Pathophysiology of the blood system

1. What are the parameters of normovolemic normocythemia?

a. total blood volume constitute 7% of body weight, number of erythrocytes
7.1012 / L, hematocrit 56%
b. total blood volume constitute 5% of body weight, number of erythrocytes
12
3.10 / L, hematocrit 32%
c. total blood volume constitute 7% of body weight, number of erythrocytes
12
3.10 / L, hematocrit 32%
d. total blood volume constitute 9% of body weight, , number of erythrocytes
12
7.10 / L, hematocrit 56%
e. total blood volume constitute 7% of body weight, number of erythrocytes
5.1012 / L, hematocrit 42%

2. The simple hypovolemia can be instaled:

a. after 30-40 minutes of acute bleeding
b. after 72 hours of acute bleeding
c. in burn schock
d. in body overheating
e. in body supercooling

3. What are the parameters of hypovolemic oligocythemia?

a. total volume of blood constitute 5% of body weight, number of erythrocytes
5.1012 / L, hematocrit 42%
b. total blood volume constitute 7% of body weight, number of erythrocytes
12
7.10 / L, hematocrit 56%
c. total blood volume constitute 5% of body weight, number of erythrocytes
12
3.10 / L, hematocrit 32%
d. total blood volume constitute 7% of body weight, number of erythrocytes
12
3.10 / L, hematocrit 32%
e. total blood volume constitute 5% of body weight, number of erythrocytes
7.1012 / L,hematocrit 56%

4. The hypovolemic oligocythemia can be instaled:

a. at the first minutes after the acute bleeding
b. more than 24 hours after acute bleeding
c. in erithremia
d. in body overheating
e. in body supercooling
5. What are the parameters of hypovolemic polycythemia?
a) total volume of blood constitute 5% of body weight, number of erythrocytes
5.1012 / L, hematocrit 42%
b) total blood volume constitute 7% of body weight, number of erythrocytes
12
7.10 / L, hematocrit 56%
c) total blood volume constitute 5% of body weight, number of erythrocytes
12
7.10 / L, hematocrit 56%
d) total blood volume constitute 7% of body weight number of erythrocytes
12
3.10 / L, hematocrit 32%
e) total blood volume constitute 9% of body weight, number of erythrocytes
7.1012 / L, hematocrit 56%
6. Hypovolemic polycythemia is found in:
a. dehydration
b. combustion
c. anemia
d. erithremia
e. hyperhydration

7. What are the parameters oligocythemia hypervolemia?

a. total blood volume constitute 7% of body weight, number of erythrocytes
5.1012 / L, hematocrit 42%
b. total blood volume constitute 7% of body weight, number of erythrocytes
12
7.10 / L, hematocrit 56%
c. total blood volume constitute 5% of body weight, number of erythrocytes
12
3.10 / L, hematocrit 32%
d. total blood volume consittute 7% of body weight, number of erythrocytes
12
3.10 / L, hematocrit 32%
e. total blood volume constitute 9% of body weight, number of erythrocytes
3.1012 / L, hematocrit 32%

8. The oligocythemia hypervolemia is found in:

a. massive infusion of isotonic solutions
b. dehydration
c. burns
d. diarrhea
e. incoercible vomiting

9. What are the parameters hypervolemic polycythemia?

a. total blood volume constitute7% of body weight, number of erythrocytes 5.1012 / L,
hematocrit 42%
b. total blood volume constitute 7% of body weight, number of erythrocytes 7.1012 / L,
 hematocrit 56%
c. total blood volume constitute 5% of body weight, number of erythrocytes 3.1012 / L,
hematocrit 32%
d. total blood volume constitute 7% of body weight, number of erythrocytes 3.1012 / L,
hematocrit 32%
e. total blood volume constitute 9% of body weight, number of erythrocytes 7.1012 / L,
hematocrit 56%

10. Hypervolemic polycythemia is found in:

a. erithremia
b. renal failure
c. dehydration
d. anemia
e. bleeding

11. What are the signs of disturbance of cell differentiation in erythroblast series?
a. the increase in number of proerythroblasts, erythroblasts, and reticulocytes in
the bone marrow
b. the increase in number of normoblasts and reticulocytes in peripheral blood
c. the increase in number of erythroblast, normoblasts and reticulocytes in
peripheral blood
d. the increase in number of proerythroblasts and erythroblast, with simultaneous
decreasing the number of normoblasts and reticulocytes in bone marrow
e. increase in number of erythroblast with simultaneous decreasing in number of
reticulocytes and normoblasts in peripheral blood

12. What kind of changes can be found in the myelogram during bone marrow
hyperproliferation?
a. increasing the number of erythroblast
b. increasing the number of normoblasts
c. increasing the number of reticulocytes
d. substitution by the adipous tissue
e. bone marrow spreading

13. What kind of hemogram modification can be found in bone marrow

hyperproliferation?
a. increasing the number of erythroblasts
b. increasing the number of normoblasts
c. increasing the number of reticulocytes
d. erythrocytosis with hemoconcentration, increased of ineffective erythropoiesis
e. erythrocytosis assosiated with hemodillution

14. What are the signs of erythrocytes hypochromatism?

a. the content of hemoglobin in an erythrocyte less than 29 pg hemoglobin
b. the content of hemoglobin in an erythrocyte less than 40 pg hemoglobin
c. chromatic indexes less than 0.8
d. annular form of red blood cells
e. average hemoglobin concentration of erythrocyte less than 33%

15. What are the signs of erythrocytes hyperchomatism?

a) the content of hemoglobin in an erythrocyte more than 30 pg hemoglobin
b) the content of hemoglobin in an erythrocyte is 29 pg hemoglobin
c) chromatic indexes less than 1.1
d) chromatic indexes is 1.0
e) average hemoglobin concentration of erythrocyte more than 33%

16. What are the signs of macrocytosis?

a. the average diameter of erythrocytes more than 8
b. mean volume of erythrocytes more than 90 fl
c. average thickness of erythrocyte greater than 4
d. ellipsoid shape of erythrosytes
e. mean concentration of hemoglobin in erythrocytes more 33%

17. What are the signs of primary erythrocytosis(polycythemia vera)?

a. granulocytosis
b. erythrocyte count greater than 5.1012 / L
c. reticulocyte count higher than 2.5%
d. thrombocytosis
e. reticulocyte count below 0.5%

18. Primary erythrocytosis can be found in:

a. anemia
b. incoercible vomiting
c. kidney disease
d. hypoxia
e. polycythemia vera

19. What are the signs of absolute secondary erythrocytosis?

a. hemoglobin content greater than 160 g / L
b. erythrocyte count greater than 5.1012 / L
c. reticulocyte count greater than 0.5%
d. total volume of blood under 7% of body weight
e. hematocrit more than 45%

20. Absolute secondary erythrocytosis are found in:

a. the inhabitants of mountain regions
b. pregnant women with incoercible vomiting
c. dehydration
d. in patients with chronic respiratory diseases
e. chronic hypoxia

21. What are the signs of secondary relative erythrocytosis?

a. hemoglobin content greater than 160 g / L
b. erythrocyte count greater than 5.1012 / L
c. reticulocyte count higher than 0.5%
d. hyperproliferation of erythroid series in bone marrow
e. the blood volume less than 7% of body weight

22. Secondary relative erythrocytosis is found in:

a. burns
b. incoercible vomiting
c. dehydration
d. chronic hypoxia
e. polycytheamia vera

23. What processes are disturbed in the hypo-aplastic anemia?

a. all bone marrow cell differentiation, mainly erythroblast series
b. proliferation of all bone marrow cells mainly erythroblast series
c. hemoglobin synthesis
d. hemolysis
e. erythrocyte maturation
24. Indicate the hemogramme changes in hypo- and aplasthic anemia:
a. neutrophylic leucocytosis
b. drepanocytose
c. megalocytose
d. thrombocytosis
e. pancytopenia

25. . Pancytopenia represents:

a. decreased total number of erythrocytes in peripheral blood
b. decreased number of agranulocyte in peripheral blood
c. increased number of platelets in peripheral blood
d. decrease the number of erythrocytes, granulocytes and platelets in peripheral
blood
e. increased all figurative elements in peripheral blood
26. What processes are disturbed in the hemolytic anemia?
a. proliferation of erythroblast series
b. differentiation of erythroblast series
c. hemoglobin synthesis
d. hemolysis
e. erythrocyte maturation

27. What are the signs of intracellular hemolysis?

a. presence of free hemoglobin in the blood plasma
b. decrease of haptoglobin level of blood plasma
c. hemoglobinuria
d. hyperbilirubinemia with free bilirubin (indirect)
e. hyperbilirubinemia with conjugated bilirubin (direct)

28. What are the signs of severe intravascular hemolysis?

a. presence of free hemoglobin in the blood plasma
b. decrease of haptoglobin level of blood plasma
c. hemoglobinuria
d. hyperbilirubinemia with free bilirubin (indirect)
e. hyperbilirubinemia with conjugated bilirubin (direct)
29. What processes are disturbed in the iron deficiency anemia?
a. proliferation of erythroblast series
b. differentiation of erythroblast series
c. hemoglobin synthesis
d. hemolysis
e. erythrocyte maturation

30. Indicate hemogramme changes in iron deficiency anemia

a. megalocytose
b. hypochome eruthocytes
c. microcytosis
d. anulocytosis
e. drepanocytose

31. In that anemia is found microcytose?

a. iron-deficiency anema
b. hereditary hemolytic anemia (Minkowski - Chauffard disease)
c. posthemorrhagic acute anemia
d. posthemorrhagic chronic anemia
e. hypo-and aplastic anemia

32. . What processes are disturbed in the anemia B12 - anemia?

a. proliferation of erythroblast series
b. differentiation of erythroblast series
c. hemoglobin synthesis
d. hemolysis
e. erythrocyte maturation

33. Indicate the hergamme changes in B12-deficient anemia:

a. hyperchrome erythrocytes
b. thrombocytopenia
c. megalocytose
d. erythrocytes with Cabot rings and Jolli corpuscles
e. nuclear neutrophilia drift to the left

34. Which type anemia is found megaloblastic hemopoiesis in?

a. -thalassemia
b. folic acid deficiency anemia
c. vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
d. hypo- and aplastic anemia
e. anemia in diphyllobothriasis

35. What are the signes of absolute leukocytosis?

a. the total number of leukocytes in the blood of more than 10,109 / L
b. increase young leukocytes into the blood
c. total number of leukocytes in the blood is normal
d. hyperproliferation with dedifferentiation of myeloblastic series in bone
marrow
e. increasing percentage content of a form while decreasing the percentage of
other types of leukocytes in leukogramme

36. . What are the signs of relative leukocytosis?

a. the total number of leukocytes in the blood of more than 9.109 / L
b. increase leukocytes young into the blood
c. *total number of leukocytes in the blood is normal
d. hyperproliferation with dedifferentiation of myeloblastic series in bone
marrow
e. *increasing percentage content of a form while decreasing the percentage of
other types of leukocytes in leukogramme

37. What leukocytosis may be considered as physiological?

a. myogenic
b. inflammatory
c. infectious
d. alimentary
e. in new-borns

38. . What are the etiological factors of neutrophylia?

a. adrenal insufficiency
b. allergies
c. cocic infection
d. parasitosis
e. specific chronic infection
39. Neutrophilic leucocytosis can be found in:
a. furunculosis
b. pregnant women
c. purulent otitis
d. viral diseases
e. myocardial infarction

40. Nuclear neutrophilic deviation to the left means:

a. increase in agranulocytes count in peripheral blood
b. increase in number of granulocytes in peripheral blood
c. increase in immature neutrophils of peripheral blood
d. increase in mature neutrophils of peripheral blood
e. increase in hypersegmentate neutrophils of peripheral blood

41. Hyperregenarative neutrophylic leucocytosis (with sharp deviation to the left) is

found in:
a. actinic disease
b. bone marrow aplasi
c. benzol poisoning
d. septicemia
e. body overcooling

42. Eosinophylic eukocytosis is documented in:

a. cocic infection
b. allergic diseases
c. parasitosis
d. chronic myeloid leukosis
e. collagenosis

43. What are the causes of lymphocytosis?

a. adrenal insufficiency
b. allergies
c. cocic infection
d. parasitosis
e. specific chronic infection

44. Absolute lymphocytosis is attest in:

a. TB
b. sepsis
c. asthma
d. chronic lymphoid leukosis
e. myocardial infarction

45. Monocytosis is documented in:

a. during the convalescence of acute infections
b. granulomatous inflammation
c. mononucleosis
d. asthma
e. myeloid metaplasia

46. Agranulocytosis represents:

a. increasing the number of lymphocytes and monocytes in peripheral blood
b. in severe reduction or absence of granular leukocytes in peripheral blood
c. increase in number of agranulocytes in peripheral blood
d. increase in extra-segmentate neutrophils in peripheral blood
e. severe reduction of reticulocytes in peripheral blood

47. Agranulocytosis documented in:

a. aplastic anemia
b. in manage of cytostatics
c. parasitic diseases
d. allergic diseases
e. sepsis

48. What processes are disturbed in erythroblastic leucosis?

a. proliferation of erythroblast series
b. differentiation of erythroblast series
c. hemoglobin synthesis
d. hemolysis
e. erythrocyte maturation

49. What are the basic signs hematological of leukemic myeloleukosis?

a. the total number of leukocytes more than 50 thousand mkl blood associated
with a significant number of blast cells in peripheral blood
b. the total number of WBC less than 50,000 to 1 mkl blood associated with a
large number of blast cells in peripheral blood
c. the total number of WBC less than 6000 to 1 mkl blood cells associated with
the presence of blasts cells in peripheral blood
d. total WBC less than 6000 from a blood mkl associated with the presence of
blast cells in bone marrow of the bones
e. excessive invasion of blood with undifferentiated cells of leukocyte series

50. What are the basic hematological signs of underleukemic myeloid leukosis?
a. the total number of leukocytes more than 50 thousand mkl blood associated
with a significant number of blast cells in peripheral blood
b. the total number of WBC less than 50,000 to 1 mkl blood associated with a
large number of blast cells in peripheral blood
c. the total number of WBC less than 6000 to 1 mkl blood cells associated with
the presence of blasts cells in peripheral blood
d. total WBC less than 6000 from a blood mkl associated with the presence of
blast cells in bone marrow of the bones
e. moderate invasion of blood with undifferentiated cells of leukocyte series

51. What are the basic hematological signs of leucocytopenic myeloid leukosis ?
a. the total number of leukocytes more than 50 thousand mkl blood associated
with a significant number of blast cells in peripheral blood
b. the total number of WBC less than 50,000 to 1 mkl blood associated with a
large number of blast cells in peripheral blood
c. the total number of WBC less than 5000 to 1 mkl blood cells associated with
the presence of blasts cells in peripheral blood
d. total WBC less than 6000 from a blood mkl associated with the presence of
blast cells in bone marrow of the bones
e. the presence of blast cells in peripheral blood

52. What are the basic hematological signs of aleukemic myeloid leukosis?
a. the total number of leukocytes more than 50 thousand mkl blood associated
with a significant number of blast cells in peripheral blood
b. the total number of WBC less than 50,000 to 1 mkl blood associated with a
large number of blast cells in peripheral blood
c. the total number of WBC less than 6000 to 1 mkl blood cells associated with
the presence of blasts cells in peripheral blood
d. the total number of leukocytes is 5-6 thousand to 1 mkl blood associated with
the presence of blast cells in bone marrow of the bones
e. the absence of blastic cells in peripheral blood
 Pathophysiology of the cardiovascular system

1. What situations lead to overload of the heart by resistance:

a. mitral insufficiency
b. aortic valve insufficiency
c. hypertension
d. tricuspid insufficiency
e. anemia

2. Indicate the causes that lead to overload of the heart by volume:

a. mitral stenosis
b. mitral insufficiency
c. hypersecretion of epinephrine
d. aortic valve insufficiency
e. hypervolemia

3. Mark diseases that cause the dismetabolic heart failure:

a. tricuspid insufficiency
b. hypertonic disease
c. myocardial infarction
d. toxic myocarditis
e. aortic stenosis

4. Indicate the possible causes of right heart failure:

a. hypertension in small circulation
b. mitral insufficiency
c. tricuspid insufficiency
d. aortic coarctation
e. emphysema

5. Indicate the possible causes of a left heart failure

a. mitral insufficiency
b. aortic coarctation
c. emphysema
d. hypertensive disease
e. pneumscleroza

6. Indicate characteristic manifestations of the left heart failure :

a. systolic volume reduction
b. tachycardia
c. venous stasis in the small circulation
d. dyspnea
e. hepatomegaly

7. Indicate the characteristic manifestations of the right heart failure:

a. hepatomegaly
b. venous stasis in large circulation
c. pulmonary edema
d. venous stasis in the small circulation
e. ascites

8. Mark an immediate heart compensatory mechanisms in heart diseases:

a. bradycardia
b. tachycardia
c. fluid retention
d. myocardial hypertrophy
e. intensifying of erythropoiesis

9. Mark an immediate extracardiac compensatory mechanisms in heart diseases:

a. redistribution of cardiac output with blood centralization
b. myocardial hypertrophy
c. increased parasympathetic nervous system tone
d. pulmonary hyperventilation
e. intensifying of erythropoiesis

10. What is charactheristic for the predominantly homeomethtic heart

hyperfunction?
a. by decreasing the amplitude of cardiac contraction
b. by decreasing the myocardial strain
c. by increasing the amplitude of cardiac contraction
d. by increasing the myocardial tension
e. tachycardia

11. What is charactheristic for the predominantly heteromethtic heart

hyperfunction?
a. by decreasing the amplitude of cardiac contraction
b. by decreasing the myocardial strain
c. by increasing the amplitude of cardiac contraction
d. by increasing the myocardial tension
e. tachycardia

12. For which cardiac defects is characteristic homeomethric hyperfunction of the

heart?
a. aortic valve stenosis
b. pulmonary trunk orifice stenosis
c. aortic valve insufficiency
d. mitral valve insufficiency
e. tricuspid valve insufficiency

13. For which cardiac defects is characteristic heteromethric hyperfunction of the

heart?
a. mitral stenosis
b. aortic stenosis
c. mitral valve insufficiency
d. aortic valve insufficiency
e. pulmonary artery stenosis

14. In what situations are included predominantly hiperfuncia heterometric the

heart?
1. In mitral stenosis hole
2. The right atrioventricular orifice stenosis
3. In four bicuspid valve insufficiency.
4. The five-volume cardiac overload.
5. In aortic stenosis hole

15. What structural changes occur in myocardial hypertrophy?

a. increase the number of miofibrile
b. increase the number of miofibrile, decreasing their volum
c. fusion of connective tissue
d. reduces the number of miofibrile, increasing their volume
e. increase miofibrile volume, the number remains constant

16. What are the mechanisms of functional exhaustion and cardiosclerose of the
hypertrophied myocardium?
a. insufficient supply of cardiomyocyte with energy
b. relative myocardial hypoxia
c. increase of the functional index of intact cardiomyocytes
d. increase in pericardial cavity pressure
e. decrease in coronary perfusion pressure

17. What are the causes of relative hypoxia in hypertrophied myocardium?

a. spasm of coronary vessel
b. formation of atherosclerotic plaque
c. disorder of oxygen using
d. disorders of energogenesis
e. retardation in development of microvasculture compared with the increasing
of myocardial mass

18. What are the consequences of long-term relative hypoxia in hypertrophied heart?
a. increase number of miofibrile
b. reactive proliferation of connective tissue and cardiosclerose
c. increases coronary perfusion
d. increases protein synthesis
e. tonogenic dilatation of the heart

19. How is change the stroke volume of the heart and blood circulating volume in
heart failure?
a. stroke volume decreases, increases blood circulating volume
b. both indices increase
c. stroke volume increases, decreases blood circulating volume
d. both indices are decreasing
e. no change
20. What are the causes of hypervolemia in chronic heart failure?
a. venous stasis
b. mobilisation of stored blood
c. fluid and electrolities retention
d. increased glomerular filtration
e. intensifying of erythropoiesis

21. . What are the consequences of venous stasis?

a. lack of oxygen to the tissues
b. edema formation
c. increasing the velocity of blood
d. decreased dissociation processes of oxyhemoglobin
e. ketoacidosis

22. What anatomical regions occurs venous stasis during left ventricular failure in?
a. facial region
b. legs
c. liver
d. brain
e. lungs

23. What are the consequences of venous stasis in the liver

a. increasing function of detoxification of the liver
b. substitution of hepatocytes with connective tissue
c. left ventricular rebooting
d. right ventricle rebooting
e. hypertension in the portal vein system

24. What are thw causes of portal hypertension in liver cirrhosis?

a. development of collateral cava-caval vessels
b. compresiion the big circulation vesels
c. reduction of intrahepatic functional capillary
d. development of collateral portho-caval vessels
e. increased of mesenterial blood vessel permiability
25. What are the consequences of portal hypertension?
a. formation of portho-cavale anastomosis
b. ascites
c. varicous dilation of inferion esophageal veins
d. hemorhhage from esophageal varicous veins
e. formation of cava-cavale anastomosis

26. In what disease develops the liver venous stasis?

a. hypertension
b. arterial hypotension
c. hypovolemia
d. right heart insufficiency
e. left heart insufficiency

27. The porto-cavale anastomoses forms in:

a. bile reflux disorders
b. portal hypertension
c. left ventricle failure
d. restriction of chest excursion
e. cholelithiasis

28. What hemodynamic deviations are crucial in the appearance of cardiac edema?
a. intrarenal hemodynamics impaired with activation of juxta-glomerular
apparatus
b. venous stasis
c. decrease in cardiac output
d. increase in blood circulating volume
e. increased peripheral vessels resistance

29. . How intrarenal hemodynamic disturbances contribute to the development of

edema?
a. by increasing of capillary permiability
b. by activating the juxta-glomerular apparatus
c. by inhibiting the juxta-glomerular apparatus
d. by enabling elimination of ADH
e. by decreasing the effective filtration pressure

30. What is secondary hyperaldosteronism?

a. increased synthesis and release of aldosterone in the syndrome Konn
b. increase in aldosterone synthesis and releasing in hyperreninemia
c. increase in aldosterone concentration in the hepatic blood
d. elimination of aldosterone and decrease of cortisol
e. increased secretion aldosreron in renal hypoxia and hypoperfusion

31. What are the metabolic changes characteristic of the initial phase of
hypertrophy?
a. reduction of oxidative and glycolitic processes
b. energy metabolism is not changed
c. intense using of ATP
d. increased use of oxygen
e. intensification of protein synthesis

32. How are changes the arterial and venous blood pressure during heart failure?
a. arterial and venous pressure increases
b. arterial pressure decreases and venous pressure increase
c. arterial and venous pressure does not change
d. arterial and venous pressure decrease
e. arterial pressure rises and the venous pressure decreases

33. How is change cardiac output and cardiac contraction force at the reduction of
venous return to heart?
a. cardiac output is not changed butd the force of heart contractions increased
b. both indices remain unchanged
c. cardiac output and the force cardiac contractions are increased
d. cardiac output decreases and the strength of heart contractions does not change
e. cardiac output and the force of heart contractions are reduced
34. How changed systolic and endsystolic volumes during the heart failure?
a. systolic volume increases and the endsystolic volume decreases
b. both indices are decreasing
c. systolic volume is reduced, the endsystolic volume remains unchanged
d. both indices increase
e. systolic volume decreases and endsystolic volume increases

35. What is the main link in the pathogenesis of hemodynamic disorders in toxic
miocarditis?
a. decrease force of the heart contraction
b. decrease vascular tone
c. increased circulating blood volume
d. increased vascular tone
e. reducing the return of blood to the heart

36. The heart conduction disturbance is manifested by the?

a. different degree heart block
b. sinusal bradycardia
c. sinusal tachycardia
d. extrasystole
e. ventricular fibrillation

37. What diseases is characteristic sinusal bradycardia for?

a. pulmonary edema
b. thyrotoxicosis
c. mechanical jaundice
d. emphysema
e. meningitis

38. In what kinde of arrhythmia, on the ECG the P wave is negative?

a. sinus tachycardia
b. sinus bradycardia
c. atrioventricular block
d. atrio-ventricular extrasystole
e. ventricular extrasystole
39. What is atrial extrasystole?
a. extraordinary outbreak under the influence of an of ectopic atrial seat
b. extraordinary outbreak under the influence of an of ectopic atrial-ventricular
node seat
c. extraordinary outbreak under the influence of an of ectopic right ventricular
seat
d. extraordinary outbreak under the influence of an of ectopic left ventriculr seat
e. extraordinary outbreak under the influence of an of ectopic seat of

40. To which extrasystole is cgaracterise the full compensatory pause?

a. sinus extrasystole
b. atrial extrasystole
c. atrioventricular extrasystole
d. ventricular extrasystole
e. atrioventricular extrasystole from average part

41. The excitability of the heart disorder manifests by?

a. bradycardia
b. complete transverse block
c. longitudinal block
d. tachycardia
e. extrasystole

42. Which extrasystole is characteristic the incomplete compensatory pause for?

a. left ventricular extrasystole
b. atrial extrasystole
c. right ventricular extrasystole
d. atrioventricular extrasystole from the lower portion of atrioventricular nod
e. ventricular extrasystole from average portion of atrioventricular node

43. What is extrasystole?

a. decrease in cardiac contraction
b. eextraordinary contraction of the heart
c. increasing the number of heart contractions
d. obstacle in the way of stimulus to the ventricles
e. weakening of the cardiac contractile function
44. What is lengthwise heart block?
a. AV bloc
b. blockade a branch of the His bundle
c. blockade of the impuls conduction from the sinus node to atria
d. blockade of the impuls conduction from the atria to ventriculi
e. His bundle

45. The disorders of cardiac automatism are manifested by the?

a. atrioventricular block
b. sinus bradycardia
c. sinus tachycardia
d. extrasystole
e. atrial fibrillation

46. Sinus bradycardia causes:

a. excitation of vaso-constrictor center
b. activation of the sympathetic nervous system
c. excitation of the vagus nerve center
d. xcitation His bundle
e. excitation of parasympathetic nervous system

47. Factors that can contribute to excitation of vagus nerve center:

a. decrease intracranial pressure
b. increased intracranial pressure
c. portal hypertension
d. brain tumors
e. pulmonary hypertension

48. In which affections is increased intracranial pressure?

a. arterial collapse
b. meningitis
c. encephalitis
d. brain tumor
e. cerebral hematoma

49. Why some renal diseases developed arterial hypertension?

a. increased secretion of adrenaline
b. increased secretory function of the juxta-glomerular apparatus
c. decreases the secretion of vasopressin
d. increased glomerular filtration
e. decreases kidney reabsorption in canaliculli

50. Hypertensive disease leads to rebooting of which heart compartment?

a. right ventricle
b. left atrium
c. right atrium
d. left ventricle
e. atrium and right ventricle

51. In which organ is most significant finds perfuzionale collapse disorder aretrial?
a. kidney
b. stomach
c. liver
d. brain
e. lungs

52. Why the cardiac contractility decreases in renal vascular acute?

a. decrease of blood flow to the heart and endsystole pressure
b. increases blood flow in coronary vessels
c. decrease in coronary perfusion pressure
d. increases blood flow to the left atrium
e. cardiac conduction disturb

53. Secondary arterial hypertension accompanying the following endocrine diseases:

a. Cushinss disease
b. primary aldosteronism
c. Addisons disease
d. Mixedema
e. Pheochromocytoma
Pathophysiology of the respiratory system

1. What is hyperpnea?
a. breathing rate increase
b. breathing amplitude increase
c. breathing rate decrease
d. breathing amplitude decrease
e. breathing minute volume increase

2. What is polypnea?
a. breathing rate increase
b. breathing amplitude increase
c. breathing rate decrease
d. breathing amplitude decrease
e. breathing minute volume increase

3. What is bradypnea?
a. breathing rate increase
b. breathing amplitude increase
c. breathing rate decrease
d. breathing amplitude decrease
e. breathing minute volume increase

4. What is hyperventilation?
a. breathing minute volume increase
b. breathing minute volume decrease
c. breathing rate increase
d. breathing rate decrease
e. breathing amplitude decrease

5. What is hypoventilation?
a. breathing minute volume increase
b. breathing minute volume decrease
c. breathing rate increase
d. breathing rate decrease
e. breathing amplitude decrease

6. What changes of alveolar air composition in hyperventilation take place?

a. oxygenum partial pressure is less than 100 mm Hg
b. oxygenum partial pressure is more than 100 mm Hg
c. carbon dioxide partial pressure is less than 40 mm Hg
d. oxygenum partial pressure is more than 40 mm Hg
e. nitrogen partial pressure is more than 600 mm Hg

7. What changes of alveolar air composition in hypoventilation take place?

a. oxygenum partial pressure is less than 100 mm Hg
b. oxygenum partial pressure is more than 100 mm Hg
c. carbon dioxide partial pressure is less than 40 mm Hg
d. oxygenum partial pressure is more than 40 mm Hg
e. nitrogen partial pressure is more than 600 mm Hg

8. What changes of the arterial blood gas composition in hyperventilation take place?
a. oxygenum partial pressure is less than 100 mm Hg
b. oxygenum partial pressure is more than 100 mm Hg
c. carbon dioxide partial pressure is less than 40 mm Hg
d. oxygenum partial pressure is more than 40 mm Hg
e. nitrogen partial pressure is more than 600 mm Hg

9. What changes of the arterial blood gase composition in hypoventilation take place?
a. oxygenum partial pressure is less than 100 mm Hg
b. oxygenum partial pressure is more than 100 mm Hg
c. carbon dioxide partial pressure is less than 40 mm Hg
d. carbon dioxide partial pressure is more than 40 mm Hg
e. nitrogen partial pressure is more than 600 mm Hg

10. What changes of acid-base balance in hyperventilation can be present?

a. respiratory acidosis
b. respiratory alkalosis
c. metabolic acidosis
d. metabolic alkalosis
e. unchanged balance

11. What changes of acid-base balance in hypoventilation can be present?

a. respiratory acidosis
b. respiratory alkalosis
c. metabolic acidosis
d. metabolic alkalosis
e. unchanged balance
12. What changes of the pulmonary ventilation parameters in hyperventilation can be
present?
a. pulmonary vital capacity increases
b. breathing minute volume increases
c. the percentage of anatomic dead space increases
d. the percentage of anatomic dead space decreases
e. breathing minute volume decreases

13. What changes of the pulmonary ventilation parameters in hypoventilation can be

present?
a. pulmonary vital capacity increases
b. breathing minute volume increases
c. the relative percentage of anatomic dead space increases
d. the relative percentage of anatomic dead space decreases
e. breathing minute volume decreases

14. How can be modified anatomic dead space in hyperventilation?

a. increase in absolute volume
b. decrease in absolute volume
c. the relative percentage of anatomic dead space increases (from the breathing
minute volume)
d. the relative percentage of anatomic dead space decreases (from the breathing
minute volume)
e. the absolute value of anatomic dead space is not modified

15. How can be modified anatomic dead space in hypoventilation?

a. increase in absolute volume
b. decrease in absolute volume
c. the relative percentage of anatomic dead space increases (from the breathing
minute volume)
d. the relative percentage of anatomic dead space decreases (from the breathing
minute volume)
e. the absolute value of anatomic dead space is not modified
16. What are modifications of the intrathoracic pressure and cardiac venous return in
case of the deep and acceleration breathing?
a. intrathoracic pressure increases
b. intrathoracic pressure decreases
c. no changes of cardiac venous return
d. cardiac venous return is difficult
e. cardiac venous return is facilitated

17. What are modifications of the intrathoracic pressure and cardiac venous return in
case of shallow breathing?
a. intrathoracic pressure increases
b. intrathoracic pressure decreases
c. no changes of cardiac venous return
d. cardiac venous return is difficult
e. cardiac venous return is facilitated

18. What is dyspnea?

a. respiratory rate change
b. respiratory amplitude change
c. respiratory rhythm change
d. blood gase composition change
e. unusual (subjectiv) senzation of air insufficiency

19. What is inspiration dyspnea?

a. prolonged inspiration
b. prolonged expiration
c. increase of inspiratory effort with passive exhalation
d. increase of inspiratory effort with the enhanced exhalation
e. simultaneously prolonged inspiration and exhalation

20. What is expiratory dyspnea?

a. prolonged inspiration
b. prolonged expiration
c. increase of inspiratory effort with passive exhalation
d. forced prolonged expiration
e. simultaneously prolonged inspiration and expiration

21. What physical parameters of alveolar air impair the diffusion of gases through the
alveolo-capillary barrier?
a. increased oxygen partial pressure
b. decreased oxygen partial pressure
c. increased carbon dioxide partial pressure
d. decreased carbon dioxide partial pressure
e. increased nitrogen partial pressure

22. What modifications of the athmospheric air composition disturb arterialization of

venous blood in the small circulation?
a. oxygen pressure increase
b. oxygen pressure decrease
c. carbon dioxide pressure increase
d. carbon dioxide pressure decrease
e. nitrogen pressure increase

23. What pathological processes in the alveolo-capillary barrier disturb the diffusion
of gases in the lungs?
a. thickening of barrier
b. presence of fluid in alveoli
c. interstitial pulmonary edema
d. atherosclerosis of the small circulation arteries
e. reduction of the total perfusion surface

24. What factors reduce the blood oxygen capacity?

a. hemoglobin content is 140-160 g/L
b. hemoglobin content is less than 140 g/L
c. transformation of hemoglobin into methemoglobin
d. association of carbon monoxide with hemoglobin
e. decreased serum iron concentration in the blood plasma

25. What hemoglobin complexes reduce the blood oxygen capacity?

a. oxyhemoglobin
b. deoxygenated hemoglobin
c. carbohemoglobin
 d. carboxyhemoglobin
e. methemoglobin

26. What physicochemical parameters can block the association of oxygen with
haemoglobin in the small circulation?
a. Acidosis
b. alkalosis
c. hypokapnia
d. hyperkapnia
e. decreased temperature

27. What physicochemical parameters can block the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation in

the big circulation?
a. acidosis
b. alkalosis
c. hypokapnia
d. hyperkapnia
e. decreased temperature

28. What pathological processes disturb the diffusion of gases through the alveolo-
capillary barrier?
a. edema
b. swelling of endothelial cells
c. capillary stasis
d. atherosclerosis of the small circulation arteries
e. atherosclerosis of the big circulation arteries

29. Hypoxemia represents:

a. pressure of carbon dioxide in the venous blood is more than 46 mm Hg
b. pressure of oxygen in the arterial blood is to 100 mm Hg
c. pressure of carbon dioxide in the arterial blood is less than 46 mm Hg
d. pressure of oxygen in the venous blood is less than 100 mm Hg
e. pressure of oxygen in the arterial blood is less than 50 mm Hg
30. What is pulmonary restriction ?
a. reduced compliance of alveoli
b. reduction of the total compliance of respiratory apparatus due to
predominant reduction of the thoracic framework or lungs compliance
c. reduced compliance of the thoracic framework
d. reduction of the total compliance of respiratory apparatus due to
reduction of the lungs elasticity
e. reduction of the total compliance of respiratory apparatus due to
reduction of the lungs compliance and elasticity

31. What processes determine the extraparenchymal pulmonary restriction ?

a. pleural affections
b. affections of the thoracic framework
c. dissturbances of the pulmonary circulation
d. disturbances of the neuro-muscular apparatus
e. modifications of pulmonary compliance

32. What are the causes of pulmonary restriction?

a. collagenoses
b. primary pulmonary diseases
c. affections of the upper respiratory pathways
d. some drugs (like nitrofurans, aurum, cyclophosphamid, metotrexat)
e. inorganic powders

33. Intraparenchymal pulmonary restriction represents:

a. reduction of the total compliance of respiratory apparatus due to reduced lung
compliance and elasticity
b. reduction of the total compliance of respiratory apparatus
c. reduction of the total compliance of respiratory apparatus due to predominant
reduction of the thoracic framework and lungs compliance
d. reduced compliance of the thoracic framework
e. reduced lung elasticity

34. What is pulmonary obstruction ?

a. disturbance of the blood inflow to the lungs
 b. increased blood pressure in the pulmonary circulation
c. increased resistance of the respiratory pathways with disturbances of
pulmonary
ventilation
d. decreased blood pressure in the pulmonary circulation
c. decreased resistance of respiratory pathways

35. What factors can provoke obstruction of the upper respiratory pathways ?
a. presence of thrombi n the pulmonary artery
b. bronchial mucus swelling
c. presence of foreign bodies in trachea and bronchi
d. laryngeal stenosis
e. mediastinal tumors

36. What factors can provoke obstruction of the low respiratory pathways ?
a. hypersecretion of bronchial mucus
b. swelling of the mucus of sub segmentary and terminal bronchioli
c. presence of foreign bodies in trachea and bronchi
d. laryngeal stenosis
e. spasm of the smooth muscles of subsegmentary bronchioli

37. Deep and accelerated respiration (called hyperpnea) is observed in:

a. physical effort
b. brjnchial asthma
c. non respiratory acidosis
d. psycho-emotional stress
e. circulatory hypoxia

38. Accelerated and superficial respiration (called polypnea) is observed in:

a. hyperkapnia
b. pulmonary atelectasis
c. pulmonary edema
d. pneumonia
 e. non respiratory acidosis

39. Rare and deep respiration (called bradypnea) is observed in:

a. physical effort
b. stenosis of respiratory patnways
c. pneumonia
d. pulmonaqry edema
e. hypoxia of any origin

40. Expiratory dyspnea is observed in:

a. pneumonia
b. pulmonary hypertension
c. bronchial asthma
d. stenosis of respiratory pathways
e. atelectazie

41. The broncho constrictory substances are:

a. histamine
b. serotonin
c. bradykinin
d. PGF2-alpha
e. excitation of n. Vagus

42. The broncho dilatory substances are:

a. PGE1
b. PGE2
c. serotonin
d. prostacyclines
e. PGF2-alpha

43. What biological active substances elevate pressure in the pulmonary circulation?
a. angiotensin II
b. serotonin
c. PGF2-alpha
d. PGE1, PGE2
e. thromboxan A2
44. What biological active substances decrease pressure in the pulmonary circulation?
a. PGI2
b. Atrial natriuretic factor
c. PGE1, PGE2
d. serotonine
e. bradykinin

45. What factors contribute to the apparition of the acute respiratory destress in
adults?
a. total pneumonia
b. different types of shock
c. blood transfusions
d. arterial hypertension
e. syndrome of disseminated intravascular coagulation

46.Pathogenetic mechanisms of the acute respiratory dystress syndrome in adults are:

a. disturbances of trophics of the pulmonary vessels endothelium
b. increased permeability of the alveolo capillary membrane
c. increased elasticity of the lung parenchyma
d. extravazation of fluid into alveoli
e. formation of hyalinic membranes

47. Pulmonary edema represents:

a. accumulation of fluid in the pulmonary interstitium
b. accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
c. accumulation of fluid in alveoli
d. accumulation of fluid in the mediastinumn
e. accumulatiin of fluid in the respiratory pathways

48.Factors that provoke pulmonary edema are:

a. elevation of hydrostatic pressure of the blood in the small circulation
capillaries
b. decreased hydrostatic pressure of the blood in the small circulation capillaries
c. block of the pulmonary lymph drainage
d. increased permeability of vascular wall
e. increased oncotic pressure in the pulmonary interstitium
49.Pulmonary emphysema represents:
a. reduction of lumen of the low respiratory parthways
b. excesssive persistent dilatation of the air spaces after terminal bronchioli
c. excessive dilatation of pulmonary arterioles
d. collaps of the lung parenchyma
e. excessive persistent dilatation of the II-nd caliber bronchi

50.The basic pathogenetic mechanism of pulmonary emphysema is:

a. imbalance between proteinases and anti proteinases with predomination of
antyi proteinases
b. imbalance between proteinases and anti proteinases with predomination of
proteinases
c. imbalance between trypsin ans alpha-1 anti trypsin with predomination of
trypsin*
d. imbalance between trypsin ans alpha-1 anti trypsin with pedomination of
alpha-1 anti trypsin
e. imbalance between thrombogenetic and fibrinolytic factors with
predomination of fibrinolytics

51.The sources of enzymes which can damage alveoli are:

a. mastocytes
b. neutrophils
c. monocytes
d. exocrine pancreas
e. hepatocytes

52.Pulmonary emphysema is characterized by:

a. increase of the residual volume of lungs
a. Inspiratory dyspnea
b. reduction of the vital capacity of lungs
c. expiratory dyspnea
d. reduction of the forced expiratoy volume in time of 1-st sec