Basic 5 PDF

Examination No.
16989
Page 1
Level III Basic Examination per SNT-TC-1A(92)
Question numbers 1 through 20 pertain to Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A, 1992

Edition
1) A closed book examination is defined as:
a. an examination with access to all reference materials.

b. an examination without necessary material references supplied
with or in the examination.
an examination administered without access to reference material except
for materials supplied with or in the examination.
d. an organized program developed to impart the knowledge and skills
necessary for qualification.
e. an examination conducted exclusively by an outside agency.
2) The composite grade for qualification examinations should be determined by:
simple averaging.
using weighting factors which total 1.0.
c. using weighting factors which total 100.
d. the applicable Level III for the NOT process.
e. a complex mathematicalformula
3) Qualification is:
a. the work activities accomplished in a specific NOT method under the direction of
qualified supervision.
b. a company who provides NOT Level III services.
@ demonstrated skill or knowledge and documented training and experience required
for personnel to properly perform the duties of a specific job.
d. the organized program developed to impart the knowledge and skills necessary
for qualification.
e. a set of guidelines to assist the employer in developing NOT procedures.
Exam. material 1995 by Hellier Associates Inc. All rights reserved

Examination No. 16989
Page 2
4) At least how many different checkpoints requiring an understanding of the NOT variables and employer
procedural requirements should be included in a NOT Levell! practical examination?
a five(5)
ten (10)
c. fifteen (15)
d. thirty (30)
e. eighty (80) percent of the procedure variables
5) Which of the following need not be included in the NOT personnel certification records?
a. Name of certified individual.

b. Statement indicating satisfactory completion of training in
accordance with the employer's written practice.
c. Results of the vision examinations.
@ Signature of the certified individual.
e. Signature of employer's certifying authority.
6) The person or persons properly designated in the written practice to sign certifications on behalf of the
employer is:
a. the outside agency.

b. the examiner.
@ the certifying authority.
d. the qualifier.
e. the certifying agency.
7) Which of the following is true for recertification of all Levels of NOT personnel?
a Reexamination is always required for recertification.

b. Reexamination is never required for recertification.
CD Evidence of continuing satisfactory performance may be used
for recertification.
d. Reexamination is required only if there has been interrupted service.
e. NOT personnel may not be reexamined at anytime at the discretion
of the employer.

Page 3
8) The employer's written practice should describe the responsibility for determining the
acceptability of materials or components in accordance with the applicable codes, standards,
specifications, and procedures.
a. of the Levell only

b. of the Levell! only
c. of the Level III only
d. of the employer
of each level of certification
9) is an individual who is not currently certified but who is in the process of being initially
trained, qualified and certified.
A trainee
A candidate
c. A certifying authority
d. A "grandfathered" Level III
e. An examiner
10) Training course outlines detailed in SNT-TC-1A:
a are required by ASNT.

<) are recommended.
c. are required by all employers.
d. are available only from outside training service organizations.
e. should not be used verbatim.
1-1) The questions for Levels I and II General examinations and Level III Method examinations which are
published in the Question and Answer Books and can be obtained from ASNT:
a. are intended to be used, as is, when qualifying and certifying NOT personnel.
b. must be used verbatim for qualification examinations.
c. may be used verbatim with written permission from ASNT.
d. may be used as reference data during an examination.
are intended as examples, and should not be used verbatim.

Page 4
12) Under supervision or guidance of a Levell! or Level lll, a Levell:
a. must perform, evaluate and sign for test results as a condition of employment.
b. may perform, evaluate and sign for test results if under constant supervision.
c. may act as an independent instructor for trainees in the applicable NOT method.
may independently perform, evaluate and sign for results of nondestructive tests
provided they are in accordance with written procedures and documented in the
employer's written practice.
e. is never allowed to take independent action when performing, evaluating or
signing for results of NOT tests.
13) The recommended maximum interval for Level III personnel recertification is:
a. yearly.
b. every three (3) years.
Cc:) every five (5) years.
(9-' as specified by the employer.
e. none of the above.
14) The actual administration and grading of Level III examinations:
a. must be performed by the employer.

b. may be performed by any individual without employer authorization.
@) may be performed by a qualified representative of the employer.
d. is not required for initial (first time) Level III certification.
e. is the responsibility of the Level III from the outside agency.
15) Certification is automatically terminated when the certified individual:
a. has interrupted service of more than six months.

b. makes a mistake in a test report entry.
cp terminates employment
uses a different test instrument than the one originally certified for.
e. takes unreported vacation.
16) The purpose of SNT-TC-1A is to:
a. establish mandatory rules and regulations for personnel other than NOT personnel.
b. establish mandatory rules for the qualification and certification of NOT personnel.
c. be incorporated into QA programs for qualification of NOT personnel.
establish guidelines for the qualification and certification of NOT personnel.
e. act as a mandatory book of rules and policies for NOT personnel.
Exa_m.material 1995 by Hellier Associates Inc. All rights reserved

Page 5
17) What term is used to describe work activities accomplished in a specific NDT method under the direction
of qualified supervision including the performance of the NDT method and related activities but not
including time spend in organized training programs?
a. Specific activity
@ Experience
c. Ouaffication
d. Certification
e. Training
18) ______ " is the condition of being in written form.
a' Detailed
b. Proceduralized
f'C:) Documented
'a:' Published
e. Qualified
19) Which of the following is false relative to near vision acuity examinations?
a. The examination should assure natural or corrected near-distance

acuity in at least one eye.
b. The applicant should be capable of reading a minimum Jaeger Number
2 or equivalent type and size letter.
c. Distance of eye examination should not be less than 12 inches
on a standard Jaeger test chart.
d. The ability to perceive an Ortho-Rater minimum of 8 or similar test
o pattem is acceptable for near vision acuity examination.

The examination should be administered at three (3) year intervals.
20) When an examination is administered and graded for the employer by an outside agency who issues
grades of pass and fail only, on a certified report, the employer may accept the pass grade as
______ for that particular examination. .
a. 70 percent
b. 75 percent
80 percent
~ 90 percent
e. 100 percent

Page 6
Level III Basic Examination per SNT-TG-1A(92)
Question numbers 21 through 50 pertain to Materials, Fabrication, and Product

Technology
21) An additional treatment used with aluminum alloys to control growth and distortion is called:
a. austenitizing. '
b. annealing.
c. normalizing.
d. stabilizing.
e. spheroidizing.
22) increases ductility.
a. Age hardening
b. Recovery
c. Work hardening
d. Quenching
0) Normalizing
23) Inherent discontinuities can be defined as:
a. discontinuities that are related to the cooling of the molten metal.

b. discontinuities related to the manufacturing process such as grinding, forming,
machining,etc.
c. baseline discontinuities.
d. discontinuities that are related to various service conditions such as wear.
discontinuities formed duri~g the initial making of the material.
\~-
24) Short, randomly distributed fissures in forged ferrous metals, which are attributed to stresses produced
bYlocalized transformation and decreased solubility of hydrogen during cooing after hot WOrking, are
known as: .
a shrink cracks.
@) bursts,
c. hot short cracks.
/ d. hot tears.
e. flakes.

Page 7
25) involves a change of surface properties to produce a hard, wear-resistant shell about a
tough, fracture resistant core.
a. Shot peening
b. Casehardening
c. Anodizing
d. Tempering
e. Quenching
26) Permanent deformation is a type of material failure. Which of the following is another type of material
failure?
Fracture
Low frequency dynamic loading
c. Cyclic loading
d. Elongation within the elastic range.
e. Peening
27) The temperature of magnetic transformation below which metal or alloy is ferromagnetic and above which
it is paramagnetic: ~ called the:
a. curie temperature.
b. saturation temperature.
c. transformation temperature.
d. transition temperature.
e. tempering temperature.
28) The term used to denote that a structure is visible at magnifications from one to ten diameters is:
(a I microscopic.
e. macroscopic.
c. submicroscopic.
d. molecular.
e. submolecular.

Page 8
29) The maximum stress to which a material may be subjected, without any permanent strain remaining upon
complete release of stress, is called the:
a. ultimate yield strength.

@ elastic limit.
c. ultimate tensile strength.
d. endurance limit
e. Modulus of Elasticity.
30) The conversion of billets into lengths of uniform cross section by forcing the plastic metal
through a die orifice of the desired cross-sectional outline is called:
a. forging.
b. drawing.
cY
d.
extruding;
casting.
._ e. welding.
31) A large forging has been repaired by welding. Magnetic particle inspection of the repair
weld depOsi(iBveals an irregular indicatlOrl running parallel with the weld passes. It is
located near the center of the bead and starts and ends by changing slightly from the axial
directlon. This kind of discontinuity is most likely a:
a lap.
b.. lack of fusion.
crael<. wd
J 10
Sh("l\.v"~
C. (t'-.t.t
~ crater.
e. slag inclusion.

Page 9
32) The shapes that the metal ingot is rolled into prior to conducting a variety of secondary operations are
referred to as:
a charges.
b. blanks.
c. pigs.
@ slabs, blooms and billets.
e. rods, bars, and shapes.
33) Deviation from the main composition at a particular location in a solidified metal is
referred to as:
a pipe.
b. inclusions.
segregration.
~ brittleness.
e. dross.
34) Material properties, as used in design, are most frequently determined by:
a. theoretical analysis.
() material testing.
c. the National Institute of Standards and Technology.
d. fracture mechanics.
35) Which of the following discontinuities is not associated with welding?
a Porosity
~ Bursts
c. Lack of fusion
d. Cratercracks
e. Lack of penetration

Page 10
Level III Basic Examination per SNT-TG-1A(92}
36) Metal inserts, imbedded in the surface of a sand core or mold or placed in a mold cavity to increase the
cooling rate at that point, are known as:
(1) chills.
b. core supports.
c. chaplets.
d. risers.
e. core/mold nails.
37) is a process used for shaping metals by chemical dissolution.
a Electrochemical machining
b. Electrical discharge machining
c. Electroforming
@ Chemical milling
e. Anodizing
38) Another term for investment casting and the lost wax process is:
precision casting.
permanent mold casting.
c. centrifugal casting.
d. die casting.
e. plaster mold casting.
39} The term used to describe the continuous deformation of a material under constant load, producing unit
stresses below those of the elastic limit, is:
a segregation.
b. extrusion.
@ creep.
d. activation.
e. fatigue.

Page 11
40) The base metal melted during welding, as determined on the cross section of a weld, is the:
a. transformation zone.
b. fusion zone.
c. homogenization zone.
d. precipitation zone.
@ heat affected zone.
41) Carbon steels can be described as:
a. ordinary carbon steel to which has been added elements such as chromium,
~ nickel,etc.
\..E;I steel which does not contain significant amounts of alloying elements other than carbon.
c. steel whose constituents remain in solution with each other at room temperature,
and are non-magnetic and corrosion resistant.
d. an alloy containing tin, lead or antimony, and about 77 percent copper.
e. . metals containing aluminum, magnesium and berylium.
42) Work hardening:
a. creates small spherical particles of metal.

<. b. is machine grinding a metal to specified dimensions and low tolerances.
@ is used in determination of physical properties. ~
d. decreases strength by causing plastic flow below the elastic limit
e. increases strength by causing plastic flow beyond the elastic limit

Page 12
43) A major purpose of pressing the metal powders during powder metallurgy processing is to:
a. squeeze out excess moisture.

b. further refine the grains.
CD compact the powders into mechanical and atomic closeness.
d. strain harden the powders.
e. create mechanical and atomic separation of the powders.
44) The type of strength which is related to a metal's behavior when the load is applied in a cyclic manner is
called: -
a. tensile strength.
b. compressive strength.
c. torsional strength.
d. impact strength.
e. fatigue strength.
45) Three types of weld metal cracks are:
a. underbead, undercut and laminar.

. b. laminar, through and oblique.
c. intermittent, laminar and deformation.
o d. shallow, deep and intermittent.

longitudinal, transverse and crater.
46) Austenitic steels can be described as:
ordinary carbon steel to which has been added elements such as chromium, nickel, etc.
steel which does not contain significant amounts of alloying other than carbon.
c. steels whose constituents remain in solution with each other at room temperature,
and are non-magnetic and corrosion resistant.
d. an alloy containing tin, lead or antimony, and about rr percent copper.
e. None of the above.

Page 13
47) A tenn used in association with "age hardening" is:
precipitation hardening.
recrystaJlation.
c. austenitization.
d. spheroidizing.
e. fibering.
48) Cold working, in most metals, is used to:
a. decrease machinability.
b. reduce fatigue resistance.
c. improve corrosion resistance.
d. bring all intemal discontinuities to the surface.
@ improve machinability and fatigue resistance.
49) A method which involves impressing, with a defined load, a hardened steel ball into the material to be
tested and calculating a hardness number from the impression size is called a:
G) Brinell test.
b. file test
c. bend test
d. fatigue test.
e. shear test

Page 14
50) The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) is employed to determine material properties
as used in design based on:
a. theoretical analysis.
b. ASNT.
c. subjective analysis.
d. fracture mechanics.
materialtesting.
Question numbers 51 through 56 pertain to Magnetic Particle Testing
51) An Oersted is a unit of field strengthwhich producesmagneticindicationand is designatedby the

letter on the Hysteresis Loop.
a A
b. B
c. C
d. F
@H
52) _______ is the reversemagnetizingforce necessaryto removeresidualmagnetism.
a. Residualmagnetization
b. Amperetums
@) Coerciveforce
d. Demagnetization
e. Reluctance
53) When conducting magneticparticle inspectionusing longitudinalmagnetization,the effective

magneticfield inducedin a part by a coil extendsapproximately beyond either end
of the coil.
a. 1 to 3 inches
b. 3 to 6 inches
@ 6 to 9 inches
d. 9 to 12 inches
e. 12 to 18 inches
54) Wet fluorescent magneticparticlesare sometimesused in preferenceto nonfluorescentmagnetic

particles:
a. to increasespeedof inspection.
b. to inspectpartswith roughsurfaces.
c. to obtainmaximumsensitivity.
d. to take advantageof the effectsof fluorescentlights.
e. to decreasetest sensitivity.
Exam.material 1995by HellierAssociatesInc.All rightsreserved

Page 15
55) In magnetic particle inspection, an indication that is held by contamination and not by a leakage field is a :
false indication
residual indication
c. surface indication
d. true discontinuity
e. defect
56) When prods are used for magnetic particle inspection, the flux lines are:
distorted circular
b. circular
c. longitudinal between the prods
d. radial from the prods
e. oriented in a straight line
Question numbers 57 through 62 pertain to Liquid Penetrant Testing
57) Hydrophilic and lipophilic are terms used in penetrant inspection to describe types of:
a removers.
b. developers.
@) emulsifiers.
d. penetrants.
'- e. black lights.
58) Interpretation of penetrant indications as required by most specifications is based on:
a length and width of the opening.

b. area of the discontinuity opening.
@ length and width of the bleedout.
d. depth of discontinuity opening.
e. contrast of penetrant with developer.
59) What is the purpose of black light filters?
a. To remove fluorescence from the penetrant materials.

To remove visible light from the energy given off by the
mercury arc.
c. To remove low level fluorescence from the material being
inspected.
d. To remove natural white light.
e. To remove wavelength radiation above 3,000 angstrom units.

Page 16
60) Dry developer is applied to a specimen by:
a. rubbing into the surface of the part.

b. applying with a hard coarse spray.
c. applying with a cloth.
<t) dusting, blowing or dipping.
61) Liquid penetrant tests can be used to detect:
a intemal porosity in castings.

b.corrosion wall thinning in pipes and tubes.
@) fatigue cracks.
O. carbon content of steels.
e. hardness variations in stainless steel forgings.
62) Which of the following is not a good practice when performing a penetrant test?
CD Applying' emulsifier with a brush.

b. Applying developer by spraying the part with developer.
c. Removal of water-washable penetrant with a water spray.
d. Applying emulsifier by dipping the part in an emulsifier.
e. Applying penetrant by dipping the part in the penetrant.
Question numbers 63 through 68 pertain to Ultrasonic Testing
63) The angle at which 90 degrees refraction of the longitudinal mode is reached is called:
a. the normal angle of incidence.

(b). the first critical angle.
Y. the angle of maximum reflection.
d. the second critical angle.
e. the third critical angle.
64) Increasing frequency in ultrasonic testing:
a increases depth of penetration.

b. produces skin effect.
c. decreases sensitivity.
d. necessitates use of special transducers.
e. increases sensitivity.
Exam. material 1995 by Hellier Associates Inc. AU rights reserved

Page 17
65) In surface ultrasonic w~es, the motion of the particles is:
a. parallel to the direction of propagation of the ultrasonic beam.

@ transverse (at right angles) to the direction of beam propagation.
c. elliptical.
d. 45 degrees to the direction of beam propagation.
e. 75 degrees to the direction of beam propagation.
66) In ultrasonic testing, abnormally large grain size in the test material may be indicated by:
a. an abnormally high back reflection.

b. discontinuities which are unacceptable without interpretation.
c. high amplitude, spurious echoes which are not repeatable.
d. high levels of baseline noise or hash.
67) Sound waves with particle displacement transverse to the direction of wave travel are known as:
a longitudinalwaves.
() shear waves.
c. Rayleighwaves.
d. plate waves.
e. surface waves.
68) Snell's law is used to calculate:
a. angle of beam divergence.

b. angle of diffraction.
c. the oscilloscope.
~.j . the sweep delay.
v:.;J angle of refraction.
Exam. material <Q 1995 by Hellier Associates Inc. All rights reserved
Page 18
Question numbers 69 through 74 pertain to Electro.magneticTesting
69) The factor in the coil that resists the flow of current through the coil is called:
@ impedance. /)
b. skin effect. 1J_t
c.
d.
e.
density.
magnetic domains.
material permeability.
Q/ot
70) The most troublesome parameter and the one most responsible for unwanted signals in eddy current
testing is:
conductivity variations.
thickness variations.
c. edge effects.
d. lift-off variations.
e. balanced noise.
71) Eddy currents do not penetrate throughout a thick material but tend to be concentrated near the surface.
The, standard depth of penetration is the distance from the surface of the article to the point where the
current is approximately of the current density at the surface.
a 27 percent ()._t 'l_,,\

@ 37 percent ~{
c. 50 percent
d. 75 percent
e. 100 percent
72) A term used to describe the effect observed due to a change in the electromagnetic coupling between a
test specimen and a surface probe when the distance of separation between them is varied is referred to
as:
a. edge effect.
b. end effect.
c. fill factor.
d. frequency test
G rift off.
73) At a fixed frequency, in which of the following materials will the eddy current penetration be greatest?
a Aluminum (61% lACS conductivity)

b. Brass (15% lACS conductivity)
c. Copper (100% lACS conductivity)
I:f) Lead (7% lACS conductivity)
e. Magnesium (37% lACS conductivity)

Page 19
74) When conducting eddy current testing using a probe coil to scan an object:
a. the probe must be in constant motion to get a reading.

b. the object must be scanned in circular motions at constant speeds.
c. the object must be scanned carefully to insure inspection coverage.
d. the object must be dried.
e. the object must be polished.
Question numbers 75 through 80 pertain to Visual Testing
75) A distinct advantage of a fiberscope over a borescope is that a fiberscope is:
a simpler to use.
flexible.
c. rigid.
d. lightweight.
e. requires less light for inspection.
76) The distance a magnifier can be moved toward or away from a subject with
the subject remaining in good focus (sharply defined) is referred to as:
a. simple magnification.
b. visual acuity.
c. remote visual advantage.
d. image enhancement.
@ depth of field.
77) One of the uses of conventional dimensional gages on finished weldments is:
a. to determine acceptable dimensions in complex and obscure

weld hardware inner diameters.
to determine whether the weld size, in excessible areas, is within
allowable fimits.
c. to determine acceptability of weld appearance.
d. to aid the inspector in detecting visual imperfections.

Page 20
78) Which of the following are three inherent faults with lenses?
a magnifying power, focal length, parallel rays

b. smears, scratches, distortion
distortion, spherical aberration, chromatic aberration
~ scratches, displacement, positive aberration
79) Which is the correct statement about monochromatic light?
a. It is known as ultraviolet or black light.

b. It is an emission of one particular isotope.
c. It has greater carrying power than white light
@ It is a very small portion of the electromagnetic spectrum.
e. It is hazardous to the eyes after long exposure.
80) According to the Illuminating Engineering Society, visual testing requires a

minimum light intensity of for critical viewing.
a. 20 foot-candles
b. 75 foot-candles
(E. 100 foot-candles
d. 350 foot-candles
e. in excess of 450 foot-candles

Question numbers 81 through 86 pertain to Radiographic Testing
81) Lead screens are placed in intimate contact behind the film to:
a. absorb side scatter

b. reduce the photographic action on the film
c. reduce the amount of light striking the film
d. inhibit the photoelectric effect
CY reduce backscatter
82) X-rays travel at a velocity:
CD dependent on the KV used

b. equal to the speed of light
c. proportional to the square of the distance
d. determined by the distance traveled
e. none of the above
83) The unit measure of X or gamma radiation in air is referred to as:
a. Curie
@ Roentgen
c. Half-life
d. Kilo-electron-volts (Kev)
e. Roentgens
84) Film contrast is dependent on which of the following factors?
a. The type of film holder used

c_) The density to which the radiograph is exposed
c. The radiographer's level of certification
d. The use of a densitometer
e. The use of double loaded film
85) Scatter which occurs within the test piece is referred to as:
side scatter
back scatter
c. internal scatter
d. external scatter
e. collimation
86. Indications that are smooth, dark round or oval-shaped spots with radiographic contrast
varying directly with their diameter are:
@ gas voids
b. shrinkage
c. segregation
d. core shift
e. slag incfusions

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Examination No.

Level III Basic Examination per SNT-TC-1A(92)

Question numbers 1 through 20 pertain to Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A, 1992

1) A closed book examination is defined as:

a. an examination with access to all reference materials.

2) The composite grade for qualification examinations should be determined by:

Exam. material 1995 by Hellier Associates Inc. All rights reserved

Level III Basic Examination per SNT-TC-1A(92)

a. Name of certified individual.

a. the outside agency.

a Reexamination is always required for recertification.

Exam. material 1995 by Hellier Associates Inc. All rights reserved

Level III Basic Examination per SNT-TC-1A(92)

a. of the Levell only

10) Training course outlines detailed in SNT-TC-1A:

a are required by ASNT.

Exam. material 1995 by Hellier Associates Inc. All rights reserved

Level III Basic Examination per SNT-TC-1A(92)

12) Under supervision or guidance of a Levell! or Level lll, a Levell:

14) The actual administration and grading of Level III examinations:

a. must be performed by the employer.

15) Certification is automatically terminated when the certified individual:

a. has interrupted service of more than six months.

16) The purpose of SNT-TC-1A is to:

Exa_m.material 1995 by Hellier Associates Inc. All rights reserved

Level III Basic Examination per SNT-TC-1A(92)

18) ______ " is the condition of being in written form.

a. The examination should assure natural or corrected near-distance

o pattem is acceptable for near vision acuity examination.

Exam. material 1995 by Hellier Associates Inc. All rights reserved

Level III Basic Examination per SNT-TG-1A(92)

Question numbers 21 through 50 pertain to Materials, Fabrication, and Product

22) increases ductility.

23) Inherent discontinuities can be defined as:

a. discontinuities that are related to the cooling of the molten metal.

Exam. material 1995 by Hellier Associates Inc. All rights reserved

Level III Basic Examination per SNT-TG-1A(92)

Exam. material 1995 by Hellier Associates Inc. All rights reserved

Level III Basic Examination per SNT-TG-1A(92)

a. ultimate yield strength.

Exam. material 1995 by Hellier Associates Inc. All rights reserved

Level III Basic Examination per SNT-TC-1A(92)

35) Which of the following discontinuities is not associated with welding?

Exam. material 1995 by Hellier Associates Inc. All rights reserved

Level III Basic Examination per SNT-TG-1A(92}

37) is a process used for shaping metals by chemical dissolution.

Exam. material 1995 by Hellier Associates Inc. All rights reserved

Level III Basic Examination per SNT-TC-1A(92)

41) Carbon steels can be described as:

42) Work hardening:

a. creates small spherical particles of metal.

Exam. material 1995 by Hellier Associates Inc. All rights reserved

Level III Basic Examination per SNT-TG-1A(92)

a. squeeze out excess moisture.

45) Three types of weld metal cracks are:

a. underbead, undercut and laminar.

o d. shallow, deep and intermittent.

46) Austenitic steels can be described as:

Exam. material 1995 by Hellier Associates Inc. All rights reserved

Level III Basic Examination per SNT-TG-1A(92)

47) A tenn used in association with "age hardening" is:

48) Cold working, in most metals, is used to:

Exam. material 1995 by Hellier Associates Inc. All rights reserved