1. What is an Object server?

Answer
With an object server, the Client/Server application is written as a set of
communicating objects. Client object communicate with server objects using an
Object Request Broker (ORB). The client invokes a method on a remote object. The
ORB locates an instance of that object server class, invokes the requested method
and returns the results to the client object. Server objects must provide support for
concurrency and sharing. The ORB brings it all together.
2. What is Mail Gateway?
Answer
It is a system that performs a protocol translation between different electronic mail
delivery protocols.
3. What is RIP (Routing Information Protocol)?
Answer
It is a simple protocol used to exchange information between the routers.
4. What is NVT (Network Virtual Terminal)?
Answer
It is a set of rules defining a very simple virtual terminal interaction. The NVT is used
in the start of a Telnet session.
5. What is source route?
Answer
It is a sequence of IP addresses identifying the route a datagram must follow. A
source route may optionally be included in an IP datagram header.
6. What is BGP (Border Gateway Protocol)?
Answer
It is a protocol used to advertise the set of networks that can be reached with in an
autonomous system. BGP enables this information to be shared with the
autonomous system. This is newer than EGP (Exterior Gateway Protocol).
7. What is Gateway-to-Gateway protocol?
Answer
It is a protocol formerly used to exchange routing information between Internet core
routers.
8. What is a Transaction server?
Answer
With a transaction server, the client invokes remote procedures that reside on the
server with an SQL database engine. These remote procedures on the server
execute a group of SQL statements. The network exchange consists of a single
request/reply message. The SQL statements either all succeed or fail as a unit.
9. What is a Database Server?
Answer
With a database server, the client passes SQL requests as messages to the
database server. The results of each SQL command are returned over the network.
The server uses its own processing power to find the request data instead of
passing all the records back to the client and then getting it find its own data. The
result is a much more efficient use of distributed processing power. It is also known
as SQL engine.
10. What are the most typical functional units of the Client/Server applications?
Answer
User interface
Business Logic and
Shared data.
11. What are all the Extended services provided by the OS?
Answer
Ubiquitous communications Network OS extension Binary large objects
(BLOBs).Global directories and Network yellow pages.Authentication and
Authorization services.System management.Network time. Database and
transaction services Internet services.Object- oriented services.
12. What are Triggers and Rules?
Answer
Triggers are special user defined actions usually in the form of stored procedures,
that are automatically invoked by the server based on data related events. It can
perform complex actions and can use the full power of procedural languages. A rule
is a special type of trigger that is used to perform simple checks on data.
13. What is meant by Transparency?
Answer
Transparency really means hiding the network and its servers from the users and
even the application programmers.
14. What are TP-Lite and TP-Heavy Monitors?
Answer
TP-Lite is simply the integration of TP Monitor functions in the database engines. TP-
Heavy are TP Monitors which supports the Client/Server architecture and allow PC to
initiate some very complex multiserver transaction from the desktop.
15. What are the two types of OLTP?
Answer
TP lite, based on stored procedures. TP heavy, based on the TP monitors.
16. What is a Web server?
Answer
This new model of Client/Server consists of thin, protable, "universal" clients that
talk to superfat servers. In the simplest form, a web server returns documents when
clients ask for them by name. The clients and server communicate using an RPC-like
protocol called HTTP.
17. What are Super servers?
Answer
These are fully-loaded machines which includes multiprocessors, high-speed disk
arrays for interview I/O and fault tolerant features.
18. What is a TP Monitor?
Answer
There is no commonly accepted definition for a TP monitor. According to Jeri
Edwards' a TP Monitor is "an OS for transaction processing".
19. TP Monitor does mainly two things extremely well. They are Process
management and Transaction management.?
Answer
They were originally introduced to run classes of applications that could service
hundreds and sometimes thousands of clients. TP Monitors provide an OS - on top of
existing OS - that connects in real time these thousands of humans with a pool of
shared server processes.
20. What is meant by Asymmetrical protocols?
Answer
There is a many-to-one relationship between clients and server. Clients always
initiate the dialog by requesting a service. Servers are passively awaiting for
requests from clients.
21. What are the types of Transparencies?
Answer
The types of transparencies the NOS middleware is expected to provide are:-
Location transparency
Namespace transparency
Logon transparency
Replication transparency
Local/Remote access transparency
Distributed time transparency
Failure transparency and
Administration transparency.
22. What is the difference between trigger and rule?
Answer
The triggers are called implicitly by database generated events, while stored
procedures are called explicitly by client applications.
23. What are called Transactions?
Answer
The grouped SQL statements are called Transactions (or) A transaction is a
collection of actions embused with ACID properties.
24. What are the building blocks of Client/Server?
Answer
The client
The server and
Middleware.
25. Explain the building blocks of Client/Server?
Answer
The client side building block runs the client side of the application.
The server side building block runs the server side of the application.
26. The middleware buliding block runs on both the client and server sides of an
application. It is broken into three categories?
Answer
Transport stack
Network OS
Service-specific middleware.
27. What are all the Base services provided by the OS?
Answer
Task preemption
Task priority
Semaphores
Interprocess communications (IPC)
Local/Remote Interprocess communication
Threads
Intertask protection
Multiuser
High performance file system
Efficient memory management and
Dynamically linked Run-time extensions.
28. What are the roles of SQL?
Answer
SQL is an interactive query language for adhoc database queries.
SQL is a database programming language.
SQL is a data definition and data administration language.
SQL is the language of networked database servers
SQL helps protect the data in a multi-user networked environment.
Because of these multifacted roles it plays, physicists might call SQL as "The grand
unified theory of database".
29. What are the characteristics of Client/Server?
Answer
Service
Shared resources
Asymmentrical protocols
Transparency of location
Mix-and-match
Message based exchanges
Encapsulation of services
Scalability
Integrity
Client/Server computing is the ultimate "Open platform". It gives the freedom to
mix-and-match components of almost any level. Clients and servers are loosely
coupled systems that interact through a message-passing mechanism.
30. What is Structured Query Langauge (SQL)?
Answer
SQL is a powerful set-oriented language which was developed by IBM research for
the databases that adhere to the relational model. It consists of a short list of
powerful, yet highly flexible, commands that can be used to manipulate information
collected in tables. Through SQL, we can manipulate and control sets of records at a
time.
31. What is Remote Procedure Call (RPC)?
Answer
RPC hides the intricacies of the network by using the ordinary procedure call
mechanism familiar to every programmer. A client process calls a function on a
remote server and suspends itself until it gets back the results. Parameters are
passed like in any ordinary procedure. The RPC, like an ordinary procedure, is
synchoronous. The process that issues the call waits until it gets the results.
Under the covers, the RPC run-time software collects values for the parameters,
forms a message, and sends it to the remote server. The server receives the
request, unpack the parameters, calls the procedures, and sends the reply back to
the client. It is a telephone-like metaphor.
32. What are the main components of Transaction-based Systems?
Answer
Resource Manager
Transaction Manager and
Application Program.
33. What are the three types of SQL database server architecture?
Answer
Process-per-client Architecture. (Example: Oracle 6, Informix )
Multithreaded Architecture. (Example: Sybase, SQL server)
Hybrid Architecture.
34. What are called Non-GUI clients, GUI Clients and OOUI Clients?
Answer
Non-GUI Client: These are applications, generate server requests with a minimal
amount of human interaction.
GUI Clients: These are applicatoins, where occassional requests to the server result
from a human interacting with a GUI (Example: Windows 3.x, NT 3.5)
OOUI clients : These are applications, which are highly-iconic, object-oriented user
interface that provides seamless access to information in very visual formats.
(Example: MAC OS, Windows 95, NT 4.0)
35. What is Message Oriented Middleware (MOM)?
Answer
MOM allows general purpose messages to be exchanged in a Client/Server system
using message queues. Applications communicate over networks by simply putting
messages in the queues and getting messages from queues. It typically provides a
very simple high level APIs to its services.
MOM's messaging and queuing allow clients and servers to communicate across a
network without being linked by a private, dedicated, logical connection. The clients
and server can run at different times. It is a post-office like metaphor.
36. What is meant by Middleware?
Answer
Middleware is a distributed software needed to support interaction between clients
and servers. In short, it is the software that is in the middle of the Client/Server
systems and it acts as a bridge between the clients and servers. It starts with the
API set on the client side that is used to invoke a service and it covers the
transmission of the request over the network and the resulting response.
It neither includes the software that provides the actual service - that is in the
servers domain nor the user interface or the application login - that's in clients
domain.
37. What are the functions of the typical server program?
Answer
It waits for client-initiated requests. Executes many requests at the same time.
Takes care of VIP clients first. Initiates and runs background task activity. Keeps
running. Grown bigger and faster.
38. What is meant by Symmentric Multiprocessing (SMP)?
Answer
It treats all processors as equal. Any processor can do the work of any other
processor. Applications are divided into threads that can run concurrently on any
available processor. Any processor in the pool can run the OS kernel and execute
user-written threads.
39. What are General Middleware?
Answer
It includes the communication stacks, distributed directories, authentication
services, network time, RPC, Queuing services along with the network OS
extensions such as the distributed file and print services.
40. What are Service-specific middleware?
Answer
It is needed to accomplish a particular Client/Server type of services which
includes:-
Database specific middleware
OLTP specific middleware
Groupware specific middleware
Object specific middleware
Internet specific middleware and
System management specific middleware.
41. What is meant by Asymmetric Multiprocessing (AMP)?
Answer
It imposses hierarchy and a division of labour among processors. Only one
designated processor, the master, controls (in a tightly coupled arrangement) slave
processors dedicated to specific functions.
42. What is OLTP?
Answer
In the transaction server, the client component usually includes GUI and the server
components usually consists of SQL transactions against a database. These
applications are called OLTP (Online Transaction Processing) OLTP Applications
typically, Receive a fixed set of inputs from remote clients. Perform multiple pre-
compiled SQL comments against a local database. Commit the work and Return a
fixed set of results.
43. What is meant by 3-Tier architecture?
Answer
In 3-tier Client/Server systems, the application logic (or process) lives in the middle
tier and it is separated from the data and the user interface. In theory, the 3-tier
Client/Server systems are more scalable, robust and flexible.
Example: TP monitor, Web.
44. What is meant by 2-Tier architecture?
Answer
In 2-tier Client/Server systems, the application logic is either burried inside the user
interface on the client or within the database on the server.
Example: File servers and Database servers with stored procedures.
45. What is Load balancing?
Answer
If the number of incoming clients requests exceeds the number of processes in a
server class, the TP Monitor may dynamically start new ones and this is called Load
balancing.
46. What are called Fat clients and Fat servers?
Answer
If the bulk of the application runs on the Client side, then it is Fat clients. It is used
for decision support and personal software.
If the bulk of the application runs on the Server side, then it is Fat servers. It tries to
minimize network interchanges by creating more abstract levels of services.
47. What is meant by Horizontal scaling and Vertical scaling?
Answer
Horizontal scaling means adding or removing client workstations with only a slight
performance impact. Vertical scaling means migrating to a larger and faster server
machine or multiservers.
48. What is Groupware server?
Answer
Groupware addresses the management of semi-structured information such as text,
image, mail, bulletin boards and the flow of work. These Client/Server systems have
people in direct contact with other people.
49. What are the two broad classes of middleware?
Answer
General middleware
Service-specific middleware.
50. What are the types of Servers?
Answer
File servers
Database servers
Transaction servers
Groupware servers
Object servers
Web servers.
51. What is a File server?
Answer
File servers are useful for sharing files across a network. With a file server, the client
passes requests for file records over network to file server.
52. What are the five major technologies that can be used to create Client/Server
applications?
Answer
Database Servers
TP Monitors
Groupware
Distributed Objects
Intranets.
53. What is Client/Server?
Answer
Clients and Servers are separate logical entities that work together over a network
to accomplish a task. Many systems with very different architectures that are
connected together are also called Client/Server.
54. List out the benefits obtained by using the Client/Server oriented TP Monitors?
Answer
Client/Server applications development framework.
Firewalls of protection.
High availability.
Load balancing.
MOM integration.
Scalability of functions.
Reduced system cost.
55. What are the services provided by the Operating System?
Answer
Extended services - These are add-on modular software components that are
layered on top of base service.
56. What is ACID property?
Answer
ACID is a term coined by Andrew Reuter in 1983, which stands for Atomicity,
Consistence, Isolation and Durability.
57. What are Stored procedures?
Answer
A stored procedure is named collection of SQL statements and procedural logic that
is compiled, verified and stored in a server database. It is typically treated like any
other database object. Stored procedures accept input parameters so that a single
procedure can be used over the network by multiple clients using different input
data. A single remote message triggers the execution of a collection of stored SQL
statements. The results is a reduction of network traffic and better performance.
58. What is wide-mouth frog?
Answer
Wide-mouth frog is the simplest known key distribution center (KDC) authentication
protocol.
59. What is passive topology?
Answer
When the computers on the network simply listen and receive the signal, they are
referred to as passive because they dont amplify the signal in any way.
Example for passive topology - linear bus.
60. What is region?
Answer
When hierarchical routing is used, the routers are divided into what we call regions,
with each router knowing all the details about how to route packets to destinations
within its own region, but knowing nothing about the internal structure of other
regions.
61. What is virtual channel?
Answer
Virtual channel is normally a connection from one source to one destination,
although multicast connections are also permitted. The other name for virtual
channel is virtual circuit.
62. Difference between the communication and transmission?
Answer
Transmission is a physical movement of information and concern issues like bit
polarity, synchronization, clock etc.
Communication means the meaning full exchange of information between two
communication media.
63. What is the difference between TFTP and FTP application layer protocols?
Answer
The Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) allows a local host to obtain files from a
remote host but does not provide reliability or security. It uses the fundamental
packet delivery services offered by UDP.
The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is the standard mechanism provided by TCP / IP for
copying a file from one host to another. It uses the services offered by TCP and so is
reliable and secure. It establishes two connections (virtual circuits) between the
hosts, one for data transfer and another for control information.
64. What are the advantages and disadvantages of the three types of routing
tables?
Answer
The three types of routing tables are fixed, dynamic, and fixed central. The fixed
table must be manually modified every time there is a change. A dynamic table
changes its information based on network traffic, reducing the amount of manual
maintenance. A fixed central table lets a manager modify only one table, which is
then read by other devices. The fixed central table reduces the need to update each
machine's table, as with the fixed table. Usually a dynamic table causes the fewest
problems for a network administrator, although the table's contents can change
without the administrator being aware of the change.
65. What is Beaconing?
Answer
The process that allows a network to self-repair networks problems. The stations on
the network notify the other stations on the ring when they are not receiving the
transmissions. Beaconing is used in Token ring and FDDI networks.
66. What does the Mount protocol do ?
Answer
The Mount protocol returns a file handle and the name of the file system in which a
requested file resides. The message is sent to the client from the server after
reception of a client's request.
67. What are Digrams and Trigrams?
Answer
The most common two letter combinations are called as digrams. e.g. th, in, er, re
and an.
The most common three letter combinations are called as trigrams. e.g. the, ing,
and, and ion.
68. What is the HELLO protocol used for?
Answer
The HELLO protocol uses time instead of distance to determine optimal routing. It is
an alternative to the Routing Information Protocol.
69. What is the minimum and maximum length of the header in the TCP segment
and IP datagram?
Answer
The header should have a minimum length of 20 bytes and can have a maximum
length of 60 bytes.
70. What do you meant by "triple X" in Networks?
Answer
The function of PAD (Packet Assembler Disassembler) is described in a document
known as X.3. The standard protocol has been defined between the terminal and
the PAD, called X.28; another standard protocol exists between the PAD and the
network, called X.29. Together, these three recommendations are often called "triple
X".
71. What is attenuation?
Answer
The degeneration of a signal over distance on a network cable is called attenuation.
72. What is Protocol Data Unit?
Answer
The data unit in the LLC level is called the protocol data unit (PDU). The PDU
contains of four fields a destination service access point (DSAP), a source service
access point (SSAP), a control field and an information field. DSAP, SSAP are
addresses used by the LLC to identify the protocol stacks on the receiving and
sending machines that are generating and using the data. The control field specifies
whether the PDU frame is a information frame (I - frame) or a supervisory frame (S -
frame) or a unnumbered frame (U - frame).
73. What are the data units at different layers of the TCP / IP protocol suite?
Answer
The data unit created at the application layer is called a message, at the transport
layer,
the data unit created is called either a segment or an user datagram, at the network
layer,
the data unit created is called the datagram, at the data link layer the datagram is
encapsulated in to a frame and finally transmitted as signals along the transmission
media.
74. What is difference between ARP and RARP?
Answer
The address resolution protocol (ARP) is used to associate the 32 bit IP address with
the 48 bit physical address, used by a host or a router to find the physical address
of another host on its network by sending a ARP query packet that includes the IP
address of the receiver.
The reverse address resolution protocol (RARP) allows a host to discover its Internet
address when it knows only its physical address.
75. What is MAC address?
Answer
The address for a device as it is identified at the Media Access Control (MAC) layer
in the network architecture. MAC address is usually stored in ROM on the network
adapter card and is unique.
76. What is terminal emulation, in which layer it comes?
Answer
Telnet is also called as terminal emulation. It belongs to application layer.
77. What are major types of networks and explain?
Answer
Server-based network,
Peer-to-peer network.
Peer-to-peer network, computers can act as both servers sharing resources and as
clients using the resources.
Server-based networks provide centralized control of network resources and rely on
server computers to provide security and network administration.
78. What is SAP?
Answer
Series of interface points that allow other computers to communicate with the other
layers of network protocol stack.
79. What is multicast routing?
Answer
Sending a message to a group is called multicasting, and its routing algorithm is
called multicast routing.
80. What is the difference between routable and non- routable protocols?
Answer
Routable protocols can work with a router and can be used to build large networks.
Non-Routable protocols are designed to work on small, local networks and cannot be
used with a router.
81. What is REX?
Answer
Request to Exit (REX) - A signal that informs the controller that someone has
requested to exit from a secure area.
82. What is redirector?
Answer
Redirector is software that intercepts file or prints I/O requests and translates them
into network requests. This comes under presentation layer.
83. What is packet filter?
Answer
Packet filter is a standard router equipped with some extra functionality. The extra
functionality allows every incoming or outgoing packet to be inspected. Packets
meeting some criterion are forwarded normally. Those that fail the test are dropped.
84. What is logical link control?
Answer
One of two sublayers of the data link layer of OSI reference model, as defined by the
IEEE 802 standard. This sublayer is responsible for maintaining the link between
computers when they are sending data across the physical network connection.
85. What is traffic shaping?
Answer
One of the main causes of congestion is that traffic is often busy. If hosts could be
made to transmit at a uniform rate, congestion would be less common. Another
open loop method to help manage congestion is forcing the packet to be
transmitted at a more predictable rate. This is called traffic shaping.
86. What is NETBIOS and NETBEUI?
Answer
NETBIOS is a programming interface that allows I/O requests to be sent to and
received from a remote computer and it hides the networking hardware from
applications.
NETBEUI is NetBIOS extended user interface. A transport protocol designed by
microsoft and IBM for the use on small subnets.
87. Why should you care about the OSI Reference Model?
Answer
It provides a framework for discussing network operations and design.
88. What is Proxy ARP?
Answer
Is using a router to answer ARP requests. This will be done when the originating host
believes that a destination is local, when in fact is lies beyond router.
89. What is EGP (Exterior Gateway Protocol)?
Answer
It is the protocol the routers in neighboring autonomous systems use to identify the
set of networks that can be reached within or via each autonomous system.
90. What is IGP (Interior Gateway Protocol)?
Answer
It is any routing protocol used within an autonomous system.
91. What is OSPF?
Answer
It is an Internet routing protocol that scales well, can route traffic along multiple
paths, and uses knowledge of an Internet's topology to make accurate routing
decisions.
93. What is SLIP (Serial Line Interface Protocol)?
Answer
It is a very simple protocol used for transmission of IP datagrams across a serial
line.
94. What is silly window syndrome?
Answer
It is a problem that can ruin TCP performance. This problem occurs when data are
passed to the sending TCP entity in large blocks, but an interactive application on
the receiving side reads 1 byte at a time.
95. What is a Multi-homed Host?
Answer
It is a host that has a multiple network interfaces and that requires multiple IP
addresses is called as a Multi-homed Host.
96. What is autonomous system?
Answer
It is a collection of routers under the control of a single administrative authority and
that uses a common Interior Gateway Protocol.
97. What is the difference between interior and exterior neighbor gateways?
Answer
Interior gateways connect LANs of one organization, whereas exterior gateways
connect the organization to the outside world.
98. What is MAU?
Answer
In token Ring , hub is called Multistation Access Unit(MAU).
99. Explain 5-4-3 rule.?
Answer
In a Ethernet network, between any two points on the network, there can be no
more than five network segments or four repeaters, and of those five segments only
three of segments can be populated.
100. What is difference between baseband and broadband transmission?
Answer
In a baseband transmission, the entire bandwidth of the cable is consumed by a
single signal. In broadband transmission, signals are sent on multiple frequencies,
allowing multiple signals to be sent simultaneously.
101. What is ICMP?
Answer
ICMP is Internet Control Message Protocol, a network layer protocol of the TCP/IP
suite used by hosts and gateways to send notification of datagram problems back to
the sender. It uses the echo test / reply to test whether a destination is reachable
and responding. It also handles both control and error messages.
102. What is Brouter?
Answer
Hybrid devices that combine the features of both bridges and routers.
103. What is frame relay, in which layer it comes?
Answer
Frame relay is a packet switching technology. It will operate in the data link layer.
104. What is External Data Representation?
Answer
External Data Representation is a method of encoding data within an RPC message,
used to ensure that the data is not system-dependent.
105. What is Bandwidth?
Answer
Every line has an upper limit and a lower limit on the frequency of signals it can
carry. This limited range is called the bandwidth.
106. What protocol is used by DNS name servers?
Answer
DNS uses UDP for communication between servers. It is a better choice than TCP
because of the improved speed a connectionless protocol offers. Of course,
transmission reliability suffers with UDP.
107. What is the range of addresses in the classes of internet addresses?
Answer
Class A 0.0.0.0 - 127.255.255.255
Class B 128.0.0.0 - 191.255.255.255
Class C 192.0.0.0 - 223.255.255.255
Class D 224.0.0.0 - 239.255.255.255
Class E 240.0.0.0 - 247.255.255.255.
108. What are the important topologies for networks?
Answer
BUS topology:
In this each computer is directly connected to primary network cable in a single line.
Advantages:
Inexpensive, easy to install, simple to understand, easy to extend.
STAR topology:
In this all computers are connected using a central hub.
Advantages:
Can be inexpensive, easy to install and reconfigure and easy to trouble shoot
physical problems.
RING topology:
In this all computers are connected in loop.
Advantages:
All computers have equal access to network media, installation can be simple, and
signal does not degrade as much as in other topologies because each computer
regenerates it.
109. Difference between bit rate and baud rate?
Answer
Bit rate is the number of bits transmitted during one second whereas baud rate
refers to the number of signal units per second that are required to represent those
bits.
baud rate = bit rate / N
where N is no-of-bits represented by each signal shift.
110. What is anonymous FTP and why would you use it?
Answer
Anonymous FTP enables users to connect to a host without using a valid login and
password. Usually, anonymous FTP uses a login called anonymous or guest, with the
password usually requesting the user's ID for tracking purposes only. Anonymous
FTP is used to enable a large number of users to access files on the host without
having to go to the trouble of setting up logins for them all. Anonymous FTP
systems usually have strict controls over the areas an anonymous user can access.
111. What is the difference between an unspecified passive open and a fully
specified passive open?
Answer
An unspecified passive open has the server waiting for a connection request from a
client.
A fully specified passive open has the server waiting for a connection from a specific
client.
112. What is virtual path?
Answer
Along any transmission path from a given source to a given destination, a group of
virtual circuits can be grouped together into what is called path.
113. Explain the function of Transmission Control Block?
Answer
A TCB is a complex data structure that contains a considerable amount of
information about each connection.
114. What is a DNS resource record?
Answer
A resource record is an entry in a name server's database. There are several types
of resource records used, including name-to-address resolution information.
Resource records are maintained as ASCII files.
115. What is a pseudo tty?
Answer
A pseudo tty or false terminal enables external machines to connect through Telnet
or rlogin. Without a pseudo tty, no connection can take place.
116. What is the Network Time Protocol?
Answer
A protocol that assures accurate local timekeeping with reference to radio and
atomic clocks located on the Internet. This protocol is capable of synchronising
distributed clocks within milliseconds over long time periods. It is defined in STD 12,
RFC 1119.
117. What is mesh network?
Answer
A network in which there are multiple network links between computers to provide
multiple paths for data to travel.
118. What is RAID?
Answer
A method for providing fault tolerance by using multiple hard disk drives.
119. What is a Management Information Base (MIB)?
Answer
A Management Information Base is part of every SNMP-managed device. Each SNMP
agent has the MIB database that contains information about the device's status, its
performance, connections, and configuration. The MIB is queried by SNMP.
120. What is cladding?
Answer
A layer of a glass surrounding the center fiber of glass inside a fiber-optic cable.
121. What is subnet?
Answer
A generic term for section of a large networks usually separated by a bridge or
router.
A gateway operates at the upper levels of the OSI model and translates information
between two completely different network architectures or data formats.
122. What is point-to-point protocol?
Answer
A communications protocol used to connect computers to remote networking
services including Internet service providers.
123. What are 10Base2, 10Base5 and 10BaseT Ethernet LANs ?
Answer
10Base2An Ethernet term meaning a maximum transfer rate of 10 Megabits per
second that uses baseband signaling, with a contiguous cable segment length of
100 meters and a maximum of 2 segments
10Base5An Ethernet term meaning a maximum transfer rate of 10 Megabits per
second that uses baseband signaling, with 5 continuous segments not exceeding
100 meters per segment.
10BaseTAn Ethernet term meaning a maximum transfer rate of 10 Megabits per
second that uses baseband signaling and twisted pair cabling.
124. What are the possible ways of data exchange?
Answer
(i) Simplex
(ii) Half-duplex
(iii) Full-duplex.
125. What are the two types of transmission technology available?
Answer
(i) Broadcast
(ii) point-to-point.
126. How do I convert a numeric IP address like 192.18.97.39 into a hostname
like java.sun.com?
Answer
String hostname = InetAddress.getByName("192.18.97.39").getHostName().
127. Where do you get updates on security?
Answer
This type of question is meant to see the interest of the candidate in keeping
abreast in the field of network security. If the candidate puts up a blank face, it is
time to call next candidate. One can specify "news alerts" or any website(s) s/he
checks out for latest information about security.
128. If you need to encrypt and compress data for transmission, how would you
achieve it?
Answer
The candidate may start explaining what is data encryption, how s/he would encrypt
the data and then compress it for transmission. However, the actual answer would
be to explain how to compress and then talk about encryption. Encrypting
compressed data often leads to loss of data.
129. What factors would you consider before deploying a web intrusion detection
system?
Answer
An open question, the interviewer is trying to assess the knowledge of candidate in
different fields associated with web intrusion. These include: SSL; HTTP protocol;
logging; alert mechanism; and signature update policies.
130. What is Cross site scripting?
Answer
Though the answer is straightforward, most candidates are unaware of the term.
One of the most important security issues, cross scripting refers to phishing
attempts by a website that employs a java script that leads to deploying a malware
without the knowledge of user.

131. How does the HTTP handle state?

Answer
The answer is that HTTP cannot handle states. However, there is a hack. It employs
use of cookies to handle the state.
132. In context of public key encryption, if you are using both signature and
encryption features, what key will you use for encryption and which one will you use
for signing?
Answer
Answer is simple. One would always sign using their key so the public key is used
for encryption. Most of the candidates tend to name public key for both signing and
encryption. They miss out the point that public key encryption also includes a
private key.
133. What type of network do you use at home?
Answer
Again, this question is employed to assess the skills and networking background of
candidates. "I don't have a network at home but I have handled networks at so and
so places" is better than saying "sorry, I don't have a network at home". The latter
would send out a signal that the candidate never had exposure to networks.
134. What is Cross Site Request Forgery and how to defend against it?
Answer
The question can also be in two parts, in which case, candidates without knowledge
of CSRF would get lost. If asked combined, candidates can guess that cross site
request forgery is something that relates to malicious scripting with phishing
intentions. The question may also be framed as "what is cross site request". In this
case, candidates cannot even guess that it is something malicious as the word
'forgery' is not there.
135. Name the port used by PING?
Answer
Always remember that PING does not use any port. As PING is based upon layer 3
protocol, it never uses any computer port. A simple variation of the question could
be: Does PING use UDP? Or Does PING use TCP? Again remember that UDP and TCP
are layer 4 protocols and PING has nothing to do with them.
136. Security Life Cycle?
Answer
It can be phrased in many ways: what comes first vulnerability or threat? How do
you design a system with some options given? The candidate needs to answer
these questions using his/her own experience and opinions. The objective is how
best the candidate can explain what you asked.
These are just some of the network security interview questions that are meant to
give you an idea of how a security interview goes. If you wish to share your
experience or wish to add anything, please feel free to share using comments box.
137. Define the meaning of an Authentication?
Answer
Well sir, an Authentication factor is a piece of information and process used to
authenticate or verify the identity of a person or other entity requesting access
under security constraints. In other word, it is a process of proving the identity of a
computer or computer user. For users, it generally involves a user name and
password. Computers usually pass a code that identifies that they are part of a
network.
138. What is the sense of a fingerprint?
Answer
A fingerprint is an impression of the friction ridges on all parts of the finger. A
friction ridge is a raised portion of the epidermis on the palmer (palm) or digits i.e.
fingers and toes or plantar or sole skin, consisting of one or more connected ridge
units of friction ridge skin. This is also known as Epidermal Ridges which is
originated by the underlying interface between the dermal papillae of the dermis
and the interpapillary (rete) pegs of the epidermis.
139. What a security mean in your sense?
Answer
A security is a fungible, negotiable instrument representing financial value.
Securities are generally sorted out into debt securities such as banknotes, bonds
and debentures and equity securities.
For example: common stocks and derivative contracts such as forwards, futures,
options and swaps.
140. What is a Password?
Answer
A password is a secret word or string of characters that is used for authentication to
prove identity or gain access to a resource. The password must be kept secret from
those not allowed access.
For example: An access code is a type of password.
141. What is a Smart Card or Chip Card or Integrated Circuit Card (ICC)?
Answer
A Smart Card or Chip Card or Integrated Circuit Card (ICC) is any pocket-sized card
with embedded integrated circuits which can process data. This implies that it can
receive input which is processed by the way of the ICC applications and delivered as
an output.
142. Finally, who is a hacker?
Answer
A hacker is a person who breaks into computers usually by gaining access to
administrative controls. He uses to access the user id and password without taking
the permission. As a result of this article, you will definitely going to show best
performance in the interview.
143. What is ACID property in client server environment?
Answer
ACID is a term coined by Andrew Reuter in 1983, which stands for Atomicity,
Consistence, Isolation and Durability.
ACID property is the basic property for transaction processing.
A - atomicity
C - consistency
I - isolation
D - durability.
144. What is meant by 2-Tier architecture in client server environment?
Answer
In 2-tier Client/Server systems, the application logic is either burried inside the user
interface on the client or within the database on the server.
Example: File servers and Database servers with stored procedures.
145. What is meant by Transparency in client server environment?
Answer
Transparency really means hiding the network and its servers from the users and
even the application programmers.
146. What is a Web server in client server environment?
Answer
This new model of Client/Server consists of thin, protable, "universal" clients that
talk to superfat servers. In the simplet form, a web server returns documents when
clients ask for them by name. The clients and server communicate using an RPC-like
protocol called HTTP
147. What is a Database Server in client server environment?
Answer
With a database server, the client passes SQL requests as messages to the
database server. The results of each SQL command are returned over the network.
The server uses its own processing power to find the request data instead of
passing all the records back to the client and then getting it find its own data. The
result is a much more efficient use of distributed processing power. It is also known
as SQL engine.
148. What are Super servers in client server environment?
Answer
These are fully-loaded machines which includes multiprocessors, high-speed disk
arrays for intervive I/O and fault tolerant features.
149. What is Message Oriented Middleware (MOM) in client server environment?
Answer
MOM allows general purpose messages to be exchanged in a Client/Server system
using message queues. Applications communicate over networks by simply putting
messages in the queues and getting messages from queues. It typically provides a
very simple high level APIs to its services.
MOM's messaging and queuing allow clients and servers to communicate across a
network without being linked by a private, dedicated, logical connection. The clients
and server can run at different times. It is a post-office like metaphor.
150. What are the two types of OLTP in client server environment?
Answer
TP lite, based on stored procedures,
TP heavy, based on the TP monitors.
151. What is a TP Monitor in client server environment?
Answer
There is no commonly accepted definition for a TP monitor. According to Jeri
Edwards' a TP Monitor is "an OS for transaction processing".
TP Monitor does mainly two things extremely well. They are Process management
and Transaction management.
They were originally introduced to run classes of applications that could service
hundreds and sometimes thousands of clients. TP Monitors provide an OS - on top of
existing OS - that connects in real time these thousands of humans with a pool of
shared server processes.
152. What are all the Base services provided by the OS in client server
environment?
Answer
Task preemption
Task priority
Semaphores
Interprocess communications (IPC)
Local/Remote Interprocess communication
Threads
Intertask protection
Multiuser
High performance file system
Efficient memory management and
Dynamically linked Run-time extensions.
153. What is a Transaction server in client server environment?
Answer
With a transaction server, the client invokes remote procedures that reside on the
server with an SQL database engine. These remote procedures on the server
execute a group of SQL statements. The network exchange consists of a single
request/reply message. The SQL statements either all succeed or fail as a unit.
154. What are the five major technologies that can be used to create Client/Server
applications in client server environment?
Answer
Database Servers
TP Monitors
Groupware
Distributed Objects
Intranets.
155. What are General Middleware in client server environment?
Answer
It includes the communication stacks, distributed directories, authentication
services, network time, RPC, Queuing services along with the network OS
extensions such as the distributed file and print services.
156. What are the two broad classes of middleware in client server environment?
Answer
General middleware,
Service-specific middleware.
157. What is an Object server in client server environment?
Answer
With an object server, the Client/Server application is written as a set of
communicating objects. Client object communicate with server objects using an
Object Request Broker (ORB). The client invokes a method on a remote object. The
ORB locates an instance of that object server class, invokes the requested method
and returns the results to the client object. Server objects must provide support for
concurrency and sharing. The ORB brings it all together.
158. Why is Bluetooth called a cable replacement technology?
Answer
Bluetooth technology allows the creation of Personal Area Networks without cables
or wires that are usual in home networks.
159. Give a generic description of Bluetooth?
Answer
Bluetooth is a low-cost, short-range (RF) links between mobile PCs, mobile phones
and other portable devices. Bluetooth can transmit through solid, non-metal objects.
160. Why can Bluetooth equipment integrate easily in TCP/IP network?
Answer
Because Bluetooth uses wireless LAN standards IEEE for data transmission.
215. Explain Proxy ARP?
Answer
It is using a router to answer ARP requests. This will be done when the originating
host believes that a destination is local, when in fact is lies beyond router.
216. Explain OSPF?
Answer
It is an Internet routing protocol that scales well, can route traffic along multiple
paths, and uses knowledge of an Internet's topology to make accurate routing
decisions.
217. Explain Kerberos?
Answer
It is an authentication service developed at the Massachusetts Institute of
Technology. Kerberos uses encryption to prevent intruders from discovering
passwords and gaining unauthorized access to files.
218. Explain a Multi-homed Host?
Answer
It is a host that has a multiple network interfaces and that requires multiple IP
addresses is called as a Multi-homed Host.
219. Explain NVT (Network Virtual Terminal)?
Answer
It is a set of rules defining a very simple virtual terminal interaction. The NVT is used
in the start of a Telnet session.
220. Explain Gateway-to-Gateway protocol?
Answer
It is a protocol formerly used to exchange routing information between Internet core
routers.
221. Explain BGP (Border Gateway Protocol)?
Answer
It is a protocol used to advertise the set of networks that can be reached with in an
autonomous system. BGP enables this information to be shared with the
autonomous system. This is newer than EGP (Exterior Gateway Protocol).
222. Explain autonomous system?
Answer
It is a collection of routers under the control of a single administrative authority and
that uses a common Interior Gateway Protocol.
223. Explain EGP (Exterior Gateway Protocol)?
Answer
It is the protocol the routers in neighboring autonomous systems use to identify the
set of networks that can be reached within or via each autonomous system.
224. Explain IGP (Interior Gateway Protocol)?
Answer
It is any routing protocol used within an autonomous system.
225. Explain passive topology?
Answer
When the computers on the network simply listen and receive the signal, they are
referred to as passive because they don't amplify the signal in any way. Example for
passive topology - linear bus.
226. Explain Protocol Data Unit?
Answer
The data unit in the LLC level is called the protocol data unit (PDU). The PDU
contains of four fields a destination service access point (DSAP), a source service
access point (SSAP), a control field and an information field. DSAP, SSAP are
addresses used by the LLC to identify the protocol stacks on the receiving and
sending machines that are generating and using the data. The control field specifies
whether the PDU frame is a information frame (I - frame) or a supervisory frame (S -
frame) or a unnumbered frame (U - frame).
227. Explain difference between baseband and broadband transmission?
Answer
In a baseband transmission, the entire bandwidth of the cable is consumed by a
single signal. In broadband transmission, signals are sent on multiple frequencies,
allowing multiple signals to be sent simultaneously.
228. Explain External Data Representation?
Answer
External Data Representation is a method of encoding data within an RPC message,
used to ensure that the data is not system-dependent.
229. What does the Mount protocol do?
Answer
The Mount protocol returns a file handle and the name of the file system in which a
requested file resides. The message is sent to the client from the server after
reception of a client's request.
230. Explain a pseudo tty?
Answer
A pseudo tty or false terminal enables external machines to connect through Telnet
or rlogin. Without a pseudo tty, no connection can take place.
231. Explain anonymous FTP and why would you use it?
Answer
Anonymous FTP enables users to connect to a host without using a valid login and
password. Usually, anonymous FTP uses a login called anonymous or guest, with the
password usually requesting the user's ID for tracking purposes only. Anonymous
FTP is used to enable a large number of users to access files on the host without
having to go to the trouble of setting up logins for them all. Anonymous FTP
systems usually have strict controls over the areas an anonymous user can access.
232. Explain a Management Information Base (MIB)?
Answer
A Management Information Base is part of every SNMP-managed device. Each SNMP
agent has the MIB database that contains information about the device's status, its
performance, connections, and configuration. The MIB is queried by SNMP.
233. Explain the difference between an unspecified passive open and a fully
specified passive open?
Answer
An unspecified passive open has the server waiting for a connection request from a
client. A fully specified passive open has the server waiting for a connection from a
specific client.
234. Explain redirector?
Answer
Redirector is software that intercepts file or prints I/O requests and translates them
into network requests. This comes under presentation layer.
235. Explain NETBIOS and NETBEUI?
Answer
NETBIOS is a programming interface that allows I/O requests to be sent to and
received from a remote computer and it hides the networking hardware from
applications. NETBEUI is NetBIOS extended user interface. A transport protocol
designed by microsoft and IBM for the use on small subnets.
236. Explain RAID?
Answer
A method for providing fault tolerance by using multiple hard disk drives.
237. Explain cladding?
Answer
A layer of a glass surrounding the center fiber of glass inside a fiber-optic cable.
238. Explain attenuation?
Answer
The degeneration of a signal over distance on a network cable is called attenuation.
239. Explain MAC address?
Answer
The address for a device as it is identified at the Media Access Control (MAC) layer
in the network architecture. MAC address is usually stored in ROM on the network
adapter card and is unique.
240. Difference between bit rate and baud rate?
Answer
Bit rate is the number of bits transmitted during one second whereas baud rate
refers to the number of signal units per second that are required to represent those
bits. baud rate = bit rate / N where N is no-of-bits represented by each signal shift.
241. Explain Bandwidth?
Answer
Every line has an upper limit and a lower limit on the frequency of signals it can
carry. This limited range is called the bandwidth.
242. Explain ICMP?
Answer
ICMP is Internet Control Message Protocol, a network layer protocol of the TCP/IP
suite used by hosts and gateways to send notification of datagram problems back to
the sender. It uses the echo test / reply to test whether a destination is reachable
and responding. It also handles both control and error messages.
243. Explain difference between ARP and RARP?
Answer
The address resolution protocol (ARP) is used to associate the 32 bit IP address with
the 48 bit physical address, used by a host or a router to find the physical address
of another host on its network by sending a ARP query packet that includes the IP
address of the receiver. The reverse address resolution protocol (RARP) allows a
host to discover its Internet address when it knows only its physical address.
244. Explain the minimum and maximum length of the header in the TCP segment
and IP datagram?
Answer
The header should have a minimum length of 20 bytes and can have a maximum
length of 60 bytes.
245. Expand IDEA?
Answer
IDEA stands for International Data Encryption Algorithm.
246. Define the term "DMZ" as it pertains to network security, and name three
different common network devices that are typically found there?
Answer
It's easy to think of your network as the "inside", and everything else as "outside".
However, we've got a third area when it comes to firewalls - the DMZ.
From an IT standpoint, the DMZ is the part of our network that is exposed to outside
networks. It's common to find the following devices in a DMZ:
FTP server
Email server
E-commerce server
DNS servers
Web servers.
247. Does the Cisco IOS Firewall feature set act as a stateful or stateless packet
filter?
Answer
The Cisco IOS Firewall is a stateful filter.
248. What is the access list range for extended IP Access list?
Answer
The access list range is 100 - 199.
249. Name a x.25 addressing standard?
Answer
X.121 is a x.25 layer 3 add. standard.
250. Where can the backup configuration file be found?
Answer
It is stored in the NVRAM.
251. How can a router be configured?
Answer
It can be configured by TFTP, Nvram or Console
252. Which mechanism takes place in a traffic light?
Answer
Flow control.
253. What is Windowing?
Answer
It is a kind of flow control.
254. Name the OSI Layer which helps ensure packet delivery?
Answer
Network layer.
255. What is the number range of IPX access list?
Answer
The range is 800-899.
256. How can you vary the routers boot sequence?
Answer
It can be done by boot system commands and config register.
257. Which hardware is necessary for broadcasts?
Answer
switch, repeater and bridge.
258. What is the use of IPX SAP?
Answer
It stands for Service Advertising Protocol and it is used to advertise services.
259. Which protocol helps test the connectivity without configuration of layer 3
protocols?
Answer
CDP protocol.
260. What is the default serial encapsulation?
Answer
HDLC is the default serial encapsulation.
261. What is the use of ARP?
Answer
It is used to determine the MAC Address of a workstation.
262. Name the default IPX Ethernet encapsulation?
Answer
Novell-Ether is the default IPX Ethernet encapsulation.
263. Which compression protocols are used for PPP?
Answer
Stac and Predictor.
264. Which authentication method is preferred to set up a session?
Answer
CHAP.
265. What is the use of Multilink Protocol MP?
Answer
It is used to provide load balancing across multiple links.
266. What is magic number?
Answer
It helps avoid frame looping.
267. What is the Quality Protocol?
Answer
It monitors data dropped on a link.
268. Which are the different forms of WAN Services accessed by Cisco Routers?
Answer
These are Switched services, Using protocols connecting peer to peer devices and
Interface front end to IBM Enterprise Data center computers.
269. How can we convert the user data from DTE to WAN service form?
Answer
We can use the Modem, CSU/DSU and TA/NT1 for this.
270. Which service is used to get data from multiple sources and allocate bandwidth
on one?
Answer
TDM or Time Domain Multiplexing.
271. Which abbrevation is used to tell the router to check all numbers?
Answer
host.
272. What happens if we set a wildcard mask bit to '0' in cisco routers?
Answer
The router checks the corresponding bit value.
273. How many access lists are allowed per interface?
Answer
One Access list per port, per protocol is allowed.
274. When using access lists, what does a Cisco router check first?
Answer
The cisco routers checks whether the packet is routable or bridgeable.
275. What do you know about the UDP Datagram format?
Answer
Source Port - 16 bits, Destination Port - 16 bits, Length - 16 Bits, Checksum - 16 bits,
Data.
276. Cisco router has two types of access lists?
Answer
Standard and Extended.
277. What is the use of DDR on Cisco Routers?
Answer
It is used for dial on demand routing. DDR provides routing for low volume and
periodic traffic.
278. Which field in the IP Packet has network testing?
Answer
The network testing is found in IP Options field.
279. Which process is used to find an IP address from a MAC Address?
Answer
RARP Process.
280. Which format is useful for configuring the subnet mask for an IP Address?
Answer
dotted decimal, hexadecimal and bit count formats can be used.
281. How many DNS Servers can be specified with one command?
Answer
6 DNS Servers can be specified with one command.
282. Important features of PPP CHAP Authentication?
Answer
Authentication messages and local router challenges.
283. Which is the IPX Serial encapsulation by default?
Answer
HDLC.
284. Which hardware component is used to store backup configuration?
Answer
NVRAM is used for this.
285. What is the range of extended IP access list?
Answer
The range is 100-199.
286. What are the two important TCP Socket classes?
Answer
Socket and ServerSocket. ServerSocket is used for normal two-way socket
communication. Socket class allows us to read and write through the sockets.
getInputStream() and getOutputStream() are the two methods available in Socket
class.
287. What is the difference between URL instance and URLConnection instance?
Answer
A URL instance represents the location of a resource, and a URLConnection instance
represents a link for accessing or communicating with the resource at the location.
288. What information is needed to create a TCP Socket?
Answer
The Local System's IP Address and Port Number. And the Remote System's
IPAddress and Port Number.
289. What is a network card?
Answer
A network card is an expansion card installed in a computer that enables the
computer to be physically connected to a network.
290. List the different types of network card?
Answer
The different types of network card are as follows:
Ethernet card.
Wireless network card.
Token Ring network card.
291. What connectors are used in the Ethernet and wireless network cards?
Answer
Ethernet network cards use the RJ-45 connector; whereas, wireless network cards
usually have no external connections other than an antenna jack.
292. What are the different types of connectors?
Answer
The different types of connectors are DB-9, DB-25, RJ-11, RJ- 45, Bayonet Neill-
Concelman (BNC), PS2/MINI-DIN, and Universal Serial Bus (USB).
293.What is the use of RJ-11 connector?
Answer
The RJ-11 connector is generally used to connect standard telephone cord.
294. What is the use of RJ-45 connector?
Answer
The FU-45 connector is an industry standard for Ethernet and Fast Ethernet
networking. It is used to attach short cable (patch cable) to connect the computer to
wall jack.
295. What is the use of USB connector?
Answer
USB is an external hardware interface and communications standard that is utilized
for connecting varied peripherals to a computer, such as mouse, external drive,
digital cameras, memory sticks, and gaming peripherals.
296. What type of connector is used to connect a modem to wall jack?
Answer
RJ-11 is used to connect a modem to wall jack.
297. How many devices can be connected to one USB port?
Answer
USB hubs can generally extend a USB network to a maximum of 127 ports.
298. What is the length of USB cable?
Answer
Normally, USB cables are limited to 5m; however, hubs can be used as an active
USB repeater to extend the cable length for up to 5m at a time.
299. What are the main types of computer cabling?
Answer
The following are the main types of computer cabling:
Twisted Pair cable.
Coaxial cable.
Fiber-optic cable.
300. What is Twisted Pair?
Answer
Twisted Pair is made up of insulated copper wire twisted around each other to form
wire pairs. It helps in reducing the noise from external sources and crosstalk on
multi-pair cables.
301. How many classes of Twisted Pair are available?
Answer
Following two classes of Twisted Pair are available:
1. Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP).
2. Shielded Twisted Pair (STP).
302. Category 3 and Category 5 cables belong to which class of Twisted Pair?
Answer
The Category 3 and Category 5 cables belong to UTP class of Twisted Pair.
303. How many Twisted Pairs of copper wire are there in Category 5 cable?
Answer
The Category 5 cable contains four Twisted Pairs of copper wire that are capable of
transmission of up to 100 Mbps.
304. How is STP cable different from coaxial cable?
Answer
In STP cable, the twisted pair is wrapped in foil to decrease external interference
and electromagnetic radiations. In coaxial cable, the center cable is insulated by a
plastic-foam, a second conductor, a foil wrap, and an external plastic tube.
305. List the commonly used coaxial cable?
Answer
Following are the commonly used Coaxial cables:
10Base5(Ethernet)- RG8 and RG11.
10Base2(Ethernet)-RG58.
Cable TV-RG59.
ARCnet-RG62.
306. What is fiber-optic cable?
Answer
Fiber-optic cable is used to transmit light signals over long distances. It has the
ability to carry large amount of bandwidth over a greater distance at faster speeds.
Fiber- optic cable has the core in the center, which is the glass fiber that carries the
light signals. The cladding layer surrounds the core and acts as a mirror allowing the
light to reflect off it as the light travels. Outermost layer of the cable is buffer
coating, which protects both fiber and cladding, and prevents signals from leaking
out of the cable. It also protects the fiber from damage and moisture.
307. Explain the function of fiber-optic cable?
Answer
The fiber-optic cable uses light pulses to carry and transmit data from point to point.
Pulses of light are sent from one end of the cable to the other end. The pulses
represent data being transmitted that a decoder at the other end of the cable can
decode into information.
308. What are the two different types of fiber-optic cables?
Answer
There are two primary types of fiber-optic cables: single-mode cable and multi-
mode cable. Single-mode cable has one glass fiber strand; whereas, multi-mode
cable has two or more strands along the line. Multi-mode cable fibers are physically
larger (up to 100 microns in diameter) when compared to single-mode fibers, which
may be up to 10 microns.
309. How long is 10Base5 Ethernet cable?
Answer
The approximate maximum length of 10Base5 Ethernet cable is 500 meters.
310. What is High-Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI)?
Answer
HDMI is an interface standard used for audio-visual equipment, such as high-
definition television and DVD player. It simplifies cabling and provides users with the
high-quality home theater experience by delivering crystal-clear all-digital audio
and video through a single cable.
311. What is the bandwidth of HDMI cable?
Answer
HDMI cable can carry a bandwidth of up to five Gigabytes per second.
312. What is Ethernet cord connector?
Answer
Ethernet cord connector is a device to connect two Ethernet cables. It is a small box
that connects two shorter Ethernet cables.
313. What types of topologies are commonly used for Local Area Network (LAN) and
Wide Area Network (WAN)?
Answer
Bus, ring, star, mesh, tree, and cellular topologies are used for LANs; whereas,
point-to-point, multipoint, mesh, and cloud topologies are used for WANs.
314. Explain tree topology?
Answer
A tree topology is a LAN architecture that is similar to the bus topology but with
multiple nodes. It can also be defined as a combination of the bus and star
topologies.
315. What devices are commonly used in LAN networks?
Answer
The commonly used devices in a LAN network are repeaters, hubs, LAN extenders,
bridges, LAN switches, and routers.
316. What is repeater?
Answer
A repeater is a device used to interconnect the media segments of an extended
network. It enables a series of cable segments to be treated as a single cable.
Repeaters receive signals from one network segment and amplify, retime, and
retransmit those signals to another network segment to prevent signal deterioration
caused by long cable lengths and large numbers of connected devices.
317. What is hub?
Answer
A hub is a device that connects multiple user stations, each through a dedicated
cable.
318. Multiple devices cannot communicate on the network simultaneously;
therefore, what type of method must be used to allow one device to access network
media at a time?
Answer
Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) and token passing.
319. What is CSMA/CD?
Answer
CSMA/CD is a layer 2 access method in which if a transmitting data station detects
another signal while transmitting a frame, it stops transmitting the frame. Instead of
the frame, it transmits a jam signal, and then waits for a random time interval
before trying to send the frame again.
320. What is token passing?
Answer
A token is a small frame, which is passed from one node to another in a token ring
network. If a node has data to send, it must wait until it receives a token. After the
token is received by the node, it seizes the token, marks it as used, and attaches
the data. The frame is then addressed to the destination node and the node
continues passing the data around the ring until it arrives at the destination node.
The destination node copies the data and marks the frame as received. When the
sender node receives the frame, it implies that the data is successfully delivered.
The sender node then frees the token to be used by another node.
321. List the reasons of transmission failure?
Answer
Transmission failure can be caused by the following reasons:
1. Bad cabling.
2. Improper termination.
3. Collisions.
4. Improper cable length.
322. How many stations can be connected to 10Base2, 10BaseT, and 10Base5?
Answer
Maximum stations that can be connected to 10Base2 are 30 stations.
Maximum stations that can be connected to 10BaseT are 1024 stations per network.
Maximum stations that can be connected to 10Base5 are 100 nodes per segment
and maximum network length of 10Base5 is five segments, that is, approximately
2500 m or 8200 ft.
323. What is the maximum network length of 10Base2 and 10Base5?
Answer
The maximum network length of 10Base2 is 185 m for each segment and can be
extended up to five segments.
The maximum network length of 10Base5 is 500m for each segment and can be
extended up to five segments.
324. What is Fiber Distributed Data Interface (FDDI)?
Answer
FDDI is a token-passing dual ring fiber optic LAN specification. It supports higher
transmission speeds across larger distances of around 2 km (1.3 miles) between two
stations.
325. What is network binding?
Answer
A network binding binds a protocol to an adapter to carry traffic using that protocol.
326. What is NetBIOS Extended User Interface (NetBEUI) and is it routable?
Answer
NetBEUI is designed for peer-to-peer network and is a high_speed protocol used on
small networks. It provides a good recovery and error protection. And No, it is not
routable.
327. Where is IPX/SPX used?
Answer
IPX/SPX stands for Internetwork Packet Exchange/Sequenced Packet Exchange. It is
used in the Netware environment. IPX runs at the network layer of the Open
Systems Interconnection (OSI) model; whereas, SPX runs at the transport layer of
the OSI model.
328. What is NetBIOS?
Answer
NetBIOS stands for Network Basic Input / Output System. It is an application
interface, which operates at the session layer. It enables communication between
applications with NetBIOS compliant protocol. NetBIOS applications can be
supported over Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) and IPX/SPX.
329. What is the role of Internet Protocol (IP)?
Answer
IP provides connectionless delivery between computer systems. It does not
guarantee the delivery of the packets.
330. What is the role of Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?
Answer
TCP provides acknowledged and connection oriented communication. It provides
guaranteed delivery with proper sequencing of packets and data integrity checks.
331. What is the role of User Datagram Protocol (UDP)?
Answer
UDP is designed for connectionless unacknowledged communications. It adds the
information about the source and destination socket identifiers in the datagram's.
However, it provides an unreliable service and datagram's may arrive out of order,
or appear duplicated.
332. What is the role of Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)?
Answer
ARP resolves IP addresses to Media Access Control (MAC) addresses. Physical
frames have to be addressed to hardware MAC address of destination network
device.
333. What is the role of Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)?
Answer
ICMP controls and manages transmitted information using TCP/IP. It is an error
reporting and diagnostic utility that enables nodes, such as routers, intermediary
devices, and hosts, to share error information with other nodes.
334. What is Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) used for?
Answer
HTTP is used for transferring web-based information between client and server. It
also defines how information is formatted and transmitted over Internet.
335. What is File Transfer Protocol (FTP) used for?
Answer
FTP is used to transfer files between FTP client and FTP server.
336. What is Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) used for?
Answer
SMTP is used for sending e-mails between systems in TCP/IP environment. The main
objective of this protocol is to transfer e-mails reliably and efficiently.
337. What is Domain Name System (DNS) used for?
Answer
DNS is used to resolve logical names into IP addresses. It also stores information,
such as the list of mail servers that accept e-mail for a given Internet domain.
338. What is telnet used for?
Answer
Telnet is used to enable a remote terminal session across TCP/IP network. It is
primarily used on the Internet or LANs to provide a communication facility, which is
bidirectional, interactive, and text-oriented, using a remote terminal connection.
339. What is Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP) used for?
Answer
SLIP sends IP datagram's over a serial link and transfers network traffic over dialup
connection. It is often used where very low overhead is required. It is designed to
work over serial ports and modem connections.
340. What is Point-to-Point Protocol used for?
Answer
Point-to-Point Protocol is used to transfer network traffic over dialup connection and
it supports compression, security, error checking, and flow control. It supports
TCP/IP, IPX/SPX, and NetBEUI.
341. What is AppleTalk Protocol (ATP) used for?
Answer
ATP is used for Macintosh computers to provide connectivity to other computers.
342. What is the use of network services?
Answer
Network services enable computers to share data, processing power, and devices.
Commonly used network services are file services, print services, and messaging
services.
343. What is the use of file services?
Answer
File services are used to store and retrieve data files between devices. The different
types of application of file services are file access, file synchronization, file backup,
and file security.
344. What is the use of print services?
Answer
Print services are used to share output devices such as print and fax servers.
345. What are the services provided by an operating system?
Answer
The main services provided by an operating system are as follows:
Program execution.
I/O operations.
File system manipulation.
Communication.
Error detection.
346. What is messaging services used for?
Answer
Messaging services are used for the communication among users, their
applications, network applications, and individual documents. The user of the
messaging services can be a user or application.
347. What is electronic mail?
Answer
Electronic mail is a set of applications that supports the transfer of information and
data between two network users.
348. What is Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) used for?
Answer
DHCP is a configuration protocol that allows a computer to be configured
automatically to communicate with other computers on the network and provides a
centralized database to keep track of computers that have been connected to the
network.
349. What is the role of repeater in a network?
Answer
Repeater is used for network interconnection to receive a network signal from one
LAN cable segment and tc regenerate and retransmit the signal in its original
strength to another cable segment. In other words, it amplifies the electronic signals
from one network cable segment to another.
350. What layer does repeater work on?
Answer
Repeaters work on the physical layer of the OSI model.
351. What is the role of bridges?
Answer
Bridges reads the physical address of a device in one network and filters the
information before passing the information to another network.
352. What layer does a bridge works on?
Answer
A bridge works on the MAC layer of the data link layer in the OSI model.
353. Can bridges connect networks with different architectures?
Answer
Yes, bridges can connect different types of networks, such as Ethernet and token
ring.
354. How bridges prevent the formation of loops in a network?
Answer
Bridges support the spanning tree algorithm, which helps in communicating with
each other and negotiating which bridge will remain in the blocking state; and
therefore, prevent the formation of loops in the network.
355. What is the role of router?
Answer
A router routes the packets between two networks. It reads the information in each
packet to determine where it is going. If the packet is destined for an immediate
network to which it has access, then it strips the outer packet, readdresses the
packet to the proper Ethernet address, and transmits it on that network. If the
packet is destined for another network, then it re-packages the outer packet and
sends it to the next router.
356. What layer does a router works on?
Answer
A router works on the network layer of the OSI model.
357. What is the difference between static router and dynamic router?
Answer
Static router is configured manually; whereas, dynamic router uses the dynamic
routing algorithm to route the packets.
358. What layer does brouters work on?
Answer
Brouters work on both the network layer and the data link layer of the OSI model. It
works on the network layer for routable protocols and on the data link layer for non-
routabie protocols.
359. What is the role of gateways?
Answer
Gateways translate information between different network architectures or network
data formats. For example, it can translate TCP/IP to AppleTalk so that the
computers supporting TCP/IP can communicate with the Apple brand computers.
360. Define gateways.
Answer
Gateways are translators comprised of hardware and software. Often they are
dedicated servers with some kind gateway software installed.
361. Which device is used to divide a network into logical subnets?
Answer
Router is used to divide a network into logical subnets.
362. Which lowest level device can be used to filter the network traffic; thereby,
reducing communication load?
Answer
Bridges can be used to filter traffic and reduce communication load.
63. What is Next Generation TCP/IP stack?
Answer
Next Generation TCP/IP stack is a new implementation of Transmission Control
Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) functionality for Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)
and Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) to meet the connectivity and performance
needs of today's networking environments and technologies. The features of the
Next Generation TCP/IP stack include support for dual IP layer architecture for IPv6
and strong host model. In addition, it provides new packet filtering Application
Programming Interfaces (APIs) and mechanisms for protocol stack offload.
364. What is the role of Explicit Congestion Notification (ECN)?
Answer
When routers become congested, the incoming packets fill the buffer, which in turn
begins dropping packets. In such a case, ECN for TCP/IP provides a way for routers
to inform TCP peers that their buffers are filling due to the congestion in a network
and force them to slow their transmission of data to help prevent packet losses.
365. Can you uninstall IPv6 in Windows 2008?
Answer
No, IPv6 cannot be uninstalled in Windows 2008; however, it can be disabled.
366. Which component makes it possible to use multiple protocols on computer?
Answer
Transport Driver Interface makes it possible to use multiple protocols on computer.
367. What do you mean by unbinding the protocol?
Answer
Unbinding the protocol prevents a network interface adapter from using one of the
installed protocol modules on the computer.
368. Which component connects to the remote source of data, downloads the file,
and passes it back to Windows?
Answer
Redirector has the knowledge on how to connect to the remote source of data,
download the file, and pass it back to Windows, which in turn passes it back to the
user or the program.
369. What is the role of Server Manager in Windows Server 2008 R2?
Answer
Server Manager helps administrators through the process of installing, configuring,
and managing server roles and features that are part of Windows Server 2008 R2. It
provides a single location for administrators to change the server's system
properties and install or remove roles or features.
370. What is Windows PowerShell?
Answer
Windows PowerShell is a command-line shell and scripting language to achieve
greater productivity and make control system administration easy. It accelerates
automation of system administration tasks and improves organization's ability to
address the unique system-management problems in server environment.
371. Which service helps in setting up new computers by using a network-based
installation?
Answer
Windows Deployment Service helps in setting up new computers by using a
network-based installation.
372. Name the tool used to monitor and assess system performance and reliability.
Answer
Windows Reliability and Performance Monitor is the tool used to monitor and assess
system performance and reliability. It provides a graphical interface for customizing
performance data collection and Event Trace sessions.
373. What is Interrupt Request Line (IRQ) used for?
Answer
IRQs are hardware lines over which hardware devices send the interrupt signals to
the microprocessor.
374. What is Input /output (I/O) port address used for?
Answer
I/O ports are those sections of memory that the hardware devices use to
communicate with the operating system. When a microprocessor receives an IRQ,
the operating system checks the I/O port address to get the details of the hardware
device that has triggered the communication.
375. What is Direct Memory Access (DMA)?
Answer
DMA is a feature of computers and microprocessors that allows disk drive
controllers, graphics cards, network cards, and sound cards within the computer to
access system memory for reading and/or writing independently of the Central
Processing Unit (CPU).
376. How does a Plug and Play device automate the hardware installation process?
Answer
When a Plug and Play device is connected to the computer, a new hardware is
detected by the computer and it searches for the driver, which is then installed, and
configures the hardware to use the system resources.
377. What is device driver?
Answer
Device driver is a software component that provides an interface between the
hardware of a computer and its operating system. Hardware, such as keyboards,
controllers, and graphics cards, requires device drivers so that the operating system
can detect the devices and handle them effectively and efficiently.
378. What do you mean by client and server?
Answer
Client and server are two different machines (physical or virtual) connected in such
a manner that whenever a client posts some request to a server, the server
provides an appropriate response to the client.
379. What are the new networking features in Windows 2008 R2?
Answer
Following are the new networking features in Windows 2008 R2:
DirectAccess.
VPN Reconnect.
BranchCache.
URL-based Quality of Service (QoS).
Mobile broadband device support.
Multiple active firewall profiles.
NDF, Network Tracing, and Netsh Trace.
380. What are the different service packs available for Windows 2003 and Windows
2008?
Answer
For both Windows 2003 and Windows 2008, available service packs are SP1 and
SP2.
381. What is the role of DirectAccess?
Answer
DirectAccess enables users to access an enterprise network without the extra step
of initiating a Virtual Private Network (VPN) connection.
382. What is the role of VPN Reconnect?
Answer
VPN Reconnect automatically re-establishes a VPN connection as soon as Internet
connectivity is restored, saving users from re-entering their credentials and
recreating the VPN connection.
383. What is the role of BranchCache?
Answer
BranchCache enables updated content from file and Web servers on a Wide Area
Network (WAN) to be cached on computers at a local branch office, improving
application response time and reducing WAN traffic.
384. What is the role of URL-based QoS?
Answer
URL-based QoS enables administrators to assign a priority level to traffic based on
the Uniform Resource Locator (URL) from which the traffic originates.
385. What is the role of mobile broadband device support?
Answer
Mobile broadband device support provides a driver-based model for devices that are
used to access a mobile broadband network.
386. What is the role of multiple active firewall profiles?
Answer
Multiple active firewall profiles enable the firewall rules most appropriate for each
network adapter based on the network to which it is connected.
387. What is the role of NDF, Network Tracing, and Netsh Trace?
Answer
NDF, Network Tracing, and Netsh Trace integrate the Network Diagnostics
Framework with Network Tracing and a new Netsh context, Netsh Trace, to simplify
and consolidate network connectivity troubleshooting processes.
388. What is Netsh?
Answer
Netsh is a command-line scripting utility that is used to display or modify the
network configuration of a computer that is currently running. Both remote
computers and local computers can be configured by using the netsh command.
Netsh also provides a scripting feature that allows you to run a group of commands
in batch mode against a specified computer.
389. What is the role of live migration in Windows 2008 R2?
Answer
Live migration enables customers to move virtual machines from one host to
another with no perceivable downtime. It facilitates hardware maintenance, and
upgrades manual failover and the consolidation of workloads on fewer servers.
390. What is the function of Hyper-V Processor Compatibility Mode for live
migration?
Answer
Hyper-V Processor Compatibility Mode allows live migration across different CPU
versions within the same processor family, such as Intel Core 2 to Intel Pentium 4 or
AMD Opteron to AMD Athlon. It also enables migration across a broader range of
server host hardware.
391. What is File Classification Infrastructure (FCI)?
Answer
FCI provides a built-in solution to classify and manage files to users and help them
to save time and money. Administrators can automatically classify files based on
content and location, generate reports, and schedule file management tasks to
manage data.
392. Explain the difference between Windows Server 2008 R2 license and Windows
Server 2008 CAL?
Answer
The Windows Server 2008 CAL grants the right to a device or user to access the
server software; whereas, the Windows Server 2008 R2 license gives the license
holder the right to create, copy, store, and run the server software.
393. Is Windows Server 2008 a prerequisite for Windows Server 2008 R2?
Answer
No, Windows Server 2008 or Windows Server 2003 R2 can be upgraded to Windows
Server 2008 R2.
394. What is the difference between a Device CAL and a User CAL?
Answer
A Windows Server Device CAL permits one device to access or use the server
software; whereas, a Windows Server User CAL permits one user irrespective of a
device to access or use the server software.
395. What is Volume Licensing?
Answer
When you acquire licenses from Microsoft and its partners in certain quantities or
volumes, they offer discounts from their retail product prices. Volume Licensing
programs offer companies of all sizes an economical way to buy and manage
multiple software licenses for as few as five desktops.
396. What is Software Assurance (SA)?
Answer
Software Assurance (SA) is a way for Volume Licensing customers to keep up to
date with the latest and most innovative Microsoft products. Customers acquire the
right to install any new release of a product covered in the agreement during the
term of the coverage.
397. What is primary and extended partition?
Answer
Primary partition is an active partition where the hardware looks for boot files to
start the operating system. Extended partition is created from whatever free space
remains on the disk after creating the primary partition.
398. What is Internet SCSI (iSCSI)?
Answer
iSCSI is an industry standard that enables transmission of Small Computer System
Interface (SCSI) block commands over the existing Internet Protocol (IP) network by
using the TCP/IP protocol. It provides the possibility of delivering both messaging
traffic and block-based storage over existing IP networks, without installing a
separate and expensive Fibre Channel network.
399. What is Distributed File System or Network File System (DFS/NFS)?
Answer
DFS/NFS is any file system that allows access to multiple users on multiple
machines to share files and storage resources.
400. What is SCSI?
Answer
SCSI (pronounced as scuzzy) is a set of standards for physically connecting and
transferring data between peripheral devices and computers.
401. What technologies are used in DFS?
Answer
The two technologies used in DFS are DFS Namespaces and DFS Replication.
402. What is the role of DFS Namespaces?
Answer
DFS Namespaces enable grouping of shared folders located on different servers into
one or more logically structured namespaces.
403. What is the role of DFS Replication?
Answer
DFS Replication keeps the folders synchronized between servers across network
connections. It replaces the File Replication Service as the replication engine for DFS
Namespaces, as well as for replicating the AD DS SYSVOL folder in domains that use
the Windows Server 2008 domain functional level.
404. What are Shadow Copies for Shared Folders?
Answer
Shadow Copies for Shared Folders are point-in-time copies of files that are located
on shared resources, such as a file server. Users can view shared files and folders as
they existed at points of time in the past by using Shadow Copies for Shared
Folders.
405. What is the use of Shadow Copies?
Answer
The Shadow Copies can be used for:
Recovery of files that are accidentally deleted.
Recovery of accidentally overwritten file.
Comparing different versions of a file while working.
406. What is File Server Resource Manager?
Answer
File Server Resource Manager is a suite of tools for Windows Server that allows
administrators to control, manage, and understand the quantity and type of data
stored on their server.
407. What is Share and Storage Management?
Answer
Share and Storage Management provides a centralized location to manage the
following server resources:
Folders and volumes that are shared on the network.
Volumes in disks and storage subsystems.
408. What is the use of Storage Explorer?
Answer
Storage Explorer is used to view and manage the Fibre Channel and iSCSI fabrics
that are available in your Storage Area Network (SAN).
409. What is the use of Storage Manager for SANs?
Answer
Storage Manager for SANs is used to create and manage Logical Unit Numbers
(LUNs) on Fibre Channel and iSCSI disk drive subsystems that support Virtual Disk
Service (VDS) in SAN.
410. What is LUN?
Answer
LUN is a logical reference to a portion of a storage subsystem. It consists of a disk, a
section of a disk, a whole disk array, or a section of a disk array in the subsystem.
411. What is Disk Management?
Answer
Disk Management is a utility for managing hard disks and the volumes or partitions.
It helps in initializing disks, creating volumes, and formatting volumes with the File
Allocation Table (FAT), FAT32, or New Technology File System (NTFS) file systems.
412. How many types of dynamic volumes are there?
Answer
Following five types of dynamic volumes are available:
Simple.
Spanned.
Striped.
Mirrored.
RAID-5.
413. What are spanned disk volumes?
Answer
Spanned disk volumes combine areas of unallocated space from multiple disks into
one logical volume. They require minimum of two disks; however, you can use up to
32 disks.
414. What is striped disk volume?
Answer
Striped disk volumes are made up of stripes of data of equal size written across
each disk in the volume. They are created from equally sized, unallocated areas on
two or more disks. If one of the disks containing a striped volume fails, the entire
volume fails, and all data on the striped volume becomes inaccessible.
415. What is mirrored volume?
Answer
A mirrored volume provides a copy of a volume on another disk. This is a fault-
tolerant volume, which provides data redundancy by duplicating the information
contained on the volume. The two disks that make up a mirrored volume are known
as mirrors.
416. What is RAID-5 volume?
Answer
RAID-5 volumes are available only on computers running the Windows 2000 Server
family or Windows Server 2003. It stripes data and parity across three or more
disks. Parity is a calculated value used to reconstruct data if one disk fails. When a
disk fails, Windows Server 2003 continues to operate by recreating the data that
was on the failed disk from the remaining data and parity,
417. Name the three file systems for installation partition?
Answer
Three file systems for an installation partition are as follows:
NTFS
FAT
FAT32.
418. What are the benefits of using NTFS?
Answer
The following are the benefits of using NTFS:
Better scalability to large drives.
Active directory to view and control network resources.
Compression features.
File encryption.
Permissions on individual files rather than just folders.
Remote Storage.
Recovery logging of disk activities.
Disk quotas.
419. List the standard NTFS folder permissions?
Answer
The standard NTFS folder permissions are as follows:
Full Control.
Modify.
Read and Execute.
List Folder Content.
Read.
Write.
420. List the standard NTFS File permissions?
Answer
The standard NTFS file permissions are as follows:
Full Control.
Modify.
Read and Execute.
Read.
Write.
421. What is Access Control List (ACL)?
Answer
ACL is a list of all the user accounts and groups that have been granted or denied
access to a file or a folder. When a user attempts to gain access to a resource, the
ACL must contain an access control entry for the user account or a group to which
the user belongs.
422. What are effective permissions for a resource?
Answer
Effective permissions for a resource are the sum of the NTFS permissions that you
assign to the individual user account and groups to which the user belongs.
423. Do file permissions override folder permissions?
Answer
Yes, NTFS file permissions take priority over NTFS folder permissions.
424. If you do not have the permission to access the folder but have the permission
on the file, then how will you access the file?
Answer
You need to know the full path of the file to access it when you do not have a folder
level permission.
425. Does the Deny permission override all permissions?
Answer
Yes, the Deny permission overrides all the other permissions.
426. Explain NTFS permissions inheritance?
Answer
NTFS permissions inheritance implies that the permissions assigned to a parent
folder are inherited and propagated to the subfolders and files contained in the
parent folder.
427. How can you prevent permission inheritance?
Answer
You can prevent permission inheritance by setting an option of preventing
inheritance at parent folder level.
428. Where do permissions assigned to CREATOR OWNER group apply?
Answer
The permissions assigned to the CREATOR OWNER group apply only to the files and
the subfolders in the folder to which permissions are assigned and not to the folder
itself.
429. List the basic guidelines to follow while assigning NTFS permissions?
Answer
Following are the basic guidelines:
Grant users only the level of access they require.
Assign group membership based on access to resources.
Deny permissions only when it is essential.
430. If an employee leaves an organization, what should be done to transfer the
ownership of his/her files and folders to another employee?
Answer
You should perform the following steps for this:
Log in as administrator,
Assign ownership permissions to another employee,
Notify the employee that he/she has been given special permissions to take
ownership of files and folders of the ex-employee.
431. Which special permission enables you to browse through a folder, if you do not
have permission to access it?
Answer
If you do not have permission to access a folder, then the Traverse Folder
permission enables you to browse through the folder.
432. Name the groups you must be a member of to share a folder?
Answer
You must be a member of the Administrator, Server Operator, or Power Users group
to share a folder.
433. What are the different ways in which a user can connect to a shared folder?
Answer
A user can connect to a shared folder by using the following tools:
Map Network Drive Wizard,
Add Network Place Wizard,
The Run command,
My Network Places.
434. Where does the Administrators group share the folder?
Answer
The Administrator group shares the folder residing on any computer in the domain.
435. Where does the Server Operator group share the folder?
Answer
The Server Operator group shares the folder on domain controllers.
436. Where does the Power Users group share the folder?
Answer
The Power Users group shares the folder on the computer where the group is
located.
437. List the steps to share the host drive with virtual machines?
Answer
Perform the following steps to share the host drive with virtual machines:
Click Windows Virtual PC from the Start menu and Open the Virtual Machines folder.
Right-click the name of the virtual machine from the Virtual Machines folder.
Click the Settings option. The Windows Virtual PC Settings window appears.
Click Integration Features In the left pane of the Windows Virtual PC Settings
window and then click Drives on the right pane of the window.
Review the list of drives and click the check box of any drive that you want to share.
Click the OK button.
438. What is the function of Access-based Enumeration?
Answer
Access-based Enumeration permits the users to view only those files and folders on
a file server to which they have permission to access.
439. What is a print server?
Answer
Print server is a computer on which the printers associated with local and network
print devices resides.
440. Name the groups you should be member of to manager remote print server?
Answer
You must be a member of the Print Operators, Server Operators, or Local
Administrators group on the remote print server to be able to manage remote print
server.
441. What is Location-Aware Printing?
Answer
Location-Aware Printing allows you to select different default printers for various
networks. Therefore, you can use the same laptop in multiple locations; for
example, at work and at home. The laptop can automatically select the correct
default printer, depending on the location of the user.
442. What is the role of Print and Document Services in Windows 2008 R2?
Answer
Print and Document Services in Windows 2008 R2 enables you to centralize the
print server and network printer management tasks.
It also enables you to receive scanned documents from network scanners, and route
the documents to shared network resource, Windows SharePoint Services site, or e-
mail addresses.
443. Which tool is used to monitor the performance in Windows Server 2008 R2?
Answer
The Performance and Reliability Monitor tool is used to monitor the performance in
Windows 2008 R2.
444. List the new features of the Performance and Reliability Monitor tool?
Answer
The new features of Performance and Reliability Monitor are as follows:
Data Collector Sets,
Wizards and templates for creating logs,
Resource View,
Reliability Monitor,
Unified property configuration for all data collection, including scheduling,
User-friendly diagnosis reports.
445. What is the role of Reliability Monitor?
Answer
Reliability Monitor collects data about the system and calculates a System Stability
Index, which is a report that lists the issues that have made the system less reliable
over a period of time. The report also contains steps that can be taken to
troubleshoot the root cause of the issue. Reliability Monitor provides a graphical
interface for customizing performance data collection and Event Trace Sessions.
446. What is unified property configuration?
Answer
Unified property configuration is an interface with the ability to create and manage
objects from a single location to significantly reduce the time it takes to set up the
monitoring that the users require.
447. What is the benefit of using the Performance and Reliability Monitor tool?
Answer
The Performance and Reliability Monitor tool helps you to monitor, troubleshoot, and
diagnose issues that are occurring or might occur, from a single location. With the
use of Resource View in the Performance and Reliability Monitor tool, you can find
out what a specific process is doing or stop a process, which is using numerous
resources.
448. Which feature of Performance and Reliability Monitor adds counters to log files
and gives the ability to set the start, stop, and duration of those counters?
Answer
Wizards and templates for creating logs add counters to log files and gives the
ability to set the start, stop, and duration of those counters.
449. What is Authorization Manager?
Answer
Authorization Manager is a role-based security architecture for Windows and used in
applications that needs role-based authorization, including ASP.NET Web
applications, ASP.NET Web services, and client/server systems based on .NET
remoting.
450. What is role-based management model?
Answer
Role-based management model enables you to assign users to roles and gives a
central place to record permissions assigned to each role. This model is often called
role-based access control.
451. What are user authorization roles?
Answer
Roles based on a user's job function are called user authorization roles. These roles
are used to authorize access, delegate administrative privileges, or manage
interaction with computer-based resources. For example, you might define a
Treasurer role that includes the right to authorize expenditures and audit account
transactions.
452. What are computer configuration roles?
Answer
Roles based on a computer's function are called computer configuration roles. These
roles are used to select features that you want to install, to enable services, and to
select options.
453. What is Windows BitLocker Drive Encryption?
Answer
Windows BitLocker is a security feature in the Windows Vista and Windows Server
2008 operating systems that provides protection for the operating system on the
computer and to the data stored on the operating system volume, In Windows
Server 2008, BitLocker protection can also be applied to volumes used for data
storage.
454. Which command is used to install the BitLocker in Windows 2008?
Answer
The ServerManagerCmd -install BitLocker -restart command is used to install
BitLocker in Windows 2008.
455. What is Encrypting File System (EFS)?
Answer
EFS is a tool used for encrypting files and folders on client computers and remote
file servers. It helps users to protect their data from unauthorized access by other
users or external attackers.
456. Give the full forms of KRA and DRA?
Answer
KRA stands for Key Recovery Agent and DRA stands for Data Recovery Agent.
457. What is the use of Robocopy utility?
Answer
The Robocopy utility, added as a new feature in Windows Server 2008, is used to
copy EFS-encrypted files without needing the decryption key.
458. What new functionalities are added to EFS?
Answer
The new functionality of EFS is the ability to store encryption certificates on smart
cards, per-user encryption of files in the client-side cache, additional Group Policy
options, and a new rekeying wizard.
459. How and when smart card Single Sign-On (SSO) is triggered?
Answer
Smart card SSO is triggered whenever a user logs on with a smart card in one of the
following conditions:
1. The user does not have a valid EFS encryption key on the computer, and smart
cards are required for EFS by policy settings.
2. The user has a valid EFS encryption key that resides on the smart card, which is
used for logon.
When SSO is triggered, EFS caches the Personal Identification Number (PIN) entered
by the user at the time of logon and uses it for EFS operations as well. Therefore,
the user does not see any PIN prompts from EFS during the session.
460. If the smart card used for the logon is removed from the smart card reader
before any encryption operations are performed, will the user be prompted for a
smart card and PIN at the first EFS operation?
Answer
Yes, if the smart card used for the logon is removed from the smart card reader
before any encryption operations are performed, then SSO gets disabled and the
user will be prompted for a smart card and PIN at the first EFS operation.
461. What is the function of AppLocker?
Answer
AppLocker defines the rules based on file attributes derived from the digital
signature. These rules specify which files are allowed to run. Files that are not
included in rules are not allowed to run.
462. What is the new feature of the smart cards used in Windows 2008 R2?
Answer
The new feature of the smart card in Windows 2008 R2 is the enhanced support for
smart card-related Plug and Play and the Personal Identity Verification (PIV)
standard from the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST).
463. What is the use of User Account Control (UAC)?
Answer
UAC helps protect the network by preventing users from running malicious software.
464. What is Active Directory?
Answer
Active Directory is a hierarchical structure that stores information about objects on
the network. It is a centralized system that automates network management of
data, security, and distributed resources. It also allows interoperation with other
directories.
465. What is Active Directory Web Services?
Answer
In Windows Server 2008 R2, Active Directory Web Services is a new service that
provides a Web service interface to Active Directory domains.
466. What is the function of Active Directory Domain Services?
Answer
Active Directory Domain Services defines the data structure and those services that
provide organization, management, and security of accounts and resources in a
Microsoft network.
467. What is forest?
Answer
Forest contains all the domains, sites, and trusts that are part of Active Directory
Domain Services. It also contains a single domain by default, which is called the
forest root domain.
468. What is domain controller?
Answer
Domain controllers are servers that run on a version of the Windows Server
operating system and hosts Active Directory Domain Services.
469. What is Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)?
Answer
LDAP is a protocol that directory clients use to gain access to data, which is held by
directory servers. It supports bind, unbind, read, and modify operations. It is also
responsible for packaging and interpreting LDAP packets over the network.
470. What is Active Directory schema?
Answer
Active Directory schema is the set of attributes and classes that defines the types of
objects and information about the objects stored in Active Directory Domain
Services.
471. What is the function of Windows Time service?
Answer
Windows Time service automatically synchronizes the local computer's time with
other computers on the network.
472. What is Security Accounts Manager (SAM)?
Answer
SAM is a database that has information about user accounts and security
descriptors for users on the local computer.
473. What is Account Management?
Answer
Account Management includes creating, modifying, and deleting user accounts and
detection of duplicate accounts and Security Identifiers (SIDs).
474. What is Relative Identifier (RID) manager responsible for?
Answer
RID manager is responsible for providing numbers that are used to create unique
SIDs for each account in a domain.
475. Name the policy used to manage trust relationship between domains and
forests?
Answer
Local Security Authority (LSA) policy is used to manage trust relationship between
domains and forests.
476. What is the role of NetLogon service?
Answer
NetLogon service is used to verify NT LAN Manager (NTLM) logon requests, and
registers, authenticates, and locates domain controllers. It manages replication of
the user account database to back up domain controllers running Windows NT 4.0
and earlier.
77. What is global catalog server?
Answer
Global catalog is a distributed data repository to facilitate searches and logons in an
Active Directory forest. The global catalog data is automatically built by the Active
Directory replication system. The domain controllers that host the global catalog are
called global catalog servers.
478. What are the services hosted on domain controllers?
Answer
The services that are hosted on domain controllers are as follows:
Kerberos Key Distribution Center (KDC),
NetLogon (Netlogon),
Windows Time (W32time),
Intersite Messaging (IsmServ),
File Replication (NTFRS),
Distributed File System (DFS),
SYSVOL share.
479. What is the role of Administrative templates?
Answer
Administrative templates (.ADMX files) are registry-based policy settings that are
listed under the Administrative Templates node of both the Computer and User
Configuration nodes.
480. List the logical elements that can be combined to define an Active Directory
topology?
Answer
The logical elements that can be combined to define an Active Directory topology
are as follows:
Forest,
One or more domains,
One or more Active Directory sites.
481. What is the role of Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT)?
Answer
The following preference items can be managed by using RSAT in Windows Server
2008 R2 and Windows 7:
Power Plan,
Scheduled Task,
Immediate Task,
Internet Explorer 8.
482. What is the difference between local user account and domain user account?
Answer
In the local user account, users log on to the computer where the account is located
and gain access to resources on that computer. In the domain user account, users
log on to the domain and gain access to resources anywhere on the network.
483. What is built-in user account?
Answer
Windows XP automatically creates built-in accounts, which are of the following two
types:
Administrator Manages overall computer and domain configurations, such as
assigning permissions and rights to user accounts
Guest Gives access to resources on a computer or a domain
484. Name the drivers used for IPv4 and IPv6 protocol stacks?
Answer
The tcpip.sys driver is used for the IPv4 protocol stack; whereas, the tcpip6.sys
driver is used for the IPv6 protocol stack.
485. What is Teredo?
Answer
Teredo is a tunnelling protocol that grants IPv6 connectivity to the nodes located
behind IPv6-unaware Network Address Translation (NAT) devices. It describes a way
of encapsulating IPv6 packets within the IPv4 UDP datagrams that can be routed
through NAT devices on the IPv4-based Internet.
486. What is the structure of Teredo IPv6 addressing?
Answer
The structure of Teredo IPv6 addressing is as follows:
First 32 bits, that is 0 to 31, are set to the Teredo prefix (normally 2001:0000::/32).
Bits 32 to 63 embed the primary IPv4 address of the Teredo server being used.
Bits 64 to 79 can be used to.define flags.
Bits 80 to 95 contain the obfuscated UDP port number, which is mapped by the NAT
devices to the Teredo client with all the bits inverted.
Bits 96 to 127 contain the obfuscated IPv4 address. This is the public IPv4 address
of the NAT devices with all the bits inverted.
487. What is IPv6 address?
Answer
IPv6 address is assigned to a network interface of a computer participating in a
network using the IP suite. It is 128 bits long hexadecimal number.
488. What is loophack address for IPv4 and IPv6?
Answer
The loopback address for IPv4 Is 127.0.0.1; whereas, the loopback address for IPv6
is
0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0001. The IPv6 loopback address is often
expressed as ::1.
489. Do you need subnet mask in IPv6?
Answer
IPv6 uses subnets, but the subnet Identifier (ID) is built into the address. First 48
characters of the address are the network prefix, next 16 characters (which are
often all zeros) are the subnet ID, and the last 64 characters are the interface
identifier.
490. How do you represent the sequential zeros in IPv6?
Answer
There are four sequential sections separated by zeros in IPv6. Instead of
suppressing the leading zeros, you can represent all the sequential zeros and
replace them with two colons. The two colons inform the operating system that
everything in between them is a zero.
491. Is Domain Name System (DNS) used in IPv6?
Answer
Yes, DNS is used in IPv6; instead of Host (A) records, IPv6 uses AAAA resource
records, which are sometimes referred to as Quad A records.
492. Which domain is used for reverse hostname resolution in IPv6?
Answer
The ip6.arpa domain is used for reverse hostname resolution.
493. How do you make IPv6 compatible with IPv4 networks?
Answer
Transition technologies use tunneling to facilitate cross network compatibility. Two
such technologies are Teredo and 6to4 that encapsulate IPv6 packets inside IPv4
packets. The tunnel endpoints are required on both ends to encapsulate and extract
the IPv6 packets.
494. What is role special domain for IPv6 address translation in Microsoft?
Answer
Microsoft has established a special domain for IPv6 address translation. You can
include an IPv6 address within a Universal Naming Convention by replacing the
colons with dashes and appending .ipv6.literal.net to the end of the address; for
example, FE80-AB00-200D-617B.ipv6.literal.net.
495. Which command is used to check the IPv6 address?
Answer
The ipconfig command is used to check the IPv6 address. You can also use the netsh
interface ipv6 show address command to view the IPv6 addresses.
496. What is Dynamic host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)?
Answer
DHCP is an Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) standard for simplifying
management of host IP configuration. The DHCP servers manage dynamic allocation
of IP addresses and other related configuration details for DHCP-enabled clients on a
network.
497. How does Microsoft Windows 2008 support DHCP?
Answer
Windows support the following three elements of a DHCP infrastructure:
DHCP Client service - Acts as a DHCP client and automatically obtains an IP address
configuration from a DHCP server
DHCP Server service - Acts as a DHCP server and automatically assigns IP address
configurations to DHCP client computers.
Routing and Remote Access service - Acts as a DHCP relay agent, listens for
broadcast and unicast DHCP messages, and relays them between DHCP servers and
clients
498. Does the Windows Server 2008 DHCP Server service support BOOTP?
Answer
Yes, the DHCP Server service in Windows Server 2008 supports BOOTP clients
through the configuration of a BOOTP table.
499. What is DHCP for IPv6?
Answer
DHCPv6 is DHCP for IPv6 networks. The DHCP Server service supports both DHCPv6
stateless and stateful operations.
500. How does DHCP work?
Answer
When DHCP clients start up on a network, they discover the DHCP servers on the
network and request IP configuration information. The DHCP servers respond with
an offered IP address configuration. The DHCP client requests the use of a specific IP
address configuration from among those offered, which is acknowledged by the
DHCP server that offered it. The DHCP server allocates an IP address configuration
for a specific amount of time known as the lease time; whereas, the DHCP client
must renew the lease time of its IP address configuration on regular basis.
521. At what level the procedure for configuring logging can be performed?
Answer
The procedure for configuring logging can be performed at the following levels in
IIS:
Web Server.
Site.
Application.
Physical and virtual directories.
File (URL).
522. What is DirectAccess?
Answer
With DirectAccess, mobile users are able to access corporate resources, such as e-
mail servers, shared folders, or Intranet websites anytime when they have an
Internet connection.
523. What is the function of Unified Access Gateway (UAG)?
Answer
Forefront UAG 2010 delivers comprehensive and secure remote access to corporate
resources for employees, partners, and vendors on mobile devices.
524. What is the benefit of UAG?
Answer
UAG inflict granular access controls and policies to deliver comprehensive remote
access, ensure security, and reduce management costs and complexities.
525. What is Remote Desktop?
Answer
Remote Desktop allows the graphical interface of a remote Windows system to be
displayed over a network onto a local system.
526. Where is Cisco Internetwork Operating System (IOS) stored?
Answer
Cisco IOS is stored in flash memory.
527. What is the major release number in 12.4(24)T ?
Answer
The major release number in 12.4(24)T is 12.
528. What does T stands for in 12.4(24)T?
Answer
T stands for the Technology train.
529. What is the release number in 12.4(24)T?
Answer
The release number in 12.4(24)T is 24.
530. What are the three versions of IOS?
Answer
The three versions of IOS are as follows:
Rebuilds.
Interim Releases.
Maintenance Releases.
531. What does the Cisco IOS Software image name represents?
Answer
The hardware, feature set, format, and other information about the image file is
represented in the Cisco IOS Software image name.
532. What is the hardware in image c3825-entbasek9-mz,124- 22.T.bin?
Answer
The hardware is 3825 router.
533. What is the train number in image c3825-entbasek9- mz.l24-22.T.bin?
Answer
The train number is 124.
534. What is the maintenance release in image c3825- entbasek9-mz.l24-22-T.bin?
Answer
The maintenance release is 22.
535. What is the meaning of entbasek9 in image c3825- entbasek9-mz.l24-22.T.bin?
Answer
The meaning of entbasek9 is that the image is Enterprise Base with the Crypto
feature set.
536. What does mz signifies?
Answer
The mz indicates that the memory location is flash memory.
537. Name the router IOS packages?
Answer
The router IOS packages are as follows:
IP Base.
Enterprise Base.
IP Voice.
Advanced Security.
SP Services.
538. Name the premium IOS packages.
Answer
The premium IOS packages are as follows:
Advanced IP Services
Enterprise Services
SP Services
539. Name the IOS packages for switches.
Answer
The IOS packages for switches are as follows:
Layer 2 Base
LAN Base
IP Base
IP Services
Advanced IP Services
Enterprise Services
Advanced Enterprise Services
540. Which tool is used to quickly match Cisco IOS Software releases to features to
hardware?
Answer
The tool used to match Cisco IOS Software releases to features to hardware is Cisco
Feature Navigator
541. Which command is used to show IOS file and flash space?
Answer
The show flash command is used to show IOS file and flash space.
542. In which three ways you can connect to a router?
Answer
You can connect to a router using one of the following three ways:
1. Console port
2. Auxiliary port
3. One of the Ethernet ports
543. What are the different IOS trains that are made available by Cisco?
Answer
The trains are used to map distinct markets or groups of customers that Cisco is
targeting. The different IOS trains are as follows:
1. The mainline train is designed to be the most stable release.
2. The T - Technology train gets new features and bug fixes throughout its life, and
is less stable than the mainline train. Cisco does not recommend this train for
production environment.
3. The S - Service Provider train is customized for the Service Provider customers.
4. The E - Enterprise train is customized for implementation in enterprise
environments.
5. The B - broadband train supports Internet-based broadband features.
544. If the command prompt shows, router>, then in what mode the router is?
Answer
If the command prompt shows, router>, then the router is in the user EXEC mode.
545. If the command prompt shows, router#, then in what mode the router is?
Answer
If the command prompt shows, router#, then the router is - the privileged EXEC
mode.
546. If the command prompt shows, router(config)#, then in what mode the router
is?
Answer
If the command prompt shows, router(config)#, then the router is in the
configuration mode.
547. Where is start up diagnostic code for Cisco IOS stored?
Answer
The start up diagnostic code for Cisco IOS is stored in Cisco Boot ROM.
548. If the setting of configuration register is 0x2102, then where is IOS file stored?
Answer
The IOS file is stored in flash memory if the setting of configuration register is
0x2102.
549. What different LAN interfaces are available on router?
Answer
The LAN interfaces on router are Ethernet port and fast Ethernet port.
550. What different WAN interfaces are available on router?
Answer
The WAN interfaces on router are Serial, Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN),
and Frame Relay.
551. Which command is used to take back up of startup configuration to TFTP
server?
Answer
The command to take back up of startup configuration to TFTP server is
Router#copystartup-configtftp.
552. Which command is used to restore the startup configuration from TFTP server?
Answer
The command to restore the startup configuration from TFTP server is
Router#copytftp: startup-config.
553. Which two commands are used to show the Cisco IOS file name?
Answer
The following two commands are used to show the Cisco IOS file name:
Show version
Show flash
554. Where is the startup configuration file stored?
Answer
The startup configuration file is stored in Nonvolatile Random-Access Memory
(NVRAM).
555. What is the role of IOS on a Cisco device?
Answer
IOS is an operating system that manages all the functions of routers and switches,
and runs on Cisco routers and Cisco switches only.
556. What is Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) Reference Model?
Answer
OSI is a layered model with seven layers, where each layer specifies specific
network functions.
557. Name the seven layers of OSI model.
Answer
The seven layers of OSI model are physical layer, data link layer, network layer,
transport layer, session layer, application layer, and presentation layer.
558. Name the three layers of Cisco Three-Layer Hierarchical Model.
Answer
The three layers of Cisco Three-Layer Hierarchical Model are core layer, distribution
layer, and local access layer.
559. What is the main function of core layer?
Answer
The main function of the core layer is to provide fault isolation and backbone
connectivity.
560. What is the main function of distribution layer?
Answer
The main functions of the distribution layer are as follows:
Provides routing, filtering, and WAN access
Determines how packets can access the core