l,... \., M..

Set No. 1 12P/209/22 Question Booklet No........ 1483. ..

(1'0 be filled up by the caru1idate by blue/black ball-point pen)

Roll No.

Roll No.
(Write the digits in words) ..................................................................................................................
Serial No. of OMR Answer Sheet ................. _...............

Day and Date ............................................................ ,... (Signature of Invigilator)

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(Use only blue/black ba11-polDt pen in the space above and on both sides of the Answer Sheet)
1. Within 10 minutes of the issue of the Question Booklet, check the Question Booklet to ensure that
it contains all the pages in correct sequence and that no page/question is missing. In case of faulty
Question Booklet bring it to the notice of the Superintendent/Invigilators immediately to obtain a
fresh Question Booklet.
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3. A separate Answer Sheet is given. It should not be folded or mutilated. A second Answer Sheet shall
not be prouided. Only the Answer Sheet will be evaluated.
4. Write your Roll Number and Serial Number of the Answer Sheet by pen in the space provided above.
5. On the front paCe of the ADawer Sheet. write by pen your Roll Number ID the .pace provided
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que.Uon Booklet Number anel the Set lIumber ID appropriate place
6. No overwriting is allowed in the entries of Roll No., Question Booklet No. and Set No. (if any) on
OMR sheet and also Roll No. and OMR Sheet No. on the Question Booklet.
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unfair means.
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14. If a candidate attempts to use any form of unfair means, he/she shall be liable to such punishment
as the University may determine and impose on him/her.
INo. of Printed Pages: 56+2
 12P(209(22 Set No. 1

No. of QuestloDs(~ <IiI mPn : 150

Time : 2 Hours Full Marks : 450

Note: (1) Attempt as many questions as you can. Each question carries 3 marks. One
mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. Zero mark will be awarded
for each unattempted question.
",1'> .. ,1'> .. ,.rn '!it
l'R 'Ii-\ q;r >I'IM '!it', ~ Wo! 3 ajq; q;y t, ~ 'fffi! "'" i\;
fun< ~ ajq; <om ~, ~ ~ Wo! q;r JI11'!iiI; ll'" WIT,

(2) If more than one alternative answers seem to be approximate to the correct
answer, c;hoose the closest one.
~ ~ ~ .. pq .. om <ffll om i\; f.FR _ "it. <i\ f.I..Wlt <ffll om ~ ,

1. Which of the following is true?

(1) Law included in the IX Schedule is beyond judicial review

(2) Law included in the IX Schedule is to be tested every time

(3) Law included in the IX Schedule derives their validity being part of IX Schedule

(4) Law included in the IX Schedule is to be tested on the touchstone of basic

structure doctrine

(356) 1 (P.T.O.)
12P/209/22 Set No. I

1.... Ii'lFIild il # """-lit """ t?

(I) ~ IX ij "iUI~il flIfl< "I1flr<l; ~"f.lffi,,", 1\ '11 t
(2) ~ IX ij "iUI~d flIfl< "" ~ om: '!(\l!l"l q;\'{l ~ t
(3) ~ IX il "iUI~d flIfl< qlt ~"'" ~ ~ IX "" ",. 'l1'T t<R "" '!;lI"l 1rn! ~ t
(4) ~ IX 11 "iUI~d flIfl< 'fiT '!(\l!l"l l@"!!l -;it<RT ~ <lit ..mtt\ '" 1'<00 '1Td1 t

2. Under which Article the Legislature of a State may impose restrictions on trade.
commerce and intercourse?

(I) Article 302 (2) Article 303 (3) Article 304 (4) Article 305

M 1F"I <lit "'~'""'" f.!;a ~ t 1lO<! OIl1'lR, ~ 1('i 'lW!l ~ 'R ~ <'l'11 ~
t?
(I) ~ 302 (2) ~ 303 (3) ~ 304 (4) ~ 305

3. The following is not within the scope of Article 311

(1) Reduction (2) Removal

(3) Suspension (4) Removal of temporary civil servant

f.\",~FI!ld ~ 311 t ~ I\tI i\ "iUll1d ~ t

(I) ~ (2) """ 1\ W'IT
(3) f.\""," (4) :m'Il'ft"ffiq; m qlt """ 1\ ~

4. Which of the following Schedules is relevant to Administration of Tribal Areas?

(I) First Schedule (2) Fifth Schedule

(3) Sixth Schedule (4) None of the above

(356) 2
 12P/209/22 Set No. I

~...,r..fuld il i\ ",,",--a\ ~ "H~i<fl. ~ t _ i\ e",f.lld t?

(I) 1I'l'i ~ (2) q..., ~

(3) "ffift ~ (4) ~ il i\ ~ ~

5. Prior to Amendment to the Preamble of the Constitution, it read as

(1) Sovereign Democratic Republic (2) Sovereign Secuiar Republic

(3) Sovereign Secular Socialist (4) Sovereign Socialist Republic

ell! ..... <j;t .fdi"" il lIW'H t ~ efi'iqH q;) -,.;m "ffiIT 'IT

(1) ~dlflPhl c:11Chdi~Cfl IIOldi&ifi (2) ~dlf1I4W ~8;T ijUldi&Cfi

(3) "5I'jdlflLq=;;t ~Pif fll1t\ili4I{l (4) >rIjdlijLqit ijqlat41Gt ijOldil?tCfi

6. New State may be created by

(I) simple majority (2) special majority

(3) absolute majority (4) Presidential Order

'11( U"'I <j;t .p! ~ om <j;t 'IT Wf;<fl t'

(I) m'lR"T ~ (2) flrim ~

(3) 'I?f ~ (4) ~ 'liT ~

7. The current Lokpal Bill was introduced under

(I) Article 248 (2) Article 252 (3) Article 253 (4) Article 246

<I<fl!T'! .,n'M"" ~ q;) ~ ~ t -.rn ~ ~ '1'IT 'IT?

(I) ~ 248 (2) ~ 252 (3) ~ 253 (4) ~ 246

(356) 3 (P.T.O.)
12P/209/22 Set No. 1

8. The following is 'Law Day'

(I) 26th January (2) 26th November

(3) 25th December (4) 14th April

'AA ~' f.i",~ful" t

(I) 26 ~ (2) 2 6 _ (3) 25 ~ (4) 14 ~

9. Curative petition may be filed under

(I) Article 136 (2) Article 137 (3) Article 133 (4) Article 139

(I) ~ 136 (2) ~ 137 (3) ~ 133 (4) ~ 139

10. The following Article provides a repository of dit;;cretionary power to the Supreme Court

(I) Article 142 (2) Article 141

(3) Article 144 (4) None of the above

~ "',.,"' .m ~~I<\;.. ~ f.i",~ful" ~ ~ ~ ~ ilf;<n lJ'IT t

(I) ~ 142 (2) ~ 141 (3) ~ 144 (4) ;m)u; ij it ~ ~

11. Ratification of Constitution8.J. Amendment is not required for

(1) Amendment in executive power of the Union

(2) Amendment dealing with the power" of the Supreme Court

(3) Amendment to the VII Schedule

(4) Amendment to the VIII Schedule

(356) 4
 12P/209/22 Set No. I

f.I",~flild i\; fliIiI ~'!Tf.t<l;

mTItH "" ~ _ ~ t
(I) ~ <IiI ""4,,,,~ f i iI mTItH
(2) ~ '4,",cl" <IiI f i <I ~ mTItH
(3) ~ VI1 iI mTItH
(4) ~ VIII iI mTItH

12. Amendment to the Constitution means

(I) addition, change, variation (2) alteration, mo'dification, deletion

(3) change, substitution, repeal (4) addition, variation, repeal

~ mTItH "" ~ t
(I) ~, ~, <'!RR

(3) ~,~, u: 'f<-!T (4) ~, <'!RR, u: 'f<-!T

13. Following is not true

(l) Entries in the VII Schedule give power to Legislative Authority

(2) Entries demarcate the respective field of Legislative Authority

(3) Entries point out the subject matters

(4) Entries do not overlap

f.I",r"flild iI <I ~-m WI ~ t?

(I) ~ VII <IiI "fllfu"j il!tl1'ft ~ <it f i ~ q;>:<fi ~

(2) "fllfu'll il!tl1'ft ..Ill""" i\; w<r<: I\bI "" f.r>ffivr q;>:<fi ~
(3) "fllfu'll fll'''''''l3l1 <it Wrn q;>:<fi ~

(4) "fllfu"j .. fu",,", ~ '"""

(356) 5 (P.T.O.'
12P/209/22 Set No. 1

14. State may make special provisions for admission of the backward classes or the
Scheduled Castes or the Scheduled Tribes to the educational institutions that are

(1) aided (2) unaided (3) private (4) All of the above

""" ~ lI'l "~~d ~ 'lIT "~~d ",,,",,IlI<iI ~ mlI-umail "" %I ff'~ ~ ~

3l'I'IT
,my ~ ~ .R if ~ "'""'" <lit _ '"' ~ t?
(I) ~_
(3) f.r.l\ (4) '3'IUn; <NI

15. loom Sawhney vs. Union of India is also known as

(1) Right to Education Case (2) Ganga Pollution Case
(3) Mandal Commission Case (4) Employment Case

( 1) ftll\II "" 311iI.." ~ (2) *n~ ~

(3) m-m~ (4) it'l'IR ~

16. Following is not included under Article 19(I){a)

(1) Right to vote (2) Right to reply (3) Right to print (4) Right to know

~ 19(I)(a) it "',",~~d if ~ m "tilIf.id ".g! t?

(2) :m ~ "" ~
(4) qn;R "" ..l'l.. "

17. Which of the following statements i. faIse?

(1) Right to education is provided in a separate Article
(2) Infringement of the right of personal liberty by a private person is not beyond
Article 21
(3) Right to compensation fall under Article 21

(4) None of the above

(356) 6
 12P/209/22 Set No. I

(I) ftM iij ~ 'lit 1('0 ~"'" ~ if .""f.1d fll;m "'" ~

(2) f1mt -..fln "" .. Rt;"d .ad ., iij ~ "" oWR ~ 21 "4<1 <fM "it 'Il: ~ ~

(3) "!l~ q;r ~ "'1iS<l~ 21 iij 3MI'!o 3I1l!T t

(4) :ml"a; if "it q;Jf ~

18. Interest of minorities is protected under

(I) Article 29 (2) Article 30 (3) Article 26 (4) All of the above

(I) ~29 (2) ~ 30 (3) ~ 26 (4) :ml"a;;NI

19. Following State has only one House

(I) Odisha (2) Maharashtra

(3) Madhya Pradesh (4) Kamataka

fli;!I W'I if ~ 1('0 ~ ~ t?

(I) 31lfun (2) ~ (4) ~

20. Proclamation issued under Article 356 shall cease to operate unless approved by both
Houses of Parliament before the expiry of

(I) 6 months (2) I year (3) 2 months (4) 30 days

"'1iS<l,
356 iij 3MI'!o -.rRt m- 'l'! ~ ~ Wn. -.fi: :3"it - - "4<1 3l'IflI iij 3MI'!o ~
iij ~ <IG-if "4<1 lI1"'IT ~ >m! W<!t I
(I) 6 >m (2) I 'I'f (3) 2 "'"' (4) 30 ~

(356) 7 (P.T.O.)
12P{209{22 Set No. 1

21. Who said, "Jurisprudence is the formal science of Positive Law"?

(I) Bentham (2) Gray (3) Austin (4) Holland

(1) it'll! (2) il (3) ~ (4) ~

22. The main purpose of 'corporation sole' is to

(1) make the property easily inheritable

(2) make the property easily transferable

(3) maintain continuity of an office

(4) protect the property of State

'''''"'' f.!>rq' q;J 1jl9!I ~ ~-m t?

(I) <I"lfu -.i\ \I""d,,{<lq; ~(I~<ft" 'I'IHT

(2) <I"lfu -.i\ l!'1"d,,{<lq; ~t<lid(Oft. 'I'IHT

(3) 1l;ij; q;,,,\.,,, <Ii\ f.I'd(il' -.i\ """'" <IF!T

(4) W'I <Ii\ <I"lfu ij;\ m'l'l"l q;,.,-,

23. Formal sources of law according to Salmond means

(I) ancient sOUrces of law

(2) modem sources of law

(3) those sources of law which do not have binding force

(4) those sources of law from which the law derives its force and validity

(356) 8
 12P/209/22 Set No. 1

~ il; 3l3'fR fIrilI il; 6ftq",,~," mo <l 3lflllIT'I t

( 1) fIrilI mo
il; m;;fH

(2) fIrilI it ~ mo
(3) fIrilI it ~ mo, <il\ 4"",",ll ~ ~
(4) fIrilI il; ~ mo, f.m! fIrilI "" .,., 11.'i a'lOT """ ~ ~

24. Which one of the following theories is proposed by Guirke and supported by Maitland
in explaining corporate personality?

(1) Concession theory (2) Fiction theory

(3) Realist theory (4) Bracket theory

Wrlli f.t'h1'! <liT _ it r.ro. f.l",flillId il <l fi\;<; ~ "" ilIt ~ "'d,fild 11.'i ~ ~
wmrn fii;,n "'" t?
(1) '"~.," <>M (2) mm <>M (4) ~ <>M
25. Mark the incorrect statement
(I) Positive law is made by the sovereign and positive morality not by it
(2) Positive law is made by the sovereign and positive morality by God
{3) Positive law is made by the sovereign and positive morality by the consent of the
people
(4) None of the above

"""'" q;'I'f " " ~~

(I) 3i,~,,,,q," fIrilI if;! f.ItIp" W<loih! ~ fii;,n ;;mn t qH""",ilId ~R\,"d' if;! ~
(2) 3i,~,,,,q," fIrilI if;! f.ItIp" im ~ W<loih! 11.'i ~ ~R\,"d' it 3lNR 'IT fii;,n "'" t
(3) 3i,~.,,,q," fIrilI if;! f.ItIp" 3WI ""'" <liT ~ <l W<loih! "'" qH""",liId ~R\,"d' it 3lNR 'IT
fii;,n "'" t
(4) ~ il <l ~ ~

1356) 9 (P.T.O.)
12P/209/22 Set No. I

26. Which one of the following is the correlative of immunity?

( I) Liability (2) Duty (3) No claim (4) Disability

R",~fuod it ~ ~ ~ ~ e~e ..." t?

( I) ~ (2) ~ (3) GI'I1 Ut<! (4) 3l1\1'l<!T

27. Which one of the following concepts does not belong to Sociological School of
Jurisprudence?

(1) Public interest (2) Social interest

(3) Command (4) Jural postulate

(I) "" fuI (3) ~ (4) ~ f.i'I'l

28. Name of the Jurist who is called as 'Darwinian before Darwin' and 'sociologist before
sociologjsts' is

(I) Kelsen (2) Savigny (3) Pound (4) Gray

0<1 ",,.,,,<\1 "" 'IT'! <ro t, f.m ~ i\; '1:1 s,flf4",<\1' lI.'i eq,~."I<;i<il i\; '1:1 eq,~",.n' i\; "'"
it'llHT""" t?
(I) i\;Rl'! (2) ~ (3) '113& (4) 11
29. Who said, "The movement of progressive societies has hitherto been a movement from
status to contract"?

(I) Puchta (2) Maine (3) Burke (4) Savigny

"",Ili~n<'l wmIf "" 3!i<il <'14 ~ (Iq; ~ ~ li1lIGI (Iq; "" ~ m t,.. 'It' fli;!m _ t?
(I) 'f'l<I (2) iR (3) -..i; (4) ~

(356) 10
 12P/209 /22 Set No. 1

30. Which of the following is correctly matched?

(I) Hart-Sociology of Law

(2) Weber-The Concept of Law

(3) Holland-Elements of Jurisprudence

(4) None of the above

r.. ... f.lfG. if -a ..:IHIT 1!"f ~ t?

(11 mt-~ Cfi1 Rijl'3lWlfll (2) ~-f.IfW <lit ~

(3) ~f4f'w". ~ _ (4) oWm if -a m ~

31. Opinion of Jurists is

(1) general source of law (2) historical material source of law

(31 legal material source of law (4) Not a source of law

"""~ 'Ft f'f<rn t

(I) flIflI 'Ft """'" ma (2) flIflI 'Ft ~fi\~,fllo; ~ ma
(3) flIflI 'Ft q;q:ft ~ ma (4) f* 'Ft 11,'Ii ma ~
32. Who said, .. The basis of social solidarity is interdependence of people of society" ?

(I) Ehrlich (2) Duguit (3) Ihering (4) Pound

... ,'< I f'lo; ~ 'Ft 3!TtlR """" i\; .,n,n <lit 'm'R fuln .nit t ," 'fl' q;>R ~ t?
(I) ~(f.l~ (2) WR (3) ~ (4) ~

33. In the modern State, the best source of law is

(I) Convention (2) CUstom (3) legislation (4) Precedent

(356) 11 (P. T. 0.)

12P/209/22 Set No. 1

(1) ~ (2) "'" (3) ~ (4) ,{Mddl

34. According to the theory of 'social utilitarianism' as propounded by Ihering

(1) greatest number of people should get greatest pleasure

(2) the essential body of legal rules is always based upon the social facts of law

(3) a balance is to be struck between the competing interests in society

(4) law is a means to social ends

~ om JIUfta '~I"If~ 3<i1.Pidl"'~' it ~ it "f:l'W

(1) ~"fjl,.rn.t ij -,wn "" ~"fjl, lj1l! "!l1ll o'RT
(2) flIfu f.ilro it ~ "'" """ ilIfl< it ~,",I'I <I'>iI ~ .. "Uq,f\d ~ ~

(3) """" it 1I11\4IPidl,{"' fuii ij -0: "''" _ W'IT ~ t

(4) ilIfl<~" 11'1.. ~ o!it 'lftf q;y -0: W1'I t

35. In Jurisprudence, 'Bracket theory' is related with

(1) Fundamental Duty (2) Ratio decidendi

(3) Legal personality (4) Possession

flIjl,,,,,,, ij '-t<R ~' mm -.: t?

(1) '@'!lI ~ (2) f.\f,;,,,. 311l1R (3) flIfu .. flt;", (4) '"""

36. Who said, "Ownership is a plenary control over an object" ?

(1) Austin (2) Holland (3) Bentham (4) Salmond

(356) 12
 12P/209/22 Set No. I

I11 ~ (2) ~ (3) .'Il! (4)~

37. .~ person in whom the right resides is called a

\11 beneficiary (2) person of inherence

~ person of incidence (4) None' of the above

~ ...t;,; f'mit ~ ~ mm t, 0;) '"'" "'"" t

I11 MT'mfi (2) -.rem ~ ~ "'lfiI;
(31 3HjqfiJCfl 7X'.ffffi (4) ~ if -it q;)f 'It!

38. \\bicb of the following is not correctly matched?

~ 11 Fiction theory-Salmond 12) Purpose theory-Brinj

131 Both (I) and (2) (4) None of the above

;:""",Ril" if -it ..m-m W" ~ 'It! ~?

111 l<R>R "ITtl-->l1'h; (2) 'R'f'! "ITtl-iF;!
131 (1) ~ (2) G'r.iI (4) ~ if -it q;)f 'It!

39. ... statement of law is nothing more than a prediction of what the Courts will decide" is
the main foundation of

(11 Historical School (2) Sociological School

131 Realist School (4) Natural Law School

"11!f. fufuq; ~ ""<i'<iI<ii om ~ "If.! qffi f.!uf<iI <li\ "f.\",,,,.n .it ~ ~ >It 'It! U' 'lO
mt <I'lIGT'I 'lIT '@ >mm t?
(1) ~fii~,Ill'" <I'lIGT'I (2) ijql'il~lIijft(j e4le:11I

(3) <i~'of",~ <I'lIGT'I (4) ~ ~ a"li~'<i

(356) 13 (P.T.O.)
12P/209/22 Set No. 1

40. The binding force of precedent is destroyed or weakened by

(1) public opinion (2) Res judicata

(3) Ignorance of statute (4) Lis pendens

(1) """'" (2) 'l'f-"IIlt (3) ~ 3l;!R(IT

41. Who is the author of famous work Mitakshara?

(1) Jimutavahana (2) Vishveshwara Bhatt

(3) Vigyaneshwar (4) Mitra Mishra

~ 'fR! "'rllllf{7 3;; ~ on't:! ~?

(I) >fi'l."'nlH (2) f1I,~,,,( ~ (3) f1I~I~'''( (4) flIlf flrm

42. Which of the following treatises is not followed in Dayabhaga School?

(1) Dayatatva (2) Dayakrama Sangraha

(3) Dattak Chandrika (4) Parashar Madhviya

f.I",fiilfIild 'it " f.i; JiiI"I ~ ~ ~ 1:1(1 ~ '!t! f3;;m ,,",,1

(I) <:1'1'" (2) ~ m (3) ~ ~ (4) 'IRm( 1l"ft>!

43. "A clear-cut proof of custom can outweigh the written text of law" was held by the Privy
Council in

(1) Collector of Madura vs. Mootoo Ramalinga

(2) Debi Mangal Prasad vs. Mahadeo Prasad

(3) Bhugwan Deen vs. Myna Baee

(4) Sheo Shankar vs. Debi Sohay

(356) 14
 12P/209/22 Set No. 1

"i1WI "'" .. 1jll J!l!1OT ~ ""'f! <lit ~15T ~ q~"''r'f o't omIT t .. , ~ f.l,p, nm 'l>'fflRI
1:llJ ~ '"' 'R ~ i\; 1Wt fum 11'11?
(I) ~ * <RIm iRJtJ 'lJ. <fIIf#1'1I (2) #t ""'" mm: iRJtJ ~ mm:
(3) ""'"" <!/'I iRJtJ >fr.rr ~ (4) Fm m iRJtJ #t <m'I

44. Which of the following is not an essential condition which the parties to the marriage
must fulfill for a valid marriage?

(1) They should not be Sapinda of each other

(2) They should not be Sagotra o( each other

(3) They should not be related so as to be within prohibited degree of relationship

(4) None of them should have a spouse living at the time of marriage

i1WI "'",fl\ .rtl 1:IU ~ <lit ~"'" i\; full!: ~",falti. if li ~ mI 'lit ~ ilR'!T J"""''' ;fflI
rm'
(11 ~ ","-~ .. ~ ;fflI.ro
(2) ~ ","-~ '"T m ;fflI .ro

(3) ~ ","-~ li ~ O"! if ~ ;fflI .ro ~ oil AA<: ~ i\; .m if amrr 1;1
(4) ~ it li i1WI ,jj "lflI; '"T, ~ i\; <P<>! ~ 'lftr/'ll'ft ;fflI mr
45. In which of the following cases, the constitutional validity of Section 9 of Hindu
Marriage Act, was upheld by the Supreme Court?

(I) T. Sarectha vs. T. Venkatasubbiah

(2J SaToj Rani vs. Sudarshan Kumar

(3) Bipinchandra vs. Prabhawati

(4) Dastane vs. Dastane

(3561 15 (P.T.O.)
12P/209/22 Set No. I

f.\l=! if ~ flnl; <m; if ~ ~ 3'IflIf.i." <li\ 'Im 9 <li\ a"," <it ~ .. ,.,"". 1:IU "'1,,110
~ '1'11 'IT'

(I) it. liI:<I'IT OHPI it. il..2llfoilo,

(3) r:.fij.4~ OHPI ~

46. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1) Children born out of void marriages. are legitimate

(2) They can inherit the property of their parents

(3) They have right by birth in joint family property

(4) Children born out of voidable marriage before decree of nullity are legitimate

f.\l=! if ~ ..m-m """ ~ 'It! t?

( I ) """'" ~ W'I"t ~ ;;r.i\ ~ at! .nl ~
(2) ~ ~ l!!-_ <li\ ~ if; -.;rita mm ~

(3) ~ ~ ~ <li\ ~ if; ~ ~ t

(4) '[.....{Oft. ~ ~ ;;r.i\ ~ ~ if; Fm if; 'l'i at! .nl ~

47. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding a valid adoption under Hindu
Law?

(1) The person adopting the child must be major and of sound mind

(2) The child must be Hindu

(3) The child should not have completed age flfteen years

(4) The child should not be of unsound mind

(356) 16
 12P/209/22 Set No. I

~ 1* t """ ~'1 .".. ~ t ~ it f.I"! it ~ .:r.t-m <m! 3ml'I t?

(I) ... -.i\ >it< ~ ..ra oofu; '!iT _ 1I!i ~'1l~d ~ 'ITffi m.r 3lf.l<ml t
(2) "''!iT~~~t
(3) ... -.i\ 15 "" ~ >iflIq; ~ '!iT ~ m.r ~
(4) ... -.i\ "'~'1lf<1d ~ 'ITffi ~ ~ ~

48. A, a Hindu male dies intestate leaving behind him, his father, brother, sister and one
step brother. Who shall inherit bis property which is self-earned by A?

(1) Father alone

(2) Father and brother

(3) Father and both the brothers

(4) Father. brother and sister but not the step brother

A, v,q; ~ ~ flr.n ~ <nfi>rn t wR "<fti) wR fun, 'I1f, ~ "'" v,q; ~ 'I1f -.i\ ;;)~
"ffiIT t I A 1:RI m 3lr.i<r ~ '!iT "I1fU! .:r.t ~ 1
(I ) i\><r.! fun
(2) fun 1I!i .m
(3) fun 1I!i $if .m
(4) fun, .m 1I!i ~ ~ ~ 'I1f ~

49. Which one of the following relatives was made coparcener and conferred rights in the
joint HindUlllfamily property by Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005 ?

(1) Wife of coparcener

(2) Daughter of Mitakshara coparcener

(3) Daughter of Dayabhaga coparcener

(4) Daughter in law

(356) 17 (P.T.O.)
12P/209/22 Set No. 1

f.i"I if ~ m W'I"f\ <i't ~ 'ff"fu.." (mIT'I'I) ",fuf.1<lI., 2005 ~ "'" ~ 3i'R ~ ~

~ "i6T ~ _ '1'11 '11?

50. The distinction between Streedhana and women's property was abolished by

(I) Section 3 of Hindu Women's Right to Property Act

(2) Section 6 of Hindu Succession Act, 1956

(3) Section 14 of Hindu Succession Act, 1956

(4) Section 6 as amended by Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005

lift'I'I l('i ~ <Iil W'!flI if ~ <i't m "lfuf.l .. " ~ Wl1l! M '1'11 '11?

( 1) ~~ ~ """"'" ",fu f.l .. " <Iil mu 3

(2) ~ 3ff"fu .. " ~, 1956 <Iil mu 6

(3) ~ 3ff"fu .. " "lfuf.l .... , 1956 <Iil mu 14

(4) ~ 3ffUfu .. " (mil'l'l) ~, 2005 <Iil mu 6

SI. A Muslim goes to any country of the world

(1) with his personal law

(2) without his personal law

(3) leaving his personal law in his country

(4) with an object of obeying 'the laws of the country concerned which includes the
personal law

(356) 18
 12P /209 /22 Set No. 1

o:q; ~ oofu; ~ * M if 1fT ~ >mIT ~

(1) 3N-ft .. flt;"iI flIfu * WI
(2) 3N-ft ..flt;"iI flIfu * ...tn:
(3) 3N-ft .. flt;"iI flIfuqi\ >l'R ~
if ~ m~

(4) ~ ~ <lit flIfu * * *

'lr.R ~ WI. i'mil .. flt;"iI flIfu 1fT afU\~iI t

52. A Muslim is prevented from marrying his wife's sister

(1) during the subsistence of marriage with his wife

(2) after the death of his wife

(3) after the divorce of his wife

(4) All of the above

( 1) 3N-ft 'li'ft * "'""" W-t * ~

(3) 3N-ft 'li'ft iI ~ * ~

53. In an irregular marriage, the duration of Iddat is

(I) four courses (2) three courses (3) two courses (4) one course

(1) 'IR..r.l (2) <fFr..r.l (3) w..r.l (4) o:q;..r.l

54. Ground of failure to perfonn marital obligations, is available to the wife, for divorce
(1) if the failure is without any reasonable cause
(2) if the failure is for a period of three years
(3) both (1) aod (2)
(4) either (1) or (2)

(356) 19 (P. T.O.)

12P/209/22 Set No. I

.. ~ i\; '!r.R iI Oi~""'d' 'Il'I\ 'lii <f11'l\ . . aroR ~ <nfi t

'Ill! <TU ~'''Iii
(I) ~ .. Oie ..",", ilRT M oflr "iffi"T i\; m
(2) ~ . . >le""d' <fi:t 'I'il <Ii\ ~ <Ii\ m
(3) (I) v.<i (2) *"
(4) (I) = (2)

55. In Islam, a: gift can

(1 J be made validly through the medium of trust

(2) not be made validly through the medium of trust

(3) be made validly through the medium of trust only with the permission of the court

(4) he made validly through the medium of trust only with the permission/ consent of
the heirs
~~iI~
( I) "1Nl i\; 1l1"ll! -Q ~>t "'" iI ~ 'IT ~ t
(2) "1Nl i\; 1l1"ll! -Q ~>t "'" iI ~ ~ 'IT ~ t
(3) """'"'' <Ii\ ~ i\; _ ~ "1Nl i\; 1l1"ll! -Q 1ft ~>t "'" iI ~ 'IT ~ t
(4) <nft<it <Ii\ ~ /~ i\; ~ ~ "1Nl i\; 1l1"ll! -Q ~>t "'" iI ~ 'IT ~ t

56. The draft of Contract Bill was prepared by

(1) First Law Commission (2) Second Law Commission

(3) Third Law Commission (4) None of the above

( I ) lI'I'! fl<fu 3!T'im

(3) ~ fl<fu 3!T'im

(356) 20
 12P/209/22 Set No. 1

57. Which of the following is an implied offer?

{I} A bid at an auction sale

(2) A banker's catalogue of charges

(3) Consuming eatables at a restaurant

(4) All of the above

f.iq ;j i\ q,T-r -<IT ~ 1R<!1'I ~?

(1) ~ ~ it iI'r.fi wrr:n

(4) ~ <Nt

58. A unilateral contract in which only one party is bound, is also lmown as

(1) executory contract (2) executed contract

(3) express contract (4) implied contract

1('fi 1('fi'!1\fl<I ~ ~ m 1('fi 'I"; '"'" to ~ 'Ill! i\ >f\ "f1'f\ -.mft ~

(1) f.\1omr ~ (2) f.I"1l~ ~

(3)~~ (4)~~

59. Under English Law, minor's agreement

(I) is always voidable

(2) is always void

(3) is voidable but in certain exceptional case void

(4) None of the above is correct

(356) 21 (P.T.O.)
12P/209/22 Set No. I

aWa AA i\; =>RI'io . . - "" q;m

(I) l$ 'k"..",ft. t
(2) l$ ~ t
(3) 'k",,,,uft. t ~ ~ .. q.,~ "....rr ~ ~ t
(4) 3'R1m ~ "it ...:ti >j\ ~ ~ t
60. A master asks his servant to sell his cycle to him at less than the market price. This
contract can be avoided by the servant on the ground of

(1) coercion (2) fraud

(3) mistake (4) undue influence

1% ~ ~ ,,;t ~ ~111ii;,"
3!'R m
,,;t '""'" 'W'! "it ..., 'W'! 'R ~ ,,;t ~ tI ~
om ~ ~ "" ~ f.\"! 3lNR 'R 1lI;ln 'IT WIi<IT t

(I) ~ (2) '!m (3) '@ (4) _1Nl'!

61. Pinnel's case is related to

(1) ftee consent (2) public policy

(3) consideration (4) None of the above

lft:r.t "" ~ flI;m) ~",f.ita t?

(I) "f'IlilI ~
(3)~

62. In case of conflict of law, the incidence of a contract is governed by

(1) the law of the State where the contract is made
(2) the law of the State where the contract is performed
(3) the law of the State where the acceptor resides permanently
(4) the law of the State where the proposer resides permanently

(356) 22
 12P/209/22 Set No. I

f.ril! - \lro"""" t ~ il lifuG:r <lit .~ 'lfiI ol ~ om mflI mtl ~?

( I ) ;m"U"'l .m lifuG:r <lit ~
<lit f.ril! om
(2) ;m"U"'l <lit f.ril! om .m lifuG:r .., >fI'l1G-I ~3lT

(3) ;m"U"'l <lit f.ril! om .m .filU;!ld I ~ ~ " f.i<Im on< "" ~

(4) ;m"U"'l <lit f.ril! om .m ',""I" ..~f ~ ~ " f.r.!m on< "" t

63. A agrees to pay B Rs 1,000 if two straight lines should enclose a space. The agreement
is void under

(I) Section 36 (2) Section 39 (3) Section 55 (4) Section 56

A, B " '!m ""'" t it 'If<: G1 $1\ WIll ~ l'ITo! -.i\ ;roI\ t "fft .. B -.i\ 1,000 ~o ~I
. . '!m ~ 3l'fR l1I:'I t?
(I) mu 36 (2) 'IIU 39 (3) 'IIU 55 (4) 'IIU 56

64. When a coqtract becomes impossible or illegal of performance

(1) the promisee is excused from the performance

(2) the promisor is excused from the performance

(3) both the promisor and promisee are excused from the performance

(4) None of the above

(I) ,,~.u.ldl 'lffi'I " ~ m""" t

(2) ,,~ ...~f 'lffi'I " ~ m""" t
(3) "~'iMf 1I!i "~'U;!ldl ~ 'lffi'I " ~ m~ ~
(4) ..mm il " ~ ~

(356) 23 (P.T.O.)
12P/209/22 Set No. 1

65. If a person who finds goods, belonging to another, takes them into his custody, then he

(1) can pledge the goods

(2) can gift the goods

(3) is subject to same responsibility as a bailee

(4) None of the above

~ 1% -..1%, '1i ~ ~ ~ l!ffi '1i\ 'ffiIT t ~ 3l'l'fi 31ilRl\1T it ~ mn t, m~

(1) l!ffi '1i\ ilrofi UlI <l'!i<IT t
(2) 'Irn "" ' " ~ >!'Iil!T t
(3) 3>ft ~ ~ 3'ItfR t ~ f.\; 1% .. f.i~n1

(4) ..mm it ~ m -.tl

66. Which one of the following contracts has time as the essence of the contract?

(1) A contracts to marry B at the earliest

(2) A contracts with B for the sale of his property

(3) A contracts to send money to B for B's sustenance in England

f.iq .>iI
(4) A contracts to buy B's house for immediate occupation

(I) A, B ~
it ~ ~ WI'I

,ft.,RI,ft" ~ ;fit
i\; '"' i\; ~

~ t
it t 1

(2) A, B ~ 3l'l'fi ~ ~ flrsi;'! ;fit ~ t

(3) A, B '1i\ ~ 1\ ~ t<J '<-! ~ ;fit ~ t
(4) A ~ """" t<J B "" """" ~ ;fit ~ t

(356) 24
 12P /209 /22 Set No. I

67. An agreement in restraint of marriage of a minor is

(I) void (2) voidable

(3) valid (4) None of the above is correct

(I) ~ (2) .l....'oft.

(3) ~'1

68. A contract imposed by law on the parties is called

(I) implied contract (2) constructive contract

(3) contingent contract (4) None of the above

q.,..ro 'R 1'Ifll om anUfila ~ "ll<ft ~

(I) ~. (2) "" ... ill. . .

(3) .~. (4) "3'l()m it ~ ~ 'It!

69. The transfer of contractual rights or liabilities by a party to the contract to some other
person who is not a party is known as

(1) accord of contract (2) assignment of contract

(3) novation of contract (4) rescission of contract

i\; 11!1' ql5'liR om ~ ;JR "Ifu; 'IiI, iI ql5'liR 'It! to ';1'<\,*"" ~ 3N<IT ~ ""
~1'11"f1{\11 ;;n;n ~ t
( 1) . " ' " ' " i\; "'" it (2) e":!~'H i\; "'" it

(4) ~ i\; "'" it

(356) 25 (P.T.O.)
12P/209/22 Set No. I

70. Which of the following cases is on the meaning of 'immorality' ?

(l) Ram Swamp vs. Bansi Mander (2) Fa/eh Singh vs. Sanwal Singh

(3) Abdul vs. Hussain Bi (4) Gherula vs. Mahadeo Das

(1) M""M ""'" <iWt m:r (2) '"'" fillr iR'T'l !R<ffi' fi'r;<
(3) ~ ""'" ~ -.ff (4) Q<'HI('1 iR'T'l ~ ~

71. A surety can revoke by notice to the creditor

(1) guarantee (2) continuing guarantee

(3) every guarantee (4) None of the above

lIflol, ~ -.i\ 1f'HT mr .fi\~~ul 'lO: -.f.I;m

II)~
(3)~~

72. "Consideration is necessary to create an agency." This statement is

(1) True (2) False

(3) Partly true (4) None of the above

(1) <"I (2) 31m'!

(3) 31ifu.!; <"I (4) ~ if "i\ ~ ~

73. A sells, by auction to B, a horse which A knows to be unsound. A says nothing to B

about the horse's unsoundness. This is

(1) misrepresentation by A (2) fraud by A

(3) mistake by A (4) None of the above

(356) 26
 12P/209/22 Set No. I

A ~ OIU B <it >It'?! ~ i ~ on't il A """'" t ~

1('6 OIl! ~ ~ I A ~ i\; ~ i\;
on't il B <it ~ ~ '""'" I OIl! ~
{I} A OIU ~odq{'H {2} A OIU <om
{3} A OIU '@ {4} ~ il -a q;f{ ~

74. Placing of ornaments in a bank locker is not a contract of bailment. This statement is

{I} true {2} false {3} partly true {4} partly false

~ am il ""'" <it UlI'I1 ~ <lit ~ ~ I OIl! <m! t

{I} "'" {2} """" {3} .mm "'" {4} .mm """"
75. When a quasi-contractual obligation is not discharged, the person inju~ed by such
failure is entitled to compensation by party in default under Indian Contract Act

(1) in Section 70 {2} in Section 71

(3) in Section 72 {4} in Section 73

"'" 1('6 . - " " " , , " , ~ "" f.t4-l ~ .rnr t, m ~ "MMldl OIU I\IlI ~ 'lffiIl>!
31fuf.l<lQ i\; 3I'1R 'lffift qoj\ "'" q~ -a ~ "'" qoj\ "" ~ t

{I} tWT 70 iI {2} tWT 71 iI {3} tWT 72 il {4} tWT 73 il

76. A manufacturer is liable to the ultimate consumer of goods though no contract exists
between them, was first held in

{I} Rylands vs. Fletcher (2) Donoghue vs. Steuenson

(3) Ashby vs. White (4) Nichals vs. Marsland

1('6 ~ al'R '@'f!I ~ i\; lIfiI 3~'~loi1 .rnr t <mfi\ :;.Ti\; ofRI q;f{ ~" ~ m.n, OIl!
f.iof,r m. ~ iI f.mI ""'?
(I) ~ iRTIl ~ (2) ~ iRTIl R'l>l'li'l
(3) ~ iRTIl ~ {4} f.I..)HM iRTIl :mM~

{356} 27 (P.T.O.)
12P/209/22 Set No. I

77. According to which author it is Law of Torts not Law of Tort?

(I) Winfield (2) Pollock (3) Salmond (4) Jolowicz

m. "'- '" ~ FIf J#q; ~fI ~, <if m <Tt ~?

(2) ~ (3) wrg , 'Ill <NI

(4) "11t11

78. Which of the following cases is related to maxim Injuria sine dwnno?

(I) Ashby vs. White (2) Chasemore vs. Richards

(3) Hayness vs. Hanuood (4) Butterjield vs. Forrester

R'" r" ru.o if it ~ -m 'Ill; ilRT .ma '" mf.i "'" f.lll1! it ~ ~,
(I) ~ iRT'! ~ (2) ~ iRT'! ft;m{fI
(3) #<I iRT'! ~ (4) '2<'~)c'" iRT'! ""~

79. Which of the following cases is related to Tort of negligence?

(I) Nichols vs. Marsland (2) Read vs. Lyons

(3) Grant vs. Australian Knitting Mills (4) Derry vs. Peek

f.\1=r if it ~ -m 'Ill; ;NPdF'PI 3l'!fl'! it ~ ~?

(I) (.)")(,,,'1 iRT'! ""M", (2) & 'RT'I <"IRT
(3) !1i< iRT'! amtfFw-f ~ fi'm1 (4) tit 'RT'I q,.

80. Which out of the following persons cannot sue for nuisance?

(1) Tenant

(2) Occupier of land

(3) A licensee without possession as a guest

(4) A licensee with exclusive possession

(356) 28
 12P /209/22 Set No. 1

(1) 1l!;(I.~R

(2) 'IJlr 'R 'fi"'IT q;f.\ aTi?TT

(3) 1l."' amril! * <'! if ""flI .... * .,tn: "'a"fRqlt\

(4) fufu!! ""flI .... aTi?TT >ia"fRq,fl

81. Which one of these is not required to be proved by plaintiff in case of malicious
prosecution?

(1) Prosecution of the plaintiff

(2) Imprisonment of the plaintiff

(3) Termination of proceedings in favour of the plaintiff

(4) Absence of reasonable and probable cause

(1) ~ "" ~ (2) ~ cnr Cfl](I'4ttt

(3) ~ * ~I\'! if If!'I1f "" ""Hid'"

82. According to Winfield, tortious liability arises from breach of

(1) constitutional duty (2) duty under enacted laws

(3) duty primarily fIxed by law (4) moral duty

(1) ~..,m; q;;foq (2) tl:rit! * 110<1 3fgf&d q;;foq

(3) tl:rit! om '@ <'! i\ fMll:d q;;foq (4) ~ q;;foq

(356) 29 IP. T.O.)

12P/209/22 Set No. 1

83. Which one of the following is not a justification/defence in cases of assault and
battery?

(1) Leave and licence or vo{enti non fit injuria

(2) Expulsion of trespasser

(3) Self-defence

14) Act of God

,"~I\<I; ~ 1l.'i O'R'T ~ <m: il f.\"l~Fliid il "i\ ~-m ~ .I\\"G-l/.-.nq 'It! t 1

11) mt 1l.'i ~ '>1>I'!T ~ '"" fiR $"(n'/1
(2) ",I\\.. qu, <m <lA q,1 ~ f.\o;,.I'I'

13) 3ffiIl\!<~

14) "''1'1\\0; ~

84. Governmental liability for the Torts committed by its servants in England is governed
by

(I) Common Law

(2) Constitutional Provision

(3) Principle of King can do no wrong

14) Crown Proceedings Act, 1947

~ il iiilo;(l"..l ~ <lit 'Il I\IRi ~ mo;Rt Gifli1'I "" ~ ~ ~ M 'IRIt ~?

(4) lrn'i si\;i)~"~, 1947

1356) 30
 12P /209/22 Set No. 1

85. Govemmentalliability for the Torts committed by its servants in India is similar to the
liability of

(1) East India Company (2) Queen of England

(3) An Ordinary Employer (4) any Sovereign Ruler

(1)~~~

(3) ~"!!TIIT"! f.l>ffit;r

86. Which of the following defences is generally not allowed in a case of strict liability?

(I) Act of God (2) Inevitable accident

(3) Common benefit (4) UnfoTseen act of stranger

(I) ,,,,RIo; ~ (2)~~

(3) ll1'IR aN

87. In which case, the rule of last opportunity was propounded?

(I) Butterjield vs. Forrester

(2) Dames vs. Mann

(3) British Columbia Electric Rly vs. Loach

(4) Glasgow Corporation vs. Taylor

(356) 31 (P.T.O.)
12Pj209j22 Set No. 1

88. Which Article in the Constitution of India is related to governmental liability for Torts
committed by its servants?

(1) Article 300 (2) Article 310 (3) Article 315 (4) Article 320

(1) ~ 300 (2) ~ 310 (3) ~ 315 (4) ~ 320

89. Jus tertii is a defence in an action for

(1) conversion (2) defamation

(3) false imprisonment (4) negligence

(4) ~T

90. Which of the following maxims is related to consent as a defence in an action for Tort?

(1) Scienter rule

(2) Volenti non fit injuria

(3) Scienti non fit injuria

(4) Res ipsa loquitur there must be a remedy

(2) ~;if.r PR ~

(4) m 1I'!1'JI, 11.'> 0I1'W 3!<ml \?RI _

(356) 32
 12P /209/22 Set No. I

91. Innuendo is

(l) intention to defame the plaintiff

(2) intention to cause injury

(3) setting forth the particular circumstances by plaintiff because of which an

otherwise non-defamatory statement is defamatory to him

(4) defence available in an action for defamation

" ..,lflh t
(I) ~ -.it _ q;f.t <lit ~

(2) ""'" q;f.t <lit ~

(3) ~ 1:lU 3'! ilm'oI qIU~fIt<ii 'fiT t.m<li\ ~ -a ~ ~ .". f\"(-OIq","",.," """"' >f\
301QQI"l"l"iiifl iR ;;rnrr ~

92. The term unliquidated damages means

(1) damages are only payable if the defendant is solvent

(2) damages are for a fIxed sum

(3) damages are not set or calculable in advance

(4) damages are paid in the form of a cheque

OIr..~d ~ 'fiT aN t
(I) ~ <I'f\ ill 'i1WI\ "1'! "'"" ~IR ~'~'" " ~
(2) ~.". f.rim "'"' ~ ~ t
(3) ~ f.rim ~ '<IT 3'!'fiT 3iilRR ~ -a ~ _ 'IT lIifilIT

(4) ~ ~ 1:lU ~ 'fiT WT'"" _ 'I1lIT t

(356) 33 (P.T.O.)
12P/209/22 Set No. 1

93. Which of the following cases is not related to Tort of defamation?

(1) Morris vs. C. W. Martin & Sons Ltd.

(2) E. Hutton Co. vs. A. Jones

(3) Morrison vs. Ritchie & Co.

(4) Tolley vs. Fry & Sons Ltd.

f.!"I if - 'I>'R-m ~ 3w!r-I ~ - ~",f.il<l -;;tf t?

( 1) rtrtrn if.ITII fft 0 ~0 'Irlf.r 1(6 <RI fff 0
(2) to ~ ';;0 1A1'! ,<0 m
(3) 11'fftlR if.ITII tr.h 1(6 ';;0
(4) zfFIt if.ITII JnTf 1(6 <RI fff0

94. In which of the following cases, the State was not held vicariously liable for the Tort
committed by its employee?

(1) Vidyawati vs. State of Rajasthan

(2) Shyarnsunder vs. State of Rajasthan

(3) Union of India vs. Sugrabai

(4) Kasturilal vs. State of Utlar Pradesh

f.!"I if - flrn ~ if "{1"1 qi\ 'l?f "" - am mrtt' WU <lit 11f I\ffi! ~ ~ 3fl(~I41 -;;tf ~
'1'IT ",?

(2) ~~ 'R1lI fm'IF1 vo<T

(4) ~ ffiff 'R1lI 3"il( ~ U"'"I

(356) 34
 12P/209/22 Set No. I

95. In a case of trespass to land the following remedy is not available to the plaintiff

(I) detinue

(2) action for ejectment or recovery of land

(3) suit for mesne profits

(4) distress damage feasant

(I) fu't,,-~-,>f.,tl\

(2) f.\ ... ,e. 3N<IT 'lfl! <lit -.mfI 11; ~ ,<f,t!l
(3) 'I"mIf EN 11; ~ m<:
(4) =-~"6 ~

96. Which of the following is the correct theoretical sequence in the Commission of an
offence?

(i) Physical element

(ii) Mental element

(iU) Forbidden consequences

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Code:

(I) li), lii), liii) (2) lii), li), liii)

(3) liii), lii), li) (4) liii), li), In)

(356) 35 IP.T.O.)
12P(209(22 Set No. 1

(i) !tlltlRCfj m:q

(ii) 141'1~Cfi ~

liii) ~ 'lftUJ11I
f.i"! 'F i\; m om ~ 31f( "" " " " ~
Code:

(I) li), lii), liii) (2) lii), li), liii)

(3) liii), lii), li) (4) liii), li), lii)

97. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
lists :
List-I List-II
fa) Movable property obtained without consent li) Robbery
(b) Movable property obtained without consent lii) Extortion
by instant-violence
(c) Movable property obtained without consent liii) Dacoity
induced by fear
(d) Movable property obtained using instant (iv) Theft
violence by a gang of six persons
Code:

la) Ih) Ic) Id)

( I) liii) liv) li) lii)
(2) liii) li) liv) lii)
(3) liv) li) lii) liii)
(4) liv) lii) li) liii)

(356) 36
 12P/209/22 Set No. I

'{'It-I 'lit '{'It-I! il; _ ~ -.it 1i ~ il; ;f'r;t ~ 'l1( ~ "" m q;f,j ~ ~ 3m ""
'I'!'I -.it ,
'{'It-I ~-H

(a) ~ -.rn lITlI 'ffi ~

il; (i) ~

(b) ~ il; -.rn ~ mn "" m q;f,j ~ (ii) ~

lITlI 'ffi ~

(c) "" ~ ~ il; -.rn lITlI 'ffi ~ (iii) ~

(d) ;J, -..fu;,il il; ~ om ~ mn "" m (iv) ~

~ ~ lITlI 'ffi ~
Code;

(a) (b) (c) (d)

( I) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

98. Which of the following is correctly matched?

( I) Section BO-Accident (2) Section 81-N ecessity

(3) Section SS-Mistake of fact (4) Both (I) and (2)

M if " """-m -gn! ~ ~?

( I) <mT8~ (2) mu 81~1~f4Cfidl

(3) <mT 85--<1"1 <lit '@ (4) (I) 1i (2) ~

(356) 37 (P.T.O.)
12P/209/22 Set No. 1

99. Section 73 of IPC provides for the maximum limit of solit~ conrmement to be

(1) one year (2) two years

(3) three months (4) None of the above

mo~o<io <lit "'" 73 if ~ q;'<I.,a <lit 3iltiq;aq $iT ~ '1l t

( 1) 1(q; "" (2) ~ "" (3) ifFr 'ITlf

100. Section 82 of IPC enunciates

(1) a presumption of fact

(2) a rebuttable presumption of law

(3) a conclusive or irrebuttable presumption of law

(4) None of the above

mo~ 0 <i 0 <lit "'" 82 if "I'll! f.\;m "'" t

(l) (ltlJ ciit :Jq'qI{OIl

(2) AA <lit 1(q; ~ 3q~ROii

(3) fcriU ctl 'Q;CIi f,lUtf4Cf1 3N'iU 3"I&c.ftq aQtH(UII

101. In which of the following offences Mens rea is not an essential ingredient?

(1) Murder (2) Theft (3) Robbery (4) Bigamy

(1) mon (2) '<i'rtl

(3) ~ (4) ~.,~

(356) 38
 12P/209/22 Set No. 1

102. [0 which of the following cases, the Supreme Court declared Section 303 of the IPC as
unconstitutional?

{I} Sher Singh vs. State of Punjab

{2} Mithu vs. State of Punjab

{3} Bachan Singh vs. State of Pu,yab

(4) None of the above

{I} it< 1ih< iRII! ~ U"'l {2} 1i1>{ iRII! ~ U"'l

{3} i/"I'f 1ih< iRII! ~ U"'l (4) ~ 11 'it q;)f 'It!

103. Aruna Ramchandra Shanbaug vs. Union of India is related with

(1) suicide (2) capital punishment

(3) euthanasia (4) murder

(IJ 341Mik41 {4} ~

104. A, an officer of a Court of Justice is ordered by the Court to arrest Y. He arrests Z after
due inquiry believing Z to be Y

(1 J A has committed the offence of wrongful confmement

(2) A is guilty of criminal negligence

(3) A has committed no offence, because he is protected by Section 76 of IPC

(4) None of the above

(356) 39 (P.T.O.)
12P/209/22 Set No. 1

A, l!!fi "1,'1,,"'1 ~ ~ 'lit "1,'1,,"'1 om y 'lit ~ ~ '"' ~ ~ omrr t, ... '"" ~

W'ffil. z 'lit y ~ ~ ~ '"' mr t

(2) A ~ :it'll! '"' ~ t

(3) A ~ ~ """'" '!;ff ~ t, if'iffif; ... \lTo~ 0 0 <!i\ 'lTU 76 ~ ~ <id'~ t
(4) 3'ffim if ~ ~ 'It!

105. The basic difference between Section 34 and Section 149 of IPC is

(lJ Section 34 creates a principle of joint liability and does not create a specific
offence, Section 149 creates a specific offence

{2} Section 149 does not create a specific offence, but Section 34 creates a specific
offence

(3) both create specific offences, but the principle of joint liability is created only by
Section 34

{4J None of the above

\IT o~ 0 0 <!i\ 'lTU 34 _ 'lTU 149 if '@'llI >F<R t

(1) 'lTU 34 l!!fi ~ 3fl\{'I<I, <!i\ ~ -n t aiR ~ r.nm 3l'R1'I <!i\ 'It!, ~ 'lTU 149
r.nm 3l'R1'I <!i\ ~ -n t
(2) 'lTU 149 ~ r.nm """'" <!i\ ~ 'It! -n, ~ 'lTU 34 r.nm 3l'R1'I <!i\ ~ -n t

(3) <J;il tt ~ r.nm >1'm'iI <!i\ ~ -n t ~ ~ 3fl\{"<l1 ~ ftq;r;;r <!i\ ~ iI;qa 'lTU
34tt-n~

(4) ~ if ~ ~ 'It!

(356) 40
 12P/209/22 Set No. I

106. Which of the following punisrunents cannot be awarded under the IPC?

(1) Forfeiture of property (2) Rigorous imprisonment

(3) Transportation for life 14) Death

f.t"! il iI <o't.!-m <ts 'lTo~o~o om ~ 'IRT ""'" ~ t?

11) ~ <lit ...at (2) ~ CfiRl<:4l~

13) amftoR f.I<mR 14) ~

107. What is the offence, where preparation of offence is also punishable?

11) Theft 12) Dacoity 13) Murder 14) Rape

"" <o't.!-m 3ffi1'l t f.m<Iit ~ <m1 >it ~ ~ 1

11) ..rrtl (2) ~ 13) """ (4) Glt"Il(ifi1(

108. A obtained a sum of Rs 10,000 from B by putting B in fear of death. Which one of the
following offences was committed?

11) Cheating 12) Ropbery 13) Extortion 14) Mischief

A 'I B
~1
l!iI ~ "" "" !S, .., :nm 10,000 .0 <lit "'"' Jffi! <lit, ~ f.t"! il iI <o't.!-m 3ffi1'l

II)~ 12) ~ 13) ftr.nf 14) 'f1<m!

109. Which one of the follDwing is an essential element of criminal breach of trust?

(1) Contractual relationship

(2) Transfer of possession

(3) Taking possession of property by fraudulent means

14) Property must be movable

1356) 41 (P. T. 0.)

12P/209/22 Set No. I

f.n=! ,q -a ~ 311"11'1" "Im'i>T '"' 1('" mq t?

11) 311:\" 1'1" W'I"l

12) ~ '"' ~><1id<ul

13) "q<,(of m'l'iI >Ii\ ~ -a ~ 'R '""'" ..::IT

14) "'"~~~

110. Causing disappearance of evidence of offence, or giving false information to screen

offenders is an offence

11) under Section 200 of IPC 12) under Section 20 I of IPC

(3) under Section 211 of IPC (4) under Section 204 of IPC

11) ",o~o<io >Ii\ '11U 200 t omr 12) "'o~o<io >Ii\ '11U 201 t omr
13) ",o~o<io >Ii\ '11U 211 t omr 14) "'o~o<io >Ii\ '11U 204 t omr

111. 'Dowry death' under the Indian Penal Code has been put under the Chapter

11) offences against human body

(2) offences against marriage

(3) offences against Law and Justice

(4) offences against public nuisance

11) "'"'" mR t flt..: 31'm't

13) fI<f1I 1('i "lI'I t flt..: 31'm't

1356) 42
 12P/209/22 Set No. I

112. Which of the following is immaterial for the offence of wrongful confinement?

(I) Malice

(2) Period of confmement

(3) Bonafide belief in the existence of a legal -right

(4) Both (I) and (2)

f.l ... ~fula if iI """-m",,, fii"IT ';jifi{li[ ~ ~ if ,,~~.. ~1

(2) ';j<o(O[ <lit 3l'lftI

(4) (I) 1l;'i (2) G1;J\

113. A picks up a stick and pointing towards B says .. I will beat and break your bones". It
amounts to

(I) criminal assault (2) criminal intimidation

(3) simple hurt (4) extortion

A .... ~ 30fiIT t ~ B <lit am ~ ~ ~ ~ to "i'! ~ ~'1T ~ ~ M ~

~"[ ... lI;m 3l'lU't t?
(I) ~~ (4) ~

114. A 'man' is defended by Section 10 of IPC as a male human being of

(I) any age (2) above 16 years of age

(3) above IQ years of age (4) None of the above

(I) ilm\.j\ ~ "" ~ (2) 16 "" iI ~ <lit ~ "" ~

(3) 10 "" iI ~ <lit ~ "" ~ (4) "3'Rht; if iI 'Iiti ~

(356) 43 (P.T.O.)
12P/209/22 Set No. I

115. A voluntarily throws into a river. a ring belonging to Z with the intention of thereby
causing wrongful loss to Z. A has committed

(1) cheating (2) mischief

(3) criminal breach of trust (4) no offence

A ...... ,tJ.. z ofi\ -0:0; W@\ ." oil ~ 'I!'lf.t ofi\ -:ftmI II ~ 1\ i\;o; tIT t, A ~ qorr 3l'ro'I
flI;on ~?

(I) ,"..,.~ (2) =

(3) =flIo; """-~ (4) ~ 3l'ro'I 'f(ff

116. Which of the following cases relates to recognition of States and Governments?

(1) Tinoeo Concessions Arbitration

(2) Island of Palmas Case

(3) West Rand Central Gold Mining vs. R

(4) Chung Chi Cheung vs. The King

(I) tr.ftoit ".,j>l'" 3mlil?m

(2) ~ Jiiq; '11'I1li ~

(3) ;ffi: ~ ~ ~ 'I1if.PT >Rl'I 3nf

(4) *'"<it""-,, >Rl'I <: f.m

117. Who among the following is not an adherent of declaratory theory?

(I) Hall (2) Brierly

(3) Lauterpacht (4) Fisher Williams

(356) 44
 12P/209/22 Set No. 1

(1) ~ (2) ~ (3) .. "tiI'fl

118. Territorial sea may not extend beyond

(1) 12 nautical miles (2) 24 nautical miles

(3) 10 nautical miles (4) 9 nautical miles

"~~I" mm <liT <;!\ ~ ~ tit ~ t

(1) 12 ~ <fffi <l (2) 24 ~ <fffi <l
(3) 10 ~ <fffi <l (4) 9 ~ <fffi <l

119. The subjects of International Law are

(1) States only
(2) International Organizations only
(3) States, International Organizations and Individuals
(4) United Nations only

",,,,d~,, ilrlil <liT 1"""' t

( 1) i\;...., U"'I
(2) i\;...., ",,,,d~,, Wio-!
(3) U"'I. "'",(f~" Wio-! ~ "IflI;
(4) i\;...., ~ u&!
120. Which of the following cases supports the view that opinio juris is a necessary
ingredient of a custom?

(1) Eastern Greenland Case (2) Luther vs. Sagor

(3) Lotus Case (4) Corfu Channel Case

(356) 45 (P. T. 0.)

12P/2Q9/22 Set No. 1

f.I ... lflfu1d it " qIR-m 'IT<: ~ r..~I(QR1 "" m. <nIT t % ailofIf.I<iI "'f!m ~ "" ~ "".'<lq;
-t?
(1) ~ Ji).,<4 o. <l;;;
(3) ffl<1I <l;;;

121. Which of the following writers supports the Maoism theory?

(1) Triepel (2) Anzilotti

(3) Herch Lauterpacht (4) Strupp

," ... lfIfu1d it " qIR-m ~ ~q;cl."; ~ "" m. <nIT t?

( 1) t\'Icl (2) Q;;.fi",1 ill (3) .,! cl ,all '" (4) " "

122. Indian practice with regard to Customary International Law is near to

(1) theory of dualism (2) theory of monism

(3) theories of coordination (4) None of the above

~ ",.. d~<I AA ~ ..m it ~ """'" t

(1) ~ ~ ~ (2) ~q;cl.'<; ~ ~

123. Sir Gerald Fitzmaurice is associated with

(1) theory of Maoism (2) theory of dualism

(3) theories of coordination (4) theory of transformation

m ~ fQ;{'Iq,l\e e..,f.tId ~

(1) ~q;cl"'<; ~ " (2) ~~"

(3) _ ~ Ill",'<i\ " (4) '4, .. ,0, ~ ~ "
(356) 46
 12P/209/22 Set No. J

124. Which of the following is not a method of Pacific Settlement of disputes?

(11 Negotiation (21 Conciliation

(3) Judicial Settlement (4) Economic Blockade

f.1",~ltid ii li <tr.I-m <RI<iiI ~ iI; ,,;fd'{of f.lWt "" <RI<iiI ~ t1

(11 'ffilf (2) ~ (3) "Ilfllq; f.Mmr (4) ~ 41i\;oi<l\

125. The Canon Shot Rule, now obsolete, is associated with

(I) the breadth of the contiguous zone

(2) the breadth of the territorial sea

(3) the continental shelf

(4) measurement of the baselines

i\ w 1WI, '" >1'1 """" 1'1 ~ t

t:H ~ ",f.fld t
(I) m l\l1I <lit ~ li (2) U"'I~ m>R <lit ~ li

126. International Court of Justice is situated at

(I) Rome (2) Hague (3) New York (4) Italy

(I) Ul! 1'1 (2) ~ 1'1 (3) ~ 1'1 (4) ~ 1'1

127. In which country, Treaty Law is a part of the Supreme Law of the land?

(I) The United Kingdom (2) India

(3) The United States of America (4) Australia

(356) 47 (P.T.O.)
12P/209/22 Set No. 1

(1) ~"'$l" flmsq (2) =

(3) ~U"I ~ (4) 311~ra.,

128. The principle pacta sunt servanda was propounded by

(1) Hall (2) Bentham (3) John Austin (4) AnziIotti

<i<m !1'i! ~ 'lIT flr.;:RI .r"q,~" ~ '1'IT

(1) mr * ;;m (2) ~ *;;m

(3) .rr.. ~ * ;;m (4) Q:o;1ldl ~ * ;;m

129. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights was adopted on

(l) 30th January, 1976 (2) 3rd January, 1976

(3) 16th December, 1966 (4) 10th December, 1966

ftrllra Ii "",~r".. 31ill .. ,i! <I 31'i1d~. ~ <i\ ~ ~ '1'IT '"

(1) 30~, 1976 <i\ (2) 3~, 1976 <i\

(3) 16~, 1966 <i\ (4) 1O~, J 966 <i\

130. India is not a party to the

(1) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights

(2) Convention on the Rights of Child

(3) First (Optional) Protocol to the International Covenant on Civil and Political Right

(4) Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women

(356) 48
 12P/209/22 Set No. 1

'l1I ~~ 'It!! t
( I) fuflrR ~ ,,~~ III 3lflmii <Ii\ """d!i'l" ~ T

(2) 0Fi\ i\; ~ 'IT ~ T

(3) fuflrR ~ ,,~~IlI 3lflmii <Ii\ 3I .. d!i'l" ~ i\; VII'! ("'f.Q) "'21,('1 T

(4) ~ai\ i\; m.: ~ JC<I;R i\; ~ i\; 3"@'1 'IT ~ T

131. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 was passed by Parliament under

(I) Article 246 (2) Article 248 (3) Article 252 (4) Article 253

"",of!. (mlll"l) ~. 1972 flrn ~ i\; ~ ~;:m lIm f,;;,n "'" "'1

(I) ~ 246 (2) 31:14<; 248 (3) ~ 252 (4) ~ 253

132. WCED stands for

WCED T 'r'f -.;q t

(1) World Commission on Environment and Development

(2) World Commission on Economics and Development

(3) World Commission on European Development

(4) World Commission on Energy and Development

133. The number of the States signed the Resolution requesting Parliament to pass law for
prevention of water pollUtion is

(I) 13 (2) 12 (3) 11 (4) None of the above

'R'I ~ ~ i\; 1W( ~ "i\ ~ '11( -.... 'IT flI;<R ~ 'I ~ ~ il 1

(I) 13 (2) 12 (3) 11 (4) ~ if "i\ <ffif 'It!!

(356) 49 (P.T.O.)
12P /209 /22 Set No. 1

134. The Chairperson of the National Board for Wildlife is

(1) Prime Minister
(2) Minister In-charge of Forest and Wildlife
(3) Chief Wildlife Warden
(4) Director-General of Forest

....>i1<I., ~ ~ ii\;! ~ .3l"tl\! t

(1) g~,.,';iII (2) "" 1l:'i ......1. fINpj ~ l!'Irt\ lj;ft

(3) ~ .... afl ., .-,i;r (4) ..n ~ q~,f.t~" ..

135. The State Pollution Control Board is constituted by

(1) the Central Government
(2) the State Government
(31 the Central Government on request of the concerned State Government
(4) a ~esolution passed by the Legislative Assembly

U"! ~ f.t>ilI'I! ii\;! qrr 'TO'! M ;;mn t

(1) ~ m<fiR ~ (2) U"! mlfiR ~

(3) ~ U"! ~ ~"! 'R ~ mlfiR ~ (4) flI~,flI.., ~ ~ 'lm 1('0 JmWt ~

136. The Environment (Protection) Act provides for the powers and functions of

(1) the Central Government (2) the State Government

(3) Both (4) Environment Authority

."i.(" (<iwvI) ~ f.I;lI'Iit m am ..."f -..T _ """" t?

(1) ~ mlfiR (2) U"'f mlfiR
(3) G't'I1 (4) 1"", ""Ill,"""
(356) 50
 12P/209/22 Set No. 1

137. When an Act constitutes an offence under the Environment (Protection) Act and also
under any other anti-pollution Act, the offender is punished

(I) under the Environment (Protection) Act

(2) under the other anti-pollution Act

(3) under both the Acts

(4) subject to the choice of the offender

'1'! ,.f..o, (m'il"l) 31~f.I"q om ~ """ ~ fuN! .,~f.I"q iI; ~ ~ qi\ ~ '!I'll """
t '" 3I'IIJlll qi\ ~ .,~f.I"q iI; """ ~ ~ """ ~?
(1) q"f..o, (m'il"l) .,~f.I"q iI; """
(3) GT:it .,~f.I,,>il iI; ~

138. The air pollution control area means

(1) area where industrial plants do not operate

(2) area where use of any fuel is prohibited

(3) area where use of appliances is prohibited

(4) None of the above

~ ~ f.i,;-"oy I\tI ~ 3Ifmmt t

(1) <il1 I\tI ~ 01\<;1111 .. ~ 1i~,F8d ~ ~ -.mt
(2) <il1 I\tI ~ ~ >fi ~'I'! '!IT m qftfd t
(3) <il1 I\tI ~ 3q .. ,O" '!IT m qftfd t
(4) 3'lUm if ~ ..r{ ~

(356) 51 (P.T.O.)
12P/209/22 Set No. I

139. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 has repealed the following
(I) The Public Liability Insurance Act
(2) The National Environment Appellate Authority Act
(3) The Environment (Protection) Act
(4) The Forest (Conservation) Act

~ JIr.r ?'$"'L~'" ~, 2010 'I f.il=! ;j ii f<I;,r 31ill~o" ..rr : ~?

(I) ~,J",~o; ~ ;ft1rr ~
(2) ~ q,hHo, ~ 31illo;(o, 31ill~Oq
(3) qofO(o, (WI\lUT) 31ill~,q
(4) q.r (WI\lUT) ~

140. The Brundtland Commission Report is known as

(1) Our Common Future (2) OUT Common Fortune

(3) OUT Common Concern (4) OUT Common Environment

(2) 0'!f(I ml!R 'IT"!

(4) 0'!f(I ml!R qOf,,(o,

141. Which of the following is false?

(I) Ordinarily the Board shall send the sample of effiuents for analysis to the
Government and the Board's laboratories
(2) Ordinarily the Board shall send the sample of effiuents for analysis to the Board's
laboratory
(3) The Board on demand shall send the sample of effiuents for analysis to the
Government laboratory
(4) All of the above

(356) 52
 12P/209/22 Set No. 1

(I) .,","'", oiti ~ 'lIT ~ Ilw;t.o, i\; ~ mom <f'IIT oiti <lit .>Ii''''''i1'~ i\; 'lm ~
(2) .,","'", oiti ~ 'lIT ~ p"JI.o, i\; ~ oiti <lit ,."",", ;j ~

(3) .nt l!l>T fII;t( ~ 'R ~ 'lIT ~ p"JI.o, i\; ~ ~ .<it."",", ;j ~

(4) mtm"fN\

142. Which of the following Law was enacted in pursuance of the United Nations Conference
on Environment and Human Right?

(1) The Environment (Protection) Act

(2) The Biological Diversity Act

(3) The National Green Tribunal Act

(4) All of the above

q.f.,o, .,; ~ i\; """" ;j UlJ ~ to.; i\; lR'f ;j f.to=I ;j ~ 'llr.!-m ~ 'lm
fII;m '1'IT 'IT'

(I) '!'<f'Ho, (';':I\1"T) ~ (2) ~.P,p,'ld1 ~

(3) ~ Jfr.! ~'I"'("'" ~ (4) mtm"fN\

143. The human rights and polluted environment drew attention of the Supreme Court for
the first time in the case of

(1) Ruml Litigation Entitlement Kendra vs. State of UP

(2) M. C. Mehta vs. Kamal Nath

(3) Ratlam Municipality vs. Vardichand

(4) Subhash Kumar vs. State of Bihar

(356) 53 (P.T.O.)
12P/209/22 Set No. I

~ <1'11 ~ q.rO(o, it q~iifl'l( ...w.. "I","" q;J """ ~. ~ t ~ t """

~ finoT 'IT?

IM~"" iml2""'e ~
(I) <'ffi iRJ1! = ~ U"1
(2) ~c #10 ~ iRJ1! 'MH""f
(3) ffi7'f '1f.1ff1.fRi!l iRJ1! ~

(4) Ilsm?FIR iRJ1! ~ U"1

144. Recent Conference of Parties held in Durban related to

(1) biodiversity (2) forest

(3) climate change (4) ozone gas

(2) "" (3)~~ (4) ~ ""

145. Wangari Maathai is known for

(1) Nobel Prize in Environment
(2) International Water Course Conservation
(3) Sustainable Environment
(4) Soil Conservation

~ ~ q;) ~ ~ "IRT;;mn t?
(I) q.r",o, if ~ ~ t ~

(3) 'IT\ufto ,.r",o, t ~

146. Which of the following is the best evidence?

(1) Documentary evidence (2) Direct evidence

(3) Hearsay evidence (4) Circumstantial evidence

(356) 54
 12P/209/22 Set No. 1

(2) lIf!I&l """

147. Under Evidence Act, a statement made"by co-accused at the time of commission of the
offence is

(1) admissible under Section 6 (2) admissible under Section 8

(3) admissible under Section 30 (4) Not at all admissible

(1) IllU 6 * -"" 1mI (2) >mr 8 * -"" 1mI

(3) IllU 30 * -"" 1mI (4) ~, 31lm1

148. Opinion of Handwriting Expert

(1) always needs corroboration

(2) is inadmissible in evidence

(3) is always binding on the courts

(4) can be acted upon without corroboration

(2) ~l!'! if 31lm1 t

(3) "1",<1<0 'R .,"'''''~ t (4) flRT ~ * l!1"I <lit 'IT <I'I><ft ~

149. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act bad character of an accused is not
relevant?

(1) Section 54 (2) 'Section 52 (3) Section 53 (4) Section 118

(356) 55 fP. T. 0.)

12P/209/22 Set No. 1

(I) 'Im 54 (2) 'Im 52 (3) 'Im 53 (4) _ 118

150. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act is related with doctrine of Res ipsa loquitor?

(I) Section 102 (2) Section 104 (3) Section 106 (4) Section 108

'llUft<r m~ ~ <fit ~-~ >mT {;; ~ ~ ~ ~ j\ ",.,f.ila ~?

(I) >mT 102 (2) >mT 104 (3) 'Im 106 (4) _ 108

***

56 D/2(356H50
 1. m ~ flr.R ~ 10 flR< ~ ~ ~ ~ -a f.I; JIm'! iI "Q1fi ~ ~ ~ oitt ~ m
i@ ~ t I ~ffii";l ~ .mI "lR 'R ~ ~ ~ ~-f.rtl~ "" ~ ~ >Im'I <Iil
~~;rm~-al

2. '!UI\II "'" iI fHww ~ rr<m- 'l'f ;f;" dffitfiib, r.... m ~ ~ 1ft W'fT ."... WO! iI , ""'" I
3. om-'f'i 3lWI "i\ WIT '1m t, rot , <it rit# .nr , tI ~ 'Iif1 iJI17 Oifr-"" 'It!' WiT "fT'1>n; ;/;'ffl","-
w w tt 'l.c'''lfilfi1 /it;7n ~ I

4. 3l'RT 0Ij,.>Ii.. "'IT am--"" ,., .,.,,;,.- J1tp{ 31T<f<Uf- '!If w W " f.Nlfu! "'lR 'R r.m,
s. om-'f'i ~ """ 'I! 'R "" " arRI "1"'Qj,.; f.!'Iffur "'lR 'R f\>Rj '''IT ~ ~ '!'if -.it 'IT ~ ~,
..m-.m ..""",.; ..m w-.-lfum 'fiT lIi'ri<I; 1I'IT W: 'fiT 'l"R oI'f1! .-.RI 'R f\>Rj,
1I
6. ailo amo 'f'i 'R
1('10 3l1"'Qj,.; -.....n, w-.-lfum -.....n " W: -.....n (~ ~ m) O'lT w-.-~ 'l"(

31@>'lj"fi lio aiR ano ~o 31T{o If;{ lia cn'T SlFqff!l41 1l 3Qf{e?hSl1 cn1 ~ ~ 't I
7. ~ .f"li!<if iI ~ 1ft ~ 'Ii f.RI8)q; -;;m .....w.o &-rr "'IIfuii 3F!'lT "" 1!.'" ~ W'R "" 7irT
1!A1 ~,

8. w-.-lfum iI ~ w-. ... 'W ~ ..f"",.;

om ~ '1'1 ~, "'*" "'"
;f;" <f..,...,.. am- ;f;" fWt ."m ","-
'l'f 'lit -""" Wit; 1/; >IT'R ~ >Pt '["if "" am-- 'l'f ;f;" J1tp{ '!If w ~ >Pt tmif 1/; 3fJfITf W ,) ~
"ifiRI tl
9. ~ w-. ... om ... Wri\
'!1f -.it 3lT'f ~ 'R "" om
*"" 1!.'" m'!1f -.it
'lffiI 1!A1 ~,
'IT q;"(, 1!.'" " ~ '!'if "" 'IT -.;vI 'R .. " " .".

10. """' <: f.I; 1!.'" om ~ -;;m om 'W'II 'Ilff "IT "'"'" t, ~ "'"' fiI;<i\ ..., 'fiT am- m ~ """
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