NEET

Model Grand Test 2017

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Instructions :

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1. This paper contains 180 objective questions; 90 from Biology, 45 from Physics and

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45 from Chemistry
2. Each question caries 4 marks. Candidate will get 4 marks for a correct response. For

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each incorrect response 1 mark will be deducted from the total score
3. Maximum time is 3 hours and maximum marks is 720
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To darken the appropriate circle of the correct option against each question use blue
or black ball point pen only. Answer marked with pencil would not be evaluated.
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Page 1
CHEMISTRY
1. Common salt obtained from sea-water 8. 10 mL of propane was mixed with 70 mL
contains 96% NaCl by mass. The of oxygen and exploded. What would be
approximate number of NaCl units present in the volume of residual gases after
10.0 g of the salt is explosion at room temperature and after
21 22 23 24
1)10 2) 10 3)10 4) 10 exposure of the residual gases to alkali?
2. Ionisation potential of He+ ion is Assume that volume measurement are
1) 13.6 eV atom-1 2) 27.2 eV atom-1 made at the same temperature and pressure

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3) 54.4 eV atom -1
4) 109.6 eV atom-1 1) 55 mL, 25 mL 2) 40 mL, 15 mL
3. For which of the following vant Hoff 3) 50 mL, 20 mL 4) 35 mL, 40 Ml

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factor cannot be greater than unity?
1) K4[Fe(CN)6] 2) AlCl3 9. How many unpaired electrons are
3) NH2CONH2 4) KNO3 present in a triplet carbene

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4. On dissolving moderate amount of sodium
metal in liquid NH3 at low temperature,
1) 2 2) 1 3) 0 4) 3
which one of the following does not occur? 10. Energy levels A, B and C of a certain atom

1) Na+ ions are formed in the solution
2) liquid NH3 solution remains diamagnetic
3) liquid NH3 solution becomes a good
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corresponds to increasing values of energy,
i.e., EA < EB < EC. If X1, X2 and X3 are
the
wavelengths of radiations for responding to

5.
conductor of electricity
4) blue coloured solution is obtained
3
NaCl is doped with 2 10 mol % SrCl2,
ra the transitions C to B, B to A and C to A
respectively, which of the following
statement is correct?
up
C
the concentration of cation vacancies is X1
B
1) 12.04 1018 mol1
2) 10.01 108 mol1 X2 X3
A
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3) 12.04 1020 mol1 1) X1 + X2 + X3 = 0 2) X3 = X1 + X2

4) 4.02 1018 mol1 3) X 32 = X12 + X 22 4) X 3 =
X1 X 2
6. A is left over solution after the X1 + X 2
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electrolysis of brine solution. A reacts
with SO2 to give B which forms C
with excess of SO2. The substance C
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11. An atom of element A has 3 elctrons in its
outermost shell while one of element X has
6
electrons in its outermost shell. The

is formula
1) Na2S 2) NaHSO3 of the compound formed by A and X is
1) A2X4 2) A2X3
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3) Na2SO3 4) Na2SO4 3) A3X2 4) A2X

7. The wavelength of the third line of 12. Eight grams of oxygen effuses through a
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the Balmer series for a hydrogen atom is

21 100 small hole in 10 minutes. In the same time
1) 2)
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100R 21R the weight of hydrogen effusing out will be

21R 100 R
3) 4) 1) 32 g 2) 8 g 3) 2 g 4) 1 g
100 21

Page 2
13. Exhausted permutit can be regenerated 19. Blue baby syndrome is due to the
using excess of ___ ions in water
1) sulphate 2) nitrate
1) dilute HCl 2) brine solution
3) phosphate 4) chloride
3) dilute KOH 4) pure water
20. The hybridization states of the central
14. For the reaction atoms
CO(g) + O2(g) CO2(g), H and S in the complexes Fe(CN)36 , Fe(CN)64 and
are -283kJ and -87 J/K respectively. It was Co(NO 2 )63 are

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intended to carry out this reaction at 1000, 1) d2sp3, sp3 and d4s2 respectively
1500, 3000 and 3500K. At which of the
2) d2sp3, sp3d and sp3d2 respectively

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temperature given below the reaction is
thermodynamically not feasible? 3) d2sp3, sp3d2 and dsp2 respectively
1)1000K 2) 1500K 3) 3000K 4) 3500K 4) all d2sp3

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15. Calculate the half-life of the first order 21. The IUPAC name for the complex
reaction, C2 H 4O ( g ) CH 4 ( g ) + CO ( g ) [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6] is
if the initial pressure of C2H4O(g) is 80mm 1) hexaammine cobalt (III)

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and the total pressure at the end of 20 hexacyanochromate (III)
minutes is 120 mm. 2) hexacyanochromium cobalt (III)
1) 40 min 2) 120 min hexaammine(VI)
3) 20 min 4) 80 min 3) hexaammine cobalt (III)
16. Biuret test is not answered by
1) Proteins 2) Carbohydrates
ra hexacyanochromium (VI)
4) hexacyanochromium (III)
hexaammine cobalt(III)
up
3) Polypeptides 4) Urea
22. The following conversion requires
17. 0.16 g of methane is subjected to
C H3CH= CHCHO
combustion at 27C in a bomb calorimeter
CH3CH = CHCH2OH
system. The temperature of the
1) H2 Ni 2) B2H6
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calorimeter system
3) NaB H4 4) HI+redP
(including water) was found to rise by
0.5C. 23. HNO3 oxidises sulphur to X. H2SO4
Calculate the heat of combustion of oxidises sulphur to Y. X and Y are
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methane
at constant volume. The thermal capacity respectively.
of 1) H2SO4 and H2SO4 2) SO2 and SO2
the calorimeter system is 17.7 kJK1
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3) SO2 and H2SO4 4) H2SO4 and SO2

(R =8.314 J K1 mol1)
24. Which of the following is not formed in the
1) 695 kJ mol1 2) 1703 kJ mol1
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3) 890 kJ mol1 4) 885 kJ mol1 hydrolysis of XeF6

18. In natural rubber, all isoprene units 1) XeOF4 2) XeO3
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have 3) XeOF2 4) XeO2F2

1) trans-1,4 configuration
25. How many moles of HCl gas should be
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2) cis-1,4 configuration
dissolved in one litre of 0.1M NH4OH
3) Both cis and trans configuration solution so that it results into a buffer
4) Neither cis not trans configuration solution having pH = 9.26? (pKb =4.74)
1) 0.2moles 2) 0.1 moles
3) 0.05moles 4) 0.025moles

Page 3
26. Siderite and Sphalerite are respectively the
ores of the metals 34. Which nitrogen atom in LSD is most basic?
1) Al and Zn 2) Fe and Cu O
3) Cu and Zn 4) Fe and Zn 1 3
N (Et)2
H-N C
27. ZnO is white when cold but yellow when 2
hot because it develops N

1) Frenkel defect CH3

2) Schottky defect 1) 1 2) 3

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3)Metal excess defect 3) 2 4) all are equally basic
4) Metal deficiency defect 35. Which of the following is correct
28. If List I List (II)

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(Type of Reaction) (Phenomenon)
Ag + + 2NH 3 Ag(NH 3 )+2 ; K1 = 1.8 107
(A) SN2 (P) Walden inversion
Ag + + Cl AgCl; K 2 = 5.6 109

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(B) SN 1 (Q)Carbanion
Then for
intermediate
AgCl + 2NH 3 [Ag(NH3 ) 2 ]+ + Cl , (C) E2 (R) Anti-periplanar
Equilibrium constant will be
Configuration

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1)0.32 102 2) 3.11 102 (D) E1Cb (S) Carbocation
3)10.08 1016 4) 1.00 1017 intermediate
29. For a Ag Zn button cell, net reaction is 1)A-P, B-S, C-R, D-Q
Zn(s) + Ag 2 O(s)
ZnO(s) + 2Ag(s)
G of (Ag 2 O) = 11.21 kJ mol 1
G of (ZnO) = 318.3 kJ mol1
ra 2)A-P,B-Q,C-R, D-S
3)A-R, B-Q, C-P, D-S
4)A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P
up
Hence, E ocell of the button cell is 36.

1) 3.591 V 2) 2.591 V Strong

CH3 SOCl2
A H2
B C
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3) 1.591 V 4) 1.591 V Oxidation Lindlar ' s Catalyst

30. Reduction potential of chlorine electrode in The end product C is

contact with 0.01M HCl is
(given ECl0 / Cl = +1.36V ) 1) Ketone 2) Carboxylic acid
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1) 1.48V 2) 1.42V 3) Aldehyde 4) Ester

3) 1.3V 4) 1.33V 37. Br2
RCOOAg R Br....( I )
CCl4
31. Which of the following has least gold
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number value I2
RCOOAg R COOR.....( II )

1) haemoglobin 2) starch
3) gum arabic 4) gelatin Reaction I is Hundsdicker reaction.
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32. According to IUPAC nomenclature highest Reaction II is called_______ reaction

1) Simonini 2) HVZ
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priority is given for the group

1) COX 2) CHO 3) Fischer
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3) CONH2 4) CN 4) Schotten-Baumann

33. For the compound 38. The product (X) of the following reaction
BH3 / THF
HOOC CHOHCHOH COOH, the 1 Pentene
X.
H 2 O2 / OH
number of optical isomers (dextro, laevo
and meso) is 1) 2-pentanol 2) pentane
1) 1 2) 3 3) pentan-2-one 4) 1-pentanol
3) 4 4) 2

Page 4
39. Which of the following gives positive
iodoform test
OH
CH CH3

OH
1) 2)

HO

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CH2CH2OH
3) 4)
40. Nucleophilicity is highest for which of the

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following
1) F 2) OH
3) NH 2 4) CH 3

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41. Which of the following is most reactive
towards nucleophilic addition reaction

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1) formaldehyde 2) acetaldehyde
3) acetone 4) benzaldehyde

42. Which of the following is used in the

treatment of syphilis
1) pencillin 2) chloromphenical
ra
up
3) arsphenamine 4) dysiderzine

43. Which of the following will not show

Geometrical isomerism (M stands for a
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Metal. a and b are achiral ligends)

1) Ma2b2 2) Ma4b2 3) Ma5b 4) Ma3b3
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44. Which of the following is not amphoteric

1) Mn2O7 2) Cr2O3
3) PbO 4) Sb4O6
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45. The biological function of calcium ion is

A) Maintains cell membrane integrity
B) Responsible for regular heartbeat
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C) Responsible for inter neuronal

functions
1) A and B 2) A and C
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3) B and C 4) A, B and C
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Page 5
PHYSICS :
51. Two stones are projected
46. If the capacitance of a nano capacitor simultaneously with same speed
is measured in terms of a unit u made 10 m/s from same point. The range of
by combining the electronic charge e, both are same and is equal to 5 3 m.
Bohr radius a0, Planks constant h Then the difference in their times of
and speed of light C then flight is . (g = 10 m/s2)

et
e2C e2 h 1) 3S 2) 1 S
1) u = 2) u =
ha 0 Ca 0 3) ( 3 1 S ) 4) 2 S

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2
e a0 hC 52. A body with mass 5 kg is acted upon
3) u = 4) u = 2
hC e a0
( )
by a force F = 3i+ 4j N . If its

ha
47. In an experiment, four quantities a, b,
c and d are measured with percentage initial velocity at t = 0 is
error 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. ( )
u = 6i12j m/s, the time at which it

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Quantity P is calculated as follows
will just have
a 3b 2 velocity along the y-axis is
P . Then percentage Error in
cd 1) Never 2) 10 S 3) 2 S 4) 15 S

48.
P is
1) 14% 2) 10% 3) 7% 4) 4%
A particle moves along X-axis. The
ra 53. A block of mass 15 kg is resting on a rough
up
inclined plane as shown in figure. The
velocity of the particle as function of
block is tied up by horizontal string which
x is V2 = 12x 3x3 (in SI), then the
velocity of particle at the instant when has a tension of 50 N. The coefficient of
ad

acceleration is 1.5 m/s2 is friction between the surface of contact is :

1) 4 m/s 2) 3 m/s
3) 1.5 m/s 4) Zero (g = 10 m/s2)
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49. If a body moving in a circular path

maintains constant speed of 10 m/s,
then which of the following correctly T
describes relation between M
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acceleration and radius ?

w

450
a a
r r
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1) 2)
1) 1/2 2) 2/3
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a a 3) 3/4 4) 1/4

3) r 4) r 54. The average work done by a human

heart while it beats once is 0.5 J. What
50. The angle between A =i +j and is the power used by heart if it beats
B =i j is 72 times in a minute
1) 450 2) 900 3) 450 4) 1800 1) 0.2 W 2) 0.4 W 3) 0.6 W 4) 0.8 W

Page 6
 I + I22
1) 1 1
55. Two particles A and B of masses m 2 (I 1 + I 2 )
and 2 m are moving along the X-axis 2
and Y-axis respectively with the same (I 1 + I 2 )(1 + 2 )
2)
speed . They collide, at the origin 2
and coalesce into one body after the 2
(I 1 1 + I 2 2 )

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collision. Then the loss of energy 3)
2 (I 1 + I 2 )
during this collision is
4) None of these
1 3 2 2

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1) m 2 2) m 2 3) m 2 4) m 2 59. A particle executes SHM on a straight
2 2 5 3 path. The amplitude of oscillation
56. Two semicircular rings of linear mass is 2 cm. When the displacement of the

densities and 3 and of radius R
each are joined to form a complete
ring. The distance of the centre of the
mass of complete ring from its
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particle from the mean position is
1 cm, the numerical value of
magnitude of acceleration is equal to

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the numerical value of magnitude of
geometrical centre is velocity. The frequency of SHM is (in
2R R 2R R second-1) :
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 3 2 3 1
57. The diagram shows a uniform disc of
mass M and radius a. If the moment
of inertia of the disc about the axis XY
ra 60.
1) 2 3 2)
3
3)
2
4)

A small satellite is moving in elliptical

2 3
up
is I, its moment of inertia about an orbit
axis through O and perpendicular to around earth as shown. If L denotes
the plane of the disc is the magnitude of its angular
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Y momentum and K denotes kinetic

energy :

a/2
en a/2

C
O

X 1) L2 > L1 and K2 > K1

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4 1 2) L2 > L1 and K2 = K1
1) Ma 2 2) I + Ma 2
3 4 3) L2 = L1 and K2 = K1
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I 4) L2 = L1 and K2 > K1
3) 2I 4)
2
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58. Two discs of moments of inertia I1 and

I2 and angular speeds 1 and 2 are
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rotating along the collinear axes

passing through their plane. If the two
are made to rotate combined along the
same axis the rotational K.E of system
will be

Page 7
61. A block of mass m is having two similar 64. A gas is found to obey the law
rubber ribbons attached to it as shown in the P2V = constant. The initial
temperature and volume are T0 and V0.
figure. The force constant of each rubber If the gas expands to a volume 3V0, its
ribbon is K and surface is frictionless. The final temperature becomes
block is displaced from mean position by x T0 T0
1) 2) 3) 3T0 4) 3 T0
cm and released. At the mean position the 3 3
65. An insulated container contains

et
ribbons are underformed. Period of
4 moles of an ideal diatomic gas at
vibration of the block is temperature T. Heat Q is supplied to

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this gas, due to which 2 moles of the
gas are dissociated into atoms but
temperature of the gas remains

ha
constant. Then
m 1) Q = 2RT 2) Q = RT
3) Q = 3RT 4) Q = 4RT

tib
66. Two rods of lengths L1 and L2 are
m ( 2k ) 1 m ( 2k ) welded together to make a composite
1) 2 2
2) rod of length (L1+L2). If the
k 2 k2
coefficients of linear expansion of the

3) 2
m
4) 2
m
ra rods are 1 and 2 respectively, the
effective coefficient of linear
up
k k+k expansion of the composite rod will
62. The diagram shows a venturimeter, be
through which water is flowing. The 2
1) 1 2 2) ( 1 + 2 )
ad

speed of water at X is 2 cm/s. The 3

speed of water at Y (taking g = 1000 L 1 1 + L 2 2 L L + 1 2
3) 4) 1 2
cm/s2) is (difference in the levels of L1 + L 2 L1 + L2
water in two vertical limbs is 5.1 mm)
en

67. The densities of wood and benzene at

00C are 880 kg/m3 and 900 kg/m3
respectively. The coefficients of
volume expansion are 12 x 104/0C for
.e

wood and 15 x 104/0C for benzene.

The temperature at which a piece of
wood just sink in benzene is
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1) 23 cm/s 2) 32 cm/s
250 0 25 0
3) 101 cm/s 4) 1024 cm/s 1) C 2) C
3 3
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63. The radius of a soap bubble is r. The

surface tension of soap solution is T. 3) 1250C 4) 5000C
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Keeping temperature constant, the 68. Two spherical black bodies of radii r1
radius of the soap bubble is doubled, and r2 and with surface temperature T1
the energy necessary for this will be and T2 respectively radiate the same
power. Then the ratio of r1 and r2 will
1) 24 r 2 T 2) 8 r 2 T be
3) 12 r 2 T 4) 16 r 2 T T2 2 T2 4 T1 2 T1 4
1) 2) 3) 4)

T1 T1 T2 T2

Page 8
69. A substance of mass m kg requires a 73. A moving coil galvanometer has 150
power input of P watts to remain in equal divisions. Its current sensitivity
the molten state at its melting point. is 10 divisions per milli ampere and
When the power is turned off, the voltage sensitivity is 2 divisions per
sample completely solidifies in time milli volt. In order that each division
t sec. What is the latent heat of fusion read 1 volt, the resistance in ohms
of the substance to be connected in series with
Pm Pt m t the coil will be
1) 2) 3) 4)

et
t m Pt Pm 1) 9995 2) 995 3) 103 4) 105
74. A paramagnetic sample shows a net
70. Focal length of a lense is f ( of glass is

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magnetisation of 8 A/m when placed
3 ). Now it is immersed completely in in an external field of 0.6 T at a
2
temperature of 4K. When the same

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water ( = 4 3 ) . Then its focal length sample is placed in an external
magnetic field of 0.2 T at a
changes to
temperature of 16 K, the

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magnetisation will be
1) 4f 2) 2f
32 2
1) A/m 2) A/m
3) 3f 4) f/2 3 3
71. If the focal length of objective lens is
increased, magnifying power of
1) Microscope and telescope both will
ra 75.
3) 6 A/m 4) 2.4 A/m
In a double slit experiment, the two
slits are 1 mm apart and the screen is
up
increase placed 1 m away. A monochromatic
2) Microscope and telescope both will
light of wavelength 500 nm is used.
decrease
What should the width of each slit
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3) Microscope will increase but that of

to obtain 10 maxima of the double slit
telescope decrease
4) Microscope will decrease but that of pattern within the central maximum of
the single slit pattern ?
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telescope will increase

72. A car is moving towards a cliff. 1) 0.1 mm 2) 0.2 mm
The car driver sounds a horn of 3) 0.3 mm 4) 0.4 mm
frequency f. The reflected sound A resistance of 2 is connected
.e

76.
heard by the driver has a frequency 2f.
across one gap of a meter-bridge (the
If V be the velocity of sound, then
length of the wire is 100 cm) and an
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the velocity of the car, in the same

velocity units, will be unknown resistance, greater than 2
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V V V V is connected across the other gap.

1) 2) 3) 4)
2 3 4 2 When these resistances are
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interchanged, the balance point shifts

by 20 cm. Neglecting any corrections,
the unknown resistance is
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6

Page 9
77. A monoatomic gas at a pressure P, 80. An infinite, uniformly charged sheet
having a volume V expands with surface charge density cuts
through a spherical Gaussian surface
isothermally to a volume 4V and then
of radius R at a distance x from its
adiabatically to volume 16 V. The final centre, as shown in the figure. The
3 electric flux through the Gaussian
pressure of the gas is (Take = )
2 surface is
P P
1) 32 P 2) 3) 4) 64 P

et
32 64
R
x

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78. In the electric network shown, when
no current flows through the 4

ha
resistor in the arm EB, the potential
difference between the points A and 1)
R 2
2)
(
2 R 2 x 2 )
D will be 0 0

tib
F
2
E 3)
(R x )
2
4)
(
R 2 x2 )
D
0 0
2V
4
2
4V
R ra 81. Shown in the figure is a conductor
carrying a current I. The magnetic
up
field intensity at the point O (common
A B C centre of all the three arcs) is
9V 3V I
1) 3V 2) 4V 3) 5V 4) 6V
ad

79. A network of four capacitors of r

en

capacity equal to C1=C, C2=2C, C3=3C

O
and C4=4C are connected to a battery
as shown in the figure. The ratio of 50 I 0 I
1) 2)
.e

the charges on C2 and C4 is 24 r 24 r

10 I
3) 4) Zero
C2
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24 r
C3 C1 82. A conducting circular loop is placed in
w

C4 a uniform magnetic field, B = 0.025 T

with its plane perpendicular to the
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loop. The radius of the loop is made to

shrink at a constant rate of 1 mm/s.
V
The induced emf when the radius is
7 22 3 4
1) 2) 3) 4) 2 cm will be equal to
4 3 22 7

1) 2V 2) V 3) V 4) 2 V
2

Page 10
83. In a series resonant LCR circuit, the 1) Kinetic energy decreases, potential
voltage across R is 100 volts and energy increases but total energy
remains same
R=1K with C=2 F. The resonant
2) Kinetic energy increases, potential
frequency is 200 rad/s. At resonance energy decreases but total energy
the voltage across L will be remains same
3) Its kinetic energy increases but
1) 4103 V 2) 2.5103 V
potential energy and total energy
3) 40 V 4) 250 V decreases

et
84. A fully charged capacitor C with 4) Kinetic energy, potential energy and
initial charge q 0 is connected to a coil total energy decreases

.n
of self inductance L at t = 0. The time 87. Half-lives of two radioactive elements
at which the energy is stored equally A and B are 20 minutes and 40
minutes, respectively. Initially, the

ha
between the electric and magnetic
fields is samples have equal number of nuclei.
After 80 minutes, the ratio of decayed
numbers of A and B nuclei will be
1) LC 2) LC

tib
4 1) 1 : 16 2) 4 : 1 3) 1 : 4 4) 5 : 4
88. Three photodiodes D1, D2 and D3 are
3) 2 LC 4) LC made of semiconductors having band
85. When photons of wavelength 1 are gaps of 2.5 eV, 2 eV and 3 eV
incident on an isolated sphere, the
corresponding stopping potential is
ra respectively. Which one will be able to
detect light of wavelength 6000A0 ?
1) D1 2) D2
up
found to be V. When photons of 3) D3 4) All the above
wavelength 2 are used, the
89. Statement-A : If the earth did not have
corresponding stopping potential was an atmosphere, its average surface
ad

thrice that of the above. If light of temperature be lower than what it is

wavelength 3 is used, then the now.
Statement-B : A charged particle
stopping potential for this case is oscillates about its mean equilibrium
en

hc 1 1 1 position with a frequency of 109 Hz

1) + and the electromagnetic wave
e 3 2 1
produced will have frequency of
hc 1 1 2x109 Hz
.e

1
2) + 1) Both A & B are true
e 3 2 2 1
2) A is true, B is false
hc 1 1 3) A is false, B is true
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1
3) 4) Both A & B are false
e 3 2 1
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hc 1 1 3 90. A basic communication system

4) + consists of
e 3 2 2 21 A) Transmitter B) Information source
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C) User of information
86. As an electron makes a transition from D) Channel E) Receiver
an excited state to the ground state of Choose the correct sequence in which
hydrogen like atom / ion these are arranged in a basic
communication system.
1) A, B, C, D, E 2) B, A, D, E, C
3) B, D, A, C, E 4) B, E, A, D, C

Page 11
BIOLOGY : 95. Ulothrix, Riccia and ferns are similar
91. The taxonomical aid which is an index in having
of plant species in an area is 1) Dominant gametophyte
1) Grade 2) Manuals 2) Unicellular gametangia
3) Monographs 4) Flora 3) Absence of vascular tissues
92. Match the following column-I and 4) Presence of flagellated gametes
column II 96. Match the followings and choose correct

et
option.
Column-I Column II Group-A Group-B

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1)Endogenous i) Basidiospore
A)Aleurone layer i) Without fertilization
mitospore

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B)Parthenocarpic ii) Nutrition fruit
2) Exogenous ii) Conidia
C) Ovule iii) Double fertilization
mitospore

tib
3)Exogenous iii) Ascospore D) Endosperm iv) Seed

meiospore Option :

4) Endogenous iv) Sporangiospre 1) A i, B ii, C iii, D - iv

meiospore ra 2) A ii, B i, C iv, D iii
up
3) A iv, B ii, C i, D iii
1) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iii
4) A ii, B iv, C i, D iii
2) 1- iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii
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3) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii 97. Which of the following group of plants
4) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv have root to provide the support to the
upright shoot system like ropes of a
en

93. The Drosophila of plant kingdom tent?

belongs to 1) Maize, Sugarcane, Mango

.e

1) Phycomycetes 2) Zygomycetes 2) Jowar, Maize, Sugarcane

3) Ascomycetes 4) Basidiomycetes 3) Sugarcane, Jowar, Banyan tree

w

94. Which of the following are not a group 4) Screw pine, Maize, Sweet potato
w

of brown algae ?
1) Sargassum and Fucus
w

2) Ectocarpus. Dictyota
3) Dictyota, Laminaria
4) Sargassum and Ficus
98. Floral formula of Solanaceae is 101. Annual rings comprises
1) Primary and secondary xylem
1) O P2 A3 G2
+ 2) Secondary xylem and secondary

2) O K4 - 5 C4 -5 A10 G(2) phloem

+
3) Only secondary xylem
3) O K(5) C5 A5 G(2) 4) Secondary xylem and primary phloem
+
102. Arrange the correct sequence of

et
4) O K(5) C(5) A5 G(2)
+ secondary growth in dicot root
99. Examine the types of aestivation shown in

.n
1) Activity of vascular cambium
the following diagram and select the
correct answer. 2) Formation of cambium strip from

ha
pericycle part
3) Origin of cambium strips for
conjuctive tissue

tib
4) Origin of cork cambium from
1) A-Twisted, B-Imbricate, C-Vexillary, D-
Valvate pericycle

2) A-Imbricate, B-Vexillary, C-Valvate, D-

Twisted
ra 5) Fusion of both cambium strips
1) 1,4,5,2,3 2) 3,2,5,1,4
up
3) A-Valvate, B-Twisted, C-Imbricate, D- 3) 3,2,1,5,4 4)2,3,4,1,5
Vexillary 103. Catalase is present in
ad

1) Lysosome 2) Glyoxisome
4) A-Valvate, B-Twisted, C-Imbricate, D-
Vexillary
3) Ribosome 4) Peroxisome
104. One of the following serves as a
100. Select the incorrect match
en

temporary storage place for proteins

1) Sieve elements Conduction of and other compounds synthesized by
photosynthates
endoplasmic reticulum
1) Lysosomes 2) Spherosomes
.e

2)Bast fibre Support

3) Microsomes 4) Dictyosomes
3)Ray parenchyma Water storage 105. What will happen to an enzyme when
w

4) Bast parenchyma Food storage apoenzyme is separated from its metal

w

component ?
1) Activity will be increased
w

2) Activity will be lose

3) Activity will be decreased
4) No change in activity
106. Which of the following sequence is 109. A condition necessary for imbibition is
correct on the basis of increasing 1) Larger positive water potential of
imbibant
molecular weight ?
2) Higher matric potential of imbibant
1) DNA, ATP, NADP, AMP
3) High proportion of colloids in
2) AMP, ATP, NADP, DNA
imbibant
3) ATP, AMP, DNA, NADP
4) Lower negative water potential of
4) ATP, ADP, NADP, DNA imbibant

et
107. The graph shows 110. Mark the incorrect statement

.n
1) Water moves from hypotonic solution
to hypertonic solution
2) Water moves from cell having higher

ha
water potential to cell with lower
water potential
3) Water moves from cell with high

tib
w to cell with low w
1) Effect of CO2 concentration on rate of 4) Water moves from cell with lower
photosynthesis.
2) Effect of O2 concentration on rate of
ra111.
turgor pressure to cell with higher
turgor pressure
Zn is required for synthesis of
up
photosynthesis. precursor of
3) Effect of H 2O concentration on rate of 1) Auxin 2) Gibberellin
ad

photosynthesis. 3) Cytokinin 4) ABA

4) Effect of light intensity on rate of
en

photosynthesis. 112. Match the following

108. Which one of the following pairs is 1) Copper i)Nitrate reductase
correctly matched ? 2)Molybdenum ii) OEC
.e

1)Anaphase I-Homologous
chromosomes are separated 3) Zinc iii) Plastocyanin
w

2) Metaphase I- Pairing of maternal and

4) Manganese iv) Carbonic
paternal homologous chromosomes
take place anhydrase
w

3) Interphase- A nuclear envelope

encloses each haploid set of
w

chromosomes
4) Prophase-Non- homologous
chromosomes are separated
1) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii
2) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iv
3) 1-i, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-iii
4) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii
113. Choose the correct combinations of
labeling the carbohydrate molecule
involved in the Calvin cycle.
118. Abscissic acid acts as an inhibitor of
plant growth and metabolism. In other
words we can say that is
1) Stimulates seed germination
2)Stimulates closure of stomata
3) Decreases the tolerance of plants to
various kinds of stress

et
4) Inhibits dormancy in seeds
1) (i) RuBP (ii) Triose phosphate (iii) PGA

.n
119. In haplontic life cycle, meiosis occurs
2) (i) PGA (ii) RuBP (iii) Triose phosphate
at the time of
3) (i) PGA (ii) Triose phosphate (iii) RuBP

ha
1)Spore formation
4) (i) RuBP (ii) PGA (iii) Triose phosphage
2) Gamete formation
114. Components of cytochrome C 3) Zygote germination

tib
reductase complex of ETS in 4) Zygote formation
mitochondria are 120. Select an incorrect statement
1) Cyt a , a3
3) Cyt b , FeS & Cyt c1
2)Cyt c, c1
4) FMN, FeS
ra regarding endosperm formation
from central cell
up
1) PEN (primary endosperm nucleus)
115. Maximum RQ value is seen when divides by free nuclear division in
many plants
1) Malic acid is respiratory substrate
2) Endosperm is main nutritive tissue in
ad

2) Tripalmitic acid is respiratory dicot seeds

substrate 3) It is a post fertilization event
4) Its is a formation is absent in some
en

3) Glucose is respiratory substrate

angiosperms
4) Gram seed is germinating 121. A tetraploid Triticum plant released
116. Choose the wrongly matched pair from the
.e

pollen grains on Monday morning, but

following.
pollen grains reached stigma of a
1) Auxins to grow
w

diploid plant on Tuesday morning.

2) Gibberelins Gibberella fujikurai
What will be the number of
w

3) Cytokinins Herring sperm DNA

chromosomes in its endosperm ?
4) Abscissic acid Flowering hormone
w

1) 28 2) 21 3) 42
117. Antibiotics are mostly obtained from 4) None endosperm will be produced
1) Fungi
2) Actinomycetes
3) Cyanobacteria
4) Both 1 and 2
122. Arrange the stages of embryogeny in a 1) Ribosomal RNA 2) snRNA
dicotyledonous embryos in correct 3) t RNA 4) All of these
order - 127. Four samples of double stranded DNA
1) Zygote, proembryo, globular, heart- are analysed and the following
shaped, mature embryo information is obtained
2) Zygote, globular, proembryo, heart 1) Sample 1-15% thymine
shaped, mature embryo 2) Sample 2-20% guanine

et
3) Zygote, heart- shaped, globular, 3) Sample 3-30% adenine

.n
proembryo, mature embryo 4) Sample 4-40% cytosine
4) Zygote, mature embryo, globular, Which of these samples represent

ha
heart- shaped, proembryo DNA from the same source ?
123. The Mendelian principle which has 1) 1 and 2 2) 2 and 3
always stood true is 3) 3 and 4 4) 1 and 4

1) The law of independent assortment
2) The law of segregation
3) The law of dominance
4) All the above
ra
up
124. Behaviour of chromosomes is parallel
to the behaviour of genes during
ad
tib
128. Khorana and his colleagues
synthesized a RNA molecule with
repeating sequence of UG N-bases
(UGUGUGUGUGUG).It produced a
tetrapeptide with alternating sequence
of cysteine and valine. It proves that

inheritance. It was noted by codon for cysteine and valine is

1) Sutton and Boveri 1) UGG and GUU
2) Morgan 2) UUG and GGU
en

3) Punnett 3) UGU and GUG

4) Cuenot 4) GUG and UGU
.e

125. Which of the following is not included 129. Differentiation of callus into plant
in mendelian principles of inheritance ? parts is
w

1) Dominance 1) Embryogenesis
w

2) Purity of gametes/segregation 2) Embryoid formation

3) Linkage 3) Morphogenesis 4) Totipotency
w

4) Independent assortment

126. RNA polymerase III in eukaryotes

helps in synthesis of
130. Citric acid is derived form 1) 18 trillion dollar
1) Aspergillus niger 2) Half of GNP
2) Rhizobium nigricans 3) Nearly two times of GNP
3) Penicillium citrinum 4) Equal to the GNP
4) Lactobacillus vulgaricus 135. Which one of the following
131. Match the following column-I and representation shows the pyramid of
column II number in a forest ecosystem ?

et
Column-I Column II
a)

.n
b)
a)Himgiri i)White rust

b)Pusa swarnim ii)Leaf and

ha
stripe rust
c) Prabhani iii) Bacterial c)
d)
kranti blight

tib
d) Pusa komal iv) Yellow
mosaic virus 136. Study the stages in cross bridge cycle and
identify B, C and E respectively.
1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
ra
2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
132. Identify the statement which is not
up
true for Bt- toxin ?
1) It is the product of cry gene of
Bacillus thuringienis
ad

2) It is secreted I crystalline state called

protoxin
3) It creates pores in the midgut of insect
en

larvae
1) ATP, P, ADP 2) ADP, ATP, P
4) The toxin causes cell wall damage to
Bacillus thuringiensis 3) ADP, P, ATP 4) ATP, ADP, P
.e

133. The protein encoded by the gene cry II

Ab controls 137. A drug after administration causes
w

1) Corn borer depression and slows down body functions.

2) Cotton boll worms The receptors for this drug are present in the
w

3) Root knot disease of tobacco

1) CNS and GI - tract
4) Loose smut of wheat
w

134. Robert Costanza and his colleagues 2) Liver

have tried to put price tags on natures
3) Cardiovascular system
life support services. The average price
tags of ecosystem services estimated is 4) Spinal cord
138. Which one of the following options gives 141. In feeding efficiency of one species might
the correct matching of a disease with its be reduced due to the interfering and
causative organisms and mode of infection ? inhibitory presence of the other species,

Causative Mode of even if resources are abundant then it is

Disease
Organism infection called

Salmonella With
1) Typhoid 1) Competitive release
typhi inspired air

et
Streptococcus Droplet 2) Resource partitioning
2) Pneumonia
pneumoniae inhaling

.n
3) Interference competition
Contaminat
Wuchereria
3) Elephantiasis ed water 4) Competitive exclusion

ha
bancrofti
and food
142. Which scientist found that plots with more
Bite of
species showed less year - to - year variation
Plasmodium female

tib
4) Malaria in total biomass ?
vivax Culex
mosquito
1) David Tilman 2) Paul Ehrlich
139. Which is the best breeding method for
animals that are below average
ra
in 3) Robert May 4) Edward Wilson
up
productivity ? 143. Recognise the figure and find out the correct
matching with respect to green house gases.
1) Out Crossing
ad

2) Cross breeding

3) Out breeding
en

4) Interspecific hybridization
.e

140. If the stressful external conditions are

localized or remain only for a short
w

duration, the organisms have some 1) b - CFCs, a N2O, d - CO2, c - CH4

alternatives like
w

2) a CO2, b CH4, c - CFCs, d N2O

1) Migrate 2) Conform
3) b - CFCs, a N2O, c - CO2, d - CH4
w

3) Regulate 4) 2 and 3
4) a - CFCs, b N2O, d - CO2, c - CH4
144. Match the Columns I and II, and choose the 147. PTH stimulates
correct combination from the options given. 1) Reabsorption of Ca2+ by the renal tubules

Column-I Column-II 2) Mineralization of bones

a) Pinctada 1) Chiton 3) Secretion of Ca2+ by the renal tubules

b) Loligo 2) Sea-hare 4) Hypocalcemia in blood

148. Hormone which regulate gene expression or

c) Polyplacophora 3) Pearl oyster
chromosome function by interact with

et
intracellular receptor and then with genome
d) Dentalium 4) Squid
is
e) Aplysia 5) Tusk-shell

.n
1) Oxytocin 2) Aldosterone

1) a 3, b 4, c 1, d 5, e 2 3) Adrenaline 4) Glucagon

ha
2) a 4, b 3, c 2, d 5, e 1 149. Otolith organs are related to sense of

1) Touch 2) Hearing
3) a 3, b 4, c 1, d 2, e 5

tib
3) Smell 4) Balance
4) a 5, b 1, c 3, d 4, e 2
150. Study the given pathway of conduction of
145. Match the Columns-I and II, and choose the
correct combination from the options given. ra visual impulses.

A Generation of Action Potential

B C Brain.
up
Column-I Column-II

a) Macaca 1) Scaleless vertebrate In the above A, B and C are respectively

1) Breakdown of rhodopsin, ganglion cells,

ad

b) Columba 2) Cloacal chamber

bipolar cells
c) Vipera 3) Pneumatic bones
2) Formation of rhodopsin, bipolar cells,
d) Bufo 4) Pinnae are present
en

ganglion cells
1) a 4, b 3, c 2, d 1 3) Formation of rhodopsin, ganglion cells,
2) a 3, b 4, c 1, d 2 bipolar cells
.e

3) a 4, b 3, c 1, d 2 4) Breakdown of rhodopsin, bipolar cells,

ganglion cells
w

4) a 3, b 4, c 2, d 1

146. In males, spermatogenesis is regulated by 151. When trochlear nerve is damaged.

w

1) Testosterone and FSH 1) Shape of lens in eye can not be altered

w

2) LH and Oxytocin 2) Amount of light that enters into eye can not
be altered
3) Androgens and prolactin
3) Normal movements of eye ball are not
4) FSH and LTH possible

4) Sharp central vision is completely failed

152. Increased osmotic pressure in the body
1) Stimulates secretion of glucagon
2) Inhibits secretion of vasopressin
3) Never influence the secretion of aldosterone
4) Stimulates secretion of vasopressin
155. In human, renal organs are situated between
the levels of
1) Last lumbar and fifth sacral vertebra
2) Last cervical and third thoracic vertebra
3) Fifth lumbar and first sacral vertebra
4) Last thoracic and third lumbar vertebra

et
153. Match the given columns with respect to
human brain. 156. Cancer is caused due to activation of .. to

.n
.. or inactivation of ..
Column-I Column-II
1) Tumour suppressor gene, oncogene
A) Medulla I) Body temperature

ha
protooncogene
B) Limbic system II) Communication
2) Oncogene, tumour suppressor
C) Association

tib
III) Gastric secretions protooncogene
areas

D) Epiphysis IV) Motivation 3) Protooncogene, oncogene, tumour

1) IV
B

II
C

I
D

III
ra suppressor gene

4) Oncogene, protooncogene, tumour

up
suppressor gene
2) II IV I III
157. The ovaries are located one on each side of
3) III IV II I
ad

the abdomen and is connected to the pelvic

wall and uterus by
4) IV III I II
1) Dense irregular connective tissue
en

154. Statement-I : In an axon, ionic gradients

across the resting membrane are maintained 2) Tendons
by the active transport of ions by the Na+
3) Loose connective tissue
.e

K+ pump.

Statement-II : The axolemma is 4) Ligaments

w

comparatively more permeable to K+ and

158. The first meiotic division during oogenesis
nearly impermeable to Na+ when neuron is
w

is completed at the stage of

not conducting any impulse.
1) Primary oocyte within primary follicle
w

1) Both I and II statements are correct

2) Both I and II statements are wrong 2) Primary oocyte within graafian follicle
3) Statement-I correct but II is wrong
3) Primary oocyte within tertiary follicle
4) Statement-I wrong but II is correct

4) Secondary oocyte within tertiary follicle

159. In spermatogenesis, the phase of maturation 3) Progestogen-estrogen combination
involves
4) Either 1 or 3
1) Growth of spermatogonia into primary
163. Female who cannot produce ovum, but can
spermatocytes
provide suitable environment for
2) Formation of spermatogonia from fertilisation and further development, could
spermatophytes through mitosis be assisted by

et
3) Formation of spermatozoa from primary 1) GIFT 2) ZIFT 3) ICSI 4) IUI
spermatocytes through mitosis
164. During prolonged fasting, the sequence of

.n
4) Formation of spermatids from organic compounds used by the body is
spermatocytes through meiosis

ha
1) Proteins, lipids, carbohydrates
160. Which of the following statements is not
2) Fats, carbohydrates, proteins
correct ?

tib
3) Carbohydrates, proteins, lipids
1) Oxyntic cells are present in the mucosa of
stomach and secrete HCl 4) Carbohydrates, fats, proteins

2) Acini are present in the pancreas and

secrete carboxypeptidase
ra 165. Volume of air that remains in the lungs after
a normal expiration is called
up
3) Brunners glands are present in the 1) ERV 2) TLC 3) FRC 4) VC

submucosa of stomach and secrete mucus of 166. What will be the pO2 and pCO2 in the
ad

saccus entericus atmospheric air compared to those in the

alveolar air ?
4) Goblet cells are present in the mucosa of
en

intestine and secrete mucus 1) pO2 lesser, pCO2 higher

161. Foetal membrane that provides the first 2) pO2 lesser, pCO2 lesser
blood corpuscles for circulation in embryo
.e

3) pO2 higher, pCO2 higher

is
4) pO2 higher, pCO2 lesser
w

1) Yolk sac 2) Trophoblast

167. Philadelphia chromosome occurs in patients
3) Amnion 4) Chorion
w

suffering from

162. Implants under the skin and injections are 1) Albinism 2) Phenylketonuria
w

also used as contraceptive device. These

3) Hepatitis 4) Leukemia
devices contain

1) Progestogens alone

2) Estrogen alone
168. Match the columns. 172. DNA polymorphism that has been used to
develop the DNA fingerprinting technology
Column-I Column-II
is based upon
1) Sickle cell
a) 7th chromosome 1) Single nucleotide polymorphism
anaemia
2) VNTRs
2) Phenylketonuria b) 16th chromosome
3) Number of protein coding genes
3) Cystic fibrosis c) 11th chromosome

et
4) Unique nucleotide bases present in genome
4) Alpha thalassemia d) X-chromosome
173. Resemblance between widely different

.n
5) Protanopia e) 12th chromosome
groups due to a common adaptation is
1) 1 a, 2 c, 3 d, 4 b, 5 e
1) Convergent evolution

ha
2) 1 c, 2 e, 3 a, 4 b, 5 d 2) Divergent evolution

3) 1 b, 2 c, 3 d, 4 e, 5 a

tib
3) Parallel evolution

4) 1 e, 2 c, 3 a, 4 b, 5 d 4) Retrogressive evolution

169. Sickle cell anaemia is due to mutation of

1) CTC to CAC 2) CTG to CAG

ra 174. Read the following statements and find out
the incorrect statement in context of ECG.
up
1) For a detailed evaluation of the hearts
3) CAG to CTC 4) CGC to CAC
function, multiple leads are attached to the
170. Sequencing the whole set of genome that chest region.
ad

contained all the coding and non-coding

2) The end of the P-wave marks the end of
sequence and later assigning different
atrial diastole.
regions in the sequence with functions are
en

referred to as 3) QRS complex marks ventricular systole.

1) ESTs 2) Sequence Annotation 4) By counting the number of QRS complexes

.e

that occur in a given time period, one can

3) BAC 4) SNPs
determine the heart beat rate of an individual
171. Statement-I : The size of VNTR varies from
w

175. Which of the following pair is incorrectly

0.1 to 20 kb in human.
matched with respect to convergent
w

Statement-II : The number of tandem evolution ?

repeats show very high degree of
w

polymorphism. 1) Lemur Spotted cuscus

1) Both I and II statements are correct 2) Flying squirrel Flying phalanger

2) Both I and II statements are wrong
3) Anteater Numbat
3) Statement-I correct but II is wrong
4) Statement-I wrong but II is correct 4) Bobcat Tasmanian wolf
176. In a population of 1000 individuals, 360
individuals with genotype AA, 480 with Aa
and remaining 160 with aa. Based on this
data, the frequency of allele A in the
population is

1) 0.6 2) 0.5 3) 0.7 4) 0.4

177. According to Darwinism some bacteria can

et
grow in streptomycin containing medium
due to

.n
1) Founder effect

ha
2) Natural selection

3) Induced mutation

tib
4) Dormency

178. The fossils discovered in Java in 1891

revealed a stage in human evolution which
was called
ra
up
1) Homo erectus 2) Dryopithecus

3) Australopithecus 4) Homo habilis

ad

179. BCG vaccine provides protection against

1) Measles 2) Tuberculosis
en

3) Cholera 4) Small pox

.e

180. Which pair of disease is viral ?

1) Hepatitis, Syphilis
w

2) Typhoid, Tetanus
w

3) Rabies, Mumps
w

4) Cholera, Tetanus

1) d 2)a 3) b 4) c
 KEY SHEET
CHEMISTY
1) 3 2) 3 3) 3 4) 2 5) 1 6) 2 7) 2 8) 3 9) 1 10) 3
11) 2 12) 3 13) 2 14) 4 15) 3 16) 2 17) 4 18) 2 19) 2 20) 4
21) 1 22) 3 23) 4 24) 3 25) 3 26) 4 27) 3 28) 1 29) 4 30) 1
31) 4 32) 1 33) 2 34) 3 35) 1 36) 3 37) 1 38) 4 39) 1 40) 4

et
41) 1 42) 3 43) 3 44) 1 45) 4
PHYSICS

.n
46) 3 47) 1 48) 2 49) 3 50) 2 51) 3 52) 2 53) 1 54) 3 55) 4
56) 2 57) 3 58) 3 59) 3 60) 4 61) 3 62) 2 63) 1 64) 4 65) 2

ha
66) 3 67) 1 68) 1 69) 2 70) 1 71) 4 72) 2 73) 1 74) 2 75) 2
76) 1 77) 2 78) 3 79) 3 80) 4 81) 1 82) 2 83) 4 84) 2 85) 4

tib
86) 3 87) 4 88) 2 89) 2 90) 2
BIOLOGY
91)

101)
4
3
92)

102)
2
2
93)

103)
3
4
94)

104)
4
4
95)

105)
ra
4
2
96)

106)
2
2
97)

107)
2
2
98)

108)
4
1
99)

109)
4
3
100)

110)
3
4
up
111) 1 112) 1 113) 4 114) 3 115) 1 116) 4 117) 4 118) 2 119) 3 120) 2
121) 4 122) 1 123) 2 124) 1 125) 3 126) 4 127) 2 128) 3 129) 3 130) 1
ad

131) 2 132) 4 133) 2 134) 3 135) 3

136) 3 137) 1 138) 2 139) 1 140) 1 141) 3 142) 1 143) 2 144) 1 145) 1
en

146) 1 147) 1 148) 2 149) 4 150) 4 151) 3 152) 4 153) 3 154) 1 155) 4
156) 3 157) 4 158) 3 159) 4 160) 3 161) 1 162) 4 163) 1 164) 4 165) 3
.e

166) 4 167) 4 168) 2 169) 1 170) 2 171) 1 172) 2 173) 1 174) 2 175) 4
w

176) 1 177) 2 178) 1 179) 2 180) 3

w

This model test paper was prepared and verified by Senior faculty
w

Sri Chaitanya Medical Academy

Telangana & Andhra Pradesh.
 NEET MODEL GRAND TEST - 2 PHYSICS SOLUTIONS
46. Regarding dimensions
2
(ch arg e)
energy =
capacity
1 1
Also energy = h , C = a0
T T

C e2
h =

et
a0 capacity
e 2 a0
capacity =

.n
hC
47. P
100 = 3
a
100 + 2
b
100 +
c
100 +
d
100
P a b c d

ha
9
48. V 2 = 12x 3x 3 a = 6 x2
2
dV 3 9
= 12 9x 2 = 6 x2

tib
2V
dx 2 2
dV 9 9 2
V = 6 x2 x = 4.5
dx 2 2
x2 = 1 x = 1
V 2 = 12 (1) 3(1)
3
ra
up
V2 = 9
V = 3 m/s
ad

V2
49. a= , is constant
r
1
Hence a ar = constant
en

r
50. ( )( )
A.B = i +j . i j = 11 = 0
.e

so A perpendicular to B so angle between them is 900

51. If 1 = then 2 = 90
2
w

u 2 sin 2 10 10 sin 2
R= ,5 3=
g 10
w

3
sin 2 = 2 = 600 , = 300
2
w

2u sin 1 2 10 sin 30
T1 = = =1
g 10
2u sin 2 210 sin 60
T2 = = = 3
g 10
Difference in time = ( )
3 1 s
 3 4
52. a = F / m = i + j
5 5
u = 6i12j
as finial velocity in along y-axis, its x-component must be zero
Vx = 0
3
ux + axt = 0 6 t = 0
5
t = 10 sec

et
150 50 150 50
53. = +
2 2 2 2

.n
150 50
(1 ) = (1 + )
2 2
3 3 = 1 +

ha
2 1
= =
4 2
54. Work done by the heart in 1 min = 0.5 x 72

tib
= 36 J
Power of the heart
36

55.
P=
60
= 0.6 W

By Law of conservation of linear momentum

ra
up
3 m Vf = m Vi+ 2 m Vj
V 2V
Vf = i+ j
3 3
ad

V 2 4V 2 5
Vf = + = V
9 9 3
Loss of kinetic energy during the collision
en

1 1 1 5V 2
= m + 2m (3m)
2 2
2 2 2 3
.e

2
= m 2
3
w

56. Let the mass of ring having density be M. Centre of mass

2R 2R
M + 3M
M 1 x1 + M 2 x 2 =R
w

=
M1 + M2 4M
w

Ma 2 a 2 Ma 2
57. I= + M =
4 2 2
2
Ma 2 a 2 a 2
Now I 0 = + M +
2 2 2

Ma 2 Ma 2
= + = Ma 2 = 2I
2 2
58. (I 1 1 + I 2 2 ) = (I 1 + I 2 ) /
I 1 1 + I 2 2
/ =
(I 1 + I 2 )
1
K f = (I 1 + I 2 ) /2
2
2
(I + I 2 2 )
= 1 1
2 (I 1 + I 2 )

et
2 3
59. V = a 2 (a / 2 ) = a
2

.n
n 2a
acc f =
2

ha
V = f
2a 3
= a
2 2

tib
2n = 3
3
n=

60.
2
Conceptual
1
ra
up
61. E= y (strain)2
2
2E
strain =
y
ad

2
62. V2 2 = V12 + 2gh = (2) + 2 10005.1101 = 1024
V2 = 32 cm/s
en

63. W = T (A )

= T2 4 (2r ) 4r 2
2

.e

(
= 2T 4r 2 3 )
= 24r 2 T
w

64. P2V = constant and PV = nT

T2 3V0
w

T2 V = T = 3 T0
T02 V0
w

65. Q = U U f U u = [internal energy of 4 moles of a monoatomic gas + internal energy of

2 moles of a diatomic gas] [internal energy of 4 moles of a diatomic gas]
3 5 5
= 4 RT + 2 RT 4 RT = RT
2 2 2
Note : (a) 2 moles of diatomic gas becomes 4 moles of a monoatomic gas when gas dissociated
into atoms.
(b) Internal energy of moles of an ideal gas of degrees of freedom F is given by
f
U = RT , F = 3 for a monoatomic gas and 5 for diatomic gas
2
66. At 00C, total length of the rod is L0=L1+L2 when the composite rod is heated to t0C, its
length at t0C will be
L = L 1 (1 + 1 t ) + L 2 (1 + 2 t ) = (L 1 + L 2 ) + L 1 1 t + L 2 2 t or,

et
L = L 0 + (L 1 1 + L 2 2 ) t
Effective coefficient of expansion of the composite rod is,

.n
L L 0 L 1 1 + L 2 2
= 1 =
L0t L1 + L2

ha
(d0 )w (d0 )B
67. =
(1 + w t ) (1 + B t )
68. P = A T 4 = 4 r 2 T 4 P r 2 T 4 or

tib
2
2 1 r1 T2
r 4 [As P=constant] =
T r2 T1

69. Heat lost in t sec = mL or heat lost per sec =

ra
mL
t
.
up
This must be the heat supplied for keeping the substance in molten state per sec.
mL Pt
= P or L =
t m
ad

1 3 1 1
70. = 1
f 2 R1 R 2
1 3/ 2 1 1
= 1
en

f' 4/3 R1 R 2
f ' 1/ 2
= =4 f ' 4f
f 1/ 8
.e

L n 1
71. For microscope m = M
t0 te t0
w

t
For telescope m = 0 M t 0
te
w

V + a
72. t| = f 2V 2a = V + a
V a
w

V + a
2t = f V = 3a
V a
a = V/3
 10
150 15
73. Vg = = 75mV 150 = (5 + R )
2 1000
150
ig = = 15mA 1000 = 5 + R
10
Vg 75
G= = = 5 R = 9995
ig 15
V = if (G + R)
C

et
74. as M = m H and m =
T
CH M 1 H1 T2
M= (or) =

.n
T M 2 H 2 T1
H T 0.2 4 2
M 2 = M 1 2 1 = (8) = A / m

ha
H T 0.6 16 3
1 2
10 D 2 D d 1mm
75. = a= = = 0.2mm
d a 5 5

tib
In a double slit experiment, the two slits are 1 mm apart and the screen is placed 1 m
away. A monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm is used.
2 x + 20
76. = , =

77.
x 100 2 80
on solving we get x = 3
Isothermal process
ra
up
P1V1 = P2V2
P V = P2 ( 4V )
P2 = P/4
ad

For adiabatic process

P
( 4V) = Pf (16V)
en

4
3/2
P 1 P 1 P
Pf = = =
4 4 4 8 32
.e

78.
i 2
F E D
w

2V i
4
w

2 R
4V
w

A i i B C
9V 3V
Given no current pass through 4V
Apply KVL to EBCDE
4 + 3 + iR = 0 iR = 1V
Now VA9+3+iR=VD
VA9+3+1=VD
VAVD=931=94=5V
79.

C2=2C
3C C
4C=C4

V
Q4 = 4CV
6 6CV Q 6CV 1 3

et
Q 2 = C V = 2= =
11 11 Q4 11 4CV 22

80. (
Charge enclosed q en = R 2 x 2 )

.n
R
r

ha
x

tib
Here r = R 2 x 2

sphere =
(
R 2 x 2 )

81. B=
0I 1 1
+
0
1
4 r 2r 3r
ra
up
5 0 I
24 r
ad

82. = BA = Br 2
d dr
e= = B2r
dt dt
en

= 0.025 2 2 102

(1103 )
.e

= V
Vrms 100 1
83. at resonance i rms = = 3= A
w

R 10 10
1 1 1
VL = VC = i rms =
WC 10 200 2 106
w

1000 1000
= = 250V
w

4 1000
84. Charge on the capacitor at any instant t is q = q0 coswt . (1)
equal sharing of energy means
1
energy of a capacitor = total energy
2
1 q 2 1 1 q 02 q
= q= 0
2 C 22 C 2
q
from (1) 0 = q 0 cos wt wt =
2 4

et

t= t= LC
4W 4

.n
hC hC
85. eV = . (1)
1 0

ha
hC hC
3eV = . (2)
2 0
hC hC
eV | = . (3)

tib
3 0
hC 3hC hC hC 1 3 1
from (1), (2) = Put it is (3) we get V| = +
0 21 2 2 e 3 21 2 2
86.
87.
Conceptual ra
t = 80 min, for A 4 half lives and for B 2 half lives
up
N0 15
N0 4 N0
2 16 5
Ans. = =
N 3 4
N 0 20 N0
ad

2 4
12400
88. Energy of a photon of wavelength 6000A0 is E = 2.07 eV
600
For the photodiode to detect incident light E > Eg (Band gap). This condition is satisfied by
en

photodiode D2 where
Eg = 2eV
89. Conceptual
.e

90. Conceptual
w
w
w

This model test paper solutions were prepared and verified by Senior faculty
Sri Chaitanya Medical Academy
Telangana & Andhra Pradesh.