Chapter 1: Introduction to 13. The baseband bandwidth for a voice- a. base time c.

charge time
Communication Systems grade (telephone) signal is: b. transit time d. Miller time
a. approximately 3 kHz c. at least 5 kHz
1. The theory of radio waves was originated b. 20 Hz to 15,000 Hz d. none of the 2. A real capacitor actually contains:
by: above a. capacitance and resistance only
a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. capacitance and inductance only
b. Bell d. Hertz 14. Noise in a communication system c. capacitance, inductance, and resistance
originates in: d. reactance only
2. The person who sent the first radio signal a. the sender c. the channel
across the Atlantic ocean was: b. the receiver d. all of the above 3. Bypass capacitors are used to:
a. Marconi c. Maxwell a. remove RF from non-RF circuits
b. Bell d. Hertz 15. "Man-made" noise can come from: b. couple RF around an amplifier
a. equipment that sparks c. static c. neutralize amplifiers
3. The transmission of radio waves was first b. temperature d. all of the above d. reduce the Miller effect
done by:
a. Marconi c. Maxwell 16. Thermal noise is generated in: 4. A resonant circuit is:
b. Bell d. Hertz a. transistors and diodes c. copper wire a. a simple form of bandpass filter
b. resistors d. all of the above b. used in narrowband RF amplifiers
4. A complete communication system must c. both a and b
include: 17. Shot noise is generated in: d. none of the above
a. a transmitter and receiver a. transistors and diodes c. copper wire
b. a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel b. resistors d. none of the 5. Loading down a tuned-circuit amplifier will:
c. a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum above a. raise the Q of the tuned circuit
analyzer b. lower the Q of the tuned circuit
d. a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a 18. The power density of "flicker" noise is: c. "multiply" the Q
channel a. the same at all frequencies d. have no effect on Q
b. greater at high frequencies
5. Radians per second is equal to: c. greater at low frequencies 6. The "Miller Effect" can:
a. 2p f c. the phase angle d. the same as "white" noise a. cause an amplifier to oscillate
b. f 2p d. none of the above b. cause an amplifier to lose gain
19. So called "1/f" noise is also called: c. reduce the bandwidth of an amplifier
6. The bandwidth required for a modulated a. random noise c. white noise d. all of the above
carrier depends on: b. pink noise d. partition noise
a. the carrier frequency 7. The Miller Effect can be avoided by:
b. the signal-to-noise ratio 20. "Pink" noise has: a. using a common-emitter amplifier
c. the signal-plus-noise to noise ratio a. equal power per Hertz c. constant power b. using a common-base amplifier
d. the baseband frequency range b. equal power per octave d. NOTA c. increasing the Q of the tuned circuit
d. it cannot be avoided
7. When two or more signals share a 21. When two noise voltages, V1 and V2, are
common channel, it is called: combined, the total voltage VT is: 8. In a BJT, the Miller Effect is due to:
a. sub-channeling c. SINAD a. VT = sqrt(V1 V1 + V2 V2) a. inductance of collector lead
b. signal switching d. multiplexing b. VT = (V1 + V2)/2 b. collector-to-emitter capacitance
c. VT = sqrt(V1 V2) c. base-to-emitter capacitance
8. TDM stands for: d. VT = V1 + V2 d. base-to-collector capacitance
a. Time-Division Multiplexing
b. Two-level Digital Modulation 22. Signal-to-Noise ratio is calculated as: 9. In RF amplifiers, impedance matching is
c. Time Domain Measurement a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage usually done with:
d. none of the above b. signal power divided by noise power a. RC coupling c. direct coupling
c. first add the signal power to the noise b. transformer coupling d. lumped
9. FDM stands for: power, then divide by noise power reactance
a. Fast Digital Modulation d. none of the above
b. Frequency Domain Measurement 10. Neutralization cancels unwanted
c. Frequency-Division Multiplexing 23. SINAD is calculated as: feedback by:
d. none of the above a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage a. adding feedback out of phase with the
b. signal power divided by noise power unwanted feedback
10. The wavelength of a radio signal is: c. first add the signal power to the noise b. bypassing the feedback to the "neutral" or
a. equal to f c power, then divide by noise power ground plane
b. equal to c l d. none of the above c. decoupling it
c. the distance a wave travels in one period d. none of the above
d. how far the signal can travel without 24. Noise Figure is a measure of:
distortion a. how much noise is in a communications 11. For a "frequency multiplier" to work, it
system requires:
11. Distortion is caused by: b. how much noise is in the channel a. a nonlinear circuit
a. creation of harmonics of baseband c. how much noise an amplifier adds to a b. a linear amplifier
frequencies signal c. a signal containing harmonics
b. baseband frequencies "mixing" with each d. signal-to-noise ratio in dB d. an input signal that is an integer multiple
other of the desired frequency
c. shift in phase relationships between 25. The part, or parts, of a sinusoidal carrier
baseband frequencies that can be modulated are: 12. A sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier
d. all of the above a. its amplitude c. its amplitude, requires:
frequency, and direction a. loop gain equal to unity
12. The collection of sinusoidal frequencies b. its amplitude and frequency d. its b. phase shift around loop equal to 0 degrees
present in a modulated carrier is called its: amplitude, frequency, and phase angle c. both a and b, but at just one frequency
a. frequency-domain representation d. none of the above
b. Fourier series
c. spectrum Chapter 2: Radio-Frequency Circuits 13. The conditions for sinusoidal oscillation
d. all of the above from an amplifier are called:
1. The time it takes a charge carrier to cross a. the loop-gain criteria c. the Bode
from the emitter to the collector is called: criteria
b. the Hartley criteria d. the Barkhausen
criteria
14. The Hartley oscillator uses:
a. a tapped inductor
b. a two-capacitor divider
c. an RC time constant
d. a piezoelectric crystal
15. The Colpitts VFO uses:
a. a tapped inductor
b. a two-capacitor divider
c. an RC time constant
d. a piezoelectric crystal
16. The Clapp oscillator is:
a. a modified Hartley oscillator
b. a modified Colpitts oscillator
c. a type of crystal-controlled oscillator
d. only built with FETs
17. A varactor is:
a. a voltage-controlled capacitor
b. a diode
c. used in tuner circuits
d. all of the above
18. Crystal-Controlled oscillators are:
a. used for a precise frequency
b. used for very low frequency drift (parts
per million)
c. made by grinding quartz to exact
dimensions
d. all of the above
19. If two signals, Va = sin(wat) and Vb =
sin(wbt), are fed to a mixer, the output:
a. will contain w1 = wa + wb and w2 = wa
wb
b. will contain w1 = wa / wb and w2 = wb /
wa
c. will contain w = (wa + wb ) / 2
d. none of the above
20. In a balanced mixer, the output:
a. contains equal (balanced) amounts of all
input frequencies
b. contains the input frequencies
c. does not contain the input frequencies
d. is a linear mixture of the input signals
21. "VFO" stands for:
a. Voltage-Fed Oscillator
b. Variable-Frequency Oscillator
c. Varactor-Frequency Oscillator
d. Voltage-Feedback Oscillator
22. A "frequency synthesizer" is:
a. a VCO phase-locked to a reference
frequency
b. a VFO with selectable crystals to change
frequency
c. a fixed-frequency RF generator
d. same as a mixer
Chapter 3: Amplitude Modulation
1. AM stands for:
a. Audio Modulation
b. Amplitude Modulation
c. Angle Modulation
d. Antenna Modulation
2. The "envelope" of an AM signal is due to:
a. the baseband signal
b. the carrier signal
c. the amplitude signal
d. none of the above
3. If the audio Va sin(at) modulates the a. Peak Envelope Power
carrier Vc sin(ct), then the modulation b. Peak Efficiency Power
index, m, is: c. Peak Envelope Product
a. m = a / c c. m = (Va / Vc)2 d. none of the above
b. m = Va / Vc d. m = Va / a
16. If an SSB transmitter radiates 1000 watts
4. The equation for full-carrier AM is: at peak modulation, what will it radiate with
a. v(t) = (Ec + Em) x sin(
ct) no modulation?
b. v(t) = (Ec + Em) x sin( mt) + sin(ct) a. 1000 watts c. 250 watts
c. v(t) = (Ec x Em) x sin(
mt) x sin(
ct) b. 500 watts d. 0 watts
d. v(t) = (Ec + Em sin(mt)) x sin(
ct)
17. Music on AM radio stations is "low-
5. Overmodulation causes: fidelity" because:
a. distortion c. both a and b a. AM is susceptible to noise
b. splatter d. none of the above b. commercial AM stations use low power
c. commercial AM stations have a narrow
6. The peak voltage of an AM signal goes bandwidth
from Emax to Emin. The modulation index, d. all of the above
m, is:
a. m = Emin / Emax 18. The type of information that can be sent
b. m = Emax / Emin using AM is:
c. m = (Emax Emin) / (Emax + Emin) a. audio c. digital data
d. m = (Emax + Emin) / (Emax Emin) b. video d. all of the above
7. If Va sin(at) amplitude modulates the 19. Two tones modulate an AM carrier. One
carrier Vc sin(ct), it will produce the tone causes a modulation index of m1 and
frequencies: the other tone causes a modulation index of
a. c + a and c a m2. The total modulation index is:
b. (c + a)/2 and (c a)/2 a. m1 + m2 c. sqrt(m1 x m2 + m2 x
c. c + a and 2c + 2a m1)
d. none of the above b. (m1 + m2) / 2 d. sqrt(m1 x m1 + m2 x
m2)
8. At 100% modulation, the total sideband
power is: 20. To demodulate a USB SSB signal, the
a. equal to the carrier power receiver must:
b. twice the carrier power a. be set to USB mode c. both a and b
c. half the carrier power b. reinsert the carrier d. NOTA
d. 1.414 x carrier
power
Chapter 4: Angle Modulation
9. If a 5-kHz signal modulates a 1-MHz
carrier, the bandwidth of the AM signal will 1. The FM modulation index:
be: a. increases with both deviation and
a. 5 kHz c. 1.005 MHz modulation frequency
b. 10 kHz d. none of the above b. increases with deviation and decreases
with modulation frequency
10. If an AM radio station increases its c. decreases with deviation and increases
modulation index, you would expect: with modulation frequency
a. the audio to get louder at the receiver d. is equal to twice the deviation
b. the received RF signal to increase
c. the signal-to-noise ratio to increase 2. One way to derive FM from PM is:
d. all of the above a. integrate the modulating signal before
applying to the PM oscillator
11. The modulation index can be derived b. integrate the signal out of the PM
from: oscillator
a. the time-domain signal c. differentiate the modulating signal before
b. the frequency-domain signal applying to the PM oscillator
c. both a and b d. differentiate the signal out of the PM
d. none of the above oscillator
12. The main problem in using quadrature 3. The bandwidth of an FM signal is
AM would be: considered to be limited because:
a. requires too much bandwidth a. there can only be a finite number of
b. requires too much power sidebands
c. incompatibility with ordinary AM radios b. it is equal to the frequency deviation
d. all of the above c. it is band-limited at the receiver
d. the power in the outer sidebands is
13. As compared to plain AM, SSB AM: negligible
a. is more efficient
b. requires a more complex demodulator 4. Mathematically, the calculation of FM
circuit bandwidth requires the use of:
c. requires less bandwidth a. ordinary trigonometry and algebra
d. all of the above b. Bessel functions
c. Taylor series
14. The SC in SSB SC stands for: d. fractals
a. single-carrier c. sideband-
carrier 5. FM bandwidth can be approximated by:
b. suppressed-carrier d. NOTA a. Armstrong's Rule c. Carson's Rule
b. Bessel's Rule d. NOTA
15. PEP stands for:
6. NBFM stands for: 16. When a transmitter is connected to a
a. National Broadcast FM c. Near Band FM 4. ALC stands for: resistor instead of an antenna, the resistor
b. Non-Broadcast FM d. Narrowband FM a. Amplitude Level Control must be:
b. Automatic Level Control a. wire-wound c. 1% tolerance or better
7. When FM reception deteriorates abruptly c. Accurate Level Control b. noninductive d. all of the above
due to noise, it is called: d. none of the above
a. the capture effect c. the noise effect 17. A Class D amplifier is:
b. the threshold effect d. the limit effect 5. In an AM transmitter, ALC is used to: a. very efficient
a. keep the modulation close to 100% b. essentially pulse-width modulation
8. An FM receiver switching suddenly b. keep the modulation below 100% c. essentially pulse-duration modulation
between two stations on nearby frequencies c. maximize transmitted power d. all of the above
is called: d. all of the above
a. the capture effect 18. To generate a SSB signal:
b. the threshold effect 6. With high-level AM: a. start with full-carrier AM
c. the "two-station" effect a. all RF amplifiers can be nonlinear b. start with DSBSC
d. none of the above b. minimum modulation power is required c. start with a quadrature signal
c. minimum RF power is required d. all of the above
9. Pre-emphasis is used to: d. all of the above
a. increase the signal to noise ratio for higher 19. The carrier is suppressed in:
audio frequencies 7. With high-level AM: a. a balanced modulator
b. increase the signal to noise ratio for lower a. the RF amplifiers are typically Class A b. a mixer
audio frequencies b. the RF amplifiers are typically Class B c. a frequency multiplier
c. increase the signal to noise ratio for all c. the RF amplifiers are typically Class C d. none of the above
audio frequencies d. the RF amplifiers are typically Class AB
d. allow stereo audio to be carried by FM 20. To remove one AM sideband and leave
stations 8. With low-level AM: the other you could use:
a. the RF amplifiers must be Class A a. a mechanical filter c. both a and b
10. A pre-emphasis of 75 s refers to: b. the RF amplifiers must be Class B b. a crystal filter dNOTA
a. the time it takes for the circuit to work c. the RF amplifiers must be linear
b. the "dead time" before de-emphasis d. the RF amplifiers must be low-power 21. A direct FM modulator:
occurs a. varies the frequency of the carrier
c. the time delay between the L and R 9. Power amplifiers must be linear for any oscillator
channels signal that: b. integrates the modulating signal
d. the time-constant of the filter circuits used a. is complex c. both a and b
b. has variable amplitude d. none of the above
11. FM stereo: c. has variable frequency
a. uses DSBSC AM modulation d. all of the above 22. An indirect FM modulator:
b. is implemented using an SCA signal a. requires a varactor in the carrier oscillator
c. has a higher S/N than mono FM 10. In high-level AM, "high-level" refers to: b. varies the phase of the carrier oscillator
d. is not compatible with mono FM a. the power level of the carrier c. both a and b
b. the power level of the modulation d. none of the above
12. An SCA signal: c. the power level of the final RF amplifier
a. can use amplitude modulation d. none of the above 23. AFC stands for:
b. can use FM modulation a. Amplitude to Frequency Conversion
c. is monaural 11. In high-level AM, the power in the b. Automatic Frequency Centering
d. all of the above sidebands comes from: c. Automatic Frequency Control
a. the modulating amplifier c. the d. Audio Frequency Control
13. The modulation index of an FM signal can driver stage
be determined readily: b. the RF amplifier d. the 24. Frequency multipliers are:
a. using measurements at points where J0 carrier a. essentially balanced modulators
equals one b. essentially Class C amplifiers
b. using measurements at points where J0 12. In an AM transmitter with 100% c. essentially mixers
equals zero modulation, the voltage of the final RF stage d. none of the above
c. using measurements at points where the will be:
deviation equals zero a. approximately half the DC supply voltage 25. With mixing:
d. only by using Bessel functions b. approximately twice the DC supply voltage a. the carrier frequency can be raised
c. approximately four times the DC supply b. the carrier frequency can be lowered
Chapter 5: Transmitters voltage c. the carrier frequency can be changed to
d. none of the above any required value
1. The ability to change operating frequency d. the deviation is altered
rapidly without a lot of retuning is called: 13. Practical transmitters are usually
a. agility c. VFO designed to drive a load impedance of: Chapter 6: Receivers
b. expansion d. spread-spectrum a. 50 ohms resistive
b. 75 ohms resistive 1. The two basic specifications for a receiver
2. The difference between the DC power into c. 300 ohms resistive are:
a transmitter and the RF power coming out: d. 600 ohms resistive a. the sensitivity and the selectivity
a. is a measure of efficiency b. the number of converters and the number
b. heats the transmitter 14. Which of the following can be used for of IFs
c. may require water cooling impedance matching? c. the spurious response and the tracking
d. all of the above a. pi network c. both a and b d. the signal and the noise
b. T network d. a bridge circuit
2. The superheterodyne receiver was
3. Baseband compression produces: 15. When a transmitter is connected to a invented by:
a. a smaller range of frequencies from low to resistor instead of an antenna, the resistor is a. Foster c.
high called: Armstrong
b. a smaller range of amplitude from soft to a. a heavy load c. a temporary load b. Seeley d. Hertz
loud b. a dummy load d. a test load
c. a smaller number of signals 3. Trimmers and padders are:
d. none of the above a. two types of adjusting tools
b. small adjustable resistors
c. small adjustable inductors
d. small adjustable capacitors
4. "Skin effect" refers to:
a. the way radio signals travel across a flat
surface
b. the tissue-burning effect of a strong RF
signal
c. the increase of wire resistance with
frequency
d. none of the above
5. The "front end" of a receiver can include:
a. the tuner c. the mixer
b. the RF amplifier d. all of
the above
6. "IF" stands for:
a. intermediate frequency
b. intermodulation frequency
c. indeterminate frequency
d. image frequency
7. AGC stands for:
a. Audio Gain Control
b. Automatic Gain Control
c. Active Gain Control
d. Active Gain Conversion
8. The frequency of the local oscillator:
a. is above the RF frequency
b. is below the RF frequency
c. can be either above of below the RF
frequency
d. is fixed, typically at 455 kHz.
9. The local oscillator and mixer are
combined in one device because:
a. it gives a greater reduction of spurious
responses
b. it increases sensitivity
c. it increases selectivity
d. it is cheaper
10. Basically, sensitivity measures:
a. the weakest signal that can be usefully
received
b. the highest-frequency signal that can be
usefully received
c. the dynamic range of the audio amplifier
d. none of the above
11. Basically, selectivity measures:
a. the range of frequencies that the receiver
can select
b. with two signals close in frequency, the
ability to receive one and reject the other
c. how well adjacent frequencies are
separated by the demodulator
d. how well the adjacent frequencies are
separated in the mixer
12. When comparing values for shape factor:
a. a value of 1.414 dB is ideal
b. a value of 0.707 is ideal
c. a value of 1.0 is ideal
d. there is no ideal value
13. When comparing values for shape factor:
a. a value of 2 is better than a value of 4
b. a value of 4 is better than a value of 2
c. both values are basically equivalent
d. none of the above
14. Distortion in a receiver can occur in:
a. the mixer c. the IF amplifiers
b. the detector d. all of the above
15. Phase distortion is important in:
a. voice communications systems
b. color video receivers
c. monochrome video receivers
d. all of the above
16. The response of a receiver to weak
signals is usually limited by:
a. the AGC
b. noise generated in the receiver
c. the dynamic range of the receiver
d. the type of detector circuit being used
17. Image frequencies occur when two
signals:
a. are transmitted on the same frequency
b. enter the mixer, with one being a reflected
signal equal to the IF frequency
c. enter the mixer, one below and one above
the local oscillator by a difference equal to
the IF
d. enter the mixer, and the difference
between the two signals is equal to twice the
IF
18. An image must be rejected:
a. prior to mixing
b. prior to IF amplification
c. prior to detection
d. images cannot be rejected
19. Image frequency problems would be
reduced by:
a. having an IF amplifier with the proper
shape factor
b. having a wideband RF amplifier after the
mixer
c. having a narrowband RF amplifier before
the mixer
d. none of the above
20. A common AM detector is the:
a. PLL c. ratio detector
b. envelope detector d. all of the above
21. An FM detector is the:
a. PLL
b. ratio detector
c. quadrature detector
d. all of the above
22. Germanium diodes are used in AM
detectors because:
a. they are faster than silicon diodes
b. they are cheaper than silicon diodes
c. they minimize distortion from nonlinearity
d. all of the above
23. A common SSB detector is:
a. a PLL c. a BFO
b. a diode d. a product detector
24. BFO stands for:
a. Beat Frequency Oscillator
b. Barrier Frequency Oscillator
c. Bipolar Frequency Oscillator
d. Bistable Frequency Oscillator
25. To demodulate both SSB and DSBSC, you
need to:
a. use a Foster-Seeley discriminator
b. reinject the carrier
c. use double conversion
d. use one diode for SSB and two diodes for
DSBSC
26. Which would be best for DSBSC:
a. carrier detection
b. coherent detection
c. envelope detection
d. ratio detection
27. An FM detector that is not sensitive to
amplitude variations is:
a. Foster-Seeley detector c. a PLL detector
b. a quadrature detector d. all of the above
28. The function of a limiter is:
a. to remove amplitude variations
b. to limit spurious responses
c. to limit dynamic range
d. to limit noise response
29. Suppressing the audio when no signal is
present is called:
a. AGC c. AFC
b. squelch d. limiting
30. LNA stands for:
a. Limited-Noise Amplifier c. Low-Noise
Audio
b. Low-Noise Amplifier d. Logarithmic
Noise Amplification
31. AFC stands for:
a. Audio Frequency Compensator
b. Autodyne Frequency Compensation
c. Automatic Frequency Control
d. Autonomous Frequency Control
32. The function of AFC is:
a. maintain a constant IF frequency
b. match the local oscillator to the received
signal
c. lock the discriminator to the IF frequency
d. none of the above
33. SAW stands for:
a. Symmetrical Audio Wave
b. Surface Acoustic Wave
c. Silicon-Activated Wafer
d. Software-Activated Wave
34. The important property of a SAW is:
a. it stabilizes the audio in a receiver
b. it allows software radios to be built
c. it is a stable bandpass filter
d. none of the above
35. The main function of the AGC is to:
a. keep the gain of the receiver constant
b. keep the gain of the IF amplifiers constant
c. keep the input to the detector at a
constant amplitude
d. all of the above
36. DSP stands for:
a. Dynamic Signal Properties
b. Direct Signal Phase
c. Distorted Signal Packet
d. Digital Signal Processor
37. SINAD stands for:
a. Sinusoidal Amplitude Distortion
b. Signal and Noise Amplitude Distortion
c. Signal-plus-Noise-to-Noise Ratio
d. Signal-plus-Noise and Distortion-to-Noise
and Distortion Ratio
38. TRF stands for:
a. Tuned Radio Frequency
b. Tracking Radio Frequency
c. Transmitted Radio Frequency
d. Tuned Receiver Function
Chapter 7: Digital Communications
1. The first digital code was the: c. the maximum bits per sample to the 27. So-called "stolen" bits in DS-1 are used
a. ASCII code c. Morse code minimum bits per sample to:
b. Baudot code d. none of the above d. none of the above a. detect errors
b. carry signaling
2. In digital transmission, signal degradation 15. Companding is used to: c. synchronize the transmitter and receiver
can be removed using: a. compress the range of base-band d. all of the above
a. an amplifier c. a regenerative repeater frequencies
b. a filter d. all of the above b. reduce dynamic range at higher bit-rates 28. The number of bits per sample in DS-1 is:
c. preserve dynamic range while keeping bit- a. 1 c. 4
3. TDM stands for: rate low b. 2 d. 8
a. Time-Division Multiplexing d. maximize the useable bandwidth in digital
b. Time-Domain Multiplexing transmission
29. The number of samples per second in
c. Ten-Digital Manchester
DS-1 is:
d. Ten Dual-Manchester 16. In North America, companding uses:
a. 8 k c. 64 k
a. the Logarithmic Law
b. 56 k d. 1.544 x 106
4. Hartley's Law is: b. the A Law
a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + c. the Law (alpha law)
30. The bit rate for each channel in DS-1 is:
S/N) d. the Law (mu law)
a. 1.544 Mb/s c. 56 kb/s
b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax
b. 64 kb/s d. 8 kb/s
17. In Europe, companding uses:
5. The Shannon-Hartley theorem is: a. the Logarithmic Law
31. In DS-1, bits are transmitted over a T-1
a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + b. the A Law
cable at:
S/N) c. the Law (alpha law)
a. 1.544 MB/s c. 56 kb/s
b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax d. the Law (mu law)
b. 64 kb/s d. 8 kb/s
6. The Shannon Limit is given by: 18. Codec stands for:
32. A T-1 cable uses:
a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + a. Coder-Decoder
a. Manchester coding c. NRZ coding
S/N) b. Coded-Carrier
b. bipolar RZ AMI coding d. pulse-width
b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax c. Code-Compression
coding
d. none of the above
7. The Nyquist Rate can be expressed as:
33. The number of frames in a superframe is:
a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + 19. A typical codec in a telephone system
a. 6 c. 24
S/N) sends and receives:
b. 12 d. 48
b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax a. 4-bit numbers c. 12-bit numbers
b. 8-bit numbers d. 16-bit numbers
34. A typical T-1 line uses:
8. Natural Sampling does not use:
a. twisted-pair wire b. coaxial cable
a. a sample-and-hold circuit 20. Compared to PCM, delta modulation:
c. fiber-optic cable d. microwave
b. true binary numbers a. transmits fewer bits per sample
c. a fixed sample rate b. requires a much higher sampling rate
35. "Signaling" is used to indicate:
d. an analog-to-digital converter c. can suffer slope overload
a. on-hook/off-hook condition
d. all of the above
b. busy signal
9. Which is true about aliasing and foldover
c. ringing d. all of the above
distortion? 21. In delta modulation, "granular noise" is
a. They are two types of sampling error. produced when:
36. A vocoder implements compression by:
b. You can have one or the other, but not a. the signal changes too rapidly
a. constructing a model of the transmission
both. b. the signal does not change
medium
c. Aliasing is a technique to prevent foldover c. the bit rate is too high
b. constructing a model of the human vocal
distortion. d. the sample is too large
system
d. They are the same thing.
c. finding redundancies in the digitized data
22. Compared to PCM, adaptive delta
d. using lossless techniques
10. Foldover distortion is caused by: modulation can transmit voice:
a. noise a. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality
37. Compared to standard PCM systems, the
b. too many samples per second b. with a lower bit rate but the same quality
quality of the output of a vocoder is:
c. too few samples per second c. only over shorter distances
a. much better
d. all of the above d. only if the voice is band-limited
b. somewhat better
c. about the same
11. The immediate result of sampling is: 23. Which coding scheme requires DC
d. not as good
a. a sample alias c. PCM continuity:
b. PAM d. PDM a. AMI c. unipolar NRZ
Chapter 8: The Telephone System
b. Manchester d. bipolar RZ
12. Which of these is not a pulse-modulation
1. DTMF stands for:
technique: 24. Manchester coding:
a. Digital Telephony Multiple Frequency
a. PDM c. PPM a. is a biphase code
b. Dial Tone Master Frequency
b. PWM d. PPS b. has a level transition in the middle of
c. Dual-Tone Multifrequency
every bit period
d. Digital Trunk Master Frequency
13. Quantizing noise (quantization noise): c. provides strong timing information
a. decreases as the sample rate increases d. all of the above
b. decreases as the sample rate decreases
2. PSTN stands for:
c. decreases as the bits per sample increases 25. The number of framing bits in DS-1 is:
a. Public Switched Telephone Network
d. decreases as the bits per sample a. 1 c. 4
b. Private Switched Telephone Network
decreases b. 2 d. 8
c. Primary Service Telephone Network
d. Primary Service Telephone Numbers
14. The dynamic range of a system is the 26. Framing bits in DS-1 are used to:
ratio of: a. detect errors
3. POTS stands for:
a. the strongest transmittable signal to the b. carry signaling
a. Private Office Telephone System
weakest discernible signal c. synchronize the transmitter and receiver
b. Primary Office Telephone Service
b. the maximum rate of conversion to the d. all of the above
c. Primary Operational Test System
minimum rate of conversion
d. Plain Old Telephone Service
4. LATA stands for: 17. The typical voltage needed to "ring" a d. all of the above
a. Local Access and Transport Area telephone is:
b. Local Access Telephone Area a. 48 volts DC c. 90 volts DC 31. ADSL stands for:
c. Local Area Telephone Access b. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC d. 90 volts, 20 hertz a. All-Digital Subscriber Line
d. Local Area Transport Access AC b. Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line
c. Allocated Digital Service Line
5. A LATA is a: 18. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on d. Access to Data Services Line
a. a local calling area a telephone system is restricted in order to:
b. a type of digital local network a. allow lines to be "conditioned" 32. Compared to ISDN, internet access using
c. a way of accessing a tandem office b. prevent "singing" ADSL is typically:
d. a way of accessing a central office c. allow signals to be multiplexed a. much faster
d. all of the above b. about the same speed
6. Central offices are connected by: c. much more expensive
a. local loops c. both a and b 19. VNL stands for: d. none of the above
b. trunk lines d. none of the above a. voltage net loss c. via net loss
b. volume net loss d. voice Chapter 9: Data Transmission
7. Local loops terminate at: noise level
a. a tandem office c. a central office 1. In practical terms, parallel data
b. a toll station d. an interexchange office 20. Signal loss is designed into a telephone transmission is sent:
system to: a. over short distances only
8. Call blocking: a. eliminate reflections b. usually over long distances
a. cannot occur in the public telephone b. prevent oscillation c. over any distance
network c. improve signal-to-noise ratio d. usually over a coaxial cable
b. occurs on the local loop when there is an d. reduce power consumption
electrical power failure 2. The five-level teletype code was invented
c. occurs only on long-distance cables 21. The reference noise level for telephony by:
d. occurs when the central office capacity is is: a. the Morkum Company c. Western Union
exceeded a. 1 mW c. 1 pW b. the Teletype Company d. Emile Baudot
b. 0 dBm d. 0 dBr
9. In telephony, POP stands for: 3. Data codes are also called:
a. Post Office Protocol 22. The number of voice channels in a basic a. character codes
b. Point Of Presence FDM group is: b. character sets
c. Power-On Protocol a. 6 c. 24 c. they do not have any other name
d. none of the above b. 12 d. 60 d. both a and b

10. The cable used for local loops is mainly: 23. Basic FDM groups can be combined into: 4. Digital data that is not being used to carry
a. twisted-pair copper wire a. supergroups c. jumbogroups characters is called:
b. shielded twisted-pair copper wire b. mastergroups d. all of the above a. FIGS data c. numerical data
c. coaxial cable b. binary data d. all of the above
d. fiber-optic 24. In telephone system FDM, voice is put on
a carrier using: 5. Character codes include:
11. FITL stands for: a. SSB c. PDM a. alphanumeric characters
a. Framing Information for Toll Loops b. DSBSC d. PCM b. data link control characters
b. Fiber In the Toll Loop c. graphic control characters
c. Framing In The Loop 25. PABX stands for: d. all of the above
d. Fiber-In-The-Loop a. Power Amplification Before Transmission
b. Private Automatic Branch Exchange 6. ASCII stands for:
12. Loading coils were used to: c. Public Automated Branch Exchange a. American Standard Character-set 2
a. increase the speed of the local loop for d. Public Access Branch Exchange b. American Standard Code for Information
digital data Interchange
b. reduce the attenuation of voice signals 26. SLIC stands for: c. American Standard Code 2
c. reduce crosstalk a. Single-Line Interface Circuit d. Alphanumeric Standard Code for
d. provide C-type conditioning to a local loop b. Standard Line Interface Card Information Interchange
c. Subscriber Line Interface Card
13. DC current flows through a telephone: d. Standard Local Interface Circuit 7. BS, FF, and CR are examples of:
a. when it is on hook a. nonstandard character codes
b. when it is off hook 27. In DS-1, bits are "robbed" in order to: b. escape characters
c. as long as it is attached to a local loop a. provide synchronization c. control characters
d. only when it is ringing b. carry signaling d. none of the above
c. cancel echoes
14. The range of DC current that flows d. check for errors 8. LF stands for:
through a telephone is: a. Line Feed c. Line Forward
a. 20 A to 80 A c. 2 mA 28. "Bit-stuffing" is more formally called: b. Link Feed d. Link Forward
to 8 mA a. compensation c. justification
b. 200 A to 800 A d. 20 mA to 80 mA b. rectification d. frame 9. UART stands for:
alignment a. Universal Asynchronous Receiver-
15. The separation of control functions from Transmitter
signal switching is known as: 29. ISDN stands for: b. Unidirectional Asynchronous Receiver-
a. step-by-step switching control a. Integrated Services Digital Network Transmitter
b. crossbar control b. Information Services Digital Network c. Unaltered Received Text
c. common control c. Integrated Services Data Network d. Universal Automatic Receiver for Text
d. ESS d. Information Systems Digital Network
10. In asynchronous transmission, the
16. The typical voltage across a telephone 30. Basic ISDN has not been widely adopted transmitter and receiver are:
when on-hook is: because: a. frame-by-frame synchronized using the
a. 48 volts DC c. 90 volts DC a. it took to long to develop data bits
b. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC d. 90 volts, 20 hertz b. it is too slow b. frame-by-frame synchronized using a
AC c. it has been surpassed by newer common clock
technologies
c. frame-by-frame synchronized using the c. Forward Error Correction d. all of the above
start and stop bits d. False Error Condition
d. not synchronized at all, hence the name 7. Each computer on a network is called a:
"asynchronous" 22. VRC is another name for: a. hub c. node
a. FEC c. LRC b. token d. circuit
11. In asynchronous transmission, the time b. ARQ d. parity
between consecutive frames is: 8. Compared to CSMA/CD systems, token-
a. equal to zero 23. CRC stands for: passing rings are:
b. equal to one bit-time a. Control Receiver Code a. slower c. not as widely used
c. equal to the start and stop bit-times b. Correct Received Character b. more expensive d. all of the above
d. not a set length c. Cyclic Redundancy Check
d. Cycle Repeat Character 9. The key feature of a star network is that
12. In synchronous transmission, the frames individual workstations are connected to:
are: 24. Huffman codes: a. a central ring c. a node
a. about the same length as ten a. allow errors to be detected but not b. a central bus d. none of the above
asynchronous frames corrected
b. much longer than asynchronous frames b. allow errors to be detected and corrected 10. On networks, long messages are divided
c. 128 bytes long c. allow alphanumeric data to be corrected into "chunks" called:
d. 1024 bytes long d. allow alphanumeric data to be a. packets c. carriers
compressed b. nodes d. tokens
13. Synchronous transmission is used
because: 25. Run-length encoding is used to: 11. When two or more PCs try to access a
a. no start and stop bits means higher a. encrypt data c. correct data baseband network cable at the same time, it
efficiency b. compress data d. none of the is called:
b. it is cheaper than asynchronous since no above a. a collision c. excess traffic
UARTS are required b. contention d. multiple access
c. it is easier to implement than 26. Public-key encryption:
asynchronous a. allows the use of digital signatures 12. When two PCs send data over a
d. all of the above c. avoids the "password problem" baseband network cable at the same time, it
b. is used to convey symmetric keys is called:
14. In synchronous transmission, the receiver d. all of the above a. a collision c. excess traffic
"syncs-up" with the transmitter by using: b. contention d. multiple access
a. the clock bits c. the CRC bits 27. SDLC stands for:
b. the data bits d. a separate a. Synchronous Data Link Control 13. One type of network that never has a
clock line b. Synchronous Data Line Control collision is:
c. Synchronous Data Link Character a. CSMA c. token-passing
15. To maintain synchronization in d. Synchronous Data Line Character b. Ethernet d. all networks have
synchronous transmission: collisions
a. long strings of 1s and 0s must not be 28. HDLC is:
allowed a. a bit-oriented protocol c. an ISO standard 14. In an Ethernet-based network, a switch
b. transmission must stop periodically for b. based on SDLC d. all of can be used to reduce the number of:
resynchronization the above a. nodes c. packets
c. the clock circuits must be precisely b. users d. collisions
adjusted Chapter 10: Local Area Networks
d. the channel must be noise-free 15. The effect of too many collisions is:
1. CSMA stands for: a. the network goes down c. the cable
16. BISYNC: a. Client-Server Multi-Access overheats
a. is an IBM product b. Carrier Sense Multiple Access b. the network slows down d. data is
b. is a character-oriented protocol c. Carrier Server Master Application lost
c. requires the use of DLE d. none of the above
d. all of the above 16. MAU stands for:
2. The CD in CSMA/CD stands for: a. Multistation Access Unit
17. HDLC: a. Carrier Detection b. Multiple Access Unit
a. is an IBM product b. Carrier Delay c. Multiple Auxiliary Units
b. is a bit-oriented protocol c. Collision Detection d. none of the above
c. is identical to SDLC d. Collision Delay
d. all of the above
3. The Internet is: 17. The standard that describes Ethernet-
18. The use of flags in SDLC requires: a. a network of networks type networks is:
a. "bit-stuffing" b. a very large client-server network a. EIA 232 c. IEEE 802.3
b. different flags at either end of a frame c. a very large CSMA/CD network b. IEEE 488.1 d. CCITT ITU-E
c. FEC d. not really a network at all
d. ARQ 18. Ethernet was invented by:
4. Most LANs: a. IBM c. Xerox
19. The initials ARQ are used to designate: a. are based on Ethernet c. use UTP cable b. INTEL d. Digital Equipment
a. automatic request for resynchronization b. use CSMA/CD d. all of the above Corporation
b. automatic request for retransmission
c. automatic receiver queue 5. Dumb terminals are still used: 19. An Ethernet running at 10 Mbits / second
d. automatic request for queue a. in token-passing networks uses:
b. in networks requiring central monitoring a. Manchester encoding c. NRZ encoding
20. ARQ is used to: c. in networks that cannot provide central b. Three-Level encoding d. AMI encoding
a. correct bit errors monitoring
b. correct synchronization problems d. none of the above 20. A 100BaseT cable uses:
c. put data into a temporary buffer a. fiber-optic cable
d. none of the above 6. In a circuit-switched network: b. twisted-pair copper wires
a. communication is half-duplex only c. RG-58U coaxial cable
21. FEC stands for: b. each channel carries only one data stream d. 50-ohm coaxial cable
a. Fixed Error Control c. connection is usually done using a bus
b. Forward Error Control topology 21. The word "Base" in 10BaseT means:
a. the cable carries baseband signals b. use coaxial cables 10. A bridge:
b. the cable has a base speed of 10 Mbps c. are provided by cable TV companies for a. separates a network into "collision
c. it can be used as the base for a backbone Internet access domains"
cable system d. all of the above b. looks at the address of each packet
d. none of the above c. operate at the data-link level
32. Using one node in the network to hold all d. all of the above
22. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a the application software is done in:
minimum length for packets is: a. peer-to-peer networks c. both a and b 11. IP stands for:
a. to increase the data rate b. client-server networks d. NOTA a. Internet Process c. Interconnect Protocol
b. to prevent packets from reaching all other b. Internet Protocol d. Interconnect
nodes during transmission 33. Record locking is used to: Procedure
c. to make sure all other nodes hear a a. store records securely on a server
collision in progress b. prevent multiple users from looking at a 12. TCP stands for:
d. all of the above document simultaneously a. Transmission Control Process
c. prevent one user from reading a record b. Transmission Control Protocol
23. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a that another user is writing to c. Transfer Connection Protocol
maximum length for cables is: d. none of the above d. none of the above
a. to increase the data rate
b. to prevent packets from reaching all other 34. The software that runs a client-server 13. Together, TCP/IP consists of:
nodes during transmission network must be: a. 5 layers c. an application and a process
c. to make sure all other nodes hear a a. UNIX-based c. multitasking b. 7 layers d. datagrams
collision in progress b. WINDOWS-based d. Novell certified
d. all of the above 14. IP is a:
35. A "thin" client is: a. connection-oriented protocol
24. NIC stands for: a. basically, a PC with no disk drives b. virtual circuit
a. Network Interface Card b. a node that rarely sends data c. connectionless protocol
b. Network Interface Cable c. same as a "dumb" terminal d. non-robust protocol
c. Network Interface Code d. all of the above
d. Network Internal Code 15. The "lifetime" of a packet in an IP
Chapter 11: Wide-Area Networks and network:
25. 10BaseT cable typically uses: the Internet a. is essentially forever
a. a BNC connector b. depends on elapsed time since
b. a T connector 1. MAN stands for: transmission
c. an RJ45 connector a. Manchester Access Network c. depends on number of "hops" between
d. an RS11 connector b. Multiple-Area Network nodes
c. Metropolitan-Area Network d. is approximately 200 milliseconds
26. UTP stands for: d. Multiple Access Network
a. Untwisted-Pair copper wire 16. UDP stands for:
b. Unshielded Twisted-Pair copper wire 2. Packet switching is based on: a. User Datagram Protocol
c. Uninterruptible Terminal Packet a. store-and-forward b. User Data Protocol
d. Unicode Text Packet b. switched circuits c. User Data Packet
c. real-time delivery d. Universal Data Packet
27. Compared to twisted-pair telephone d. all of the above
cables, CAT-5 cables: 17. HTTP stands for:
a. are cheaper 3. SNA stands for: a. High-speed Transmission Test Procedure
b. are easier to crimp connectors onto a. Standard Network Access b. High-Level Transfer Test Procedure
c. allow faster bit rates b. Small Network Access c. Hypertext Transmission and Transport
d. all of the above c. Standard Network Architecture Procedure
d. Systems Network Architecture d. Hypertext Transport Protocol
28. A hub:
a. sends incoming packets out to all other 4. The number of layers in ISO OSI is: 18. HTTP allows the use of:
terminals connected to it a. 3 c. 7 a. dumb terminals c. browsers
b. sends incoming packets out to specific b. 5 d. 8 b. file transport d. NOTA
ports
c. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type 5. The lowest-level layer in ISO OSI is called 19. HTML stands for:
network the: a. Hypertext Markup Language
d. are more common in token-passing a. physical layer c. cable layer b. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Level
networks b. link layer d. transport layer c. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Layer
d. High-speed Transfer-Mode Language
29. A switch: 6. Bad frames are usually detected by the:
a. sends incoming packets out to all other a. frame layer c. error-check layer 20. HTML allows:
terminals connected to it b. physical layer d. link layer a. telneting c. web page layout
b. sends incoming packets out to specific b. high-speed file transfer d. all of the above
ports 7. A virtual circuit is set up by the:
c. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type a. user c. network 21. FTP stands for:
network b. link layer d. frame a. File Transfer Protocol c. File Test
d. are more common in token-passing Procedure
networks 8. Frame Relay: b. File Transport Protocol d. Fast Transport
a. is faster than X.25 Packet
30. An advantage of using a switch instead b. does less error checking than X.25
of a hub is: c. allows for variable length packets 22. FTP is used to:
a. it is cheaper when used in large networks d. all of the above a. transfer files between a server on the
b. it is faster when used in large networks network and a user
c. it reduces the number of collisions in large 9. ATM stands for: b. test files to see if their data has been
networks a. Asynchronous Transfer Mode "corrupted"
d. all of the above b. Asynchronous Transmission Mode c. transport packets at maximum speed
c. Asynchronous Transmission Model through the network
31. Broadband LANs: d. Automatic Test Mode d. none of the above
a. modulate the data onto a carrier
23. SMTP stands for: d. the eye alternately opens and closes
a. Short Message Transport Protocol 20. MNP5 and V.42 bis are both:
b. Simple Message Transport Protocol 7. What you see in an eye pattern is the a. data-compression schemes
c. Simple Mail Transport Protocol effect of: b. error-correction protocols
d. Secondary Mail Transfer Procedure a. too many bits high c. both a and b
b. too many bits low d. none of the above
24. ISP stands for: c. intermodulation distortion
a. Internet Service Protocol d. intersymbol interference 21. In RS-232, flow control is done using:
b. Internet Service Provider a. RTS/CTS handshake c. both a and b
c. Internet Service Procedure 8. High-frequency radioteletype systems b. XON/XOFF characters d. NOTA
d. none of the above commonly use:
a. FSK c. PSK 22. The official name for RS-232C is:
25. The standard Internet address (or URL) b. AFSK d. QAM a. RS-232C c. ISO-232C/D
is: b. EIA-232D d. ANSI-232C
a. a 32-bit binary number 9. Instead of a single bit, a QPSK symbol
b. four groups of base-ten numbers contains: 23. In RS-232, a modem would be:
c. running out of available values a. a byte c. a dibit a. a DTR c. a DCE
d. all of the above b. 4 bits d. a Q-bit b. a DSR d. a DTE

26. DNS stands for: 10. To reduce the need for linearity, /4 24. In RS-232, a personal computer would
a. Domain Name Server DQPSK uses: be:
b. Domain Name System a. angles of 0, 90, 180, and 270 degrees a. a DTR c. a DCE
c. Domain Numbering System b. angles of 45, 135, 225, and 315 degrees b. a DSR d. a DTE
d. Domain Naming System c. angles of /4, 2/4, 3/4, and 4/4
d. double phase-shift angles 25. On a DB-9 RS-232 connector, signal
27. A DNS: ground is pin:
a. has become obsolete on the Internet 11. For QAM, a "constellation diagram" a. 1 c. 5
b. translates words to numbers shows: b. 3 d. 7
c. stores all domain addresses a. location of symbols in "symbol space"
d. describes the Internet address-naming b. separation of symbols in "symbol space" 26. On a DB-25 RS-232 connector, signal
procedure c. effects of noise on symbols ground is pin:
d. all of the above a. 1 c. 5
28. An intranet connected to the Internet is b. 3 d. 7
often protected by: 12. For QAM, the two dimensions of its
a. a DNS c. a "firewall" symbol space are: 27. The minimum lines required for RS-232
b. a "brick wall" d. the use of "spoofing" a. amplitude and frequency are:
protocols b. amplitude and phase angle a. TD and RD
c. frequency and phase angle b. TD, RD, and signal ground
29. OSI stands for: d. I-bits and Q-bits c. TD, RD, DSR, and signal ground
a. Open Systems Interconnection d. TD, RD, RTS, CTS, and signal ground
b. Open Standard Interconnection 13. The specs of the old Bell type 103
c. Open Systems Internet modem were: 28. Hardware flow control uses:
d. none of the above a. 300 bps, full-duplex, FSK a. XON and XOFF c. RTS and CTS
b. 600 bps, full-duplex, FSK b. TD and RD d. DSR and DCD
Chapter 12: Digital Modulation and c. 1200 bps, full-duplex, FSK
Modems d. 1200 bps, half-duplex, FSK 29. Software flow control uses:
a. XON and XOFF c. RTS and CTS
1. FSK stands for: 14. ITU is an abbreviation for: b. TD and RD d. DSR and DCD
a. Full-Shift Keying c. Full-Signal a. International Telephony Unit
Keying b. International Telephony Union 30. Which voltage represents a binary zero
b. Frequency-Shift Keying d. NOTA c. International Telecommunications Union on an RS-232 data pin:
d. International Telecommunications Units a. +15 volts c. +9 volts
2. PSK stands for: b. +12 volts d. all of the above
a. Pulse-Signal Keying 15. The ITU is under the auspices of:
b. Pulse-Shift Keying a. CCITT c. IEEE 31. DSL stands for:
c. Phase-Signal Keying b. the U.N. d. ANSI a. Data Signal Line c. Digital Subscriber
d. Phase-Shift Keying Line
16. High-speed modems equalize the line to b. Digital Signal Line d. Double-Speed Loop
3. QAM stands for: compensate for:
a. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation a. noise and interference 32. ADSL stands for:
b. Quadrature Amplitude Masking b. uneven phase and frequency response a. Asynchronous DSL c. Analog DSL
c. Quadrature Amplitude Marking c. low SNR b. Asymmetrical DSL d. All DSL
d. none of the above d. inconsistent bit rates at either end of
channel 33. In a CATV system, HFC stands for:
4. In the equation I = ktB, I is measured in: a. Head Frequency Control
a. amperes c. bits 17. The bits sent to allow equalization are b. Hybrid Frequency Control
b. amperes per second d. bits per second called: c. Hybrid Fiber-Coax
a. Gaussian bits c. a training sequence d. Hybrid Fiber Control
5. In the equation C = 2Blog2M, M is the: b. random bits d. a random sequence
a. margin of noise 34. In a CATV system, CMTS stands for:
b. modulation index 18. The V.90 standard is issued by: a. Cable Modem Terminal Server
c. number of possible states per symbol a. the EIA c. the ITU b. Cable Modem Transmission System
d. maximum number of symbols per second b. the TIA d. the ISO c. Cable Modem Terminal System
d. Cable Modem Transmission Server
6. An "eye pattern" shows a good channel 19. MNP2, MNP3, MNP4, and MNP10 are all:
when: a. data-compression schemes 35. A "splitter" at the subscriber end is not
a. the eye is maximally open b. error-correction protocols required for:
b. the eye is maximally closed c. both a and b a. Any DSL scheme c. ADSL Lite
c. the eye is half open d. none of the above b. ADSL d. NOTA
 14. For a given data rate, direct-sequence b. decreases d. changes periodically
Chapter 13: Multiplexing and Multiple- systems, compared to standard RF systems,
Access Techniques use: 6. The effect of frequency on the resistance
a. about the same bandwidth of a wire is called:
1. TDMA stands for: b. much more bandwidth a. I2R loss c. the skin effect
a. Time Domain Multiple Access c. much less bandwidth b. the Ohmic effect d. there is no such
b. Time-Division Multiple Access d. approximately double the bandwidth effect
c. Tone Division Multiple Access
d. none of the above 15. "Processing gain" is another term for: 7. As frequency increases, the loss in a
a. RF gain cable's dielectric:
2. CDMA stands for: b. computer speed a. increases c. stays the same
a. Code-Division Multiple Access c. spreading gain b. decreases d. there is no loss in a
b. Carrier Division Multiple Access d. improved signal-to-noise ratio dielectric
c. Compact Digital Multiplex Arrangement
d. none of the above 16. To calculate processing gain, divide the 8. The characteristic impedance of a cable
transmitted RF bandwidth by: depends on:
3. TDMA is used instead of TDM when: a. the digital data bit rate a. the resistance per foot of the wire used
a. all the signals come from the same source b. bandwidth of original baseband b. the resistance per foot and the inductance
b. the signals come from different sources c. the S/N ratio per foot
c. TDM is used in RF communications d. the chip size c. the resistance per foot and the
d. they mean the same thing capacitance per foot
17. A receiver for frequency-hopping spread- d. the inductance per foot and the
4. When calculating the maximum number of spectrum would be: capacitance per foot
users, a limiting factor in FDM is: a. a narrowband receiver
a. the type of media used b. a wideband receiver 9. For best matching, the load on a cable
b. the length of the channel c. a direct-conversion receiver should be:
c. the bandwidth of each signal d. a CDMA receiver a. lower than Z0 c. equal to Z0
d. all of the above b. higher than Z0 d. 50
18. A receiver for direct-sequence spread- ohms
5. A DS-1 signal contains: spectrum would be:
a. 12 channels c. 32 channels a. a narrowband receiver 10. The characteristic impedance of a cable:
b. 24 channels d. 64 channels b. a wideband receiver a. increases with length
c. a direct-conversion receiver b. increases with frequency
6. The bit-rate of a DS-1 signal over a T-1 line d. a "chip-rate" receiver c. increases with voltage
is: d. none of the above
a. 64 kbps c. 1.536 Mbps 19. CDMA:
b. 256 kbps d. 1.544 Mbps a. cannot be used with frequency-hopping 11. The velocity factor of a cable depends
spread-spectrum mostly on:
7. Besides data bits, a DS-1 frame contains b. cannot be used with direct-sequence a. the wire resistance
a: spread-spectrum b. the dielectric constant
a. timing bit c. signaling bit c. cannot be used on an RF channel c. the inductance per foot
b. T-bit d. framing bit d. allows many transmitters to use a band d. all of the above
simultaneously
8. In DS-1, a bit is "stolen" out of each 12. A positive voltage pulse sent down a
channel: 20. For optimal performance, CDMA requires transmission line terminated in a short-
a. every frame c. every sixth the use of: circuit:
frame a. orthogonal PN sequences a. would reflect as a positive pulse
b. every other frame d. every twelfth b. non-orthogonal PN sequences b. would reflect as a negative pulse
frame c. true-random PN sequences d. none of the c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed
above by a negative pulse
9. Moving signals from one line to another is Chapter 14: Transmission Lines d. would not reflect at all
called:
a. time switching c. line switching 1. SWR stands for: 13. A positive voltage pulse sent down a
b. space switching d. cross-point a. Shorted Wave Radiation transmission line terminated with its
switching b. Sine Wave Response characteristic impedance:
c. Shorted Wire Region a. would reflect as a positive pulse
10. Moving PCM samples from one time-slot d. none of the above b. would reflect as a negative pulse
to another is called: c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed
a. time switching c. signal switching 2. TDR stands for: by a negative pulse
b. space switching d. crosspoint switching a. Total Distance of Reflection d. would not reflect at all
b. Time-Domain Reflectometer
11. A digital space switch is a: c. Time-Domain Response 14. A positive voltage-pulse sent down a
a. multiplexer c. computerized Strowger d. Transmission Delay Ratio transmission line terminated in an open-
switch circuit:
b. TDM switch d. crosspoint switch 3. An example of an unbalanced line is: a. would reflect as a positive pulse
a. a coaxial cable b. would reflect as a negative pulse
12. Spread-spectrum can be done by using: b. 300-ohm twin-lead TV cable c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed
a. computer-controlled frequency reuse c. an open-wire-line cable by a negative pulse
b. frequency-hopping d. all of the above d. would not reflect at all
c. direct-sequence method 15. The optimum value for SWR is:
d. all of the above 4. When analyzing a transmission line, its a. zero c. as large as possible
inductance and capacitance are considered b. one d. there is no optimum
13. The term "chip rate" is used in to be: value
describing: a. lumped c. equal reactances
a. computer-controlled frequency reuse b. distributed d. ideal elements 16. A non-optimum value for SWR will cause:
b. frequency-hopping a. standing waves
c. direct-sequence method 5. As frequency increases, the resistance of a b. loss of power to load
d. all of the above wire: c. higher voltage peaks on cable
a. increases c. stays the same d. all of the above
 5. Which of the following are a. reflection c. refraction
17. VSWR stands for: electromagnetic: b. diffusion d. diffraction
a. variable SWR c. voltage SWR a. radio waves c. gamma waves
b. vacuum SWR d. NOTA b. light d. all of the above 18. Space waves are:
a. line-of-sight
18. The impedance "looking into" a matched 6. The electric and magnetic fields of a radio b. reflected off the ionosphere
line: wave are: c. same as sky waves
a. is infinite c. is the characteristic a. perpendicular to each other d. radio waves used for satellite
impedance b. perpendicular to the direction of travel communications
b. is zero d. 50 ohms c. both a and b
d. none of the above 19. Sky waves:
19. A Smith Chart is used to calculate: a. are line-of-sight
a. transmission line impedances 7. TEM stands for: b. "bounce" off the ionosphere
b. propagation velocity a. Transverse Electromagnetic c. are same as space waves
c. optimum length of a transmission line b. Transmitted Electromagnetic d. are radio waves used for satellite
d. transmission line losses c. True Electromagnetic communications
d. none of the above
20. Compared to a 300-ohm line, the loss of 20. Sky waves cannot be "heard":
a 50-ohm cable carrying the same power: 8. In free space, radio waves travel at a a. close to the transmitter c. in the "silent"
a. would be less c. would be the same speed of: zone
b. would be more d. cannot be a. 3 x 106
meters per second b. far from the transmitter d. in the
compared b. 300 x 106
meters per second "skip" zone
c. 3 x 106
miles per second
21. A balanced load can be connected to an d. 300 x 106 miles per second 21. A 20-dB reduction in the strength of a
unbalanced cable: radio wave due to reflection is called:
a. directly c. by using a "balun" 9. Which is a possible polarization for an a. fading c. frequency diversity
b. by using a filter d. cannot be electromagnetic wave: b. diffraction d. spatial diversity
connected a. vertical c. circular
b. horizontal d. all of the above 22. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example
22. On a Smith Chart, you "normalize" the of:
impedance by: 10. Which polarization can be reasonably a. fading c. multipath distortion
a. assuming it to be zero well received by a circularly polarized b. diffraction d. cancellation due to
b. dividing it by 2 antenna: reflection
c. multiplying it by 2 a. vertical c. circular
d. dividing it by Z0 b. horizontal d. all of the above 23. A "repeater" is used to:
a. send a message multiple times over a
23. The radius of the circle you draw on a 11. The number of circular polarization channel
Smith Chart represents: modes (directions) is: b. send a message over multiple channels at
a. the voltage c. the impedance a. 1 c. 3 the same time
b. the current d. none of the above b. 2 d. many c. extend the range of a radio
communications system
24. The center of the Smith Chart always 12. An antenna has "gain" as compared to: d. cancel the effects of fading
represents: a. an isotropic radiator
a. zero c. the characteristic impedance b. a vertically polarized radiator 24. Cellular phone systems rely on:
b. one d. none of the above c. a ground-wave antenna a. high power c. the radio horizon
d. none of the above b. repeaters d. the reuse of frequencies
25. A TDR is commonly used to:
a. measure the characteristic impedance of a 13. EIRP stands for: 25. If the number of cell-phone users within a
cable a. the E and I fields of the Radiated Power cell increases above some limit:
b. find the position of a defect in a cable b. the Effective Isotropic Radiated Power a. the cell area is increased
c. replace a slotted-line c. the Effective Internal Reflected Power b. the cell area is split
d. all of the above d. the Electric-field Intensity of the Radiated c. the power levels are increased
Power d. the number of channels is reduced
Chapter 15: Radio-Wave Propagation
14. The "attenuation of free space" is due to: 26. As a cell-phone user passes from one cell
1. Radio waves were first predicted a. losses in the characteristic impedance of to another:
mathematically by: free space a. a "handoff" process occurs
a. Armstrong c. Maxwell b. losses due to absorption in the upper b. a "sectoring" process occurs
b. Hertz d. Marconi atmosphere c. both cells will handle the call
c. the decrease in energy per square meter d. nothing occurs
2. Radio waves were first demonstrated due to expansion of the wavefront
experimentally by: d. the decrease in energy per square meter 27. To receive several data streams at once,
a. Armstrong c. Maxwell due to absorption of the wavefront a CDMA spread-spectrum system uses:
b. Hertz d. Marconi a. a "funnel" receiver c. multiple receivers
15. Ground waves are most effective: b. a "rake" receiver d. NOTA
3. The technology that made cell phones a. below about 2 MHz
practical was: b. above about 20 MHz 28. The troposphere is the:
a. the microprocessor chip c. at microwave frequencies a. highest layer of the atmosphere
b. the miniature cell-site d. when using horizontally polarized waves b. middle layer of the atmosphere
c. high-power microwave transmitters c. lowest layer of the atmosphere
d. all of the above 16. Radio waves would most strongly reflect d. the most ionized layer of the atmosphere
off: 29. Meteor-trail propagation is:
4. Cell phones reduce much of the problems a. a flat insulating surface of the right size a. used for radio telephony
of mobile communications with: b. a flat dielectric surface of the right size b. used to send data by radio
a. high power levels c. reuse of c. a flat metallic surface of the right size c. also called "ducting"
frequencies d. a flat body of water d. not possible
b. high antennas d. all of the above
17. Radio waves sometimes "bend" around a Chapter 16: Antenna
corner because of:
1. The real part of an antenna's input 14. A nonresonant antenna:
impedance is due to: a. will not transmit 4. The dominant mode of a rectangular
a. the radiated signal c. the SWR b. will not receive waveguide is:
b. the reflected signal d. all of the above c. will cause SWR on the feed cable a. TE 01 c. TE 10
d. all of the above b. TM 01 d. TM10
2. A half-wave dipole is sometimes called:
a. a Marconi antenna c. a Yagi antenna 15. At resonance, the input impedance to a 5. The dominant mode of a circular
b. a Hertz antenna d. none of the above lossless antenna should be: waveguide is:
a. resistive c. capacitive a. TE 01 c. TE 11
3. The end-to-end length of a half-wave b. inductive d. infinite b. TM 01 d. TM11
dipole antenna is actually:
a. one wavelength 16. An antenna can be matched to a feed 6. Circular waveguides use TM 01 mode
b. one half-wavelength line using: because:
c. slightly longer than a half-wavelength a. a shorted stub c. an LC network a. it is dominant c. it is the only mode
d. slightly shorter than a half-wavelength b. a loading coil d. all of the above possible
b. of its circular symmetry d. it is more
4. The radiation of energy from an antenna 17. As the length of a "long-wire" antenna is efficient
can be seen in the: increased:
a. standing wave pattern around the antenna a. the number of lobes increases 7. The characteristic impedance of a
b. SWR along the feed cable b. the number of nodes decreases waveguide:
c. radiation resistance of the antenna c. efficiency decreases a. is fixed
d. I2R loss of the antenna d. none of the above b. depends on the frequency it carries
c. depends on the longer dimension of its
5. Measured on the ground, the field strength 18. Arrays can be: cross section
of a horizontally polarized half-wave dipole a. phased c. parasitic d. both b and c
antenna is b. driven d. all of the above
strongest: 8. Power can be coupled into or out of a
a. in one direction 19. An array with one driven element, a waveguide:
b. in two directions reflector, and one or more directors is called a. with a magnetic field probe
c. in all directions a: b. with an electric field probe
d. depends on the number of elements a. Marconi c. Log-Periodic Dipole c. through a hole in the waveguide
b. Yagi d. stacked array d. all of the above
6. The ability of an antenna to radiate more
energy in one direction than in other 20. LPDA stands for: 9. Directional couplers for waveguides are
directions is called: a. Low-Power Dipole Array characterized by:
a. directivity c. active antenna b. Low-Power Directed Array a. their insertion loss
b. selectivity d. resonance c. Log-Periodic Dipole Array b. their coupling specification
d. Log Power Dipole Array c. their directivity
7. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave d. all of the above
dipole antenna is: 21. The radiated beam from a parabolic
a. 0 dB c. 10 dB "dish" transmitting antenna is: 10. Striplines and microstrips are used to:
b. 3 dB d. infinite a. collimated c. dispersed a. couple sections of waveguide
b. phased d. none of the above b. couple waveguides to antennas
8. An antenna's beamwidth is measured: c. couple components on a circuit board
a. from +90to 90 22. The energy picked up by a parabolic d. none of the above
b. from front to back antenna is concentrated at the:
c. between half-power points a. center c. focus 11. A resonant cavity is a type of:
d. between the minor side-lobes b. edges d. horn a. tuned circuit c. antenna
b. defect in a waveguide d. none of the
9. ERP stands for: 23. Antennas are often tested in: above
a. Equivalent Radiation Pattern a. an echo chamber
b. Effective Radiation Pattern b. an anechoic chamber 12. A TEE connector used with waveguides
c. Equivalent Radiated Power c. a vacuum chamber is:
d. Effective Radiated Power d. an RF reflective chamber a. an H-plane TEE c. a
"magic" TEE
10. "Ground Effects" refers to the effects on 24. Field strength at a distance from an b. an E-plane TEE d. all of
an antenna's radiation pattern caused by: antenna is measured with: the above
a. radio signals reflecting off the ground a. a slotted line c. an EIRP meter
b. buildings and other structures on the b. a dipole d. a field-strength meter 13. TWT stands for:
ground a. Transverse Wave Transmission
c. fading Chapter 17: Microwave Devices b. Transverse-Wave Tube
d. faulty connection of the feed cable ground c. Traveling-Wave Tube
1. The microwave frequency range is d. Traveling-Wave Transmission
11. A 1-MHz monopole antenna must be: considered to start at:
a. mounted vertically a. 100 MHz c. 10 GHz 14. An "isolator" is a device that:
b. mounted horizontally b. 1 GHz d. 100 GHz a. isolates frequencies in a waveguide
c. at least one half-wavelength long b. allows a signal to pass in one direction
d. at least one wavelength long 2. The UHF range is: only
a. below the microwave range c. separates signals among various ports
12. The typical antenna in an AM radio is a: b. inside the microwave range d. prevents microwaves from leaking out of a
a. dipole c. ferrite "loop-stick" c. above the microwave range waveguide
b. folded dipole d. none of the above d. same as the microwave range
15. A "circulator" is a device that:
13. The polarization of plane waves received 3. The dominant mode of a waveguide a. rotates signal polarity in a waveguide
from a satellite is changed by: depends on: b. allows a signal to pass in one direction
a. gamma rays c. helical rotation a. the shape of the waveguide only
b. Faraday Rotation d. the distance b. the power level of the signal c. separates signals among various ports
traveled c. the point of signal injection d. prevents microwaves from being "trapped"
d. none of the above in a waveguide
 3. The typical reliability of a microwave
16. GaAs stands for: system is: 17. MMDS stands for:
a. gallium arsenide c. gallium astenite a. 90% c. 99.9% a. Multichannel Microwave Distribution
b. gallium assembly d. NOTA b. 99% d. 99.99% System
b. Multipoint Microwave Distribution System
17. IMPATT stands for: 4. A typical microwave system uses a c. Multichannel Multipoint Distribution
a. impact avalanche and transit time transmitted power of about: System
b. induced mobility at transmission time a. 2 watts c. 200 watts d. Multiple Microwave Distribution Systems
c. implied power at transmission terminal b. 20 watts d. none of the above
d. none of the above 18. LMDS stands for:
5. In analog microwave systems, additional a. Local Microwave Distribution System
18. YIG stands for: repeaters increase the: b. Local Multipoint Distribution System
a. Yttrium-Iron-Gallium a. reliability c. jitter c. Local Multichannel Distribution System
b. Yttrium-Iron-Germanium b. noise level d. all of the above d. Low-power Microwave Distribution System
c. Yttrium-Iron-Garnet
d. none of the above 6. In digital microwave systems, additional 19. LMDS is:
repeaters increase the: a. bidirectional c. multidirectional
19. A YIG can be tuned by applying: a. reliability c. jitter b. unidirectional d. none of the
a. an electric field b. noise level d. all of the above above
b. a magnetic field
c. mechanical pressure 7. LOS stands for: Chapter 19: Television
d. an "exciter" signal a. Loss Of Skip c. Line-Of-Sight
b. Loss Of Signal d. Line-Of-Signal 1. NTSC stands for:
20. The device commonly used in microwave a. National Television Systems Commission
ovens is the: 8. Too much antenna gain causes: b. National Television Systems Committee
a. TWT c. magnetron a. a very narrow microwave beam c. National Television Systems Council
b. klystron d. YIG b. a very wide microwave beam d. Nippon Television Systems Commission
c. excessive noise
21. The device commonly used in satellite d. jitter 2. The NTSC specification was drawn up by
communications is the: the:
a. TWT c. magnetron 9. The microwave signal path should clear a. FCC c. EIA
b. klystron d. YIG obstacles by at least: b. IRE d. IEEE
a. 60% of the Faraday zone
22. The device commonly used in UHF b. 60% of the Fresnel zone 3. RGB stands for:
transmitters is the: c. 60% of the height of the antenna tower a. Red-Green Burst c. Red-Green
a. TWT c. magnetron d. 60% of the highest obstacle height Bandwidth
b. klystron d. YIG b. Red-Green Brightness d. Red-Green-Blue
10. Satisfactory performance of an analog
23. A microwave phased array is often made microwave system is defined as: 4. The number of scan lines in an NTSC
using: a. a carrier-to-noise ratio that exceeds a signal is:
a. slots c. Fresnel lenses given value a. 525 c. 1024
b. Yagis d. all of the above b. an ERP level that exceeds a given value b. 625 d. 1250
c. an energy-per-hertz level that exceeds a
24. RADAR stands for: given value 5. The number of NTSC frames sent per
a. radio ranging d. none of the above second is:
b. radio depth and ranging a. 25 c. 50
c. radio detection and ranging 11. Satisfactory performance of a digital b. 30 d. 60
d. remote detection and ranging microwave system requires a:
a. low level of transmitted power 6. The number of NTSC fields sent per
25. RADAR uses: b. high level of ERP second is:
a. pulsed transmission c. the Doppler effect c. good energy per bit per transmitted Watt a. 25 c. 50
b. continuous transmission d. all of ratio b. 30 d. 60
the above d. good energy per bit per noise density ratio
7. The aspect ratio of a standard TV receiver
26. The maximum effective range for pulsed 12. Fading is caused by: is:
radar: a. multipath reception c. ducting a. 3 : 4 c. 525 : 625
a. increases with increasing repetition rate b. attenuation due to weather d. AOTA b. 4 : 3 d. 625 : 525
b. decreases with increasing repetition rate
c. decreases with increasing pulse period 13. The effects of fading due to multipath 8. Luminance refers to:
d. none of the above reception are often reduced using: a. brightness c. chroma
a. diversity c. high-gain antennas b. contrast d. raster
27. The minimum effective range for pulsed b. power d. all of the above
radar: 9. Luminance is measured in:
a. increases with increasing pulse duration 14. Repeaters are used in a microwave a. foot-candles c. IRE units
b. decreases with increasing pulse duration system: b. lumins d. NTSC units
c. is always a tenth of the maximum range a. always c. above 10 GHz
d. none of the above b. when distance exceeds line-of-sight 10. The maximum luminance level is called:
Chapter 18: Terrestrial Microwave d. below 10 GHz a. max white c. all white
Communication Systems b. peak white d. whiter than white
15. Microwave repeaters can be:
1. Another term for a single microwave link is a. IF type c. regenerative type 11. The blanking level corresponds to a
a: b. baseband type d. all of the above luminance of:
a. section c. skip a. white c. whiter than white
b. hop d. jump 16. An advantage of digital techniques over b. black d. blacker than black
analog in a microwave systemis
2. Microwave systems use: a. less bandwidth is required 12. The sync pulse level corresponds to a
a. FM c. QAM b. accumulation of noise is reduced luminance of:
b. SSB d. all of the above c. it requires less power a. white c. whiter than white
d. all of the above b. black d. blacker than black
 b. much higher d. color CRTs use magnetic b. down-beam signal
13. The vertical blanking pulse is serrated to: acceleration c. direct-broadcast system
a. maintain horizontal sync d. direct-broadcast satellite
b. maintain vertical sync 25. Deflection in CRTs used in TV receivers is
c. equalize the DC level done: 11. LNA stands for:
d. all of the above a. magnetically for both vertical and a. low-noise amplifier c. low-noise
horizontal amplitude
14. When measured in lines, horizontal b. electrostatically for both vertical and b. low north angle d. low-noise array
resolution: horizontal
a. is greater than vertical resolution c. electrostatically for vertical and 12. A reduction in TWT power for linearity is
b. is about the same as vertical resolution magnetically for horizontal called:
c. is less than vertical resolution d. magnetically for vertical and a. backdown c. power-down
d. horizontal resolution is not measured in electrostatically for horizontal b. backoff d. EIRP drop
lines
26. AFPC stands for: 13. TVRO stands for:
15. The smallest picture element is called a: a. allowed full picture chroma a. television receive only
a. dot c. pixel b. automatic frequency and phase control b. television repeater only
b. pic d. none of the above c. automatic frequency and picture control c. television remote origin
d. none of the above d. none of the above
16. In a color TV receiver, Y I Q refers to:
a. luminance signal, in-phase color Chapter 20: Satellite Communications 14. TDMA stands for:
component, quadrature phase color a. transponder-directed multiple antennas
component 1. The height of the geosynchronous orbit b. television distribution master antenna
b. composite color signal, in-phase color above the equator is about: c. time-division multiple access
component, quadrature phase color a. 3,578 km c. 357,800 km d. transmit delay minimum aperture
component b. 35,780 km d. depends on satellite
c. composite video signal, in-phase video velocity 15. VSAT stands for:
component, quadrature video color a. video satellite
component 2. The high and low points of a satellite's b. video signal antenna terminal
d. a method of demodulating stereo sound orbit are called, respectively,: c. very small antenna terminal
a. apogee and perigee d. very small aperture terminal
17. Compared to the luminance signal, the b. perigee and apogee
horizontal resolution for color is: c. uplink and downlink 16. On the uplink from a terminal, a VSAT
a. much greater d. downlink and uplink system uses:
b. about the same a. high power to a small antenna
c. much less 3. The area on the earth that is "covered" by b. low power to a small antenna
d. resolution does not apply to color a satellite is called its: c. low power to a large antenna
a. earth station c. footprint d. LEO satellites
18. The modulation used for the video signal b. downlink d. plate
in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: 17. A typical VSAT system is configured as a:
a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM 4. The velocity required to stay in orbit: a. star c. ring
b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM a. is constant b. mesh d. repeater
b. is zero (freefall)
19. The modulation used for the audio signal c. is lower close to the earth than far from 18. LEO stands for:
in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: the earth a. long elliptic orbit c. lateral earth orbit
a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM d. is higher close to the earth than far from b. low-earth orbit d. longitudinal earth
b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM the earth orbit

20. The modulation used for the chroma 5. An antenna is aimed by adjusting the two 19. For real-time communication, LEO
signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver "look angles" called: systems require:
is: a. azimuth and elevation a. a constellation of satellites
a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM b. azimuth and declination b. tracking dish antennas
b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM c. declination and elevation c. very high power
d. apogee and perigee d. all of the above
21. The function of the "color burst" is to:
a. detect the presence of a color video signal 6. The power per transponder of a typical Ku- 20. The frequency bands used by Ku-band
b. regenerate the color sub-carrier band satellite is in the range: satellites are:
c. to synchronize the color demodulation line a. 5 to 25 watts c. 500 to 2500 watts a. 4 GHz and 6 GHz c. 20 GHz and 30
by line b. 50 to 250 watts d. depends on GHz
d. all of the above its orbit b. 12 GHz and 14 GHz d. NOTA

22. SAP stands for: 7. The power level for an earth station to Chapter 21: Cellular Radio
a. separate audio program transmit to a satellite is on the order of:
b. separate audio pulse a. 101 watts c. 103 watts 1. AMPS stand for:
c. sync amplitude pulse b. 102 watts d. 104 watts a. American Mobile Phone System
d. sync audio pulse b. Analog Mobile Phone Service
c. Advanced Mobile Phone System
8. The "payload" on a communications d. Advanced Mobile Phone Service
23. The horizontal output transformer is also satellite consists of:
called: a. transponders c. solar cells 2. PCS stands for:
a. the isolation transformer b. batteries d. all of the above a. Personal Communications Service
b. the video transformer 9. "Station-keeping" refers to: b. Personal Communications Systems
c. the flyback transformer a. antenna maintenance c. Personal Cell phone Service
d. the yoke b. power-level adjustments d. Portable Communications Systems
c. orbital adjustments
24. Compared to a monochrome CRT, the d. none of the above 3. RCC stands for:
accelerating voltage on a color CRT is: a. Radio Common Carrier
a. about the same c. much lower 10. DBS stands for: b. Radio Cellular Carrier
a. decibels of signal c. Regional Cellular Carrier
d. none of the above c. set the transmit power of the cell phone b. voice d. all of the above
d. select the transmit channel for the cell
4. MSC stands for: phone 6. The number of competing PCS systems in
a. Mobile Switching Center North America is:
b. Mobile Service Cellular 17. In an AMPS system, voice is sent using: a. 2 c. 4
c. Maximum Signal Carrier a. AM c. FSK b. 3 d. many
d. Minimum Signal Carrier b. FM d. CDMA
7. CDMA technology was invented by:
5. MTSO stands for: 18. In an AMPS system, control-channel a. AT&T c. Bell Labs
a. Minimum Transmitted Signal Output signals are sent using: b. Lucent d. Qualcomm
b. Maximum Transmitted Signal Output a. AM c. FSK
c. Mobile Telephone Switching Office b. FM d. CDMA 8. GSM is used in:
d. Mobile Transmission Time-Out a. Asia c. North America
19. The ERP of a typical handheld AMPS cell b. Europe d. all of the above
6. MIN stands for: phone is:
a. Manual Identification Number a. less than 600 W. c. between 1 and 2 9. In GSM, voice channels are called:
b. Mobile Identification Number watts a. traffic channels c. bearer
c. Maximum In-band Noise b. less than 600 mW. d. 4 watts channels
d. Minimum In-band Noise b. voice channels d. talking
20. BSC stands for: channels
7. NAM stands for: a. Base Station Controller
a. Numerical Access Mode b. Base Signal Controller 10. AMPS uses:
b. Numerical Assignment Mode c. Basic Service Contract a. CDMA c. spread-spectrum
c. Number Access Module d. Basic Service Code b. TDMA d. none of the
d. Number Assignment Module above
21. The combination of the mobile cell phone
8. ESN stands for: and the cell site radio equipment is called 11. Other things being equal, battery life in a
a. Electronic Serial Number the: GSM phone should be:
b. Emitted Signal Number a. BSC c. RF interface a. less than in a TDMA phone
c. Emission Strength Number b. MTSO d. air interface b. no better than in an AMPS phone
d. none of the above c. greater than in a TDMA phone
22. The optimum cell-site radius is: d. no better than a TDMA phone
9. SCM stands for: a. 2 km c. as small as possible
a. Service Class Mark b. 0.5 km d. none of the above 12. It is necessary to send control
b. Station Class Mark information on traffic channels in:
c. Signal Class Mark 23. Phone traffic is measured in: a. no PCS system c. TDMA only
d. Serial-Code Mode a. calls c. number of users b. GSM only d. both GSM and TDMA
b. erlangs d. number of blocked calls
10. SCM identifies the: 13. GSM uses:
a. code number of a cell phone 24. One way to increase the capacity of a a. frequency hopping c. CDMA
b. base-station class cell phone system is: b. direct-sequence modulation d. AOTA
c. signal classification (analog or digital) a. increase the number of cells
d. maximum power level of a cell phone b. decrease the number of cells 14. In GSM, SIM stands for:
c. increase the ERP a. Short Inbound Message
11. SID stands for: d. decrease the ERP b. Subscriber-Initiated Message
a. Sequential Interrupt Demand c. Subscriber ID Module
b. Standard Identification Number 25. CDPD stands for: d. Subscriber ID Method
c. System Identification Number a. Code-Division Packet Data
d. Signal Intensity Descriptor b. Cellular Digital Packet Data 15. IMSI stands for:
c. Coded Digital Packet Data a. Integrated Mobile Subscriber Identification
12. The SID is used by a cell phone to: d. Cellular Digital Pulse Data b. International Mobile Subscriber
a. identify the type of system (analog or Identification
digital) Chapter 22: Personal Communications c. Interim Mobile Subscriber Identification
b. recognize an AMPS system Systems d. Intermodulation System Interference
c. set its transmitted power level
d. recognize that it is "roaming" 1. Current PCS systems are referred to as: 16. IS-95 uses:
a. first-generation c. third- a. frequency hopping c. CDMA
13. DCC stands for: generation b. TDMA d. all of
a. Digital Color Code b. second-generation d. digital- the above
b. Digital Communications Code generation
c. Digital Communications Carrier 17. IS-136 uses:
d. Direct Channel Code 2. The frequency band designated for PCS in a. frequency hopping c. CDMA
North America is: b. TDMA d. all of
a. 800 MHz c. 1.9 GHz the above
14. SAT stands for: b. 900 MHz d. 12 GHz
a. Station Antenna Tower 18. In CDMA:
b. Supervisory Audio Tone 3. The "forward" PCS channel is: a. all frequencies are used in all cells
c. Supervisory Access Tone a. from the base to the mobile b. each cell uses half the available
d. none of the above b. from the mobile to the base frequencies
c. from mobile to mobile c. each cell is assigned a frequency by the
15. CMAC stands for: d. same as the uplink base
a. Control Mobile Attenuation Code d. the frequency is selected by the mobile
b. Control Mobile Access Code 4. Compared to AMPS, PCS cell sites are: phone
c. Central Mobile Access Control a. bigger c. distributed
d. Carrier Mode Attenuation Control b. smaller d. higher-power 19. CDMA uses a set of PN sequences that
are:
16. The CMAC is used to: 5. AMPS was designed for: a. common c. rotating
a. control access to the cell site a. POTS c. use built into an b. unique d. orthogonal
b. set the access code of the cell phone automobile
20. The next generation of PCS is expected b. UHF band d. infrared band b. 4 db per km d. zero loss
to have:
a. faster data rates c. wider roaming 13. TDD stands for: 8. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable
area a. Time-Division Duplex due to a splice is about:
b. Internet access d. all of b. Time-Delayed Duplex a. 0.02 dB c. 1 dB
the above c. Time Delay Difference b. 0.2 db d. 3 dB
d. Total Distance Delay
Chapter 23: Paging and Wireless Data 9. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable
Networking 14. A Bluetooth "piconet" has: due to a connector is about:
a. 2 nodes c. 2 to 8 nodes a. 0.02 dB c. 1 dB
1. Pagers use: b. 2 to 4 nodes d. 2 to 16 nodes b. 0.2 db d. 3 dB
a. the VHF band only
b. the UHF band only 15. Two or more connected piconets forms a: 10. Which of the following is a type of fiber
c. both the VHF and UHF bands a. micronet c. TDD net connector:
d. the VHF band, the UHF band, and the ISM b. multinet d. scatternet a. ST c. SMA
band b. SC d. all of the above
16. The basic range of a Bluetooth device is:
2. ISM stands for: a. 10 cm to 1 meter c. 10 cm to 100 11. The quantum of light is called:
a. IEEE Standard Message meters a. an erg c. a photon
b. IEEE Secure Message b. 10 cm to 10 meters d. within 10 feet b. an e-v d. a phonon
c. Industrial, Scientific, and Messaging
d. Industrial, Scientific, and Medical 17. IRDA stands for: 12. LASER stands for:
a. Infrared Data Association a. Light Amplification by Simulated Emission
3. CAPCODE is: b. Infrared Digital Association of Radiation
a. an encryption scheme used for pagers c. Infrared Restricted Data Area b. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission
b. an addressing scheme used for pagers d. Infrared Roaming Data Area of Radiation
c. an error-detection scheme used for pagers c. Light Amplification by Simulated Emitted
d. a digital modulation scheme used for 18. The range of an IRDA system is: Rays
pagers a. 1 meter c. 1 foot d. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emitted
b. 10 meters d. 10 feet Rays
4. In a one-way pager system:
a. all pages are sent from all transmitters 19. Infrared networks: 13. APD stands for:
b. each transmitting antenna covers a wide a. cannot penetrate walls a. Avalanche Photodiode c. Avalanche
area b. can use diffused infrared beams Photo Detector
c. transmitters use relatively high power c. can use reflected infrared beams b. Advanced Photodiode d. Advanced
d. all of the above d. all of the above Photo Detector

5. POCSAG stands for: 20. The maximum range of a typical wireless 14. In a PIN diode, leakage current in the
a. Pager Operations Common Standards modem is: absence of light is called:
Advisory Group a. 1 meter c. several hundred meters a. baseline current c. dark current
b. Pager Operations Code Standardization b. several meters d. several b. zero-point current d. E-H current
Advisory Group thousand meters.
c. Post Office Code Standardization Advisory 15. For a light detector, responsivity is
Group Chapter 24: Fiber Optics measured in:
d. Post Office Common Standards Advisory a. amps per watt c. mA per joule
Group 1. Compared to the core, the index of b. W per amp d. sec per W
refraction of the cladding must be:
6. A typical pager system does not: a. the same c. less Chapter 25: Fiber-Optic Systems
a. require "handoffs" c. require error b. greater d. doesn't have an index of
detection refraction 1. FDDI stands for:
b. allow "roaming" d. all of the above a. Fiber Digital Data Interface
2. Fiber-optic cables do not: b. Fiber Distributed Data Interface
7. The IEEE specification covering wireless a. carry current c. generate EMI c. Fiber Distribution Delay Interface
LANs is: b. cause crosstalk d. all of d. Frequency-Division Data Interface
a. 802.10 c. 802.12 the above
b. 802.11 d. 802.13 2. FITL stands for:
3. Single-mode fiber is made from: a. Fiber In The
8. The IEEE 802 spec for wireless LANs uses a. glass c. both a and b b. Fiber Input Timing Loss
the: b. plastic d. none of the above Loop c. Frequency Input to The Loop
a. VHF band c. ISM band d. Fiber Input Timing Loop
b. UHF band d. infrared band 4. Fiber-optic cable cannot be used:
a. in an explosive environment 3. FTTC stands for:
9. The IEEE 802 document for wireless LANs b. to connect a transmitter to an antenna a. Fiber Transmission Timing Constraint
specifies the use of: c. to isolate a medical patient from a shock b. Fiber Transmission Technology Committee
a. CSMA/CA c. CDMA hazard c. Fiber Telephone Transmission Cable
b. CSMA/CD d. all of the above d. none of the above d. Fiber To The Curb

10. BSS stands for: 5. A single-mode cable does not suffer from: 4. SONET stands for:
a. Basic Service Set c. Bluetooth Service a. modal dispersion c. waveguide a. Simple Optical Network
System dispersion b. Standard Optical Network
b. Basic Service System d. none of the b. chromatic dispersion d. all of the above c. Synchronous Optical Network
above d. none of the above
6. Scattering causes:
11. Bluetooth uses: a. loss c. intersymbol interference 5. DWDM stands for:
a. CDMA c. QPSK b. dispersion d. all of the above a. Digital Wavelength-Division Modulation
b. frequency hopping d. all of the above b. Dense Wavelength-Division Modulation
7. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable c. Double Wavelength-Division Modulation
12. Bluetooth uses the: due to the glass is about: d. Dense Wavelength-Division Multiplexing
a. VHF band c. ISM band a. 40 dB per km c. 0.4 dB per km
6. A Soliton is a: b. 100 miles d. 10 km 13. The use of solitons on fiber-optic cables
a. defect in the glass c. type of pulse is:
b. type of particle d. type of 10. In SONET, OC-1 stands for: a. common c. obsolete
optical network a. Optical Carrier level one b. experimental d. not possible
b. Optical Coupler unidirectional
7. Adding bits to synchronize one digital c. Optical Channel one 14. OTDR stands for:
signal to another is called: d. Optical Cable type 1 a. Optical Time-Delay Response
a. bit stuffing c. SDH b. Optical Timing Delay Requirement
b. bit-synch d. WDM 11. In SONET, STS stands for: c. Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer
a. Synchronous Transport Signal d. Optical Time-Division Relay
8. Power above the minimum required by an b. Synchronous Transport System
optical receiver is called: c. Synchronous Transmission Signal 15. Using fiber-optic cable in a telephone
a. gain margin c. excess gain d. Synchronous Transmission System system except for the connection to the
b. system margin d. subscriber's phone is called:
overdrive 12. A commonly used fiber-based system for a. FDDI c. FITL
LANs is: b. FTTC d. SONET
9. Typically, repeaters are not required for a. FDDI c. gigabit Ethernet
fiber-optic cable lengths up to: b. high-speed Ethernet d. all of the above
a. 1000 miles c. 100 km