
a. Reduction in the period of viral shedding
b. Complete eradication of the virus
c. Lesser incidence of recurrent infections
d. A & B are correct
e. A, B and C
67. PID symptoms usually manifest after menstruation because of the ff:
a. Menstruation causes removal of the cervical mucus allowing organisms to
ascend
b. Retrograde menstrual flow facilitates transport of bacteria to the fallopian tube
c. The immune system response decreases during menstruation
d. A & B
e. A, B & C
68. A patient comes to you with history of amenorrhea. On PE, you noted a distended
abdomen with (+) fluid wave. She also has history of chronic salpingits. Your impression
is
a. Chronic PID
b. Pelvic TB
c. Ovarian carcinoma
d. Ectopic pregnancy
70. With fewer estrogen and progesterone receptors than normal endometrium hence very
responsive to hormonal therapy.
71. Common among women the reproductive age and rare among the postmenopausal.
72. A malignant disease capable of invading adjacent myometrial layer of the uterus.
73. Uterine muscle is encapsulated with whorl like pattern on cut section of the gross
specimen.
74. High estrogen levels causes the endometrial glands and stroma to undergo hyperplasia.
75. Due to the invasion of endometrial tissues of the basalis layer of the endometrium into
the myometrium.
76. Most common site is the ovary.
77. More common among young, infertile, career women who defer pregnancy to later age.
78. Presents as dysmenorrhea, pelvic pain, menstrual dysfunction
79. Grossly appear on cut section as spongy tissues with blood filled cystic spaces or blood.
For numbers 81 90, write TRUE if the statement is true, and FALSE if not.
80. Administration of combined estrogen and progesterone pills is the best modality of
treatment for acute bleeding episodes.
81. Progesterone facilitates rapid endometrial proliferation.
82. Amenorrhea is defined as cessation of menstrual flow after the reproductive period.
83. Anorexia nervosa is the most common cause of primary amenorrhea.
84. Secondary amenorrhea is the absence of menses for 12 months in a woman who
previously had regular menstrual flow.
85. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding may occur in the absence of demonstrable organic cause,
genital or extragenital.
86. Dopamine is a precursor of norepinephrine.
87. The ovary secretes 3 principal steroid hormones: estradiol, progesterone and
androstenedione.
88. Recruitment phase corresponds to days 5-8 of the ovarian cycle.
89. LH acts on granulose cells to stimulate follicular growth.
MATCHING TYPE