VISION IAS

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ANSWERS & EXPLANATION

GENERAL STUIDES (P) TEST 2114 (2017)

Q 1.B
Statement 1 is incorrect: The children of foreign diplomats posted in India and enemy aliens cannot
acquire Indian citizenship by birth.
Statement 2 is correct: To have an adequate knowledge of a language specified in the Eighth Schedule is
one of the several qualifications prescribed for acquisition of Citizenship by Naturalisation.

Q 2.A
Statement 1 is correct: It separated, for the first time, the legislative and executive functions of the
Governor General's council. It provided for addition of six new members called legislative councillors to
the council. In other words, it established a separate Governor-Generals legislative council which
came to be known as the Indian (Central) Legislative Council. This legislative wing of the council
functioned as a mini- Parliament, adopting the same procedures as the British Parliament. Thus,
legislation, for the first time, was treated as a special function of the government, requiring special
machinery and special process.
Statement 2 is correct: The Act of 1853 introduced an open competition system of selection and
recruitment of civil servants. The covenanted civil services was thus thrown open to the Indians also.
Accordingly, the Macaulay Committee (the Committee on the Indian Civil Service) was appointed in
1854.
Statement 3 is not correct: This was a provision under the Charter Act of 1833 and not Charter Act of
1853 . The Charter Act of 1833 deprived the Governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers.
The Governor General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India

Q 3.C
Salient Features of the Government of India Act 1935 were as follows:
Abolition of provincial dyarchy and introduction of dyarchy at centre.
Abolished the Council of India, established by Government of India Act, 1858. The secretary of State
was provided with a team of advisors.
Provision for an All India Federation with British India territories and princely states.
Elaborate safeguards and protective instruments for minorities.
division of subjects into three lists and retention of communal electorate.

Q 4.C
Statement 1 is correct: Impostition of martial law affects only Fundamental Rights. Imposition of National
emergency affects not only Fundamental Rights but also Centrestate relations, distribution of revenues
and legislative powers between centre and states and may extend the tenure of the Parliament.
Statement 2 is correct: Martial law suspends the government and ordinary law courts whereas National
Emergency continues the government and ordinary law courts.

Q 5.A
Recently ECI cancelled polls in Aravakurichi and Thanjavur constituencies in Tamil Nadu following
evidence of use of money and gifts to influence the voters. At present, there is no specific provision in the

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 law to cancel polls in case of use of money power and commission has to resort to extraordinary powers
under Article 324 of constitution.
Clause 58 A of RPA,1951 empowers the Election Commission to cancel polls only if there is an evidence
of booth capturing or use of muscle power.
The Election Commission of India is demanding amendment to RPA to include specific powers to
postpone or countermand polls on the grounds of use of money power.
At present, there is no specific provision in the law to this effect and commission has to resort
to extraordinary powers under Article 324 of constitution which, it feels should be used sparingly.
While elections are normally cancelled following evidence of rigging, muscle power or booth capturing, it
was the first time this was being done because of voters being bribed with money, the EC said in a
statement, citing instances of money seizures in the two constituencies and various judicial observations.

Q 6.C
Statement 1 is correct: It was in 1934 that the idea of a Constituent Assembly for India was put forward
for the first time by M. N. Roy, a pioneer of communist movement in India and an advocate of radical
democratism. In 1935, the Indian National Congress (INC), for the first time, officially demanded a
Constituent Assembly to frame the Constitution of India.
Statement 2 is correct: The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme
formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan.

Q 7.C
As part of its efforts to make villages located along Ganga open defecation-free, Government has
launched a campaign 'Swachh Yug', a collaborative effort of three Union Ministries, to bring about
behavioural change among people staying in villages along the holy river.
There are 5,169 villages located along Ganga falling under 1,651 gram panchayats (GPs) in 52 districts of
five states - UP, Uttarakhand , Bihar , Jharkhand and West Bengal from where the holy river flows
through.
The Union Ministries of Drinking Water and Sanitation, Water Resources and Youth Affairs are working
on the campaign in a collaborative manner.
The campaign, being a collaborative effort between the Swachh Bharat Mission, local youth leaders (
)
and the Namami Gange project () - is being called Swachh - , which translates into the age of
Swachh.

Q 8.B
Blue light directly affects sleep by suppressing the production of the hormone melatonin, which mediates
the sleep-wake cycle in humans.

Q 9.D
The Verma Committee on Fundamental Duties of the Citizens (1999) identified the existence of several
legal provisions for the implementation of some of the Fundamental Duties.
1. The Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972 prohibits trade in rare and endangered species.
2. The Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act (1971) prevents disrespect to the Constitution of
India, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
3. The right to education act 2009 provides for the Right of children to free and compulsory education
till completion of elementary education in a neighbourhood school.

Q 10.A
The difference between the Fundamental rights and the Directives is that of being justiciable and non-
justiciable rights. This classification was adopted from the Irish Constitution.

Q 11.C
Statement 1 is not correct: Referendum, initiative and plebiscite are the instruments of direct democracy
and not representative democracy.
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 Statement 2 is correct: In a representative democracy the people exercise their sovereignity through a
Parliament at the Centre and a Legislature in each state to which the real executive i..e the Council of
ministers is responsible.
Statement 3 is correct: A characteristic of democracy is that it ensures rule of law. Law is supreme and all
the citizens are equal in the eyes of law. No one is above law.

Q 12.B
The Union Cabinet recently cleared the Civil Aviation Policy in order to boost the domestic aviation
sector and provide passenger-friendly fares.
The Policy aims at India to become 3rd largest civil aviation market by 2022 from 9th currently.
1. Domestic ticketing to grow from 8 crore in 2015 to 30 crore by 2022. To grow domestic passenger
traffic nearly four-fold to 300 million by 2022.
2. Airports having scheduled commercial flights to increase from 77 in 2016 to 127 by 2019.
3. Cargo volumes to increase by 4 times to 10 million tonnes by 2027.
4. Enhancing ease of doing business through deregulation, simplified procedures and e-governance.
5. Promoting 'Make In India' in Civil Aviation Sector.
The policy scrapped 5/20 rule and replaced with a scheme which provides a level playing field. All
airlines can now commence international operations provided that they deploy 20 aircraft or 20%
of total capacity, whichever is higher for domestic operations.
Civil Aviation Policy aims to create Regional Connectivity fund for VGF to airline operators through a
small levy per departure on all domestic flights other than Cat II/ Cat IIA routes, RCS routes and small
aircraft below 80 seats at a rate as decided by the Ministry from time to time.

Q 13.B
Fundamental rights can be classified as executory and non-executory rights. Some provisions of Part III of
the Constitution are not self-executory i.e., these articles are not directly enforceable. They are indirectly
enforeceable and require the enactment of some law to bring them into effect. They are enforceable only if
the law is violated.
For eg, Art. 15(2) (equality in regard to access to use of places of public resort), Art. 17 (prohibition of
untouchability), Art. 18 (3)-(4) (prohibition of acceptance of foreign title), Art. 23 (prohibition of traffic in
human beings), Art 24. (prohibition of employment of children in hazardous employment), are executory
rights, needing a law to enforce them.

Q 14.B
FPTP system is also known as Single Member plurality, simple Majority voting or Plurality voting.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The principal criticism leveled against the FPTP system is that it leads to the
exclusion of small or regional parties from the Parliament. There is commonly a discrepancy in the vote
share and seat share in results, where votes given to smaller parties are 'wasted' since they do not gain a
voice in the legislature.
Statement 2 is correct: It provides clear-cut choice for voters between two main parties. It allows voters to
choose between people rather than just between parties. Thus, voters can assess the performance of
individual candidates rather than just having to accept a list of candidates presented by a party. It gives a
chance for popular independent candidates to be elected.

Q 15.D
Statement 1 is correct: The Act ended the system of double government by abolishing the Board of
Control and Court of Directors.
Statement 2 is correct: The designation of the Governor-General of India was changed to that of Viceroy
of India. He (viceroy) was the direct representative of the British Crown in India. Lord Canning thus
became the first Viceroy of India".
Statement 3 is correct: The act created a new office, Secretary of State for India, vested with complete
authority and control over Indian administration. The secretary of state was a member of the British
cabinet and was responsible ultimately to the British Parliament".

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Q 16.C
Statement 1 is correct. The act ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body,
which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the company's territories in India were held
by it 'in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors.
Statement 2 is also correct. This act made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of
India and vested in him all civil and military powers. Thus, the act created, for the first time, a
Government of India having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India.
Lord William Bentick was the first governor-general of India.

Q 17.D
Features of the Act of 1861
1. It made a beginning of representative institutions by associating Indians with the law-making process.
It thus provided that the viceroy should nominate some Indians as non-official members of his
expanded council. In 1862, Lord Canning, the then viceroy, nominated three Indians to his legislative
council-the Raja of Benaras, the Maharaja of Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao.
2. It initiated the process of decentralisation by restoring the legislative powers to the Bombay and
Madras Presidencies. It thus reversed the centralising tendency that started from the Regulating Act of
1773 and reached its climax under the Charter Act of 1833. This policy of legislative devolution
resulted in the grant of almost complete internal autonomy to the provinces in 1937.
3. It also provided for the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal, North-Western Frontier
Province (NWFP) and Punjab, which were established in 1862, 1866 and 1897 respectively.
4. It empowered the Viceroy to make rules and orders for the more convenient trans-action of business
in the council. It also gave a recognition to the 'portfolio' system, introduced by Lord Canning in
1859. Under this, a member of the Viceroy's council was made in-charge of one or more departments
of the government and was authorised to issue final orders on behalf of the council on matters of his
department(s).
5. It empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinances, without the concurrence of the legislative council,
during an emergency. The life of such an ordinance was six months.
Government of India Act, 1919 provided for the establishment of a public service commission. Hence,
a Central Public Service Commission was set up in 1926 for recruiting civil servants

Q 18.B
"Amended Technology Upgradation Fund Scheme (ATUFS)" has replaced the existing Revised
Restructured Technology Upgradation Fund Scheme (RR-TUFS),for technology upgradation of the
textiles industry.
The new scheme specifically targets:
(a) Employment generation and export by encouraging apparel and garment industry, which will provide
employment to women in particular and increase Indias share in global exports.
(b) Promotion of Technical Textiles, a sunrise sector, for export and employment
(c) Promoting conversion of existing looms to better technology looms for improvement in quality and
productivity
(d) Encouraging better quality in processing industry and checking need for import of fabrics by the
garment sector.

Q 19.C
Fundamental Rights are not absolute , it means that they can be subjected to reasonable restrictions. For
example right to absolute freedom of expression can lead to defamation, incitement to an offense etc.
Fundamental Rights are not 'sacrosanct', it means that they can be repealed or modified by amending the
Constitution.
Fundamental Rights as the Political Rights of people means that there are limitations on the executive's
arbitrary power.

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Q 20.B
Kirana Gharana is one of the most prolific Pakistani and Hindustani Khayal gharanas.
The name of this school of music derives from Kirana or Kairana in Shamli district of Uttar Pradesh,
which is the hometown of stalwarts like Ustad Abdul Karim Khan and Ustad Abdul Waheed Khan, who
established this gharana. It is considered the foremost in perfect intonation of notes or swara. The central
concern of the Kirana style is swara, in particular precise tuning and expression of notes
Comparable to the gharanas of the khyal, we have "vanis" in the dhrupads. There were four schools
or vanis of singing the dhrupad.

Q 21.D
Except Nagaland, all the other given states were Union territories before being conferred statehood.
1. Goa, Daman and Diu were acquired from the Portuguese by means of a police action in 1961. They
were constituted as a union territory by the 12th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1962. Later, in 1987,
Goa was conferred a statehood.
2. 2. In 1963, the State of Nagaland was formed by taking the Naga Hills and Tuensang area out of the
state of Assam.
3. In 1971, the Union territory of Himachal Pradesh was elevated to the status of a state.
4. The Union territory of Arunachal Pradesh was created in 1972. In 1987, it was conferred the
statehood along with Mizoram and Goa.

Q 22.C
Directive Principles and the Fundamental Rights have been described as the "Conscience of the
Constitution" by Granville Austin. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described these principles as 'novel features' of the
Indian constitution.

Q 23.A
Indian Space Research Organisation at its Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) has developed
CASPOL (CeramicPolymer Hybrid), a water based, ready-to-coat and easy-to-use flame proof coating
having both societal and advanced enduse applications. It confers excellent flame retardant, waterproofing
and thermal control properties to substrates ranging from masonry surfaces, textiles, paper, thatched
leaves, wood etc to advanced materials like polyurethane and phenolic based thermal insulation foam
pads.

Q 24.A
By the 42nd constitutional Amendment act certain changes have been introduced in Part IV, adding new
directives, to accentuate the socialistic bias of the Constitution.
Statement 1 is correct as Art 39A has been inserted to enjoin the state to provide free legal aid to the poor
and to take other suitable steps to ensure equal justice to all, which is offered by the Preamble.
Statement 2 is correct as Art 48A Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests
and wild life was inserted by 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act
Statement 3 is correct as Art. 43A has been inserted in order to direct the State to ensure the participation
of workers in the management of the industry and other under-takings.
Statement 4 is incorrect as Art 43B was inserted by 97th Amendment Act

Q 25.A
The Golden Crescent is a mountainous area of Iran, Afghanistan and Pakistan where opium has been
grown for hundreds of years. Proximity to the largest producers of heroin and hashish-the Golden Triangle
and Golden Crescent (Afghanistan-Pakistan-Iran) -has made India's border vulnerable to drug trafficking.

Q 26.C
Statement 1 is correct. The Article 29 grants protection to both religious minorities as well as linguistic
minorities.
Statement 2 is correct. The Supreme Court also held that the right to conserve the language includes the
right to agitate for the protection of the language. Hence, the political speeches or promises made for the

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 conservation the language of a section of the citizens does not amount to corrupt practice under the
Representation of the People Act, 1951.

Q 27.A
o Statement 1 is correct. The act introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting
the concept of separate electorate. Under this, the Muslim members were to be elected only by
Muslim voters. Thus, the Act legalised communalism and Lord Minto came to be known as the
Father of Communal Electorate.
o Statement 2 is incorrect. Bicameralism and direct elections were introduced by the act of 1919.
o Statement 3 is incorrect. Power to discuss budget was already accorded in the Act of 1892.

Q 28.D
o USA is an example of presidential form of government while India follows parliamentary system. The
manner of election of president is entirely different in India and USA.
o System of collective responsibility is a constitutional convention in governments using the Westminster
System that members of the cabinet must publicly support all governmental decisions made in Cabinet,
even if they do not privately agree with them. It is a feature of parliamentary system and not of
presidential system.
o While there is single citizenship in India, in USA there is dual citizenship (Citizenship of both country and
state).
o While in India, there is integrated judiciary, in USA there is a dual court system. All states have their own
supreme court along with federal Supreme Court. Thus D is the correct answer.

Q 29.D
Statement 1 is correct: It is caused by a virus transmitted primarily by Aedes mosquito.
Statement 2 is correct: Presently there is no approved vaccine available for zika virus in the market.
However GLS -5700 vaccine was found to be effective during trials on animals and soon trials on humans
will begin.
Statement 3 is correct: Zika can be passed from a pregnant woman to her foetus and may result into
microcephaly, in which baby's head is much smaller than expected.

Q 30.B
Statement 1 is correct: The Preamble declares that fraternity has to assure two things-the dignity of the
individual and the unity and integrity of the nation. The word 'integrity' has been added to the preamble by
the 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976).
Statement 2 is correct: The Fundamental Duties (Article 51-A) say that it shall be the duty of every citizen
of India to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India
transcending religious, linguistic, regional or sectional diversities.
Statement 3 is not correct: Second schedule lists the emoluments for holders of constitutional offices such
as salaries of President, Vice President, Ministers, Judges and Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
etc.

Q 31.B
The Eighth Schedule to the Indian Constitution contains a list of 22 scheduled languages viz. Assamese,
Bengali, Bodo, Dogri, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkari, Maithili, Malayalam, Manipuri,
Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu. The list had originally 14
languages only.

Q 32.A
The purpose of Article 32 is to provide a guaranteed, effective, expeditious, inexpensive and summary
remedy for the protection of the fundamental rights. Only the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the
Constitution can be enforced under Article 32 and not any other right like non-fundamental constitutional
rights, statutory rights, customary rights and so on.

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 Statement 1 is correct : The violation of a fundamental right is the sine qua non for the exercise of the
right conferred by Article 32. In other words, the Supreme Court, under Article 32, cannot determine a
question that does not involve Fundamental Rights.
Statement 2 is not correct : Article 32 is a Fundamental Right and hence, the Supreme Court cannot refuse
to exercise its writ jurisdiction. On the other hand, a remedy under Article 226 is discretionary and hence,
a high court may refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction.

Q 33.C
Statement 1 is correct. The National Disaster Management Plan (NDMP). This is the first ever national
plan for disaster management prepared in the country. It aims to make India disaster resilient and
significantly reduce the loss of lives and assets.
Statement 2 is correct. The plan is based on the four priority themes of the "Sendai Framework,"
namely: understanding disaster risk, improving disaster risk governance, investing in disaster risk
reduction (through structural and non-structural measures) and disaster preparedness, early warning and
building back better in the aftermath of a disaster.
The Plan covers all phases of disaster management: prevention, mitigation, response and recovery. It
provides for horizontal and vertical integration among all the agencies and departments of the
Government. The plan also spells out the roles and responsibilities of all levels of Government right up to
Panchayat and Urban Local Body level in a matrix format. The plan has a regional approach, which will
be beneficial not only for disaster management but also for development planning.

Q 34.D
All the given pairs are correctly matched
Secular character is revealed in following articles:
Article 15 prohibits the state from discriminating between citizens on the ground of religion.
Article 16 prohibits the state from discriminating between citizens in matters of public employment on the
basis of religion.
Under the "Right to Freedom of Religion" from Article 25 to 28, various provisions can be seen which
again reinforce the ideal of secularism.
Article 325 provides that no person can be ineligible for inclusion in an electoral roll or can claim
inclusion in a special roll on the grounds of religion.
Liberty means liberty of thought, expression, beliefs, faith, and worship. Hence articles:
Article 19 - freedom of speech and expression
Article 25 - liberty to profess, practice and propagate any religion.
The phrase 'unity and integrity of the nation' embraces both the psychological and territorial dimensions of
national integration.
Article 1 of the Constitution describes India as a 'Union of States' to make it clear that the states have no
right to secede from the Union, implying the indestructible nature of the Indian Union. It aims at
overcoming hindrances to national integration like communalism, regionalism, casteism, linguism,
secessionism and so on.

Q 35.C
Both the statements are correct.
The present position is that the Parliament under Article 368 can amend any part of the Constitution
including the Fundamental Rights but without affecting the "basic structure"of the Constitution. However,
the Supreme Court is yet to define or clarify as to what constitutes the "basic structure" of the
Constitution.
Limited power of the Parliament to amend the Indian Constitution is one of the features of the basic
structure.

Q 36.D
Statement 1 is correct as Abolition of Jagirdari and Zamindari through land reforms brought changes in
the agrarian society and helped to improve the conditions of rural masses as envisaged in Article 38.
Article 38: State to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people

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 (1) The State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting as effectively as
it may a social order in which justice, social, economic and political, shall inform all the institutions of the
national life
(2) The State shall, in particular, strive to minimize the inequalities in income, and endeavor to eliminate
inequalities in status, facilities and opportunities, not only amongst individuals but also amongst groups of
people residing in different areas or engaged in different vocations
Statement 2 is correct as Khadi and Village Industries Board, Khadi and Village Industries Commission,
Small Industries Board, National Small Industries corporation etc. have been setup for the development of
cottage industries in rural areas under Article 43
Statement 3 is correct as Ratification of the Paris cimate change agreement helps to fulfil the DPSP under
Article 48A i.e. Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wild life:
The State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wild
life of the country
Statement 4 is correct as abolition of untouchability helps in promotion of interests of SCs, STs and other
weaker sections of society as envisaged in Article 46 and also in Article 38

Q 37.A
Statement 1 is correct: It provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774)
comprising one chief justice and three other judges.
Statement 2 is correct: It designated the Governor of Bengal as the 'Governor-General of Bengal' and
created an Executive Council of four members to assist him. The first such Governor-General was Lord
Warren Hastings. It made the governors of Bombay and Madras residencies subordinate to the Governor-
General of Bengal, unlike earlier, when the three presidencies were independent of one another.
Statement 3 is not correct: It prohibited the servants of the Company from engaging in any private trade
or accepting presents or bribes from the 'natives'.

Q 38.A
Competitive federalism refer to the relationship between the Central and state governments (vertical) or
between state governments (horizontal). This idea gained significance in India post the 1990s economic
reforms. In a free-market economy, the endowments of states, available resource base and their
comparative advantages all foster a spirit of competition. States need to compete among themselves and
also with the Centre for benefits. Increasing globalisation, however, made the already existing inequalities
and imbalances between states starker. This gave rise to concerns about states freedom to formulate
their own growth policies.

Q 39.A
A democratic polity can be classified into two categories - monarchy and republic.
In monarchy head of the state enjoys Hereditary position. Whereas in a republic, the head of the state is
always elected either directly or indirectly. Hence President represents the republican character as he is
the Head of the state in India.
Prime minister is not the answer because he is head of the Government not the head of the state. Also PM
represents the Democratic character of Indian polity.

Q 40.B
Statement 1 is not correct: Article 21 A declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory
education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such a manner as the State may determine.
Thus, this provision makes only elementary education a Fundamental Right and not higher or professional
education.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 51A reads-'It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to provide
opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years'.

Q 41.D
Swadesh Darshan Scheme
o It was launched with the aim of developing theme based tourist circuits in the country, under Ministry
of Tourism.
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 o Under the scheme thirteen thematic circuits have been identified for development.
o These are North-East, Himalayan, Coastal, Krishna, Desert, Tribal, Eco, Wildlife, Rural, Spiritual,
Ramayana and Heritage Circuits.

Q 42.C
The International Code of Conduct against Ballistic Missile Proliferation, also known as the Hague Code
of Conduct (HCOC), was established in 2002 to prevent the proliferation of ballistic missiles.
HCOC is voluntary, legally non-binding, preventing the spread of ballistic missiles that can deliver
weapons of mass destruction.
India joined the HCOC on 1 June 2016.
The number of signatories of HCOC is 138.
China, Pakistan, Israel and Iran have not joined the voluntary regime yet.

Q 43.C
Except diversity all other are mentioned in our Preamble.

WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN
SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political;
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
and to promote among them all
FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;
IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT,
ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION.

Q 44.A
UN Conference for Trade and Development (UNCTAD) releases the World Investment Report
2016. India continues to be among the top ten countries in terms of foreign direct investment (FDI)
inflows globally and the fourth in developing Asia. Indias FDI inflows have increased to $44 billion in
2015 as compared to $35 billion in 2014

Q 45.A
Following were the major committees and their chairmen:
1. Union Powers Committee - Jawaharlal Nehru
2. Union Constitution Committee - Jawaharlal Nehru
3. Provincial Constitution Committee - Sardar Patel
4. Drafting Committee - Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
5. Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas-
Sardar Patel.
6. Rules of Procedure Committee - Dr. Rajendra Prasad
7. States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States) - Jawaharlal Nehru
8. Steering Committee - Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Q 46.B
Socialistic Principles
These principles reflect the ideology of socialism. They lay down the framework of a democratic socialist
state, aim at providing social and economic justice, and set the path towards welfare state.
They direct the state:
1. To promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order permeated by justice- social,
economic and political-and to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities
(Article 38).
2. To secure (a) the right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens; (b) the equitable distribution of
material resources of the community for the common good; (c) prevention of concentration of wealth
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 and means of production; (d) equal pay for equal work for men and women; (e) preservation of the
health and strength of workers and children against forcible abuse; and (f) opportunities for healthy
development of children (Article 39).
3. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
4. To secure the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age,
sickness and disablement (Article 41).
5. To make provision for just and humane conditions for work and maternity relief (Article 42).
6. To secure a living wage, a decent standard of life and social and cultural opportunities for all workers
(Article 43).
7. To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
8. To raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve public health
(Article 47).
9. To organise village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and authority to enable them
to function as units of self-government (Article 40) is a Gandhian principle

Q 47.B
A lone wolf or lone-wolf terrorist is someone who prepares and commits violent acts alone, outside of any
command structure and without material assistance from any group. However, he or she may be
influenced or motivated by the ideology and beliefs of an external group, and may act in support of such a
group
They are different from the sleeper cells who are the operatives who infiltrate the targeted society or
organization and then remain dormant until a group or organization orders them to take action. In contrast,
Alone wolf is a stand alone operative who by his very nature is embedded in the targeted society and is
capable of self-activation at any time.
Recent mass shooting in Orlando, Florida brought the issue of Lone wolf style terrorist attack across the
globe. Over the last 3 years, such terrorist attacks have been on the rise.

Q 48.A
Carbfix project: It is a project that aims to lock away CO2 by reacting it with basaltic rocks.
Carbonated water is injected into the rocks so that it reacts with Calcium, Magnesium or Silicate material
present in Basaltic rocks. This is called enhanced weathering.
Thus, the CO2 is captured permanently without releasing any harmful by-products

Q 49.B
Statement 1 and 2 are correct
The important feature of the parliamentary system is the existence of a Titular or Constitutional Ruler.
Legally the administration of all the affairs of the state is conducted by the head of the state. In reality,
however, the administration is carried by the Council of Ministers. The Monarch or the President, as the
case may be, is the head of the state, but not the head of the government.
The Parliamentary system is the one in which the executive is responsible to the legislature for its policies
and acts. It is also known as
Cabinet government (India and UK) - Because cabinet is the nucleus of power.
Westminster Model (UK) - Because Parliament of UK where Parliamentary government emerged is
called Westminster House
Responsible Government (India and UK) - As Council of Ministers is responsible to the Parliament.
The Presidential system is the one in which the executive is not responsible to the legislature. It is also
known as
Non-responsible Government
Non-Parliamentary government

Q 50.A
o The first such Commission was established in 1834 through the Charter Act of 1833 under the
Chairmanship of Lord Macaulay which recommended codification of the Penal Code, the Criminal
Procedure Code and few other matters.

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Q 51.C
Indian Parliamentary system is characterised by:
1. Political homogeneity i.e.usually members of the council of ministers belong to the same political
party, and hence they share the same political ideology. In case of coalition government, the minister
are bound by consensus.
2. Secrecy i.e. The ministers operate on the principle of secrecy of procedure and cannot divulge
information about their proceedings, policies and decisions. They take the oath of secrecy before
entering their office. The oath of secrecy to the ministers is administered by the President.
3. Collective Responsibility i.e. The ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament in general
and to the Lok Sabha in particular (Article 75).
4. Double Membership - The ministers are members of both the legislature and the executive. This
means that a person cannot be a minister without being a member of the Parliament. The Constitution
stipulates that a minister who is not a member of the Parliament for a period of six consecutive
months ceases to be a minister

Q 52.A
The Constitution authorises the Legislature to make laws providing for preventive detention for reasons
connected to:
1. the security of a State
2. the maintenance of public order
3. maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community
4. for reasons connected with Defence, Foreign Affairs or the Security of India.
No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed, as soon as may be, of the
grounds for such arrest nor shall he be denied the right to consult, and to be defended by, a legal
practitioner of his choice. However, it is not applicable when it is against the public interest to disclose.
Every person who is arrested and detained in custody shall be produced before the nearest magistrate
within a period of twenty four hours of such arrest excluding the time necessary for the journey from the
place of arrest to the court of the magistrate and no such person shall be detained in custody beyond the
said period without the authority of a magistrate.
No law providing for preventive detention shall authorise the detention of a person for a longer period
than three months unless it is granted by an Advisory Board (consisting of persons who are or are
qualified to be appointed as Judges of a High Court) has reported before the expiration of the said period
of three months that there is in its opinion sufficient cause for such detention.
However, the Parliament may by law prescribe the circumstances under which a person may be detained
for a period longer than three months without obtaining the opinion of an Advisory Board and the
maximum period for which any person may be detained under any law providing for preventive detention.

Q 53.C
Article 3 authorizes the Parliament to: (a) form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by
uniting two or more states or parts of states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state, (b) increase
the area of any state, (c) diminish the area of any state, (d) alter the boundaries of any state, and (e) alter
the name of any state.
The Constitution (Article 4) itself declares that laws made for admission or establishment of new states
(under Article 2) and formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing
states (under Articles 3) are not to be considered as amendments of the Constitution under Article 368.
This means that such laws can be passed by a simple majority and by the ordinary legislative process.
Hence, (c) is the correct answer

Q 54.D
Statement 1 is not correct: The Supreme court in the Kesavananda Bharti case held that the Preamble can
be amended. However it also held that those features of the Preamble which are included in the basic
features cannot be altered by an amendment under Article 368.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon
the powers of legislature.
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Q 55.A
A bill for creation and abolition of Legislative Council in states by the Parliament by simple majority.
Parliament may by law provide for the abolition of the Legislative Council of a State having such a
Council or for the creation of such a Council in a State having no such Council, if the Legislative
Assembly of the State passes a resolution to that effect by a majority of the total membership of the
Assembly and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the Assembly present and
voting.

Q 56.C
RIGHT AGAINST EXPLOITATION (Article 23 & 24)
'Prohibition of Traffic in Human Beings and Forced Labour' is provided under Article 23 which prohibits
traffic in human beings, begar (forced labour) and other similar forms of forced labour. Any contravention
of this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law. This right is available to both
citizens and non-citizens. It protects the individual not only against the State but also against private
persons.

Prohibition of Employment of Children in Factories, etc is provided under Article 24 which prohibits the
employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine or other hazardous activities like
construction work or railway. But, it does not prohibit their employment in any harmless or innocent
work.

Q 57.A
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. The Indian constitution provides only a
limited power to Parliament as far as amending the constitution is concerned. A limited amending power
is one of the basic features of the constitution and, so, the limitations on that power cannot be destroyed.
Parliament cannot under the exercise of the limited amending power enlarge this very power into an
absolute power.

Q 58.C
Statement 1 is correct: Article 31C provides that the government's efforts to implement DPSPs specified
in article 39(b) and 39 (c) cannot be held as violative of fundamental rights under the Article 14 and 19.
39 (b) - distribution of ownership and control of the material resources of the community as best to
subserve the common good; 39 (c) prevention of concentration of wealth.
Statements 2 and 3 are also correct: Article 31A provide protection for 5 categories of laws from article 14
and 19:
(a) Acquisition of estates and related rights by the State;
(b) Taking over the management of properties by the State;
(c) Amalgamation of corporations;
(d) Extinguishment or modification of rights of directors or shareholders of corporations; and
(e) Extinguishment or modification of mining leases.

Q 59.B
5:25 scheme - RBI's flexible financing scheme, allows banks to extend long-term loans of 20-25 years to
match the cash flow of projects, while refinancing them every five or seven years. It creates incentive for
banks to come together with their borrowers to rehabilitate stressed assets.

Q 60.D
The Preamble reveals four ingredients or components:
1. Source of authority of the Constitution: The Preamble states that the Constitution derives its authority
from the people of India.
2. Nature of Indian State: It declares India to be of a sovereign, socialist, secular democratic and
republican polity.
3. Objectives of the Constitution: It specifies justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as the objectives.
4. Date of adoption of the Constitution: It stipulates November 26, 1949 as the date.

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Q 61.C
Statement 1 is correct: It is an additive commonly used in bread where it acts as an oxidising agent which
strengthens dough and enhances its flexibility.
Statement 2 is correct: Potassium bromate is classified as a category 2B carcinogen (possibly carcinogenic
to humans) by the International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC).

Q 62.D
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Sanction behind DPSP is political. Dr Ambedkar observed "if any Govt
ignores them, they will have to certainly answer for them to the electorate at the time of election"
Statement 2 is incorrect. Part IV is part of constitution. And Union government falls within the ambit of
definition of state (under article 37, but, giving a conclusive reading of Article 355 and DPSP, Union
government can issue directions to state governments to bring those in action. In case of refusal to comply
with such directions issued by the Union, it may apply Art. 365 against recalcitrant state. Otherwise, Part
IV will remain a dead-letter. Hence, It is competent for the Union to issue directions against particular
states to introduce "free and compulsory education [Art. 45]" or to prevent laughter of cows, calves and
other milch [Art 48] and so on

Q 63.B
The Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) is a multilateral export control regime. It is an informal
and voluntary partnership among 35 countries to prevent the proliferation of missile and unmanned aerial
vehicle technology capable of carrying above 500 kg payload for more than 300 km.
China, Israel and Pakistan are not members of MTCR.
USA, UK, Russia, France, Japan, Italy, Germany, Brazil, South Korea and Australia are prominent
members of the group.
Recently India joined MTCR as a full member.

Q 64.C
Statement 1 is not correct.Like any other part of the Constitution, the Preamble was also enacted by the
Constituent Assembly, but, after the rest of the Constitution was already enacted. The reason for inserting
the Preamble at the end was to ensure that it was in conformity with the Constitution as adopted by the
Constituent Assembly.
Statement 2 is correct. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the 'Objectives Resolution',
drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru, and adopted by the Constituent Assembly.
Statement 3 is not correct. It stipulates November 26, 1949 as the date of adoption of the Constitution.

Q 65.A
SHANGRI LA DIALOGUE: ASIA SECURITY SUMMIT
The IISS Asia Security Summit was launched in 2002 by British think tank the International Institute for
Strategic Studies and the Singaporean government.
This annual dialogue brings together defence ministers and military chiefs from 28 Asia-Pacific countries
to talk about security in the region.
It gets its name from the location of the meeting, the Shangri-La hotel in Singapore.
India's defence Minister participated in the 15th Shangri-La security summit.

Q 66.B
The Pelindaba Treaty also known as African Nuclear Weapon-Free Zone Treaty signed in 1996 aims at
preventing nuclear proliferation and preventing strategic minerals of Africa from being exported freely.

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Q 67.C
1 is correct as Right to Equality under Article 15(4) states that nothing in this article or in clause (2) of
article 29 shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any socially
and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
2 is incorrect as Fundamental Duties does not provide special provisions for weaker sections of society.
3 is correct as Article 38 specifies State to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people
Article 38 clause (2) specifically mentions that the State shall, in particular, strive to minimise the
inequalities in income, and endeavour to eliminate inequalities in status, facilities and opportunities, not
only amongst individuals but also amongst groups of people residing in different areas or engaged in
different vocations.

Q 68.A
The Article 14 of the Indian constitution states that: the State shall not deny to any person equality before
the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
Statement 1 is correct : Absence of special privileges to any person comes under condept of "Equality
before Law".
Statement 2 is incorrect : Equality of treatment is for people under equal circumstances else it would be
violation of "Equal Protection of Law".
Statement 3 is incorrect : Article 14 forbids class legislation. Class legslation is not allowed but
reasonable classification of persons, objects etc. is allowed. Classification should not be arbitrary,
artificial or evasive.

Q 69.B
Statement 1 is correct. The draft National Water Framework Bill says every person would be entitled to
water for life that shall not be denied to anyone on the ground of inability to pay. It defines this water
for life as that basic requirement that is necessary for the fundamental right of life of each human being,
including drinking, cooking, bathing, sanitation, personal hygiene and related personal and domestic
uses. This would also include the additional requirement for women for their special needs and the
water required by domestic livestock. This minimum water requirement would be determined by the
appropriate governments from time to time.

Statement 2 is correct. The proposed law wants to introduce a graded pricing system for domestic water
supply, with full cost recovery pricing for high-income groups, affordable pricing for middle-income,
and a certain quantum of free supply to the poor. Alternatively, a minimal quantum of water may be
supplied free to all.

Statement 3 is not correct. As water is a state subject, these guidelines will not be binding on states. It
is being proposed as a model legislation that can be adopted by states.

Q 70.B
Statement 1 is not correct. Article 30 defines minority educational institutions as those established by
minorities, whether based on religion or language.
Statement 2 is correct : The Constitution bench ( Pramati judgement) in 2014 exempted minority schools,
both aided and unaided, from the purview of the Act. It said minority schools could not be put under legal
obligation to provide free and compulsory elementary education to children who were not members of the
minority community which had established the school.

Q 71.C
The T.S.R. Subramanian committee was constituted for the evolution of a New Education Policy.
Some of the important recommendations of the report are:
1. An Indian Education Service (IES) should be established as an All India Service with the Human
Resource Development (HRD) ministry as cadre controlling authority.
2. The outlay on education should be raised to at least 6% of GDP without further loss of time.

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 3. There should be minimum eligibility condition with 50% marks at graduate level for entry to existing
B.Ed courses. Teacher Entrance Tests (TET) should be made compulsory for recruitment of all
teachers. The Centre and states should jointly lay down norms and standards for TET.
4. Compulsory licensing or certification for teachers in government and private schools should be made
mandatory, with provision for renewal every 10 years based on independent external testing.
5. Pre-school education for children in the age group of 4 to 5 years should be declared as a right and a
programme for it implemented immediately.
6. The no detention policy must be continued for young children until completion of class V when the
child will be 11 years old. At the upper primary stage, the system of detention shall be restored
subject to the provision of remedial coaching and at least two extra chances being offered to prove his
capability to move to a higher class
7. On-demand board exams should be introduced to offer flexibility and reduce year end stress of
students and parents. A National Level Test open to every student who has completed class XII from
any School Board should be designed.
8. The mid-day meal (MDM) program should now be extended to cover students of secondary schools.
This is necessary as levels of malnutrition and anaemia continue to be high among adolescents.
9. UGC Act must be allowed to lapse once a separate law is created for the management of higher
education. The University Grants Commission (UGC) needs to be made leaner and thinner and given
the role of disbursal of scholarships and fellowships.
10. Top 200 foreign universities should be allowed to open campuses in India and give the same degree
which is acceptable in the home country of the said university.
11. Holding teachers and headmasters accountable for learning outcomes; their career progression will be
linked to their performance.
12. fair and equitable deployment of teachers across regions and between rural and urban areas.
13. it has called for transforming at least 1,000 institutes of higher learning into world-class universities
so as to stop the migration to foreign universities.

Q 72.D
Through its power under the article 368, Indian parliament can amend all the given parts of the
constitution.
1. Through 86th constitutional amendment act, 11th fundamental duty was inserted.
2. Parliament is empowered to abridge or take away any of the Fundamental Rights.However, it cannot
abridge or take away a Fundamental Right that forms a part of the 'basic structure' of the Constitution.
(Keshvananda Bharti case)
3. Parliament in many occasions has amended the different schedules of the Indian constitution.
Originally there were only 8 schedules and 4 more schedules were added subsequently through
amendments.

Q 73.C
Settlement of boundary dispute relates to the alignment of an undefined boundary. This involves no
cession of Indian territory. Supreme Court in 1969 ruled that, settlement of a boundary dispute between
India and another country does not require a constitutional amendment and it can be done by executive
order itself.
If cessation of territory which was part of Indian territory was involved, it requires a constitutional
amendment under the article 368.
In all other cases of reorganisation, Parliament's approval is required by simple majority under Article 3.

Q 74.C
Statement 1 is correct: Identification of backward classes is subject to judicial review.
Statement 2 is correct: Art 16 is an enabling provision and confers a discretionary power on the State to
make reservation, if required. The backwardness contemplated by Article 16(4) is mainly social, hence it
contains SCs, STs and OBCs.

Q 75.A
Statement 1 is correct : Article 45 states that state shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and
education for all children until they complete the age of six years.

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 Statement 2 is not correct : It is a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(g) - to protect and improve the
natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for living
creatures
Statement 3 is not correct : It is a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(c) - to uphold and protect the
sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
Q 76.B
Abolition of planning commission will boost federation as planning commission was considered as
promoting centralization of power.
Division of powers is the basic feature of a federal government. If a subject is removed from state list and
moved to concurrent list it wil allow even centre to pass laws on the same subject and since Parliament
has overriding power over States in concurrent list it will promote unitary spirit rather than federal spirit.
Increase in share of states in Central pool of taxes will boost fiscal Federalism. Hence only 1 and 3 are
correct.

Q 77.C
Statement 1 is correct - The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC), India is a
quasi-judicial commission in India which was set up in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986.
Its head office is in New Delhi. It has power to impose monetary penalty. Recently, the National
Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission had ordered a hospital in Mumbai to pay Rs 12,000 to a
patient who had contracted HIV 20 years ago after blood transfusion.
Statement 2 is correct - The commission is headed by a sitting or retired judge of the Supreme Court of
India. Section 23 of Consumer Protection Act, 1986, provides that any person aggrieved by an order of
NCDRC, may prefer an Appeal against such order to Supreme Court of India within a period of 30 days.

Q 78.D
o Article 297- Things of value within territorial waters or continental shelf and resources of the exclusive
economic zone to vest in the Union (1) All lands, minerals and other things of value underlying the ocean
within the territorial waters, or the continental shelf, or the exclusive economic zone, of India shall vest in
the Union and be held for the purposes of the Union.

Q 79.D
Statement 1 is not correct. The ideal of justice-social, economic and political-has been taken from the
Russian Revolution (1917).
Statement 2 is not correct. The term justice in the Preamble embraces three distinct forms social,
economic and political, secured through various provisions of Fundamental Rights and Directive
Principles.

Q 80.D
Statement 1 is a Fundamental Right - Right to telecast, that is, government has no monopoly on electronic
media is a Fundamental Right under Freedom of Speech and Expression.
Statement 2 is not a Fundamental Right - Originally, the right to property was one of the seven
fundamental rights under Part III of the Constitution. It was dealt by Article 19(1) (f) and Article 31. The
44th Amendment Act of 1978 abolished the right to property as fundamental Right by repealing Article
19(1) (f) and Article 31 from Part III. Instead, the Act inserted a new Article 300A in Part XII under the
heading 'Right to Property'. It provides that no person shall be deprived of his property except by authority
of law. Thus, the right to property still remains a legal right or a constitutional right, though no longer a
fundamental right.
Statement 3 is not a Fundamental Right - Although citizens have the right to form associations and unions
under Art. 19(c). However, the right to obtain recognition of the association is not a fundamental right.
Statement 4 is a Fundamental Right under Freedom of Speech and Expression.

Q 81.A
Statement is not correct: The expression "office of profit" has not been defined in the Constitution or in
the Representation of the People Act, 1951. They have been mentioned in the Article 102 and 191 of the
Constitution.

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 According to Article 102 (1) (a), a person shall be disqualified as a member of Parliament for holding any
office of profit under the government of India or the government of any state, "other than an office
declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder". Article 191 (1) (a) has a similar provision for
the members of state assemblies.
However, based on past judgments, the Election Commission has noted five below tests for what
constitutes an office of profit:
o Whether the government makes the appointment
o Whether government has the right to remove or dismiss the holder.
o Whether the government pays remuneration.
o What the functions of the holder are.
o Does the government exercise any control over the performance of these functions.
Statement 2 is not correct. Articles 102 and 191 clarify that "a person shall not be deemed to hold an
office of profit under the government of India or the government of any state by reason only that he is a
minister".
Statement 3 is correct. Under Article 102 and Article 191 of the Constitution both parliament and state
legislatures have the power to exempt an office from the purview of the office of profit.

Q 82.D
Statement 1 is correct. The NMEP primarily aims at accelerating the exploration activity in the country
through enhanced participation of the private sector.
Statement 2 is correct. States will also play a greater role by referring exploration projects, which can be
taken up through the National Mineral Exploration Trust (NMET).
Statement 3 is correct. It proposes to establish a not-for-profit autonomous institution that will be known
as the National Centre for Mineral Targeting (NCMT) in collaboration with scientific and research bodies,
universities and industry for scientific and technological research to address the mineral exploration
challenges in the country.

Q 83.D
Option a is not correct. This kind of majority is considered as simple majority. The amendments carried
out by this majority are not deemed to be amendment of constitution for the purposes of article 368.
Option b is not correct. Such kind of majority is not special majority and is not sufficient for the purpose
of constitutional amendment.
Option c is not correct. In order to pass a constitutional amendment act in each house of parliament a
majority of the total membership of the house along with a majority of two-third, and not a simple
majority, of the members of the house present and voting is required.
Option d is correct. In order to pass a constitutional amendment act, such kind of majority is required in
both houses of parliament. This kind of majority is called as special majority.

Q 84.C
Statement 1 is incorrect as DPSP establish social and economic democracy only. Fundamental rights
establish political democracy
Statement 2 is correct as DPSP promote welfare of the community. Hence they are societarian and
socialistic. While the fundamental rights promote welfare of the individual.
Statement 3 is incorrect as DPSPs are positive as they require the state to do certain things. Fundamental
rights are negative in character as they prohibit state from doing certain things.

Q 85.C
Following are the features of fundamental rights
Not all fundamental rights are positive in character: As some of the fundamental rights are
negative in character. It means some rights places restriction over the authority of the state, for eg
under A15 "state shall not discrimate against any citizen on grounds of religion, race, caste,sex or
place of birth" Similarly A16 and A19 limits the authority of state (statement 1 correct)

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 Not all fundamental rights are negative in character: As some of the fundamental rights are
positive in character .ie, certain rights confers certain privileges on the persons. for eg equality of
oppurtunity in matters of public employment etc.
Not all the rights are permanent in nature: As some of the rights can be curtailed by parliament
through an amendment of the constitution , provided it would not disturb the basic structure. Similarty
certaing rights gets suspended during acts of emergency. As under national emergency all the
fundamental rights are suspended except A20 and A21, similarty during declaration of emergency
under external aggression A19 is suspended. (statement 2 correct)

Q 86.D
Article 35 contains the following provisions:
1. The Parliament shall have (and the legislature of a state shall not have) power to make laws with
respect to the following matters:
(a) Prescribing residence as a condition for certain employments or appointments in a state or union
territory or local authority or other authority (Article 16).
(b) Empowering courts other than the Supreme Court and the high courts to issue directions, orders
and writs of all kinds for the enforcement of fundamental rights (Article 32).
(c) Restricting or abrogating the application of Fundamental Rights to members of armed forces,
police forces, etc. (Article 33).
(d) Indemnifying any government servant or any other person for any act done during the operation
of martial law in any area (Article 34).
2. Parliament shall have (and the legislature of a state shall not have) powers to make laws for
prescribing punishment for those acts that are declared to be offences under the fundamental rights.
These include the following:
(a) Untouchability (Article 17).
(b) Traffic in human beings and forced labour (Article 23). Further, the Parliament shall, after the
commencement of the Constitution, make laws for prescribing punishment for the above acts,
thus making it obligatory on the part of the Parliament to enact such laws.
3. Any law in force at the commencement of the Constitution with respect to any of the matters specified
above is to continue in force until altered or repealed or amended by the Parliament.
It should be noted that Article 35 extends the competence of the Parliament to make a law on the
matters specified above, even though some of those matters may fall within the sphere of the state
legislatures (i.e., State List).

Q 87.A
The Finance Act 2016 passed in the budget session provided for Income Declaration Scheme which gives
an opportunity to all persons to declare their undisclosed income.
Under the Income Declaration Scheme:
The declarants are given immunity from prosecution under Income tax Act, Wealth Tax Act and Benami
Tranaction Act.
However, foreign assets or income to which the Black Money Act 2015 applies are not eligible for
declaration under this scheme. Undisclosed income acquired through corruption is not covered under the
scheme

Q 88.C
Statement 1 is not correct: Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a Statutory body under Ministry
of Information and Broadcasting, regulating the public exhibition of films under the provisions of the
Cinematograph Act 1952.
Statement 2 is correct: Films can be publicly exhibited in India only after they have been certified by the
Central Board of Film Certification.
Statement 3 is correct: The Board, consists of non-official members and a Chairman (all of whom are
appointed by Central Government) and functions with headquarters at Mumbai.

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Q 89.D
o The writ of Quo-Warranto is issued by the court to enquire into legality of claim of a person to a public
office., it prevents illegal occupation of a post by a person.
o The writ can only be issued for public office of permanent character created either under a statute or by
the constitution. Extra constitutional bodies , ministrial office are not covered by it.
o UPSC and CAG are both constitutional bodies whereas Niti Aayog is an extra constitutional body without
any backing of a statute. Hence, Quo warranto cannot be used for it.

Q 90.D
From the various judgements, some elements have emerged as the basic structure of the Constitution
which includes powers of the Supreme Court under articles 32, 136, 141 and 142. These articles cannot be
amended by the Parliament.
Statement 1 which comes under article 141 is one of the elements of basic structure of the
constitution. Laws declared by Supreme Court are binding on all courts of India.
Statement 2 which comes under article 136 is one of the elements of basic structure of the constitution.
The Supreme Court is authorized to grant in its discretion special leave to appeal from any judgement in
any matter passed by any court or tribunal in the country except military tribunal and court martial.
Statement 3 which comes under article 32 is one of the elements of basic structure of the
constitution. Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights of an
aggrieved citizen.

Q 91.D
Statement 1 is not correct. Parliament cannot amend those provisions which form the basic structure of the
constitution. Also, the President can neither withhold his assent to the constitutional amendment bill nor
return the bill for reconsideration of the parliament.
Statement 2 is not correct. If the constitutional amendment bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of
the constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority ( and
not special majority), that is, a majority of the members of the house present and voting.

Q 92.C
Option (c) is a DPSP under the article 51 which states that the state shall endeavour to promote
international peace and security; maintain just and honourable relations between nations.
The others are Fundamental Duties under the article 51 A of the Indian constitution.

Q 93.C
The Indian Independence Act of 1947 made the following three changes in the position of the Assembly:
1. The Assembly was made a fully sovereign body, which could frame any Constitution it pleased. The act
empowered the Assembly to abrogate or alter any law made by the British Parliament in relation to
India.

2. The Assembly also became a legislative body. In other words, two separate functions were assigned to
the Assembly, that is, making of a constitution for free India and enacting of ordinary laws for the
country. These two tasks were to be performed on separate days. Thus, the Assembly became the first
Parliament of free India (Dominion Legislature). Whenever the Assembly met as the Constituent body
it was chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad and when it met as the legislative body, it was chaired by G V
Mavlankar. These two functions continued till November 26, 1949, when the task of making the
Constitution was over.

3. The Muslim League members (hailing from the areas included in the Pakistan) withdrew from the
Constituent Assembly for India. Consequently, the total strength of the Assembly came down to 299
as against 389 originally fixed in 1946 under the Cabinet Mission Plan. The strength of the Indian
provinces (formerly British Provinces) was reduced from 296 to 229 and those of the princely states
from 93 to 70

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Q 94.B
Statement 1 is incorrect. In India both a citizen by birth as well as a naturalized citizen are eligible for the
office of President.
Statement 2 is correct. When an Indian citizen voluntarily (consciously, knowingly and without duress,
undue influence or compulsion) acquires the citizenship of another country, his Indian citizenship
automatically terminates. This provision, however, does not apply during a war in which India is engaged.
Statement 3 is incorrect. If any foreign territory becomes a part of India, all the people of that territory do
not automatically become citizens of India. The Government of India specifies the persons who among the
people of the territory shall be the citizens of India. Such persons become the citizens of India from the
notified date.

Q 95.C
o A team of scientists from Harvard University has created a unique bionic leaf that uses sunlight (solar
energy) to split water molecules into oxygen and hydrogen and hydrogen-eating bacteria to produce liquid
fuels from CO2. This artificial photosynthesis device has been dubbed bionic leaf 2.0.
o The new system can convert solar energy to biomass with 10% efficiency. Its efficiency is much higher
than the 1% seen in the fastest growing plants.
o Scientists had used a new cobalt-phosphorous alloy catalyst for this experiment in order to increase
efficiency. The catalyst chemical design allows the system to self-heal i.e. doesnt allow material to
leech into solution.

Q 96.A
Statement 1 is correct: The term 'federation' has not been used in the Constitution. Instead, Article 1 of the
Constitution describes India as a 'Union of States' and not 'Federation of States' to indicate that the Indian
federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American federation and that the
states have no right to secede from the federation.
Statement 2 is correct: The framers of the Indian Constitution adopted the federal system due to two main
reasons- the large size of the country and its socio-cultural diversity. The federal system ensures efficient
governance in the country and also reconciles national unity with regional autonomy.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Flexibility of the Constitution is a Unitary or non-federal feature of the
Constitution. The bulk of the Constitution can be amended by the unilateral action of the Parliament by
simple majority or by special majority. Also, the power to initiate an amendment to the Constitution also
lies only with the Centre.

Q 97.A
Statement 1 is correct : The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is a group of nuclear supplier countries that
seeks to contribute to the non-proliferation of nuclear weapons through the implementation of two sets of
Guidelines for nuclear exports and nuclear-related exports.
Statement 2 is incorrect: India is not a member of NSG. Various members of NSG including China have
opposed India's membership.

Q 98.C
o The Supreme Court upheld the validity of the 24th Constitutional Amendment Act in Kesavananda
Bharati v. State of Kerala in 1971 and laid down the principle of Basic structure. According to the Basic
Structure doctrine, Parlimament can amend any part of the Constitution however formed the basis of
power of the Indian judiciary to review, and strike down, amendments seek to alter this principle.
o In the Minerva Mills case, the Supreme Court provided key clarifications on the interpretation of the basic
structure doctrine. The court unanimously ruled that the power of the Parliament of India to amend the
constitution is limited by the constitution. The ruling struck down few sections of the Constitution (Forty-
Second Amendment) Act.

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 o Recently, in Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record -Association and others v. Union of India case,
Supreme Court struck down 99th constitutional amendement which proposed the formation of NJAC for
selection and transfer of judges in SC and High courts.
o Golaknath vs State of Punjab, 1967 was before the basic structure doctrine. In this case the SC opined that
fundamental rights can not be amended. After this judgement, the parliament enacted 24th amendemnt
which provided that nothing in Article 13 shall apply to any amendment of the constitution under Article
368.

Q 99.A
The Ministry of HRD recently launched the Vidyanjali scheme aimed at boosting the education system by
delivering volunteer teachers to government schools.
It will not replace the regular and professionally qualified teachers in the government schools
The volunteer's responsibility is towards overall development of the child, not academics.
The volunteer service will be used in developing skills like public speaking, creative writing, counseling,
music and dance.

Q 100.B
A dark-sky reserve is an area, usually surrounding a park or observatory, that is kept free of artificial light
pollution. The purpose of a dark sky reserve is generally to promote astronomy.

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