Unformatted text preview: ENLISTED PROFESSIONALISM Block 1 SECTION 1 MILITARY FO

RMATIONS 1. Drill instills discipline and fosters what kind of habits? Precision
and automatic response 2. Traditionally, awards are handed out in what manner?
From most senior award to most junior 3. Which of the following is NOT a reason
to conduct a personnel inspection? To use as a tool to punish your Sailors 4 As
a leader, you will organize your Sailors into formation for which one of the fol
lowing occasions? Awards ceremony 5. During the Revolutionary War, _____________
_ developed a set of standardized drills for General George Washington and the C
ontinental Army. Baron von Steuben 6. Which event would NOT require the Commandi
ng Officer to order the ship to man the rails? Leaving the shipyards after 120 d
ays 7. Who is known as the Drillmaster of the American Revolution ? Baron von Steub
en 8. What type of command is the first word in Parade Rest ? Preparatory 9. At the
beginning of the Revolutionary War, ______________ was the leaders' primary too
l to achieve discipline in ranks. fear 10. What do you call the extreme right or
left of an element? FLANK 11. As a leader, you can only command Sailors to the
position of parade rest, from what position? Attention 12. Sailors are in a ____
_________, when placed in formation one behind the other? File 13. Which of the
following events would not require you, as a leader, to hold military quarters?
Refueling evolution 14. What is the distance between ranks? 40 15. A/an_________
_ can be a single person or a section of a larger formation. Element File 16. Wh
en giving a command, what do you call the rise and fall of the pitch in your voi
ce? inflection 17. What order allows room for the inspecting party to step betwe
en ranks to conduct an inspection of the sailors? OPEN RANKS 18. Manning the rai
ls in today s Navy is equivalent to Manning the yardarm and cheering in the days o
f sail. 19. As a leader, which situation would cause you to expect a personnel i
nspection of your sailors? Prior to the seasonal uniform change SECTION 2 MILITA
RY UNIFORMS, CUSTOMS AND COURTESIES 1. When in a military vehicle and an officer
is seen, who renders the hand salute? The right front passenger seat salutes 2.
What does Title 10, U.S. Code mandate with respect to uniforms? The requirement
to generate, maintain, and update the uniform regulations 3. When walking with
a senior, what side do you walk on? LEFT 4. Who exits a military vehicle first?
The senior leaves first 5. How do you recognize the Sergeant Major of the U.S. A
rmy? The hat insignia and rank insignia contain the eagle from the great seal 6.
What is the U.S. Army s highest enlisted pay grade? Sergeant Major 7. What is mea
nt by under arms ? When wearing a side arm or carrying a weapon 8. At what distance
do you begin your salute when approaching an officer? At six paces or closest p
oint of approach. 9. The Air Force rank associated with its highest enlisted pay
grade is that of ? Chief Master Sergeant 10. What is the definition of prescriba
ble items? Uniform items which may be directed or authorized for wear with the b
asic uniform. Items may be worn with basic uniforms at the individual s discretion
unless otherwise directed. 11. What Army rank is associated with the E-6 pay gr
ade? Staff Sergeant 12. What is meant by under arms ? When wearing a side arm or ca
rrying a weapon 13. What is the definition of prescribable items ? uniform items wh
ich may be directed or authorized for wear with the basic uniform. Items may be
worn with the basic uniform at individual s discretion unless otherwise directed S
ECTION 3 THE FLEET RESPONSE PLAN 1. Presence with a purpose provides what? Routin
e 2. Which report issued a mandate for the U.S. military to transform leading to
adoption of FRP? 2001 Quadrennial Defense Review 3. Who did Admiral Vern Clark
task with developing a plan to replace the 18-month inter-deployment training cy
cle (IDTC)? Commander, Fleet Forces Command 4. When is a CSG considered surge re
ady? When they have completed unit level phase training 5. The Fleet Response Pl
an places a carrier strike group in these four categories? Emergency surge, surg
e ready, routine deployable, deployed 6. The Fleet Response Plan is often referr
ed to as what? Fleet Readiness Plan 7. What time frame does the Fleet Response P
lan use as its cycle? A 27-month cycle 8. At its core, the Fleet Response Plan i
s? a mission driven, capabilities-based response plan 9. The Fleet Response Plan
calls for how many carrier strike groups to be deployable within 30 days? 6 10.
When is a ship, sub, or squadron considered routine deployable? After successfu
lly completing all necessary capabilities training including completion of under
way sustainment phase training and certification of the unit for forward deploye
d operations 11. Which Sea Power 21 initiative changed the way the U.S. Navy dep
loys and trains the Fleet? Sea Basing 12. What does the 6 + 2 plan provide? 6 CS
G available to deploy within 30 days, plus 2 available to deploy in 90 days 13.
Due to the war on terror, Secretary of the Navy England challenged the U.S. Navy
to do what? Maintain its relevance 14. Under the 27-month Fleet Response Plan,
a carrier strike group is surge ready for how many months? Approximately 16 mont
hs 15. The flexible deployment concept allows units that have attained high read
iness to embark on deployments in support of specific national priorities such a
s? homeland defense 16. When is a CSG considered in emergency surge status? When
they have successfully completed their unit level phase training phase SECTION
4 CPO HISTORY, DUTIES AND RESPONSIBILITIES 1. The only article of the CPO unifor
m described in the 1897 Uniform Regulations was the? hat device 2. Which regulat
ion established the grade of chief petty officer on 1 April 1893? US Navy Regula
tion Circular Number 1 3. On 23 May, 1978, the CNO approved new roles and respon
sibilities for a chief petty officer. Which of the following was a defined role?
The top technical authority and expert within a rating 4. The CNO/MCPON Advisor
y Panel was established in 1971 to? Represent the enlisted force to Navy leaders
hip on professional and personnel issues 5. The Career Compensation Act of 1949
established what significant change? It designated chief petty officers as paygr
ade E-7 instead of paygrade 1 6. What initiative led directly to the recommendat
ion for establishing the billet of Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy? The R
etention Task Force of 1964 7. In the early 1900 s Sailors of all rates were promo
ted to fill what first? Voids in critical Navy billets, normally in their own co
mmand 8. During the early 1900 s chief petty officers could receive a permanent ap
pointment based on? Satisfactory performance, as evaluated by the commanding off
icer 9. On 28 April 1967, ____________ became the first Master Chief Petty Offic
er of the Navy. GMCM Delbert Black 10. What is not a responsibility of the Maste
r Chief Petty Officer of the Navy? Report to CNP 11. On 13 January 1967, GMCM De
lbert Black was officially appointed as the first? Senior Enlisted Advisor of th
e Navy 12. The duties and responsibilities of a master chief petty officer in 19
78 were? broadened to include contributing to command-level policy formulation 1
3. The paygrades of senior chief and master chief petty officer were established
in what year? 1958 14. The Chief Petty Officer Core Competencies were developed
to? Strengthen chief petty officer standards 15. According to the 1918 Blue Jac
ket s Manual, two roles of a CPO were . Technical expert and example setter 16. In
1958, the Career Compensation Act of 1949 was amended. The Navy created the sen
ior chief and master chief petty officer pay grades for what reason? To keep a c
hief beyond 20 years. SECTION 5 OVERVIEW OF MANPOWER MANAGEMENT OF THE SEL 1. TF
FMS provide access to current manpower data for? resource sponsors 2. Which stat
ement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)? Environment in which a co
mmand is expected to operate 3. Changes to the AMD can come from what factors? C
hanges in mission or equipment/systems added or deleted from the platform 4. OPN
AVINST 1300.15, Navy Military Personnel Assignment Policy, states Navy policy is
to make only permanent change of station (PCS) moves necessary for ____________
__. national security and/or to ensure equitable treatment of Sailors 5. Which s
tatement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)? Environment in which a
command is expected to operate 6. Manpower management determines manpower autho
rization priorities based on available funding and ______________. personal inve
ntory 7. Where do you find current and future peacetime and mobilization manpowe
r requirements and authorizations? Activity Manning Document (AMD) 8. Who prepar
es the statements detailing Required Operational Capability (ROC)? Mission and w
arfare sponsors Congress 9. OPNAV Instruction 1000.16, Manual of Navy Total Forc
e Manpower Policies and Procedures, defines manpower management as a? methodical
process 10. In manpower management, commands are responsible for what? Submitti
ng requests to revise, add, or delete requirements 11. For whom does the Personn
el Readiness and Support branch (PERS 4013) perform placement functions? Enliste
d 12. The methodical process of determining, validating, and using manpower requ
irements as a basis for budget decisions defines ______________. manpower manage
ment 13. The AMD is a single source document that provides? Quantitative and qua
litative manpower requirements 14. How often is the EDVR published? Monthly 15.
What is the single authoritative database for MPN manpower authorizations and en
d strength? TFFMS 16. Placement is an advocate for and detailers are advocates f
or . commands, sailors NAVAL CUSTOMS 1. proclaimed the Navy Birthday as a day fo
r reflection on Naval Heritage? Chief of Naval Operations, Admiral Jay L. Johnso
n 2. Why was the song Anchors Aweigh written? To inspire U.S. Naval Academy midshi
pmen at an Army-Navy football game in 1906 3. What was the objective of the Japa
nese attack on Midway? The Japanese hoped to lure the U.S. Pacific Fleet into a
battle where they could destroy it. 4. What led to the surprise of the Japanese
forces which had intended to do the same to the U.S. fleet units? Navy intellige
nce specialists in Hawaii discovered the plan and warned fleet 5. Which of these
statements is true regarding Anchors Aweigh ? It is played today at many athletic
events and parades. 6. Two days each year are designated specifically to celebra
te the U.S. Navy s heritage. These days are ____________________. Midway Night (ab
out 4 June) and the Navy s Birthday (13 October) 7. Why did some Americans oppose
the establishment of a Navy? All the answers are correct. 8. Have there been any
changes or additions to the original version of Anchors Aweigh ? Midshipman George
D. Lottman rewrote the lyrics into their present form so that they could be usa
ble today at a wide range of events. Midshipman Royal Lovell wrote a third stanz
a. 9. A popular use of the Navy Hymn is for the funerals of those who have served
in or with the United States Navy. A president whose funeral included this hymn
was ____________________. Franklin D. Roosevelt 10. What person or group of peop
le was actually the first to expend funds to obtain services from a sea service
in opposing the British military? George Washington used funds to contract for s
everal schooners to intercept British supply ships. 11. In general terms, what d
id the Continental Navy accomplish during the course of the War of Independence?
All the answers are correct. 12. What led to the surprise of the Japanese force
s which had intended to do the same to the U.S. fleet units? Navy intelligence s
pecialists in Hawaii discovered the plan and warned fleet headquarters. 13. Midw
ay Night has been observed since 2000. What activities are considered appropriat
e to commemorate that World War II battle? All the answers are correct. 14. What
is the Navy Hymn s connection to the United States Naval Academy? The first stanza
of the Navy Hymn is sung to close each chapel service during Sunday s Divine Service
s 15. Advocates for a Navy in 1775, led by John Adams, proposed that a Navy was
necessary for what purpose(s)? All the answers are correct. 16. The Battle of Mi
dway is considered important for what reason? Until that point, the Japanese Nav
y was on the offensive and this battle was a major turning point in favor of the
United States. 17. The author of Anchors Aweigh, Charles Adam Zimmerman, received
what sort of recognition by the midshipmen? All the answers are correct. 18. Wh
y was the date of 13 October selected to celebrate the tradition and history of
the naval service? It was on that day in 1775 that the Continental Congress vote
d to establish a Navy by outfitting two sailing vessels to intercept British tra
nsports 19. Where did the song known as the Navy Hymn to United States Navy men an
d women originate? It is one of many compositions by American bandmaster John Ph
ilip Sousa. A schoolmaster and clergyman of the Church of England wrote the orig
inal words around 1860. It was written expressly for military religious services
in the early 1900s. SECTION 2 CUSTOMS AND TRADITIONS 1. Which of the following
(is a)/are title(s) given to those who cross the equator at a significant line o
f longitude? Golden 2. The title given to Sailors who have sailed around the sou
thern tip of South America (Cape Horn) is? Mossback 3. Initiation rites that inc
lude hazing are ______. a violation of SECNAV Instructions 4. Among those eligib
le for burial at sea are ____. All the answers are correct 5. Which of these rul
es of etiquette apply to conduct within the boat? Avoid walking on varnished are
as. NOT-Juniors surrender their seats to seniors when asked. The conduct of a Di
ning-In is defined by ______________. Top of Form OPNAV Instruction 1710.7 Botto
m of Form 6. A junior officer serving as boat officer when his/her ship is at an
chor should overrule the decisions of the coxswain only in emergency 7. The foll
owing certificate denotes Sailors who have crossed the Arctic Circle Blue Nose 8
. Which of the following describes the burial at sea ceremony? Three volleys are
fired, followed by Taps. 9. Formal dinners promote. All the answers are correct 1
0. The Persian Excursion certificate inducts Sailors into which special group? M
ystic Society of One Thousand and One Nights 11. Which statement is an example o
f proper boat etiquette? Juniors board the boat first. 12. If all of the followi
ng are in a boat, which one is ultimately responsible for its safe operation? Su
rface Warfare Lieutenant 13. Sailors who have not crossed the equator are called
______. Pollywogs 14. The oldest of all seafaring traditions is? Burial at sea
15. What event resulted in the shift of center of the navy social life from ward
room to officers club? Alcohol was banned from navy vessels 16. the conduct of D
inning-in is defined by? OPNAV instruction 1710.7 SECTION 3 SHIP-CUSTOMS AND TRA
DITIONS 1. Before commissioning, a ship must complete and pass a series of Sea T
rials 2. Ship launching ceremonies began at the dawn of recorded history 3. Hail
ing protocols are not published in any regulation 4. The Navy s battle streamers sp
an the period from the Revolutionary War to Kosovo reflect Naval battles prior t
o WWII NOT- reflect only declared wars 5. The christening ceremony includes nami
ng of the vessel, knocking supports away so the ship glides into the sea, and th
en breaking a bottle of champagne across the bow 6. The U.S. Navy was the last s
ervice to adopt battle streamers 7. The sloop Concord is notable because it was
the first Navy vessel christened by a woman 8. While a ship is at anchor or at a
pier the OOD stands watch on the quarterdeck 9. What is the tradition of the qu
arterdeck? All the answers are correct 10. On modern ships, the quarterdeck is d
esignated by the Commanding Officer 11. The Returning Home Pennant is created by p
lank owners of the ship is an extra long commissioning pennant NOT- is always fl
own on return to home port 12. The Returning Home Pennant is distributed to the Co
mmanding Officer, officers, and crew upon arrival in port 13. You are standing w
atch at night as the OOD on board a ship at anchor as a small boat approaches. Y
ou call out Boat ahoy! and the boat s coxswain replies, John Paul Jones! He is announc
ing that the Captain of the John Paul Jones is on board his boat 14. All of thes
e activities are forbidden on the quarterdeck EXCEPT walking on the port side 15
. Ship christening in the U.S. Navy first was recorded for the USS Constitution
in 1797 16. All of these actions take place at the commissioning ceremony of a n
ew ship EXCEPT the Chief of Naval Operations reads the commissioning directive 1
7. Boat hailing protocols became necessary in the days prior to WWII, when large
ships usually anchored or moored, and boating was required 18. While on watch,
the Officer of the Deck (OOD). All the answers are correct 19. Today s Returning Ho
me Pennant ________. All the answers are correct. 20. Ships in the U.S. Navy ____
_____. are typically commissioned in public ceremonies with the ship s sponsor and
other prominent guests in attendance 21. Battle streamers_____? commemorate the
services of Sailors in the past 22. Stars on Navy streamers follow the practice
of a bronze star for each action, and a silver star in lieu of five bronze star
s Section 4 HONORS AND CEREMONIES The most traditional aspect of an official ins
pection is side honors are rendered to the official 2. There are three national
holidays, including ceremonies involving a 21-gun salute at noon, which receive
special remembrance by the U.S. Navy. These three are Washington s Birthday, Indep
endence Day, and Memorial Day 3. Morning and evening colors refers to ceremonies
in which the national ensign is raised and lowered 4. The tradition of the shad
ow box dates from the days of sail in the British Navy, wards off bad luck if th
e person s shadow were to hit the pier before the person, and includes a ceremonia
l box to contain things that reflect his/her tour 5. The highest sign of respect
for traveling dignitaries is passing honors 6. Gun salutes are currently offere
d in five second intervals 7. In which of these circumstances are passing honors
rendered? A small boat carrying the mayor of the Greek village you are anchored
near comes to pay an official visit. 8. What is meant by dressing ship ? Hoisting
a display of flags in celebration of a festival. 9. At the end of their careers,
all Sailors may All the answers are correct. 10. Half-masting the national ensi
gn is a symbol of mourning and respect 11. Which of the following is a part of b
oth the morning and evening colors ceremonies? All officers and crew face the en
sign and salute 12. Instructions for planning a retirement ceremony are containe
d in MILPERSMAN 1800-010 13. Passing honors are All the answers are correct. 14.
The Change of Command Ceremony always includes all hands called to quarters, or
ders read, and statements: I relieve you, Sir, and I stand relieved 15. Gun salutes
were considered a sign of good faith because ____________________. in the days o
f sail, firing left the ship vulnerable they demonstrate the equality of nations
shots deliberately were aimed away from targets Ships in the U.S. Navy ________
______. Top of Form are typically commissioned in public ceremonies with the shi
p s sponsor and other prominent guests in attendance Bottom of Form ETHICS AND PRO
FESSIONALISM FOR THE WARFIGHTER Section 1 MILITARY ETHICS OVERVIEW 1. The Princi
ple of Utility is All of the answers are correct 2. The Western ethical heritage
is descended from ancient Greece, where ethics meant custom. Today, military ethi
cs are derived from our Services core values and heritage 3. Thoughts such as: lif
e has no purpose or meaning, truth can not be known, and what I do doesn't matter bes
t typify which one of the following? Nihilism 4. The idea of absolute truth is n
ot a fundamental tenet of the military concept of duty False 5. Character-based e
thics argues right choices come from building good character and pursuing virtue
6. Lawlessness and looting that often follow the apparent removal of all legiti
mate authority from an area in the wake of war or national disaster typifies: Fr
eedom-based ethics Character-based ethics Rule-based ethics 7. In the view of th
e rule-based system of ethics, there is the notion there are absolute truths and
moral standards that are true at all times in all places for all people and all
situations. True 8. A supposition that some mix of common sense and scientific
inquiry will always lead to a conclusion that is true typifies A reason-based ap
proach to truth and justice 9. Select the result of ethical failures by military
personnel. All the answers are correct 10. Freedom-based ethics focus on Decisi
ons arrived at based on self-interests or impulses 11. Aristotelian virtue, stoi
cism, and VADM Stockdale s leadership were founded upon the ethical approach of ch
aracter-based ethics 12. Relativism is a subset of the following ethical system
Freedom-based ethics 13. Some relativists would question whether reality can be
accurately assessed or measured. True 14. Ethical systems may be generally class
ified as freedom-based, rule-based, or character-based 15. An ethical person is some
one who chooses to live the life people ought to live 16. Relativism postulates
All the answers are correct 17. The character-based system of ethics argues righ
t choices come from pursuing the greatest happiness for the greatest number. False
18. Utilitarianism is sometimes considered to be a subset of ___. consequential
ism 19. Thoughts such as: I do whatever I want, no one can stop me, and I take what I
want and harm anyone who gets in my way best typify which one of the following?
Communism Criminality Anarchy 20. ________ posits that truth and right are part
of natural order of things ..? Natural Law 21. Utilitarianism can best be represen
ted by the following phrase: NOT-We should steadfastly do what is right and fulf
ill our moral duty regardless of what is happening around us Section 2 ETHICS IN
THE PROFESSION OF ARMS 1. is the problematic philosophy of the ethical standard
of doing what is best for me; it does nothing to preclude evil. Egoism 2. Moral d
evelopment is a life-long process, with the objective of achieving moral effecti
veness 3. Which one(s) of the following constitute(s) the body of moral principl
es or values governing military professionals? All the answers are correct. 4. M
oral development theory tells us that there are sequential levels of moral reaso
ning. What is the ideal toward which moral development leads? It is the path to
becoming a person of character. 5. Well-developed knowledge, abilities, and valu
es in which of the following is NOT necessary for effective moral development? M
oral relativism 6. Moral ____________________ is the ability to recognize when a
problem is not merely a narrow, technical dilemma that lends itself merely to a
narrow, technical solution, but rather is one with some richer moral content. A
wareness 7. is a common bond all military professionals share based on the mutua
l accountability that comes with self-regulation. Corporateness 8. A military pr
ofessional must utilize any means necessary to contribute to the common good. Fa
lse 9. Even with moral awareness, moral reasoning, and moral courage, is it stil
l possible to act ineffectively? Yes 10. What differentiates a mercenary from a
military professional? The military professional exhibits a moral dimension earn
ing the trust of society. 11. The ability, right, and ____________________ of se
lf-regulation are part of what transforms an association into a profession. resp
onsibility 12. Moral ____________________ is the willingness and desire of an in
dividual resulting in the execution of what he or she has determined (through kn
owledge, instinct and/or reasoning) is the right thing to do, regardless of diffic
ulty. courage 13. An expert with specialized knowledge and skill in a significan
t field of human endeavor best defines. professional a 14. Moral ________________
____ enables a person to work through a logical and objective process for determ
ining and articulating reasons that distinguish right from wrong. reasoning 15.
Moral development requires certain conditions to occur; people must be morally A
ll the answers are correct 16. The key distinction(s) between a profession, craf
t, and art, is/are All the answers are correct 17. An officer has the obligation
to exercise responsibility and be concerned with anything that might impact all
of the following, EXCEPT personal recognition and remuneration 18. Which statem
ent is NOT true regarding the professional responsibilities of military professi
onals? NOT-financial remuneration A military professional must take ownership we
ll beyond the scope of any specific job. A military professional does not have a
n obligation with regards to influences on material and resource management 19.
A key component of professional responsibility is accountability 20. Which of th
e following are the three recognized characteristics of all professions? Experti
se, responsibility, and corporateness 21. ___________ permits a military leader
to exercise the ordered use of force to achieve a desired political objective th
at serves the nation at large. Expertise 22. Moral ____________________ is the c
omprehensive ability to bring together all of one s knowledge, skills, and values
in order to accomplish the intended action. effectiveness 23. Extensive knowledg
e of right and wrong and sophisticated moral reasoning skills will necessarily l
ead to moral behavior. False 24. A Sailor has the obligation to exercise respons
ibility and be concerned with anything that might impact all of the following, E
XCEPT ____________________. Personal recognition and remuneration 25. What const
itute(s) the body of moral principles or values governing military professionals
? All of the answers are correct. Section 3 ETHICS AND THE WARFIGHTER 1. In addi
tion to granting prisoners of war certain rights, the Geneva Convention obligate
s prisoners of war to act in certain ways. Which of the following is NOT true re
garding these obligations? The Geneva Convention forbids prisoners of war from a
ttempting escape 2. A demonstration of moral courage is indicative of the abilit
y to demonstrate physical courage, and vice-versa. 3. is the good personal chara
cter and reputation of honesty and loyalty. False Honor 4. Which philosopher s pro
posed system of ethics is most closely associated with the Navy s Core Values? Ari
stotle: Nicomachean Ethics 5. is/are a duty-bound standard of performance to be ad
hered to, even in the most difficult circumstances. of Conduct 6. The Geneva Con
vention provides legal protection for The Code prisoners of war 7. Which one(s)
of the following allow(s) for judicial penalties after repatriation for misdeeds
committed while a prisoner of war? The Uniform Code of Military Justice 8. Whic
h of the following is NOT a precept upon which the Code of Conduct is based? Tru
th is relative 9. The Code of Conduct was created due to the failure of American
service members to escape, and due to their contributions to the enemy s propagan
da effort during which conflict? World War II The Korean War 10. The Code of Con
duct only applies if the detaining country adheres to the Geneva Convention. Fal
se 11. I will bear true faith and allegiance. I will obey the orders of the Presid
ent of the United States and the orders of the officers appointed over me, accor
ding to regulations and the Uniform Code of Military Justice. I will support and d
efend the Constitution of the United States against all enemies, foreign and dom
estic. Honor, Commitment, Courage 12. In addition to granting prisoners of war ce
rtain rights, the Geneva Convention obligates prisoners of war to act in certain
ways. Which of the following is NOT true regarding these obligations? The Genev
a Convention forbids prisoners of war from attempting escape. 13. The Oath of En
listement is significant in the Profession of Arms because it clearly states a S
ailor s duty from the moment of enlistment 14. The Oath of Enlistment is clear reg
arding the hierarchy of loyalties. Which of the following best demonstrates this
priority (highest to lowest)? Ship, shipmate, self 15. In the process of inspir
ing confidence in a team, a leader may need to manage the team s perceptions of wh
o the leader is, to the point of hiding certain information; perception manageme
nt may be a legitimate goal. True 16. Which of the following, if not resolved pr
ior to being presented with an ethical challenge, poses a risk to choosing the p
roper course of action in accordance with the Oath of Enlistment? Loyalty 17. Wh
en a Sailor is presented with a potential or real conflict between honesty and l
oyalty, which of the two is more important? This is an ethical dilemma which can
not be resolved without amplifying information and/or context. 18. The primary
assertion of Aristotle s Nicomachean Ethics is characteristics develop from correspo
nding activities 19. Regarding interrogation under the terms of the Geneva Conve
ntion, which one(s) of the following is/are true? The detaining power has the ri
ght to interrogate a prisoner of war. 20. Which of the following statements is N
OT part of the Code of Conduct? will not make an attempt to escape, nor aid othe
rs in their attempt to escape. 21. What value must be balanced by a healthy sens
e of commitment so that a team sees its contribution to the overall mission, but
the individuals of the team do not think of themselves as indispensable links t
o mission accomplishment? Responsibility 22. Which of the following is NOT a rig
ht of prisoners of war under the Geneva Convention? The right of enlisted person
nel to refuse to perform paid labor The right to practice religious faith NOT-Th
e right to send and receive mail 23. Which of the following is NOT true regardin
g professional oaths? A professional oath allows for value judgments to be based
on relative truths 24. is the state of being involved in an obligation and prov
ides the wherewithal to continue in a task to the realization of its completion.
Commitment Section 4 THE JUST WAR TRADITION 1. The jus ad bellum criterion of j
ust cause has traditionally included self-defense and defense of an innocent thi
rd party under attack 2. The notion that a just war may be morally preferable to
an unjust peace can be traced back ____________________. more than 1600 years 3
. While the moral burden of jus in bello falls primarily on military leaders, po
litical leaders often play a key role in establishing targeting policy, approvin
g specific targets, and developing rules of engagement. True 4. The jus ad bellu
m criterion of last resort requires ____________________. that all reasonable no
n-violent options be explored before using military force 5. Key principles of t
he jus in bello are proportionality and _____. discrimination 6. In order for a
war to be considered just, it must meet a majority of the criteria of jus ad bel
lum. False 7. The jus ad bellum criterion of proper authority limits the decisio
n-making authority to go to war to the most senior military commanders. False 8.
The moral principles of the Just War Tradition ____________________. help to se
t the military professional apart 9. Jus in bello relates to _______. the justif
ication for resorting to war. 10. Jus ad bellum relates to ____________________.
the justification for resorting to war NOT-the legality of the actual conduct o
f hostilities the legality of means for terminating armed conflict 11. The Just
War Tradition is the informal name of the Laws of Armed Conflict. False 12. Key
principles of the jus in bello are proportionality and ____________________. dis
crimination 13. Jus ad bellum and jus in bello govern all aspects of war. True 1
4. The jus in bello principle of discrimination requires that __________________
__. non-combatants not be the direct object of attack 15. The following military
personnel are considered to be non-combatants: Chaplains and medical personnel
16. The proportionality principle of jus in bello requires ____________________.
that the harm done to civilians and non-combatants in a military operation not
outweigh the good accomplished by the operation 17. The moral burden of jus ad b
ellum falls primarily on ____. political leaders 18. The jus ad bellum criterion
of probability of success requires reasonable hope of accomplishing the intende
d good 19. All members of the U.S. military are bound by the Law of Armed Confli
ct and the Geneva Conventions. True 20. The just war tradition incorporates hist
orical principles of ____________________. theology, philosophy, and law 21. The
proportionality principle of jus in bello requires ____________________. NOT-th
at the weapons NOT-that the damage done 22. The just war tradition incorporates
historical principles of ____________________. Theology, philosophy and law 23.
The moral burden of jus ad bellum falls primarily on ____________________. POLIT
ICAL LEADERS GOVERNANCE OF THE NAVY LEGISLATION AND POLICY SECTION 1 OVERVIEW OF
THE MILITARY JUSTICE SYSTEM 1. Article 138 of the Uniform Code of Military Just
ice __________. provides a Service member the opportunity to file a complaint of
wrongs against his or her commanding officer 2. Which of the following is true?
The Military Rules of Evidence do not apply at nonjudicial punishment 3. The Mi
litary Rules of Evidence can be found in ___. the Manual for Courts-Martial 4. W
hich of the following is true? Congress cannot pass any law that would prohibit
an action that is already prohibited by a state law. Congress has the authority
to enact laws concerning any subject or area which it feels needs to be addresse
d by a federal law. Congress is limited by the Constitution to enact only those
laws that relate to the authority of the federal government. 5. Which of the fol
lowing is true? A general court-martial is composed of a military judge, a defen
se counsel, a prosecutor and at least five members. 6. A convening authority is
responsible for ___________. All of the answers are correct 7. The Constitution
______________________. All of the answers are correct. 8. Which contains orders
for the administration of a Navy unit? The Plan of the Day 9. Which of the foll
owing is NOT true? Because Congress has the Constitutional authority to regulate
the military, the Department of Defense is part of the legislative branch of th
e federal government. 10. Which of the following is NOT true? A summary court-ma
rtial can have jurisdiction over all military service members 11. Which of the f
ollowing is NOT true? Active duty military personnel who are captured and held b
y an enemy are no longer subject to the Uniform Code of Military Justice. 12. Wh
ich of the following answers will make the following statement NOT true? The Sta
ndard Organization and Regulations Manual of the U.S. Navy (SORM) ______________
____. is issued by the Chief of Naval Operations is issued by the Secretary of t
he Navy and maintained by the Chief of Naval Operations 13. Nonjudicial punishme
nt, as provided for by Article 15 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice, is al
so known as _____________. Captain s Mast 14. The Uniform Code of Military Justice
was enacted ____________. by Congress in 1950 15. The maximum punishment which
may be given at a special court-martial is limited to _______________. one year
confinement, three months of hard labor without confinement, forfeitures of two-
thirds pay for not more than one year, reduction to paygrade E-1, and bad conduc
t discharge one year confinement, three months of hard labor without confinement
, forfetures of all pay for not more than one year, reduction to paygrade E-1, a
nd bad conduct discharge one year confinement, six months of hard labor without
confinement, forfeitures of two-thirds pay for not more than one year and bad co
nduct discharge 16. Which of the following is NOT true? The United States Navy R
egulations (NAVYREGS) specifies the procedures for Captain s Mast. The United Stat
es Navy Regulations is issued by the Chief of Naval Operations. The United State
s Navy Regulations (NAVYREGS) is endowed with the sanction of law. 17. A Service
member _____________. does not have the protection of the rules of evidence at
Captain s Mast 18. Which statement is true? If a statute does not address a partic
ular situation present in a case before a court, the statute automatically does
not apply. Because military courts are outside of the judicial branch of the fed
eral government, they are not bound by prior Supreme Court decisions. If a court
, when presented with a certain set of facts, lays down a principle of law, the
court is bound by that decision if substantially the same set of facts are prese
nted in a later case 19. The term Administrative Law refers to ________________. s
tatutes enacted by the legislative branch (Congress or state legislative bodies)
that govern how agencies are to be administered regulations made by governmenta
l agencies in order to allow those agencies to carry out their duties 20. A memb
er of a general court-martial _________________. is the military equivalent of a
civilian prosecutor is the military equivalent of a civilian judge is the milit
ary equivalent of a civilian juror 21. Which contains orders for the administrat
ion of a Navy unit? Plan of the Day SECTION 2 STANDARDS OF CONDUCT AND GOVERNMEN
T ETHICS 1. Which of the following statements is NOT true? The Standards of Cond
uct apply only to Department of Defense civilian employees. Military personnel a
re governed solely by the Uniform Code of Military Justice. 2 Which of the follo
wing actions would most likely be prohibited? Because of the large number of mil
itary dependents that attend schools in the local community, a base commanding o
fficer attends meetings of the local school board as part of his official duties
. This has been approved by his chain of command. At one meeting he is invited t
o become a part of the board s steering committee. He accepts. 3 Which of the foll
owing would most likely be prohibited? A Commander s husband works for a defense c
ontractor that supplies the Commander's unit (she s a department head) with suppli
es. Her husband is one of thirty executives at his company. She is invited to at
tend the contractor s annual retreat with her husband. She is told by the contract
or s CEO that the spouses of all of the executives were invited. Upon arrival the
Commander realizes that she is the only spouse in attendance and because of that
, she and her husband are given a luxury suite while the other executives share
double rooms. Because she was told all of the spouses were invited, she stays at
the retreat 4 The main purpose of the Standards of Conduct is to __________. en
sure Federal employees serve the public good 5 Which of the following statements
is NOT true? The Standards of Conduct only prohibit actual abuses. 6 Which of t
he following is NOT true? Private wagers between roommates living in government
assigned living quarters are never prohibited. 7 . A CDR is concerned that her h
usband s employment may cause a conflict of interest in her role as the base suppl
y officer. In order to avoid any possible later disciplinary action should it be
determined that there is a conflict of interest, she should ____. seek advice f
rom a designated ethics counselor and disclose all relevant facts to that person
8 Which of the following is NOT true? Federal employees may solicit gifts to be
used as door prizes at events such as Morale Welfare and Recreation fund raiser
s. 9 Which of the following actions is most likely to be prohibited? The mainten
ance officer of a F/A 18 squadron is offered $2000.00 to write a magazine articl
e concerning the maintenance scheduling procedures he was introducing into his s
quadron 10 Civilian Department of Defense employees who violate the Standards of
Conduct may face ______. Select all answers that would make the above statement
true: fines and prosecution by the Federal government termination 11 The primar
y source of guidance and information on standards of conduct for military person
nel is _________________. DOD Directive 5500.7R 12 Criminal laws pertaining to f
ormer Department of Defense employees seeking post-government employment can be
found in _______________. Department of Defense Joint Ethics Regulations United
States Code, Title 18 the Uniform Code of Military Justice 13 In response to an
appeal by a local charity attempting to raise money to assist the victims of a n
atural disaster that had destroyed several hundred homes in the local community,
a command desires to officially support and hold a fun run. The event will be par
t of the charity s fundraising effort and monies raised will be turned over to tha
t charity. Which of the following is true? The Office of Personnel Management ma
y approve emergency disaster appeals. 14. The Commanding Officer of an aircraft
carrier is retiring. Which gift(s), if accepted by the Commanding Officer would
most likely NOT be prohibited? One of the carrier s divisions pitch in $2.00 per s
ailor and buys the Commanding Officer a framed picture of the ship valued at app
roximately $90.00. Another division collects $1.00 per sailor and presents the C
ommanding Officer with a brass bell valued at approximately $75.00. The Chief s Me
ss presents the Commanding Officer with a sword valued at approximately $200.00.
15 A command is taking part in the annual Combined Federal Campaign fund raisin
g drive. Which of the following actions would most likely NOT be prohibited? The
commanding officer announces at morning muster that the Combined Federal Campai
gn is a worthy cause and that he hoped each sailor would give some thought in th
eir decision to giving or not. 16 Which of the following is NOT a prohibited act
ivity? In order to fund its annual summer picnic, a command s Morale Welfare and R
ecreation committee plans to hold a bake sale the week prior to the picnic. 17 W
hile on official travel, a Commander is involuntarily bumped from her flight. Th
e airline books the Commander on the next flight which won t leave until the next
morning and gives her one free round trip ticket as compensation. Which of the f
ollowing statements is true? All of the answers are correct. 18. The base comman
der is asked by a local church if it could use a softball field on the base for
their annual picnic as its field was destroyed by a grass fire. As part of the c
hurch s community outreach program, underprivileged children of the community are
to be invited to partake in the festivities. Which of the following statements i
s NOT true? This is absolutely prohibited by the Standards of Conduct. Consultat
ion with an Ethics Counselor is highly recommended before any decision is made.
19. Which statement is NOT true? Each agency within the executive branch of the
Federal government has its own, unique ethical code. 20. Which of the following
would be prohibited ? The commanding officer gifts. NOT-a third class MM SECTION
3 PRIVACY ACT 1. Willful violations of Privacy Act provision will subject a per
son to felony criminal prosecution. False 2. The Privacy Act gives individuals t
he right to correct factual inaccuracies contained in their records. True 3. The
person who is the subject of a record which falls under the protection provided
by the Privacy Act, has the right to access all records held by the government
that pertains to him or her. False 4. Why is it important to protect one's perso
nal information? All of the answers are correct 5. What is a common way for con
artists and thieves to obtain someone's personal data? All of the answers are co
rrect 6. The military gathers and maintains _____. All of the answers are correc
t. 7. Before releasing information without consent of the subject of record, com
manders should _____________________________. request an advisory opinion from t
he staff judge advocate in his or her chain of command 8. To obtain credit in so
meone else s name, unscrupulous individuals simply need to have that person s name a
nd date of birth. False 9. The Privacy Act provides that citizens are permitted
to access records maintained by the government and request amendments to erroneo
us information that may be contained in those records. True 10. The release of p
rotected information to a third party, without the consent of the individual of
concern, include situations where ______. the information is needed for use in a
census or statistical research 11. Actions which would not constitute criminal
activity under the Privacy Act include disclosing private information to someone
who does not have an official need through 12. There are some records the Gover
nment is not required to release to a requestor. These records are referred to a
s ______________. exempt 13. The purpose of the Privacy Act is to control the co
llection, maintenance, and use of personal information, as well as to? All of th
e answers are correct 14. A record is _____. any collection, grouping, or item o
f information about an individual maintained by an agency 15. requires Navy pers
onnel to protect all records that include personally identifying information. Th
e Sellers admendment to the Pricay Act DOD and DON policy 16. An individual s requ
est for access to his or her records must be in writing. False 17. In order to r
equest an individual's personal information, the U.S. government _____. has to n
otify the subject that the record will be reviewed, but does not need to ask the
permission or to provide an explanation should give an appropriate Privacy Act
notification explaining why the Government needs the information and how it will
be used does not need to notify the subject of the record 18. The privacy Act d
oesn t permit the subject of the record access to his/her info. false SECTION 4 LA
WFUL AND UNLAWFUL ORDERS 1. A service member is accused of violating a general o
rder issued by the base commander. Which of the following is true? The service m
ember is most likely being prosecuted for violating Article 92 of the Uniform Co
de of Military Justice. 2. A LT driving home is pulled over by a Seaman Recruit
in his duties as a member of the base police force. Believing the LT to be drivi
ng while drunk, the Seaman Recruit orders the LT to exit the automobile in order
to conduct a field sobriety test. The LT refuses to and only exits the vehicle
when the Seaman Recruit s supervisor, a LCDR arrives and orders the LT to exit the
car and take the test. The LT complies and is found not to be impaired. Which o
f the following statements is true? The LT may be found guilty of violating Arti
cle 92 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice. 3. A LT orders a group of enlist
ed sailors to cease what they are doing in order to help load a truck with suppl
ies so that the supplies can get to the airfield in time to be loaded on a plane
headed for Iraq. The sailors inform the LT that their commanding officer (who i
s also the LT s commanding officer) had ordered them to finish testing the unit s ra
dios in preparation for an inspection the following day. The LT then directs the
sailors to help with loading the truck and then return to the radios. The sailo
rs then head over to help load the truck. Which of the following statements is t
rue? Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, Paragraph 1024 requires the LT to immediately
report his actions to his commanding officer and explain the necessity of diver
ting the sailors from the task the commanding officer ordered them to accomplish
. 4. In order for a service member to be found guilty of Failure to Obey a Gener
al Order _____________. it must be shown beyond a reasonable doubt that the gene
ral order was in effect and that the service member either violated or failed to
obey the general order 5. In 1995, Army Specialist 4 Michael New refused to wea
r United Nations beret and armband as part of his uniform as he believed that th
e order to do so was not a lawful order. Which of the following statements is tr
ue? A military courtmartial determined the order to be lawful and he was convict
ed of failure to obey a lawful order. 6. What should a service member do when gi
ven an order that is unclear, but appears to be an unlawful order? Select all an
swers which make the above statement true: Determine if the order is in contradi
ction to previously issued orders. Ask for clarification of the order, in writin
g if necessary 7. provides instruction on when a junior service member may issue
orders to a military senior. Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, Paragraph1039 8. Whi
ch of the following statements is true? An order that contradicts an earlier ord
er given by an officer senior to the one giving the contradicting order may be a
lawful order. 9. A Navy LT is accused of willfully disobeying a lawful order gi
ven to him by a Marine major. At the time the order was given, the LT had never
seen the major before, the major was not in uniform and did not have his militar
y ID with him. The LT did not obey the given order. Which of the following is tr
ue? The LT might be not guilty of violating article 90 of the UCMJ if he did not
know that the individual giving him the order was a Marine major 10. Which of t
he following is true? All orders from competent authority are presumed lawful. 1
1. A Third Class Petty Officer willfully disobeys a lawful order given him by a
warrant officer. If prosecuted, the petty officer would be accused of violating
________________. NOT- Article 90 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice Navy R
egulations, Chapter 10, Paragraph 1039 Article 91 of the Uniform Code of Militar
y Justice 12. The maximum penalty for willfully disobeying a superior commission
ed officer is ______________. time of war death during 13. Which of the followin
g is NOT true? Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, paragraph 1039 provides that flag o
fficers are only required to obey orders from a military police officer if the m
ilitary police officer is a warrant or commissioned officer. 14. Which of the fo
llowing is NOT true? A service member may only receive a lawful order from a ser
vice member who is senior to him or her in rank. 15. The maximum punishment for
insubordinate conduct towards a warrant officer is discharge from the service wi
th a dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and confineme
nt for two years 16. A Navy Reserve medical detachment headed by a Navy Reserve
Medical Corps Captain, is attached to a Navy ship commanded by a Navy Commander.
Which of the following is true? The Commander may issue orders to the Captain a
s provided for by Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, paragraph 1039. 17. A commission
ed officer may be found guilty violating all of the following except Article 91
of the Uniform Code of Military Justice 18. What is the proper action for a serv
ice member to take when given an order that is obviously illegal? Refuse the ord
er and report to higher authority. 19. An officer (LT) receives an order from a
superior (CDR) which annuls an order received from another superior (CAPT). The
LT protests this new order and shows the CDR the orders from the CAPT. The LT ev
en represents the facts in writing to the CDR. The CDR insists that his order be
followed. What should the LT do? NOT-follow the order issued by the CDR. Nothin
g more needs to be done NOT-report the incident SECTION 5 ROLES, MISSIONS, AND F
UNCTIONS OF THE DON 1. As defined by Joint Publication 1-02, the primary purpose
of an amphibious operation is to: Introduce a land force ashore from ships or c
raft. 2. By definition, Sea Control operations include which of the following: Sel
ect all answers which make the above statement true: (1) Suppression of enemy se
a commerce, (2) Protection of vital sea lanes, (3) Destruction of enemy naval fo
rces. 3. In accordance with Title 10, U.S. Code, the United States Marine Corps
is tasked with the role of coordinating the development of those phases of amphi
bious operations that pertain to the tactics, techniques, and equipment used by
landing forces with the Army and the Air Force. True 4. The nuclear triad consists
of: SSBNs, ICBMs, and air-delivered strategic nuclear weapons. 5. The functions
specified for the Department of the Navy by Department of Defense directive 510
0.1 authorizes the Department of the Navy to develop force structure to accompli
sh which one(s) of the following? Primary functions. 6. Strategic deterrence ass
umes: All of the answers are correct. 7. Which of the following has been assigne
d the task of managing strategic sea lift in the Joint arena? The U.S. Navy and
the U.S. Maritime Administration 8. By Congressional statute, the Department of
the Navy includes the operating forces of the U.S. Maritime Administration and U
.S. Coast Guard, including the U.S. Coast Guard s reserve component. False 9. Is Se
a Control a concept that embraces the notion of universal dominance of the sea at
all times, or limited control of the sea in place and in time? Limited control
in place and time due to prudent employment of assets 10. help focus the organizi
ng, training, and equipping of forces efforts of the services. Service-specific f
unctions 11. According to section 5062 of Title 10, U.S. Code, the United States
Navy s principal reason for existence is: To conduct operations at sea The conduc
t of land campaign operations as may be essential to the prosecution of a naval
campaign. 12. The naval service is specifically granted authority to develop airc
raft, weapons, tactics, organization, and equipment of naval combat and service
elements by Title 10, U.S. Code. Why is this important? To explicitly prevent con
tention with the U.S. Air Force in the employment of naval aviation. 13. Which o
ne(s) of the following assign(s) specific responsibilities, principally outlined
in Department of Defense Directive 5100.1, to enable the services to fulfill th
e purposes for which they were established: Select all answers which make the ab
ove statement true: The President The Secretary of Defense The Supreme Court The
Congress 14. Which service is the only one whose minimum force structure is cod
ified in law? The U.S. Marine Corps 15. The list of service-specific functions con
tinues to evolve over time. Initially authored in Executive Order 9877, the term
functions in this context refers to: Those various activities, operations, and ca
pabilities for which the services are responsible. 16. This act placed the job o
f carrying out broad operational missions into the hands of joint organizations
and took it out of the hands of the individual services, essentially making the
Services force providers for the combatant commanders (COCOMs). The Department o
f Defense Reorganization Act of 1958 17. Maritime power projection includes: All
of the answers are correct. 18. Currently, ____ contains the service-specific s
tatements that outline the basic purpose of each of the armed forces. Title 10,
U.S. Code 19. The term ______ establishes each Service s primacy in its respective
domain of war. Area of Operations (AOR) Functions Roles 20. In accordance with
DOD Directive 5100.1, which of the following services has primary responsibility
for the development of amphibious landing force doctrine, tactics, and techniqu
es of common interest to the U.S. Army and U.S. Marine Corps? U.S. Marine Corps
21. are those tasks assigned to the unified and specified combatant commanders b
y the President of the United States or the Secretary of Defense. Functions Role
s Missions 22. Why has the U.S. Marine Corps been tasked with being prepared and
equipped to carry out land operations? To provide the combatant commander with
an on-call land capability To establish a second land army for the United States
. 23. Which of the following is not one of the six general categories into which
Department of the Navy functions fall into? Space Superiority 24. Which stateme
nt is TRUE? Congress specifies broad roles 25. Which of the following does NOT f
all under the Department of the Navy? Director of the coast guard 26. The primar
y role of the Navy is to ____________________. Conduct prompt and sustained comb
at ops 27. Amphibious operations is a Department of the Navy (DON) function prim
arily associated with: the marine corps 28. Service-specific functions were init
ially outlined by President Truman in Executive Order 9877 in the late _________
_______. 1940 29. Since 1958, the primary task of the Services has been to _____
________. Provide trained and ready forces to combat commanders 30. ____________
___ direct(s) that naval aviation shall be an integral part of the naval Service
and grant(s) it authority to develop aircraft, weapons, tactics, technique, org
anization, and equipment of naval combat and service elements. Congress 31. The
Marine Corps is tasked with which Department of the Navy (DON) functions? Land o
ps and amphibious ops 32. The role of the individual Armed Services is: NOT-to d
efine specific 33. __________________ functions authorize a Service to develop f
orce structure to accomplish them. Primary 34. Which of the following is a role
of the United States Marine Corps? All answers are roles of usmc 35. The mission
of the U.S. Armed Forces is To Complete tasks assigned to combatant commanders
by the President or Secretary of Defense 36. Strategic sealift is a vital functi
on of the Department of the Navy (DON) because: Deployed navy and marine corps f
orces need periodic resupply of consumable goods to sustain operations 37. Sea c
ontrol is an important function of the Department of the Navy (DON) because: It
provides the ability to conduct ops in specific area 38. false From the beginnin
g, Congress intended the U.S. Marine Corps to serve as a second land army in the e
vent the U.S. Army required additional ground combat forces. SECTION 6 NATIONAL
MILITARY ORGANIZATION 1. A carrier strike group ____. has two chains of command
administrative and operational 2. An operation conducted in South Africa would f
all under the responsibility of the Africa Command 3. The Navy s ballistic submari
nes operate as a component of which combatant command? Strategic Command Europea
n Command 4. Which of the following geographic combatant command(s) is/are headq
uartered outside of the United States? European Command The 5. Which geographic
combatant command is responsible for the largest geographic area? Pacific Comman
d 6. The advisors to the National Security Council, by law, are _________. the C
hairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of Central Intelligence the Ch
airman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, National Security Advisor and Director of C
entral Intelligence 7. The Joint Staff _____. is responsible only to the Chairma
n of the Joint Chiefs of Staff 8. Combatant Commanders submit their reports for
operational requirements to the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff so that he
may better incorporate those views in his advice to the President and the Secre
tary of Defense 9. The Central Command ______. is organized as a headquarters el
ement with no war fighting units permanently assigned to it 10. The responsibili
ty to train, equip, and provide combat-ready special operations forces to the ge
ographic Combatant Commanders _______________. is a mission of the Special Opera
tions Command 11. The Joint Chiefs of Staff are ___________________. not in the
administrative nor operational chains of command 12. The National Security Counc
il's members include, by law, _____________. the President, Vice President, Secr
etary of State and Secretary of Defense 12.5 The statutory members of the Nation
al Security Council are the ______________. the President, Vice President, Secre
tary of State and Secretary of Defense 13. The Defense Intelligence Agency _____
_______. is designated as a Combat Support Agency and thus has some oversight pr
ovided by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff 14. The National Security Co
uncil is chaired by ____________. the President 15. An outbreak of hostilities b
etween India and Pakistan would most likely occur in the area of responsibility
of ______________. the Central Command and the Pacific Command 16. Operational a
nd contingency plans are _______. reviewed by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs o
f Staff to determine their adequacy and feasibility 17. The European Command ___
___. has deployed forces outside of its theater in support of Operations ENDURIN
G FREEDOM and IRAQI FREEDOM 18. The functional combatant commands ______________
_____. are assigned worldwide functional responsibilities 19. is responsible for
developing the National Military Strategy. The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of
Staff 20. The Chief of Naval Operations ____. must place his duties as a member
of the Joint Chiefs of Staff ahead of his duties to the Secretary of the Navy as
a military service chief 21. is/are the President s principal defense policy advi
sor(s). The Secretary of Defense 22. The overseas area where U.S. interests are
mostly likely to be directly threatened is the area of responsibility of _______
_______. the Northern Command the Central Command 23. The Unified Command Plan _
_____________. is prepared by the Secretary of Defense and signed by the Preside
nt 24. The Joint Chiefs of Staff consist of __________. -the Chairman, Vice Chai
rman, Chief of Staff of the Army, Chief of Naval Operations, Chief of Staff of t
he Air Force and Commandant of the Marine Corps -the Chairman, Chief of Staff of
the Army, Chief of Naval Operations, Chief of Staff of the Air Force and Comman
dant of the Marine Corps -the Chairman, Chief of Staff of the Army, Chief of Nav
al Operations, Commandant of the Coast Guard, Commandant of the Marine Corps and
Chief of Staff of the Air Force 25. The component commands of the Transportatio
n Command are __________. (1) the Air Force s Air Mobility Command, (2) the Navy s M
ilitary Sealift Command and (3) the Army s Surface Deployment and Distribution Com
mand 26. The President s cabinet includes ___. the Secretary of Defense as a milit
ary representative 27. In the administrative chain of command, the Service Chief
s report to ________. the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff who in turn repo
rts to the Secretary of Defense their respective Service Secretaries who then re
port to the Secretary of Defense 28. A unified command _______________. has a br
oad, continuing mission must be composed of forces from all of the military serv
ices 29. The United States two most senior ranking military officers are ________
__. always the Chairman and Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff 30. The N
orthern Command's commander is _____________. also the Commander of the Joint Fo
rces Command also the Commander of the North American Aerospace Defense Command
(NORAD) is not responsible for executing civil support mission within the United
States 31. Deploying joint forces to geographical combatant commanders is the r
esponsibility of ________________. the Secretary of Defense the geographical com
batant commander who will ultimately command those forces the Joint Forces Comma
nd 32. The Special Operations Command ________________. provides combat-ready sp
ecial operations forces to American Ambassadors does not execute combat missions
although considered a geographical combatant command, it has no geographic boun
daries 33. The Commandant of the Coast Guard _______________. is a military serv
ice chief but is not a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff is prohibited by stat
ute to participate in meetings of the Joint Chiefs of Staff 34. The Unified Comm
and Plan ________________. sets forth the basic guidance to all of the service c
hiefs establishes the missions, force structures and responsibilities of the com
batant commanders 34. Which of the following statements concerning the Unified C
ommand Plan (UCP) is FALSE? The document is prepared by the Chairman of the Join
t Chiefs of Staff and signed by the President. The UCP sets forth basic guidance
to the geographic and functional combatant commanders. The document establishes
the missions of the Combatant Commands. 35. The Secretary of Defense ____. issu
es operational orders to the various combatant commanders using the Chairman of
the Joints Chief of Staff as his communications conduit 36. The lead combatant c
ommand(s) in planning, directing and executing the Global War on Terrorism is/ar
e ____. the Special Operations Command 37. Which combatant commander is also the
Commander of the North American Aerospace Defense Command (NORAD)? US north com
mand 38. Which of the following statements is TRUE? The Chief of Naval Operation
s, as a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, may submit advice to the President
that is in disagreement with the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff 39. Which
of the following Combatant Commands has the support of NATO as one of its missi
ons? US European command 40. Which of the following statements is FALSE? The CNO
as a service chief is in operational control of specops 41. Which of the follow
ing statements is FALSE? The vice chairman of the JCS is subordinate to the serv
ice chiefs 42. Which of the following statements is FALSE? The President of the
United States has the authority to determine the members of the National Securit
y Council 43. Combatant commanders are responsible directly to the _____________
_. SecDef and Pres 44. Which of the following statements is FALSE? The Chairman
of the Joint Chiefs of Staff is in the operational chain of command of every U.S
. military unit. 45. The two types of Combatant Commands are ______________. geo
graphic and functional 46. Which of the following statements is TRUE? U.S. Speci
al Operations Command is the lead Combatant Command in the U.S. Global War on Te
rrorism. 47. Which of the following is NOT a Combatant Command? U.S. Military Se
alift Command 48. Which of the following would make this statement FALSE? The Co
mmandant of the Coast Guard ______________. as a military Service Chief, is a me
mber of the Joint Chiefs of Staff 49. Which of the following is NOT a responsibi
lity of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff? Operational command of milita
ry units not involved in combat 50. Which of the following statements is TRUE? E
ach military unit has one chain of command for accomplishing operational mission
s and one chain of command that provides the necessary support functions. 51. wh
ich combatant commands have their HQ outside of the US ? US Euro command and Us
Africa command 52. Which statement is TRUE? The Vice Chairman of the Joint Chief
s of Staff is senior to the service chiefs. 53. The responsibilities of the Serv
ice Chiefs include all of the following EXCEPT ______________. reporting to the
Secretary of Defense as part of the operational chain of command 54. Which state
ment concerning the National Security Council is TRUE? The secretary of state is
a member of the National security council. SECTION 7 1. The National Security S
trategy ______________. specifically sets as a goal the turning over of suspecte
d terrorists to the International Criminal Court for prosecution encourages demo
cracies to protect independent and impartial systems of justice 2. As addressed
in the President's cover letter to the National Security Strategy, ___ must take
 the lead in order for the world to successfully confront problems like human tr
afficking and the proliferation of weapons of mass destruction. the United State
s 3. The National Security Strategy states that ______. Select all answers which
make the above statement true: globalization has exposed us to many new challen
ges globalization presents many opportunities 4. Which of the following statemen
ts is NOT one of the short term steps required to combat and defeat terrorism __
__? permitting terrorist groups a know sanctuary in rogue states so that targeti
ng terrorist cells is less difficult 5. The National Security Strategy points ou
t that ___. because of the potentially devastating events of an attack with WMD,
the United States will not rule out the use of preemptive force 6. The most cur
rent National Security Strategy explicitly states that ______________. Select al
l answers which make the above statement true: - the United States preference is
to address proliferation concerns through international diplomacy, in concert w
ith key allies and regional partners - the United States will not act unilateral
ly in destroying threats to the United States located in foreign nations the Uni
ted States has not ruled out preemptive acts against those forces that threaten
the United States 7. The National Security Strategy s essential task of global eco
nomic growth includes ______________. All of the answers are correct 8. In order
to deal with threats before they can damage our people or our interests, the Un
ited States must ______________. withdraw from regional alliances to ensure the
pursuit of our national interests is not hindered by others maintain a military
without peer 9. The National Security Strategy takes the position that _________
_____. left unaddressed, regional conflicts can lead to failed states Palestinia
ns, through their sponsorship and at the very least tacit support of terrorism,
have forfeited their an independent nation patient efforts to end conflicts are
normally seen as tolerance of the intolerable rights to 10. To complete the task
of Expanding the Circle of Development, the United States will ______________.
Select all answers which make the above statement true: All of the answers are c
orrect. 11. The most current National Security Strategy covers ______________. a
ll branches of the federal government 12. The current National Security Strategy
______________. builds upon the framework of the last National Security Strateg
y, updated to take into account the time that has passed and the events that hav
e occurred 13. As part of the United States task of championing aspirations for h
uman dignity, The National Security Strategy seeks to ____. All of the answers a
re correct 14. The National Security Strategy argues that winning the war on ter
ror ______. Select all answers which make the above statement true: -will, in th
e short run, require both military force and other instruments of national power
to kill or capture terrorists, deny them safe haven, and cut off their sources
of support in the long run, requires winning the battle of ideas -will, in the sho
rt and long runs, always be about using military force to seek out and kill terr
orists 15. The National Security Strategy states that ____ is America's most imm
ediate challenge. terrorism 16. The National Security Strategy states that _____
_________. peace and international stability are most reliably built on a founda
tion of freedom 17. The National Security Strategy s essential task of transformin
g the nation s National Security Institutions will require _____. reorienting the
State Department towards transformational diplomacy which promotes effective dem
ocracy and responsible sovereignty 18. The pillars upon which The National Securit
y Strategy is built upon are ______________. promoting freedom, justice, and hum
an dignity, working to end tyranny, to promote effective democracies, and to ext
end prosperity through free trade and wise development policies and to confront
the challenges of our time by leading a growing community of democracies 19. The
National Security Strategy is ______________. signed personally by the Presiden
t of the United States signed by the Secretary of State for the President of the
United States 20. ______________ instrument of national power. economic Top of
Form Bottom of Form 21. The ______________ provides a framework for establishing
national priorities, choosing a strategic approach, and allocating resources ne
cessary to achieve national goals. National Security Strategy (NSS) 22. Which or
ganization coordinates the employment of America s instruments of national power?
National Security Council 23. The primary purpose of the National Military Strat
egy (NMS) is to implement the National ______________ Strategy. Defense 24. ____
__________ is/are responsible for supporting worldwide economic and trade relati
onships that advance fundamental U.S. objectives. The US gov 25. Per Joint Publi
cation 3-0, Doctrine for Joint Operations, the art and science of employing inst
ruments of national power in a synchronized and integrated fashion to achieve th
eater, national, and/or multinational objectives is called _____________. Strate
gy 26. The military instrument of national power is most effective when its use
is synchronized with the other three instruments. TRUE 27. When a combatant comm
ander uses military forces on foreign soil, the combatant commander of the regio
n in which U.S. forces are employed, retains control of those forces. TRUE 28. T
he National ______________ Strategies comprise the two capstone documents for th
e Department of Defense. Defense and military 29. The ______________ instrument
of national power is the primary means through which the U.S. engages with forei
gn nations or groups. diplomatic 30. The _____ instrument of national power has
no single center of control. informational 31. Which of the following is NOT one
of the four instruments of national power discussed in Joint Publication 1? Pro
duction 32. Military might is the United States most important instrument of nati
onal power. FALSE 33. Possessing a credible threat of military force tends to un
dermine the effectiveness of diplomacy. FALSE 34. The ______ is the law that req
uires the President to prepare the National Security Strategy for Congress. Gold
waterNichols Act 35. All other national strategies are subordinate to the ______
________. - National Security Strategy (NSS) 36.The primary purpose of the Natio
nal Military Strategy (NMS) is to implement the National ______________ Strategy
. Defense 37.The ______________ is focused on the military instrument of nationa
l power and the Department of Defense. National Defense Strategy (NDS) 38.Select
True or False: When a combatant commander uses military forces on foreign soil,
the combatant commander of the region in which U.S. forces are employed, retain
s control of those forces. True 40.Select True or False: Possessing a credible t
hreat of military force tends to undermine the effectiveness of diplomacy. False
41.Select True or False: The military instrument of national power is most effe
ctive when its use is synchronized with the other three instruments. True 42.___
___________ is/are responsible for supporting worldwide economic and trade relat
ionships that advance fundamental U.S. objectives. The U.S. government 43. The _
___ is top-level strategic guidance that is prepared by the executive branch of
government and signed by the President. - National Security Strategy (NSS) SECTI
ON 8 NATIONAL DEFENSE STRATEGY 1. Because terrorist and other extremist groups c
onstitute the greatest threat to the U.S. for the foreseeable future and the lik
elihood of interstate conflict has declined, the Department of Defense can affor
d to decrease its capabilities to defeat state adversaries with minimal risk to
U.S. regional interests. False 2. The term Future challenges risks concerns ______
__. risks associated with the Department of Defense s capacity to execute future m
issions successfully 3. The term Operational risks concerns ______. risks associat
ed with the current force executing the National Defense Strategy successfully w
ithin acceptable costs 4. The Department of Defense s top priority is ____________
__. improving our military s proficiency in irregular warfare 5. Select the false
statement. The ability to convince a potential adversary that it cannot achieve
victory is the sole focus of deterrence. 6. Select the false statement. The conc
ept of Total Force includes only the Armed Forces. 7. Deterrence is ____. a strate
gic objective contained in the National Defense Strategy 8. The National Defense
Strategy was first promulgated ____. in 2005 9. Encouraging other nations to av
oid destabilizing paths is ______________. one of the ways to achieve the object
ives of the National Defense Strategy 10. Which of the following would make this
statement false. The National Defense Strategy contemplates the Department of D
efense working with ______________. None of the answers would make the statement
false 11. Select the statement that is false. In the war against violent extrem
ist movements, working with and through local actors is inefficient 12. Which of
the following is NOT an objective of the National Defense Strategy? Prevent adv
ersaries from acquiring weapons of mass destruction 13. Given the increase in th
e number of rogue states in the contemporary world environment, the likelihood of
interstate conflict has increased. False 14. Securing U.S. strategic access and
retaining freedom of action ______________. is required in order to meet our nat
ional security needs 15. Which of the following statements is false? The Nationa
l Defense Strategy recognizes the role of our allies and partner nations. The Na
tional Defense Strategy is derived from the National Military Strategy. The Nati
onal Defense Strategy outlines how the Department of Defense will contribute to
achieving the National Security Strategy objectives. 16. The National Defense St
rategy is based on unilateral U.S. action. False SECTION 9 NATIONAL MILITARY STR
ATEGY 1. The priorities essential to the success of the Armed Forces outlined in
the National Military Strategy are ______________. (1) winning the War on Terro
rism while protecting the United States; (2) enhancing our ability to fight as a
joint force; and (3) transforming the Armed Forces by fielding new capabilities
and adopting new operational concepts 2. The National Military Strategy states
that the primary task of the Armed Forces is ______________. the application of
military force to achieve the objectives of the National Military Strategy 3. Th
e National Military Strategy is guided by the goals and objectives contained in
the ______________ and serves to implement the ______________. National Security
Strategy, National Defense Strategy 4. Deterring aggression and coercion ______
___. must be anticipatory in nature 5. As discussed in the National Military Str
ategy _______. an adversary must believe that the United States has the ability
to impose severe consequences in response to hostile or potentially hostile acti
ons for deterrence to be successful 6. Which of the following statements is not
true? Concerning armed conflict, the National Military Strategy is limited to ga
ining a decisive victory, post-conflict stability is the role of civilian govern
ment agencies and departments. 7. Rogue states can threaten global and regional
stability by ______________. All of the answers are correct 8. The functions and
capabilities required of the Joint Force in achieving the objectives of the Nat
ional Military Strategy are ______________. (1) applying force; (2) deploying an
d sustaining military capabilities; (3) securing battlespace; and (4) achieving
decision superiority 9. The National Military Strategy provides that the first a
nd foremost military priority is ______________. the protection of the United St
ates against attack 10. Which of the following is not a tool that may be used by
an adversary in an attack against the United States or its interests? None of t
he answers are correct 11. Which of the following is true? The combatant command
ers assist the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff in developing the National
Military Strategy. 12. The non-state actors that menace stability and security m
ay include ______________. terrorist networks, international criminal organizati
ons, illegal armed groups and individuals 13. Adversaries, as discussed in the N
ational Military Strategy, include ______________. states, non-state organizatio
ns and individuals non-state organizations and states 14. To support the Joint F
orce s function of deploying and sustaining military capabilities ______________.
the National Military Strategy requires the Armed Forces to increase its expedit
ionary logistics capabilities 15. Which of the following is not true? Terrorist
and criminal organizations can only operate from rogue states. 16. Which of the
following will make the statement NOT true? The National Military Strategy _____
_________. states that defending the United States against missile attack is no
longer a priority 17. The National Military Strategy is ______________. the high
est level guidance document issued by a uniformed military officer the basis of
the National Defense Strategy 18. In its guidance on the development of the Join
t Force, the National Military Strategy ______________. Select all answers which
make the above statement true: tasks commanders to develop plans that integrate
actions with other government requires commanders to ensure military activities
are synchronized among the various services 19. The complex battlespace used by
adversaries to threaten the United States include ______________. All of the an
swers are correct. SECTION 10 JOINT VISION FOR FUTURE WARFIGHTING 1. In order to
sustain and increase the qualitative military advantages the United States enjo
ys today requires _______. a transformation achieved by combining technology, in
tellect, and cultural changes across the joint community 2. A Joint Integrating
Concept is _______. Not - a description of how a Joint Force Commander will inte
grate capabilities to generate effects and achieve an objective 3. Required capa
bilities and attributes are identified by __________. Joint Functional Concepts
4. Joint Operating Concepts are concerned with what level of war? Operational 5.
 Which of the following is not true? None of the answers are correct 6. A Joint
Operating Concept describes how a Joint Force Commander will accomplish a strate
gic objective _________. 8-20 years in the future 7. The Joint Concepts Developm
ent and Revision Plan ____________. describes a systematic process that will ass
ist in guiding the creation of a Joint Force that will succeed in the battlespac
e of tomorrow 8. A joint concept is _____. a visualization of future military op
erations that describes how a commander might employ capabilities to achieve des
ired effects and objectives 9. Joint Functional Concepts ________________. recei
ves their operational context for development and experimentation from a Joint O
perating Concept 10. A joint concept __________________. describes a particular
military problem and proposes a solution that can be supported by logic and inve
stigated through experimentation 11. Joint concepts are developed and refined th
rough ____________. experimentation 12. The ________________ is the overarching
description of how the future Joint Force will operate and occupies the highest
position in the hierarchy of concepts. Capstone Concept for Joint Operations 13.
At the Joint level, the guiding document in synchronizing the effort of joint c
oncept developers to link strategic guidance to the development and employment o
f future capabilities is the ______. Joint Operations Concepts Development Proce
ss 14. Joint Functional Concepts provide _________. functional context for Joint
Integrating Concepts development and joint experimentation 15. provides the uni
fying framework for the family of joint concepts. The Capstone Concept for Joint
Operations 16. Joint Functional Concepts support _______________. the Capstone
Concept for Joint Operations and Joint Operating Concepts 17. A Joint Operating
Concept __________________. identifies broad principles and essential capabiliti
es 18. Which of the Joint Concepts has the narrowest focus? Joint Integrating Co
ncept 19. Full Spectrum Dominance is __________________.the ability to control a
ny situation or defeat any adversary across the range of military operations SEC
TION 11 SEA POWER 21 1. Which of the following is NOT true? forward presence glo
bally. Sea Basing will use the increasing number of overseas bases to expand our
2. Which of the following is true? Sea Strike options include the landing of Ma
rines from ships on a hostile shore. 3. Which of the following is NOT considered
essential to the Navy s ability to counter the increased risk to the United State
s in the future? None of the answers are correct. 4. Which of the following is N
OT true? Seapower 21 does not have a focus that includes regional challenges. 5.
The three fundamental concepts that are key to Navy s continued operational effec
tiveness are ______. Sea Strike, Sea Shield, and Sea Basing 6. The Maritime Strat
egy was ______. a Cold War-era strategy focused on war-at-sea with the USSR in a
blue water environment 7. Sea Shield will protect U.S. national interests with d
efensive power based on _______. presence, and networked intelligence control of
the seas, forward 8. The Sea Power 21 fundamental concept that will lead to the
acceleration of expeditionary deployments and employment timelines by pre-posit
ioning vital equipment and supplies in-theater is _____. Sea Basing 9. Which of
the following statements is NOT true? FORCEnet is the glue that binds together Sea
Trial, Sea Warrior and Sea Enterprise. 10. Sea Warrior will address the challen
ges brought on by ________. the reduced crew sizes that are the result of optima
l manning policies and new platforms 11. Which of the following is NOT true? FOR
CEnet is the effort to integrate personnel, sensors, networks, command and contr
ol, platforms, and weapons into a fully netted, combat force. FORCEnet is vital
in the enabling of Sea Strike. FORCEnet is the follow-on program to Task Force E
XCEL a fully integrated force wide network of linked computers. 12. Sea Trial wi
ll be coordinated by ____. the Navy Warfare Development Command 13. The foundati
on upon which offensive and defensive fires are projected is ____________. Sea B
asing 15. Sea Trial is concerned with ______________. the implementation of a co
ntinual process of rapid concept and technology development 16. Sea Power 21 was
published by __________. the Chief of Naval Operations 17. Which of the followi
ng is NOT true? Sea Shield focuses on the defense of individual Navy platforms,
the U.S. fleet and the sea lines of communications 18. Task Force EXCEL is _____
________. a program associated with Sea Warrior 19. Sea Strike ______________. i
s the foundation from which offensive and defensive fires are projected is the a
bility to project precise and persistent offensive power from the sea provides t
he United States with sea-based strategic defense 20. The Marine Corps tactical
aviation integration plan is an example of ___________. Sea Enterprise a Task Fo
rce EXCEL initiative 21. ______________ serves as the foundation from which offe
nsive and defensive combat power is projected. Sea Basing 22. _FORCEnet__ is the
glue that binds Sea Strike, Sea Shield, and Sea Basing together, serving as the a
rchitectural framework for naval warfare in the information age. 23. Which of th
e following is NOT a fundamental concept key to the Navy s continued operational e
ffectiveness as described in Sea Power 21? Sea advantage 24. __Sea Power 21___ s
ets the Navy s vision for future maritime operations. 25. What is the main idea ou
tlined in the guidance presented in Sea Power 21? It is the navys vision for the
21st cent 26. While vision establishes the Navy s goals, ______________ is/are the
way the Navy goes about achieving those goals. strategy 27. The _Sea Warrior__ p
rogram is designed to develop naval professionals who are highly skilled, powerf
ully motivated, and optimally employed for mission success. 28. The need to impl
ement a continual process of rapid concept and technology development that will
deliver enhanced capabilities to our Sailors as swiftly as possible, is the idea
behind which initiative of Sea Power 21? - Sea Trial 29. Achieving battle-space
superiority in forward theaters, especially as enemy area-denial efforts become
more capable, is the focus of which fundamental concept of Sea Power 21? Sea Sh
ield 30. ______________________ operations are how the 21st century Navy will ex
ert direct, decisive, and sustained influence in joint campaigns. Sea Strike 31.
Sea Trial will be Fleet-led, with Commander, ______________ serving as Executiv
e Agent. US fleet forces command 32. The Sea Power 21 initiative _Sea Enterprise
__ provides guidance to improve organizational alignment, refine requirements, a
nd reinvest savings to buy the platforms and systems needed to transform our Nav
y. 33. _FORCEnet__ is an overarching effort to integrate warriors, sensors, netw
orks, command and control, platforms, and weapons into a fully netted, combat fo
rce. 34. This element of Sea Power 21 provides the nation with sea-based theater
and strategic defense. Sea Shield 35. __Sea Basing__ is a fundamental concept o
f Sea Power 21 that accelerates expeditionary deployment and employment timeline
s by pre-positioning vital equipment and supplies in-theater. 36. The Naval Oper
ating Concept for Joint Operations outlines the _____________ used by the warfig
hter. Tactics 37. The Navy Values ____ as its highest priority. Operational exce
llence 38. Which document helps guide key financial planners is developing the N
avy s annual budget? The Navy Strategic Plan SECTION 12 COOPERATIVE MARITIME STRAT
EGY 1. The security and prosperity of the United States is inextricably linked t
o the security and prosperity of other nations. True 2. Which of the following a
re threats to national and world security and prosperity? All the answers are co
rrect. 3. is a core capability of U.S. maritime power. None the answers are corr
ect 4. Maritime forces require the cooperation of land forces in order to protec
t our citizens. False 5. ____ is a strategic imperative that can be accomplished
through sea power. All the answers are correct. 6. Speed is a characteristic of
maritime forces. True 7. One of the consequences of the expanding global economi
c system is ______________. Increased competition for scarce resources 8. The ma
ritime domain supports what percentage of the world s trade? 90% 9. The United Sta
tes will employ ______________ to accomplish its strategic imperatives. All the
answers are correct 10. Which of the following is a theme used to develop the Co
operative Maritime Strategy? Work with our partners around the world to prevent
war. 11. is one of the six key tasks of naval forces. Deter major power war 12.
Maritime forces lack the capability to approach deterrence with conventional, un
conventional, and nuclear forces. False 13. The Cooperative Maritime Strategy se
eks to ______________. integrate sea power with other elements of national power
14. Maritime forces provide decision makers with ______________. All the answer
s are correct. 15. U.S. homeland defense efforts provide the highest level of se
curity by integrating ______________. answers are correct. All the 16. One of th
e ways that maritime forces protect the homeland is to ______________. disrupt a
nd neutralize threats far from the U.S. 17. will be required to partner to count
er the maritime domain s emerging threat. All of the answers are correct 18. is th
e ability to operate freely at sea. Sea control 19. is a characteristic of marit
ime forces. All of the answers are correct 20. ______________ is one of the most
 potentially disruptive forces to global stability. Major power war 21. ________
______ is one of the six key tasks of naval forces. Deter major power war BLOCK
4 THE AMERICAN WAY OF WAR 1. Which post World War II operation(s) evidenced flaw
s in America s ability to fight small, low intensity conflicts? The Iranian hostag
e rescue attempt and Operation Urgent Fury in Grenada 2. During the American Rev
olution, the Continental Army ______. was created, in part, to convince potentia
l allies that the United States was a legitimate nation 3. The Second Seminole W
ar _______________. became a stalemate and was abandoned by the United States af
ter declaring victory 4. Although regular army forces participated in the hostil
ities, the Spanish American War was seen as a victory by militia ( volunteer ) force
s and proof that the United States didn t need to maintain a large standing army.
True 5. Guerilla warfare was not present in the Mexican and Civil Wars, which we
re fought solely between two conventional armies using conventional tactics. Fal
se. Guerilla warfare was present in both the Mexican War and the Civil War. 6. G
enerals Grant and Sherman provided very lenient terms of surrender to the Confed
erate forces of Lee and Johnston in order to _______________. avoid a protracted
guerilla war waged by disgruntled Confederate soldiers 7. General Winfield Scot
t s capture of Mexico City during the Mexican War was ____________________. an exa
mple of conventional 19th century warfare 8. One of the reasons for the unwillin
gness to fund a standing regular army following the American Revolution was ____
_. the absence of an immediate threat to the new nation 9. Following the end of
the First World War, the U.S. _______________. quickly demobilized the vast majo
rity of its large wartime army 10. The Europeans who first settled what would be
come the United States ______________. protection formed militias for 11. In ord
er to patrol the vast American frontier and to protect settlers moving west, a l
arge standing army was maintained by the United States after the Civil War. Fals
e 12. The United States maintained a large standing force after World War II bec
ause of ___. the perceived threat of the Soviet Union and the Warsaw Pact 13. Th
e Vietnam War shared what characteristic(s) with the Second Seminole War? All of
the answers are correct 14. The French and Indian War ended with a British vict
ory over the French at the Battle of Quebec. This led to the American View that wa
rs were won by the utilization of conventional armies. False 15. In the United S
tates, the Battle of New Orleans was seen as ________________. the defeat of the
best army in the world by an American militia force 16. Congress was unwilling
to expend the funds necessary to maintain a large standing army during the latte
r part of the 19th century because ____________________. it did not see any thre
at to the existence of the nation 17. Public opposition to fighting the Philippi
ne Insurrection was largely based on _______________. the idea that the acquisit
ion of colonies was incompatible with American values 18. During the American Re
volution, the American land forces found success against the British through ___
_________________. a combination of conventional and unconventional actions foug
ht by the Continental Army, the militia and irregular forces 19. During the time
between the First and Second World Wars, the American military was engaged in _
_____. a series of small actions throughout Central America and the Caribbean in
order to maintain order and discourage European intervention in the Western Hem
isphere 20. TRUE Today s Reserve Component and National Guard are direct descenden
ts of the militias established by the early European colonists. THE NAVAL WAY OF
WAR 1. In our time, in order to understand how the U.S. Navy responds to new mi
ssions, threats, tactics, and technologies, it s important to know _______________
____. the U.S. Navy s organizational culture 2. What is the best example of Indepe
ndence of Action? All of the answers are correct. 3. Organizational culture affe
cts the way the organization __. All of the answers are correct. 4. An organizat
ion s culture _________. All of the answers are correct 5. According to Admiral Ni
mitz, the primary responsibility of every commanding officer is to ______. is sa
fe ensure the ship 6. In close waters, what Navigational tool will help reduce e
rror and uncertainty of your location to a considerable degree? GPS 7. Why does
the Navy still fear technological advances? It could irrevocably alter, in a har
mful way, the values that traditionally have been held near and dear to the Navy
. 8. Navigation is ____________________. an art of approximation 9. Due to incre
ase in jointness in Naval operations there will be all of the following changes
in the future, except, with respect to ____________________. the U.S. fleet comp
osition 10. Historically, the Navy has generally possessed the most complex tech
nology available. True 11. What do all Navy s do? Establish and take control of th
e sea 12. The contemporary maritime strategy of the U.S. Navy __________________
__. All of the answers are correct 13. U.S. Navy ships were initially designed t
o protect aircraft carrier battle groups against the Russians and, at this time,
they ____________________. have adopted a new technology to a different mission
for air-ground support operations 14. According to the rule of Naval Warfare th
e Navy must achieve an absolute control of the sea. False 15. Put him in the pos
ition, let him do his job, and give him hell if he does not perform is the not-to
-centralize philosophy of the U.S. _______________. Navy 16. All ships are fragi
le and subject to peril for reasons other than enemy action. If the greatest per
il during non-wartime activity is water in the hull, then the second greatest pe
ril is ___________. fire 17. The Navy s organizational culture comes from __. All
of the answers are correct 18. The Navy s intent in extending control from the sea
to the land is to ______________. limit the enemy s freedom of action and to make
a sea barrier, not an avenue for maneuver 19. During non-wartime activity, what
can be equally dangerous but less expected in terms of safety of the ship and o
perating environment? Typhoons Tsunamis 20. By establishing control of the sea i
n the early stages of conflict, the Navy will Have strategic and operational fre
edom of maneuver and assure security for lines of coms 21. The Watch Officer Gui
de of 1941 is ______________. The best publication about the responsibilities . 22
. One of the things that initiated the NPME program was an interest ____________
__. An interest in reducing the degree of separation across individual officer c
omms 23. NPME and JPME are related to formal education for the younger generatio
n of officers. True THEORY OF WAR 1. The concept of an operational level of war
was first utilized ____________________. by Napoleon with his creation of a more
manageable battlefield through the use of divisions and corps each commanded by
a general officer who was well versed in his strategic objectives 2. Carrier st
rike group and expeditionary strike group commanders generally operate at what l
evel of war? Tactical 3. Actions are defined as strategic, operational or tactic
al based on _____________. the level of the objectives achieved or contributed t
o by the actions 4. An action undertaken by a Navy SEAL team operates at what le
vel of war? It varies depending on the level of the objective achieved or contri
buted to by the action 5. The concept of operational level of war developed ____
________________. in order to bridge the gap between strategy and national strat
egic objectives, and the tactics employed on the battlefield to achieve those ob
jectives 6. The principles of war ____________________. are a summary of the cha
racteristics of successful military operations 7. The principles of war include
____________________. NOT- objective, mass, economy of force, unity of command,
maneuver, secrecy, morale surprise, maneuver, mass, economy of force, simplicity
, offensive 8. The three components of military art are ____________________. st
rategy, tactics, and operational art 9. The introduction of a new weapon system
by the enemy ____________________. may change its center of gravity and may chan
ge its critical vulnerability 10. Commanders should focus their efforts on _____
_______________. concentrating strength against some relative enemy weakness 11.
Operational art was born during the ____. period following World War I 12. Operat
ional art ______. deals with the study, theory, and practice of planning, prepar
ing, conducting, and sustaining major operations and campaigns designed to accom
plish operational or strategic objectives 13. The concept of an operational leve
l of war was first utilized ______. by Napoleon with his creation of a more mana
geable battlefield through the use of divisions and corps each commanded by a ge
neral officer who was well versed in his strategic objectives 14. In current joi
nt and navy doctrine, centers of gravity _____. are those characteristics, capab
ilities, or sources of power from which a military force derives its freedom of
action, physical strength, or will to fight 15. The enemy s center of gravity __.
can change particularly at the operational and tactical level 16. Generally spea
king, the President, ___, function at the strategic level of war. the Secretary
of Defense, and the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff 17. An action undertak
en by a Navy SEAL team operates at what level of war? It varies depending on the
 level of the objective achieved or contributed to by the action 18. The concept
of operational level of war developed ____________________. in order to bridge
the gap between strategy and national strategic objectives, and the tactics empl
oyed on the battlefield to achieve those objectives 19. Which of the following i
s correct? The principles of war provide a basis for naval doctrine. 20. The mos
t significant preparation a commander can make is _____. to express clearly the
objective of the operation to subordinate commanders 21. The geographic areas of
responsibility for geographic combatant commanders are established at what leve
l(s)? Strategic 22. Which of the following is NOT true? Select one or more of th
e following: /-Electronic emission control does not contribute to the principle
of security, rather it contributes to the principle of surprise. -/ Gaining a th
orough understanding of the enemy's strategy, doctrine and tactics enhances our
ability to protect our forces 23. An enemy s critical vulnerability ______________
______. is a vulnerability that, if exploited, will do the most significant dama
ge to the enemy s ability to resist us The ______________ is that characteristic,
capability, or sources of power from which a military force derives its freedom
of action, physical strength, or will to fight - Center of gravity The term ____
__________ involves establishing goals, assigning forces, providing assets, and
imposing conditions on the use of force. - Strategy ________ is generally a weak
ness that, if exploited, will do the most damage to the enemy s ability to resist
our attack. - Critical vulnerability The ______________ level of war is the leve
l at which a nation determines national or multinational strategic security obje
ctives and policy, and develops and uses national resources to accomplish those
objectives - Strategic The purpose of the war principle maneuver is ______________
. - All the answers are correct To ensure a united effort under one responsible
commander for every objective is the purpose of which principle of war? - Unity
of Command The concept that helps us to think about how we must focus combat pow
er toward a decisive aim is the ____________ - Center of gravity DOCTRINE Which
is NOT one of the five publications that comprise the Naval Doctrine Publication
s (NDPs)? - Naval Law Navy Warfare Publications (NWPs) contain doctrine that ___
___________. - Covers mission areas ______________ allows naval forces to positi
on themselves in order to monitor a situation, remain on station, respond to a c
risis, or maneuver in combat with authority - Mobility ______________ allows nav
al forces to shift focus, reconfigure, and realign to handle a variety of contin
gencies. - Flexibility When must commanders adhere to the guidance provided by j
oint doctrine? - Always, except when the exceptional circumstances dictate other
wise Which of the following is a true concerning doctrine? - Provides a bridge b
etween strategy and tactics, techniques, and procedures Which of the following d
oes doctrine NOT provide? - An unchanging way to forever accomplish military obj
ectives Which of the following is NOT true of joint doctrine? - Joint doctrine a
llows the Navy to execute its missions by relying solely on its sustainability,
mobility, readiness and flexibility When is a commander required to adhere to mu
ltinational doctrine? - Only when operating as part of a multinational military
command and the doctrine and procedures have been ratified by the United States
or fall within U.S. law and policy Navy Tactical Reference Publications (NTRPs)
are ______________. - Considered stand-alone and descriptive in nature. Because
naval forces operate in a different medium the sea and its littoral regions they ___
___________. - Must be highly flexible, mobile, and self-sustaining Who approves
joint doctrine? - Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff Operating forward allow
s naval forces to ______________. - Attain and maintain situational awareness Wh
ich is an example of multinational doctrine? - NATO doctrine In what order is th
e hierarchy of naval doctrine organized? - Strategy, Naval Doctrine Publications
, Navy Warfighting Publications, Navy Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (NTTPs
) and Navy Tactical Reference Publications (NTRP) ______________ is the highest
level authoritative warfighting guidance for all the Armed Forces and provides t
he principles for integrating and synchronizing all our Service-provided capabil
ities into an effective and efficient joint team for the defense of our Nation.
- Joint Doctrine 1. The UNTL is ____________________. a comprehensive/hierarchic
al listing of Navy tasks at all levels of war 2. Joint doctrine is based on ____
__. current war plans 3. The type of doctrine publication that covers mission ar
eas, enabling functions, and the organization and support of forces for sustaine
d operations, is called __________________. NWPs 4. All doctrinal publications a
re reviewed ___. continually and revised due to fundamental changes or if it has
been ten years since the last revision 5. The joint doctrine development proces
s has four steps: ____________________. initiation, development, approval, maint
enance 6. Naval Doctrine Publications are capstone publications which _________.
link overarching Navy concepts to fleet operations 7. Which of the following is
NOT a characteristic of doctrine? Detailed threat profiles 8. Naval Doctrine Pu
blications are approved by ____. CNO and Commandant, USMC 9. Naval Warfare Publi
cations are approved by ___. Commander, NWDC 10. Which of the following is NOT c
haracteristic of NTTPs? They are not related to NWPs. 11. Joint doctrine and TTP
s in joint publications are ____________________. authoritative and approved by
the Chairman, JCS 12. Naval forces are best employed as part of a joint and/or m
ultinational force. True 13. Joint doctrine is authoritative, which means it mus
t be followed without exception. False 14. Tactics, techniques, and procedures a
re all non-prescriptive. False 15. Combatant commanders use the UJTL to develop
JMETLs. True 16. Which of the following is characteristic of NTRPs? They are not
necessarily related to NWPs. 17. The Navy Warfare Library provides ___. all pub
lications on the NWDC SIPRNET site 18. The Navy s web-based doctrine development p
rocess works through 19. Joint doctrine takes precedence over conflicting servic
e doctrine. True SECTION 1 COMMAND AND CONTROL: 1. Control is the ______________
_____ . commander s means of guiding a military operation commander s means of accou
nting for expenditures by the military authority that commanders lawfully exerci
se over subordinates . NWDC SIPRNET site 2. Which of the following is not an exa
mple of OPCON? Detailed direction in the application of force. 3. Which of the f
ollowing is not considered Tactical Control or TACON? Organization, logistics an
d training 4. OPCON would be delegated to ______________ . JTF commanders 5. Com
batant Command is exercised by unified or specified commanders through _________
__________. All of the answers are correct. 6. The principal element of command
and control is: Command 7. The process of command control includes which of the
following? All of the answers are correct. 8. The C organization is defined to in
clude ___________________ . All of the answers are correct. 9. Feedback is most
important to control because ___________________ . It gives commanders informati
on they will need to adapt to changing circumstances. 10. Which of the following
fit with the analogy between Command and Control and the functioning of the hum
an nervous system? All of the answers are correct 11. Why is C considered the sin
gle most important activity in war? Without it, military forces can lose organiz
ation and direction and fail to achieve their mission. 12. Command and control i
s _________ . a system and a process 13. OPCON and TACON: All of the answers are
correct 14. Which of the following are considered command and control support?
The people, facilities and equipment that provide information to commanders. 15.
U.S. forces, including U.S. Naval forces are ____ . May be placed under OPCON o
f a UN commander based upon a Security Council resolution 16. Operational contro
l or OPCON includes organizing commands and which of the following functions? an
swers are correct. 17. The Navy uses the Composite Warfare Commander concept as
___________. its doctrine for tactical command and control 18. C enables the Comm
ander to ______________. All the answers are correct. SECTION 2 JOINT FORCE MARI
TIME COMPONENT COMMANDER All of the 1. Under the JFMCC concept, logistics, perso
nnel support, and service-specific training would: Remain the responsibility of
the service component commander. Become the responsibility of the JFMCC 2. Ordin
arily the JFMCC will be given ____ . both OPCON and TACON 3. The Joint Force Com
mander has ___ . wide authority to organize the Joint Task Force 4. The JFMCC s su
bordinate commanders include: Both CSG and ESG commanders. 5. The Joint Force Co
mmander _____ . may retain control of any function 6. The goal of the JFMCC doct
rine is to: Integrate all Naval assets and capabilities into the Joint Force Com
mander s campaign plan. 7. Which of the following are typical war fighting functio
ns of the JFMCC? All of the answers are correct 8. The Maritime Task Plan is a w
eb-based data base that is used by the JFMCC to: All of the answers are correct.
9. During the Cold War the Navy assumed that when it fought at sea against the
Soviet navy , it would be: Fighting virtually independently of other U.S. and al
lied forces. 10. The MARSUPREQ is designed to _ . enable the commanders of Carri
er Strike Groups, Expeditionary Strike Groups and other functional components to
request JFMCC assets 11. The JFMCC is ordinarily composed of: A service or comp
onent staff, augmented by service staff. 12. What is the unifying factor in all
Joint Maritime Operations? Sea control 13. The JFMCC concept is _______ . still
under development in terms of specific details, although the broad functions hav
e been finalized 14. The functional approach as exemplified in the JFMCC (and th
e Joint Forces Air Component Commander and the Joint Forces Land Component Comma
nder) serves which of the following purposes? Better integrate military assets d
uring operations 15. The MARSUPREQ is used by subordinate commanders to ________
___________ . request specific support to execute assigned missions 16. The Join
t Force Maritime Component Commander ___. will not be designated if the JFC elec
ts to control maritime operations or relies upon the Navy service component comm
ander 17. Who will ordinarily have functional responsibility for the performance
of a JTF s maritime missions? JFMCC 18. The functional component commander is usu
ally: the service commander with the preponderance of forces assigned to the fun
ctional component 19. The JFMCC is equivalent to the following commanders ______
________. the JFCC and JFACC the Army and Air service component commanders SECTI
ON 3 CWC CONCEPT 1. The Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) would be on a carrier
or flag-configured amphibious ship because ____ . that is where the needed C2 as
sets will be 2. The littorals are: Areas near the shore and inland from the shor
e. 3. The chain of command under the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept _
________. must be established by the Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) in an Ope
ration General Matter (OPGEN) 4. Focus on the littorals had this effect on Carri
er Strike Group (CSG) vulnerability? Increased vulnerability 5. Decentralization
and command by negation are: Design keys of Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) b
ecause they reduce complexity and information overload. 6. After the Cold War, t
he Navy's primary mission: Shifted in orientation to the littorals. 7. The OTS s d
elegation to the CWC is________. Determined by the OTC based on each individual
situation 8. The common operating picture, or COP, includes: All of the answers
are correct 9. Why was the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept developed?
To attempt to manage the complexity of the environment 10. Admiral Arleigh Burke
said that command by negation was important because: In battle there is too muc
h going on, too fast for one person to manage. 11. Naval historian Thomas Hone a
sserts that command by negation: assumes that direct, immediate control is not p
ractical. 12. The common operating picture, or COP, includes: All of the answers
are correct. 13. The Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) is intended to enable th
e carrier battle group (CVBG) commander to: Manage information overload 14. Unde
r the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept control of different weapon syst
ems on a single ship ___ . may be delegated to different warfare commanders 15.
The principal offensive operations envisioned under the Composite Warfare Comman
der (CWC) concept are: Deep precision strikes on land targets. 16. The Composite
Warfare Commander (CWC) concept addresses defense against: All the answers are
correct. 17. Under Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept, the Officer in Tac
tical Command s (OTC s) primary focus should be on: Conducting Carrier Strike Group
(CSG) offensive operations against an adversary. 18. What is the cornerstone ten
et of the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept? Command by negation 19. The
Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) will designate: All of the answers are correc
t. 20. Tactical Control (TACON): May be retained by the OTC 21. The OTC's delega
tion to the CWC is ______________. Determined by the OTC based on each individua
l situation The OTC will designate ______________. All the answers are correct.
SECTION 4 CWC ROLES AND RESPONSIBILITIES 1. Which of the following is not an exa
mple of a coordinator under the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept? Inter
agency Working Group Coordinator 2. What is the role of preplanning of responses
in the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept? To provide what if guidance to
Commanders. 3. The Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) will have _________________
____ . NOT-Operational Control Tactical Control neither 4. Which of the followin
g functions are the responsibility of CWC? Developing plans in support of assign
ed missions. 5. If an alternate CWC is designated, his or her functions would be
_____ . All of the answers are correct 6. Which of the following are not exampl
es of Functional Warfare Commanders? Secure Telecommunications Group Commander 7
. Which of the following functions are not the responsibility of the CWC? Establ
ishing mission objectives 8. What did Admiral Mustin say about Nelson's plan at
Trafalgar? The plan was good, but what was really decisive was that his subordin
ates understood the plan and their roles in it. 9. Who retains overall responsib
ility for mission accomplishment? Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) Officer in T
actical Command (OTC) 10. Principal Warfare Commanders are ______ . immediately
subordinate to the CWC 11. CWC s relationship to OTC is ___ . always subordinate,
even if OTC and CWC are filled by the same commander 12. Principal Warfare Comma
nders are never authorized to: Assign missions to other Warfare Commanders 13. S
ector Warfare Commanders may be designated in dispersed operations by: Either th
e PWC or the CWC 14. The Air Defense Warfare Commander is ordinarily assigned to
___________ . the most capable and experienced air defense ship 15. The functio
ns of a Principal Warfare Commander and a Functional Warfare Commander include _
_______ . All of the answers are correct. 16. The Surface Warfare Commander is o
rdinarily based on ________________ . a carrier 17. Which of the following are n
ot part of the CWC structure? (JTF) commanders 18. Decentralized command is an e
ffective approach because? Select all correct answers. (1) It enables tactical c
ommanders to take advantage of fast moving opportunities to achieve mission obje
ctives. (2) It helps to prevent the CWC from being overwhelmed by information ov
erload. 19. Which of the following is NOT a Principle Warfare Commander? MEU Com
mander SECTION 5 CWC CHALLENGES 1. The CWC concept formerly promoted a close def
ensive posture for forces afloat, which means __________. All of the answers are
correct. 2. What has allowed a higher dispersion of a naval formation? super hi
gh frequency radios 3. Many challenges to the CWC concept are rapidly becoming m
oot due to _______. developments in the multi-mission capability of ship and air
craft platforms, and improvement in satellite communications 4. According to CWC
concept, the distance for all ships of the formation, in relation to the flagsh
ip, must be in the radius of ________. 20 NM 5. What mitigates the concern that
the CWC concept is too communications intensive? Improved C4 architecture 6. A d
ownside of CWC s dependency on communications is ______________. All of the answer
s are correct 7. Important challenges for CWC include ____. All of the answers a
re correct. 8. According to Robert C. Powers, all of the below mentioned are the
subtlest arguments against the CWC concept, except that the ___________________
. CWC creates broad war fighting specialists 9. What are the challenges to the C
WC concept? All of the answers are correct. 10. The authoritive joint doctrine s
tresses decentralized planning and centralized execution. False STRIKE WARFARE O
RIGINS AND DEVELOPMENT SECTION 1 1. Strike warfare is only applicable to high in
tensity conflict situations. False 2. Strike operations are a component of which
Navy mission? Projecting power ashore 3. Which of the following is not a princi
pal mechanism by which the Navy executes strike warfare? amphibious assault 4. T
he Navy mission of projecting power ashore is a relatively new mission, made pos
sible by the introduction of the Tomahawk Land Attack Missile. False 5. Difficul
ties encountered by the Navy in integrating into the joint air operations planne
d and directed by the Joint Force Air Component Commander (JFACC) during Operati
on DESERT STORM were due to ____. (1) the Navy s long time practice of decentraliz
ed command of air power (2) the lack of compatible communications equipment 6. S
trike warfare is focused on those platforms that directly attack targets with or
dnance. Thus, aircraft such as the EA6B Prowlers and E-2C Hawkeye have no role i
n Sea Strike. False 7. The two principal missions of the United States Navy are:
Sea Control and Projection of Power Ashore 8. While USN strike warfare can proj
ect power ashore in a highly effective way, it cannot sustain such operations fo
r an extended period. False 9. ATO is the Air Force equivalent of the NATO. Fals
e 10. Strike warfare, as practiced by the Navy during the 1990-91 Gulf War, resu
lted in the new mission of close-air support being assigned to OV-10 and AH-1 ai
rcraft. False 11. The changes in strike warfare organization and planning result
ing from lessons learned in the 1990 s Gulf War were tested _______________. in th
e series of operations in the Balkans during the late 1990 s 12. In order to effec
tively defend itself from hostile forces while simultaneously conducting strike
warfare in a joint environment, it is necessary for the on scene Naval Air Comma
nder to operate independent from the Joint Air Component Commander. False 13. Op
eration DESERT STORM introduced ___________________ to the Navy mission of proje
cting power ashore. ship launched long range non-nuclear guided missiles 14. Sub
marines have no role in strike warfare. False 15. During Operation DESERT STORM,
the Navy's capability to conduct amphibious operations ___________________. cau
sed the Iraqis to divert a portion of its forces to defend Kuwait against amphib
ious attack which contributed to its forces being enveloped by coalition forces
16. During Operation DESERT STORM, naval aircraft were limited to deep attacks,
targeting the Iraqi infrastructure. False 17. During Operation DESERT STORM, Nav
y and Marine Corps aircraft ________. flew approximately one third of the total
sorties flown by U.S. aircraft an amount in direct proportion to their numbers i
n the U.S. air inventory 18. The 1990-1 Gulf War validated the Navy's strike war
fare reliance on precision guided munitions and as a result nearly no dumb bombs w
ere utilized. False 19. How do the Navy s two principal missions influence events
on land? Both influence events on land. Sea control indirectly influence events
while power projection ashore directly influences those events 20. Amphibious op
erations are not considered as part of the Navy's power ashore projection missio
n because the main components of such operations are Marine Corps and/or Army un
its. False SECTION 2 CARRIER STRIKE GROUP 1. The Summer Pulse 04 exercise ________
___________. utilized seven Carrier Strike Groups deployed around the world 2. A
nti-submarine warfare capability is provided to a Carrier Strike Group by ______
___. All of the answers are correct 3. The Fleet Response Plan s goal is to __. su
stain a level of at least six surge-capable CSGs with two additional groups read
y to deploy within three months of an emergency order 4. The Fleet Response Plan
and Flexible Deployment concepts have yet to be implemented and tested. False 5
. Carrier based aircraft are limited in their ability to attack targets located
relatively far inland due to their inability to conduct in-flight refueling. Fal
se 6. The Flexible Deployment Concept ________________. Select one or more of th
e following: -//is based on naval forces sustaining a presence in a given geogra
phical region by rotating forces in to and out of the region on a set schedule -
//allows units that have attained high readiness to embark on deployments of var
ied duration in support of specific national priorities //-provides more options
to national leaders when contemplating how to response to specific global needs
7. Because they have no long-range strike capability, the Perry-class guided mi
ssile frigates are the primary means of AAW within a Carrier Strike Group. False
8. The principal platform of a Carrier Strike Group is ____. always a CV/CVN 9.
The Virginia-class submarine is an improved version of the Seawolf class. It is
just as quiet, but has greater speed, can operate at increased depth and can ca
rry more weapons than the Seawolf-class. False 10. Experience has shown that the
Perry-class guided missile frigate cannot withstand the damage caused by an ant
iship guided missile. False 11. Which of the following is not able to conduct lo
ng range strike missions? FFG 12. Carrier Strike Groups are dependent on Logisti
cal Supply Squadrons (LSSs) for replenishment of ammunition, fuel and supplies a
s they do not have logistical support ships organic to them. False 13. All of th
e ships assigned to a Carrier Strike Group have the capability of keeping up wit
h the carrier when the carrier is operating at its maximum speed. False 14. Whic
h submarine class(es) is/are capable of conducting long range strikes using the
Tomahawk missile? All of the answers are correct. 15. The Navy s Flexible Deployme
nt Concept has been the foundation for the successful use of carrier-based aviat
ion during several major wars and numerous smaller conflicts over the past sever
al decades. False 16. Protection of a Marine amphibious force while enroute to,
and upon arrival in, an amphibious objective area may be provided by ___________
_. a Carrier Strike Group an Amphibious Carrier Protection Group 17. False: Beca
use a Carrier Strike Group is the main element of the Navy s strike warfare missio
n, the Carrier Strike Group does not have an organic anti-submarine warfare capa
bility 18. Carrier Strike Groups ______. Are formed and disestablished on an as
needed basis SECTION 3 THE AIRCRAFT CARRIER 1. Successful strike warfare depends
upon: All of the answers are correct. 2. IRAQI FREEDOM strike operations illust
rate the CV/CVN s unique capability to conduct air operations in: Sandstorms 3. CV
/CVN strike capability can be increased by which of the following: all correct a
nswers. Reducing operating tempo between 0300-0500 -/-/Augmenting flight deck cr
ews /-/-Pausing operations before high-intensity flight operations to rest perso
nnel -/-/-Contingency planning before high-intensity operations 4. What is the e
ffect of PGMs on aircraft sortie rates? Decrease the sortie rate due to 5. What t
ypes of redundancy are necessary for reliable alternatives in an environment of
danger which could cause serious losses in case of operational failure? Select a
ll correct answers. -//Supply //Decision management -/-Technical 6. Mission requ
irements for coordinated air operations must be balanced among which of the foll
owing? Select all correct answers. (1) Training (2) Ordnance and aircraft handli
ng (3) Maintenance 7. Flight deck danger can be eliminated by: None of the answe
rs are correct. 8. Which of the following is not a current requirement for conti
nuous maintenance and effectiveness of the CV/CVN force? Improved ship design 9.
Which factor(s) impacting sortie rates require(s) the application of non-organi
c assets? In-flight refueling 10. Naval Air Strike Warfare is executed by: Aircr
aft Carrier Wing 11. Trade-offs between naval effectiveness and safety of naval
operations involve higher acceptance of risk in wartime and less toleration of r
isk in peacetime. True 12. Which of the following correctly describe carrier org
anization and operations? Select all correct answers. -/-Flight operations planni
ng is conducted by relatively flat collegial organization. -/Carrier is organized
in a steep hierarchy by rank with clear chain of command 13. What is the largest
and most complex ship in the Navy? Aircraft carrier 14. Effective strike operat
ions are coordinated through a negotiation process in which officers: Select all
correct answers. /-/-Maximize demands on other units for operational and logist
ics support 15. Multicarrier and night operations do which of the following? Per
mit 24 hour strike warfare 16. _____________converts the sophisticated technolog
ical potential of an aircraft carrier into real and useable power. Human organiz
ation 17. The Carrier Air Department is responsible for: Flight deck control 18.
The Carrier Combat Systems Department is responsible for: Electronic equipment
maintenance and repair 19. What types of redundancy involves shipboard operation
s-critical units or components such as computers, radar antennas, etc.? Technica
l 20. Due to the complexity and dangers of flight operations, what is the lowest
position authorized to suspend flight operation? Deck Crew Member SECTION 4 THE
CARRIER AIRWING 1. Reduction of CEPs is due to greater precision afforded by: A
ll of the answers are correct 2. Detection of enemy air or surface units by rada
r or other equipment carried in an airborne vehicle and transmission of a warnin
g to friendly units is the mission of: Airborne early warning 3. Operational plan
ning for an air strike includes all but which of the following: National Command
Authority 4. Select the statements that are correct concerning carrier air wing
s. Select one or more of the following: (1) Improved targeting, especially throu
gh PGMs, has enhanced the effectiveness of the carrier air wing. (2) The carrier
and the air wing are two complementary components of a single fighting system.
(3)Air wing composition has evolved substantially since the end of the Cold War.
5. What factors have determined the evolution of air wing size and composition?
All of the answers are correct. 6. What is the principal limitation of PGMs? Co
st 7. Which of the following carrier air wing missions involve protecting critic
al areas of the combat zone for the purpose of destroying enemy aircraft before
they reach their targets? Combat air patrol 8. Attributes of Joint Direct Attack
Munitions (JDAM) are? Select one or more of the following: /-//Operates in adve
rse weather -/-/-200 mile range -//--Converts dumb bomb into precision guided weap
on -//-/Air to employment 9. Which weapons caused the greatest damage to Iraqi t
argets in the Gulf War? Laser guided bombs 10. What is the greatest cause of imp
roved weapon accuracy? PGMs 11. Which of the following statements are true conce
rning the size and composition of CVs and CAWs? Select one or more of the follow
ing: (1) Greater uniformity will follow phase-out of conventional carriers. (2)
Great variation in both Cc size and CAW composition since WWII. 12. What factors
have determined the evolution of air wing size and composition? All of the answ
ers are correct 13. The F/A Super Hornet is capable of all but the following mis
sions? ASW 14. Circular Error Probability refers to: Area in which 50% of ordnance
can be expected to hit. 15. Concept of Operations (CONOPS) for a carrier strike
does not include: battle damage assessment 16. What single fighting system give
s the carrier air wing its phenomenal punch? The embarked Air Wing 17. Compositi
on of the carrier air wing evolved through punctuated stability ; this refers to? P
eriods of intense change interspersed with longer periods of relative stability.
18. What is the greatest cause of improved weapon accuracy? NOT- GPS 19. Advant
ages of PGMs include all but one of the following: Reduced costs and maintenance
expenses 20. SECTION 5 TOMAHAWK LAND ATTACK MISSILE The Tomahawk Strike Coordin
ator ___. Is appointed by the Naval Component Commander/Tomahawk Executive Agent
and is responsible for all TLAM strike planning, coordination, and reporting st
rikes 2. Programmed Warhead Detonation (PWD) ____. allows the missile to be deto
nated while flying directly over a target 3. Which of the following is not a lim
itation of the Tomahawk missile? survivability in a high threat environment 4. W
hich of the following is not a capability of a surface ship launched Tomahawk mi
ssile? the ability to be loaded onto the ship while underway 5. The Block IV or
TLAM-E ___. substantially increases the capabilities of the Block III missile wh
ile cutting the cost in half 6. In order to ensure TLAMs are effectively integra
ted into operations, Tomahawk Strike Coordinator liaisons are placed with all th
e following except _________________. the Joint Interface Control Officer 7. Sta
rting from the Joint Force Commander, and the Joint Force Maritime Component Com
mander and Joint Force Air Component Commander if present, the tasking to launch
a Tomahawk missile follows what path? Naval Component Commander (NCC), TLAM Str
ike Coordinator (TSC), Launch Area Coordinator (TAC), TLAM firing unit 8. Which
of the following is true? Tomahawk missiles fired from submarines are identical
to those fired by surface combatants. 9. The _____ assigns targets, numbers of m
issiles, and time on target so firing units can execute the launch. Launch Seque
nce Plan (LSP) 10. Which of the following is not true? The Tomahawk Strike Coord
inator is the Launch Area Coordinator's principal agent, responsible for leading
the execution of TLAM strike operations. 11. Which of the following is true? Th
e Naval Component Commander is typically appointed by the Joint Force Commander
to act as the Tomahawk Executive Agent. 12. Submarines must launch their VLS Tom
ahawks ____. while submerged to avoid damage to the system 13. The newest versio
n of the Tomahawk can be __. Select one or more of the following: (1) reprogramm
ed in flight to strike any of 15 pre-programmed alternative targets (2) redirect
ed to any GPS target coordinates using an anti-jam GPS receiver 14. The All-Up-R
ound (AUR) includes ___. either a canister (for surface ships) or a capsule (for
submarines) that both protects the missile during transport and serves as the m
issile's launch tube 15. Which of the following is not true? Tomahawk missiles a
re best used to attack targets in areas where collateral damage is not a concern
. 16. The newest version of the Tomahawk can be __. Select one or more of the fo
llowing: (1) redirected to any GPS target coordinates using an anti-jam GPS rece
iver (2) reprogrammed in flight to strike any of 15 pre-programmed alternative t
argets 17. Submarines can communicate with surface units ___. when operating at
periscope depth 18. Terrain masking ___________________. involves flying around
hills in order to remain concealed from detection by point-defenses around the t
arget INTRO TO EXPEDITIONARY WARFARE OPS EXPEDITIONARY WARFARE 1. Operational Ma
neuver from the Sea (OMFTS) ______________. increases the complexity for the ene
my in defending a coastline 2. A type of amphibious operation designed to deceiv
e the enemy to force him to commit to a disadvantageous course of action is know
n as a ____. Demonstration 3. The Commander of the Amphibious Task Force (CATF)
is ______________. All of the answers are correct. 4. Operational Maneuver from
the Sea (OMFTS) is a Marine concept supporting the Navy s concept of Forward from
the Sea. It accomplishes this by ______________. All of the answers are correct.
5. The Commander, Landing Force (CLF), a senior Marine Corps officer, is respon
sible for which of the following? Conduct of the assault. 6. The Expeditionary S
trike Group (ESG) is a versatile sea-based force capable of which of the followi
ng? answers are correct. All of the 7. An amphibious force might include which o
f the following? All of the answers are correct. 8. Characteristics of amphibiou
s operations include which of the following concepts? All of the answers are cor
rect. 9. The concept known as STOM includes which of the following? All of the a
nswers are correct 10. The amphibious planning process _____. All of the answers
are correct. 11. The Marine Expeditionary Unit (MEU) is built around a Marine i
nfantry ______. Battalion 12. The development of the ESG concept adds which of t
he below improvements to previously deployable forces? All of the answers are co
rrect. 13. Strengths of amphibious operations do not include which of the follow
ing aspects? Uncomplicated logistic support. 14. A military operation launched f
rom the sea with the primary purpose of introducing a landing force ashore is the
definition for what term? An amphibious operation 15. An Expeditionary Strike G
roup (ESG) and a Carrier Strike Group CSG) can be combined to form what organiza
tion? An Expeditionary Strike Force (ESF). 16. Advantages gained by using OMFTS
must be maintained by .. Ship-to-Objective Maneuver (STOM) DOMAIN OF FORCE EMPLOYM
ENT SECTION 1 SURFACE WARFARE 1. Pair the following missiles with their primary
missions: B1. Anti-radiation D2. Air-to-surface close air support C3. Land-attac
k A4. Low-level anti-ship A. Harpoon B. SLAM-ER C. Maverick D. HARM 2. The Recog
nized Maritime Position relies on surveillance by which of the following assets:
All of the answers are correct. 3. Task force protection within a radius of 50
miles is accomplished by: Embarked helicopters and surface vessels 4. Short rang
e protection of major surface units relies on which of the following? Mark 45, 5
54 caliber gun and Harpoon missile 5. What is the most critical task of the Surf
ace Warfare Commander? Develop and maintain the Recognized Maritime Position. 6.
Combat boats present great problems for conventional naval forces because they ar
e: All of the answers are correct. 7. Downward trends in worldwide naval ship co
nstruction and proliferation of combat boats has which of the following effects: C
omplicates the area of uncertainty for U.S. forces 8. Surface warfare includes c
oordination of surface, subsurface, land, and sea assets. True 9. Asymmetric thr
eats to the surface fleet do not normally include: Chemical weapons 10. Defensiv
e surface warfare relies on military deception which may attempt to: All the ans
wers are correct. 11. Which statements are true concerning the seriousness of th
e ASM threat? All the answers are correct. 12. Match the following missiles with
their primary delivery craft: B D C A 1. SH-60 Seahawk A. Harpoon 2. EA-6B Prow
ler B. Hellfire, Penguin 3. S-3B Viking C. Tomahawk, Maverick, HARM 4. F/18 Horn
et D. HARM 13. Anti-ship missiles are the weapons presenting the most serious th
reat to the task force because they are: All the answers are correct. 14. Asymmet
ric threat refers to: Threat from unconventional naval forces 15. Principal sourc
es of threat to the task force include: Surface forces; anti-ship missiles; and
mines and submarines 16. A successful Surface Warfare Commander must achieve mor
e than passive protection of the task force or avoidance of hostile contact; he
is also required to ______________. gain and maintain access to the operating ar
ea, maintain a safe buffer around the task force during transit to operating are
as, and be prepared to conduct offensive operations 17. Which is NOT among the p
rimary roles of the Surface Warfare Commander? Direct submarine operations SECTI
ON 2 AIR DEFENSE 1. The Air Defense Commander usually controls air defense opera
tions from: An AEGIS cruiser 2. Post-Cold War trends in air defense threats incl
ude: Increased proliferation of weapons and weapons technology, increased speeds
and ranges of weapons and launch platforms, and increased difficulty in engagin
g and destroying air borne weapons. 3. Match each air defense principle with the
appropriate definition. C A D B 1. Techniques to confuse or deceive enemy force
s A. Defense in Depth 2. Establishing positions to absorb and weaken attacks B.
EMCON 3. Use of sensors to identify distant missile threats C. OPDEC 4. Denying
or altering enemy use of electronics systems. D. Early Warning 4. The principal
weapon threat to the aircraft carrier (CV/CVN) is a: Missile 5. Which of the fol
lowing does Air Defense NOT do to defeat hostile airborne threats? Conduct seque
ntial operations, including air defense for amphibious landings 6. Which air win
g asset provides all-weather airborne early warning for the carrier strike group
? E-2C Hawkeye 7. ________is the primary mission of air defense. Defense in Dept
h 8. Airborne attacks may be launched from submarines, surface ships, aircraft,
and land bases. True 9. Select the platforms with long range capabilities. Aircr
aft carriers, Aegis cruisers, and destroyers 10. Which ships are NOT integrated
into the fleet or sector air defense mission? Point defense ships and patrol cra
ft 11. Close coordination between the Air Defense Commander and other warfare co
mmanders facilitates: Optimum use of multi-role aircraft; maintenance and dissem
ination of accurate surveillance data; and security for departing and landing ai
rcraft. 12. Select the statement that is NOT correct concerning air defense resp
onsibility. The Strike Warfare Commander has ultimate control over air defense o
perations. 13. Absence of major power challenges to U.S. naval superiority has g
reatly reduced the threat to naval operations. False 14. The Air Defense Command
er must be: None of the answers are correct. 15. Which of the following refers t
o the procedure of denying or allowing the use of certain electromagnetic system
s during force operations? EMCON 16. Which phase of the air defense mission deal
s with threat assessment? Surveillance 17. To fulfill the mission of preventing
airborne attack against U.S. naval forces, Air Defense ______________ enemy airb
orne platforms and weapons. All the answers are correct. 18. Non-organic air def
ense support refers to: All the answers are correct. 19. In the current environm
ent, difficulties in air defense are caused by: Less reaction time, greater diff
iculty in predicting timing and sector of attack, and greater stress on data gat
hering and communications. UNDERSEA WARFARE 1. The AN/SLQ-48 Mine Neutralization
System ___________________. features a self-propelled, remotely-controlled Mine
Neutralization Vehicle 2. Which of the following has mine counter measures as i
ts primary mission? MH-53E helicopter 3. Area ASW operations ___________________
. Are usually commanded and controlled from a shore-based facility 4. Which of t
he following is NOT true? Surface detection sensors such as radar and ESM have p
roven to be ineffective in the search for submarines. 5. Coordinated ASW operati
ons _____. are usually conducted to provide ASW protection for designated units
6. Which of the following is NOT true? Advances in sonar and computer technology
have made underwater sound propagation entirely predictable. 7. Which of the fo
llowing is NOT true? While quieter than older diesel submarines, those that are
driven by Air Independent Propulsion systems still must typically snorkel at lea
st once a day to recharge their batteries. 8. Which of the following is NOT true
? U.S. acoustic mine sweeping is limited to that performed by surface ship platf
orms. 9. Which of the following is NOT true? At the end of its preset battery li
fe, sonobuoys are retrieved so that recorded information can be downloaded for a
nalysis. 10. Which of the following is NOT considered an advantage of the use of
mines? ability to discriminate between friendly, hostile and neutral ships 11.
Magnetic ranging ___________________. provides measurements to allow a ship to f
ine tune its degaussing is a method of determining the range to a contact by mea
suring changes in the earth s magnetic field caused by the contact uses an electri
cal current passed through coils wrapped around a ship to decrease the ship s magn
etic signature 12. The ASW warfare commander s call sign under the Navy s Composite
Warfare Commander concept is ___________________. AX 13. Which of the following
is NOT true? Moored mines are generally banned by the Geneva protocols. 14. The
two broad categories of submarine detections are ___________________. Acoustic a
nd non-acoustic 15. Which of the following is NOT true? The terms mine hunting and
mine sweeping are synonymous 16. Which of the following is true? Towed passive so
nar arrays are useful to surface ships as they can be placed out of the noise ge
nerated by the ship 17. Mines were first successfully laid by aircraft during __
_. World War II 18. The most effective means of countering a mine threat is ____
_______________. the prevention of mine laying 19. The Osprey Class (MHC-51) shi
ps are __. glass reinforced plastic hulled 20. Which of the following is true? P
ressure influence mines are actuated by pressure changes caused by a passing ves
sel 21. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of using radar in ASW opera
tions? Radar is not able to detect targets as small as a periscope or snorkel ex
posed above the surface. 22. The current submarine threat __. is more likely to
be a diesel powered submarine 23. Which of the following is NOT true? The subset
s of Undersea Warfare are offensive submarine operations and defensive submarine
operations. 24. Which of the following is NOT true? In order for an active sona
r system to detect a submarine, the submarine must make a noise that can be dete
cted. Using passive sonar, a submarine typically will detect a surface ship befo
re it is detected by that ship. 25. Which of the following is true? U.S. submari
ne development has shifted towards developing capabilities against diesel powere
d submarines operating in shallow water 26. Which of the following statements is
NOT true? Submarines are the platform of choice for the replenishment of large
minefields due to the larger number of mines they can carry. 27. Magnetic Anomal
y Detectors ___. detect submarines by detecting the anomaly in the earth s magneti
c field caused by the submarine 28. During the search phase of an ASW operation,
___________________. Passive sensors are preferred to prevent the submarine fro
m being alerted Visual detection of a submarine is virtually impossible unless t
he submarine is surfaced 29. Which of the following is true? Acoustic silencing
reduces the probability of a ship being detected by either a submarine or an aco
ustic mine. 30. The two concepts that ASW forces employ to ensure coordination w
ith friendly submarines are ____. prevention of mutual interference and water sp
ace management 31. Which of the following is true? The SH-60F s primary ASW sensor
is its dipping sonar. 32. Which of the following is true? The Navy s SSGNs are pl
anned to carry 150 Tomahawk cruise missiles 33. Which of the following is true?
The Long-term Mine Reconnaissance System (LMRS) can be employed from SSN-688 and
newer class submarines. The Long-term Mine Reconnaissance System (LMRS) is stan
dard equipment for MCM-1 class ships. 34. Which species of marine mammals are us
ed for mine detection and marking? Dolphins and sea lions Seals and sea lions Do
lphins, seals and sea lions 35. Which mine countermeasure method is used for the
collection of drifting mines? Single ship antenna sweep Skim net sweep 36. Wake
homing torpedoes and sub-launched anti-ship missiles are weapons associated wit
h ______________. air Independent Propulsion powered submarines both nuclear and
diesel powered submarines nuclear powered submarines 37. The Prairie Air System
reduces a ship s radiated noise by ______________. supplying air along the leadin
g edge of the propeller blades 38. Which of the following is NOT considered an a
dvantage of the use of mines? Ability to discriminate between friendly, hostile
and neutral ships 39. The AN?SLQ-37 ______. Is used to counter magnetic and pass
ive acoustic mines SECTION 3 NAVAL SPECIAL WARFARE 1. The Naval Special Warfare
Command ____________________. is responsible for providing trained and ready for
ces to the regional combatant commanders 2. A clandestine operation ___. is one
in which emphasis is placed on the concealment of the operation itself 3. A Nava
l Special Warfare Squadron ___. is formed after SEAL platoons and attachments ha
ve completed their core training requirements 4. The MK-V Special Operations Cra
ft __. is capable of carrying an entire SEAL platoon 5. The Special Operations C
raft-Riverine is meant to operate in _________. low to medium threat environment
s 6. The Dry Dock Shelter allows __________. delivery of SEAL Delivery Vehicles
(SDVs) and combat rubber raiding craft from submarines 7. MK-V Special Operation
s Craft are provided to a NSW Squadron by ___________. Special Boat Teams 8. The
army component of the U.S. Special Operations Command is the _________. Army Sp
ecial Operations Command (USASOC) 9. Select the statement that is NOT true. Civi
l Affairs Operations are designed to convey truthful information and indicators
to foreign audiences to influence their actions. 10. Naval Special Warfare force
s personnel assigned outside of the continental United States ____. are under th
e combatant command of their respective geographic unified commander 11. The Rig
id-hull Inflatable Boat (RHIB) ___. is an 11 meter craft capable of carrying eig
ht SEALs plus its crew 12. Select the statement that is NOT true. Information Op
erations are generally directed at strategic or operational intelligence require
ments. 13. The current number one priority mission of special warfare forces is
____________. Counterterrorism 14. Direct Action missions _____. involve short-d
uration strikes and small-scale offensive actions 15. A typical Naval Special Wa
rfare Squadron generally contains ________. six SEAL platoons four SEAL Delivery
Vehicles (SDVs) 16. A SEAL team is composed of ____. a headquarters element and
six SEAL platoons 17. Which of the following may be attached to a Naval Special
Warfare Squadron? All the answers are correct. 18. Operations that include acti
ons to prevent, limit and/or minimize the development, possession and employment
of weapons of mass destruction are part of the _ mission. CP 19. Naval Special
Warfare (NWS) forces normally deploy as __. an NSW Squadron 20. The Naval Specia
l Warfare Long-range dry submersible is the __________. NOT: SEAL Submersible Ve
hicle (SSV) LOGISTICS SECTION 1 1. The sustainment element of the logistics proc
ess is _______________. the provision of personnel, logistics, and other support
required to maintain operations 2. The Navy Component of the U.S. Transportatio
n Command (USTRANSCOM) is _______________. the Military Sealift Command (MSC) 3.
The processes used to get materiel, services, and personnel to the supported fo
rces describe which general element of the Navy s logistics process? Distribution
4. The Military Sealift Command s Combat Prepositioning Force _______________. sup
ports Army prepositioning requirements 5. Ready Reserve Force ships ___. are und
er Military Sealift Command control when activated 6. The bulk of the Navy s comba
t logistics services to ships at sea is provided by _______________. the Naval F
leet Auxiliary Force 7. Operational logistics _____. encompasses theater support
sites and activities, ashore or afloat, and the theater transportation required
to move personnel and material to and from supported forces 8. Prepositioned eq
uipment both afloat and ashore is considered logistics support at the ______________
. strategic level 10. The Kilauea class T-AEs main mission is to provide underwa
y replenishment of which class of supplies? Class V 11. For Navy transportation
matters, the Military Sealift Command reports to the _______________. Chief of N
aval Operations 12. The Navy s two hospital ships ____. contain 12 fully-equipped
operating rooms each 13. MSC s Kilauea Class ammunition ships _______________. hav
e no armament 14. The exterior cleaning of an F/A-18 aircraft is considered ____
___________. organizational-level maintenance 15. Which of the following is NOT
true? Depot-level maintenance is generally performed by ships company. 16. Casua
lty collection, treatment, and evacuation is considered a part of which logistic
s functional area? Health Services 17. The Military Sealift Command s largest comb
at logistics ships are the ________. Supply class T-AOEs 18. The Dry Cargo Offic
e ____. handles Department of Defense cargo requirements that cannot be accommod
ated by regularly scheduled ocean liner service 19. The Military Sealift Command s
eight fast sealift ships ___. can deliver nearly all the equipment needed to ou
tfit a full U.S. Army mechanized division 20. Repair parts are considered ______
_________. Class IX supplies 21. Which Naval Fleet Auxiliary Force ships are cap
able of the speeds necessary to keep up with carrier strike groups? Supply Class
T-AOEs JOINT WARFARE SECTION 1 1. Which command is NOT a functional combatant c
ommand? U.S. Southern Command 2. Which of the following would be an example of a
sub-unified command? U.S. Forces Korea 3. The Combatant Commander s campaign is b
ased on which of the following? All the answers are correct 4. Combatant command
ers should ensure that their unified action synchronizes and/or integrates joint
and singleservice operations with the actions of supporting combatant commands,
other military forces during multinational operations, and nonmilitary and othe
r federal government agencies. True 5. Which of the following statements does NO
T reflect how unified direction is normally accomplished? By direct operational
involvement by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff 6. The combatant comman
der can give authoritative direction to subordinate commands and forces necessar
y to carry out missions assigned to the command. True 7. Which of the following
provides the commander the ability to regulate forces and functions and provides
the commander a means to measure, report, and correct performance? Control 8. O
verwhelming force would fall under which fundamental of joint warfare? Concentra
tion 9. A unified command will always contain which of the following? Service co
mponents. 10. The term joint forces includes which of the following commands? Al
l the answers are correct. 11. On what basis can joint forces be established? (S
elect the best answer.) Geographic or functional 12. Which of the following docu
ment(s) provide(s) strategic direction for the combatant commanders? Security St
rategy and National Military Strategy National 13. Which Fundamental of Joint Wa
rfare best reflects the statement; Cooperation among the combatant commanders and
their supporting joint force and component commanders is crucial? Unity of Effor
t 14. Which statement best reflects the concept of command? Command includes bot
h the authority and responsibility for effectively using available resources to
accomplish assigned missions. 15. Which of the following is NOT a function of th
e combatant commander? Budget and procure service-specific equipment. 16. Which
of the following statements best describes a Unified Command? A command with bro
ad continuing missions under a single commander composed of forces from two or m
ore military departments. 17. What level of authority is normally exercised by t
he functional component commanders of a combatant command? Tactical Control (TAC
ON) 18. Which of the following levels of authority is NOT a command relationship
? Administrative Control (ADCON) Operational Control (OPCON) 19. The Joint Force
s Maritime Component Commander is an example of a ______________. Functional com
ponent commander 20. Joint warfare is best described as the ______________. inte
grated and synchronized application of all appropriate capabilities FUND OF INFO
RMATION OPERATIONS SECTION 2 1. Which of the following statements is NOT true? M
ilitary Deception operations should be planned and executed independently of Ope
rations Security actions. 2. Department of Defense (DOD) policy describes informa
tion superiority the operational advantage gained by the ability to collect, proc
ess, and disseminate an uninterrupted flow of information while exploiting or de
nying an adversary s ability to do the same 3. Which of the following statements i
s true? Computer Network Exploitation is concerned with gathering data from targ
et or adversary automated information systems or networks. 4. Which of the follo
wing statements is NOT true? The ability to attack U.S. information systems is s
till not within the ability of terrorist groups. 5. Which of the following state
ments is true? Civil-Military Operations may include military personnel performi
ng functions that are normally the responsibility of a national government. 6. I
nformation Operations are generally the responsibility of __. the J-3 (Operation
s) 7. The three dimensions of the information environment are ___. the physical,
the informational, and the cognitive 8. Which of the following statements is tr
ue? The three major subdivisions of Electronic Warfare are: electronic attack, e
lectronic protection, and electronic warfare support. 9. Which of the following
statements is true? Psychological Operations are the only Department of Defense
(DOD) operations authorized to influence foreign target audiences directly. 10.
The three main subdivisions of Computer Network Operations are: computer network
attack, computer network defense, and computer network exploitation. 11. The ps
ychological, cultural, behavioral, and other human attributes that influence dec
ision making, the flow of information, and the interpretation of information by
individuals or groups at any level in a state or organization are properties ass
ociated with which dimension of the information environment? COGNITIVE 12. Which
of the following statements is NOT true? Psychological Operations are those ope
rations that convey truthful information to both domestic and foreign audiences.
13. Which of the following is NOT one of the five fundamental assumptions that
are the bases of Information Operations ability to affect and defend decision mak
ing? Generally, the relative importance of each quality criterion of information
is universal and not influenced by things such as language, culture and religio
n. 14. Information Operations' core capabilities include all of the following EX
CEPT ______________. prisoner of war interrogation 15. Leadership, morale, and l
evel of training are factors that influence the ______________ dimension of the
information environment. cognitive 16. Which of the following statements is NOT
true? Disrupting the transmission of an adversary government's television statio
n by physically attacking it with aircraft is outside the realm of Information O
perations. 17. The combatant commanders plans for Defense Support to Public Diplo
macy are approved by _____. the Office of the Secretary of Defense (SecDef) 18.
Which of the following statements is NOT true? Information Operations (IO) is on
ly concerned with information collected, processed and disseminated through netw
orked computer systems operated by an adversary. 19. Actions taken through the u
se of computer networks to gather data from target or adversary automated inform
ation systems or networks are a part of _____. computer network exploitation (CN
E) 20. Which of the following statements is NOT true? Disrupting the transmissio
n of an adversary government's television station by physically attacking it wit
h aircraft is outside the realm of Information Operations. 21. Who has been give
n the specific responsibility to coordinate Information Operations (core capabil
ities) among the combatant commanders? Commander, U.S. Strategic Command FORCE C
APABILITIES U. S. ARMY SECTION 1 1. The Joint Force Land Component Commander has
the ability to exercise command and control over all land forces, and may be an
allied or coalition commander. True 2. _________are capable of at least limited
short-term self-defense and are commanded by lieutenant colonels. Battalions 3.
Heavy divisions offer exceptional: Tactical mobility. 4. is the U.S. Army force
that can rapidly respond to contingency operations. XVIII Corps 5. The ___ is t
he largest division in the U.S. Army. Mechanized Infantry Division 6. Challenges
facing the U.S. Army since the end of the Cold War include: Select all correct
answers. //A single superpower adversary -/Increased domestic instability -/-Mor
e demand for peacekeeping. --A less stable global environment 7. Which of the fo
llowing is NOT true regarding the U.S. Army Reserve Component? The Army Reserve
Component does not provide the majority of personnel or equipment for any primar
y U.S. Army mission area. 8. A ___ consists of multiple small groups of soldiers
organized to maneuver and fire. Platoon 9. The Air Assault Division is consider
ed: All of the answers are correct 10. Which one of the following is NOT true re
garding the U.S. Army s transformation? Increased Joint interdependency necessitat
es increased logistics and combat formations. 11. Which of the following are lig
ht forces ideally suited for? Select all correct answers. -/Exploitation or purs
uit. -/-Defensive missions requiring economy of force. -/-Attack key enemy armor
forces. -/-Operating in restricted terrain. //MOUT 12. Army divisions are class
ified depending on: Select all correct answers. (1) The relative combat power th
ey possess (2) The speed in which they can be deployed. 13. The U.S. Army s ____ p
rovides combatant commanders with a broad range of land power options to shape t
he security environment. strategic responsiveness 14. Decisive counterattack is
a defensive mission for which one of the following? The Air Assault Division The
Mechanized Infantry Division The Airborne Division 15. Light infantry divisions:
Select all correct answers. -/-Can be rapidly deployed. -/-Perform well in urba
n operations. //Are deployable entirely by air. -//Have significant tactical mob
ility and significant anti-armor protection. 16. Strategic airlift is always mor
e advantageous than sealift. False 17. What are the hidden transport costs of movi
ng the Air Assault Division? Square footage requirements are almost equal to tha
t of the Mechanized Division. Short ton requirements are almost equal to that of
the Mechanized Division. Short ton requirements are almost equal to that of the
Light Infantry Division. 18. Which U.S. Army aircraft has the mission of provid
ing air assault, general support, aeromedical evacuation, command and control, a
nd special operations support to combat, stability, and support operations? UH-6
0L Blackhawk 19. Which one of the following is NOT a U.S. Army core competency?
Sea-based operations 20. The ability to conduct sustained land dominance across
the full range of military operations and the spectrum of conflict is a key diff
erentiator between the U.S. Army and the U.S. Marine Corps. True 21. The Army s on
ly airborne division is the ______________ Airborne Division. 82nd 22. _________
_____ operations create and preserve conditions for the success of decisive oper
ations. Shaping 23. The two basic types of Army divisions, in terms of their fig
hting power, are ______________. heavy and light 24. One of the greatest challen
ges routinely faced by Army leaders and planners is how to get the right force t
o the battlefield in a timely manner. True 25. Mechanized infantry and armor are
best suited for operations in ______________. open plains 26. ______________ op
erations directly accomplishes the tasks assigned by higher headquarters. Decisi
ve 27. In 2006, the Army reorganized into three ______________ and ten _________
_____. army commands, army service component commands 28. What is the lowest lev
el of Army command that is considered a command at the operational level of war?
Corps 29. For the Army, its doctrine ______________. reflects the Army s approach
to combat 30. The Army is comprised of ______________ divisions 10 31. Which of
the following are tenets of Army operations? Select all that apply. synchroniza
tion agility initiative 32. Heavy maneuver forces can maneuver strategically wit
h ease and are ideally suited for operations in urban terrain. FALSE 33. As part
of the Army s redesign, it moved away from being a ______________-centric force a
nd transformed into a more flexible ______________-centric modular combat team.
Division, brigade 34. The weight of an air assault division makes it require alm
ost the same amount of strategic lift as an armored division FALSE 35. Given the
ir similarities, the concepts of Battlespace and Area of Operations are often us
ed interchangeably by Army commanders. FALSE 36. Since the Army s Civil Affairs an
d PSYOPS forces are comprised mostly of Army Reserve personnel, they are rarely
deployed and spend more time at their home bases than any other type of Army uni
t. FALSE 37. The most efficient way to deploy Army combat forces is ____________
__. Using a combination of strategic sealift and strategic airlift 38. The Army
has approximately ______ soldiers serving on active duty. 600,000 39. Which of t
he following are roles of the U.S. Army? Prompt and sustained land combat Seizin
g, occupying, and defending land areas Defeating enemy land forces AIR FORCE SEC
TION 2 1. Which aircraft is the newest, most flexible aircraft capable of rapid
strategic delivery of troops and cargo, as well as tactical airlift and air drop
? C-17 Globemaster III 2. The U.S. Air Force capability of ________ allows the A
ir Force to sustain flexible and efficient combat operations. Agile combat suppo
rt 3. ______ are actions taken to influence, affect, or defend systems and decis
ion-making. Information operations Military operations other than war 4. The C-5
, C-17 Globemaster III, and the C-141 Starlifter are partners in the Air Mobilit
y Command s __________. Strategic airlift concept 5. Which function is considered
a collateral use in the application of U.S. Air Force power? Countersea 6. _____
____ is defined as military action carried out against an enemy s center of gravit
y or other vital targets. Strategic attack 7. Which U.S. Air Force function is c
onsidered the most major contribution to joint operations? Air refueling 8. ____
_____ allows the U.S. Air Force to deliver desired effects with minimal risk and
collateral damage. Precision engagement 9. Air and space-based surveillance ass
ets exploit ___________________ to detect enemy initiatives at long range. Eleva
tion 10. The U.S. Air Force global strike mission is performed by which one of t
he following aircraft: B-2 A-10 F-22 11. Which aircraft is considered the USAF s f
ront-line ground-attack aircraft providing critical close air support to friendl
y forces on the ground? F-16 A-10 12. The acronyms COMARFFOR and JFACC, respecti
vely, designate which command and control entities? Service Component Commander,
Functional Component Commander 13. _______ allows air and space forces to explo
it mass and maneuver simultaneously, while __________ is the ability to employ a
ir and space power effectively at all levels of warfare. Flexibility, Versatilit
y 14. ___________ integrate(s) surveillance and reconnaissance assets to reduce
uncertainties while planning. Intelligence 15. What characteristic of U.S. Air F
orce operations gives air and space platforms a unique vantage point over the te
rritory of potential adversaries? Altitude 16. The U.S. Air Force tenet of the _
__________________ of overwhelming power at the decisive time and place is one o
f the most constant and important trends found throughout military history. Conc
entration Balance 17. The ___________________ s primary mission is to provide thea
ter ground and air commanders with ground surveillance to support attack operati
ons and targeting that contributes to the delay, disruption, and destruction of
enemy forces. RC-135 E-8C U-2 18. Strategic air attack is not determined by the
weapons or delivery systems used. True 19. Why does the U.S. Air Force believe a
ir power must be controlled by a single commander who maintains the broad strate
gic perspective necessary to balance and prioritize the use of powerful, yet lim
ited force? Air and space power have the unique potential to directly affect the
strategic and operational levels of war. Centralized air and space power employ
ment authority avoids ambiguity. Air and space power have the unique potential t
o directly affect the tactical level of war. 20. Which of the following are the
largest warfighting organizations of the U.S. Air Force? The Numbered Air Forces
Groups Wings 21. Missions such as attacks on launch facilities and the jamming
of satellite link frequencies are operations achieved by this U.S. Air Force fun
ction: Counterspace Strategic attack 22. USAF CSAR missions are normally conduct
ed by specially-trained Special Operations personnel. False 23. Which U.S. Air F
orce aircraft detects, identifies, and geolocates signals throughout the electro
magnetic spectrum? RC-135 V/W Rivet Joint 24. Which one(s) of the following USAF
assets provide(s) accurate location and time reference in support of strategic,
operational, and tactical operations: Select all correct answers. airborne-base
d systems; air-to-surface radar ground-based systems; various navigational aids
space-based systems; GPS 25. Interdiction and close air support are components o
f what U.S. Air Force function? Counterland 26. An Air Force Air Operations Cent
er (AOC) is capable of providing command and control for joint air operations an
ywhere in the theater. TRUE 27. The type of Air Force command immediately junior
to a Numbered Air Force is called a ______________. WING 28. Each warfighting hea
dquarters in a combatant commander s area of responsibility (AOR) is supported by
an Air Force weapon system called a(n) ______________ Air Operations Center (AOC
). Falconer 29. The major difference between a fighter/bomber wing and a mobilit
y wing is that mobility wings have ______________. additional mission support ar
eas 30. How many Air Expeditionary Force modules are normally on call at any one
 time to support the needs of combatant commanders? Two 31. The Air Force s primar
y operational domain is the air, making NASA (National Aeronautics and Space Adm
inistration) the lead agency in U.S. military space operations FALSE 32. Joint F
orce Commanders will normally assign a(n) ______________ officer the responsibil
ities of Joint Force Air Component Commander (JFACC) to coordinate air operation
s in a Joint Operation Area. Air force 33. If the operation is relatively small
in scale, a Joint Force Commander may assign a naval officer as the Joint Force
Air Component Commander. TRUE 34. The officer to enlisted ratio in the Air Force i
s approximately __________ to 1. 4 35. Steady state conditions for an Air Expedi
tionary Task Force typically allow for ______________ hours of operation every d
ay, with additional surge capability available for short durations. 12 36. The A
ir Force contains non-aviation wings. TRUE 37. The Air Force s origins are rooted
in ______________ during the First and Second World Wars. - The Army Air Corps 3
8. The ______________ is an Air Force expeditionary organization tailored to the
needs of a combatant commander. Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) 3
9. The Air Force believes that air and space power will eventually render land a
nd naval forces obsolete. FALSE 40. Which of the following are air & space power
functions? Select all that apply. Combat support Counterspace Weather services
Counterair 41. AETF structure requires military planners to ensure that all AETF
assets are able to operate from a single base, as spreading them among multiple
bases will reduce their combat effectiveness. FALSE 42. The Air Force airpower
tenet of ______________ explains that limited resources require that forces be a
pplied for the greatest contribution to the most critical current Joint Force Co
mmander (JFC). Priority 43. The Numbered Air Forces are junior to the Air Force s ma
jor commands. True 44. Select True or False: The sovereign options the Air Force
delivers for the defense of the U.S. and its global interests depend upon the a
pproval of America s friends and allies. False 45. Select True or False: The Air F
orce s primary operational domain is the air, making NASA (National Aeronautics an
d Space Administration) the lead agency in U.S. military space operations. False
46. The Air Force s Total Force numbers approximately ______________ personnel. 658
,000 47. The Air Force airpower tenet of _____ explains that a single commander,
focused on the broader aspects of an operation, can best mediate the competing
demands for air and space support against the strategic and operational requirem
ents of a conflict. Centralized Control 48. Select True or False: The Air Force
believes that air and space power will eventually render land and naval forces o
bsolete. False MARINE CORP SECTION 3 1. U.S. Marine Corps doctrine and concept o
f operations are based on the principle of Maneuver Warfare. True 2. The Navy-Mari
ne Corps team is a(n) ______________________ designed for ___________________. e
xpeditionary force; overseas deployment 3. Which event marked the beginning of l
arge-scale U.S. Marine Corps involvement in Viet Nam? The landing of the 9th MEB
at Da Nang. 4. The Maritime Prepositioning Force (MPF) currently possesses a fo
rcible entry capability and therefore can offload equipment and supplies in a ho
stile environment. False 5. A key component of OMFTS is: The assembly area, atta
ck position, and LOD are all land-based. The assembly area, attack position, and
LOD are all at sea and over the horizon. 6. Which of the following is NOT a cha
racteristic of a MAGTF? Requires pre-existing infrastructure to execute missions
7. The primary function of this helicopter is the transportation of heavy equip
ment and supplies during the ship-toshore movement of an amphibious assault, and
during subsequent operations ashore: CH-53 E Super Stallion CH-46E Sea Knight 8
. Which one of the following is characteristic of a MEB? Designed for small-scal
e contingencies 9. MARFORLANT is not the Marine Service Component Commander for
which one of the following? CENTCOM SOUTHCOM 10. Which of the following is/are n
ot considered part of the operating forces of the U.S. Marine Corps available to t
he combatant commanders? Members of the Marine Security Guard Battalion The Supp
orting Forces Fleet Marine Force 11. Which one(s) of the following make up the 4
th Marine Expeditionary Brigade? All of the answers are correct. 12. An integrat
ed organization of air, ground, and logistics forces is a(n): MAGTF 13. All U.S.
Marine forces in a given theater automatically fall under the command of the Ma
rine Component Commander. False 14. A MAGTF is always composed of a command elem
ent, a ground combat element, an aviation combat element, and: A combat service
support element 15. Which one(s) of the following is/are capabilities of a MEU (
SOC)? All of the answers are correct. 16. MEU (SOC) means that a MEU: Has expert
ise in amphibious raids executable within six hours of mission receipt. Carries
special operations forces. 17. Which one of the following is NOT a type of MAGTF
: FSSG 18. Which one of the following is the smallest permanently existing MAGTF
? MEU 19. The U.S. Marine Corps and the U.S. Army are the only forces who sizes
are set by law? False 20. Which one of the following is NOT a tenet of the maneu
ver warfare doctrine? Execution of speed over time and distance. Focus strength
against enemy critical vulnerabilities. Wear down an enemy s defense in order to p
enetrate it. 21. Which one of the following supporting operational concepts is d
efined as rapid employment of the MAGTF by air or surface means to objectives in
the littorals and beyond ? Operations from a sea base Sustained operations ashore
Ship-to-object maneuver 22. The largest type of Marine Air-Ground Task Force tha
t deploys for combat is called a ______________. Marine Expeditionary Force (MEF
) 23. All Marine Corps components reinforce and support the ______________. Mari
ne Corps Operating Forces 24. True or False: The highly tailored nature of Marin
e Air-Ground Task Forces makes them unsuitable for service as the core around wh
ich a Joint Task Force headquarters may be formed. False 25. The largest Marine
Air-Ground Task Force is called a ______________, which can contain as many 100,
000 Marines. Marine Expeditionary Force 26. Marines are prepared to deploy into
______________ environments. Select all that apply. chaotic diverse austere 27.
In order to deploy rapidly without the delays inherent to mobilizing reserves, t
he Marine Corps maintains its active force at about ______________ percent of it
s total force. 80 28. The Marine Corps standing operational organizations are cal
led ______________. Marine Expeditionary Forces (MEFs) 29. Marines seek to avoid
attrition by employing ______________ warfare against an adversary s critical vul
nerabilities. Maneuver 30. Marines fight as an integrated air-ground-logistics t
ask force under a single commander called a ______________. MAGTF 31. The Marine
Special Operations Command is under the operational control of ______________.
U.S. Special Operations Command 32. The personnel, bases, and activities that su
pport the Marine Corps operating forces comprise the Marine Corps ______________.
supporting establishment 33. The Marine Corps is organized into ______________
broad components. four 34. There are ______________ types of Marine Air Ground T
ask Forces. 4 35. The Three Block War concept means that Marines must be able to _
_____________. Select all that apply. perform stability and counterinsurgency op
erations on one block engage in humanitarian operations on one block wage conven
tional combat on one block 36. The general functions and composition of the Mari
ne Corps are described in ______________. Select all that apply. Title 10, U.S.
Code DoD Directive 5100.1 37. Marine Air-Ground Task Forces are capable of being
deployed to areas with no pre-existing infrastructure (roads, electrical power,
etc.). TRUE 38. Due to the Marines rigid task force construct, they are usually
assigned to operate independently of joint forces. False 39. The MEF typically f
ights at the ______________ level to fulfill the Joint Force Commander s objective
s. TACTICAL 40. Approximately how many Marines are 25 years old or younger? Thre
e Quarters 41. The Commandant of the Marine Corps reports directly to __________
____. SECNAV 42. Which of the items listed below are elements of a Marine Air-Gr
ound Task force? Aviation Combat Element Logistics Combat Element Ground Combat
Element U. S. COAST GUARD SECTION 4 1. With regards to domestic coastal sea cont
rol, the Coast Guard Area Commander reports directly to the respective Navy Flee
t Commander. True 2. Who can initiate requests for U.S. Coast Guard forces to su
pport military operations? All of the answers are correct. 3. This is the only U
SCG cutter class armed with the close-in weapon system (CIWS). Hamilton class 4.
Which aircraft is the only armed aircraft in the USCG inventory? HH-65A Dolphin
MH-68 Shark 5. Can the USCG be considered a redundant, non-complementary resour
ce supporting the National Military Strategy? No 6. Which of the variants of the
HU-25 Guardian aircraft is configured for oil pollution detection? B 7. All USC
G cutters are readily identifiable by which one of the following hull colors: No
ne of the answers are correct USCG cutter hull color is dependant upon each ship s
mission 8. US Coast Guard Law Enforcement Detachments (LEDETs) perform the foll
owing mission(s): All of the answers are correct. 9. In accordance with 14 USC 2
, which service ...shall enforce or assist all applicable federal laws on and und
er the high seas and waters subject to the U.S. jurisdiction ? The U.S. Coast Guar
d at all times 10. Which aircraft is the U.S. Coast Guard s primary short-range he
licopter for SAR and surveillance? HH-65A Dolphin 11. Which patrol boat class ha
s the capability of a stern-launched rigid hull inflatable allowing for more rap
id and safe deployment of boarding crews? Island Swift Marine Protector 12. Whic
h one of the following is NOT a USCG capability offered to the combatant command
er? Forcible entry from the sea 13. What is the Integrated Deepwater System prog
ram? An integrated approach to upgrading existing USCG assets while transitionin
g to newer, more capable platforms. 14. Which of the following is not true regar
ding employment of the USCG by DoD and the State Department for peacetime engage
ment? The USCG does not have robust anti-piracy capabilities. 15. Which units in
tegrate into a military staff in the event of a massive pollution incident which
may impact the ability of U.S. and allied forces to conduct military operations
? Pollution strike teams 16. The USCG __________ retain operational control over
the major cutters and long range patrol craft, while the __________ has/have op
erational control over patrol boats, buoy tenders, and aids to navigation. Distr
ict Commanders; Area Commanders Area Commanders; District Commanders Area Comman
ders; Station Commanders 17. Which of the following deploys to provide force pro
tection at OUTCONUS seaports of debarkation? PSUs 18. Article 14, USC 1 states t
hat the USCG is a branch of military service at all times. True 19. The Coast Gu
ard consists of approximately ______________ active duty members. 42,000 20. Dur
ing times of war, the President can direct the Coast Guard to operate under the
Department of Defense within the Navy. True 21. The objective of the ___________
___ is to prevent and reduce the risk of maritime mishaps. Marine Safety 22. The
Coast Guard s ______________ is an enhanced deployable force that has the advance
d interdiction skills needed to operate in a non-compliant or hostile environmen
t. Maritime Security Response Team 23. Only the Secretary of Defense can initiat
e planning directly with the Secretary of Homeland Security for the tasking of C
oast Guard forces. False 24. Coast Guard Sector Commanders maintain operation ce
nters to facilitate command and control functions at the ______________ level. T
actical 25. Coast Guard ______________ are capable of operating from Navy platfo
rms during counterdrug and maritime interdiction operations in compliant boardin
g environments. Tactical Law Enforcement Teams 26. The Coast Guard s headquarters
is located in ______________. Washington DC 27. The Coast Guard s eleven specific
mission programs are grouped into which of the following categories? Select all
that apply. DHA missions Non-DHS missions 28. The Coast Guard offers which of th
e following specific national defense activities to a combatant commander? Selec
t all that apply. Maritime intercept operations Port operations 29. Select True
or False: The Coast Guard is prohibited by law (Titles 10 and 14) from performin
g military and law enforcement services simultaneously. False 30. Which of the f
ollowing are Coast Guard Area Commands? Select all that apply. Atlantic Area Pac
ific Area 31. The modern Coast Guard was created in ______________ and celebrate
s its anniversary on August 4 th. 1915 32. Select True or False: When it was cre
ated, the Coast Guard was envisioned to be a military service and a branch of the
Armed Forces of the United States at all times. True The modern Coast Guard was c
reated in ______________ and celebrates its anniversary on August 4th. 1915 True
or False: When it was created, the Coast Guard was envisioned to "...be a milit
ary service and a branch of the Armed Forces of the United States at all times."
True The Coast Guard is a military service that normally operates under the ___
___________. Department of Homeland Security True or False: During times of war,
the President can direct the Coast Guard to operate under the Department of Def
ense within the Navy. True True or False: The Coast Guard is prohibited by law (
Titles 10 and 14) from performing military and law enforcement services simultan
eously. False The Coast Guard's mission is to protect the public ______________.
Select all that apply. 1. in the Nation's ports 2. on the Nation's waterways 3.
along the Nation's coasts 4. on international waters Which of the following are
among the Coast Guard's core roles? Select all that apply. 1. Maritime Safety 2
. Maritime Security 3. Maritime Stewardship True or False: The Coast Guard's leg
islative mandate under Title 14 of the U.S. Code is to enforce-or to assist in t
he enforcement of-applicable state and local laws on, under, and over the high s
eas. False The Coast Guard's eleven specific mission programs are grouped into w
hich of the following categories? Select all that apply. 1. DHS Missions 2. Non-
DHS Missions The objective of the ______________ is to prevent and reduce the ri
sk of maritime mishaps. Marine Safety The Coast Guard offers which of the follow
ing specific national defense activities to a combatant commander? Select all th
at apply. 124 1234 14 Which of the following are part of the Coast Guard's strat
egic trident of forces? Select all that apply. 1. Deployable specialized forces
2. Maritime patrol and interdiction forces 3. Multi-mission shore-based forces T
he senior active duty Coast Guard commander's title is ______________. Commandan
t The Coast Guard's headquarters is located in ______________. Washington DC Whi
ch of the following are Coast Guard Area Commands? Select all that apply. 1. Atl
antic Area 2. Pacific Area The Coast Guard divides its Area Commands into ______
________ for regional focus. districts Coast Guard Sector Commanders maintain op
eration centers to facilitate command and control functions at the _____________
_ level. tactical True or False: Only the Secretary of Defense can initiate plan
ning directly with the Secretary of Homeland Security for the tasking of Coast G
uard forces. False The Coast Guard consists of approximately ______________ acti
ve duty members. 42,000 The Coast Guard's ______________ is an enhanced deployab
le force that has the advanced interdiction skills needed to operate in a non-co
mpliant or hostile environment. Maritime Security Response Team A Coast Guard Po
rt Security Unit (PSU) is capable of deploying via airlift within ______________
hours of notification. 96 Coast Guard ______________ are capable of operating f
rom Navy platforms during counterdrug and maritime interdiction operations in co
mpliant boarding environments. Tactical Law Enforcement Teams The Coast Guard's
______________ conducts military and domestic environmental response operations
and serves as advisors to combatant commanders. SPEC OPS FORCES SECTION 5 1. A c
haracteristic of a clandestine operation is ____________________. that it is con
ducted in such a way to assure its concealment from adversaries 2. Special opera
tions in hostile, denied, or politically sensitive environments to collect or ve
rify information of strategic or operational significance is a part of which Spe
cial Operations core task? Special Reconnaissance 3. A Joint Special Operations
Task Force ______. All the answers are correct. 4. The development of joint spec
ial operations tactics is a responsibility of ____________________. the Joint Sp
ecial Operations Command (JSOC) 5. Which of the following statements is NOT true
? U.S. Special Operations Command (USSOCOM) controls promotions of those officer
and enlisted personnel that are attached to Special Operations Forces units. 6.
Generally, a geographic combatant commander exercises control over Special Oper
ations Forces assigned to the combatant command ____________________. through a
subunified theater Special Operations Command (SOC) 7. A battalion of the Army's
75th Ranger Regiment is forward deployed to Hawaii. This battalion is most like
ly under the command of ____________________. a geographic combatant commander 8
. The Air Force Special Operations unit that would most likely be tasked to assi
st a foreign nation in organizing and training its military and paramilitary for
ces to combat internal subversion is ____________________. the 6th Special Opera
tions Squadron 9. Which of the following statements is/are true? All the answers
are correct. 10. The combat forces of the Navy Special Warfare Command (NAVSPEC
WARCOM) include ____________________. SEAL teams, SEAL delivery vehicle teams, a
nd Special Boat Teams SEAL teams, SEAL delivery vehicle teams, and SEAL transpor
tation units SEAL teams, SEAL delivery vehicle teams, Special Boat Teams, and Sp
ecial Warfare aircraft squadrons 11. A Joint Special Operations Task Force _____
__. All the answers are correct. 12. U.S. Special Operations Command's Unconvent
ional Warfare core task may include all of the following EXCEPT ______. assistin
g a foreign government in organizing and training its military units to combat a
n internal insurgency 13. Which of the following statements is/are true? Army Ci
vil Affairs units are provided to combatant commanders around the world by the U
.S. Army Special Operations Command. 14. Which of the following statements is tr
ue? The U.S. Army Special Operations Command includes Reserve component units. 1
5. _________ responsible for ensuring Special Operations Forces are fully integr
ated into the Combatant Commander's Theater Security Cooperation Plan and contin
gency plans and operations. The theater Special Operations Commands are 16. Dire
ct Action missions __________. All the answers are correct 17. A SEAL platoon is
assigned to an expeditionary strike group. The platoon is most likely under the
operational control of ___. the appropriate combatant commander's Navy componen
t commander 18. Which of the following statements is true? The Marine Special Op
erations Command (MARSOC) is planned to contain 2,700 Marines and Sailors. 19. W
hich service(s) provide(s) special operations units whose mission is combat sear
ch and rescue in support of conventional combat operations? Marine Corps Air For
ce 20. Which of the following statements is NOT true? U.S. Special Operations Co
mmand (USSOCOM) is subordinate to the geographic combatant commanders in waging
the global war on terrorism. 21. Fire support for Special Operations Forces can
be provided by ____. AC-130 aircraft 22. A naval special warfare unit is permane
ntly located in GUAM, BAHRAIN, GERMANY 23. One of the four SOF truths is, humans
are more important than hardware 24. USSOCOM is comprised principally of servic
e members from the Marine Corps, Army, Navy, Air Force 25. Extensive operational
testing in mountainous and other harsh terrain has resulted in the CV-22 Osprey
tilt-rotor aircraft being determined unfit for use by special operations forces
. False 26. The Navy s ______________ operate and maintain rigid-hull inflatable b
oats and special operations craft. Special Boat Teams 27. The Army s premier force
d entry unit is the __75th Ranger Regiment 28. Which special operations aviation
asset is used for both observation, and escort and attack missions? OH-6 29. A
geographic combatant commander exercises control over all assigned special opera
tions forces through a subunified theater special operations command 30. USSOCOM s
origins can be traced to the aftermath of Operation EAGLE CLAW 31. Which combat
ant command was assigned the responsibility of synchronizing all efforts in the
Global War on Terrorism for DoD? USSOCOM 32. The Army component of USSOCOM is lo
cated at ______________. Fort Bragg 33. The Naval Special Warfare Command is loc
ated at ______________. Naval Amphibious Base Coronado 34. In traditional warfar
e, relatively small levels of resources are required to find the enemy, while la
rge amounts of resources are required to achieve a decisive victory. True 35. US
SOCOM is a Geographic Combatant Command (GCC). False 36. USSOCOM is located at _
_____________. Macdill Air Force Base, Florida HOMELAND SECURITY SECTION 1 1. Wh
at command has the primary responsibility for the military support to civil auth
orities mission? Northern Command (NORTHCOM) 2. Often seen as a ary task, Stabil
ity missions are often called ______ and have been formally raised to an equal s
tatus with major combat operations. Nation Building 3. The purpose of the Nation
al Strategy for Homeland Security is to mobilize and organize our Nation to secu
re the U.S. homeland from terrorist attacks. True 4. Which of following is a pri
mary mission for U.S. Armed Forces with respect to Homeland Defense? All of the
answers are correct. 5. The purpose of the National Strategy for Homeland Securi
ty is to guide, organize, and unify our Nation s homeland security efforts. True 6
. The ______________ provides the fundamental justification for Homeland Securit
y activities. U.S. Constitution 7. Stability missions, often seen as a secondary
task are also referred to as NEO . False 8. A large part of Homeland Security is l
eft to the civilian sector. True 9. In the event of a terrorist incident at the
Atlanta-Hartsfield Airport, who would be the first to respond? Local police and
fire departments 10. Which of the following is NOT a critical mission area for t
he National Strategy for Homeland Security ? Maritime Interception. 11. What legisl
ation strictly limits U.S. armed forces involvement in law enforcement activitie
s in the United States? Posse Comitatus Act of 1878 12. Which of the following i
s NOT a critical mission area for the National Strategy for Homeland Security ? Pro
tecting critical infrastructure. Domestic counterterrorism. Defending the Nation
al Capital Region. 13. Which of the following will the military do in pursuit of
its counterterrorism strategic framework? - All answers correct 14. The respons
ibility for homeland security lies strictly with the Federal government. False 1
5. A large part of Homeland Security is left to the civilian sector. TRUE 16. Th
e purpose of the National Strategy for Homeland Security is to guide, organize,
and unify our Nation s homeland security efforts. TRUE 17. Which of these is a str
ategic objective of the National Strategy for Homeland Security? ALL ANSWERS COR
RECT 18. Terrorists choose terrorism as a tactic all of the above 19. The Nation
al Strategy for Maritime Security states that maritime security can best be achi
eved by blending public and private maritime security measures IRREGULAR WARFARE
SECTION 2 1. Counter-terrorism (CT) operations are ______. measures taken to pr
eempt terrorism 2. Defending U.S. interests at home and abroad would naturally i
nclude which of the following? All of the answers are correct. 3. Included withi
n the definition of Irregular Warfare would be the following mission area(s): Al
l of the answers are correct. 4. History shows that the best way to defeat terro
rism is to _______. isolate and localize terrorist activities and then use inten
sive, sustained actions to destroy the terrorist group 5. Terrorism __. became a
more conscious threat after the events of September 11, 2001 6. Small units may
need to alter their operations to counter the WMD threat by ___________________
. securing ventilation to enclosed spaces All of the answers are correct. 7. Whi
ch of the following Weapons of Mass Destruction would be considered to be (a) ch
emical weapon(s)? Sarin 8. Our national strategy to stop terrorist attacks again
st the United States includes which of the following? All of the answers are cor
rect. 9. By definition, a nuclear weapon is ______________ . a complete assembly
capable of producing an intended nuclear reaction and release of energy 10. The
effects of Weapons of Mass Destruction ___________________. demand that troops
devote resources preparing for their potential use 11. In addressing the underly
ing conditions that terrorists seek to exploit, it is important to remember that
___. promoting social and political development may indirectly counter some con
ditions that foster terrorism 12. The collapse of the Soviet Union impacted terr
orism by ___________________. destroying or neutralizing many terrorist groups 1
3. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the effects of terror
ism on naval operations? Terrorism focus is to alter our habits, possibly reduci
ng operational efficiency or increasing personnel stresses. 14. Enhanced force p
rotection ___. can cause frustration for affected personnel if left in place for
extended periods 15. Of the following which is/are true of terrorist organizati
ons? They often use critical infrastructure vulnerabilities to serve their own p
urposes. 16. The 4D Strategy to combat terrorism is framed by which of the followi
ng sets of terms? Defeat, Deny, Diminish and Defend. 17. The threat that is pres
ented by Al-Qaida is enhanced by which of the following aspects? All of the answ
ers are correct. 18. Our national counterterrorism strategy includes which of th
e following: NOT- protect the American people, homeland, and interests 19. Commo
n actions to address an insurgency would include which of the following? Civic a
ction or amnesty programs Social, political or economic reforms 20. The Presiden
t's 3-D goals of counterterrorism are: Select all correct answers. defeat dismantl
e disrupt REGIONAL AND CULTURAL AWARENESS 1. Neo-realist scholars, such as John
Mearsheimer, argue that ______________. Select all the correct answers. -the att
itudes of people in democracies differ substantially from the attitudes of autho
ritarian leaders with respect to the issue of the use of war as a foreign policy
tool there is a sufficient body of evidence to prove democracies do not fight o
ne another -the attitudes of people in democracies do not differ substantially f
rom the attitudes of authoritarian leaders with respect to the issue of the use
of war as a foreign policy tool -there is a not a sufficient body of evidence to
prove democracies do not fight one another 2. Some theorists argue that bargain
ing in the foreign policy arena by democracies is impeded by the openness requir
ed by the democratic format. True 3. A bi-polar international system is more con
ducive to peace than a multi-polar system. Select all the correct answers. True,
because there is a greater likelihood of miscalculating balances in a multi-pol
ar international system leading to conflict between great powers. True, because
of the relative ease of balancing power through internal efforts. 4. The fact th
at the world s leading democracies share common moral values guides them to cooper
ate with each other to maintain world peace. Not true under all circumstances. 5
. A democratic society runs the risk of over-reacting or under-reacting in the f
oreign policy arena because experts are not the sole arbitrators of what course
of action to pursue. True 6. In a uni-polar international system, the prospects
of a world war are remote compared to a multi-polar international system. True 7
. In a multi-polar international system ____. Select all the correct answers. (1
) there is a higher probability of a great power conflict leading to general war
 than in a bi-polar international system (2) the capabilities of the great power
s are more diffused than in a bi-polar international system 8. The transformatio
n of the United States from colonial status to independent country is an example
of a change in domestic structure. True 9. The results gathered from significan
t research shows that elections have a significant impact on the peacefulness of
a democracy s foreign policy toward other democracies. False 10. Prior to World W
ar II, the world was a(n) ____ international system. multi-polar 11. During the
Cold War era, most of the powerful states were ______________ and their behavior
was to a large part defined by ______________. aligned with either of the two s
uperpowers, their relationship to the superpower they were aligned with 12. Joan
ne Gowa argues that ____. Select all the correct answers. (1) prior to 1914, dem
ocratic states were just as likely to engage in conflicts with one another as th
ey were with nondemocratic states (2) prior to World War I, democracies were les
s likely to align with other democracies than with non-democratic states 13. Dur
ing the Cold War, the world was a(n) ______________ international system. bi-pol
ar multi-polar Omni-polar 14. The United States experiences a change in its dome
stic structure each time a new president is sworn into office. False 15. The the
ory that the tightening economic bonds and growing interdependence between democ
racies will solidify peaceful relations between democracies has been countered,
in part, by Joanne Gowa who points out that shifting markets is always possible
if trade is disrupted by conflict. True 16. According to the systems theory of i
nternational politics, a political system may be defined ______________. All of
the answers are correct. 17. One reason for the continued existence of NATO afte
r the decline of its major security threat is that its member states believe the
re is an economic benefit to be had from continued cooperation TRUE 18. Which st
atement is NOT used to support the theory that a world populated by democracies
would be a peaceful world? Democratic economies are capable of rapidly reducing
interrelated societal problems. GEOPOLITICAL CULTURE CULTURAL EXPLANATIONS OF PO
LITICAL BEHAVIOR 1. Political culture helps explain, but is not the only explana
tion, of why states and individuals interact the way they do in international af
fairs. True 2. Elkins and Simeon believe that political culture should be used t
o explain political behavior _______________. only after the examination of stru
ctural and institutional causal factors has been exhausted 3. Political culture
may explain why the people of a state may prefer a leader with a quiet, reserved
personality over one with a gregarious personality. True 4. Political culture c
an be described as the personality of a collectivity because the study of politi
cal culture focuses on behavior patterns and dispositions of a group of persons.
False 5. Political culture _______________. 6. Studying and measuring the effec
t of political culture on different dependent variables is difficult because: Al
l of the answers are correct. 7. By understanding a collectivity s political cultu
re, it is possible to determine the personality of a person belonging to that co
llectivity. False 8. In order to identify the underlying assumptions within a cu
lture, controlled experiments that can illuminate the unconscious assumptions of
its members can be useful. True 9. The breadth of American political culture ca
n accommodate leaders with a variety of personality types. True 10. The narrowne
ss of a political culture may place limits on the behavior and action of a polit
ical leader. True 11. If two collectivities have different behaviors when they h
ave the same dependent variable applied, Elkins and Simeon state that _______. A
ll of the answers are correct. 12. The political culture of a collectivity livin
g within a state __________. is shaped solely by religious influences is shaped
by the totality of all life s influences on multiple generations is shaped only by
influences dating back to the forming of that state 13. In selecting individual
s best suited to fill certain social roles, personality and culture may become b
lended as political culture biases. True 14. Political culture is not found in c
ollectivities such as ____________. None of the answers are correct. 15. The dan
ger of using political culture to explain all political actions __________. is t
hat it ignores structural and institutional causes SECTION 2 DEMOCRACY AND NATIO
NALISM 1. The political system which aims to protect a nation s distinct culture,
history and traditions, expresses the doctrine of ______________. Nationalism 2.
During the early stages of democratization, ______________ are most likely to i
nflame nationalism in the society. National elites The mob and other criminal el
ements 3. The first phase in breaking away from the authoritarian non-democratic
regime is to ______________. Ensure National Unity between all social strata of
the society Establish democratic order 4. Freedoms allow people to openly expre
ss their long suppressed hatred and nationalistic feelings. True 5. As in ______
________, during the early stages of democratization some ethnic conflicts could
promote international conflict. Argentina 6. Nationalist conflicts are happenin
g only during violent regime transitions. False 7. In the beginning of the democ
ratization process, in order to secure political and economic interests, nationa
lism is the right tool in the hands of the ______________. National elites 8. At
this time, the most violent ethnic conflict in East Europe is taking place in _
_____________. Chechnya 9. The first phase in breaking away from the authoritari
an non-democratic regime is to ______________. Ensure National Unity between all
social strata of the society 10. In Japan, a one-party democracy with a slightl
y authoritarian bias was acceptable to the Western countries because ___________
___. Of the bulwark this regime created against the growing influence of the Sov
iet Union 11. According to Snider, the most benign form of nationalism is ______
________. Civic Nationalism 12. Nationalism could provoke conflict during the pr
ocess of democratization because ______________. All of the answers are correct.
13. Freedoms allow people to openly express their long suppressed hatred and na
tionalistic feelings. True 14. After World War II, the purpose for the wave of f
orced democratization upon Axis powers was to ______________. All of the answers
are correct 15. The main reason for nationalistic violence is ______________. A
ge old rivalries among people with different ethnic and cultural backgrounds 16.
What would be the most democratic solution in preventing future ethno national
conflicts? Inclusion 17. The trends which are supposed to stimulate the democrat
ization process are all of the below, except ______________. Ethno nationalism 1
8. After the fall of Communism the most significant nationalist conflict on Euro
pean soil, since the end of WW II, took place in the former _____. Yugoslavia 19
. In the early stages of democratization, in multi ethnic societies partition of
states ______________. Is necessary if cultural differences have been strongly
institutionalized along ethnic lines 20. Democracy cannot be accompanied by inte
rnational and inter-ethnic violence. False 21. According to Snider, the transiti
on toward democracy is always awakening nationalist desires. True SECTION 3 FUTU
RE OF DEMOCRACY AND DEMOCRATIZATION 1. According to ______________ The liberal de
mocracy will triumph in the future . None of the answers are correct. 2. George So
rensen depicts the future of democracy, providing ______________. A Balanced Per
spective 3. According to the Optimistic Scenario of democracy s future, the twenty
first century may be the century of collectivism . False 4. As the role of the Sta
te increases in societies, democratic values will also increase in its strength
and importance. False 5. __________gives a gloomy appraisal of the future of dem
ocracy. Samuel Huntington 6. The Optimistic Scenario of the future democracies i
ncludes all of the following, except that ______________. Transnational corporat
ions will continue to grow as sources of order within the international communit
y 7. Economic factors which weighed heavily against the process of democratizati
on are all of the following, except ___________. Low debt 8. Benito Mussolini s pr
ediction about the future Fascist Century ______________. May come to pass in th
is century 9. The major contender to the liberal democracy, on an ideological le
vel, in the post Cold War world is ______________. Islam 10. To ensure the proce
ss of democratization and to strengthen democracy on the national level, all eff
orts in the future should be focused on? Greater social, economic and political
empowerment of the poor 11. Since 1974, how many countries made some progress to
ward democratic rule? Over eighty 12. Francis Fukuyama believes that ___________
___. societies seeking a prosperous and secure future The liberal democracy prov
ides the only real alternative for REGIONAL STUDIES WESTERN HEMISPERE 1. _______
_______ has/have impacted the nations of Latin America. All of the answers are c
orrect. 2. By 1825, all of Spain s Latin American colonies had gained their indepe
ndence except ______________and ______________. Puerto Rico; Cuba 3. When did th
e U.S. issue the Monroe Doctrine? Early 1800 s 4. Canada s history is similar to the
United States and includes: Select all that apply. -/-In 1867 the British North
 American Act established Canada as an independent country. //Canada was origina
lly inhabited by native tribes migrating from Asia. -//Early settlers in the 160
0 s were from Europe. -/-British seized control in 1763. 5. The population in Cana
da is now approximately ______________. 32 million 6. _______ conducted the only
successful slave rebellion in history in 1804. Haiti 7. ______ did not establis
h colonial territories in North America. Australia 8. While the Panama Canal is
no longer considered by U.S. commanders as a major route for warships, it is ___
___________ to world commerce. vital 9. Which of the following Latin American ci
ties is smaller than New York City? None of the answers are correct. 10. Which c
ountry has the most members in its lower house of legislature? Mexico 11. Accord
ing to the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA), ______________ of heroin in th
e U.S. comes from Latin America. 82% 12. The U.S. is a major trade partner of La
tin American countries. True 13. The ______________ religion was a legacy of Spa
nish and Portuguese colonization in the 16th, 17th, and 18th centuries and is th
e predominant religion of the mainland countries of Latin America. Roman Catholi
c 14. Latin America is ______________. one and one half times the size of the U.
S. 15. Colombia alone produces ______________ of the world s cocaine supply. 16. T
he Panama Canal is ______________. of the U.S. 75% a critical economic path for
commerce between the east and west coasts 17. The U.S. used the Monroe Doctrine
for what purpose? America, and the Caribbean To legitimize U.S. military interve
ntions in Mexico, Central 18. The longest river system in North America is the _
___. Mississippi-Missouri-Ohio 19. The U.S. did NOT gain territories from Mexico
as a result of the ______________. Monroe Doctrine 20. Latin American culture h
as NOT been significantly influenced by ______________. China 21. ______________
was not a catalyst, or driving force, in conquering and colonizing Latin Americ
a during the 15th and 16th centuries. The Monroe Doctrine 22. The ______________
, found in Latin America, is the largest river basin in the world. Amazon River
Basin 23. ______________ was NOT involved in the 1902 blockade of Venezuela. Spa
in 24. _____ is the largest trading partner of Mexico, Brazil, Colombia, Ecuador
, and Peru. The U.S. 25. The ______ instituted by President Franklin Roosevelt i
s credited with most of the nations in Latin America giving unified support to t
he allies during World War II. Good Neighbor Policy 26. Latin America has been h
ome to which of the following indigenous peoples and civilizations? Select all t
hat apply. Maya Toltec Inca Aztec 27. The ________ links the Atlantic and Pacifi
c Oceans. Panama Canal 28. _____ have NOT significantly influenced the ethnic ma
keup of Latin America. Chinese 29. What are the two dominant languages throughou
t Latin America? Spanish and Portuguese 30. _____ was the primary focus of U.S.
policy in Latin America during the Cold War. Countering the Soviet Union and its
allies 31. Which of the following statements is NOT true? European settlers beg
an arriving in North America after the discovery by Columbus in 1612. 32. When d
id the U.S. begin construction on the Panama Canal in order to link the Atlantic
and Pacific Oceans? EARLY 1900s 33. For national security purposes, the area kn
own as Latin America encompasses the ______________. Western Hemisphere south of
the United States, including islands of the Caribbean 34. The export of product
s from Latin American countries continues to ______________ due to the expanded
role of foreign investment. increase 35. The U.S. did NOT gain territories from
Mexico as a result of the ______________. Monroe Doctrine 36. Which of the follo
wing statements about U.S. population is/are true? Select all that apply. Today s
U.S. population is in excess of 300 million; 90 percent of the current populatio
n of the United States was born in the U.S. SECTION 2 BALANCE OF POWER 1. In 197
8, Argentina considered a war against ______________. Chile 2. Since its indepen
dence, Argentina has been a major rival of ____. Chile 3. In 1980, Argentina and
Brazil put aside their rivalries in ______________. the sphere of economic comp
etition the nuclear and ballistic missile spheres 4. Geopolitics is ____________
__. the study of the relationship between geography and power politics 5. In 198
4, what dispute between Argentina and Chile was resolved through papal mediation
? Beagle Channel islands 6. In the late 1970s, Argentina, Brazil, Chile, and Par
aguay all became democratic countries. False 7. Historically, one of the biggest
rivalries in Latin America has been between Brazil and Argentina 8. In 2004, in
order to expand economic ties, MERCOSUR members signed an accord with _________
_____. 9. The creation of Uruguay was the result of a longstanding rivalry betwe
en ______________. the EU Argentina and Brazil 10. The Southern Cone of Latin Am
erica includes the following countries, except ______________. COLUMBIA 11. The
Common Market of the South was founded by Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay, and _____
_________. Uruguay Colombia 12. The Southern Cone of Latin America is composed o
f Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay, Uruguay, and ______________. CHILE 13. Today, the
re is virtually no threat of military conflict between any countries in the Sout
hern Cone. 14. The two nonfounding members of the Common Market of the South are
______________. True Chile and Bolivia 15. Which of the statements are true wit
h regards to the dispute between Ecuador and Peru in the mid-1990s? The efforts
of Argentina and Chile, in part, were responsible for a peace treaty being signe
d between Ecuador and Peru. 16. The threat of conflict between Argentina and Bra
zil is presently at the highest level its ever been. False 17. The Democratic Pe
ace Theory states that ______________. Democracies do not wage wars against othe
r democracies 18. Today, the Common Market of the South, also known as MERCOSUR
(Spanish) or MERCOSUL (Portuguese) includes 6 Latin American countries, except _
___________. Venezuela and Peru 19. What is the name of the theory that suggests
that democracies do not wage war against other democracies? Democratic Peace SE
CTION 3 LATIN AMERICAN MILITARIES 1. Which of the following countries in South A
merica has the biggest military expenditures per year? Brazil 2. Which of the fo
llowing, if any, Latin American countries are capable of projecting and sustaini
ng power for an extended period of time? No one single country 3. Which of the f
ollowing organizations generally discourage military expenditures? All of the an
swers are correct. 4. Some view ____ as a model for other Latin American militar
ies. Costa Rica 5. The only country in Latin America that has dramatically incre
ased its military expenditures is ______________. Colombia 6. According to most
observers, South America has been ______________ since at least the mid-1990 s. Pe
ace a Zone of 7. What region of the world has been considered a Zone of Peace ? Sou
th America 8. The primary role of the militaries of Chile and Brazil is that of
____. defense 9. Which of the following statements is true? Argentina is able to
participate in many United Nations peacekeeping missions due to its large milita
ry budget. Brazil and Uruguay have militaries capable of projecting and sustaini
ng power over foreign adversaries. Very few Latin American countries use their m
ilitaries as internal security (police) forces. 10. Which of the following state
ments is true? Brazil has expanded its participation in peacekeeping missions, i
n part, as a way to justify its seeking a permanent seat on the UN Security Coun
cil 11. The Latin American militaries generally face a crisis over their role an
d missions due to ______________. lack of external threats 12. In terms of the s
ale of weapons, Latin America is most interested in buying ______________ from t
he United States and Europe. high technology jet fighters 13. The United States
______________. All of the answers are correct. 14. Brazil, which accounts for a
pproximately half of the military expenditures in Latin America, is the only cou
ntry in its region that has a military capable of major expeditionary operations
. False 15. The United States is especially involved in ______________, assistin
g that government in its campaign against the insurgents. Colombia 16. The two S
outh American countries that have specialized in peacekeeping operations are ___
___________. Argentina and Uruguay 17. Which of the following statements is true
? The military is widely respected in Chile. 18. Which of the following roles is
not generally associated with militaries in Latin America? Warfighter 19. In th
e last 15 years, which of the following countries in South America had the most
dramatic reduction in military expenditures? ARGENTINA 20. In the last 15 years,
which of the following countries in South America had the most dramatic reducti
on in military expenditures? Argentina EURASIA SECTION 1 1. Which of the followi
ng statements is NOT true? The decreasing capabilities of Russia s military has re
sulted in it losing its permanent membership on the UN Security Council in favor
of China. 2. ______________, ______________, and ______________ broke away from
Russia during the Russian Civil War and were able to maintain their independenc
e until the early years of World War II. Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania 3. At its pe
ak, the holdings of the Ottoman Empire included ______________. all of modern Tu
rkey, parts of Africa, and parts of Europe 4. Which of the following statements
is NOT true? for war crimes by the victorious Allied Powers. Following the end o
f World War II, Adolf Hitler was put on trial 5. Mustafa Kemal (Atatrk) _________
_____. established a democratic, secular form of government that continues to fo
rm the political foundation of modern Turkey 6. Which of the following statement
s is true? The end of World War I saw the final collapse of the Ottoman Empire.
7. Many experts consider ______________ as the foundation of western civilizatio
n. the various Greek city-states that began to rise in the 9th century BC 8. Yug
oslavia ______________. came into existence in the years between the two World W
ars 9. Which of the following statements is true? In a parliamentary democracy,
the prime minister, premier, or chancellor, is chosen by the national legislatur
e. 10. Which of the following statements is true? Spain during the 1940 s. Finland
fought much of World War II on the side of Germany. 11. Which of the following
statements is true? The Soviet decision to prop up a pro-Soviet government in Af
ghanistan during the Brezhnev years contributed to the decline of the Soviet eco
nomy. 12. Which of the following statement is true? The Russo-Japanese War (1904 1
905) was the first 13. Russia s natural resources have given it the ability to woe
its former allies and satellites from pursuing closer relationships with the We
st. True 14. Soviet casualties, both military and civilian, during World War II
______________. included over 20 million deaths 15. Which of the following count
ries is not a member of NATO? Switzerland 16. Which of the following statements
is NOT true? The decreasing capabilities of Russia s military has resulted in it l
osing its permanent membership on the UN Security Council in favor of China. 17.
Which of the following statements is true? Russia became a major European power
during the reign of Peter the Great in the latter part of the 17th century. 18.
One of the earliest significant civilizations to inhabit Western Europe was the
Carthaginians who arrived in the region from ______________. north Africa 19. D
uring the 1991 Gulf War, few Eurasian nations participated in the American-led c
oalition forces that ended the Iraqi occupation of Kuwait. False 20. During most
of the First World War, the Central Powers included which nations? Germany, Aus
tria-Hungary, and the Ottoman Empire 21. Which of the following statements is tr
ue? The vast majority of Turkish territory is in Asia, with only a small portion
located in Europe. 22. Russia is the world s second largest oil exporter. True 23
. The European Union ______________. is the leading supplier of natural gas to R
ussia is a minor trading partner of the United States, behind China, Japan, and
Mexico is the largest economy in the world 24. The Peace of Westphalia is signif
icant because it ______________. formally defined the borders between the Wester
n and Eastern Roman Empires has been credited with the establishment of the mode
rn nation-state system 25. Which of the following statements is true? The Soviet
decision to prop up a pro-Soviet government in Afghanistan during the Brezhnev
years contributed to the decline of the Soviet economy. 26. When did the creatio
n of a single German state occur? After the First World War 27. The Eastern Roma
n Empire, centered in Constantinople (modern day Istanbul) is also known as the
______________. Byzantine Empire 28. During the 1991 Gulf War, few Eurasian nati
ons participated in the American-led coalition forces that ended the Iraqi occup
ation of Kuwait. False SECTION 2 EUROPEAN UNION 1. ______________ provides the E
uropean Union (EU) with a police and peacekeeping capability. Eurocorps 2. Europ
ean leaders believed that to head off another world war, the politics and econom
ies of ______________ needed closer alignment. France and Germany 3. In the near
future, competition between the European Union (EU) and the U.S. will likely ce
nter on ______________. economic strength and geopolitical ambitions 4. A precur
sor to the formation of the European Union (EU) was the establishment of the ___
___________. Coal and Steel Community (ECSC) 5. The European Union (EU) faces in
ternal challenges due to ______________. Great differences 6. The capitals of th
e European Union (EU) are located in ______________. Brussels (Belgium) and Stra
sbourg (France) 7. The origins of the European Union (EU) can be traced to _____
_________. an economic agreement among six nations 8. High on the agenda of the
European Union (EU) goals are ______________. All of the answers are correct. Eu
ropean 9. The European Union (EU) has many of the attributes associated with ind
ependent nations, including: answers are correct. All of the 10. The harmonizati
on of European border policy occurred as a result of the signing of the Treaty o
f ______________ in 1997. Amsterdam 11. The European Union (EU) and the U.S. sha
re interests in ______________. All of the answers are correct. 12. The European
Union (EU) is a construct very similar to the Association of Southeast Asian Na
tions (ASEAN) and the North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA). False 13. The
Reform Treaty (undertaken in June 2007) provides the framework to _____________
_. amend existing treaties 14. Today s European Union (EU) is a supranational orga
nization consisting of ______________ countries. 27 AFRICA SECTION 1 1. Conflict
arises along various fault lines which run through African societies. These fau
lt lines include the following, EXCEPT: Desert vs. tropical economies 2. Between
1956 and 2001: There were over 185 coups d etat throughout Africa. 3. In general,
African countries ________. have two or more official languages one indigenous an
d the other Arabic or European 4. The size of Africa is approximately __________
____. three times the size of the United States 5. Indigenous African peoples do
NOT include the ______________. Ottomans 6. Which is the best description regar
ding the East Africa Region? widespread ethnic violence. Rwanda has just emerged
from a time of 7. Muslim domination of North Africa arose from: Arab immigratio
n along trade routes between Arabia and sub-Saharan empire 8. Which statement is
NOT true regarding the Horn of Africa? Christian dominance prevents spread of I
slamic extremism despite unstable, corrupt governments. 9. Which of the followin
g was NOT a factor hampering the formation of stable African governments followi
ng colonial rule? Local workers did not have sufficient technical expertise to e
xtract raw materials. 10. The following are NOT challenges affecting African gov
ernments: Scarcity of natural resources and available labor pool 11. The U.S. na
tional interest in West Africa is focused on: Nigerian oil 12. Africa comprises
______________. 46 continental nations and 7 island nations 13. The Central Afri
can Region is important to U.S. national interests, because: It has rich natural
resources, including oil, copper and potential for hydroelectric power. 14. Mos
t of today s African nations became independent ______________. during the 1950 s an
d 1960 s 15. Which is NOT true regarding Northern Africa? Islamic fundamentalism i
s concentrated in this region of Africa, making it the primary source of worldwi
de jihad. 16. The following climates can be found in Africa: Desert, rain forest
, savanna, and subarctic 17. Which is NOT true regarding Somalia? The United Sta
tes withdrew troops from Somalia after Operation UNITED SHIELD successfully capt
ured warlord Mohamed Siad Barre. 18. An estimated ______________ of Africans suf
fer from malnutrition. one-third 19. Which is a true statement regarding languag
es spoken in Africa? There are over 1,000 languages spoken in Africa. 20. Muslim
domination of North Africa arose from: Arab immigration along trade routes betw
een Arabia and sub-Saharan empires 21. The U.S. population is approximately 300
million; African population was ______________ by 2020. 922 million in 2005 and
expected to reach 1.27 billion 22. Which was not a general problem facing Africa
n nations upon gaining independence from European colonial rule? Lack of natural
resources SECTION 2 RELIGIONS IN AFRICA 1. Select True or False: Classical anci
ent African religions include beliefs that state there are many gods, but one go
d rules over them all. True 2. ____ has its roots in Africa, as demonstrated by
Moses flight from Egypt. Judaism 3. _______ is a form of individual or collective
struggle to refocus or empower Muslim communities. Jihad 4. Select True or Fals
e: A strong correlation exists between a type of religion and the quality of gov
ernance within an African country. False 5. Which continent has links to some of
the world s earliest religions? Europe Africa South America 6. ______________ is
often used as a tool of mobilization to achieve political or military ends. Reli
gion Socialism 7. Select True or False: Where religion revival can be found in A
frica, most interactions among faiths are rife with conflict. False 8. In modern
times, ______________ in Africa is increasingly becoming an instrument of socia
l mobilization. religion 9. The majority of African Muslims consider themselves
______________. Sunni 10. Which continent has links to some of the world s earlies
t religions? Africa 11. In Africa, ______________ was perceived as a protector o
f the much-persecuted Christians. Islam 12. Select True or False: Shi a Islam is b
anned on the continent of Africa by the African Union (AU). 13. The majority of
Africans follow ______________ Islam. False Sunni 14. One of the most significan
t impacts of Christianity of Africans was improvements to ______________. health
 and education 15. ______________ can be defined as a faith system of supernatur
al belief that is not testable with empirical methods. Religion 16. ____________
__ is one of many African faiths calling for the worshipping of more than one go
d. Animism 17. Select True or False: It can be said that one of the main functio
ns of religion is to explain the natural world. False 18. Select True or False:
Early Christianity is rooted in the central part of Africa. False 19. True: It c
an be said that one of the main functions of religion is to exercise social cont
rol. 20. During the Second Congo War (1998-2003), it is estimated that over ____
_ million people were killed. FIVE-5 21. False: Where religion revival can be fo
und in Africa, most interactions among faiths are rife with conflict. 22. Islam
arrived in Africa during the ______________ centuries. 7th and 8th 23. True: Cla
ssical ancient African religions include beliefs that state there are many gods,
but one god rules over them all. 24. Select True or False: Early Christianity i
s rooted in the central part of Africa. False SECTION 3 AFRICAN SECURITY 1. Most
of Africa emerged from colonial rule during the ______________. 1960 s 2. Address
ing ______________ is the most constructive way to resolve the sources of confli
ct in Africa. pre-conflict circumstances human trafficking concerns organized cr
ime 3. True: Internet cafes are becoming commonplace in even the smallest villag
es in Africa. 4. The use of ______________ degrades the economies of the entire
African continent by depriving its nations of legitimate revenue. child labor 5.
_______ is a form of government that is on the rise in Africa. Multiparty democ
racy 6. ______ is one of the root causes of armed conflict in Africa. Environmen
tal degradation 7. Select True or False: The motive for most African conflicts i
s purely military. False 8. ______________ can be used to promote increased capa
city among African nations for peacekeeping and stability operations. All of the
answers are correct. 9. ______________ is/are linking Africans together in ways
that were unimaginable only a few years ago. answers are correct. All of the 10
. Africa s economic development must keep pace with its ______________ or its econ
omy will stagnate and decline. population growth 11. The largest number of Afric
an deaths each year is caused by ______________. disease and famine 12. Select T
rue or False: The elites in Africa, that assumed power when European colonial na
tions departed, greatly improved the process of the peaceful transfer of power b
etween successive governments. False 13. Coordination of ______________ are esse
ntial for the continued development of African nations. agriculture, health, and
food delivery systems 14. Many of the security issues in Africa can be traced t
o ______________. the challenges many Africans face in supporting themselves 15.
Select True or False: Africa has made the most of its vast hydroelectric power
potential. False 16. Risks to Africa s internal security could be reduced through
______________. the availability of regular and adequate employment 17. ________
______ is an ideal source for funding insurgencies in Africa and contribute grea
tly to instability on the continent. All of the answers are correct. 18. Select
True or False: Unpopular governments in Africa have found their positions streng
thened by the availability of mass communication. False 19. False: Strong eviden
ce exists to support the notion that the suspension of civil rights has brought
peace and stability to wide areas of Africa. 20. ______________ can be used to p
romote increased capacity among African nations for peacekeeping and stability o
perations. All the answers are correct. ASIA PACIFIC SECTION 1 1. ______________
has the largest economy in terms of gross domestic product (GDP) in Asia Pacifi
c. Japan 2. America s number two trading partner is ______________. China 3. The p
opulation of Asian cities is growing at a rate of ______________ the overall pop
ulation. twice 4. Approximately 90 percent of the world s Hindus live in ____. Ind
ia and Nepal 5. The combined oceans of Asia Pacific cover nearly ______________
of the earth s surface. one-half 6. ______________ is the official language of the
Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN). English 7. In which country is
Christianity the majority religion? Philippines 8. In many Asian countries, the
majority of the population ______________. All of the answers are correct. 9. Th
e combined population of India and China account for ______________ percent of t
he world s people. 40 10. The most strategically important waterway in the Asia Pa
cific region is the ______________. Strait of Malacca 11. ______________ (or one
of its variants) is the most common language of Asia Pacific. Chinese 12. Asia
Pacific contains nearly _____ percent of the world s population. 60 13. The larges
t Muslim population in the world can be found in ______________. Indonesia 14. W
hich of the following nations is not considered a possessor of nuclear weapons?
Japan 15. The width of Asia Pacific spans ______________ time zones. 16 16. Whic
h of the following modern nations was not a part of French Indochina? Thailand 1
7. Which of the following nations is not a Communist nation? Burma SECTION 2 PAR
TITION OF THE INDIA SUBCONTINENT 1. Pakistan controlled Kashmir is known as: Aza
d Kashmir 2. False: After the partition of British India until present, there ha
ve been no major clashes between Muslims, Hindus and Sikhs. 3. Under the partiti
on plan, colonial India s military assets ______________. were to be divided betwe
en India and Pakistan in a 60:40 ratio 4. False: India and Pakistan, agreed to d
istribute equally all assets of Colonial India, including the military assets. 5
. Why did Muslim leaders of colonial India seek the establishment of an independ
ent state of their own? Muslim leaders felt that in a Hindu-majority, post-indep
endent India, Muslims minorities would be denied full rights. 6. The Mohajirs we
re ______________. The Muslims who left India for Pakistan and were treated as o
utsiders 7. ______________ presided over the partitioning of British India which
ended colonial rule in India. Mountbatten 8. Kashmir is a mountainous region kn
own for it s ______________. British Lord Climate, beauty, and natural environment
9. ______________ pushed hard for the partition of British India into one count
ry populated mostly by Muslims and one country populated mostly by non-Muslims.
A colation of influential Sihk and Hindu leaders The Muslim League Mohandas Gand
hi 10. The partition of South Asia was driven by ______________. South Asian Sih
ks fear of being underrepresented South Asian Muslims fear of being underrepresent
ed British desire to maintain influence in the region 11. The First Kashmir War
(January 1948-January 1, 1949), between Pakistan and India, ended as a result of
___________. The United Nations resolution to cease all hostilities 12. Sectari
an violence in Pakistan is basically between ______________. Shia and Sunni Musl
ims 13. Today, as a result of the partition of British India, there are three so
vereign countries ______________. Pakistan, Bangladesh and India 14. The India-P
akistan conflict is based upon ______________ issues. All of the answers are cor
rect. 15. The riots in Calcutta on August 16, 1946, also known as Direct Action d
ay, were provoked by ______________. Muslims who were pushing hard for the partit
ion of British India into two nations 16. Sectarian violence in Pakistan is basi
cally between ______________. Shia and Sunni Muslims 17. The Northwestern Fronti
er Province is an unsettled boundary dispute between ______________. Afghanistan
Pakistan and 18. The Line of Control in Kashmir (under the Simla Agreement July
, 1972) between Pakistan and India ______________. All the answers are correct.
SECTION 3 CHINA: ALONE AND JOINING THE WORLD 1. In the 1960 s the Chinese-Soviet r
elationship _______. 2. The Sino-Soviet split ______________. "peaceful coexiste
nce" with the West turned into outright hostility grew out of diverging strategi
c interests over Krushchev s policy of 3. Deng Xiaoping s reforms ______________. le
gitimized private sector in the economy and opened China to foreign investment a
nd trade 4. The main purpose of the Cultural Revolution was to ______________. r
eassert Mao s power and his supreme authority in the country 5. China adopted a de
fense posture of the people s war in the 1960 s because ______________. population and
territory were its best assets for resisting foreign attack at the time it s huge
6. The primary beneficiary of the Cultural Revolution ______________. was the P
eople s Liberation Army 7. The struggle for power among the leadership of the PRC
in the early 1970 s was between _________. moderate leaders and Cultural Revolutio
n radicals within the CCP 8. President Nixon went to China because _____________
_. against the USSR and in Vietnam he thought relations with Beijing would be us
eful 9. China s break from the USSR meant that _________. All of the answers are c
orrect. 10. By the end of the 1960 s, China continued to regard the U.S. as its ma
in adversary. False 11. In the 1960 s the military strategy of the PLA of China ma
inly relied on below mentioned factors, except ______________. China s technologic
al superiority 12. The Tiananmen demonstrations ______________. 13. Deng Xiaopin
g s reforms stressed ______________. in China s development All of the answers are c
orrect. the expending the role of international trade and investment 14. In the
1950 and 60 s, the U.S. policy of containing China included ______________. correct
All of the answers are 15. China s transformation into an emerging world power was
the result of ______________. Deng Xiaoping s reform policies 16. Under the leade
rship of Deng Xiaoping, China normalized relations with ______________. All of t
he answers are correct. 17. At the end of the 1950 s and in the beginning of 1960 s,
the hallmark of Chinese policies was ______________. promote self-reliance to 1
8. In 1978, China normalized relations with ______________. Japan 19. The main r
eason for serious disagreements between Moscow and Beijing in the early 1960 s was
______________. All of the answers are correct. 20. By the end of the 1960 s, Chi
na continued to regard the U.S. as its main adversary. False 21. Mao launched th
e Cultural Revolution in the late 1960 s ______________. All of the answers are co
rrect. 22. Why is China increasingly important today? China s economic, political,
and military power is rising 23. In the 1960 s, China pursued policies of self-rel
iance because ______________. China traditionally sought to maintain isolation fr
om the outside world in the face of an American economic embargo and Soviet pres
sure, it had no other choice 24. The "three bitter years" were recalled by the C
hinese government after the failure of ______________ policy. the Great Leap For
ward 25. The belief that the "focus on economic reforms would promote socialist
goals" originally should be attributed to ______________. Deng Xiaoping K.Marx V
.Lenin 25. The Great Leap Forward ______________. resulted in three years of fam
ine and the deaths of millions of people SECTION 4 CHINA SECURITY ISSUES True: S
ince 1993, China has embarked on a reform process of fiscal decentralization tha
t has continued to grow to the present day The most basic universal indicators o
f human development are ______________. Select all that apply. State support and
basic social services is given to ______________. only to those with local hous
ehold registration The urban-rural income and development gap ______________. is
growing Foreign direct investment (FDI) accounts for nearly ______________. 20%
of all industrial output and 50% of all exports What is the definition of a gro
up of workers who come to the city often to generate additional income to suppor
t their families in rural areas? The floating population Deng Xiaoping s model of
national development required ______________. a long, experimental course of ref
orm Select the correct answer to define: The State maintains control over some se
ctors of the economy, but allows freemarket principles to regulate other sectors
of the economy to help build socialism. Building China s socialist market economy Th
is arid region of China includes high plateaus, mountain ranges, and desert basi
ns with rich mineral and energy resources. Western China True: High levels of na
tional saving and investment are dependent on the virtuous cycle of growth. This r
egion of China constitutes less than one-third of the total Chinese landmass, bu
t has the richest soils, three major river systems, the best natural transport r
outes, and great ease of access to the Pacific Ocean. Eastern-coastal China True
: Many economists attribute China s high domestic saving investment levels to the v
irtuous cycle of growth The first Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in China were cr
eated in the southeastern coastal cities of ______________. Select all that appl
y. Xiamen, Shantou, Zhuhai, Shenzhen False: The Chinese government has recognize
d in recent years, spectacular economic growth and rapid modernization guarantee
s human development Giving individual rural households the freedom to lease farm
-land and generate household income by selling part of their produce on the open
market was the purpose of the establishment of ______________. the household res
ponsibility system False: China s fiscal decentralization policies have helped to c
lose the income gap between different regions and provinces of China. SECTION 5
CHINA, ENVIRONMENT AND DEVELOPMENT China s greatest natural resource problem is __
____________ water False: China s standards for the control of vehicle emissions h
ave completely counteracted the negative effects on its air quality. Due to wide
spread overexploitation and uncoordinated management of land, water, and natural
resources during the Great Leap Forward approximately 34 to 40 million Chinese pe
ople died of ______________. starvation China is the largest producer of _______
_______. coal More than half of China s cities suffer from chronic ______________.
water shortage What campaign sought to rebuild a nation devastated by years of
war, foreign occupation, civil war, and human displacement? The Great Leap Forwar
d Although economic growth remains a high priority for the Chinese government, th
ere is also a fear that this growth will result in ______________. All the answe
rs are correct. China s 11th Five-Year Plan put priority on ______________ and ___
___________. economic growth; development In the 2007 Work Bank report on pollut
ion, ______________ premature deaths were due do urban air pollution. 750,000 Th
e first Environmental Protection Law, passed in 1979, directed the Environmental
Protection Agency to ______________ produce environmental impact statements for
proposed heavy industry and infrastructural projects True: China s Five-Year Plan
for 2006-2010 mandated a system for evaluating the performance of sub-national
government officials on a combination of environmental measures, as well as econ
omic growth. In 1994, China adopted _____________ the United Nations guidelines f
or achieving sustainable economic development. Agenda 21 In 2005 the Ministry of W
ater Resources classified over half of the total length of China s ______________
major river systems as unfit for any type of direct human contact. seven nine ei
ght The new Environmental Protection Law, passed in 1989, promoted _____________
_ and ______________. Select all that apply. basic pollution control measures fo
r industry and commerce urban recycling programs 15. China relies on coal for __
____________ percent of its basic energy needs. 70 16. By 2007, over 60,000 prem
ature deaths were reported annually by the World Bank due to ______________. poo
r water quality SECTION 6 CHINA, ETNICITY/NATIONALITY, AND DEVELOPMENT Which of
the following statements are true? Dr. Sun Yat-sen overthrew the Qing emperor an
d established the Republic of China. Han Chinese contains approximately 60 perce
nt of the population of Guangxi, Ningxia, Inner Mongolia True: The Communists fo
rged critical alliances with minority nationality groups by promising them auton
omy and selfgovernment as integral parts of the future Communist-led People's Re
public of China (ROC). What is the largest official minority in China with a pop
ulation of 16 million people? Zhuang Since 1984, when the ______________ was pas
sed, a series of laws and administrative decrees have expanded rights to include
a comprehensive array of economic, cultural, social, educational, and linguisti
c rights and freedoms. Regional Ethnic Autonomy Law (REAL) In October 1958, this
group was established and officially recognized of the Chinese-speaking Muslim
Hui as an authentic nationality minority. Ningxia Hui Autonomous Region Approximat
ely 70 percent of China s ethnic minorities, more than ______________ people, are
claimed to enjoy regional autonomy. 75 million Approximately 85 percent of ethni
c ______________ do not speak Chinese. Tibetans During the nationality classific
ation project, Stalin s criteria for the identification of authentic minority nati
onalities resulted in ______________ separate nationalities. 56 Which of the fol
lowing nationalities played an important facilitating the Communist consolidatio
n of power and in defeating both the Japanese during World War II and the Chines
e Nationalist forces in northern China? Mongol What are the recognized major nat
ionalities of the Republic of China (ROC)? False: Minority groups less impoveris
hed, less literate, and less educated than when the People's Republic of China w
as founded. Since 2000, however, the national ______________ has taken control o
f the development of natural resources and the disposition of land to further na
tional-level goals. Regional Ethnic Autonomy Law Western Development Strategy Wh
at national integration factors have weakened autonomy in some of the minority a
reas? Economic, Political. Cultural True: In some areas of Tibet and Inner Mongo
lia national development policies have resulted in transforming the local cultur
al environment. In Xinjiang, Tibet, and Inner Mongolia, specifically, some minor
ity groups have claimed that current policies for integrating minority regions i
nto the national economy disproportionately favor ______________. Han Chinese TH
E ARCTIC The climatic Arctic is the region defined by the line where average tem
perature for the warmest month of the year does not exceed _______________. 50F _
_____________ is generally recognized as an Arctic nation. All the answers are c
orrect. The Arctic's indigenous peoples have long been content to ______________
. live a subsistence lifestyle The Ilulissat Declaration, signed by the five lit
toral Arctic nations in May 2008, _______________. renewed their commitment to k
eeping the Arctic a region of peace and cooperation ______________ contains the la
rgest percentage of the Arctic's indigenous population. Russia Approximately ___
___________ percent of the Arctic population lives in Russia 80 percent The Inte
rnational Maritime Organization (IMO) is a/an ______________-specialized agency.
UN______________ made the discovery of a Northwest Passage a priority for early
 explorers. The possibility of shorter shipping routes between Europe and Asia W
hich of the following is NOT a reason the IMO is proposing mandatory measures to
reduce risks to Arctic shipping? The increasing likelihood of terrorist infiltr
ation The Bering Strait is a strategic chokepoint that divides _______________.
the U.S. and Russia True: The effects of climate change have NOT made Arctic wat
ers safe for commercial shipping. On 6 April 1909, America's Robert Peary and Ma
tthew Henson were the first to ______________. reach the North Pole The Arctic C
ouncil is a high-level forum of the eight Arctic nations that was NOT establishe
d to _______________. resolve security issues The Arctic region is dominated by
______________. the Siberian Mountains Alaska's North Slope the Arctic Ocean The
opening of the Northwest and Northeast passages have great economic potential b
ecause they _______________. reduce the distance of shipping routes by thousands
of miles False: During the 20th century, Arctic exploration was carried out mai
nly for commercial reasons. In 1968, the largest oil field in North America was
discovered at ______________, Alaska. Prudhoe Bay The Arctic's indigenous people
s ______________. have survived and even thrived despite the challenges of livin
g in the Far North The International Maritime Organization (IMO) was chartered t
o _______________. maintain a regulatory framework for shipping The origin of na
tive Americans can be traced to the ______________. peoples who migrated from Si
beria Arctic ______________ is a resource of high strategic value to the United
States. oil Approximately ______________ people live in the Arctic (as defined b
y the Arctic Human Development Report). 4 million Since 1982, _______________ ha
s served as the principle international agreement that defines the rights and re
sponsibilities of nations in their use of the world's oceans. United Nations Con
vention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) _______________currently serve(s) as the
overarching legal framework for Arctic governance. The Kyoto Protocols The Proto
col on Environmental Protection United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea
(UNCLOS) _______________ is a member of the Arctic Council. All the answers are
correct The Arctic's geographic boundary lies at ______________ degrees north. 6
6.3 ______________ appears to be the nation most heavily invested in Arctic rese
arch. Russia False: The cost and level of difficulty associated with conducting
Arctic operations is consistent with that of other regions. Sir John Franklin le
d an expedition to discover a Northwest Passage with two ships that used the lat
est technical innovations To carry out its Arctic strategy, the U.S. must ______
_________. All the answers are correct. False: As the highest level internationa
l forum on the Arctic, the Arctic Council's highest mandate is to settle militar
y matters and to enforce cooperative security initiatives. Which of the followin
g is NOT a reason for increasing the Arctic's relative importance to U.S. nation
al interests? Dramatic increase in Russian military infrastructure 30. Select Tr
ue or False: Despite the endorsements of several presidents and high ranking mil
itary officers, the U.S. has yet to ratify United Nations Convention on the Law
of the Sea (UNCLOS). True INDIAN OCEAN The ______________ and their East India C
ompany displaced the Portuguese as the dominant power in the Indian Ocean by 164
1. Dutch True: The Bay of Bengal experiencewavemore cyclones than the Arabian Se
a. The ______________ monsoon brings the most rain to India. southwest As far ba
ck as 500 BC, it was not unusual to find ______________ coins mixed with caches
of Indian coins. Roman Which Muslim empire attempted to control trade in the Ind
ian Ocean region during the Middle Ages? None of the answers are correct. The __
____________ were the first Europeans to round the Cape of Good Hope and enter i
nto the Indian Ocean. Portuguese Which statement is TRUE regarding trade in the
Indian Ocean region during the ancient era (3,000 years ago)? It began long befo
re agriculture was established. Persistent U.S. security concerns in the region
consist of ______________. (Select all that apply.)Transient oil supplies, compe
tition over seabed resources India s policy in the Indian Ocean region is to achie
ve ______________. primacy Which strategic chokepoint does NOT access the Indian
Ocean? Strait of Gibraltar Monsoons behave like a ______________. sea breeze In
dia recognizes ______________ as the dominant sea power in the Indian Ocean regi
on. the United States Over the long term, the most significant threat to U.S. in
terests in the Indian Ocean region is ______________. great power rivalry False:
The Coriolis Effect, a pseudo-force produced by the earth s rotation, causes curr
ents to flow in a straight line rather than in a curve. False: Sailors dreaded t
he monsoon because of its unpredictable and often destructive winds. The _______
_________ is the most important factor in generating ocean currents. sun During
the early 1900 s, the need for raw materials ______________. sparked a fierce comp
etition among European powers The U.S. has ______________ overarching strategic
interest(s) in the Indian Ocean region. three The principal actors in the Indian
Ocean region are ______________. (Select all that apply.) China, the United Sta
tes, India The U.S. was able to counter Soviet plans in the Indian Ocean region
by ______________. negotiating a U.S. military presence on Diego Garcia The Indi
an Ocean is the ______________ ocean in the world. third largest Whose knowledge
of navigation, maps, and engineering was made available to Europeans after Spai
n emerged from Muslim rule? Arabia The fact that approximately ________________
percent of petroleum from the Middle East moves through the Indian Ocean makes i
ts open access important to all nations. 70 The principal role of oceans in huma
n history has been to serve as a ______________. Connector Which is NOT true con
cerning the United States three overarching security interests? They have been so
undly rejected by key strategic partners. During the 1700 s and 1800 s, ____________
__ gained so much power that they took on aspects of sovereignty. the East India
companies Both India and China quote noted author ______________ in order to pr
ovide historic justification for their policies in the Indian Ocean region. Alfr
ed T. Mahan Which statement is NOT true regarding the impact of Christian missio
naries in the Indian Ocean region? - It created large numbers of converts OPEARA
TIONAL PLANNING INTRO TO PLANNING GREAT MIDDLE EAST SECTION 1 1. Which of the fo
llowing statements is true? In a parliamentary democracy, the political party (o
r coalition of parties) with the greatest representation in the parliament (legi
slature) chooses the nation s leader. 2. Kashmir ______________. is a continuing s
ource of tension between India and Pakistan 3. The Organization of the Petroleum
Exporting Countries (OPEC) is made up of solely Middle Eastern nations. False 4
. Which of the following is true concerning the Byzantine Empire? Mostly Christi
an 5. Which of the following statements is true? Turkey is considered the most We
sternized state in its region. 6. When did the first waves of Jewish settlers beg
in emigrating from Europe to the Middle East as part of the Zionist movement? Th
e 1880 s 7. Which of the following statements is NOT true? nations. Oil wealth spu
rred significant social reforms in Middle Eastern 8. Which of the following are
the major groups of Islam? Sunni Islam, Shia Islam 9. Which of the following is
NOT a result of the collapse of the Soviet Union? Jewish emigration from the for
mer Soviet Union to Israel slowed to a trickle 10. Which of the following is NOT
considered a chokepoint for the sea lines of communication in South West Asia?
Strait of Gibraltar 11. India s collapsing economy has made it less of an importan
t future trading partner of the United States. False 12. Which was the first rel
igious group to adopt monotheism, the belief in one god? Jews 13. Which of the f
ollowing statements is NOT true? India s government is founded on religious law. 1
4. Which of the following statements is true? Shah, an ally of the United States
. The 1979 Islamic Revolution in Iran resulted in the deposing of the 15. Which
of the following statements is true? Ottoman Empire after World War I. Britain,
France, Italy, and Russia divided up the Arab part of the 16. The region around
the Tigris and Euphrates rivers in modern-day Iraq is also known as ____________
__. Mesopotamia 17. Which of the following statements is true? A campaign of civ
il disobedience and non-violent protest led to India gaining its independence fr
om the British. 18. Which of the following statements is true? Israel and India
are the most stable liberal democracies in the Southwest Asia region. 19. The Ir
an-Iraq war ended ______________. When Iran and Iraq acceded to a UN resolution
calling for a cease-fire. SECTION 2 1. Following the 1973 war against Israel, Sy
ria and Egypt regained their control over the Golan Heights and Suez Canal. Fals
e 2. The Arab League and Palestinian institutions _______. rejected the partitio
n plan 3. The borders of modern Israel were finally established in which of the
following ways? After being invaded the Israelis established their own borders i
n battle by pushing back the Armies of five Arab countries 4. The United States
government strongly supported the partition of Palestine. False 5. On November 2
2, 1967, the UN issued Resolution 242 calling upon ______________. Israel to wit
hdraw from territories occupied in the recent conflict 6. The Zionist undergroun
d Army called the Haganah was formed in the late 1930s in ______________. Palest
ine 7. In 2003, Israeli Prime Minister Sharon announced that ____. Israeli force
s would unilaterally withdraw from four Israeli settlements in Gaza and from a s
mall section of the northern West Bank 8. Before Jerusalem became united under J
ewish sovereignty on June 7th 1967, following the Six Day War, it was controlled
by the ______________. Jordanians 9. The movement of the Palestinian refugees i
nto the West Bank, Jordan, and the Gaza Strip, in 1947-1948, was a result of the
_____________. All of the answers are correct. 10. The progress of implementing
the Oslo Accords was interrupted by the assassination of Israeli Prime Minister
Rabin by a Jewish extremist on November 4, 1995. True 11. The first direct nego
tiations between Israelis and PLO took place in ________. Oslo, in 1992 12. The
Israelis occupied the Golan Heights, Gaza, and the West Bank following the _____
_________. 1967 Six Day War in 13. The first country which recognized Israel as
an independent Jewish state on May 14, 1948, was ___________. United States the
14. Following the Camp David Accords _____. Israeli withdrew from the Sinai 15.
Within the frame of the Oslo Declaration, the Israelis agreed to ______________.
All of the answers are correct. 16. During the June 1967 Six Day War, Israel __
____________. was attacked, counter-attacked, and regained control of its border
s occupied the Golan Heights, Gaza, and the West Bank carried out pre-emptive mi
litary strikes against Arab population centers 17. Reflecting the principle of La
nd for Peace, the Camp David Accords in 1978, provided for ______________. of the
answers are correct. None 18. What is the Bush administration s attitude toward t
he Security Barrier Israel is constructing on the West Bank? It considers it an
illegal structure (akin to the Berlin Wall) that is a barrier to a final peace s
ettlement It acquiesced to construction of the wall 19. In 1947, the UN General
Assembly opted to partition Palestine into Jewish and Arab states with Jerusalem
______________. to become an International Zone SECTION 3 1. What was Operation
EARNEST WILL? The U.S. escorting Kuwait s oil tankers through the Gulf from 1987
to 1988. The U.S. deploying forces to Bahrain in order to supplement a small Nav
al presence in the region. 2. The leading power in the Middle East after the Wor
ld War II was ___. Great Britain 3. The Azerbaijan crisis demonstrated _____. th
e importance of the Persian Gulf and the Middle East as a potential battleground
in the emerging contest with the Soviet Union 4. In 1933, Standard Oil of Calif
ornia received a concession for oil exploration in Saudi Arabia, as ____________
__. Ibn Saud mistrusted Britain and therefore, began to cultivate a relationship
with the United States 5. During the 1990 s ______________, became the United Sta
tes Navy s busiest port of call in the world outside the continental United States
. Dubai 6. In 1956, U.S. President Eisenhower refused to back ______________. th
e seizure of the Suez Canal by Britain, France and Israel 7. In August of 1945,
the Saudi s gave the United States permission to start building ______________. a
Navy base 8. May 1945, the Azerbaijan crisis ______________. All of the answers
are correct. 9. In October of 1956, after Egyptian president Abdel Nasser nation
alized the Suez Canal, ______________. Britain, France and Israel seized it in a
joint military operation Britain s expanding position in Egypt ended 10. During t
he 1990 s, the U.S. policy goal in the Middle East and the Persian Gulf region was
to ______________. of the answers are correct. All 11. The U.S.-led coalition e
njoyed considerable support in the Middle East for the liberation of Iraq from t
he oppressive regime of Saddam Hussein. False 12. With the eruption of the Iran-
Iraq war in 1980, the United States adopted its Gulf partners idea that included
all of the below, except the following ______________. Saddam s aggressive militar
y intentions in the Gulf region should be restrained by all means necessary 13.
In 1948, the formation of the State of Israel was a result of ______________. Br
itain abandoning the mandate in Palestine and retreating from the region 14. The
main objective for U.S. led Operation SOUTHERN WATCH was to ______________. enf
orce the southern no-fly and no-drive zones in Iraq 15. The Baghdad pact created
by Britain, Iraq, Turkey, Iran, and Pakistan served as ______________. a defens
e alliance against the Soviet Union 16. In 1953, after a coup d Etat backed by Bri
tain and the United States, ______________. correct. 17. In the 1950 s, the United
States supported Saudi Arabia by ______________. All of the answers are correct
. SECTION 4 1. The Muslim and Gregorian (Christian) calendar years match precise
ly. 2. Islam is a ______________ faith. False monotheistic (one god) 3. Members
of the Islamic faith ______________. All of the answers are correct. All of the
answers are 4. The Qur an (the sacred book of Islam) frequently mentions _________
_____. Mary (the mother of Jesus) 5. The pilgrimage in the Islamic faith is also
known as the _______. hajj 6. The hajj, or the pilgrimage to Mecca and Medina,
is a journey every Muslim seeks to make at least ______________ in a lifetime. o
nce 7. Muslims believe that God (known as Allah in Arabic) first revealed his la
st message to humanity through the Prophet Muhammad in the year ____. 610 AD 8.
A crisis in the succession of Islamic leadership resulted in a division of the c
ommunity of Muslims into the ______________ branches of Islam. Shi a and Sunni Suf
i and Sharia 9. All Arabs are Muslim and all Muslims are Arabian. False 10. Isla
m recognizes the prophets of Judaism, such as Abraham and Moses. True 11. ______
________ or zakat is used primarily to support the Muslim community through the
building and upkeep of hospitals, mosques, and schools. Almsgiving 12. If they a
re able, Muslims are expected to pray ______________ time(s) per day, especially
at noon on Friday. five 13. The calendar year for Muslims consists of _________
_____ days. 360 14. The Muslim calendar starts with the year that ______________
. Moses parted the Red Sea the temple of Solomon was destroyed the early Muslim
community fled from Mecca to Medina 15. Islam allows for only finely crafted phy
sical representations of God or the Prophet Muhammad. False 16. In Islam, women
are the spiritual equals of men. True OPERATIONAL PLANNING INTRO TO PLANNING 1.
An Operation Order (OPORD) is ____. a directive to subordinate commanders for th
e purpose of effecting the coordinating execution of an operation 2. Which of th
e following is correct? In the Crisis Action Planning process, an Alert Order is
generally issued after the President or Secretary of Defense approves a militar
y course of action. 3. Contingency planning focuses on _______. potential or ant
icipated emergencies that would likely involve U.S. military forces 4. Which of
the following is correct? supported commander for another. A commander may be a
supporting commander for one operation while being a 5. The subsets of Joint Ope
ration Planning are ______________. contingency planning and crisis action plann
ing 6. Security Cooperation Planning deals with ______________. bilateral and mu
ltilateral defense activities conducted with foreign countries 7. A concept plan
(CONPLAN) _____. is an abbreviated Operation Plan (OPLAN) that would require co
nsiderable expansion or alteration to convert it into an OPLAN 8. Security Coope
ration Planning goals are identified by the ______________. Secretary of Defense
9. Which of the following may be tasked to produce supporting plans by a combat
ant commander? are correct. All the answers 10. A(n) ______________ provides ess
ential planning guidance and directs the initiation of execution planning after
the President or Secretary of Defense approves a military course of action. Aler
t Order 11. A Marine Expeditionary Unit (MEU) commanded by a Marine Colonel is g
iven the objective of securing a inland airbase. In order to divert enemy forces
, two Carrier Strike Groups commanded by a Navy Rear Admiral are assigned to exe
cute air strikes as required by the MEU. The MEU commander sends the Admiral cop
ies of his plans and a list of targets he needs to be attacked prior to his assa
ult on the airbase. Which is most likely the supported commander for this operat
ion? The Colonel commanding the MEU. 12. Combatant commanders prepare their thea
ter strategies and plans based on the guidance and directions given by the _____
_________. President, Secretary of Defense and the Chairman of the Joints Chief
of Staff 13. At the national strategic level, force planning is associated with
______________. creating and maintaining military capabilities 14. The purpose o
f Joint Operation Planning is to _______. response to actual and potential conti
ngencies prepare and employ American military power in 15. Security Cooperation
Planning goals are identified by the ______________. Secretary of Defense 16. Wh
en the President or Secretary of Defense makes the decision to take military act
ion related to a crisis, the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff will issue a(
n) ______________ to implement the approved military course of action. Execute O
rder 17. Joint strategic planning ______________. All the answers are correct 18
. The subsets of joint strategic planning are ______________. security cooperati
on planning, joint operation planning and force planning 19. Who is responsible
for the development and production of joint operation plans? The Combatant Comma
nders 20. Which of the following statements is NOT true? Crisis Action Planning
only takes place when a situation develops that will require U.S. military comba
t operations as a response. Generally a warning order will be transmitted by the
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff on behalf of the President and Secretary
of Defense after a crisis is reported 21. Which of the following is correct? In
the Crisis Action Planning process, an Alert Order is generally issued after the
President or Secretary of Defense approves a military course of action. OPERATI
ONAL PLANNING THE ROLE OF INTELLIGENCE 1. Gathering information of potential int
elligence value from sources such as newspapers, television broadcasts and the i
nternet is a part of which intelligence discipline? Open-source Intelligence 2.
Which of the following could result from the failure to accurately evaluate the
adversary? correct. All of the answers are 3. The battlespace environment is bes
t described as ________. the geographic dimensions of land, air, sea, and space
that encompass the operations area and the nonphysical dimensions that may exten
d well beyond the designated operational area 4. The primary focus of naval inte
lligence is ________________. to provide tactical support to operating forces 5.
Which of the following best describes Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespa
ce (IPB) applicability within the range of military operations? The basic IPB pr
ocess remains the same across the range of military operations. 6. What process
is used to analyze the air, land, sea, space, weather, electromagnetic, and info
rmation environments as well as other dimensions of the battlespace, and to dete
rmine an adversary s capabilities to operate in each? Intelligence Preparation of
the Battlespace 7. Who, on the Commander s staff, has the primary responsibility f
or planning, coordinating and conducting the overall Intelligence Preparation of
the Battlespace (IPB) analysis and production effort? The N-2/J-2 (Intelligence
) 8. Which of the following statements is true as it describes the focus of the
Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace in reference to conventional and asy
mmetric operations There is no difference between JIBP and the two types of oper
ations. The steps remain the same but the focus is slightly different. . 9. The
Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) process is applicable to asymm
etric operations. True 10. The primary purpose of the Intelligence Preparation o
f the Battlespace (IPB) is to ____________________. support the commander s planni
ng and decision making by identifying, assessing and estimating the adversary 11
. In which step of the Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) process
are overlays depicting the geography of the area of responsibility produced? De
scribe the battlespace s effects. 12. Determining the intention of allies and pote
ntial coalition partners is a focus of intellegence at what level of war? Strate
gic level 13. The geographic and non-geographic dimensions of the battlespace ar
e both contained within the Commander s designated operating area. False 14. FALSE
The Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) is conducted exclusively
prior to an operation to support the commander s planning effort. False 15. FALSE
An effective method for evaluating adversary capabilities is to review them in l
ight of U.S. doctrine. 16. Which statement does NOT reflect Intelligence Prepara
tion of the Battlespace (IPB) focus? enemy will pursue False Highlights the COA
the 17. Which step of the IPB process provides a disciplined method for analyzin
g the set of potential adversary Courses of Action in order to identify the most
likely and the most dangerous COAs? Determine Adversary Courses of Action. 18.
The battlespace environment is best described as _____________________. the nonp
hysical dimensions that may extend well beyond the designated operational area t
he geographic dimensions of land, air, sea, and space that encompass the operati
ons area and the dimensions that may extend well beyond the designated operation
al area the geographic dimensions of land, air, sea, and space that encompass th
e operations area nonphysical 19. What is the primary difference between Intelli
gence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) for conventional war vice for Militar
y Operations Other Than War (MOOTW)? The focus 20. Which step of the IPB process
seeks to go beyond the battlespace awareness in order to help the JFC attain ba
ttlespace knowledge? Determine adversary potential COAs. 21. Which of the follow
ing could result from the failure to accurately evaluate the adversary? All of t
he answers are correct. 22. True: Although the four steps in the Intelligence Pr
eparation of the Battlespace (IPB) process remain the same across the spectrum o
f conflict, they may be compacted or expanded as time permits. 23. Select True o
r False: The geographic and non-geographic dimensions of the battlespace are bot
h contained within the Commander s designated operating area. False A decision-mak
ing tool used by Navy commanders and their staffs to resolve simple, routine, an
d complex problems is the _____________. a. Navy Planning Process (NPP) Which of
the following statements is TRUE? a. Crisis events are normally reported by com
batant commanders A ______________ is any concept of operation open to a command
er, which if adopted, would result in the accomplishment of the mission. a. Cour
se of action (COA) Naval planning is a part of ______________. a. Joint operatio
n planning The national military strategy (NMS), which provides guidance to the
combatant commanders as they develop their joint operation plans, is prepared by
the ______________. a. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) ___________
___ is a category of intelligence comprising all communications intelligence, el
ectronic intelligence, and foreign instrumentation signals intelligence. a. Sign
als Intelligence (SIGNT) Joint operation planning includes ______________. a. Co
ntingency planning and crisis action planning Which step of the Navy Planning Pr
ocess (NPP) takes various portions of the plan developed during the planning pro
cess and puts them into the approved format? a. Step 5 Plans and Orders Developm
ent OPERATIONAL PLANNING NAVY PLANNING PROCESS (NPP) 1. The Navy Planning Proces
s is a rigid step-by-step process that, if followed, will lead the staff to a de
cision. False 2. What will the staff normally use in comparing friendly Courses
of Action and to aid in focusing on the advantages and disadvantages of each COA
? Governing factors 3. A friendly Course of Action ____________________. is any
concept of operation open to a commander that, if adopted, would result in the a
ccomplishment of the mission 4. __________ is a written or oral communication th
at directs actions and focuses a subordinate s tasks and activities toward mission
accomplishment. An order 5. The Navy Planning Process is conducted at what leve
l (s) of command? 6. The Course of Action selected during the NPP is the basis f
or what? combat orders. All of the answers are correct. the development of plans
and the issuing of 7. Which statement best states what a good Course of Action
provides to the operation?. All of the answers are correct. 8. Tasks listed in t
he mission received from higher headquarters are what type of tasks? Specified t
asks 9. Which statement is correct when discussing the Navy Planning Process? th
e commander and staff A logical decision process that helps focus 10. During the
comparison of the friendly Courses of Action step in the Navy planning Process,
what does comparing the strengths and weaknesses of the Courses of Action provi
de? It aids in identifying respective COA advantages and disadvantages. 11. FALS
E Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) are a type of implied task. False 12. Lik
e the Navy Planning Process, the process for deliberate and crisis planning is l
eft up to the combatant commander. False 13. What is prepared in anticipation of
operations and normally serves as the basis of a future order? A plan 14. The I
ntelligence of the Battlespace process assists in identifying facts and assumpti
ons about ____________________ and ____________________. the battlespace environ
ment; the adversary 15. Within the Navy Planning Process, at what point would th
e commander determine potential adversary Courses of Action? During the JIPB pro
cess 16. During wargaming, the staff ____________________. compares each friendl
y COA with each adversary COA 17. The wargaming process relies heavily on ______
______________. a solid joint doctrinal foundation, tactical judgment, and opera
tional experience 18. True: Once a wargame has begun, a commander may change an
existing Course of Action. 19. What part of the Navy Planning Process is best de
scribed as the heart of the process? The analysis of opposing courses of action 20
. Select True or False: Once a wargame has begun, a commander may change an exis
ting Course of Action. True OPERATIONAL LAW LAW OF THE SEA AND AIRSPACE 1. Which
of the following statements is true? The U.S. is both a coastal state and a mar
itime state. 2. Which of the following statements is true? body of water. Permis
sion from higher authority may be required to enter a specific 3. National water
s are subject to the territorial sovereignty of coastal nations and include whic
h of the following? of the answers are correct. All 4. Innocent passage is a rig
ht of all ships to transit through territorial seas and _______________________.
 Coastal nations may use force in some circumstances to remove ships which are d
emonstrating non-innocent behavior. 5. A party transiting an international strai
t must do which of the following? All of the answers are correct. 6. Which of th
e following statements is true regarding the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea
(UNCLOS)? It attempts to create a new legal order for ocean space. 7. Internati
onal waters include which of the following? Select all the correct answers. Excl
usive Economic Zones (EEZs). Contiguous zones. 8. Regarding the collision of a U
.S. EP-3 and a Chinese fighter on 01 April 2001, which of the following is/are t
rue? of the answers are correct. All 9. UNCLOS includes two major parts which ar
e ____________. Coastal nation and navigation/overflight rights & deep seabed mi
ning provisions. 10. References regarding the law of the sea include which of th
e following? All of the answers are correct 11. Basic maritime zones are drawn f
rom baselines which may include which of the following? All of the answers are c
orrect. 12. Beyond the outer boundary of the Exclusive Economic Zone begin the h
igh seas, which _______________. the answers are correct. All of 13. According t
o UNCLOS, territorial seas extend to a maximum breadth of 12 nautical miles and
may be temporarily closed (with the exception of international straits) by a coa
stal nation for security purposes. True 14. Which of the following is true of Ai
r Defense Identification Zones (ADIZs)? They apply to all aircraft. 15. Why does
the law of the sea and airspace matter? All the answers are correct. 16. Historic
bays are ______________. exempt from normal rules 17. During UNCLOS negotiation
s, what was the most important issue for the United States Navy? Transit of inte
rnational straits. 18. If a Notice to Mariners/Airmen (NOTMAR/NOTAM) has been is
sued for international waters, which of the following is true? The notice may po
int out the risk of damage to those entering a zone while it is in effect. 19. W
here a nation has drawn straight baselines that do not conform with the coastlin
e according to U.S. policy (as in the case of Iran), U.S. military ships can do
which of the following? They can enter the area representing an excessive claim
with the permission of higher authority. LAW OF ARMED CONFLICT (LOAC) LAW OF ARM
ED CONFLICT, SCOPE 1. Given that it has been determined that the Al-Qaeda and Ta
liban members captured in Afghanistan should be classified as unlawful combatant
s, which of the following statements is true? The U.S. is not required to afford
these people the same treatment afforded POWs under the Geneva Conventions, but
will do so as a matter of U.S. domestic policy. 2. Which statement is true? The
United States has unilaterally decided to apply the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC
) to all of its military operations. 3. U.S. domestic policy broadens the circum
stances under which we apply the Law of Armed Conflict. True 4. Which of the fol
lowing will make the statement not true? The terms of treaties concerning the co
nduct of forces during armed conflict, such as the Geneva and Hague Conventions,
____________. in some cases, have been narrowed by U.S. domestic policy as they
pertain to U.S. military personnel 5. The applicability and scope of the Law of
Armed Conflict (LOAC) is guided by the generally accepted terms of internationa
l law. True 6. Law of Armed Conflict is a more accurate phrase than Law of War _
___________________. as Law of Armed Conflict conveys the message that some or a
ll of the law will apply in all types of military operations 7. The Geneva Conve
ntions of 1949, which govern many aspects of military operations, are similar to
the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC), in that they apply to all nations. False 8. U
.S. policy views much of the language of the Geneva Conventions as a minimum con
cerning the conduct of hostilities and the care of victims of armed conflict. Tr
ue 9. The Department of Defense, Combatant Commanders and the Navy have issued d
irectives that state that the armed forces of the United States will, unless oth
erwise directed by competent authorities, comply with the principles and spirit
of the Law of Armed Conflict during armed conflict but not during operations tha
t do not involve armed conflict. False 10. U.S. policy views the terms of the Ge
neva Conventions as ____________________. a minimum standard 11. The Law of Arme
d Conflict (LOAC) is _________. a generally accepted body of international law 1
2. The Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) applies to _______. the militaries of all na
tions 13. TRUE Current U.S. policy concerning the applicability and scope of the
Law of Armed Conflict is consistent with at least the minimum standards of inte
rnational law. True 14. FALSE The United States policy is to broadly apply the LO
AC when conducting military operations so that it may more easily punish its ene
mies after the cessation of hostilities. False 15. FALSE When a member of the Un
ited Nations Security Council is engaged in a military action pursuant to a Unit
ed Nations Security Council resolution, it is automatically exempted from its La
w of Armed Conflict obligations. False 16. It is advantageous for a nation to be
come a signatory to the Geneva Conventions as not doing so will deny its militar
y personnel the treatments required under that treaty should they be captured by
the forces of a signatory nation. False 17. If a signatory nation to the Geneva
Convention is engaged in armed conflict with a non-signatory nation ___________
_________. the LOAC is applicable to both nations, while the terms of the Geneva
Convention bind only the signatory nation 18. False: If a nation that is a sign
atory to the Geneva Conventions is involved in armed conflict with non-signatory
nations, and those nations engage in activities that are contrary to the terms
of the Geneva Convention, the signatory nation is no longer bound by the Law of
Armed Conflict (LOAC). 19. The Law of Armed Conflict ______________. Essentially
encompasses the same body of law as the Law of War LAW OF ARMED CONFLICT, PRINC
IPLES 1. A combatant who commits a war crime loses his status as a combatant, bu
t is still afforded POW status and treatment if captured by the enemy even if fo
und guilty of the crime. False 2. FALSE The wearing and use of camouflage by com
batants is prohibited by LOAC because doing so would violate the wearing of a fix
ed emblem recognizable at a distance part of the test to determine combatant stat
us. False 3. A civilian that directly participates in hostile actions __________
__________. is classified as a unlawful combatant 4. The principles that have gu
ided the development of LOAC are ____________________. distinction, necessity, p
roportionality and humanity 5. Only members of a nation s regular military can be
classified as combatants under LOAC. False 6. Journalists that are embedded with
in military units engaged in armed conflict ________________. may not be targete
d, but are to be afforded POW status if captured 7. Military medical officers, i
f captured __________. are not considered prisoners of war, but may be retained
in prisoner of war camps to provide medical services to POWs 8. Violations of th
e Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) are violations of U.S. law and punishable under t
he Uniform Code of Military Justice. Only true if the violations are against cit
izens of a signatory to the Geneva Conventions True False 9. If a subordinate co
mmits a war crime, his or her superior _____. can be held accountable if the sup
erior reasonably should have known that a war crime was committed and failed to
intervene or hold the subordinate accountable 10. TRUE A nation has a duty under
LOAC to remove civilians and civilian objects from the vicinity of military obj
ectives. True 11. Civilians in the battlespace are classified as _______________
_____. civilians 12. FALSE Because every weapon system acquired and deployed by
the U.S. military undergoes a review to ensure its legality under LOAC, there is
no need for a service member to worry that its use would violate LOAC. False 13
. In attacking a legitimate military objective, ____________________. incidental
consequences must not be excessive when balanced against the anticipated concre
te and direct military advantage to be gained from the attack 14. Legitimate mil
itary objectives may include ____________________. All of the answers are correc
t. 15. A civilian airport may be classified as a legitimate military objective i
f ____________________. it is currently being used by the enemy to launch and re
cover military aircraft 16. Once a civilian object has been occupied and misused
by the enemy s forces during an armed engagement, ____________________. while a l
egitimate military object at 17. Feigning surrender in order to determine the lo
cation of enemy ground forces is an acceptable tactic. False. Such tactics are c
onsidered perfidy and are considered war crimes. 18. False: It is possible for a
person (such as a reservist) to be classified simultaneously as both a civilian
and a combatant. 19. False: Junior officers who are not in a designated command
billet are required to report violations of LOAC they have personally witnessed
, but are not required to report suspected violations of LOAC that they have no
direct knowledge of. 20. Which statement is NOT true? Department of Defense poli
cy does not require the reporting of unconfirmed alleged actions by U.S. forces
that violate LOAC RULES OF ENGAGEMENT GENERAL PRINCIPLES 1. U.S. Rules of Engage
ment (ROE) are ____________________ issued by ____________________. directives,
competent military authority 2. TRUE Political leaders generally want to ensure
the Rules of Engagement (ROE) for any given mission protect U.S. nationals and t
heir property. True 3. The political component of Rules of Engagement seeks to _
________. All of the answers are correct. 4. Developers of U.S. Rules of Engagem
ent (ROE) must ensure that the ROE comply with domestic law. True 5. Well develo
ped Rules of Engagement need not to be developed in light of the nation s politica
l goals. False 6. German military analyst Carl von Clausewitz theorized that ___
_________________. war is a continuation of political intercourse war is not to
be considered a instrument of politics 7. Rule of Engagement (ROE) only delineat
e the circumstances and limitations under which U.S. forces will continue combat
engagement as only the nation s civilian leaders may initiate a combat engagement
. False 8. FALSE U.S. civilian leaders are not involved in the development of Ru
les of Engagement (ROE) other than approving the ROE as presented to them by the
military establishment. False 9. U.S. policy is that during military operations
short of armed conflict, U.S. forces shall apply the spirit and intent of LOAC
10. Judge advocates are ____________________. used to assist in Rules of Engagem
ent (ROE) training for the forces that will execute the mission and to assist in
Rules of Engagement (ROE 11. TRUE Rules of Engagement (ROE) must allow operatio
nal planners and tactical level operators enough leeway to effectively accomplis
h their assigned missions. True 12. The Rules of Engagement (ROE) for any given
mission must ____________________. allow forces the ability to defend themselves
and accomplish the mission 13. The three major components of Rules of Engagemen
t (ROE) are ____________________. political, military and legal 14. Judge advoca
tes are involved in the Rules of Engagement (ROE) development in order to ______
______________. All of the answers are correct. 15. Domestic and international p
ublic support of a military action is a factor to be considered when developing
Rules of Engagement (ROE). True 16. Well developed and succinct Rules of Engagem
ent (ROE) should clarify what degree of force may be used based on _____________
_. the mission, threat level, and political goals 17. Developers of U.S. Rules o
f Engagement (ROE) must ensure that the ROE comply with domestic law. True STAND
ING RULES OF ENGAGEMENT 1. U.S. Rules of Engagement are considered permissive be
cause they ____________________. provide commanders with the flexibility to act
quickly and decisively without repetitively requesting permission to take certai
n actions 2. The goals of U.S. national security policy include maintaining a st
able international environment consistent with U.S. national interests. True 3.
The Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) are only applicable to U.S. forces operatin
g within the territorial jurisdiction of the U.S. False 4. FALSE The U.S. Standi
ng Rules of Engagement (SROE) do not include the destruction of a hostile force
under actions permitted in self-defense. False 5. In its guidance concerning sel
f-defense measures, the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) _______________
_____. permit the pursuit of a hostile force if the force remains an imminent th
reat 6. The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) apply to U.S. forces operat
ing within the United States when supporting law enforcement authorities conduct
ing counterdrug operations against foreign nationals. False 7. The U.S. Standing
Rules of Engagement (SROE) do not require proportionality in the use of force i
n self-defense as to do so would restrict a commander's inherent right and oblig
ation of self-defense. False 8. The Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) do not appl
y to U.S. forces supporting law enforcement agencies conducting special event se
curity within the U.S. if the suspected threat is a terrorist group based in a f
oreign country. False 9. A commander has an obligation to use all necessary mean
s available and to take all appropriate actions in defense of __________________
__. the commander's own unit and other U.S. forces in the vicinity 10. When U.S.
forces are operating in Puerto Rico, they are governed by ____________________.
the Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) as Puerto Rico is within the territorial j
urisdiction of the U.S. and the U.S. Standard Rules of Engagement (SROE) if resp
onding to a military attack 11. The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) app
ly to U.S. forces during military attacks against the United States. True 12. Th
e U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) apply to all U.S. forces during milit
ary operations ____________________. occurring outside the territorial jurisdict
ion of the U.S. 13. The classified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagem
ent (SROE) is organized ____________________to facilitate quick reference during
crisis or deliberate planning. by authorization level 14. TRUE The unclassified
portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) can serve as a coordina
tion tool with U.S. allies for the development of combined or multinational ROE.
True 15. The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) ____________________. -ar
e divided into two portions: 1) an unclassified portion discussing the use of fo
rce in self-defense; and 2) a classified portion discussing the use of force for
mission accomplishment 16. U.S. national security interests guide global object
ives of deterring, and, if necessary, defeating armed attacks or terrorist actio
ns against designated non-U.S. forces. True under certain circumstances 17. Supp
lemental measures are contained in which section of the U.S. Standing Rules of E
ngagement (SROE)? The classified section 18. The U.S. Standing Rules of Engageme
nt (SROE) is promulgated by the ____________________. Joint Chiefs of Staff Chai
rman of the 19. Select True or False: The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SRO
E) are applicable during peacetime. True 20. Select True or False: The unclassif
ied portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) can serve as a coord
ination tool with U.S. allies for the development of combined or multinational R
OE. True RULES OF ENGAGEMENT SELF DEFENSE 1. Impeding U.S. forces from the recov
ery of U.S. personnel and vital U.S. government property can be considered a hos
tile act. True 2. Hostile intent is defined as the threat of instantaneous or im
mediate use of force against the U.S., U.S. forces, and in certain circumstances
, others. False 3. The authority to extend U.S. protection to non-U.S. forces an
d foreign nations may be exercised only by ____________________. the President o
r the Secretary of Defense 4. Individual self-defense allows one to use force to
defend oneself and U.S. forces in one s vicinity from a hostile act or demonstrat
ed hostile intent. True, but an individual s right to defend oneself may be constr
ained by direction from the appropriate commander. 5. The use of an attack to di
sable or destroy a threatening force ____________________. is authorized when su
ch action is the only prudent means by which a hostile act or demonstration of h
ostile intent can be prevented or terminated 6. When involved in a situation tha
t authorizes the use of force in self-defense, the commander ______________. sho
uld give the threatening force a warning and give it the opportunity to withdraw
or cease threatening actions if time and circumstances permit 7. Normally, a fo
rce is declared hostile by ____________________. a ROE authorized by the Preside
nt or the Secretary of Defense 8. Who may authorize U.S. forces to protect U.S.
nationals and property from attack? All of the answers are correct. 9. Self-defe
nse includes the authority to pursue the enemy force ____________________. only
if the enemy force remains an imminent threat 10. The U.S. Standing Rules of Eng
agement (SROE) provides ___________ to assist commanders in determining if an ap
proaching aircraft, ship or ground unit is demonstrating hostile intent. guidanc
e on various indicators that might be considered 11. Knowledge that a terrorist
is preparing to use force to attack a U.S. Navy ship ____________________. may b
e sufficient to satisfy the imminent requirement and thus authorize the use of f
orce in self-defense 12. TRUE Preparation to use force may satisfy the imminent
threat requirement for self-defense. True 13. Hostile intent is defined as the t
hreat of instantaneous or immediate use of force against the U.S., U.S. forces,
and in certain circumstances, others. False 14. FALSE A commander s inherent autho
rity and obligation to use all necessary means available and to take all appropr
iate actions in self-defense is limited to the self-defense of the commander s own
unit. False 15. Force used to preclude or impeded the mission and/or duties of
U.S. forces can be considered ____________________. a hostile act 16. A force th
at has been declared hostile via an ROE authorized by the President ____________
___. may be engaged immediately by a commander of U.S. forces may be attacked wi
th any weapon available to a commander of U.S. forces must commit a hostile act
or demonstrate hostile intent before it may be engaged by a commander of U.S. fo
rces 17. The concept of hostile intent permits U.S. forces to defend themselves
before they are attacked. True 18. Force used in self-defense must be __________
__________. necessary and proportional 19. Select True or False: As a form of se
lf-defense, the use of riot control agents is always authorized. False RULES OF
ENGAGEMENT MISSION ACCOMPLISHMENT 1. When developing alternative courses of acti
on (COAs) to accomplish an assigned mission, the planning staff ________________
____. must give due consideration to the Rules of Engagement not yet approved bu
t required in order to conduct the COA 2. The Operation Order (OPORD) that is pr
omulgated by the commander of an assigned mission should/may include all of the
following except ___________. requests for supplemental measures 3. The drafting
of Theater-Specific Rules of Engagement has been delegated to the various _____
_______________. Combatant Commanders 4. The supplemental measures found in the
classified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) are available
for use by all commanders of U.S. forces unless specifically withheld. False 5.
In selecting the course of action (COA) to be used to accomplish an assigned mi
ssion ____________________. the Rules of Engagement required to support each COA
need to be considered 6. Rules of Engagement (ROE) are permissive _____________
_______. but may impose restrictions on the use of certain weapons and/or tactic
s in that they give a commander permission to use all weapons available to accom
plish his or her mission 7. FALSE If there are Theater-Specific Rules of Engagem
ent in effect, a commander given a mission within that theater is limited to tho
se Rules of Engagement when executing an assigned mission. False 8. Theater-Spec
ific Rules of Engagement are ______. All of the answers are correct. 9. Suppleme
ntal Rules of Engagement (ROE) ____________________. augment the U.S. Standing R
ules of Engagement (SROE) and theater-specific ROE, if any and should be constan
tly reviewed by commanders to ensure they are sufficient to successfully accompl
ish the mission 10. TRUE Supplemental Measures concerning mission accomplishment
and Rules of Engagement may define certain permissible targets. True 11. As par
t of the military command and control structure, the United States has divided i
ts global responsibilities into geographic regions each commanded by a _________
____. Combatant Commander 12. ____________________ all factor into the developme
nt of mission-specific Rules of Engagement (ROE). Political, military and legal
objectives 13. In any type of planning, the ____________________ assumes the rol
e of the principal assistant to staff director for operations in developing and
integrating Rules of Engagement (ROE) into operational planning. Staff Judge Adv
ocate 14. Mission planners must ensure that the mission-specific Rules of Engage
ment (ROE) support __________. the preconflict, conflict, and post-conflict phas
es of an operation 15. Clear guidance on what forces are declared hostile should
be included in ____________________. mission specific Rules of Engagement (ROE)
the developed 16. The initial guidance in developing Rules of Engagement (ROE)
for a particular mission _________. portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engage
ment (SROE) is the classified 17. Rules of Engagement (ROE) development ________
____________. is parallel and collaborative with operations planning and require
extensive coordination 18. Commanders who have been delegated the responsibilit
y to draft Theater-Specific Rules of Engagement are required to ________________
____. constantly review them and modify as necessary 19 . Guidance on how to req
uest Rules of Engagement (ROE), including the proper formatting of ROE request m
essages are found in ______________. The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE
) 20. Select True or False: Supplemental measures concerning mission accomplishm
ent and Rules of Engagement may define certain permissible targets. True RULES O
F ENGAGEMENT RULES FOR THE USE OF FORCE (RUF) 1. U.S. forces operating within th
e territorial jurisdiction of the United States in support of another agency (fo
r example the U.S. Coast Guard) may operate under that agency s Rules for the Use
of Force (RUF). True 2. The Rules for the Use of Force may apply to U.S. forces
guarding prisoners outside the territorial jurisdiction of the United States. Tr
ue 3. The Rules for the Use of Force only apply when conducting operations that
involved armed conflict. False 4. 5. TRUE Rules for the Use of Force apply to pr
otecting U.S. Naval Ships in international waters. True 6. TRUE U.S. forces oper
ating within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States may operate under
Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) that are developed specifically for the missio
n they are assigned. True 7. FALSE The Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) apply to
all U.S. forces operating inside the territorial jurisdiction of the United Sta
tes conducting: counter-drug operations, special event security and response to
military attack. False 8. TRUE The Rules for the Use of Force may govern U.S. fo
rces overseas when they are protecting vital government assets. True 9. TRUE: Op
erations that would be governed by the Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) would in
clude disaster relief response. 10. TRUE: Rules for the Use of Force apply to U.
S. naval ships while in foreign ports. 11. FALSE: The Rules for the Use of Force
only apply to operations conducted inside the territorial jurisdiction of the U
nited States. BLOCK 6 SENSORS SECTION 1 1. Which of the following sensor types u
ses sound to detect a target? Sonar 2. Night vision goggles work best and give t
he greatest tactical advantage when used ______________. under extremely low lev
els of ambient light 3. Which of the following statements concerning the Global
Positioning System (GPS) is true? Select all correct answers. -The constellation
consists of 28 satellites. It cannot be used as a weapons guidance system. -It
consists of satellites and ground stations used for monitoring and control. -Its
most significant disadvantages for surface ship navigation purposes is the limi
ted over -ocean coverage and the high cost of receivers. 4. Advanced sensor syst
ems allow their users to ______________. gauge enemy forces before being detecte
d themselves 5. GPS provides users with accurate information on ______________.
position, velocity and time 6. The first known sinking of a U-boat during World
War I was aided by a(n) ______________. passive sonar system 7. Infrared-based d
etection, tracking and guidance systems were developed during ______________ and
used up until ______________. the Cold War, the present time 8. Infrared system
s are best used to detect ______________. a warm object against a relatively coo
l background 9. Infrared-based detection, tracking and guidance systems are used
in which weapon? AIM-9 Sidewinder missile 10. During World War II, the British
developed ______________, the first ______________, which played a pivotal role
in the British victory at the Battle of Britain. the magnetron, higher power mic
rowave source 11. Although first patented in 1904, radar wasn t very militarily us
eful until ______________. World War II 12. Improving our ability to survey the
environment improves our capacity to ______________. Select all correct answers.
(1) defend against attack (2) seize the initiative 13. During the 1990 s, increas
es in technology related to which type of sensor system allowed its users to own
the night? Low-light imaging 14. Night vision goggles see in the dark by using ____
__________. the reflection of a laser beam bounced off of what is being observed
ambient light a magnetron that transmits and receives microwaves and operates s
imilarly to an active sonar system 15. Which type of sensor system received incr
eased military interest as a result of German submarine activity during World Wa
r I? Sonar 16. A GPS receiver determines its position by ______________. compari
ng the difference between received time signals from two or more different GPS l
and-based radio stations (GPSLBR) 17. The AIM-9 Sidewinder missile has proven to
be a disappointment as its limited success has not justified its high cost. Fal
se 18. The Global Positioning System has allowed its users to ______________. Al
l the answers are correct. 19.The wavelength of energy is typically measured in
______________. Meters. The further away a sensor can detect a source s energy, th
e ______________ the sensor. The more useful. SECTION 2 SENSOR FUNDAMENTALS 1. T
he ratio of the highest deviation of a value represented by the sensor to the ac
tual value is used to determine a sensor s ______________. accuracy 2. Which state
ment is true? parameter being measured. Sensitivity of a sensor is the change in
output of the sensor per unit change in the 3. A monostatic sensor has ________
______. the detector and source collocated 4. Increasing the frequency of a sign
al wave (while maintaining a constant wave velocity) results in ______________.
a decrease of wavelength 5. Measuring the output of a sensor in response to an a
ccurately known input is known as ______________. calibration 6. Gain refers to
the increase of a transmitted signal s power per unit area caused by _____________
_. focusing a transmitted signal's power in a certain direction, or directions 7
. Which type of sensor operates in such a way that it can be used with minimal r
isk of detection by enemy forces? Passive sonar 8. Interference may be _________
_____. constructive and destructive 9. Spectroscopy is used to determine ______.
what wavelengths are coming off a target 10. Which statement is NOT true? Disper
sion does not affect a highly focused beam of energy. 11. A bistatic sensor is d
efined as a sensor system having ______________. a transmitter in one location a
nd the receiver in another 12. Which statement is NOT true? 13. Sound travels __
____________. None of the answers are correct. faster in water than in air 14. I
f system A has an antenna gain of 1 and system B has an antenna gain of 4, which sta
tement is not true? System B s signal s power per unit area is one fourth that of sy
stem A s signal. 15. A sensor with a linear transfer function is one that ________
______. has an output that is directly proportional to input over its entire ran
ge 16. Refraction refers to ______________. medium the signal is traveling throu
gh the redirection of a signal wave due to changes in the properties of the 17.
A multistatic sensor is a sensor ______________. that has multiple receivers and
/or transmitters 18. Which statement is NOT true? Radio waves have a higher freq
uency than gamma rays. 19. Which is not typically considered a component of a se
nsor system? Warhead is not typically considered a component of a sensor system?
20. ______________ sensors emit a known signal and then detect changes in the r
eceived signal. active SECTION 3 UNDERSTANDING THE FREQUENCT SPECTRUM 1. A frequ
ency of 1 GHz is how many times higher than 1 KHz? One million 2. While we can o
nly see/hear a small fraction of the exploitable frequency spectrum, we can empl
oy sensors to make use of the remainder of the spectrum. True 3. For a given fre
quency, a larger sensor can receive more effectively than a smaller one. False 4
. What is the standard military band for a sensor operating at 3.5 x 108 Hz? B-b
and 5. The appropriate sensor size for a 10 KHz acoustic signal in sea water at
20 degrees C would be the same for underwater and above water platforms. False 6
. Gamma rays are a good example of _________. high frequency and low wavelength
7. Sensor size is proportional to frequency. False 8. What is an alternative way
of writing 7.4 x 108 Hz? 740 MHz 9. Aircraft can only accommodate sensors of on
e meter or less. False 10. A short wave radio signal at 20 MHz would exist in wh
ich standard military band? A-band 11. What is an alternate way of writing .023
km? 23 meters 12. The terms standard industry, standard international, and stand
ard military are synonymous when referring to frequency band designations. False
13. The elasticity of sea water is the same as that of fresh water. False 14. H
ow does the speed of sound through water compare with the speed of sound through
air? Approx. 4.4 times faster in water than air 15. The speed of sound through
water changes with __________. water temperature 16. Sensor size is proportional
to wavelength. True SECTION 4 SENSOR CHALLENGES FOR MODERN COMBAT SYSTEMS 1. A
diesel powered submarine can reduce its likelihood of detection by passive sonar
by ______________. on battery power operating 2. The operator of a radar that i
s the victim of cover pulse jamming will observe ______________. multiple false
targets at various distances and bearings as well as the true target 3. Which of
the following includes three propagation paths of sound in the ocean? Direct pa
th, bottom bounce and sound channel 4. A major limitation of airborne antisubmar
ine assets is that aircraft ______________. have a relatively short on-station t
ime 5. Increased sensor computing power and speed will contribute to making our
combat ability more efficient, more cost effective and safer by ______________.
All of the answers are correct. 6. Information-dense wave packets are used to de
feat which kind of jamming? Cover pulse jamming 7. The sending out of electromag
netic pulses identical to a target s radar at unexpected times is used in ________
______. cover pulse jamming 8. In order to increase the efficiency of the detect
ion-to-engagement sequence, one can never have too much sensor provided informat
ion. The more information that can be collected, the easier the human decision m
aking process is in a tense, stressful environment. False 9. Biological weapons
detectors are currently deployed aboard ______________. None of the answers are
correct. 10. A major disadvantage of using submarine based active sonar is _____
_________. that it may give away the presence of the submarine utilizing the act
ive sonar 11. Electronic warfare sensors alone may not be the optimum method to
identify actual threats to its platform because ______________. they cannot loca
lize, identify and deconflict incoming contacts before radar many nations utiliz
e commercial radar on their naval ships which may lead to misidentification they
do not yet have the ability to classify incoming missile emitters 12. Infrared
sensors can be utilized to detect submarines under certain conditions. True 13.
Of the various optical sensors, those with the greatest promise of increased abi
lities in the future include ______________. unmanned aerial vehicles 14. Errati
c environmental conditions can adversely affect all sensors except _____________
_. None of the answers are correct. 15. The sending out of electromagnetic energ
y at a power level significantly higher than that of an enemy s radar and at the s
ame frequency is used in ______________. barrage jamming 16. The military fields
and continues to use systems that may be generations behind the civilian state
of the art in order to avoid being forced to utilize unreliable assets. True SEC
TION 5 1. ______________ is the command responsible for the development of aircr
aft and air systems. NAVAIR 2. The ever increasing amount of data provided by cu
rrent and future sensor systems, increases the potential of ______________. subj
ecting the operators and decision makers to information overload 3. Because near
ly every type of sensor system can be improved, it is important to _____________
_. anticipate future threats and develop systems with specific specifications to
defeat them 4. ______________, through its ______________ sifts through fleet r
equirements and decides which programs to support. The Office of the Chief of Na
val Operations (OPNAV), Resource Sponsors 5. ______________ generate(s) a lit of
Future Naval Capabilities (FNCs) that serve as a roadmap to direct research and
development funding. ONR 6. Expenditures for future threats must always take a
back seat to current warfighter needs as it is useless to develop a weapon or sy
stem for tomorrow if we can t win today. False 7. ______________ is the command re
sponsible for the development of communications and computer systems. SPAWAR 8.
Unmanned autonomous vehicles will eliminate one of the largest cost factors for
equipment manpower. 9. The program office that is in charge of the development a
system must strive to ______________. answers are correct. False All of the 10.
A limiting factor in developing the most advanced aircraft sensor systems possi
ble is ____. the space needed to house such a system using current, or near futu
re technology 11. The Navy s development of new technologies is managed completely
by Department of the Navy civilian personnel. False 12. All officers that have
been involved in Navy program management are barred from working for defense con
tractors after retirement because to do so would be a conflict of interest. Fals
e 13. ______________ is the command responsible for the development of ships and
shipboard systems. SYSCOMFLT NAVSEASYS NAVSEA 14. ______________ control(s) lar
ge scope programs not falling within the scope of a Systems Command. Program Exe
cutive Offices 15. A limiting factor in developing the most advanced aircraft se
nsor systems possible is ______________. the space needed to house such a system
using current, or near future technology 16. Because of the rapid increase of c
omputing power, and every indication that such increases will continue at least
for at least the next 10 years, there is no longer the danger of what is commonl
y referred to as information overload. False 17. Program Executive Offices are s
olely concerned with the technical aspects of bringing future systems on line an
d thus are not involved in determining warfighter requirements. False 18. Magnet
ic sensors use RF energy to detect concealed objects. False SECTION 6 1. Magneti
c sensors are capable of detecting _________ objects. undersea 2. The purpose of
a magnetic sensor is to ______________. detect changes in a magnetic field 3. A
submarine s magnetic intensity depends upon ______________. All the answers are c
orrect. 4. ____________ are devices that detect changes in a magnetic field. Mag
netometers 5. Magnetic sensors are only effective at ranges of ______________ me
ters or less. 500 6. Self-generated magnetic noise falls into the two broad cate
gories of ______________ noise. maneuver and DC circuit 7. Magnetic sensors are
useful for detecting ______________ objects. metallic 8. Some magnetic sensors u
se multiple magnetometers in order to ______________. increase the chances of de
tection 9. Objects that can t be detected using sound, radio frequency, or light e
nergy may be sensed using ______________ sensors. Magnetic 10. The purpose of ma
gnetic compensation is to achieve a state of total ______________ of magnetic fo
rces around the MAD sensor. Balance 11. One of the things that affect a magnetic
sensor s ability to detect changes in a magnetic field is the ______________. Int
ensity of the change SECTION 7 1. Sounds can usually be detected from the direct
path method of propagation at long ranges. 2. A ship s sonar blind spot is commonly
referred to as its ______. baffles False 3. The ___ contains water with the hig
hest temperature and least density. surface zone 4. In the ______________, water
density changes sharply with depth. 5. A sonar transducer is most similar to a
______________. pycnocline speaker 6. Sound normally propagates through the ocea
n via a single path. False 7. Seawater s property of _____ is what makes it an exc
ellent conductor of sound. elasticity 8. The apparent change in a sound s frequenc
y due to relative motion between the sound s receiver and its source is called the
______________. Doppler effect 9. Underwater sounds are classified as _________
_____. steady or intermittent natural or manmade high or low pitch 10. The ocean s
acoustic characteristics are affected by ______________. All the answers are co
rrect. 11. Less than ______________ percent of the world s total ocean area is sha
llow water. eight 12. Acoustic energy is a form of ______________ energy. mechan
ical 13. The average ocean depth is approximately ______________ feet. 12,000 14
. The ______________ contains 80 percent of the ocean s vertical thickness. deep z
one 15. Generally, ______________ frequency sounds are detectable at longer rang
es in seawater. lower 16. As the relative motion between a sound s source and its
receiver increases, the corresponding Doppler shift ______________. increases 17
. A bathythermograph measures ______________. seawater temperature 18. A hydroph
one is a(n) ______________. underwater microphone 19. ___________ has the most i
mpact on the speed of sound in seawater. 20. The two major types of sonar are __
____________. active and passive Temperature 21. The ocean s acoustic characterist
ics are affected by ______________. All the answers are correct. SECTION 8 1. Ra
dar analyzes a returned signal to determine properties of the object from which
the signal reflected. True 2. The two types of energy transmissions used by rada
r are ______________. pulse and continuous wave 3. Pulse radar is effective at _
_____________. determining a target s relative velocity 4. A continuous wave radar
returned from a moving object will be the same frequency as the transmitted ene
rgy. False 5. Radial speed is the speed at which a target is moving toward or aw
ay from a radar. True 6. Continuous wave radar uses Doppler shift to determine t
arget size. False 7. Blind speeds are a problem with ______________. pulse Doppl
er 8. Radar is an acronym for ______________. radio detection and ranging 9. ___
___________ radar creates a synthetic antenna as big as the distance covered by
the target. Synthetic aperture 10. ______________ radar creates a synthetic ante
nna as big as the distance covered by the radar s platform. Synthetic aperture 11.
A phased array antenna forms a transmitter beam by using small antennas arrange
d in rectangular or circular arrays. True 12. Larger targets exhibit up Doppler wh
ile smaller targets have down Doppler. False 13. Which type of radar indicator use
s a polar coordinate display to depict the range and bearing to targets? PPI 14.
Frequency-modulated continuous wave radar overcomes the normal inability of con
tinuous wave radar to determine ______________. Range 15. The RF energy reflecte
d by a moving target from a CW radar will be at the same frequency as the transm
itted RF energy. False 16. The amplitude of a radar pulse relates to ___________
___. power and range SECTION 9 1. The use of laser designators has the disadvant
age of ______________. detection 2. Most objects emit electromagnetic radiation.
True 3. Most passive emissions occur in which portion of the spectrum? IR placi
ng the designating force at risk of 4. Laser light has unique applications due t
o ______________. low beam divergence 5. The visible portion of the electromagne
tic spectrum is ______________. a narrow part of the spectrum between the IR and
UV portions the same as the optical spectrum 6. Laser guided munitions work bes
t in environments with good visual conditions. True 7. Laser light is available
in both ______________. continuous and pulsed form 8. ______________ is an examp
le of long range application of passive emission detection. Thermal imaging 9. T
he optical spectrum consists of ______________. IR, visible and UV 10. Laser des
ignators work by providing the sensor a good overall image of the target, from w
hich the attacking force can decide precisely where to engage the target. False
11. A laser technique that allows PGMs to identify a particular laser designatio
n from several in its field of view based upon a predetermined pulsing code, is
___. PIM coding 12. Laser designators can work with many kinds of munitions. Tru
e 13. An example of long wavelength, low frequency is ______________. AM radio w
aves SPACE FORCE ENHANCEMENT SECTION 1 1. Space control operations encompass all
elements of the space defense mission and include offensive and defensive opera
tions by friendly forces to gain and maintain space superiority and situational
awareness if events impact space operations. True 2. Offensive and defensive spa
ce operations employed by friendly forces are categorized within the military sp
ace mission area of ______________. Space Control 3. A fundamental requirement f
or the U.S. military to implement Information Superiority is effective use of sp
ace assets. True 4. Space support operations consist of operations that launch,
deploy, augment, maintain, sustain, replenish, deorbit, and recover space forces
, including the command and control network configuration for space operations.
True 5. The space force enhancement function concerned with providing data on me
teorological, oceanographic, and space environmental factors that might affect o
perations in other battlespace dimensions is ______________. Environmental monit
oring 6. SATCOM is: Satellite Communications 7. Space Systems are shared and int
erconnected systems of computers, communications, people, and other support stru
ctures that: (1) Include command and control, tactical, intelligence, and commer
cial communications systems used to transmit DOD data. (2) Serve DOD information
needs. 8. The following functions are three of the five functions assigned to t
he Space Force Enhancement mission area ______________. Position, Velocity, Time
, and Navigation; Space Visualization; Space Control Communications; Integrated
Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment; Environmental Monitoring Intelligence, S
urveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR); GIS; Remote Sensing 9. The military space
mission area concerned with launch, replenishment of spares, and orbital control
is ______________. Space Support 10. Space force application operations consist
of attacks against terrestrial-based targets carried out by military weapons sy
stems operating in or through space. True 11. Support operations consist of spac
elift, satellite operations, and deorbiting and recovering space vehicles, if re
quired. True 12. Space capabilities and their effects touch every facet of our c
ombat operations. True 13. Currently, space force application assets are operati
ng in space. False 14. The force enhancement function concerned with providing t
imely detection and warning of ballistic missile launch and nuclear detonation i
s ______________. Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance 15. The space f
orce enhancement function concerned with providing data on meteorological, ocean
ographic, and space environmental factors that might affect operations in other
battlespace dimensions is ______________. Environmental monitoring SECTION 2 1.
Force enhancement - ISR mission ______________. All of the answers are correct.
2. Single low and medium earth orbiting systems or architectures that provide li
mited numbers of low or medium orbital systems are well suited to the reconnaiss
ance mission. True 3. Intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR) is th
e collection of data and information within an area of interest on a continuing
or event driven basis. Collection over continuous periods of time is called ____
__________. surveillance 4. In Operation IRAQI FREEDOM, space-based ISR ________
______. was a central factor in assuring rapid military success 5. Intelligence
is the product resulting from the collecting, processing, integrating, analyzing
, evaluating, and interpreting available information concerning foreign countrie
s or areas. True 6. A significant limiting factor regarding space-based ISR sens
ors is ______________. a predictable overflight schedule 7. A significant advant
age of a space-based ISR sensor is ______________. the ability to cue terrestria
l systems for more precise locations or targeting 8. ISR systems enhance plannin
g capabilities by providing updated information regarding terrain and adversary
force dispositions. True 9. Satellite systems are not affected by atmospheric di
sturbances such as fog, smoke, electrical storms, precipitation, and clouds. Fal
se 10. ISR is the collection of data and information within an area of interest
on a continuing or event driven basis. Collection that is event driven or occurs
on a one-time basis is called ______________. reconnaissance 11. Geosynchronous
or geostationary satellites are not capable of performing reconnaissance from s
pace. False 12. ISR support ______________. All of the answers are correct. 13.
Types of data and information collected from space include ______________. All o
f the answers are correct. 14. In Operation IRAQI FREEDOM, space-based ISR _____
_________. was a central factor in assuring rapid military success 15. The most
significant advantage of a space-based ISR sensor is ______________. the ability
to provide continuous and focused coverage 16. Several satellites in low and me
dium earth orbits can provide coverage of targets on the order of ______________
. minutes 17. The ______________ orbit allows continuous surveillance of specifi
c regions of the world. geosynchronous 18. Surveillance from space infers that a
single satellite or system must be continuously collecting. False 19. The next ge
neration of satellites will offer ______. All of the answers are correct. 20. Sp
ace-based imagery supports the full range of military intelligence activities in
cluding ______________. All of the answers are correct. SECTION 3 1. Theater Bal
listic Missile Detection and Warning ______________. All of the answers are corr
ect. 2. Sharing information on missile launches on a near real time basis with a
llies and coalition partners is the objective of ______________. Shared Early Wa
rning 3. A substantial limitation of the DSP satellites that was partially corre
cted with the deployment of the Space-Based Infrared System (SBIRS) ground contr
ol element was ______. integrating warnings from multiple satellites and fusing
data from other sources 4. Defense Support Program is well suited to dealing wit
h the diverse threats of the post-communist era. False 5. Satellite- and ground-
based systems provide detection and communicate warning of an adversary s use of b
allistic missiles or nuclear detonations (NUDET) to ______________. All of the a
nswers are correct. 6. Joint Tactical Ground Stations (JTAGS) is a deployable sy
stem that consists of deployable trailers and communications equipment. True 7.
In addition to sensor satellites, other space assets provide communication links
carrying ______________ to warn the affected air, land, sea, space, and special
operations forces. raw data, processed data, and verbal command directions 8. S
pace systems provide warning of ballistic missile launches. Voice and data warni
ng information is immediately relayed to the warfighter in near real time to sup
port tactical decision making to counter the threat. True 9. The SBIRS ground ar
chitecture ______________. All of the the answers are correct. 10. U.S. exchange
s missile detection and warning information with its allies and coalition partne
rs. True 11. The ground-control element of SBIRS satellites became operational i
n 2001, fully replacing the old DSP ground architecture the following year. As a
result, tactical users got more mileage out of DSP satellites in IRAQI FREEDOM
than they did in the earlier Persian Gulf War. True 12. Within the term Integrat
ed Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment (ITW/AA), the definition of "Tactical
Warning" is defined as ______________. a specific threat event that is occurring
13. Space systems provide warning of ballistic missile launches. Voice and data
warning information is immediately relayed to the warfighter in near real time
to support tactical decision making to counter the threat. True 14. Missile laun
ch information is provided on a near real time basis. This information can take
the form of: both data and voice warning. 15. Space-Based Infrared System (SBIRS
) will combine scanning with staring sensors to provide continuous tracks of tac
tical missiles. True Space-Based Infrared System (SBIRS) will combine scanning w
ith staring sensors to provide continuous tracks of tactical missiles. SECTION 4
1. Space systems provide forecasts, alerts, and warnings of weather conditions
from space. True 2. Observation of the space environment ______________. and con
tributes directly to battlespace awareness is crucial to specifying and forecast
ing conditions in space 3. Within the Space Force Enhancement functions, environ
mental monitoring provides forecast and conditions in the following environments
______________. meteorological, oceanographic, and space 4. ______________ are
used to measure or infer sea surface winds (direction and speed), ground moistur
e, rainfall rates, ice characteristics, atmospheric temperatures, and water vapo
r profiles. Microwave sensors 5. Knowledge of the location and characteristics o
f oceanographic features such as __________ are critical for undersea warfare op
erations. All BUT FORCAST WEATHER. 6. Observation of the space environment is cr
ucial to specifying and forecasting conditions in space. This enables U.S. milit
ary joint forces to determine the impact of environmental factors on both advers
ary and friendly space and weapons systems. True 7. Space weather can degrade or
disrupt various forms of communications. True 8. Thermal and visible images tog
ether provide the coverage and extent of ______________. Select all correct answ
ers. -other physical phenomena such as ice fields and snow -clouds at various le
vels 9. Some meteorological parameters needed by forecasters for operational sup
port cannot currently be accurately determined from satellites, including height
s of cloud bases and visibility restrictions. True 10. A significant advantage o
f space-based environmental sensors is that the _______________. data can be gat
hered from remote or hostile areas when there are no surface reporting stations
11. Space systems are the military commander's primary and sometimes sole source
 of environmental data. True 12. Imagery capabilities can provide joint force pl
anners with current information on surface conditions, such as vegetation and la
nd use. True 13. Weather Satellites have a limited multi-spectral capability, ty
pically gathering date in ________________ spectral bands. Microwave All the ans
wers are correct Infrared 14.Knowledge of the location and characteristics of oc
eanographic features can be used by the commander to___________. Concentrate for
ces in an area where an adversary is most likely to be operating, AND avoid subm
arine or maritime mine threats. SECTION 5 1. Satellite communications provide __
____________ coverage enabling military leaders to maintain ______________ and c
onvey their intent to the operational commander. near-global / strategic situati
onal awareness 2. Narrowband Satellite Communications supports ______________ da
ta rates for both mobile and fixed users by providing access on a single dedicat
ed channel or on a demand assigned multiple access channels. secure voice and da
ta transmission at relatively low 3. Requirements for SATCOM service worldwide s
ignificantly exceed the capacity of current MILSATCOM systems. True 4. Satellite
Communications: Select all correct answers. (1) Permit information transfer fro
m the highest levels of government to the theater tactical level for all matters
to include operations, logistics, intelligence, personnel, and diplomacy. (2) C
ollectively provide an essential element of national and Department of Defense (
DOD) communications worldwide. 5. SATCOM in the Ku- and Ka- bands, as well as EH
F systems, are particularly affected by rain (the higher the frequency, the grea
ter the effect). Rain not only degrades the signal but, if heavy enough, can cau
se a complete outage. True 6. Generally, the ______ the frequency (e.g., SHF, EH
F), the ______________ the available bandwidth and the higher the data rate capa
city. higher / wider 7. Protected satellite communications permits the use of sm
aller antennas that increase its mobility, enabling wider use of submarine, airb
orne, and other mobile terminals. True 8. Satellite communications are often the
only means of providing critical beyond line of sight communications. True 9. U
nintentional interference is not as deleterious to SATCOM operations as delibera
te jamming. False 10. MILSTAR stands for: military strategic and tactical relay
system satellite network 11. Significant advantages of satellite communication s
ystems over terrestrial communication systems are ______________. global coverag
e, security, flexibility 12. It is impossible for a unit to lose their primary c
ommunication link with the military strategic and tactical relay system (MILSTAR
) satellite network. False 13. Wideband satellite communications support ______.
All of the answers are correct. 14. All radio receivers, including satellite sy
stems, are susceptible to jamming and interference. True 15. The communication b
ands in which the military operates satellite communication systems are ________
______. UHF, SHF, EHF, commercial 16. Heavy solar activity ______________. can d
isrupt satellite communications for short periods of time, causing communication
s outages in extreme cases 17. Unintentional interference is not as deleterious
to SATCOM operations as deliberate jamming. False 18. Military units must be abl
e to communicate over long distances with: All of the answers are correct. 19. S
ince most communications satellites are in geosynchronous orbit, the region of t
he world which receives least coverage is the ______________ region. Polar 20. _
_____________ satellite systems are more complex and survivable and possess feat
ures not found on other systems. Protected SECTION 6 1. Global positioning syste
m (GPS) navigation signals are affected by ionospheric scintillation. Scintillat
ion is a local effect that has daily and seasonal variations. The effects are wo
rse at ______________ and will usually taper off by ______________. local sunset
/ local midnight 2. The default navigation grid used by global positioning syst
em (GPS) is the World Geodetic System 1984 (WGS-84). True 3. The global position
ing system (GPS) navigational solution depends on having a number of satellites
in view from any position on Earth. Based upon this requirement, many satellites
have been placed in orbit. Currently, there are approximately ______________ GP
S satellites in orbit. 28 4. Because of ______________ of satellites in the glob
al positioning system (GPS) constellation, a single satellite failure __________
____ cause significant degradation of the system. the altitude / will not the nu
mber and orbit location / will not the number and orbit location / will 5. Globa
l positioning system (GPS) is the fundamental system that allows all U.S. forces
 to establish a ______________, where all forces are geographically referenced c
orrectly and precisely synchronized operations are possible. common grid 6. Bene
fits to naval forces from global positioning system GPS include: Select all corr
ect answers. (1) Ships and submarines can precisely plot their position allowing
safe port operations and navigation through restricted waters. (2) Rendezvous a
t sea (e.g., replenishment ships and the strike group), sea rescue, and other op
erations can be facilitated using space position, velocity, time, and navigation
support. (3) Mines can be laid and precisely plotted for friendly force avoidan
ce and later retrieval. (4) Coastlines can be accurately surveyed using a combin
ation of laser range finding along with highly accurate position information. 7.
Virtually all DOD ______________ are equipped with a global positioning system
(GPS) receiver. Select all correct answers. (1) aircraft (2) combat vehicles (3)
indirect-fire weapon systems (4) ships 8. Global positioning system (GPS) _____
_________. plays a key role in almost all military missions 9. The Air Force spa
ce squadrons controlling the orbit of global positioning system (GPS) satellites
during combat operations during Operation IRAQI FREEDOM were able to improve th
e navigation accuracy to approximately ______________ meters on a planned basis.
2.2 10. The use of nulling antennas/ filters, and the correct placement of GPS
receivers on various platforms all improve jamming resistance. True 11. Space ba
sed navigation systems (e.g., GPS) are ______________. not resistant to any type
s of jamming resistant to some types of jamming 12. The space based navigational
system used by U.S. forces for position and timing reference is the global posi
tioning system (GPS). This system relies upon the receipt of signals from at lea
st ______________ satellites simultaneously. 4 13. Global positioning system (GP
S) navigation signals are affected by ionospheric scintillation. Scintillation o
ccurs more often ______________. in the mid-latitudes (40-60 degrees latitude (N
orth or South)) 14. Use of hand-held receivers diminishes capabilities. Units re
lying on hand-held global positioning system (GPS) receivers in areas of _______
_______ may have diminished GPS capabilities. dense vegetation or steep terrain
15. NAVSTAR global positioning system (GPS) provides the primary space-based sou
rce for U.S. and allied: All of the answers are correct. 16. Space-based positio
n, velocity, time, and navigation systems support strategic, operational, and ta
ctical missions by providing highly accurate: All of the answers are correct. 17
. Significant advantages offered by global positioning system (GPS) to operation
al forces are ______________. accuracy, accessibility, and coverage 18. Although
highly accurate navigational information from the GPS constellation is exploita
ble by adversary forces, it is unlikely the military would alter GPS signal avai
lability to them because ______________. signal interruption will affect the tre
mendous civil dependence upon GPS 19. Global positioning system (GPS) is extreme
ly useful in air operations. Accurate position, velocity, and time enhances ____
__________. Select all correct answers. terminal approach and recovery airdrop,
air refueling, reconnaissance, and low-level navigation search and rescue target
location, bombing, and weapon delivery INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY & FORCEnet SECTIO
N 1 1. The purpose of an information system is to ______________. support an org
anization s operations 2. Decisions should be based on ______________. information
3. Select the information criterion that is NOT one of the top six characterist
ics of quality information. Veracity 4. New information that conflicts with our
existing image requires us either to ______________. validate the image or revis
e it 5. The technological impact C must allow the warfighting commander to ______
________. Select all correct answers. have freedom to exercise individual initia
tive based upon assessments of the local situation direct operations from long d
istances 6. The commander may "pull" or extract information in a C architecture f
or the following reason. Situational awareness among subordinate commanders 7. I
ntuition and judgment are a product of our personal ______________. Select all c
orrect answers. experiences preconceptions education 8. Information systems cons
ist of ______________. entire infrastructure, organization, personnel, and compo
nents that collect, process, store, transmit, display, disseminate, and act on i
nformation 9. One of your objectives as a naval leader should be to ensure exist
ing technologies are being fully leveraged. Select all responses that support th
at objective. Complete understanding of the role of data and information within
the decision-making process Thorough knowledge of the existing technologies Coll
aborative working environment 10. Naval, joint, and national information sources
should "push" relevant, time-sensitive information to naval forces, based on pl
anned information requirements and dissemination criteria. True 11. The concept
of operations and commander's intent should convey only a general idea or mental
image of the operation and the desired outcome. Details will always come later.
False 12. ______________ is the lifeblood of any C system. Information Section 2
1. ______________ delivers the naval component of the Global Information Grid.
Space and Naval Warfare Systems Command (SPAWAR) 2. Space and Naval Warfare Syst
ems Command s (SPAWAR s) origins date back to the Navy s support of the ______________
program during the 1960 s. Space 3. Naval Network Warfare Command (NETWARCOM) is
the Navy s central operating authority for ______________. All of the answers are
correct. 4. ______________ provides information system planning, engineering, ac
quisition, fielding, and support for Department of Defense (DOD). Defense Inform
ation Systems Agency (DISA) 5. ______________ is the Navy component of the Globa
l Information Grid (GIG). FORCEnet 6. The White House Communications Agency is o
perated by the ______________. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) 7. DISA
is a combat support agency under the ______________. Secretary of Defense (SecD
ef) 8. ______________ is the functional program manager that is responsible for
all Navy networks, information assurance programs, and enterprise services. PMW-
160 9. Consolidation of the Navy s network infrastructure is taking place as a par
t of ______________. FORCEnet 10. ______________ is operationally focused while
______________ drives the strategic direction of Navy information networks. Nava
l Network Warfare Command (NETWARCOM) - Space and Naval Warfare Systems Command
(SPAWAR) 11. ONE-NET is the Navy s ______________. Overseas shore network 12. ____
__________ advocates for the Fleet in the development and fielding of informatio
n technology. Naval Network Warfare Command (NETWARCOM) 13. Navy/Marine Corps In
tranet (NMCI) is the Navy s ______________. Continental United States (CONUS) asho
re network 14. ______________ provides the program and policy support that under
pin the Navy s information networks. Space and Naval Warfare Systems Command (SPAW
AR) 15. The naval networking environment presently contains numerous legacy netw
orks. True 16. The central operating authority for all Navy information networks
is ______________. Naval Network Warfare Command (NETWARCOM) 17. The classified
( high ) side of the Defense Information Systems Network is called ______________.
SIPRnet 18. ______________ currently provides total information systems manageme
nt for the Department of Defense (DOD). Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA
) 19. IT-21 is the Navy s ______________. Afloat network 20. The concept of design
ing weapon systems for the total battle force instead of individual platforms an
d weapons was called ______________. Warfare Systems Architecture 21. __________
____ is the U.S. Fleet Forces Command s N6 and Strategic Command s component command
er for network operations, information operations, and space systems. Space and
Naval Warfare Systems Command (SPAWAR) Naval Network Warfare Command (NETWARCOM)
Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) Section 3 1. C is the exercise of ____
__________ by a properly designated commander over assigned and attached forces
in the accomplishment of a mission. authority and direction 2. Information syste
ms ______________. are all driven by technological means make the right informat
ion available to the commander at the right time merely add credibility to a sys
tem of tactical exchange that can otherwise "stand alone" 3. Information is ____
__________. The raw material from which knowledge is generated 4. In addition to
mission responsibility, with respect to personnel, Command includes the authori
ty and responsibility for: Select all correct answers. morale health & welfare d
iscipline 5. The naval commander monitors and guides the actions of his forces t
hrough ______________. A command and control system 6. Feedback is a vital eleme
nt of control; it gives the commander a way to: Select all correct answers. Moni
tor events Adjust the allocation of resources Adapt to changing circumstances 7.
Using a central nervous system analogy, the commander is the conscious brain of
the military body and C is ______________. the system of nerves that carry infor
mation to him from the senses (the information-gathering units and sensors) 8. C
ommand is defined as the authority that a commander in the armed forces lawfully
exercises over subordinates by virtue of rank or assignment. True 9. While the
conscious brain (the commander) sets overall goals and direction, it is the subc
onscious brain (______________) that monitors and regulates most actions. admira
ls chiefs and enlisted subordinate commanders and forces 10. C functions are perf
ormed through an arrangement of resource groups (system) including: All of the a
nswers are correct. 11. The focus of naval C, as well as the driver of C is ______
________. the commander ships crew the hardware 12. C provides which of the follo
wing? All of the answers are correct. 13. Effective training, education, and doc
trine will make it more likely that subordinates will take the proper action in
combat. This is control before the action, but nonetheless is still control. Tru
e Section 4 1. Deriving knowledge from a common tactical picture results in ____
__________. understanding 2. Although the decision and execution cycle is focuse
d on the operational commander, all phases of the cycle are active at each echel
on of command. True 3. In a well-trained force, imbued with initiative, the lowe
r we can push the decision-making threshold, the swifter our decision and execut
ion cycle will become. True 4. Orientation is the result of a ______________ pro
cess that turns data gathered from the environment into knowledge and understand
ing. cognitive 5. The commander s orientation is rooted in what he believes to be
the current "reality" of the battlespace. This image of reality is derived from
his _________, __________, __________, and situation reports from subordinate co
mmanders. direct observation / sensors / intelligence systems 6. After the comma
nder derives his understanding (orientation) of the battlespace, his next step i
s to ______________ on a course of action and develop a plan. decide 7. ________
______ is a continuous, cyclical process by which a commander makes decisions an
d exercises authority over subordinate commanders in accomplishing an assigned m
ission. C 8. The commander forms a mental picture of the situation converting sen
sor data and other information into ______________. Select all correct answers.
---estimates //-assumptions -/-judgments ---actions 9. Which of the following is
the most important stage of the decision and execution cycle? Orient 10. During
the action phase, the commander monitors/observes the execution of operations a
nd gauges the results. This is intended merely to gauge results. It is important
not to reinitiate the decision cycle based upon post action phase observations.
False 11. Certainty is a function of ______________. knowledge 12. The OODA foc
uses on the ______________ as the crucial element in the entire process of C. dec
ision-maker 13. Our ______________, ______________, ______________, and the unfo
lding circumstances of war all influence our ability to orient ourselves. Experi
ence / expectations / culture 14. What is the key element of the command and con
trol process? Commander 15. Knowledge is the result of ______________, _________
_____, and fusing data that have been processed and evaluated as to their reliab
ility, relevance, and importance. analyzing / correlating 16. The first step tow
ard understanding is gathering data. Data is gathered primarily from our _______
_______ in the form of ______________. sensors / raw signals 17. Orientation is
the key to our entire decision cycle, because it influences the way we _________
_____, ______________, and ______________. observe / decide / act Section 5 1. _
_____________ uses integrated information to identify and neutralize threats, lo
cate and destroy anti-access challenges and intercept missiles. Sea Shield 2. FO
RCEnet is what enables the Sea Power 21 pillars of ______________. Sea Strike, S
ea Shield, and Sea Basing 3. By fully leveraging the power of information, U.S.
and coalition forces will gain the knowledge needed to dominate the tempo of ope
rations by: Select all correct answers. Enhancing deterrence Sustaining warfight
ing superiority Controlling crises 4. The Navy shares data among platforms and o
ther services through: Select all correct answers. --Link 16 --The Cooperative E
ngagement Capability /-The Joint Fires Network /-VHF Radio 5. FORCEnet is a nece
ssity because today s engagements are measured in ______________ and cover _______
_______. seconds, hundreds of miles 6. ______________ draws on comprehensive dat
a to sustain critical functions afloat. Sea Basing 7. Identify the statement tha
t does not represent a limitation or technology or the result of limited technol
ogy in today s battle space. Increasing lethal aircraft, sub-surface, and surface
combat platforms 8. In a world of complex interrelationships, where a single sho
t can have global ramifications, naval professionals must share databases with g
overnment agencies and nongovernmental organizations. True 9. FORCEnet is not an
 acquisition program; rather it is a/an ______________ and integration initiativ
e to serve as a change agent and an engine for innovation, potentially touching
every naval program. enterprise alignment 10. By fully leveraging the power of i
nformation, U.S. and coalition forces will gain the knowledge needed to dominate
the tempo of operations by: Select all correct answers. Controlling crises Sust
aining warfighting superiority Enhancing deterrence 11. The Navy s success in Oper
ation Enduring Freedom in Afghanistan can be attributed to unprecedented tactica
l flexibility made possible by: Select all correct answers. -Precision-guided mu
nitions made effective by these systems -Coordination over secure data links and
voice circuits -Advanced sensing and targeting systems in the air and on the gr
ound 12. Identify the statement that does not represent a limitation or technolo
gy or the result of limited technology in today s battle space. Current military s
ensors Political and cultural understandings of the enemy Increasing lethal airc
raft, sub-surface, and surface combat platforms 13. As we prepare for the future
, we must build on our successes to acquire operational capabilities at the next
level of integration and effectiveness, by safeguarding data streams and other
information from the other services. False 14. ______________ relies on rich sit
uational awareness to sense hostile capabilities and trigger rapid and precise a
ttacks. Sea Strike 15. As we prepare for the future, we must build on our succes
ses to acquire operational capabilities at the next level of integration and eff
ectiveness, by safeguarding data streams and other information from the other se
rvices. False 16. Specific FORCEnet objectives include: Select all correct answe
rs. -Expand joint, interagency, and coalition interoperability -Experiment, inno
vate, integrate, and implement -Focus on the "warrior" in FORCEnet development -
Enhance sensing, connectivity, and decision making 17. Launched and maintained f
rom forward-deployed ships and submarines, sensors will provide persistent and r
esponsive networked sensor coverage to: Select all correct answers. /sharpen dec
ision making -increase battlespace transparency /ultimately allow the navy to re
duce personnel -reduce operational costs 18. FORCEnet s goal is to arm our forces
with superior ______________. Knowledge 19. Investment in intra-theatre capabili
ties will enable the development of high endurance organic communication hubs th
at enhance and extend intra-theatre networking. True 20. Developing FORCEnet wil
l be challenging, and require a comprehensive ______________, multi-agency, and
international program that integrates systems, processes, and organizations. joi
nt Navy Air Force & Army Communications for the warfighter 1. The phenomenon of
destructive interference results in the complete cancellation of both interferin
g waves. False 2. A sinusoidal function has which three parameters? Amplitude, f
requency, and phase angle 3. What are the two types of channels for transmitting
electromagnetic waves? Free space and guided medium 4. Baseband modulation uses
a carrier signal. False 5. DAMA schemes grant user access based upon __________
____. reservations 6. The link margin is the ______________. ratio of power rece
ived to receiver sensitivity 7. Which type of cable enables the longest transmis
sion distances? Fiber optic 8. Noise introduced by a receiver is called internal
noise. True 9. The term dBm refers to a power level ______________. unit refere
nced to 1 milliwatt 10. UTP cable has ______________ pairs of wires. 4 11. What
type of device converts an electrical signal into electromagnetic waves for tran
smission through a channel? Transmitter 12. ______________ is NOT one of the typ
es of digital baseband modulation. Pulse angle 13. Ground waves achieve ranges l
onger than line-of-sight by ______________. hugging the surface of the earth, es
pecially over water 14. Which is NOT one of the types of digital passband modula
tion? Phase angle keying 15. What type of device converts audio/visual informati
on into an electrical signal? Transducer 16. There is a peak in atmospheric abso
rption at 180 GHz due to ______________. water vapor 17. antenna that radiates i
ts power equally in all directions is called a/an ______________ radiator. isotr
opic 18. ______________ is NOT a type of satellite orbit. Low earth High earth 1
9. In link budget analysis, the important parameter is ______________. received
power Stealth Technology 1. Stealth technology reduces radar signatures by _____
_________. complex tradeoffs which eliminate or reduce returns to all enemy sens
or systems 2. Which sensor provides the best resolution for radar imaging? Milli
meter wave radar 3. Radar cross section is the relation of ______________. a rad
ar wave scattered from a target to the wave directed at the target 4. RCS is mea
sured in ______________. square meters 5. Scattering, which occurs when an elect
romagnetic wave encounters a physical object, is the dispersal of particle beams
of radiation into a range of directions. True 6. Non-imaging sensor systems can
establish the presence of a target, but cannot provide information regarding mo
vement. False 7. Since a jumbo jet liner is much larger than a pickup truck, its
RCS should be much larger. False 8. The success of stealth technology is leadin
g to an increased emphasis on the development of capabilities to detect stealth
platforms, such as ______________. passive array and low frequency radars 9. A B
-52 bomber is not considered an example of low-observable technology because of
______________. large RCS and IR signature 10. Interference is the result when e
lectromagnetic waves at differing frequencies interact with each other. False 11
. A critical capability of sensor systems is to ______________. distinguish spec
ific target electronic signatures from background data 12. Which sensor provides
the best resolution for radar imaging? Millimeter wave radar 13. Which type of
electronic sensor system is the least complex and expensive? Passive electro-opt
ic 14. Stealth technology helps to prevent detection, but once detected a stealt
h platform can easily be tracked and targeted. False 15. Methods used to reduce
RCS include ______________. avoiding large, flat surfaces and using radar absorb
ing material Evaluation of Naval Platforms Section 1 1. Which two innovations, d
eveloped during the 1920 s and 1930 s did the United States submarine fleet enter Wo
rld War II with? Mk14 torpedoes and the Torpedo Data Computer (TDC) 2. The _____
_________-class submarine introduced the all electric drive to the United States
submarine force. Tang 3. The ______________ and ______________ were the first t
wo Navy submarines to be equipped with diesel engines. USS Skipjack, USS Sturgeo
n 4. Prior to World War I, what did the Navy envision as the two roles for subma
rines? Coast defense and fleet operations 5. The USS Nautilus (SSN-571), launche
d in 1958, was the first ______________ for the United States. nuclear powered s
ubmarine 6. What was the advantage of sail mounted vice bow mounted planes? Incr
eased bow mounted sonar efficiency Allowed submarine to stay submersed for longe
r periods of time 7. Identify the mission(s) of the Los Angeles-class submarines
. Select all that apply. Power projection ashore Escort carrier and expeditionar
y strike groups Anti-surface warfare Anti-submarine warfare 8. Identify the key
technological advancements of the 19th century that were instrumental to the fur
ther development of submarines in the United States. Advances in the internal co
mbustion engine, battery and electric motors and the invention of the torpedo 9.
Which treaty was responsible for limiting the construction of U.S. naval bases
in the far east? Five-Power Naval Limitation Treaty 10. What class of submarine
has been selected to be converted to guided missile submarines (SSGNs)? Ohio 11.
The Alligator was the first submarine to ______________. employ an air purifyin
g system and deploy a diver while submerged 12. What were some of the limitation
s of the first submarines? Select all that apply. /Size /Weapon technology -Rang
e -Speed 13. What was the name of the first submarine used by the military? Turt
le 14. During World War II, how many aircraft carriers did the United States sub
marine fleet sink in the Pacific? 8 15. Which United States submarine successful
ly completed the first fully-submerged circumnavigation of the earth in 60 days
and 21 hours? USS Triton 16. The modified Mk 27 was the first torpedo used by th
e United States Submarine Fleet capable of ______________. attacking submerged s
ubmarines 17. Which of the following is not a mission of the Sea Wolf class of s
ubmarine Power projection ashore Section 2 1. Compared to European battleships,
the Navy s battleships of the late 1890 s were ______________. relatively smaller an
d slower, but more heavily armed and armored relatively light armed, but faster
and more heavily armored 2. Radar was first installed on a Navy ship ___________
___. in the years immediately prior to World War II 3. Ships with gas turbine pr
opulsion plants, such as the Ticonderoga class cruisers can go from full ahead t
o full back ______________. through use of controllable pitch propellers 4. Turb
oelectric drive propulsion plants ______________. use an electric motor to turn
the propeller shaft 5. Surface to air missiles using beam-riding guidance ______
________. require that the launching platform s fire control radar keep its beam p
ointed at the target 6. When constructed, USS Constitution was armed with ______
________. muzzle loaded smooth bore guns 7. The destroyer was initially designed
to combat ______________. torpedo boats 8. The so-called ABCD ships were signif
icant in that they ______________. were considered the beginning of the modern N
avy 9. Aegis ______________. is able to track over 100 targets and direct over 2
0 missiles simultaneously 10. Which of the following is not a part of today s Navy s
surface combatant inventory? Raymond Spruance-class destroyers 11. Steam turbin
es were first used in Navy battleships constructed ______________. during the ea
rly 20th century before World War I 12. The Navy s Vertical Launch System ________
______. is capable of carrying a variety of surface to air missiles 13. The firs
t wartime sinking of a warship by an anti-ship missile ______________. occurred
in the 1967 Arab-Israeli war 14. Ships with gas turbine propulsion plants, such
as the Ticonderoga class cruisers can go from full ahead to full back __________
____. through use of controllable pitch propellers 15. The Navy took delivery of
its first steam-powered warship ______________. during the 1810 s 16. Which of th
e following is not true? Breech loading guns became the Navy standard in the ear
ly 1800s Turrets had to be made larger to accommodate breech loading guns as opp
osed to muzzle loaded guns of similar size. A breech loading gun exposes its cre
w to hostile fire less than a muzzle loaded gun. 17. The widespread employment o
f torpedo boats by the end of the 19th century ______________. represented a rel
atively inexpensive but potent threat to battleships 18. Which advances were fir
st incorporated into the Navy s ships during the Civil War? Armor plating and turr
et mounted guns 19. A proximity fuse ______________. contains a radio transmitte
r-receiver to detect its distance from a target 20. A closed loop fire control s
ystem, such as the one used by the Phalanx Close-In-Weapons System, ____________
__. tracks both the target and outgoing projectiles Section 3 1. Which of the fo
llowing statements is true? The Navy s first aircraft carrier was a converted coll
ier. 2. Which of the following statements is true? The H-60 helicopter is used s
trictly as an ASW platform. The H-60 helicopter represents a shift from multi-mi
ssion aircraft to mission-specific airframes. The H-60 helicopter has replaced v
irtually all carrier and carrier battle group support ship rotary-wing aircraft.
3. Which of the following statements is NOT true? The angled flight deck was an
American development adopted later by the British Royal Navy. 4. Which was the
first U.S. ship built from the keel up as an aircraft carrier? USS Ranger USS La
ngley 5. The introduction of the angled flight deck in the 1950 s ______________.
led to many World War II-era carriers being retrofitted with angled flight decks
6. Which of the following statements is true? The first takeoff and landing on
a Navy warship were conducted by a civilian. 7. Which of the following statement
s is true? Aircraft with folding wings were first introduced prior to World War
II. 8. The first successful shipboard launch of an airplane from a Navy warship
was ______________. financed by a civilian aviation enthusiast 9. The first Navy
aircraft carriers designed for Fleet operations rather than independent operati
ons were ______________. the Essex-class the Saratoga- and Lexington-classes the
Yorktown-class 10. The Navy s first experience with operating in the air domain o
ccurred ______________. at the end of the 19th century during the Civil War duri
ng World War I 11. The Navy s first nuclear-powered aircraft carrier was _________
_____. USS Enterprise 12. Which of the following statements is true? During Worl
d War II, the fight deck catapults on the Navy s front-line carriers were used ver
y little. Crash barriers eliminated the possibility of a landing aircraft collid
ing with aircraft parked on the flight deck. Hanger deck catapults were widely u
sed during World War II. 13. The first catapults used by the Navy ______________
. used compressed air for power 14. Which of the following statements is true? T
he Washington Naval Treaty led to the conversion of two under-construction battl
e cruisers to aircraft carriers. 15. Samuel Langley s successful 1896 flight of an
unmanned heavier than air vehicle prompted the Navy to appropriate funds to all
ow Langley to develop a manned version. False 16. The Navy s current fighter aircr
aft is an ______________. F/A-18 Hornet Culture of the Navy second and fourth Fl
eets Where is the HQ of the navys 2nd fleet located ? Norfolk The AOR of the 2nd
fleet includes which geo areas ? The western portion of the Atlantic Ocean, fro
m the North Pole to the Caribbean, and the Gulf of Mexico During WW1______ ships
were assigned to the Atlantic fleet ? Nearly all Among the navys role during WW
1 was____? All answers are correct The opening of the panama canal enabled warsh
ips to transit atlantic and pacific oceans________? Less than one-third the time
What event prompted the US to declare war on spain in 1898 ? - The sinking of t
he USS Maine Part of the 2nd fleets mission set is to serve as the naval compone
nt of____? USJFCOM When conducting ops w/I its own AOR 2nd fleet is under opeara
tional control of______? NOT- USNORTHCOM, USCENTCOM, completed in 1914 what allo
wed the us navy to transit between atlantic and pacific oceans? panama canal 4th
fleets normal AOR is w/I which geo combatant commanders AOR? USSOUTHCOM The US
Navy reorganized forces in 1922 assigning most ships to pacific in response to ?
Growing threat that japan presented During WW2____numbered fleets were responsi
ble for ops in Atlantic ocean? Three The Atlantic squadron was reorganized into
Atlantic in early 1941 because? Because the possibility of war breaking out in b
oth Atlantic and Pacific Ocean. Which statement is accurate concerning the battl
e of Santiago during Spanish-american war? US Navy obtained lopsided victory The
AOR(area of responsibility) of the U.S. Fleet Forces Command (USFFC) includes w
hich of the following geographical areas? - The western portion of the Atlantic
Ocean, from the North Pole to the Caribbean, and the Gulf of Mexico Part of the
U.S. Fleet Forces Command s mission set is to serve as the Naval Component of ____
. NORTHCOM What was the Navy s primary duty during the Civil War? - Blockade the C
onfederate Coast Which squadrons never operated in the are encompassed by the US
navys 2 nd fleet? North Africa squadron fifth fleet Which fleet is assigned to
the smallest area of responsibility (AOR)? Fifth Fleet Which significant event m
arked the first massive buildup of U.S. forces in what is now the Fifth Fleet s ar
ea of responsibility (AOR)? The establishment of an anti-Western/anti-United Sta
tes nation in Iran The Navy s Fifth Fleet is part of ______________. usCENTCOM bit
ches The current headquarters of the Fifth Fleet is located in ______________. M
anama, Bahrain What role did USN not play during operation Iraqi freedom? Rescui
ng hostages During operation desert storm a relatively small amphibious force co
nsisting of 17,000 embarked marines were able to tie up Iraqi forces of ? 80K Wh
ich of following is NOT choke point in 5 th fleet AOR ? Malacca strait Which fle
et is assigned to smallest AOR ? 5th fleet How many operational units are perman
ently assigned to 5 th fleet ? 0 Operation NEW DAWN symbolizes ? NOT-increasing
role of US combat forces Not-the transfer of responsibility from Iraqi forces to
U.S. forces What failed operation was credited for increasing emphasis on train
ing for joint ops? Operation eagle claw Which significant event marked the 1st m
assive buildup of US forces in 5th fleet AOR ? NOT- soviet invasion of Afghanist
an Over _____ of the worlds oil reservesare located in the AOR 5 th flet? 50% Us
navy ships have operated in what is now the 5 th fleets AOR since ? - Early 180
0 s The focus of operation NEW DAWN will be conducting_______ops ? Stability The A
OR of the 5th fleet includes which following geo area ? Western portion of the i
ndian ocean, the red and Arabian seas What command now known as USCENTCOM was for
med to underscore US policy laid out in the carter doctrine ? NOT- MIDEASTFOR Op
eration NEW DAWN is the successor to operation ? IRAQI FREEDOM The past 2 decade
s have seen_____in navy ops conducted in 5 th fleet AOR? An increase About_____o
f the oil exported from 5 th fleet AOR transits through straits of hormuz. 90% W
hen was the first major build of US forces in the 5 th fleet AOR? Late 1970 s Navy
and marine aircraft executed almost 80% of US strikes in Afghan during what op
? Operation ENDURING FREEDOM The navys 5th fleet is part of ? USCENTCOM Current
HQ of 5th fleet is in ? Manama sixth Fleet sixth fleet received its designation
in: 1950 The sixth fleet is assigned to: Commander naval forces Europe Select Tr
ue or False: The Navy s North Sea Mine Force conducted mine warfare against the Ge
rman Navy in World War II. tF The U.S. maintained a presence in the Mediterranea
n in the years following World War II, because ______________. of the threat pos
ed by the Soviets to Turkey and Iran Sixth Fleet s area of responsibility encompas
ses ______________. Select the best answer. Geographic area of USEUCOM and USAFR
ICOM During WW2 primary role of navy in Atlantic was ? Combating German U-boats.
Navys 1st overseas installation was ? Port mahon on spanish Which of following
attributes describe 6 th fleet AOR? 6th fleet commander is maritime component Co
mmander of ? USEUCOM and USAFRICOM Years following Civil war, ships of Africa sq
uad worked to suppress? Slave trade Euro, Africa and Mediterranean ops in WW1 in
cluded ? Clearing minefields after the war, convoying ships, laying 60,000 mines
. During civil war, the well known sinking of confederate commerce raider by uni
on warship occurred when the USS Kearsarge sank____? Alabama ______ fleet was es
tablished to control all US naval forces in Europe including allies .? 12th In 198
6 Navy conducted operation _____ which consisted of air strikes on Libya in reta
liation ? Eldorado Canyon False-The Navy s North Sea Mine Force conducted mine warfar
e against the German Navy in World War II. The 6th fleets responsibility to NATO
includes ? Prepare conduct, deter aggression against NATO, report to NATO supre
me Allied During WW2 Navy conducted amphib ops in ? TRUE a division of US battle
ships operated as part of British Grand fleet ? 6th fleet is assigned to ? Comma
nder naval forces Europe NATO s Supreme Allied Commander, Europe (SACEUR) is dual-
hatted as ______________. Commander, USEUCOM When commanding NATOs naval strikin
g and support forces 6 th fleet reports to? SACEUR The 6th fleet received its de
signation in ? 1950 The US maintained a presence in the Med in years following W
W2 because ? Of the threat posed by the soviets to turkey and Iran 6th fleet is
HQ d in ? Naples Italy Pacific Fleet Where is HQ of PAC fleet ? Pearl harbor Where
is the headquarters for the U.S. Navy s Third Fleet located? San Diego Which of f
ollowing was NOT result of Spanish-american war in pacific ? Establishment of NA
TO US navys presence in what is Pacific fleet dates back to what time era? early
1800 S In period between 2 WW s what was mission on navy in pacific ? All answers c
orrect Where is the headquarters for the U.S. Navy s Third Fleet located? USPACOM
Who were the 2 primary commanders in the pacific theater during WW2 ? NOT- Nimit
z and Eisenhower When was the 1st time majority of American sea power was assign
ed to the pacific? 1920 When did the U.S. Navy move the headquarters of the Paci
fic Fleet from the west coast to Hawaii? - 1940 s Nearly _____ percent of the worl
ds population lives in the AOR encompassed by the US pac fleet? 50 The AOR of th
e 3rd fleet includes which ? Eastern pacific ocean from the international What 2
sub # d fleets compose the pac fleet? NOT-3rd and 2nd What external force caused t
he US for the 1 st time to shift major weight to the pacific? Rising threat of J
apan Acquisition of PI was important to the US cause it allowed them to ? Establ
ish major operating base and repair facility in the pacific Which statement is N
OT true concerning battle Leyte gulf ? - General MacArthur began his invasion to
capture Okinawa During war 1812 essex proceeded to capture or destroy ships bel
onging to? Britain During Civil war what was the greatest threat in the pacific?
Confederate commerce raiders Which of the following is NOT a current task of th
e Third Fleet? Monitoring the Straits of Hormuz and Bab al Mandeb ENLISTED PROFE
SSIONALISM Block 2 SECTION 1 DETRAMENTAL 1. Drill instills discipline and foster
s what kind of habits? Precision and automatic response 2. Traditionally, awards
are handed out in what manner? From most senior award to most junior 3. Which o
f the following is NOT a reason to conduct a personnel inspection? To use as a t
ool to punish your Sailors 4 As a leader, you will organize your Sailors into fo
rmation for which one of the following occasions? Awards ceremony 5. During the
Revolutionary War, ______________ developed a set of standardized drills for Gen
eral George Washington and the Continental Army. Baron von Steuben 6. Which even
t would NOT require the Commanding Officer to order the ship to man the rails? L
eaving the shipyards after 120 days 7. Who is known as the Drillmaster of the Ame
rican Revolution ? Baron von Steuben 8. What type of command is the first word in P
arade Rest ? Preparatory 9. At the beginning of the Revolutionary War, ___________
___ was the leaders' primary tool to achieve discipline in ranks. fear 10. What
do you call the extreme right or left of an element? FLANK 11. As a leader, you
can only command Sailors to the position of parade rest, from what position? Att
ention 12. Sailors are in a _____________, when placed in formation one behind t
he other? File 13. Which of the following events would not require you, as a lea
der, to hold military quarters? Refueling evolution 14. What is the distance bet
ween ranks? 40 15. A/an__________ can be a single person or a section of a large
r formation. Element File 16. When giving a command, what do you call the rise a
nd fall of the pitch in your voice? inflection 17. What order allows room for th
e inspecting party to step between ranks to conduct an inspection of the sailors
? OPEN RANKS SECTION 2 1. When in a military vehicle and an officer is seen, who
renders the hand salute? The right front passenger seat salutes 2. What does Ti
tle 10, U.S. Code mandate with respect to uniforms? The requirement to generate,
maintain, and update the uniform regulations 3. When walking with a senior, wha
t side do you walk on? LEFT 4. Who exits a military vehicle first? The senior le
aves first 5. How do you recognize the Sergeant Major of the U.S. Army? The hat
insignia and rank insignia contain the eagle from the great seal 6. What is the
U.S. Army s highest enlisted pay grade? Sergeant Major 7. What is meant by under ar
ms ? When wearing a side arm or carrying a weapon 8. At what distance do you begin
your salute when approaching an officer? At six paces or closest point of appro
ach. 9. The Air Force rank associated with its highest enlisted pay grade is tha
t of ? Chief Master Sergeant 10. What is the definition of prescribable items? Un
iform items which may be directed or authorized for wear with the basic uniform.
Items may be worn with basic uniforms at the individual s discretion unless other
wise directed. 11. What Army rank is associated with the E-6 pay grade? Staff Se
rgeant 12. What should you do when the national anthem of a friendly foreign? co
untry is plat should you do when the national anthem of a friendly foreign count
ry is? Salute SECTION 3 1. Presence with a purpose provides what? routine, pulse
2. Which report issued a mandate for the U.S. military to transform leading to a
doption of FRP? 2001 Quadrennial Defense Review 3. Who did Admiral Vern Clark ta
sk with developing a plan to replace the 18-month inter-deployment training cycl
e (IDTC)? Commander, Fleet Forces Command 4. When is a CSG considered surge read
y? When they have completed integrated phase training 5. The Fleet Response Plan
places a carrier strike group in these four categories? Maintenance Emergency s
urge, surge ready surge deploy Emergency surge, surge ready, routine 6. The Flee
t Response Plan is often referred to as what? Fleet Readiness Plan 7. What time
frame does the Fleet Response Plan use as its cycle? A 27-month cycle 8. At its
core, the Fleet Response Plan is? a mission driven, capabilities-based response
plan 9. The Fleet Response Plan calls for how many carrier strike groups to be d
eployable within 30 days? 6 10. When is a ship, sub, or squadron considered rout
ine deployable? After successfully completing all necessary capabilities trainin
g including completion of underway sustainment phase training and certification
of the unit for forward deployed operations 11. Which Sea Power 21 initiative ch
anged the way the U.S. Navy deploys and trains the Fleet? Sea Basing 12. What do
es the 6 + 2 plan provide? 6 CSG available to deploy within 30 days 6 CSG deploy
ed plus 2 6 CSG available to deploy within 90 days 13. Due to the war on terror,
Secretary of the Navy England challenged the U.S. Navy to do what? Maintain its
relevance 14. Under the 27-month Fleet Response Plan, a carrier strike group is
surge ready for how many months? Approximately 16 months 15. The flexible deplo
yment concept allows units that have attained high readiness to embark on deploy
ments in support of specific national priorities such as? homeland defense 16. W
hen is a CSG considered in emergency surge status? When they have successfully c
ompleted their unit level phase training phase Section 4 1. The only article of
the CPO uniform described in the 1897 Uniform Regulations was the? hat device 2.
Which regulation established the grade of chief petty officer on 1 April 1893?
U.S. Navy Regulation Circular Number 1 General Order Number 409 3. On 23 May, 19
78, the CNO approved new roles and responsibilities for a chief petty officer. W
hich of the following was a defined role? The top technical authority and expert
within a rating 4. The CNO/MCPON Advisory Panel was established in 1971 to? Rep
resent the enlisted force to Navy leadership on professional and personnel issue
s 5. The Career Compensation Act of 1949 established what significant change? It
designated chief petty officers as paygrade E-7 instead of paygrade 1 6. What i
nitiative led directly to the recommendation for establishing the billet of Mast
er Chief Petty Officer of the Navy? The Retention Task Force of 1964 7. In the e
arly 1900 s Sailors of all rates were promoted to fill what first? Voids in critic
al Navy billets, normally in their own command 8. During the early 1900 s chief pe
tty officers could receive a permanent appointment based on? Satisfactory perfor
mance, as evaluated by the commanding officer 9. On 28 April 1967, ____________
became the first Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy. GMCM Delbert Black 10.
What is not a responsibility of the Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy? Repo
rt to CNP Travel extensively 11. On 13 January 1967, GMCM Delbert Black was offi
cially appointed as the first? Senior Enlisted Advisor of the Navy 12. The dutie
s and responsibilities of a master chief petty officer in 1978 were? broadened t
o include contributing to command-level policy formulation 13. The paygrades of
senior chief and master chief petty officer were established in what year? 1958
14. The Chief Petty Officer Core Competencies were developed to? Strengthen chie
f petty officer standards 15. According to the 1918 BlueJacket s Manual, two roles
of a chief petty officer were ______ Technical expert and example setter SECTIO
N 5 1. TFFMS provide access to current manpower data for? resource sponsors 2. W
hich statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)? Peace-time opera
tional environment Environment in which a command is expected to operate Adverse
weather conditions 3. Changes to the AMD can come from what factors? Changes in
mission or equipment/systems added or deleted from the platform 4. OPNAVINST 13
00.15, Navy Military Personnel Assignment Policy, states Navy policy is to make
only permanent change of station (PCS) moves necessary for ______________. natio
nal security and/or to ensure equitable treatment of Sailors 5. Which statement
defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)? Environment in which a command
is expected to operate 6. Manpower management determines manpower authorization
priorities based on available funding and ______________. warfare sponsor requir
ements personal inventory 7. Where do you find current and future peacetime and
mobilization manpower requirements and authorizations? Activity Manning Document
(AMD) 8. Who prepares the statements detailing Required Operational Capability
(ROC)? Mission and warfare sponsors Congress 9. OPNAV Instruction 1000.16, Manua
l of Navy Total Force Manpower Policies and Procedures, defines manpower managem
ent as a? methodical process 10. In manpower management, commands are responsibl
e for what? Submitting requests to revise, add, or delete requirements 11. For w
hom does the Personnel Readiness and Support branch (PERS 4013) perform placemen
t functions? Enlisted 12. The methodical process of determining, validating, and
using manpower requirements as a basis for budget decisions defines ___________
___. manpower management 13. The AMD is a single source document that provides?
Quantitative and qualitative manpower requirements 14. How often is the EDVR pub
lished? Monthly 15. What is the single authoritative database for MPN manpower a
uthorizations and end strength? Total Force Manpower Management System (TFFMS) 1
6. Where do you find personnel strength planning, recruiting, training, and pers
onnel distribution? AMD 17. Which document defines military manpower authorizati
ons allocated to a naval activity? AMD 18. Placement is an advocate for________
and detailers are advocates for__________. commands, Sailors Sailors, commands S
ailors, Navy CUSTOMS, HONORS, TRADITIONS, AND CEREMONIES 1. proclaimed the Navy
Birthday as a day for reflection on Naval Heritage? Chief of Naval Operations, A
dmiral Jay L. Johnson 2. Why was the song Anchors Aweigh written? To inspire U.S.
Naval Academy midshipmen at an Army-Navy football game in 1906 3. What was the o
bjective of the Japanese attack on Midway? The Japanese hoped to lure the U.S. P
acific Fleet into a battle where they could destroy it. 4. What led to the surpr
ise of the Japanese forces which had intended to do the same to the U.S. fleet u
nits? Navy intelligence specialists in Hawaii discovered the plan and warned fle
et 5. Which of these statements is true regarding Anchors Aweigh ? It is played tod
ay at many athletic events and parades. 6. Two days each year are designated spe
cifically to celebrate the U.S. Navy s heritage. These days are __________________
__. Midway Night (about 4 June) and the Navy s Birthday (13 October) 7. Why did so
me Americans oppose the establishment of a Navy? All the answers are correct. 8.
Have there been any changes or additions to the original version of Anchors Awei
gh ? Midshipman George D. Lottman rewrote the lyrics into their present form so th
at they could be usable today at a wide range of events. Midshipman Royal Lovell
wrote a third stanza. 9. A popular use of the Navy Hymn is for the funerals of th
ose who have served in or with the United States Navy. A president whose funeral
included this hymn was ____________________. Franklin D. Roosevelt 10. What per
son or group of people was actually the first to expend funds to obtain services
from a sea service in opposing the British military? George Washington used fun
ds to contract for several schooners to intercept British supply ships. 11. In g
eneral terms, what did the Continental Navy accomplish during the course of the
War of Independence? All the answers are correct. 12. What led to the surprise o
f the Japanese forces which had intended to do the same to the U.S. fleet units?
 Navy intelligence specialists in Hawaii discovered the plan and warned fleet he
adquarters. 13. Midway Night has been observed since 2000. What activities are c
onsidered appropriate to commemorate that World War II battle? All the answers a
re correct. 14. What is the Navy Hymn s connection to the United States Naval Academ
y? The first stanza of the Navy Hymn is sung to close each chapel service during S
unday s Divine Services 15. Advocates for a Navy in 1775, led by John Adams, propo
sed that a Navy was necessary for what purpose(s)? All the answers are correct.
16. The Battle of Midway is considered important for what reason? Until that poi
nt, the Japanese Navy was on the offensive and this battle was a major turning p
oint in favor of the United States. 17. The author of Anchors Aweigh, Charles Adam
Zimmerman, received what sort of recognition by the midshipmen? All the answers
are correct. 18. Why was the date of 13 October selected to celebrate the tradi
tion and history of the naval service? It was on that day in 1775 that the Conti
nental Congress voted to establish a Navy by outfitting two sailing vessels to i
ntercept British transports 19. Where did the song known as the Navy Hymn to Unite
d States Navy men and women originate? It is one of many compositions by America
n bandmaster John Philip Sousa. A schoolmaster and clergyman of the Church of En
gland wrote the original words around 1860. Section 2 1. Which of the following
(is a)/are title(s) given to those who cross the equator at a significant line o
f longitude? Golden 2. The title given to Sailors who have sailed around the sou
thern tip of South America (Cape Horn) is? Mossback 3. Initiation rites that inc
lude hazing are ____________________. a violation of SECNAV Instructions 4. Amon
g those eligible for burial at sea are ____________________. All the answers are
correct 5. Which of these rules of etiquette apply to conduct within the boat?
Avoid walking on varnished areas. Hands and arms are allowed outside the boat to
enjoy the breeze 6. A junior officer serving as boat officer when his/her ship
is at anchor should overrule the decisions of the coxswain only in emergency 7.
The following certificate denotes Sailors who have crossed the Arctic Circle Blu
e Nose 8. Which of the following describes the burial at sea ceremony? Three vol
leys are fired, followed by Taps. 9. Formal dinners promote All the answers are co
rrect 10. The Persian Excursion certificate inducts Sailors into which special g
roup? Mystic Society of One Thousand and One Nights 11. Which statement is an ex
ample of proper boat etiquette? Juniors board the boat first. 12. If all of the
following are in a boat, which one is ultimately responsible for its safe operat
ion? Surface Warfare Lieutenant 13. Sailors who have not crossed the equator are
called ____________________. Pollywogs 14. What event resulted in the shift of
the center of the Navy social life from aboard ship to shore? Alcohol was banned
from U.S. Navy vessels in 1914. 15. The oldest of all seafaring traditions is _
______. the burial at sea Section 3 1. Before commissioning, a ship must complet
e and pass a series of Sea Trials 2. Ship launching ceremonies began at the dawn
of recorded history 3. Hailing protocols are not published in any regulation 4.
The Navy s battle streamers span the period from the Revolutionary War to Kosovo
reflect Naval battles prior to WWII reflect only declared wars 5. The christenin
g ceremony includes naming of the vessel, knocking supports away so the ship gli
des into the sea, and then breaking a bottle of champagne across the bow 6. The
U.S. Navy was the last service to adopt battle streamers 7. The sloop Concord is
notable because it was the first Navy vessel christened by a woman 8. While a s
hip is at anchor or at a pier the OOD stands watch on the quarterdeck 9. What is
the tradition of the quarterdeck? All the answers are correct 10. On modern shi
ps, the quarterdeck is designated by the Commanding Officer 11. The Returning Hom
e Pennant is an extra long commissioning pennant 12. The Returning Home Pennant is
distributed to the Commanding Officer, officers, and crew upon arrival in port 1
3. You are standing watch at night as the OOD on board a ship at anchor as a sma
ll boat approaches. You call out Boat ahoy! and the boat s coxswain replies, John Pau
l Jones! He is announcing that the Captain of the John Paul Jones is on board his
boat 14. All of these activities are forbidden on the quarterdeck EXCEPT walkin
g on the port side 15. Ship christening in the U.S. Navy first was recorded for
the USS Constitution in 1797 16. All of these actions take place at the commissi
oning ceremony of a new ship EXCEPT the Chief of Naval Operations reads the comm
issioning directive 17. Boat hailing protocols became necessary in the days prio
r to WWII, when large ships usually anchored or moored, and boating was required
to relieve the OOD of the burden of saluting people in approaching boats 18. Wh
ile on watch, the Officer of the Deck (OOD) All the answers are correct 19. Toda
y s Returning Home Pennant ____________________. All the answers are correct. 20. Sh
ips in the U.S. Navy ____________________. are typically commissioned in public
ceremonies with the ship s sponsor and other prominent guests in attendance 21. St
ars on Navy streamers ____________________. follow the practice of a bronze star
for each action, and a silver star in lieu of five bronze stars Section 4 1. Th
e most traditional aspect of an official inspection is side honors are rendered
to the official 2. There are three national holidays, including ceremonies invol
ving a 21-gun salute at noon, which receive special remembrance by the U.S. Navy
. These three are Washington s Birthday, Independence Day, and Memorial Day 3. Mor
ning and evening colors refers to ceremonies in which the national ensign is rai
sed and lowered 4. The tradition of the shadow box dates from the days of sail i
n the British Navy, wards off bad luck if the person s shadow were to hit the pier
before the person, and includes a ceremonial box to contain things that reflect
his/her tour 5. The highest sign of respect for traveling dignitaries is passin
g honors 6. Gun salutes are currently offered in five second intervals 7. In whi
ch of these circumstances are passing honors rendered? A small boat carrying the
mayor of the Greek village you are anchored near comes to pay an official visit
. 8. What is meant by dressing ship ? Hoisting a display of flags in celebration of
a festival. 9. At the end of their careers, all Sailors may All the answers are
correct. 10. Half-masting the national ensign is a symbol of mourning and respe
ct 11. Which of the following is a part of both the morning and evening colors c
eremonies? All officers and crew face the ensign and salute 12. Instructions for
planning a retirement ceremony are contained in MILPERSMAN 1800-010 Commanding
Officer s orders ship s history 13. Passing honors are All the answers are correct.
14. The Change of Command Ceremony always includes all hands called to quarters,
orders read, and statements: I relieve you, Sir, and I stand relieved 15. Gun salut
es were considered a sign of good faith because ____________________. in the day
s of sail, firing left the ship vulnerable shots deliberately were aimed away fr
om targets Ethics and Professionalism for the Warfighter Section 1 1. The Princi
ple of Utility is All of the answers are correct 2. The Western ethical heritage
is descended from ancient Greece, where ethics meant custom. Today, military ethi
cs are derived from our Services core values and heritage 3. Thoughts such as: lif
e has no purpose or meaning, truth can not be known, and what I do doesn't matter bes
t typify which one of the following? Nihilism 4. The idea of absolute truth is n
ot a fundamental tenet of the military concept of duty FALSE 5. Character-based e
thics argues right choices come from building good character and pursuing virtue
6. Lawlessness and looting that often follow the apparent removal of all legiti
mate authority from an area in the wake of war or national disaster typifies: Fr
eedom-based ethics 7. In the view of the rule-based system of ethics, there is t
he notion there are absolute truths and moral standards that are true at all tim
es in all places for all people and all situations TRUE 8. A supposition that so
me mix of common sense and scientific inquiry will always lead to a conclusion t
hat is true typifies a reason-based approach to truth and justice 9. Select the
result of ethical failures by military personnel. All the answers are correct 10
. Freedom-based ethics focus on decisions arrived at based on self-interests or
impulses 11. Aristotelian virtue, stoicism, and VADM Stockdale s leadership were f
ounded upon the ethical approach of character-based ethics 12. Relativism is a s
ubset of the following ethical system Freedom-based ethics 13. Some relativists
would question whether reality can be accurately assessed or measured. TRUE 14.
Ethical systems may be generally classified as freedom-based, rule-based, or charact
er-based 15. An ethical person is someone who chooses to live the life people ou
ght to live 16. Relativism postulates All the answers are correct 17. The charac
ter-based system of ethics argues right choices come from pursuing the greatest h
appiness for the greatest number. FALSE 18. Utilitarianism is sometimes considere
d to be a subset of __________________. consequentialism 19. Thoughts such as: I
do whatever I want, no one can stop me, and I take what I want and harm anyone who g
ets in my way best typify which one of the following? Criminality 20. Utilitarian
ism can best be represented by the following phrase: The greatest happiness for
the greatest number. Section 2 1. is the problematic philosophy of the ethical s
tandard of doing what is best for me; it does nothing to preclude evil. Egoism 2.
Moral development is a life-long process, with the objective of achieving moral
effectiveness 3. Which one(s) of the following constitute(s) the body of moral p
rinciples or values governing military professionals? All the answers are correc
t. 4. Moral development theory tells us that there are sequential levels of mora
l reasoning. What is the ideal toward which moral development leads? It is the p
ath to becoming a person of character. 5. Well-developed knowledge, abilities, a
nd values in which of the following is NOT necessary for effective moral develop
ment? Moral relativism 6. Moral ____________________ is the ability to recognize
when a problem is not merely a narrow, technical dilemma that lends itself mere
ly to a narrow, technical solution, but rather is one with some richer moral con
tent. Awareness 7. is a common bond all military professionals share based on th
e mutual accountability that comes with self-regulation. Corporateness 8. A mili
tary professional must utilize any means necessary to contribute to the common g
ood. FALSE 9. Even with moral awareness, moral reasoning, and moral courage, is
it still possible to act ineffectively? Yes 10. What differentiates a mercenary
from a military professional? The military professional exhibits a moral dimensi
on earning the trust of society. 11. The ability, right, and ___________________
_ of self-regulation are part of what transforms an association into a professio
n responsibility 12. Moral ____________________ is the willingness and desire of
an individual resulting in the execution of what he or she has determined (thro
ugh knowledge, instinct and/or reasoning) is the right thing to do, regardless of
difficulty courage 13. An expert with specialized knowledge and skill in a signi
ficant field of human endeavor best defines a professional 14. Moral ____________
________ enables a person to work through a logical and objective process for de
termining and articulating reasons that distinguish right from wrong. reasoning
15. Moral development requires certain conditions to occur; people must be moral
ly All the answers are correct 16. The key distinction(s) between a profession,
craft, and art, is/are All the answers are correct 17. An officer has the obliga
tion to exercise responsibility and be concerned with anything that might impact
all of the following, EXCEPT personal recognition and remuneration 18. Which st
atement is NOT true regarding the professional responsibilities of military prof
essionals? A military professional does not have an obligation with regards to i
nfluences on material and resource management 19. A key component of professiona
l responsibility is accountability 20. Which of the following are the three reco
gnized characteristics of all professions? Expertise, responsibility, and corpor
ateness 21. permits a military leader to exercise the ordered use of force to ac
hieve a desired political objective that serves the nation at large Expertise 22
. Moral ____________________ is the comprehensive ability to bring together all
of one s knowledge, skills, and values in order to accomplish the intended action.
reasoning courage effectiveness 23. Select True or False: Extensive knowledge o
f right and wrong and sophisticated moral reasoning skills will necessarily lead
to moral behavior. FALSE Section 3 1. In addition to granting prisoners of war
certain rights, the Geneva Convention obligates prisoners of war to act in certa
in ways. Which of the following is NOT true regarding these obligations? A priso
ner is permitted to aid others in their attempt to escape. The Geneva Convention
allows escape attempts by prisoners of war to be punishable by death if a guard
is killed. The Geneva Convention forbids prisoners of war from attempting escap
e 2. A demonstration of moral courage is indicative of the ability to demonstrat
e physical courage, and vice-versa. FALSE 3. is the good personal character and
reputation of honesty and loyalty. Honor 4. Which philosopher s proposed system of
ethics is most closely associated with the Navy s Core Values? Aristotle: Nicomach
ean Ethics 5. is/are a duty-bound standard of performance to be adhered to, even
in the most difficult circumstances. The Code of Conduct 6. The Geneva Conventio
n provides legal protection for prisoners of war 7. Which one(s) of the followin
g allow(s) for judicial penalties after repatriation for misdeeds committed whil
e a prisoner of war? The Uniform Code of Military Justice 8. Which of the follow
ing is NOT a precept upon which the Code of Conduct is based? Truth is relative
9. The Code of Conduct was created due to the failure of American service member
s to escape, and due to their contributions to the enemy s propaganda effort durin
g which conflict? The Korean War 10. The Code of Conduct only applies if the det
aining country adheres to the Geneva Convention. FALSE 11. I will bear true fait
h and allegiance. I will obey the orders of the President of the United States and
the orders of the officers appointed over me, according to regulations and the
Uniform Code of Military Justice. I will support and defend the Constitution of th
e United States against all enemies, foreign and domestic. Honor, Commitment, Cou
rage 12. In addition to granting prisoners of war certain rights, the Geneva Con
vention obligates prisoners of war to act in certain ways. Which of the followin
g is NOT true regarding these obligations? The Geneva Convention forbids prisone
rs of war from attempting escape. 13. The Oath of Enlistement is significant in
the Profession of Arms because it clearly states a Sailor s duty from the moment o
f enlistment 14. The Oath of Enlistment is clear regarding the hierarchy of loya
lties. Which of the following best demonstrates this priority (highest to lowest
)? Ship, shipmate, self 15. In the process of inspiring confidence in a team, a
leader may need to manage the team s perceptions of who the leader is, to the poin
t of hiding certain information; perception management may be a legitimate goal.
TRUE 16. Which of the following, if not resolved prior to being presented with
an ethical challenge, poses a risk to choosing the proper course of action in ac
cordance with the Oath of Enlistment? Loyalty Honor 17. When a Sailor is present
ed with a potential or real conflict between honesty and loyalty, which of the t
wo is more important? This is an ethical dilemma which can not be resolved witho
ut amplifying information and/or context. 18. The primary assertion of Aristotle s
Nicomachean Ethics is characteristics develop from corresponding activities 19. R
egarding interrogation under the terms of the Geneva Convention, which one(s) of
the following is/are true? The detaining power has the right to interrogate a p
risoner of war.. 20. Which of the following statements is NOT part of the Code o
f Conduct? will not make an attempt to escape, nor aid others in their attempt t
o escape. 21. What value must be balanced by a healthy sense of commitment so th
at a team sees its contribution to the overall mission, but the individuals of t
he team do not think of themselves as indispensable links to mission accomplishm
ent? Responsibility 22. Which of the following is NOT a right of prisoners of wa
r under the Geneva Convention? The right of enlisted personnel to refuse to perf
orm paid labor 23. Which of the following is NOT true regarding professional oat
hs? A professional oath allows for value judgments to be based on relative truth
s 24. is the state of being involved in an obligation and provides the wherewith
al to continue in a task to the realization of its completion. Commitment 25. __
__________________ is the value that gives us the moral and mental strength to d
o what is right, with confidence and resolution, even in the face of personal or
professional temptation or adversity. Responsibility Honesty Courage Section 4
1. The jus ad bellum criterion of just cause has traditionally included self-def
ense and defense of an innocent third party under attack 2. The notion that a ju
st war may be morally preferable to an unjust peace can be traced back _________
___________. more than 1600 years 3. While the moral burden of jus in bello fall
s primarily on military leaders, political leaders often play a key role in esta
blishing targeting policy, approving specific targets, and developing rules of e
ngagement. TRUE 4. The jus ad bellum criterion of last resort requires _________
___________. that all reasonable non-violent options be explored before using mi
litary force 5. Key principles of the jus in bello are proportionality and _____
_______________. discrimination 6. In order for a war to be considered just, it
must meet a majority of the criteria of jus ad bellum. FALSE 7. The jus ad bellu
m criterion of proper authority limits the decision-making authority to go to wa
r to the most senior military commanders. FALSE 8. The moral principles of the J
ust War Tradition ____________________. help to set the military professional ap
art 9. Jus in bello relates to ____________________. the legality of the actual
conduct of hostilities 10. Jus ad bellum relates to ____________________. the ju
stification for resorting to war 11. The Just War Tradition is the informal name
of the Laws of Armed Conflict. FALSE 12. Key principles of the jus in bello are
proportionality and ____________________. diversion dispersion discrimination 1
3. Jus ad bellum and jus in bello govern all aspects of war. TRUE 14. The jus in
bello principle of discrimination requires that ____________________. non-comba
tants not be the direct object of attack 15. The following military personnel ar
e considered to be non-combatants: Chaplains and medical personnel 16. The propo
rtionality principle of jus in bello requires ____________________. that the har
m done to civilians and non-combatants in a military operation not outweigh the
good accomplished by the operation 17. The moral burden of jus ad bellum falls p
rimarily on ____________________. political leaders 18. The jus ad bellum criter
ion of probability of success requires reasonable hope of accomplishing the inte
nded good 19. All members of the U.S. military are bound by the Law of Armed Con
flict and the Geneva Conventions. TRUE 20. The just war tradition incorporates h
istorical principles of ____________________. theology, philosophy, and law YOU
WILL NEVER GET THOSE HOURS OF YOUR LIFE BACK!!!!!!!!!!!!! Governance of the Navy
Legislation and Policy Section 1 1. Article 138 of the Uniform Code of Military
Justice __________. provides a Service member the opportunity to file a complai
nt of wrongs against his or her commanding officer 2. Which of the following is
true? The Military Rules of Evidence do not apply at nonjudicial punishment 3. T
he Military Rules of Evidence can be found in ______________. the Manual for Cou
rts-Martial 4. Which of the following is true? Congress cannot pass any law that
would prohibit an action that is already prohibited by a state law. Congress is
limited by the Constitution to enact only those laws that relate to the authori
ty of the federal government. 5. Which of the following is true? A general court
-martial is composed of a military judge, a defense counsel, a prosecutor and at
least five members. 6. A convening authority is responsible for ___________. Al
l of the answers are correct 7. The Constitution ______________________. All of
the answers are correct. 8. Which contains orders for the administration of a Na
vy unit? The Plan of the Day (POD 9. Which of the following is NOT true? The Uni
form Code of Military Justice was enacted by Congress under the authority grante
d by Article I, Section 8 of the Constitution. Because Congress has the Constitu
tional authority to regulate the military, the Department of Defense is part of
the legislative branch of the federal government. 10. Which of the following is
NOT true? A summary court-martial can have jurisdiction over all military servic
e members 11. Which of the following is NOT true? Active duty military personnel
who are captured and held by an enemy are no longer subject to the Uniform Code
of Military Justice. 12. Which of the following answers will make the following
statement NOT true? The Standard Organization and Regulations Manual of the U.S
. Navy (SORM) __________________. is issued by the Secretary of the Navy and mai
ntained by the Chief of Naval Operations 13. Nonjudicial punishment, as provided
for by Article 15 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice, is also known as ___
__________. Captain s Mast 14. The Uniform Code of Military Justice was enacted __
__________. by Congress in 1950 15. The maximum punishment which may be given at
a special court-martial is limited to _______________. one year confinement, th
ree months of hard labor without confinement, forfeitures of two-thirds pay for
not more than one year, reduction to paygrade E-1, and bad conduct discharge 16.
Which of the following is NOT true? The United States Navy Regulations (NAVYREG
S) specifies the procedures for Captain s Mast. The United States Navy Regulations
is issued by the Chief of Naval Operations. 17. A Service member _____________.
does not have the protection of the rules of evidence at Captain s Mast 18. Which
statement is true? If a court, when presented with a certain set of facts, lays
down a principle of law, the court is bound by that decision if substantially t
he same set of facts are presented in a later case 19. The term Administrative La
w refers to ________________. regulations made by governmental agencies in order
to allow those agencies to carry out their duties 20. A member of a general cour
t-martial _________________. is the military equivalent of a civilian juror Sect
ion 2 1. Which of the following statements is NOT true? The Standards of Conduct
apply only to Department of Defense civilian employees. Military personnel are
governed solely by the Uniform Code of Military Justice. 2 Which of the followin
g actions would most likely be prohibited? Because of the large number of milita
ry dependents that attend schools in the local community, a base commanding offi
cer attends meetings of the local school board as part of his official duties. T
his has been approved by his chain of command. At one meeting he is invited to b
ecome a part of the board s steering committee. He accepts. 3 Which of the followi
ng would most likely be prohibited? A Commander s husband works for a defense cont
ractor that supplies the Commander's unit (she s a department head) with supplies.
Her husband is one of thirty executives at his company. She is invited to atten
d the contractor s annual retreat with her husband. She is told by the contractor s
CEO that the spouses of all of the executives were invited. Upon arrival the Com
mander realizes that she is the only spouse in attendance and because of that, s
he and her husband are given a luxury suite while the other executives share dou
ble rooms. Because she was told all of the spouses were invited, she stays at th
e retreat 4 The main purpose of the Standards of Conduct is to __________. ensur
e Federal employees serve the public good 5 Which of the following statements is
NOT true? The Standards of Conduct only prohibit actual abuses. 6 Which of the
following is NOT true? Private wagers between roommates living in government ass
igned living quarters are never prohibited. A Commander is attending a seminar h
osted by a major aircraft manufacturer in Reno, Nevada as the official represent
ative of his command. During the hours that the seminar is in session, the Comma
nder is prohibited from playing the slot machines that are present in the lobby
outside the seminar room. 7 . A CDR is concerned that her husband s employment may
cause a conflict of interest in her role as the base supply officer. In order t
o avoid any possible later disciplinary action should it be determined that ther
e is a conflict of interest, she should _____________. -seek advice from a desig
nated ethics counselor and disclose all relevant facts to that person 8 Which of
the following is NOT true? Federal employees may solicit gifts to be used as do
or prizes at events such as Morale Welfare and Recreation fund raisers. 9 Which
of the following actions is most likely to be prohibited? The maintenance office
r of a F/A 18 squadron is offered $2000.00 to write a magazine article concernin
g the maintenance scheduling procedures he was introducing into his squadron 10
Civilian Department of Defense employees who violate the Standards of Conduct ma
y face __________________. Select all answers that would make the above statemen
t true: court-martial fines and prosecution by the Federal government terminatio
n 11 The primary source of guidance and information on standards of conduct for
military personnel is _________________. DOD Directive 5500.7R the Uniform Code
of Military Justice (UCMJ 12 Criminal laws pertaining to former Department of De
fense employees seeking post-government employment can be found in _____________
__. United States Code, Title 18 13 In response to an appeal by a local charity
attempting to raise money to assist the victims of a natural disaster that had d
estroyed several hundred homes in the local community, a command desires to offi
cially support and hold a fun run. The event will be part of the charity s fundraisi
ng effort and monies raised will be turned over to that charity. Which of the fo
llowing is true? The Office of Personnel Management may approve emergency disast
er appeals. 14 The Commanding Officer of an aircraft carrier is retiring. Which
gift(s), if accepted by the Commanding Officer would most likely NOT be prohibit
ed? One of the carrier s divisions pitch in $2.00 per sailor and buys the Commandi
ng Officer a framed picture of the ship valued at approximately $90.00. Another
division collects $1.00 per sailor and presents the Commanding Officer with a br
ass bell valued at approximately $75.00. The Chief s Mess presents the Commanding
Officer with a sword valued at approximately $200.00. 15 A command is taking par
t in the annual Combined Federal Campaign fund raising drive. Which of the follo
wing actions would most likely NOT be prohibited? The commanding officer announc
es at morning muster that the Combined Federal Campaign is a worthy cause and th
at he hoped each sailor would give some thought in their decision to giving or n
ot. 16 Which of the following is NOT a prohibited activity? In order to fund its
annual summer picnic, a command s Morale Welfare and Recreation committee plans t
o hold a bake sale the week prior to the picnic. 17 While on official travel, a
Commander is involuntarily bumped from her flight. The airline books the Command
er on the next flight which won t leave until the next morning and gives her one f
ree round trip ticket as compensation. Which of the following statements is true
? All of the answers are correct. 18. The base commander is asked by a local chu
rch if it could use a softball field on the base for their annual picnic as its
field was destroyed by a grass fire. As part of the church s community outreach pr
ogram, underprivileged children of the community are to be invited to partake in
the festivities. Which of the following statements is NOT true? This is absolut
ely prohibited by the Standards of Conduct. 19. Which statement is NOT true? Eac
h agency within the executive branch of the Federal government has its own, uniq
ue ethical code. Section 3 1. Willful violations of Privacy Act provision will s
ubject a person to felony criminal prosecution. False 2. The Privacy Act gives i
ndividuals the right to correct factual inaccuracies contained in their records.
True 3. The person who is the subject of a record which falls under the protect
ion provided by the Privacy Act, has the right to access all records held by the
government that pertains to him or her. False 4. Why is it important to protect
one's personal information? All of the answers are correct 5. What is a common
way for con artists and thieves to obtain someone's personal data? All of the an
swers are correct 6. The military gathers and maintains ________________________
___. All of the answers are correct. 7. Before releasing information without con
sent of the subject of record, commanders should _____________________________.
request an advisory opinion from the staff judge advocate in his or her chain of
command 8. To obtain credit in someone else s name, unscrupulous individuals simp
ly need to have that person s name and date of birth. False 9. The Privacy Act pro
vides that citizens are permitted to access records maintained by the government
and request amendments to erroneous information that may be contained in those
records. True 10. The release of protected information to a third party, without
the consent of the individual of concern, include situations where ____________
________________________. the information is needed for use in a census or stati
stical research 11. Actions which would not constitute criminal activity under t
he Privacy Act include disclosing private information to someone who does not ha
ve an official need through 12. There are some records the Government is not req
uired to release to a requestor. These records are referred to as ______________
. exempt 13. The purpose of the Privacy Act is to control the collection, mainte
nance, and use of personal information, as well as to? All of the answers are co
rrect 14. A record is ___________________________________________. top secret in
formation about a person maintained by the Government any collection, grouping,
or item of information about an individual maintained by an agency a collection
of only personal data about an individual maintained by an agency 15. requires N
avy personnel to protect all records that include personally identifying informa
tion. The Sellers admendment to the Pricay Act DOD and DON policy 16. An individ
ual s request for access to his or her records must be in writing. False 17. In or
der to request an individual's personal information, the U.S. government _______
__________________________. should give an appropriate Privacy Act notification
explaining why the Government needs the information and how it will be used does
not need to notify the subject of the record Section 4 1. A service member is a
ccused of violating a general order issued by the base commander. Which of the f
ollowing is true? The service member is most likely being prosecuted for violati
ng Article 92 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice. 2. A LT driving home is p
ulled over by a Seaman Recruit in his duties as a member of the base police forc
e. Believing the LT to be driving while drunk, the Seaman Recruit orders the LT
to exit the automobile in order to conduct a field sobriety test. The LT refuses
to and only exits the vehicle when the Seaman Recruit s supervisor, a LCDR arrive
s and orders the LT to exit the car and take the test. The LT complies and is fo
und not to be impaired. Which of the following statements is true? The LT may be
found guilty of violating Article 92 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice. 3
. A LT orders a group of enlisted sailors to cease what they are doing in order
to help load a truck with supplies so that the supplies can get to the airfield
in time to be loaded on a plane headed for Iraq. The sailors inform the LT that
their commanding officer (who is also the LT s commanding officer) had ordered the
m to finish testing the unit s radios in preparation for an inspection the followi
ng day. The LT then directs the sailors to help with loading the truck and then
return to the radios. The sailors then head over to help load the truck. Which o
f the following statements is true? Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, Paragraph 1024
requires the LT to immediately report his actions to his commanding officer and
 explain the necessity of diverting the sailors from the task the commanding off
icer ordered them to accomplish. 4. In order for a service member to be found gu
ilty of Failure to Obey a General Order _____________. it must be shown beyond a
reasonable doubt that the general order was in effect and that the service memb
er either violated or failed to obey the general order the general order needs t
o have been issued by a service member senior to the service member accused of h
aving violated it it is not necessary to show that the service member had knowle
dge of the order or had a duty to obey it 5. In 1995, Army Specialist 4 Michael
New refused to wear United Nations beret and armband as part of his uniform as h
e believed that the order to do so was not a lawful order. Which of the followin
g statements is true? A military court-martial determined the order to be lawful
and he was convicted of failure to obey a lawful order. 6. What should a servic
e member do when given an order that is unclear, but appears to be an unlawful o
rder? Select all answers which make the above statement true: Determine if the o
rder is in contradiction to previously issued orders. Ask for clarification of t
he order, in writing if necessary 7. provides instruction on when a junior servi
ce member may issue orders to a military senior. Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, P
aragraph1039 8. Which of the following statements is true? An order that contrad
icts an earlier order given by an officer senior to the one giving the contradic
ting order may be a lawful order. 9. A Navy LT is accused of willfully disobeyin
g a lawful order given to him by a Marine major. At the time the order was given
, the LT had never seen the major before, the major was not in uniform and did n
ot have his military ID with him. The LT did not obey the given order. Which of
the following is true? The LT might be not guilty of violating article 90 of the
UCMJ if he did not know that the individual giving him the order was a Marine m
ajor 10. Which of the following is true? All orders from competent authority are
presumed lawful. 11. A Third Class Petty Officer willfully disobeys a lawful or
der given him by a warrant officer. If prosecuted, the petty officer would be ac
cused of violating ________________. Article 91 of the Uniform Code of Military
Justice 12. The maximum penalty for willfully disobeying a superior commissioned
officer is ______________. death during time of war 13. Which of the following
is NOT true? Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, paragraph 1039 provides that flag off
icers are only required to obey orders from a military police officer if the mil
itary police officer is a warrant or commissioned officer. 14. Which of the foll
owing is NOT true? A lawful order must relate to military duties. A lawful order
must require the performance of a military duty. A service member may only rece
ive a lawful order from a service member who is senior to him or her in rank. 15
. The maximum punishment for insubordinate conduct towards a warrant officer is
discharge from the service with a dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay
and allowances, and confinement for two years 16. A Navy Reserve medical detachm
ent headed by a Navy Reserve Medical Corps Captain, is attached to a Navy ship c
ommanded by a Navy Commander. Which of the following is true? The Commander may
issue orders to the Captain as provided for by Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, par
agraph 1039. 17. A commissioned officer may be found guilty violating all of the
following except Article 91 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice 18. What is
the proper action for a service member to take when given an order that is obvi
ously illegal? Refuse the order and report to higher authority. Section 5 1. As
defined by Joint Publication 1-02, the primary purpose of an amphibious operatio
n is to: Introduce a land force ashore from ships or craft. 2. By definition, Sea
Control operations include which of the following: Select all answers which make
the above statement true: Suppression of enemy sea commerce. Destruction of ene
my naval forces. 3. In accordance with Title 10, U.S. Code, the United States Ma
rine Corps is tasked with the role of coordinating the development of those phas
es of amphibious operations that pertain to the tactics, techniques, and equipme
nt used by landing forces with the Army and the Air Force. True 4. The nuclear tr
iad consists of: SSBNs, ICBMs, and air-delivered strategic nuclear weapons. 5. Th
e functions specified for the Department of the Navy by Department of Defense di
rective 5100.1 authorizes the Department of the Navy to develop force structure
to accomplish which one(s) of the following? Primary functions. 6. Strategic det
errence assumes: All of the answers are correct. 7. Which of the following has b
een assigned the task of managing strategic sea lift in the Joint arena? The U.S
. Navy and the U.S. Maritime Administration 8. By Congressional statute, the Dep
artment of the Navy includes the operating forces of the U.S. Maritime Administr
ation and U.S. Coast Guard, including the U.S. Coast Guard s reserve component. Fa
lse 9. Is Sea Control a concept that embraces the notion of universal dominance of
the sea at all times, or limited control of the sea in place and in time? Limit
ed control in place and time due to prudent employment of assets 10. help focus
the organizing, training, and equipping of forces efforts of the services. Service
-specific functions 11. According to section 5062 of Title 10, U.S. Code, the Un
ited States Navy s principal reason for existence is: To conduct operations at sea
The conduct of land campaign operations as may be essential to the prosecution
of a naval campaign. 12. The naval service is specifically granted authority to d
evelop aircraft, weapons, tactics, organization, and equipment of naval combat a
nd service elements by Title 10, U.S. Code. Why is this important? To explicitly
prevent contention with the U.S. Air Force in the employment of naval aviation.
13. Which one(s) of the following assign(s) specific responsibilities, principal
ly outlined in Department of Defense Directive 5100.1, to enable the services to
fulfill the purposes for which they were established: Select all answers which
make the above statement true: The President The Secretary of Defense The Suprem
e Court The Congress 14. Which service is the only one whose minimum force struc
ture is codified in law? The U.S. Marine Corps 15. The list of service-specific f
unctions continues to evolve over time. Initially authored in Executive Order 987
7, the term functions in this context refers to: Those various activities, operati
ons, and capabilities for which the services are responsible. 16. This act place
d the job of carrying out broad operational missions into the hands of joint org
anizations and took it out of the hands of the individual services, essentially
making the Services force providers for the combatant commanders (COCOMs). The D
epartment of Defense Reorganization Act of 1958 17. Maritime power projection in
cludes: All of the answers are correct. 18. Currently, ____ contains the service
-specific statements that outline the basic purpose of each of the armed forces.
Title 10, U.S. Code 19. The term __________ establishes each Service s primacy in
its respective domain of war. Functions Roles 20. In accordance with DOD Direct
ive 5100.1, which of the following services has primary responsibility for the d
evelopment of amphibious landing force doctrine, tactics, and techniques of comm
on interest to the U.S. Army and U.S. Marine Corps? U.S. Marine Corps 21. are th
ose tasks assigned to the unified and specified combatant commanders by the Pres
ident of the United States or the Secretary of Defense. Missions 22. Why has the
U.S. Marine Corps been tasked with being prepared and equipped to carry out lan
d operations? To provide the combatant commander with an on-call land capability
23. Which of the following is not one of the six general categories into which
Department of the Navy functions fall into? Space Superiority National military
organization Section 6 1. A carrier strike group ____________. has two chains of
command administrative and operational 2. An operation conducted in South Afric
a would fall under the responsibility of the Africa Command 3. The Navy s ballisti
c submarines operate as a component of which combatant command? Strategic Comman
d 4. Which of the following geographic combatant command(s) is/are headquartered
outside of the United States? The European Command The Northern Command The Pac
ific Command 5. Which geographic combatant command is responsible for the larges
t geographic area? Pacific Command 6. The advisors to the National Security Coun
cil, by law, are _________. the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Direct
or of Central Intelligence the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, National S
ecurity Advisor and Director of Central Intelligence 7. The Joint Staff ________
____. is responsible only to the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff operates
as an overall general staff in controlling the various combatant commanders 8. C
ombatant Commanders submit their reports for operational requirements to the Cha
irman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff so that he may better incorporate those views
in his advice to the President and the Secretary of Defense 9. The Central Comm
and _______________. is organized as a headquarters element with no war fighting
units permanently assigned to it 10. The responsibility to train, equip, and pr
ovide combat-ready special operations forces to the geographic Combatant Command
ers _______________. is a mission of the Special Operations Command 11. The Join
t Chiefs of Staff are ___________________. not in the administrative nor operati
onal chains of command 12. The National Security Council's members include, by l
aw, _____________. the President, Vice President, Secretary of State and Secreta
ry of Defense 13. The Defense Intelligence Agency ____________. is designated as
a Combat Support Agency and thus has some oversight provided by the Chairman of
the Joint Chiefs of Staff 14. The National Security Council is chaired by _____
_______. the President the Secretary of State 15. An outbreak of hostilities bet
ween India and Pakistan would most likely occur in the area of responsibility of
______________. the Central Command and the Pacific Command 16. Operational and
contingency plans are _________________. reviewed by the Chairman of the Joint
Chiefs of Staff to determine their adequacy and feasibility developed and promul
gated by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff 17. The European Command ____
__________. has deployed forces outside of its theater in support of Operations
ENDURING FREEDOM and IRAQI FREEDOM 18. The functional combatant commands _______
____________. are assigned worldwide functional responsibilities 19. is responsi
ble for developing the National Military Strategy. The Chairman of the Joint Chi
efs of Staff 20. The Chief of Naval Operations ___________. must place his dutie
s as a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff ahead of his duties to the Secretary
of the Navy as a military service chief 21. is/are the President s principal defen
se policy advisor(s). The Secretary of Defense 22. The overseas area where U.S.
interests are mostly likely to be directly threatened is the area of responsibil
ity of ______________. the Northern Command the Central Command 23. The Unified
Command Plan ______________. The document is prepared by the Chairman of the Joi
nt Chiefs of Staff and signed by the President 24. The Joint Chiefs of Staff con
sist of __________. -the Chairman, Vice Chairman, Chief of Staff of the Army, Ch
ief of Naval Operations, Chief of Staff of the Air Force and Commandant of the M
arine Corps -the Chairman, Chief of Staff of the Army, Chief of Naval Operations
, Chief of Staff of the Air Force and Commandant of the Marine Corps -the Chairm
an, Chief of Staff of the Army, Chief of Naval Operations, Commandant of the Coa
st Guard, Commandant of the Marine Corps and Chief of Staff of the Air Force 25.
The component commands of the Transportation Command are __________. (1) the Ai
r Force s Air Mobility Command, (2) the Navy s Military Sealift Command and (3) the
Army s Surface Deployment and Distribution Command 26. The President s cabinet inclu
des ________________. the Secretary of Defense as a military representative 27.
In the administrative chain of command, the Service Chiefs report to ___________
___. the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff who in turn reports to the Secret
ary of Defense their respective Service Secretaries who then report to the Secre
tary of Defense 28. A unified command _______________. has a broad, continuing m
ission must be composed of forces from all of the military services 29. The Unit
ed States two most senior ranking military officers are __________. always the Ch
airman and Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff 30. The Northern Command's
commander is _____________. also the Commander of the Joint Forces Command also
the Commander of the North American Aerospace Defense Command (NORAD) is not re
sponsible for executing civil support mission within the United States 31. Deplo
ying joint forces to geographical combatant commanders is the responsibility of
________________. the Joint Forces Command 32. The Special Operations Command __
______________. provides combat-ready special operations forces to American Amba
ssadors does not execute combat missions although considered a geographical comb
atant command, it has no geographic boundaries 33. The Commandant of the Coast G
uard _______________. is a military service chief but is not a member of the Joi
nt Chiefs of Staff is prohibited by statute to participate in meetings of the Jo
int Chiefs of Staff 34. The Unified Command Plan ________________. sets forth th
e basic guidance to all of the service chiefs establishes the missions, force st
ructures and responsibilities of the combatant commanders 35. The Secretary of D
efense ___________________. issues operational orders to the various combatant c
ommanders using the Chairman of the Joints Chief of Staff as his communications
conduit 36. The lead combatant command(s) in planning, directing and executing t
he Global War on Terrorism is/are _________________. the Special Operations Comm
and 37. The responsibility for military space operations belongs to ____________
_______. the Joint Forces Command the Strategic Command 38. Administratively, th
e Commandant of the Marine Corps reports to ________. the Chief of Naval Operati
ons who reports to the Secretary of the Navy both the Secretary of the Defense a
nd the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff the Secretary of the Navy who repor
ts to the Secretary of Defense Section 7 1. The National Security Strategy _____
_________. specifically sets as a goal the turning over of suspected terrorists
to the International Criminal Court for prosecution encourages democracies to pr
otect independent and impartial systems of justice 2. As addressed in the Presid
ent's cover letter to the National Security Strategy, ______________ must take t
he lead in order for the world to successfully confront problems like human traf
ficking and the proliferation of weapons of mass destruction. the United States
3. The National Security Strategy states that ______________. Select all answers
which make the above statement true: globalization has exposed us to many new c
hallenges globalization presents many opportunities 4. Which of the following st
atements is NOT one of the short term steps required to combat and defeat terror
ism ______________? permitting terrorist groups a know sanctuary in rogue states
so that targeting terrorist cells is less difficult 5. The National Security St
rategy points out that ______________. because of the potentially devastating ev
ents of an attack with WMD, the United States will not rule out the use of preem
ptive force 6. The most current National Security Strategy explicitly states tha
t ______________. Select all answers which make the above statement true: - the
United States preference is to address proliferation concerns through internatio
nal diplomacy, in concert with key allies and regional partners -the United Stat
es has not ruled out preemptive acts against those forces that threaten the Unit
ed States 7. The National Security Strategy s essential task of global economic gr
owth includes ______________. All of the answers are correct 8. In order to deal
with threats before they can damage our people or our interests, the United Sta
tes must ______________. withdraw from regional alliances to ensure the pursuit
of our national interests is not hindered by others maintain a military without
peer 9. The National Security Strategy takes the position that ______________. l
eft unaddressed, regional conflicts can lead to failed states 10. To complete th
e task of Expanding the Circle of Development, the United States will __________
____. Select all answers which make the above statement true: help build stable,
prosperous, and peaceful societies make foreign assistance more effective 11. T
he most current National Security Strategy covers ______________. all branches o
f the federal government 12. The current National Security Strategy ____________
__. builds upon the framework of the last National Security Strategy, updated to
take into account the time that has passed and the events that have occurred 13
. As part of the United States task of championing aspirations for human dignity,
The National Security Strategy seeks to ______________. All of the answers are
correct. 14. The National Security Strategy argues that winning the war on terro
r ______________. Select all answers which make the above statement true: -will,
in the short run, require both military force and other instruments of national
power to kill or capture deny them safe haven, and cut off their sources of sup
port in the long run, requires winning the battle of ideas -will, in the short and
long runs, always be about using military force to seek out and kill terrorists
terrorists, 15. The National Security Strategy states that ______________ is Am
erica's most immediate challenge. terrorism 16. The National Security Strategy s
tates that ______________. peace and international stability are most reliably b
uilt on a foundation of freedom. 17. The National Security Strategy s essential ta
sk of transforming the nation s National Security Institutions will require ______
________. the dilution of the authority of the Director of Central Intelligence
reorienting the State Department towards transformational diplomacy which promot
es effective democracy and responsible sovereignty eliminating the need for base
s within Western Europe 18. The pillars upon which The National Security Strategy
is built upon are ______________. promoting freedom, justice, and human dignity,
working to end tyranny, to promote effective democracies, and to extend prosper
ity through free trade and wise development policies and to confront the challen
ges of our time by leading a growing community of democracies 19. The National S
ecurity Strategy is ______________. signed personally by the President of the Un
ited States Section 8 1. Because terrorist and other extremist groups constitute
the greatest threat to the U.S. for the foreseeable future and the likelihood o
f interstate conflict has declined, the Department of Defense can afford to decr
ease its capabilities to defeat state adversaries with minimal risk to U.S. regi
onal interests. False 2. The term Future challenges risks concerns ______________.
risks associated with the Department of Defense s capacity to execute future miss
ions successfully 3. The term Operational risks concerns ______________. risks ass
ociated with the current force executing the National Defense Strategy successfu
lly within acceptable costs 4. The Department of Defense s top priority is _______
_______. improving our military s proficiency in irregular warfare 5. Select the f
alse statement. The ability to convince a potential adversary that it cannot ach
ieve victory is the sole focus of deterrence. 6. Select the false statement. The
concept of Total Force includes only the Armed Forces. 7. Deterrence is _________
__. a strategic objective contained in the National Defense Strategy 8. The Nati
onal Defense Strategy was first promulgated _____________. in 2005 9. Encouragin
g other nations to avoid destabilizing paths is ______________. one of the ways
to achieve the objectives of the National Defense Strategy 10. Which of the foll
owing would make this statement false. The National Defense Strategy contemplate
s the Department of Defense working with ______________. None of the answers wou
ld make the statement false 11. Select the statement that is false. In the war a
gainst violent extremist movements, working with and through local actors is ine
fficient 12. Which of the following is NOT an objective of the National Defense
Strategy? Prevent adversaries from acquiring weapons of mass destruction 13. Giv
en the increase in the number of rogue states in the contemporary world environmen
t, the likelihood of interstate conflict has increased. False 14. Securing U.S.
strategic access and retaining freedom of action ______________. is required in
order to meet our national security needs 15. Which of the following statements
is false? The National Defense Strategy is derived from the National Military St
rategy. The National Defense Strategy outlines how the Department of Defense wil
l contribute to achieving the National Security Strategy objectives. 16. The Nat
ional Defense Strategy is based on unilateral U.S. action. False Section 9 1. Th
e priorities essential to the success of the Armed Forces outlined in the Nation
al Military Strategy are ______________. (1) winning the War on Terrorism while
protecting the United States; (2) enhancing our ability to fight as a joint forc
e; and (3) transforming the Armed Forces by fielding new capabilities and adopti
ng new operational concepts 2. The National Military Strategy states that the pr
imary task of the Armed Forces is ______________. the application of military fo
rce to achieve the objectives of the National Military Strategy 3. The National
Military Strategy is guided by the goals and objectives contained in the _______
_______ and serves to implement the ______________. National Security Strategy,
National Defense Strategy 4. Deterring aggression and coercion ______________. m
ust be anticipatory in nature 5. As discussed in the National Military Strategy
______________. an adversary must believe that the United States has the ability
to impose severe consequences in response to hostile or potentially hostile act
ions for deterrence to be successful 6. Which of the following statements is not
true? Concerning armed conflict, the National Military Strategy is limited to g
aining a decisive victory, post-conflict stability is the role of civilian gover
nment agencies and departments. 7. Rogue states can threaten global and regional
stability by ______________. All of the answers are correct 8. The functions an
d capabilities required of the Joint Force in achieving the objectives of the Na
tional Military Strategy are ______________. (1) applying force; (2) deploying a
nd sustaining military capabilities; (3) securing battlespace; and (4) achieving
decision superiority 9. The National Military Strategy provides that the first
and foremost military priority is ______________. the protection of the United S
tates against attack 10. Which of the following is not a tool that may be used b
y an adversary in an attack against the United States or its interests? None of
the answers are correct 11. Which of the following is true? The combatant comman
ders assist the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff in developing the National
Military Strategy. 12. The non-state actors that menace stability and security
may include ______________. terrorist networks, international criminal organizat
ions, illegal armed groups and individuals 13. Adversaries, as discussed in the
National Military Strategy, include ______________. states, non-state organizati
ons and individuals non-state organizations and states 14. To support the Joint
Force s function of deploying and sustaining military capabilities ______________.
the National Military Strategy requires the Armed Forces to increase its expedi
tionary logistics capabilities 15. Which of the following is not true? Terrorist
and criminal organizations can only operate from rogue states. 16. Which of the
following will make the statement NOT true? The National Military Strategy ____
__________. states that defending the United States against missile attack is no
longer a priority 17. The National Military Strategy is ______________. the hig
hest level guidance document issued by a uniformed military officer the basis of
the National Defense Strategy 18. In its guidance on the development of the Joi
nt Force, the National Military Strategy ______________. Select all answers whic
h make the above statement true: tasks commanders to develop plans that integrat
e actions with other government requires commanders to ensure military activitie
s are synchronized among the various services 19. The complex battlespace used b
y adversaries to threaten the United States include ______________. All of the a
nswers are correct. Section 10 1. In order to sustain and increase the qualitati
ve military advantages the United States enjoys today requires ________________.
a transformation achieved by combining technology, intellect, and cultural chan
ges across the joint community 2. A Joint Integrating Concept is _______________
___. a description of how a Joint Force Commander will integrate capabilities to
generate effects and achieve an objective 3. Required capabilities and attribut
es are identified by __________. Joint Functional Concepts 4. Joint Operating Co
ncepts are concerned with what level of war? Operational 5. Which of the followi
ng is not true? None of the answers are correct 6. A Joint Operating Concept des
cribes how a Joint Force Commander will accomplish a strategic objective _______
_______. 8-20 years in the future 7. The Joint Concepts Development and Revision
Plan ____________. describes a systematic process that will assist in guiding t
he creation of a Joint Force that will succeed in the battlespace of tomorrow 8.
A joint concept is __________________. a visualization of future military opera
tions that describes how a commander might employ capabilities to achieve desire
d effects and objectives 9. Joint Functional Concepts ________________. receives
their operational context for development and experimentation from a Joint Oper
ating Concept 10. A joint concept __________________. describes a particular mil
itary problem and proposes a solution that can be supported by logic and investi
gated through experimentation 11. Joint concepts are developed and refined throu
gh ____________. experimentation 12. The ________________ is the overarching des
cription of how the future Joint Force will operate and occupies the highest pos
ition in the hierarchy of concepts. Capstone Concept for Joint Operations 13. At
the Joint level, the guiding document in synchronizing the effort of joint conc
ept developers to link strategic guidance to the development and employment of f
uture capabilities is the _________________. Joint Concepts Development and Revi
sion Plan 14. Joint Functional Concepts provide _________. functional context fo
r Joint Integrating Concepts development and joint experimentation functional co
ntext for Joint Operating Concepts development and experimentation 15. provides
the unifying framework for the family of joint concepts. The Capstone Concept fo
r Joint Operations The Joint Unification Concept 16. Joint Functional Concepts s
upport _______________. the Capstone Concept for Joint Operations and Joint Oper
ating Concepts 17. A Joint Operating Concept __________________. identifies broa
d principles and essential capabilities 18. Which of the Joint Concepts has the
narrowest focus? Joint Integrating Concept 19. Full Spectrum Dominance is ______
____________. the ability to control any situation or defeat any adversary acros
s the range of military operations 20. Section 11 1. Which of the following is N
OT true? Sea Basing will use the increasing number of overseas bases to expand o
ur forward presence globally. 2. Which of the following is true? Sea Strike opti
ons include the landing of Marines from ships on a hostile shore. 3. Which of th
e following is NOT considered essential to the Navy s ability to counter the incre
ased risk to the United States in the future? None of the answers are correct. 4
. Which of the following is NOT true? Seapower 21 does not have a focus that inc
ludes regional challenges. 5. The three fundamental concepts that are key to Nav
y s continued operational effectiveness are _________________. Sea Strike, Sea Shi
eld, and Sea Basing 6. The Maritime Strategy was _______________. a Cold War-era s
trategy focused on war-at-sea with the USSR in a blue water environment 7. Sea S
hield will protect U.S. national interests with defensive power based on _______
_____. control of the seas, forward presence, and networked intelligence 8. The
Sea Power 21 fundamental concept that will lead to the acceleration of expeditio
nary deployments and employment timelines by pre-positioning vital equipment and
supplies in-theater is ____________________. Sea Basing 9. Which of the followi
ng statements is NOT true? FORCEnet is the glue that binds together Sea Trial, Sea
Warrior and Sea Enterprise. 10. Sea Warrior will address the challenges brought
on by ________. the reduced crew sizes that are the result of optimal manning p
olicies and new platforms 11. Which of the following is NOT true? FORCEnet is th
e effort to integrate personnel, sensors, networks, command and control, platfor
ms, and weapons into a fully netted, combat force. 12. Sea Trial will be coordin
ated by ____________. the Navy Warfare Development Command 13. The foundation up
on which offensive and defensive fires are projected is ____________. Sea Basing
15. Sea Trial is concerned with ______________. the implementation of a continu
al process of rapid concept and technology development 16. Sea Power 21 was publ
ished by ___________________. the Chief of Naval Operations 17. Which of the fol
lowing is NOT true? Sea Shield focuses on the defense of individual Navy platfor
ms, the U.S. fleet and the sea lines of communications 18. Task Force EXCEL is _
____________. a program associated with Sea Enterprise a program associated with
Sea Warrior 19. Sea Strike ______________. is the foundation from which offensi
ve and defensive fires are projected is the ability to project precise and persi
stent offensive power from the sea provides the United States with sea-based str
ategic defense 20. The Marine Corps tactical aviation integration plan is an exa
mple of ___________. Sea Enterprise a Task Force EXCEL initiative Section 12 1.
The security and prosperity of the United States is inextricably linked to the s
ecurity and prosperity of other nations. True 2. Which of the following are thre
ats to national and world security and prosperity? All the answers are correct.
3. is a core capability of U.S. maritime power. None the answers are correct 4.
Maritime forces require the cooperation of land forces in order to protect our c
itizens. False 5. is a strategic imperative that can be accomplished through sea
power. All the answers are correct. 6. Speed is a characteristic of maritime for
ces. True 7. One of the consequences of the expanding global economic system is
______________. increased competition for scarce resources 8. The maritime domai
n supports what percentage of the world s trade? 50% 90% 9. The United States will
employ ______________ to accomplish its strategic imperatives. All the answers
are correct 10. Which of the following is a theme used to develop the Cooperativ
e Maritime Strategy? Work with our partners around the world to prevent war. 11.
is one of the six key tasks of naval forces. Deter major power war 12. Maritime
forces lack the capability to approach deterrence with conventional, unconventi
onal, and nuclear forces. False 13. The Cooperative Maritime Strategy seeks to _
_____________. integrate sea power with other elements of national power maximiz
e naval power projection at all costs 14. Maritime forces provide decision maker
s with ______________. All the answers are correct. 15. U.S. homeland defense ef
forts provide the highest level of security by integrating ______________. All t
he answers are correct. 16. One of the ways that maritime forces protect the hom
eland is to ______________. disrupt and neutralize threats far from the U.S. BLO
CK 4 How the Navy thinks about War The American Way of War 1. Which post World W
ar II operation(s) evidenced flaws in America s ability to fight small, low intens
ity conflicts? The Iranian hostage rescue attempt and Operation Urgent Fury in G
renada 2. During the American Revolution, the Continental Army _________________
___. was created, in part, to convince potential allies that the United States w
as a legitimate nation 3. The Second Seminole War _______________. became a stal
emate and was abandoned by the United States after declaring victory 4. Although
regular army forces participated in the hostilities, the Spanish American War w
as seen as a victory by militia ( volunteer ) forces and proof that the United State
s didn t need to maintain a large standing army. True 5. Guerilla warfare was not
present in the Mexican and Civil Wars, which were fought solely between two conv
entional armies using conventional tactics. False. Guerilla warfare was present
in both the Mexican War and the Civil War. 6. Generals Grant and Sherman provide
d very lenient terms of surrender to the Confederate forces of Lee and Johnston
in order to _______________. avoid a protracted guerilla war waged by disgruntle
d Confederate soldiers 7. General Winfield Scott s capture of Mexico City during t
he Mexican War was ____________________. an example of conventional 19th century
warfare 8. One of the reasons for the unwillingness to fund a standing regular
army following the American Revolution was ____________________. the absence of
an immediate threat to the new nation 9. Following the end of the First World Wa
r, the U.S. _______________. quickly demobilized the vast majority of its large
wartime army 10. The Europeans who first settled what would become the United St
ates ____________________. formed militias for protection 11. In order to patrol
the vast American frontier and to protect settlers moving West, a large standin
g army was maintained by the United States after the Civil War. False 12. The Un
ited States maintained a large standing force after World War II because of ____
___________. the perceived threat of the Soviet Union and the Warsaw Pact 13. Th
e Vietnam War shared what characteristic(s) with the Second Seminole War? All of
the answers are correct 14. The French and Indian War ended with a British vict
ory over the French at the Battle of Quebec. This led to the American View that wa
rs were won by the utilization of conventional armies. False 15. In the United S
tates, the Battle of New Orleans was seen as ____________________. the defeat of
the best army in the world by an American militia force 16. Congress was unwill
ing to expend the funds necessary to maintain a large standing army during the l
atter part of the 19th century because ____________________. it did not see any
threat to the existence of the nation 17. Public opposition to fighting the Phil
ippine Insurrection was largely based on _______________. the high U.S. casualty
rate suffered in battling the insurgents the idea that the acquisition of colon
ies was incompatible with American values 18. During the American Revolution, th
e American land forces found success against the British through _______________
_____. a combination of conventional and unconventional actions fought by the Co
ntinental Army, the militia and irregular forces 19. During the time between the
First and Second World Wars, the American military was engaged in _____________
___. a series of small actions throughout Central America and the Caribbean in o
rder to maintain order and discourage European intervention in the Western Hemis
phere The Naval Way of War 1. In our time, in order to understand how the U.S. N
avy responds to new missions, threats, tactics, and technologies, it s important t
o know ___________________. the U.S. Navy s organizational culture 2. What is the
best example of Independence of Action? All of the answers are correct. 3. Organ
izational culture affects the way the organization ____________________. All of
the answers are correct. 4. An organization s culture ____________________. All of
the answers are correct 5. According to Admiral Nimitz, the primary responsibil
ity of every commanding officer is to ____________________. ensure the ship is s
afe 6. In close waters, what Navigational tool will help reduce error and uncert
ainty of your location to a considerable degree? GPS 7. Why does the Navy still
fear technological advances? It could irrevocably alter, in a harmful way, the v
alues that traditionally have been held near and dear to the Navy. 8. Navigation
is ____________________. an art of approximation 9. Due to increase in jointnes
s in Naval operations there will be all of the following changes in the future,
except, with respect to ____________________. the U.S. fleet composition 10. His
torically, the Navy has generally possessed the most complex technology availabl
e. True 11. What do all Navy s do? Provide support and assistance to the Merchant
Marines Protect their national waters Establish and take control of the sea 12.
The contemporary maritime strategy of the U.S. Navy ____________________. All of
the answers are correct. 13. U.S. Navy ships were initially designed to protect
aircraft carrier battle groups against the Russians and, at this time, they ___
_________________. have adopted a new technology to a different mission for air-
ground support operations continue to perform the same task as they did during t
he Cold war 14. According to the rule of Naval Warfare the Navy must achieve an
absolute control of the sea. False 15. Put him in the position, let him do his j
ob, and give him hell if he does not perform is the not-to-centralize philosophy
of the U.S. ________________________. Navy 16. All ships are fragile and subject
to peril for reasons other than enemy action. If the greatest peril during non-
wartime activity is water in the hull, then the second greatest peril is _______
_____________. fire 17. The Navy s organizational culture comes from _____________
_______. All of the answers are correct 18. The Navy s intent in extending control
from the sea to the land is to ______________. limit the enemy s freedom of actio
n and to make a sea barrier, not an avenue for maneuver 19. During non-wartime a
ctivity, what can be equally dangerous but less expected in terms of safety of t
he ship and operating environment? Typhoons Theory of War 1. The concept of an o
perational level of war was first utilized ____________________. by Napoleon wit
h his creation of a more manageable battlefield through the use of divisions and
corps each commanded by a general officer who was well versed in his strategic
objectives 2. Carrier strike group and expeditionary strike group commanders gen
erally operate at what level of war? Tactical 3. Actions are defined as strategi
c, operational or tactical based on ____________________. the level of the objec
tives achieved or contributed to by the actions 4. An action undertaken by a Nav
y SEAL team operates at what level of war? It varies depending on the level of t
he objective achieved or contributed to by the action 5. The concept of operatio
nal level of war developed ____________________. in order to bridge the gap betw
een strategy and national strategic objectives, and the tactics employed on the
battlefield to achieve those objectives 6. The principles of war _______________
_____. are a summary of the characteristics of successful military operations 7.
The principles of war include ____________________. surprise, maneuver, mass, e
conomy of force, simplicity, offensive 8. The three components of military art a
re ____________________. strategy, tactics, and operational art 9. The introduct
ion of a new weapon system by the enemy ____________________. may change its cen
ter of gravity and may change its critical vulnerability 10. Commanders should f
ocus their efforts on ____________________. concentrating strength against some
relative enemy weakness 11. Operational art was born during the __________________
__. period following World War I 12. Operational art ____________________. deals
with the study, theory, and practice of planning, preparing, conducting, and su
staining major operations and campaigns designed to accomplish operational or st
rategic objectives 13. The concept of an operational level of war was first util
ized ____________________. by Napoleon with his creation of a more manageable ba
ttlefield through the use of divisions and corps each commanded by a general off
icer who was well versed in his strategic objectives 14. In current joint and na
vy doctrine, centers of gravity ____________________. are those characteristics,
capabilities, or sources of power from which a military force derives its freed
om of action, physical strength, or will to fight 15. The enemy s center of gravit
y ____________________. is most likely to change at the strategic level 16. Gene
rally speaking, the President, ____________________, function at the strategic l
evel of war. the Secretary of Defense, and the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of S
taff 17. An action undertaken by a Navy SEAL team operates at what level of war?
Tactical due to the relatively small size of the unit and the rank of the SEAL
team commander It varies depending on the level of the objective achieved or con
tributed to by the action 18. The concept of operational level of war developed
____________________. in order to bridge the gap between strategy and national s
trategic objectives, and the tactics employed on the battlefield to achieve thos
e objectives 19. Which of the following is correct? The principles of war provid
e a basis for naval doctrine. 20. The most significant preparation a commander c
an make is ____________________. to express clearly the objective of the operati
on to subordinate commanders 21. The geographic areas of responsibility for geog
raphic combatant commanders are established at what level(s)? Strategic 22. Whic
h of the following is NOT true? Select one or more of the following: /-Electroni
c emission control does not contribute to the principle of security, rather it c
ontributes to the principle of surprise. -/ Gaining a thorough understanding of
the enemy's strategy, doctrine and tactics enhances our ability to protect our f
orces 23. An enemy s critical vulnerability ____________________. is synonymous wi
th the enemy s center of gravity is a vulnerability that, if exploited, will do th
e most significant damage to the enemy s ability to resist us need not be determin
ed if one has already determined the enemy s center of gravity Doctrine 1. The UNT
L is ____________________. a comprehensive/hierarchical listing of Navy tasks at
all levels of war 2. Joint doctrine is based on ____________________. current c
apabilities 3. The type of doctrine publication that covers mission areas, enabl
ing functions, and the organization and support of forces for sustained operatio
ns, is called __________________. NTTPs NWPs 4. All doctrinal publications are r
eviewed ____________________. continually and revised due to fundamental changes
or if it has been ten years since the last revision 5. The joint doctrine devel
opment process has four steps: ____________________. initiation, development, ap
proval, maintenance 6. Naval Doctrine Publications are capstone publications whi
ch ____________________. link overarching Navy concepts to fleet operations 7. W
hich of the following is NOT a characteristic of doctrine? Detailed threat profi
les 8. Naval Doctrine Publications are approved by ____________________. CNO and
Commandant, USMC 9. Naval Warfare Publications are approved by ________________
____. CNO and Commandant, USMC Commander, NWDC 10. Which of the following is NOT
characteristic of NTTPs? They are not related to NWPs. 11. Joint doctrine and T
TPs in joint publications are ____________________. authoritative and approved b
y the Chairman, JCS 12. Naval forces are best employed as part of a joint and/or
multinational force. TRUE 13. Joint doctrine is authoritative, which means it m
ust be followed without exception. FALSE 14. Tactics, techniques, and procedures
are all non-prescriptive. FALSE 15. Combatant commanders use the UJTL to develo
p JMETLs. TRUE 16. Which of the following is characteristic of NTRPs? They are n
ot necessarily related to NWPs. They are not descriptive in nature. They are not
reviewed by NWDC. 17. The Navy Warfare Library provides ____________________. a
ll publications on the NWDC SIPRNET site Command and Control Navy Forcas: Sectio
n 1 1. Control is the ___________________ . commander s means of guiding a militar
y operation commander s means of accounting for expenditures by the military autho
rity that commanders lawfully exercise over subordinates 2. Which of the followi
ng is not an example of OPCON? Detailed direction in the application of force. 3
. Which of the following is not considered Tactical Control or TACON? Organizati
on, logistics and training 4. OPCON would be delegated to ___________________ .
JTF commanders Ship commanders 5. Combatant Command is exercised by unified or s
pecified commanders through ___________________ . All of the answers are correct
. 6. The principal element of command and control is: Command 7. The process of
command control includes which of the following? All of the answers are correct.
8. The C organization is defined to include ___________________ . All of the ans
wers are correct. 9. Feedback is most important to control because _____________
______ . It gives commanders information they will need to adapt to changing cir
cumstances. 10. Which of the following fit with the analogy between Command and
Control and the functioning of the human nervous system? All of the answers are
correct 11. Why is C considered the single most important activity in war? Withou
t it, military forces can lose organization and direction and fail to achieve th
eir mission. 12. Command and control is ___________________ . a system and a pro
cess 13. OPCON and TACON: All of the answers are correct 14. Which of the follow
ing are considered command and control support? The people, facilities and equip
ment that provide information to commanders. 15. U.S. forces, including U.S. Nav
al forces are ___________________ . May be placed under OPCON of a UN commander
based upon a Security Council resolution 16. Operational control or OPCON includ
es organizing commands and which of the following functions? All of the answers
are correct. 17. The Navy uses the Composite Warfare Commander concept as ______
_____________ . its doctrine for tactical command and control 18 Section 2 1. Un
der the JFMCC concept, logistics, personnel support, and service-specific traini
ng would: Be put on the shelf until after the JTF operation is complete and the
JFMCC stood down. Remain the responsibility of the service component commander.
Become the responsibility of the JFMCC 2. Ordinarily the JFMCC will be given ___
__________________ . both OPCON and TACON 3. The Joint Force Commander has _____
______________ . wide authority to organize the Joint Task Force 4. The JFMCC s su
bordinate commanders include: Both CSG and ESG commanders. 5. The Joint Force Co
mmander _____________________ . may retain control of any function 6. The goal o
f the JFMCC doctrine is to: Integrate all Naval assets and capabilities into the
Joint Force Commander s campaign plan. 7. Which of the following are typical war
fighting functions of the JFMCC? All of the answers are correct 8. The Maritime
Task Plan is a web-based data base that is used by the JFMCC to: All of the answ
ers are correct. 9. During the Cold War the Navy assumed that when it fought at
sea against the Soviet navy , it would be: Fighting virtually independently of o
ther U.S. and allied forces. Fighting in concert with other U.S. forces. 10. The
MARSUPREQ is designed to ___________________ . enable the commanders of Carrier
Strike Groups, Expeditionary Strike Groups and other functional components to r
equest JFMCC assets 11. The JFMCC is ordinarily composed of: A service or compon
ent staff, augmented by service staff. 12. What is the unifying factor in all Jo
int Maritime Operations? Sea control 13. The JFMCC concept is __________________
_____ . still under development in terms of specific details, although the broad
functions have been finalized 14. The functional approach as exemplified in the
JFMCC (and the Joint Forces Air Component Commander and the Joint Forces Land C
omponent Commander) serves which of the following purposes? Better integrate mil
itary assets during operations. Lead the way to reorganization of the services o
r unified commands. 15. The MARSUPREQ is used by subordinate commanders to _____
______________ . build support for long term budget requests request specific su
pport to execute assigned missions 16. The Joint Force Maritime Component Comman
der ___________________. will not be designated if the JFC elects to control mar
itime operations or relies upon the Navy service component commander 17 Section
3 1. The Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) would be on a carrier or flag-configu
red amphibious ship because ___________________ . that is where the needed C2 as
sets will be 2. The littorals are: Areas near the shore and inland from the shor
e. 3. The chain of command under the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept _
_____________________. must be established by the Officer in Tactical Command (O
TC) in an Operation General Matter (OPGEN) 4. Focus on the littorals had this ef
fect on Carrier Strike Group (CSG) vulnerability? Increased vulnerability 5. Dec
entralization and command by negation are: Design keys of Composite Warfare Comm
ander (CWC) because they reduce complexity and information overload. Not central
features of Composite Warfare Commander (CWC). Design keys that will likely be
revised in the near future 6. After the Cold War, the Navy's primary mission: Sh
ifted in orientation to the littorals. 7. The Officer in Tactical Command (OTC)
delegation to the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) is: Determined by the OTC ba
sed on each individual situation 8. The common operating picture, or COP, includ
es: All of the answers are correct 9. Why was the Composite Warfare Commander (C
WC) concept developed? To counter the Soviet threat To attempt to manage the com
plexity of the environment To improve the coordination of maneuvers at the fleet
level 10. Admiral Arleigh Burke said that command by negation was important bec
ause: In battle there is too much going on, too fast for one person to manage. 1
1. Naval historian Thomas Hone asserts that command by negation: Assumes that di
rect, immediate control is not practical. Is the traditional way of doing things
. 12. The common operating picture, or COP, includes: All of the answers are cor
rect. 13. The Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) is intended to enable the carrie
r battle group (CVBG) commander to: Manage information overload 14. Under the Co
mposite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept control of different weapon systems on a
single ship ___________________ . may be delegated to different warfare command
ers 15. The principal offensive operations envisioned under the Composite Warfar
e Commander (CWC) concept are: Deep precision strikes on land targets. 16. The C
omposite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept addresses defense against: All the answ
ers are correct. 17. Under Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept, the Office
r in Tactical Command s (OTC s) primary focus should be on: Conducting Carrier Strik
e Group (CSG) offensive operations against an adversary. 18. What is the corners
tone tenet of the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept? Command by negation
Centralization Command override 19. The Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) will
designate: All of the answers are correct. 20. Tactical Control (TACON): May be
retained by the Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) Section 4 1. Which of the foll
owing is not an example of a coordinator under the Composite Warfare Commander (
CWC) concept? Interagency Working Group Coordinator 2. What is the role of prepl
anning of responses in the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept? All of the
answers are correct. 3. The Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) will have _______
______________ . Operational Control Tactical Control neither 4. Which of the fo
llowing functions are the responsibility of Composite Warfare Commander (CWC)? D
eveloping plans in support of assigned missions. 5. If an alternate Composite Wa
rfare Commander (CWC) is designated, his or her functions would be _____________
_________ . All of the answers are correct 6. Which of the following are not exa
mples of Functional Warfare Commanders? Secure Telecommunications Group Commande
r 7. Which of the following functions are not the responsibility of the Composit
e Warfare Commander (CWC)? Resolve competing asset allocation requests. Establis
hing mission objectives. 8. What did Admiral Mustin say about Nelson's plan at T
rafalgar? The plan was good, but what was really decisive was that his subordina
tes understood the plan and their roles in it. 9. Who retains overall responsibi
lity for mission accomplishment? Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) Officer in Ta
ctical Command (OTC) 10. Principal Warfare Commanders are ___________________ .
immediately subordinate to the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) 11. Composite W
arfare Commander s (CWC s) relationship to Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) is ____
__________________ . always subordinate, even if Officer in Tactical Command (OT
C) and Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) are filled by the same commander 12. Pr
incipal Warfare Commanders are never authorized to: Long range deployment of sen
sors. Assign missions to other Warfare Commanders. 13. Sector Warfare Commanders
may be designated in dispersed operations by: Either the Principal Warfare Comm
ander (PWC) or the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) The Principal Warfare Comma
nder (PWC) Other Sector Warfare Commander 14. The Air Defense Warfare Commander
is ordinarily assigned to ___________________ . the most capable and experienced
air defense ship 15. The functions of a Principal Warfare Commander and a Funct
ional Warfare Commander include ___________________ . All of the answers are cor
rect. 16. The Surface Warfare Commander is ordinarily based on ________________
. a carrier a flag ship an Aegis cruiser 17. Which of the following are not part
of the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) structure? Joint Task Force (JTF) comm
anders 18. Decentralized command is an effective approach because? Select all co
rrect answers. It enables tactical commanders to take advantage of fast moving o
pportunities to achieve mission objectives. It helps to prevent the Composite Wa
rfare Commander (CWC) from being overwhelmed by information overload. Section 5
1. The CWC concept formerly promoted a close defensive posture for forces afloat
, which means ___________________. All of the answers are correct. 2. What has a
llowed a higher dispersion of a naval formation? super high frequency radios 3.
Many challenges to the CWC concept are rapidly becoming moot due to ____________
_______. developments in the multi-mission capability of ship and aircraft platf
orms, and improvement in satellite communications 4. According to CWC concept, t
he distance for all ships of the formation, in relation to the flagship, must be
in the radius of ___________________. 20 NM 5. What mitigates the concern that
the CWC concept is too communications intensive? The fact that commanders are te
chnically capable of maintaining a COP. Improved C4 architecture 6. A downside o
f CWC s dependency on communications is ______________. All of the answers are cor
rect. 7. Important challenges for CWC include ___________________. All of the an
swers are correct. 8. According to Robert C. Powers, all of the below mentioned
are the subtlest arguments against the CWC concept, except that the ____________
_______. CWC creates broad war fighting specialists 9. What are the challenges t
o the CWC concept? All of the answers are correct. 10. The authoritive joint doc
trine stresses decentralized planning and centralized execution. FALSE Strike Wa
rfare Section 1 1. Strike warfare is only applicable to high intensity conflict
situations. FALSE 2. Strike operations are a component of which Navy mission? Pr
ojecting power ashore 3. Which of the following is not a principal mechanism by
which the Navy executes strike warfare? amphibious assault 4. The Navy mission o
f projecting power ashore is a relatively new mission, made possible by the intr
oduction of the Tomahawk Land Attack Missile. FALSE 5. Difficulties encountered
by the Navy in integrating into the joint air operations planned and directed by
the Joint Force Air Component Commander (JFACC) during Operation DESERT STORM w
ere due to __________. Select all correct answers. - -/ -the JFACC's refusal to
let the Navy direct over-water operations -/ -the Navy s long time practice of dec
entralized command of air power -/ the lack of compatible communications equipme
nt 6. Strike warfare is focused on those platforms that directly attack targets
with ordnance. Thus, aircraft such as the EA6B Prowlers and E-2C Hawkeye have no
role in Sea Strike. FALSE 7. The two principal missions of the United States Na
vy are: Sea Control and Projection of Power Ashore 8. While USN strike warfare c
an project power ashore in a highly effective way, it cannot sustain such operat
ions for an extended period. FALSE 9. The Air Tasking Order (ATO) is the Air For
ce equivalent of the Navy Air Tasking Order (NATO). FALSE 10. Strike warfare, as
practiced by the Navy during the 1990-91 Gulf War, resulted in the new mission
of close-air support being assigned to OV-10 and AH-1 aircraft. FALSE 11. The ch
anges in strike warfare organization and planning resulting from lessons learned
in the 1990 s Gulf War were tested _______________. in the series of operations i
n the Balkans during the late 1990 s 12. In order to effectively defend itself fro
m hostile forces while simultaneously conducting strike warfare in a joint envir
onment, it is necessary for the on scene Naval Air Commander to operate independ
ent from the Joint Air Component Commander. FALSE 13. Operation DESERT STORM int
roduced ___________________ to the Navy mission of projecting power ashore. ship
launched long range non-nuclear guided missiles the decentralized handling of a
ir power the use of Navy aircraft in the close air support role 14. Submarines h
ave no role in strike warfare. FALSE 15. During Operation DESERT STORM, the Navy
's capability to conduct amphibious operations ___________________. caused the I
raqis to divert a portion of its forces to defend Kuwait against amphibious atta
ck which contributed to its forces being enveloped by coalition forces 16. Durin
g Operation DESERT STORM, naval aircraft were limited to deep attacks, targeting
the Iraqi infrastructure. FALSE 17. During Operation DESERT STORM, Navy and Mar
ine Corps aircraft ___________________. flew approximately one third of the tota
l sorties flown by U.S. aircraft an amount in direct proportion to their numbers
in the U.S. air inventory 18. The 1990-1 Gulf War validated the Navy's strike w
arfare reliance on precision guided munitions and as a result nearly no dumb bombs
were utilized. FALSE 19. How do the Navy s two principal missions influence event
s on land? Both influence events on land. Sea control indirectly influence event
s while power projection ashore directly influences those events 20. Amphibious
operations are not considered as part of the Navy's power ashore projection miss
ion because the main components of such operations are Marine Corps and/or Army
units. FALSE Section 2 1. The Summer Pulse 04 exercise ___________________. succes
sfully tested the Navy s Global Naval Forward Presence Policy utilized seven Carri
er Strike Groups deployed around the world 2. Anti-submarine warfare capability
is provided to a Carrier Strike Group by _______________. All of the answers are
correct 3. The Fleet Response Plan s goal is to ______________. sustain a level o
f at least six surge-capable CSGs with two additional groups ready to deploy wit
hin three months of an emergency order 4. The Fleet Response Plan and Flexible D
eployment concepts have yet to be implemented and tested. FALSE 5. Carrier based
aircraft are limited in their ability to attack targets located relatively far
inland due to their inability to conduct in-flight refueling. FALSE 6. The Flexi
ble Deployment Concept ________________. Select one or more of the following: -/
/is based on naval forces sustaining a presence in a given geographical region b
y rotating forces in to and out of the region on a set schedule -//allows units
that have attained high readiness to embark on deployments of varied duration in
support of specific national priorities //-provides more options to national le
aders when contemplating how to response to specific global needs 7. Because the
y have no long-range strike capability, the Perry-class guided missile frigates
are the primary means of AAW within a Carrier Strike Group. FALSE 8. The princip
al platform of a Carrier Strike Group is ___________. always a CV/CVN 9. The Vir
ginia-class submarine is an improved version of the Seawolf class. It is just as
quiet, but has greater speed, can operate at increased depth and can carry more
weapons than the Seawolf-class. FALSE 10. Experience has shown that the Perry-c
lass guided missile frigate cannot withstand the damage caused by an antiship gu
ided missile. FALSE 11. Which of the following is not able to conduct long range
strike missions? FFG 12. Carrier Strike Groups are dependant on Logistical Supp
ly Squadrons (LSSs) for replenishment of ammunition, fuel and supplies as they d
o not have logistical support ships organic to them. FALSE 13. All of the ships
assigned to a Carrier Strike Group have the capability of keeping up with the ca
rrier when the carrier is operating at its maximum speed. FALSE 14. Which submar
ine class(es) is/are capable of conducting long range strikes using the Tomahawk
missile? All of the answers are correct. 15. The Navy s Flexible Deployment Conce
pt has been the foundation for the successful use of carrier-based aviation duri
ng several major wars and numerous smaller conflicts over the past several decad
es. FALSE 16. Protection of a Marine amphibious force while enroute to, and upon
arrival in, an amphibious objective area may be provided by ____________. Navy
fighter aircraft operating from the decks of the amphibious ships a Carrier Stri
ke Group 17. Select True or False: Carrier Strike Groups (CSGs) consist solely o
f surface ships. Submarines may provide support to the CSG, but are not under th
e command of the CSG commander. FALSE Section 3 1. Successful strike warfare dep
ends upon: All of the answers are correct. 2. IRAQI FREEDOM strike operations il
lustrate the CV/CVN s unique capability to conduct air operations in: Sandstorms 3
. CV/CVN strike capability can be increased by which of the following: Select al
l correct answers. Reducing operating tempo between 0300-0500 -/-/Augmenting fli
ght deck crews /-/-Pausing operations before high-intensity flight operations to
rest personnel -/-/-Contingency planning before high-intensity operations 4. Wh
at is the effect of PGMs on aircraft sortie rates? Reduce the number of aircraft
required 5. What types of redundancy are necessary for reliable alternatives in
an environment of danger which could cause serious losses in case of operationa
l failure? Select all correct answers. -//Supply //Decision management -/-Person
nel -/-Technical 6. Mission requirements for coordinated air operations must be
balanced among which of the following? Select all correct answers. Training Ordn
ance and aircraft handling Maintenance 7. Flight deck danger can be eliminated b
y: None of the answers are correct. 8. Which of the following is not a current r
equirement for continuous maintenance and effectiveness of the CV/CVN force? Imp
roved ship design 9. Which factor(s) impacting sortie rates require(s) the appli
cation of non-organic assets? In-flight refueling 10. Naval Air Strike Warfare i
s executed by: Aircraft Carrier Wing 11. Trade-offs between naval effectiveness
and safety of naval operations involve higher acceptance of risk in wartime and
less toleration of risk in peacetime. TRUE 12. Which of the following correctly
describe carrier organization and operations? Select all correct answers. -/-Fli
ght operations planning is conducted by relatively flat collegial organization. -/C
arrier is organized in a steep hierarchy by rank with clear chain of command. //
Individual pilots are unconstrained in the operation of their aircraft. -/-Fligh
t deck operations are conducted by concensus. 13. What is the largest and most c
omplex ship in the Navy? Aircraft carrier 14. Effective strike operations are co
ordinated through a negotiation process in which officers: Select all correct an
swers. -/-/Attempt to ensure primacy of their units in competition for assets -/
-/Resist demands which could compromise the safety or performance of their units
/-/-Maximize demands on other units for operational and logistics support /-/-B
argain for optimum strike assignments 15. Multicarrier and night operations do w
hich of the following? Permit 24 hour strike warfare 16. _____________converts t
he sophisticated technological potential of an aircraft carrier into real and us
eable power. Human organization 17. The Carrier Air Department is responsible fo
r: Flight deck control 18. The Carrier Combat Systems Department is responsible
for: Electronic equipment maintenance and repair 19. What types of redundancy in
volves shipboard operations-critical units or components such as computers, rada
r antennas, etc.? Technical Section 4 1. Reduction of CEPs is due to greater pre
cision afforded by: All of the answers are correct 2. Detection of enemy air or
surface units by radar or other equipment carried in an airborne vehicle and tra
nsmission of a warning to friendly units is the mission of: Airborne early warnin
g 3. Operational planning for an air strike includes all but which of the follow
ing: National Command Authority 4. Select the statements that are correct concer
ning carrier air wings. Select one or more of the following: Improved targeting,
especially through PGMs, has enhanced the effectiveness of the carrier air wing
. The carrier and the air wing are two complementary components of a single figh
ting system. Air wing composition has evolved substantially since the end of the
Cold War. 5. What factors have determined the evolution of air wing size and co
mposition? All of the answers are correct. 6. What is the principal limitation o
f PGMs? Cost 7. Which of the following carrier air wing missions involve protect
ing critical areas of the combat zone for the purpose of destroying enemy aircra
ft before they reach their targets? Combat air patrol 8. Attributes of Joint Dir
ect Attack Munitions (JDAM) are? Select one or more of the following: /-//Operat
es in adverse weather -/-/-200 mile range -//--Converts dumb bomb into precision g
uided weapon -//-/Air to employment 9. Which weapons caused the greatest damage
to Iraqi targets in the Gulf War? Laser guided bombs 10. What is the greatest ca
use of improved weapon accuracy? PGMs 11. Which of the following statements are
true concerning the size and composition of CVs and CAWs? Select one or more of
the following: Greater uniformity will follow phase-out of conventional carriers
. Great variation in both Cc size and CAW composition since WWII. 12. What facto
rs have determined the evolution of air wing size and composition? All of the an
swers are correct 13. The F/A Super Hornet is capable of all but the following m
issions? ASW 14. Circular Error Probability refers to: Area in which 50% of ordnan
ce can be expected to hit. 15. Concept of Operations (CONOPS) for a carrier stri
ke does not include: research battle damage assessment tasking 16. What single f
ighting system gives the carrier air wing its phenomenal punch? The embarked air
wing 17. Composition of the carrier air wing evolved through punctuated stabilit
y ; this refers to? Periods of intense change interspersed with longer periods of
relative stability. Section 5 1. The Tomahawk Strike Coordinator ____________. i
s appointed by the Joint Force Commander and designates a Tomahawk Executive Age
nt to be responsible for all TLAM strike planning, coordination and reporting st
rikes 2. Programmed Warhead Detonation (PWD) _____________. allows the missile t
o be detonated while flying directly over a target 3. Which of the following is
not a limitation of the Tomahawk missile? survivability in a high threat environ
ment 4. Which of the following is not a capability of a surface ship launched To
mahawk missile? the ability to be loaded onto the ship while underway 5. The Blo
ck IV or TLAM-E _____________. substantially increases the capabilities of the B
lock III missile while cutting the cost in half 6. In order to ensure TLAMs are
effectively integrated into operations, Tomahawk Strike Coordinator liaisons are
placed with all the following except _________________. the Joint Interface Con
trol Officer 7. Starting from the Joint Force Commander, and the Joint Force Mar
itime Component Commander and Joint Force Air Component Commander if present, th
e tasking to launch a Tomahawk missile follows what path? Naval Component Comman
der (NCC), TLAM Strike Coordinator (TSC), Launch Area Coordinator (TAC), TLAM fi
ring unit 8. Which of the following is true? Tomahawk missiles fired from submar
ines are identical to those fired by surface combatants. 9. The _____ assigns ta
rgets, numbers of missiles, and time on target so firing units can execute the l
aunch. Launch Sequence Plan (LSP) 10. Which of the following is not true? The To
mahawk Strike Coordinator is the Launch Area Coordinator's principal agent, resp
onsible for leading the execution of TLAM strike operations. 11. Which of the fo
llowing is true? The Naval Component Commander is typically appointed by the Joi
nt Force Commander to act as the Tomahawk Executive Agent. 12. Submarines must l
aunch their VLS Tomahawks ______________. while submerged to avoid damage to the
system 13. The newest version of the Tomahawk can be ______________. Select one
or more of the following: reprogrammed in flight to strike any of 15 pre-progra
mmed alternative targets redirected to any GPS target coordinates using an anti-
jam GPS receiver 14. The All-Up-Round (AUR) includes ___________. either a canis
ter (for surface ships) or a capsule (for submarines) that both protects the mis
sile during transport and serves as the missile's launch tube 15. Which of the f
ollowing is not true? Tomahawk missiles are best used to attack targets in areas
where collateral damage is not a concern. 16. The newest version of the Tomahaw
k can be ______________. Select one or more of the following: redirected to any
GPS target coordinates using an anti-jam GPS receiver 17. Submarines can communi
cate with surface units _____________. when operating at periscope depth 18. Ter
rain masking ___________________. involves flying around hills in order to remai
n concealed from detection by point-defenses around the target is the method of
continuously matching altitude information from a radar altimeter to a preprogra
mmed radar map of the area below the missile so that it can accurately follow a
detailed predetermined flight path is the ability to detonate the missiles warhe
ad while the missile is flying directly over a target, thus preventing the enemy
from masking itself behind a hill or similar terrain feature 19 Domain of Force
Employment Section 1 1. Pair the following missiles with their primary missions
: B1. Anti-radiation D2. Air-to-surface close air support C3. Land-attack A4. Lo
w-level anti-ship A. Harpoon B. SLAM-ER C. Maverick D. HARM 2. The Recognized Ma
ritime Position relies on surveillance by which of the following assets: All of
the answers are correct. 3. Task force protection within a radius of 50 miles is
accomplished by: Embarked helicopters and surface vessels 4. Short range protec
tion of major surface units relies on which of the following? Mark 38, 25 mm. ma
chine gun and Harpoon missile Harpoon missile Mark 45, 5 54 caliber gun and Harpo
on missile 5. What is the most critical task of the Surface Warfare Commander? D
evelop and maintain the Recognized Maritime Position. 6. Combat boats present grea
t problems for conventional naval forces because they are: All of the answers ar
e correct. 7. Downward trends in worldwide naval ship construction and prolifera
tion of combat boats has which of the following effects: Complicates the area of u
ncertainty for U.S. forces 8. Surface warfare includes coordination of surface,
subsurface, land, and sea assets. TRUE 9. Asymmetric threats to the surface flee
t do not normally include: Vessels disguised as merchant ships Chemical weapons C
ombat boats 10. Defensive surface warfare relies on military deception which may
attempt to: All the answers are correct. 11. Which statements are true concernin
g the seriousness of the ASM threat? All the answers are correct. 12. Match the
following missiles with their primary delivery craft: Top of Form 1. SH-60 Seaha
wk A. Harpoon, HARM, SLAM-ER, Maverick 2. EA-6B Prowler B. Hellfire, Penguin 3.
S-3B Viking C. Harpoon, SLAM-ER, Maverick 4. F/18 Hornet D. HARM 13. Anti-ship m
issiles are the weapons presenting the most serious threat to the task force bec
ause they are: All the answers are correct. 14. A successful Surface Warfare Com
mander must achieve more than passive protection of the task force or avoidance
of hostile contact; he is also required to ____________________ . gain and maint
ain access to the operating area, maintain a safe buffer around the task force d
uring transit operating areas, and be prepared to conduct offensive operations t
o 15. Bottom of Form The Surface Warfare Commander is: Tasked by the Composite W
arfare Commander, the most qualified commander well suited to support the surfac
e warfare mission, and sometimes assigned to Destroyer Squadron or Tomahawk Land
Attack Missile command Section 2 1. The Air Defense Commander usually controls
air defense operations from: An AEGIS cruiser 2. Post-Cold War trends in air def
ense threats include: Increased proliferation of weapons and weapons technology,
increased speeds and ranges of weapons and launch platforms, and increased diff
iculty in engaging and destroying air borne weapons. 3. Match each air defense p
rinciple with the appropriate definition. Top of Form 1. Techniques to confuse o
r deceive enemy forces A. Defense in Depth 2. Establishing positions to absorb a
nd weaken attacks B. EMCON 3. Use of sensors to identify distant missile threats
C. OPDEC 4. Denying or altering enemy use of electronics systems. D. Early Warn
ing Bottom of Form 4. The principal weapon threat to the aircraft carrier (CV/CV
N) is a: Missile 5. Which of the following does Air Defense NOT do to defeat hos
tile air borne threats: Conduct sequential operations, including air defense for
amphibious landings 6. Which air wing asset provides all-weather airborne early
warning for the carrier strike group? E-2C Hawkeye 7. ________is the primary mi
ssion of air defense. Defense in Depth 8. Airborne attacks may be launched from
submarines, surface ships, aircraft, and land bases. TRUE 9. Select the platform
s with long range capabilities. Aircraft carriers, Aegis cruisers, and destroyer
s 10. Which ships are NOT integrated into the fleet or sector air defense missio
n? Point defense ships and patrol craft 11. Close coordination between the Air D
efense Commander and other warfare commanders facilitates: Optimum use of multi-
role aircraft; maintenance and dissemination of accurate surveillance data; and
security for departing and landing aircraft. 12. Select the statement that is NO
T correct concerning air defense responsibility. The Strike Warfare Commander ha
s ultimate control over air defense operations. 13. Absence of major power chall
enges to U.S. naval superiority has greatly reduced the threat to naval operatio
ns. FALSE 14. The Air Defense Commander must be: None of the answers are correct
. 15. Which of the following refers to the procedure of denying or allowing the
use of certain electromagnetic systems during force operations? EMCON 16. Which
phase of the air defense mission deals with threat assessment? Surveillance Sect
ion 3 1. The Naval Special Warfare Command ____________________. is responsible
for providing trained and ready forces to the regional combatant commanders 2. A
clandestine operation ____________________. is one in which emphasis is placed
on the concealment of the operation itself 3. A Naval Special Warfare Squadron _
___________________. is formed after SEAL platoons and attachments have complete
d their core training requirements 4. The MK-V Special Operations Craft ________
____________. is capable of carrying an entire SEAL platoon 5. The Special Opera
tions Craft-Riverine is meant to operate in ____________________. low to medium
threat environments 6. The Dry Dock Shelter allows ____________________. deliver
y of SEAL Delivery Vehicles (SDVs) and combat rubber raiding craft from submarin
es 7. MK-V Special Operations Craft are provided to a NSW Squadron by __________
__________. Special Boat Teams 8. The army component of the U.S. Special Operati
ons Command is the ____________________. Army Special Operations Command (USASOC
) 9. Select the statement that is NOT true. Civil Affairs Operations are designe
d to convey truthful information and indicators to foreign audiences to influenc
e their actions. 10. personnel assigned outside of the continental United States
____________________. are under the combatant command of their respective geogr
aphic unified commander 11. The Rigid-hull Inflatable Boat (RHIB) ______________
______. is an 11 meter craft capable of carrying eight SEALs plus its crew 12. S
elect the statement that is NOT true. Information Operations are generally direc
ted at strategic or operational intelligence requirements. 13. The current numbe
r one priority mission of special warfare forces is ____________________. Counte
rterrorism 14. Direct Action missions ____________________. involve short-durati
on strikes and small-scale offensive actions 15. A typical Naval Special Warfare
Squadron generally contains ____________________. six SEAL platoons four SEAL D
elivery Vehicles (SDVs) 16. A SEAL team is composed of ____________________. a h
eadquarters element and six SEAL platoons 17. Which of the following may be atta
ched to a Naval Special Warfare Squadron? All the answers are correct. 18. Opera
tions that include actions to prevent, limit and/or minimize the development, po
ssession and employment of weapons of mass destruction are part of the _________
___________ mission. CP 19. Naval Special Warfare (NWS) forces normally deploy a
s ____________________. a SEAL Team an NSW Squadron Expeditionary warfare 1. Ope
rational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS) ______________. requires a decision for t
he point of attack be made thousands of miles distant from the objective(s) asse
mbles the amphibious force as the ships approach the target coastline increases
the complexity for the enemy in defending a coastline 2. A type of amphibious op
eration designed to deceive the enemy to force him to commit to a disadvantageou
s course of action is known as a ______________. Demonstration 3. The Commander
of the Amphibious Task Force (CATF) is ______________. All of the answers are co
rrect. 4. Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS) is a Marine concept supporti
ng the Navy s concept of Forward from the Sea. It accomplishes this by ___________
___. All of the answers are correct. 5. The Commander, Landing Force (CLF), a se
nior Marine Corps officer, is responsible for which of the following? Conduct of
the assault. 6. The Expeditionary Strike Group (ESG) is a versatile sea-based f
orce capable of which of the following? All of the answers are correct. 7. An am
phibious force might include which of the following? All of the answers are corr
ect. 8. Characteristics of amphibious operations include which of the following
concepts? All of the answers are correct. 9. The concept known as STOM includes
which of the following? All of the answers are correct 10. The amphibious planni
ng process ______________. All of the answers are correct. 11. The Marine Expedi
tionary Unit (MEU) is built around a Marine infantry ______________. Battalion 1
2. The development of the ESG concept adds which of the below improvements to pr
eviously deployable forces? All of the answers are correct. 13. Strengths of amp
hibious operations do not include which of the following aspects? Uncomplicated
logistic support. 14. A military operation launched from the sea with the primar
y purpose of introducing a landing force ashore is the definition for what term?
An amphibious operation 15. An Expeditionary Strike Group (ESG) and a Carrier St
rike Group CSG) can be combined to form what organization? An Expeditionary Stri
ke Force (ESF). Logistics Section 1 1. The sustainment element of the logistics
process is _______________. the provision of personnel, logistics, and other sup
port required to maintain operations 2. The Navy Component of the U.S. Transport
ation Command (USTRANSCOM) is _______________. the Military Sealift Command (MSC
) 3. The processes used to get materiel, services, and personnel to the supporte
d forces describe which general element of the Navy s logistics process? Distribut
ion 4. The Military Sealift Command s Combat Prepositioning Force _______________.
supports Army prepositioning requirements 5. Ready Reserve Force ships ________
_______. are under Military Sealift Command control when activated 6. The bulk o
f the Navy s combat logistics services to ships at sea is provided by ____________
___. the Naval Fleet Auxiliary Force 7. Operational logistics _______________. e
ncompasses theater support sites and activities, ashore or afloat, and the theat
er transportation required to move personnel and material to and from supported
forces 8. Prepositioned equipment both afloat and ashore is considered logistics sup
port at the ______________. strategic level 9. The processes used to get materie
l, services, and personnel to the supported forces describe which general elemen
t of the Navy s logistics process? Transportation Distribution Disposition 10. The
Kilauea class T-AEs main mission is to provide underway replenishment of which
class of supplies? Class X Class V 11. For Navy transportation matters, the Mili
tary Sealift Command reports to the _______________. Chief of Naval Operations 1
2. The Navy s two hospital ships ______________. contain 12 fully-equipped operati
ng rooms each 13. MSC s Kilauea Class ammunition ships _______________. have no ar
mament have two surface to air missile launchers for self-defense are armed with
two Close In Weapon System (CIWS) guns 14. The exterior cleaning of an F/A-18 a
ircraft is considered _______________. organizational-level maintenance 15. Whic
h of the following is NOT true? Depot-level maintenance is generally performed b
y ship s company. 16. Casualty collection, treatment, and evacuation is considered
a part of which logistics functional area? Health Services 17. The Military Sea
lift Command s largest combat logistics ships are the _______________. Supply clas
s T-AOEs 18. The Dry Cargo Office _______________. handles Department of Defense
cargo requirements that cannot be accommodated by regularly scheduled ocean lin
er service 19. The Military Sealift Command s eight fast sealift ships ___________
____. can deliver nearly all the equipment needed to outfit a full U.S. Army mec
hanized division 20. Repair parts are considered _______________. Class IX suppl
ies 21. Which Naval Fleet Auxiliary Force ships are capable of the speeds necess
ary to keep up with carrier strike groups? Powhaton Class T-ATFs Kilauea Class T
-AEs Supply Class T-AOEs Undersea Warfare Section 1 1. The AN/SLQ-48 Mine Neutra
lization System ___________________. is a highly accurate active sonar system wh
ich locates mines for later detonation features a self-propelled, remotely-contr
olled Mine Neutralization Vehicle 2. Which of the following has mine counter mea
sures as its primary mission? MH-53E helicopter 3. Area ASW operations _________
__________. are often conducted to provide ASW protection for strike groups are
usually commanded and controlled from a shore-based facility are usually command
ed and controlled by an element of a strike group 4. Which of the following is N
OT true? Surface detection sensors such as radar and ESM have proven to be ineff
ective in the search for submarines. 5. Coordinated ASW operations _____________
______. are usually conducted to provide ASW protection for designated units 6.
Which of the following is NOT true? Advances in sonar and computer technology ha
ve made underwater sound propagation entirely predictable. 7. Which of the follo
wing is NOT true? While quieter than older diesel submarines, those that are dri
ven by Air Independent Propulsion systems still must typically snorkel at least
once a day to recharge their batteries. 8. Which of the following is NOT true? U
.S. acoustic mine sweeping is limited to that performed by surface ship platform
s. 9. Which of the following is NOT true? At then end of its preset battery life
, sonobuoys are retrieved so that recorded information can be downloaded for ana
lysis. 10. Which of the following is NOT considered an advantage of the use of m
ines? ability to discriminate between friendly, hostile and neutral ships 11. Ma
gnetic ranging ___________________. provides measurements to allow a ship to fin
e tune its degaussing is a method of determining the range to a contact by measu
ring changes in the earth s magnetic field caused by the contact uses an electrica
l current passed through coils wrapped around a ship to decrease the ship s magnet
ic signature 12. The ASW warfare commander s call sign under the Navy s Composite Wa
rfare Commander concept is ___________________. AX 13. Which of the following is
NOT true? Moored mines are generally banned by the Geneva protocols. 14. The tw
o broad categories of submarine detections are ___________________. Acoustic and
non-acoustic Sonar and radar Airborne and waterborne 15. Which of the following
is NOT true? Mine sweeping procedures may include the detonation of mines. The
terms mine hunting and mine sweeping are synonymous. 16. Which of the following is t
rue? Towed passive sonar arrays are useful to surface ships as they can be place
d out of the noise generated by the ship 17. Mines were first successfully laid
by aircraft during ___________________. World War II 18. The most effective mean
s of countering a mine threat is ___________________. the prevention of mine lay
ing 19. The Osprey Class (MHC-51) ships are ___________________. glass reinforce
d plastic hulled 20. Which of the following is true? Pressure influence mines ar
e normally moored type mines. Pressure influence mines are actuated by pressure
changes caused by a passing vessel. 21. Which of the following is NOT a disadvan
tage of using radar in ASW operations? Radar is not able to detect targets as sm
all as a periscope or snorkel exposed above the surface. 22. The current submari
ne threat ___________________. is more likely to be a diesel powered submarine 2
3. Which of the following is NOT true? The subsets of Undersea Warfare are offen
sive submarine operations and defensive submarine operations. 24. Which of the f
ollowing is NOT true? Passive sonar is more affected by noises in the water than
active sonar. In order for an active sonar system to detect a submarine, the su
bmarine must make a noise that can be detected. Using passive sonar, a submarine
typically will detect a surface ship before it is detected by that ship. 25. Wh
ich of the following is true? U.S. submarine development has shifted towards dev
eloping capabilities against diesel powered submarines operating in shallow wate
r 26. Which of the following statements is NOT true? Submarines are the platform
of choice for the replenishment of large minefields due to the larger number of
mines they can carry. 27. Magnetic Anomaly Detectors ___________________. detec
t submarines by detecting the anomaly in the earth s magnetic field caused by the
submarine 28. During the search phase of an ASW operation, ___________________. P
assive sensors are preferred to prevent the submarine from being alerted 29. Whi
ch of the following is true? Acoustic silencing reduces the probability of a shi
p being detected by either a submarine or an acoustic mine. A ship s degaussing sy
stem consists of one coil built into the ship to counter both vertical and horiz
ontal magnetic fields. Deperming is the use of electrical coils built into a shi
p to counter the induced magnetism created as the ship passes through the earth s
magnetic field. 30. The two concepts that ASW forces employ to ensure coordinati
on with friendly submarines are ___________________. prevention of mutual interf
erence and water space management Joint Warfare Section 1 1. Which command is NO
T a functional combatant command? U.S. Southern Command 2. Which of the followin
g would be an example of a sub-unified command? U.S. Forces Korea 3. The Combata
nt Commander s campaign is based on which of the following? All the answers are co
rrect 4. Combatant commanders should ensure that their unified action synchroniz
es and/or integrates joint and singleservice operations with the actions of supp
orting combatant commands, other military forces during multinational operations
, and nonmilitary and other federal government agencies. TRUE 5. Which of the fo
llowing statements does NOT reflect how unified direction is normally accomplish
ed? By establishing command relationships By assigning a mission or objective to
the Joint Force Commander By direct operational involvement by the Chairman of
the Joint Chiefs of Staff 6. The combatant commander can give authoritative dire
ction to subordinate commands and forces necessary to carry out missions assigne
d to the command. TRUE 7. Which of the following provides the commander the abil
ity to regulate forces and functions and provides the commander a means to measu
re, report, and correct performance? Control 8. Overwhelming force would fall un
der which fundamental of joint warfare? Concentration 9. A unified command will
always contain which of the following? Sub-unified commands. Service components.
10. The term joint forces includes which of the following commands? All the ans
wers are correct. 11. On what basis can joint forces be established? (Select the
best answer.) Geographic or functional 12. Which of the following document(s) p
rovide(s) strategic direction for the combatant commanders? National Security St
rategy and National Military Strategy 13. Which Fundamental of Joint Warfare bes
t reflects the statement; Cooperation among the combatant commanders and their su
pporting joint force and component commanders is crucial? Concentration Unity of
Effort 14. Which statement best reflects the concept of command? Command include
s both the authority and responsibility for effectively using available resource
s to accomplish assigned missions. 15. Which of the following is NOT a function
of the combatant commander? Budget and procure service-specific equipment. 16. W
hich of the following statements best describes a Unified Command? A command wit
h broad continuing missions under a single commander composed of forces from two
or more military departments. 17. What level of authority is normally exercised
by the functional component commanders of a combatant command? Tactical Control
(TACON) Combatant Command (COCOM) command authority Administrative Control (ADC
ON) 18. Which of the following levels of authority is NOT a command relationship
? Administrative Control (ADCON) Section 2 1. Which of the following statements i
s NOT true? Military Deception operations should be planned and executed indepen
dently of Operations Security actions. 2. Department of Defense (DOD) policy des
cribes information superiority as ______________. the operational advantage gained
by the ability to collect, process, and disseminate an uninterrupted flow of in
formation while exploiting or denying an adversary s ability to do the same the ab
ility to freely and covertly interfere and disrupt an adversary s ability to colle
ct, process and disseminate an uninterrupted flow of information while safeguard
ing our own ability to do the same 3. Which of the following statements is true?
Computer Network Exploitation is concerned with gathering data from target or a
dversary automated information systems or networks. 4. Which of the following st
atements is NOT true? The ability to attack U.S. information systems is still no
t within the ability of terrorist groups. 5. Which of the following statements i
s true? Civil-Military Operations only take place in friendly or neutral operati
onal areas. Civil-Military Operations only include those operations that occur s
ubsequent to armed conflict. Civil-Military Operations may include military pers
onnel performing functions that are normally the responsibility of a national go
vernment. 6. Information Operations are generally the responsibility of ________
______. the J-3 (Operations) 7. The three dimensions of the information environm
ent are ______________. the physical, the informational, and the cognitive 8. Wh
ich of the following statements is true? The three major subdivisions of Electro
nic Warfare are: electronic attack, electronic protection, and electronic warfar
e support. 9. Which of the following statements is true? Psychological Operation
s are the only Department of Defense (DOD) operations authorized to influence fo
reign target audiences directly. 10. The three main subdivisions of Computer Net
work Operations are: computer network attack, computer network defense, and comp
uter network exploitation. 11. The psychological, cultural, behavioral, and othe
r human attributes that influence decision making, the flow of information, and
the interpretation of information by individuals or groups at any level in a sta
te or organization are properties associated with which dimension of the informa
tion environment? Cognitive 12. Which of the following statements is NOT true? P
sychological Operations are those operations that convey truthful information to
both domestic and foreign audiences. 13. Which of the following is NOT one of t
he five fundamental assumptions that are the bases of Information Operations abil
ity to affect and defend decision making? Generally, the relative importance of
each quality criterion of information is universal and not influenced by things
such as language, culture and religion. 14. Information Operations' core capabil
ities include all of the following EXCEPT ______________. prisoner of war interr
ogation 15. Leadership, morale, and level of training are factors that influence
the ______________ dimension of the information environment. cognitive 16. Whic
h of the following statements is NOT true? Disrupting the transmission of an adv
ersary government's television station by physically attacking it with aircraft
is outside the realm of Information Operations. 17. The combatant commanders plan
s for Defense Support to Public Diplomacy are approved by ________________. the
Office of the Secretary of Defense (SecDef) 18. Which of the following statement
s is NOT true? Information Operations (IO) is only concerned with information co
llected, processed and disseminated through networked computer systems operated
by an adversary. 19. Actions taken through the use of computer networks to gathe
r data from target or adversary automated information systems or networks are a
part of ___________________. computer network exploitation (CNE) 20. Which of th
e following statements is NOT true? Disrupting the transmission of an adversary
government's television station by physically attacking it with aircraft is outs
ide the realm of Information Operations. 21. Who has been given the specific res
ponsibility to coordinate Information Operations (core capabilities) among the c
ombatant commanders? Commander, U.S. Strategic Command Force Capabilities Sectio
n 1 1. The Joint Force Land Component Commander has the ability to exercise comm
and and control over all land forces, and may be an allied or coalition commande
r. TRUE 2. _________are capable of at least limited short-term self-defense and
are commanded by lieutenant colonels. Battalions 3. Heavy divisions offer except
ional: Tactical mobility. 4. is the U.S. Army force that can rapidly respond to
contingency operations. XVIII Corps 5. The ___________________ is the largest di
vision in the U.S. Army. Mechanized Infantry Division 6. Challenges facing the U
.S. Army since the end of the Cold War include: Select all correct answers. More
demand for peacekeeping. A less stable global environment 7. Which of the follo
wing is NOT true regarding the U.S. Army Reserve Component? The Army Reserve Com
ponent does not provide the majority of personnel or equipment for any primary U
.S. Army mission area. 8. A ___________________ consists of multiple small group
s of soldiers organized to maneuver and fire. Platoon 9. The Air Assault Divisio
n is considered: All of the answers are correct 10. Which one of the following i
s NOT true regarding the U.S. Army s transformation? Increased Joint interdependen
cy necessitates increased logistics and combat formations. 11. Which of the foll
owing are light forces ideally suited for? Select all correct answers. -/Exploit
ation or pursuit. -/-Defensive missions requiring economy of force. -/-Attack ke
y enemy armor forces. -/-Operating in restricted terrain. //MOUT 12. Army divisi
ons are classified depending on: Select all correct answers. /The footprint occupi
ed by equipment for airlift. -The relative combat power they possess. -The speed
in which they can be deployed. -The gross tonnage of all equipment. 13. The U.S
. Army s ___________________ provides combatant commanders with a broad range of l
and power options to shape the security environment. strategic responsiveness 14
. Decisive counterattack is a defensive mission for which one of the following?
The Air Assault Division The Mechanized Infantry Division The Airborne Division 1
5. Light infantry divisions: Select all correct answers. -/-Can be rapidly deplo
yed. -/-Perform well in urban operations. //Are deployable entirely by air. 16.
Strategic airlift is always more advantageous than sealift. FALSE 17. What are t
he hidden transport costs of moving the Air Assault Division? Square footage requi
rements are almost equal to that of the Mechanized Division. Short ton requireme
nts are almost equal to that of the Mechanized Division. Short ton requirements
are almost equal to that of the Light Infantry Division. 18. Which U.S. Army air
craft has the mission of providing air assault, general support, aeromedical eva
cuation, command and control, and special operations support to combat, stabilit
y, and support operations? UH-60L Blackhawk 19. Which one of the following is NO
T a U.S. Army core competency? Sea-based operations 20. The ability to conduct s
ustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and the spe
ctrum of conflict is a key differentiator between the U.S. Army and the U.S. Mar
ine Corps. TRUE 21.List the U.S. Army combat organizations from the largest to t
he smallest: A) Brigade B) Squad C) Platoon D) Company E) Corps F) Division G) B
attalion E, F, A, G, D, C, B 22. What is the primary mission of a brigade? To de
ploy on short notice and destroy, capture, or repel enemy forces, using maneuver
and shock effect Section 2 1. Which aircraft is the newest, most flexible aircr
aft capable of rapid strategic delivery of troops and cargo, as well as tactical
airlift and air drop? C-17 Globemaster III 2. The U.S. Air Force capability of
___________________ allows the Air Force to sustain flexible and efficient comba
t operations. Agile combat support 3. ___________________ are actions taken to i
nfluence, affect, or defend systems and decision-making. Information operations
Military operations other than war 4. The C-5, C-17 Globemaster III, and the C-1
41 Starlifter are partners in the Air Mobility Command s __________. Strategic air
lift concept 5. Which function is considered a collateral use in the application
of U.S. Air Force power? Countersea 6. ___________________ is defined as milita
ry action carried out against an enemy s center of gravity or other vital targets.
Strategic attack 7. Which U.S. Air Force function is considered the most major
contribution to joint operations? Air refueling 8. ___________________ allows th
e U.S. Air Force to deliver desired effects with minimal risk and collateral dam
age. Precision engagement 9. Air and space-based surveillance assets exploit ___
________________ to detect enemy initiatives at long range. Elevation 10. The U.
S. Air Force global strike mission is performed by which one of the following ai
rcraft: B-2 11. Which aircraft is considered the USAF s front-line ground-attack a
ircraft providing critical close air support to friendly forces on the ground? F
-16 A-10 12. The acronyms COMARFFOR and JFACC, respectively, designate which com
mand and control entities? Service Component Commander, Functional Component Com
mander 13. ___________________ allows air and space forces to exploit mass and m
aneuver simultaneously, while ___________________ is the ability to employ air a
nd space power effectively at all levels of warfare. Flexibility, Versatility 14
. ___________________ integrate(s) surveillance and reconnaissance assets to red
uce uncertainties while planning. Intelligence 15. What characteristic of U.S. A
ir Force operations gives air and space platforms a unique vantage point over th
e territory of potential adversaries? Altitude 16. The U.S. Air Force tenet of t
he ___________________ of overwhelming power at the decisive time and place is o
ne of the most constant and important trends found throughout military history.
Concentration 17. The ___________________ s primary mission is to provide theater
ground and air commanders with ground surveillance to support attack operations
and targeting that contributes to the delay, disruption, and destruction of enem
y forces. RC-135 E-8C U-2 18. Strategic air attack is not determined by the weap
ons or delivery systems used. TRUE 19. Why does the U.S. Air Force believe air p
ower must be controlled by a single commander who maintains the broad strategic
perspective necessary to balance and prioritize the use of powerful, yet limited
force? Air and space power have the unique potential to directly affect the str
ategic and operational levels of war. Centralized air and space power employment
authority avoids ambiguity. Air and space power have the unique potential to di
rectly affect the tactical level of war. 20. Which of the following are the larg
est warfighting organizations of the U.S. Air Force? The Numbered Air Forces Gro
ups Wings 21. Missions such as attacks on launch facilities and the jamming of s
atellite link frequencies are operations achieved by this U.S. Air Force functio
n: Counterspace 22. USAF CSAR missions are normally conducted by specially-train
ed Special Operations personnel. FALSE 23. Which U.S. Air Force aircraft detects
, identifies, and geolocates signals throughout the electromagnetic spectrum? RC
-135 V/W Rivet Joint 24. Which one(s) of the following USAF assets provide(s) ac
curate location and time reference in support of strategic, operational, and tac
tical operations: Select all correct answers. airborne-based systems; air-to-sur
face radar ground-based systems; various navigational aids space-based systems;
GPS 25. Interdiction and close air support are components of what U.S. Air Force
function? Counterland Section 3 1. U.S. Marine Corps doctrine and concept of op
erations are based on the principle of Maneuver Warfare. TRUE 2. The Navy-Marine C
orps team is a(n) ______________________ designed for ___________________. exped
itionary force; overseas deployment 3. Which event marked the beginning of large
-scale U.S. Marine Corps involvement in Viet Nam? The landing of the 9th MEB at
Da Nang. 4. The Maritime Prepositioning Force (MPF) currently possesses a forcib
le entry capability and therefore can offload equipment and supplies in a hostil
e environment. FALSE 5. A key component of OMFTS is: The assembly area, attack p
osition, and LOD are all at sea and over the horizon. 6. Which of the following
is NOT a characteristic of a MAGTF? Requires pre-existing infrastructure to exec
ute missions 7. The primary function of this helicopter is the transportation of
heavy equipment and supplies during the ship-toshore movement of an amphibious
assault, and during subsequent operations ashore: CH-53 E Super Stallion CH-46E
Sea Knight 8. Which one of the following is characteristic of a MEB? Designed fo
r small-scale contingencies 9. MARFORLANT is not the Marine Service Component Co
mmander for which one of the following? CENTCOM 10. Which of the following is/ar
e not considered part of the operating forces of the U.S. Marine Corps available t
o the combatant commanders? The Supporting Forces Fleet Marine Force 11. Which o
ne(s) of the following make up the 4th Marine Expeditionary Brigade? All of the
answers are correct. 12. An integrated organization of air, ground, and logistic
s forces is a(n): MAGTF 13. All U.S. Marine forces in a given theater automatica
lly fall under the command of the Marine Component Commander. FALSE 14. A MAGTF
is always composed of a command element, a ground combat element, an aviation co
mbat element, and: A combat service support element 15. Which one(s) of the foll
owing is/are capabilities of a MEU (SOC)? All of the answers are correct. 16. ME
U (SOC) means that a MEU: Has expertise in amphibious raids executable within si
x hours of mission receipt. 17. Which one of the following is NOT a type of MAGT
F: FSSG 18. Which one of the following is the smallest permanently existing MAGT
F? MEU 19. The U.S. Marine Corps and the U.S. Army are the only forces who sizes
are set by law? FALSE 20. Which one of the following is NOT a tenet of the mane
uver warfare doctrine? Execution of speed over time and distance. Focus strength
against enemy critical vulnerabilities. Wear down an enemy s defense in order to
penetrate it. 21. Which one of the following supporting operational concepts is
defined as rapid employment of the MAGTF by air or surface means to objectives in
the littorals and beyond ? Operations from a sea base Sustained operations ashore
Ship-to-object maneuver 22. List the strategic concepts governing the use of mi
litary force in the execution of the National Military Strategy. Strategic agili
ty, overseas presence, power projection, decisive force Section 4 1. With regard
s to domestic coastal sea control, the Coast Guard Area Commander reports direct
ly to the respective Navy Fleet Commander. TRUE 2. Who can initiate requests for
U.S. Coast Guard forces to support military operations? All of the answers are
correct. 3. This is the only USCG cutter class armed with the close-in weapon sy
stem (CIWS). Hamilton class 4. Which aircraft is the only armed aircraft in the
USCG inventory? HH-65A Dolphin MH-68 Shark 5. Can the USCG be considered a redun
dant, non-complementary resource supporting the National Military Strategy? No 6
. Which of the variants of the HU-25 Guardian aircraft is configured for oil pol
lution detection? B 7. All USCG cutters are readily identifiable by which one of
the following hull colors: None of the answers are correct; USCG cutter hull co
lor is dependant upon each ship s mission 8. US Coast Guard Law Enforcement Detach
ments (LEDETs) perform the following mission(s): All of the answers are correct.
9. In accordance with 14 USC 2, which service ...shall enforce or assist all app
licable federal laws on and under the high seas and waters subject to the U.S. j
urisdiction ? The U.S. Coast Guard at all times 10. Which aircraft is the U.S. Coa
st Guard s primary short-range helicopter for SAR and surveillance? HH-65A Dolphin
11. Which patrol boat class has the capability of a stern-launched rigid hull i
nflatable allowing for more rapid and safe deployment of boarding crews? Island
Marine Protector 12. Which one of the following is NOT a USCG capability offered
to the combatant commander? Forcible entry from the sea 13. What is the Integra
ted Deepwater System program? An integrated approach to upgrading existing USCG
assets while transitioning to newer, more capable platforms. 14. Which of the fo
llowing is not true regarding employment of the USCG by DoD and the State Depart
ment for peacetime engagement? The USCG does not have robust anti-piracy capabil
ities. 15. Which units integrate into a military staff in the event of a massive
pollution incident which may impact the ability of U.S. and allied forces to co
nduct military operations? Pollution strike teams 16. The USCG __________ retain
operational control over the major cutters and long range patrol craft, while t
he __________ has/have operational control over patrol boats, buoy tenders, and
aids to navigation. District Commanders; Area Commanders Area Commanders; Distri
ct Commanders 17. Which of the following deploys to provide force protection at
OUTCONUS seaports of debarkation? PSUs 18. Article 14, USC 1 states that the USC
G is a branch of military service at all times. True 19. Which small boats in th
e U.S. Coast Guard inventory are the only ones specifically listed in the Joint
Strategic Capability Plan? Island class patrol boats Reliance class patrol boats
Port security Raider boats Section 5 1. A characteristic of a clandestine opera
tion is ____________________. that it is conducted in such a way to assure its c
oncealment from adversaries 2. Special operations in hostile, denied, or politic
ally sensitive environments to collect or verify information of strategic or ope
rational significance is a part of which Special Operations core task? Special R
econnaissance 3. A Joint Special Operations Task Force ____________________. All
the answers are correct. 4. The development of joint special operations tactics
is a responsibility of ____________________. the Joint Special Operations Comma
nd (JSOC) 5. Which of the following statements is NOT true? U.S. Special Operati
ons Command (USSOCOM) controls promotions of those officer and enlisted personne
l that are attached to Special Operations Forces units. 6. Generally, a geograph
ic combatant commander exercises control over Special Operations Forces assigned
to the combatant command ____________________. through a subunified theater Spe
cial Operations Command (SOC) 7. A battalion of the Army's 75th Ranger Regiment
is forward deployed to Hawaii. This battalion is most likely under the command o
f ____________________. a geographic combatant commander 8. The Air Force Specia
l Operations unit that would most likely be tasked to assist a foreign nation in
organizing and training its military and paramilitary forces to combat internal
subversion is ____________________. the 6th Special Operations Squadron 9. Whic
h of the following statements is/are true? All the answers are correct. 10. The
combat forces of the Navy Special Warfare Command (NAVSPECWARCOM) include ______
______________. SEAL teams, SEAL delivery vehicle teams, and Special Boat Teams
SEAL teams, SEAL delivery vehicle teams, and SEAL transportation units SEAL team
s, SEAL delivery vehicle teams, Special Boat Teams, and Special Warfare aircraft
squadrons 11. A Joint Special Operations Task Force ____________________. All t
he answers are correct. 12. U.S. Special Operations Command's Unconventional War
fare core task may include all of the following EXCEPT ____________________. ass
isting a foreign government in organizing and training its military units to com
bat an internal insurgency 13. Which of the following statements is/are true? Ar
my Civil Affairs units are provided to combatant commanders around the world by
the U.S. Army Special Operations Command. 14. Which of the following statements
is true? The U.S. Army Special Operations Command includes Reserve component uni
ts. 15. ____________________ responsible for ensuring Special Operations Forces
are fully integrated into the Combatant Commander's Theater Security Cooperation
Plan and contingency plans and operations. The theater Special Operations Comma
nds are 16. Direct Action missions ____________________. All the answers are cor
rect 17. A SEAL platoon is assigned to an expeditionary strike group. The platoo
n is most likely under the operational control of ____________________. the appr
opriate combatant commander's Navy component commander 18. Which of the followin
g statements is true? The Marine Special Operations Support Group will be tasked
with Foreign Internal Defense missions. The Marine Special Operations Command (
MARSOC) is planned to contain 2,700 Marines and Sailors. 19. Which service(s) pr
ovide(s) special operations units whose mission is combat search and rescue in s
upport of conventional combat operations? Marine Corps Air Force 20. Which of th
e following statements is NOT true? U.S. Special Operations Command (USSOCOM) is
subordinate to the geographic combatant commanders in waging the global war on
terrorism. 21. Fire support for Special Operations Forces can be provided by ___
_________________. AC-130 aircraft Range of Military operations Section 1 1. Wha
t command has the primary responsibility for the military support to civil autho
rities mission? Northern Command (NORTHCOM) 2. Often seen as a secondary task, S
tability missions are often called ___________________ and have been formally ra
ised to an equal status with major combat operations. Nation Building 3. The pur
pose of the National Strategy for Homeland Security is to mobilize and organize
our Nation to secure the U.S. homeland from terrorist attacks. TRUE 4. Which of
following is a primary mission for U.S. Armed Forces with respect to Homeland De
fense? All of the answers are correct. 5. The purpose of the National Strategy f
or Homeland Security is to guide, organize, and unify our Nation s homeland securi
ty efforts. TRUE 6. The ______________ provides the fundamental justification fo
r Homeland Security activities. U.S. Constitution 7. Stability missions, often s
een as a secondary task are also referred to as NEO . FALSE 8. A large part of Home
land Security is left to the civilian sector. TRUE 9. In the event of a terroris
t incident at the Atlanta-Hartsfield Airport, who would be the first to respond?
Local police and fire departments 10. Which of the following is NOT a critical
mission area for the National Strategy for Homeland Security ? Maritime Interceptio
n. 11. What legislation strictly limits U.S. armed forces involvement in law enf
orcement activities in the United States? Posse Comitatus Act of 1878 12. Which
of the following is NOT a critical mission area for the National Strategy for Hom
eland Security ? Protecting critical infrastructure. Domestic counterterrorism. De
fending the National Capital Region. 13. What is the number one strategic object
ive of the National Strategy for Homeland Security? Prevent and disrupt terroris
t attacks. 14. Select True or False: Joint Publication 3-26, Homeland Security p
rovides military guidance for the exercise of authority by combatant commanders
and other joint force commanders and prescribes joint doctrine for operations an
d training. TRUE 15 16 17 18 19 20 Section 2 1. Counter-terrorism (CT) operation
s are ___________________. measures taken to preempt terrorism 2. Defending U.S.
interests at home and abroad would naturally include which of the following? Al
l of the answers are correct. 3. Included within the definition of Irregular War
fare would be the following mission area(s): All of the answers are correct. 4.
History shows that the best way to defeat terrorism is to ___________________. i
solate and localize terrorist activities and then use intensive, sustained actio
ns to destroy the terrorist group 5. Terrorism ___________________. became a mor
e conscious threat after the events of September 11, 2001 6. Small units may nee
d to alter their operations to counter the WMD threat by ___________________. mo
nitoring the environment for the presence of hazardous agents securing ventilati
on to enclosed spaces All of the answers are correct. 7. Which of the following
Weapons of Mass Destruction would be considered to be (a) chemical weapon(s)? Sa
rin 8. Our national strategy to stop terrorist attacks against the United States
includes which of the following? All of the answers are correct. 9. By definiti
on, a nuclear weapon is ___________________ . a complete assembly capable of pro
ducing an intended nuclear reaction and release of energy 10. The effects of Wea
pons of Mass Destruction ___________________. demand that troops devote resource
s preparing for their potential use can largely be ignored by small naval units
normally don t require military personnel to modify their behaviors 11. In address
ing the underlying conditions that terrorists seek to exploit, it is important t
o remember that ___________________. promoting social and political development
may indirectly counter some conditions that foster terrorism 12. The collapse of
the Soviet Union impacted terrorism by ___________________. destroying or neutr
alizing many terrorist groups 13. Which of the following statements is/are true
regarding the effects of terrorism on naval operations? Terrorism focus is to al
ter our habits, possibly reducing operational efficiency or increasing personnel
stresses. 14. Enhanced force protection ___________________. can cause frustrat
ion for affected personnel if left in place for extended periods 15. Of the foll
owing which is/are true of terrorist organizations? They often use critical infr
astructure vulnerabilities to serve their own purposes. 16. The 4D Strategy to com
bat terrorism is framed by which of the following sets of terms? Defeat, Deny, D
iminish and Defend. 17. The threat that is presented by Al-Qaida is enhanced by
which of the following aspects? All of the answers are correct. 18. Common actio
ns to address an insurgency would include which of the following? Select all cor
rect answers. Social, political or economic reforms. Civic action or amnesty pro
grams. Primary Professional Military Education (Enlisted) Block 4 - How the Navy
Thinks About War Regional & Cultural Awareness 1. Neo-realist scholars, such as
John Mearsheimer, argue that ______________. Select all the correct answers. -t
he attitudes of people in democracies differ substantially from the attitudes of
authoritarian leaders with respect to the issue of the use of war as a foreign
policy tool there is a sufficient body of evidence to prove democracies do not f
ight one another -the attitudes of people in democracies do not differ substanti
ally from the attitudes of authoritarian leaders with respect to the issue of th
e use of war as a foreign policy tool there is a not a sufficient body of eviden
ce to prove democracies do not fight one another 2. Some theorists argue that ba
rgaining in the foreign policy arena by democracies is impeded by the openness r
equired by the democratic format. True 3. A bi-polar international system is mor
e conducive to peace than a multi-polar system. Select all the correct answers.
True, because there is a greater likelihood of miscalculating balances in a mult
i-polar international system leading to conflict between great powers. True, bec
ause of the relative ease of balancing power through internal efforts. 4. The fa
ct that the world s leading democracies share common moral values guides them to c
ooperate with each other to maintain world peace. Not true under all circumstanc
es. 5. A democratic society runs the risk of over-reacting or under-reacting in
the foreign policy arena because experts are not the sole arbitrators of what co
urse of action to pursue. True 6. In a uni-polar international system, the prosp
ects of a world war are remote compared to a multi-polar international system. T
rue 7. In a multi-polar international system ______________. Select all the corr
ect answers. -there is a higher probability of a great power conflict leading to
general war than in a bi-polar international system -the capabilities of the gr
eat powers are more diffused than in a bi-polar international system 8. The tran
sformation of the United States from colonial status to independent country is a
n example of a change in domestic structure. True 9. The results gathered from s
ignificant research shows that elections have a significant impact on the peacef
ulness of a democracy s foreign policy toward other democracies. False 10. Prior t
o World War II, the world was a(n) ______________ international system. multi-po
lar 11. During the Cold War era, most of the powerful states were ______________
and their behavior was to a large part defined by ______________. aligned with
either of the two superpowers, their relationship to the superpower they were al
igned with made impotent, what was dictated to them by the superpowers 12. Joann
e Gowa argues that ______________. Select all the correct answers. prior to 1914
, democratic states were just as likely to engage in conflicts with one another
as they were with nondemocratic states prior to World War I, democracies were le
ss likely to align with other democracies than with non-democratic states 13. Du
ring the Cold War, the world was a(n) ______________ international system. bi-po
lar 14. The United States experiences a change in its domestic structure each ti
me a new president is sworn into office. False 15. The theory that the tightenin
g economic bonds and growing interdependence between democracies will solidify p
eaceful relations between democracies has been countered, in part, by Joanne Gow
a who points out that shifting markets is always possible if trade is disrupted
by conflict. True 16. According to the systems theory of international politics,
a political system may be defined ______________. All of the answers are correc
t. 17. The international system of state-actors is ______________ by definition
because each state-actor is sovereign and can make its own decisions. Anarchic 1
8. The international system is generally defined by functions of differentiated
units. False, because there is an unequal distribution of power which allows one
nation to influence others. False, because the international system is a hierar
chic system composed of like units (sovereign states). False, because the intern
ational system is an anarchic system composed of like units (sovereign units). 1
9. Which statement is not used to support the theory that a world populated by d
emocracies would be a peaceful world? Peaceful relations between democracies act
as a moral foundation for international relations. Democratic economies are cap
able of rapidly reducing interrelated societal problems. Democratic regimes seem
to find alternative methods to war when resolving disputes among each other. Ge
opolitical Culture Section 1 1. Political culture helps explain, but is not the
only explanation, of why states and individuals interact the way they do in inte
rnational affairs. True 2. Elkins and Simeon believe that political culture shou
ld be used to explain political behavior _______________. only after the examina
tion of structural and institutional causal factors has been exhausted 3. Politi
cal culture may explain why the people of a state may prefer a leader with a qui
et, reserved personality over one with a gregarious personality. True 4. Politic
al culture can be described as the personality of a collectivity because the stu
dy of political culture focuses on behavior patterns and dispositions of a group
of persons. False 5. Political culture _______________. is frequently considere
d a scientifically useless concept by social scientists Both the answers are cor
rect is often used as an explanation of political behavior by some political com
mentators 6. Studying and measuring the effect of political culture on different
dependent variables is difficult because: All of the answers are correct. 7. By
understanding a collectivity s political culture, it is possible to determine the
personality of a person belonging to that collectivity. False 8. In order to id
entify the underlying assumptions within a culture, controlled experiments that
can illuminate the unconscious assumptions of its members can be useful. True 9.
The breadth of American political culture can accommodate leaders with a variet
y of personality types. True 10. The narrowness of a political culture may place
limits on the behavior and action of a political leader. True 11. If two collec
tivities have different behaviors when they have the same dependent variable app
lied, Elkins and Simeon state that ___________. All of the answers are correct.
12. The political culture of a collectivity living within a state __________. is
shaped by the totality of all life s influences on multiple generations 13. Selec
t True or False: In selecting individuals best suited to fill certain social rol
es, personality and culture may become blended as political culture biases. True
Select True or False: The narrowness of a political culture may place limits on
the behavior and action of a political leader. True 14. Political culture _____
_____________. -represents a disposition in favor of one range of alternatives w
hile giving another range of alternatives little attention or no 15. According t
o Elkins and Simeon, all of the following except _____ are factors that may cont
ribute to the creation of a political culture that could have a significant impa
ct on political action. whether the group lives in a democratic or authoritarian
state 16. Select True or False: Because a culture is a collective attribute of
society, knowledge of that society s political culture will allow one to predict t
he response of an individual from that society to a given situation quite accura
tely. False 17. The danger of using political culture to explain all political a
ctions __________. is that it ignores structural and institutional causes 18. Po
litical culture is not found in collectivities such as ____________. None of the
answers are correct. Democracy and Nationalism Section 2 1. The political syste
m which aims to protect a nation s distinct culture, history and traditions, expre
sses the doctrine of ______________. Nationalism 2. During the early stages of d
emocratization, ______________ are most likely to inflame nationalism in the soc
iety. National elites 3. The first phase in breaking away from the authoritarian
non-democratic regime is to ______________. Ensure National Unity between all s
ocial strata of the society Establish democratic order 4. Freedoms allow people
to openly express their long suppressed hatred and nationalistic feelings. True
5. As in ______________, during the early stages of democratization some ethnic
conflicts could promote international conflict. Argentina 6. Nationalist conflic
ts are happening only during violent regime transitions. False 7. In the beginni
ng of the democratization process, in order to secure political and economic int
erests, nationalism is the right tool in the hands of the ______________. Nation
al elites 8. At this time, the most violent ethnic conflict in East Europe is ta
king place in ______________. Chechnya 9. The first phase in breaking away from
the authoritarian non-democratic regime is to ______________. Ensure National Un
ity between all social strata of the society 10. In Japan, a one-party democracy
with a slightly authoritarian bias was acceptable to the Western countries beca
use ______________. Of the bulwark this regime created against the growing influ
ence of the Soviet Union 11. According to Snider, the most benign form of nation
alism is ______________. Civic Nationalism Ethnic Nationalism 12. Nationalism co
uld provoke conflict during the process of democratization because _____________
_. All of the answers are correct. 13. Freedoms allow people to openly express t
heir long suppressed hatred and nationalistic feelings. True 14. After World War
II, the purpose for the wave of forced democratization upon Axis powers was to
______________. All of the answers are correct 15. The main reason for nationali
stic violence is ______________. Age old rivalries among people with different e
thnic and cultural backgrounds 16. What would be the most democratic solution in
preventing future ethno national conflicts? Separation Inclusion 17. The trends
which are supposed to stimulate the democratization process are all of the belo
w, except ______________. Ethno nationalism 18. After the fall of Communism the
most significant nationalist conflict on European soil, since the end of WW II,
took place in the former ______________. Yugoslavia 19. In the early stages of d
emocratization, in multi ethnic societies partition of states ______________. Is
necessary if cultural differences have been strongly institutionalized along et
hnic lines 20. Democracy cannot be accompanied by international and inter-ethnic
violence. False 21. Select True or False: According to Snider, the transition t
oward democracy is always awakening nationalist desires. True Section 3 1. Accor
ding to ______________ The liberal democracy will triumph in the future . None of t
he answers are correct. 2. George Sorensen depicts the future of democracy, prov
iding ______________. A Balanced Perspective 3. According to the Optimistic Scen
ario of democracy s future, the twenty first century may be the century of collecti
vism . False 4. As the role of the State increases in societies, democratic values
will also increase in its strength and importance. False 5. ______________ give
s a gloomy appraisal of the future of democracy. Samuel Huntington 6. The Optimi
stic Scenario of the future democracies includes all of the following, except th
at ______________. Transnational corporations will continue to grow as sources o
f order within the international community 7. Economic factors which weighed hea
vily against the process of democratization are all of the following, except ___
___________. Low debt 8. Benito Mussolini s prediction about the future Fascist Ce
ntury ______________. May come to pass in this century 9. The major contender to
the liberal democracy, on an ideological level, in the post Cold War world is _
_____________. Islam Communism 10. To ensure the process of democratization and
to strengthen democracy on the national level, all efforts in the future should
be focused on? Greater social, economic and political empowerment of the poor 11
. Since 1974, how many countries made some progress toward democratic rule? Over
eighty 12. Francis Fukuyama believes that ______________. The liberal democracy
provides the only real alternative for societies seeking a prosperous and secur
e future Regional Studies Section 1 1. ______________ has/have impacted the nati
ons of Latin America. All of the answers are correct. 2. By 1825, all of Spain s L
atin American colonies had gained their independence except ______________and __
____________. Puerto Rico; Cuba 3. When did the U.S. issue the Monroe Doctrine?
Early 1800 s 4. Canada s history is similar to the United States and includes: Selec
t all that apply. -/-In 1867 the British North American Act established Canada a
s an independent country. //Canada was originally inhabited by native tribes mig
rating from Asia. -//Early settlers in the 1600 s were from Europe. -/-British sei
zed control in 1763. 5. The population in Canada is now approximately __________
____. 120 million 32 million 60 million 6. ______________ conducted the only suc
cessful slave rebellion in history in 1804. Haiti 7. ______________ did not esta
blish colonial territories in North America. Australia 8. While the Panama Canal
is no longer considered by U.S. commanders as a major route for warships, it is
______________ to world commerce. vital 9. What are the two dominant languages
throughout Latin America? Spanish and English Portuguese and English Spanish and
Portuguese 10. Which country has the most members in its lower house of legisla
ture? Mexico Canada 11. According to the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA),
______________ of heroin in the U.S. comes from Latin America. 82% 12. The U.S.
is a major trade partner of Latin American countries. TRUE 13. The _____________
_ religion was a legacy of Spanish and Portuguese colonization in the 16th, 17th
, and 18th centuries and is the predominant religion of the mainland countries o
f Latin America. Roman Catholic 14. Latin America is ______________. one and one
half times the size of the U.S. 15. Colombia alone produces ______________ of t
he world s cocaine supply. 75% 16. The Panama Canal is ______________. a critical
economic path for commerce between the east and west coasts of the U.S. 17. The
U.S. used the Monroe Doctrine for what purpose? To legitimize U.S. military inte
rventions in Mexico, Central America, and the Caribbean 18. The longest river sy
stem in North America is the ______________. Mississippi-Missouri-Ohio 19. The U
.S. did NOT gain territories from Mexico as a result of the ______________. Monr
oe Doctrine 20. Latin American culture has NOT been significantly influenced by
______________. China native civilizations 21. ______________ was not a catalyst
, or driving force, in conquering and colonizing Latin America during the 15th a
nd 16th centuries. The Monroe Doctrine 22. The ______________, found in Latin Am
erica, is the largest river basin in the world. Amazon River Basin 23. _________
_____ was NOT involved in the 1902 blockade of Venezuela. Great Britain Spain 24
. ______________ is the largest trading partner of Mexico, Brazil, Colombia, Ecu
ador, and Peru. The U.S. 25. The ______________ instituted by President Franklin
Roosevelt is credited with most of the nations in Latin America giving unified
support to the allies during World War II. Good Neighbor Policy 26. Latin Americ
a has been home to which of the following indigenous peoples and civilizations?
Select all that apply. -Maya /Toltec /Inca -Aztec 27. The ______________ links t
he Atlantic and Pacific Oceans. Panama Canal 28. ______________ have NOT signifi
cantly influenced the ethnic makeup of Latin Chinese 29. What are the two domina
nt languages throughout Latin America? Spanish and French Portuguese and English
Spanish and Portuguese 30. ______________ was the primary focus of U.S. policy
in Latin America during the Cold War. Countering the Soviet Union and its allies
31. Which of the following is NOT a conflict in which Mexico was involved? Span
ish-American War (1898) Section 2 1. In 1978, Argentina considered a war against
______________. Chile 2. Since its independence, Argentina has been a major riv
al of ______________. Chile 3. In 1980, Argentina and Brazil put aside their riv
alries in ______________. the nuclear and ballistic missile spheres the sphere o
f cultural disagreements 4. Geopolitics is ______________. the study of the rela
tionship between geography and power politics 5. In 1984, what dispute between A
rgentina and Chile was resolved through papal mediation? Beagle Channel islands
6. In the late 1970s, Argentina, Brazil, Chile, and Paraguay all became democrat
ic countries. False 7. Historically, one of the biggest rivalries in Latin Ameri
ca has been between Brazil and ______________. Argentina 8. In 2004, in order to
expand economic ties, MERCOSUR members signed an accord with ______________. th
e EU 9. The creation of Uruguay was the result of a longstanding rivalry between
______________. Argentina and Brazil 10. The Southern Cone of Latin America inc
ludes the following countries, except ______________. Columbia 11. The Common Ma
rket of the South was founded by Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay, and ______________
. Uruguay 12. The Southern Cone of Latin America is composed of Argentina, Brazi
l, Paraguay, Uruguay, and ______________. Chile 13. Today, there is virtually no
threat of military conflict between any countries in the Southern Cone. True 14
. The two nonfounding members of the Common Market of the South are ____________
__. Chile and Bolivia 15. Which of the statements are true with regards to the d
ispute between Ecuador and Peru in the mid-1990s? The efforts of Argentina and C
hile, in part, were responsible for a peace treaty being signed between Ecuador
and Peru. 16. The threat of conflict between Argentina and Brazil is presently a
t the highest level its ever been. False 17. The Democratic Peace Theory states
that ______________. Democracies do not wage wars against other democracies 18.
Today, the Common Market of the South, also known as MERCOSUR (Spanish) or MERCO
SUL (Portuguese) includes 6 Latin American countries, except ______________. Ven
ezuela and Peru 19. What is the name of the theory that suggests that democracie
s do not wage war against other democracies? Democratic Peace 20. In 2004, UN pe
acekeeping efforts in Haiti ______________. were led by Brazilian military force
s Section 3 1. Which of the following countries in South America has the biggest
military expenditures per year? Brazil 2. Which of the following, if any, Latin
American countries are capable of projecting and sustaining power for an extend
ed period of time? No one single country 3. Which of the following organizations
generally discourage military expenditures? All of the answers are correct. 4.
Some view ______________ as a model for other Latin American militaries. Costa R
ica 5. The only country in Latin America that has dramatically increased its mil
itary expenditures is ______________. Colombia 6. According to most observers, S
outh America has been ______________ since at least the mid-1990 s. a Zone of Peac
e 7. What region of the world has been considered a Zone of Peace ? South America 8
. The primary role of the militaries of Chile and Brazil is that of ____________
__. defense 9. Which of the following statements is true? Argentina is able to p
articipate in many United Nations peacekeeping missions due to its large military
budget. 10. Which of the following statements is true? Brazil has expanded its
participation in peacekeeping missions, in part, as a way to justify its seeking
a permanent seat on the UN Security Council 11. The Latin American militaries g
enerally face a crisis over their role and missions due to ______________. lack
of external threats 12. In terms of the sale of weapons, Latin America is most i
nterested in buying ______________ from the United States and Europe. high techn
ology jet fighters 13. The United States ______________. All of the answers are
correct. 14. Brazil, which accounts for approximately half of the military expen
ditures in Latin America, is the only country in its region that has a military
capable of major expeditionary operations. False 15. The United States is especi
ally involved in ______________, assisting that government in its campaign again
st the insurgents. Colombia Paraguay Ecuador 16. The two South American countrie
s that have specialized in peacekeeping operations are ______________. Argentina
and Uruguay 17. Which of the following statements is true? The military is wide
ly respected in Chile. 18. Which of the following roles is not generally associa
ted with militaries in Latin America? Warfighter Great Middle East Section 1 1.
Which of the following statements is true? In a parliamentary democracy, the pol
itical party (or coalition of parties) with the greatest representation in the p
arliament (legislature) chooses the nation s leader. 2. Kashmir ______________. is
a continuing source of tension between India and Pakistan 3. The Organization o
f the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is made up of solely Middle Eastern n
ations. False 4. Which of the following is true concerning the Byzantine Empire?
Mostly Christian 5. Which of the following statements is true? Turkey is consid
ered the most Westernized state in its region. 6. When did the first waves of Jewi
sh settlers begin emigrating from Europe to the Middle East as part of the Zioni
st movement? The 1880 s After the First World War 7. Which of the following statem
ents is NOT true? Oil wealth spurred significant social reforms in Middle Easter
n nations. 8. Which of the following are the major groups of Islam? Sunni Islam,
Shia Islam 9. Which of the following is NOT a result of the collapse of the Sov
iet Union? Jewish emigration from the former Soviet Union to Israel slowed to a
trickle 10. Which of the following is NOT considered a chokepoint for the sea li
nes of communication in South West Asia? Strait of Gibraltar 11. India s collapsin
g economy has made it less of an important future trading partner of the United
States. False 12. Which was the first religious group to adopt monotheism, the b
elief in one god? Jews 13. Which of the following statements is NOT true? India
and Pakistan have recently shown greater willingness to resolve their difference
s bilaterally and peacefully. India s government is founded on religious law. 14.
Which of the following statements is true? The 1979 Islamic Revolution in Iran r
esulted in the deposing of the Shah, an ally of the United States. 15. Which of
the following statements is true? Britain, France, Italy, and Russia divided up
the Arab part of the Ottoman Empire after World War I. 16. The region around the
Tigris and Euphrates rivers in modern-day Iraq is also known as ______________.
Mesopotamia 17. Which of the following statements is true? A campaign of civil
disobedience and non-violent protest led to India gaining its independence from
the British. 18. Which of the following statements is true? Israel is not consid
ered to be a nuclear power. Israel and India are the most stable liberal democra
cies in the Southwest Asia region. The Soviet Union was a firm supporter of Isra
el during the Cold War. Section 2 1. Following the 1973 war against Israel, Syri
a and Egypt regained their control over the Golan Heights and Suez Canal. False
2. The Arab League and Palestinian institutions ______________. rejected the par
tition plan 3. The borders of modern Israel were finally established in which of
the following ways? After being invaded the Israelis established their own bord
ers in battle by pushing back the Armies of five Arab countries 4. The United St
ates government strongly supported the partition of Palestine. False 5. On Novem
ber 22, 1967, the UN issued Resolution 242 calling upon ______________. Israel t
o withdraw from territories occupied in the recent conflict 6. The Zionist under
ground Army called the Haganah was formed in the late 1930s in ______________. P
alestine 7. In 2003, Israeli Prime Minister Sharon announced that ______________
. Israeli forces would unilaterally withdraw from four Israeli settlements in Ga
za and from a small section of the northern West Bank 8. Before Jerusalem became
united under Jewish sovereignty on June 7th 1967, following the Six Day War, it
was controlled by the ______________. Jordanians 9. The movement of the Palesti
nian refugees into the West Bank, Jordan, and the Gaza Strip, in 1947-1948, was
a result of the ______________. All of the answers are correct. 10. The progress
of implementing the Oslo Accords was interrupted by the assassination of Israel
i Prime Minister Rabin by a Jewish extremist on November 4, 1995. True 11. The f
irst direct negotiations between Israelis and PLO took place in ______________.
Oslo, in 1992 12. The Israelis occupied the Golan Heights, Gaza, and the West Ba
nk following the ______________. Six Day War in 1967 13. The first country which
recognized Israel as an independent Jewish state on May 14, 1948, was _________
_____. the United States 14. Following the Camp David Accords ______________. Is
raeli withdrew from the Sinai 15. Within the frame of the Oslo Declaration, the
Israelis agreed to ______________. All of the answers are correct. 16. During th
e June 1967 Six Day War, Israel ______________. was attacked, counter-attacked,
and regained control of its borders occupied the Golan Heights, Gaza, and the We
st Bank carried out pre-emptive military strikes against Arab population centers
17. Reflecting the principle of Land for Peace, the Camp David Accords in 1978, p
rovided for ______________. None of the answers are correct. 18. What is the Bus
h administration s attitude toward the Security Barrier Israel is constructing on
the West Bank? It considers it an illegal structure (akin to the Berlin Wall) th
at is a barrier to a final peace settlement It acquiesced to construction of the
wall 19. In 1947, the UN General Assembly opted to partition Palestine into Jew
ish and Arab states with Jerusalem ______________. to become an International Zo
ne 20. Israel s Operation CAST LEAD (launched in December 2008) against Hamas resu
lted in a clear strategic victory and prevented both the terrorist organization'
s rocket attacks and rearming. FALSE Section 3 1. What was Operation EARNEST WIL
L? The U.S. escorting Kuwait s oil tankers through the Gulf from 1987 to 1988. 2.
The leading power in the Middle East after the World War II was ______________.
Great Britain 3. The Azerbaijan crisis demonstrated ______________. the importan
ce of the Persian Gulf and the Middle East as a potential battleground in the em
erging contest with the Soviet Union 4. In 1933, Standard Oil of California rece
ived a concession for oil exploration in Saudi Arabia, as ______________. Ibn Sa
ud mistrusted Britain and therefore, began to cultivate a relationship with the
United States 5. During the 1990 s ______________, became the United States Navy s b
usiest port of call in the world outside the continental United States. Dubai 6.
In 1956, U.S. President Eisenhower refused to back ______________. the seizure
of the Suez Canal by Britain, France and Israel Abdel Nasser s coup in Egypt 7. In
August of 1945, the Saudi s gave the United States permission to start building _
_____________. an Air base 8. May 1945, the Azerbaijan crisis ______________. Al
l of the answers are correct. 9. In October of 1956, after Egyptian president Ab
del Nasser nationalized the Suez Canal, ______________. Britain, France and Isra
el seized it in a joint military operation 10. During the 1990 s, the U.S. policy
goal in the Middle East and the Persian Gulf region was to ______________. All o
f the answers are correct. 11. The U.S.-led coalition enjoyed considerable suppo
rt in the Middle East for the liberation of Iraq from the oppressive regime of S
addam Hussein. False 12. With the eruption of the Iran-Iraq war in 1980, the Uni
ted States adopted its Gulf partners idea that included all of the below, except
the following ______________. Saddam s aggressive military intentions in the Gulf
region should be restrained by all means necessary 13. In 1948, the formation of
the State of Israel was a result of ______________. Britain abandoning the mand
ate in Palestine and retreating from the region 14. The main objective for U.S.
led Operation SOUTHERN WATCH was to ______________. enforce the southern no-fly
and no-drive zones in Iraq monitor the Kuwaiti border with Iraq patrol the air s
pace of Kuwait 15. The Baghdad pact created by Britain, Iraq, Turkey, Iran, and
Pakistan served as ______________. an economic commonwealth between these countr
ies a defense alliance against the Soviet Union a way to minimize U.S. influence
in the Middle East through political cooperation 16. In 1953, after a coup d Etat
backed by Britain and the United States, ______________. All of the answers are
correct. 17. In the 1950 s, the United States supported Saudi Arabia by _________
_____. All of the answers are correct. 18. What happened on board the USS Quincy
in the Great Bitter Lake in February, 1945? President Roosevelt met with the Sa
udi King to politically affirm the emerging U.S.-Saudi partnership Section 4 1.
The Muslim and Gregorian (Christian) calendar years match precisely. False 2. Is
lam is a ______________ faith. monotheistic (one god) 3. Members of the Islamic
faith ______________. All of the answers are correct. 4. The Qur an (the sacred bo
ok of Islam) frequently mentions ______________. Mary (the mother of Jesus) 5. T
he pilgrimage in the Islamic faith is also known as the ______________. hajj 6.
The hajj, or the pilgrimage to Mecca and Medina, is a journey every Muslim seeks
to make at least ______________ in a lifetime. three times once 7. Muslims beli
eve that God (known as Allah in Arabic) first revealed his last message to human
ity through the Prophet Muhammad in the year ______________. 610 AD 8. A crisis
in the succession of Islamic leadership resulted in a division of the community
of Muslims into the ______________ branches of Islam. Shi a and Sunni 9. All Arabs
are Muslim and all Muslims are Arabian. False 10. Islam recognizes the prophets
of Judaism, such as Abraham and Moses. True 11. ______________ or zakat is used
primarily to support the Muslim community through the building and upkeep of ho
spitals, mosques, and schools. Almsgiving 12. If they are able, Muslims are expe
cted to pray ______________ time(s) per day, especially at noon on Friday. one f
ive seven 13. The calendar year for Muslims consists of ______________ days. 360
354 14. The Muslim calendar starts with the year that ______________. the early
Muslim community fled from Mecca to Medina 15. Islam allows for only finely cra
fted physical representations of God or the Prophet Muhammad. False 16. In Islam
, women are the spiritual equals of men. True 17. Islamic law is called ________
______ law. Sharia 18. Select True or False: No Muslim is exempt from the fast d
uring the month of Ramadan. False Eurasia Section 1 1. Which of the following st
atements is NOT true? The decreasing capabilities of Russia s military has resulte
d in it losing its permanent membership on the UN Security Council in favor of C
hina. 2. ______________, ______________, and ______________ broke away from Russ
ia during the Russian Civil War and were able to maintain their independence unt
il the early years of World War II. Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania 3. At its peak, t
he holdings of the Ottoman Empire included ______________. Parts of North Afica,
parts of Asia, and nearly all territory that is today s spain. 4. Which of the fo
llowing statements is NOT true? Following the end of World War II, Adolf Hitler
was put on trial for war crimes by the victorious Allied Powers. 5. Mustafa Kema
l (Atatrk) ______________. established a democratic, secular form of government t
hat continues to form the political foundation of modern Turkey 6. Which of the
following statements is true? The Ottoman Empire maintained a neutral position t
hroughout the First World War. The Ottoman Empire was a close ally of Great Brit
ain during World War I. The end of World War I saw the final collapse of the Ott
oman Empire. 7. Many experts consider ______________ as the foundation of wester
n civilization. the various Greek city-states that began to rise in the 9th cent
ury BC 8. Yugoslavia ______________. came into existence in the years between th
e two World Wars 9. Which of the following statements is true? In a parliamentar
y democracy, the prime minister, premier, or chancellor, is chosen by the nation
al legislature. 10. Which of the following statements is true? Finland fought mu
ch of World War II on the side of Germany. 11. Which of the following statements
is true? The Soviet decision to prop up a pro-Soviet government in Afghanistan
during the Brezhnev years contributed to the decline of the Soviet economy. 12.
Which of the following statement is true? . Russian victories over German and Au
stro-Hungarian forces during World War I forced those two countries to sue for p
eace and strengthened the Russian Tsar s position as ruler of his country. The Rus
so-Japanese War (1904 1905) was the first 13. Russia s natural resources have given
it the ability to woe its former allies and satellites from pursuing closer rela
tionships with the West. True 14. Soviet casualties, both military and civilian,
during World War II ______________. included over 20 million deaths 15. Which o
f the following countries is not a member of NATO? Switzerland 16. Which of the
following statements is NOT true? The decreasing capabilities of Russia s military
has resulted in it losing its permanent membership on the UN Security Council i
n favor of China. 17. Which of the following statements is true? Russia became a
major European power during the reign of Peter the Great in the latter part of
the 17th century. 18. One of the earliest significant civilizations to inhabit W
estern Europe was the Carthaginians who arrived in the region from _____________
_. north Africa 19. During the 1991 Gulf War, few Eurasian nations participated
in the American-led coalition forces that ended the Iraqi occupation of Kuwait.
False 20. During most of the First World War, the Central Powers included which
nations? Germany, Austria-Hungary, and the Ottoman Empire 21. Which of the follo
wing statements is true? Roman Catholics comprise the largest religious group in
Turkey. The vast majority of Turkish territory is in Asia, with only a small po
rtion located in Europe. 22. Russia is the world s second largest oil exporter. Tr
ue 23. The European Union ______________. is the largest economy in the world 24
. The Peace of Westphalia is significant because it ______________. has been cre
dited with the establishment of the modern nation-state system resulted in the e
xile of Napoleon Bonaparte and thus ended the Napoleonic Wars 25. Which of the f
ollowing statements is true? The Soviet decision to prop up a pro-Soviet governm
ent in Afghanistan during the Brezhnev years contributed to the decline of the S
oviet economy. 26. Which of the following statements is true? The end of World W
ar I saw the final collapse of the Ottoman Empire. as split up into five separat
e states by the Soviets after World War II 27. When did the creation of a single
German state occur? After the Napoleonic Wars 28. The Eastern Roman Empire, cen
tered in Constantinople (modern day Istanbul) is also known as the Byzantine Emp
ire 27. Section 2 1. ______________ provides the European Union (EU) with a poli
ce and peacekeeping capability. Eurocorps 2. European leaders believed that to h
ead off another world war, the politics and economies of ______________ needed c
loser alignment. France and Germany 3. In the near future, competition between t
he European Union (EU) and the U.S. will likely center on ______________. econom
ic strength and geopolitical ambitions 4. A precursor to the formation of the Eu
ropean Union (EU) was the establishment of the ______________. European Coal and
Steel Community (ECSC) 5. The European Union (EU) faces internal challenges due
to ______________. None of the answers are correct. 6. The capitals of the Euro
pean Union (EU) are located in ______________. Brussels (Belgium) and Strasbourg
(France) 7. The origins of the European Union (EU) can be traced to ___________
___. an economic agreement among six nations 8. High on the agenda of the Europe
an Union (EU) goals are ______________. All of the answers are correct. 9. The E
uropean Union (EU) has many of the attributes associated with independent nation
s, including: All of the answers are correct. 10. The harmonization of European
border policy occurred as a result of the signing of the Treaty of _____________
_ in 1997. Amsterdam 11. The European Union (EU) and the U.S. share interests in
______________. All of the answers are correct. 12. The European Union (EU) is
a construct very similar to the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) a
nd the North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA). False Africa Section 1 1. Co
nflict arises along various fault lines which run through African societies. The
se fault lines include the following, EXCEPT: Desert vs. tropical economies 2. B
etween 1956 and 2001: There were over 185 coups d etat throughout Africa. 3. In ge
neral, African countries ______________. have two or more official languages one i
ndigenous and the other Arabic or European 4. The size of Africa is approximatel
y ______________. three times the size of the United States 5. Indigenous Africa
n peoples do NOT include the ______________. Ottomans 6. Which is the best descr
iption regarding the East Africa Region? Rwanda has just emerged from a time of
widespread ethnic violence. 7. Muslim domination of North Africa arose from: Ara
b immigration along trade routes between Arabia and sub-Saharan empires 8. Which
statement is NOT true regarding the Horn of Africa? Christian dominance prevent
s spread of Islamic extremism despite unstable, corrupt governments. 9. Which of
the following was NOT a factor hampering the formation of stable African govern
ments following colonial rule? The lack of natural resources. 10. The following
are NOT challenges affecting African governments: Scarcity of natural resources
and available labor pool 11. The U.S. national interest in West Africa is focuse
d on: Nigerian oil 12. Africa comprises ______________. 46 continental nations a
nd 7 island nations 13. The Central African Region is important to U.S. national
interests, because: It has rich natural resources, including oil, copper and po
tential for hydroelectric power. 14. Most of today s African nations became indepe
ndent ______________. during the 1950 s and 1960 s 15. Which is NOT true regarding N
orthern Africa? Islamic fundamentalism is concentrated in this region of Africa,
making it the primary source of worldwide jihad. 16. The following climates can
 be found in Africa: Desert, rain forest, savanna, and subarctic 17. Which is NO
T true regarding Somalia? The United States withdrew troops from Somalia after O
peration UNITED SHIELD successfully captured warlord Mohamed Siad Barre. 18. An
estimated ______________ of Africans suffer from malnutrition. one-third 19. The
U.S. population is approximately 300 million; African population was __________
____ by 2020. 922 million in 2005 and expected to reach 1.27 billion The U.S. na
tional interest in West Africa is focused on: Nigerian oil Section 2 1. Select T
rue or False: Classical ancient African religions include beliefs that state the
re are many gods, but one god rules over them all. True 2. ______________ has it
s roots in Africa, as demonstrated by Moses flight from Egypt. Judaism 3. _______
_______ is a form of individual or collective struggle to refocus or empower Mus
lim communities. Jihad 4. Select True or False: A strong correlation exists betw
een a type of religion and the quality of governance within an African country.
False 5. Which continent has links to some of the world s earliest religions? Euro
pe Africa South America 6. ______________ is often used as a tool of mobilizatio
n to achieve political or military ends. Religion 7. Select True or False: Where
religion revival can be found in Africa, most interactions among faiths are rif
e with conflict. False 8. In modern times, ______________ in Africa is increasin
gly becoming an instrument of social mobilization. religion 9. The majority of A
frican Muslims consider themselves ______________. Sunni 10. Which continent has
links to some of the world s earliest religions? Africa 11. In Africa, __________
____ was perceived as a protector of the much-persecuted Christians. Islam 12. S
elect True or False: Shi a Islam is banned on the continent of Africa by the Afric
an Union (AU). False 13. The majority of Africans follow ______________ Islam. S
unni 14. One of the most significant impacts of Christianity of Africans was imp
rovements to ______________. health and education infrastructure 15. ___________
___ can be defined as a faith system of supernatural belief that is not testable
with empirical methods. Religion 16. ______________ is one of many African fait
hs calling for the worshipping of more than one god. Animism 17. Select True or
False: It can be said that one of the main functions of religion is to explain t
he natural world. False 18. Select True or False: Early Christianity is rooted i
n the central part of Africa. False 19. Select True or False: It can be said tha
t one of the main functions of religion is to exercise social control. True Sect
ion 3 1. Most of Africa emerged from colonial rule during the ______________. 19
60 s 2. Addressing ______________ is the most constructive way to resolve the sour
ces of conflict in Africa. pre-conflict circumstances organized crime 3. Select
True or False: Internet cafes are becoming commonplace in even the smallest vill
ages in Africa. True 4. The use of ______________ degrades the economies of the
entire African continent by depriving its nations of legitimate revenue. child l
abor 5. ______________ is a form of government that is on the rise in Africa. Mu
ltiparty democracy 6. ______________ is one of the root causes of armed conflict
in Africa. Environmental degradation 7. Select True or False: The motive for mo
st African conflicts is purely military. False 8. ______________ can be used to
promote increased capacity among African nations for peacekeeping and stability
operations. All of the answers are correct. 9. ______________ is/are linking Afr
icans together in ways that were unimaginable only a few years ago. All of the a
nswers are correct. 10. Africa s economic development must keep pace with its ____
__________ or its economy will stagnate and decline. population growth 11. The l
argest number of African deaths each year is caused by ______________. disease a
nd famine 12. Select True or False: The elites in Africa, that assumed power whe
n European colonial nations departed, greatly improved the process of the peacef
ul transfer of power between successive governments. False 13. Coordination of _
_____________ are essential for the continued development of African nations. ag
riculture, health, and food delivery systems 14. Many of the security issues in
Africa can be traced to ______________. the challenges many Africans face in sup
porting themselves 15. Select True or False: Africa has made the most of its vas
t hydroelectric power potential. False 16. Risks to Africa s internal security cou
ld be reduced through ______________. the availability of regular and adequate e
mployment 17. ______________ is an ideal source for funding insurgencies in Afri
ca and contribute greatly to instability on the continent. All of the answers ar
e correct. 18. Select True or False: Unpopular governments in Africa have found
their positions strengthened by the availability of mass communication. False 19
. Select True or False: Strong evidence exists to support the notion that the su
spension of civil rights has brought peace and stability to wide areas of Africa
. False Asia Pacific Section 1 1. ______________ has the largest economy in term
s of gross domestic product (GDP) in Asia Pacific. Japan 2. America s number two t
rading partner is ______________. China 3. The population of Asian cities is gro
wing at a rate of ______________ the overall population. twice 4. Approximately
90 percent of the world s Hindus live in ______________. India and Nepal 5. The co
mbined oceans of Asia Pacific cover nearly ______________ of the earth s surface.
one-half 6. ______________ is the official language of the Association of Southe
ast Asian Nations (ASEAN). English 7. In which country is Christianity the major
ity religion? Philippines 8. In many Asian countries, the majority of the popula
tion ______________. All of the answers are correct. 9. The combined population
of India and China account for ______________ percent of the world s people. 40 10
. The most strategically important waterway in the Asia Pacific region is the __
____________. Strait of Malacca 11. ______________ (or one of its variants) is t
he most common language of Asia Pacific. Chinese 12. Asia Pacific contains nearl
y ______________ percent of the world s population. 60 13. The largest Muslim popu
lation in the world can be found in ______________. Indonesia 14. Which of the f
ollowing nations is not considered a possessor of nuclear weapons? Japan 15. The
width of Asia Pacific spans ______________ time zones. 16 16. Which of the foll
owing modern nations was not a part of French Indochina? Thailand 17. Which of t
he following nations is not a Communist nation? Burma Section 2 1. Pakistan cont
rolled Kashmir is known as: Azad Kashmir 2. Select True or False: After the part
ition of British India until present, there have been no major clashes between M
uslims, Hindus and Sikhs. False 3. Under the partition plan, colonial India s mili
tary assets ______________. were to be divided between India and Pakistan in a 6
0:40 ratio 4. Select True or False: India and Pakistan, agreed to distribute equ
ally all assets of Colonial India, including the military assets. False 5. Why d
id Muslim leaders of colonial India seek the establishment of an independent sta
te of their own? Muslim leaders felt that in a Hindu-majority, post-independent
India, Muslims minorities would be denied full rights. 6. The Mohajirs were ____
__________. The Muslims who left India for Pakistan and were treated as outsider
s The Sikhs who fled Pakistan into India and were treated as outsiders 7. ______
________ presided over the partitioning of British India which ended colonial ru
le in India. British Lord Mountbatten 8. Kashmir is a mountainous region known f
or it s ______________. Climate, beauty, and natural environment 9. ______________
pushed hard for the partition of British India into one country populated mostl
y by Muslims and one country populated mostly by non-Muslims. A colation of infl
uential Sihk and Hindu leaders The Muslim League Mohandas Gandhi 10. The partiti
on of South Asia was driven by ______________. South Asian Sihks fear of being un
derrepresented South Asian Muslims fear of being underrepresented British desire
to maintain influence in the region 11. The First Kashmir War (January 1948-Janu
ary 1, 1949), between Pakistan and India, ended as a result of ______________. T
he United Nations resolution to cease all hostilities 12. Sectarian violence in
Pakistan is basically between ______________. Shia and Sunni Muslims 13. Today,
as a result of the partition of British India, there are three sovereign countri
es ______________. Pakistan, Bangladesh and India 14. The India-Pakistan conflic
t is based upon ______________ issues. All of the answers are correct. 15. The r
iots in Calcutta on August 16, 1946, also known as Direct Action day, were provoke
d by ______________. Muslims who were pushing hard for the partition of British
India into two nations 16. Sectarian violence in Pakistan is basically between _
_____________. Shia and Sunni Muslims Sunni and Ahmedia Muslims Muslims and Chri
stians 17. The Northwestern Frontier Province is an unsettled boundary dispute b
etween ______________. Pakistan and Afghanistan 18. The Line of Control in Kashm
ir (under the Simla Agreement July, 1972) between Pakistan and India All the ans
wers are correct Section 3 1. In the 1960 s the Chinese-Soviet relationship ______
________. turned into outright hostility 2. The Sino-Soviet split ______________
. grew out of diverging strategic interests over Krushchev s policy of "peaceful c
oexistence" with the West 3. Deng Xiaoping s reforms ______________. legitimized p
rivate sector in the economy and opened China to foreign investment and trade 4.
The main purpose of the Cultural Revolution was to ______________. reassert Mao s
power and his supreme authority in the country 5. China adopted a defense postu
re of the people s war in the 1960 s because ______________. it s huge population and te
rritory were its best assets for resisting foreign attack at the time 6. The pri
mary beneficiary of the Cultural Revolution ______________. was the People s Liber
ation Army 7. The struggle for power among the leadership of the PRC in the earl
y 1970 s was between ______________. moderate leaders and Cultural Revolution radi
cals within the CCP 8. President Nixon went to China because ______________. he
thought relations with Beijing would be useful against the USSR and in Vietnam 9
. China s break from the USSR meant that ______________. All of the answers are co
rrect. 10. By the end of the 1960 s, China continued to regard the U.S. as its mai
n adversary. False 11. In the 1960 s the military strategy of the PLA of China mai
nly relied on below mentioned factors, except ______________. China s technologica
l superiority 12. The Tiananmen demonstrations ______________. All of the answer
s are correct. 13. Deng Xiaoping s reforms stressed ______________. the expending
the role of international trade and investment in China s development 14. In the 1
950 and 60 s, the U.S. policy of containing China included ______________. All of th
e answers are correct. 15. China s transformation into an emerging world power was
the result of ______________. Deng Xiaoping s reform policies the huge loans rece
ived from the IMF Mao s successfully launched Cultural Revolution in 1966 16. Unde
r the leadership of Deng Xiaoping, China normalized relations with _____________
_. All of the answers are correct. 17. At the end of the 1950 s and in the beginni
ng of 1960 s, the hallmark of Chinese policies was ______________. to promote self
-reliance 18. In 1978, China normalized relations with ______________. Japan 19.
The main reason for serious disagreements between Moscow and Beijing in the ear
ly 1960 s was ______________. All of the answers are correct. 20. By the end of th
e 1960 s, China continued to regard the U.S. as its main adversary. False 21. Mao
launched the Cultural Revolution in the late 1960 s ______________. All of the ans
wers are correct. 22. Why is China increasingly important today? China s economic,
political, and military power is rising 23. In the 1960 s, China pursued policies
of self-reliance because ______________. None of the the answers are correct. in
the face of an American economic embargo and Soviet pressure, it had no other ch
oice 24. The "three bitter years" were recalled by the Chinese government after
the failure of ______________ policy. the Great Leap Forward 25. Select True or
False: After Washington broke diplomatic relations with Taiwan, Beijing continue
d to strongly object to the fact the U.S. still maintained a non-official relati
onship with the ROC. FALSE Operational Planning Section 1 1. An Operation Order
(OPORD) is ______________. a directive to subordinate commanders for the purpose
of effecting the coordinating execution of an operation 2. Which of the followi
ng is correct? In the Crisis Action Planning process, an Alert Order is generall
y issued after the President or Secretary of Defense approves a military course
of action. 3. Contingency planning focuses on ______________. potential or antic
ipated emergencies that would likely involve U.S. military forces 4. Which of th
e following is correct? A commander may be a supporting commander for one operat
ion while being a supported commander for another. 5. The subsets of Joint Opera
tion Planning are ______________. contingency planning and crisis action plannin
g contingency planning, crisis action planning and combat action planning 6. Sec
urity Cooperation Planning deals with ______________. bilateral and multilateral
defense activities conducted with foreign countries assisting foreign counties
in providing for their own national security 7. A concept plan (CONPLAN) _______
_______. is an abbreviated Operation Plan (OPLAN) that would require considerabl
e expansion or alteration to convert it into an OPLAN 8. Security Cooperation Pl
anning goals are identified by the ______________. Secretary of Defense 9. Which
of the following may be tasked to produce supporting plans by a combatant comma
nder? All the answers are correct. 10. A(n) ______________ provides essential pl
anning guidance and directs the initiation of execution planning after the Presi
dent or Secretary of Defense approves a military course of action. Alert Order 1
1. A Marine Expeditionary Unit (MEU) commanded by a Marine Colonel is given the
objective of securing a inland airbase. In order to divert enemy forces, two Car
rier Strike Groups commanded by a Navy Rear Admiral are assigned to execute air
strikes as required by the MEU. The MEU commander sends the Admiral copies of hi
s plans and a list of targets he needs to be attacked prior to his assault on th
e airbase. Which is most likely the supported commander for this operation? The
Colonel commanding the MEU. 12. Combatant commanders prepare their theater strat
egies and plans based on the guidance and directions given by the ______________
. President, Secretary of Defense and the Chairman of the Joints Chief of Staff
13. At the national strategic level, force planning is associated with _________
_____. creating and maintaining military capabilities 14. The purpose of Joint O
peration Planning is to ______________. prepare and employ American military pow
er in response to actual and potential contingencies 15. Security Cooperation Pl
anning goals are identified by the ______________. Secretary of Defense 16. When
the President or Secretary of Defense makes the decision to take military actio
n related to a crisis, the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff will issue a(n)
______________ to implement the approved military course of action. Execute Ord
er 17. Joint strategic planning ______________. All the answers are correct 18.
The subsets of joint strategic planning are ______________. 19. Who is responsib
le for the development and production of joint operation plans? The Combatant Co
mmanders Section 2 1. Gathering information of potential intelligence value from
sources such as newspapers, television broadcasts and the internet is a part of
which intelligence discipline? Open-source Intelligence 2. Which of the followi
ng could result from the failure to accurately evaluate the adversary? All of th
e answers are correct. 3. The battlespace environment is best described as _____
________________. the geographic dimensions of land, air, sea, and space that en
compass the operations area and the nonphysical dimensions that may extend well
beyond the designated operational area 4. The primary focus of naval intelligenc
e is ________________. to provide tactical support to operating forces 5. Which
of the following best describes Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB
) applicability within the range of military operations? The basic IPB process r
emains the same across the range of military operations. 6. What process is used
to analyze the air, land, sea, space, weather, electromagnetic, and information
environments as well as other dimensions of the battlespace, and to determine a
n adversary s capabilities to operate in each? Intelligence Preparation of the Bat
tlespace 7. Who, on the Commander s staff, has the primary responsibility for plan
ning, coordinating and conducting the overall Intelligence Preparation of the Ba
ttlespace (IPB) analysis and production effort? The N-2/J-2 (Intelligence) 8. Wh
ich of the following statements is true as it describes the focus of the Intelli
gence Preparation of the Battlespace in reference to conventional and asymmetric
operations? The steps remain the same but the focus is slightly different. 9. T
he Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) process is applicable to as
ymmetric operations. True 10. The primary purpose of the Intelligence Preparatio
n of the Battlespace (IPB) is to ____________________. support the commander s pla
nning and decision making by identifying, assessing and estimating the adversary
11. In which step of the Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) proc
ess are overlays depicting the geography of the area of responsibility produced?
Describe the Battlespace s Effects. 12. Determining the intention of allies and p
otential coalition partners is a focus of intellegence at what level of war? Str
ategic level 13. The geographic and non-geographic dimensions of the battlespace
are both contained within the Commander s designated operating area. False 14. Th
e Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) is conducted exclusively pri
or to an operation to support the commander s planning effort. False 15. An effect
ive method for evaluating adversary capabilities is to review them in light of U
.S. doctrine. False 16. Which statement does NOT reflect Intelligence Preparatio
n of the Battlespace (IPB) focus? Highlights the COA the enemy will pursue 17. W
hich step of the IPB process provides a disciplined method for analyzing the set
of potential adversary Courses of Action in order to identify the most likely a
nd the most dangerous COAs? Determine Adversary Courses of Action. 18. The battl
espace environment is best described as _____________________. the nonphysical d
imensions that may extend well beyond the designated operational area the geogra
phic dimensions of land, air, sea, and space that encompass the operations area
and the dimensions that may extend well beyond the designated operational area t
he geographic dimensions of land, air, sea, and space that encompass the operati
ons area nonphysical 19. What is the primary difference between Intelligence Pre
paration of the Battlespace (IPB) for conventional war vice for Military Operati
ons Other Than War (MOOTW)? The focus The number of steps 20. Which step of the
IPB process seeks to go beyond the battlespace awareness in order to help the JF
C attain battlespace knowledge? Determine adversary potential COAs. 21. Which of
the following could result from the failure to accurately evaluate the adversar
y? All of the answers are correct. Surprise caused by an unexpected adversary ca
pability. Mission failure. Section 3 1. The Navy Planning Process is a rigid ste
p-by-step process that, if followed, will lead the staff to a decision. False 2.
What will the staff normally use in comparing friendly Courses of Action and to
aid in focusing on the advantages and disadvantages of each COA? Governing fact
ors 3. A friendly Course of Action ____________________. is any concept of opera
tion open to a commander that, if adopted, would result in the accomplishment of
the mission 4. ____________________ is a written or oral communication that dir
ects actions and focuses a subordinate s tasks and activities toward mission accom
plishment. An order 5. The Navy Planning Process is conducted at what level (s)
of command? All of the answers are correct. 6. The Course of Action selected dur
ing the NPP is the basis for what? the development of plans and the issuing of c
ombat orders. 7. Which statement best states what a good Course of Action provid
es to the operation? It will position the force for future operations. All of th
e answers are correct. 8. Tasks listed in the mission received from higher headq
uarters are what type of tasks? Specified tasks 9. Which statement is correct wh
en discussing the Navy Planning Process? A logical decision process that helps f
ocus the commander and staff 10. During the comparison of the friendly Courses o
f Action step in the Navy planning Process, what does comparing the strengths an
d weaknesses of the Courses of Action provide? It aids in identifying respective
COA advantages and disadvantages. 11. Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) are
a type of implied task. False 12. Like the Navy Planning Process, the process fo
r deliberate and crisis planning is left up to the combatant commander. False 13
. What is prepared in anticipation of operations and normally serves as the basi
s of a future order? A plan 14. The Intelligence of the Battlespace process assi
sts in identifying facts and assumptions about ____________________ and ________
____________. the battlespace environment; the adversary 15. Within the Navy Pla
nning Process, at what point would the commander determine potential adversary C
ourses of Action? During the JIPB process 16. During wargaming, the staff ______
______________. compares each friendly COA with each adversary COA compares the
most likely adversary COA with the most favorable friendly COA compares the most
dangerous adversary COA with the riskiest friendly COA 17. The wargaming proces
s relies heavily on ____________________. a solid joint doctrinal foundation, ta
ctical judgment, and operational experience an inflexible process that ensures c
omplete adherence to joint doctrine completely objective gaming criteria Operati
onal Law International airspace begins ______________ nautical miles from a nati
on s low waterline. - 12 Under the ROE, the principle of ______________ means that
commanders may resort to the use of force only when all other means to avert a
threat are exhausted. - Necessity _____ is the threat of imminent use of force a
gainst the U.S., its forces, and in certain circumstances, its citizens and prop
erty - Hostile intent The standing rules for the use of force dictate that whene
ver force is used, _______ will be applied to determine the proper level of forc
e - Necessity and proportionality The ____ zone is a zone in which the costal na
tion may exercise jurisdiction and control over the exploration, exploitation, m
anagement, and conservation of any resources locate in those waters - Exclusive
economic Which statement is NOT true about the rules of engagement (ROE)? - ROE
are highly subjective, and can be interpreted differently by different unit comm
anders The law of the sea framework provides two questions for you to answer pri
or to entering certain water/airspace: What regime controls the seas or airspace
I am about to enter? Based on that answer, the other question would be, _______
______________? - What is U.S. policy toward the regime Which of the following i
s NOT a source of the law of armed conflict? - Oslo Accords 1. Which of the foll
owing statements is true? The U.S. is both a coastal state and a maritime state.
2. Which of the following statements is true? Permission from higher authority
may be required to enter a specific body of water. 3. National waters are subjec
t to the territorial sovereignty of coastal nations and include which of the fol
lowing? All of the answers are correct. 4. Innocent passage is a right of all sh
ips to transit through territorial seas and _______________________. Coastal nat
ions may use force in some circumstances to remove ships which are demonstrating
non-innocent behavior. 5. A party transiting an international strait must do wh
ich of the following?. All of the answers are correct. 6. Which of the following
statements is true regarding the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)?
It attempts to create a new legal order for ocean space. 7. International waters
include which of the following? Select all the correct answers. Territorial sea
s. Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs). 8. Regarding the collision of a U.S. EP-3 an
d a Chinese fighter on 01 April 2001, which of the following is/are true? All of
the answers are correct. 9. UNCLOS includes two major parts which are _________
___. Coastal nation and navigation/overflight rights & deep seabed mining provis
ions. 10. References regarding the law of the sea include which of the following
? All of the answers are correct 11. Basic maritime zones are drawn from baselin
es which may include which of the following? All of the answers are correct. 12.
Beyond the outer boundary of the Exclusive Economic Zone begin the high seas, w
hich _______________. All of the answers are correct. 13. According to UNCLOS, t
erritorial seas extend to a maximum breadth of 12 nautical miles and may be temp
orarily closed (with the exception of international straits) by a coastal nation
for security purposes. True 14. Which of the following is true of Air Defense I
dentification Zones (ADIZs)? They apply to all aircraft. Law of Armed Conflict S
ection 1 15. During UNCLOS negotiations, what was the most important issue for t
he United States Navy? Transit of international straits. 16. Why does the law of
the sea and airspace matter? All of the answers are correct. 17. Where a nation h
as drawn straight baselines that do not conform with the coastline according to
U.S. policy (as in the case of Iran), U.S. military ships can do which of the fo
llowing? They can enter the area representing an excessive claim with the permis
sion of higher authority. 1. Given that it has been determined that the Al-Qaeda
and Taliban members captured in Afghanistan should be classified as unlawful co
mbatants, which of the following statements is true? The U.S. is not required to
afford these people the same treatment afforded POWs under the Geneva Conventio
ns, but will do so as a matter of U.S. domestic policy. 2. Which statement is tr
ue? The United States has unilaterally decided to apply the Law of Armed Conflic
t (LOAC) to all of its military operations. 3. U.S. domestic policy broadens the
circumstances under which we apply the Law of Armed Conflict. True 4. Which of
the following will make the statement not true? The terms of treaties concerning
the conduct of forces during armed conflict, such as the Geneva and Hague Conve
ntions, ____________. in some cases, have been narrowed by U.S. domestic policy
as they pertain to U.S. military personnel 5. The applicability and scope of the
Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) is guided by the generally accepted terms of inter
national law. True 6. Law of Armed Conflict is a more accurate phrase than Law o
f War ____________________. as Law of Armed Conflict conveys the message that so
me or all of the law will apply in all types of military operations 7. The Genev
a Conventions of 1949, which govern many aspects of military operations, are sim
ilar to the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC), in that they apply to all nations. Fal
se 8. U.S. policy views much of the language of the Geneva Conventions as a mini
mum concerning the conduct of hostilities and the care of victims of armed confl
ict. True 9. The Department of Defense, Combatant Commanders and the Navy have i
ssued directives that state that the armed forces of the United States will, unl
ess otherwise directed by competent authorities, comply with the principles and
spirit of the Law of Armed Conflict during armed conflict but not during operati
ons that do not involve armed conflict. False 10. U.S. policy views the terms of
the Geneva Conventions as ____________________. a minimum standard 11. The Law
of Armed Conflict (LOAC) is ____________________. a generally accepted body of i
nternational law 12. The Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) applies to _______________
_____. the militaries of all nations 13. Current U.S. policy concerning the appl
icability and scope of the Law of Armed Conflict is consistent with at least the
minimum standards of international law. True 14. The United States policy is to
broadly apply the LOAC when conducting military operations so that it may more e
asily punish its enemies after the cessation of hostilities. False 15. When a me
mber of the United Nations Security Council is engaged in a military action purs
uant to a United Nations Security Council resolution, it is automatically exempt
ed from its Law of Armed Conflict obligations. False 16. It is advantageous for
a nation to become a signatory to the Geneva Conventions as not doing so will de
ny its military personnel the treatments required under that treaty should they
be captured by the forces of a signatory nation. False 17. If a signatory nation
to the Geneva Convention is engaged in armed conflict with a non-signatory nati
on ____________________. the LOAC is applicable to both nations, while the terms
of the Geneva Convention bind only the signatory nation Section 2 1. A combatan
t who commits a war crime loses his status as a combatant, but is still afforded
POW status and treatment if captured by the enemy even if found guilty of the c
rime. False 2. The wearing and use of camouflage by combatants is prohibited by
LOAC because doing so would violate the wearing of a fixed emblem recognizable at
a distance part of the test to determine combatant status. False 3. A civilian t
hat directly participates in hostile actions ____________________. is classified
as a unlawful combatant 4. The principles that have guided the development of L
OAC are ____________________. distinction, necessity, proportionality and humani
ty 5. Only members of a nation s regular military can be classified as combatants
under LOAC. False 6. Journalists that are embedded within military units engaged
in armed conflict ____________________. may not be targeted, but are to be affo
rded POW status if captured 7. Military medical officers, if captured __________
__________. are not considered prisoners of war, but may be retained in prisoner
of war camps to provide medical services to POWs 8. Violations of the Law of Ar
med Conflict (LOAC) are violations of U.S. law and punishable under the Uniform
Code of Military Justice. Only true if the violations are against citizens of a
signatory to the Geneva Conventions True False 9. If a subordinate commits a war
crime, his or her superior ____________________. can be held accountable if the
superior reasonably should have known that a war crime was committed and failed
to intervene or hold the subordinate accountable 10. A nation has a duty under
LOAC to remove civilians and civilian objects from the vicinity of military obje
ctives. True 11. Civilians in the battlespace are classified as ________________
____. civilians 12. Because every weapon system acquired and deployed by the U.S
. military undergoes a review to ensure its legality under LOAC, there is no nee
d for a service member to worry that its use would violate LOAC. False 13. In at
tacking a legitimate military objective, ____________________. incidental conseq
uences must not be excessive when balanced against the anticipated concrete and
direct military advantage to be gained from the attack the use of a weapon that
will knowingly cause incidental consequences is prohibited under LOAC the use of
any weapon which will destroy that target is allowable under LOAC 14. Legitimat
e military objectives may include ____________________. All of the answers are c
orrect. 15. A civilian airport may be classified as a legitimate military object
ive if ____________________. it is currently being used by the enemy to launch a
nd recover military aircraft 16. Once a civilian object has been occupied and mi
sused by the enemy s forces during an armed engagement, ____________________. whil
e a legitimate military object at the time of occupation and misuse, its status
must be continually verified to ensure it does not return to civilian object sta
tus 17. Feigning surrender in order to determine the location of enemy ground fo
rces is an acceptable tactic. False. Such tactics are considered perfidy and are
considered war crimes. Rules of Engagement Section 1 1. U.S. Rules of Engagemen
t (ROE) are ____________________ issued by ____________________. directives, com
petent military authority 2. Political leaders generally want to ensure the Rule
s of Engagement (ROE) for any given mission protect U.S. nationals and their pro
perty. True 3. The political component of Rules of Engagement seeks to _________
. All of the answers are correct. 4. Developers of U.S. Rules of Engagement (ROE
) must ensure that the ROE comply with domestic law. True 5. Well developed Rule
s of Engagement need not to be developed in light of the nation s political goals.
False 6. German military analyst Carl von Clausewitz theorized that ___________
_________. war is a continuation of political intercourse 7. Rule of Engagement
(ROE) only delineate the circumstances and limitations under which U.S. forces w
ill continue combat engagement as only the nation s civilian leaders may initiate
a combat engagement. False 8. U.S. civilian leaders are not involved in the deve
lopment of Rules of Engagement (ROE) other than approving the ROE as presented t
o them by the military establishment. False 9. U.S. policy is that during milita
ry operations short of armed conflict, U.S. forces ____________________. shall a
pply the spirit and intent of LOAC 10. Judge advocates are ____________________.
used to assist in Rules of Engagement (ROE) training for the forces that will e
xecute the mission and to assist planners and operators as they develop or reque
st mission specific Rules of Engagement (ROE) 11. Rules of Engagement (ROE) must
allow operational planners and tactical level operators enough leeway to effect
ively accomplish their assigned missions. True 12. The Rules of Engagement (ROE)
for any given mission must ____________________. allow forces the ability to de
fend themselves and accomplish the mission 13. The three major components of Rul
es of Engagement (ROE) are ____________________. political, military and legal 1
4. Judge advocates are involved in the Rules of Engagement (ROE) development in
order to ____________________. All of the answers are correct. 15. Domestic and
international public support of a military action is a factor to be considered w
hen developing Rules of Engagement (ROE). True 16. Well developed and succinct R
ules of Engagement (ROE) should clarify what degree of force may be used based o
n ____________________. the mission, threat level and political goals. Section 2
1. U.S. Rules of Engagement are considered permissive because they ____________
________. provide commanders with the flexibility to act quickly and decisively
without repetitively requesting permission to take certain actions 2. The goals
of U.S. national security policy include maintaining a stable international envi
ronment consistent with U.S. national interests. True 3. The Rules for the Use o
f Force (RUF) are only applicable to U.S. forces operating within the territoria
l jurisdiction of the U.S. False 4. The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE)
do not include the destruction of a hostile force under actions permitted in se
lf-defense. False 5. In its guidance concerning self-defense measures, the U.S.
Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) ____________________. permit the pursuit of
a hostile force if the force remains an imminent threat 6. The U.S. Standing Rul
es of Engagement (SROE) apply to U.S. forces operating within the United States
when supporting law enforcement authorities conducting counterdrug operations ag
ainst foreign nationals. False 7. The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) d
o not require proportionality in the use of force in self-defense as to do so wo
uld restrict a commander's inherent right and obligation of self-defense. False
8. The Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) do not apply to U.S. forces supporting l
aw enforcement agencies conducting special event security within the U.S. if the
suspected threat is a terrorist group based in a foreign country. False 9. A co
mmander has an obligation to use all necessary means available and to take all a
ppropriate actions in defense of ____________________. the commander's own unit
and other U.S. forces in the vicinity other allied forces in the vicinity 10. Wh
en U.S. forces are operating in Puerto Rico, they are governed by ______________
______. the Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) as Puerto Rico is within the territ
orial jurisdiction of the U.S. and the U.S. Standard Rules of Engagement (SROE)
if responding to a military attack 11. The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SR
OE) apply to U.S. forces during military attacks against the United States. True
12. The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) apply to all U.S. forces durin
g military operations ____________________. occurring outside the territorial ju
risdiction of the U.S. 13. The classified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of
Engagement (SROE) is organized ____________________to facilitate quick reference
during crisis or deliberate planning. by authorization level 14. The unclassifi
ed portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) can serve as a coordi
nation tool with U.S. allies for the development of combined or multinational RO
E. True 15. The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) ____________________. a
re divided into three portions: 1) an unclassified portion discussing the use of
 force in self-defense; 2) a classified portion discussing the use of force for
mission accomplishment; and 3) a classified portion discussing the use of force
within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States 16. U.S. national secur
ity interests guide global objectives of deterring, and, if necessary, defeating
armed attacks or terrorist actions against designated non-U.S. forces. True und
er certain circumstances 17. Supplemental measures are contained in which sectio
n of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE)? The classified section 18. Th
e U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) is promulgated by the _______________
_____. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff Section 3 1. Impeding U.S. forces f
rom the recovery of U.S. personnel and vital U.S. government property can be con
sidered a hostile act. True 2. Hostile intent is defined as the threat of instan
taneous or immediate use of force against the U.S., U.S. forces, and in certain
circumstances, others. False 3. The authority to extend U.S. protection to non-U
.S. forces and foreign nations may be exercised only by ____________________. th
e President or the Secretary of Defense 4. Individual self-defense allows one to
use force to defend oneself and U.S. forces in one s vicinity from a hostile act
or demonstrated hostile intent. True, but an individual s right to defend oneself
may be constrained by direction from the appropriate commander. 5. The use of an
attack to disable or destroy a threatening force ____________________. is autho
rized when such action is the only prudent means by which a hostile act or demon
stration of hostile intent can be prevented or terminated 6. When involved in a
situation that authorizes the use of force in self-defense, the commander ______
______________. should give the threatening force a warning and give it the oppo
rtunity to withdraw or cease threatening actions if time and circumstances permi
t 7. Normally, a force is declared hostile by ____________________. a ROE author
ized by the President or the Secretary of Defense the promulgation of an updated
CJCS Instruction 3121.01 8. Who may authorize U.S. forces to protect U.S. natio
nals and property from attack? All of the answers are correct. 9. Self-defense i
ncludes the authority to pursue the enemy force ____________________. only if th
e enemy force remains an imminent threat 10. The U.S. Standing Rules of Engageme
nt (SROE) provides ___________ to assist commanders in determining if an approac
hing aircraft, ship or ground unit is demonstrating hostile intent. guidance on
various indicators that might be considered 11. Knowledge that a terrorist is pr
eparing to use force to attack a U.S. Navy ship ____________________. may be suf
ficient to satisfy the imminent requirement and thus authorize the use of force
in self-defense 12. Preparation to use force may satisfy the imminent threat req
uirement for self-defense. True 13. Hostile intent is defined as the threat of i
nstantaneous or immediate use of force against the U.S., U.S. forces, and in cer
tain circumstances, others. False 14. A commander s inherent authority and obligat
ion to use all necessary means available and to take all appropriate actions in
self-defense is limited to the self-defense of the commander s own unit. False 15.
Force used to preclude or impeded the mission and/or duties of U.S. forces can
be considered ____________________. a demonstration of hostile intent a violatio
n of LOAC a hostile act 16. A force that has been declared hostile via an ROE au
thorized by the President _______________. may be engaged immediately by a comma
nder of U.S. forces must commit a hostile act or demonstrate hostile intent befo
re it may be engaged by a commander of U.S. forces 17. The concept of hostile in
tent permits U.S. forces to defend themselves before they are attacked. True 18.
Force used in self-defense must be ____________________. necessary and effectiv
e necessary and approved by the combatant commander necessary and proportional 1
9. The practice of extending U.S. protection to non-U.S. Forces and foreign nati
ons is known as collective self-defense Section 4 1. When developing alternative
courses of action (COAs) to accomplish an assigned mission, the planning staff
____________________. must give due consideration to the Rules of Engagement not
yet approved but required in order to conduct the COA 2. The Operation Order (O
PORD) that is promulgated by the commander of an assigned mission should/may inc
lude all of the following except ___________. requests for supplemental measures
3. The drafting of Theater-Specific Rules of Engagement has been delegated to t
he various ____________________. Combatant Commanders 4. The supplemental measur
es found in the classified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SRO
E) are available for use by all commanders of U.S. forces unless specifically wi
thheld. False 5. In selecting the course of action (COA) to be used to accomplis
h an assigned mission ____________________. the Rules of Engagement required to
support each COA need to be considered 6. Rules of Engagement (ROE) are permissi
ve ____________________. but may impose restrictions on the use of certain weapo
ns and/or tactics 7. If there are Theater-Specific Rules of Engagement in effect
, a commander given a mission within that theater is limited to those Rules of E
ngagement when executing an assigned mission. False 8. Theater-Specific Rules of
Engagement are ____________________. All of the answers are correct. 9. Supplem
ental Rules of Engagement (ROE) ____________________. augment the U.S. Standing
Rules of Engagement (SROE) and theater-specific ROE, if any and should be consta
ntly reviewed by commanders to ensure they are sufficient to successfully accomp
lish the mission 10. Supplemental Measures concerning mission accomplishment and
Rules of Engagement may define certain permissible targets. True 11. As part of
the military command and control structure, the United States has divided its g
lobal responsibilities into geographic regions each commanded by a _____________
___. Combatant Commander 12. ____________________ all factor into the developmen
t of mission-specific Rules of Engagement (ROE). Political, military and legal o
bjectives 13. In any type of planning, the ____________________ assumes the role
of the principal assistant to staff director for operations in developing and i
ntegrating Rules of Engagement (ROE) into operational planning. Staff Judge Advo
cate 14. Mission planners must ensure that the mission-specific Rules of Engagem
ent (ROE) support ____________________. the pre-conflict, conflict, and post-con
flict phases of an operation 15. Clear guidance on what forces are declared host
ile should be included in ____________________. the developed mission specific R
ules of Engagement (ROE) 16. The initial guidance in developing Rules of Engagem
ent (ROE) for a particular mission ____________________. is the classified porti
on of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) 17. Rules of Engagement (ROE)
development ____________________. is parallel and collaborative with operations
planning and require extensive coordination 18. Commanders who have been delega
ted the responsibility to draft Theater-Specific Rules of Engagement are require
d to ____________________. constantly review them and modify as necessary Sectio
n 5 1. U.S. forces operating within the territorial jurisdiction of the United S
tates in support of another agency (for example the U.S. Coast Guard) may operat
e under that agency s Rules for the Use of Force (RUF). True 2. The Rules for the
Use of Force may apply to U.S. forces guarding prisoners outside the territorial
jurisdiction of the United States. True 3. The Rules for the Use of Force only
apply when conducting operations that involved armed conflict. False 5. Rules fo
r the Use of Force apply to protecting U.S. Naval Ships in international waters.
True 6. U.S. forces operating within the territorial jurisdiction of the United
States may operate under Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) that are developed sp
ecifically for the mission they are assigned. True 7. The Rules for the Use of F
orce (RUF) apply to all U.S. forces operating inside the territorial jurisdictio
n of the United States conducting: counter-drug operations, special event securi
ty and response to military attack. False 8. The Rules for the Use of Force may
govern U.S. forces overseas when they are protecting vital government assets. Tr
ue 9. Rules for the Use of Force apply to U.S. naval ships while in foreign port
s. TRUE Block 6 Sensors Section 1 1. Which of the following sensor types uses so
und to detect a target? sonar 2. Night vision goggles work best and give the gre
atest tactical advantage when used ______________. under extremely low levels of
ambient light 3. Which of the following statements concerning the Global Positi
oning System (GPS) is true? Select all correct answers. Hull mounted sonar has a
blind spot aft of the ship called __________? Baffles -The constellation consis
ts of 28 satellites. It cannot be used as a weapons guidance system. -It consist
s of satellites and ground stations used for monitoring and control. -Its most s
ignificant disadvantages for surface ship navigation purposes is the limited ove
r -ocean coverage and the high cost of receivers. 4. Advanced sensor systems all
ow their users to ______________. gauge enemy forces before being detected thems
elves 5. GPS provides users with accurate information on ______________. positio
n, velocity and time 6. The first known sinking of a U-boat during World War I w
as aided by a(n) ______________. passive sonar system 7. Infrared-based detectio
n, tracking and guidance systems were developed during ______________ and used u
p until ______________. the Cold War, the present time 8. Infrared systems are b
est used to detect ______________. a warm object against a relatively cool backg
round 9. Infrared-based detection, tracking and guidance systems are used in whi
ch weapon? AIM-9 Sidewinder missile 10. During World War II, the British develop
ed ______________, the first ______________, which played a pivotal role in the
British victory at the Battle of Britain. the magnetron, higher power microwave
source 11. Although first patented in 1904, radar wasn t very militarily useful un
til ______________. World War II 12. Improving our ability to survey the environ
ment improves our capacity to ______________. Select all correct answers. defend
against attack seize the initiative 13. During the 1990 s, increases in technolog
y related to which type of sensor system allowed its users to own the night? Low-l
ight imaging 14. Night vision goggles see in the dark by using ______________. amb
ient light 15. Which type of sensor system received increased military interest
as a result of German submarine activity during World War I? Sonar 16. A GPS rec
eiver determines its position by ______________. comparing the difference betwee
n received time signals from four or more different GPS satellites. 17. The AIM-
9 Sidewinder missile has proven to be a disappointment as its limited success ha
s not justified its high cost. False 18. The Global Positioning System has allow
ed its users to ______________. All the answers are correct. 19. Sonar-type sens
ors were first developed ______________. Prior to World War I Hull mounted sonar
has a blind spot aft of the ship called __________? Baffles Section 2 1. The ra
tio of the highest deviation of a value represented by the sensor to the actual
value is used to determine a sensor s ______________. accuracy 2. Which statement
is true? Sensitivity of a sensor is the change in output of the sensor per unit
change in the parameter being measured. 3. A monostatic sensor has _____________
_. the detector and source collocated 4. Increasing the frequency of a signal wa
ve (while maintaining a constant wave velocity) results in ______________. a dec
rease of wavelength 5. Measuring the output of a sensor in response to an accura
tely known input is known as ______________. calibration 6. Gain refers to the i
ncrease of a transmitted signal s power per unit area caused by ______________. fo
cusing a transmitted signal's power in a certain direction, or directions 7. Whi
ch type of sensor operates in such a way that it can be used with minimal risk o
f detection by enemy forces? Passive sonar 8. Interference may be ______________
. constructive and destructive 9. Spectroscopy is used to determine ____________
__. what wavelengths are coming off a target 10. Which statement is NOT true? Di
spersion does not affect a highly focused beam of energy. 11. A bistatic sensor
is defined as a sensor system having ______________. a transmitter in one locati
on and the receiver in another 12. Which statement is NOT true? None of the answ
ers are correct. 13. Sound travels ______________. faster in water than in air 1
4. If system A has an antenna gain of 1 and system B has an antenna gain of 4, which
statement is not true? System B s signal s power per unit area is one fourth that o
f system A s signal. 15. A sensor with a linear transfer function is one that ____
__________. has multiple receivers and/or transmitters arrayed in a linear patte
rn has an output that is directly proportional to input over its entire range 16
. Refraction refers to ______________. the redirection of a signal wave due to c
hanges in the properties of the medium the signal is traveling through 17. A mul
tistatic sensor is a sensor ______________. that can be operated in both active
and passive modes 18. Which statement is NOT true? Radio waves have a higher fre
quency than gamma rays. 19. 20. Section 3 1. A frequency of 1 GHz is how many ti
mes higher than 1 KHz? One hundred thousand 2. While we can only see/hear a smal
l fraction of the exploitable frequency spectrum, we can employ sensors to make
use of the remainder of the spectrum. True 3. For a given frequency, a larger se
nsor can receive more effectively than a smaller one. False 4. What is the stand
ard military band for a sensor operating at 3.5 x 108 Hz? B-band 5. The appropri
ate sensor size for a 10 KHz acoustic signal in sea water at 20 degrees C would
be the same for underwater and above water platforms. False 6. Gamma rays are a
good example of ______________. high frequency and low wavelength 7. Sensor size
is proportional to frequency. False 8. What is an alternative way of writing 7.
4 x 108 Hz? 740 MHz 9. Aircraft can only accommodate sensors of one meter or les
s. False 10. A short wave radio signal at 20 MHz would exist in which standard m
ilitary band? A-band 11. What is an alternate way of writing .023 km? 23 meters
12. The terms standard industry, standard international, and standard military a
re synonymous when referring to frequency band designations. False 13. The elast
icity of sea water is the same as that of fresh water. False 14. How does the sp
eed of sound through water compare with the speed of sound through air? Approx.
4.4 times faster in water than air 15. The speed of sound through water changes
with ______________. water temperature Section 4 1. A diesel powered submarine c
an reduce its likelihood of detection by passive sonar by ______________. operat
ing on battery power 2. The operator of a radar that is the victim of cover puls
e jamming will observe ______________. multiple false targets at various distanc
es and bearings as well as the true target 3. Which of the following includes th
ree propagation paths of sound in the ocean? Direct path, bottom bounce and soun
d channel 4. A major limitation of airborne antisubmarine assets is that aircraf
t ______________. have a relatively short on-station time 5. Increased sensor co
mputing power and speed will contribute to making our combat ability more effici
ent, more cost effective and safer by ______________. All of the answers are cor
rect. 6. Information-dense wave packets are used to defeat which kind of jamming
? Cover pulse jamming 7. The sending out of electromagnetic pulses identical to
a target s radar at unexpected times is used in ______________. cover pulse jammin
g 8. In order to increase the efficiency of the detection-to-engagement sequence
, one can never have too much sensor provided information. The more information
that can be collected, the easier the human decision making process is in a tens
e, stressful environment. False 9. Biological weapons detectors are currently de
ployed aboard ______________. None of the answers are correct. 10. A major disad
vantage of using submarine based active sonar is ______________. that it may giv
e away the presence of the submarine utilizing the active sonar that the sonar c
an become the victim of barrage jamming, thus eliminating the submarine s ability
to determine bearing and range to the target that its sound wave may interfere w
ith the ability of the weapon launched against the target to find it 11. Electro
nic warfare sensors alone may not be the optimum method to identify actual threa
ts to its platform because ______________. they cannot localize, identify and de
conflict incoming contacts before radar many nations utilize commercial radar on
their naval ships which may lead to misidentification they do not yet have the
ability to classify incoming missile emitters 12. Infrared sensors can be utiliz
ed to detect submarines under certain conditions. True 13. Of the various optica
l sensors, those with the greatest promise of increased abilities in the future
include ______________. unmanned aerial vehicles 14. Erratic environmental condi
tions can adversely affect all sensors except ______________. None of the answer
s are correct. 15. The sending out of electromagnetic energy at a power level si
gnificantly higher than that of an enemy s radar and at the same frequency is used
in ______________. barrage jamming Section 5 1. ______________ is the command r
esponsible for the development of aircraft and air systems. NAVAIR 2. The ever i
ncreasing amount of data provided by current and future sensor systems, increase
s the potential of ______________. subjecting the operators and decision makers
to information overload making our platforms more susceptible to jamming by enem
y forces 3. Because nearly every type of sensor system can be improved, it is im
portant to ______________. anticipate future threats and develop systems with sp
ecific specifications to defeat them 4. ______________, through its ____________
__ sifts through fleet requirements and decides which programs to support. The S
ystem Commands, Subject Matter Experts (SMEs) The Office of the Chief of Naval O
perations (OPNAV), Resource Sponsors 5. ______________ generate(s) a lit of Futu
re Naval Capabilities (FNCs) that serve as a roadmap to direct research and deve
lopment funding. ONR 6. Expenditures for future threats must always take a back
seat to current warfighter needs as it is useless to develop a weapon or system
for tomorrow if we can t win today. False 7. ______________ is the command respons
ible for the development of communications and computer systems. SPAWAR 8. Unman
ned autonomous vehicles will eliminate one of the largest cost factors for equip
ment manpower. False 9. The program office that is in charge of the development
a system must strive to ______________. All of the answers are correct. 10. A li
miting factor in developing the most advanced aircraft sensor systems possible i
s ______________. the space needed to house such a system using current, or near
future technology 11. The Navy s development of new technologies is managed compl
etely by Department of the Navy civilian personnel. False 12. All officers that
have been involved in Navy program management are barred from working for defens
e contractors after retirement because to do so would be a conflict of interest.
False 13. ______________ is the command responsible for the development of ship
s and shipboard systems. NAVSEA 14. ______________ control(s) large scope progra
ms not falling within the scope of a Systems Command. BUPERS Program Executive O
ffices The specific type commander whose forces will ultimately utilize the subj
ect of the program 15. A limiting factor in developing the most advanced aircraf
t sensor systems possible is ______________. the training level of the Sailors c
urrently maintaining similar equipment the necessity of using outside (civilian)
contractors to manufacture such sensors the space needed to house such a system
using current, or near future technology 16. Because of the rapid increase of c
omputing power, and every indication that such increases will continue at least
for at least the next 10 years, there is no longer the danger of what is commonl
y referred to as information overload. False 17. Program Executive Offices are s
olely concerned with the technical aspects of bringing future systems on line an
d thus are not involved in determining warfighter requirements. False Section 6
1. Magnetic sensors are capable of detecting ______________ objects. undersea 2.
The purpose of a magnetic sensor is to ______________. detect changes in a magn
etic field 3. A submarine s magnetic intensity depends upon ______________. All th
e answers are correct. 4. ______________ are devices that detect changes in a ma
gnetic field. Magnetometers 5. Magnetic sensors are only effective at ranges of
______________ meters or less. 500 6. Self-generated magnetic noise falls into t
he two broad categories of ______________ noise. maneuver and DC circuit 7. Magn
etic sensors are useful for detecting ______________ objects. metallic 8. Some m
agnetic sensors use multiple magnetometers in order to ______________. increase
the chances of detection 9. Objects that can t be detected using sound, radio freq
uency, or light energy may be sensed using ______________ sensors. magnetic 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. Section 7 1. Sounds can usually be detec
ted from the direct path method of propagation at long ranges. False 2. A ship s son
ar blind spot is commonly referred to as its ______________. baffles 3. The ____
__________ contains water with the highest temperature and least density. surfac
e zone 4. In the ______________, water density changes sharply with depth. pycno
cline 5. A sonar transducer is most similar to a ______________. speaker 6. Soun
d normally propagates through the ocean via a single path. False 7. Seawater s pro
perty of ______________ is what makes it an excellent conductor of sound. elasti
city 8. The apparent change in a sound s frequency due to relative motion between
the sound s receiver and its source is called the ______________. Doppler effect 9
. Underwater sounds are classified as ______________. steady or intermittent nat
ural or manmade high or low pitch 10. The ocean s acoustic characteristics are aff
ected by ______________. All the answers are correct. 11. Less than ____________
__ percent of the world s total ocean area is shallow water. eight 12. Acoustic en
ergy is a form of ______________ energy mechanical 13. The average ocean depth i
s approximately ______________ feet. 12,000 14. The ______________ contains 80 p
ercent of the ocean s vertical thickness. deep zone 15. Generally, ______________
frequency sounds are detectable at longer ranges in seawater. lower mid-range hi
gher 16. As the relative motion between a sound s source and its receiver increase
s, the corresponding Doppler shift ______________. increases 17. A bathythermogr
aph measures ______________. seawater temperature salinity the speed of ocean cu
rrents 18. A hydrophone is a(n) ______________. underwater microphone 19. ______
________ has the most impact on the speed of sound in seawater. Temperature 20.
The two major types of sonar are ______________. active and passive 21. ________
______ enables operators to make control inputs to the system. transducer contro
l programmer display 22. A sonar transducer is most similar to a ______________.
speaker capacitor light emitting diode Section 8 1. Radar analyzes a returned s
ignal to determine properties of the object from which the signal reflected. Tru
e 2. The two types of energy transmissions used by radar are ______________. pul
se and continuous wave 3. Pulse radar is effective at ______________. positive t
arget identification determining a target s relative velocity 4. A continuous wave
radar returned from a moving object will be the same frequency as the transmitt
ed energy. False 5. Radial speed is the speed at which a target is moving toward
or away from a radar. True 6. Continuous wave radar uses Doppler shift to deter
mine target size. False 7. Blind speeds are a problem with ______________. pulse
Doppler 8. Radar is an acronym for ______________. radio detection and ranging
9. ______________ radar creates a synthetic antenna as big as the distance cover
ed by the target. Synthetic Aperture (SAR) 10. ______________ radar creates a sy
nthetic antenna as big as the distance covered by the radar s platform. Synthetic
aperture Pulse Doppler Inverse synthetic aperture 11. A phased array antenna for
ms a transmitter beam by using small antennas arranged in rectangular or circula
r arrays. True Section 9 1. The use of laser designators has the disadvantage of
______________. placing the designating force at risk of detection 2. Most obje
cts emit electromagnetic radiation. True 3. Most passive emissions occur in whic
h portion of the spectrum? IR 4. Laser light has unique applications due to ____
__________. low beam divergence 5. The visible portion of the electromagnetic sp
ectrum is ______________. a narrow part of the spectrum between the IR and UV po
rtions the same as the optical spectrum 6. Laser guided munitions work best in e
nvironments with good visual conditions. True 7. Laser light is available in bot
h ______________. continuous and pulsed form 8. ______________ is an example of
long range application of passive emission detection. Thermal imaging 9. The opt
ical spectrum consists of ______________. IR, visible and UV 10. Laser designato
rs work by providing the sensor a good overall image of the target, from which t
he attacking force can decide precisely where to engage the target. False 11. A
laser technique that allows PGMs to identify a particular laser designation from
several in its field of view based upon a predetermined pulsing code, is ______
________. PIM coding 12. The mechanism used to introduce the energy for an activ
e emission is the ______________. pump Space Force Enhancement Section 1 1. Spac
e control operations encompass all elements of the space defense mission and inc
lude offensive and defensive operations by friendly forces to gain and maintain
space superiority and situational awareness if events impact space operations. T
rue 2. Offensive and defensive space operations employed by friendly forces are
categorized within the military space mission area of ______________. Space Cont
rol 3. A fundamental requirement for the U.S. military to implement Information
Superiority is effective use of space assets. True 4. Space support operations c
onsist of operations that launch, deploy, augment, maintain, sustain, replenish,
deorbit, and recover space forces, including the command and control network co
nfiguration for space operations. True 5. The space force enhancement function c
oncerned with providing data on meteorological, oceanographic, and space environ
mental factors that might affect operations in other battlespace dimensions is _
_____________. Environmental monitoring 6. SATCOM is: Satellite Communications 7
. Space Systems are shared and interconnected systems of computers, communicatio
ns, people, and other support structures that: -Include command and control, tac
tical, intelligence, and commercial communications systems used to transmit DOD
data. -Serve DOD information needs. 8. The following functions are three of the
five functions assigned to the Space Force Enhancement mission area ____________
__. Communications; Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment; Environme
ntal Monitoring 9. The military space mission area concerned with launch, replen
ishment of spares, and orbital control is ______________. Space Support 10. Spac
e force application operations consist of attacks against terrestrial-based targ
ets carried out by military weapons systems operating in or through space. True
11. Support operations consist of spacelift, satellite operations, and deorbitin
g and recovering space vehicles, if required. True 12. Space capabilities and th
eir effects touch every facet of our combat operations. True 13. Currently, spac
e force application assets are operating in space. False 14. The force enhanceme
nt function concerned with providing timely detection and warning of ballistic m
issile launch and nuclear detonation is ______________. Intelligence, Surveillan
ce, and Reconnaissance Section 2 1. Force enhancement - ISR mission ____________
__. All of the answers are correct. 2. Single low and medium earth orbiting syst
ems or architectures that provide limited numbers of low or medium orbital syste
ms are well suited to the reconnaissance mission. True 3. Intelligence, surveill
ance, and reconnaissance (ISR) is the collection of data and information within
an area of interest on a continuing or event driven basis. Collection over conti
nuous periods of time is called ______________. reconnaissance surveillance inte
rdicting 4. In Operation IRAQI FREEDOM, space-based ISR ______________. None of
the answers are correct. was a central factor in assuring rapid military success
was detrimental to the operation 5. Intelligence is the product resulting from
the collecting, processing, integrating, analyzing, evaluating, and interpreting
available information concerning foreign countries or areas. True 6. A signific
ant limiting factor regarding space-based ISR sensors is ______________. a predi
ctable overflight schedule 7. A significant advantage of a space-based ISR senso
r is ______________. the ability to cue terrestrial systems for more precise loc
ations or targeting the ability to constantly change the orbital parameters unin
terrupted coverage of polar region surveillance 8. ISR systems enhance planning
capabilities by providing updated information regarding terrain and adversary fo
rce dispositions. True 9. Satellite systems are not affected by atmospheric dist
urbances such as fog, smoke, electrical storms, precipitation, and clouds. False
10. ISR is the collection of data and information within an area of interest on
a continuing or event driven basis. Collection that is event driven or occurs o
n a one-time basis is called ______________. reconnaissance 11. Geosynchronous o
r geostationary satellites are not capable of performing reconnaissance from spa
ce. False 12. ISR support ______________. All of the answers are correct. 13. Ty
pes of data and information collected from space include ______________. All of
the answers are correct. 14. In Operation IRAQI FREEDOM, space-based ISR _______
_______. was detrimental to the operation was a central factor in assuring rapid
military success was not a factor in the success of the operation 15. The most
significant advantage of a space-based ISR sensor is ______________. the ability
to provide continuous and focused coverage the ability to dwell over any geogra
phic region of interest the reduction in life cycle sensor cost 16. Several sate
llites in low and medium earth orbits can provide coverage of targets on the ord
er of ______________. minutes 17. The ______________ orbit allows continuous sur
veillance of specific regions of the world. geosynchronous 18. Surveillance from
space infers that a single satellite or system must be continuously collecting. F
alse 19. The next generation of satellites will offer ______________. All of the
answers are correct. 20. Space-based imagery supports the full range of militar
y intelligence activities including ______________. All of the answers are corre
ct. Section 3 1. Theater Ballistic Missile Detection and Warning ______________.
All of the answers are correct. 2. Sharing information on missile launches on a
near real time basis with allies and coalition partners is the objective of ___
___________. Responsive Launch Detection Shared Early Warning 3. A substantial l
imitation of the DSP satellites that was partially corrected with the deployment
of the Space-Based Infrared System (SBIRS) ground control element was _________
_____. integrating warnings from multiple satellites and fusing data from other
sources 4. Defense Support Program is well suited to dealing with the diverse th
reats of the post-communist era. False 5. Satellite- and ground-based systems pr
ovide detection and communicate warning of an adversary s use of ballistic missile
s or nuclear detonations (NUDET) to ______________. All of the answers are corre
ct. 6. Joint Tactical Ground Stations (JTAGS) is a deployable system that consis
ts of deployable trailers and communications equipment. True 7. In addition to s
ensor satellites, other space assets provide communication links carrying ______
________ to warn the affected air, land, sea, space, and special operations forc
es. raw data, processed data, and verbal command directions 8. Space systems pro
vide warning of ballistic missile launches. Voice and data warning information i
s immediately relayed to the warfighter in near real time to support tactical de
cision making to counter the threat. True 9. The SBIRS ground architecture _____
_________. All of the the answers are correct. 10. U.S. exchanges missile detect
ion and warning information with its allies and coalition partners. True 11. The
ground-control element of SBIRS satellites became operational in 2001, fully re
placing the old DSP ground architecture the following year. As a result, tactica
l users got more mileage out of DSP satellites in IRAQI FREEDOM than they did in
the earlier Persian Gulf War. True 12. Within the term Integrated Tactical Warn
ing and Attack Assessment (ITW/AA), the definition of "Tactical Warning" is defi
ned as ______________. a specific threat event that is occurring Section 4 1. Sp
ace systems provide forecasts, alerts, and warnings of weather conditions from s
pace. True 2. Observation of the space environment ______________. is crucial to
specifying and forecasting conditions in space and contributes directly to batt
lespace awareness 3. Within the Space Force Enhancement functions, environmental
monitoring provides forecast and conditions in the following environments _____
_________. oceanographic, atmospheric, and terrestrial meteorological, oceanogra
phic, and space meteorological, orthographic, and space 4. ______________ are us
ed to measure or infer sea surface winds (direction and speed), ground moisture,
rainfall rates, ice characteristics, atmospheric temperatures, and water vapor
profiles. Microwave sensors 5. Knowledge of the location and characteristics of
oceanographic features such as ______________ are critical for undersea warfare
operations. All of the answers are correct. 6. Observation of the space environm
ent is crucial to specifying and forecasting conditions in space. This enables U
.S. military joint forces to determine the impact of environmental factors on bo
th adversary and friendly space and weapons systems. True 7. Space weather can d
egrade or disrupt various forms of communications. True 8. Thermal and visible i
mages together provide the coverage and extent of ______________. Select all cor
rect answers. /sea surface winds -other physical phenomena such as ice fields an
d snow -rainfall rates -clouds at various levels 9. A disadvantage of space-base
d environmental sensing is the ______________. reduction in image quality due to
distance Section 5 1. Satellite communications provide ______________ coverage
enabling military leaders to maintain ______________ and convey their intent to
the operational commander. near-global / strategic situational awareness 2. Narr
owband Satellite Communications supports ______________ data rates for both mobi
le and fixed users by providing access on a single dedicated channel or on a dem
and assigned multiple access channels. secure voice and data transmission at rel
atively low 3. Requirements for SATCOM service worldwide significantly exceed th
e capacity of current MILSATCOM systems. True 4. Satellite Communications: Selec
t all correct answers. -Permit information transfer from the highest levels of g
overnment to the theater tactical level for all matters to include operations, l
ogistics, intelligence, personnel, and diplomacy. -Collectively provide an essen
tial element of national and Department of Defense (DOD) communications worldwid
e. 5. SATCOM in the Ku- and Ka- bands, as well as EHF systems, are particularly
affected by rain (the higher the frequency, the greater the effect). Rain not on
ly degrades the signal but, if heavy enough, can cause a complete outage. True 6
. Generally, the ______________ the frequency (e.g., SHF, EHF), the ____________
__ the available bandwidth and the higher the data rate capacity. higher / wider
7. Protected satellite communications permits the use of smaller antennas that
increase its mobility, enabling wider use of submarine, airborne, and other mobi
le terminals. True 8. Satellite communications are often the only means of provi
ding critical beyond line of sight communications. True 9. Unintentional interfe
rence is not as deleterious to SATCOM operations as deliberate jamming. False 10
. MILSTAR stands for: military strategic and tactical relay system satellite net
work military standard and technical relay system satellite network 11. Signific
ant advantages of satellite communication systems over terrestrial communication
systems are ______________. global coverage, security, flexibility 12. It is im
possible for a unit to lose their primary communication link with the military s
trategic and tactical relay system (MILSTAR) satellite network. False 13. Wideba
nd satellite communications support ______________. All of the answers are corre
ct. 14. All radio receivers, including satellite systems, are susceptible to jam
ming and interference. True 15. The communication bands in which the military op
erates satellite communication systems are ______________. UHF, SHF, EHF, commer
cial 16. Heavy solar activity ______________. can disrupt satellite communicatio
ns for short periods of time, causing communications outages in extreme cases 17
. Unintentional interference is not as deleterious to SATCOM operations as delib
erate jamming. False 18. Military units must be able to communicate over long di
stances with: All of the answers are correct. 19. Since most communications sate
llites are in geosynchronous orbit, the region of the world which receives least
coverage is the ______________ region. polar oceanographic sub-Saharan 20. ____
__________ satellite systems are more complex and survivable and possess feature
s not found on other systems. Protected Section 6 1. Global positioning system (
GPS) navigation signals are affected by ionospheric scintillation. Scintillation
is a local effect that has daily and seasonal variations. The effects are worse
at ______________ and will usually taper off by ______________. local sunset /
local midnight 2. The default navigation grid used by global positioning system
(GPS) is the World Geodetic System 1984 (WGS-84). True 3. The global positioning
system (GPS) navigational solution depends on having a number of satellites in
view from any position on Earth. Based upon this requirement, many satellites ha
ve been placed in orbit. Currently, there are approximately ______________ GPS s
atellites in orbit. 28 4. Because of ______________ of satellites in the global
positioning system (GPS) constellation, a single satellite failure _____________
_ cause significant degradation of the system. the altitude / will not the numbe
r and orbit location / will not 5. Global positioning system (GPS) is the fundam
ental system that allows all U.S. forces to establish a ______________, where al
l forces are geographically referenced correctly and precisely synchronized oper
ations are possible. common grid 6. Benefits to naval forces from global positio
ning system GPS include: Select all correct answers. -Ships and submarines can p
recisely plot their position allowing safe port operations and navigation throug
h restricted waters. -Rendezvous at sea (e.g., replenishment ships and the strik
e group), sea rescue, and other operations can be facilitated using space positi
on, velocity, time, and navigation support. -Mines can be laid and precisely plo
tted for friendly force avoidance and later retrieval. -Coastlines can be accura
tely surveyed using a combination of laser range finding along with highly accur
ate position information. 7. Virtually all DOD ______________ are equipped with
a global positioning system (GPS) receiver. Select all correct answers. aircraft
combat vehicles indirect-fire weapon systems ships 8. Global positioning system
(GPS) ______________. plays a key role in almost all military missions 9. The A
ir Force space squadrons controlling the orbit of global positioning system (GPS
) satellites during combat operations during Operation IRAQI FREEDOM were able t
o improve the navigation accuracy to approximately ______________ meters on a pl
anned basis. 2.2 10. The use of nulling antennas/ filters, and the correct place
ment of GPS receivers on various platforms all improve jamming resistance. True
11. Space based navigation systems (e.g., GPS) are ______________. not resistant
to any types of jamming resistant to some types of jamming 12. The space based
navigational system used by U.S. forces for position and timing reference is the
global positioning system (GPS). This system relies upon the receipt of signals
from at least ______________ satellites simultaneously. 4 13. Global positionin
g system (GPS) navigation signals are affected by ionospheric scintillation. Sci
ntillation occurs more often ______________. in the mid-latitudes (40-60 degrees
latitude (North or South)) 14. Use of hand-held receivers diminishes capabiliti
es. Units relying on hand-held global positioning system (GPS) receivers in area
s of ______________ may have diminished GPS capabilities. dense vegetation or st
eep terrain sparse vegetation or steep terrain dense vegetation or flat terrain
15. NAVSTAR global positioning system (GPS) provides the primary space-based sou
rce for U.S. and allied: All of the answers are correct. Information Technology
& FORCEnet Section 1 1. The purpose of an information system is to _____________
_. support an organization s operations 2. Decisions should be based on __________
____. information 3. Select the information criterion that is NOT one of the top
six characteristics of quality information. Veracity 4. New information that co
nflicts with our existing image requires us either to ______________. validate t
he image or revise it 5. The technological impact C must allow the warfighting co
mmander to ______________. Select all correct answers. have freedom to exercise
individual initiative based upon assessments of the local situation direct opera
tions from long distances 6. The commander may "pull" or extract information in
a C architecture for the following reason. Situational awareness among subordinat
e commanders 7. Intuition and judgment are a product of our personal ___________
___. Select all correct answers. experiences preconceptions education 8. Informa
tion systems consist of ______________. entire infrastructure, organization, per
sonnel, and components that collect, process, store, transmit, display, dissemin
ate, and act on information 9. Select True or False: Naval, joint, and national
information sources should "push" relevant, time-sensitive information to naval
forces, based on planned information requirements and dissemination criteria. Tr
ue 10. FORCEnet is enabled by ______________. information technology 11. Select
True or False: The concept of operations and commander s intent should convey only
a general idea or mental image of the operation and the desired outcome. Detail
s will always come later. False 12. All are true statements about information EX
CEPT ______________. information is deemed more reliable if it comes from an off
icer Section 2 1. ______________ delivers the naval component of the Global Info
rmation Grid. Space and Naval Warfare Systems Command (SPAWAR) 2. Space and Nava
l Warfare Systems Command s (SPAWAR s) origins date back to the Navy s support of the
______________ program during the 1960 s. space 3. Naval Network Warfare Command (
NETWARCOM) is the Navy s central operating authority for ______________. All of th
e answers are correct. 4. ______________ provides information system planning, e
ngineering, acquisition, fielding, and support for Department of Defense (DOD).
Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) 5. ______________ is the Navy componen
t of the Global Information Grid (GIG). FORCEnet 6. The White House Communicatio
ns Agency is operated by the ______________. Defense Information Systems Agency
(DISA) 7. DISA is a combat support agency under the ______________. Secretary of
Defense (SecDef) 8. ______________ is the functional program manager that is re
sponsible for all Navy networks, information assurance programs, and enterprise
services. PMW-160 9. Consolidation of the Navy s network infrastructure is taking
place as a part of ______________. FORCEnet 10. ______________ is operationally
focused while ______________ drives the strategic direction of Navy information
networks. Space and Naval Warfare Systems Command (SPAWAR) - Naval Network Warfa
re Command (NETWARCOM) Naval Network Warfare Command (NETWARCOM) - Space and Nav
al Warfare Systems Command (SPAWAR) PMW-160 - Naval Network Warfare Command (NET
WARCOM) 11. ONE-NET is the Navy s ______________. Afloat network Overseas shore ne
twork 12. ______________ advocates for the Fleet in the development and fielding
of information technology. Naval Network Warfare Command (NETWARCOM) 13. Navy/M
arine Corps Intranet (NMCI) is the Navy s ______________. Continental United State
s (CONUS) ashore network 14. ______________ provides the program and policy supp
ort that underpin the Navy s information networks. Space and Naval Warfare Systems
Command (SPAWAR) 15. The naval networking environment presently contains numero
us legacy networks. True 16. The central operating authority for all Navy inform
ation networks is ______________. Naval Sea Systems Command (NAVSEA) Naval Netwo
rk Warfare Command (NETWARCOM) Program Executive Office-Enterprise Information S
ystems (PEO-EIS) 17. The classified ( high ) side of the Defense Information Systems
Network is called ______________. SIPRnet 18. ______________ currently provides
total information systems management for the Department of Defense (DOD). Defen
se Information Systems Agency (DISA) 19. IT-21 is the Navy s ______________. Afloa
t network 20. The concept of designing weapon systems for the total battle force
instead of individual platforms and weapons was called ______________. Warfare
Systems Architecture 21. ______________ is the U.S. Fleet Forces Command s N6 and
Strategic Command s component commander for network operations, information operat
ions, and space systems. Space and Naval Warfare Systems Command (SPAWAR) Naval
Network Warfare Command (NETWARCOM) Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) 22
. The global battlespace consists of ______________. All of the answers are corr
ect. Section 3 1. C is the exercise of ______________ by a properly designated co
mmander over assigned and attached forces in the accomplishment of a mission. au
thority and direction 2. Information systems ______________. are all driven by t
echnological means make the right information available to the commander at the
right time merely add credibility to a system of tactical exchange that can othe
rwise "stand alone" 3. Information is ______________. the raw material from whic
h knowledge is generated 4. In addition to mission responsibility, with respect
to personnel, Command includes the authority and responsibility for: Select all
correct answers. morale health & welfare discipline 5. The naval commander monit
ors and guides the actions of his forces through ______________. a command and c
ontrol system 6. Feedback is a vital element of control; it gives the commander
a way to: Select all correct answers. Monitor events Adjust the allocation of re
sources Adapt to changing circumstances 7. Using a central nervous system analog
y, the commander is the conscious brain of the military body and C is ___________
___. the system of nerves that carry information to him from the senses (the inf
ormation-gathering units and sensors) 8. Command is defined as the authority tha
t a commander in the armed forces lawfully exercises over subordinates by virtue
of rank or assignment. True 9. While the conscious brain (the commander) sets o
verall goals and direction, it is the subconscious brain (______________) that m
onitors and regulates most actions. subordinate commanders and forces 10. C funct
ions are performed through an arrangement of resource groups (system) including:
All of the answers are correct. 11. The focus of naval C, as well as the driver
of C is ______________. the commander 12. C provides which of the following? All o
f the answers are correct. 13. Effective training, education, and doctrine will
make it more likely that subordinates will take the proper action in combat. Thi
s is control before the action, but nonetheless is still control. True 14. Drive
s the command and control process. Information 15. C refers both to the process a
nd to the system by which the commander decides what must be done and by how he
sees that his decisions are carried out. True 16. In the accomplishment of the m
ission (process) through C, a commander will employ the resource groups in: Selec
t all correct answers. Planning Coordinating Directing Section 4 1. Deriving kno
wledge from a common tactical picture results in ______________. situational awa
reness 2. Although the decision and execution cycle is focused on the operationa
l commander, all phases of the cycle are active at each echelon of command. True
3. In a well-trained force, imbued with initiative, the lower we can push the d
ecision-making threshold, the swifter our decision and execution cycle will beco
me. True 4. Orientation is the result of a ______________ process that turns dat
a gathered from the environment into knowledge and understanding. cognitive 5. T
he commander s orientation is rooted in what he believes to be the current "realit
y" of the battlespace. This image of reality is derived from his _________, ____
______, __________, and situation reports from subordinate commanders. direct ob
servation / sensors / intelligence systems 6. After the commander derives his un
derstanding (orientation) of the battlespace, his next step is to ______________
on a course of action and develop a plan. decide seek senior advice seek consen
sus 7. ______________ is a continuous, cyclical process by which a commander mak
es decisions and exercises authority over subordinate commanders in accomplishin
g an assigned mission. C 8. The commander forms a mental picture of the situation
converting sensor data and other information into ______________. Select all co
rrect answers. ----estimates //--assumptions -/-/judgments ---/actions 9. Which
of the following is the most important stage of the decision and execution cycle
? Orient 10. During the action phase, the commander monitors/observes the execut
ion of operations and gauges the results. This is intended merely to gauge resul
ts. It is important not to reinitiate the decision cycle based upon post action
phase observations. FALSE 11. Certainty is a function of ______________. knowled
ge 12. The OODA focuses on the ______________ as the crucial element in the enti
re process of C. decision-maker 13. Our ______________, ______________, _________
_____, and the unfolding circumstances of war all influence our ability to orien
t ourselves. experience / expectations / culture 14. What is the key element of
the command and control process? Commander 15. Knowledge is the result of ______
________, ______________, and fusing data that have been processed and evaluated
as to their reliability, relevance, and importance. analyzing / correlating 16.
The first step toward understanding is gathering data. Data is gathered primari
ly from our ______________ in the form of ______________. sensors / raw signals
17. Orientation is the key to our entire decision cycle, because it influences t
he way we ______________, ______________, and ______________. observe / decide /
act 18. ______________ is the key to the entire decision and execution cycle. O
rientation 19. Processing raw signals so they may be understood by the people wh
o must use the resulting information, may require ______________. All of the ans
wers are correct. Section 5 1. ______________ uses integrated information to ide
ntify and neutralize threats, locate and destroy anti-access challenges and inte
rcept missiles. Sea Shield 2. FORCEnet is what enables the Sea Power 21 pillars
of ______________. Sea Strike, Sea Shield, and Sea Basing 3. By fully leveraging
the power of information, U.S. and coalition forces will gain the knowledge nee
ded to dominate the tempo of operations by: Select all correct answers. Enhancin
g deterrence Sustaining warfighting superiority Controlling crises 4. The Navy s
hares data among platforms and other services through: Select all correct answer
s. --Link 16 --The Cooperative Engagement Capability /-The Joint Fires Network /
-VHF Radio 5. FORCEnet is a necessity because today s engagements are measured in
______________ and cover ______________. seconds, hundreds of miles 6. _________
_____ draws on comprehensive data to sustain critical functions afloat. Sea Basi
ng 7. Identify the statement that does not represent a limitation or technology
or the result of limited technology in today s battle space. Increasing lethal air
craft, sub-surface, and surface combat platforms 8. In a world of complex interr
elationships, where a single shot can have global ramifications, naval professio
nals must share databases with government agencies and nongovernmental organizat
ions. True 9. FORCEnet is not an acquisition program; rather it is a/an ________
______ and integration initiative to serve as a change agent and an engine for i
nnovation, potentially touching every naval program. motivational program enterp
rise alignment 10. By fully leveraging the power of information, U.S. and coalit
ion forces will gain the knowledge needed to dominate the tempo of operations by
: Select all correct answers. Controlling crises Sustaining warfighting superior
ity Enhancing deterrence 11. The Navy s success in Operation Enduring Freedom in A
fghanistan can be attributed to unprecedented tactical flexibility made possible
by: Select all correct answers. -Precision-guided munitions made effective by t
hese systems -Coordination over secure data links and voice circuits -Advanced s
ensing and targeting systems in the air and on the ground 12. Identify the state
ment that does not represent a limitation or technology or the result of limited
technology in today s battle space. Increasing lethal aircraft, sub-surface, and
surface combat platforms 13. As we prepare for the future, we must build on our
successes to acquire operational capabilities at the next level of integration a
nd effectiveness, by safeguarding data streams and other information from the ot
her services. False 14. ______________ relies on rich situational awareness to s
ense hostile capabilities and trigger rapid and precise attacks. Sea Strike 15.
As we prepare for the future, we must build on our successes to acquire operatio
nal capabilities at the next level of integration and effectiveness, by safeguar
ding data streams and other information from the other services. False 16. Speci
fic FORCEnet objectives include: Select all correct answers. -Expand joint, inte
ragency, and coalition interoperability -Experiment, innovate, integrate, and im
plement -Focus on the "warrior" in FORCEnet development -Enhance sensing, connec
tivity, and decision making 17. Launched and maintained from forward-deployed sh
ips and submarines, sensors will provide persistent and responsive networked sen
sor coverage to: Select all correct answers. /sharpen decision making -increase
battlespace transparency /ultimately allow the navy to reduce personnel -reduce
operational costs 18. FORCEnet s goal is to arm our forces with superior _________
_____. Knowledge 19. Investment in intra-theatre capabilities will enable the de
velopment of high endurance organic communication hubs that enhance and extend i
ntra-theatre networking. True 20. Developing FORCEnet will be challenging, and r
equire a comprehensive ______________, multi-agency, and international program t
hat integrates systems, processes, and organizations. joint Communications for t
he warfighter 1. The phenomenon of destructive interference results in the compl
ete cancellation of both interfering waves. False 2. A sinusoidal function has w
hich three parameters? Amplitude, frequency, and phase angle 3. What are the two
types of channels for transmitting electromagnetic waves? Free space and guided
medium 4. Baseband modulation uses a carrier signal. False 5. DAMA schemes gran
t user access based upon ______________. reservations 6. The link margin is the
______________. ratio of power received to receiver sensitivity 7. Which type of
cable enables the longest transmission distances? Fiber optic 8. Noise introduc
ed by a receiver is called internal noise. True 9. The term dBm refers to a powe
r level ______________. unit referenced to 1 milliwatt 10. UTP cable has _______
_______ pairs of wires. 4 11. What type of device converts an electrical signal
into electromagnetic waves for transmission through a channel? Transmitter 12. _
_____________ is NOT one of the types of digital baseband modulation. Pulse angl
e 13. Ground waves achieve ranges longer than line-of-sight by ______________. h
ugging the surface of the earth, especially over water 14. Which is NOT one of t
he types of digital passband modulation? Phase angle keying 15. What type of dev
ice converts audio/visual information into an electrical signal? Transducer 16.
There is a peak in atmospheric absorption at 180 GHz due to ______________. wate
r vapor oxygen free radicals 17. antenna that radiates its power equally in all
directions is called a/an ______________ radiator. equilateral isotropic 18. ___
___________ is NOT a type of satellite orbit. Low earth High earth Medium earth
19. In link budget analysis, the important parameter is ______________. received
power current gain 20. What is the power rating of the Flux Capacitor? 1.21 GIG
AWATTS Stealth Technology 1. Stealth technology reduces radar signatures by ____
__________. complex tradeoffs which eliminate or reduce returns to all enemy sen
sor systems 2. Which sensor provides the best resolution for radar imaging? Mill
imeter wave radar 3. Radar cross section is the relation of ______________. a ra
dar wave scattered from a target to the wave directed at the target 4. RCS is me
asured in ______________. square meters 5. Scattering, which occurs when an elec
tromagnetic wave encounters a physical object, is the dispersal of particle beam
s of radiation into a range of directions. True 6. Non-imaging sensor systems ca
n establish the presence of a target, but cannot provide information regarding m
ovement. False 7. Since a jumbo jet liner is much larger than a pickup truck, it
s RCS should be much larger. False 8. The success of stealth technology is leadi
ng to an increased emphasis on the development of capabilities to detect stealth
platforms, such as ______________. passive array and low frequency radars 9. A
B-52 bomber is not considered an example of low-observable technology because of
______________. large RCS and IR signature 10. Interference is the result when
electromagnetic waves at differing frequencies interact with each other. False 1
1. A critical capability of sensor systems is to ______________. distinguish spe
cific target electronic signatures from background data 12. Which sensor provide
s the best resolution for radar imaging? Millimeter wave radar 13. Which type of
electronic sensor system is the least complex and expensive? Passive electro-op
tic 14. Stealth technology helps to prevent detection, but once detected a steal
th platform can easily be tracked and targeted. False 15. Methods used to reduce
RCS include ______________. avoiding large, flat surfaces and using radar absor
bing material Evaluation of Naval Platforms Section 1 1. Which two innovations,
developed during the 1920 s and 1930 s did the United States submarine fleet enter W
orld War II with? Mk14 torpedoes and the Torpedo Data Computer (TDC) 2. The ____
__________-class submarine introduced the all electric drive to the United State
s submarine force. Tang Gato 3. The ______________ and ______________ were the f
irst two Navy submarines to be equipped with diesel engines. USS Skipjack, USS S
turgeon 4. Prior to World War I, what did the Navy envision as the two roles for
submarines? Coast defense and fleet operations 5. The USS Nautilus (SSN-571), l
aunched in 1958, was the first ______________ for the United States. nuclear pow
ered submarine 6. What was the advantage of sail mounted vice bow mounted planes
? Increased bow mounted sonar efficiency 7. Identify the mission(s) of the Los A
ngeles-class submarines. Select all that apply. Power projection ashore Escort c
arrier and expeditionary strike groups Anti-surface warfare Anti-submarine warfa
re 8. Identify the key technological advancements of the 19th century that were
instrumental to the further development of submarines in the United States. Adva
nces in the internal combustion engine, battery and electric motors and the inve
ntion of the torpedo 9. Which treaty was responsible for limiting the constructi
on of U.S. naval bases in the far east? Five-Power Naval Limitation Treaty 10. W
hat class of submarine has been selected to be converted to guided missile subma
rines (SSGNs)? Ohio 11. The Alligator was the first submarine to ______________.
employ an air purifying system and deploy a diver while submerged 12. What were
some of the limitations of the first submarines? Select all that apply. /Size /
Weapon technology --Range --Speed 13. What was the name of the first submarine u
sed by the military? Turtle 14. During World War II, how many aircraft carriers
did the United States submarine fleet sink in the Pacific? 2 8 0 15. Which Unite
d States submarine successfully completed the first fully-submerged circumnaviga
tion of the earth in 60 days and 21 hours? USS Triton 17. The modified Mk 27 was
the first torpedo used by the United States Submarine Fleet capable of ________
______. attacking submerged submarines Section 2 1. Compared to European battles
hips, the Navy s battleships of the late 1890 s were ______________. superior in all
respects relatively smaller and slower, but more heavily armed and armored 2. R
adar was first installed on a Navy ship ______________. in the years immediately
prior to World War II 3. Ships with gas turbine propulsion plants, such as the
Ticonderoga class cruisers can go from full ahead to full back ______________. t
hrough use of an auxiliary backing propulsion plant through use of controllable
pitch propellers 4. Turboelectric drive propulsion plants ______________. use an
electric motor to turn the propeller shaft 5. Surface to air missiles using bea
m-riding guidance ______________. require that radar be installed in the missile
to find the target require that the launching platform s fire control radar keep
its beam pointed at the target 6. When constructed, USS Constitution was armed w
ith ______________. muzzle loaded smooth bore guns 7. The destroyer was initiall
y designed to combat ______________. torpedo boats 8. The so-called ABCD ships w
ere significant in that they ______________. were considered the beginning of th
e modern Navy 9. Aegis ______________. sucks is able to track over 100 targets a
nd direct over 20 missiles simultaneously 10. Which of the following is not a pa
rt of today s Navy s surface combatant inventory? Raymond Spruance-class destroyers
11. Steam turbines were first used in Navy battleships constructed _____________
_. during the early 20th century before World War I 12. The Navy s Vertical Launch
System ______________. is capable of carrying a variety of surface to air missi
les 13. The first wartime sinking of a warship by an anti-ship missile _________
_____. was by a submarine launched weapon was the result of a ship-launched Harp
oon missile occurred in the 1967 Arab-Israeli war 14. Ships with gas turbine pro
pulsion plants, such as the Ticonderoga class cruisers can go from full ahead to
full back ______________. through use of controllable pitch propellers 15. The
Navy took delivery of its first steam-powered warship ______________. during the
1810 s 16. Which of the following is not true? Breech loading guns became the Nav
y standard in the early 1800s Turrets had to be made larger to accommodate breec
h loading guns as opposed to muzzle loaded guns of similar size. 17. The widespr
ead employment of torpedo boats by the end of the 19th century ______________. w
as a result of the threat posed by submarines to merchant ships resulted in no c
hange to battleship design represented a relatively inexpensive but potent threa
t to battleships 18. Which advances were first incorporated into the Navy s ships
during the Civil War? Armor plating and turret mounted guns Steam turbine engine
s, armor plating, and turret mounted guns Steam propulsion and turret mounted gu
ns 19. A proximity fuse ______________. contains a radio transmitter-receiver to
detect its distance from a target 20. A closed loop fire control system, such a
s the one used by the Phalanx Close-In-Weapons System, ______________. tracks bo
th the target and outgoing projectiles Section 3 1. Which of the following state
ments is true? The Navy s first aircraft carrier was a converted collier. 2. Which
of the following statements is true? The H-60 helicopter has replaced virtually
all carrier and carrier battle group support ship rotary-wing aircraft. 3. Whic
h of the following statements is NOT true? The angled flight deck was an America
n development adopted later by the British Royal Navy. 4. Which was the first U.
S. ship built from the keel up as an aircraft carrier? USS Ranger 5. The introdu
ction of the angled flight deck in the 1950 s ______________. led to many World Wa
r II-era carriers being retrofitted with angled flight decks 6. Which of the fol
lowing statements is true? The first takeoff and landing on a Navy warship were
conducted by a civilian. 7. Which of the following statements is true? Aircraft
with folding wings were first introduced prior to World War II. 8. The first suc
cessful shipboard launch of an airplane from a Navy warship was ______________.
financed by a civilian aviation enthusiast 9. The first Navy aircraft carriers d
esigned for Fleet operations rather than independent operations were ___________
___. the Essex-class the Yorktown-class 10. The Navy s first experience with opera
ting in the air domain occurred ______________. at the end of the 19th century d
uring the Civil War during World War I 11. The Navy s first nuclear-powered aircra
ft carrier was ______________. USS Enterprise 12. Which of the following stateme
nts is true? During World War II, the fight deck catapults on the Navy s front-lin
e carriers were used very little. 13. The first catapults used by the Navy _____
_________. used compressed air for power 14. Which of the following statements i
s true? The Washington Naval Treaty led to the conversion of two under-construct
ion battle cruisers to aircraft carriers. 15. Samuel Langley s successful 1896 fli
ght of an unmanned heavier than air vehicle prompted the Navy to appropriate fun
ds to allow Langley to develop a manned version. False 16. The Navy s current figh
ter aircraft is an ______________. F/A-18 Hornet 17. Which of the following is N
OT one of the principles behind an awards system? Every Sailor should get an awa
rd after a command evolution for the sake of equity and good morale 18. Among th
e Navy s roles during the First World War was________________> All the answers are
correct. 17. Navy units operating in the eastern Atlantic during the Second Wor
ld War ______________. All the answers are correct. 19. Which of the following s
quadrons has never operated in the area encompassed by the U.S. Navy s Second Flee
t? North Africa Squadron 20. Where is the headquarters for the U.S. Navy s Second
Fleet located? Norfolk, VA Which of the following is the definition of Command a
nd Control in Joint Doctrine? The exercise of authority and direction by a prope
rly designated commander over assigned and attached forces in the accomplishment
of the mission. Naval commanders exercise TACON over ___________________ . all
of the answers are correct The Commander of the Amphibious Task Force (CATF) is
______________. All the answers are correct An Expeditionary Strike Group (ESG)
and a Carrier Strike Group CSG) can be combined to form what organization? An Ex
peditionary Strike Force (ESF) Who has been given the specific responsibility to
coordinate Information Operations (core capabilities) among the combatant comma
nders? Commander, U.S. Strategic Command Mechanized, armored, and air assault di
visions require a significant amount of ______________ in order to conduct opera
tions. Select all that apply. logistic sustainment light infantry forces strateg
ic lift time to assemble ...