Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014

Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam-2014

Time : 2 Hours MM : 360
SECTION-A : SCIENCE
1. The distance(S)-time(t) graph of an object of mass 5. If the current flowing through the electric circuit shown
2 kg moving along a straight line is as shown below. below is 1.6 A, then the reading of the voltmeter is
The net work done on the object in the first four
seconds is V
2

8m

9.6 V
S
(1) 3.2 V (2) 4.8 V
4s (3) 8 V (4) 6.4 V
t
(1) 16 J (2) Zero 6. If a light ray passes through a rectangular glass slab
as shown below, then
(3) 32 J (4) 8 J

2. A man crosses a 90 m long straight track with a 75

uniform acceleration in 6 s. If his initial velocity is
3 m/s, then he leaves the track with velocity 60
(1) 30 m/s (2) 27 m/s
i
(3) 18 m/s (4) 9 m/s

3. Which of the following is not a unit of power?

(1) VA (2) Js1 sin75

(1) sin i
3
(3) kW (4) Wh

4. A passenger, sitting inside a train, is facing in the (2) sin i 3 (sin75)

direction of motion of the train. He tosses a coin that
falls ahead of him. It means that the train is sin30
(3) sin i
(1) In uniform motion (2) Slowing down 3

(3) Speeding up (4) Taking a turn (4) sin i 3 sin30

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014 Sample Paper
7. In the circuit shown below, if the battery does 11. Which of the following reactions involves both
3240 J of work in 5 s, then the value of resistance R is neutralisation and precipitation?
R (1) Ca(OH)2 + CO2 CaCO3 + H2O
(2) NaOH + HCl NaCl + H2O
(3) BaCl2 + Na2SO4 BaSO4 + 2NaCl
6
(4) Pb(NO3)2 + 2KI PbI2 + 2KNO3

36 V 12. Baking powder is

(1) A compound of sodium hydrogencarbonate and
(1) 4 (2) 10 lime
(3) 3 (4) 2 (2) A mixture of baking soda and quick lime
8. Locate the position of image formed by a concave
mirror for an object placed between its principal (3) A compound of baking soda and mild edible acid
focus and centre of curvature. (4) A mixture of sodium bicarbonate and mild edible
(1) At centre of curvature acid
(2) Between infinity and centre of curvature 13. Which of the following substances cannot be used
(3) Between pole and focus to neutralise an acid extract?
(4) Behind the mirror (1) Suspension of milk of magnesia
9. Velocity(v)-time(t) graph of an object undergoing (2) Baking powder solution
uniform motion is
(3) Dock leaf extract
v v
(4) Nettle leaf extract
14. Average atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5. It occurs
(1) (2) in atmosphere in two isotopic forms 17Cl 35 and
t t 37
17 Cl . The percentage abundances of these
v v isotopes are respectively
(1) 80% and 20% (2) 75% and 25%
(3) (4) (3) 70% and 30% (4) 60% and 40%
t t 15. An element E contains 19 protons and 20 neutrons.
10. In the given figure, value of I2 will be The ion formed by E, during the formation a stable
4 I2 compound, is
2
(1) E2+ (2) E+
I
4 (3) E (4) E2
16. A mixture contains 0.2 g of oxygen gas and 0.4 g of
8V carbon dioxide gas. The ratio of oxygen atoms present
in oxygen gas to that in carbon dioxide gas is
(1) 1 A (2) 3 A (1) 3 : 16 (2) 11 : 8
(3) 4 A (4) 2 A (3) 3 : 4 (4) 11 : 16

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014
17. The total number of oxygen atoms present in one
molecule of sodium sulphate is 21. C6H12O6
A
Pyruvate B
in presence of O

(3-carbon compound) 2

(1) 4
6CO2 + 6H2O + 36 or 38 ATP.
(2) 3
The reaction A and B occur in
(3) 4.81 1022
(1) A - Cytoplasm and B - Chloroplast
(4) 1.20 1022
(2) A - Cytoplasm and B - Mitochondria
18. On heating the crystals of ferrous sulphate strongly
(3) A - Mitochondria and B - Chloroplast
two gases X and Y are evolved. The nature of X and
Y is (4) A - Ribosome and B - Cytoplasm
(1) Acidic (2) Basic 22. Select the incorrect statement.
(3) Neutral (4) Amphoteric (1) Urine is produced in kidneys
19. Read the following statements carefully : (2) Nephron is the basic filtration unit of kidneys
Statement-1: The main component of bio-gas has (3) Kidneys are located in the pelvic region
six single bonds in its one molecule. (4) Urinary bladder is under the nervous control
Statement-2: Boiling point of propane is higher than 23. The part of the brain which maintains balance of the
that of ethane. body is
Now, mark the correct option. (1) Cerebrum
(1) Both the statements are correct (2) Cerebellum
(2) Both the statements are incorrect (3) Medulla
(3) Only statement-1 is correct (4) Pons
(4) Only statement-2 is correct 24. Bile juice responsible for emulsification of fats is
20. Match the following : stored in
Functional Group Formula (1) Gall bladder
HO (2) Small intestine
i. Alcohol (a) C=O
(3) Liver
ii Aldehyde (b) C=O (4) Stomach
H 25. Radhika removed her hand abruptly after touching a
iii. Ketone (c) C=O
hot object. The message to remove her hand was
iv. Carboxylic acid (d) OH given by the
(1) i-(b), ii-(a), iii-(c), iv-(d) (1) Vertebral column
(2) i-(c), ii-(a), iii-(b), iv-(d) (2) Spinal cord
(3) i-(d), ii-(b), iii-(c), iv-(a) (3) Brain
(4) i-(d), ii-(c), iii-(b), iv-(a) (4) Cranium

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014 Sample Paper

26. A pigment essential for photosynthesis is present in 29. In the given diagram, which of the following parts
the labelled as A, B, C and D is responsible for carrying
(1) Vacuole messages towards the cell body?

(2) Leucoplast A
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Chloroplast
27. In humans, growth hormone is secreted by B C
(1) Pituitary gland
D
(2) Adrenal gland (1) A (2) B
(3) Thyroid gland (3) C (4) D
(4) Pancreas 30. Statement 1 : Carbon dioxide in humans is
28. In an experiment related to photosynthesis a student transported in dissolved form.
added iodine to the leaf in order to test the presence of Statement 2 : In humans, haemoglobin is present
in blood plasma.
(1) Sucrose
(1) Both the statements are true
(2) Glucose
(2) Both the statements are false
(3) Starch
(3) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
(4) Fructose (4) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true

SECTION-B : MATHEMATICS

31. If x 2 is a factor of the polynomial 2x3 2x + k, 34. In the given figure, if ABC PQR , then the
then the value of k is
measure of ATP is
(1) 12 (2) 2
A P
(3) 12 (4) 8
32. The expression (2x + 3y)3 18xy(2x + 3y) is equal to T
(1) 2x + 3y (2) 4x2 + 9y2
130 140
(3) 8x3 + 27y3 (4) 0
B Q C R
33. If , and are the zeroes of the polynomial
2x3 + 3x2 4x + 2, then the value of 2 + 2 (1) 50
+ 2 is (2) 40
3 (3) 90
(1) (2) 4
2
(4) 145
(3) 2 (4) 1
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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014

35. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. If 41. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle.
AP = a units, then the length of PB is AOC + 2ABC is
P

45 O
A B
O C
A
B
a a (1) 360 (2) 180
(1) units (2) units
2 4
(3) 90 (4) 270
2a
(3) units (4) a units 42. The value of k for which the quadratic equation
3
kx2 + 6x + 1 = 0 has equal roots is
36. If 3x + 3x 1 = 36, then the value of x is
(1) 3 (2) 2 (1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 1 (4) 4 (3) 9 (4) 4

1 43. If f(x) = a0 + a1x + a2x2

+ a3x3 + ... + a10x10, where
37. If p q , where p and q are positive a 0 , a 1 , .... a 10 are constants, then the sum of
p q
coefficients of terms having even powers of x can be
rational numbers, then q p2 is expressed as
(1) Equal to 1 (2) Not real f (2) f ( 2) f (2) f ( 2)
(1) (2)
(3) Equal to 1 (4) Equal to 0 2 2
38. The dimensions of the base of a cuboid are f (1) f ( 1) f (1) f ( 1)
40 cm 20 cm. If its volume is 4,000 cm3, then its (3) (4)
2 2
height is
44. A train takes 2 hours less for a journey of 600 km,
(1) 8 cm (2) 7 cm if its speed is increased by 10 km/hr from its
(3) 5 cm (4) 6 cm original speed. The original speed of the train is
39. ABC is an equilateral triangle. If P and Q are the (1) 65 km/hr (2) 60 km/hr
midpoints of AB and AC respectively and
PQ = 3 cm, then the value of PA + AQ is (3) 55 km/hr (4) 50 km/hr
(1) 3 cm (2) 6 cm 45. A rectangular piece of paper of dimensions
(3) 9 cm (4) 12 cm 88 cm 28 cm is folded without overlapping to
make a cylinder of height 28 cm. The volume of the
40. Which of the following equations has two distinct cylinder is
real roots?
(1) x2 + 5x + 7 = 0 (2) 3x2 2x + 4 = 0 (1) 1456 cm3 (2) 4277 cm3

(3) 2x2 + 6x 5 = 0 (4) x2 + 4x + 5 = 0 (3) 1746 cm3 (4) 5488 cm3

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014 Sample Paper

46. If (7 4 3)x (7 4 3)x 14 , where x < 0, then 52. If PQRS is a quadrilateral and PR is one of its
diagonals, then which of the following is always true?
1
x5 is equal to
x5 (1) PQ + QR + RS + SP > 3PR

1 (2) PQ + QR + RS + SP < 2PR

(1) (2) 2
2 (3) PQ + QR + RS + SP > 2PR
1 (4) PQ + QR + RS + SP = 2PR
(3) (4) 2
2
53. The number of solutions of the equation 2x + 3y = 5
47. If an angle of a parallelogram is three-seventh of its is
adjacent angle, then the measures of angles of the
parallelogram are (1) One (2) Two

(1) 126, 54, 126, 54 (3) Zero (4) Infinitely many

(2) 48, 132, 48, 132 54. If the base and height of a triangle are increased by
1 unit each, then the area of the triangle is increased
(3) 62, 118, 62, 118 by 9 sq. units. Also, if base of the triangle is
(4) 58, 122, 58, 122 reduced by 2 units and the height remains the
same, then the area of the triangle is reduced by 12
452 sq. units. The base of the triangle is of length
48. If 0.P 56 , where P is any integer between
990 (1) 5 units (2) 6 units
0 and 9, then the value of PP is
(3) 12 units (4) 8 units
(1) 16 (2) 64
55. A field is 1700 cm long and 11 m broad. A
(3) 27 (4) 256 rectangular pit of dimensions 6 m 3.5 m 1 m is
dug anywhere in this field and dug out soil is spread
49. Two cubes of edge 4 cm each are joined end to evenly over the remaining part of the field. The
end. The surface area of the resulting figure is approximate rise in the level of the rest of the field
(1) 160 cm2 (2) 96 cm2 is

(3) 140 cm2 (4) 192 cm2 (1) 11.23 cm (2) 12.65 cm

50. In ABC, I is the incentre. If BIC : CIA : AIB (3) 9.57 cm (4) 10.1 cm
= 5 : 6 : 7, then the value of A : B : C is 56. The non-negative real root of the quadratic equation
(1) 3 : 1 : 5 (2) 1 : 3 : 5 2x2 x 21 = 0 is

(3) 5 : 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 5 : 3 3 7
(1) (2)
51. If 7x + 5y = 12 = 5x + 7y, then x2y + xy2 is equal to 2 2

(1) 12 (2) 24 5
(3) (4) 3
(3) 2 (4) 0 2

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014

57. In the given figure, OBC is equilateral. If AB is the 59. In the given figure, the value of p is
longest chord of the circle and D is the mid-point of
AC, then the ratio of side OA to AD is B

A
+ 60
A 2p
D
135
O
C
76 65
B D C
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 2 : 3 (1) 14 (2) 12
(3) 3 : 3 (4) 4 : 3 (3) 16 (4) 18
58. If P is any point inside a ABC and s is the semi- 60. The figure formed by joining the mid-points of sides
perimeter of ABC, then which of the following is of a rhombus, taken in order, must be a
always true?
(1) PA + PB + PC < s (2) PA + PB + PC > 2s (1) Rectangle (2) Kite

(3) PA + PB + PC < 2s (4) PA + PB + PC > s (3) Rhombus (4) Square

SECTION-C : MENTAL ABILITY

Directions for Q.61 & Q.62 : If '24 4' means 6, C

'18 2' means 20, '16 12' means 4, '2 + 4' means 8, D E
then find the solution of the following questions. Place Place
A B
61. 9 18 2 4 + 3
(1) 6 (2) 5 G
H F
(3) 7 (4) 13
(1) Four (2) Eight
62. 2000 200 20 2 + 15
(3) Twelve (4) Six
(1) 203 (2) 78
64. If 'R' weighs half as much as 'S', 'S' weighs one
(3) 1 (4) 0 fourth of 'J' and 'R' weighs thrice as much as 'M', then
63. What are the maximum number of ways or paths in which of the following weighs the least?
which you can go from place 'A' to place 'B', provided (1) M (2) R
you can cross any junction only once in each
journey? [C, D, E, F, G, H are junction points] (3) S (4) J

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