CTE A-320 Question PDF

CTE IAL HYD A320 TEST PAPER
AIR CRAFT GENERAL
1. During cruise, on SD the CRUISE page disappears, a system page appears and a
parameter is found flashing. What does it mean ?
a) It is advisory condition
b. It is level-1 caution
c. It is level-2 caution
d. It is level-3 warning
2. Where would a failure message and the associated checklist appear ?
a. Only on the lower-left area (Left Memo space) of the upper ECAM DU.
b) On the lower left area of the EWD
c. On the right memo space of EWD.
d. Only on the lower right area of the upper ECAM DU.
3. While reading a checklist in the FCOM vol.3 Abnormal and Emergency procedures, how
could you know whether it is for red warning (Emergency procedure) or amber caution
(Abnormal procedure) ?
a. It is not possible to know.

b. If the title box of the C/L is grey, it is the Emergency procedure,
c) There are black side boxes on the title box, it is corresponding to Emergency procedure
otherwise it is abnormal procedure.
d. If there are black-side boxes on the title box, it is corresponding to abnormal procedure
otherwise it is Emergency procedure.
4. How many emergency exits are there on A320 aircraft.
a. 8 and all of them can be opened from outside also.

b. 10 and all of them can be opened from outside also.
c) 10 and only 8 of them can be opened from outside also.
d. 8 and they can opened only from inside.
5. What are the escape devices in A320 cabin.
a. Six S/R (Slide cum raft)

b) Four S/R one on each door
c. As in (b) and 4 slides two on each side of the center fuselage.
d. As in (b) and 2 slides on each side of the center fuselage.
6. Mark the correct statement.
a. After some failure and / or switching actions, PFD may appear on upper ECAM.
b) After some failure and/or switching actions, EWD may appear on any of the Capt or F/O
side EFIS DU.
c. As in (a) and PFD may appear on lower ECAM also.
d. (b) is correct only for Capt. Side EFIS DU.
7. What are the checklist procedures given in A320 Reference Hand Book.
a. Only the ECAM checklists procedures.

b) Only the checklist procedures that will not appear on ECAM.
c. All the ECAM checklist and non ECAM checklist procedures.
d. As in (c) and they will not be revised.
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8. As per our A320 aircraft cabin layout, when is it necessary to have a minimum of
12 passengers in Executive class ?
a. Always
b. If Economy class has more than 105 passengers.
c. In case both cargo compartments are full.
d) In case of full pay load and no. of passengers in economy class is more than 105.
9. Which aircraft have forward airstairs ?
a) Only EP series aircraft.

b. All aircrafts.
c. Airstairs are removed from EP series aircraft.
d. Airstairs are removed from ES series aircraft.
10. A particular failure caution message is inhibited during the flight phases 3,4,5,7 and 8.
What do you understand by this ?
a) If the failure occurs during these phases, the ECAM caution is inhibited.
b. This failure will not occur during these phases.
c. The ECAM caution appears only if the failure occur during these phases.
d. As in (a) and the local caution will also be inhibited.
11. What are the precautions for airstair operation ?
a. Aircraft should be on ground and both engines are OFF.

b) Aircraft should be on ground and left engine is OFF.
c. Left engine is OFF and BAT switch is ON.
d Left engine is OFF, left pax door is open and No.1 Bat Switch is ON.
12. If aircraft has only battery power, is it possible to operate airstair ?
a) Yes, because no battery bus provides power to airstrip operation.

b. As in (a) and steplights also can be illuminated with battery power.
c. Airstair cannot be operated.
13. Captain & F/Os seats in the cockpit.
a) Electrically and mechanically operated.

b. Only mechanically operated.
c. Only electrically operated.
d. As in (b) and shoulder harness has locking facility.
14. When do OPER red lights extinguish during airstair extension ?
a. If airstair is fully extended.

b) As in (a) and when both handrails are extended to door frames.
c. When airstair door is fully open
d. Both (b) and (c) are correct.
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15. On A320 aircraft the passenger seat lay out can be varied to suit the operating
requirement upto a certified.
a) Maximum of 179 seats.

b. Maximum of 170 seats + 9 crew
c. Maximum of 168 seats + 9 crew
d. Maximum of 169 seats.
16. The relationship between position and the illumination of the push button is
a. PB pushed IN Green light ON

b. PB pushed Out Blue light ON
c) PB pushed IN Light OUT
d. PB pushed OUT Fault light ON
17. White light ON, on the push button switch indicates
a. Push button switch is normal position.

b) Push button switch is abnormal position.
c. Push button switch is abnormal position is indicated by amber light.
d. There is no white light ON the push button switches.
18. Operation of airstair is possible with
a. Aircraft on ground and both engine stopped.

b. Aircraft on ground and left engine stopped.
c) Aircraft on ground, left engine stopped and for retraction telescoping hand rails fully
retracted.
d. Aircraft of on ground, both engines stopped and for retraction, telescoping hand rails fully
retracted.
19. If flight due to some failure in electrical system, only Captains auto EFIS DU and, upper
ECAM DU are powered; DMC1 is powered. Which display functions are available.
a. PFD, EWD
b) As in (a) and ND, SD can be obtained by using relevant transfers.
c. As in (a) and by transfer ND can be obtained; but SD is lost for ever.
d. As in (a) and ND, SD are lost for ever.
20 What happens to the escape device (slide or slide cum raft) when an exit is opened
from outside?
a. They automatically get disarmed.

b. (a) is true for overwing windows only.
c) (a) is true for cabin doors only.
d. (a) is true for all doors and overwing windows.
21. On ground, with both engines stopped and doors disarmed when would the red
light doors flash.
a. When he door opening is stated.

b) If cabin different pr. Is more than 2.5 mbar
c. As in (b) and if door opening is started.
d. (a) is correct only when the door is opened from outside.
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DOORS
1. When will the red CABIN PRESSURE light on Cabin Doors flash ?
a. When the door is opened in ARM position.

b) If cabin differential pressure 2.5 mbar exists after both engines are shut down and door
disarmed.
c. With all conditions given in (b) satisfied and when the door is open.
d. If cabin differential pressure exceeds a 2.5 mbar after both engines are shut down.
2. What are the emergency escape devices fitted on A320 aircraft ?
a) 4 single lane slide / rafts, 2 dual lane slides, 2 escape ropes.

b. 4 single lane slide, 2 dual lane slide / rafts, escape ropes.
c. 4 single lane slide / rafts , 2 dual lane sides.
d. 4 single lane slides, 2 dual lane slide / rafts.
3 When would the SLIDE ARMED light located between the emergency windows
illuminate ?
a. When any one cover flap that covers the window operating handle is removed.
b. When both cover flaps on the 2 emergency windows are removed.
c. As in (a) and it shall be known in the cockpit.
d. As in (a) and it shall be known in the cockpit by the change of colour of window symbol
on DOOR ECAM page.
4. Cargo doors on A320 aircraft.
a) Mechanically locked hydraulically operated and can be operated from the exterior only.
b Hydraulically operated and locked and can be operated from the exterior only.
c. Mechanically locked, Hydraulically operated, can be operated from exterior or interior.
d. Mechanically locked and operated from the exterior to interior.
5. The SLIDE ARMED light on cabin door will illuminate, if the
a. Control handle is operated when the slide is DISARMED & CABIN PRESSURE
indication appears in Black.
b) Control handle is operated when the slide is ARMED and SLIDE ARMED appears in
black.
c. Control handle is operated when cabin differential pressure is above 2.5mbars, CABIN
PRESSURE appears in black.
d. Flashes with both engines stopped, the slides are disarmed and the cabin differential
pressure is above 2.5 M Bars.
6. Which of the statements is correct.
a. All the cabin doors can be operated from inside or outside the aircraft, including the
emergency operation.
b) All the cabin doors can be opened from inside and outside the aircraft, but emergency
operation of the door is possible from inside only.
c. All the cabin doors can be opened from inside only including the emergency operation.
d. All the cabin doors can be opened from outside and inside but emergency operation is
possible from outside.
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7. How many emergency exits are there in A320 aircraft.
a. 8 and all of them can be opened from outside also.

b. 10 and all of them can be opened from outside also.
c) 10 and only 8 of them can be opened from outside also.
d. 8 and they can be opened only from inside.
8. What is the escape provision in A320 Cockpit.

a. 2 sliding windows
b. 1 sliding window
c) As in (a) and to evacuate through them there are 2 escape ropes.
d. As in (b) to evacuate through if there is an escape rope.
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A.P.U
1. When will the APU air intake flat open
a) After Master Switch is set to ON.

b. As in (a) and after pressing STA pb switch to ON
c. (a) is correct only for APU battery start
d. (b) is correct for any APU start.
2. When would be APU ECAM page appears on SD
a. As soon as selecting master switch is ON

b. When APU Master Switch to ON and aircraft is powered either by OPU or by engine
generator
c) As in (b) and also if an advisory condition arise.
d. (a) is correct even for battery start.
3. What are the maximum altitudes upto which pneumatic and electrical power shall be
extracted from APU.
a) 20000, 39000 feet respectively.

b. 39000 feet for both loads.
c. 25,000, 30,000 feet respectively.
d. 25000 feet for both loads.
4. Aircraft is powered by EXT power, during APU start, when would you observe the EGT
rise on APU ECAM page.
a. As soon as START pb is pressed.

b. 20 seconds after pressing master switch to ON.
c. After N value reads 7%
d. 2 seconds after pressing START pb switch to ON.
5. Is there any difference between APU ground operation and in flight operation as far as
APU fire is concerned
a. No.
b. Yes, in flight, APU fire causes auto shut down of APU but not on ground.
c. Yes, on ground APU shuts down automatically due to fire but not in flight.
d) As in (c) and also on ground automatically fire bottle will be discharged but not in flight.
6. When would the FLAP OPEN message become advisory
a. If air intake flap is not open in 20 seconds after selected master switch on.
b. If air intake flap is not fully closed after 3 minutes after MASTER switch has been set to
OFF
c. If flaps is closed when APU is running.
d) There is no advisory for Flap Open
7. In which phase of flight, APU start is initiated.

a. After LIG CA & upto time when speed reduces below 100 kms.
b) (a) is correct only in case of emergency electrical configuration.
b. Immediately after loss of all normal generators, until the speed is reduced to 100 knots.
d. Between RAT extension and DG extension.
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8. What are the indications when APU reach 95%
a. Nothing
b. AVAIL on START pb switch and APU ECAM page.
c) As in (b) and also APU AVAIL memo on upper ECAM
d. As in (c) but all these indications go off when either APU generator is used or APU bleed
is used.
9. For starting APU
a. Minimum batteries voltage required is 25.5 volts.

b. APU start on batteries is inoperative during 45 seconds following BAT pbs switching at
AUTO ( in EP series aircraft)
c. If APU is started to batteries only, it should be started within 30 minutes after selection of
batteries to AUTO
d) All the above are correct.
10. Identify the correct limitation for APU.
a. When OIL QTY BELOW appears in ECAM APU page remaining oil quantity allows
normal APU operation for a further 30 hours.
b. After 3 starter motor duly cycles separated by 1 minute cool down, 2 hours must be
allowed for cooling.
c. Rotor maximum speed is 100%
d) Highest EET maximum for starting 1038 Deg C.
11. All the wing tank fuel pumps are off, how will APU get the fuel supply ?
a. By APU LP fuel pump, but not if aircraft is powered only by battery.

b) BY APU LP fuel pump even if aircraft is powered only by batteries.
c. As in (a) and APU LP fuel pump starts after the START pb is pressed.
d. As in (b) and APU LP fuel pump starts after the START pb is pressed.
12. What is the reason for APU EMER SHUT DOWN title on upper ECAM
a. Due to auto shut down of APU

b. APU fire push button pressed.
c. APU fire on ground.
d) Both (b) and (c) are correct.
13. What is 60-120 seconds of cooling time provided for APU
a. Whenever bled power is switched off.

b. Whenever electrical power is switched of.
c) During normal shut down if bleed power was used.
d. None of the above.
14. EGT maximum for APU is calculated by ECB, it is a function of
a. It during start
b. Ambient temperature when APU is running
c. N during start and ambient pressure when APU is running
d) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
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15. Which abnormalities of APU oil system will cause the auto shut down of APU.
a. Low Oil Level, High Oil Temp, Low Oil Pressure

(b) Low Oil Pressure, High Oil Temperature
c. Low Oil Level only
d. None of the abnormalities in oil system.
16. In flight, APU AUTO SHUT DOWN failure message appears what will be your action ?
a) Follow the checklist

b. Disregard ECAM checklist, keep APU Master switch is ON position for 15 minutes and
then switch it off.
c. Disregard ECAM checklist, make one attempt to restart APU without any delay.
d. No action, since APU is automatically stopped.
17. On ground, batteries only power the aircraft when would the APU LP fuel pump run.
a. After pressing START pb. Switch to ON.

b. 20 seconds after selecting Master Switch to ON.
c. As soon as selecting Master Switch to ON.
d) (c) is correct since tank fuel pumps are not powered when only batteries are available.
18. Will APU rpm vary with different pneumatic loads? What causes this change. If any ?
a. There will be no rpm change.

b. N would vary with pneumatic load and it is effected by ECB.
c. N would vary with pneumatic load and it is effected by ECB and by changing IGV
position.
d) N would vary with pneumatic load and it is effected by ECB and by changing IGV
position.
19. APU operating under air demand, and APU shut down is initiated by the APU shut off
switch on the nose interphone panel.
a) Fuel flow is immediately interrupted.

b. Fuel flow is maintained for APU cooling and then stopped.
c. Fuel flow is not affected by the APU shut down.
d. Fuel flow is not affected., but APU shut downs immediately.
20. In case of APU fire on ground

a. APU shuts down immediately.
b. APU shuts down immediately and fire bottle to be discharged.
c. APU shuts down fire pb is pressed and fire bottle is fired.
d) APU shuts down immediately and fire bottle is discharged automatically.
21. APU generator load can be used upto
a. 20,000 feet
b. 25,000 feet
c. 31,000 feet
d) 39,000 feet
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22. When APU master switch is pressed to OFF, a normal shut down occurs
a) Without a delay, if bleed power was not used.

b. With a delay, in any case.
c. With a delay, if bleed air is used.
d. With a delay, if electrical power is used.
23. When does APU fuel pump run
a. As soon as Master Switch is set to ON.

b. As soon as low pressure is detected.
c) As soon as the Master Switch is set to OFF and if fuel pressure is not adequate.
d. As soon as the Master switch is set to ON. Start is initiated and low pressure is detected.
24. Which oil system warning causes APU auto shut down ?
a. Low Oil Level, High Oil temp and low oil pressure.
b. Low Oil Level and Low Oil Pressure
c) Low Oil Pressure and High Oil temp
d. High Oil temp and Low Oil level.
25. Can APU continue to run if the oil level is low.
a. No, the oil level must be correct otherwise APU shuts down.
b) Yes, the APU can be run for 10 hrs only
c. Yes, the ECB initiates an AUTO shut down if required.
d. There is no oil low level indication.
26. What system logics are performed by the Electronic Control Box (ECB)
a. sequence and monitoring of start, monitoring of bleed, Automatic Shut Down.

b. sequence and monitoring of start, speed and temperature monitoring, sequence of
normal shutdown and automatic shut down.
c. sequence and monitoring of start, speed and temperature monitoring; monitoring of
bleed and auto shut down
d) sequence and monitoring of start, speed and temperature monitoring, monitoring of
bleed, sequence of shut down and auto shut down.
27. What are the indications when the start sequence is completed.
a. AVAIL light illuminate on the start switch and ON light goes OFF
b. AVAIL indication comes on the APU page.
c. APU AVAIL memo is displayed.
28. APU master switch is selected ON what happens ?
a. APU system is supplied, Air intake flap open, APU fuel isolation valve opens
b. APU system is supplied, ECB carries out the power up TEST, APU fuel isolation valve
opens, APU fuel pump operates to pressure is low.
c. APU ECB carries out the power up TEST, APU fuel isolation valve opens, APU fuel
pump operates if low pressure, for solenoid valve opens, air intake flap opens.
d) APU system is supplied, ECB carries out the power up TEST, APU fuel isolation valve
opens, APU fuel pump operates to pressure, air intake flap opens.
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29. During APU start, APU system page appears on the lower ECAM if
a) APU master switch is selected ON and ground power or main generator power is used.
b. APU master switch ON, and starter button is pushed.
c. APU master switch ON, starter button ON, then either ground power or main generator is
used.
d. Ground power or main generator power is used.
30. In the event of High Oil Temp, APU
a) Shuts down immediately by ECB without cooling period.

b. Shuts down immediately by ECB only on ground.
c. Requires normal shut down.
d. Requires emergency shut down.
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ELECTRICAL
1. What happens to DC busses when TR 1 fails ?
a) All busses are available by auto reconfiguration by using TR 2 and ESS TR

b. DC BUS 1 DC BAT BUS are lost
c. DC BUS 1 is lost.
d. DC BAT BUS is lost till 100 KTS
2. Which busses are lost if TR 1, TR 2 had failed?
a. No bus is lost.
b. DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2
c) DC BUS 1, DC BAT BUS, DC BUS 2
d. DC BAT BUS after landing gear extension.
3. After loss of all normal generators when would SHED indication for AC & DC ESS
Busses appear on ELEC ECAM page ?
a. From the time all normal generators had failed.

b. When landing gear is extended.
c. During RAT extension time.
d) When (b) and (c) are correct.
4. In a flight, where APU is not working what happens when GEN 1 falls.?
a. Most of the busses are lost; only NO. 2 busses are available.
b. GEN 2 can feed all busses.
c) As in (b) but main galley is shed automatically.
d. As in (a) and ESS TR will come into use.
5. In normal electrical configuration (GEN 1, GEN 2 are ON) is there any of us that is not
energized.
a) Yes; AC STAT INV BUS

b. Yes; AC STAT INV BUS, AC GND FLT BUS, DC GND FLT BUS
c. Yes; AC STAT INV BUS, AC S
d. No.
6. Which of the following is NOT possible ?
a) APU GEN powering AC BUS 1 and the same time GPU powering AC BUS
b. GEN 1 powering both AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2
c. GEN 1 powering AC BUS 1 and APU GEN powering AC BUS 2
d. GPU powering AC BUS 1 and GEN 2 powering AC BUS 2.
7. Out of the four possible sources (GEN1 , 2, APU, GEN, EXT PWR) which has the least
priority to power AC BUS 2
a. APU GEN
b. EXT PWR
c) GEN 1
d. Whichever source is selected last.
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8. In the normal electrical configuration, if AC BUS 1 is lost for any reason, what will happen
to AC ESS BUS and also to AC ESS SHED BUS
a. They are lost and can be regained only by Emer generator

b. They are powered automatically from AC BUS 2
c. They are lost but can be regained from AC BUS 2 pressing AC ESS FEED pb switch to
ALTN
d) As in (c) and AC BUS 2 will then feed DC ESS BUS and DC ESS SHED BUS also
through AC ESS BUS and ESS TR
9. What is recommended action when IDG OUTLET TEMP is at or above 147 Deg C
(advisory)
a. No action.
b. Follow upper ECAM procedure
c. Disconnect IDG
d) Switch off galley or GEN, if required restore when the temperature drops.
10. With Batt Switch at AUTO, when would BCL disconnect battery contractors (Assume
aircraft is on ground)
a. When battery voltage is below 26.5 volts.

b. When battery voltage is below 28 volts.
c) When charging current reduces to 4 Amp.
d. When charging current rises to 4 Amp or more.
11. After all normal generator failure and emergency generator supplying in flight, If GEN 1 is
recovered which source will power the ESS buses ?
a. GEN 1
b) Emergency generator
c. Emergency generator and if EMER GEN MAN ON pb switch is pressed, GEN 1 will
feed ESS busses.
d. GEN 1 and if EMER GEN MAN ON pb switch is pressed, EMER GEN will fee ESS
busses.
12. In Emer Elec configuration, after landing gear extension, if landing gear is retracted again
which source will feed the AC ESS BUS
a. EMER BUS
b. STAT INV
c. EMER GEN only after RAT & EMER GN MAN ON pb switch is pressed.
13. Mark the correct statement ?
a. AC/DC ESS SHED BUS are powered whenever AC/DC ESS BUS are powered.
b) When EMER GEN is running, after loss of normal generators, AC/DC ESS SHED busses
are powered
c. AC/DC ESS SHED busses are powered during EMER GEN TEST (on ground)
d. When batteries are the only source. AC ESS Bus are powered only upto 50 kts.
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14. What precautions are to be observed while disconnecting IDG?
a. Disconnection is not to be done when engine is running

b. Disconnection is not to be done when engine is not wind milling or speed is below idle.
c. As in (a) and IDG pb switch should be pressed for minimum of 3 seconds.
d) As in (b) and IDG pb switch should not be pressed for more than 3 seconds.
15. What are the actions to be carried out to bring electrical network to smoke configuration?
a. Press Gen 1 LINE switch to OFF, RAT and EMER GEN MAN ON. Switch to ON,
APU GEN and GEN 2 Switch to OFF.
b. Press GEN 1 Line switch to OFF; RAT MAN ON Switch to ON; Press BUS TIE switch to
OFF.
c) As in (a) and EMER GEN will provide the DC / AC ESS and SHED busses.
d. As in (b) and EMER GEN will provide the DC/ AC ESS and SHED busses
16. When both generators fail (APU U/S) the AC ESS BUS is fed from
a. BAT 1 through STAT INV till RAT extends

b. Emergency generator when RAT extends (L/G UP)
c. AC ESS BUS is not powered below 50 kts speed
17. If the landing gear fails to retract during a go-around, when in emergency configuration
(i.e. with batteries only)
a. The emergency generator can be recovered.

b. The emergency generator cannot be recovered.
c) The emergency generator can be recovered by pulling the LGCIU 1 C/B and pressing
EMER ELEC PWR MAN ON pb
d. The emergency generator cannot be recovered. Batteries are available for 22 minutes.
18. On EMER ELEC PWR panel to RAT & EMER GEN FAULT light illuminates red.
a. If AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 fail in flight

b. If AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 fail in flight with landing gear in UP position.
c) If AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 fail in flight with landing gear in UP position and emergency
does not feed the ESS busses.
d. If AC BUS 1 & AC BUS 2 fail in flight with landing gear in UP position and emergency
generator does not take over irrespective of LDG GEAR position.
19. ESS TR parameters on ECAM ELEC page.
a. Are always displayed

b) Are displayed only when ESS TR is in operation.
c. Are displayed only when ESS TR parameters exceed the limitations.
d. None of the above is correct.
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20. Galley FAULT light comes to ELEC panel with ECAM caution
a. When the galley is shed.

b) When any operating generator load is greater than 100%
c. When only Gen 1 or Gen 2 load is greater than 100%
21. BUS TIE pb switches OFF only GEN 1 is available. Which busses are not powered.
a. AC BUS 2, DC BUS 2
b. All busses are powered.
c) AC BUS 2
d. AC BUS 2, DC ESS BUS, DC ESS SHED BUS
22. APU generated is powering the electrical network. Now GPU AVAIL light comes on in
Cockpit. What changes will take place ?
a) No change.
b. APU GLC will be tripped and ground power will feed all busses since GPU has priority
over APU
c. Both APU generator and GPU will feed all busses.
d. APU generator will feed AC ESS BUS 1 and GPU will feed AC BUS 2
23. Ground power is connected to all busses. After engine 1 is started (GEN 1 is switched
on). What changes will takes place ?
a. No change.
b) GEN 1 feeds AC BUS 1, BTC 1 trips, GPU continues to feed AC BUS 2
c. GEN 1 feeds AC BUS 1, through BTC 1 and BTC 2 it feeds AC BUS 2 also.
d. GEN 1 feeds AC BUS 1, AC BUS 2 is not powered.
24. What will happen to batteries during APU start (Battery switches are in AUTO)
a. Both batteries are connected to DC BAT BUS till APU rpm reaches 95%
b) As in (a) and it is restricted to only 3 minutes when EMER GEN is running.
c. As in (a) and it is restricted to only 3 minutes when electrical busses are powered
by any generator.
d. As in (b) but battery contactors will open when APU reaches 50% i.e. when APU
starter motor is disengaged.
25. After all generators failure & L/G extension, what are the conditions for static invertor to
be activated ?
a) Battery 1 and 2 switches must be in AUTO, If speed is less than 50 kts.

b. Battery 1 switch must be in AUTO, if speed is less than 50 kts.
c. Battery switch must be in AUTO, irrespective of speed.
d. Battery 1 switch must be in AUTO, irrespective of speed.
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26. When MAINT BUS switch is selected to ON which busses will be powered
a. AC BUS 2, DC BUS 2
b. AC GND / FLT BUS, DC GND / FLT BUS
c. As in (a) and TR 2 is in use.
d) As in (b) and TR 2 in use
27. AOG what happens if battery switches are left at AUTO during parking the aircraft
for a long time (Night Halt)
a. Batteries are completely discharged by morning time.

b) Battery contactors would auto open, when battery voltage drops below 22 or 23 V
c. Nothing happens, since static inverter will not work when speed is less than 50 kts
d. Battery switch is auto trips to OFF when battery voltage drops to or 23 V
28. What are the conditions for automatic deployment of EMER G EN & feeding the
ESS busses.
a. AC BUS 1 OFF + AC BUS 2 OFF + ADIRS greater than 100 kts.

b) AC BUS 1 OFF + AC BUS 2 OFF + ADIRS greater than 100 kts + NOSE
L/G UP
c. AC BUS 1 OFF + AC BUS 2 OFF + ADIRS greater than 100 kts + MAIN
L/G UP
d. AC BUS 1 OFF OR AC BUS 2 OFF + ADIRS greater than 100 kts + NOSE
L/G UP
29. What is the electrical configuration with loss of all main generators EMER GEN not
running in flight
a) Battery 1 through static inverter feeds AC STAT INV Bus and AC ESS BUS, Battery 2
feeds the DC ESS BUS
b. DC BAT BUS feeds the AC ESS BUS and DC ESS BUS
c. Battery 1 through static inverter feeds the AC ESS BUS and AC ESS SHED BUS
and Battery 2 feed the DC ESS BUS and DC ESS SHED BUS
d. Battery 1 feeds the AC ESS BUS through Static Inverter and Battery 2 feeds the
DC ESS BUS and DC BAT BUS is powered by both the batteries.
30. GALLEY SHED message on Elect page indicates
a) Main GALLEY are SHED

b. secondary Galley are shed
c. FWD Galley power are shed.
d. Aft Galley power are shed
31. Which of the following is a possible operation.
a. When engine 1 is operating APU GEN can be connected to AC BUS 1

b. As long as GEN 1 supplies to AC BUS 1 and 2, APU GEN cannot be connected to AC
BUS 2
c. EPC of GPU trips automatically when APU reaches normal speed.
d) APU GLC trips automatically when GPUs EPC is closed.
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32. ESS TR parameters can be observed
a. During normal configuration, on the electrical page.

b. During emergency configuration with batteries only.
c) During ESS TR operation, on electrical page.
33. What happens when TR 1 fails.
a. DC BUS 1 power is lost.

b. DC BUS 1 and BAT BUS are lost.
c. DC BUS 2 gives power to DC ESS BUS
d) ESS TR operates from AC ESS BUS
34. For normal electrical power operation which of the following are not in operation.
a. AC ESS BUS , DC ESS BUS and AC STAT INV BUS

b) ESS TR, EMER GEN, STAT INV and STAT INV AC BUS
c. ESS TR, EMER GEN, AC ESS BUS
d. ESS TR, AC ESS BUS, DC ESS BUS
35. The drive for emergency generator is
a) RAT operated hydraulic motor.

b. Blue system electrical pump.
c. Ram Air Turbine
36. What is the difference in system operation when (1) MAN ON pb is selected on, EMER
ELEC PWR panel and (2) RAT MAN on HYD control panel.
a. Action (1) will extend RAT and connects emergency generator output to busses.
b. Action (2) will extend only the RAT and emergency generator will not operate.
c. Action (2) will extend the RAT and will be feeding ESS Busses provided nose landing
gear is UP
37. ECAM ELEC page is automatically called during
a) Emergency generator test

b. Static inverter test
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. In both the cases page has to be manually called.
38. If emergency generator does not come into operation in case of loss of main generators,
the following warnings are triggered.
a. EMER CONFIG + MW + CRC + ELEC page is called.

b) RAT EMER GEN FAULT light comes on RED
c. ESS busses on BAT + MC + SC + ELEC page is called.
d. Both (a) and (b) are correct.
16
39. During emergency configuration , if any one generator is recovered (say GEN 1)
a. GEN 1 will feed all the buses.

b. EMER GEN continue to feed AC and DC EMERG busses.
c. When L/G is selected DOWN GEN 1 will feed all the buses and EMER GEN is cut off.
d) Both (b) and (c) are correct
40. Fault light on Battery switch will illuminate
a) If charging current increases abnormally

b. If discharging current increases abnormally.
c. Automatic disconnection does not take place.
d. All of the above.
41. When IDG 1 OIL OUTLET temperature raises to advisory, what is the action required.
a. Follow ECAM action.

b. Disconnect IDG 1
c) Switch off GEN 1 and reengage if temperature is below advisory.
d. Disconnect IDG 1 and reengage is temperature is below advisory.
42. On ECAM ELEC page % load on the source is indicated for
a APU, GEN 1, GEN 2, and EXT PWR

b) GEN 1, GEN 2 and APU GEN
c. GEN 1, GEN 2 & STAT INV
d APU GEN 1, GEN 2 & EMER GEN
43. On the ECAM ELEC page shed appears amber if
a. AC ESS BUS is shed

b. DC ESS BUS is shed
c) AC and DC ESS SHED buses are shed
d. AC and DC ESS SHED busses are powered.
44. In case of loss of all AC sources the STAT INV powers
a) only AC STAT INV Bus below 50 kts

b. Both AC STAT INV BUS and AC ESS BUSES below 50 kts.
c. AC ESS & SHED Buses above 50 kts
d. AC ESS & AC STAT INV BUS all the time.
a. When AC BUS 1 fails AC BUS 2 automatically powers AC ESS BUS.

b. When AC BUS 1 fails , EMER GEN automatically powers AC ESS BUS
c. Shed appears below AC ESS on ELEC page when AC ESS BUS is lost.
d) During its operation Emergency Generator has priority over any other source
to power AC ESS BUS.
17
46. What is the advisory message in Electrical system.
a. IDG LO PR
b) IDG Temp > 147 Deg.
c. IDG DISC
d. Both (a) and (b)
47. Is it necessary to have the Blue Hydraulic system to be pressurized for EMER TEST on
ground ? How can it be done ?
a. No. Blue system hydraulic pressure is not necessary.

b) Yes. Just by selecting Blue Pump over ride switch to ON
c. Yes, after selecting Blue Pump over ride switch to ON and then selecting Blue
Pump switch to AUTO
d. Yes, by pressing RAT MAN ON switch either on EMER ELEC power panel or
on HYD panel.
48. In a stationary aircraft with no AC source available. Which AC buses are available.
a) AC STAT INV BUS, if both batt. Switches are at AUTO

b. AC STAT INV, AC ESS BUS if both battery switches are at AUTO
c. AC STAT INV even if battery switches are off.
d. AC STAT INV, if BATT 1 switch is at AUTO.
49. Which conditions would cause the failure of TR ?
a. Over voltage, under voltage, over current, minimum current.

b. Over current, short circuit, over heat
c) Overheat, minimum current
d. Overheat, zero current.
50. On Elec panel GEN 1, GEN 2, APU GEN switches are at OFF, what indications will be
present.
a. OFF white light on all 3 switches.

b. OFF FAULT lights on all 3 switches.
c. As in (a) and ECAM caution.
d. As in (b) and ECAM caution.
51. On one of the O/H panel switches, say GEN 1 OFF white lt illuminates. What does it
mean?
a. GEN 1 has failed.

b. That switch is in normal position.
c) That switch is in abnormal position.
d. As in (a) and will trigger the level 3 warning.
18
52. EMER GEN TEST pb switch is pressed and held
a. AC ESS BUS & DC ESS BUSES are supplied by emergency generator when AC
NORMAL buses are supplied.
b. AC ESS SHED BUS & DC ESS SHED Buses are powered by emergency gen when
AC NORMAL BUSES are supplied.
c) As in (a) and static inverter powers the AC ESS BUS when batteries supply the aircraft
d. All the above are correct.
a. When the non-monitored CBs are out for more than 1 minute, the CB TRIPPED
warning is triggered on ECAM.
b. Monitored CBs when they are out for more than one minute, the CB TRIPPED
warning is triggered on the ECAM.
c. Normal function of CB are to protect wiring against short circuits and to reset
digital computers.
d) Both (b) and (c)
54. GALLEY SHED indicator on electrical page appears when
a. GALLEY Push Button switch is OFF.

b. Load on any generator is more than 100% of rated output.
c) As in (a) and the main galleys are shed.
d. All the above are correct
19
LIGHTS
1. Which are the lights available, after the loss of all generator in the cockpit.
a) RHS dome light, STBY compass light, LHS main instrument panel light.
b LHS dome light, STBY compass light and LHS main instrument panel light.
c. LHS dome light, STBY compass light, RHS main instrument panel light.
d. RHS dome light, RHS main instrument panel light and STBY compass light.
2. During a normal international flight when would the EXIT signs come on ?
a. Throughout the flight.

b. It never comes on, since the flight is normal.
c. Whenever the NO SMOKING SIGN comes ON
d) As in (c) and automatically whenever landing gear is selected down.
3. EMER LIGHTS switch in cockpit is at ARM, after the loss of all generators when
will EXIT signs comes on and what will be the power supply for that.
a. After RAT extension, by emergency generation (i.e. DC SHED ESS BUS)

b. After L/G extension by 6 V EPSU
c) Immediately after all generators fall by EPSU
d. After L/G extension by DC ESS BUS.
4. Aircraft is powered by external power cockpit EMER LT switch is OFF position. What will
happen when LIGHT EMER pb on forward attendant panel is pressed ?
a. Nothing
b) All emergency lights illuminate.
c. As in (b) and 6 V batteries power those lights.
d. As in (b) and DC SHED ESS through 6V converter power these lights.
5. Which emergency lights would illuminate in Electrical Emergency config. (emergency

generator connected to buses)
a. Floor path marking lights, cabin emergency lights and exit signs illuminate.
b) Floor path marking lights only illuminate.
c. Cabin emergency light and exit signs only illuminate.
d. Floor path marking lights and exit signs only illuminate.
6. In case of excessive cabin altitude d(11300 + /- 350) which of the following lights
illuminate along with NO SMOKING, FASTEN SEAT BELT & RETURN TO
SEAT LIGHTS.
a. None
b. Overhead emergency lights
c) Exit signs
d. Floor path marking lights.
20
7. NO SMOKING switch is in AUTO what happens when Landing gear extended ?
a. NO SMOKING & FASTEN SEAT BELT signs illuminate

b. NO SMOKING & EXIT signs illuminate
c) NO SMOKING, FASTEN SEAT BELT & EXIT signs illuminate
d. L & R dome light , stand by compass light and main instrument panel light illuminate.
8. In emergency config. (Emergency generator connected to buses)
a) Floor path marking lights, cabin emergency lights and exit signs illuminate.
b Floor path marking lights only illuminate.
9. The following external lights when selected ON, are controlled through landing gear
strut operation
a. NAV & LOGO lights come ON, Nose and RWY TURN lights come ON
b. NAV & LOGO lights come ON, STROBE lights come ON with switch in AUTO
c. LOGO lights come ON, STROBE lights go OFF, with switch in AUTO
d) All of the above are wrong.
10. In emergency config. (Emergency generator line contactor tripped)
a) Floor path marking lights, cabin emergency lights and exit signs illuminate.
b Floor path marking lights only illuminate.
21
PNEUMATICS
1. When does the engine bleed valve automatically close ?
a. During engine start.

b. When engine fire push button is pressed.
c. When APU bleed valve is opened.
d) In all of the above.
2. With cross bleed selector in AUTO, engine & APU bleeds selected ON and available the
a. Engine bleed valve open, cross bleed valve opens & APU bleed valve closes.
b) Engine bleed valve close, cross bleed valve opens & APU bleed valve opens.
c. Engine bleed valve open, cross bleed valve closes & APU bleed valve opens.
d. Engine bleed valve close, cross bleed valve closes & APU bleed valve opens.
3. Failure of one BMC causes.
a. Associated bleed valve closure.

b. Illumination of Master caution and single chime
c) The other BMC to take over the monitoring of the bleed system.
a. Two packs using single engine bleed is not permitted.

b) with one engine bleed one pack only if wing anti ice is ON
c. With APU bleed only one pack is permitted.
d. With one engine bleed fault, do not switch off the associated bleed push button it will
open the cross bleed valve.
5 Each BMC is provided with
a) Bleed presser, temperature and valves position information.

b. Ambient presser and temperature information.
c. Ambient Temperature and pack valves position information.
d. Only APU bleed valve position information
6. In case of pressure regulation failure, the over pressure valve (OPV) closed when
pressure is
a. Less than 8 psi

b. Equal to 44 psi
c) More than 85 psi
d. More than 35 psi
22
7. Overheat of pre cooler outlet temperature is detected when temperature
a. Exceeds 160 Deg. C for more than 60 seconds.

b. Exceeds 200 Deg. C for more than 55 seconds.
c. Exceeds 225 Deg. C for more than 15 seconds.
d) Exceeds 257 Deg. C for more than 55 seconds.
8. When does the BMC detect temperature.
a) Above 57 psi
b. Above 85 psi
c. Above 44 psi
d. Above 35 psi
9. In cross bleed valve, position disagrees with selected position, the warning are
a. Cross bleed fault light on the Overhead (OVHD) panel

b. Only Master Caution Light
c. Only single chime
d) Single chime, Master Caution and Bleed page.
10. With one BMC failure, if there is an over pressure on associated bleed systems,
what will happens ?
a) ENGINE BLEED FAULT ECAM warning is available.

b. FAULT lights on the respective bleed switch will illuminate.
c. Associated bleed valve will close automatically.
d. All of the above are correct.
11. BLEED FAULT light comes on if
a. Engine bleed pb is selected to OFF

b. Engine bleed valve is closed during engine start.
c. The HP valve is closed.
d) Over pressure occurs down a stream of the bleed valve.
12. The HP valve is automatically closed electrically when
a. In case of low upstream pressure.

b) Wing anti ice is OFF and upstream HP valve pressure is > 110 psi, with two packs ON
c. In case of excessive upstream pressure.
d. Intermediate pressure check valve opens.
13. If both detection loops are inoperative in one wing the warnings are
a. Master caution light, Single chime and BLEED page

b. Master caution light and Single chime only
c) Only BLEED page is called.
d. Only MASTER CAUT light
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14. The engine bleed regulated pressure is abnormal.
a. Engine Bleed Fault light comes ON.

b. Engine Bleed Fault light does not come ON
c. Single Chime, Master Caution light and BLEED page is called.
15. When BMC 1 fails, what is the function of BMC 2
a. If monitors, detects & protects Engine 1 Bleed system.

b. It looks after only its Engine Bleed system.
c) ENG 1 Bleed system & ENG 2 Bleed leak system are monitored along with ENG 1
O /P and O/TEMP conditions.
d. BMC 2 looks after entire functions including that of BMC 1.
16. When will engine bleed valve automatically go to close position.

c. When APU bleed valve is open.
d) In all of the above cases.
17. Cross bleed selector in AUTO, engine and APU bleed switches are ON. What are the
positions of different bleed valves.
a. Engine bleed valve open, cross bleed valve opens & APU bleed valve closes.
b) Engine bleed valve close, cross bleed valve opens & APU bleed valve opens.
c. Engine bleed valve open, cross bleed valve closes & APU bleed valve opens.
d. Engine bleed valve close, cross bleed valve closes & APU bleed valve opens.
18. What happens when BMC 1 fails
a. Left engine leak detection is lost.

b. Left wing leak detection is lost.
c) As in (a) and APU leak detection is also lost.
d. As in (b) and APU leak detection is also lost.
19. Engine bleed valve switch is ON, when will the Engine bleed valve close ?
a. In the absence of air pressure.

b. In case of reverse flow.
c) As in (a) and above and closure will cause the HP valve to close.
d. When the cross bleed valve selected to close.
24
ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION
a. All the stats in the aircraft are anti iced.

b. On ground when the wing anti ice pb selected to ON the wing anti ice valves remain
open.
c. In case of leak detection wing anti ice valves remain open.
d) In case of electrical power supply failure wing anti ice valves will close.
2. When engine anti ice selected under icing conditions.
a) Nacelle anti ice valve will open provided engine is running.

b. Engine anti ice selected is indicated on the ECAM bleed page.
c. In case of electrical failure engine anti ice valve go to close position.
3. Probe / Window heat switch is in the Auto position.
a. Probe heating will start only after any one engine is started.
b. As in (a) and TAT probe is heated at low level on ground and at normal level in flight.
c) As in (a) and Pitot probe heating is at low level on ground and at normal level in flight
d. As in (a) and AOA probe heating is at low level on ground and at normal level in flight.
a Rain repellant system is inhibited on ground.

b. Rain repellant system is inhibited in flight.
c. Rain repellant can be applied on dry wing shield.
d) Rain repellant system is inhibited on ground with engine stopped.
a) In case of failure of one window heat computer, other window heat computer will not take
over the function at the failed computer.
b. Wind shields are heated at low level on ground and at high level in flight.
c. Sliding windows of the aircraft are not heated.
6. Hot air anti icing is done for
a. Waste water drain mast

b. Sensors, pilot probes and static ports
c) Engine air in take and three outboard leading edge slats of each wing.
d. Flight compartment windows.
25
7. On ground, if WAI is selected ON, if valves remain open for more than 35 seconds.
a. Wing FAULT Iight comes ON

b) Single chime, Master caution and bleed page
c. Only singe chime and master caution light
d. Both (a) and (b)
8. Which page is called in case of wind shield heating failure.
a. BLEED PAGE
b) NIL
c. COND PAGE
d. ANTI ICE PAGE
9. With Wing Anti Ice selected and valves do not open, what page is called.
a. ANTI ICE PAGE

b. COND PAGE
c. NIL
d) BLEED PAGE
10. Each wind shield wiper rotary selected controls its wipers at
a. Low speed only.

b. High speed only
c) Low speed or High speed
c. None of the above
a. All the stats in the aircraft are anti iced.

b. On ground when the wing anti ice pb selected to ON the wing anti ice valves remains
open till the pb is set to OFF again.
c. In case of wing leak detection wing anti ice valves remain open.
12. With engine anti ice selected ON, what is the position of engine anti ice valve.
a) Nacelle anti ice valve will open provided engine is running.

b. Engine anti ice selected is indicated on the ECAM bleed page.
c. In case of electrical failure engine anti ice valve go to close position.
13. Probe/ window heat switch is in the Auto position, what happens.
c. Probe heating will start only after any one engine is started.
d. As in (a) and TAT probe is heated at low level on ground and at normal level in flight.
c) As in (a) and Pitot probe heating is at low level on ground and at normal level in flight
d. As in (a) and AOA probe heating is at low level on ground and at normal level in flight.
26
14. Mark the correct statement

15. What is correct for window heating.
a. Window heating starts on ground only after any one engine is started with control switch
at AUTO
b) As in (a) and wing shields are heated at low level on ground and at normal in flight.
c. Sliding windows are not heated.
d. Window heat is available in flight only if control switch is selected to ON.
27
AIR CONDITIONING, PRESSURISATION & VENTILATION
1. What are the inputs to the mix unit.
a. Packs and cab fans only.

b. Packs and trim air valves only.
c. Packs cab fans hot air pressure regulating valve, emergency ram air inlet and LP Ground
connector.
d) Packs, cab fans, emergency ram air and LP ground connector.
2. How are the Ram Air Inlet and outlets are controlled.
a. Open during takeoff and landing.

b) Closed during takeoff, closed during landing till the speed reaches 70 kts
c. Closed during takeoff and open when the speed reaches above 70 kts during landing
d. Closed during landing when the speed is less than 70 kts.
3. Pack flow selected in the cockpit is low. The selected heating or cooling is not yet
satisfied. Under this condition
a) Normal flow is automatically selected and EIU increases the minimum idle.
b. High flow is automatically selected
c. Reduce pax to 115 or less.
d. Reduce pax to 80 as LO can give only 80% cooling.
4. What will be the result when the zone controller primary channel fail.
a. Optimised temperature regulation.

b) Zones are controlled to 24 Deg. C
c. Zones are controlled to 15 Deg. C
d. Zones are controlled to 18 Deg. C
5. When one pack controller primary and secondary channels fall, what is the effect.
a. Corresponding pack outlet temperature is controlled at 15 Deg C by anti ice valve.

b. Both pack outlet temperatures are controlled at 15 Deg C by anti ice valves.
c. ECAM signals of the corresponding pack are lost.
d) Both (a) and (c) are correct.
6. What is the recommended action in case of L + R CAB FAN FAULT
a. Crew awareness
b. Select cabin temperature to LO
c. Use emergency Ram Air
d. Increase pack flow to HI
28
7. Pack flow control valve position is indicated in the ECAM
a. COND page
b) BLEED page and CAB PRESS page
c. COND page and BLEED page
d. COND and CAB PRESS page
8. Which pack 1 and 2 fault the recommended max FL is
a) 100 / MEA
b. 140 / MEA
c. 150 / MEA
d. 250 / MEA
9. When do we use RAM AIR pb
a. AT any time.
b) Only when differential pressure is less than 1 psi
c. Only when differential pressure is more than 1 psi
d. Only after the outflow valve is fully open
10. If the hot air pressure regulating valve is failed in open position.
a) No effect on temperature regulation

b. Pack 1 controls the cockpit, pack 2 controls the cabin temperature to the mean value
of the selected temperature
c. Trim air valves go to closed position.
d. No effect on the cockpit. Cabin temperature is controlled to a fixed temperature of
20 Deg. C.
11. In manual pressure control mode
a. ECAM indications are not available

b. Outflow valve position signal is transmitted via manual backup section of controller No.1
c) Outflow valve position signal is transmitted via back up section of controller No. 2
d. Outflow valve is set to full open always.
12. What happens during smoke drill when both the blower and the extract pb switches are
set to override.
a. Only the extract fan will stop

b. Both the blower and the extract fan will stop working
c) The Blower fan stops and the extract fan remains energized.
d. Both the blower and the extract fan remain energized.
13. On ground with engines stopped an external horn will be triggered if
a. Avionic ventilation blower pressure is low.

b. Duct OVHT or extract fan extract pressure is low.
c. Fault is detected in the ground cooling system.
d) In all the above cases.
29
a) AFT cargo compartment is ventilated by an extract fan.

b. FWD cargo compartment ventilation is by an extract fan.
c. Smoke detection in the cargo compartment will not automatically close the isolation
valve.
d. AFT isolation valve pb switch when selected to OFF will not stop the extract fan
15. If either blower or extract pb which is set to over ride, the air for avionic equipment
cooling is taken from
a. Atmosphere and Skin Ht Exchgr.

b. Avionic bay and Skin Ht Exchgr.
c. Either avionic bay or from atmosphere.
d) Cockpit air conditioning duct and skin ht exchgr.
16. If both blower and extract pb switches are set to over ride during smoke drill , avionic
equipment cooling air is
a. Taken from atmosphere and thrown overboard.

b. Taken from atmosphere and circulated through Skin Ht Exchgr.
c) Taken from airconditioning bay and thrown overboard.
d. Taken from airconditioning bay and circulated through skin ht exchgr.
17. If pressurization degraded performance is suspected, a selection of pressurization

system which is not active can be attempted by switching.
a. Ditching pb to OFF and then ON

b) Pressing the pressurization mode selector pb to manual for atleast 10 secs and then
to AUTO
c. LG CIU / CB to PULL and then PUSH
d. Pressing the pressurization mode selector pb to manual for atleast 10 secs and then
leaving it there.
18. In flight skin air inlet valve is
a) Always fully closed

b. Either partially open or fully closed
c. Always fully open
d. Always partially open
19. CABIN PRESS mode selector is in MAN. If ditching pb is selected ON, the
a) Outflow valve will not close automatically.

b. OFV will close automatically
c. Ram Air inlet valve open
d. Engine bleed valve opens
30
20. When will Auto transfer from one controller to another controller occurs.
a. At each landing initiated 70 sec after each landing.

b. In case of failure of the operating system.
c. If FMGS fails
d) (a) and (b) are correct
21. When landing elevation selector is in AUTO position
a. With FMGS available, landing elevation data is coming from FMGS for pressurization
control.
b. With FMGS not available, landing elevation selected is taken as reference.
c. Landing elevation selected only is taken as reference even though the FMGS is available
22. When Zone controller primary and secondary channel failure what will result.
a. Loss of backup and optimized temperature regulation.

b. Pack 1 is controlled to deliver 20 Deg. C and Pack 2 is controlled to deliver 10 Deg.C
c. On ECAM COND page will information are removed and PACK REG appears.
23. When only one pack is operating and Pack selector is at LO. What is the flow.
a. 80% of normal flow.

b. 150% of normal flow.
c. Normal flow
d) 120% of normal flow.
24. APU available and APU BV position disagrees with the selected position. The
Local warning is.
a) NIL
b. APU BLEED FAULT light
c. ENG BLEED FAULT LT
d. CROSS BLEED FAULT LT
25. Pack valve automatically closes due to
a. Pack outlet pressure being very high

b) Pack overheat or corresponding fire pb is pressed or ditching pb is pressured or
during any engine start.
c. Leakage detected in the air cycle machine.
d. Pack flow selector at LO position.
26. Leak detected in the hot ducts causes the automatic closure of
a. Associated engine bleed valve

b. Cross bleed valve provided X bleed switch is in AUTO position
c. Associated wing anti ice valve
d) All the above valves and also APU bleed valve if the leak is detected on the left side.
31
27. The trim air valves are
a. Modulated electrically by zone controller

b. Used for optimizing the temp by adding hot air
c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
d. Controlled by position of landing gear.
28. What are the sources that supply air to mixing unit
a. Packs and cabin fans only

b. Packs and trim air valves
c. Packs, cabin fans, hot air pressure regulating valve, emergency ram air inlet
and LP ground unit
d) Packs, cabin fans, emergency ram air and LP ground unit.
29. When will pack valve automatically closes.
a. Pack overheat ditching switch pressed

b) As in (a) and corresponding engine fire pb is pressed, and any engine start
c. As in (a) any engine fire pb pressed, any engine start.
d. As in (a) and respective engine fire pb pressed, respective engine starts.
30. When will ram air inlet flap close.
a. During all ground operation.

b. During take off when wheel speed is more than 70 kts
c. During landing when wheel speed is more than 70 kts.
d. Ram air inlet flap never closes.
31. Where are the zone temperature sensors located.
a. For cockpit zone : in the cockpit.

b. For cabin zone : above the 4th row of seat on the right stowage bin
c. For the cabin zone : In the extraction ducts of the lavatory and galley
ventilation systems.
32. What is the recommended action in case of L/R CAB FAN FAULT
a. Switch off hot air valve.

c. Use emergency ram air
d) Increase pack flow to HI
32
33. During take off, both engine bleed switch ON, APU Bleed switch ON, both pack
switch ON. What happens after take off, if APU bleed switch is set to OFF.
a) Engine bleed valves open.

b. All bleed OFF, as a reflect pack valves also go to close.
c. During take off engine bleeds must have been open. They remain open after APU
bleed switch bleed switch is OFF
d. Cabin will be depressurized.
34. When ditching push button is selected to ON, what will be the result.
a. Safety valves are driven to full OPEN.

b. Pack flow control valves, out flow valve, skin air inlet an extract valves and Emer
Ram Air inlet valve close.
c. Only pack flow control valve and Emer Ram Air Inlet valve close.
d) As in (b) but outflow valve will close only if press mode selector is in AUTO.
35. In case of Blower Fault what will be the indication on CAB PRESS page.
a. BLOWER appears amber

b. Inlet valve colour changes to amber
c. VENT & EXTRACT appear in amber
d. VENT & INLET appear in amber
36. When does the APU Bleed FAULT light come ON
a. APU bleed FAULT

b) APU bleed LEAK
c. Left wing leak
d. In all the above cases.
37. On COND ECAM page, PACK REG appears, what will be the effect.
a. Packs regulates such that zones are maintained at selected temperature.

b. Packs regulates such that zones are maintained at 24 Deg .C
c) Packs regulate to give outlet temp of 20 Deg. C, 10 Deg C respectively
for pack 1 and 2.
e. Packs regulate to give an outlet temperature of 15 Deg c for both packs.
38. What happens when one pack controllers primary and secondary channels
have failed.
a. Corresponding pack outlet temperature is controlled at 15 Deg C. by anti ice valve

b. Both pack outlet temperatures are controlled at 15 Deg.C by anti ice valves.
c) As in (a) and ECAM signals to the corresponding pack are lost.
d. As in (b) and ECAM signals to both the packs are lost.
33
39. What happens when the hot air pressure regulating valve has failed in open position.
a) No effect on temp regulation

b. Pack 1 controls the cockpit, pack 2 controls the cabin temp to the mean value of
the selected temp.
c. Trim air valves go to closed position.
d. No effect on the cockpit. Cabin temp are controlled to a fixed temp of 15 Deg.c
40. ZONE REGUL FAULT ECAM caution appears. ALTN MODE indication appears
on ECAM COND page. What does it indicate ? What will be different zone temp.
a.
41. What is the effect of selecting the hot air pb switch to OFF
a. The closure of hot air pressure regulating valve only.

b. The opening of trim air valves.
c) The closure of hot air pressure regulating valve and trim air valve.
d. Closing of hot air pressure valve and opening of trim air valves.
42. FWD cabin temp selector is set to 12 O clock position, what does it mean
a) FWD cabin is controlled to a temp of 24 Deg. C

b. Pack 1 outlet temp is controlled to 24 Deg. C
c. Pack 2 outlet temp is controlled to 25 Deg. C
d. Both (a) and (c) are correct.
43. In which ECAM page pack flow control valve position is indicated.
a COND page
b) BLEED page and CAB PRESS page
c. COND & BLEED Page
d. COND & CAB PRESS page
44. Where are the positions of trim air valves and hot air pressure regulating valves indicated
a) COND page
b COND & PRESS page
c COND & BLEED page
d COND & CAB PRESS page
45. What is the recommended max FL with Pack 1 + 2 fault
a) 100 / MEA
b. 140 / MEA
c. 150 / MEA
d. 250 / MEA
34
46. When should Ram air pb switch be used ? What happens then ?
a. Only when differential pressure is less than 1 psi. EMER RAM Air flows and outflow
valve open to 50 deg c position.
b. Whenever more ventilation is needed
c. Only when differential pressure is less than 1 psi, it opens the EMER RAM AIR inlet
and closes the packs
d. When differential pressure is less than 1 psi, it opens the EMER RAM AIR inlet
and closes the outflow valve.
47. In automatic pressure control mode what will be the cabin altitude.
a. Always 8000 feet.

b) It is highest of the value of cabin altitude reached at aircraft level off and landing
elevation
c. Always the landing elevation.
d. It is the cabin altitude reached at the time of aircraft level off.
48. How are the two safety valves designed
a) Each safety valve avoids excessive positive and negative differential pressure.
b. One safety valve avoids excessive differential pressure and another safety valve
avoids excessive negative differential pressure.
c. Both safety valves avoid excessive positive differential pressure only
d. Both safety valves avoid excessive negative differential pressure only.
49. What will be differential pressure for different flights.
a. Always 8.00 psi

b. Always 8.60 psi
c. Differential pressure valve depends upon flight altitude.
d. As in (c) and the normal maximum value of 8.06 psi is reached when flight
altitude is 39000 ft.
50. Which are the correct statement regarding pressurization mode selector pb.
a. With both the auto pressurization system failure, mode selector FAULT light comes on
b. Even with single auto pressurization system failure, mode selector FAULT light comes on
c) As in (a) and when the mode selector pb is selected to MAN, MAN illuminates white
and FAULT extinguishes.
d. As in (a) and when the mode selector pb is selected to MAN, MAN illuminates white
and FAULT remains illuminated.
51. If the extract valve is fully open in flight, what is the warming.
a) SKIN VALVE FAULT

b. BLOWER FAULT
c. EXTRACT FAULT
d. EXTRACT VALVE FAULT
35
52. What happens in Auto Pr. Control in the Abort mode.
a. Take off is Aborted prepressurization is aborted.

b) If a/c returns to take off field before reaching a certain altitude, cabin altitude is controlled
to T/O field.
c. If a/c returns to take off field before reaching a certain altitude, cabin altitude is
maintained constant.
d. At touch down cabin altitude is same as a/c altitude.
53. When does automatic transfer from one controller to another controller occurs
a. 180 sec after each landing

b) In case of failure of operating system
c. If FMGS falls
d. (a) and (b) are correct.
54. What happens when landing elevation selector is not in auto position.
a. With FMGS available, landing elevation data is coming from FGMS for pressurization
in controller, selected landing elevation is ignored.
b. With the FMGS not available landing elevation selected is taken as reference.
c) Landing elevation selected only is taken as reference even if FMGS is available.
55. If pressurization degraded performance is suspected how can the inactive system
be made active
a. By pressing pressurization mode selector to MAN.

b) By pressing the pressurization mode selector pb to manual for atleast 10 seconds
and then to AUTO
c. Pressing the pressurization mode selector pb to manual for atleast 180 seconds
and then to AUTO
d. It is not possible to manually make the inactive system to active system.
56. How is the MAN V/S CTL switch toggle used.
a. The switch actuation is very fast.

b. As in (a) and switch should not be maintained in up or down position.
c. As in (b) and if it is maintained in up outflow valve will open in 10 seconds.
d) Due to slow outflow valve position, toggle switch must be maintained in up and down
position until target V/S is reached.
57. What is the effect of the Lav + Galley fan fault.
a. Cabin zone temperature regulation is lost.

b. Lavatory smoke detection system is inoperative in EP series aircraft.
c. Cabin zone inlet duct temperature is constant 15 Deg c, cockpit temperature
regulation is normal.
36
58. In which configuration skin heat exchanger is not used.
a) Open circuit configuration.

b. Closed circuit configuration
c. Intermediate circuit configuration
d. Open circuit configuration and intermediate circuit configuration.
59. What is the position of the skin air inlet valve in flight
a) Always fully closed.

b. Either partially open or fully closed.
c. Always fully open.
d. Always partially open.
60. If either blower or extract pb switch is set to override, where is the air for avionic
equipment cooling taken from
a. Atmosphere.
b. Avionic bay
c. Either avionic bay or from atmosphere
d) Air-conditioning duct
61. Both blower and extract pb switches are set to override during smoke drill, where is the
air for avionic equipment cooling taken from.
a. Air is taken from atmosphere and thrown overboard.

b. Air is taken from avionic bay and is circulated through skin heat exchanger.
c. Air is taken from airconditioning duct and thrown overboard.
d. Air is taken from airconditioning duct and circulated through skin heat exchanger.
62. During smoke drill when both the blower and the extract pb switches are set to override,
which fan will stop
a. Only the extract fan will stop.

b. Both the blower and the extract fan will stop working.
c. The blower fan stops and the extract fan remains energized.
d) Both the blower and the extract fan remain energised.
63. On ground with engines stopped, when will an external horn be trigged.
a. If avionic ventilation blower pressure is low.

b. If DUCT OVHT
c. Extract fan extract pressure is low.
a) AFT cargo compt is ventilated by an extract fan

b. FWD cargo is ventilated by an extract fan.
c. Smoke detection in the cargo compt will not automatically close the isolation valve.
d. AFT ISOLATION valve pb switch when selected to OFF will not stop the extract fan
it will only close the isolation valves.
37
65. Two safety valves are provided such that
a) Each safety valve avoids excessive positive and negative differential pressure.
b. One safety valve avoids excessive positive differential pressure and another
safety valve avoids excessive negative differential pressure.
c. Both safety valves avoid excessive positive differential pressure only.
66. The zone controller computes the temp demand according to the temp. selected and
the temp. measured by sensors.. The sensors are located at
a. For cockpit zone in the cockpit

b. For cabin zone above the fourth row of seat in the right stowage bin
c. For cabin zone, in the extraction circuit of the lavatory and galley ventilation systems.
a. With APU bleed supplying the packs, the packs flow go to H1

b. With APU bleed supply and if any zone temp. demand is not satisfied the controller
sends a demand signal ECB to increase the APU bleed flow.
c. With APU bleed supply the packs, the packs flow goes to LO
68. Selection of the hot air pb switch to OFF position causes.
a. The closure of hot air pressure regulating valve only

b. The opening of trim air valves.
c) The closure of hot air pressure regulating valve and trim air valves.
d. Opening of hot air pressure regulating valve and closure of trim air valves.
69. FWD cabin temp selector is set to 12 O clock position
a. FWD cabin temperature is controlled to 18 deg. c

b) FWD cabin is controlled to a temp of 24 deg c.
c. AFT cabin is controlled to a temp of 24 deg c.
d. FWD and AFT cabin temp is controlled to 18 deg. c
70 Position of TRIM Air valves and hot air pressure regulating valves are indicated in
a) COND page.
b. Bleed page
c. COND & BLEED page
d. COND and CAB PRESS page
71. Which of the following does not cause pressure problem in air.
a) SKIN AIR INLET VALVE

b. SKIN AIR EXTRACT VALVE
c. GRD COOL INLET VALVE
d. GRD COOL OUTLET VALVE
38
72. When OFV is fully stuck closed in a flight and none of the 3 systems are able to control
which of the following actions release the cabin pressure continuously.
a) Blower & Extract pbs OVRD

b. Either Blower or Extract pbs - OVRD
c. Safety valves
d. Skin Air Inlet valves.
73. In case of heavy rain which pbs are to be pressed for landing.
a) Extract to OVRD
b. Blower to OVRD
c. Blower and Extract to OVRD
d. Ditching pb.
74. When OFV gets opened during a flight, what immediate action is required.
a) Ditching pb _ ON
b. Mode selector to MAN & U/S CTL Sw_Down
c. Emer RAS pb _OFF
d. Blower and Extract pbs _ OFF
75. In which of the following cases the temp is fixed.
a. ZONE CONTROLLER SECONDARY channel failure

b. PACK CONTROLLER PRIMARY channel failure
c) LAV & GALLEY FAN FAULT
76. What is the meaning of PACK REG message on COND PAGE
a. ZONE CONTROLLER PRIMARY channel failure

b. PACK CONTROLLER PRIMARY channel failure
c. PACK CONTROLLER Both channels failed.
d) ZONE CONTROLELR Both channels failed.
a. Both the cargo compartments are heated

b. Both the cargo compartments are ventilated.
c. Live cargo has to be placed only if forward cargo compartment
d) Cargo compartment are heated by cabin air.
78. Which of the following appear on EW/D unit
a. CABIN OVER PRESSURE

b. TOO HOT / COLD COCKPIT AND CABIN TEMP INFLIGHT
c) FWD CAB / AFT CAB / CKPT DUCT OVHT
d. All the above.
79. Safety valve max position differential pressure setting is
a) 8.6 psi
b. 8.006 psi
c. 7.41 psi
. d. 5 psi
39
PNEUMATICS, AIRCONDITIONING, PRESSURISATION, ICE & RAIN PROTN
1. What are the inputs to the mix unit
a. Packs and cab fans only

b. Packs and rim fair valves only
c. Packs, cab fans, hot air pressure regulating valve, emergency ram air inlet and
LP Ground connector.
d) Packs, Cab fans, emergency ram air and LP Ground connector.
2. Pack flow selected in the cockpit is low. The selected heating or cooling is not yet
satisfied. Under this condition
a) Normal flow is automatically selected and EIU increases the minimum idle
b. HI flow is automatically selected
c. Reduce pax to 115 or less
d. Reduce pax to 80 as LO can give only 80% cooling
3. What will be the result when the zone controller primary channel fail ?
a. Optimised temp regulation

b) Zones are controlled to 24 Deg.c
c. Zones are controlled to 15 Deg.c
d. Zones are controlled to 18 Deg.c
4. When one pack controller primary and secondary channels fail, what is the effect ?
a. Corresponding pack outlet temperature is controlled at 15 Deg C by anti ice valve

b. Both pack outlet temperatures are controlled at 15 Deg C by anti ice valves
c. ECAM signals of the corresponding pack are lost
5. What is the recommended action in case of L+R CAB FAN FAULT
a. Crew awareness
c. Use emergency Ram Air
d) Increase pack flow to HI
a. All the slats in the aircraft are anti iced

b. On ground when wing anti ice pb selected to ON the wing anti ice valves remain open
c. In case of leak / detection wing anti ice valves remain open
7. Probe / Window heat switch is in the Auto position
a. Probe heating will start only after both the engines are started.
b. TAT probe is heated at low level on ground and at high level in flight
c) Pitot probe heating is at low level on ground and at normal level in flight
d. AOA probe heating is at low level on ground and at high level in flight
40

9. On ground, if WAI is selected ON, if valves remain open for more than 35 seconds.
a. Wing FAULT Iight comes ON

b) Single chime, Master caution and bleed page
c. Only singe chime and master caution light
d. Both (a) and (b)
10. Which page is called in case of wind shield heating failure.
a. BLEED PAGE
b) NIL
c. COND PAGE
d. ANTI ICE PAGE
11. Each wind shield wiper rotary selected controls its wipers at
a. Low speed only.

b High speed only
c) Low speed or High speed
d. None of the above
12. When does the engine bleed valve automatically close ?

c. When APU bleed valve is opened.
d) In all of the above.
a. Two packs using single engine bleed is not permitted.

b) with one engine bleed one pack only if wing anti ice is ON
c. With APU bleed only one pack is permitted.
d. With one engine bleed fault, do not switch off the associated bleed push button it will
open the cross bleed valve.
14. Each BMC is provided with
a) Bleed presser, temperature and valves position information.

b. Ambient presser and temperature information.
c. Ambient Temperature and pack valves position information.
d. Only APU bleed valve position information
41
15. Overheat of pre cooler outlet temperature is detected when temperature
a. Exceeds 160 Deg. C for more than 60 seconds.

b. Exceeds 200 Deg. C for more than 55 seconds.
c. Exceeds 225 Deg. C for more than 15 seconds.
d) Exceeds 257 Deg. C for more than 55 seconds.
16. In manual pressure control mode
a. ECAM indications are not available

b. Outflow valve position signal is transmitted via manual backup section of controller No.1
c) Outflow valve position signal is transmitted via back up section of controller No. 2
d. Outflow valve is set to full open always.
17. When ditching pb is selected to ON what will be the result
a. Safety valves are driven to full open.

b) PFCV, OFV, skin air inlet and extract valves, Emer Ram Air Inlet valves close
c. PFCV, Bleed valves, APU Bleed valve, Emer Ram Air Inlet valves close
d. Bleed valves, PFCV, Inlet and extract valves; Emer Ram Air Inlet valves close
18. With pressurization mode select switch in MAN, the MAN VS CTL toggle switch is
a. To switch activation very fast

b. Not to be maintained in up or down position for target V/S
c. If maintained in up or down position outflow valve will open in three seconds
d. Due to slow outflow valve operation, toggle switch must be maintained in up
or down position until target V/S is reached.
19. In case of Blower fault what will be the indication on CAB PRESS page
a. BLOWER appear amber

b. Inlet valve colour changes to amber
c. VENT and EXTRACT appear in amber
d) VENT and INLET appear in amber
20. In which configuration skin heat exchanger is not used.
a Open circuit configuration.

b. Closed circuit configuration
c. Intermediate circuit configuration
d) Open circuit configuration and smoke configuration
a. AFT cargo compartment is ventilated by an extract fan

b. FWD cargo compartment ventilation is by an extract fan
c. Smoke detection in the cargo compartment will not automatically close the
isolation valve
d. AFT ISOLATION valve pb switch when selected to OFF will not stop the
extract fan.
42
22. If pack pb switch is selected to OFF with no failure, the warning is
a) Single Chime + Master Caution + Bleed page

b. Pack fault light only
c. Pack FAULT LT + Bleed page
d. COND page only
23. Select the correct list of computers
a. One pack controller & 2 Zone controller for Air-conditioning

b. 3 BMCs for pneumatic system
c. Two AEVCs for ventilation
d) Three computers for probes heating
24. If either blower or extract pb which is set to over ride, the air for avionic
equipment cooling is taken from
a. Atmosphere and skin Ht Exchgr.

b. Avionic bay and skin Ht Exchgr
c. Either avionic bay or from atmosphere
d) Cockpit Air-conditioning duct and skin Ht Exchgr
25. If both blower and extract pb switches are set to over ride during smoke drill,
avionic equipment cooling air is
a. Taken from atmosphere and thrown overboard

b. Taken from avionic bay and is circulated through skin heat exchanger
c. Taken from air-conditioning bay and thrown overboard
d. Taken from air-conditioning bay and circulated through skin heat exchanger.
26. If pressurization degraded performance is suspected, a selection of the

pressurization system which is not active can be attempted by switching
a. Ditching pb to OFF and then ON

b) Pressing the pressurization mode selector pb to manual for atleast 10 secs
and then to AUTO
c. LGCIU / CB to PULL and then PUSH
d. Pressing the pressurization mode selector pb to manual for atleast 10 secs
and then leaving it there.
27. In flight skin air inlet valve is
a) Always fully closed

b. Either partially open or fully closed
c. Always fully open
d. Always partially open
28. CABIN PRESS mode selector is in MAN. If ditching pb is selected ON, the
a) Outflow valve will not close automatically.

b. OFV will close automatically
c. Ram Air inlet valve open
d. Engine bleed valve opens
43
29. When will Auto transfer from one controller to another controller occurs.
a. At each landing initiated 70 sec after each landing.

b. In case of failure of the operating system.
c. If FMGS fails
d) (a) and (b) are correct
30. When only one pack is operating and Pack selector is at LO. What is the flow.
a. 80% of normal flow.

b. 150% of normal flow.
c. Normal flow
d) 120% of normal flow.
31. The trim air valves are
a. Modulated electrically by zone controller

b. Used for optimizing the temp by adding hot air
c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
d. Controlled by position of landing gear.
32. What happens when BMC1 fails
a. Left engine leak detection is lost

b. Left wing leak detection is lost
c) As in (a) and APU leak detection is also lost
d.
33. When does the APU Bleed FAULT light come ON
a. APU bleed FAULT

b) APU bleed LEAK
c. Left wing leak
d. In all the above cases.
34. What happens when one pack controllers primary and secondary channels
have failed.
a. Corresponding pack outlet temperature is controlled at 15 Deg C. by anti ice valve

b. Both pack outlet temperatures are controlled at 15 Deg.C by anti ice valves.
c) As in (a) and ECAM signals to the corresponding pack are lost.
d. As in (b) and ECAM signals to both the packs are lost.
35. ZONE REGUL FAULT ECAM caution appears. ALTN MODE indication appears
on ECAM COND page. What does it indicate ? What will be different zone temp
a. Primary channel of zone controller had failed, all zones will be at their selected values
b) Primary channel of zone controller had failed, all zones are controlled at 24 deg. C
c. Primary and secondary channel of zone controller had failed all zone are at selected
values
d. Primary and secondary channel of zone controller had failed, all zone are controlled
at 24 deg. C
44
36. What is the effect of selecting the hot air push button switch to OFF position ?
a. The closure of hot air pressure regulating valve only

b. The opening of trim air valves
c) The closure of hot air pressure regulating valve and trim air valves.
d. Closing of hot air pressure valve and opening of trim air valves.
37. How are the two safety valves designed ?
a) Each safety valve avoids excessive positive and negative differential pressure
b. One safety valve avoids excessive differential pressure and another safety
valve avoids excessive negative differential pressure.
c. Both safety valves avoid excessive positive differential pressure only
38. If both detection loops are inoperative in one wing the warnings ar e
a. Master caution light, single chime and Bleed page

b. Master caution light, single chime only
c. Only bleed page is called
d. Only MASTER CAUT light
39. If the engine bleed regulated pressure is abnormal
a. Engine Bleed Fault Light comes ON

b. Engine Bleed Fault light does not come ON
c. Single chime, master caution light and Bleed page is called
40. When OFV is fully stuck closed in a flight and none of the 3 systems are able to
control which of the following actions release the cabin pressure continuously.
a) Blower & Extract pbs OVRD

b. Either Blower or Extract pbs OVRD
c. Safety valves
d. Skin Air Inlet valves
41. In case of heavy rain which pbs are to be pressed for landing
a) Extract to OVRD
b. Blower to OVRD
c. Blower and Extract to OVRD
d. Ditching pb
42. When OFV gets opened during a flight, what immediate action is required.
a. Ditching pb. ON
b. Mode selector to MAN U/S CTL Sw.. Down
c. Emer RAM pb . OFF
d. Blower and Extract pb.. OFF
45
43. If the extract valve is fully open in flight what is the warning ?
a) SKIN VALVE FAULT

b. BLOWER FAULT
c. EXTRACT FAULT
44. What happens when landing elevation selector is not in auto position ?
a. With FMGS available, landing elevation data is coming from FGMS for
pressurization in controller, selected landing elevation is ignored.
b. With FMGS not available landing elevation selected is taken as reference.
c) Landing elevation selected only is taken as reference even if FMGS is available
45. On ground with engines stopped, when will an external horn be triggered ?
a. If avionic ventilation blower pressure is low

b. If DUCT OVHT
c. Extract fan extract pressure is low
a) AFT cargo compt. is ventilated by an extract fan

b. FWD cargo compt. is ventilated by an extract fan
c. Smoke detection in the cargo compt. will not automatically close the isolation valve.0
d. AFT ISOLATIOIN VALVE pb switch when selected to OFF will not stop the extract fan
it will only close the isolation valves.
47. The HP valve is automatically closed electrically when
a. In case of low upstream pressure

b. Wing anti ice is OFF and upstream HP valve pressure is > 110 psi, with two packs ON
c. In case of excessive upstream pressure
d. Intermediate pressure check valve opens
46
HYDRAULICS
1. How are the hydraulic reservoir pressurized pneumatically ?
a. By APU bleed directly.

b. By engine 2 bleed directly.
c) By engine 1 bleed directly or cross bleed duct
d. By engine 2 bleed directly or cross bleed duct.
2. When do you use RAT MAN ON pb
a. If blue electric pump is failed.

b) If there is a dual Hydraulic failure along with blue system.
c. As in (b) and only in approach RAT is extended.
d. If blue electric pump is over heated.
3. What are the indications if Yellow Leak Measurement Valve remains in closed position
a. No indication
b) Y SYS LO PRESSURE ECAM warning and Y system label colour is amber
in HYD page.
c. Y SYS LO PRESSURE ECAM warning and system pressure indication reading
O psi in HYD page
d. Y SYS label colour is amber and system pressure ) psi in Hydraulic page without
ECAM warning.
4. How will you recover the yellow system if it is lose due to LO LVL ?
a. Yellow system can be recovered in approach only by electric pump

b. Yellow system can be recovered in approach only by PTU
c) Yellow system cannot be recovered.
5. What are the indications in the cockpit due to yellow reservoir OVHT ?
a. PTU, yellow EDP fault lights with ECAM message and master caution.
b) PTU, yellow EDP, yellow electric pump fault lights with ECAM message
and master caution.
c. As in (c) but yellow electric pump fault light illuminate only when the
switch is ON yellow.
d. Yellow EDP, yellow electric pump fault lights with ECAM warning.
6. What FTU operates on ground.
a) Difference between G & Y more than 500 psi, PTU switch in AUTO
and both Master switches are in OFF
b. Difference between G & Y more than 500 psi, PTU switch in AUTO
and engine Master switch is ON, brake is ON
c. PTU switch in AUTO and cargo door is operated.
d. Both (a) and (b) are correct
47
7. When does GREEN EDP fault light illuminate ?
a. On ground Green EDP pump pressure is less with eng

b. As in (a) or green reservoir is over heated
c. As green reservoir has low quantity or low air pressure
8. What does the fault light eliminate on PTU push button ?
a. During PTU operation, if PTU output pressure drops below 1450 psi
b. If PTU does not operate with pressure difference between G & Y is more
than 500 psi
c) If G or Y system reservoir has LOLVR AIR PRESS or OVHT warning
9. Blue electric pump pb switch is at AUTO with AC power available. When

will the pump be energised pump override pb is at OFF
a. On ground, only after No. 2 engine is started.

b. On ground, only after No. 1 engine is started
c) On ground, after any one engine is started
d. In flight, only when an engine is operating
10. OVHT amber message on the ECAM HYD page near ELEC pump indication means
a. Overheat of the system fluid

b) Overheat of the pump itself
c. In case of yellow pump OVHT the PTU must also be switched OFF
d. In case of blue pump OVHT, the RAT must be extended.
11. NORMAL HYDRAULIC POWER is provided by
a. Engine driven pumps for all systems.

b) Engine driven pumps for green and yellow, electrical pump for blue
c. Electrical pumps for blue and yellow, engine driven pump for green.
d. Engine driven pumps for green and blue, electrical pump for yellow
12. If blue reservoir air pressure is less than 42 psi but more than 25 psi.
What warnings will come?
a. No warning
b. LO AIR PRESSURE amber message in HYD page with master caution
c. LO AIR PRESSURE ECAM message and also in HYD page with
master caution
d) BLUE RSVR message comes in STATUS page under maintenance.
13. When does RAT FAULT ECAM warning triggered
a. Whenever RAT is working and RAT pump output pressure is more than 2500 psi
b. If RAT is not deployed automatically due to dual hydraulic failure.
c) If RAT is not fully stowed during normal flight.
48
14. When does PTU FAULT SCAM warning trigger.
a. During PTU operation if PTU output pressure drops below 1450 psi
b. During flight, if PTU does not operate automatically if pressure difference
between G and Y is above . Psi
c) If G or Y stem reservoir has LO LVL or LO AIR PRESS or OVHT warning
15. How will you recover the yellow system if it is lost due to LO LVL
a. Yellow system can be recovered in approach only, by electric pump.

b. Yellow system can be recovered in approach only, by PTU
49
LANDING GEAR
1. When does DOWN ARROW flight on LDG Gear panel illuminates ?
a. Whenever Landing Gear is not down and flaps at 3.

b) Whenever Landing Gear is not down locked and radio altimeter less than
750 feet and flaps FULL
c. In any one gear falls to reach down locked position even after 30 secs.
2. What happens to Landing Gear if Bogie Align ECAM Fault triggers after lift off ?
a) Landing Gear cannot be selected to UP

b. Landing Gear retraction will not take place even though Landing Gear lever is UP
c. Affected main Landing Gear cannot be retracted.
d. Only nose Landing Gear.
3. When does HOT amber light illuminate in BRK FAN pb switch ?
a) Whenever any one brake temperature is more than 300 deg. C

b. Whenever any one brake temperature is more than 300 deg C and brake fan
not selected.
c. Whenever any one brake temperature is over heated.
d. Whenever any one brake temperature is more than 500 deg.c and brake
fan not selected.
4. What are the indications if autobrake is disengaged by brake pedals after reducing
the speed to taxi speed.?
a. No indication
b. AUTO BRK indication in wheel page turns to amber.
c) AUTO BRK indication in wheel page flashes green
d. As in (a) and ON blue light extinguishes in Autobrake panel.
5. What happens to brake system if G system fails during landing roll ?

(Auto brake is not armed )
a. Normal brake is lost and alternate brake takes over.

b. As in (a) and there is no indication.
c. As in (a) and it is indicated by triple brake pressure gauge and ECAM warning
d) As in (a) and it is indicated by triple brake pressure gauge and ALTN BRAKE
green indication in wheel page.
6. Which LG CIU supply signals to LDG GEAR indication panel ?
a. Only No. 2 LGCIU

b. Only No. 1 LGCIU
c. Operating LGCIU
d. Normally LGCIU 1, if No.1 fails then LGCIU 2.
50
7. During Landing Gear extension if any one gear fails to reach down locked position
what are the indications
a. Landing Gear position indicates RED triangles in wheel page.

b. Corresponding UNLK red light remains ON with L/G CTL amber message
in wheel page.
c. GEAR NOT DOWN LOCKED red ECAM message with master warning 30 seconds
after Landing Gear selection
8. What happens to steering if Captain side rudder pedal DISC pb is pressed ?
a. Nose wheel steering by rudder pedal on Captain side is lost.

b. Nose wheel steering by rudder pedal on F/O side is lost.
c) Nose wheel steering by rudder pedal is lost on both sides
d. Nose wheel steering and rudder pedal steering are both lost.
9. In which braking modes, the brake pressure is indicated on the triple pressure gauge
a. Normal brakes and parking brakes.

b) Alternate Brakes Alternate Brakes without anti skid and parking brakes.
c. Alternate Brakes, Auto brakes and parking brakes.
d. Alternate Brakes, Normal brakes and parking brakes
10. When do use Landing Gear gravity extension procedure ?
a. ADP 1 and ADP 2 falls in flight.

b) Both blue and yellow systems fall in flight
c. If anyone LGCIU falls in flight.
12. What warnings will come if Landing Gear is not selected down, both RA failed and
CONFIG 3 position ?
a. Master warning CRC with GEAR NOT DOWN message.

b. Master warning CRC and red arrow illuminates with GEAR NOT DOWN message.
c. Master warning CRC GEAR NOT DOWN LOCKED message
d) Nor warnings will come.
13. L/G CTL indication on lower ECAM will appear in amber
a). When L/G lever is not agreement in with L/G position.

b. When L/G lever is not extended at Radio altitude of 750 feet.
c. When L/G lever is not retracted after 80 seconds of take off .
d. When L/G doors are not closed with L/G retracted.
14. Which mode of brake operation is affected if auxillary low Hydraulic pressure (LP
distribution line) is lost ?
a. Normal brakes and auto brakes

b. Normal brakes and parking brakes
c) Alternate brakes with or without anti skid
d. Normal brakes and alternate brakes with anti skid.
51
15. When does LGCIU computer change over take place ?
a) If operating LGCIU falls other LGCIU takes over.

b. During landing gear extension cycle or operating LGCIU falls.
c. When landing gear lever is selected to UP
16. When does the safety valve in Landing Gear hydraulic line close
a) Landing Gear is UP and speed more than 260 kts.

b. Whenever speed is more than 250 kts.
c. Whenever speed is more than 250 kts or during gravity extension.
17. When do UNLK red lights extinguish in LDG GEAR indicator panel.
a. During retraction when gear is up locked and hydraulically operated door(s)

is (are) closed
b. During retraction when gear is down locked and hydraulically operated
door (s) is (are) closed.
c) Whenever gear reaches the selected position.
18. What indications comes for auto brake disengagement.
a. AUTO BRK indication colour changes to amber.

b) AUTO BRK green indication flashes for 10 seconds and AUTO BRAKE pb
light will extinguish
c. AUTO BRK green indication will disappear and auto brake pb light will extinguish
d. AUTO BRK ECAM message comes on E/W display unit.
52
FLIGHT CONTROLS
1. Which dual Hydraulic system failure makes THS inoperative ?
a. Blue and Green system

b. Blue and Yellow system
c) Green and Yellow system
d. Both (a) and (b) are effected.
2. Which dual hydraulic failures do not affect the flight control laws ?
a. Blue and Green system.

b) Blue and Yellow system
c. Green and Yellow system
3. How do you retract ground spoilers if ground spoilers are deployed automatically ?
a. Moving anyone thrust lever forward.

b. As in (a) or by pushing down the speed brake control lever.
c) Only by moving both thrust levers forward.
4. Which are the occasions Rudder Trim switch does not control rudder ?
a. When you fly with Auto Pilot engaged.

b. When both FAC 1 and FAC 2 failure or Autopilot engaged.
c. When Both Green and Yellow hydraulic pressure are lost
5. What happens to Slat / Flaps if aircraft speed is less than 210 kts and flap is
retracted from 2 to 1 ?
a. Flaps will retract to 0

b) Flaps retract to 1 + F CONFIG
c. As in (b) and Vmax warning is triggered.
d. Stats and Flaps will retract to 0
6. When speed brakes retract automatically ?
a. If speed is less than 180 kts.

b) If angle of attack protection is active for flaps is FULL.
c. If RA is less than 1000 feet
7. What is the warning if both L & H elevator fault occurs in flight and how do you
control aircraft pitch ?
a. ECAM message with master caution and pitch control by trim wheel.
b. ECAM message with master caution and CRC, pitch control by side stick
c) ECAM message with master warming and CRC, pitch control is by trim wheel only
d. Master warning, CRC ECAM message, pitch control by either side stick or
pitch trim wheel
53
8. What are the functions available, in Yaw alternate law ?
a) Yaw damping function

b. Yaw damping and turn coordination
c. Turn coordination function only
d. Rudder limiter system only
9. When are wing tip brakes activated ?
a. In case of flap / stat asymmetry

b) As in (a) or case of flap /slat uncommanded movement
c. In case of SFCC 1 and SFCC 2 fault
10. What happens to rudder limiter system if both FAC fail in flight ?
a. Rudder limiter system goes to low speed configuration if flap is extended

b) Rudder limiter system goes to low speed configuration if slats are extended.
c. Rudder limiter system goes to low speed configuration when speed is less than
250 kts and L/G down
d. Rudder limiter system remains in HI speed configuration.
11. When does PITCH TRIM indication become amber in F/CTL page ?
a. If THS is out take off range.

b) If THS is jammed.
c. If G or Y system pressure is low
d. If pitch back up law is active.
12. In pitch NORMAL law the aircraft goes into flare mode
a. When flaps are extended.

b. When passing through 50 feet
c. When passing through 30 feet
d. When landing gear is extended.
13. Which surfaces are used for LAF function ?
a. Ailerons and No.4 spoilers on both wings.

b. Ailerons and No.3 & No.5 spoilers if No.4 is inoperative on both wings.
c. Ailerons and 2 to 5 spoilers on both wings.
d. Only 2 to 5 spoilers on both wings.
14. What is the bank angle after which positive spiral stability is introduced ?
a. 33 degrees
b. 45 degrees
c. 40 degrees
d) As in (a) spiral stability starts from 0 deg if high speed protection is active.
54
15. When is the LAF DEGRADE message displayed on F/CTL page
a. Whenever slat / flap WTB is energized

b. Whenever the flap lever is not in zero position
c) One LAF accumulator failure
d. Whenever the direct law is active
16. What are the protections lost in Pitch Alternate Law without protections as compared
to Pitch Alt Law with protection ?
a. Low speed stability and Hi speed stability are lost.

b. As in (a) and LAF is lost
c. Pitch altitude protection is lost
17. When MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY message is displayed on the PFD
a) If both L & R elevator fault is detected.

b. If both G & Y system fail in flight
c. Whenever pitch direct law is operative
18. Selecting the take off at 55 kts which facilities are not available ?
a) Ground spoiler and auto brakes

b. Auto brakes and manual brakes
c. Manual brakes and thrust reversers
d. Thrust reversers only
19. How do you know that pitch direct law is active in flight
a. In bank angle protection green dash symbols turn to amber crosses and
no PFD message.
b) In bank angle protection green dash symbols turn to amber crosses and
USE MAN PITCH TRIM amber message on FMA
c. If bank angle protection green dash symbols turn to amber crosses and
MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY red message on FMA
d. Use MAN PITCH TRIM message and green dashes in bank angle protection.
20. Which actions from the cockpit cause the side stick priority RED ARROW
light illumination in F/Os side and CAPT green light
a. When F/Os side take over pb is pressed.

b. When CAPTs side take over pb is pressed.
c. As in (a) and Capt side stick is not in neutral
d) As in (b) and F/Os side stick is not in neutral
21. What are protections in roll normal law ?
a. Maximum bank angle is limited to 45 Deg

b. Maximum bank angle is limited to 67 Deg.
c. Maximum roll rate is limited to 15 Deg / Sec
55
22. Which computer normally controls the roll function of the aircraft.?
a) ELAC 1 & all SEC

b. ELAC 2
c. Only ELAC 1
d. ELAC 1 and ELAC 2
23. Which engine thrust reverser is not available if SEC 1 fails ?
a. Both engine reversers

b. No 1 engine reverser
c. No. 2 engine reverser
d) Both engine reversers are available
24. What is the recommended action if the FLAP LOCKED message appear on the
ECAM after the flaps have crossed 3 and moving towards FULL for landing.
a. Retract the lever to 3.

b) Land with CONFIG FULL
c. Landing can be performed either CONFIG 3 or full
d. Do not follow the ECAM procedure
25. Failure of SEC 1 affects which spoilers operation ?
a) Spoiler 3 & 4
b. Spoiler 1 & 2
c. Spoiler 5 only
d. Spoiler 1 only
26. What are the protections available in pitch direct law ?
a. Only LOAD FACTOR protection is available

b. Load factor protection, low speed stability and HI speed stability are available
c) No protection is available
d. Only angle of attack protection is available.
27. When should the speed brake not to be used ?
a. If any one spoiler is in operative

b) If both elevators are faulty
c. As in (b) or if SEC 1 computer fails
a) After touch down pitch trim is automatically reset to zero provided green and yellow
system is pressurized.
b. Automatic pitch trim is available in direct law.
c. ELAC control remain synchronized with manually selected pitch trim positions.
d. It is not possible to control THS manually when auto trim function is available.
56
29. What are the effects of slats ALPHA SPEED lock function
a. It inhibits slats retraction at high angle of attack and / or low speed.

b. Flap operations is not affected by Alpha Speed lock function
c. Slats extension is still possible
d) All the above are correct
30. What are the indications if THS is jammed ? (MAN trim is not available )?
a. STABILISER JAM ECAM warning with master caution and force needed on
trim wheel is higher than normal
b. STABILISER JAM ECAM master warning and SC
c. STABILISER JAM ECAM waning with master caution and PITCH TRIM
indication in Amber in flight control page.
31. What happens to bank angle protection if high speed is operative ?
a. Bank angle is limited to 45 deg and spiral stability is lost.

b) Bank angle is limited to 45 deg and spiral stability is introduced from 0 deg
c. Bank angle is limited to 33 deg and spiral stability is introduced from 0 deg
d. Bank angle protection is lost.
32. During flight what happens to RUD TRIM selector and RESET pb is AP
is engaged.
a. RUD TRIM selector is inoperative and RESET pb is operative.

b) RUD TRIM selector is RESET pb is inoperative.
c. RUD TRIM selector is operative but RESET pb is inoperative
d. As in (a) and AP trim order is faster than RUD TRIM selector
33. In the side priority when RED ARROWA light illuminates in F/Os side and
CAPT green light
a. When F/O side take over pb is pressed.

b. When Capts side take over pb is pressed
c As in (a) and Capts side stick is not in neutral
d) As in (a) and F/Os side stick is not in neutral
34. What is ALPHA / SPEED LOCK FUNCTION in slat / flap system
a. This function inhibits slats refraction at high angle of attack or low speed.
b. This function inhibits flaps retraction at high angle of attack or low speed.
c. As in (b) the lever cannot be moved to 0 position
d. As in (b) the lever cannot be moved to0 position at low speed.
35. LAFD is operative
a) if flap is extended.
b. If flight is with pitch alternate law with protection
c. If speed is less than 250 kts
d. Al the above are correct.
57
36. What are the functions available, in Yaw alternate law

c. Turn coordination only
d. Rudder limited system only
37. Just below VR if Capt presses his take over push button , what are the
indications come
a. CONFIG warning with master warning and CRC

b. Only audio voice message sounds
c) Audio voice message sounds and red arrow light illuminates come.
d. Both (a) and (c) are correct
38. When does ground spoilers extend automatically if it is armed.
a. As soon as wheel speed more than 72 kts and any one thrust lever is in IDLE
b. As soon as wheel speed more than 72 kts and any one reverse thrust is selected
c) As soon as wheel speed more than 72 kts, and both thrust lever are in IDLE
d. As soon as ground sensor changes to GND mode
39. What are the protections available in pitch normal law
a. Manoeuvre protection
b. Pitch altitude protection. Hi angle of attack and Hi speed protection
c. Low speed stability and Hi speed stability
40. When Auto trim is frozen during flight in pitch normal law.
a. Whenever manual trim is operated.

b) As in (a) or whenever load factor is less than 0.5
c. Whenever bank angle is more than 45 deg.
41. Which computer control ROLL CONTROL during flight with Green system in op.
a. No. 1 ELAC
b. No. 2 ELAC
c) Both ELAC computers one for each aileron
d. Only SEC 1, 3 computers controls spoilers for roll control without ailerons
42. When speed brake should not be used.
a) If any one elevator is faulty.

b. If any one FAC is inoperative because VLS correction is not done
c. If any one spoiler is inoperative.
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43. What is the indication, if wing tip brakes are applied in the flap system
a) FLAPS LOCKED ECAM warning and flaps do not move.

b. FLAPS FAULT ECAM warning and flaps do not move.
c. FLAPS FAULT ECAM warning and both flaps and slats will move.
d. FLAPS FAULT ECAM warning both flaps and slats will not move.
44. On PFD speed scale, black and red barber pole appears below stall warning speed
a. In normal law when angle of attack protection (Alpha prot) is active.

b. In alternate law.
c. In direct law
45. After take off with flap lever is 1 position
a. Flaps automatically retract at 265 kts

b. Flaps and slats automatically retract at 210 kts
c. Slats automatically retract at 210 kts.
d) Flaps automatically retract at 210 kts.
46. What are the occasions in which rudder trim switch does not control rudder
a. When you fly with Autopilot engaged

b. When both FAC 1 and FAC 2 fail
c. When both Green and Yellow Hydraulic pressures are lost
59
HYD / LG TEST
1. How are the hydraulic reservoirs pressurized pneumatically.
a. By APU bleed directly.

b. By engine 2 bleed directly.
c) By engine 1 bleed directly or cross bleed duct
d. By engine 2 bleed directly or cross bleed duct.
2. When do you use RAT MAN ON pb
a. If blue electric pump is failed.

b) If there is a dual Hydraulic failure along with blue system.
c. As in (b) and only in approach RAT is extended.
d. If blue electric pump is over heated.
3. How will you recover the yellow system if it is lose due to LO LVL ?
a. Yellow system can be recovered in approach only by electric pump

b. Yellow system can be recovered in approach only by PTU
4. When does GREEN EDP fault light illuminate ?
a. On ground Green EDP pump pressure is less with eng

b. As in (a) or green reservoir is over heated
c. As green reservoir has low quantity or low air pressure
5. Blue electric pump pb switch is at AUTO with AC power available. When will the
pump be energized ? (Blue pump override pb is at OFF)
a. On ground, only after No. 2 engine is started.

b. On ground, only after No. 1 engine is started.
c) On ground, after any one engine is started.
d. In flight, only when an engine is operating.

b) Overheat of the pump itself.
d. In case of blue pump OVHT, the RAT must be extended
7. NORMAL HYDRAULIC POWER is provided by
a. Engine driven pumps for all systems.

b) Engine driven pumps for green and yellow, electrical pump for blue.
c. Electrical pumps for blue and yellow. Engine driven pump for green.
d. Engine driven pumps for green and blue, electrical pump for yellow
60
8. What happens to Landing Gear if Bogie Align ECAM fault triggers after lift off ?
a) Landing Gear cannot be selected to UP

b. Landing Gear retraction will not take place even though Landing Gear leaver is UP
c. Affected main Landing Gear cannot be retracted.
d. Only nose Landing Gear
9. Which LG CIU supply signals to LDG GEAR indication panel ?
a. Only No. 2 LGCIU

b) Only No. 1 LGCIU
c. Operating LGCIU
d. Normally LGCIOU 1, if NO 1 fails then LGCIU 2.
10. During Landing Gear extension if any one gear fails to reach down locked position,
What are the indications.
a. Landing Gear position indicates RED triangles in wheel page.

b. Corresponding UNLK red light remains ON with L/G CTL amber message
wheel page.
c. GEAR NOT DOWN LOCKED red ECAM message with master warning 3 seconds
after Landing Gear selection.
1. What happens when Nose Wheel Steering hand wheels & pedals are operated
simultaneously.
a. Hand wheels have priority.

b. Rudder pedals have priority
c. Both cannot be operated simultaneously.
d) Their signals are algebraically added.
2. In which braking modes, the brake pressure is indicated on the triple pressure
gauge.
a. Normal brakes and parking brakes

b) Alternate Brakes, Alternate Brakes without anti skid and parking brakes.
c. Alternate Brakes, auto brakes and parking brakes.
d. Alternate Brakes, Normal brakes and parking brakes.
3. When do you use Landing Gear gravity extension procedure ?
a. If ADR 1 and ADR 2 fail in flight

b) If both blue and yellow systems fail in flight.
c. If any one LGCIU fails in flight
4. L/G CTL indication on lower ECAM will appear in amber
a) When L/G lever is not agreement in with L/G position

b. When L/G lever is not extended at Radio altitude of 750 feet
c. When L/G lever is not retracted after 30 seconds of take off
d. When L/G doors are not closed with L/G retracted.
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5. Which mode of brake operation is affected if auxiliary low Hydraulic

pressure (LP distribution line) is lost ?
a. Normal brakes and auto brakes

b. Normal brakes and parking brakes
c) Alternate brakes with or without anti skid
d. Normal brakes and alternate brakes with anti skid.
6. When does LGCIU computer change over take place
a) If operating LGCIU fails, other LGCIU takes over

b. During landing gear extension cycle or operating LGCIU fails.
c. When landing gear lever is selected to UP
7. When does the safety valve in Landing Gear hydraulic line close.
a) Landing Gear is UP and speed more than 260 kts

b. Whenever speed is more than 250 kts.
c. Whenever speed is more than 250 kts or during graving extension
8. When do UNLK red lights extinguish in LDG GEAR indicator panel
a. During retraction, when gear is up locked and hydraulically operated door(s)

is (are) closed.
b. During retraction, when gear is down locked and hydraulically operated door(s)
is (are) closed.
c) Whenever gear reaches the selected position.
9. When Green system fails, what is the effect on Landing Gear.
a. Landing Gear extension is through Y sys Pr.

b. Landing Gear retraction is through Y sys Pr.
c) Landing Gear has to be extended manually by gravity
10. What are the hydraulic pumps
a. 2 EDPs for Green, 2 Electrical pumps for Y & RAT operated pump for Blue
b. 1 EDP each for G & Y, 1 PTU for G or Y, 1 electrical pump each for Y & B,
1 RAT operated pump for Blue and a hand pump for Y systems
c. 1 EDP & 1 electrical pump for G & Y, PTU & RAT operated pump for
Blue system, additionally 1 hand pump for Y.
d. 1 PTU & RAT for both G & Y, 2 electrical pumps in Blue & 1 EDP each for
G & Y.
62
11. Which dual Hydraulic system failure make THS inoperative ?
a. Blue and Green system.

b. Blue and Yellow system
c) Green and Yellow system
12. How do you retract ground spoilers if ground spoilers are deployed automatically?

b) As in (a) or by pushing down the speed brake control lever
c. Only by moving both thrust levers forward
13. What happens to Slat / Flaps if aircraft speed is less than 210 kts and flap is
retracted from 2 to 1.
a. Flaps will retract to 0.

b) Flaps retract to 1+ F CONFIG
c. As in (b) and V max warning is triggered
d. Slats and Flaps will retract to 0
14. What is the warning of both L & R elevator fault occurs in flight and how do you
control aircraft pitch ?
a. ECAM message with master caution and pitch control by trim wheel.
b. ECAM message with master caution and CRC pitch control by side stick.
c) ECAM message with master warming and CRC pitch control by trim wheel only
d. Master warning, CRC ECAM message, pitch control by either side stick
or pitch trim wheel.
15. What happens to rudder limiter system if both FAC fail in flight ?
a. Rudder limiter system goes to low speed configuration if flap is extended.

b) Rudder limiter system goes to low sped configuration if slats are extended
c. Rudder limiter system goes to low speed configuration when speed is less
than 250 kts and L/G down.
d. Rudder limiter system remains in HI speed configuration.
a. If THS is out take off range

b) if THS is jammed
d. If pitch back up law is active.
17. What is the bank angle after which positive spiral stability is introduced ?
a. 33 degrees
b. 45 degrees
c. 40 degrees
d) As in (a) spiral stability starts from 0 deg if high speed protection is active.
63
a) If both L & R elevator fault is detected.

c. Whenever pitch direct law is operative
19. Rejecting the take off at 65 knots which facilities are not available
a) Ground spellers and auto brakes

b. Auto brakes and manual brakes
c. Manual brakes and thrust reversers
d. Thrust reversers only
20. Which actins from the cockpit cause the side stick priority RED ARROW light
illumination in F/O side and CAPT green light
a. When F/Os side take over pb is pressed

b. When CAPTs side take over pb is pressed.
c. As in (a) and Capts side stick is not in neutral
d) As in (b) and F/Os side stick is not in neutral.
21. Which engine thrust reverser is not available if SEC 1 fails ?
a. Both engine reversers

b. No.1 engine reverser
c. No. 2 engine reverser
d) Both engine reversers are available.
22. What is the recommended action if the FLAP LOCKED message appear on the
ECAM after the flaps have crossed 3 and moving towards FULL for landing ?
a. Retract the lever to 3

b) Land with CONFIG FULL
c. Landing can be performed either CONFIG 3 or FULL
d. Do not follow the ECAM procedure.
23. Failure of SEC 1 affects which spoilers operation ?
a) Spoiler 3 & 4
b. Spoiler 1 & 2
c. Spoiler 5 only
d. Spoiler 1 only
24. What are the protections available in pitch direct law ?
a. Only LOAD FACTOR protection is available

b. Load factor protection, low speed stability and HI speed stability are available
c) No protection is available
d. Only angle of attack protection is available.
64
25. What is the effect of slats ALPHA / SPEED lock function.
a. It inhibits slats retraction at high angle of attack and / or low speed.

b. Flap operations is not affected by Alpha Speed lock function.
c. Slats extension is still possible
26. During flight what happens to RUD TRIM selector and RESET pb is AP is
engaged.
a. RUD TRIM selector is inoperative and RESET pb is operative.

b) RUD TRIM selector and RESET pb are inoperative
c. RUD TRIM selector is operative and RESET pb is inoperative.
d. As in (a) and AP trim order is faster than RUD TRIM selector
27. What are the functions available in Yaw alternate law

c. Turn coordination function only
d. Rudder limiter system only
28. Just before VR, if Capt presses his take over push button, what are the
indications come.
a. CONFIG warming with master warnings and CRC

b. Only audio voice message sounds.
c) Audio Voice message sounds and red arrow light illuminates on right side
29. When Auto trim is frozen during flight in pitch normal law
a. Whenever manual trim is operated.

b) As in (a) or whenever load factor is less than 0.5
c. Whenever bank angle is more than 45 deg
30. What is the indication, if wing tip brakes are applied in the flap system
a) FLAPS LOCKED ECAM warning and flaps do not move.

b. FLAPS FAULT ECAM warning and flaps do not move
c. FLAPS FAULT ECAM warning both flaps and slats will move
d. FLAPS FAULT ECAM warning both flaps and slats will not move.
31.
a. Slats and Flaps are not in Take off configuration

b) As in (a) or if pitch trim is not in take of range
c. Parking brake ON
65
32. The appearance of RA flag on both PFDs indicate that the
a. Radio altimeter No.1 has failed

b. PFD has failed
c) Both radio altimeters have failed
d. Aircraft has come below DH
33. In case of SDAC 1 + 2 fault
a. All ECAM cautions and warnings are lost

b. Only red warning, engine and fuel parameters are lost
c) ENG, FUEL, F/CTL, WHEEL sys pages will be available
d. It is for crew awareness only.
34. Subsequent to both ECAM DU failure, IF ECAM / ND TFR selected on to F/O side
a) EW display appears on ND 2
b. EW display appears on PFD 2
c. System display appears on ND 2
d. System display appears on PFD2
35. Landing memo appears
a. After selecting the L/G down

b) Below 1500 with L/G down
c. Below 800 with L/G down
d. Once the slats are extended during approach
36. During cruise with cruise page displayed, HYD page is called by choice. To get
back CRUISE page display.
a. Press cruise page pb

b) Press HYD page pb again
c. Press CLR pb twice
d. Pres STS pb.
37. Some of the warning flags which appear simultaneously on PFD and ND are
a. HDG, CHECK HDG, G/S, LOC

b. HDG, CHECK HDG, CHECK ALT, ALT
c. DH, V/S, G/S, LOC
d. HDG, CHECK HDG, ALT, CHECK ALT, CHECK ATT
38. Wx Radar display can be superimposed on NDU with mode selector at
a. PLAN mode only

b) All modes except PLAN mode
c. ARC mode only
d. ROSE modes only
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39. F-PLAN display is available on ND
a. All the ROSE modes

b. ROSE NAV mode only
c. PLAN mode only
d) ROSE NAV, ARC & PLAN mode
40. The time displayed on ND and lower ECAM is respectively of
a. Chrono and GMT

b.
41. The T/O MEMO appears automatically
a. 2 minutes after first engine start.

b. immediately after second engine start.
c) 2 minutes after second engine start
d. 2 minutes after electrical power ON
42. With low ECAM DU failed, if Advisery is triggered
a. The system page will be displayed on EW/D automatically

b. ADV message is displayed on EWD
c. Associated key on ECAM CTL page will flash.
43. On Lower ECAM (SDU) permanent data, ALT SEL information is displayed
in the units of
a) Meters, only if metric unit is selected on FCU

b. Feet, only if metric unit is not selected on FCU
c. Meter or feet as selected on FCU
d. Meter even if metric unit is not selected on FCU
44. The caution message have been suppressed by CLR PB. How can the caution
message be recalled.
a. By pressing the RCL key for minimum 3 secs

b) By pressing RCL key once momentarily
c. By pressing RCL key for a max of 3 seconds
d. It is not possible to recall caution messages.
45. VFE parallel amber lines on the SPD scale
a. Indicates the speed for S/F retraction during take off.

b. Indicates the speed for next flap extension during approach.
c. Indicates the speed at which flaps full is to be selected.
d. Displayed the speed at which over speed protection become active.
67
46. DH amber above radio altitude indication on PFD indicates
a. DH information failure
b. DH not entered on MCDU
c) Aircraft has reached DH which was inserted on MCDU
d. Aircraft is above DH as selected on MCDU
47. When does the last line of the LDG memo reads
FLAPS . CONF 3
a) When on GPWS panel, LDG FLAP 3 pb sw is ON

b. When landing with flaps 3 is planned on MCDU
c. LDG memo always shows flaps . Config 3
48. If DMC 2 fails
a. DMC 3 will automatically take over

b. There will be diagonal lines on PFD2, ND2 and DMC 3 has to be switched
to FO3 manually.
c) DMC3 has to be switched manually to FO3
d. It is only crew awareness.
49. The trip of the speed trend arrow
a. Indicates that the aircraft is going to reach OVERSPEED condition

b. Indicates the speed that the aircraft will attain if pilot follows it,
by accelerating the speed.
c. Can be pointing up or down depending on whether the aircraft is
descending or climbing.
d). Indicates the speed the aircraft will attain in 10 seconds if acceleration
is kept constant.
50. The actual track symbol
a) Appears on both PFD & ND in the form of a green diamond

b. Appears on PFD in blue coloured diamond if selected from FCU
c. Appears on PFD & ND is magenta coloured diamond if given by the FMGC
d.
51. CHECK HDG flag in amber colour appears
a. ON PFD 1 and PFD 2 if discrepancy of heading between CAPT & F/O

side is greater than 5 deg.
b. ON ND1 and ND2 if discrepancy of heading between CAPT & F/O
c. On PFD and ND on both sides if emergency of landing between CAPT
& F/O side is greater than 5 deg.
d) As in (c) and an ECAM caution on EWD reads HEADING DISCREPANCY
along with single chime and master caution
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52. In flight if UTC on the lower ECAM DU is lost
a. It can be recovered by feeding manually from MCDU

b) The CFDIU takes over automatically
c. DMC will start giving UTC from its own clock.
d. None of the above are correct.
53. The Electromechanical Vibrator of STBY altimeters operates
a) In flight
b. On ground
c. On ground or in flight
d. When vibrator switch is selected ON
54. Steady ALIGN flight indicates
a) Alignment is in progress
b. Inertial function of IR is lost
c. Alignment fault
d. Complete failure of ADIRU
55. CRS selection on the STBY / CRS window on RMP is possible
a. Once any NAV key is selected and manually setting the CRS with rotary knob
b) After NAV key selection and frequency set, the frequency is transferred to active
window
c. Only when the CRS coding is transferred to active window CRS selection will
be effective.
d. All the above are wrong.
56. RMP is used for
a. Communication only
b. Radio navigation when used as back up mode for Radio Navigation receivers
but not for communication.
c) Communication as well as back mode for radio navigation receivers tuning.
d. Always used for communication as well as for automatic tuning for FMGC
57. In A320 Weather Radar
a. The range of radar is selected from Weather Radar control panel

b. Weather image is available in all modes on ND
c. Weather image is taken off from PFD automatically in case of
avionics ventilation problems.
d) None of the above is correct.
58. SEL light on RMP 3 illuminates when
a. HF 1 is selected on RMP 3
b. HF 2 is selected on RMP 3
c) HF 1 is selected on RMP 1
69
d. VHF is selected on RMP 1
59. The turbulence function on Wx Radar is available
a. Upto 160 nm
b. Upto 80 nm
c) Upto 40 nm
e. Upto 320 nm
60. Aircraft is at 2000 feet Radio Altitude. For excessive rate of desceat, the GPWS warning
will be.
a. Dont sink
b. Terrain terrain
c) Sink rate
d. Too low terrain
61. To use GCR function on Wx Radar
a. Gain must be auto and any range uto 320 nm

b. Gain may be manual or auto
c) Any range upto 80 nms
62. In case of Radio Altimeter 1 fault
a) GPWS is lost
b. GPWS is taken over by RA2
c. Barometric altimeter keeps supplying the GPWS
d. None of the above is correct
63. GPWS system can be tested by
a) Pressing test pb on GPWS panel

b. Pressing GPWS light, if aircraft is on ground
64. What does the illumination of ON BAT light on ADIRU CDU indicate
a. One ore more ADIRU is supplied by aircraft battery only

b) As in (a) and it will also be on for a few seconds at the beginning of alignment
c. As in (b) and it will come on during fast realignment also
d. Atleast one ADIRU is not fully serviceable.
65. When is the fast realignment to be used.
a. During every transit stop

b. If the IR mode rotary selector is kept in OFF for more than 5 seconds
c) With the aircraft stationary, if residual ground speed value of greater than
5 kts is observed on ADIRU, CDU or ND
d. If the normal alignment fails or ALIGN light flashes.
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66. The Altitude Alert is inhibited.
a. When the slats are put with L/G selected down.

b. In Approach after Capture of G/S
c. When L/G is down locked.
67. The yaw bar on PFD is displayed when the aircraft is
a. Above 30 feet during take off.

b. Below 30 feet during landing.
c. During take off until a/c reaches 30 feet
68. DFDR records the a/c parameters for the last.
a) 25 hours
b. 50 hours
c. As in (a) and then tape is to be changed
d. As in (b) and then tape is to be changed
69. What does the blue areas signify in DCT mode of weather radar
a. The rainfall is very less.

b) The calibration range is exceeded, weather radar is not able to determine rainfall
in this area.
c. The rainfall is very high
d. The weather radar energy has penetrated the target.
70. With EIS / DMC XFR sw is NORMAL which DMCs supply to different DUs
a. DMC 1 supplies to PFD1, ND1 both ECAMs

b. As in (a) and DMC2 supplies to PFD2, ND2 both ECAMs
c. DMC1 suppliers to PFD1, ND1, upper ECAM
d) As in (c) and DMC 2 supplies to PFD2, ND2, lower ECAM
71. If the lower ECAM display unit falls, the System / Status page can be made available
a. On either ND by means of ECAM / ND XFR selector

b. On upper ECAM by pressing and holding related system page push button
on ECAM control panel
c. On upper ECAM, automatically
72. What happens to amber caution when EMERG CANC pb is pressed
a. MASTER CAUTION lights go off, ECAM caution also goes off.

b. STATUS page is called, name of caution is given under CANCELLED CAUTION
c) Both (a) and (b)
d. As in (b) MASTER CAUTON lights go off, but ECAM caution stays ON.
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73. If difference in roll altitudes between the 2 PFDs are more than 5 deg, what are the
indications.
a) CHECK ATT flags on both PFDs, ECAM caution

b. CHECK ATT flags on faulty PFDs, ECAM caution
c. CHECK ATT flags on both PFDs, ATT flags on both PFDs
d. Only ECAM caution
74. Vertical speed information display on PFD is normally
a. Inertial information
b. Baron Information
c) Inertial information, but if it fails, baro information is displayed
d. Baro information, but if it fails, inertial information is displayed.
75. What do the LOC and / or GS red flag denote
a. LOC and / or GS transmitter have failed

b) LOC and / or GS receivers have failed
c. LOC and / or GS deviations are excessive
d. All the above.
76. During cruise, on SD the CRUISE page disappears, a system page appears
and a parameter is found flashing. What does it mean ?
b. It is level 1 caution
c. It is level 2 caution
d. It is level 3 caution
77. In case of failure of FWC 1 2 the following are available
a. Radio height call out

b. Master Warming Lights
c. Landing Distance Increment Computations
d) ECAM system pages
78 The DFDR is automatically de-energised.
a. On ground after both engines running

b. In flight with either engine running
c. On ground during the first 5 minutes after electrical power ON
d) On ground after 5 minutes of last engine shut down.
72
79. RMP 1 and RMP 2 are dedicated to
a. VHF 1 & HF2 respectively

b. HF 1 & HF2 respectively
c. HF 1 & VHF2 respectively
d) VHF1 & VHF2 respectively
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IRS
1. With aircraft on ground if take off CONFIG pb switch is depressed, CONFIG warning
will be triggered provided.
a. Slats and Flaps are not in Take off configuration.

b. As in (a) or if pitch trim is not in take off range.
c. Parking brake ON
2. The top end of the black / red Barber pole on Lower right side of speed scale indicates
a. V prot
b. V max
c. V floor
d) Vsw
3. The appearance of ILS 1 Red flag on PFD 1 indicates
a. ILS frequency is not available

b. Either LOC or G/S signals have failed
c. LOC & G/S signals both have failed
4. Wind direction is displayed on ND in numeric and Analog form. Mark the correct
statement
a. Wind direction is given w.r.t. magnetic north in numeric form

b. Wind direction is given w.r.t. true north in Analog form
c) Wind direction is given w.r.t. magnetic north in Analog form
d. Wind direction is displayed in Analog form only if wind speed is more than 20 knots.
5. The appearance of RA flag on both PFDs indicate that the
a. Radio altimeter No.1 has failed.

b. PFD has failed.
c) Both radio altimeters have failed
d. Aircraft has come below DH
6. The Emergency call indications in the cockpit are as follows.
a. EMER CALL light ON and Buzzer once.

b. EMER CALL light ON and Buzzer two times
c. EMER CALL light ON and continuous Buzzer
d) EMER CALL light ON and Buzzer three times
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7. In case of SDAC 1 + 2 fault
a. All ECAM cautions and warnings are lost.

b. Only red warnings, engine and fuel parameters are lost.
d. It is for crew awareness only.
8. In case of FWC 1 + 2 fault
a. All ECAM system pages are available

b. ECAM cautions and warnings are lost
c. MC and MW lights are lost
9. Subsequent to both ECAM screen failure, if ECAM / ND TFR selected onto F/O side
a) E/W display appears on ND2

b. E/W display appears on PFD 2
c. System display appears on ND2
10. Landing memo appears
a. After selecting the L/G down

b) Below 1500 with L/G down
c. Below 800 with L/G down
d. Once the slats are extended during approach
11. During cruise, the cruise page displayed, HYD page is called by choice. To get back
CRUISE page display
a. Press cruise page pb

b) Press HYD page pb again
c. Press CLR pb twice
d. Press CTS pb
12. If the aircraft deviates from the selected FCU altitude. Altitude window will
a. Pulse with continuous C chord

b) Flash amber with continuous C chord
c. Flash yellow with C chord for 1.5 sec
d. Flash yellow with continuous C chord
13. V/S digital display turns amber
a. During descent at RA less than 2500 and V/S greater than 2000 / min
b. During descent at RA less than 1000 and V/S greater than 1200 / min
c) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
d. Both (a) and (b) are correct and is also applicable during climb phase.
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14. Some of the warning flags which appear simultaneously on PFD and ND are
a) HDG, CHECK, HDG, G/S LOC

b. HDG, CHECK, HDG, CHECK ALT, ALT
c. DH, V/S , G/S, LOC
d. HDG, CHECK HDG, ALT, CHECK ALT, CHECK ATT
15. WX Radar display can be superimposed on NDU with mode selector at
a. PLAN mode only

b) All modes except PLAN mode
c. ARC mode only
d. ROSE mode only
16. F-PLAN display is available on ND
a. All the ROSE modes

b. ROSE NAV mode only
c. PLAN mode only
d) ROSE NAV, ARC & PLAN mode
17. The time display on ND and lower ECAM is respectively of
a) Chrono and GMT

b. GMT and Chrono
c. GMT & ET
d. Chrono and ET
18 The T/O MEMO appears automatically
a. 2 minutes after first engine start

b. Immediately after second engine start
c) 2 minutes after second engine start
d. 2 minutes after electrical power ON
19. With low ECAM DU failed, if Advisory is triggered.
a. The system page will be displayed on EW/D automatically

b. ADV message is displayed on EW/D
c. Associated key on ECAM CTL panel will flash
20. On lower ECAM (SDU) permanent data, ALT SEL information is displayed in the units of
a) Meters, only if metric unit is selected on FCU

b. Feet, only if metric unit is not selected on FCU
c. Meter or feet as selected on FCU
d. Meter ever if metric unit is not selected on FCU
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21. The caution message have been suppressed by CLR pb , How can the caution message
be recalled
a. By pressing the RCL key for minimum 3 secs.

b) By pressing RCL key once momentarily
c. By pressing RCL key for a max of 3 seconds.
d. It is not possible to recall caution messages.
22. VFE parallel amber lines on the SPD scale
a. Indicates the speed for S/F retraction during take off.

b) Indicates the speed for next flap extension during approach
c. Indicates the speed at which flaps full is to be selected.
d. Display the speed at which over speed protection become active.
23. DH amber above radio altitude indication on PFD indicates
a. DH information failure
b. DH not entered on MCDU
c) Aircraft has reached DH which was inserted on MCDU
d. Aircraft is above DH as selected on MCDU
24. When does the last line of the LDG memo reads : FLAPS CONF 3
a) When the GPWS panel LDG FLAP 3 pb sw is ON

b. When landing the flaps 3 is planned on MCDU
c. LDG memo always shows Flaps. Config 3
25. What are the attention getters for FWS FWC 1 + 2 FAULT
a) Nothing
b. Single chime and MASTER CAUTION lights
c. Repetitive chimes and MASTER WARNING lights
d. As in (c) and these are not suppressed during take off or landing
26. If DMC2 fails
a. DMC 3 will automatically take over

b. There will be diagonal lines on PFD2, ND2 and upper ECAM and DMC3 has to be
switched to FO3 manually
c) DMC3 has to be switched manually to FO3
d. It is only crew awareness.
27. Advisory message appears
a. On lower ECAM DU in formal configuration because advisory does not come with any
attention getter.
b) On the EWD is mono ECAM configuration along with a flashing light on the associated
key on ECAM control panel
c. Always when an advisory is triggered.
d. On the EWS in normal configuration with attention getters.
77
28. The tip of the speed trend arrow.
a. Indicates that the aircraft is going to reach OVERSPEED condition.

b. Indicates the speed that the aircraft will attain if pilot follows it by accelerating the speed
c. Can be pointing up or down depending on whether the aircraft is descending or climbing
d) Indicates the speed the aircraft will attain in 10 seconds if acceleration is kept constant.
29. The actual track symbol
a) Appears on both PFD & ND in the form of a green diamond.

b. Appears on PFD in blue coloured diamond if selected from FCU
c. Appears on PFD & ND is magenta coloured diamond if given by the FMGC
d. Appears as a blue triangle if selected from FCU and magenta coloured triangle if given
by FMGC
30. CHECK HDG flag in amber colour appears
a. ON PFD 1 and PFD 2 if discrepancy of heading between CAPT & F/O side is greater
than 5 deg.
b. ON ND1 and ND2 if discrepancy of heading between CAPT & F/O side is greater
than 5 deg.
c. ON PFD and ND on both sides if discrepancy of heading between CAPT & F/O
d) As in (c) and an ECAM caution on EWD reads HEADING DISCREPANCY along with
single chime and master caution.
31. A320 aircraft clock
a) Has 2 electrical supplies, if normal fails, the other supply will keep supplying from
aircraft battery hot bus.
b. Has 2 electrical supplies, if normal ails the Internal battery of the clock takes over
c. As in (b) and time is memorized upto 50 hours
32. If flight if UTC on the lower ECAM DU is lost
a. It can be recovered by feeding manually from MCDU

b) The CFDIU takes over automatically
c. DMC will start giving UTC from its own clock
d. None of the above are correct.
a. After some failure and / or switching actions, PFD may appear on upper ECAM
b) After some failure and / or switching actions, EWD may appear on any of the
Capt or F/O side EFIS DU
c. As in (a) and PFD may appear on lower ECAM also.
d. (b) is correct only or Capt. Side EFIS DU
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34. During cruise on SD the CRUISE page disappears, a system page appears and
a parameter is found flashing. What does it mean ?
b. It is level 1 caution
c. It is level 2 caution
d. It is level 3 warning
35. Where would a failure message and the associated checklist appear ?
a. Only on the lower left area of the upper ECAM DU

b) On the lower left area of the EWD
c. On the right memo space of EWD
d. Only on the lower right area of the upper ECAM DU
36. With EIS/DMC XFR sw in NORMAL, which DMCs supply to different Dus
a. DMC1 supplies to PFD1, ND1 both ECAMs

b. As in (a) and DMC2 supplies to PFD2, ND2 both ECAMs
c. DMC1 supplies to PFD1, ND1, upper ECAM
d) As in (c) and DMC2 supplies to PFD2, ND2, lower ECAM
37. If the lower ECAM display unit fails, the System/ Status page can be made available
a. ON either ND by means of ECAM/ND XFR selector

b. On Upper ECAM by pressing and holding related system page push button on ECAM
control panel
c. On the Upper ECAM, automatically
38. When does the take off memo appear
a) Whenever TO CONFIG pb is pressed

b. During take off
c. After first engine start automatically
d. After first engine when TO CONFIG pb is pressed
39. What happens to amber caution when EMERG CANC pb is pressed.
a. MASTER CAUTION lts go off, ECAM caution also goes off

b. STATUS page is called, name of caution is given under CANCELLED CAUTION
c) Both (a) and (b)
d. As in (b), MASTER CAUTION lts go off, but ECAM caution stays ON
40. If difference in roll altitudes between the 2 PFDs are more than 5 deg, what are
the indications.
a. CHECK ATT flags on both PFDs, ECAM caution

b. CHECK ATT flag on faulty PFD, ECAM caution
c. CHECK ATT flags on both PFDs, ATT flags on both PFDs
d. Only ECAM caution.
79
41. What are the different indications on which cyan triangular symbol (to indicate
selected value) appear
a. AS ALT, HDG on PFD, HDG on ND

b) AS HDG / TRK on PFD, HDG / TRK on ND
c. AS HDG/TRK on PFD only
d. HDG/TRK ON PFD, ND
42. The lower end of black/red barber pole on top right side of speed scale indications
a. Vmo
b. Vmo + 6
c) As in (a) or speed corresponding to MMO
d. As in (b) or speed corresponding to MMO + 0.01
43. Vertical speed information display on PFD is normally
a. Inertial information
b. Baro information
c) Inertial information but if it fails, baro information is displayed
d. Baro information, but if it fails, inertial information is displayed
44. What do the LOC and / or GS red flag denote
a. LOC and / or GS transmitter have failed

b) LOC and / or GS receiver have failed
c. LOC and / or GS deviations are excessive
d. All the above
45. What does the flashing amber alt window indicate
a. A/c is approaching FCU selected altitude

b. A/c is deviating from FCU selected altitude
c. As in (a) and it is accompanied by continuous C chord
d) As in (b) and it is accompanied by continuous C chord
46. The Altitude Alert is inhibited
a. When the slats are out with L/G selected down

b. In approach after Capture of G/S
c. When L/G is down locked
47. On which DU, the wind information appear
a. PFD
b. ND in all modes
c. ND in all rose modes
d. ND in all modes except PLAN
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48. Which combination of bearing pointers is not possible on ND
a) VOR 1, ADF1 on ND2

b. ADF1, VOR2 on ND1
c. VOR2, ADF1 on ND1
d. ADF2, VOR2 on ND1
49. What are the warning / cautions for both FWC failure
a. Nothing except ECAM caution

b. Red M/W lts , CRC , ECAM warnings
c. Amber M/C lts , SC, ECAM caution
d) As in (a) and it is not suppressed during any phase of the flight
50. After take off in configuration 1 + F the symbol appearing on Right Side of
speed scale will be
a. F
b) S
c. F or S depending upon air speed
d. F and then S
51. On ground, if 10000 feet altitude is selected on FCU, it would be indicated on PFD
a. In the first column of FMA

b. Below altitude scale
c) At the top of altitude scale
d. By a cyan symbol on altitude
52. When does STD indication below ALT scale pulse
a. Whenever baro know is pulled for 9 secs

b) STD is selected below transition level
c. STD is selected above transition level
d. ONH is selected below transition level
53. What do the blue line and red ribbon in ALT scale on PFD mean
a. Both denote radio altitude

b) Landing elevation, ground reference
c. Both denote ground reference
d. Both denote the landing elevation.
54. The yaw bar on PFD is displayed when the aircraft is
a. Above 30 feet during take off

b. Below 30 feet during landing
c. During take off until a/c reac/hes 30 feet
81
55. When a diagonal line on upper ECAM appears
a. E/W display will appear automatically on lower ECAM

b. It indicates partial failure on DMC 2
c. It indicates partial failure on DMC1
56. In case of failure of FWC 1 + 2, the following are available
a. Radio height call out

b. Master warning lights
c. Landing Distance Increment Computations
d) ECAM system pages
57. Both ECAM Dus have failed and ECAM/ND TRF switch selected to F/O side
a. SD appears on ND2
b) EW/D appears on ND2
c. As in (a) and SD appears on PFD2 if PFD/ND transfer switch is pressed.
d. No transfer takes place.
58. The aircraft is on ground and the take off power is applied. The master warning
lights will flash, with red CONFIG ECAM message if
a. Speed brakes extended

b. Door not closed
c. Flex Temp not set
59. If both SDACs fall
a. All red warnings are lost

b) No more Amber cautions are given
c. All systems pages are lost
d. All red warnings and amber cautions are lost
60. The Ground Reference indication on PFD altitude scale is given by
a. Horizontal blue line below 570 feet

b) Red ribbon below 570 feet 0
c. Red ribbon below transition level
d. Horizontal blue line below transition level
82
NAVIGATION
1. The Electromechanical Vibrator of STBY altimeters operates
a) IN flight
b. On ground
c. On ground or in flight
d. When vibrator switch is selected ON
2. Steady ALIGN flight indicates
c. Alignment fault
3. CRS selection on the STBY/CRS window on RMP is possible
a. Once any NAV key is selected and manually setting the CRS with rotary knob
b) After NAV key selection and frequency set the frequency is transferred to active window
c. Only when the CRS setting is transferred to active windows CRS selection will be
effective
d. All the above are wrong.
4. Aircraft is at 2000 feet Radio Altitude. For excessive rate of descent the GPWS
warning will be
a. Dont sink
b. Terrain terrain
c) Sink rate
d. Too low terrain
5. FAULT amber lt on IR flashing means
a) FAULT is detected and will be associated with ECAM caution

b. IR function is lost but it can be used in ATT mode & HDG mode
c. Difference is Lat / Long
d. Alignment fault
6. RMP is used for
a. Communication only
b. Radio navigation when used as backup mode for Radio Navigation receivers but
not for communication
c. Communication as well as back mode for radio navigation receivers tuning
d. Always used for communication as well as for automatic tuning for FMGC
7. IN A320 Weather Radar
a. The range of radar is selected from Weather Radar Control Panel

b. Weather Image is available in all modes on ND
c. Weather Image is taken off from PFD automatically in case of avionics ventilation
problems
83
d) None of the above is correct.
8. On STBY altimeter the altimeter baro reference
a. Can be in inches of mercury or hectopascals

b. Inches of mercury only
c. Depends on the unit selected on PFD controller
d) Hectopascals only
9. In case of Radio Altimeter 1 fault
a) GPWS is lost
b. GPWS is taken over by RA2
10. GPWS system can be tested by
a. Pressing test pb on GPWS panel

b. Pressing GPWS light, if aircraft is on ground
c. As in (a) and aircraft is in flight upto 1000 ft
d) As n (b) or aircraft is in flight above 1000 ft but below 8000 ft
11. What does the illumination of ON BAT flight on ADIRU CDU indicate ?
a One or more ADIRU is supplied by aircraft battery only

b) As in (a) and it will also be on for a few seconds at the beginning of alignment
c. As in (b) and it will come on during fast realignment also
d. Atleast one ADIRU is not fully serviceable
12. When is the fast realignment to be used

c) With the aircraft stationary, if residual ground speed value of greater than 5 kts
is observed on ADIRU CDU or ND
d. If the normal alignment fails or ALIGN light flashes
13. On GPWS control panel, LDG FLAP 3 ON" is selected, What will be the last
line on LDG memo
a) FLAP . CONFIG 3
b. FLAP . FULL
c. FLAP . FULL or CONFIG 3
d. FLAP . CONFIG 2
14. In Rose NAV Mode, a specified runway is drawn to scale on ND in following ranges
a. 40, 80, 160 nm

b. 80, 160, 320 nm
c. 20, 40, 80 nm
d) 10, 20, 40 nm
84
15. Is it possible to have all the 3 types of NAV (ADV, VOR, ILS) information on ND2 ?
If yes, in which mode ?
a. No.
b. Yes in all modes.
c) Yes in ROSE ILS/ Mode
d. Yes in any ROSE Mode
16. The DFDR is automatically de-energized
a. On ground after both engines running

b. In flight with either engine running
c. On ground during the first 5 minutes after electrical power ON
d) On ground after 5 minutes of last engine shut down.
17. What happens if RA1 fails
a. RA flag appears on PFD1

b. RA2 supplies to PFD1
c. As in (a) and GPWS FAULT it comes on
d) On ground after 5 minutes of last engine shut down
18. The flashing if 1 R fault light on ADIRS CDU can be due to
a. Complete failure of IRS

b. NAV facility of IRS is lost
c) As in (b) and ATT information may be recovered.
d. As in (b) and ATT information cannot be recovered
19. What does the flashing of an ALIGN it. Indicate
a. Alignment is in progress
b) Present position is not entered within 10 mins
c. Alignment is completed
d. Fault in ADIRU
20. When does the ON BAT light on ADIRU CDU come on
a. One or more IRS are working on BAT

b. Initially while switching on an ADIRU in case of normal alignment
c) Both (a) and (b)
d. Both (a) and (b) but also during fast alignment.
21. What are the courses for STBY Alt. A/S
a. STBY PITOT STBY static

b. ADM on STBY Pitot ADMs on each STBY static
c) ADM on STBY Pitot, ADM on cross connected STBY static
d. STBY Pitot ADM on cross connected STBY static
85
22. What is the total no. of heading indications in the Cockpit.
a. 4
b. 6
c. 5
d) 7
23. The ND mode in which VOR, ILS & ADF can be simultaneously presented is
a) Rose ILS
b. Rose VOR
c. Rose NAV
d. PLAN
24. What is the duration of quick Access Recorder (QAR) tape
a) 50 hrs
b. 25 hrs
c. As in (a) and it is an endless tape
d. As in (b) and it is an endless tape
a. Upto 160 nm
b. Upto 80 nm
c) Upto 40 nm
d. Upto 320 nm
26. What does the blue areas signify in RCT mode of weather radar
a. The rainfall is very loss

b) The calibration range is exceeded weather radar is not able to determine
rainfall in this area.
d. The weather radar energy has penetrated the target
a. Both ILS/ DMEs can be controlled from RMP1 if RMP2 switch is OFF
b. Both ILS/DMEs can be controlled from RMP2 if RMP1 switch is OFF
c) Both ILS/DMEs can be controlled from either RMP provided both
RMPs are set to ON
28. RMP1 and RMP2 are dedicated to
a. VHF1 & HF2 respectively

b. HF1 & HF2 respectively
c. HF1 & VHF2 respectively
d) VHF1 & VHF2 respectively
86
29. DFDR records the a/c parameters for the last
a) 25 hours
b. 50 hours
c. As in (a) and then tape is to be changed
d. As in (b) and then tape is to be changed
30. It is desired to cancel loud Glide Slpe aural warning. How shall it be done ?
a. It is not possible
b. By selecting GPWS MODE sw to OFF
c) By pressing any one of GS amber light
d. By selecting GPWS sw to OFF
31. To test GPWs a/c should be
a. On ground
b. In flight
c On ground or in flight below 1000 feet
d) On ground or in flight above 1000 feet
32. The VOR 1 flag on DDRMI appears if
a. VBR 1 receiver fails

b. Compass signal of ADIRS 2 invalid
c) As in (a) or internal failure RMI
d. As in (b) or internal failure of RMI
33. The compass card of ADF RMI is driven by
a) ADIRU 1
b. ADIRU 2
c. ADIRU 3
d. ADIRU 1 or By ADIRU 3 if captain is on ADIRU 3
a. VOR DME can be displayed on PFDs & DDRMI

b. ILS DME can be displayed on PFDs and DDRMI
c) VOR DME can be displayed on NDs and DDRMI
d. ILS DME can be displayed on NDs and DDRMI
35. With ATC transponder switch selected to ON the transponder operates when
a. Aircraft is in flight, not on ground

b. Aircraft is on ground, not in flight
c) Aircraft is either on ground or flight
d. Aircraft is on ground and ALT reporting switch is ON
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36. Aircraft is at 2000 feet Radio Altitude. For excessive rate of descent, the GPWs
warning will be
a. Dont sink
b. Terrain terrain
c) Sink rate
d. Too low terrain
37. To use GCR function on Wx rate are
a. Gain must be auto and any range upto 320 nm

b. Gain may be manual or auto
c) Any range upto 80 nms
d. Both 9B0 and (c) are correct.
WATER WASTE SYSTEM
1. What is the capacity of water tank ?
a) 200 litres
b. 150 litres
c. 135 litres
d. 135 gallons
2. The capacity of water tank on A320 aircraft is
a) 200 litres
b. 135 litres
c. 30 US gallons
d. 36 US gallons
88
COMMUNICATIONS
1. SEL light on RMP 3 illuminates when
a. HF1 is selected on RMP3

b. HF2 is selected on RMP 3
c) HF1 is selected on RMP 1
d. VHF is selected on RMP 1
a. Upto 160 nm
b. Upto 80 nm
c) Upto 40 nm
d. Upto 320 nm
3. If CVR TEST button is pressed on ground & AUTO condition is met
a) Low frequency signal sounds through both loud speakers if parking brake
is ON and GND CTL button is pressed to ON.
b. Low frequency signal sounds through both loudspeakers irrespective of
parking brake position.
c. Low frequency signal sounds through both loudspeakers irrespective of
GND CTL button position
4. On Audio Control Panel, VHF 1 transmission key is selected and INT/RADIO

switch is selected to INT. On stick, Radio is selected, the speed will be
transmitted to :
a. VHF 1
b. INT
c. Speech cannot be directed anywhere unless ACP switch is released to neutral
d. Either VHF 1 or INT
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FMGS
1. When should the fast alignment of ADIRs be done
a. During every transit stops

b. If transit time is more than 1 hour
c) During transmit stops, if residual ground speed is more than 5 knots
d. If ADIRU are switched for less than one hour
2. What is to be checked about IRS drift during parking checklist by accessing the
POSITION MONITOR page
a. If drift is less than 2 2t it is acceptable, where (t) is the time in hours for which
ADIRU is in NAV mode .
b. If drift is between 2 + 2t and 3+3t it should be checked for next flight.
c. If drift is more than 3+3t, it is not acceptable
3. If ILS1 falls, what are the inoperative systems
a. Only CAT 2
b) ILS indications on Capt. PFD, Co-pilots ND, CAT 2 are lost
c. ILS indications on Capt. PFD, ND, CAT2 are lost
d. ILS indications on Capt. PFD, F/O, ND, CAT 2 , FMGS 1 are lost
4. What is the advantage of SEC mode in Wx Radar
a. Weather Radar Antenna life lift is increased

b. NDS life is increased
c) Faster update of the weather picture
d. All the above
5. Regarding bleed system, which statement is correct
a) APU bleed has priority over Engine 1 & 2

b. Engine bleed valve closes when BMC 1 fails
c. Due to BMC 2 fault, Right wing bleed leakage detection is lost
6. Yaw bar is displayed on PFD in the following mode
a. RWY mode only

b. Roll out mode only
c. TRWYTRK mode
d) RWY or ROLL OUT mode
7. The message on PFD FMA, reads as VERT DISCON AHEAD it means ?
a. There is F plan discontinuity ahead

b. OP_DES mode engaged and a TOO STEEP path exists ahead
c. DES mode engaged and F-Plan discontinuity exists ahead
d) DES mode engaged and a TOO STEEP path exists on the next leg.
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a. Lateral and vertical revisions are possible on a temporary F-Plan

b) DIRECT TO function, when used, erases a temporary F-Plan
c. Pressing the AIRPORT key erases a temporary F-Plan
9. When alternate predictions are calculated, which of the following are considered ?
a. Flight Level 310, if airway distance less than 200 NM, FL 350 otherwise
b. Cost index 20
c) Aircraft weight equal to landing weight at primary DEST
10. If autopilot is engaged without FD ?
a) HDG and Y/S modes are engaged

b. HDG and SPD modes are engaged
c. OP CLIMB and NAV modes are engaged
d. EXP CLIMB and NAV modes are engaged
11. NAV is armed on ground provided
a. F- PLAN is available and heading preset is selected on FCU

b. F-PLAN is available and no heading preset is selected on FCU
c) As in (b) and FDs are ON
d. F-PLAN is available and NAV aids are tuned manually on RMP
12. During take off phases, if both AP/FDs are switched OFF and if thrust
levers are selected to CLB gate ?
a. ATHR operates in THRUST Mode and current speed is maintained

b. ATHR operates in SPD Mode and V2 speed is maintained.
c. ATHR operates in THRUST Mode and V2 + 10 kts is maintained
d) ATHR operates in SPD Mode and V2 or current speed whichever is higher
is maintained.
13. The Thrust reduction altitude (THR RED ALT) on take off PERF page
a. Cannot be selected below 1500 feet

b. Cannot be selected below 2500 feet
c) Cannot be selected below 400 feet
d. Cannot be entered by the pilots
14. GO AROUND mode is engaged
a. By selecting thrust levers in the TO / GA position

b. Inflight provided flaps / slats handle is at zero
c. Both (a) and (b) are correct.
d) As in (a) and inflight when flaps / slats handle is not at zero.
91
15. After engine start it INITIALISE WEIGHTS message comes, gross weight
can be inserted on
a. Take off performance page

b. Progress page
c. Init page B
d) Fuel prediction page
16. Aircraft position determined by each FMGC is as follows
a. Before Take off, FMGC position is the IRS position

b. As take-off, FMGC position is updated to the runway threshold position
c. Before Take-off, FMGC position is the radio position from two DMEs
a. Both autopilots can be engaged on ground with engines not running

b) Both autopilots can be engaged in LAND or Go-Around mode
c. Only one autopilot can be engaged on ground with engines running
18. After take off, the vertical guidance by SRs is disengaged
a. Automatically at FCU altitude

b. By putting the speed knob
c) Automatically at ACC ALT
19. A NAV Aid is deselected on SELECTED NAV AIDS page
a. The CLR action on deselected Nav Aid above FMGC to use that Nav Aid again
b. The deselection cannot be cleared until after landing
c. The deselection is cleared when secondary data base is activated on aircraft
status page.
20. In normal law with all protections active, the AP will disconnect if
a. High speed protection is active

b. AOA protection is active
c. Bank angle is more than 45 deg
21. What happens when FCU altitude is brought above aircraft with the aircraft in
DESCENT mode ?
a. Aircraft reverts to OPEN DESCENT mode

b) Aircraft reverts to V/S mode and current V/S is maintained
c. Aircraft continues in DESCENT mode
d. Aircraft reverts to V/S mode, current V/S is maintained and aircraft starts
climb towards FCU altitude.
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22. VOR APPR is selected on ARRIVAL page, ILS is tuned on RAD NAV page,
What happens if APPR push button is pressed ?
a. ILS approach is automatically selected.

b. CHECK APPR GUIDANCE message will be displayed on MCDU and PFD
c. The available approach guidance mode is APP NAV / FINAL
23. COST INDEX on the DESCENT page
a. May be changed if needed even after DESCENT is engaged

b. Cannot be changed at all.
c. Is frozen and can no longer be changed after DESCENT is engaged
d) As in C and may be changed, if needed, before DESCENT is engaged
24. TEMP F-PLAN page is automatically displayed
a) If an entry of NEXT WAY POINT, NEW DEST or VIA / GO TO is made on the

LAT REV page
b. If SEC F-PLAN page is selected on MCDU and COPY ACTIVE prompt is pressed
c. If SEC F- PLAN page is selected on MCDU and ACTIVATE SEC prompt is pressed
d. When DIR to page is selected on MCDU
25. During take off and GA the speed window on the FCU displays
a. The speed manually inserted y the crew into the FCU and the light is out
b. The speed manually inserted by the crew into the MCDUI and the light is illuminated
c) Dashes and the light is illuminated provided Vs is available
d. 100 knots as the defaulted value.
26. On FMA, TOGA LK indication appears when
a) ATHR holds the TO/GA limit thrust and the aircraft has come out of alpha floor condition.
b. ATHR holds the TO/GA limit thrust and alpha floor condition being satisfied.
c. ATHR holds the TO/GA limit thrust and thrust levers being in TO/GA position
d. ATHR holds disengaged by ATHR push button with thrust levers in TO/GA position
27. When MANAGED GUIDANCE is working
a. FCU windows including ALT window are dashed

b. FCU windows shows the values selected by FMGC
c. FCU windows except ALT windows are dashed.
d) As in (c) and white dots illuminate on FCU next to each window
28. With the thrust levers in CLB gate, ATHR disengages. The engines thrust
a. Equals to climb thrust limits

b) Is frozen at the existing thrust
c. Corresponds to the thrust levers position
d. Progressively becomes equal to the thrust levers position
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29. The managed AP/FD lateral modes are
a. NAV, HDG, APPR, LOC, RWY, RWY TRK

b. HDG, NAV, APPR, LOC, GA TRK
c. HDG, NAV, GA, GA-TRK
d) NAV, APPR, LOC, RWY, RWY, TRK, GA TRK
30. The flight guidance functions are
a. Autopilot, flight plan, auto thrust

b. Autopilot, performance, flight plan
c) Autopilot, flight director, auto thrust
d. Flight management, Autopilot, auto thrust.
31. When one FMGC fails
a. The system works in SINGLE mode

b. The system works in INDEPENDENT mode
c. OPP FMGC IN PROGRESS message appears on MCDU
d) Both (a) and (c) are correct
32. With the aircraft in flight, AP engaged and ATHR active, the ATHR mode:
a. Can be chosen by the pilot on the FCU

b. Can be chosen by the pilot on the MCDU
c. Depends on AP lateral mode
d) Depends on AP vertical mode
33. In take off mode, SRS guidance will be displayed it
a. V2 is selected on FCU speed window

b. V2 is defined on MCDUI PERF T/O page
c. V2 is selected on FCU and flaps are extended
d) V2 is defined on MCDU and slats are extended.
34. If both FDs are set to OFF (with APs already OFF) when the aircraft is above
THR RED ALT and below ACCL ALT, target speed for ATHR is
a. 260 knots
b) Current speed
c. 100 knots
d. V2
35. For Take off, thrust levers are pushed to TOGA / FLEX gate with FD on and V2
defined on PERF TAKE OFF page.
a. ATHR engages automatically and ATHR push button illuminates on FCU

b. ATHR engages in TOGA LK
c) SRS mode is engaged
36. When entering F-Plan discontinuity

a. Managed guidance is maintained and it guides the aircraft to the next way
point assuming a direct leg.
b. Selected guidance is engaged in HDG V/S
c) As in (b) and predictions assume a direct leg from PPOS to the next way point
d. Selected guidance is engaged and no more prediction would be available.
94
a. When AP/FD acquires and holds on ALTITUDE, ATHR is engaged in thrust mode
b) When AP/FD acquires and holds a V/S, the ATHR is engaged in SPD / MACH mode
c. When AP/FD engaged, the ATHR is thrust mode
d. When AP/FD acquires to hold a SPEE D, the ATHR varies thrust to maintain
this selected speed.
38. The active F-Plan is erased when
a. The pilot calls the aircraft status page

b. The wheels touch the runway at landing.
c) The aircraft has been on ground for 30 seconds following the landing
d. One engine is shut down on the bay.
39. To preset a heading of 210 Degrees before take off.
a. Pull HDG knob to disarm NAV mode, set 210 Degrees and press HDG knob to engage.
b. Turn HDG knob, set 210 Degrees and pull to engage.
c) Turn HDG knob, set 210 Degrees, before take off pull HDG knob, when ATC clears
to turn to 210 Degrees after take off.
d. Push HDG knob to disarm NAV mode, set 210 Degree and pull HDG knob to engage.
40. To determine the aircraft position, FMGC used data from
a. DME, VOR or ILS systems

b. Clocks and Ground speed computation
c. Three ADIRS
41. The drift shown for the each IR on the last of the POSN MONITOR page is
a. Difference between the MIX IRS position and the individual IR position
b. Difference between the average FMGC position and the individual IR position
c. Difference between RADIO position and the individual IR position
d) Difference between on side FMGC position and the individual IR position
42. The Speed / Mach preselection facility on the PERF CLB, PERF CRUISE and
PERF DES page can be done .
a. Any time irrespective of the phase of the flight

b) Any time before aircraft enters the respective flight phase
c. Any time after the aircraft has entered the respective flight phase
43. NAV mode engages
a. At take off power application

b. At acceleration altitude
c. 30 seconds after lift off provided HDG PRESET is done
d) 30 seconds after lift off provided HDG PRESET is not done.
95
44. If a take off has been carried out without entering V2 on the PERF TAKE OFF page.
a. No vertical mode engages at take off power application

b) As in (a) and V/S engages 5 seconds after lift off.
c. SRS mode would still engage provided V2 is set on the FCU speed windows
d. SRS mode is not affected at all.
45. If gross weight has not been entered and the aircraft has taken off
a. Managed speed is not available for take off and V/S mode engages 5 seconds
after lift off.
b) When the aircraft leaves the SRS mode, the target speed becomes the current
speed and is no longer managed.
c. Aircraft will not come out of the SRS mode ever after acceleration altitude unless
the gross weight is reentered.
46. The lateral mode available during TAKE OFF before lift off
a) RWY mode is an ILS turned to a station corresponding to the departure runway

b. RWY TRK mode
c. RWY mode irrespective of an ILS is tuned or not
d. NAV mode
47. RWY TRK mode engages
a. At take off power application provided an ILS is tuned to a station corresponding

to the departure runway.
b) 30 seconds after lift off if NAV was not armed.
c. 30 seconds after lift off if V2 is not entered on the PERF TAKE OFF page.
d. As a lateral mode in the go-around phase
48. If the NAV mode is lost the affect on the DES mode is
a. No affect at all DES Mode continues

b. DES mode reverts to OP DES mode
c) DES reverts to V/S mode
d. No vertical mode is available without NAV mode. Second column of FMA goes blank.
49. On the PERF DESCENT page a speed other than ECON speed is entered on the
active mode.
a) Once the system switches to the descent phase, it sets the managed target to this
entered value and it is called auto speed.
b. Once the system switches to descent phase this speed is treated as selected speed
by the FG
c. Once the system switches to descent phase this speed is treated as managed target
and its value can be changed on the PERF DES page is required.
d. There is no provision for such an entry.
96
50. A go around has been carried out without setting thrust levers to TOGA position
a. This will sequence the destination and erase the active flight plan when flying
over or a beam the airport.
b. Carrying out a god around without setting TOGA thrust is not permitted.
c) As in (a) but if TOGA thrust is selected temporarily and then the THR lever is
retarded, the flight plan is not erased.
d. This will not have any effect on the flight plan.
51. NAV aid deselection can be done
a. On the RAD NAV page but these navaids can be tuned manually through IDENT only
b. On the RAD NAV page but these navaids can be tuned manually through
FREQUENCY only
c. On the SELECTED NAV AIDS page but these navaids cannot be tuned manually.
d) On the SELECTED NAV AIDS page but these navaids can be tuned manually
through frequency only
.
52. The vertical deviation VDEV shown on the PROGRESS page is an indication of
a. Altitude error as per the altitude constrains entered for the way point.
b. Likely height of the aircraft above the runway threshold and it is shown in the
APPROACH phase.
c. Deviation of the aircraft from the pre-planned cruise flight level when NAV mode
is engaged
d) Vertical deviation between the present altitude and the altitude at which the aircraft
would be if it were on the managed descent path when NAV mode is engaged.
53. Updating of FMGC position in flight is available from
a. POSN MONITOR page

b) PROGRESS page
c. UNIT A page
d. UPDATE page
54. If both the RUDDER TRAVEL LIMITATION functions fail in flight
a. Full rudder travel is available irrespective of the speed

b. Rudder travel limited to the value corresponding to the speed at which the failure
has taken place for the rest of the flight.
c) Rudder travel is limited to the value corresponding to the speed at which the
failure has taken place till the slats are extended and thereafter full authority is available
d. This has no affect whatsoever.
55. The FCU allows
a. Modification of flight plan of FM part

b) Selection of FG function modes
c. Selection of radio navigation frequencies
d. IRS alignment.
97
FUEL
1. When will the FUEL AUTO FEED FAULT Message
a. If centre tank becomes empty

b. Centre tank booster pumps running ever after slat extension
c. Centre tank booster pumps are running 5 mts after centre tank reaches LO level
2. What do you do if inner or outer cell High Fuel Temp warning comes ?
a. No action
b. Switch off the generator and delay the take off on ground
c. Switch off generator increase fuel flow if temp still high IDG OFF in flight
3. Fuel is stores in centre tank, in AUTO mode centre tank booser pumps
run on ground
a. During engine start for 2 minutes after engine start if the slats are extended
b) During engine start for 2 minutes after engine start if the slats are not extended
c. If wing tank booster pumps are off
d. If wing tank is not full
4. During take off which tank supplies fuel to engines
a. Centre tank supplies fuel to both engines

b. Centre tank supplies fuel to No.1 engine and RH wing tank supplies fuel to
No. 2 engine.
c. Centre tank supplies fuel to No.1 engine and LH wing tank supplies fuel to
No. 1 engine.
d) Respective wing tanks supply fuel to the engines
5. Which tank receives the fuel from the fuel diverter valve ?
a. Centre tank
b. Inner cells of the wing tank
c. Outer cells of the wing tank
d. As in (c) if outer cells are already full then fuel spills into inner cells
6. What are the uses of sequence valves in the fuel system ?
a. To control the booster pump operation

b) To consume centre tank fuel first, then wing tank fuel
c. To operate the transfer valves in the desired time
d. To control fuel temperature within limit
98
7. When do the transfer valves close ?
a. Once the out cell is full

b) On ground, during refueling operation when the refueling mode selector is put
to REFUEL positions
c. On ground during refueling operation, after the inner cell becomes full
d. On ground during refueling operation, if the inner cell fuel is more than
750 kgs (Low level)
8. When do the transfer valves open ?
a. If any one inner cell reaches low level, the transfer valve on either side open.
b. If both inner cell reaches low level, then only transfer valves open
c. If any one inner cell reaches low level, the corresponding side both
transfer valves open.
d) If any one inner cell reaches low level, both sides, all transfer valves open.
9. If any one centre tank booster pump fails, with fuel in centre tank, is it possible
to feed both engines from tank ?
a. No. it is not possible

b) Yes, it is possible by opening the cross feed valve.
c. Yes, it is possible by switching the mode selector to manual
d. No, it is not possible, since wing tank booster pumps are feeding immediately.
10. If FOB indication is displayed with 2 amber dashes in the last two digits,
what does it mean ?
a. FO1 is degraded
b. If all tanks are affected, this will affect the fuel qty. by +390 kgs 750 kgs
c. FO1 channel or channel 2 has failed.
11. What are the indications if any one of the booster pump fails in the inner cell ?
a. Respective Fault light with ECAM message

b) As in (a) and fuel page appears in Lower ECAM
c. Master Caution with single chime
12. What are the occasions FOB is boxed amber on fuel page ?
a. When both the centre tank pumps have failed

b. If both the transfer valves in any one tank fail to open when inner tank
reaches low level.
c. When both pimps of inner cell fail
d) Enter the conditions on (a) and (b) are satisfied.
99
13. What is the maximum altitude for fuel gravity if aircraft has flown for less than
30 minutes above ft 300
a. 15000 feet
b. 10000 feet
c) 30000 feet
d. 25000 feet
14. During electrical smoke configuration which booster pumps run ?
a. No. 1 pump in each tank

b. As in (a) open the X feed Valve so that centre tank feeds both engines
c) No. 1 pumps of each wing tank
d No. 1 pump of each wing tank run along with No.2 pump of centre tank
15. After the slat extension of the centre tank pumps do not stop what is the ECAM caution
a) Auto feed fault

b. Centre tank pumps LO PRESSURE
c. CENTRE TANK PUMP NOT FEEDING memo display
d. Centre tank pumps OFF
100
POWER PLANT
1. A320 aircraft Engine power rating is
a. 25000 lbs of thrust flat rated to ISA + 40 Deg. C

b) 25000 lbs of thrust flat rated to ISA + 150 Deg. C
c. 25000 lbs of thrust flat rated to 30 Deg. C
d. 25000 lbs of thrust flat rated to ISA + 2.5 Deg. C
2. What are the parameters required for EPR computation ?
a. Tu T2 Altitude
b. Tu T2 Speed
c) Tu T2 Ta Altitude Speed bleed status.
d. Tu T Altitude Speed bleed status existing EPR
3. What are the parameters required for N! computation in unrated N1 mode ?
a) Tu only
b. Tu T2
c. Tu T2 Altitude
d. Tu Tm Altitude
4. Which power setting mode, auto thrust is available ?
a. EPR mode and rated N1 mode

b) EPR mode only
c. EPR mode N1 rated and N1 unrated mode
d. EPR mode and N1 unrated mode.
5. How do you auto start the engine ?
a) Engine mode set to start / Ign, master switch ON

b. Engine mode set to norm, master switch ON
c. Engine mode set to start / Ign, Man start to ON, and master switch ON
d. Engine mode se to start / Ign, Master switch ON and MAN START
ON till N2 reaches 43%
6. What is the maximum EGT during starting the engine
a. 590 Deg. C
b. 610 Deg. C
c) 635 Deg.C
d. 745 Deg. C
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7. What is the maximum continuous oil temperature allowed for engine running ?
a. 165 Deg. C
b. 150 Deg. C
c. 157 Deg. C
d) 155 Deg. C
8. What are the indications if the oil temperature exceeds the maximum limit ?
a) ECAM message Master Caution, HSC and ENG page on Lower ECAM
b. ECAM message and ENG page on Lower ECAM
c. Only ENG page appears on Lower ECAM
d. ECAM message Master Warning CRC and Engine page on Lower ECAM
9. What is the minimum oil temperature before take off power ?
a) + 50 Deg. C
b. + 10 Deg. C
c. + 40 Deg. C
d. + 110 Deg. C
10. What are the warnings of oil pressure drops below 60 psi ?
a. ECAM message, Master Caution, SSC & Engine page on lower ECAM
b) ECAM message, Master Warning, CRC and Engine page on lower ECAM
c. Only ECAM message
d. Only Engine page appears on lower ECAM
11. Engine Compressor vane fault indicates
a. LP compressor bleed valve fault only

b) LP compressor bleed valve fault or VSV angle disagree
c. HP compressor 7th stage and 10th stage bleed valve fault
12. What are the indications for the engine stall ?
a. ECAM message with master warming, CRC

b. ECAM message with master caution, single chime
c. Abnormal engine noises, fluctuating performance parameters high or a
rapid EGT rise
13. ACC system is used for
a. To increase the compressor efficiency

b. To optimize the turbine blade tip clearance and there by increase the turbine efficiency
c. It uses fan air as the cooling medium
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14. FADEC can do the abort start provided
a. N2 is less than 55%

b. N2 is less than 43%
c) N2 is less than 50%
d. N2 is less than 57%
7
15. During engine auto start on ground, if FADEC does the abort start, it controls
a. HP fuel valves
b) HP fuel valve, ignition system and faster valve
c. LP fuel valves ignition and starter valve
d. HP & LP fuel valves and ignition.
16. To operate thrust reverser systems
a. Hydraulic pressure should be available

b. Respective LGCIU should function
c. Atleast SEC4 should be available
17. Disengagement of auto thrust take place
a. By pressing ATHR pb or instinctive disconnect pb

b. By moving any one thrust lever above MCT below 100 feet RA
c. By selecting N1 mode
18. What happens to engine thrust if active A/ THR disengaged with thrust levers
in CLB gate ?
a) Engine thrust is frozen at the value before the A/THR disengagement and
THR LK message appears on the FMA
b. Engine power reduces to IDLE power on both engines
c. Engine thrust will change immediately and corresponds to thrust lever position
d. Engine power increases upto MCT on both engines.
19. To operate No.1 engine thrust reverser system
a. Green hydraulic system pressure should be available

b. LGCIU should function
c. SEC1 or SEC2 should be available
20. For engine relight in flight
a. Auto start is recommended with Man start pb ON and X Bleed open

b) Auto start is recommended with X Bleed Open and Man Start pb OFF
c. MANUAL start is recommended if N2 is less than 15
d. MANUAL start is recommended with X Bleed open
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21. What happens to the engine power at the time of disengagement of ATHR
if the thrust levers are not in CLB or MCT
a. Engine power is frozen to the value at the item of disengagement of ATHR

b. Engine power immediately changes to idle
c. Engine power changes to TOGA or MCT
d) Engine power changes to TLA position immediately
22. Over boost of engine power is possible in
a. EPR mode only

b. EPR & rated N1 mode
c. Rated and unrated N1 mode
d) Unrated N1 mode only
23. During auto start on ground, which ignition is used
a. IGN A only
b. IGN B only
c) Either IGN A or IGN B
d. Either IGN A or IGN B
24. What is the starter motor limitation ?
a. 3 consecutive cycles 2 of 2 minutes and one of one minute.

b. 3 minutes ON, 15 seconds OFF, maximum 3 times after that 15 mts cooling
c. Pause between starts, 15 seconds, cooling period following 3 starts 30 seconds
25. During engine auto start on ground if FADEC does the abort start it controls
a. HP fuel valves
b) HP fuel valve, ignition system and start valve
c. LP fuel valve, ignition and start valve
d. HP & LP fuel valves and ignition
26. To operate No.1 engine thrust reverser system
a. Green Hydraulic system pressure should be available

b. LGCIU should function
c. SEC1 and SEC2 should be available
27. Which are the occasions mode will change from EPR to rated N1 mode
a. If there is EPR mode fault occurs

b. If N1 mode is selected manually without any input failure to FADEC
c. If Tu input fails to both FADEC channels
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28. If anyone engine has TLA fault in flight
a. Both engines power to go upto MCT

b) Affected engine power increase to MCT if TLA is between IDLE MCT with manual
thrust control
c. Affected engine power increased to GA during FLX TO
d. Affected engine power increases to MCT if TLA is between IDLE MCT when
auto thrust was in use.
29. What is the minimum speed to use Max reverse thrust ?
a. 60 kts
b. Till aircraft comes to stop
c. 80 kts
d) 70 kts
30. If SEC 1 and SEC 2 fail in flight
a. Both thrust reversers are available

b. Only No.1 engine reverse thrust is available
c. Both engines reverse thrust are lost
d) Only No.2 engine reverse thrust is available
31. How are fuel LP valves closed ?
a. By engine master switch only

b. By engine master switch or by mode selector through FADEC
c) By engine master switch or by fire push button
d. By engine fire push button FADEC
32. What are the occasions when ignition should be manually selected ?
a. Before take off and landing

b) Single engine operation, fuel gravity and heavy rain
c. Single engine operation, before take off and landing
d. Single engine operation, fuel graving feed and running engine anti ice operation
33. How do you carry out dry cranking cycle ?
a. Mode selector to CRANK, and engine master switch ON

b) Mode selector to CRANK, Man start pb to ON and master switch to OFF
c. Mode selector to CRANK, Man start pb to ON and master switch to ON
d. Mode selector to NORMAL, Man start pb to ON for 30 seconds.
a. FADEC will automatically command the reverser to slow in case the thrust
reverser are detected deployed by more than 10 Deg of their full travel.
b) As in (a) and if the deployment is more than 15% of full travel of FADEC
will automatically select the thrust to idle.
c. FADEC will automatically select thrust to idle in both the above cases
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35. When both engines are in unrated N1 mode, to get TOGA power during
missed approach.
a. Move both thrust levers to TO-GA position

b. Move both thrust levers to MCT position
c) Move both thrust levers to get required N1
d. Move both the thrust levers between MCT & TOGA
36. What is the minimum oil quantity in the tank before starting the engine ?
a. 17 quarts
b. 12 quarts
c) 11 quarts + 12 Estimated consumption (03 m / hr)
d. 12 quarts + Estimated consumption
37. What is the Max N1 and N2 allowed
a. 100% N1 102% N2
b) 100% N1 & 100% N2
c. 100% N1 and 109% N2
d. 100% N1 & 105% N2
38. During cross bleed start should be the position of the bleed switches
a. Both engines bleeds ON

b. Both engines bleeds OFF
c) Receiving engine bleed OFF, running engine bleed ON
d. Receiving engine bleed ON, running engine bleed OFF
39. What is the maximum EGT during starting the engine ?
a. 590 Deg. C
b. 610 Deg. C
c) 635 Deg.C
d. 745 Deg. C
40. FAULT amber light comes ON in engine control panel due to
a. Fuel LP valve is in disagreement

b) Either Fuel HP valves is in disagreement or start valve fault
c. Either Fuel HP valve or LP valve is in disagreement
d. Start valve is in disagreement
41. During FADEC FAULT
a. Confirm engine failure by engine parameters in upper ECAM

b. Confirm engine failure by secondary engine parameters in lower ECAM
c) Confirm engine failure by system pages as HYD, ELEC or BLEED
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FIRE PROTECTON
1. What are the indications during engine fire ?
a. ECAM message, master warning, CRC

b. Fire, pb illuminates red
c. Fire red light on the Engine control panel is ON
2. When does the fire warning trigger ?
a. If any one loop senses overheat condition with other loop serviceable
b. If both loops sense overheat condition
c. As in (b) or both loops fail within 5 seconds
3. What are the action if Fire Warning disappears in flight while carrying
out the ENU FIRE check list ?
a) Complete the checklist procedure

b. The fire drill may be discontinued
c. As in (b) and engine may be restarted
d. As in (a) and the engine may be restarted
4. Pressing the fire push button causes
a. The closure of respective engine fuel LP valve

b. The closure of respective engine fuel LP valve & HP valve
c) As in (a) and if the engine is to be shut down by fire pb alone,
the engine continues to run for atleast one minute
d. As in (a) and if the engine is to be shut down by fire pb alone, the engine
immediately stops
5. When do both the SQUIB lights illuminate white for an engine fire extinguisher ?
a. After the agents are discharged

b. After the fire pb is pressed and agents are ready for the discharge.
c. When the fire test is carried out for the associated engine
6. What are the indication if there is a break in both fire detection loops A & B
occurring within 5 seconds due to fire action ?
a) Fire warning comes

b. LOOP A + B FAULT ECAM Message
c. FIRE DET FAULT ECAM CAUTION
d. Both (a) and (c) are correct
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EMERGENCY EXITS & EQUIPMENT
1. What are the possible flows of oxygen through the individual quick doning full face mast
in the cockpit ?
a. Diluted Oxygen on demand, 100% Oxygen on demand or continuously.

b. Diluted Oxygen on demand or continuously, 100% Oxygen on demand only
c. Diluted Oxygen on demand or continuously, 100% continuously
d. Only two flows 100% Oxygen continuously, Diluted Oxygen on demand.
2. Which is the suitable statement for Pax fixed Oxygen system
a. Pax Oxygen can be activated are reset from cockpit

b. Pax Oxygen can be activated and reset from cockpit
c) Pax Oxygen system activates automatically in case of decompression but can be
reset only from cockpit
d. Pax Oxygen system once activated (Automatically or Manually) cannot be reset.
3. Due to landing impact one PSU door opens, 3 masks had dropped, if only one
mask is pulled, will oxygen flow.
a. No, since cabin is not depressurized

b) Yes, into all the 3 masks for 13 minutes
c. Yes, into only that mask for 13 minutes
d. Yes, into only that mask for 39 minutes
4. How many portable fire extinguishers and Oxygen bottles are there in the aircraft ?
a. 2 BCF bottles and one Oxygen bottle in Cockpit, 2 BCF and 7 Oxygen bottles in cabin.
b) 1 BCF bottle and one Oxygen bottle in Cockpit, 3 BCF and 7 Oxygen bottles in cabin.
c. 1 BCF bottle and one Oxygen bottle in Cockpit, 3 BCF and 7 Oxygen bottles in cabin
d. Totally 5 BCF bottles and 7 Oxygen bottles in the aircraft.
5. A Thermal discharge of the cockpit crew fixed Oxygen bottle is indicated by
a. Thermal discharge message on ECAM

b) Green Blow out disc missing
c. Red blow out disc missing
d. No indication of Thermal Discharge is provided
6. Which is the suitable statement for Pax fixed Oxygen system
a. Pax Oxygen can be activated are reset from cockpit

b. Pax Oxygen system activates automatically in case of decompression but can be
reset only from cockpit
c) Pax Oxygen system once activated (Automatically or Manually) cannot be reset.
d. On ground as altitude is low, Oxygen does not flow from oxygen generator even
if connected mask is pulled.
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7. Due to landing impact, one PSU door opens, 3 masks had dropped, if only one
mask is pulled will oxygen flow.
a. No since cabin is not depressurized

b) Yes into all the 3 masks for 13 minutes
c. Yes into only that mask for 13 minutes
d. Yes into only that mask for 39 minutes
8. Which of the following oxygen flows is possible from a portable Oxygen bottle of cabin ?
a. 100% Oxygen continuously

b) 100% on demand.
c. Diluted Oxygen on demand.
d. (b) and (c) are correct.
9. How many emergency exits are there in the cabin and what is escape device
provided for each ?
a) 4 main doors each with a single lane slide / raft; 4 over wing exits with a double lane
slide for 2 over wing exits on the same side.
b. 4 main doors each with a single lane slide; 4 over wing exits with a double lane slide /
raft for 2 over wing exits on the same side.
c. 4 main doors each with a single lane slide/ raft ; 4 over wing exits with each with a
single lane slide / raft
d. 4 main doors each with a single lane slide / raft; 4 over wing exits with a single lane
slide for 2 exits on the same wing.
10. How many emergency exits are there in the cockpit and what is the escape device
provided for each.
a. Two windows with one rope

b) Two windows with two nylon knotted ropes
c. Three windows with two ropes
d. Only one window with two ropes
11. How to know from cockpit that a slide is armed ?
a. Call Cabin Attendant and confirm only from the cabin attendant.
b) On DOOR Page SLIDE appears white near exit symbol
c. On DOOR Page the exit symbol changes to GREEN
d. On DOOR Page the exit indication remains amber when slide is not armed
12. Red light on the door.
a. Illuminates if the door handle is moved towards open when door is armed.
b. Flashes if the door handle is moved towards open when door is armed
c. Flashes if the door is opened with engine running
d) Flashes if the door is disarmed cabin pressure is 2.5 hpa higher than outside
pressure and both engine shut down.
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13. In emergency configuration, when emergency generator operates in flight
a) All emergency lighting illuminate automatically

b. Only floor path marking lights illuminate automatically
c. Only emergency lights and exit signs illuminate automatically
d. As DC ESS SHED BUS is still powered, no emergency lights illuminate
14. For satisfactory operation of Radio beacon, required conditions are
a. Radio beacon in vertical position

b. Battery in contact with any liquid and level upto vent hole
c. Antenna in erected position
d) All the above are required
15. Identify the correct number of emergency equipment in aircraft
a. 1 crash are in cockpit 2 power megaphones in cabin

b. 3 First Aid kits, 1 radio beacon in cabin
c. 4 life lines above the pax seats near 4 emergency exits only when aircraft
has to fly over water.
d) all the above are correct
16. After using a quick donning mask, the mask is stowed back but OXY ON flag is
visible. Is it possible to have communication via boom MIC.
a) No.
b. Yes
c. Yes, only if INT / RED switch is in INT (only interphone is possible )
d. Yes, only if INT / RED switch is held in RAD (only RT is possible )
17. When would the SLIDE ARMED light located between the emergency windows
illuminate ?
a. When any one cover flap that covers the window operating handle is removed
b. When both cover flaps on the two emergency windows are removed.
c. As in (a) and it shall not be known in the cockpit.
d) As in (a) and it shall be known in the cockpit by the charge of colour of window
symbol on Door ECAM page.
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FMGS
1. During CRZ phase of light, on fuel prediction page, if extra fuel is negative, the required
action may be ?
a) Modify cost index to zero

b. Modify cost index for LRC mach number
c. If already at OPT FL, descend to 2000 feet below OPT FL
d. As in (c) and bring cost index to zero.
2. With DES mode engaged on FMGS, the extension of speed brakes will increase the
descent rate if aircraft is
a) Above the DES path

b. On the DES path
c. Below the DES path
d. On or below the DES path
3. With FD engaged in OP-DES mode (AP-OFF) and ATHR engaged, aircraft is leveled
above FCU altitude, the following may occur ?
a. Aircraft speed increase to Vmax and FD mode changes to V/S mode

b) Aircraft speed decreases to VLS and FD mode changes to V/S mode
c. Aircraft speed increased to Vmax and FD mode changes to OPCLB
d. Aircraft speed decreases to VLS and now ATHR maintain speed at VLS
4. When is it required to select both packs of OFF ?
a. AVIONICS SMOKE procedure

b. LAV + GALLEY FAN FAULT
c) CABIN OVER PRESSURE WITH DIFFERENTIAL PRESSURE > 9 psi
5. What is the meaning of LDG ELEV FAULT ?
a. Wrong selection of LDG ELEV is made

b. LDG ELEV selector is moved out of auto without requirement
c. No FMGS LDG ELEV data is available
6. Which limitation is correct for APU ?
a. Electrical extraction, AT or below 35000 feet IAS + 20 Deg and below 90 KVA
b) Air bleed extraction in flight for engine start upto 20000 feet
c. Air bleed extraction or wing anti ice is permitted
d. Air bleed extraction for airconditioning (in flight) upto 20000 feet for 2 packs.
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7. What is the difference between the GEN 1 LINE PB and GEN 1 PB when
when engine 1 is running
a. If GEN1 pb is selected to OFF, the generator stops running

b. If GEN1 pb is selected to OFF, the generator will be running but the voltage
will be normal.
c. If GEN1 LINE pb is selected to OFF, the generator continuously operates
but the voltage will not be normal.
d). If GEN1 LINE pb is selected to OFF, the generator continuously operates
but the voltage will be normal.
8. During auto start FADEC provides start abort. What are the valves & systems
is cuts off.
a. HP valve, start valve and ignition.

b. LP valve and ignition only
c) As in (a) and the FADEC has the authority to abort the start upto 50% N2
d. As in (b) and the FADEC has the authority to abort the start upto 43% N2
9. Later aeroplanes are fitted with two fire extinguishing agents for cargo compt. fire
They have DISCH AGENT 2 light. When does this light come on.
a. Immediately after discharging agent 1

b) 60 minutes after discharging agent 1 in either FWD and AFT cargo compartments
c. 60 minutes after discharging of agent 1 to FWD cargo compartments only
d. 60 minutes after discharging of agent 1 in either AFT cargo compartments only.
10. When the automatic pitch trim is frozen in pitch NORMAL law
a. When load factor is more than 0.5 g

b) When bank angle is greater than 33 deg.
c. When pitch attitude protection is active
11. When SPD BRK DISAGREE ECAM warning is triggered
a. Speed brake surface position is not in agreement with handle position

b) As in (a) or after automatic retraction of spoilers due to config.FULL selection
and handle remains extended.
c. If any one engine N1 is above 50% and speed brake is extended in flight
12. During a flight when do you select the BUS TIE pb to OFF
a. To reset the BUS TIE FAULT

b. To reset the BUS TIE contractors
c) To segregate both the GENERATOR channels to regain Elect Power in case of
EMER CONFIG
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13. In an amber half frame appears for oxygen pressure indication on DOOR / OXY
page, what is the recommendation.
a. In this case, check that Cockpit Portable Oxygen bottle has sufficient pressure.
b. In this case, check that all pax. Portable Oxygen bottles are available on board.
c) Check that the remaining quantity of the Cockpit fixed oxygen bottle is not below
the minimum oxygen
d. All the above checks are to be carried out
14. During cruise in the fuel ECAM page, fuel quantity indication is advisory. Mark the
correct statement.
a. This implies that the difference between the fuel quantities in the wings is greater
than 1500 kgs.
b) As in (a) and the indications of the wing inner and outer tanks with highest fuel
level pulses.
c. As in (a) and the indication of the wing inner and outer tanks with the lowest
fuel level pulses.
d. This implies that the center tank fuel has reduced to the low level.
15. What happens to PTU with PTU push button at AUTO when aircraft makes a single
engine landing with No engine shut down ?
a. PTU runs in flight and stops as soon as both main landing gears are compressed
b) PTU continues to run ever after running
c. PTU runs to pressurize yellow hydraulic system by using green Hyd pressure
d. As in (b) and PTU pressurizes green hydraulic system using blue Hyd pressure
16. Yellow hydraulic system is pressurized by ENG 2 pump (yellow electric pump
push button switch is ON what happens in case of Yellow Reservoir overheat
condition.
a. FAULT light illuminates on yellow electric pump push button switch

b. FAULT light illuminates on ENG2 PUMP button switch
c. FAULT light illuminates on PTU push button switch
17. Where does the time signal come from, for OMT display is permanent data on SD
a. Cockpit clock
b. As in (a) and if it fails from CFDIU
c. Always from CFDIU
d) As in (b) and it is necessary to do GMT / DATE INIT
18. During take off phase, if FWC 1 and FWC 2 fail, what indications will appear
a) Only FWS, FWC1 + 2 FAULT message, related checklist and list of

NOT AVAIL system on EWD
b. SC, Master Caution lights, failure message and related checklist on EWD.
c. CRC, Master Warning lights, failure message and related checklist on EWD
d. Nothing, since the warnings are inhibited.
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19. What are the provisions available in RCT mode of weather radar
a) Auto Gain, GCR, Tilt, SEC

b. Manual Gain, GCR, WX / T, SEC
c. Manual Gain, GCR, Tilt, SEC
d. Manual Gain, GCR, Wx/T, Tilt, SEC
20. What happens in case of BMC2 fault.
a. Engine 2 bleed parameters monitoring is totally lost

b. RH wing bleed leakage detection is lost.
c) Engine 2 bleed valve automatic closure is not available
21. During descend phase of flight with DES mode engaged on FMGS, if a/c enters
F-PLN discontinuity, the FMR changes from DES / NAV TO
a. OP DES / HDG
b. Vs
c) VS / HDD
d. OP DES
a. Lateral and vertical revisions are possible on a temporary F-PLN

b) DIRECT TO function, when used erases a temporary F-PLN
c. Pressing the AIRPORT key erases a temporary F-PLN
23. How to get back to standard F-PLN when aircraft enters into F-PLN discontinuity
a) By performing a DIR TO a designated way point

b. By pressing HDG / TRK knob
c. By carrying a lateral revision at PPOS and selected a NEW DEST
24. Can you control the temperature from the cockpit in case of the following failures.
Is so in which case.
a. Zone controller primary channel failure.

b. Zone controller primary and secondary channel failure
c. Pack controller primary and secondary channel failure
d) Hot air regulator valve failure.
25. What happens to AC ESS BUS in case of AC BUS 2 failure
a. Normally AC ESS BUS power is not lost.

b. In case of AC BUS 1 failure, AC ESS BUS has no alternative power
c. AC ESS BUS can be transferred to emergency generator or STATIC
INVERTOR any time
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26. When IDG 1 (2) OIL TEMP > 185 Deg C, what are the actions to be taken
a) Follow the upper ECAM procedure.

b. Crew awareness as no action is required
c. Wait for the temperature to come down
d. Reduce IDG load if possible, if required restore when temperature has dropped
27. Which of the following is correct for the galley system
a. GALLEY SHED indication means either FWD or AFT galley is totally lost.
b. GALLEY push buttons fault, light means the galley is over loaded.
c. GALLEY FAULT means the generator is over loaded.
d) As in (c) if galley is switched off, we get GALLEY SHED indication too.
28. What rate of oxygen flow is correct.
a. From quick donning mask in the cockpit with 100% selection, 100% oxygen flows
continuously
b) From demand regulator outlet of passenger cabin portable oxygen bottle pure
oxygen flows continuously.
c. When smoke mask is connected to the portable oxygen bottle of cockpit 100%
oxygen can be drawn or demand.
d. In case of crew incapacitation selection of 100% is suitable from the quick donning mask
29. What are the indications on ECAM upper display lost when automatic reversion to
unrated N1 mode occurs
a. Only N1 rating limit

b. Only EPR indication
c. Only N1 thrust lever
d) Max N1, N1 thrust lever, N1 mode, N1 rating limit
30. On PFD, Roll FD bar is flashing permanently, it indicates
a. Reversion of FD to HDG mode

b) LOC Transmission failure
c. LOC receiver failure
d. LOC & G/S both receivers failure
31. With CLB mode engaged on FMGS, if FCU altitude is changed to below the
aircraft altitude, the mode will change over to.
a. OP CLB Mode
b. OP DES Mode
c) V/S Mode
d. DES Mode
32. When is it required to select both BLOWER & EXTRACT pbs is OVRD
a. Blower and Extract Pressures are low

b. AEVC power supply failure
c. Avionics smoke warning
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33. Live Cargo has to be placed in which cargo compartment
a. Forward cargo compartment as it has ventilation and heating

b) Aft cargo compartment as it has ventilation and heating.
c. Either in Fwd cargo or Aft cargo compartments only.
d. Both in Aft cargo and Fwd cargo compartments.
34. In case of total loss of cabin pressure control, leading to over pressure what
action are required.
a. Use manual pressurization control to continue the flight

b) Select Pack 1 or 2 to off the blower and extract to OVRD
c. As in (b) follow the ECAM procedure also
35. If Audio Switching selector is set to CAPT, what are the changes
a) Capt has to use ACP3 and his own Mic speakers

b. Capt has to use RMP 3, ACP 3 and his own Mic and speakers
c. Capt has to user observers Mic and speakers and ACP1
d. Capt has to use observers Mic, speakers and ACP 3
36. If a/c is in ELEC EMER CONFIG, what is the Engine Power setting mode
a. EPR Mode
b. Rated N1 Mode
c) Unrated N1 Mode
d. Either EPR or Rated N1 Mode
37. What is the position of pack switches for engine start with external
pneumatic power
a. Before connecting external pneumatic power put the pack switches to off.
b. Pack switches need not be selected to OFF
c. As in (b) because pack valves automatically close during engine start
d) As in (a) and this prevents pack contamination.
a. After use of above idle reverse thrust or after operations of power levels
above normal taxi
b. During start procedures, if N2 vibrations level reaches 5 a/c units the
start to be aborted.
c. During start disregard engine vibration display and warnings
39. What is the position of the 7th and 10th stage bleed valves during engine start.
a. Fully open
b. Fully closed
c) As in (a) and sticking bleed valves during start will result in a hung start.
d. As in (b) and opened bleed valve during start will result in ignition fault.
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40. What happens to ground spoilers when aircraft has landed and bounced ?
a. Spoilers remain extended with thrust lever at IDLE

b. Spoilers retract if thrust lever is moved above IDLE and extend again after 0
the next touch down
c. Spoilers retract during bounce even if thrust lever at IDLE
41. Which of the following statements is suitable for Ice & Rain protection system.
a. In the event of electrical power supply failure the wind anti ice valves open
b. In the event of electrical power supply failure the engine anti ice valves close
c. On ground before engine starting, rain repellent can be sprayed, if required
d) WHC 1 & WHC 2 are independent.
42. Only one ECAM DU is working. If you want to see a SD on it, is it possible ?
a. No.
b. Yes, press the respective system key on ECAM control penel and hold.
The SD will be in view for 3 min
c. Yes, press and release the respective system key. The SD will be in view
for 30 secs.
d) As in (b) but SD will be in view as long as the system key is kept pressed
even for more than 30 secs.
43. During a flight, automatically SD page changes from CRUISE to ELEC and
ELEC key on ECAM control panel glows. What does it mean ?
a) There is an advisory condition in electrical system.

b. There is a failure in electrical system
d. (b) is correct only if CLR keys also glow.
44. RED ATT flag appears in the centre of Attitude sphere on PFD. What does it
indicate. Is it possible to clear it.
a. PFD has failed.

b. Loss of ATT signals from the onside ADIRU. It can be cleared by ATT, HDG
transfer if ADIRU 3 is serviceable.
c) Loss of both ADIRU 1 and 2. I can be cleared by ATT. HDG transfer if
ADIRU 3 is serviceable.
d. Loss of both ADIRU 1 and 2 and it cannot be cleared.
45. In RHS top corner on ND some data is given. What does it mean in ROSE / NAV mode
a. Destination airfield data.

b. Data of next VOR or ILS station on the flight path
c) Data of the next way point to be flow (TO way point) in the flight plan
d. Both (a) and (c)
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46. What are the recommended actions if Landing Gear Lever is locked in DOWN
position even after take off.
a. Keep the landing gear lever DOWN and land back

b. Recycle nose wheel steering / antiskid switch and then try to select landing gear
lever UP
c) Make a second attempt approximately one minute later.
d. Pull out LGCIU CBs and then try to select landing gear lever UP
47. When do we get L/G CRL indication amber on lower ECAM hydraulic page
a) When landing gear lever is not in agreement with landing gear position.
b. When landing gear is not extended at radio altitude of 750 feet.
c. When landing gear is not retracted after 30 seconds of take off.
d. When landing gear doors are not closed with landing gear retracted.
48. What is the declaration rate given by anti skid system when IR 1 = 3 FAULT is
detected.
a. 3 m / sec ( 9.8 ft / sec)

b) 1.2 m / sec (5.6 ft / sec)
c. Anti skid system will not be available when IR1 + 3 FAULT comes
d. Anti skid system will allow a maximum of 1000 psi to brake units
49. If RA No 1 fails what are the degradations
a. RA fled on Capt. PFD

b) FAULT light on GPWS SYS switch, CAP 3 GPWS IN OP SYS of STATUS page
c. Loss of Radio Alt indication on Capt. PFD
d. All the above.
50. On GPWS control panel, LDG FLAP 3 switch is selected ON. What are the significances
a. GPWS warning for flaps not in landing configuration are triggered only if flaps
are selected to less than 3
b. GPWS warnings are triggered if landing is made with flaps 3
c) As in (a) and on LDG memo, FLAP CONFIG 3 will be displayed.
d. As in (b) and on LDG memo, FLAP CONFIG 3 will be displayed.
51. During take off phase, the message INITIALIZE WEIGHTS appears on MCDU.
The system response is ?
a. SRS mode trips speed guidance engages at V2

b. SRS mode remains active until ACC ALT
c. SRS mode exited immediately and target speed is current speed
d) As in (b) and ACC ALT target speed and becomes the current speed.
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52. When alternate predictions are calculated, which of the following are considered ?
a. Flight Level 310, if airway distance less than 200 NM, FL 350 otherwise
b. Cost index 20
c) Aircraft weight equal to landing weight at primary DEST
d. All the above are considered.
53. Which of the following procedures requires the operation of RAT and EMER GEN
to be done manually ?
a. ELEC EMER CONFIG, if auto extension fails

b. SMOKE AVIONICS SMOKE CONFIG
c. ELEC DC EMER CONFIG
54. What is the indication when speed lock function of slats is active.
a) A LOCK indication pulses cyan on upper ECAM below slat / flap position indicator
b. SPD LOCK indication pulses cyan on upper ECAM below slat / flap position indication
c. SPD LOCK indication pulses cyan on lower ECAM F/CTL page
d. A LOCK indication pulses cyan on upper ECAM F/CTL page.
55. In case of TR1, TR2 and essential TR failure, what happens?
a. All AC busses are lost and we get into ELEC EMER CONFIG. RAT and EMER GEN
operates automatically.
b. All DC busses are lost and we get into ELEC DC EMER CONFIG. And RAT and
emergency generator are to be extended manually.
c. Crew Awareness appears on upper ECAM as no action is required.
d) Only DC BUS 1, DC DAT BUS, DC BUS 2 are lost.
56. Select suitable statement for emergency equipment.
a. Whenever the over wing slides are not armed, ask the cabin crew to check the arming
b. Any escape device gets automatically disarmed whenever the corresponding emergency
exit of the cabin opened from outside.
c) Out of 8, 7 portable oxygen bottles and out of 4, 3 Halon fire extinguishers are kept
in passenger cabin.
d. Airstairs can be used after an emergency landing in EP series only
57. When is the auto thrust active with both the engines running
a. When the thrust lever is between idle and MCT

b) When both levers are between idle and CLB
c. On thrust lever is between IDLE and CLB and the other is between IDLE AND MCT
(including MCT) power FLEX T/O is not selected.
d. Both (b) and (c) are correct .
58. On which occasions the automatic pitch trim is frozen in both Nose Up and Nose Down
a) The radio altitude is below 50 feet

b. The load factor is more than 1.25 g
c. When angle of attack protection is active
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59. After flying above Flight Lever 300 for more than 30 minutes, if gravity fuel feeding
procedure is to be applied. What is the ceiling altitude ?
a) Current FL
b. FL 300
c. 1500 FT
d. 7000 FT above take off airport
60. Where will EIS DMC1 FAULT MESSAGE APPEAR ? (Assume DMC transfer
switch is in NORMAL)
a. EWD on upper ECAM

b. EWD on lower ECAM automatically
c) AS in (b) and it is supplied by DMC 2
d. As in (b) and it is supplied by DMC3
61. In a normal flight, if the ECAM /ND transfer switch is moved to captain side, what
will be the display on lower ECAM
a. EWD
b. SD
c. Blank
d) Diagonal Line
62. What are the degradations on EFIS Bus, when avionic ventilation failure occurs ?
a. Nothing
b. Loss of gray background on SPD, HDG, ALT, V/S, scales on PFD
c. Weather Radar pictures on ND
d) Both (b) and (c)
63. What are recommended actions if Hydraulic pressure is indicated on the yellow
triple indicator ?
a. Depress several times the brake pedals until release of residual pressure.
b. Switch off NWS / ANTISKID switch and operate brakes with caution
c) As in (a) and if residual pressure remains apply brakes at touch down
d. Switch OFF PTU ENG2 pump push button switch and then make a positive landing
64. If L/G does not go to the selected position after T/O what indications appear.
a. L/G UPLOCK FAULT message and UNLK light

b) L/G NOT UPLOCKED message and UNLK light
c. L/G NOT DOWN LOCKED message and UNLK light
d. ABNORMAL L/G message and UNLK light
65. In the event of FMGC1 failure, FMGC 2 available, NAV tuning availability shall be
a. ILS 1 tuning by RMP1, ILS 2 auto tuned by FMGC 2

b. Only ILS 2 tuning available on RMP 2
c. ILS 1 & 2 both available only by respective RMPs
d) ILS 1 & 2 both auto tuned by FMGC 2
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a. RWY mode only

c. RWY TRK mode
d) RWY or Roll out mode
67. During non-precision approach with AP, when reaching MDA, the following will occur.
a. AP will disengage, FD remains engaged in FINAL / APP NAV

b. AP will change its mode from FINAL / APP NAV to HDG V/S
c) AP will disengage, FD reverts to HDG / V/S
d. AP & FD both disengages.
68. With NAV mode engaged on FMGS, the ACTIVE SEC prompt shall be available if
a. Active and secondary F-PLN have common active leg.

b. Active and secondary F-PLN have some common leg.
c. HDG /TRK mode is engaged
d) Both (a) & (c) are correct.
69. The message on PFD FMA reads as VERT DISCON AHEAD it means
a. There is F-PLN continuity ahead

b. OP-DES mode engaged and a TOO STEEP path exists ahead
c. EXPEDITED DES mode engaged and F-PLN discontinuity exists ahead.
70. What are the communication systems available after the loss of all generators
(a/c is on batteries) on later version.
a. VHF1, HF1, Interphone

b) VHF1, Interphone
c. VHF1, VHF2 Interphone
d. HF1 & Interphone
71. For resetting computers, if required, which of the following points are to be followed.
a. Pull the relevant circuit breaker, well (NOT CLEAR)

b.
c. The flight crew can, if required, reset any computer without exception .
d) Press ATHR pb on FCU and then move thrust lever to TOGA
72. Take off mode of FD is engaged by following action.
a. Atleast one engine running

b. Both engine running
c) Both engines shut down
d. Irrespective of engine running
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73. A Floor is lost if following failure occurs.
a. 2 FMGCs
b. Both FCU channels
c. On EIU alternate law
a. ALT CSTR are available when SPD V/S mode is engaged.

b) Enabling the Alternates deletes the altitude constrains of the previous active F-PLN
c. ALT CSTR are available when EXPEDITE mode is engaged.
a. Wind entered in HISTORY WIND page is MAG NORTH referenced.

b. Wind entered in PERF APPR page is TRUE NORTH referenced.
c) Wind entered in HISTORY WIND page is TRUE NORTH referenced.
d. Both (a) & (b) are correct.
76. In which of the following failures / emergencies, the

Emer Ram Air Inlet Valve
a. L-R FAN FAULT

b) HOT AIR VALVE failed in open position & duct Ovht persists
c. AIRCOND smoke procedure
d. All the above require the descent to FL 100
77. Which of the following statements is most suitable for cabin pressure controllers ?
a. Automatic pressure controller transfer occurs 100 secs, after each landing
b) EIU 1 + 2 give the TLA position to controllers.
c. LD FIELD ELEV & Dest ONH are led by ADIRS 1+2+3 to the controllers
78. Identify the correct statement for the ventilation system.
a. In open circuit config. SKIN AIR INLET & EXTRACT VALVES open
b. In close circuit config. SKIN AIR INLET & EXTRACT VALVES & the flap
( in the extract valve) close
c. In intermediate config. SKIN AIR INLET & EXTRACT VALVES close but the
flap (in the extract valve) opens
79. Which of the following valves cause the pressurization problem ?
a. CRD COOL INLET OR OUTLET VALVE

b. SKIN AIR INLET VALVE
c. SKIN AIR EXTRACT FLAP
d. All the above
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80. If LDG ELEV MAN on CAB PRESS page and CRUISE page appears, what will it mean ?
Only with AP ?
a. Pressurization is under manual control

b. AUTO SYSTEM has failed.
c) FMGC is not giving the data of landing elevation to the pressure controller
d. Select the manual pressurization control to avoid the message.
81. When do we use the following procedure ?
a. FLT ON BAT ONLY procedure is used to start the APU in flight with only batteries.
b. TOO HOT / COLD COCKPIT & CABIN TEMPERATURE procedure for meeting
the said conditions.
c) ABNORMAL L/G PROC is to be used whenever L/G fails to extend by normal method.
82. Depressurization of the cabin does not depend on which of the following.
a. GROUND COOL INLET VALVE

b. SKIN AIR EXTRACT VALVE
c) EXTRACT FLAP
d. SAFETY VALVE
83. Identify the correct limitation for APU
a. When LOW OIL LEVEL message appears on ECAM APU page, the remaining oil
quantity allows normal APU
b. After 3 starter motor duty cycles separated by 1 min, cool don, 12o mts must be
allowed for cooling.
c) Max. rotor speed during APU operation is 107%
d. Max. EGT for starting APU is 105B deg C
84. What is the action if SC, Master Caution COM VHF / HF EMITTING message appear ?
a. Nothing press CLR

b. Check if transmit function is activated by switch on ACP or side stick or hand mic
and deactive it.
c) As in (b) and if not pull out the respective C/B
d. As in (b) and if not switch off resp. Tr. Key on ACP
85. Which of the following is suitable in case of TR1 & TR2 fault ?
a) All DC buses power is lost

b. APU shuts down, if operating
c. DC BAT BUS is powered by batteries 1 & 2
86. Which of the following is acceptable for electrical system ?
a. ESS TR operate when only TR1 or TR 2 or TR 1 + 2 fault occurs

b. Emergency Generator operates automatically only when AC BUS 1 + 2 fail,
speed more than 100 kts N1
c. DC BAT BUS is connected to batteries whenever AC BUS 1 + 2 fall with
emergency generator not operating
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87. Which of the following statements is suitable for Emergency Equipment of the a/c
There are.
a. 4 Halon fire extinguishers, 8 portable, 8 bottles and one Megaphone

b) 3 F/A kits, 1 Physician Kit, 4 Manual Release Tools
c. One Radio, beacon, one crash axe, 4 escape ropes
a. Approach idle is selected in FLT, when flaps are extended, CFCAP lever not
at zero position.
b) Approach idle enables rapid acceleration from idle is go-around thrust
c. This value depends only on Altitude
89. With auto thrust active, what is the upper limit of the EPR target.
a. CLB
b. MCT
c) Actual position of the thrust lever
d. TOGA
90. What is the procedure to be applied in the event of dual ENG COMPRESSOR
VANE ECAM warning
a. Disregard ECAM procedure. Do a standard auto thrust disconnection.

b. Select engine and wing anti ice switches to ON
c) When increasing and decreasing the thrust of one engine at a time if a particular
engine stalls shutdown the affected engine and do not reduce the thrust of the
remaining engine below 1.24 EPR
91. Identify the correct sequence of action to be carried out if the engine fire warning
is triggered on ground action (1) affected engine master off (2) against 1+2 discharge
(2) second engine master off
a. 3, 2 & 1
b) 1, 2 & 3
c. 3, 1 & 2
d. 1, 3 & 2
92. When the speed brake extension is inhibited
a) When angle of attack protection is active.

b. When SEC 2 + 3 FAULT is present
c. When high speed protection is active
93. When Load Alleviation Function is inhibited
a. When flap lever is 0 position

b. When high angle of attack protection is active
c) In pitch direct law.
d. When pitch altitude protection is active
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94. When does MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY red message appears on FMA
a. Whenever both ELAC 1 & ELAC 2 fail in flight

b) Due to multiple failure, pitch mechanical back up law is effective
c. If any one or both side stick fault takes place in flight
d. Both (b) and (c) are correct. 0
95. Due to G & Y Hydraulic failure, what is the law effective in Yaw control
a. YAW alternate law function is available with yaw damping and turn coordination function
b. YAW mechanical control function is available without yaw damping and turn
coordination function.
c. As in (b) and Rudder trim is also not available
d) YAW alternate law function is available but only yaw damping function is effective.
96. In the Mono display REFUELG is displayed in green. What does this indicate.
a. Refuel is selected on the REFUELING control panel.

b) Fuselage refueling control panel door is opened
c. Only when the refueling is in progress
d. Only after the refueling is completed.
97. On HYDRAULIC ECAM page Green System label is in Amber where as the
green hydraulic pressure is 300 PSI (No engine running). What is the reason
a. Leak measurement valve of green hydraulic system is closed.

b. This is an indication problem. All the services are available from Green
hydraulic pressure.
c. Priority valve of green hydraulic system is closed.
d) As in (a) and on upper ECAM G SYS LO PR caution also comes ON
98. What happens to EMERGENCY GENERATOR when Blue Hydraulic reservoir

has leaked out completely.
a. Emergency Generator is still available if RAT is extended

b) Emergency Generator is not available if RAT is extended
c. Emergency Generator has got a separate reserve fluid and it is available
when RAT is extended
d. Emergency Generator is available only after landing.
99. What happens to PTU when engines are started by using Manual Starting Method
a. PTU runs during second engine start.

b) PTU runs during both engine start sequences
c. PTU doesnt run ever during second engine start
d. PTU runs only during first engine start.
100. Which concept is correct for Hydraulic system ?
a. Engine driven hydraulic pump stops when its pb is selected to OFF

b. During a cargo door operation PTU can be run, if required
c. Any hydraulic pump operation can be reset in case of HYD SYSTEM
LO PR & LO LVL
d) RAT must not be extended just because of blue electrical pump failure.
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101. Is it possible to have POFD, SD, on captains side and EWD on upper ECAM at the
same time ? How ?
a. No
b) Yes, by selecting ECAM, ND transfer switch to CAPT side
c. Yes, automatically if the lower ECAM DU fails
d. Yes, by selecting DMC transfer switch to CAPT 3 side.
102. PFD, ECAM image are displayed on Capts side outer and inner DU respectively.
What will be the displayed after PFD / ND transfer switch is pressed on the outer
and inner DUS respectively.
a) ECAM, PFD
b. ECAM, ND
c. ND, ECAM
d. PFD, ND
103. When will ADV reminder come on EWD ?
a. Subsequent to advisory condition, if the respective system page is not displayed

b. Whenver there is an advisory condition.
c) In case of mono ECAM, if there is an advisory
104. When will SD auto change to CRUISE page
a. At 1500 feet if take off power is reduced and S/F are retracted.
b. 1 min after crossing 1500 feet if take off power exists or S/F are extended
d) At 1500 feet irrespective of any other conditions.
105. What are the purposes if RCL key on ECAM control panel
a. To recall the cautions that are cancelled wither by CLR key or EMER CANC
b. To recall any inhibited warnings / cautions during different phases of the flight
c) Both (a) and (b)
d. Only to recall cautions cancelled by EMER CANC key.
106. What are the ND modes in which flight plan shall be presented on the ND
a. All modes
b. Al ROSE modes
c. All modes except PLAN
d) All modes except ROSE VOR and ROSE ILS
107. What are the ND modes in which weather picture shall be shown on ND0
a. All modes
b) All modes except PLAN
c. Only ROSE modes
d. Only ROSE NAV & ARC modes
126
108. What is the restriction about CSTR optional key ?
a. Dont use CSTR key on both sides

b. Dont use CSTR key
c. Dont use CSTR key on left side
d. Nothing
109. When should the recorders GND CTL switch be used.
a. If CVR, DFDR are to work on ground

b. If CVR, DFDR are to work before the start of the engine.
c) As in (b) and also if they are to work 5 minutes after 2nd engine shut down
d. If CVR, DFDR are to work on ground power.
110. Landing gear were extended by using gravity extension method because of
B = Y SYSTEM LO PR caution. Are you permitted to rotate gravity extension
Crank handle back to normal position.
a. Yes, one all the gears are locked DOWN, selected Landing gear lever DOWN
and the rotate gravity extension handle back to normal position
b. Yes, after landing, when landing run is completed, rotate gravity extension
handle back to normal position.
c. Yes, after landing if aircraft is not able to clear the runway by differential braking
d) No, hand crank will be selected back to normal position by maintenance people.
111. Triple pressure gauge is showing uncontrolled pressure, what do you do before
take off.
a. Select normal brakes and use.

b. Rest the A/SKID & NWS switch 2nd proceed.
c) Cancel the take off and ask for the change of dual valve.
d. Consider the take off, resetting the dual valve through BSCU
12. Which points are valid for the landing gear operation .
a. When L/G does not retract after T/O, what or one minute and make a second attempt
b. LG CTL indication appears amber on wheel page for every operation of the L/G lever
c. LG CIU switch over from one to another occurs after comple retract cycle.
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IRS, NAV INST., COMMN
1. What happens if ILS 1 fails ?
a. GPWS FAULT appears in EP and ES series aircraft

b. Only mode 5 i.e. BELOW G/S is lost in EP series aircraft
c) Only mode 5 i.e. BELOW G/S is lost in ES series aircraft
d. Only mode 5 i.e BELOW G/S is lost in both EP & ES series aircraft.
2. What happens if both localiser and both glide slope receivers fail ?
a. LOC & G/S scales flash, FD bars flash.

b. LOC & G/S scales disappear from PFD
c) LOC & GS flags appear on both PFDs and both NDs
d. LOC & GS flags appear on both PFDs only
3. What will be the attention getters in case of loss of FWC1 and FWC2 and where
will be the list of Not available system given ?
a. MASTER WARN + CRC, STATUS page

b. MASTER WARN + CRC; right memo space is EWD
c) None; right memo space in EWD
d. Master Caut + SC; status page.
4. Aircraft climbs to more than 250 feet above the selected altitude, how can the
continuous C chord aural warning be cancelled ?
a. It is automatically cancelled at 750 feet above the selected altitude

b) By pressing the MASTER WARNING press button
c. By pressing the MASTER CAUTION press button
d. It cannot be cancelled.
5. RMP1 and RMP2 are being used for STBY NAV tuning purpose (NAV keys
lights are ON). Captain wants to use RMP1 for tuning VHF1, is it possible ? How?
a. No.
b. Yes; NAV key should be pressed (light OFF) and then VHF1 key should be pressed
c) Yes; NAV key is not be pressed and VHF1 key should be pressed.
d. Yes; first press VHF1 key and then NAV key.
6. On GPWS control panel, LDG FLAP 3 switch is selected ON. What are the
significances ?
a. GPWS warnings for flaps not in landing configuration are triggered only if
flaps are selected to less than 3.
b. GPWS warning are triggered if landing is made with flaps 3
c) As in (a) and on LDG memo, FLAP. CONFIG 3 will be displayed
d. As in (b) and on LDG memo, FLAP CONFIG 3 will be displayed.
128
7. Is it possible to know, when a DU fails, whether it due to DMC failure or due

to DU failure ?
a. DMC failure causes the DU be blanked.

b. DMC failure causes the diagonal line display on respective DU
c. DU failure causes the DU be blanked
8. If an ADIRU fails totally which checklist procedure should be carried out first ?
a) ADR FAULT procedure

b. IR FAULT procedure
c. Whichever checklist appears first
d. There is no need for any priority in carrying out the checklist.
9. ALIGN light for IR 1 flashes on ADIRS CDU. What does it indicate ?
a. Alignment fault or PPOS is not entered for 10 minutes

b) As in (a) or entered PPOS is different from the earlier values by more than 1 degree
c. As in (a) or entered PPOS is different from the earlier values by less than 1 degree
d. As in (b) and that ADIRU can be used only in ATT mode.
10. After all generators failure and gear down, which DUs are powered ?
a) Only Captains outer EFIS DU and upper ECAM DU

b. Both the captains EFIS DUs and upper ECAM DU
c. (b) is correct only for EP series a/c
d. (b) is correct only for ES series a/c
11. When will ADV reminder come on EWD ?
a. Subsequent to advisory condition, if the respective system page is not displayed

b. Whenever there is an advisory condition.
c) In case of mono ECAM, if there is an advisory
12. What are the communication system available after the loss of all generators
(a/c is on batteries ) ?
a. VHF1, HF1, Interphone

b) VHF1, Interphone
c. VHF1, VHF2, Interphone
d. HF1 and Interphone
13. What is lost when FMC 1 + 2 FAULT occurs ?
a. Amber caution sensing and attention getters

b. Red warming sensing
c) As in (b) and attention getters are lost
d. System pages except ENG, FUEL, F/CTL and WHEEL page
129
14. When will a system page key light on the ECP flash ?
a. When there is a failure in normal configuration

b. When there is a failure but in mono ECAM configuration
c. During advisory in normal configuration
d) During advisory in mono ECAM configuration
15. How is the Vertical speed indicated ?
a. Normally barometric and is in both analog and digital form.

b. Normally inertial
c. When inertial, a window appears around the numerical value.
d) As in (b) and if barometric, then a window appears around the digital value.
16. Which are the DUs normally supplied by DMC1
a. PFD1, ND1, upper ECAM, lower ECAM

b) PFD1, ND1, upper ECAM
c. PFD1, ND1, lower ECAM
d. PFD1, ND1
17. What happens when upper ECAM DU fails ?
a. EWD is suppressed and it may appear on either ND after ECAM / SD transfer

b) EWD auto appears on lower ECAM DU and SD is expressed and it may appear
on either ND after ECAM / ND transfer
c. EWD auto appears on lower ECAM and SD is totally lost.
d. EWD is totally lost and it cannot be regained.
18. Wx Radar is used in RCT mode, beyond 40 miles blue shadow region is displayed.
Is it possible to find green or yellow colour weather patterns beyond 40 miles ?
a) No.
b. Yes, green colour represents level 1 rain fall in uncalibrated area
c. Yes, yellow colour represents level 2 rainfall in uncalibrated area
19. When would the red ribbon representing field elevation appear on the right of
altitude scale
a. It is always there
b. Whenever the radio altitude is displayed on PFD
c) When radio altitude is less than 570 feet
d. When radio altitude is more than 570 feet
20. GLIDE SLOPE loud warning sound along with G/S amber lights can be cancel the
warnings ? How ?
a. No.
b) Yes, by pressing any one of the G/S lights both aural and visual warnings
are cancelled.
c. Yes, but only aural warnings are cancelled by pressing any one of the G/S lights
d. Yes, but only G/S lights can be cancelled by pressing any one of the G/S lights
130
21. What is the purpose of the GND CTL switch ?
a. To power the recorders, if needed after 5 minutes a/c power up and before first
engine start.
b. To power the recorders when the a/c is on ground
c) As in (a) and also to power them after 5 minutes of second engine shut down
d. Only to power recorders after 5 minutes of second engine shut down.
22. Is it possible to have PFD& SD, on captains side EWD on upper ECAM
at the same time ? How ?
a. No.
b) Yes, by selecting ECAM / ND transfer switch to CAPT side after lower
ECAM DU failure
c. Yes, automatically if the lower ECAM DU fails
d. Yes, by selecting DMC transfer switch to CAPT 3 side
23. During T/O phase, if FWC 1 and FWC 2 fail, what indications will appear ?
a) Only FWS FWC 1 + 2 FAULT message, related checklist and list of

NOT AVAIL system on EWD
b. SC Master Caution Lights, failure message and related checklist on EWD
c. CRC, Master Warming lights, failure message and related checklist on EWD
d. Nothing, since the warning are inhibited.
24. What is to be checked about IRS drift during parking checklist by addressing the
POSITON MONITOR page ?
a. If drift is less than 2+2t it is acceptable, where t is the time in hours for which
ADIRU was in NAV mode.
b. If drift is between 2 + 2t and 3 + 3t it should be checked for next flight
c. If drift is more than 3 + 3t, it is not acceptable
25. If RA No. 1 fails, what are the degradations ?
a. RA flag on Capt. PFD

b) FAULT light on GPWS SYS switch; CAT 3, GPWS in INOP of STATUS page
c. Loss of Radio Alt. Indication of Capt. PFD
d. All the above
26. When will on PFD speed scale black and red barber pole appear below stall
warning speed ?
a. In normal law when high angle of attack protection ( prot) is active

b. In alternate law when low speed stability protection is active
c. In direct law
27. When should the fast alignment of ADIRUs be done ?
a) During every transit stops

b. If transit time is more than 1 hour
c. During transit stops, if residual ground speed is more than 5 knots
d. If ADIRUs are switched for less than one hour
131
28. For TURBULENCE detection on Wx Radar
a. Select Wx/T mode on controller

b. As in (a) and range selector should be in 40 NM or less
c) As in (b) and turbulence is shown in magenta colour
d. None of the above are correct
29. In RHS top corner of ND some data is given. What does it mean in ROSE /NAV mode ?
a. Destination airfield data

b. Data of next VOR or ILS station of the flight path
c) Data of the next way point to be flown (TO way point) in the flight plan
d. Both (a) and (c)
30. PFD, ECAM image are displayed on Capts side outer and inner DU respectively.
What will be the displays - after PFD/ND transfer switch is pressed on the
Outer and inner DUs respectively.
a) ECAM, PFD
b. ECAM, ND
c. ND, ECAM
d. PFD, ND
31. What happens if both ECAM DUs fail ?
a. E/W/D appears automatically on left side ND

b) E/W/D shall be called on either ND by means of ECAM / ND transfer selector
c. It is not possible to recover SD at all
d. SD may be transferred on either ND by means of ECAM / ND transfer
selector
32. When TRK FPA modes are selected as basic modes of AFS ?
a. Only the fixed a/c symbol on PFD is dimmed

b. Only heading lubber line on ND and PFD are shortened and dimmed
c) Only lubber line on PFD, a/c symbol and PFD are dimmed
d. Only lubber line on ND is shortened and dimmed.
33. Is it possible to have ILS, VOR and ADF information at the same time on the
Captains ND ?
a. No, it is not possible

b) Yes. By selecting Rose ILS on Captains EFIS control panel, VOR on
No.1 ADF/VOR switch and ADF on NO.2 ADF/VOR switch, we get ILS-2
VOR 1 & ADF 2
c. Yes. By selecting Rose ILS on Captains EFIS control panel, VOR on
No.1 ADF/VOR switch and ADF on No. 2 ADF / VOR switch; we get
ILS 1, VOR 2 & ADF 2.
d. Yes, By selecting Rose ILS on Captains EFIS control panel, VOR on
No.1 ADF/VOR switch and ADF on No.2 ADF/VOR switch, we get
ILS 1, VOR 2 & ADF 2
132
34. In Altitude Alert System, what are the warnings given when the a/c approaches
to within 750 ft. of the selected altitude and when it deviates by 250 ft or more
of the selected altitude ? (Assume A/P is not engaged )
a. 1.5 sec. Aural warning and altitude window flashes yellow in both cases .
b) While approaching 1.5 sec aural plus pulsing yellow on PFD and while
deviating, continuous aural plus flashing amber in PFD
c. While approaching continuous aural and while deviating 1.5 sec aural warnings.
Visual warnings are same.
d. Continuous aural warning and flashing amber on PFD in both cases.
35. Flashing of Fault lt for IR1 on ADIRS control and display unit indicates.
a. ADIRU 1 is not usable

b) IR part of ADIRU has failed and ATT and HDG information may be recovered.
c. Only IR part of ADIRU1 is available.
36. How can Master warning and CRC be cancelled ?
a. By pressing Master Warning light only

b. By pressing EMER CANC pb
c. By pressing Master Caution light
37. When will SEL lt on RMP1 illuminate ?
a. Whenever RMP 1 is used for selecting a communication

b. When VHF 1 is selected on RMP2 or RMP 3.
c. When VHF 2 is selected on RMP1 or HF1 / HF2 is selected on RMP1
38. If ILSI fails, what are the inoperative systems on status page ?
a. Only CAT 2
b) ILS indications on Capt. PFD, Co-pilots, ND, CAT 2 are lost.
c. ILS indications on Capt, PFD, ND, CAT 2 are lost
d. ILS indications on Capt, PFD, F/O, ND, CAT 2, FMGS 1 are lost.
39. Where will EIS DMC 1 FAULT message appear ? (assume DMC transfer switch is
in NORMAL )
a. EWD on upper ECAM

b. EWD on lower ECAM automatically
c) As in (b) and it is supplied by DMC2
d. As in (b) and it is supplied by DMC3
40. What is the action if SC, Master Caution COM VHF/ HF EMITTING message
appear ?
a. Nothing; press CLR

b. Check if transmit function is activated by switch on ACP or side stick or hand mic.
And deactive it
c. As in (b) and if not pull out the respective C/B
d) As in (b) and if not switch off resp. Tr. Key on ACP.
133
41. What is the colour of the VSI pointer ?
a. Always green
b) It may be green or amber
c. As in (b) and pointer will be red if descent rate is more than 6000 feet / min
d. As in (b) and pointer will be red if the V/S value is in avoidable ACAS red strip
42. What are the degradations if avionics ventilation fails ?
a. Nothing
b. Grey backgrounds are removed from the scales of PFD
c) As in (b) and weather radar images are removed from ND
d. (b) is correct only when weather radar is in use.
43. Which flag will appear simultaneously on both PFDs and both NDs
a. LOC and GS flags due to ILS 1 failure

b. LOC and GS flags due to ILS 2 failure
c). CHECK HDG flag due to heading difference of more than 5 degrees between
the two side displays
d. CHECK ATT flag due to roll or pitch attitude difference of more than 5
degrees between the two side displays
44. In which modes the VOR and ADF bearing pointers may appear on ND?
a) In all ROSE modes

b. In all modes except PLAN mode
c. In all modes except ARC and PLAN modes
d. In all modes
45. In ROSE NAV mode, what does a continuous green line indicate ?
a) Active flight plan

b. Secondary flight plan
c. Temporary flight plan
d. Alternate flight plan
46. While setting the time on aircraft clock how would you decrement the time /
a. Rotate the SET knob anti-clockwise

b. Rotate the SET knob clockwise
c) Press the SET knob
d. It is not possible to decrement the time
47. When is it necessary to INIT the time through the MCDU ?
a. For the first flight of the day

b. Only if the a/c clock fails
c) As in (b) and it is possible only on ground
d. As in (b) and it is possible only in flight
48. What is the purpose of RMP3 ?
a) Only to tune the communication system

b. To tune communication or navigation system
c. Only to tune the HF communication system
d. Only to tune the VHF communication system
134
49. What do you know about the class 1 failure ?
a. It appears in the cockpit in the form of ECAM failure message

b. It appears in the cockpit under MAINTENANCE heading in the STATUS page
c. It is stored only in CFDIU and should be retrieved through MCDU after the flight
50. Captains inner EFIS DU had failed. Is it possible to get the weather radar
images on his side ?
a. Yes; after pressing the PFD / ND transfer switch

b. As in (a) and it is possible only if the mode selector is in other than PLAN mode
c. As in (b) and only if avionics ventilation failure is not there
d) It is not possible
135
CONSOLIDATED
1. During take off which tank supplies fuel to engines ?
a. Centre tank supplies fuel to both engines

b. Centre tank supplies fuel to No.1 engine and RH wing tank supplies fuel to
No. 2 engine.
c. Centre tank supplies fuel to No.1 engine and LH wing tank supplies fuel to
No. 1 engine.
d) Respective wing tanks supply fuel to the engines
2. Which tank receives the fuel from the fuel diverter valve ?
a. Centre Tank
b. Inner cells of the wing tank
c. Outer cell of the wing tank
d) As in (c) if outer cells are already full then fuel spills into inner cells
3. FOB indication is boxed amber
a. When center tank has fuel and both CTR tank pumps fail
b) As in (a) or when both transfer valves fail to open when inner cell at low level
c. When center tank has fuel and any one CTR tank pump fails and cross feed
failed in close position
4. What is the maximum continuous oil temperature allowed in IAE-V2500 engine ?
a) 155 C
b. 165 C
c. 175 C
d. 195 C
5. What are the indications if the oil temperature exceeds the maximum limit ?
a) ECAM message, Master Caution, SC and ENG page on Lower ECAM

b. ECAM message and ENG page on Lower ECAM
c. Only ENG page appears on Lower ECAM
d. ECAM message Master Warning, CRC and Engine Page on lower ECAM
6. When does the FAULT light on the engine panel come ?
a. Disagreement between the HP fuel valve position and its commanded positions
b) As in (a) or when there is automatic start abort
c. Disagreement between the LP fuel valve position and its commanded positions
d. Disagreement between start valve position and its commanded position
7. What are the parameters required for N1 computation in unrated N1 mode ?
a) TLA only
b. TLA, T 2
c. TLA, T2, ALT
d. TLA, TAMB, ALT
136
8. If SEC1 and SEC2 fail in flight
a. Both thrust reversers are available

b. Only No.1 engine reverse thrust is available
c. Both engines reverse thrust are lost
d) Only No. 2 engine reverse thrust is available
9. Later aeroplanes are fitted with two fire extinguishing agents for cargo compartment
fire. They have DISCH AGENT 2 light. When does this light come on ?
a) 60 minutes after discharge of agent 1 in either FWD or AFT cargo compartments

b. Immediately after discharging agent 1
c. 60 minutes after discharge of Agent 1 to FWD cargo compartment only
d. 60 minutes after discharge of Agent 1 to AFT cargo compartment only
10. Engine compressor vane fault indicates
a. LP compressor bleed valve fault only

b) LP compressor bleed valve fault or VSV angle disagree
c. HP compressor 7th stage and 10th stage bleed valve fault
11. Failure of One BMC causes
a. Associated bleed valve closure

b. Illumination of Master caution and single chime
c. The other BMC to take over the monitoring of the bleed system
12. BLEED fault light comes on if
a. Engine BLEED pb is selected to OFF

b. Engine Bleed valves are closed during engine start
c. The HP valve is closed
d) Over pressure occurs down stream of the bleed valve.
13. L wing leak is detected by
a. BMC 1
b. BMC 2
c) BMC 1 & 2
d. ZONE CONTROLLER
14. Probe / Window heat switch is in the Auto position
a. Probe heating will start only after both the engines are started
b. TAT probe is heated at low level on ground and at high level in flight
c) Pilot probe heating is at low level on ground and at normal level in flight
d. AOA probe heating is at low level on ground and at high level in flight
15. A cooler temperature is selected
a. Respective ram air inlet and outlet flaps open and turbine by pass valve closes
b. Respective ram air inlet and outlet flaps close and turbine bypass valve opens
c) As in (a) and are controlled by pack controller
d. As in (b) and are controlled by zone controller
16. Zone controller primary and secondary channel failure will result in
137
a. Loss of back up and optimized temperature regulation

b. Pack1 is controlled to deliver 20 Deg C and Pack 2 is controlled to deliver
10 Deg. C
c. On ECAM COND page all informations are removed and PACK REG appears
17. If the extract valve is fully open in flight what is the warning ?
a) SKIN VALVE FAULT

b. BLOWER FAULT
c. EXTRACT FAULT
18. When ditching switch is selected on
a. Outflow valve emergency ram air inlet valve and engine bleed valves close
b. Pack flow control valve, avionic ventilation extract valve, outflow valve close
c. Pack flow control valve, outflow valve avionic ventilation inlet valve close
d) Emergency ram air inlet valve, avionic, ventilation inlet valve, outflow valve close
19. When will the APU intake flap open ?
a) After Master Switch is set to ON

b. As in (a) and after pressing START pb switch to ON
c. (a) is correct only for APU battery start
d. (b) is correct for any APU start
20. What is the reason for APU EMER SHUT DOWN title on upper ECAM ?
a. Due to auto shut down of APU

b. APU fire push button pressed
c. APU fire on ground
21. Which busses are lost if TR 1, TR 2 had failed?
a. No bus is lost.
b. DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2
c) DC BUS 1, DC BAT BUS, DC BUS 2
d. DC BAT BUS after landing gear extension.
22. Identify the correct limitation for APU ?
a. When LOW OIL LEVEL message appears on ECAM APU page, the
remaining oil quantity allows normal APU operation for a further 30 hours
b. After 3 starter motor duty cycles separated by 1 min cool down, 120 mts. must
be allowed for cooling.
c) Max rotor speed during APU operation is 107%
d. Max. EGT for starting APU is 1058 Deg C
138
23. GALLEY SHED message on Elect page indicates
a) Main GALLEY are SHED

b. secondary Galley are shed
c. FWD Galley power are shed.
d. Aft Galley power are shed
24. Out of the four possible sources (GEN1 , 2, APU, GEN, EXT PWR) which has the least
priority to power AC BUS 2
a. APU GEN
b. EXT PWR
c) GEN 1
d. Whichever source is selected last.
25. In EMER ELEC configuration, after landing gear extension, if landing gear is
extracted again which source will feed the AC ESS BUS ?
a. EMER BUS
b. STAT INV
c. EMER GEN only after RAT & EMER GN MAN ON pb switch is pressed
26. When IDG 1 OIL OUTLET temperature raises to advisory, what is the action required.
a. Follow ECAM action.

b. Disconnect IDG 1
c) Switch off GEN 1 and reengage if temperature is below advisory.
d. Disconnect IDG 1 and reengage is temperature is below advisory.
27. On HYDRAULIC ECAM page Green System label is in Amber where as the
green hydraulic pressure is 300 PSI (No engine running). What is the reason
a. Leak measurement valve of green hydraulic system is closed.

b. This is an indication problem. All the services are available from Green
hydraulic pressure.
c. Priority valve of green hydraulic system is closed.
d) As in (a) and on upper ECAM G SYS LO PR caution also comes ON

b) Overheat of the pump itself.
d. In case of blue pump OVHT, the RAT must be extended
29. When does RAT FAULT ECAM warn trigger ?
a. Whenever RAT is working and RAT pump output pressure is more than 2500 psi
b. If RAT is not deployed automatically due to dual hydraulic failure.
c) If RAT is not fully stowed during normal flight.
30. When does DOWN ARROW flight on LDG Gear panel illuminates ?
139
a. Whenever Landing Gear is not down and flaps at 3.

b) Whenever Landing Gear is not down locked and radio altimeter less than
750 feet and flaps FULL
c. In any one gear falls to reach down locked position even after 30 secs.
31. Nose wheel steering is lost if
a. L/G is extended by gravity

b. L/G doors are not closed subsequent to normal L/G extension
c. Both LGCIU channels failure
32. How do you retract ground spoilers if ground spoilers are deployed automatically ?

b. As in (a) or by pushing down the speed brake control lever.
c) Only by moving both thrust levers forward.
a. If THS is out take off range

b. If THS is jammed
d. If pitch back up law is active
a) If both L & R elevator fault is detected

c. Whenever pitch direct laws is operative
35. How do you now that pitch direct law is active in flight ?
a. If bank angle protection green dash symbols turn to amber crosses and
no PFD message
b) If bank angle protection green dash symbols turn to amber crosses and
USE MAN PITCH TRIM amber message on FMA
c. If bank angle protection green dash symbols turn to amber crosses and
MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY red message on FMA
d. USE MAN PITCH TRIM message and green dashes in bank angle
protection.
36. What happens to bank angle protection if high speed is operative ?
a. Bank angle is limited to 45 deg and spiral stability is lost.

b) Bank angle is limited to 45 deg and spiral stability is introduced from 0 deg
c. Bank angle is limited to 33 deg and spiral stability is introduced from 0 deg
d. Bank angle protection is lost.
140
37. Steady ALIGN light indicates
c. Alignment fault
38. Aircraft is at 2000 feet Radio Altitude. For excessive rate of desceat, the GPWS
warning will be.
a. Dont sink
b. Terrain terrain
c) Sink rate
d. Too low terrain
39. In A 320 Weather Radar
a. The range of radar is selected from Weather Radar control panel

b. Weather image is available in all modes on ND
c) Weather image is taken off from ND automatically in case of insufficient
avionics ventilation
40. When is the fast realignment to be used.

c) With the aircraft stationary, if residual ground speed value of greater than
5 kts is observed on ADIRU, CDU or ND
d. If the normal alignment fails or ALIGN light flashes.
41. On PFD, Roll FD bar is flashing permanently. What does it indicate ?
a. Reversion of FD to HDG mode

b) LOC Transmission failure
c. LOC Receiver failure
d. LOC & G/S both receivers failure
42. In case of SDAC 1+2 fault
a. All ECAM cautions and warnings are lost

b. Only red warnings engine and fuel parameters are lost
d. It is for crew awareness only
43. What does the blue areas signify in RCT mode of weather radar ?
a. The rainfall is very less

b) The calibration range is exceeded, weather radar is not able to
determine rainfall in this area.
d. The weather radar energy has penetrated the target
141
44. Where will EIS DMC1 FAULT message appear (assume DMC transfer
switch is in NORMAL)
a. E/W Display on Upper ECAM

b. E/W Display on lower ECAM automatically
c) As in (b) and it is supplied by DMC 2
d. As in (b) and it is supplied by DMC 3
45. The flashing of IR fault light on ADIRS CDU can be due to
a. Complete failure of IRS

b. NAV facility of IRS is lost
c) As in (b) and ATT information may be recovered.
d. As in (b) and ATT information cannot be recovered
46. Subsequent to both ECAM screen failure, if ECAM / ND TFR selected on

F/O side
a) E/W display appears on ND2

b. E/W display appears on PFD2
c. System display appears on ND2
47. During a flight automatically, SD page changes from CRUISE to ELEC and
ELEC key on ECAM control panel glows. What does this mean ?
a) There is an advisory condition in electrical system

b. There is a failure in electrical system
c. Both (a) and (b) are correct
d. (b) is correct and CLR keys also glow
48. How many emergency exits are there in the cabin and what is the escape
device provided ?
a) 4 main doors each with a single lane slide / raft ; 4 over wing exits with a
double lane slide for 2 over wing exits on the same side.
b. 4 main doors each with a single lane slide; 4 over wing exits with a double
lane slide / raft for 2 over wing exits on the same side
c. 4 main doors each with a single lane slide / raft : 4 over wing exits each
with a single lane slide / raft
d. 4 main doors each with a single lane slide / raft; 4 over wing exits with a
single lane slide for 2 exits or the same wing.
49. CABIN PRESSURE red light on the door flashes when
a. Control handle is operated if differential pressure is above 2.5 mbar

b) Both engines stopped; slides are disarmed and cabin differential pressure
is above 2.5 mbar
c. Both engines stopped slides are armed and cabin differential pressure
is above 2.5 mbar
d. As in (a) and (b) and when control handles are operated.
142
50. If both the RUDDER TRAVEL LIMITATION functions fail in flight
a. Full rudder travel is available irrespective of the speed.

b. Rudder travel is limited to the value corresponding to the speed at which
the failure has taken place for the rest of the flight
c) Rudder travel is limited to the value corresponding to the speed at which
the failure has taken place till the slats are extended and thereafter full
authority is available.
d. This has no effect whatsoever.
51. During descend phase of flight with DES mode engaged on FMGS, if a/c
enters, F-PLN discontinuity, the FMA changes from DES/NAV to
a. OP. DES/ HDG

b. V/S/..
c) V/S/HDG
d. OP DES/
52. TEMP F. PLAN page is automatically displayed
a) If an entry of NEXT WAY POINT, NEW DEST or VIA GO TO is made

on the LAT REV page.
b. If SEC. F Plan page is selected on MCDU and COPY ACTIVE prompt
is pressed.
c. If SEC. F Plan page is selected on MCDU and ACTIVATE SEC prompt
is pressed.
d. When DIR TO page is selected on MCDU
53. In the event of FMGC1 failure, FMGC 2 available Nav turning availability
shall be
a. ILS 1 tuning by RMP1, ILS 2 auto tuned by FMGC2

b. Only ILS 2 tuning available on RMP 2
c. ILS 1 & 2 both available only by respective RMPs
d) ILS 1 & 2 both auto tuned by FMGC 2
54. With FD engaged in OP DES mode (AP-OFF) and ATHR engaged, aircraft
is leveled above FCU altitude, the following may occur ?
a. Aircraft speed increased to Vmax and FD mode changes to V/S mode

b) Aircraft speed decreases to VLS and FD mode changes to V/S mode
c. Aircraft speed increased to Vmax and FD mode changes to OPCLB
d. Aircraft speed decreases to VLS and now ATHR maintain speed at VLS
55. On FMA, TO-GA LK indication is given when
a) A/THR holds the TO/GA limit thrust and alpha floor condition has disappeared
b. A/THR holds the TO/GA limit thrust, alpha floor conditions being satisfied.
c. A/THR holds the TO/GA limit thrust, thrust levers being in TO/GA position
d. A/THR is disengaged by A/THR pb with thrust levers in TO/GA position.
56. With NAV mode engaged on FMGS, the ACTIVATE SEC prompt shall be
available if
a. Active and secondary F-PLN have common active leg

b. Active and secondary F-PLN have some common leg
c. HDG / TRK mode is engaged
143
57. To engage one Auto Pilot on ground, following condition must be met ?
a. Atleast one engine running

b. Both engines running
c) Both engines shut down
d. Irrespective of engine running
58. Deselection of the EXPEDITE mode may be performed by
a. Pull action on the V/S FPA knob

b. Pull action on the ALT knob
c. Pull action on the SPD knob
a. RWY mode only

c. RWY TRK mode
d) RWY or Roll out mode
60. The message on PFD FMA reads as VERT DISCON AHEAD it means ?
a. There is F-Plan discontinuity ahead

b. OP_DES mode engaged and a TOO STEEP path exists ahead
c. EXPEDITED DES mode engaged and F-Plan discontinuity exists ahead.
144

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CTE IAL HYD A320 TEST PAPER

AIR CRAFT GENERAL

2. Where would a failure message and the associated checklist appear ?

a. It is not possible to know.

4. How many emergency exits are there on A320 aircraft.

a. 8 and all of them can be opened from outside also.

5. What are the escape devices in A320 cabin.

a. Six S/R (Slide cum raft)

6. Mark the correct statement.

a. Only the ECAM checklists procedures.

9. Which aircraft have forward airstairs ?

a) Only EP series aircraft.

11. What are the precautions for airstair operation ?

a. Aircraft should be on ground and both engines are OFF.

12. If aircraft has only battery power, is it possible to operate airstair ?

a) Yes, because no battery bus provides power to airstrip operation.

13. Captain & F/Os seats in the cockpit.

a) Electrically and mechanically operated.

14. When do OPER red lights extinguish during airstair extension ?

a. If airstair is fully extended.

a) Maximum of 179 seats.

a. PB pushed IN Green light ON

17. White light ON, on the push button switch indicates

a. Push button switch is normal position.

18. Operation of airstair is possible with

a. Aircraft on ground and both engine stopped.

a. They automatically get disarmed.

a. When he door opening is stated.

a. When the door is opened in ARM position.

2. What are the emergency escape devices fitted on A320 aircraft ?

a) 4 single lane slide / rafts, 2 dual lane slides, 2 escape ropes.

4. Cargo doors on A320 aircraft.

5. The SLIDE ARMED light on cabin door will illuminate, if the

6. Which of the statements is correct.

7. How many emergency exits are there in A320 aircraft.

a. 8 and all of them can be opened from outside also.

8. What is the escape provision in A320 Cockpit.

1. When will the APU air intake flat open

a) After Master Switch is set to ON.

2. When would be APU ECAM page appears on SD

a. As soon as selecting master switch is ON

a) 20000, 39000 feet respectively.

a. As soon as START pb is pressed.

6. When would the FLAP OPEN message become advisory

7. In which phase of flight, APU start is initiated.

8. What are the indications when APU reach 95%

9. For starting APU

a. Minimum batteries voltage required is 25.5 volts.

10. Identify the correct limitation for APU.

a. By APU LP fuel pump, but not if aircraft is powered only by battery.

a. Due to auto shut down of APU

13. What is 60-120 seconds of cooling time provided for APU

a. Whenever bled power is switched off.

14. EGT maximum for APU is calculated by ECB, it is a function of

a. Low Oil Level, High Oil Temp, Low Oil Pressure

a) Follow the checklist

a. After pressing START pb. Switch to ON.

a. There will be no rpm change.

a) Fuel flow is immediately interrupted.

20. In case of APU fire on ground

21. APU generator load can be used upto

a) Without a delay, if bleed power was not used.

23. When does APU fuel pump run