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From the options below choose the ONE that you think is the most likely
diagnosis in this patient:
Single best answer question choose ONE true option only.
Acute pancreatitis
Infective hepatitis
The Answer
Comment on this Question
The history, signs and symptoms in this patient are suggestive of acute
cholecystitis. Acute cholecystitis is more common in females over the age of
40 and with high BMI. Gallstones are the commonest cause for acute
cholecystitis. Obstruction of the common bile duct due to stones leads to
accumulation of bile andinflammation, resulting in an acutely inflammed
gall bladder. Other risk factors for acute cholecystitis include alcohol abuse
and tumours of the gall bladder. The signs and symptoms of acute
cholecystitis include severe right hypochondrial pain exacerbated by
respiration, nausea and vomiting, and increase in temperature. The rise in
temperature is frequently mild to moderate; a very high temperature with or
without chills and rigors may point to a diagnosis of acute cholangitis. A
tender, inflamed gall bladder may be palpable in some patients. Likewise,
jaundice may or may not be present. The differential diagnoses for acute
cholecystitisinclude acute pancreatitis, peptic ulcer disease or perforated
peptic ulcer, appendicitis, acute infective hepatitis and pleurisy.
You are reviewing a patient in the plastic surgery clinic who had a malignant
melanoma excised.
Older age
The Answer
Male sex, increased tumour thickness, the presence of ulceration, older age
and mucosal involvement are predictors of a poor outcome in melanoma.
The prognosis also depends on the lymph node involvement and growth
pattern. The 5-year survival rate is 90% for stage I, 50% for stage II, 30% for
stage III and < 1% for stage IV disease. While the so-called Celtic type
races appear more susceptible to the development of melanoma, non-white
populations with melanoma have a worse overall outcome.
Theme: Polyps
A Inflammatory polyps
B Metaplastic polyps
C PeutzJeghers polyps
For each of the descriptions below, select the most appropriate polyp from the
above list. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Scenario 1
A Inflammatory polyps
Scenario 2
Are hamartomas
C PeutzJeghers polyps
Scenario 3
Scenario 4
Scenario 5
The Answer
Acute pancreatitis
Biliary colic
Coeliac disease
Pancreatic Cancer
The Answer
A Splenic vein
Pick the most appropriate option from the above list. Each option may be used
once only, more than once or not at all.
Scenario 1
Scenario 2
The Answer
The right suprarenal vein enters the inferior vena cava and the left vein is longer
and enters the left renal vein.
6
Theme: Groin lumps
A Ectopic testis
C Femoral hernia
E Inguinal hernia
F Inguinal lymphadenopathy
G Lipoma
H Pseudo-aneurysm
I Psoas abscess
J Psoas bursa
K Saphena varix
L Sarcoma
The following patients all present with a lump in the groin. For each scenario please select
the most appropriate diagnosis from the above list. The items may be used once, more
than once, or not at all.
Scenario 1
A 36-year-old Asian immigrant presents to The Emergency Department with a tender,
fluctuant mass in his left femoral triangle. He gives a history of night sweats, weight
loss and a painful left hip.
I Psoas abscess
Scenario 2
A 68-year-old man attends Casualty suffering from drowsiness and confusion. His wife
reports a 12-h history of vomiting and abdominal pain. On examination he is clearly
dehydrated, his abdomen is distended and he has high-pitched bowel sounds. More
detailed assessment reveals a small painful swelling in his right groin crease.
Scenario 3
A 62-year-old claudicant returns to the ward from the vascular assessment laboratory,
following an angiogram of his lower limbs. The nurse is concerned about a swelling in
his left groin. On closer examination you note a firm mass with a transmissible pulse.
H Pseudo-aneurysm
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Theme: Intestinal obstruction
A Adhesions
B Bezoar
C Colonic carcinoma
D Crohns disease
E Postoperative ileus
F Diverticular disease
H Gallstone ileus
I Hernia
J Intussusception
K Intestinal pseudo-obstruction
M Volvulus
The following scenarios describe patients with signs of obstruction. From the above list
choose the most likely cause. Each item may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Scenario 1
A 75-year-old woman presents with an 8-h history of vomiting and colicky central
abdominal pain. Her abdomen appears mildly distended and although she is
uncomfortable, there is no obvious tenderness. A plain abdominal radiograph
demonstrates pneumobilia.
H Gallstone ileus
Gallstones are responsible for less than 1% of all cases of small bowel
obstruction. About 90% of stones entering the intestine will impact in the
terminal ileum, although other reported sites include the duodenum, jejunum,
colon and rectum. A stone formed in the gall bladder enters the small bowel via a
biliary-enteric fistula, usually between the gallbladder and duodenum. Patients
tend to be elderly and often do not report a history of cholecystitis. On X-ray the
presence of a pneumobilia is pathognomic, provided there is no recent history of
biliary-intestinal bypass or sphincterotomy.
Scenario 2
An 88-year-old man is admitted from a nursing home with confusion, lower abdominal
pain and gross distension. A plain abdominal radiograph demonstrates the coffee-bean
sign.
M Volvulus
The case gives the classical history of a patient with a sigmoid volvulus who is
typically elderly and institutionalised, suffering with chronic constipation and
regular laxative use. There is usually a history of similar episodes in the past,
which resolve following untwisting of the sigmoid mesentery. Typical X-ray
findings are of a large oval gas shadow on the left hand side, which is looped
onto itself, the so-called bent inner tube or coffee bean sign. Treatment is by
decompression by means of a flatus tube inserted via a sigmoidoscope, done of
course at arms length! Should this fail then operative untwisting with or
without resection may be required.
Scenario 3
A 30-year-old man presents with a several month history of rightsided abdominal pain
and some diarrhoea and weight loss. Subsequent radiological investigations
demonstrate the string sign of Kantor.
D Crohns disease
The history is fairly typical of that for ileocaecal Crohns disease (the
commonest site: 50%). Disease of the terminal ileum may result in fine string-
like-calibre strictures in the right iliac fossa on barium studies. This is known as
the string sign of Kantor.
Scenario 4
A 78-year-old man with known small cell carcinoma of the lung attends with abdominal
pain, distension and vomiting. The abdomen is soft and non-tender with no masses. He
has had no previous abdominal surgery and there is no hernia.
Cholangitis
Cholecystitis
The Answer
Cholangiocarcinoma
Liver haemangioma
The Answer
10
Tropical sprue
Ulcerative colitis
The Answer
11
Theme: Investigations for abdominal pain
A CT abdomen
B ECG
D FBC
E Mesenteric angiography
G Urea
For each of the patients below, select the most likely specific diagnostic investigation from
the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Scenario 1
An 18-year-old man presents with 24 hours of generalised abdominal pain, which has
now shifted to the right iliac fossa. Examination reveals a soft abdomen with
tenderness in the right fossa and no evidence of peritonism. The patient is
haemodynamically stable.
A CT abdomen
The most likely diagnosis for the first patient is appendicitis. FBC measurement
is useful in lending support to the diagnosis, in that it may show a neutrophilia,
but a normal reading should not affect management. CT of the abdomen is the
most specific investigation of the options offered in this question.
A 59-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis treated with NSAIDs, gold
and steroids, presents with 4 hours of acute abdominal pain. This was made worse by
the ambulance ride. Her abdomen is generally peritonitic on examination.
Patient 2 has a good history for perforation of a viscus, probably a peptic ulcer
she is on several ulcer-promoting medications. An erect chest X-ray (CXR)
should be performed after the patient has been upright for several minutes to
look for free gas under the diaphragm.
Scenario 3
An 85-year-old woman presents with profuse, fresh, red rectal bleeding. She is
hypotensive, with a fast irregular pulse.
E Mesenteric angiography
While an FBC is important in patient 3 it will not lead to diagnosing the cause of
the problem. A mesenteric angiogram is useful if the patient is bleeding at a rate
of > 1 ml/min.
Scenario 4
A 62-year-old woman is admitted with vomiting, colicky abdominal pain and a
distended abdomen. She has previously undergone multiple gynaecological
operations.
A - CT abdomen
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C Completion colectomy
D Hartmanns procedure
E Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
F Loop colostomy
G Left hemicolectomy
I Restorative proctocolectomy
J Ileocolic resection
K Stricturoplasty
The following patients are all to undergo surgery. Please select the most
appropriate operation from the above list. The items may be used once, more
than once, or not at all.
Scenario 1
You have seen a 74-year-old man in The Emergency Department. He gives a 3-day
history of localised lower abdominal pain, which has become generalised over the past
24 h. He is known to suffer with ischaemic heart disease and sigmoid diverticulosis. On
examination he is dehydrated, tachycardic (pulse 120/min), pale, sweating and pyrexial
(38C). Abdominal examination reveals the presence of diffuse abdominal tenderness,
guarding and rigidity. The results of investigations performed so far have demonstrated
a raised white cell count of 22.5 x 109/litre, acidosis on arterial blood gases and
pneumoperitoneum on erect chest X-ray.
D Hartmanns procedure
Scenario 2
A 23-year-old man with long-standing Crohns disease is seen in the combined colitis
clinic. He gives you a long history from adolescence of recurrent episodes of colicky
abdominal pain and vomiting. A recent colonoscopy has not demonstrated any
significant colonic pathology and, in addition, he has had a barium meal and follow-
through, which has been reported as demonstrating significant terminal ileal stricturing.
He continues to be symptomatic and is now keen on having surgery.
J Ileocolic resection
Surgical resection will not cure Crohns disease and is usually performed for
complications. The overall strategy is to be as conservative as possible to
preserve functional gut length. Indications for surgery include recurrent
intestinal obstruction, intestinal fistulae, fulminant colitis, malignant change and
peri-anal disease. The whole of the gastrointestinal tract should be examined
prior to undertaking any resection either pre-operatively or at laparotomy.
Proximal small bowel strictures can be treated with segmental resection if only
isolated areas are affected, or alternatively, with stricturoplasty of multiple
involved segments. A right hemicolectomy involves taking the ileocolic, right
colic and right branch of middle colic vessels resulting in loss of more bowel
than for an ileocolic resection. Here only the Ileocolic vessels are taken. For first
presentation Crohns, the best treatment option is an Ileocolic resection. For
fibrous Crohns strictures, strictureplasty would be a good option.
Scenario 3
A 64-year-old woman has been seen in the rectal bleed clinic and a diagnosis of
a low rectal cancer (7 cm from the anal verge) has been made. A magnetic
resonance imaging scan demonstrates a resectable lesion.
Reference:
http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/281237-treatment
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A Colonoscopy
E Computerised tomography
Select the most appropriate first investigation for the assessment of the patients
below. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
Scenario 1
A 60-year-old man presenting with massive rectal bleeding. He has passed 800
ml of clotted blood with no evidence of melaena. There is no history of ingestion
of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or change in bowel habit.
Following aggressive resuscitation he now has a blood pressure (BP) of 120/65
mmHg, and a pulse of 86 beats/min. Rigid sigmoidoscopy is normal.
In cases of massive bleeding per rectum, one should exclude an upper GI tract
haemorrhage first.
Scenario 2
A 65-year-old woman presenting with a tender non-pulsatile mass in the left iliac
fossa. It is associated with a swinging pyrexia. There is mild abdominal
distension but no change in bowel habit.
Scenario 3
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B Appendix mass
G Crohns mass
H Diverticular mass
J Hepatomegaly
K Mesenteric cyst
M Pancreatic pseudocyst
O Splenomegaly
The following patients have all presented with a palpable abdominal mass.
Please select the most appropriate diagnosis from the above list. The items may
be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Scenario 1
A 57-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of a dull ache in the right iliac
fossa associated with anorexia and lethargy. The pain has become acute over the past
week with episodes of periumbilical colic and abdominal distension, which is relieved
on vomiting. On examination the patient is pale and dehydrated. Abdominal
examination reveals the presence of generalised abdominal distension and a firm,
irregular mass in the right iliac fossa.
Scenario 2
The history and findings are of obstructive jaundice with a palpable gallbladder.
Courvoisiers law states when the gallbladder is palpable and the patient is
jaundiced, the obstruction of the bile duct causing the jaundice is unlikely to be
a stone because previous inflammation will have made the gallbladder thick and
non-distensible. While there are a few exceptions to this rule, the history of
substantial weight loss, and of pain radiating to the left side of the back strongly
indicate the likelihood of pancreatic carcinoma which is the commonest cause
of malignant biliary obstruction.
YOUR ANSWER WAS CORRECT
Scenario 3
K Mesenteric cyst
These cysts are found most commonly in the mesentery of the ileum arising
from congenitally misplaced lymphatic tissue (chylolymphatic cyst) or from
remnants of reduplicated bowel (enterogenous cyst). They typically present in
the second decade of life as a painless swelling or with recurrent episodes of
abdominal pain. Acute abdominal pain may arise following rupture or bleeding
into a cyst. On examination the characteristic finding is that of a fluctuant,
resonant, spherical swelling, close to the umbilicus. The cyst is freely mobile in
a plane at right angles to the root of the mesentery and may slip during the
course of the examination.
15
C Colonoscopy
D Selective angiography
For each of the patients described below, select the most likely single
investigation from the list of options above. Each option may be used once,
more than once or not at all.
Scenario 1
A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with dizziness and melaena.
Peptic ulceration is the commonest cause for such a presentation and therefore
upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is the investigation of choice in this patient.
The procedure may also allow treatment e.g. adrenaline injection.
Scenario 2
A 65-year-old woman presents with dark red rectal bleeding, hypotension (blood
pressure 95/60 mmHg), and tachycardia (pulse 100 beats/min). Full blood count
reveals anaemia (haemoglobin 8.6 g/dl). Upper GI endoscopy shows no
abnormality. Colonoscopy reveals dark red blood in the colon and no other
abnormality.
Scenario 3
16
A Abdominal ultrasound
B Angiography (mesenteric)
C Barium enema
E CT
G Colonoscopy
H Serum amylase
For each of the patients described below, select the most useful investigation
from the list of options above. Each option may be used once, more than once,
or not at all.
Scenario 1
A 70-year-old man is admitted with severe central and epigastric pain and
vomiting. On examination he has bruising on his flanks.
H Serum amylase
Serum amylase estimation would be the most appropriate investigation for the
first clinical case scenario, as the most likely diagnosis is pancreatitis. A
subsequent CT may be needed if findings are equivocal. An ultrasound scan of
the abdomen is also indicated to exclude gallstones as a cause of pancreatitis.
Scenario 2
An 18-year-old man has a 2-year history of central abdominal pain, which now
has moved to the right iliac fossa. He has had two episodes of loose stools over
the past 6 months.
E - CT YOUR ANSWER
G - Colonoscopy
A middle-aged woman presents with epigastric pain. She has shallow breathing,
tachycardia, but is normotensive. She has rheumatoid arthritis and receives
regular gold injections and takes oral steroids and diclofenac. She has taken an
increased steroid dose over the past week because of a chest infection.
The third patient is most likely to have a perforated peptic ulcer as evidenced by
the epigastric pain, shallow respirations and tachycardia. This would be
suspected because of oral steroid and non-steroidal intake. An erect chest X-ray
would be the most appropriate investigation.
Scenario 4
G Colonoscopy
The most appropriate investigation in the fourth patient would be a colonoscopy.
If the colonoscopy cannot identify the cause of the bleeding then she will require
a mesenteric angiogram and possible embolisation of the bleeding vessel.
A Appendicitis
B Ectopic pregnancy
D Ovarian torsion
H Ureteric stone
For each of the following situations below, select the most likely cause of the
pain from the above list. Each item may be used once, more than once, or not at
all.
Scenario 1
A 28-year-old woman developed sudden onset of pain in the right iliac fossa.
Pain was improved by walking around the examination room in the Emergency
department.
There are no features here of peritonism. A patient with ureteric colic would
typically pace around when they had the pain. A patient with peritonitis caused
by a ruptured viscus would be lying still.
Scenario 2
The history here could be one of either Crohns disease or irritable bowel
syndrome. However, the weight loss would be more consistent with Crohns
disease. It should be noted that Crohns or any inflammatory bowel problems
pathology, including diverticular disease, can produce symptoms of functional
bowel disorders: increased stool frequency, abdominal pain relieved by
defaecation and faecal urgency.
18
Bacterial overgrowth
Ulcerative colitis
Tropical malabsorption
The Answer
19
Aortic-enteric fistula
Gastric Cancer
Oesophageal varices
20
Angiodysplasia
Diverticular disease
Gastric Cancer
Peptic ulcer disease
The Answer
21
A Sigmoid colectomy
B Abdomino-perineal excision of rectum (APR)
C Hartmann's procedure
D Sub-total colectomy and formation of ileostomy
E Right hemicolectomy
F Anterior resection of rectum
G Left hemicolectomy
Choose the most appropriate procedure for the following scenarios. Each
answer may be used once, several times or not at all.
Scenario 1
A 57-year-old man in good general health presents electively with bleeding per rectum,
change in bowel habit and iron-deficiency anaemia. A caecal tumour has been
confirmed on barium enema.
This is the most appropriate procedure for a patient with a right-sided colonic tumour.
Scenario 2
A 33-year-old woman with a 12-year history of ulcerative colitis. The patient presents
as an emergency with shock. These symptoms are accompanied by severe abdominal
pain and extensive bleeding per rectum.
This patient has a long history of ulcerative colitis and is presenting as an emergency
with a severe exacerbation of symptoms and a toxic megacolon. A sub-total colectomy
with formation of ileostomy should be performed after aggressive resuscitation and
administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics.
Scenario 3
Scenario 4
A 72-year-old woman who presents electively with bleeding per rectum. She
underwent a flexible sigmoidoscopy, which demonstrated a tumour in the upper
rectum.
22
B Pelviureteric obstruction
C Renal adenocarcinoma
D Ureteric colic
For each of the statements below, select the most likely diagnosis from the
above list. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Scenario 1
A 45-year-old man presents with haematuria, loin pain and a loin mass.
C - Renal adenocarcinoma CORRECT ANSWER
C Renal adenocarcinoma
The presentation of the first patient is typically that of renal carcinoma; however,
this triad of symptoms and signs only occurs in 30% of cases.
Scenario 2
A 22-year-old man experiences loin pain mainly in the morning after drinking four cups
of coffee.
B Pelviureteric obstruction
Loin pain in the patient who drinks four cups of coffee before work is most likely
to be the result of pelviureteric obstruction. Symptoms of ureteric obstruction in
adults usually occur after a fluid overload.
Scenario 3
A 70-year-old man presents with loin pain, a pulse rate of 120/min and a BP of 80/60
mmHg.
Any male patient above the age of 55 years who presents with back pain should
be suspected of having a leaking abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) until proven
otherwise, as AAAs are more common in this age group than urinary stones.
23
Theme: Haematemesis
D Duodenal ulcer
E Gastric adenocarcinoma
F Gastric leiomyoma
G Gastric ulcer
H MalloryWeiss tear
I Oesophageal carcinoma
J Oesophageal varices
K Oesophagitis
L ZollingerEllison syndrome
The above are all possible causes of haematemesis. From the following clinical
scenarios please pick the most appropriate diagnosis from the list. Each item
may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Scenario 1
D Duodenal ulcer
Scenario 2
The incidence of gastric cancer reaches its peak between the ages of 50 and 70
years. Men are affected two to three times more than women. Epigastric pain
with no specific relation to eating (and not relieved by antacids), early
satiety/anorexia and dramatic weight loss are all symptoms associated with the
disease. Depending on the site of the tumour other symptoms may include
dysphagia (carcinoma at the cardia leading to oesophagogastric obstruction) or
regurgitation of undigested food (cancer at the pylorus mimicking pyloric
stenosis). A low haemoglobin and mean corpuscular volume attest to iron
deficiency anaemia secondary to chronic blood loss.
Scenario 3
J Oesophageal varices
24
Theme: Vomiting
A Drug-related
C Cholecystitis
D Enteritis
E Gastritis
F Metabolic/endocrine
G Obstruction
H Pancreatitis
The following patients have all presented with nausea and vomiting. Please
select the most appropriate diagnosis from the above list. The items may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.
Scenario 1
E Gastritis
This, and enteritis, are probably the commonest causes of vomiting seen in a
typical Emergency Department. Enteritis tends to have little in the way of
epigastric pain and more central colic with or without diarrhoea.
Scenario 2
A Drug-related
This lady has post-operative nausea and vomiting (PONV). The problem is
multifactorial but is principally related to anaesthetic drugs. It is three times
more common in women and is best prevented rather than treated.
The Answer
It is not impossible to list approximately 150 causes of nausea and vomiting. Broadly,
however, a complete overview of all the causes of vomiting includes five groups:
25
A Basal atelectasis
C Gastric perforation
D Gastric stasis
G Pancreatic fistula
H Pancreatic pseudocyst
J Pulmonary embolus
K Splenosis
L Subphrenic abscess
Scenario 1
Scenario 2
L Subphrenic abscess
The Answer
26
A 17-year-old male is being investigated for tremor and dysarthria. His GP has
performed blood tests which show very deranged LFTs. On examination, he is
noted to have a tremor, impaired memory and slit-lamp examination reveals
Kayser-Fleischer rings.
Alcoholic cirrhosis
Autoimmune hepatitis
Hepatitis B
The Answer
27
Theme: Hernias
A Littrs hernia
B Maydls hernia
C Pantaloon hernia
D Richters hernia
E Sliding hernia
For each description listed below, select the most appropriate hernia from the
above list. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Scenario 1
C Pantaloon hernia
B Maydls hernia
Scenario 3
E Sliding hernia
Scenario 4
D Richters hernia
Scenario 5
Meckels diverticulum
A Littrs hernia
Theme: Hernias
A Diaphragmatic hernia
B Epigastric hernia
C Gluteal hernia
D Lumbar hernia
E Obturator hernia
F Perineal hernia
G Sciatic hernia
H Spigelian hernia
For each site of herniation below, select the most likely hernial type from the
above list. Each answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Scenario 1
Triangle of Petit
Scenario 2
Scenario 3
Pelvic floor
Scenario 4
Linea semilunaris
The Answer
29
A Aortic aneurysm
B Pancreatitis
D Pyelonephritis
G Urinary calculi
For each of the patients described below, select the most likely diagnosis from
the list of options above. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not
at all.
Scenario 1
D Pyelonephritis
One would suspect pyelonephritis in a male patient with loin pain, pyrexia and
tachycardia.
Scenario 2
An 18-year-old man presents with pain in his right iliac fossa, so intense that he finds it
impossible to remain still, and microscopic haematuria.
G Urinary calculi
In an 18-year-old man with right iliac fossa pain and microscopic haematuria,
appendicitis or a urinary calculus should be suspected. With a perforated
appendicitis, however, the patient lies still, unlike the writhing around with the
pain of ureteric colic.
Scenario 3
A woman known to have a previous history of bilateral reflux presents with dysuria,
fever and feeling generally unwell.
D Pyelonephritis
Here the most likely diagnosis is pyelonephritis in view of the bilateral reflux,
dysuria, malaise and fever.
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Theme: Splenomegaly
A Brucellosis
B Infectious mononucleosis
C Sickle cell disease
D Lymphoma
E Leukaemia
F Spherocytosis
G Polycythaemia rubra vera
Which of the above diagnoses fit the following clinical scenarios? Select the
single most likely condition from the options listed above. Each option may be
used once, more than once or not at all.
Scenario 1
A young man with splenomegaly fever and titres positive to EpsteinBarr virus (EBV)
Scenario 2
Scenario 3
An Afro-Caribbean nurse with joint pains, splenomegaly and low haemoglobin (HB)
Sickle cell disease can cause severe haemolysis. There is typically anaemia, jaundice
and splenomegaly. Crisis can lead to severe bone pain.
31
A. Crohns disease
C Endometriosis
D Carcinoma of the rectum
E Ulcerative colitis
G Diverticular disease
I Mesenteric infarction
For each of the case descriptions below, select the most appropriate diagnosis
from the list above. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Scenario 1
Colonic malignancy is the second most common cause of cancer deaths in the UK.
Predisposing factors include
Clinical presentation depends on the site: left-sided colonic carcinoma presents with
abdominal pain (relieved by passing flatus), abdominal distension, per-rectal bleeding,
altered bowel habits and tenesmus; a mass may be felt on per-rectal examination. In
right-sided tumours, the patient may present with symptoms of anaemia from occult
bleeding. Sometimes the patient complains of pain in the right iliac fossa and per-
abdominal examination may reveal a mass over this region.
Scenario 2
A 30-year-old woman presents to the surgical outpatient clinic with a 4-month history of
diarrhoea and abdominal colic. She has recently lost weight (half-a-stone) and has
noticed some ulcers in her mouth. She is a smoker. Her blood test reveals microcytic,
hypochromic anaemia. Colonoscopy demonstrates skip lesions with a cobblestone
mucosal appearance.
Crohns disease is common in North America and Northern Europe . Unlike ulcerative
colitis, Crohns disease affects the whole of the gastrointestinal tract. Risk factors
include a strong positive family history, various types of food, smoking (increases the
risk by three fold), and infective agents such as mycobacterium and cell-wall-deficient
organisms such as pseudomonas. Acute Crohns disease may simulate acute
appendicitis but is usually preceded by diarrhoea. In chronic Crohns disease, mild
diarrhoea is experienced over many months, accompanied by intestinal colic;
intermittent fevers, secondary anaemia and weight loss are also common. With
progression of the disease, adhesions, transmural fissures, intra-abdominal abscesses
and fistulous tracts may develop.
It is important to note that endoscopic findings in Crohns disease include skip lesions
and a cobblestone appearance of the gut mucosa (with occasional stricturing), all of
which are less common in ulcerative colitis. Candidate must be aware of all endoscopic
and histological features of both Crohns disease and ulcerative colitis.
YOUR ANSWER WAS CORRECT
Scenario 3
Ectopic pregnancy occurs in less than 1% of pregnancies. The typical history of ectopic
pregnancy is one or two missed menstrual periods with other signs of pregnancy
(mastalgia, morning sickness and increased urinary frequency). In ruptured ectopic
pregnancy, the abdominal pain is initially crampy, but subsequently becomes a more
continuous and generalised lower abdominal pain. Irritation of the diaphragm may lead
to shoulder-tip pain. There may be signs of hypotension and hypovolaemic shock. Per-
abdominal examination may reveal guarding, rigidity and rebound tenderness.
Frequently, altered blood may be seen in the cervix and movement of the cervix
produces abdominal discomfort. In some instances, a mass may be felt in one of the
adenexae and the uterus is frequently soft and bulky. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
warrants immediate surgical intervention.
Scenario 4
32
A previously well 83-year-old woman is brought into A and E with abdominal pain
and vomiting. On examination, she has a distended abdomen, and denies any
previous surgery. On assessment of her groins, a tender lump is palpable in the
left groin. It is below and lateral to the pubic tubercle.
Epigastric hernia
Obturator hernia
The Answer
Comment on this Question
Femoral hernias classically emerge below and lateral to the pubic tubercle, and are
more common in women due to the wider pelvis. Inguinal hernias emerge from above
and medial to the pubic tubercle and come in two forms - direct (which pass through
Hasselbachs triangle) and indirect (which enter via the deep inguinal ring). As the neck
for femoral hernias is relatively narrow and stiff, they are more likely to obstruct and
strangulate.
33
A 27-year-old male who works in the city presents with crampy abdominal pain
and a 6 week history of bloody diarrhoea with mucus. He is referred for
investigation.Sand a sigmoidoscopy reveals an inflamed mucosa and a rectal
biopsy shows an inflammatory infiltrate with goblet cell depletion and crypt
abscesses.
Coeliac disease
Crohns disease
Whipples disease
The Answer
34
A 62-year-old male presents to his GP as his family have noticed he has gone
yellow. On further questioning he admits to generalised pruritus and around 2
stone of weight loss. He denies any abdominal or chest pain. On examination
you note he has icteric sclera and widespread scratch marks.
Biliary colic
Cholangitis
Cholecystitis
Gallstone ileus
The Answer
This patient has several features of jaundice- icteric sclera and generalised
pruritus, other questions which would be useful in the history would be
regarding any colour change in his urine or stools. Obstructive jaundice
classically produces dark urine and paler stools. The absence of pain goes
against the first four options and the significant recent weight loss suggests a
malignant process may be present. In any patient with a history of painless,
obstructive jaundice, the diagnosis of Pancreatic Ca must be considered.
35
An 18-year-old A-level student is referred from his GP with RIF pain and nausea.
On examination, she has guarding and tenderness in the RIF. On deep palpation
in the LIF she complains of pain in the RIF.
Aarons sign
Dunphys sign
Murphys sign
Riglers sign
The Answer
Rosvings sign describes pain in the RIF more than the LIF when the LIF is
pressed, and is pathognomic of appendicitis. Aarons sign is pain referred to the
epigstrium upon continuous firm pressure over McBurneys point and is
indicative of appendicitis. Dunphys sign is a medical sign in which increased
abdominal pain occurs with coughing and is often present in appendicitis.
Murphys sign occurs when pressing over the RUQ with two fingers and asking
the patient to breathe in, causes pain and arrest of inspiration as the inflamed
gall bladder impinges of the examiners fingers. It is only positive if repeating the
test on the left does not result in a similar pain. Riglers sign is a radiologic sign
in which air is seen on an abdominal X ray on both sides of the intestine.
36
B Acute cholecystitis
C Acute pancreatitis
D Biliary colic
E Intestinal obstruction
F Obstructive jaundice
I Ruptured liver
J Ruptured spleen
For each of the following situations, select the most appropriate cause of acute
abdominal pain from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than
once, or not at all.
Scenario 1
A 43-year-old barmaid complains of severe epigastric/right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain
2 hours after eating a meal of chips and fried chicken. The pain radiates to her back
and makes her nauseated. There are no other systemic symptoms.
Scenario 2
A 38-year-old executive of Asian origin is brought to the Emergency Department after
his car was involved in a high-speed RTA. He presents with upper abdominal
distension, guarding and signs of shock. He also complains of left shoulder tip pain and
his past medical history includes recurrent episodes of malaria.
Scenario 3
A 78-year-old lady presents with severe abdominal pain and signs of peritonism. She is
on non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents (NSAIDs) for rheumatoid arthritis. On
examination, bowel sounds are absent. Erect chest X-ray shows free gas under the
diaphragm.
Scenario 4
A 74-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department with sudden onset of
upper abdominal and periumbilical pain radiating to his back. He is sweating,
nauseated and feeling faint. His BP is 90/60 mmHg and his pulse rate is 110/min.
H - Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm CORRECT ANSWER
H Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm
Risk factors for aortic aneurysm include: male sex, advancing age, hypertension,
tobacco smoking, chronic obstructive airways disease (irrespective of tobacco
smoking), infection of the vessel (eg salmonella), and occlusive arterial disease
affecting the coronary, carotid and the limb arteries. A diagnosis of leaking or
ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm should be considered in the elderly with
sudden onset of upper abdominal/periumbilical pain radiating to the back and
associated with signs of progressive shock. Collapse is common and the patient
is often pale and clammy with a low volume pulse. Acute pancreatitis is the other
diagnosis to be considered however given the age and sex of the patient aortic
aneurysm is more likely here. In ruptured aortic aneurysm, immediate surgical
intervention is mandatory.
37
Theme: Hernias
A Diaphragmatic hernia
B Epigastric hernia
C Gluteal hernia
D Lumbar hernia
E Obturator hernia
F Perineal hernia
G Sciatic hernia
H Spigelian hernia
For each site of herniation below, select the most likely hernial type from the
above list. Each answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Scenario 1
Triangle of Petit
D Lumbar hernia
Scenario 2
C Gluteal hernia
Scenario 3
Pelvic floor
F Perineal hernia
YOUR ANSWER WAS CORRECT
Scenario 4
Linea semilunaris
H Spigelian hernia
The Answer
38
B Hartmanns procedure
F Anterior resection
Select the most appropriate operation for the patients below. Each option may
be used once, more than once or not at all.
Scenario 1
A sigmoid colectomy and primary anastomosis would not address the distal
obstruction. A subtotal colectomy, panproctocolectomy and anterior resection
would not be possible because of pelvic fixity and also would be of not curative
value as the tumour is metastatic.
Scenario 2
A 75-year-old man presented with 18 hours of acute abdominal pain. He was noted to
have generalised peritonitis and free intra-peritoneal air on erect chest X-ray (CXR). At
laparotomy he was found to have a widespread faecal peritonitis due to perforated
diverticular sigmoid disease.
A Hartmanns procedure is the best operation which would aim to resect the
pathology and defunction the colon. A transverse loop would also be practical
but not ideal as the pathology would remain. The other options would not
address the problem or would be 'overkill'
Scenario 3
A 45-year-old man with known severe ulcerative colitis which has not responded to
maximal medical therapy. Plain abdominal X-ray (AXR) reveals a colonic diameter of 7
cm with generalised guarding. He has had 5 days of bloody diarrhoea (opening his
bowels six times per day).
39
Theme: Hernias (types and taxonomy)
A Femoral hernia
B Gluteal hernia
C Incarcerated hernia
D Incisional hernia
E Internal hernia
F Littres hernia
G Lumbar hernia
H Maydls hernia
I Obstructed hernia
J Obturator hernia
K Richters hernia
L Spigelian hernia
M Strangulated hernia
The following patients all have hernias. From the list above, select the most
appropriate diagnosis, according to the clinical and/or anatomical information
provided. The items may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Scenario 1
H Maydls hernia
Scenario 2
A 49-year-old woman is admitted with acute small bowel obstruction. She reports a 2-
day history of severe pain radiating down the inner aspect of the right thigh to her knee.
Consequently, you meticulously examine the hernial orifices in the groin, but no hernia
is evident. Ultimately, she requires a laparotomy, as her obstruction fails to resolve with
conservative management. Only then does the cause of her obstruction become
apparent.
B - Gluteal hernia YOUR ANSWER
J Obturator hernia
Obturator hernias are six times more common in women than men, and three
times more common after 50 years age than before. A preoperative diagnosis is
rarely made, because a swelling is not always palpable in the thigh. Therefore, it
is usually diagnosed during laparotomy for nonresolving small bowel
obstruction, as in the case described. Consequently, the operative mortality is
approximately 30%. The peritoneum protrudes through the obturator canal, and
then between the pectineus and abductor longus muscles to enter the femoral
triangle. The HowshipRomberg sign of pain referred along the geniculate
branch of the obturator nerve to the inner aspect of the knee should raise the
suspicion of an obturator hernia. Other examples of hernias frequently only
discovered during laparotomy for relief of intestinal obstruction include: gluteal
and sciatic hernias (protruding through the greater and lesser sciatic notches,
respectively), pelvic hernias (of the pouch of Douglas into the posterior wall of
the vagina or vulva; not rectocoele or cystocoele, which are false hernias), and
pudendal hernias (lateral protrusion of peritoneum through a persistent hiatus of
Schwalbe between the origin of the levator ani from the obturator internus,
usually following surgical removal of pelvic organs).
Scenario 3
C Incarcerated hernia
40
C Congenital spherocytosis
D Feltys syndrome
E Gauchers disease
F Hodgkins lymphoma
H Myelofibrosis
I Splenic abscess
J Thalassaemia
K Trauma
L Tropical splenomegaly
The following are descriptions of patients with splenomegaly. Please select the
most appropriate diagnosis from the list. The items may be used once, more
than once, or not at all.
Scenario 1
A 13-year-old boy is referred with intermittent colicky right upper quadrant pain.
Examination reveals clinical anaemia, jaundice and splenomegaly. Abdominal
ultrasound reveals a moderately enlarged spleen and multiple, small gallstone calculi.
C Congenital spherocytosis
Scenario 2
A 50-year-old man, with a 3-year history of fatigue, weight loss and anorexia, is
referred for recent onset of a dragging sensation in the upper abdomen. Examination
reveals generalised lymphadenopathy and massive splenomegaly.
This primarily affects adults in the 4th and 5th decades of life, accounting for 15
20% of all cases of leukaemia. It is a clonal disorder of pluripotent stem cells that
predominantly differentiate along the granulocytic pathway. Initial symptoms are
non-specific; however, a dragging sensation in the abdomen caused by extreme
splenomegaly is characteristic. Symptomatic hypersplenism may occur during
the chronic phase of the disorder and may require splenectomy.
Scenario 3
A 26-year-old woman, with a history of intravenous drug abuse, presents with severe
upper left abdominal pain, fever and rigors. On examination she is tachycardic and
pyrexial with a mildly enlarged tender spleen.
I - Splenic Abscess
Splenic abscesses are rare, probably because of the spleens exceptional ability
to cope with septic and foreign material. They may, however occur as a result of
haematogenous spread as in this case with the clinical triad of left upper
quadrant pain, fever and systemic signs of sepsis. Treatment is usually by
percutaneous drainage of the abscess and treatment of the cause.
41
C Chronic constipation
E Diverticular disease
F Endometriosis
J Pelvic adhesions
K Pelvic congestion syndrome
M Recurrent cystitis
N Urolithiasis
O Utero-vaginal prolapse
The following female patients present with chronic non-malignant pelvic pain.
From the list above, select the most likely diagnosis. The items may be used
once, more than once, or not at all.
Scenario 1
A 58-year-old librarian attends outpatients with a 12-month history of pelvic pain. She
describes the pain as dragging in nature, and reports that it is worse towards the end
of her working day. She also complains of difficulty voiding, and a sensation of
incomplete emptying following defaecation. She had four children before undergoing a
premature menopause at the age of 40 years. She takes no regular medication.
O Utero-vaginal prolapse
Scenario 2
A 24-year-old woman presents with a chronic history of pelvic pain following the birth of
her first child. She has no relevant lower gastrointestinal, urological, or gynaecological
symptoms. Abdominal examination of the abdomen reveals a non-tender mass in the
left iliac fossa. There is no clinical evidence of ascites or organomegaly.
Benign ovarian tumours are common in this age group. Most tumours of the
ovary are simply large versions of the cysts that form during the normal ovarian
cycle, and so are small, asymptomatic and resolve spontaneously. These are
termed functional cysts. Benign germ cell tumours (eg dermoid cyst) are also
common in women less than 30 years of age. Other histological types include
benign epithelial and sex cord stromal tumours. Symptoms tend not to occur
until the tumour is larger than 35 cm, although complications such as rupture,
haemorrhage, or infection may result in acute pelvic pain. Occasionally, large
tumours may give rise to urinary or gastrointestinal symptoms because of
pressure effects. Menstrual disturbance is uncommon, unless the tumour
secretes oestrogens (sex cord tumours). Cyst formation may complicate
endometriosis (endometrioma), but here the clinical picture is usually of
dysmenorrhoea, dyspareunia and sub-fertility.
YOUR ANSWER WAS CORRECT
Scenario 3
A 42-year-old woman is referred by her general practitioner (GP) with a 3-year history
of disabling supra-pubic pain that has resulted in repeated absence from work. Her GP
states that her urinalysis and repeated urine cultures have all been negative, and that
she has no relevant gynaecological history of note. The GP suspects that her pain is
the result of bowel pathology, and asks for your assessment. On direct questioning,
the patient describes urinary frequency and urgency. She has no gastrointestinal
symptoms. Examination is unremarkable.
Patients with painful bladder syndrome complain of bladder pain and irritative
Scenario 4
A 65-year-old woman presents with a long history of constipation and abdominal
bloating. More recently, she has been troubled with severe intermittent left iliac fossa
pain. Looking through her notes, you notice a recent admission with brisk bleeding per
rectum. She tells you that she is awaiting a colonoscopy. She is post-menopausal and
has no urinary symptoms. Current medication includes Fybogel and hormone
replacement therapy.
E Diverticular disease
The Answer
42
A Acute diverticulitis
B Ectopic pregnancy
C Mesenteric adenitis
D Meckel's diverticulum
E Intussusception
F Acute appendicitis
G Mittelschmerz
From the list above, choose the most appropriate diagnosis for the following
scenarios. Each answer may be used once, several times or not at all.
Scenario 1
A 6-month-old child with colicky abdominal pain, bilious vomiting and passage of
redcurrant jelly stools. There is a palpable mass in the right hypochondrium.
E - Intussusception CORRECT ANSWER
Scenario 2
A 14-year-old boy presents with a 12-h history of anorexia, vomiting and central
abdominal pain that has since localised to the right iliac fossa. There is guarding and
rebound tenderness.
Scenario 3
A 27-year-old female with a 1-day history of sharp right iliac fossa pain that is
continuous and severe. Her urine pregnancy test is positive. Her last menstrual period
was 8 weeks ago.
Scenario 4
A 57-year-old female with a 2-day history of lower abdominal pain, maximal in the left
iliac fossa. She has a low grade pyrexia and an elevated white cell count and C-
reactive protein.
Left iliac fossa pain along with a pyrexia and elevated white cell count and C-
reactive protein are suggestive of acute diverticulitis. The patient may also
describe altered bowel habit and passage of blood per rectum.
43
A Abdominal ultrasound
B Angiography (mesenteric)
C Barium enema
E CT
H Serum amylase
For each of the patients described below, select the most likely investigation
from the list of options above. Each option may be used once, more than once,
or not at all.
Scenario 1
A 75-year-old female orthopaedic patient on steroids for COPD and diclofenac for pain
presents with acute, sudden-onset epigastric pain.
The first patient is most likely to have a perforated duodenal ulcer and an erect
chest X-ray would be the best investigation.
Scenario 2
Scenario 3
A 34-year-old woman with severe asthma was started on steroids. She later presents
with acute-onset epigastric pain and vomiting. On examination she has decreased
bowel sounds, guarding and rigidity.
The most likely diagnosis in the third patient is a perforated peptic ulcer and an
erect chest X-ray would be most appropriate. Air is seen under the diaphragm in
90% of cases.
44
A Acute appendicitis
B Ischaemic bowel
C Porphyria
D Mesenteric adenitis
E Small bowel obstruction
G Crohns disease
H Diverticulitis
For each of the patients below, chose the most appropriate diagnosis from the
list above. Each may be used once, more than once or not at all.
Scenario 1
A 20-year-old man presented with a 6 hour history of severe RIF ( right iliac fossa) pain
and diarrhoea. He had been admitted 12 months previously for drainage of a perianal
abscess, following which he had suffered from persistent perianal discharge.
Scenario 2
Scenario 3
45
B Cholangitis
C Infective hepatitis
E Mirizzis syndrome
For each of the statements below select the most likely diagnosis from the list
above. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
Scenario 1
A 35-year-old women presents with sudden onset of jaundice, fever and rigors and
severe pain. She is tender in the right upper quadrant but the gallbladder is not
palpable. Liver function tests (LFTs) show grossly raised bilirubin, AST (aspartate
transaminase) and alkaline phosphatase.
The triad of jaundice, fever and severe pain is indicative of cholangitis. It is seen
more commonly in the Far East.
Scenario 2
A 76-year-old man presents with insidious onset of jaundice with some weight loss. On
examination the gallbladder is palpable in the right upper quadrant. Liver function tests
show a raised bilirubin, a grossly raised alkaline phosphatase and a mildly raised AST.
Scenario 3
46
A Upper GI endoscopy
B Serum amylase
C Erect chest X-ray (CXR)
D Supine abdominal X-ray (AXR)
E Angiography (mesenteric)
F Computed tomography (CT)
G Barium enema
H Barium meal - small bowel follow-through
I Abdominal ultrasound
For each of the patients described below, select the most appropriate
investigation from the list of options above. Each option may be used once,
more than once or not at all. You may believe that more than one diagnosis is
possible but you should choose the ONE most likely (diagnosis) diagnostic
investigation.
Scenario 1
Scenario 2
A 21-year-old lady presents to the surgical outpatient clinic with a 2-year history of
abdominal discomfort and weight loss. She used to get central abdominal pain which,
in the past few weeks, has moved to the right iliac fossa. She says that she opens her
bowels 45 times a day and has noticed occasional blood and mucus in her stools.
The history of a young woman with long-standing lower abdominal pain which is
localising to the right iliac fossa, increased frequency of motions and stools
mixed with blood and/or mucus is suggestive of Crohns disease.A barium meal
with small bowel follow through would be the most appropriate investigation in
this patient.
Scenario 3
A 49-year-old presents with severe epigastric pain and vomiting. On examination, her
pulse is 120/min, blood pressure is 124/82 mmHg and her respiratory rate is 20/min
(shallow respiration). Bowel sounds are absent. She suffers from rheumatoid arthritis
for which she takes regular gold injections, oral steroids and diclofenac. Her dose of
oral steroids was increased a week ago to treat exacerbation of chronic obstructive
airways disease.
Scenario 4
The presenting history and initial investigations allude to an upper GI bleed likely from
a peptic ulcer. One must remember that torrential upper GI bleeds may present as
fresh rectal bleeding instead of melaena (i.e. due to rapid gut transit). In such cases,
the initial investigation of choice, after adequate resuscitation, is upper GI endoscopy
to identify and treat any potential bleeding points.
Scenario 5
A 75-year-old lady in the orthopaedic ward who is taking oral steroids for COAD, and
diclofenac for pain complains of sudden-onset acute epigastric pain. She is
tachypnoeic and tachycardic. Any movement exacerbates her abdominal pain.
As in the third case scenario, this patient has most likely got a perforated
duodenal ulcer, and an erect CXR would be the most appropriate investigation.
Scenario 6
A 70-year-old lady with mental health problems presents to the emergency department
with peri-umbilical pain, gross abdominal distension, and absolute constipation.
The most likely diagnosis in this patient would be a sigmoid volvulus and a
supine AXR is the investigation of choice. This would reveal an omega loop.
Scenario 7
A 34-year-old woman who was commenced on oral steroids recently for severe
asthma, presents with acute onset epigastric pain and vomiting. On examination, she
has decreased bowel sounds, guarding and rigidity.
As in scenarios 3 and 5, this patient has probably got a perforated peptic ulcer
and an erect CXR would be most appropriate investigation. Air is seen under the
diaphragm in almost 90% of cases.
47
Non-occlusive
occurs in patients with a grossly diminished cardiac output, eg following myocardial infarction.
Scenario 2
A 75-year-old man presents with a 12-h history of worsening left iliac fossa pain associated with an
exacerbation of his usual constipation. Assessment reveals a temperature of 38.2C and tenderness
and guarding in the left iliac fossa. White cell count 18.2 x 10 9/litre, haemoglobin 14.1 g/dl, C-reactive
protein 150.
E - Diverticulitis CORRECT ANSWER
E Diverticulitis
This is without doubt the commonest cause of acute left iliac fossa pain and peritonism in this
age group.
YOUR ANSWER WAS CORRECT
Scenario 3
A 39-year-old man presents with sudden-onset, right-sided colicky abdominal pain that he describes
as the worst hes had in his life. Abdominal examination is unremarkable.
N - Ureteric colic CORRECT ANSWER
N Ureteric colic
The history of sudden onset of severe colic indicates that you are dealing with a luminal
obstruction not an inflammatory cause. In a man of this age, ureteric colic is top of the list.
The diagnosis would be strongly supported by blood in the urine. An intravenous urogram or
computed tomographic study of the kidney and upper bladder can be used to confirm the
diagnosis.
48
B Acute pancreatitis
C Appendicitis
D Biliary colic
E Diverticulitis
F Gastroduodenitis
I Meckels diverticulum
J Mesenteric infarction
N Ureteric colic
The following scenarios describe patients presenting with acute abdominal pain.
From the above list, choose the most likely cause. Each item may be used once,
more than once, or not all.
Scenario 1
A 78-year-old woman presents with a 4-h history of very severe constant central
abdominal pain. She looks very unwell and is in distress despite diamorphine.
Examination reveals slight abdominal distension with some central tenderness but no
peritonism. She is afebrile, blood pressure 140/90 mmHg, pulse 95/min irregularly and
respiratory rate 30 breaths/min. Blood gases pH 7.1, pA(O2) 11 kPa, pA(CO2) 4.6 kPa,
HCO3- 18 mmol/litre, base excess -6.
J - Mesenteric infarction CORRECT ANSWER
J Mesenteric infarction
This womans irregular heart rhythm has provided the right environment for clot
(think of Virchows triad) and subsequent embolus formation. Emboli can lodge
anywhere in the systemic circulation including the mesenteric arteries. An acute
embolus blocking the origin of the superior mesenteric artery with propagating
thrombus extending into smaller vessels usually produces mesenteric
ischaemia. It can be notoriously difficult to diagnose but should be suspected
especially when pain is out of proportion to evident clinical signs as in this case.
A full classification is:
Occlusive
Non-occlusive
occurs in patients with a grossly diminished cardiac output, eg following
myocardial infarction.
Scenario 2
A 75-year-old man presents with a 12-h history of worsening left iliac fossa pain
associated with an exacerbation of his usual constipation. Assessment reveals a
temperature of 38.2C and tenderness and guarding in the left iliac fossa. White cell
count 18.2 x 109/litre, haemoglobin 14.1 g/dl, C-reactive protein 150.
Scenario 3
A 39-year-old man presents with sudden-onset, right-sided colicky abdominal pain that
he describes as the worst hes had in his life. Abdominal examination is unremarkable.
B Fractured NOF
C Ileocaecal tuberculosis
E Lymphoma
F Meckels diverticulitis
G Psoas abscess
K Tabes dorsalis
The following are descriptions of patients with rare causes of right iliac fossa
pain. Please select the most appropriate diagnosis from the list. The items may
be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Scenario 1
A 23-year-old amateur footballer presents with a 12-h history of right iliac fossa pain.
The pain started while running and has become increasingly severe since. There is no
history of fever or vomiting. On examination he is in obvious discomfort and has a very
tender mass palpable low in the right iliac fossa.
Scenario 2
A 29-year-old Indian man presents with a 1-month history of pain in his right iliac fossa.
On direct questioning he says he has felt unwell over the past 6 months with a history
of malaise, anorexia and pain in his lumbar spine and right groin. On examination he is
thin and appears malnourished. Abdominal examination reveals the presence of vague
tenderness in the right iliac fossa and loin, in addition to a fluctuant lump in his groin on
the same side.
A Psoas abscess
B Obturator hernia
C Femoral aneurysm
G Local abscess
J Saphena varix
For each of the clinical scenarios listed below, select the lesion most likely to
occur in that scenario from the above list. Each option may be used once, more
than once, or not at all.
Scenario 1
A 60-year-old lady presents to the A&E with a temperature of 37.6C and vomiting of
48 hours duration. On examination, a localised swelling below and lateral to the right
pubic tubercle is noticed. The swelling is tender and irreducible with no cough impulse.
Scenario 2
A 46-year-old lady presents with a soft, non-tender swelling over the medial side of her
right thigh below and lateral to the pubic tubercle. The swelling has got a bluish tinge
and disappears on lying down. She is well systemically but has got bilateral varicose
veins.
Scenario 3
A 35-year-old man of Asian origin presents with a painless, fluctuant swelling over the
upper medial side of his left thigh. He has been previously treated for tuberculosis. His
ESR is 113. He has also got some tenderness over the lower spine and X-ray reveals
some opacity in this region.
Scenario 4
A 28-year-old IV drug abuser presents with a mildly tender, pulsatile swelling over his
right femoral triangle. He gives a history of considerable bleeding from the wound
before the swelling developed. He is apyrexial and systemically well.
51
C Diagnostic laparoscopy
D Laparoscopic appendicectomy
E Laparotomy
G Ultrasound scan
Scenario 2
An 80-year-old woman presents with a 24-h history of absolute constipation associated
with lower abdominal pain. On examination, she is grossly distended with localised
peritonism in the right iliac fossa. The plain film demonstrates large bowel obstruction.
Scenario 3
A 26-year-old woman presents with a 14-h history of right iliac fossa pain, associated
with nausea and vomiting. On examination there is tenderness and guarding in the
right iliac fossa. She reports, however, that her pain is similar to an episode she had 1
year ago when she torted an ovarian cyst and required surgery.
Scenario 4
A 38-year-old man with a previous history of alcoholic pancreatitis presents with a 12-h
history of increasingly severe epigastric pain and vomiting. On examination, he is
dehydrated, tachycardic and has widespread abdominal peritonism. White cell count
16.2 x 109/litre, amylase 150. No free gas found on erect chest X-ray.
B Herniogram
C Herniotomy
E Lichtenstein repair
I Shouldice procedure
L Truss
M Ultrasound scan
The following patients have all presented with groin hernias. Select the most
appropriate management option. Each option may be used once, more than
once, or not at all.
Scenario 1
An 80-year-old woman is admitted to hospital with a 20-h history of abdominal
distension, pain and vomiting. On examination, there is a small tender lump lying below
and lateral to the pubic tubercle with overlying erythema. The patient has been fully
resuscitated.
Scenario 2
A 56-year-old man presents at outpatients with a small reducible inguinal hernia. You
are a trainee of the Royal College of Surgeons of England and must perform the repair.
Scenario 3
A 32-year-old man presents to outpatients from the general practitioner complaining of
a small lump in the groin that comes and goes and causes pain when present. On
examination you find no evidence of hernia.
Scenario 4
A 2-year-old boy is brought in with a right groin lump. This proves reducible with
sedation, analgesia and cold packs. It is planned for him to return for day-case surgery
in 48 h.
53
A Caecal carcinoma
B Caecal volvulus
C Carcinoma
D Diverticular disease
E Faecal impaction
F Foreign body
G Intussusception
H Ischaemic stricture
I Pelvic metastases
J Pseudo-obstruction
K Sigmoid volvulus
The following patients have all presented with large bowel obstruction. Please
select the most appropriate diagnosis from the above list. The items may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.
Scenario 1
A 67-year-old woman presents with a 4-day history of colicky, central abdominal pain
and increasing distension. She gives a long history of a tendency towards constipation;
however, on this occasion she has not opened her bowels for 2 weeks, nor has she
passed any flatus. She describes episodes of left-sided abdominal pain over the
preceding 6 years. Her weight and appetite are unchanged. On examination she is
dehydrated and in obvious discomfort. Her abdomen is distended, tympanic to
percussion and a vague mass is palpable in the left iliac fossa. An empty rectum is
found on rectal examination.
D Diverticular disease
Scenario 2
A 42-year-old man undergoes a posterior L4L5 spinal fixation. You are asked to
review him on the second post-operative day. He has gross distension but a soft non-
tender abdomen. He has not passed wind since the operation.
J - Pseudo-obstruction CORRECT ANSWER
J Pseudo-obstruction
In a large hospital, barely a week goes by without being referred such a patient
either by the medical, neurosurgical, or orthopaedic teams. Colonic pseudo-
obstruction probably represents about a quarter of all large bowel obstruction. It
is a reactive dilatation and ileus, presumed (although notproven) to be
secondary to disturbed autonomic (cholinergic) innervation. Classic conditions
that may precipitate it are sepsis, especially chest infections, cerebrovascular
accident/neurosurgery, fractured NOF, and spinal/retroperitoneal surgery (these
probably directly disrupt nerves indeed, the condition was first described in
this respect with retroperitoneal tumours (Ogilvies syndrome).
Scenario 3
H Ischaemic stricture
The Answer
2/ diverticular disease,
4/ pseudo-obstruction.
54
B Barium meal
C Colectomy
D Colonoscopy
G Flexible sigmoidoscopy
H OGD and adrenaline injection
K Partial gastrectomy
L Proctosigmoidoscopy
Scenario 3
A 63-year-old woman presents with a history of melaena that is increasing in
frequency. Her last few motions have also contained fresh dark red blood; haemoglobin
10.9 g/dl. An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is normal and an unprepared
colonoscopy cannot clearly identify a source of acute bleeding. Despite adequate fluid
resuscitation she continues to exhibit signs of hypovolaemia and a repeat haemoglobin
is 7.0 g/dl. A blood transfusion is commenced and although relatively stable, further
intervention is clearly necessary.
55
B Caecal carcinoma
C Coeliac disease
D Crohns disease
E Intussusception
F Meckels diverticulum
G Mesenteric ischaemia
For each of the patients below, select the most likely diagnosis from the above
list. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Scenario 1
An 80-year-old lady with atrial fibrillation has a 4-day history of abdominal pain and
some rectal bleeding.
G - Mesenteric ischaemia CORRECT ANSWER
G Mesenteric ischaemia
The finding of atrial fibrillation in a patient with sudden-onset abdominal pain
must raise the possibility of an embolic event. Embolism accounts for 2530% of
patients with mesenteric ischaemia. It is notoriously difficult to diagnose and the
passage of blood per rectum is relatively rare.
Scenario 2
A 16-year-old boy presents with a 6-month history of diarrhoea, vomiting and vague
right iliac fossa mass. He has a microcytic anaemia.
Scenario 3
An 18-year-old girl presents with a 4-day history of pain in the right iliac fossa, a
temperature of 38 C and diarrhoea.
56
A Left apical
B Right apical
C Right anterior
D Right anterior basal
E Right lateral basal
For each of the scenarios below consider which segment of the lung the foreign
body would come to lie in. Each option may be used once, more than once, or
not at all.
Scenario 1
Scenario 2
inferior lobe (6) superior (apical), (7) medial basal, (8) anterior basal, (9) lateral
basal, (10) posterior basal
superior lobe (1) apical, (2) posterior, (3) anterior, (4) superior lingular, (5) inferior
lingular
inferior lobe (6) superior (apical), (7) medial basal, (8) anterior basal, (9) lateral
basal, (10) posterior basal.
Since the right bronchus is the wider, and more direct, continuation of the
trachea, foreign bodies tend to enter the right bronchus, from then they usually
pass into the middle or lower lobe bronchi.
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Theme: Hepatomegaly
A Amyloid disease
C Cardiac failure
D Cirrhosis
E Haemochromatosis
F Hepatocellular carcinoma
H Hydatid disease
I Infective hepatitis
J Leukaemia
K Liver abscess
L Lymphoma
M Metastatic carcinoma
N Polycystic disease
O Riedels lobe
The above are all causes of discrete or diffuse liver enlargement. For the
scenarios below please select the most appropriate diagnosis from the list. The
items may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Scenario 1
A well 35-year-old woman is referred to you in the surgical outpatients by her
concerned general practitioner (GP). In his letter he documents an enlarged liver. On
examination, you notice a smooth mass extending from the costal margin towards the
right iliac fossa. Liver function tests requested by her GP are normal.
Scenario 2
A 58-year-old African man presents to The Emergency Department complaining of a 3-
week history of gnawing right upper quadrant pain, weight loss and abdominal
distension. His history reveals that he had a blood transfusion in his home country after
his involvement in a severe road traffic accident 10 years previously and hepititis.
Examination reveals jaundice, a nodular and enlarged liver, and the presence of
shifting dullness.
58
Scenario 2
A 75-year-old woman with a history of constipation but no blood loss per rectum (PR),
presents with a 12 hour history of massive abdominal distension, constant pain, an
empty rectum, bowels not open for 2 days but no vomiting. There is little abdominal
tenderness or guarding.
Scenario 3
A 10-year-old boy presents with a 12 hour history of lower abdominal pain, a low grade
pyrexia, anorexia and nausea but no vomiting. He has recently recovered from a minor
chest infection. On examination he is tender in both right and left iliac fossae, with
maximal tenderness in the periumbilical region, no guarding or rebound and some
cervical lymphadenopathy. The white cell count is 22 x 109/l and there are no pus cells
in the urine. Blood tests and urine dipstick are normal.
59
A Actinomycosis
B Appendix abscess
C Appendix mass
D Caecal carcinoma
E Crohn s disease
G Iliac lymphadenopathy
H Ovarian carcinoma
I Ovarian cyst
J Pelvic kidney
K Psoas abscess
M Tuberculous ileitis
The following are descriptions of patients with a right iliac fossa mass. Please
select the most appropriate diagnosis from the list. The items may be used once,
more than once, or not at all.
Scenario 1
The natural history of untreated acute appendicitis is that it will resolve, become
gangrenous and perforate, or it will become surrounded by a mass of omentum
and small bowel that walls off the inflammatory process and prevents
inflammatory spread to the abdominal cavity yet delays resolution of the
condition. Such patients usually present with a longer history (a week or more)
of right lower quadrant abdominal pain. On examination the patient has a
persistent low-grade fever, mild tachycardia and there is a tender indistinct mass
in the right iliac fossa. The condition is usually best managed conservatively, as
the risk of perforation has passed and removal of the appendix can be difficult.
This differs from appendix abscess, when a perforated appendix becomes walled
off by omentum. Unlike an appendix mass, the patient with an appendix abscess
becomes systemically unwell with intermittent swinging pyrexia, rigors and
profuse sweating. Drainage, either under radiological control or surgically, is the
best initial treatment.
Scenario 2
E Crohns disease
Scenario 3
A 67-year-old woman presents to clinic with anaemia, unexplained weight loss and
non-specific lower abdominal pain. On examination there is a distinct hard mobile
mass.
D Caecal carcinoma
The Answer
60
C Oesophago-gastrectomy
D Excision of ulcer
E Repeat endoscopy
F Underunning ulcer
Select the most appropriate option from the list above for the treatment of the
patients below. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
Scenario 1
A 79-year-old lady with a poor cardiac history and mild renal impairment is admitted
with haematemesis and melaena. A duodenal ulcer is found at endoscopy and is found
to be actively bleeding. The ulcer was injected with adrenaline; however 12 hours later
she was noted to have rebled with further passage of fresh melaena. She remains
haemodynamically stable.
Scenario 2
A fit 59-year-old man with a known benign gastric ulcer on the greater curvature of the
stomach presents with melaena. He has completed an 8-week course of omeprazole.
He has required a transfusion of 6 units of blood and repeat endoscopy shows signs of
an active bleed.
B - Partial gastrectomy CORRECT ANSWER
This patients ulcer is known to be benign. Despite best medical therapy his ulcer has
not healed and so it should be excised. The available evidence is not conclusive, but
suggests that partial gastrectomy may have lower morbidity and mortality rates than
ulcer excision.
Scenario 3
An 85-year-old man is found at laparotomy to have a perforated gastric ulcer high on
the lesser curve. His past medical history includes COAD (chronic obstructive airways
disease) and angina.
61
nasogastric tube)
E Emergency gastrectomy
F Emergency thoracotomy
G Gastrograffin enema
H Gastrograffin swallow
I Hartmanns procedure
J Oesophageal resection
K Oesophageal stenting
Scenario 2
A 64-year-old woman presents to Casualty with a 24-h history of progressive left iliac
fossa pain. She has been conservatively treated for diverticulitis in the past (with prior
barium enema confirming sigmoid disease). On examination, she has localised
tenderness and guarding in the left iliac fossa. In addition, her temperature is 38.9C,
blood pressure 105/60 mmHg, pulse 110/min.
62
C Crohns disease
D Diverticular disease
E Endometriosis
F Mesenteric infarction
G Mittelschmerz
J Ulcerative colitis
For each of the following situations, select the most appropriate cause of the
acute abdomen from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than
once, or not at all.
Scenario 1
A 73-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with lower abdominal
distension and pain relieved by passing flatus. She also gives a history of altered bowel
habit, a sense of incomplete evacuation, and blood mixed with her stools.
Scenario 2
A 30-year-old smoker presents to the surgical outpatient clinic with a 4-month history of
diarrhoea and abdominal colic. The patient has lost weight and has recently noted
some mouth ulcers. A blood test reveals microcytic, hypochromic anaemia.
Scenario 3
A 21-year-old lady is brought to the Emergency Department with severe generalised
lower abdominal pain. She is pale, tachycardic, and her blood pressure is 90/54
mmHg.
Scenario 4
An 83-year-old woman presents with a 12-hour history of severe generalised
abdominal pain associated with nausea and vomiting. Her blood pressure is 100/70
mmHg. She is in atrial fibrillation and her bowel sounds are absent.