NFT QP I Merge

ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
NARAYANA FULL TEST 6 PAPER I

Exam Date : 16-01-2011
Time : 3 hours Max i mum ma rks : 2 46
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS 14. Section III contains 4 Reasoning type
A. General: questions. Each question contains
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 69 STATEMENT1 AND
questions. The booklet has 21 pages. STATEMENT2.
2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right Bubble (A) if both the statements are TRUE
hand top corner of this booklet. and STATEMENT2 is the correct
3. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, explanation of STATEMENT1.
calculators, cellular phones, pagers, and Bubble (B) if both the statements are TRUE
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to but STATEMENT2 is NOT the
be carried inside the examination hall. correct explanation of
4. The answer sheet, a machinereadable Objective STATEMENT1.
Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately. Bubble (C) if STATEMENT1 is TRUE and
5. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MUTILATE THE ORS STATEMENT2 is FALSE.
OR THE BOOKLET. Bubble (D) if STATEMENT1 is FALSE and
STATEMENT2 is TRUE.
B. Filling the ORS 15. Section IV contains 3 sets of Linked
6. On the lower part of the ORS, write in ink, your Comprehension type question. Each set consists
name in box L1, your Registration No. in box L2 of a paragraph followed by 3 questions. Each
and Name of the Centre in box L3. Do not write question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out
these anywhere else. which only one is correct.
7. Write your Registration No. in ink, in the box L4
provided in the lower part of the ORS and darken D. Marking Scheme:
the appropriate bubble UNDER each digit of your 16. For each questions in Section I, you will be
Registration No. with a good quality HB pencil. awarded 3 marks if you have darkened only the
8. The ORS has a CODE printed on its lower and bubble corresponding to the correct answer and
upper parts. zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other
9. Make sure the CODE on the ORS is the same as cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded.
that on this booklet and put your signature in ink in 17. For each question in Section II, you will be
box L5 on the ORS affirming that you have verified awarded 4 marks if you have darkened all the
this. bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer and
10. IF THE CODES DO NOT MATCH, ASK FOR A zero mark for all other cases. If may be noted that
CHANGE OF THE BOOKLET. there is no negative marking for wrong answer.
18. For each question in Section III, you will be
C. Question paper format: awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble
11. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part I: corresponding to the correct answer and zero
Mathematics, Part II: Physics, Part III: mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases,
Chemistry). Each part has 4 sections. minus one (1) mark will be awarded.
12. Section I contains 6 multiple choice questions. 19. For each question in Section IV, you will be
Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble
out of which only one is correct. corresponding to the correct answer and zero
13. Section II contains 4 multiple correct answer type mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases,
questions. Each questions has 4 choices (A), (B), minus one (1) mark will be awarded.
(C) and (D), out of which one or more answers are
correct.
USEFUL DATA
Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1 1 Faraday = 96500 Coulomb
= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1 1 calorie = 4.2 Joule
= 1.987 2 Cal K1 mol1 1 amu = 1.66 1027 kg
Avogadros Number Na = 6.023 1023 1 Ev = 1.6 101 J
Plancks constant h = 6.625 1034 J . s
= 6.625 1027 erg . s
Atomic No: H = 1, D = 1, Li = 3, Na = 11, K = 19, Rb = 37, Cs = 55, F = 9, Ca = 20, He = 2, O = 8, Au = 79, Ni = 28, Zn =
30, Cu = 29, Cl = 17, Br = 35, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, S = 16, P = 15, C = 6, N = 7, Ag = 47.
Atomic Masses: He = 4, Mg = 24, C = 12, O = 16, N = 14, P = 31, Br = 80, Cu = 63.5, Fe = 56, Mn = 55, Pb = 207, Au = 197, Ag =
108,
F = 19, H = 1, Cl = 35.5, Sn = 118.6, Na = 23, D = 2, Cr = 52, K = 39, Ca = 40, Li = 7, Be = 4, Al = 27, S = 32.
NIITA-HYD-SNI-CODE-RADHA KRISHNA-CPT-7-89XIIPass
MATHEMATICS
SECTION I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. If from point (4, 4) perpendicular to the straight lines 3x + 4y + 5 = 0 and

y = mx + 7 meet at Q and R respectively such that area of triangle PQR is
maximum, then m is equal to
4 3
(A) (B)
3 4
(C) 1 (D) 1
2. The equations x3 + 5x2 + px + q = 0 and x3 + 7x2 + px + r = 0 have two roots in
common. If third root of each equation is represented by x 1, x2 respectively, then
order pair (x1, x2) is
(A) 5, 7 (B) 5, 7
(C) 5, 7 (D) 5, 7
3. The minimum value of
sec 4 sec 4 k
for all , , where k Integer, is
tan tan
2 2
2
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 8 (D) 12
4. If (A - B) is non singular matrix satisfying A3 = B3 and A2B = B2A, then det
(A2 + B2) is equal to
(A) 0 (B) |A|
(C) |B| (D) |AB|
5. Three distinct vertices are randomly chosen among the vertices of a cube. The
probability that they are the vertices of an equilateral triangle is
1 1
(A) (B)
4 5
1 1
(C) (D)
6 7
6. Let f (x ) be a positive and differentiable function on [0, a] such that f (0) 1

and f (a ) 31 / 4. If f ( x ) ( f ( x)) 3 ( f ( x)) 1 , then maximum value of 'a' is

(A) (B)
12 24

(C) (D)
36 48
SECTION II
Multiple Correct Answer Type
2 N ARAYAN A IIT ACAD E MY, S R N AGA R, H YD E RA BA D - 38

This section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which MORE THAN ONE is correct.
3 1 5
7. For P( A) ; P ( B ) ; P( A B ) which of the following do/does hold
8 2 8
good?
AC A A
(A) P 2 P C (B) P( B ) P
B B B
AC B A
(C) 8P C 15 P C (D) P C
P( A B)
B A B

8. If A, B, C and D are four non-zero vectors in the same plane no two of which
are collinear

then

which

of the following hold(s) good?

(A) ( A

B ) . (C D ) 0

(B) ( A C ) . ( B D) 0

(C) ( A B ) (C D ) 0 (D) ( A C ) ( B D ) 0
9. The sum of certain number of consecutive positive integers is 1000. If n be the
number of terms, then n can be equal to
(A) 5 (B) 25
(C) 16 (D) 20
10. Each of the circles |z 1 i| = 1 and |z 1 + i| = 1 touches internally a circle of

radius 2. The equation of the circle touching all the three circles can be
(A) 3zz z z 1 0 (B) 3zz 7(z z) 15 0
(C) zz z z 3 0 (D) 3zz (z z) 1 0
SECTION III
Assertion Reason Type
This section contains 4 reasoning type questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and
STATEMENT-2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.
(A) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is a correct explanation
for Statement 1.
(B) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is NOT a correct
explanation for Statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False.
(D) Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True.
3 1
Statement-1 : If z is a complex number satisfying z z 2 , then z 2 .
3
11.
z
Statement-2 : For any two complex numbers, | z1 z 2 || z1 | | z 2 | .
12. Statement-1: Lagrange's mean value theorem is not applicable for f(x) =
| x 1| x 1 on [-1, 1]
Statement-2: | x 1| is not differentiable at x = 1.
N ARAYAN A IIT ACAD E MY, S R N AGA R, H YD E RA BA D - 38 3

13. Let f(x) be a continuous and positive function for x a, b (where a < b) and
b b
g(x) is continuous for x a, b and | g x | dx g x dx , then

a a
b
Statement-1: The value of f x g x dx can be zero.

a
Statement-2: Equation g(x) = 0 has at least one root in x a, b .
14. Statement-1: If f ' x exists then f ' x is continuous.

Statement-2: Every differentiable function is continuous.
SECTION IV
Linked Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
C1517 : Paragraph for Questions Nos. 15 to 17

Tangent is drawn at any point ( xi , y i ) on the curve y f (x), which intersects
the x-axis at ( x i 1 ,0). Now again a tangent is drawn at ( xi 1 , y i 1 ) on the
curve intersects the x-axis at ( xi 2 , 0) and the process is repeated n times i.e.
(i = 1, 2, n)
15. If x1 , x 2 , ....., x n form an A.P. with common difference equal to log 2 e and
curve passes through (0, 2), the curve is
(A) y 2e x (B) y 2e x
(C) 21 x (D) 21 x
16. If x1 , x 2 , ....., x n form a G.P. with common ratio equal to 2, then curve is
(A) parabola (B) ellipse
(C) rectangular hyperbola (D) none of these
17. If x1 , x 2 , ......., x n are in H.P., then possible curve is
k cx
(A) y kxe cx (B) y e
x
k c/x
(C) y e (D) y kxe c/ x
x
A tangent is drawn at any point P(t) on the parabola y2 = 8x and on it is taken
a point Q(, ) from which pair of tangents QA and QB are drawn to the circle x2
+ y2 = 4. Using this information answer the following questions.
18. The locus of the point of concurrency of the chord of contact AB of the circle
x2 + y2 = 4 is
(A) y2 = 2x (B) y2 x2 = 4
(C) y2 + 2x = 0 (D) y2 2x2 = 4

19. The point from which perpendicular tangents can be drawn both to given circle
and the parabola is

(A) 4, 3 (B) 1, 2
(C) 2, 2 (D) 2, 2
20. The locus of circumcentre of AQB, if t = 2 is
(A) x 2y + 4 = 0 (B) x + 2y 4 = 0
(C) x 2y 4 = 0 (D) x + 2y + 4 = 0
Let , , be positive roots of equation x3 + ax2 + bx + c = 0.
1
21. If c , then minimum value of is
64
1 1
(A) (B)
3 4
1 3
(C) (D)
2 4
22. If a 1 , then maximum value of is
2 3
3 1
(A) (B)
2 2
1 1
(C) (D)
432 64
1
and 27 0 , then (a + b) equals to
3
23. If c
64
9 9
(A) (B)
16 16
9 3
(C) (D)
32 4
PHYSICS
SECTION I
24. The gas inside a spherical bubble expands uniformly and slowly so that its radius
increases from R to 2R. The atmospheric pressure is P o and surface tension is s.
The work done by the gas in the process is

28R 3Po 25R 3 Po

(A) 24sR 2 (B) 24sR 2
3 3
25R 3 Po 23sR 2
(C) (D) 23sR 2
3 2
25. A satellite revolves around the earth such that its nearest distance from the centre
of the earth is R and the farthest distance from the centre of earth is 3R. The
speed of satellite at perigee (closest point to the earth) is (neglect any resistance)
GM GM
(A) (B)
R 2R
GM 3 GM
(C) (D)
6R 2 R
r
26. A body is projected from ground at the instant t = 0 with velocity v u x i u y j
where ux and uy are constants. At the instant t = 2s, it explodes into two pieces
such that mass of one piece is twice of the other. At the instant t = 3s, the lighter

and the heavier pieces are observed to be moving with velocities 4i 16j m / s

and i j m / s respectively. The velocity of projection of the original body is
(g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 2i 9j m / s (B) 2i 21j m/s
(C) 2i 24j m/s (D) 2i 14j m/s
27. In a given watch, the minute and the hour hand come together successively
exactly after 65 minutes. Does the watch gain or lose time and how much per
hour.
(A) gains about 27 second (B) loses about 27 second
(C) neither gain or loss (D) information insufficient
28. In a certain experiment it is found that the ratio of the decay current in an L R
circuit to the activity of a radio active sample remains constant with respect to
time. If the time constant of the L R circuit is 0.4 s, then the average life of the
radio-active sample is
(A) 0.2 s (B) 0.4 s
(C) 0.6 s (D) 0.8 s
29. Two rods of same mass and same length lo but

having different coefficient of expansions and
3 are joined at P (see figure). System is placed
on frictionless surface. If temperature of whole
system is changed by T, the displacement of
junction point is
(A) lo T (B) 2lo T

lo T 3
(C) (D) lo T
2 4
SECTION II
30. A light cylindrical vessel of radius r is kept on

a rough horizontal surface so that it cannot
slide but can topple. It is filled with water upto
a height '2h' and a small hole of area 'a' is
punched in it so that the water coming out of it
falls at the maximum distance from its wall
along horizontal surface. Water comes out
horizontally from the hole. The value of h for
which the cylinder topples is/are
r 3 2r 3
(A) (B)
2a a
3r 3
4r 3
(C) (D)
2a 3a
31. A particle having a positive charge q
approaches a grounded metallic sphere of
radius R with constant speed v as shown in
figure. In this situation (assume electrostatic
approximation)
(A) As the charge is brought nearer to the
surface, a current flows into the ground
(B) As the charge is brought nearer to the
surface of the sphere, a current flows out
of the ground into the sphere
(C) As the charged particle is brought nearer, the magnitude of current flowing in
the connector joining the sphere to the ground increases

(D) As the charged particle is brought nearer, the magnitude of current flowing in
the connector joining the sphere to the ground decreases
32. In the figure shown capacitors A and B of capacitance C each C K

are in steady state. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant
K = 2 and dimensions equal to the inner dimensions of the A B
capacitor is inserted in the space between the plates of the E
capacitor B. Choose the correct option(s) : R
CE
(A) Charge on each capacitor will increase by .
6
(B) In the process of inserting the dielectric, energy of the cell decreases by an
CE 2
amount of .
6
(C) In the process of inserting the dielectric, energy of the cell increases by an
CE 2
amount of .
6
(D) In the process of inserting the dielectric, the energy in the capacitor A
7CE 2
increases by an amount of .
72
33. In the figure shown, the amount of heat supplied

to one mole of an ideal gas is plotted on the 3
W(J)
horizontal axis and the amount of work performed
by the gas is drawn on the vertical axis. One of the
straight lines in the figure is an isotherm and the
other two are isobars of two gases. The initial
2
states of both gases are same.
[Given 1 = tan-1(2/7), 2 = tan-1(2/5), 3 = 45o] 1
Identify the correct option(s). 3
1 2
(A) Curve 1 and Curve 2 correspond to isobaric O
processes Q(J)
(B) Curve 3 corresponds to isothermal process
(C) The degrees of freedom of gas in Curve 1 is 5.
(D) The degrees of freedom of gas in Curve 2 is 7.
SECTION III
correct.
Code


for Statement 1.
34. Statement-1: A closed current carrying circular loop in uniform magnetic field
experiences a torque. If the loop is deformed in its plane, the torque reduces.
Statement-2: For a given perimeter circle has the greatest area.
35. Statement-1: Total mechanical energy in SHM is always constant.

Statement-2: The kinetic energy in SHM varies with time.
g
36. The ring shown in the figure is given a constant horizontal acceleration a = .
3
a
Ring Smooth horizontal rail
m Particle
Statement 1 : The maximum deflection of the string from the vertical is 30o.
Statement 2: At the position of maximum deflection the velocity of the mass
with respect to the ring will be zero.
37. Statement 1: Equipotential surfaces which arise due to point charge and whose
potentials differ by a constant amount are evenly spaced in radius.
Statement 2: Equipotential surfaces which arises due to a point charge are
spherical in shape.
SECTION IV

The figure shows a snap shot of a vibrating string at t = 0. The particle P is
observed moving up with velocity 20 3 cm/s. The tangent at P makes an angle
60o with x-axis.
y (in 10-2 m)
22 P 60o
3.5 7.5
1.5 5.5 x (in 10-2 m)
38. The speed and the direction of the wave is

(A) 30 cm/s along positive x-axis (B) 60 cm/s along positive x-axis
(C) 40 cm/s along positive x-axis (D) 20 cm/s along negative x-axis

39. The equation of the wave is (in SI units)

(A) y 4 10 sin 10t 50x
2
4

(B) y 4 10 sin 10t 50x
2
4

(C) y 4 10 sin 50x 10t
2
4

(D) y 4 10 sin 10t 50x
2
40. In case of mechanical wave a particle oscillates and during oscillation its kinetic
and potential energy varies. Read the statements given below carefully and
identify the correct option given below these statements.
Statements :
(i) When a small element in a traveling wave is passing through its mean
position, both kinetic and potential energies of this element are maximum.
(ii) When a small element of the traveling wave is at its extreme position, both
kinetic and potential energies are minimum.
(iii) When a particle in a standing wave is passing through its mean position,
kinetic energy is maximum and potential energy is minimum.
(iv) When a particle in a standing wave is at its extreme position, potential energy
is maximum and kinetic energy is minimum.
(A) statements (i) and (ii) are only correct
(B) statements (iii) and (iv) are only correct
(C) all the statements are correct
(D) none of the statements are correct

Uniform magnetic field = Bot
exist in cylindrical region of
radius R is pointing into the
plane of figure (as shown in
figure). A frictionless groove
of length L is fixed
symmetrically from the centre
O at a distance of L/2. A
charged particle of mass m
and charge q is at rest at end B
at t = 0. (Neglect gravity).
(Assume the particle just fits
in the groove)

41. Velocity of charge particle at end A

L qBo qBo
(A) (B) L
2 m 2m
qBo 2qBo
(C) 2L (D)
m m
42. Contact force experienced by particle at end A is
4 2 1 16 2 1
(A) qB L (B) qBo L
4 4
o

17 9
(C) qBo L (D) qBo L
4 4
43. If the magnetic field stops changing at the time the particle leaves the end A, the
radius of curvature of the trajectory when the particle just leaves end A is
L L 3L
(A) 0 (B) (C) (D) L
4 2 4
Suppose a nucleus X undergoes -decay 92 225
X Y . The emitted -particle is
found to move along a helical path in a uniform magnetic field B = 5 T. Radius
and pitch traced by the -particle are R = 5 cm and P = 7.5 cm respectively.
[Given m(Y) = 221.003
U, m() = 4.003 U, m(n) = 1.009 U, m(P) = 1.008 U, 1 U = 931 MeV/c 2 = 1.6
10-27 kg].
44. Speed of the -particle after the decay is
(A) 1.2 107 m/s (B) 9 106 m/s
(C) 1.5 107 m/s (D) 8 105 m/s
45. Total energy released during -decay is approximately
(A) 2.5 MeV (B) 4.7 MeV
(C) 9.9 MeV (D) 8 MeV
46. Binding energy per nucleon of nucleus X is approximately

(A) 2.3 MeV (B) 4.7 MeV
(C) 6 MeV (D) 7.8 MeV
CHEMISTRY
SECTION I

47. An octahedral complex of potassium, iron and cyanide ions is 100% ionized at 1
m (molal). If its elevation in boiling point is 2.08 oC (Kb = 0.52oC kg/mole) then
EAN of iron in the complex will be (EAN = effective atomic number)
(A) 35 (B) 36
(C) 34 (D) 37
48. A transition metal M can exist in two oxidation states +2 to +3. It forms an
oxide whose experimental formula is given by M xO where (x < 1) Then the ratio
of metal ions in +3 state to those in +2 state in oxide is given by
1 x x 2 1 x
(A) (B) 1 + 2x (C) 1 (D)
1 x 2 3x 2
49. Which of the following is INCORRECT statement with respect to order of
property mentioned?
(A) CsO2 > RbO2 > KO2 (stability of super oxide)
(B) Cs2CO3 > Rb2CO3 > K2CO3 (thermal stability of carbonates)
(C) BeCO3 > MgCO3 > SrCO3 (solubility of carbonate in water)
(D) Be(OH)2 > Mg(OH)2 > Ba(OH)2 (solubility of hydroxides in water)
50. Hydra acid of which of the following halogen forms an acidic salt?
(A) Flourine (B) Chlorine
(C) Bromine (D) Iodine
51. Correct order of basic character of following compound is
NH2
NH2 NH2
NH2 NO2
NO2 OMe
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(A) IV > I > III > II (B) I > IV > II > III
(C) III > II > IV > I (D) IV > I > II > III
52. Arrange following in order of reactivity toward SN1 reaction

Cl
Cl Cl Cl
(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(A) I > II > III > IV (B) IV > I > II > III
(C) IV > II > I > III (D) IV > III > II > I
SECTION II
53. Which of the following are true regarding the indicators?

(A) Phenolphthalein in benzenoid form is colourless
(B) Methylorange in quinonoid form is orange

(C) Acidic indicator exists mainly in their basic form in a basic solution
(D) Basic indicator exist mainly in their acidic form in a acidic solution
54. Which of the following are correct order of stability of oxidation state of the ions
given?
(A) Pb 2 Sn 2 Ge 2 (B) Ge 4 Sn 4 Pb 4
(C) Ga 3 In 3 Tl3 (D) Tl In Ga
55. For a real gas obeying Vanderwaals equation which of the following are true?
(A) Internal energy of gas is dependent on temperature only
(B) If Z > 1 then forces of repulsion are dominant
Pb
(C) At high pressure Z 1
RT
(D) Work done in expansion of a real gas is more than for an ideal gas under
isothermal conditions.
NaOD/D O CN/D OD/D

Me CH 2 CHO
Exchange
reaction
2 A 2O B 2O
C
56.
D
(A) Compound A is Me D H
O
D
OH
(B) Compound B is Me D
H
CN
D
OD
(C) Compound B is Me D
CN
H
(D) Compound C is Me CD CDO
2
SECTION III
correct.
for Statement 1.

57. Statement 1 : The compressibility factor for hydrogen varies with pressure
with positive slope at all pressure.
Statement 2 : Even at low pressure the repulsive forces are dominant in
hydrogen gas.
58. Statement 1 : Cyclic trimer of SO3 has 6(SO) single bond and 6(S=O)
double bond.
Statement 2 : SO3 is a monomer, SO3 is a dimer and SO3 is a
trimer.
59. Statement 1 : Radioactive decay follows first order kinetics.

Statement 2 : '' decay constant of nuclei is independent of temperature.
60. Statement 1 : Carbides of Mg, Ca and Be do not yield Hydrocarbon of same

homologous series on hydrolysis.
Statement 2 : Carbides of Mg and Ca yields alkynes on hydrolysis and carbide
of Be yields alkane due to different carbide units.
SECTION IV
Main ore of aluminium are bauxite, corundum, cryolite, alumstone, feldspar.
Extraction is mainly done by Bauxite which is contaminated with Fe2O3 and
silica. Bauxite ore is converted to Alumina by various methods like Bayers
process, Halls process and Serpecks process. Alumina so obtained is reduced
electrolytically to get Aluminium. Aluminium is then refined by electrolytic
method to get pure aluminium.
61. Which of the following process yields AlN as main product during purification of
Bauxite ore
(A) Bayers process (B) Hoops process
(C) Serpecks process (D) Halls process
62. Which of the following reaction does not take place during electrolytic reduction
of Alumina (Al2O3)
3
(A) 2F F2 2e (B) Al2O3 + 3F2 2AlF3 + O2
2
3 3 2
(C) 4AlO 3 2Al O
2 3 3O 2 12e Al
(D) 2 3 O 2Al 3O
63. Which of the ore name and its formula is wrongly matched
(A) Gibbsite Al2O3.3H2O (B) Cryolite Al2O3.H2O
(C) Bauxite Al2O3.2H2O (D) Feldspar KAlSi3O8

Consider the cell reaction

Hg 2 Cl 2 s 2Ag s 2Hg l 2AgCl s

K sp AgCl 1010 E o Hg2 /Hg 0.80 ;
2
K sp Hg 2 Cl2 1018 E o Ag /Ag 0.80

64. Correct cell representation for the above given cell reaction will be
(A) Ag / AgCl s |Cl aq |Hg 2Cl 2 s | Hg l

(B) Ag / Ag aq || Hg 2 aq | Hg l
2
(C) Ag / AgCl s | Cl aq || Hg 2 aq | Hg l
2
(D) Ag / AgCl s || Hg 2Cl 2 s | Hg l
65. E ocell of the above reaction will be nearly at 298 K

(A) 0.02364 (B) 0.2364
(C) 0.0591 (D) +0.4567
66. If emf of the cell is 0.0455 at 298 K then the free energy of the reaction is
(A) -8780 J/mol (B) -10000 J/mol
(C) -9360 J/mol (D) -4357 J/mol

HO N O PhOH A
PhOH/H 2SO4 70%
C Deep green
H 2SO4
A
H O B
2

Red colour in

ethanolic solution NaOH
H2O
D Deep blue colour
67. The compound A is

(A) OH N O (B) HO NHOH
(C) O N OH (D) None

68. The red colour of compound (B) is due to formation of

(A) O N OH
HO N OH HSO 4
(B)
(C) O N ONa
(D) none of these
69. The deep blue colour of compound (D) is due to the formation of
(A) O N OH
HO N OH HSO 4
(B)
- +
(C) O N O Na
(D) both (A) and (B)

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ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

NARAYANA FULL TEST 6 PAPER I

1. If from point (4, 4) perpendicular to the straight lines 3x + 4y + 5 = 0 and

6. Let f (x ) be a positive and differentiable function on [0, a] such that f (0) 1

2 N ARAYAN A IIT ACAD E MY, S R N AGA R, H YD E RA BA D - 38

10. Each of the circles |z 1 i| = 1 and |z 1 + i| = 1 touches internally a circle of

N ARAYAN A IIT ACAD E MY, S R N AGA R, H YD E RA BA D - 38 3

g(x) is continuous for x a, b and | g x | dx g x dx , then

Statement-1: The value of f x g x dx can be zero.

Statement-2: Equation g(x) = 0 has at least one root in x a, b .

14. Statement-1: If f ' x exists then f ' x is continuous.

C1517 : Paragraph for Questions Nos. 15 to 17

4 N ARAYAN A IIT ACAD E MY, S R N AGA R, H YD E RA BA D - 38

N ARAYAN A IIT ACAD E MY, S R N AGA R, H YD E RA BA D - 38 5

28R 3Po 25R 3 Po

29. Two rods of same mass and same length lo but

6 N ARAYAN A IIT ACAD E MY, S R N AGA R, H YD E RA BA D - 38

30. A light cylindrical vessel of radius r is kept on

N ARAYAN A IIT ACAD E MY, S R N AGA R, H YD E RA BA D - 38 7

32. In the figure shown capacitors A and B of capacitance C each C K

33. In the figure shown, the amount of heat supplied

8 N ARAYAN A IIT ACAD E MY, S R N AGA R, H YD E RA BA D - 38

(A) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is a correct explanation

35. Statement-1: Total mechanical energy in SHM is always constant.

C3840 : Paragraph for Questions Nos. 38 to 40

38. The speed and the direction of the wave is

N ARAYAN A IIT ACAD E MY, S R N AGA R, H YD E RA BA D - 38 9

39. The equation of the wave is (in SI units)

C4143 : Paragraph for Questions Nos. 41 to 43

10 N ARAYAN A IIT ACAD E MY, S R N AGA R, H YD E RA BA D - 38

41. Velocity of charge particle at end A

46. Binding energy per nucleon of nucleus X is approximately

N ARAYAN A IIT ACAD E MY, S R N AGA R, H YD E RA BA D - 38 11

52. Arrange following in order of reactivity toward SN1 reaction

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

53. Which of the following are true regarding the indicators?

12 N ARAYAN A IIT ACAD E MY, S R N AGA R, H YD E RA BA D - 38

NaOD/D O CN/D OD/D

N ARAYAN A IIT ACAD E MY, S R N AGA R, H YD E RA BA D - 38 13

59. Statement 1 : Radioactive decay follows first order kinetics.

60. Statement 1 : Carbides of Mg, Ca and Be do not yield Hydrocarbon of same

C6466 : Paragraph for Questions Nos. 64 to 66

14 N ARAYAN A IIT ACAD E MY, S R N AGA R, H YD E RA BA D - 38

Hg 2 Cl 2 s 2Ag s 2Hg l 2AgCl s

K sp Hg 2 Cl2 1018 E o Ag /Ag 0.80

(D) Ag / AgCl s || Hg 2Cl 2 s | Hg l

65. E ocell of the above reaction will be nearly at 298 K

C6769 : Paragraph for Questions Nos. 67 to 69

67. The compound A is

(C) O N OH (D) None

N ARAYAN A IIT ACAD E MY, S R N AGA R, H YD E RA BA D - 38 15

(D) none of these

(D) both (A) and (B)

16 N ARAYAN A IIT ACAD E MY, S R N AGA R, H YD E RA BA D - 38

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