m5 1

MODULE 5
Digital Techniques / Electronic Instrument Systems
1. An FMS system, besides controlling navigation, thrust and auto-nav, also

provides
a) take-off and landing warnings
b) dedicated status and warnings
c) GPWS warnings
The correct answer is b The FMS is not used for Take Off or Landing The GPWS warnings come
from the GPWS Computer
2. EADI sky and ground display is provided by

a) synthetic TV signals
b) raster scan
c) stroke pulse
The correct answer is b Pallett - Aircraft Instruments Page 302 Fig. 12.5
3. HSI heading is valid if the heading flag is

a) in view
b) green
c) out of view
The correct answer is c Warning flags 'in view' indicate failure. Normally the only coloured flag
used is RED, indicating failure
4. A NOR gate with both inputs inverted becomes a

a) NAND gate
b) AND gate
c) OR gate
The correct answer is b Read up on logic gates - you need to know much more than you needed
for Module 4
5. An ARINC 429 binary coded decimal data word occupies bits

a) 11 to 28
b) 11 to 29
c) 1 to 8
The correct answer is b Pallett - Aircraft Instruments Page 159
6. A fibre optic cable consists of

a) a plastic core with a cladding having a higher refractive index
b) a silica glass core with a cladding having a higher refractive index
c) a silica glass core with a cladding having a lower refractive index
The correct answer is c See www.commspecial.com/fiberguide
7. The command bars on an ADI relate to

a) path required
b) path being followed
c) roll indications
The correct answer is a Pallett - Aircraft Instruments Page 212
8. The recording medium in an FDR is

a) a high density floppy disc
b) magnetic tape coated with ferrite
c) copper foil coated with ferrite
The correct answer is b See www.l-ar.com/html/history.html
9. Convert 0111012 to octal

a) 25
b) 33
c) 35
The correct answer is c The OCTAL code has 8 digits, 0 - 7. To convert binary to octal divide the
binary number into groups of three starting from the right. You've got to know your binary, octal,
hex and bcd conversions!
10. What does the CADC feed

a) Altimeter / FMS / secondary radar
b) standby altimeter / machmeter
c) cabin pressure controller sensor / machmeter / altimeter
The correct answer is c Pallett - Aircraft Instruments Page 179 Fig. 7.12
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1. ARINC 629 databus is

a) one cable, bi-directional
b) two cables, bi directional
c) two cables, uni-directional
2. Requirements for software control can be found in

a) AWN 45
b) JAR OPS
c) JAR AWO
The correct answer is a AWN 45 has been deleted at issue 133, but the examiners may not
know that! (Sinicism, surely not!)
3. Software can be modified by

a) licensed avionics engineers
b) the manufacturer
c) The same rules apply as to modifications to hardware
The correct answer is c Read up on software control - get a copy of AWNs
4. Two connected fibre optic cable ends are parallel but not quite touching. This is
called
a) lens connector
b) end to end coupling
c) end fire coupling
The correct answer is b There are several websites on fibre optics
5. A disadvantage of a fibre optic cable is

a) shallow bend radius allowed
b) couplings susceptible to ingress of fluid
c) end terminals are susceptible to environmental contamination
The correct answer is c www.commspecial.com/fiberguide.htm
6. The inside of a CRT consists of

a) an oxide coating and rare mercury gas
b) a phosphor coating and rare mercury gas
c) iodine and rare mercury gas
7. What kind of light is used in a fibre optic systems?

a) Infrared
b) Visible
c) Ultraviolet
The correct answer is a www.floti.bell.ac.uk/MathsPhysics/light.htm
8. Typical displays on an EHSI are

a) VOR, Map, Plan and weather radar
b) VOR, Plan, Map and Attitude
c) Engine indications
The correct answer is a Pallett - Aircraft Instruments Pages 302 & 304
9. An EADI display showing a moving runway moves down during the final stages
of an approach. The aircraft must
a) fly up
b) fly down
c) hold descent path
The correct answer is b At 200ft, during Approach, the Rising Runway starts to move up the EHSI
display until, at touch down, it touches the bottom of the aircraft symbol. If the Rising Runway
start to move down again it means that the aircraft is climbing and should FLY DOWN
10. An ARINC 573 data bus is used

a) to input into a Digital Flight Data Recorder
b) to input into a FDR Digital Acquisition Unit
c) to supply digital inputs from a Symbol Generator to the EADI and EHSI
The correct answer is a The FDR can have different inputs depending upon the age of the
system, modern systems use ARINC 573. The inputs to FDR DAU are only analogue, discreet
and ARINC 429. The interface between SGUs, EADI and EHSI is only ARINC 429
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1. A flight data recorder can obtain information from aircraft instruments
a) provided there is adequate isolation
b) by direct connection to the instruments
c) provided there is adequate damping
The correct answer is a Read up on Flight Data recording
2. Adding invertors to the two inputs of an AND gate makes a

a) NAND gate
b) OR gate
c) NOR gate
The correct answer is c Read up on logic gates - you need to know much more than you needed
for Module 4!
3. An ARINC 429 bus uses

a) a twisted shielded pair of wires
b) two bi-directional twin sheathed and earthed wires
c) a single twin wire cable for each transmitter
The correct answer is a Pallett - Aircraft Instruments Page 157
4. CRT horizontal beam control is achieved by a

a) square wave
b) sawtooth wave
c) sinusoidal wave
The correct answer is b Northrop Institute of Technology - Electricity & Electronics for Aerospace
Vehicles Page 284
5. The ARINC 429 data bus word systems use

a) decimal numbering
b) hexadecimal numbering
c) binary coded decimal
The correct answer is c Pallett - Aircraft Instruments Page 156
6. The binary number 11010111 expressed as a decimal is

a) 207
b) 223
c) 215
The correct answer is c Learn binary, octal, hex and BCD conversions
7. The octal number 1001 expressed as a decimal is

a) 65
b) 513
c) 9
The correct answer is b Learn binary, octal, hex and BCD conversions
8. This truth table is for a
A B C
0 0 0
1 0 0
0 1 0
1 1 1
a) NAND gate
b) AND gate
c) OR gate
The correct answer is b Read up on logic gates - you need to know much more than you needed
for Module 4!
9. The inputs and outputs of a CADC are

a) pitot and static in; altitude, attitude, CAS and VS out
b) pitot and static in; altitude, CAS, mach and VS out
c) pitot in; static, altitude, mach, CAS and VS out
The correct answer is b Pallett - Aircraft Instruments Page 179 Fig. 7.12
10. EICAS provides the following

a) engine parameters only
b) engine parameters and system warnings only
c) engine parameters and engine warnings only
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1. During an instrument approach, the glideslope pointer deflects below the

glideslope centre mark. This means the aircraft is positioned
a) above the glideslope
b) below the glideslope
c) to the left of the localiser
The correct answer is a Consider the centre of the G/S scale as the aircraft position and the
pointer as the centre of the G/S beam
2. Engine parameters are displayed on

a) ECAM
b) EHSI
c) FMSCDU
The correct answer is a Engine parameters can be displayed on ECAM by selecting the Engine
Page. See Pallett - Aircraft Instrumnets and Integrated Systems Page 391
3. A central maintenance computer provides

a) ground and flight monitoring and testing on an on-board computer
b) ground and BITE testing using a portable control panel
c) display of system warnings and cautions
The correct answer is a Read up on BITE systems
4. ARINC 573 is related to what system?

a) INS
b) FDR
c) Weather Radar
The correct answer is b Boeing Maintenance Training notes for B757
5. The rising runway is positioned from information derived from

a) barometric height
b) vertical speed
c) radio altimeter
The correct answer is c Boeing Maintenance Training notes for B757
6. Where are the Digital Flight Data Recorder outputs supplied to?
a) The recording unit
b) Flight instruments
c) There are no outputs
The correct answer is c Information recorded in the DFDR is only accessable in the shop
7. FMS failure and warnings are

a) displayed on EICAS
b) engine warnings only
c) EFIS warnings only
The correct answer is a FMS warnings are displayed on EICAS and EFIS, but the answers given
are 'EICAS' or 'EFIS only' so for the purposes of this question the correct answer is EICAS
8. Who is responsible for the operational program of the FMS?

a) The pilot
b) The engineer
c) The manufacturer
The correct answer is a Ambiguous question. Do they mean who is responsible for following the
program, if so the answer is 'Pilot' or producing the program, then the answer is 'Manufacturer'
9. Flight director command bars are moved to the correct position by

a) position feedback
b) amplifier gain
c) calibration
The correct answer is a Read up on the flight director indication system
10. If a signal has quantity in volts and physical position it is

a) digital
b) synchronous
c) analogue
The correct answer is c This is the definition of an analogue signal
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1. In a CRT, if the magnetic field is parallel to the Y plates, what will be the direction
of the electron beam movement?
a) Vertical
b) No movement
c) Horizontal
The correct answer is a The Y plates lie horizontal. Use the right hand rule to work out the
direction of electron beam movement. Aircraft Instruments & Integrated Systems, Pallett, page
287
2. What is the fixed feature of an ADI?

a) The glideslope pointer
b) The lateral deviation bar
c) The aircraft symbol
The correct answer is c The little aeroplane pianted in the middle of the instrument
3. Primary colours of a CRT are

a) red, green and blue
b) red, green and yellow
c) red, blue and yellow
The correct answer is a Rotor Gear Box
4. What information is required before completion of the alignment of an Inertial

Navigation System?
a) Aircraft present position
b) Aircraft present position and heading
c) Heading and attitude
The correct answer is a Read up on INS
5. IRS accelerometers are mounted

a) 60o to each other
b) 45o to each other
c) 90o to each other
The correct answer is c Read up on IRS
6. An FMS navigation database is updated

a) at the operators request
b) once a month
c) every 28 days
The correct answer is c Read up on FMS navigation data management
7. A single failure of a fly-by-wire system

a) has no effect on aircraft operation
b) will limit the flight profile
c) will reduce operational heights and speeds
The correct answer is a Redundant FBW systems will continue to fly the aircraft
8. Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in turbulent conditions will result in

a) ailerons moving symmetrically upwards
b) ailerons and spoilers moving symmetrically upwards
c) spoilers moving symmetrically upwards
The correct answer is b Read up on Load Alleviation system Ailerons move symmetrically
upwards and No 4 and 5 spoilers move symmetrically upwards in a gust.
9. Fly-by-wire roll control is achieved by

a) ailerons
b) spoilers
c) spoilers and ailerons
The correct answer is c Automatic Flight Control, Pallett and Coyle Page 296
10. The movement of fly-by-wire control surfaces are

a) hydraulically controlled and electrically actuated
b) both electrically controlled and electrically actuated
c) electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated
The correct answer is c Read up on FBW systems
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1. ARINC 629 current mode couplers are

a) capacitive
b) resistive
c) inductive
The correct answer is c Read up on ARINC 629 and 429
2. On an EADI, the Flight Director command bars show

a) the actual path with respect to the required path
b) the required path with respect to the actual path
c) the path with respect to the horizon
The correct answer is b Read up on ILS system indication
3. What instrument includes a display of a rising runway?

a) EADI
b) EHSI
c) ECAM
The correct answer is a Read up on ILS system indication
4. What are the effects of the X and Y plates on a CRT?

a) X plates move the beam vertically, Y plates move the beam horizontal
b) Y plates move the beam vertically, X plates move the beam horizontal
c) X and Y plates can move the beam in either direction
The correct answer is b Read up on CRTs
5. ARINC 629 data bus is

a) two buses, unidirectional
b) two buses, bi-directional data flow
c) one bus, bi-directional data flow
The correct answer is c Read up on ARINC 629 and 429
6. An FMS system, besides controlling navigation, thrust and auto-nav, also

provides
b) dedicated status warnings
c) GPWS warnings
The correct answer is b Read up on FMS
7. In order to maintain HIRF protection, bonding checks between airframe and

electrical components carrying voltages greater than 50 volts RMS or DC or main earth return
should not exceed
a) 1 megohm
b) 1 ohm
c) 0.05 ohm
The correct answer is b CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1
8. Ribbon cables effected by mutual impedance and current loop leakage should be
protected by
a) shielding each individual conductor
b) connecting all conductors to a common earth
c) earthing each alternative conductor to separate point
The correct answer is c Read up on cable protection methods

b) raster scan
c) stroke pulse
The correct answer is b Read up on CRTs and see what a raster scan is
10. Normal transmission order of ARINC 629 LRUs in periodic mode is in order of
a) power up
b) shortest to largest TG
c) shortest to largest TI
The correct answer is b Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 149
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1. What frequency creates the raster effect on a CRT?

a) 50/60 Hz
b) 400 Hz
c) 250Hz
The correct answer is a Read up on CRTs
2. If an EFIS has 3 symbol generators, what is the purpose of the 3rd symbol
generator?
a) Comparison with No.1 symbol generator
b) Standby
c) Parity function
The correct answer is b Read up on EFIS
3. The sweep waveform used on a electromagnetic CRT is

a) trapezoidal
b) sinusoidal
c) sawtooth
The correct answer is a Do not get confused with an electrostatic CRT. Electromagnetic CRT
uses trapezoidal waveform to overcome the impedence of the coil
4. FMS operational program is updated every

a) 7 days
b) 28 days
c) 90 days
The correct answer is b Read up on FMS
5. Fibre optic data is sent by

a) modulating the frequency of a laser beam
b) modulating the frequency of a filament beam
c) a strobe light
The correct answer is a Read up on fibre optics
6. What is 345 in binary?

a) 100111001
b) 110011001
c) 101011001
The correct answer is c You've got to know your binary, octal, hex and bcd conversions!
7. Which logic gate can be represented as a parallel circuit?

a) OR gate
b) Exclusive OR gate
c) NAND gate
The correct answer is a Read up on logic gates - you need to know much more than you needed
for Module 4!
8. Software documentation procedures are laid down in

a) AWN 45
b) JAA Ops
c) MOE
The correct answer is a AWN 45 has been deleted at issue 133, but the examiners may not know
that! (Sinicism, surely not!)
9. HIRF is prevented from entering a fibre optic cable by

a) enclosing it in a metal braid
b) grounding the fibre at both ends
c) using an opto-isolator coupling
The correct answer is c Although a fiber optic cable is 'immune' from collecting HIRF, it can still
transmit HIRF which has been picked up by the source circuitry. An optoelectronic isolator will
filter out the HIRF prior to transmission.
10. In an ARINC 429 wordstring, bits 1 to 8 represent the

a) source of message
b) monitored parameter
c) destination LRU address
The correct answer is b Both a and b are correct. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems
Pallett Page 158 says 'source of the message', whereas ARINCs own tutorial (See FORUM
Mod.5) says 'bits 8-1 contain parameter' (which Pallett's book also infers on Page 159).
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1. ARINC 629 terminal transmit interval is

a) unique to each terminal
b) common to each terminal
c) when all terminals are quiet
The correct answer is b The ARINC 629 TI is common to all LRUs.
2. Continuity of a fibre optic cable is checked by

a) a light source and an opto-power meter
b) a calibrated light source
c) a calibrated light source and an optometer
The correct answer is c See http://www.tpub.com/neets/tm/109-13.htm
3. To shield a fibre optic from EMI you must

a) earth both transducer and couplings
b) shield it with a braided shield
c) use an opto-isolator
The correct answer is c Read up on fibre optics
4. A simbol generator displays ESDs warning. During replacement

a) you must wear a wrist strap connected to an approved earth point
b) make sure the pins are not touched and covers fitted
c) you must earth the unit to the airframe structure
The correct answer is b See Pallett's Micro Electronics In Aircraft Systsems or CAAIPs 9-4
para.7.1.3.
5. Magnetic deflection on a CRT is achieved by a

a) sawtooth waveform
b) trapezoidal waveform
c) sinusoidal waveform
The correct answer is b Read up on CRTs - do not get confused with electrostatic deflection
types - which are more common on aircraft
6. An FDR fitted to a helicopter begins recording

a) on take-off
b) on engine start-up
c) when power is applied to the aircraft
The correct answer is b See ANO Art 53 para.1
7. MIL-ST-1533 is a data bus for

a) Flight Data Recorders
b) Inertial Reference System
c) Digital Information Transfer System
The correct answer is c Read up on MIL-ST-1533 - a military version of ARINC 429
8. Making an invertor from a NAND or NOR gate is achieved by

a) inverting the input
b) connecting two in series
c) connecting the inputs
The correct answer is c Read up on logic gates
9. Parallel to series conversion is achieved by

a) a parallel to series converter
b) a shift register
c) a multiplexer / demultiplexer
The correct answer is b Read up on parallel to series converion
10. The FMS databases consist of

a) one navigation and one performance database
b) two performance and one navigation database
c) one performance and two navigation databases
The correct answer is c Normally we consider the FMS as having 2 databases (1 navigational
and 1 performance). (Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 385). However, the Navigational
database is split in two. 1 is for Jeppesen data, uploaded on the ground, the other is for pilot input
data (additional waypoints etc.). See http://www.b737.org.uk/fmc.htm for more
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1. The FMS can update the IRS position outputs by using information from either
a) VOR and DME only
b) DME and GPS only
c) GPS, DME, LOC and VOR
The correct answer is c Read up on INS/IRS
2. The accepted error from INS/IRS is

a) 1 mile/hour + 3 miles
b) 2 miles per hour + 3 miles
c) 3 miles / hour + 3 miles
The correct answer is c Read up on INS/IRS
3. Before an IRS can complete the alignment sequence

a) the shutdown present position must be entered
b) the current present position must be entered
c) either the last or current position must be entered
The correct answer is b Read up on INS/IRS
4. Within a computer controlled flight system, position feedback is converted from

a) analogue to digital
b) digital to analogue
c) position feedback to rate feedback
The correct answer is a Read up on computer controlled flight
5. What shape does the waveform take to counter the impedance effect of the coils
in an electromagnetic controlled CRT?
a) Trapezoid
b) Sawtooth
c) Rectangular
The correct answer is a Read up on CRTs - do not get confused with an electrostatic CRT
6. What warnings can an FMS provide?

a) Discrete warnings
b) Spurious faults
c) Ground faults only
The correct answer is a This means it can warn of inoperative equipment, but not when
equipment is providing incorrect data
7. Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System

a) performs in-flight and ground tests of aircraft systems by carrying out a
BITE interrogation
b) give red warnings and amber cautions to display system status
c) performs in-flight BITE interrogation only
The correct answer is b Read up on ECAM
8. The control of the speed or rate that the flight director command bars move can
be controlled by
b) rate or velocity feedback
c) amplifier gain
The correct answer is b Read up on ILS indication
9. The Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System uses the maintenance mode of

operation
a) in the air only
b) on the ground only
c) either in the air or on the ground
The correct answer is b Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin, 5th Edition Page 359
10. The third EFIS Symbol Generator is operated

a) with EICAS
b) in an emergency
c) as a standby to the No1 and No2 system
The correct answer is c Read up on EFIS
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1. What functions are available on the EHSI?

a) Full arc and Wx only
b) Full arc, Wx and Map Mode
c) Full Arc only
The correct answer is b Read up on EFIS
2. EFIS displays of the right hand and left hand displays are compared by
comparators in the
a) FMS
b) EICAS
c) Symbol Generators
3. What is the approximate earth rate?

a) 5o/hour
b) 10o/hour
c) 15o/hour
The correct answer is c Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems. Pallett Page 102
4. An IRS platform has

a) two accelerometers
b) three accelerometers
c) two or three accelerometers depending on the system
The correct answer is b Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 137
5. IRS Laser Ring Gyros provide

a) rate movement about an axis
b) displacement about an axis
c) both rate and displacement about an axis
The correct answer is a Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 137
6. What are the outputs of a Digital ADC

a) TAS, MACH, Altitude, TAT and SAT
b) TAS, MACH and Altitude
c) TAS, MACH, Altitude and TAT
The correct answer is a Both Static and Total Air Temperatures are outputs of a digital ADC
7. ARINC 629 periodic mode is used for

a) normal operation
b) transferring data only on events important to aircraft operation
c) database loads
The correct answer is a Read up ARINC 429 and 629
8. A fibre optic data bus used on an aircraft

a) connects non-essential systems only
b) can transmit on several channels at the same time
c) can send only one message at a time
The correct answer is b Read up on fibre optics
9. Light travels along a fibre optic by

a) reflection
b) refraction
c) dispersion
10. Manufacturers of aircraft can ensure HIRF protection by

a) designing specific avionic areas that are shielded against HIRF
b) ensuring all single wires are shielded with metal conduit
c) advising operators of all points susceptible to deterioration due to
corrosion, moisture ingress, flexing etc.
The correct answer is a Understanding HIRF By Gerald L. Fuller
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1. How is data coupled to an ARINC data bus?

a) By a capacitive pickup
b) By an inductive pickup
c) By a resistive pickup
The correct answer is b Read up on ARINC 429 and 629 data bus systems
2. An AND gate output is 1 when inputs are

a) both 0
b) 1 and 0
c) both 1
3. What is hex 110 in decimal

a) 272
b) 282
c) 32
The correct answer is a Read up on hexadecimal numbering system
4. Convert the binary word 1100 to decimal

a) 16
b) 12
c) 11
The correct answer is b Read up on binary to decimal converion
5. How does MIL-STD-1533 put data onto the data bus?

a) Through the bus controller
b) R1 (remote terminal)
c) SSIFU (sub-system interface unit)
The correct answer is a Read up on MIL-STD-1533 data bus systems
6. If a data message is made up of 1 and 0 it is

a) analogue
b) digital
c) logic
The correct answer is b Digital is 1s and 0s

a) 12
b) 14
c) 15
The correct answer is b Read up on binary to decimal converion
8. What sort of gate requires two positive voltages to operate

a) NOT
b) OR
c) AND
9. What is the main disadvantage of a fibre optic data bus?

a) Bend radius and moisture ingress at connections
b) Less strong and durable when compared to twisted pair and coaxial
cable
c) Expensive to install
10. When 4 binary serial counters are connected in cascade for frequency division,
what division factor is required
a) 4
b) 8
c) 16
The correct answer is c Each serial counter changes its state once every 2 clock pulses. So 4
serial counters devides by 2x2x2x2 = 16
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1. Magnetic deflection in a CRT is achieved by

a) a sawtooth waveform
b) a trapezoidal waveform
c) a sinusoidal voltage
The correct answer is b Do not get confused with electrostatic deflection (plates), which would be
sawtooth
2. Fly By Wire systems in the fully active mode, the actuators will
a) both be active
b) one in active mode, one in damping mode
c) both be in damping mode, awaiting control inputs
The correct answer is b Read up on Fly by Wire
3. The parity bit in digital information is used

a) for BITE programs
b) to check the validity of data information
c) to check the status of the system
The correct answer is b Read up on the purpose and use of parity bit
4. On a Fly By Wire system, what controls the stab trim
a) ELAC
b) ELAC and SEC
c) SEC
The correct answer is b ELAC = Elevator Aileron Computer, SEC = Spoilers Elevator Computer
and FAC = Flight Augmentation Computers (rudder)

a) shallow bend radius
c) liable to environmental contamination of end terminals
6. ARINC 429 SDI word format is at bits

a) 1-8
b) 9 - 10
c) 32
The correct answer is b SDI = Source Destination Ident
7. Convert the binary number 110010 to decimal

a) 80
b) 50
c) 34
The correct answer is b Read up on decimal conversions
8. What is serial to parallel and vice-versa called

a) Encoder/Decoder
b) Multiplex/Demultiplex
c) Switching
The correct answer is b Read up on multiplexing
9. What is the parity bit for on an ARINC 429 bus

a) To check for corruption during transmission of a word
b) To act as a terminal gap in an emergency
c) To delay the signal
The correct answer is a Read up on purpose and use of parity bit
10. 3 binary counters in cascade. What is the division?

a) 8
b) 16
c) 32
The correct answer is a Each serial counter changes its state once every 2 clock pulses. So 3
serial counters devides by 2x2x2 = 8
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1. Control of software is by
a) the National Aviation Authority
b) engineers
c) the aircraft manufacturers
The correct answer is a See AWN 45.
2. A typical fibre optic connector is

a) F-type connector
b) coupling type, with lens fitted
c) push-pull connector
The correct answer is b Read up on fibre optics.
3. An ARINC 429 word label format is

a) binary
b) octal
c) hexadecimal
The correct answer is b Read up on ARINC 429 word format.
4. Which of the following is an optelectronic device?

a) Triac
b) Thyristor
c) Laser Diode
The correct answer is c Read up on optoelectronic devices (from Module 4).
5. What is the advantage of a single mode fibre optic over ordinary wire?
a) Large bandwidth
b) Small bend radius
c) Not prone to damage
6. How many LRUs can be connected to an ARINC 429 data bus

a) 120
b) 20
c) 60
The correct answer is b Read up on ARINC 429 and 629.
7. Convert the hexidecimal number D into decimal

a) 13
b) 14
c) 14
The correct answer is a Read up on hexidecimal numbering system.
8. Convert decimal 15 into binary

a) 1101
b) 1111
c) 1110
The correct answer is b Read up on decimal to binary conversion.
9. Convert 448 to hex

a) 3616
b) 2416
c) 2216
The correct answer is b read up on octal to hex conversion.
10. When will a NAND gate give logic 0 at the output?

a) When both inputs are at 0
b) When both inputs are at 1
c) When the inputs are different
The correct answer is b Read up on logic gates.
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This is exam number 14. You've been here 1 times.

a) 120
b) 20
c) 60
The correct answer is a Read up on ARINC 429 and 629 data bus systems
2. Convert decimal 15 into hexadecimal

a) E
b) G
c) F
The correct answer is c Read up on hexadecimal numbering system
3. Which logic gate has this truth table

A B C
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
a) NOT
b) Exclusive OR
c) NAND
The correct answer is b Read up on logic gates

a) OR
b) Exclusive OR
c) NAND
The correct answer is a Read up on logic gates
5. What is the definition of level one software?

a) Critical
b) Essential
c) Non-essential
The correct answer is a Read up on software classification

6. ESDS bags are sealed by
a) zip locks
b) ESDS labels
c) twine (100% cotton)
The correct answer is c Boeing manual says 100% cotton twine. Other manuals say ESDS label.
However, it could be considered that ESDS labels do not 'seal'.

a) 101011001
b) 110011001
c) 100111001
The correct answer is a Read up on decimal to binary conversion
8. What are the values of an ESDS wrist strap?

a) 250 kilohms to 1.5 megohms
b) 2 megohms to 5 megohms
c) 2 gigohms to 4 gigohms
The correct answer is a CAAIPs Leaflet 9-4 5.3.1 - closest answer
9. Convert 1D to binary
a) 29
b) 11101
c) 101001
The correct answer is b Read up on hex to binary conversion

b) common to each terminal
c) is when all transmissions are quiet
The correct answer is b The TI is common to all LRUs on ARINC 629
----------------------------------------------------------
1. Convert 2C hex to octal

a) 54
b) 44
c) 35
The correct answer is a Read up on hex to octal conversions
2. A fibre optic light source is normally

a) a filament lamp
b) a laser or LED
c) a strobe light
3. What precautions are required when removing ESDS equipment

a) Wear a wrist strap connected to an approved ground point
b) Keep one hand on the airframe
c) No special precautions are required
The correct answer is a Read up on anti-static precautions

a) two bi-directional twin, sheathed and earthed wires
b) a twisted shielded pair of wires
c) a single twin cable for each transmitter
5. The minimum requirement for a cockpit voice recorder to begin operating is

a) on engine startup
b) on commencing the takeoff roll
c) once established in the en-route climb
The correct answer is b See ANO Art 53 para.1. Although JAR Ops states that the CVR must
begin when the aircraft is capable of moving under its own power.
6. ARINC Communications Addressing and Reporting Systems is used to

a) download aircraft status reports
b) connect the aircraft to base
c) make telephone calls
The correct answer is b Read up on ACARS
7. ARINC 429 data bus systems uses

The correct answer is c Read up on ARINC 429 and 629 data bus systems (429 uses either BCD
or binary)
8. With radio coupled autopilot, what are the inputs

a) ADF and ILS
b) ADF and VOR
c) ILS and VOR
The correct answer is c Read up on autopilot
9. B-RNAV system must be capable of

a) holding six waypoints
b) displaying distance and bearing to waypoint
c) reversing the waypoints for "fly-me-home"
The correct answer is b Read up on B-RNAV
10. The basic principle of radar is based upon

a) the amount of power in the signal returned
b) the time delay between outward and returning pulse
c) ultrasonic wave propagation
The correct answer is b Read up on basic radar theory
----------------------------------------------------------
1. An ARINC 429 Binary Coded Decimal word occupies word bits
a) 11 - 28
b) 11 - 29
c) 1-8
The correct answer is b Two versions of ARINC 429. BCD uses 11 - 29, Binary uses 11 - 28.

a) ECAM
b) EHSI
c) CDU
The correct answer is a Read up on ECAM/EICAS systems
3. A flight deck CRT LRU is being replaced. What does the ESDS label indicate?
a) Wrist straps should be worn
b) Do not touch plug pins or leave them exposed
c) Remove power before connecting
The correct answer is b See Pallett's Micro Electronics In Aircraft Systsems or CAAIPs 9-4
para.7.1.3.
4. What systems does the ADC feed?

b) Standby altimeter/machmeter
c) Cabin pressure controller sensor / machmeter / Altimeter
The correct answer is c Read up on Air DAta Computers
5. A hexadecimal is a number to base

a) 8
b) 2
c) 16
The correct answer is c Read up on hexadecimal numering system
6. An ARINC 429 system uses a

a) 16 bit word over a twisted pair of wires
b) 32 bit word over a twisted pair of wires
c) 20 bit word over a bi-directional bus
7. A thyristor is a device which has

a) a positive temperature coefficient
b) a negative temperature coefficient
c) a temperature coefficient of zero
The correct answer is b Read up on thyristos
8. When using a wrist strap, before touching the LRU the resistance should be
measured from your skin to the end of the earth probe. This should be
a) more than 10 kilohms
b) less than 10 kilohms
c) less than 1 ohm
The correct answer is a Read up on anti-static precautions
9. 1012 converted to decimal is

a) 52
b) 510
c) 210
The correct answer is b Read up on binary to decimal converions
10. Physical variables in quantitative forms, such as voltage or angular rotation of a

shaft are
a) analogue
b) digital
c) binary
The correct answer is a Read up on analogue/digital definitions
----------------------------------------------------------
1. Within a 3 bit frequency cascade, division is to

a) 8
b) 4
c) 2
The correct answer is a Read up on counters
2. When is a radio altimeter active?

a) Up to 10,000 ft
b) Up to 2,500 ft
c) Up to 100 ft
The correct answer is b Read up on radio altimeters and ILS
3. Which of the following could be a primary cause of HIRF protection failure?

a) Unserviceable radio filters
b) Broken or missing static wicks
c) Corrosion on bonding leads
The correct answer is a The exact definition of HIRF does not include electrostatc discharge
(ESD). But only interference from outside sources. Understanding HIRF By Gerald L. Fuller
4. The binary coded decimal number 10011000 expressed as a decimal number is

a) 98 b10
b) 152 10
c) 152 2
The correct answer is a Read up on BCD to decimal conversions (BCD is not the same a s
binary)
5. The decimal number 7 expressed as a binary number is

a) 111 2
b) 7 2
c) 101 2
The correct answer is a Read up on decimal to binary conversions
6. Convert 011101 binary to octal

a) 25
b) 33
c) 35
The correct answer is c Read up on binary to octal conversions
7. Manufacturers of aircraft can ensure HIRF protection

a) by designing specific avionic areas that are shielded against HIRF
b) by ensuring all single wires are shielded with metal conduit
c) by advising the operator of parts of the aircraft susceptible to degradation
due to corrosion, moisture ingress, flexing etc.
8. An ARINC 629 characteristic is

a) all LRUs can transmit at the same time
b) all LRUs can transmit and receive at the same time
c) data can transmit in both directions down the data bus
The correct answer is c Read up on ARINC 429 and 629 data bus systems
9. In an ARINC 429 word string, bits 1 - 8 represent

a) the source of the message
b) the monitored parameter
c) the destination LRU
10. What limits the number of ARINC 429 receivers on a bus

a) The speed and size
b) The parallel input impedance
c) The weight
----------------------------------------------------------
1. The 'fan-in' in a gate is the

a) number of outputs from a gate
b) number of inputs to a gate
c) number of inputs and outputs of a gate
The correct answer is b Read up on logic gate systems
2. Very Large Scale Integrated (VLSI) means the number of gates in a single IC is
a) up to 1000
b) up to 10,000
c) over 10,000
The correct answer is c Read up on logic gate systems

3. The advantage of DRAM over SRAM is
a) they operate slower
b) has a larger storage capacity per chip area
c) are cheaper to manufacture
The correct answer is c Read up on memory (RAM) types
4. A BYTE is usually
a) a 12 bit word
b) an 8 bit word
c) a six bit word
The correct answer is b Read up on computer terminology
5. Data is transferred on the MIL-STD-1553B by

a) bi-polar return to zero
b) manchester bi-phase
c) non return to zero
The correct answer is b Read up on MIL-STD-1553 data bus system
6. The fibre optic cable can be identified on aircraft by its jacket colour which is
a) purple
b) red
c) yellow
7. For a fibre optic cable connector that is not regularly disconnected you would use
the
a) ceramic lens type
b) ball lens type
c) butt type
8. The timebase in a CRT consists of

a) an amplifier and an oscillator
b) an oscillator only
c) an amplifier only
The correct answer is a Read up on CRTs
9. HIRF protection of LRUs is provided by

a) built in filters and overvoltage circuits
b) internally shielded cables
c) built in filters only
10. An EADI display of flight director commands are coloured

a) cyan
b) red
c) magenta
The correct answer is c Aircraft instruments and integrated systems,(pallet) page 302 fig 12.5
eadi flight director command bars are magenta
----------------------------------------------------------
1. Which systems does a modern ADC give information to?

a) Flight control computer, Air Data Instrument, Engine systems
b) EFIS
c) EICAS
The correct answer is a Read up on Air Data Computer
2. Binary Number: 110010

a) 80
b) 50
c) 34
The correct answer is b Read up on binary to decimal conversion
3. How are engine indications sent to the FDR?

a) Via ARINC 573
b) Via ARINC 629
c) Source isolated
The correct answer is a Read up on Flight Data Recorder
4. What is this truth table?

A B A.B
000
100
010
111
a) AND gate
b) NOR gate
c) NOT gate
The correct answer is a Read up on logic gates
5. Where do the outputs from a DADC go?

a) EADI
b) EHSI
c) IRMP: Inertial Reference Mode Panel
The correct answer is c Read up on Digital AIr Data Computer (IRMP is the control for the Inertial
Referencing Unit)
6. During an EFIS screen fit

a) use bonding strap
b) dont touch terminals
c) no tooling is required
The correct answer is b Microelectronics in Aircraft Systems - Pallet. pg 219
7. To stop earth loops forming, you would

a) leave both ends of the cable screen open circuit
b) earth both ends of the cable screen
c) earth only one end of the cable screen
The correct answer is c Read up on anti-static precautions
8. How many satellite signals are required to achieve precise 3D positioning?

a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
The correct answer is a Read up on satallite navigation (or GPS)
9. Binary addition of 1101 + 101101 is

a) 58
b) 61
c) 70
The correct answer is a Read up on binary addition and binary to decimal conversions
10. What system uses base 8?

a) ARINC 429, in dataword labels only
b) ARINC 629
c) ARINC 573
The correct answer is a Read up on ARINC 429 data bus word format
----------------------------------------------------------
1. What maintenance problems are associated fibre optics?

a) Corrosion
b) Earthing faults
c) Kinking and contamination of connectors
2. Who can sign for a software update?

a) Design organization or the aircraft manufacturer
b) Engineer
c) Chief pilot
The correct answer is b AWN 43
3. What sort of gate is this?
a) Or gate
b) NOR gate
c) NOT gate
4. What creates the raster effect on a CRT?

a) Sawtooth frequency
b) Sinusoidal frequency
c) Trapezoidal
The correct answer is a Read up on Cathode Ray Tubes
5. Common fibre optic use is

a) modulating intensity on direct read
b) modulating frequency on direct read
c) HIRF
6. An aircraft may have been HIRF affected.

a) A static wick check is required
b) A bonding load check is required
c) Test all radio frequencies for interference
The correct answer is a Read up on HIRF protection
7. The binary number 11010111 is expressed as a decimal is:

a) 215
b) 107
c) 53
The correct answer is a Read up on binary to decimal converion
8. The octal number 1001 expressed as a decimal is:

a) 513
b) 613
c) 713
The correct answer is a Read up on octal to decimal conversion
9. With a relative humidity of 10% to 20%, if you walked over a carpet what
electrostatic voltage value would you expect to see?
a) 6,000 volts
b) 12,000 volts
c) 35,000 volts
The correct answer is c Read up on static electricity
10. Before fitting a Printed Circuit Board you should check the
a) resistance between skin and strap end plug is less than 10 megohms
b) resistance between skin and strap end plug is more than 1 megohms
c) resistance between strap and strap end plug is less than 1 megohms
The correct answer is c CAAIP Leaflet 9-4 5.3.1
----------------------------------------------------------
1. A fibre optic data bus

a) can only transmit 1 message at a time
b) can transmit several messages simultaneously
c) is only used for non essential messages
2. The minimum requirement for an aeroplane CVR is

a) from power on
b) from engine start
c) from beginning of take off roll
The correct answer is b JAR OPS Para 1.700 (c) OR answer c by CAP 393 Section I Para 53
3. On an ARINC 629 data bus, the maximum amount of current-mode couplers per
data bus is
a) 46
b) 120
c) 64
The correct answer is b 120 LRUs maximum (but the B777 uses 46)
4. To connect a LRU to the data bus

a) a current mode coupler, serial interface module and terminal controller is
required
b) current mode coupler, terminal controller and a production break is
required
c) a terminal controller and interface module only is required
5. A current-mode coupler contains an E-Core assembly. The purpose of the E-

Core is to
a) couple the signal to the data bus
b) provide effective screening of the signal through the current-mode
coupler
c) enable easy access for monitoring of the signal
6. The ARINC 429 low rate of transmission is

a) 12-14 Kbits/second with high of 100 kBits/second
b) 12-14 Mbits/second with high of 100 Mbits/secon
c) 100 kbits/second with high of 12-14 Mbits/second
7. A D to A converter is required to produce an output range of 0 to 10V. This can

be achieved by
a) a non inverting op amp connected in series with output
b) an inverting op amp connected in series with output
c) a differentiator with a 100 Kilohm feedback resistor
The correct answer is b Read up on DACs and ADCs
8. A D to A converter would use a precision amplifier to

a) ensure that the output voltages remain accurate
b) ensure that the input voltage remains accurate
c) compensate for the variation of the feedback resistor with temperature
The correct answer is a Read up on DACs and ADCs
9. A given transducer provides a voltage which corresponds to true heading. This

voltage can be converted to 'bits' by using a
a) commutator
b) digital to analogue converter
c) analogue to digital converter
The correct answer is c Read up on DACs and ADCs
10. The output of a NOT gate is logic 1. The input is

a) logic 1
b) logic 0
c) both logic 1
----------------------------------------------------------
1. An ARINC 629 bus cable is a twisted pair of wires with

a) a 130 ohm resistor at one end
b) a 230 ohm resistor at one end
c) a 130 ohm resistor at both ends
2. An ARINC 629 stub cable

a) connects bi-directional data between the LRU and current mode coupler
b) connects single directional data between the LRU and current mode
coupler
c) connects bi-directional data between two LRUs
3. Care must be taken when installing ARINC 629 cables into bus panels, damage
to cables can cause
a) arcing of high voltage signals
b) standing waves.
c) corrosion of the conductor
4. An aircraft data bus system

a) cannot use both ARINC 629 and ARINC 429 data buses.
b) can use both ARINC 629 and ARINC 429 as they are compatible.
c) can use both systems, ARINC 629 and ARINC 429 via system card files
and signal gateways
5. An Inertial Navigation System (INS/IRS) computes distance from acceleration by

a) a simple integration
b) a differentiation followed by an integration
c) two successive integrations
The correct answer is c Read up on acceleration - velocity - distance computations
6. Before the aircraft is moved from the loading pier the pilot must
a) insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the IRS
b) set the altitude to be fed into the INS
c) insert the longitude and latitude of the first waypoint into the INS
The correct answer is a Read up on Inertial Reference Systems
7. A 12 bit 16 Channel encoder will use a multiplexer with

a) 2 wire series address line
b) 3 bit parallel address line
c) 4 bit parallel address line
The correct answer is a Read up on multiplexing
8. An A to D converter uses successive approximation to

a) increase resolution
b) increase speed
c) increase accuracy
The correct answer is b Read up on ADCs and DACs
9. An R-2R D to A converter uses

a) two values of resistors whose precision is not important
b) two values of precision resistors
c) resistors whose values are logarithmic
The correct answer is b Read up on ADCs and DACs
10. A fiber optic cable to LRU connector should be connected

a) using torque-loaded pliers
b) hand tight only
c) very carefully to ensure alignment and reduce light loss
----------------------------------------------------------
1. An IRS has
a) accelerometers fixed to the airframe and gyros on a stable platform
b) accelerometers and gyros fixed to a the airframe
c) accelerometers on a stable platform and gyros fixed to the airframe
The correct answer is b Read up on IRS
2. An IRS system requires data for wind computation from

a) central Air Data Computer
b) satellites
c) Doppler System
The correct answer is a Read up on IRS
3. The FMS carries out a Rho/Theta navigation function, the purpose of this is to
a) update the IRS system with an accurate position fix of latitude and
longitude
b) to update the EMS with the new lateral flight profile for the flight plan
c) to update the VOR and DME systems with an accurate position fix
The correct answer is a Read up on FMS - IRS update function
4. The FMS is updated

a) by the aircrew by reference to the Tech Log
b) automatically by update data from the ACARS
c) by an aircraft engineer updates the system either by a magnetic tape or
floppy disc
The correct answer is c Read up on FMS database updating
5. Pitch Control of a fly by wire system is achieved by

a) elevators only
b) stabilizer and elevator
c) stabilizer only
The correct answer is b Read up on fly-by-wire
6. In a fly by wire system, if the pilot control input is derived from a side stick
controller:
a) control surface feedback is fed to the side stick
b) there is no control surface feedback to the side stick
c) there will be only control surface feedback to the side stick after a
computer failure
The correct answer is b Read up on fly-by-wire
7. In memory using multivibrators, when power is switched off the datawill

a) still be available on power up
b) be lost
c) automatically be downloaded
The correct answer is b Read up on RAM types
8. The resistance of the wrist strap used as part of anti static precautions should be
a) 0 - 200 ohm
b) 250 kilohm - 1.5 megohm
c) 20 megohm - 200 megohm
The correct answer is b CAAIPs Leaflet 9-4 5.3.1
9. What is the function of a status register in a microprocessor?

a) To indicate the status of the processor
b) In the ALU, to store the position of the program during an interrupt
c) To synchronize the clock pulse
The correct answer is a <See http://www.i-garden.org/docu/cecs/cs14.pdf
10. What is the advantage of EPROM over fusible link?

a) Cheaper to produce
b) Can be re-programmed
c) Does not need refreshing
The correct answer is b Read up on RAM types
----------------------------------------------------------
1. A basic IRS platform has

a) 3 accelerometers and 2 laser gyros
b) 2 Accelerometers and 3 laser gyros
c) 3 accelerometers and 3 laser gyros
The correct answer is c Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 137
2. What must be entered into the IRS before the aircraft can be moved?
a) Present position
b) Flight plan
c) Cruise height
3. The FMS Operational Data Base is

a) updated once a month
b) is fed with information on aircraft weight, cruise altitude and cost index
before take off
c) needs no update information
The correct answer is b Read up on FMS databases
4. Control surface feedback is fed back to

a) the Flight Control Computer only
b) the Flight Control Computer and side stick controller
c) the side stick controller only
The correct answer is a Read up on fly by wire
5. The function of a commutator is to

a) convert from analogue to binary form
b) provide a sampling in sequence of a number of parameters
c) provide continuous availability of all parameters connected to the system
The correct answer is b Read up on DACs and CADs
6. When the voltage that represents a logic 1 state is less than the voltage that
represents a logic 0 state, the logic being used is
a) either positive or negative
b) positive
c) negative
The correct answer is c Read up on logic systems
7. The output of an AND gate having two inputs A and B is logic 1. The two inputs
will have the logic states of
a) A = 0, B = 0
b) A = 1, B = 1
c) A = 1, B = 0
8. Registers are used in digital computers to

a) store bits of information in a permanent memory
b) store a limited amount of information on a temporary basis
c) keep a count of operations completed
The correct answer is b Read up on CPU architecture
9. What is 0111000012 in Octal?

a) 281 10
b) 225 8
c) 341 8
The correct answer is c Read up on binary to octal conversions
10. ARINC 629 is used for

a) normal flight
b) emergency only
c) a backup to ARINC 429
The correct answer is a Read up on the ARINC 429 and 629 data bus system
----------------------------------------------------------
1. Testing of HIRF on aircraft systems is done

a) by periodically listening for interference on all systems
b) at and during production and testing (initial certification)
c) only after a report of radio interference
The correct answer is b Understanding HIRF By Gerald L. Fuller
2. How are earth loops prevented from forming?

a) Ground only one end of the cable screen
b) Ground both ends of the cable screen
c) Ground neither end of the cable screen
3. When carrying out a bonding check on a surface protected by anodic film

a) the anodic film should be removed locally to ensure a good contact
b) the film is conductive so no preparations are required
c) add a bonding factor to the result of the test to account for the resistance
of the anodic film
The correct answer is a Read up on electrical testing
4. The accelerometer output in an INS/IRS is

a) integrated twice to give velocity
b) integrated twice to give distance
c) integrated once to give distance
The correct answer is b Read up on acceleration - velocity - distance computations
5. An INS/IRS Battery Unit provides

a) standby power when airborne and on the ground
b) standby power only whilst in flight
c) standby power only on the ground
The correct answer is a Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems. Pallett Page 247 & 248
6. The FMS Navigation Data Base must be updated

a) once a month
b) every 28 days
c) before each flight to establish the flight plan
The correct answer is b Read up on FMS databases
7. If a fly by wire actuator loses hydraulic power the control surface will
a) automatically move back to the neutral position
b) remain rigid in the failure position
c) remain in the failure position but may move due to aerodynamic pressure
The correct answer is c Read up on fly by wire systems
8. The output of an OR gate having two inputs A and B is logic 0. The two inputs
will have the logic states of
a) A = 0, B = 0
b) A = 1, B = 0
c) A = 0, B = 1
The correct answer is a Read up logic gates
9. When clamping cable looms containing co-axial cables

a) avoid distortion to the co-axial cable to maintain the dielectric constant
b) distortion of the outer sheath is allowed providing the inner cable is not
affected
c) the clamps must be no more than 1 metre apart
The correct answer is a Read up on cable installations
10. When incorporating an aerial cable it must be

a) in the centre of the other wires
b) outside the other wires for easy access
c) positioned separately from the loom
The correct answer is c Read up on cable installations
----------------------------------------------------------
1. Some of the advantages of fiber optic cable over copper cable are
a) non conductive, easy to manufacture and assemble, higher bandwidth
b) smaller size and weight, non conductive, more rugged, higher security
c) non conductive, higher bandwidth, higher security, smaller size and
weight
2. When carrying out airframe bonding checks as part of a program of HIRF

prevention the airframe bonding resistance should be less than
a) 50 milliohms
b) 100 milliohms
c) 1 ohm
3. LCD screens are driven by

a) AC voltage
b) variable current DC voltage
c) fixed current DC voltage
The correct answer is a See discussion in Forum Module 5 for details
4. IRS alignment
a) takes up to 10 minutes and the present position can be entered at any
time during alignment
b) takes up to 10 minutes and present position must be entered before
alignment.
c) takes up to 10 minutes and the previous flight shut down present position
is used for the alignment
5. A fault light appears on the IRS Mode Selector Unit during the alignment
sequence. The correct action is
a) immediately switch off and select the standby system.
b) select HDG/STS on the Inertial System Display Unit (ISDU), observe the
action code in the right alpha/numeric display
c) refer to the warning display on the EICAS/ECAM system.
The correct answer is b Read up on IRS
6. EFlS systems have two control panels, their purpose is

a) to provide display control by one control panel whilst the other provides a
standby
b) one for the EADI display and one for the EHSI display
c) one to control the type of EFlS display and the other to select the source
of the information being displayed
7. A FMS has a total of how many Data Bases

a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
The correct answer is b Read up on FMS databases (navigation and performance databases)
8. Fly by wire High Speed protection is

a) to prevent high speed stall
b) to increase the pitch angle as speed increases
c) to prevent tuck under
The correct answer is c Read up on fly by wire
9. In a single mode fibre optic cable

a) several waves travel down the cable
b) the diameter of the cable is dependent on the wavelength of the light
used*
c) the distortion of the signal occurs is dependent on the length of cable
10. A semiconductor which emits photons and releases electrons when stimulated by
photons is called
a) an LED
b) a photodiode
c) a laser diode
The correct answer is c Read up on laser diodes (Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of
Radiation)
----------------------------------------------------------
1. An IRS Laser gyro provides

a) detection of the rate of movement about an aircraft axis
b) detection of the earths rotation to establish true north
c) detection of the earths gravitational force to establish true north
2. A Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) has the advantage over a CRT because
a) it displays more colours
b) it requires less servicing
c) it requires no cooling
The correct answer is c Read up on LCDs and CRTs
3. The left and right cockpit displays

a) are supplied from separate Symbol Generators at all times
b) are supplied from the same Symbol Generator
c) will only be supplied from the same symbol generator when all other
symbol generators have failed
4. A single failure of a fly by wire control surface computer will

a) cause the system to revert to an alternate law of operation
b) cause the system to revert to a direct law of operation
c) not have any operational effect on the system
The correct answer is c Read up on fly by wire systems

5. An encoder changes
c) data from one format to another
The correct answer is c Read up on encoders and decoders
6. An encoder using Grey code

a) changes analogue to digital
b) changes analogue to binary
c) changes digital to analogue
The correct answer is a Read up on altitude encoders and grey code
7. What is the Low Speed transmission rate for ARINC 429?

a) 12 14.5 kbits / second
b) 100 kbits / second
c) 120 kbits / second
8. What is this symbol:
a) Exclusive AND gate

c) Exclusive NOR gate
9. What Logic Gate does this switch circuit indicate?
a) AND gate
b) OR gate
c) NOR gate
10. What is the effect of a level 1 software failure?

a) Significant reduction in safety margins
b) Large reduction in safety margins
c) Loss of aircraft and / or fatalities
The correct answer is c Read up on software management

----------------------------------------------------------
1. Ribbon cables affected by mutual impedance and current loop leakage are
protected by
a) earthing each conductor
b) earthing each alternate conductor
c) wrapping the complete ribbon in an earthed shield
The correct answer is b Read up on HIRF protection
2. What is the definition of baud rate?

a) 1 bit per second
b) 1 byte per second
c) 1 word per second
The correct answer is a Read up on computer terminology
3. An RS flip-flop with Q at 1 is said to be

a) reset
b) set
c) zero
The correct answer is b Read up on flip-flops / vibrators
4. What is the Boolean Algebra for the XOR Circuit below?
The correct answer is b Read up on boolean algebra
5. What does the logic circuit below represent?

a) Half adder circuit
b) Full Adder Circuit
c) Multi-bit adder
The correct answer is b Read up on adders
6. The release of a photon by another photon is an example of

a) a zener diode
b) an LED
c) a photo diode
The correct answer is b Reead up on LED operation
7. When a JK flip flop is used as a memory device, what type of memory would it
be?
a) non-volatile
b) read-only
c) volatile
The correct answer is c Read up on memory types
8. Once an ARINC 629 LRU has transmitted a message it will wait how long before
transmitting again?
a) Until the end of the synchronization gap.
b) Until the end of the transmit interval
c) Until the start of the terminal gap
The correct answer is b Read up on ARINC 629 data word format
9. How is the word label 206 written in ARINC 429?

a) Decimal 206
b) Binary 11000110
c) Octal 01100001
The correct answer is c Label is Octal - MSB to right - so yes, it is backwards
10. What is ARINC 561 used for?

a) Flight Data Recorder systems
b) Fly by Wire systems
c) Inertial Navigation Systems
The correct answer is c Read up on the ARINC data bus systems
----------------------------------------------------------
1. What are the outputs from digital clocks used for?
a) VOR, ILS and DME

b) Flight data acquisition unit, Flight management computer and Voice
recorder
c) Weather radar, TCAS and ACARS
The correct answer is b Only these require real time reference
2. What does a fibre optic star connection do?
a) Provides direct point-to-point services to units on dedicated lines

emanating from the central hub
b) Provides a continuous loop of fibre interconnecting all nodes
c) Shares a common bandwidth of a common cable
3. What is the purpose of the ALU?

a) To convert serial into parallel data
b) To store data being used by the CPU
c) The part of the CPU unit where arithmetic & logic operations are carried
out
The correct answer is c Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin, 5th Edition Page 146
4. Which logic gate has both inputs high to get an output?

a) NAND gate
b) XOR gate
c) AND gate
5. Which would have the least components?

a) ALU
b) CPU
c) LSI
The correct answer is a Read up on CPU components
6. How many address lines would be needed for an 8 line MUX?

a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
The correct answer is b Read up on multiplexing / demultiplexing
7. In a MUX, how is parallel converted to serial?

a) By way of a shift register
b) By way of a demultiplexer
c) By way of an encoder
The correct answer is a Read up on shift registers
8. If a magnetic field is parallel to the X plates in a CRT, which way will the beam
move?
a) Diagonally
b) Vertically
c) Horizontally
The correct answer is c Read up on CRTs
9. What would you expect to see displayed on an EADI display?

a) Flight director command bars, slip indicator, rate to altitude & autoland
b) Compass heading, selected heading and VOR
c) Course information, weather radar, way point alert and bearing pointers
The correct answer is a Read up on EFIS
10. The binary number 10101000111001012 in hexadecimal is:

a) 22BC 16
b) A8E5 16
c) FFFF 16
The correct answer is b Read up on binary to hex conversions
----------------------------------------------------------
1. A fibreoptic lens type coupling with lens and integral LED compared to an end-
fire coupling is
a) more efficient
b) less efficient
c) equally efficient
The correct answer is a
2. An analogue to digital converter is as accurate as

a) the sampling rate
b) the frequency
c) the amplitude
3. A digital to analogue converter that requires the output to range between 0v and -
10v would have
a) a non-inverting amplifier in parallel with the output line
b) an inverting amplifier in series with the output line
c) a non-inverting amplifier in line with the output with a resistor to ground
The correct answer is b
4. An LED display is
a) red and green
b) monochrome only
c) high definition
5. An EFIS ADI display will show along with pitch and roll
a) flight director bars, autoland, compass rose, altitude
b) flight director bars, autoland, altitude, range to altitude, decision height
c) decision height, autoland, rad alt , altitude
The correct answer is c
6. A full operation system BITE check will carry out a internal system test that
ensures the system meets design requirements and is operational
a) but will not move the controls
b) as well as checking full system and will move the controls to their stops
c) as well as checking full system but will not move the controls to their
stops
The correct answer is c Digital Avionic Systems - Cary Spitzer. Page 109, Arinc report 604
guidance for design and use of built in test equipment states... 'BITE should excercise the
hardware sufficiently to determine if it meets the performance requirements but should not drive it
against mechanical stops.'
7. If on a flight deck EFIS system all the displays were missing one bit of
information this is most likely to be
a) the symbol generator and display
b) the input sensor bus and display controller
c) the display controller and symbol generator
8. A arinc data word is bits 11-29, if bits 11-18 are patched which of the following
would be the LSB bit
a) 19
b) 29
c) 21
9. What is a band?
a) A block of data
b) A bit of data
c) A byte of data
10. Passive sensors in fibre optics

a) require power for the processing signal before they send them down the
fibre optic
b) require no power and they do not process signals
c) process the signal but do not require power

----------------------------------------------------------
1. An LCD display uses what type of power supply?

a) Continuous AC
b) Variable level DC voltage
c) DC voltage
The correct answer is a See discussion in Forum Module 5 for details
2. Fibre optic data bus links are

a) bi-directional
b) one way data buses
c) simplex
3. 0011011000101001 when transferred to computer language this information can

be a representation of
a) binary, octal or decimal numbers
b) hex, octal and binary numbers
c) hex, octal and decimal numbers
4. In a bi-stable memory circuit

a) the memory is lost as soon as power is removed
b) the memory is retained indefinably
c) the memory needs to be refreshed constantly, even when power is on
5. In an analogue to digital converter, the input voltage

a) stays on constantly
b) is switched by the digital input
c) is intermittent
6. In an RS flip flop output is one. This means it is

a) set
b) reset
c) intermediate
The correct answer is a Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 143
7. ARINC 629 utilizes

a) full duplex
b) half duplex
c) simplex
8. Optical fibre losses are due to

a) absorption only
b) absorption, scattering and reflection
c) radiation, absorption and reflection
The correct answer is b Introduction to Fiber Optics John Crisp Page 50
9. The cone of acceptance is measured between

a) longitudinal axis of the core and the outer angle
b) the two outer angles
c) the diameter of the core
The correct answer is a Introduction to Fiber Optics John Crisp Page 29
10. An R-2R Converter has values or resistance

a) whose precision are accurate
b) whose relative precision are accurate
c) whose precision are not accurate
----------------------------------------------------------
1. An ALU is an example of
a) LSI
b) SSI
c) MSI
2. What does 1 represent in an analogue system?

a) Switches closed, magnetised
b) Switches open, unmagnetised
c) High frequency
3. A centralised monitoring computer system is used

a) to test system during flight and for BITE test of systems on the ground
using a carry on control unit
b) to test systems in flight and on the ground using a centralised on board
control unit
c) testing systems on the ground only
The correct answer is b Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 270
4. A signal in an ARINC 629 system uses

a) a pair of wires per transmitter unit
b) a twisted pair of wires or fibre optics
c) a single wire
5. A beam deflection on EFIS displays are

a) electromagnetism
b) electrostatic
c) solid state
The correct answer is a Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 297
6. A nand and nor to become a not gate have

a) inputs connected together
b) inputs inverted
c) outputs inverted
7. An in-series ARINC 429 system transmits using

a) wave dividing multiplexing
b) time dividing multiplexing
c) encoder
8. Fibre optic cables use

a) reflective outer shell
b) refractive outer shell
c) reflective inner shell
The correct answer is b The outer cladding is glass, so it is refractive (but less so than the core).
Cladding causes Total Internal Reflection (TIR), so question can be interpreted in two ways.
9. A sinusoidal circular time constant produces what output?

a) 90 degrees out of phase
b) 180 degrees out of phase
c) In phase
10. A terminal controller

a) transmits only when addressed
b) is repetitive transmitting
c) will transmit only once during each transmit interval
1. What is the advantage of series over parallel message sending?

a) Quicker
b) More information sent
c) Only one pair of conductors
The correct answer is c Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 146
2. The number of LRUs which transmit/receive on ARINC-429 is dependent upon

a) size of S.D.I
b) speed of transmission & size of aircraft systems
c) parallel input impedance
3. In fibre optic cable, signals are separated by

a) active optic filter
b) passive optic filter
c) low pass filter

4. In an EFIS display, the lines, Scales, Indicator and Synoptic are generated by
a) synoptic scan
b) stroke scan
c) raster scan
The correct answer is b 757 MM 34-22-00 page 40 (p) and 737 MM 34-22-00 page 47, 4(b)
5. Speed of computer process information depends upon

a) the size of the programme
b) the time period to access the memory
c) the external inputs to the system
6. A typical example of a mass storage memory device which "write once" and
"read many" is
a) a CD Rom
b) an IC
c) a magnetic tape
7. When handling PCB's labelled ESDS, what precaution are taken?

a) Isolate electrical power before installing on Aircraft
b) First earth with aircraft then to it
c) Do not touch its pins as copper contamination can occur
The correct answer is a Microelectronics in Aircraft Systems. Pallett. Page 219
8. A computer consist of at least the C.P.U and

a) memory and input & output port
b) register section, ALU, timing and control section
c) memory, ALU, input & output port
9. Electromagnetic compatibility is achieved by

a) shielding, screening, earthing, bonding and interference filters
b) enclosing the system with same frequency and strength of which
screening is done
c) coating in a conductive paint
10. The supply to an LCD is

a) AC
b) current restricted DC
c) voltage restricted DC
The correct answer is a See discussion in FORUM Module 5

----------------------------------------------------------
1. The method of producing (white) lines for aircraft symbols, V/S scale etc. on an
EADI is by
a) stroke scan
b) raster scan
c) trapezoidal input
The correct answer is a MM 737-300/400/500, 34-22-00 page 47 4b or MM 757 34-22-00 page

40 (p). 'The special symbols, characters, letters, vectors and arcs are displayed using the stroke
method. The EADI sky/ground ball or EHSI weather radar are displayed using the raster method
2. In modern aircraft, the output from the clock is used

a) to synchronise the signals on the control bus
b) give GMT details to the flight recorder and other systems
c) to provide a clock pulse for CRT
3. Audio sounds recorded digitally

a) are not as accurate due to clipping and input errors
b) are superior quality and "data preservation"
c) are narrow bandwidth
4. When carrying out HIRF maintenance on aircraft, the max resistance is

a) 1 milliohm
b) 1 ohm
c) 0.05 ohms
5. A computer message 3B4 is

a) binary
b) octal
c) hexadecimal
6. One of the ARINC 429 formats is

a) hexadecimal
b) BCD
c) octal
The correct answer is b http://www.condoreng.com ARINC 429 tutorial
7. When does voice data recording commence?

a) On engine start
b) From aircraft take off run
c) After take off when airborne
The correct answer is b CAP 393 Section I Para 53, OR answer c by JAR OPS Para 1.700 (c)
8. What is 54 octal in hexadecimal
a) 2C
b) 4F
c) 2F
9. A heading reference of 320 degrees in a word label format would be written as

a) 101010001
b) 11010000
c) 01000111
10. Within an EFIS display system, all displays have 1 bit of information missing.
What would be the most probable cause?
a) Symbol generator and sensor input
b) Display controller and sensor input bus
c) Display controller and symbol generator
----------------------------------------------------------
1. A computer using RAM would utilise

a) a compact disc
b) an integrated circuit (chip)
c) magnetic tape
2. With a j-k flip flop which is the output set

a) q=1
b) q=0
c) either
3. If the glideslope pointer is below the centre mark the aircraft is

a) on the glideslope
c) above the glideslope
4. 2D in decimal is
a) 45
b) 43
c) 41
5. The operational data base of the FMS may have to be modified in flight
a) by the pilot
b) automatically by the DADC
c) It cannot be modified in flight
6. An LED will emit light when

a) it is forward biased
b) it is reverse biased
c) either forward or reverse biased if a sufficient level of ac voltage is
applied
7. On an EFIS system the weather radar is displayed on

a) the EADI
b) the EHSI
c) the FMC CDU
The correct answer is b Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 305
8. CADC outputs are

a) altitude, vertical speed, IAS, mach no
b) altitude ,vertical speed, angle of attack, TAT, SAT
c) altitude, vertical speed, TAS, CAS, mach no, SAT, TAT
The correct answer is c Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 162.
9. Data is converted from serial to parallel and parallel to serial by

a) a parallel register
b) a shift register
c) a synchronous counter
10. A group of bits transmitted at the same time is

a) a clock signal
b) parallel data
c) serial data
----------------------------------------------------------
1. A typical characteristic of a CMOS is

a) low power dissipation
b) high voltage handling
c) high power dissipation
2. If one EICAS CRT fails

a) the remaining CRT will display primary EICAS data
b) the FMS CDU will display the failed CRT data
c) the standby CRT will automatically take over
3. 84 decimal in hexadecimal is
a) 54
b) f4
c) 5f
4. EADI displays
a) pitch and roll attitudes
b) heading and weather radar
c) pitch, roll and waypoints
5. On an EHSI in weather radar mode, a severe storm would be shown as

a) orange areas with black or yellow surrounds
b) red areas with black surrounds
c) blue areas with white background
6. Variations in light on EFIS displays are compensated for by

a) integrated light dependant resistors in the display compensating for each
display individual
b) An external light dependant resistor mounted on the flight deck
compensating for all displays in a parallel-parallel format
c) manual adjustment by flight crew on EFIS controller
7. The input bus into a central processor unit is a

a) one way bus
b) bi directional bus
c) two way bus
8. A method used in modern aircraft for reporting in flight faults to an engineering

and monitoring ground station is
a) TCAS II
b) ACARS
c) TAWS
9. A CRT display has the advantage over an LCD display by

a) brighter clearer output
b) more energy efficient
c) large viewing angle
10. Most fibre optic connectors are designed so

a) the receptacle has to torque to a designated torque to ensure correct
alignment
b) the connectors can not be over tightened
c) the connector can not be replaced on the aircraft
----------------------------------------------------------
1. The self test function on an EFIS system can be tested

a) in the air only
c) in the air and on the ground
2. Each of the symbol generator outputs in an EFIS system can be

a) displayed of each individual display
b) only no. 2 can be displayed on the no.1
c) can not be interchanged
3. An AND gate with inverted inputs and an inverted output is equivalent to

a) an AND gate
b) an OR gate
c) a NOR gate
4. Logic gates internal operating mechanisms are produced from

a) thin film resistors
b) transistors
c) diodes
5. To display a circle on a CRT you use

a) 2 sine waves 180 degrees out of phase
b) 2 sine waves 90 degrees out of phase
c) 2 square wave 90 degrees out of phase
6. The light source used in fibre optics is

a) higher bandwidth than visible light
b) lower bandwidth than visible light
c) visible light
The correct answer is b Introduction to Fiber Optics J Crisp Page 18/19
7. When the power is removed from a bi-stable memory device, it's memory will
a) be lost indefinitely
b) be saved indefinitely
c) downloaded to memory
8. BITE tests are inhibited for ground use during

a) take-off
b) gear retraction
c) forward motion
9. Software changes come under the responsibility of

a) the national aviation authority
b) the aircraft constructor
c) the engineer
The correct answer is b AWN 45
10. A multiplexer
a) takes many signals in and converts it to a serial transmission output
b) takes one signal in and converts it to a parallel transmission output
c) takes many signals in and puts these in a parallel transmission on the
output
----------------------------------------------------------
1. The CPU consists of

a) register and arithmetic logic unit only
b) ALU, timing and control section, register
c) register, timing and control section only
The correct answer is b Aircraft Instruments and Intergrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 153 Basic
CPU,. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 145
2. The ARINC 429 system uses the following system to transfer data
a) non return to zero
b) harvard bi phase
c) bi-directional return to zero
The correct answer is c http://www.condoreng.com ARINC 429 tutorial
3. Which of the following ARINCs are bidirectional?

a) 429
b) 629
c) 573
The correct answer is b Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 148.
http://www.condoreng.com ARINC 429 tutorial
4. Data is transferred on the MIL-STD-1553B by using
a) bipolar return to zero
b) manchester bi-phase
The correct answer is b http://www.condoreng.com MIL-STD-1553 tutorial
5. The general arrangement of ARINC 629 includes

a) current mode coupler, data bus cable only
b) data bus cable, stub cable, voltage mode coupler
c) data bus cable, current mode coupler, stub cable
6. To deflect the beam of a CRT horizontally, coils are placed on the neck of the
tube
a) one on the side, one at the bottom
b) each side
c) top and bottom
7. During flight (non fault conditions) the EICAS system displays on the lower CRT
a) secondary engine parameters
b) synoptic display
c) flight phase page
8. Who can design new software?

a) BCAR section A8 approved company
b) BCAR section A1 approved company
c) The CAA
The correct answer is a AWN45a para 3.1.3 (BCAR section A sub section A8)
9. Data bus cables are terminated using

a) 130 ohms resistor
b) 100 ohms resistor
c) 25 ohms resistor
10. Modern aircraft with electronic displays would display information on airframe
and engine on which system?
a) Flight management system
b) Electronic centralised aircraft monitoring system (ECAM)
c) EADI
----------------------------------------------------------
1. The Flight data recorder starts recording

a) after take off
b) on aircraft roll out from stand
c) after the first engine has started
The correct answer is c JAR OPS Supbart K 1.715 e
2. Data to flight data recorder can be taken form a communal data bus if
a) it goes directly to it
b) the power is within flight data recorder limits
c) if source isolation has been considered
3. In arinc 429 data field is bits 11 to 28. If the bits 11 to 18 had pad bits, the L.S.B. Of the
data would be
a) bit 19
b) bit 11
c) bit 28
4. The BCD data field of arinc 429 is contained within bits

a) 1-8
b) 11 - 29
c) 11-28
The correct answer is b Binary Word is 11 - 28. BCD Word is 11 - 29
5. After attaching a wrist strap to you wrist (which is connected to aircraft ground), prior to
removal of ESDS equipment, the resistance measured
a) between the strap and the pin ground must be >10 Megohms
b) between your skin and the pin ground must be <10 megohms
c) between the strap and the pin ground must be <10 meghms
The correct answer is b Answer found in Boeing SWPM. 20-41-01 3(2) (e) Hold the red lead of
the (test) meter between the forefinger and the thumb. The acceptable range is less than
10,000,000 ohms
6. The major source of degradation of HIRF protection is

a) corrosion
b) damage to static wicks
c) radio filter break down
The correct answer is c The exact definition of HIRF does not include electrostatc discharge
(ESD). But only interference from outside sources. Understanding HIRF By Gerald L. Fuller
7. The resistance of the magnetic coils of a CRT. Is offset by using

a) trapezoidal voltage
b) constant voltage
c) sawtooth voltage
8. If the magnetic deflection plates produce a magnetic field which is parallel to the horizontal
then the trace is deflected in
a) horizontal axis
b) circular motion
c) vertical axis
9. Light transmission in a fibre optic cable is due to

a) repeated internal reflection
b) refraction of the light
c) defraction of the light
10. The name given to the joining of two fibre optic cables by aligning them carefully and
bringing them into close proximity of each other is
a) Fusion
b) End to end
c) Lens Coupling
----------------------------------------------------------
1. In a fibre optic cable

a) only one data signal can be sent down it at any one time
b) multiple data signals can be sent down it at one time
c) data can only be sent in one direction
The correct answer is b Introduction to Fiber Optics John Crisp page 189
2. A logic 1 may be represented in an analogue system by

(where Q is an output of a latch I flip-flop)
a) switch open I light on IQ
b) switch closed I light off / Not Q
c) positive I magnetised IQ
3. A central fault display system should be available through

a) a bite test
b) a easily accessible multifunction control display unit
c) a central bite test box with clear LED indications
4 An analogue to digital converter where it counts up to binary state eciual to the analogue in
put and then back down when this is reached is a
% a) successive approximation counter
b) a tracking ramp type converter
c) flash type converter
The correct answer is b Digital Fundimentals T L Floyd page 571
5. Transistors are used in a current triggered D to A device to

a) switch on the input
b) switch of the inputs
c) change the state of the inputs
6. Radio altitude is displayed on an EFIS system

a) on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator
b) on the Electronic Attitude Direction Indicator
c) ontheRMI
7. A flight data recorder should be capable of recording

a) the last 25 hours
b) the last 25 hours of aircraft flight
c) the last 25 hours with engines running
8. Op amps generally used in ADCs and DACs are normally % a) high input
impedance, low output impedance
b) high input impedance , high output impedance % c) low input impedance , how
output impedance
9. Magnetic materials are used in

a) ROMs only
b) some RAMs
c) EPROM
10. The pins on an op amp are numbered

a) clockwise
b) anticlockwise
c) cross ways
The correct answer is b Basic Electronics Malcolm Plant Page 16D
----------------------------------------------------------
1. A parallel register
a) reads each bit to be stored simultaneously
b) requires a clock pulse for each bit
c) reads the stored data when logic 0 is applied to the read line
2. HIRF protection is in the order of

a) hardened skin and protecting wires I LRUs
. b) bonding as many parts of the aircraft as possible and a maximum resistance
0.05ohms
c) periodically turn off components whilst radio transmitting
The correct answer is a The exact definition of HIRF does not include static build-up, but does
include interference from outside sources. The protection from such interferenc is via the aircraft
skin and wire/LRU shielding. Understanding HIRF, Gerald L Fuller
3. 16 hexadecimal converted to decimal is equivalent to

a) 38
b) 48
c) 22
4. To get logic 1 using this gate

a) A or B = 1
b) A and B = 1
c) A and B = 0
5. What logic gate would this circuit represent?
a) NAND Gate
b) NOR gate
c) AND gate
6. Decimal 10 converted to binary is

a) 1111
b) 1001
c) 1010
7. What systems uses base 10?

a) Decimal
b) Digital
c) Octal
8. What systems use base 16?

a) Octal
b) BCD
c) Hexadecimal
9. EADI pointers, dials and engine data is produced using

a) stroke
b) raster
c) electromagnetic waves
10. Fibre optic cables consists of a silica glass core and

a) refractive outer cladding
b) reflective outer cladding
c) reflective inner cladding
The correct answer is a The outer cladding is glass, so it is refractive (but less so than the core).
Cladding causes Total Internal Reflection (TIR), so question can be interpreted in two ways.
----------------------------------------------------------
1. The waveform to the coil of a CRT is

a) trapezoidal
b) ramp
c) analogue
2. Analogue logic 1 is
a) closed switch, Logic Q=0
b) closed circuit, Logic Q=1
c) open circuit
3. ARINC 629 is transmitted using

a) fibre optics or twisted pair of wires
b) single wire for each transmitter
c) SWG 28 wire
4. BITE for ground use only is switched off

a) when breaks are released
b) when undercarriage up
c) on take-off
5. Fibre optics relies on

a) fibre absorbing light
b) light reflecting off cladding
c) light escaping cladding
6. The "light" emitted from a LED used within a fibre-optic system will have a wavelength
a) slightly longer then that of visible light
b) slightly shorter then that of visible light
c) equal to that of visible light
The correct answer is a Infrared from 850nm. Visible light is 400 - 800 nm
7. Binary coded decimal (BCD) format has a minimum of

a) four "Os" or "1s"
b) 2lotsoffour"0s"or"1s"
c) 3 lots of four "Os" or "1 s"
8. A simplex system has

a) 1 transmitter and multiple receivers
b) 1 bus controller and 1 remote terminal
c) 1 bus controller and multiple receivers
9. Fibre optic cable over copper cable has the following advantages
a) non-conductive, easier to manufacture and assemble, greater bandwidth
b) non-conductive, greater bandwidth, greater signal security
c) greater bandwidth, greater signal security, more robust
10. An EFIS system ADI displays pitch, roll

a) autoland, altitude, compass rose and flight director bars
b) autoland, decision height, range to altitude and flight director bars and slip indicator
c) autoland, rad alt, decision height and slip indicator
----------------------------------------------------------
1. What is the Hexadecimal number F86 in Binary?

a) 111110000110
b) 111110000001
c) 3974
The correct answer is a Convert it to Decimal first (15 x 256 + 8 x 16 + 6 x 1) = 3974. Since it is
an even number, it must be the answer with a zero on the end.
2. What is 11000012 - 1011002?

a) 1101112
b) 100011012
c) 1101012
3. During normal functioning of an ECAM system the engine data shown on the
Engine/Warning display comes from the
a) EFIS channel of DMC3
b) ECAM channel of DMC1
c) ECAM channel of DMC3
The correct answer is b DMC 1 (in normal operation) supplies info the the upper ECAM, DMC 2
supplies info to the lower ECAM and DMC 3 is in standby
4. To create a bi-directional communications link within an ARINC 429 system

a) only one databus is required
b) two databuses are required
c) four databuses are required
5. Using I.N.S. an aircraft flies

a) course directed by ground station
b) great circle route
c) rhumb line

b) Spurious faults
7. Aircraft heading (HDG) is

a) the angle between True North and the desired track
b) the angle between True North and the actual track
c) the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
The correct answer is c Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 254
8. For an IRS System to pass the Alignment System Performance Test the
a) entered present latitude and longitude must agree with the latitude and
longitude at last power down
b) the No 1 and No 2 must both have the same latitude and longitude
present position entered
c) the latitude entered must be within given limits of the latitude computed
by IRU
The correct answer is c Aircraft Intruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett pages 279-280
9. The accepted error from INS / IRS is

a) 2 miles / hour + 3 miles
b) l mile / hour + 3 miles
c) 3 miles / hour + 3 miles
10. Control Display Unit (CDU ) selection of TKE (Track Angle Error), displays
a) distance perpendicular from the selected track
b) difference in degrees that the aircraft is to the right or left of the desired
track
c) difference in degrees from True North in a clockwise direction from the
desired track
The correct answer is b Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 256
----------------------------------------------------------
1. In the EICAS system, when is the maintenance mode available?

a) On the upper and lower screens - only available on the ground
b) Lower screen only - only available on the ground
c) In flight
The correct answer is b B747 Maintenance Manual. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated
Systems. Pallett Page 380
2. On a modern aircraft when are BITE checks carried out?

a) When BITE selected
b) After engine shut down
c) Continuously when system is in use
The correct answer is c Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, 5th edition, Eismin, Pages 152 and
268
3. What causes the X and Y beam deflections in an EFIS CRT display?

a) Electromagnetic
b) Electrostatic
c) Either
The correct answer is a Aircraft instruments and integrated systems (Pallett), page 286
4. In an IN system, the purpose of the stable platform is to

a) prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers
b) provide attitude reference
c) stop the gyros from toppling
5. The three accelerometers on a stable platform are mounted

a) parallel to each other
b) orthogonally
c) 12Oo apart
6. An IN system requires data from the

a) doppler system
b) satellites
c) air data computer
The correct answer is c Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 138
7. XTK (cross track) is the

a) angle in degrees that the aircraft track is left or right of desired track
b) actual track across the earths surface
c) perpendicular distance from the desired track
8. The output of an INS can be fed to

a) vertical speed indicators
b) attitude indicators
c) altimeters
The correct answer is b Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 247 fig
10.1. Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 137 & 138
9. The three accelerometers on a strapdown platform are mounted

c) 120o apart
10. Gyro-compassing is the term used for

a) self-alignment in azimuth
b) self alignment in the vertical
c) use of the gyro-magnetic compass system to align the platform
----------------------------------------------------------
1. Centralized Aircraft Monitoring System operates to

a) perform in-flight and ground tests of aircraft systems by carrying out a
BITE
b) give red warnings and amber cautions to display system status
c) perform in-flight BITE only
2. The control of the speed or rate that the F/D Command bars move can be
controlled by
b) rate or velocity feedback
c) amplifier gain
3. The Centralized Aircraft Monitoring System uses the maintenance mode of

operation
a) in the air only
c) either ground or air
4. Why does an ARINC databus system send data to LRUs in series?

a) More information can be sent
b) Takes less time
c) Saves weight
5. Can an LRU transmit and receive on more than one 629 bus?
a) Yes
b) No
c) Only if paralleled
6. ARINC 629 LRUs transmit

a) when addressed
b) when terminal gap is sensed
c) when signal gap is sensed
7. How is multiplication achieved in an ALU?

a) by addition
b) by subtraction
c) by coupling
8. What is the function of a status register?

a) To indicate the status of the microprocessor
b) To store a program during an interrupt
c) To synchronise the clock pulse
9. An ADC uses advance approximation to

b) increase speed
10. A DAC uses a precision amplifier to

a) ensure the output voltages remain accurate
b) ensure the input remains accurate
c) compensates for the variation of the feedback resistor due to
temperature

----------------------------------------------------------
1. A BCD word occupies bits 11-29, if 11-15 are filled with padders then the LSB of the word will
be
a) 16
b) 29
c) 11
2. If part of a display is lost on a CRT, this could be due to

a) an inoperative symbol generator or input sensor
b) an inoperative symbol generator or control panel
c) loss of power to the CRT
3. To reduce HIRF on radio equipment

a) periodically check bonding leads for condition
b) ensure all static wicks are in place
c) transmit on all radio frequencies to determine which frequencies are
causing the interference
4. When a BITE test is carried out on a system with moving parts it should be
a) carried out without operating moving parts
b) carried out ensuring all moving parts are operated and taken to there
stops
c) carried out ensuring all moving parts are operated but not to there
mechanical stops
The correct answer is c Digital Avionic Systems - Cary Spitzer. Page 109, Arinc report 604
guidance for design and use of built in test equipment states... 'BITE should excercise the
hardware sufficiently to determine if it meets the performance requirements but should not drive it
against mechanical stops.'

a) one transmitter, many receivers
b) a bus controller and separate controller
c) one transmitter, one receiver
6. The smallest operation of a CPU is

a) the timescale
b) the processor sub-cycle
c) the processor cycle

7. In a fibre optic system, different light frequencies are separated by
a) an active filter
b) a passive filter
c) a star network
8. The most common CRT for an EFIS system screen is a

a) electrostatic
b) electromagnetic
c) combined
The correct answer is c Boeing 757 MM 34-22-00 page 8 paragraph G (EADI), Section
(2)........'It (the CRT) utilizes magnetic deflection and electrostaic focus control.'
9. Sensors in a fibre optic flight control system

a) require power for processors
b) do not require power
c) require processing to give output
10. An accuracy amp is used to

a) give output at required level
b) compensate for temperature variation
c) make output between 0 - 5V
----------------------------------------------------------
1. L.E.D.s can give

a) high definition displays
b) red and green displays only
c) monochrome displays only
The correct answer is c LEDs can only ever give one colour (i.e. monochrome) as the colour is
determined by the doping element and nothing else. LEDs which appear to give two colours are
actually two separate LEDs in the same case.
2. Fibre optic systems can transmit data in

a) one direction only
b) in two directions
c) both directions at the same time
The correct answer is c Introduction to Fiber Optics John Crisp page 189
3. When handling a PCB you should ensure that
a) electrical power is isolated

b) ground yourself first to aircraft then PCB
c) ensure you do not touch the ends so that copper contacts do not become
contaminated
The correct answer is a CAAIPs Leaflet 9-4 8.1 (a)
4. For large bandwidth high-speed fibre optic transmission what sort of cable would
you use?
a) Single mode
b) Graded index
c) Step index
5. In an R-2-R ladder converter the values of resistors

a) are precise
b) do not need to be of precise values

c) only the first resistor need to be precise
The correct answer is a Basic Electronics Malcolm Plant Page 60D
6. In fibre optics the wavelength of the light is
a) less than visible light

b) more than visible light
7. What is the advantage of an ILD over an LED when used as a light source in
fibre optics
a) higher bandwidth
b) lower frequency range
c) lower intensity
The correct answer is b Introduction to Fiber Optics John Crisp. A Laser Diode has a lower
spectrum of frequencies hence reduce chromatic dispersion.
8. A typical example of a mass storage device is
a) CD ROM
b) IC
c) magnetic tape
9. A typical example of an IC is
a) ALU
b) CPU
c) dip switch

10. A circular time constant produces what sort of output ?
a) in phase
b) 180o out of phase
c) 90o out of phase
----------------------------------------------------------
1. Speed of light in a fibre optic fibre

a) is always the same no matter what material it is
b) is never greater then the speed of light in free space
c) increases if it passes through material of higher refractive index
The correct answer is b Fiber Optics Communication and Other Applications Page 15
2. A device, which converts serial to parallel and parallel to serial for arithmetical functions,
is
a) Multiplexer and De-Multiplexer

b) Shift Register
c) Parallel to serial and serial to parallel converter
The correct answer is b Pulse code modulation/parallel to serial
3. In an Arinc 429 Word label-representing heading is 320, this is represented in bits 1- 8 as

a) 01101000
b) 01011001
c) 00001011
The correct answer is c Octal 320 converted to binary.
4. What would be the outputs if A=0 B=0 C=1
a) 0, 1
b) 1, 1
c) 0, 0
The correct answer is a Check out the table on http://www.play-hookey.com/digital/adder.html
a) 0, 1
b) 1, 1
c) 1, 0
The correct answer is c Check out the table on http://www.play-hookey.com/digital/adder.html
6. The angle of incidence of a beam of light in a fibre optic cable will be

a) twice that of the cone of acceptance
b) approximately half that of the cone of acceptance
c) parallel with the end of the cable
The correct answer is b Fiber Optics Communication and Other Applications Page 46/7.
Presumably, this means the MAXIMUM angle of incidence.
7. A fibre optic cable is connected to a unit that will not be frequently disconnected. The
preferred type of connector to be used is a
a) Ball lens type
b) Butt type
c) Quick disconnect type
The correct answer is b Boeing 777-200 training notes
8. A cyclic test (watch dog) should be performed for ECAM

a) during power up
b) during flight
c) via MCDU
The correct answer is b Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin, 5th Edition. Pg 154
9. How is the symbol generator detecting the program error

a) looking at the odd parity without error
b) looking at the even parity without error
c) check sum bites for error detect
10. What is EPROM?

a) erasable programmable read only memory
b) enhanced programmable read only memory
c) erasable programming read only module
The correct answer is a Basic Electronics Malcolm Plant Page 87E
----------------------------------------------------------
1. A CRT is
a) electromagnetic
b) electrostatic
c) solid state
The correct answer is a A CRT is NOT solid state. Most CRTs used on aircraft are
electromagnetic.
2. What is used for the power of 10?

a) octal
b) digital
c) decimal
The correct answer is c Decimal is a power of 10 counting system
3. What is 44 in hexadecimal?
a) 2c
b) 2d
c) 2F
The correct answer is a (2 x 16) + (12 x 1) = 44 (c = 12)
4. What is octal 33in hexadecimal?

a) 22
b) 11
c) 1b
The correct answer is c Octal 33 = (3 x 8) + (3 x 1) = 27 decimal. 27 = (1 x 16) + (11 x 1) = 1b (b

= 11)
5. At low ambient temperatures, an LCD screen

a) loses contrast
b) is slower to update as data changes
c) viewing angle becomes larger
The correct answer is b See http://www.arundisplay.co.uk/glossary/lcd_technology.htm
6. Colour CRT shadowmask screen resolution is

a) 84 triads
b) 400 lines per square inch
c) 600 lines per scan
The correct answer is a See http://www.lgeservice.com/monterms.html for definition of resolution

(pixels per inch) and triads. The actual figure of 84 is irrelevant (as there are many different CRT
resolutions). The question is asking whether you know the definition of resolution
7. A multiplexer in test equipment could be used for

a) analogue to digital converter
b) frequency divider
c) digital to analogue converter
8. Where does the clock signal in a micro processor come from?

a) ALU
b) Control unit
c) Memory
The correct answer is b Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett. Page 153
9. Where is the operating program for the CPU stored?

a) ALU
b) Control unit
c) Memory unit
The correct answer is c Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett. Page 153
10. An LCD display

a) has three colours only
b) has infinite colours
The correct answer is a An LCD display uses only red, green and blue filters. By mixing them, it
can get different colours, but not an infinite amount.
----------------------------------------------------------
1. In ARINC 629 aperiodic mode, LRUs transmit in order of

a) power up
b) shortest terminal gap to longest terminal gap
c) longest terminal gap to shortest terminal gap
2. ARINC 629, aperiodic mode is used

a) for normal operation
b) for landing and approach operation
c) for database loads
3. What is the device used to convert Binary Coded Decimal into separate supplies for a
seven segment digital display?
a) Multiplexer
b) Demultiplexer
c) Decoder
The correct answer is c RS catalogue...part number CA3161 (see www.RSwww.com website and
enter the part number in their search box)
4. How is ARINC 429 bi-directional data transfer achieved?

a) Via a twisted pair of shielded cables
b) Using two data buses
c) Via a current mode coupler
5. A basic computer would consist of

a) register section, ALU and timing and control section
b) memory, input/output ports and CPU
c) RAM/ROM and input/output ports
The correct answer is b Pallett Aircraft instuments & Integrated Systems Page 153
6. ABS 000 01 1 101 1 1 0

This is the truth table for a
a) E-OR
b) NOT
c) NAND
The correct answer is a E-OR is another name for XOR (in the twisted CAA mind!)
7. Where is the rising runway?

a) EADI
b) EFIS
c) CRTs in the passenger cabin
8. What is ILS marker frequency?

a) 75 Mhz
b) 100 Mhz
c) 125 Mhz
9. On an external power socket the two short pins are

a) for the AC interlock circuit
b) to prevent arcing when inserting and extracting the socket
c) used to act as a guide
The correct answer is b Pallet Aircraft Electrical System 3rd Edition page 72. Trick question, it is a
DC interlock
10. Flat plate antenna is

a) series of waveguides with slots
b) a parabolic antenna
c) used to transmit RF signals only

----------------------------------------------------------
1. Relationship of CMCs to BITE systems is best described as
a) CMCS replaced but is not related to the older BITE system.

b) CMCS monitors the individual BITE systems and presents data.
c) CMCS modifies and upgrades BITE systems
2. Operation of a frequency counter is such that

a) it changes the incoming waveform to a standard square wave.
b) It detects incidences of peak value
c) It compares the incoming waveform with standard sine waves
3. As far as a software product is concerned

a) the 'Verification' phase includes performance testing a programmed EPROM
b) the 'Validation' phase is done to the software rather than to the component.
c) the 'Software Release' phase is the same as the 'Finished Product' phase
4. A segmented configuration for the display of alphanumeric date requires
a) at least 13 segments for all upper and lower case letters

b) the starburst display for numbers and lower case letters only.
c) 16 segments to display the full range of capital letters and numerals
5. For braided cables, the amount of braiding
a) is a trade-off design feature

b) must conform to the requirement for the shielding to cover at least 50% of the surface of the
cable
c) keeps radiated power inside the emitting assembly or away from the susceptible circuit
6. Electronic CRT beam display is used typically in

a) IRU control display units.
b) distance measuring indicators; digital counters
c) weather radar indicators
7. What is the quickest method of analogue to digital conversion?

a) Voltage to frequency
b) Flash converter
c) Single ramp method
The correct answer is b Digital Fundamentals by Thomas L Floyd
8. In a colour cathode ray tube, how is the phosphor arranged in the tube?
a) A red layer on the front with two green layers behind it
b) Layers of red, blue and green
c) A single phosphor layer containing red, green and blue
The correct answer is c Success in Electronics By Tom Duncan p285
9. An LCD which is back lit is

a) monochrome
b) three colours
c) multicoloured
The correct answer is c LCDs have 3 colours (RGB) which can be blended to make other colours
(of limited number)
10. An 8 data input multiplexer has how many Data select lines
a) 3
b) 2
c) 8
----------------------------------------------------------
1. An electronic flight instrument display consists of;
a) ADC, Altimeter, VSI and ASI

b) Mode control panel, Raster and Stroke generator display, microprocessor and Data inputs
c) ADI, HSI and Symbol generator
The correct answer is b Automatic Flight Control by EHJ Pallett and Shawn Coyle page 268
2. An octal format hexadecimal number 3F written as binary would be
a) 101 011
b) 110 111
c) 111 111
3. What is a passive device ?
a) Matrix LCD
b) Capacitor
c) LED
4. A priority encoder
a) Outputs the selected input

b) Outputs the highest input
c) Outputs the lowest input

5. The data format use to transmit signal to flight data recorder
a) Manchester 2 bi-phase 12 bit
b) Harvard bi-phase 12 bit
c) Bi-Polar RZ 12 bit
6. The output voltage of arinc 429 signal is

a) +5v
b) -5v
c) +10v to -10v
The correct answer is c See ARINC 429 tutorial (in FORUM module 5).
7. How many bytes can be carried in a 32bit word

a) 4 bytes
b) 2 bytes
c) 8 bytes
The correct answer is a 8 bits per byte
8. An Arinc 629 label word is

a) 12 bits
b) 8 bits
c) 10 bits
The correct answer is a 12-bit label field, 4-bit label extension, single parity, 3-bit time hi-lo synch
pulse. 20 bit in total
9. Which of the following ESDS devices can withstand higher static electricity
voltage?
a) ECL
b) MOSFET
c) SCR
10. An IRU interface test is carried out

a) only on the ground
b) in the air
c) on the ground or in the air
----------------------------------------------------------
1. For a computer to start up the basic instruction is from the

a) ALU
b) RAM
c) ROM
2. What is a passive device

a) Matrix LCD
b) LED
c) Capacitor
3. A backlighted LCD
a) has infinite colours
c) has only 3 colours
The correct answer is c A backlighted LCD has only 3 colours (RGB) but can mix them to make
others (but not an infinite amount)
4. An example of a small size integrated circuit would be

a) DIP switch
b) ALU
c) Control Processor Unit
The correct answer is c A DIP switch is not an IC. ALU is an integrated part of the CPU.
The 'Control Processor Unit' is another term used for the 'Central Processor Unit (CPU)' or
sometimes a switching unit used in telegraphy (such as the touchpad of a telephone) - the latter
would be an SSI (defined as containing up to 100 transistors or gates).
5. The smallest operation possible in a computer is the

a) timing cycle
b) processor sub-cycle
c) processor cycle
The correct answer is a Also known as the clock pulse
6. A common used material in computer manufacturing is

a) ferrite material
b) permeamag material
c) ferromagnetic material
The correct answer is c Ferromagnetic material is that which hard-drives and floppy drives are
made from
7. FMS system gives warning indications for

a) cruise
b) take off and landings only
c) any flight phase
8. An aircraft on an ILS approach is below the glideslope centre line, the glideslope pointer is
a) above the centre line
b) below the centre line
c) level with the datum
9. A dot matrix/LED construction is

a) 4x7 or a 9x5 rolling end display
b) 4x7 or a 5x7 rolling end display
c) 5x9 or a 4x7 rolling end display
The correct answer is a Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Pages 13 - 15
(Although, in the real world, others are available too).
10. FMS CDU warnings are

a) OFST and Fail
b) fail and MSG
c) MSG, fail and OFST
----------------------------------------------------------
1. A current mode coupler contains E core assembly. The purpose of the E core is
a) couple the signal to the data bus
b) provide effective screening of the signal through the current mode coupler
c) enable easy access for monitoring purposes
2. Testing of CADC can be carried out

a) in the air
b) ground only
c) air and ground
3. EHSI information displayed, is invalid in the pre-set heading mode when

a) flags out of view
b) flag green
c) flag in view
4. CMC (central maintenance computer) works to

a) perform in-flight bite and ground tests of aircraft systems, i.e. BITE
b) give red warnings and amber cautions to display in accordance with system status
c) perform in-flight bite only
5. TheTX/RXofArinc629is
a) encoder/decoder
b) multiplex/de-multiplex
c) switching
6. Terminal gap in ARINC 629 is

a) always the same period
b) flexible
c) can be changed by adjusting the rxftx software
The correct answer is c Aicraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin 5th Ed, pg149
7. DRAM
a) requires a refreshing charge
b) memory is stored when power supply is removed
c) it does not require a refreshing charge
The correct answer is a http://computer.howstuffworks.com/ram4.htm
8. What is fB6 hex when converted to binary?

a) 1000010000110
b) 100000000000
c) 111110000110
9. BITE test carried out on input sensors and actuators performs

a) atestoftheLRU
b) a performance test of the system
c) validation of the information of the LRU
10. A continuous balance ADC uses

a) a closed loop system to compare the analogue input to give the required digital output
b) a closed loop system to check the analogue input with the input sample
c) successive approximation logic circuit to control the output
The correct answer is a Probably referring to a comparator feedback circuit.
----------------------------------------------------------
1. A BITE check for automatic performance and fault monitoring is carried out when?
a) Power-up self test
b) For in-flight monitoring
c) To check the performance of the LRU
2. A clock pulse in processor equipment

a) is used for the maintenance tests
b) is to give the correct timing when calculations are made
c) is to synchronise everything
3. The EFIS system consists of

a) EADI, EHSI, Symbol generators
b) Mode control Panel, RDMI, EHSI
c) EHSI, Mode control panel, EADI
4. In a computer, the address 3B8 is

a) decimal
b) octal
c) hexadecimal
5. In a optical fibre, the angle of acceptance is

a) equal to the cone of acceptance
b) 1/2 the cone of acceptance
c) 1/2 the signal wavelength
The correct answer is b Introduction to Fiber Optics John Crisp page 29
6. The signal sent between a MUX/DEMUX is controlled by:

a) the ALU
b) control unit
c) clock
7. In a computer, the code that fetches correct data and feeds it to the ALU is called
a) the computer program
b) the instruction set
c) ARINC
The correct answer is b http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/I/instruction.html
8. What is this?
a) Multiplexor
b) Shift register
c) Counter

9. Bubble memory stores data on
a) ferrite disk
b) ferrite core
c) magnetic tape
The correct answer is a (closest answer) See www.tpub.com/neets/book22/92a.htm
10. Ferrite medium is used because

a) data is stored after the power is removed
b) it has low eddy current losses
c) it is light
----------------------------------------------------------
1. A dynamic EPROM
a) requires constant refreshing
b) is non-volatile memory
c) is erased after reading
2. A computer requires to operate

a) data bus, control bus, address bus
b) data bus, control bus
c) address bus, data bus
3. A computer processor has within it

a) ALU, control section, register
b) register, buffer, data bus
c) ALU, register, memory
4. when using aTDR (time delay reflecto meter) the loss value of the cable is:
a) set on the TDR
b) shown by the curve
c) allowed for in the calculation
The correct answer is b http://www.tscm.com/riapp1.html
5. Common aircraft fibre optics uses

c) modulating intensity on indirect read
The correct answer is b Intensity of light cannot be changed with an LED
6. What manoeuvre does TCAS II advise the pilot to make

a) TA
b) RA
c) either RA or TA
7. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display?

a) White diamonds, red squares and amber circles
b) White squares, red diamonds and amber circles
c) White circles, red diamonds and amber squares
8. What is a Grays converter?

a) Digital to Analogue
b) Analogue to Digital
c) Analogue to Analogue
9. Data memory is usually stored in

a) RAM
b) ROM
c) EEPROM
10. Tristate devices are found

a) on input circuits
b) on output circuits
c) on both input and output circuits
----------------------------------------------------------
1. AWN 45 requires that
a) The aircraft operator be responsible for software assessment

b) The aircraft constructors be responsible for software assessment
c) The CAA be responsible for software assessment
2. What is the main cause of attenuation in fibre optics?

a) Refractive index
b) Poor termination
c) Bends in the cable
3. What are the advantages of an LCD display over an LED?

a) It is brighter
b) It uses less current
c) There are no advantages
4. If a dislay shows a red cross only, it is due to

a) CRT failure
b) Symbol Generator failure
c) Altimeter failure
5. What is the advantage of a laser diode over an LED?

a) Greater bandwidth
b) Narrower bandwidth
The correct answer is b Introduction to Fiber Optics John Crisp Page 65
6. How does ARINC 629 bus transmit and receive information?

a) Optical coupling
b) Sockets and pins
c) Inductive coupling

a) To specify Flight Data Recorder data bus
b) To specify Radio Comms data bus
c) To specify LRU pin-outs
The correct answer is b No correct answer here, as 561 is for INS.
8. Sample and hold is atechnique used in

a) D to A convention
b) AtoD convention
c) Moving coil instruments
9. ACARS is an acronym for

a) Analogue Communications Airborne Radio System
b) Airborne Communications Addressing and Reporting System
c) ARINC Communications Addressing and Reporting System
10. What are the colours of traffic shown on a TCAS display?

a) White diamonds, red squares and amber circles
----------------------------------------------------------
1. Level 1 software failure
a) is defined as critical and can lead to loss of aircraft
b) is defined as essential and will reduce safety margins
c) is defined as essential and may have a minor effect
2. A wrist band must be worn when working with ESDS devices

a) to prevent the operator from getting an electric shock
b) to dissipate static charge on the device
c) to dissipate and prevent static build-up on the operator
3. A humid atmosphere
a) eliminates static charge
b) reduces static charge
c) has no effect on the level of charge
4. Control of aircraft software updates

a) is the responsibility of the certifying engineer
b) is the manufacturer responsibility
c) is identified by LRU pin-out changes
5. The arithmetic logic unit (ALU) in a central processor unit (CPU) carries out
a) addition, subtraction, multiplication and division
b) timing and synchronisation
c) computations as instructed
6. A seven segment display is used to

a) display octal and binary numbers only
b) display octal and decimal numbers only
c) display alpha-numeric characters
7. What sort of gate requires two negative input voltages to operate?

a) NOT
b) XOR
c) NAND
8. A high level language statement is usually equivalent to several statements in

a) assembly
b) basic
c) pascal

9. The CPU requires a clock to determine
a) the speed of operation
b) the date and time
c) the number of bits on the highway
10. An ALU performs the following

a) Arithmetic, Logic, Branch and Move Operations
b) Arithmetic, Logic, Branch and Find Operations
c) Input/Output operations, Arithmetic, Logic Functions
----------------------------------------------------------
1. HIRF is acronym for

a) High Intensity Radiated Field
b) Heavily Ionised Radio Frequencies
c) High Intensity Radio Frequencies
2. An asynchronous system
a) uses a clock pulse after a settling time to input data
b) provides data real-time without the need for a clock pulse
c) both a and b depending on the system
3. What is the purpose of the parity bit on an ARINC 429 bus?

a) To indicate if the data is analogue
b) To indicate that the data is digital
c) To indicate to the receiver that the data is valid
4. An analogue to digital converter (ADC) requires the following:

a) a reference voltage, an input gate, an internal counter
b) a reference voltage, an input gate, an internal counter, a comparitor
c) a reference voltage, an input gate, a comparitor
5. When does the flight data recorder start recording ?

a) When the first engine starts
b) Parking brake released
c) Undercarriage up
The correct answer is a Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems 6th Edition
David Harris Page 172
6. ILS indications on PFD/ND are shown in

a) cyan
b) magenta
c) green
7. The four distinct sections of a digital system are: sense, decide

a) divide and store
b) divide and ship
c) act and store
8. Brake temperature displayed on a flight deck CRT has

a) same colour throughout
b) different colour for different temperatures
c) a master warning light
9. When does the lateral deviation scale flash?

a) When the localiser rx is faulty
b) When the aircraft is out of range
c) When the deviation is excessive

Module 05.Digital Techniques
05.01. Electronic Instrument Systems.
Question Number. 1. What are the basic elements for 'Classic T' format?.
Option A. Direction, altitude and height.
Option B. Airspeed, pitch and roll.
Option C. Airspeed, attitude, altitude and direction.
Correct Answer is. Airspeed, attitude, altitude and direction.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 2. Typical displays on an EHSI are.

Option A. Engine indications.
Option B. VOR, Map, Plan and weather radar.
Option C. VOR, Plan, Map and Attitude.
Correct Answer is. VOR, Map, Plan and weather radar.
Explanation. Pallett - Aircraft Instruments.
Question Number. 3. An EADI display showing a moving runway moves down during the final stages of an approach. The
aircraft must.
Option A. fly down.
Option B. fly up.
Option C. hold descent path.
Correct Answer is. fly down.
Explanation. At 200ft, during Approach, the Rising Runway starts to move up the EADI display until, at touch down, it touches the
bottom of the aircraft symbol. If the Rising Runway start to move down again it means that the aircraft is climbing and should FLY
DOWN.
Question Number. 4. During an instrument approach, the glideslope pointer eflects below the glideslope centre mark. This
means the aircraft is positioned.
Option A. above the glideslope.
Option B. below the glideslope.
Option C. to the left of the localiser.
Correct Answer is. above the glideslope.
Explanation. Consider the centre of the G/S scale as the aircraft position and the pointer as the centre of the G/S beam.
Question Number. 5. Engine parameters are displayed on.

Option A. ECAM.
Option B. EHSI.
Option C. FMSCDU.
Correct Answer is. ECAM.
Explanation. Engine parameters can be displayed on ECAM by selecting the Engine Page. See Pallett - Aircraft Instrumnets and
Integrated Systems Page 391.
Question Number. 6. What is the fixed feature of an ADI?.

Option A. The glideslope pointer.
Option B. The aircraft symbol.
Option C. The lateral deviation bar.
Correct Answer is. The aircraft symbol.
Explanation. The little aeroplane pianted in the middle of the instrument.
Question Number. 7. On an EADI, the Flight Director command bars show.

Option A. the path with respect to the horizon.
Option B. the required path with respect to the actual path.
Option C. the actual path with respect to the required path.
Correct Answer is. the required path with respect to the actual path.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. What instrument includes a display of a rising runway?.

Option A. ECAM.
Option B. EHSI.
Option C. EADI.
Correct Answer is. EADI.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 9. What functions are available on the EHSI?.

Option A. Full arc and Wx only.
Option B. Full arc, Wx and Map Mode.
Option C. Full Arc only.
Correct Answer is. Full arc, Wx and Map Mode.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. With radio coupled autopilot, what are the inputs?.
Option A. ADF and VOR.
Option B. ILS and VOR.
Option C. ADF and ILS.
Correct Answer is. ILS and VOR.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. An EADI display of flight director commands are coloured.
Option A. cyan.
Option B. magenta.
Option C. red.
Correct Answer is. magenta.
Explanation. Aircraft instruments and integrated systems,(pallet) page 302 fig 12.5 eadi flight director command bars are magenta.
Question Number. 12. EFIS systems have two control panels, their purpose is.
Option A. one to control the type of EFIS display and the other to select the source of the information being displayed.
Option B. one for the EADI display and one for the EHSI display.
Option C. to provide display control by one control panel whilst the other provides a standby.
Correct Answer is. one to control the type of EFIS display and the other to select the source of the information being displayed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. What would you expect to see displayed on an EADI display?.
Option A. Compass heading, selected heading and VOR.
Option B. Course information, weather radar, way point alert and bearing pointers.
Option C. Flight director command bars, slip indicator, rate to altitude & autoland.
Correct Answer is. Flight director command bars, slip indicator, rate to altitude & autoland.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. An EFIS ADI display will show along with pitch and roll.
Option A. flight director bars, autoland, compass rose, altitude.
Option B. decision height, autoland, rad alt , altitude.
Option C. flight director bars, autoland, altitude, range to altitude, decision height.
Correct Answer is. decision height, autoland, rad alt , altitude.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. If the glideslope pointer is below the centre mark the aircraft is.
Option A. below the glideslope.
Option B. on the glideslope.
Option C. above the glideslope.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. On an EFIS system the weather radar is displayed on.
Option A. the FMC CDU.
Option B. the EADI.
Option C. the EHSI.
Correct Answer is. the EHSI.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 305.
Question Number. 17. EADI displays show.

Option A. pitch, roll and waypoints.
Option B. pitch and roll attitudes.
Option C. heading and weather radar.
Correct Answer is. pitch and roll attitudes.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 18. On an EHSI in weather radar mode, a severe storm would be shown as.
Option A. orange areas with black or yellow surrounds.
Option B. red areas with black surrounds
Option C. blue areas with white background.
Correct Answer is. red areas with black surrounds.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. During flight (non fault conditions) the EICAS system displays on the lower CRT.
Option A. flight phase page.
Option B. secondary engine parameters.
Option C. synoptic display.
Correct Answer is. secondary engine parameters.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 20. Radio altitude is displayed on an EFIS system.

Option A. on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator.
Option B. on the Electronic Attitude Direction Indicator.
Option C. on the RMI.
Correct Answer is. on the Electronic Attitude Direction Indicator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. An EFIS system ADI displays pitch, roll.

Option A. autoland, altitude, compass rose and flight director bars.
Option B. autoland, decision height, range to altitude and flight director bars and slip indicator.
Option C. autoland, rad alt, decision height and slip indicator.
Correct Answer is. autoland, decision height, range to altitude and flight director bars and slip indicator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 22. An electronic flight instrument display consists of.

Option A. Mode control panel, Raster and Stroke generator display, microprocessor and Data inputs.
Option B. ADC, Altimeter, VSI and ASI.
Option C. ADI, HSI and Symbol generator.
Correct Answer is. Mode control panel, Raster and Stroke generator display, microprocessor and Data inputs.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control by EHJ Pallett and Shawn Coyle page 268.
Question Number. 23. The EFIS system consists of.
Option A. EHSI, Mode control panel, EADI.
Option B. EADI, EHSI, Symbol generators.
Option C. Mode control Panel, RDMI, EHSI.
Correct Answer is. EADI, EHSI, Symbol generators.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 24. ILS indications on PFD/ND are shown in.

Option A. cyan.
Option B. magenta.
Option C. green.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 25. A weather radar image can be displayed on the ND on all modes except.
Option A. arc.
Option B. nav rose.
Option C. plan.
Correct Answer is. plan.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 26. In a typical commercial aircraft Head Up Guidance System.

Option A. the type of information shown on the attitude director indicator is displayed on a transparent plate.
Option B. all instrument information is displayed on the windshield.
Option C. only emergency indications or warnings are displayed to the pilot.
Correct Answer is. the type of information shown on the attitude director indicator is displayed on a transparent plate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 27. A modern Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator will display the following:.
Option A. Waypoints, ILS Steering Information, Distance to go and Magnetic Heading.
Option B. ILS Steering Information, Flight director information and Glide Slope Deviation.
Option C. Ground speed, Magnetic Heading, Way points and Localiser.
Correct Answer is. Waypoints, ILS Steering Information, Distance to go and Magnetic Heading.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 28. Cockpit panels have a matt colour finish. The purpose is.
Option A. so that pilots feel more comfortable during daytime.
Option B. so that the amount of glare is reduced to minimum.
Option C. so that dust and dirt are less evident on panels.
Correct Answer is. so that the amount of glare is reduced to minimum.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 29. A complete EFIS installation in an aircraft is made up of.

Option A. either of the above.
Option B. right (captain) and left (co-pilot).
Option C. left (captain) and right (co-pilot).
Correct Answer is. either of the above.
Explanation. could be either, as helicopters are the other way round when compared to aeroplanes.
Question Number. 30. On a modern 'glass cockpit' aircraft, engine information will be displayed on.
Option A. FMS.
Option B. EFIS.
Option C. ECAM.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 31. What does EFIS mean?.

Option A. Electronic Fire Indication Signal.
Option B. Electronic Flight Instrument System.
Option C. Electronic Flight Information System.
Correct Answer is. Electronic Flight Instrument System.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. What does EICAS mean?.

Option A. Electronic indicator and control alerting system.
Option B. Engine indicating and Crew alerting system.
Option C. Electronic indicator and crew alerting system.
Correct Answer is. Engine indicating and Crew alerting system.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 33. What does ECAM mean?.

Option A. Engine Centralised Aircraft Management System.
Option B. Engine Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System.
Option C. Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System.
Correct Answer is. Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System.
Explanation. NIL.
05.02. Numbering Systems.
Question Number. 1. Convert 011101 Base2 to octal.

Option A. 25.
Option B. 35.
Option C. 33.
Correct Answer is. 35.
Explanation. The OCTAL code has 8 digits, 0 - 7. To convert binary to octal divide the binary number into groups of three starting
from the right. You've got to know your binary, octal, hex and bcd conversions!.
Question Number. 2. The binary number 11010111 expressed as a decimal is.

Option A. 215.
Option B. 223.
Option C. 207.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. The octal number 1001 expressed as a decimal is.

Option A. 9.
Option B. 65.
Option C. 513.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. What is 345 in binary?.

Option A. 100111001.
Option B. 101011001.
Option C. 110011001.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. What is hex 110 in decimal?.
Option A. 282.
Option B. 272.
Option C. 32.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. Convert the binary word 1100 to decimal.

Option A. 11.
Option B. 16.
Option C. 12.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. If a data message is made up of 1s and 0s, it is.

Option A. analogue.
Option B. binary.
Option C. digital.
Correct Answer is. digital.
Explanation. Digital is 1s and 0s, either binary or grey code.

Option A. 12.
Option B. 14.
Option C. 15.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 9. Convert the binary number 110010 to decimal.
Option A. 80.
Option B. 50.
Option C. 34.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. Convert the hexadecimal number D into decimal.

Option A. 13.
Option B. 15.
Option C. 14.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. Convert decimal 15 into binary.

Option A. 1111.
Option B. 1101.
Option C. 1110.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. Convert 448 to hex.

Option A. 22 Base16.
Option B. 36 Base16.
Option C. 24 Base16.
Correct Answer is. 24 Base16.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. Convert decimal 15 into hexadecimal.
Option A. G.
Option B. E.
Option C. F.
Correct Answer is. F.
Explanation. NIL.

Option A. 100111001.
Option B. 110011001.
Option C. 101011001.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. Convert 1D to binary.

Option A. 11101.
Option B. 29.
Option C. 101001.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. Convert 2C hex to octal.

Option A. 35.
Option B. 44.
Option C. 54.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. A hexadecimal is a number to base.

Option A. 2.
Option B. 16.
Option C. 8.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 18. 1012 converted to decimal is.

Option A. 52.
Option B. 210.
Option C. 510.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. The binary coded decimal number 10011000 expressed as a decimal number is.
Option A. 1528.
Option B. 9810.
Option C. 1522.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 20. The decimal number 7 expressed as a binary number is.
Option A. 101 Base 2.
Option B. 111 Base 2.
Option C. 7 Base 2.
Correct Answer is. 111 Base 2.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. Convert 011101 binary to octal.

Option A. 25.
Option B. 35.
Option C. 33.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 22. Binary Number: 110010 is.

Option A. 80.
Option B. 50.
Option C. 34.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 23. Binary addition of 1101 + 101101 is.

Option A. 58.
Option B. 70.
Option C. 61.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 24. The binary number 11010111 is expressed as a decimal is.
Option A. 107.
Option B. 215.
Option C. 53.
Explanation. NIL.
Option A. 713.
Option B. 613.
Option C. 513.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 26. What is 011100001 Base2 in Octal?.

Option C. 341 Base 8.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 27. The binary number 1010100011100101 Base2 in hexadecimal is.
Option A. 22BC Base 16.
Option B. FFFF Base 16.
Option C. A8E5 Base 16.
Correct Answer is. A8E5 Base 16.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 28. 0011011000101001 when transferred to computer language this information can be a representation of.
Option A. binary, octal or decimal numbers.
Option B. hex, octal and binary numbers.
Option C. hex, octal and decimal numbers.
Correct Answer is. hex, octal and decimal numbers.
Explanation. Binary IS 'computer language' not a representation. Therefore any answer with 'binary' in it is wrong.
Question Number. 29. A computer message 3B4 is.

Option A. Octal.
Option B. binary.
Option C. hexadecimal.
Correct Answer is. hexadecimal.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 30. What is 54 octal in hexadecimal?.

Option A. 2F.
Option B. 4F.
Option C. 2C.
Correct Answer is. 2C.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 31. 2D in decimal is.

Option A. 43.
Option B. 45.
Option C. 41.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 132.
Question Number. 32. 84 decimal in hexadecimal is.

Option A. 5f.
Option B. f4.
Option C. 54.
Question Number. 33. 16 hexadecimal converted to decimal is equivalent to.

Option A. 48.
Option B. 38.
Option C. 22.
Question Number. 34. Decimal 10 converted to binary is.

Option A. 1111.
Option B. 1001.
Option C. 1010.
Question Number. 35. What systems uses base 10?.

Option A. Octal.
Option B. Binary.
Option C. Decimal.
Correct Answer is. Decimal.
Question Number. 36. What systems use base 16?.
Option A. BCD.
Option B. Octal.
Option C. Hexadecimal.
Correct Answer is. Hexadecimal.
Question Number. 37. Binary coded decimal (BCD) format has a minimum of.
Option A. 2 lots of four.
Option B. four.
Option C. 3 lots of four.
Correct Answer is. four.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 38. What is the Hexadecimal number F86 in Binary?.

Option A. 111110000001.
Option B. 3974.
Option C. 111110000110.
Explanation. Convert it to Decimal first (15 x 256 + 8 x 16 + 6 x 1) = 3974. Since it is an even number, it must be the answer with a
zero on the end.
Question Number. 39. What is 11000012 - 1011002?.

Question Number. 40. What is used for the power of 10?.
Option A. Digital.
Option B. Octal.
Option C. Decimal.
Explanation. Decimal is a power of 10 counting system.
Question Number. 41. What is 44 in hexadecimal?.

Option A. 2d.
Option B. 2c.
Option C. 2F.
Correct Answer is. 2c.
Explanation. (2 * 16) + (12 * 1) = 44 (c = 12).
Question Number. 42. What is octal 33 in hexadecimal?.

Option A. 1b.
Option B. 11.
Option C. 22.
Correct Answer is. 1b.
Explanation. Octal 33 = (3 * 8) + (3 * 1) = 27 decimal. 27 = (1 * 16) + (11 * 1) = 1b (b = 11).
Question Number. 43. An octal format hexadecimal number 3F written as binary would be.
Option A. 110 111.
Option B. 111 111.
Option C. 101 011.
Correct Answer is. 111 111.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 44. What is f86 hex when converted to binary?.

Option A. 1000010000110.
Option B. 111110000110.
Option C. 100000000000.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 45. In a computer, the address 3B8 is.

Option A. hexadecimal.
Option B. decimal.
Option C. octal.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 46. What is a Grays converter?.

Option A. Analogue to Analogue.
Option B. Analogue to Digital.
Option C. Digital to Analogue.
Correct Answer is. Analogue to Digital.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 47. What is the hexadecimal number AE5 in octal form?.
Option A. 5445.
Option B. 5340.
Option C. 5345.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 48. Hexadecimal 5C is what in binary?.

Option A. 1011111.
Option B. 1011100.
Option C. 1110100.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 49. Binary 11001101 converted to octal is.

Option A. 12E.
Option B. 315.
Option C. 205.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 50. What is the binary notation for 29?.

Option A. 0001 0110.
Option B. 0010 1001.
Option C. 0001 1101.
Explanation. Despite the deliberate gap between the blocks of 4 digits, this is not a BCD question.
Question Number. 51. 101012 + 110012 =.

Option A. 462.
Option B. 468.
Option C. 4610.
Explanation. 101012 + 110012 = 1011102 = 4610.
05.03. Data Conversion.
Question Number. 1. If a signal has quantity in volts and physical position it is.
Option A. digital.
Option B. synchronous.
Option C. analogue.
Correct Answer is. analogue.
Explanation. This is the definition of an analogue signal.
Question Number. 2. Within a computer controlled flight system, position feedback is converted from.
Option A. position feedback to rate feedback.
Option B. analogue to digital.
Option C. digital to analogue.
Correct Answer is. analogue to digital.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. What is serial to parallel and vice-versa called?.

Option A. Switching.
Option B. Multiplex/Demultiplex.
Option C. Encoder/Decoder.
Correct Answer is. Multiplex/Demultiplex.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. A thyristor is a device which has.
Option A. a positive temperature coefficient.
Option B. a negative temperature coefficient.
Option C. a temperature coefficient of zero.
Correct Answer is. a negative temperature coefficient.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. Physical variables in quantitative forms, such as voltage or angular rotation of a shaft are.
Option A. digital.
Option B. analogue.
Option C. binary.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. A D to A converter is required to produce an output range of 0 to 10V. This can be achieved by.
Option A. a non inverting op amp connected in series with output.
Option B. an inverting op amp connected in series with output.
Option C. a differentiator with a 100 Kilohm feedback resistor.
Correct Answer is. an inverting op amp connected in series with output.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. A D to A converter would use a precision amplifier to.

Option A. compensate for the variation of the feedback resistor with temperature.
Option B. ensure that the output voltages remain accurate.
Option C. ensure that the input voltage remains accurate.
Correct Answer is. ensure that the output voltages remain accurate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. A given transducer provides a voltage which corresponds to true heading. This voltage can beconverted
to 'bits' by using a.
Option A. analogue to digital converter.
Option B. digital to analogue converter.
Option C. commutator.
Correct Answer is. analogue to digital converter.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 9. An A to D converter uses successive approximation to.

Option A. increase resolution.
Option B. increase accuracy.
Option C. increase speed.
Correct Answer is. increase speed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. An R-2R D to A converter uses.

Option A. two values of resistors whose precision is not important.
Option B. two values of precision resistors.
Option C. resistors whose values are logarithmic.
Correct Answer is. two values of resistors whose precision is not important.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. The function of a commutator is to.

Option A. convert from analogue to binary form.
Option B. provide continuous availability of all parameters connected to the system.
Option C. provide a sampling in sequence of a number of parameters.
Correct Answer is. provide a sampling in sequence of a number of parameters.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. An encoder using Grey code.

Option A. changes analogue to binary.
Option B. changes digital to analogue.
Option C. changes analogue to digital.
Correct Answer is. changes analogue to digital.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. An analogue to digital converter is as accurate as.

Option A. the frequency.
Option B. the sampling rate.
Option C. the amplitude.
Correct Answer is. the sampling rate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. A digital to analogue converter that requires the output to range between 0v and -10v would have.
Option A. a non-inverting amplifier in line with the output with a resistor to ground.
Option B. an inverting amplifier in series with the output line.
Option C. a non-inverting amplifier in parallel with the output line.
Correct Answer is. an inverting amplifier in series with the output line.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. In an analogue to digital converter, the input voltage.

Option A. is switched by the digital input.
Option B. is intermittent.
Option C. stays on constantly.
Correct Answer is. stays on constantly.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. An R-2R Converter has values or resistance.

Option A. whose relative precision are accurate.
Option B. whose precision are not accurate.
Option C. whose precision are accurate.
Correct Answer is. whose precision are not accurate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. What does 1 represent in an analogue system?.

Option A. High frequency
Option B. Switches closed, magnetised
Option C. Switches open, unmagnetised
Correct Answer is. Switches closed, magnetised
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 18. Audio sounds recorded digitally.

Option A. are superior quality and graeter bandwidth.
Option B. are narrow bandwidth.
Option C. are not as accurate due to clipping and input errors.
Correct Answer is. are superior quality and graeter bandwidth.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. An analogue to digital converter where it counts up to binary state equal to the analogue input and then
back down when this is reached is a.
Option A. a ramp type converter.
Option B. successive approximation counter.
Option C. flash type converter.
Correct Answer is. a ramp type converter.
Explanation. Digital Fundamentals T L Floyd page 790.
Question Number. 20. Transistors are used in a current triggered D to A device to.
Option A. switch off the inputs.
Option B. switch on the input.
Option C. change the state of the inputs.
Correct Answer is. change the state of the inputs.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. Op amps generally used in ADCs and DACs are normally.
Option A. high input impedance, high output impedance.
Option B. high input impedance, low output impedance.
Option C. low input impedance , how output impedance.
Correct Answer is. high input impedance, low output impedance.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 22. Analogue logic 1 is.

Option A. closed switch, Logic Q=0.
Option B. closed circuit, Logic Q=1.
Option C. open circuit.
Correct Answer is. closed circuit, Logic Q=1.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 23. An ADC uses successive approximation to.

Option A. increase speed.
Option C. increase resolution.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 24. A DAC uses a precision amplifier to.

Option A. ensure the output voltages remain accurate.
Option B. compensates for the variation of the feedback resistor due to temperature.
Option C. ensure the input remains accurate.
Correct Answer is. ensure the output voltages remain accurate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 25. A precision op-amp is used in a DAC to.

Option A. compensate for temperature variation.
Option B. give output at required level.
Option C. make output between 0 - 5V.
Correct Answer is. give output at required level.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 26. In an R-2R ladder converter the values of resistors.

Option A. do not need to be of precise values.
Option B. only the first resistor need to be precise.
Option C. are precise.
Correct Answer is. do not need to be of precise values.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 27. What is the quickest method of analogue to digital conversion?.
Option A. Voltage to frequency.
Option B. Flash converter.
Option C. Single ramp method.
Correct Answer is. Flash converter.
Explanation. Digital Fundamentals by Thomas L Floyd.
Question Number. 28. A charge balancing ADC uses.

Option A. successive approximation logic circuit to control the output.
Option B. a closed loop system to compare the analogue input to give the required digital output.
Option C. a closed loop system to check the analogue input with the input sample.
Correct Answer is. a closed loop system to compare the analogue input to give the required digital output.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 29. Sample and hold is a technique used in.

Option A. D to A conversion.
Option B. Moving coil instruments.
Option C. A to D conversion.
Correct Answer is. A to D conversion.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 30. An analogue to digital converter (ADC) requires the following.
Option A. a reference voltage, an input gate, an internal counter, a comparitor.
Option B. a reference voltage, an input gate, a comparator.
Option C. a reference voltage, an input gate, an internal counter.
Correct Answer is. a reference voltage, an input gate, a comparator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 31. What is 'Throughput Rate' for the A/D converter?.
Option A. Number of complete digital words encoded in a specified unit of time.
Option B. None of the above.
Option C. Speed of variable resistor which senses the analogue signal.
Correct Answer is. Number of complete digital words encoded in a specified unit of time.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. What is the Resolution of A/D and D/A converters?.
Option A. Resolution of the Instrument which displays the values.
Option B. Number of discrete values that can be represented by the digital word.
Option C. Rate at which data is converted.
Correct Answer is. Number of discrete values that can be represented by the digital word.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 33. Digital signals can be represented.

Option A. only as a binary value.
Option B. by a series of integers.
Option C. by real numbers.
Correct Answer is. by a series of integers.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 34. When testing EGT probe.

Option A. it must be soaked and ambient temperature allowance taken into consideration.
Option B. not necessarily soaked but ambient temperature must be taken into consideration.
Option C. if its not soaked, a minimum temperature of 20 degrees C taken as OAT.
Correct Answer is. it must be soaked and ambient temperature allowance taken into consideration.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 35. A Digital to Analogue Converter has a resolution of 0.3 Volts. What will be the analogue output when
the digital input is 10110.
Option A. 6.6 Volts RMS.
Option B. -6.6 Volts DC.G36.
Option C. 6.6 Volts DC.
Correct Answer is. 6.6 Volts DC.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 36. A number represented as a physical quantity, e.g. voltage or speed of rotation is.
Option A. digital.
Option B. maximum value.
Option C. analogue.
Explanation. NIL.
05.04. Data Buses.
Question Number. 1. In arinc 629, LRUs are programmed to transmit.

Option A. one at a time.
Option B. one transmits and one recieves.
Option C. all at the same time.
Correct Answer is. one transmits and one recieves.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 2. In aircraft use, fibre optic cables should comply with.
Option A. ARINC 629 standard.
Option B. ARIND 429 standard.
Option C. ARIND 636 standard.
Correct Answer is. ARIND 636 standard.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. ARINC 629 databus is.

Option A. one cable, bi-directional.
Option B. two cables, uni-directional.
Option C. two cables, bi directional.
Correct Answer is. two cables, bi directional.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. An ARINC 573 data bus is used.

Option A. to input into a Digital Flight Data Recorder.
Option B. to supply digital inputs from a Symbol Generator to the EADI and EHSI.
Option C. to input into a FDR Digital Acquisition Unit.
Correct Answer is. to input into a Digital Flight Data Recorder.
Explanation. The FDR can have different inputs depending upon the age of the system, modern systems use ARINC 573. The inputs
to FDR DAU are only analogue, discreet and ARINC 429. The interface between SGUs, EADI and EHSI is only ARINC 429.
Question Number. 5. An ARINC 429 bus uses.

Option A. a twisted shielded pair of wires.
Option B. two bi-directional twin sheathed and earthed wires.
Option C. a single twin wire cable for each transmitter.
Correct Answer is. a twisted shielded pair of wires.
Explanation. Pallett - Aircraft Instruments Page 157.
Question Number. 6. The ARINC 429 data bus word systems use.
Option A. binary coded decimal.
Option B. decimal numbering.
Option C. hexadecimal numbering.
Correct Answer is. binary coded decimal.
Question Number. 7. ARINC 573 is related to what system?.

Option A. Weather Radar.
Option B. FDR.
Option C. INS.
Correct Answer is. FDR.
Explanation. Boeing Maintenance Training notes for B757.
Question Number. 8. ARINC 629 current mode couplers are.

Option A. capacitive.
Option B. resistive.
Option C. inductive.
Correct Answer is. inductive.
Explanation. NIL.

Option A. one bus, bi-directional data flow.
Option B. two buses, unidirectional.
Option C. two buses, bi-directional data flow.
Correct Answer is. one bus, bi-directional data flow.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. Normal transmission order of ARINC 629 LRUs in periodic mode is in order of.
Option A. shortest to largest TI.
Option B. shortest to largest TG.
Option C. power up.
Correct Answer is. power up.
Explanation. B777 MM 23-91-00 pg 41. Shortest to longest terminal gap is for aperiodic mode only.
Question Number. 11. In an ARINC 429 wordstring, bits 1 to 8 represent the.

Option A. destination LRU address.
Option B. monitored parameter.
Option C. message.
Correct Answer is. monitored parameter.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 159 and ARINCs tutorial.
Question Number. 12. ARINC 629 terminal transmit interval is.

Option A. common to each terminal.
Option B. unique to each terminal.
Option C. when all terminals are quiet.
Correct Answer is. common to each terminal.
Explanation. The ARINC 629 TI is common to all LRUs.
Question Number. 13. MIL-STD-1533 is a data bus for.

Option A. Inertial Reference System.
Option B. Flight Data Recorders.
Option C. Digital Information Transfer System.
Correct Answer is. Digital Information Transfer System.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. ARINC 629 periodic mode is used for.
Option A. transferring data only on events important to aircraft operation.
Option B. database loads.
Option C. normal operation.
Correct Answer is. normal operation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. How is data coupled to an ARINC 629 data bus?.
Option A. By a resistive pickup.
Option B. By an inductive pickup.
Option C. By a capacitive pickup.
Correct Answer is. By an inductive pickup.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. How does MIL-STD-1533 put data onto the databus?.
Option A. Through the bus controller.
Option B. R1 (remote terminal).
Option C. SSIFU (sub-system interface unit).
Correct Answer is. Through the bus controller.
Explanation. Through the bus controller.
Question Number. 17. The parity bit in digital information is used.

Option A. to check the validity of data information.
Option B. for BITE programs.
Option C. to check the status of the system.
Correct Answer is. to check the validity of data information.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 18. ARINC 429 SDI word format is at bits.

Option A. 32.
Option B. 1-8.
Option C. 9-10.
Correct Answer is. 9-10.
Explanation. SDI = Source Destination Ident.
Question Number. 19. What is the parity bit for on an ARINC 429 bus?.
Option A. To act as a terminal gap in an emergency.
Option B. To delay the signal.
Option C. To check for corruption during transmission of a word.
Correct Answer is. To check for corruption during transmission of a word.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 20. An ARINC 429 word label format is.

Option B. octal.
Option C. binary.
Correct Answer is. octal.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. How many LRUs can be connected to an ARINC 429 data bus?.
Option A. 120.
Option B. 60.
Option C. 20.
Explanation. NIL.

Option B. is when all transmissions are quiet.
Option C. unique to each terminal.
Explanation. NIL.

Option B. a single twin cable for each transmitter.
Option C. two bi-directional twin, sheathed and earthed wires.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 24. ARINC 429 data bus systems uses.

Option A. hexadecimal numbering.
Option B. binary coded decimal.
Option C. decimal numbering.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 25. An ARINC 429 Binary Coded Decimal word occupies word bits.
Option A. 1-8.
Option B. 11-29.
Option C. 11-28.
Explanation. Two versions of ARINC 429. BCD uses 11 - 29, Binary uses 11 - 28.
Question Number. 26. An ARINC 429 system uses a.

Option A. 20 bit word over a bi-directional bus.
Option B. 32 bit word over a twisted pair of wires.
Option C. 16 bit word over a twisted pair of wires.
Correct Answer is. 32 bit word over a twisted pair of wires.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 27. An ARINC 629 characteristic is.

Option A. all LRUs can transmit and receive at the same time.
Option B. data can transmit in both directions down the data bus.
Option C. all LRUs can transmit at the same time.
Correct Answer is. data can transmit in both directions down the data bus.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 28. What limits the number of ARINC 429 receivers on a bus?.
Option A. The speed and size.
Option B. The weight.
Option C. The parallel input impedance.
Correct Answer is. The parallel input impedance.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 29. Data is transferred on the MIL-STD-1553B by.

Option A. non return to zero.
Option B. Manchester bi-phase.
Option C. bi-polar return to zero.
Correct Answer is. Manchester bi-phase.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 30. How are engine indications sent to the FDR?.
Option A. Source isolated.
Option B. Via ARINC 629.
Option C. Via ARINC 573.
Correct Answer is. Via ARINC 573.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 31. What system uses base 8?.

Option A. ARINC 429, in dataword labels only.
Option B. ARINC 573.
Option C. ARINC 629.
Correct Answer is. ARINC 429, in dataword labels only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. On an ARINC 629 data bus, the maximum amount of current-mode couplers per data bus is.
Option A. 46.
Option B. 120.
Option C. 64.
Explanation. 120 LRUs maximum (but the B777 uses 46).
Question Number. 33. To connect an LRU to the data bus.

Option A. a terminal controller and interface module only is required.
Option B. current mode coupler, terminal controller and a production break is required.
Option C. a current mode coupler, serial interface module and terminal controller is required.
Correct Answer is. a current mode coupler, serial interface module and terminal controller is required.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 34. A current-mode coupler contains an E-Core assembly. The purpose of the E-Core is to provide effective
screening of the signal through the.
Option A. current-mode coupler.
Option B. couple the signal to the data bus.
Option C. enable easy access for monitoring of the signal.
Correct Answer is. couple the signal to the data bus.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 35. The ARINC 429 low rate of transmission is.
Option A. 100 kbits/second with high of 12-14 Mbits/second.
Option B. 12-14 Kbits/second with high of 100 kBits/second.
Option C. 12-14 Mbits/second with high of 100 Mbits/secon.
Correct Answer is. 12-14 Kbits/second with high of 100 kBits/second.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 36. An ARINC 629 bus cable is a twisted pair of wires with.
Option A. a 130 ohm resistor at one end.
Option B. a 130 ohm resistor at both ends.
Option C. a 230 ohm resistor at one end.
Correct Answer is. a 130 ohm resistor at both ends.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 37. An ARINC 629 stub cable.
Option A. connects single directional data between the LRU and current mode coupler.
Option B. connects bi-directional data between the LRU and current mode coupler.
Option C. connects bi-directional data between two LRUs.
Correct Answer is. connects bi-directional data between the LRU and current mode coupler.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 38. Care must be taken when installing ARINC 629 cables into bus panels, damage to cables can cause.
Option A. corrosion of the conductor.
Option B. arcing of high voltage signals.
Option C. standing waves.
Correct Answer is. corrosion of the conductor.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 39. An aircraft databus system.

Option A. can use both ARINC 629 and ARINC 429 as they are compatible.
Option B. can use both systems, ARINC 629 and ARINC 429 via system card files and signal gateways.
Option C. cannot use both ARINC 629 and ARINC 429 data buses.
Correct Answer is. can use both systems, ARINC 629 and ARINC 429 via system card files and signal gateways.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 40. ARINC 629 is used for.

Option A. emergency only.
Option B. a backup to ARINC 429.
Option C. normal flight.
Correct Answer is. normal flight.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 41. Once an ARINC 629 LRU has transmitted a message it will wait how long before transmitting again?.
Option A. Until the end of the synchronization gap.
Option B. Until the start of the terminal gap.
Option C. Until the end of the transmit interval
Correct Answer is. Until the end of the transmit interval.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 42. How is the word label 206 written in ARINC 429?.
Option A. Decimal 206.
Option B. Octal 01100001.
Option C. Binary 11000110.
Correct Answer is. Octal 01100001.
Explanation. Label is Octal - MSB to right - so yes, it is backwards.
Question Number. 43. What is ARINC 561 used for?.

Option A. Fly by Wire systems.
Option B. Flight Data Recorder systems.
Option C. Inertial Navigation Systems.
Correct Answer is. Inertial Navigation Systems.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 44. An ARINC data word is bits 11-29, if bits 11-18 are patched which of the following would be the LSB
bit?.
Option A. 19.
Option B. 29.
Option C. 21.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 45. Fibreoptic databus links are.

Option A. simplex.
Option B. bi-directional.
Option C. one way data buses.
Correct Answer is. bi-directional.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 46. ARINC 629 is.

Option A. half duplex.
Option B. full duplex.
Option C. simplex.
Correct Answer is. half duplex.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 47. A signal in an ARINC 629 system uses.

Option A. a pair of wires per transmitter unit.
Option B. a single wire.
Option C. a twisted pair of wires or fibre optics.
Correct Answer is. a twisted pair of wires or fibre optics.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 148. http://www.condoreng.com ARINC 429 tutorial
Question Number. 48. An in-series ARINC 429 system transmits using.

Option A. encoder.
Option B. time division multiplexing.
Option C. wave division multiplexing.
Correct Answer is. time division multiplexing.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 49. A terminal controller.

Option A. is repetitive transmitting.
Option B. will transmit only once during each transmit interval.
Option C. transmits only when addressed.
Correct Answer is. will transmit only once during each transmit.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 50. The number of LRUs which transmit/receive on ARINC-429 is dependent upon.
Option A. speed of transmission & size of aircraft systems.
Option B. parallel input impedance.
Option C. size of S.D.I.
Correct Answer is. parallel input impedance.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 51. One of the ARINC 429 formats is.

Option A. BCD.
Option B. octal.
Correct Answer is. BCD.
Explanation. http://www.condoreng.com ARINC 429 tutorial
Question Number. 52. A group of bits transmitted at the same time is.
Option A. parallel data.
Option B. a clock signal.
Option C. serial data.
Correct Answer is. parallel data.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 53. The ARINC 429 system uses which of the following system to transfer data?.
Option A. Non return to zero.
Option B. Harvard bi phase.
Option C. Bi-directional return to zero.
Correct Answer is. Bi-directional return to zero.
Question Number. 54. Which of the following ARINCs is bidirectional?.

Option A. 629.
Option B. 429.
Option C. 573.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 148. http://www.condoreng.com ARINC 429 tutorial
Question Number. 55. Data is transferred on the MIL-STD-1553B by using.

Option C. bipolar return to zero.
Explanation. http://www.condoreng.com MIL-STD-1553 tutorial
Question Number. 56. The general arrangement of ARINC 629 includes.

Option A. databus cable, current mode coupler, stub cable.
Option B. current mode coupler, databus cable only.
Option C. databus cable, stub cable, voltage mode coupler.
Correct Answer is. databus cable, current mode coupler, stub cable.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 57. ARINC 629 Databus cables are terminated using.
Option A. 100 ohms resistor.
Option B. 130 ohms resistor.
Option C. 25 ohms resistor.
Correct Answer is. 130 ohms resistor.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 58. In ARINC 429 data field is bits 11 to 28. If the bits 11 to 18 had pad bits, the L.S.B. Of the data would
be.
Option A. bit 11.
Option B. bit 28.
Option C. bit 19.
Correct Answer is. bit 19.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 59. The BCD data field of ARINC 429 is contained within bits.
Option A. 11-29.
Option B. 11-28.
Option C. 1-8.
Explanation. Binary Word is 11 - 28. BCD Word is 11 - 29.
Question Number. 60. ARINC 629 is transmitted using.
Option A. single wire for each transmitter.
Option B. fibre optics or twisted pair of wires.
Option C. SWG 28 wire.
Correct Answer is. fibre optics or twisted pair of wires.
Question Number. 61. A simplex system has.

Option A. 1 transmitter and multiple receivers.
Option B. 1 bus controller and 1 remote terminal.
Option C. 1 bus controller and multiple receivers.
Correct Answer is. 1 transmitter and multiple receivers.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 62. To create a bi-directional communications link within an ARINC 429 system.
Option A. four databuses are required.
Option B. only one databus is required.
Option C. two databuses are required.
Correct Answer is. two databuses are required.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 63. Why does an ARINC databus system send data to LRUs in series?.
Option A. Saves weight.
Option B. More information can be sent.
Option C. Takes less time.
Correct Answer is. Saves weight.
Question Number. 64. Can an LRU transmit and receive on more than one 629 bus?.
Option A. Yes.
Option B. Only if paralleled.
Option C. No.
Correct Answer is. Yes.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 65. ARINC 629 LRUs transmit.

Option A. when addressed.
Option B. when signal gap is sensed.
Option C. when terminal gap is sensed.
Correct Answer is. when terminal gap is sensed.
Question Number. 66. An ARINC 429 BCD word occupies bits 11-29, if 11-15 are filled with padders then the LSB of the
word will be.
Option A. 11.
Option B. 16.
Option C. 29.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin Page 147.

Option A. one transmitter, many receivers.
Option B. a bus controller and separate controller.
Option C. one transmitter, one receiver.
Correct Answer is. one transmitter, many receivers.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 68. In an Arinc 429 Word label-representing heading is 320, this is represented in bits 1- 8 as.
Option A. 01011001.
Option B. 00001011.
Option C. 01101000.
Explanation. Octal 320 converted to binary, and reversed.
Question Number. 69. In ARINC 629 aperiodic mode, LRUs transmit in order of.
Option A. longest terminal gap to shortest terminal gap.
Option B. power up.
Option C. shortest terminal gap to longest terminal gap.
Correct Answer is. shortest terminal gap to longest terminal gap.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 70. ARINC 629, aperiodic mode is used.

Option A. for landing and approach operation.
Option B. for normal operation.
Option C. for database loads.
Correct Answer is. for database loads.
Explanation. B777 MM 23-91-00 pg 41. Periodic mode is for normal operation. Aperiodic mode is for non-normal operation and
large information transfer such as database loads and operating software loads.
Question Number. 71. How is ARINC 429 bi-directional data transfer achieved?.
Option A. Via a current mode coupler.
Option B. Using two data buses.
Option C. Via a twisted pair of shielded cables.
Correct Answer is. Using two data buses.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 72. The data format use to transmit signal to flight data recorder.
Option A. Harvard bi-phase 12 bit.
Option B. Bi-Polar RZ 12 bit.
Option C. Manchester 2 bi-phase 12 bit.
Correct Answer is. Harvard bi-phase 12 bit.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 73. The output voltage of ARINC 429 signal is.
Option A. +5v.
Option B. +10v to -10v. H73.
Option C. -5v.
Correct Answer is. +10v to -10v. H73.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 74. An ARINC 629 label word is.

Option A. 10 bits.
Option B. 12 bits.
Option C. 8 bits.
Correct Answer is. 12 bits.
Explanation. 12-bit label field, 4-bit label extension, single parity, 3-bit time hi-lo synch pulse. 20 bit in total.
Question Number. 75. The T/R of ARINC 629 is.

Option A. Encoder / decoder.
Option B. Multiplex / demultiplex.
Option C. switching.
Correct Answer is. Multiplex / demultiplex.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 76. Terminal gap in ARINC 629 is.

Option A. always the same period.
Option B. flexible.
Option C. can be changed by adjusting the rx/tx software.
Correct Answer is. can be changed by adjusting the rx/tx software.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin 5th Ed, pg149.
Question Number. 77. How does ARINC 629 bus transmit and receive information?.
Option A. Sockets and pins.
Option B. Inductive coupling.
Option C. Optical coupling.
Correct Answer is. Inductive coupling.
Explanation. NIL.

Option A. To specify LRU pin-outs.
Option B. To specify Radio Comms data bus.
Option C. To specify Flight Data Recorder data bus.
Correct Answer is. To specify Radio Comms data bus.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 79. What is the purpose of the parity bit on an ARINC 429 bus?.
Option A. To indicate if the data is analogue.
Option B. To indicate that the data is digital.
Option C. To indicate to the receiver that the data is valid.
Correct Answer is. To indicate to the receiver that the data is valid.
Explanation. NIL.

Option A. Single Source Multiple Sink System.
Option B. Multiple Source Multiple Sink system.
Option C. Single Source Single Sink system.
Correct Answer is. Single Source Multiple Sink System.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 81. What is the purpose of intermediate production breaks in ARINC 429 or 629 Data cables?.
Option A. Cables are only manufactured 40 feet long.
Option B. To allow maintenance personnel to divide the right and left system buses into two parts for easy removal and
installation.
Option C. To allow connection of new cables to the existing ones in case of a modification.
Correct Answer is. To allow maintenance personnel to divide the right and left system buses into two parts for easy removal and
installation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 82. Where is the parity bit installed in a data word?.
Option A. Front.
Option B. End MSB.
Option C. Middle.
Correct Answer is. End MSB.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 83. RZ bi-polar modulation consists of bits which are one of __________ states?.
Option A. Eight.
Option B. Two.
Option C. Three.
Correct Answer is. Three.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 84. In the ARINC 429 digital information transfer system, data may travel in:.
Option A. both directions on the same bus simultaneously.
Option B. one direction only.
Option C. both directions on the same bus sequentially by time multiplexing.
Correct Answer is. one direction only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 85. An ARINC 629 data word.

Option A. includes an 8 bit label and a 16 bit data field.
Option B. has only 20 bits.
Option C. comprises up to 256 data bits.
Correct Answer is. has only 20 bits.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 86. In an ARINC 429 digital word bit number 32 is used for.
Option A. terminating the data field.
Option B. checking parity.
Option C. identifying word type.
Correct Answer is. checking parity.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 87. What connects an LRU to the Bus Coupler in an ARINC 629 Data Bus?.
Option A. Patch Cord.
Option B. Stub Cable.
Option C. Interconnect Cable.
Correct Answer is. Stub Cable.
Explanation. NIL.
05.05a. Logic Circuits.
Question Number. 1. What is the equivalent of this gate?.
Option A. = (NOT-A + NOT-B).

Option B. = (A + B)NOT.
Option C. = (A.B)NOT.
Correct Answer is. = (NOT-A + NOT-B).
Explanation. Draw the truth table for the NAND gate, then draw the truth tables for each answer in turn until you get one to match.
Question Number. 2. A NOR gate with both inputs inverted becomes a.

Option A. NAND gate.
Option B. AND gate.
Option C. OR gate.
Correct Answer is. AND gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. Adding invertors to the two inputs of an AND gate makes a.
Option A. OR gate.
Option B. NOR gate.
Option C. NAND gate.
Correct Answer is. NOR gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. This truth table is for a.
Option A. OR gate.
Option B. AND gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. Which logic gate can be represented as a parallel circuit?.

Option A. OR gate.
Option B. Exclusive OR gate.
Correct Answer is. OR gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. Making an inverter from a NAND or NOR gate is achieved by.
Option A. connecting the inputs.
Option B. inverting the input.
Option C. connecting two in series.
Correct Answer is. connecting the inputs.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. An AND gate output is 1 when inputs are.

Option A. both 1.
Option B. both 0.
Option C. 1 and 0.
Correct Answer is. both 1.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. What sort of gate requires two positive voltages to operate?.
Option A. AND.
Option B. OR.
Option C. NOT.
Correct Answer is. AND.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 9. When will a NAND gate give logic 0 at the output?.
Option A. When both inputs are at 1.
Option B. When the inputs are different.
Option C. When both inputs are at 0.
Correct Answer is. When both inputs are at 1.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. Which logic gate has this truth table?.
Option A. NOT.
Option B. NAND.
Option C. Exclusive OR.
Correct Answer is. Exclusive OR.
Explanation. NIL.
Option A. Exclusive OR.
Option B. NAND.
Option C. OR.
Correct Answer is. OR.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. What is this truth table?.
Option A. NOR gate.

Option B. NOT gate.
Option C. AND gate.
Explanation.
Question Number. 13. What sort of gate is this?.
Option A. NOT gate.

Option B. NOR gate.
Option C. Or gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. The output of a NOT gate is logic 1. The input is.
Option A. logic 0.
Option B. logic 1.
Option C. both logic 1.
Correct Answer is. logic 0.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. When the voltage that represents a logic 1 state is less than the voltage that represents a logic 0 state, the
logic being used is.
Option A. either positive or negative.
Option B. positive.
Option C. negative.
Correct Answer is. negative.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. The output of an AND gate having two inputs A and B is logic 1. The two inputs will have the logic
states of.
Option A. A = 0, B = 0.
Option B. A = 1, B = 0.
Option C. A = 1, B = 1.
Correct Answer is. A = 1, B = 1.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. The output of an OR gate having two inputs A and B is logic 0. The two inputs will have the logic states
of.
Option A. A = 1, B = 0.
Option B. A = 0, B = 1.
Option C. A = 0, B = 0.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 18. What is this symbol?.
Option A. Exclusive AND gate.

Option B. Exclusive NOR gate.
Option C. Exclusive OR gate.
Correct Answer is. Exclusive OR gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. What Logic Gate does this switch circuit indicate?.
Option A. NOR gate.

Option B. AND gate.
Option C. OR gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 20. Which logic gate has both inputs high to get an output?.
Option A. AND gate.
Option B. OR gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. A NAND and NOR to become a NOT gate have.
Option A. inputs inverted.
Option B. outputs inverted.
Option C. inputs connected together.
Correct Answer is. inputs connected together.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 22. An AND gate with inverted inputs and an inverted output is equivalent to.
Option A. an AND gate.
Option B. a NOR gate.
Option C. an OR gate.
Correct Answer is. an OR gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 23. Logic gates internal operating mechanisms are produced from.
Option A. thin film resistors.
Option B. transistors.
Option C. diodes.
Correct Answer is. transistors.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 24. A logic 1 may be represented in an analogue system by (where Q is an output of a latch / flip-flop).
Option A. switch closed / light off / Not Q.
Option B. positive / magnetised / Q.
Option C. switch open / light on / Q.
Correct Answer is. positive / magnetised / Q.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 25. To get logic 1 using this gate.
Option A. A and B = 0.
Option B. A or B = 1.
Option C. A and B = 1.
Correct Answer is. A and B = 0.
Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 26. What logic gate would this circuit represent?.
Option A. NAND Gate.

Option B. NOR gate.
Option C. AND gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 27. What type of gate is this?.

Option A. NAND.
Option B. NOT.
Option C. E-OR.
Correct Answer is. E-OR.
Explanation. E-OR is another name for XOR.
Question Number. 28. What sort of gate requires two negative input voltages to operate?.
Option A. OR.
Option B. NAND.
Option C. NOT.
Correct Answer is. NAND.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 28. What sort of gate requires two negative input voltages to operate?.
Option A. NAND.
Option B. OR.
Option C. NOT.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 29. In Positive Logic representation.
Option A. both states have same positive voltages but stage 1 has more current.
Option B. state 1 is more positive than state 0.
Option C. state 0 is more positive than state 1.
Correct Answer is. state 1 is more positive than state 0.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 30. Switching within logic gates is normally achieved with the use of.
Option A. BTB's.
Option B. relays.
Option C. diodes.
Correct Answer is. diodes.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 31. The truth table of A =0011 B=0101 and =0110 indicates that the logic device is.
Option A. an ECLUSIVE OR gate.
Option C. an AND gate.
Correct Answer is. an ECLUSIVE OR gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. What input is required to activate the relay shown?.
Option A. A=0 B=1.
Option B. A=1 B=0.
Option C. A=1 B=1.
Correct Answer is. A=1 B=1.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 33. A NAND gate has inputs A and B and output C. If the output (c) was zero, what are the inputs?.
Option A. A=1 B=1.
Option B. A=0 B=0.
Option C. A=1 B=0.
Explanation. NIL.
05.05b. Logic Circuits.
Question Number. 1. The 'fan-in' in a gate is the.

Option A. number of inputs to a gate.
Option B. number of outputs from a gate.
Option C. number of inputs and outputs of a gate.
Correct Answer is. number of inputs to a gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 2. What does the logic circuit shown represent?.
Option A. Full Adder Circuit.

Option B. Half adder circuit.
Option C. Multi-bit adder.
Correct Answer is. Full Adder Circuit.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. What would be the outputs of this circuit, if A=0 B=0 C=1.
Option A. 1, 1.
Option B. 0, 1.
Option C. 0, 0.
Correct Answer is. 0, 1.
Explanation. Check out the table on http://www.play-hookey.com/digital/adder.html. http://www.play-hookey.com/digital/
adder.html
Option A. 0, 1.
Option B. 1, 1.
Option C. 1, 0.
Explanation. Check out the table on http://www.play-hookey.com/digital/adder.html. http://www.play-hookey.com/digital/
adder.html
Question Number. 5. Tristate devices are found.

Option A. on input circuits.
Option B. on output circuits.
Option C. on both input and output circuits.
Correct Answer is. on input circuits.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. A full adder has.

Option A. three inputs and two outputs.
Option B. two inputs and one output.
Option C. three inputs and one output.
Correct Answer is. three inputs and two outputs.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. What is the Boolean Algebra for the circuit shown?.
Option A. .
Option B. .
Option C. .
Correct Answer is. .
Explanation. NIL.
05.06a. Basic Computer Structure.
Question Number. 1. In a computer memory device, which one of these has the slowest access time?.
Option A. floppy disk.
Option B. magnetic tape.
Option C. 8mm video tape.
Correct Answer is. magnetic tape.
Explanation. 8mm video tape is not (and never has been) a computer memory device.
Question Number. 2. The advantage of DRAM over SRAM is.

Option A. are cheaper to manufacture.
Option B. has a larger storage capacity per chip area.
Option C. they operate slower.
Correct Answer is. has a larger storage capacity per chip area.
Explanation. NIL. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/DRAM
Question Number. 3. A BYTE is usually.

Option A. an 8 bit word.
Option B. a six bit word.
Option C. a 12 bit word.
Correct Answer is. an 8 bit word.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. What is the definition of baud rate?.
Option A. 1 word per second.
Option B. 1 byte per second.
Option C. 1 bit per second.
Correct Answer is. 1 bit per second.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. Which would have the least components?.

Option A. ALU.
Option B. CPU.
Option C. LSI.
Correct Answer is. ALU.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. What is a baud?.

Option A. A bit of data.
Option B. A block of data.
Option C. A byte of data.
Correct Answer is. A bit of data.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. In a bi-stable memory circuit.

Option A. the memory is retained indefinably.
Option B. the memory is lost as soon as power is removed.
Option C. the memory needs to be refreshed constantly, even when power is on.
Correct Answer is. the memory is lost as soon as power is removed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. What is the advantage of series over parallel message sending?.
Option A. Only one pair of conductors.
Option B. More information sent.
Option C. Quicker.
Correct Answer is. Only one pair of conductors.
Question Number. 9. A typical example of a mass storage memory device which is also WORM (Write Once Read Many) is.
Option A. an IC.
Option B. a magnetic tape.
Option C. a CD Rom.
Correct Answer is. a CD Rom.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. A computer using RAM would utilize.

Option A. magnetic tape.
Option B. a compact disc.
Option C. an integrated circuit (chip).
Correct Answer is. an integrated circuit (chip).
Question Number. 11. Magnetic materials are used in.

Option A. ROMs only.
Option B. some RAMs.
Option C. EPROM.
Correct Answer is. some RAMs.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. A typical example of a mass storage device is.

Option A. IC.
Option C. CD.
Correct Answer is. CD.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. What is EPROM?.

Option A. Enhanced programmable read only memory.
Option B. Erasable programmable read only memory.
Option C. Erasable programming read only module.
Correct Answer is. Erasable programmable read only memory.
Explanation. Basic Electronics Malcolm Plant Page 87E.
Question Number. 14. How many bytes can be carried in a 32bit word?.
Option A. 8 bytes.
Option B. 4 bytes.
Option C. 2 bytes.
Correct Answer is. 4 bytes.
Explanation. 8 bits per byte.
Question Number. 15. A common used material in computer manufacturing is.

Option A. ferrite material.
Option B. permeamag material.
Option C. ferromagnetic material.
Correct Answer is. ferromagnetic material.
Explanation. Ferromagnetic material is that which hard-drives and floppy drives are made from.
Question Number. 16. Ferrite medium is used for computer memory because.
Option A. data is stored after the power is removed.
Option B. it is light.
Option C. it has low eddy current losses.
Correct Answer is. data is stored after the power is removed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. Data is usually stored in.

Option A. RAM.
Option B. ROM.
Option C. EEPROM.
Correct Answer is. ROM.
Explanation. NIL.
05.06b. Basic Computer Structure.
Question Number. 1. Registers are used in digital computers to.

Option A. store bits of information in a permanent memory.
Option B. store a limited amount of information on a temporary basis.
Option C. keep a count of operations completed.
Correct Answer is. store a limited amount of information on a temporary basis.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 2. A computer consist of at least the C.P.U and.

Option A. memory and input & output port.
Option B. memory, ALU, input & output port.
Option C. register section, ALU, timing and control section.
Correct Answer is. memory and input & output port.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 144, and Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems
Pallett Page 153 Fig 6.1.
Question Number. 3. A basic computer would consist of.

Option A. register section, ALU and timing and control section.
Option B. memory, input/output ports and CPU.
Option C. RAM/ROM and input/output ports.
Correct Answer is. memory, input/output ports and CPU.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft instuments & Integrated Systems Page 153.
Question Number. 4. DRAM.

Option A. requires a refreshing charge.
Option B. memory is stored when power supply is removed.
Option C. it does not require a refreshing charge.
Correct Answer is. requires a refreshing charge.
Explanation. NIL. http://computer.howstuffworks.com/ram4.htm
Question Number. 5. Bubble memory stores data on.

Option B. semiconductor material.
Option C. ferrite core.
Correct Answer is. semiconductor material.
Explanation. NIL. www.tpub.com/neets/book22/92a.htm
Question Number. 6. An EPROM.
Option A. is non-volatile memory.
Option B. requires constant refreshing.
Option C. is erased after reading.
Correct Answer is. is non-volatile memory.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. A computer requires to operate, a.

Option A. address bus, a data bus only.
Option B. data bus, a control bus, a address bus.
Option C. data bus, a control bus only.
Correct Answer is. data bus, a control bus, a address bus.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. data bus, a control bus only.

Option A. DRAM.
Option B. SRAM.
Option C. RAM.
Correct Answer is. SRAM.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 9. A computer is acting in real time when.

Option A. the CPU requires a clock pulse.
Option B. the output is equal to the input of data.
Option C. the time to access memory is equal to the data speed in.
Correct Answer is. the output is equal to the input of data.
Explanation. NIL.
05.07. Microprocessors.
Question Number. 1. What is the function of a status register in a microprocessor?.

Option A. To indicate the status of the processor.
Option B. In the ALU, to store the position of the program during an interrupt.
Option C. To synchronize the clock pulse.
Correct Answer is. To indicate the status of the processor.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.i-garden.org/docu/cecs/cs14.pdf
Question Number. 2. What is the purpose of the ALU?.

Option A. To store data being used by the CPU.
Option B. The part of the CPU unit where arithmetic & logic operations are carried out.
Option C. To convert serial into parallel data.
Correct Answer is. The part of the CPU unit where arithmetic & logic operations are carried out.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin, 5th Edition Page 146.
Question Number. 3. The CPU consists of.

Option A. ALU, timing and control section, register.
Option B. register and arithmetic logic unit only.
Option C. register, timing and control section only.
Correct Answer is. ALU, timing and control section, register.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 153 Basic CPU,. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics
Eismin 5th Edition Page 145.
Question Number. 4. How is multiplication achieved in an ALU?.

Option A. by addition.
Option B. by subtraction.
Option C. by coupling.
Correct Answer is. by addition.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. The smallest operation of a CPU is.

Option A. the processor cycle.
Option B. the processor sub-cycle.
Option C. the time cycle.
Correct Answer is. the time cycle.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. Where does the clock signal in a microprocessor come from?.
Option A. ALU.
Option B. Memory.
Option C. Control unit.
Correct Answer is. Control unit.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett. Page 153.
Question Number. 7. Where is the operating program for the CPU stored?.
Option A. Control unit.
Option B. ALU.
Option C. Memory unit.
Correct Answer is. Memory unit.
Question Number. 8. A priority encoder.

Option A. outputs the highest input.
Option B. outputs the selected input.
Option C. outputs the lowest input.
Correct Answer is. outputs the highest input.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 9. The smallest operation possible in a computer is the.

Option A. timing cycle.
Option B. processor sub-cycle.
Option C. processor cycle.
Correct Answer is. timing cycle.
Explanation. Also known as the clock pulse.
Question Number. 10. A clock pulse in processor equipment.

Option A. is to synchronise everything.
Option B. is used for the maintenance tests.
Option C. is to give the correct timing when calculations are made.
Correct Answer is. is to synchronise everything.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. In a computer, the code that fetches correct data and feeds it to the ALU is called.
Option A. the instruction set.
Option B. ARINC.
Option C. the computer program.
Correct Answer is. the instruction set.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/I/instruction.html
Question Number. 12. A computer processor has within it.
Option A. register, buffer, data bus.
Option B. ALU, register, memory.
Option C. ALU, control section, register.
Correct Answer is. ALU, control section, register.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. The arithmetic logic unit (ALU) in a central processor unit (CPU) carries out.
Option A. addition, subtraction, multiplication and division.
Option B. computations as instructed.
Option C. timing and synchronisation.
Correct Answer is. addition, subtraction, multiplication and division.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. The CPU requires a clock to determine.

Option A. the number of bits on the highway.
Option B. the speed of operation.
Option C. the date and time.
Correct Answer is. the speed of operation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. An ALU performs the following.

Option A. Arithmetic, Logic, Branch and Move Operations.
Option B. Input/Output operations, Arithmetic, Logic Functions.
Option C. Arithmetic, Logic, Branch and Find Operations.
Correct Answer is. Input/Output operations, Arithmetic, Logic Functions.
Explanation. NIL.
05.08. Integrated Circuits.
Question Number. 1. What function do gates 1 and 2 perform?.
Option A. Full adder.

Option B. Half Adder.
Option C. Shift Register.
Correct Answer is. Half Adder.
Explanation. NIL. http://gs.fanshawec.ca/tlc/math270/2_7_Binary_Adders.htm
Question Number. 2. On an IC, pin 1 is to the left of the notch. Which way are the pins numbered?.
Option A. Left to right.
Option B. Anticlockwise.
Option C. Clockwise.
Correct Answer is. Anticlockwise.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.kpsec.freeuk.com/components/ic.htm
Question Number. 3. When 4 binary serial counters are connected in cascade for frequency division, what division factor is
required?.
Option A. 8.
Option B. 16.
Option C. 4.
Explanation. Each serial counter changes its state once every 2 clock pulses. So 4 serial counters divides by 2x2x2x2 = 16.
Question Number. 4. 3 binary counters in cascade. What is the division?.

Option A. 32.
Option B. 8.
Option C. 16.
Explanation. Each serial counter changes its state once every 2 clock pulses. So 3 serial counters divides by 2x2x2 = 8.
Question Number. 5. Within a 3 bit frequency cascade, division is to.

Option A. 2.
Option B. 4.
Option C. 8.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. Very Large Scale Integrated (VLSI) means the number of gates in a single IC is.
Option A. up to 10,000.
Option B. over 10,000.
Option C. up to 1000.
Correct Answer is. over 10,000.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. An encoder changes.

Option A. digital to analogue.
Option C. data from one format to another.
Correct Answer is. data from one format to another.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. An RS flip-flop with Q at 1 is said to be.

Option A. set.
Option B. reset.
Option C. zero.
Correct Answer is. set.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 9. When a JK flip flop is used as a memory device, what type of memory would it be?.
Option A. read-only.
Option B. non-volatile.
Option C. volatile.
Correct Answer is. volatile.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. In an RS flip flop, output is one. This means it is.
Option A. intermediate.
Option B. reset.
Option C. set.
Question Number. 11. An ALU is an example of.

Option A. MSI.
Option B. SSI.
Option C. LSI.
Correct Answer is. LSI.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. With a j-k flip flop which is the output set.
Option A. q = 1.
Option B. q = 0.
Option C. either.
Correct Answer is. q = 1.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. Data is converted from serial to parallel and parallel to serial by.
Option A. a synchronous counter.
Option B. a parallel register.
Option C. a shift register.
Correct Answer is. a shift register.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. A typical characteristic of a CMOS is.

Option A. high power dissipation.
Option B. high voltage handling.
Option C. low power dissipation.
Correct Answer is. low power dissipation.
Question Number. 15. The pins on an op amp are numbered.

Option A. anticlockwise.
Option B. clockwise.
Option C. cross ways.
Correct Answer is. anticlockwise.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. A parallel register.

Option A. requires a clock pulse for each bit.
Option B. reads each bit to be stored simultaneously.
Option C. reads the stored data when logic 0 is applied to the read line.
Correct Answer is. reads each bit to be stored simultaneously.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. A device, which converts serial to parallel and parallel to serial for arithmetical functions, is a.
Option A. Parallel to serial and serial to parallel converter.
Option B. Shift Register.
Option C. Multiplexer and De-Multiplexer.
Correct Answer is. Shift Register.
Explanation. Pulse code modulation/parallel to seria.
Question Number. 18. What is the device used to convert Binary Coded Decimal into separate supplies for a seven segment
digital display?.
Option A. Multiplexer.
Option B. Decoder.
Option C. Demultiplexer.
Correct Answer is. Decoder.
Explanation. RS catalogue...part number CA3161 (see www.RSwww.com website and enter the part number in their search box).
Question Number. 19. Operation of a frequency counter is such that.

Option A. it compares the incoming waveform with standard sine waves.
Option B. it detects incidences of peak value.
Option C. it changes the incoming waveform to a standard square wave.
Correct Answer is. it changes the incoming waveform to a standard square wave.
Question Number. 20. An example of a small size integrated circuit would be.
Option A. DIP switch.
Option B. Control Processor Unit.
Option C. ALU.
Correct Answer is. Control Processor Unit.
Explanation. A DIP switch is not an IC. ALU is an integrated part of the CPU. The 'Control Processor Unit' is another term used for
the 'Central Processor Unit (CPU)' or sometimes a switching unit used in telegraphy (such as the touch-pad of a telephone) - the latter
would be an SSI (defined as containing up to 100 transistors or gates).
Question Number. 21. What is this?.

Option A. Counter.
Option B. Shift register.
Option C. Multiplexer.
Correct Answer is. Multiplexer.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 22. In a Master Slave, negative edge triggered JK flip flop, both inputs are connected to logic 1. The output.
Option A. will change state when the leading edge of the clock pulse is applied.
Option B. will change state when the trailing edge of the clock pulse is applied.
Option C. does not change state when a clock pulse is applied.
Correct Answer is. will change state when the trailing edge of the clock pulse is applied.
Explanation. NIL.
05.09. Multiplexing.
Question Number. 1. A 12 bit 16 Channel encoder will use a multiplexer with.

Option A. 3 bit parallel address line.
Option B. 4 bit parallel address line.
Option C. 2 wire series address line.
Correct Answer is. 4 bit parallel address line.
Explanation. With 16 inputs, it needs 4 data select lines (to provide all 16 combinations).
Question Number. 2. How many address lines would be needed for an 8 line MU?.
Option A. 2.
Option B. 3.
Option C. 4.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. In a MU, how is parallel converted to serial?.

Option A. By way of a shift register.
Option B. By way of an encoder.
Option C. By way of a demultiplexer.
Correct Answer is. By way of a shift register.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. A multiplexer.

Option A. takes many signals in and converts it to a serial transmission output.
Option B. takes many signals in and puts these in a parallel transmission on the output.
Option C. takes one signal in and converts it to a parallel transmission output.
Correct Answer is. takes many signals in and converts it to a serial transmission output.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. A multiplexer in test equipment could be used for.

Option A. frequency divider.
Option B. analogue to digital converter.
Option C. digital to analogue converter.
Correct Answer is. frequency divider.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. An 8 data input multiplexer has how many Data Select lines.
Option A. 8.
Option B. 3.
Option C. 2.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. The signal sent between a MU/DEMU is controlled by.

Option A. clock.
Option B. the ALU.
Option C. control unit.
Correct Answer is. control unit.
Explanation. NIL.
05.10. Fibre Optics.

Question Number. 1. Some of the advantages of fibre optic cable over copper cables are.
Option A. non conductive, easy to manufacture and assemble, more robust, cheap.
Option B. smaller in size and weight, non conductive, higher security and higher bandwidth.
Option C. non conductive, smaller in size and weight, easy to manufacture and assemble and higher security.
Correct Answer is. smaller in size and weight, non conductive, higher security and higher bandwidth.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 2. A fibre optic cable consists of.

Option A. a silica glass core with a cladding having a lower refractive index.
Option B. a silica glass core with a cladding having a higher refractive index.
Option C. a plastic core with a cladding having a higher refractive index.
Correct Answer is. a silica glass core with a cladding having a lower refractive index.
Explanation. NIL. www.commspecial.com/fiberguide
Question Number. 3. Fibre optic cables.

Option A. are immune to EMI.
Option B. attenuate EMI.
Option C. are susceptible to EMI.
Correct Answer is. are immune to EMI.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. Two connected fibre optic cable ends are parallel but not quite touching. This is called.
Option A. end to end coupling.
Option B. lens connector.
Option C. end fire coupling.
Correct Answer is. end to end coupling.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. A disadvantage of a fibre optic cable is.

Option A. couplings susceptible to ingress of fluid.
Option B. end terminals are susceptible to environmental contamination.
Option C. shallow bend radius allowed.
Correct Answer is. end terminals are susceptible to environmental contamination.
Explanation. NIL. www.commspecial.com/fiberguide.htm
Question Number. 6. What kind of light is used in a fibre optic systems?.

Option A. Infrared.
Option B. Visible.
Option C. Ultraviolet.
Correct Answer is. Infrared.
Explanation. NIL. www.floti.bell.ac.uk/MathsPhysics/light.htm
Question Number. 7. Fibreoptic data is sent by.

Option A. modulating the frequency of a laser beam.
Option B. a strobe light.
Option C. modulating the frequency of a filament beam.
Correct Answer is. a strobe light.
Explanation. Modulating the frequency would change the colour of the light.
Question Number. 8. HIRF is prevented from entering a fibre optic cable by.
Option A. using an opto-isolator coupling.
Option B. grounding the fibre at both ends.
Option C. enclosing it in a metal braid.
Correct Answer is. using an opto-isolator coupling.
Explanation. Although a fiber optic cable is 'immune' from collecting HIRF, it can still transmit HIRF which has been picked up by
the source circuitry. An optoelectronic isolator will filter out the HIRF prior to transmission.
Question Number. 9. Continuity of a fibreoptic cable is checked by.

Option A. a calibrated light source.
Option B. a calibrated light source and an opto-power meter.
Option C. a light source and an opto-power meter.
Correct Answer is. a calibrated light source and an opto-power meter.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.tpub.com/neets/tm/109-13.htm
Question Number. 10. A fibreoptic data bus used on an aircraft.

Option A. can send only one message at a time.
Option B. can transmit on several channels at the same time.
Option C. connects non-essential systems only.
Correct Answer is. can transmit on several channels at the same time.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. Light travels along a fibre optic by.

Option A. refraction.
Option B. reflection.
Option C. dispersion.
Correct Answer is. reflection.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. What is the main disadvantage of a fibre optic data bus?.
Option A. Less strong and durable when compared to twisted pair and coaxial cable.
Option B. Expensive to install.
Option C. Bend radius and moisture ingress at connections.
Correct Answer is. Expensive to install.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. A typical fibre optic connector is.

Option A. F-type connector.
Option B. coupling type, with lens fitted.
Option C. push-pull connector.
Correct Answer is. coupling type, with lens fitted.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. Which of the following is an optoelectronic device?.

Option A. Triac.
Option B. Laser Diode.
Option C. Thyristor.
Correct Answer is. Laser Diode.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. What is the advantage of a single mode fibreoptic over ordinary wire?.
Option A. Not prone to damage.
Option B. Large bandwidth.
Option C. Small bend radius.
Correct Answer is. Large bandwidth.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. A fibreoptic light source is normally.

Option A. a strobe light.
Option B. a filament lamp.
Option C. a laser or LED.
Correct Answer is. a laser or LED.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. The fibreoptic cable can be identified on aircraft by its jacket colour which is.
Option A. purple.
Option B. yellow.
Option C. red.
Correct Answer is. purple.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 18. For a fibre optic cable connector that is not regularly disconnected you would use the.
Option A. butt type.
Option B. ball lens type.
Option C. ceramic lens type.
Correct Answer is. butt type.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. What maintenance problems are associated with fibreoptics?.
Option A. Corrosion.
Option B. Kinking and contamination of connectors.
Option C. Earthing faults.
Correct Answer is. Kinking and contamination of connectors.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 20. A fibreoptic data bus.
Option A. can transmit several messages simultaneously.
Option B. is only used for non essential messages.
Option C. can only transmit 1 message at a time.
Correct Answer is. can transmit several messages simultaneously.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. A fiberoptic cable to LRU connector should be connected.

Option A. very carefully to ensure alignment and reduce light loss.
Option B. using torque-loaded pliers.
Option C. hand tight only.
Correct Answer is. very carefully to ensure alignment and reduce light loss.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 22. Some of the advantages of fibreoptic cable over copper cable are.
Option A. smaller size and weight, non conductive, more rugged, higher security.
Option B. non conductive, easy to manufacture and assemble, higher bandwidth.
Option C. non conductive, higher bandwidth, higher security, smaller size and weight.
Correct Answer is. smaller size and weight, non conductive, more rugged, higher security.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 23. In a single mode fibreoptic cable.

Option A. several waves travel down the cable.
Option B. the diameter of the cable is dependent on the wavelength of the light used.
Option C. the distortion of the signal is dependent on the length of cable.
Correct Answer is. the diameter of the cable is dependent on the wavelength of the light used.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 24. A semiconductor which emits photons and releases electrons when stimulated by photons is called.
Option A. a photodiode.
Option B. a laser diode.
Option C. an LED.
Correct Answer is. a laser diode.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 25. What does a fibreoptic star connection do?.

Option A. Provides a continuous loop of fibre interconnecting all nodes.
Option B. Provides direct point-to-point services to units on dedicated lines emanating from the central hub.
Option C. Shares a common bandwidth of a common cable.
Correct Answer is. Provides direct point-to-point services to units on dedicated lines emanating from the central hub.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 26. A fibreoptic lens type coupling with lens and integral LED compared to an end-fire coupling is.
Option A. more efficient.
Option B. less efficient.
Option C. equally efficient.
Correct Answer is. more efficient.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 27. Passive sensors in fibreoptics.

Option A. Passive sensors in fibreoptics.
Option B. require power for processing the signal before they send them down the fibre optic.
Option C. require no power and they do not process signals.
Correct Answer is. process the signal but do not require power.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 28. Optical fibre losses are due to.
Option A. absorption only.
Option B. absorption, scattering and reflection.
Option C. radiation, absorption and reflection.
Correct Answer is. absorption, scattering and reflection.
Explanation. Introduction to Fiber Optics John Crisp Page 50.
Question Number. 29. The cone of acceptance is measured between.

Option A. the two outer angles.
Option B. the two outer angles.
Option C. longitudinal axis of the core and the outer angle.
Correct Answer is. longitudinal axis of the core and the outer angle.
Question Number. 30. Fibreoptic cables use.

Option A. refractive outer shell.
Option B. reflective inner shell.
Option C. reflective outer shell.
Correct Answer is. refractive outer shell.
Explanation. The outer cladding is glass, so it is refractive (but less so than the core). Cladding causes Total Internal Reflection
(TIR), so question can be interpreted in two ways.
Question Number. 31. In fibreoptic cable, signals are separated by.

Option A. active optic filter.
Option B. low pass filter.
Option C. passive optic filter.
Correct Answer is. active optic filter.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. Most fibreoptic connectors are designed so.

Option A. the receptacle has to be torqued to a designated value to ensure correct alignment.
Option B. the connectors can not be over tightened.
Option C. the connector can not be replaced on the aircraft.
Correct Answer is. the connectors can not be over tightened.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 33. The light source used in fibreoptics is.

Option A. visible light.
Option B. lower bandwidth than visible light.
Option C. higher bandwidth than visible light.
Correct Answer is. lower bandwidth than visible light.
Explanation. Introduction to Fiber Optics J Crisp Page 18/19.
Question Number. 34. Light transmission in a fibreoptic cable is due to.

Option A. repeated internal reflection.
Option B. defraction of the light.
Option C. refraction of the light.
Correct Answer is. repeated internal reflection.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 35. The name given to the joining of two fibreoptic cables by aligning them carefully and bringing them into
close proximity of each other is.
Option A. Fusion.
Option B. Lens Coupling.
Option C. End to end.
Correct Answer is. End to end.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 36. In a fibreoptic cable.

Option A. multiple data signals can be sent down it at one time.
Option B. data can only be sent in one direction.
Option C. only one data signal can be sent down it at any one time.
Correct Answer is. multiple data signals can be sent down it at one.
Explanation. Introduction to Fiber Optics John Crisp page 189.
Question Number. 37. Fibreoptics relies on.

Option A. fibre absorbing light.
Option B. light escaping cladding.
Option C. light reflecting off cladding.
Correct Answer is. light reflecting off cladding.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 38. The 'light' emitted from a LED used within a fibre-optic system will have a wavelength.
Option A. slightly shorter then that of visible light.
Option B. equal to that of visible light.
Option C. slightly longer then that of visible light.
Correct Answer is. slightly longer then that of visible light.
Explanation. Infrared from 850nm. Visible light is 400 - 800 nm.
Question Number. 39. Sensors in a fibreoptic flight control system.

Option A. require processing to give output.
Option B. does not require power.
Option C. require power for processors.
Correct Answer is. require power for processors.
Explanation. The sensor is usually a photo-diode.
Question Number. 40. Fibreoptic systems can transmit data in.

Option A. in two directions.
Option B. both directions at the same time.
Option C. one direction only.
Correct Answer is. both directions at the same time.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 41. For high bandwidth high-speed fibreoptic transmission what sort of cable would you use?.
Option A. Step index.
Option B. Single mode.
Option C. Graded index.
Correct Answer is. Single mode.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 42. In fibreoptics the wavelength of the light is.

Option A. more than visible light.
Option C. less than visible light.
Correct Answer is. more than visible light.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 43. What is the advantage of an ILD over an LED when used as a light source in fibre optics?.
Option A. Lower frequency range.
Option B. Lower intensity.
Option C. Higher bandwidth.
Correct Answer is. Lower frequency range.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 44. Speed of light in a fibreoptic fibre.

Option A. increases if it passes through material of higher refractive index.
Option B. is always the same no matter what material it is.
Option C. is never greater then the speed of light in free space.
Correct Answer is. is never greater then the speed of light in free space.
Explanation. Fiber Optics Communication and Other Applications Page 15.
Question Number. 45. The angle of incidence of a beam of light in a fibreoptic cable will be.
Option A. twice that of the cone of acceptance.
Option B. approximately half that of the cone of acceptance.
Option C. parallel with the end of the cable.
Correct Answer is. approximately half that of the cone of acceptance.
Explanation. Fiber Optics Communication and Other Applications Page 46/7. Presumably, this means the MAIMUM angle of
incidence.
Question Number. 46. In an optical fibre, the angle of acceptance is.

Option A. 1/2 the signal wavelength.
Option B. equal to the cone of acceptance.
Option C. 1/2 the cone of acceptance.
Correct Answer is. 1/2 the cone of acceptance.
Question Number. 47. When using a TDR (time delay reflectometer) the loss value of the cable is.
Option A. shown by the curve on the screen.
Option B. set on the TDR.
Option C. allowed for in the calculation.
Correct Answer is. shown by the curve on the screen.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 48. Common aircraft fibreoptics use.

Option A. modulating intensity on direct read.
Option B. modulating intensity on indirect read.
Option C. modulating frequency on direct read.
Correct Answer is. modulating intensity on direct read.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 49. What is the main cause of attenuation in fibreoptics?.

Option A. Poor termination.
Option B. Refractive index.
Option C. Bends in the cable.
Correct Answer is. Poor termination.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 50. What is the advantage of a laser diode over an LED?.
Option A. Greater bandwidth.
Option B. Narrower bandwidth.
Option C. There are no advantages.
Correct Answer is. Narrower bandwidth.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 51. A 'type A' fibre optic connector.

Option A. is used when regular disconnection and re-connection of a cable is required.
Option B. produces a larger light loss that a type B connector.
Option C. would be used for connections not regularly disconnected.
Correct Answer is. would be used for connections not regularly disconnected.
Explanation. NIL.
05.11. Electronic Displays.
Question Number. 1. The inside of a CRT consists of.

Option A. an oxide coating and rare mercury gas.
Option B. a phosphor coating and rare mercury gas.
Option C. iodine and rare mercury gas.
Correct Answer is. a phosphor coating and rare mercury gas.
Question Number. 2. CRT horizontal beam control is achieved by a.

Option A. sinusoidal wave.
Option B. square wave.
Option C. sawtooth wave.
Correct Answer is. sawtooth wave.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. In a CRT, if the magnetic field is parallel to the Y plates, what will be the direction of the electron beam
movement?.
Option A. Horizontal.
Option B. Vertical.
Option C. No movement.
Correct Answer is. Vertical.
Explanation. The Y plates lie horizontal. Use the right hand rule to work out the direction of electron beam movement. Aircraft
Instruments & Integrated Systems, Pallett, page 287.
Question Number. 4. Primary colours of a CRT are.

Option A. red, green and yellow.
Option B. red, blue and yellow.
Option C. red, green and blue.
Correct Answer is. red, green and blue.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. What are the effects of the X and Y plates on a CRT?.
Option A. Y plates move the beam vertically, X plates move the beam horizontally.
Option B. X plates move the beam vertically, Y plates move the beam horizontally.
Option C. X and Y plates can move the beam in either direction.
Correct Answer is. Y plates move the beam vertically, X plates move the beam horizontally.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. EADI sky and ground display is provided by.

Option A. synthetic TV signals.
Option B. stroke pulse.
Option C. raster scan.
Correct Answer is. raster scan.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. What frequency creates the raster effect on a CRT?.
Option A. 50/60 Hz.
Option B. 250Hz.
Option C. 400 Hz.
Correct Answer is. 50/60 Hz.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. The sweep waveform used on a electromagnetic CRT is.

Option A. trapezoidal.
Option B. sinusoidal.
Option C. sawtooth.
Correct Answer is. trapezoidal.
Explanation. Do not get confused with an electrostatic CRT. Electromagnetic CRT uses trapezoidal waveform to overcome the
impedance of the coil.
Question Number. 9. What shape does the waveform take to counter the impedance effect of the coils in an electromagnetic
controlled CRT?.
Option A. Sawtooth.
Option B. Rectangular.
Option C. Trapezoid.
Correct Answer is. Trapezoid.
Explanation. Do not get confused with an electrostatic CRT.
Question Number. 10. Magnetic deflection in a CRT is achieved by.

Option A. a sawtooth waveform.
Option B. a trapezoidal waveform.
Option C. a sinusoidal voltage.
Correct Answer is. a trapezoidal waveform.
Explanation. Do not get confused with electrostatic deflection (plates), which would be sawtooth.
Question Number. 11. The timebase in a CRT consists of.

Option A. an amplifier and an oscillator.
Option B. an oscillator only.
Option C. an amplifier only.
Correct Answer is. an amplifier and an oscillator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. What creates the raster effect on a CRT?.

Option A. Sawtooth frequency.
Option B. Trapezoidal frequency.
Option C. Sinusoidal frequency.
Correct Answer is. Sawtooth frequency.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. LCD screens are driven by.

Option A. AC voltage.
Option B. variable current DC voltage.
Option C. fixed current DC voltage.
Correct Answer is. AC voltage.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. A Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) has the advantage over a CRT that.
Option A. it requires no cooling.
Option B. it displays more colours.
Option C. it requires less servicing.
Correct Answer is. it requires no cooling.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. The release of a photon by another photon is the principle of.
Option A. a photo diode.
Option B. a zener diode.
Option C. an LED.
Correct Answer is. an LED.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. If a magnetic field is parallel to the X plates in a CRT, which way will the beam move?.
Option A. Vertically.
Option B. Horizontally.
Option C. Diagonally.
Correct Answer is. Horizontally.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. An LED display is.

Option A. monochrome only.
Option B. red and green.
Option C. high definition.
Correct Answer is. monochrome only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 18. An LCD display uses what type of power supply?.
Option A. DC voltage.
Option B. Continuous AC.
Option C. Variable level DC voltage.
Correct Answer is. Continuous AC.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. A beam deflection on EFIS displays are.

Option A. electrostatic.
Option B. electromagnetic.
Option C. solid state.
Correct Answer is. electromagnetic.
Question Number. 20. The supply to an LCD is.

Option A. AC.
Option B. current restricted DC.
Option C. voltage restricted DC.
Correct Answer is. AC.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. An LED will emit light when.

Option A. it is reverse biased.
Option B. either forward or reverse biased if a sufficient level of ac voltage is applied.
Option C. it is forward biased.
Correct Answer is. it is forward biased.
Question Number. 22. A CRT display has the advantage over an LCD display of a.
Option A. brighter clearer output.
Option B. more energy efficient.
Option C. large viewing angle.
Correct Answer is. large viewing angle.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 23. To display a circle on a CRT you use.

Option A. 2 square wave 90 degrees out of phase.
Option B. 2 sine waves 180 degrees out of phase.
Option C. 2 sine waves 90 degrees out of phase.
Correct Answer is. 2 sine waves 90 degrees out of phase.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 24. To deflect the beam of a CRT horizontally, coils are placed on the neck of the tube.
Option A. each side.
Option B. top and bottom.
Option C. one on the side, one at the bottom.
Correct Answer is. top and bottom.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 25. If the magnetic deflection plates produce a magnetic field which is parallel to the horizontal then the
trace is deflected in.
Option A. circular motion.
Option B. horizontal axis.
Option C. vertical axis.
Correct Answer is. vertical axis.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 26. The most common CRT control for an EFIS system screen is.
Option A. a combined system.
Option B. an electrostatic system.
Option C. an electromagnetic system.
Correct Answer is. a combined system.
Explanation. Boeing 757 MM 34-22-00 page 8 paragraph G (EADI), Section (2)........'It (the CRT) utilizes magnetic deflection and
electrostaic focus control.
Question Number. 27. L.E.D.s can give.

Option A. high definition displays.
Option B. monochrome displays only.
Option C. red and green displays only.
Correct Answer is. monochrome displays only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 28. At low ambient temperatures, an LCD screen.

Option A. is slower to update as data changes.
Option B. viewing angle becomes larger.
Option C. loses contrast.
Correct Answer is. is slower to update as data changes.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 29. Colour CRT shadow mask screen resolution is.
Option A. 400 lines per square inch.
Option B. 84 triads.
Option C. 600 lines per scan.
Correct Answer is. 84 triads.
Explanation. See http://www.lgeservice.com/monterms.html for definition of resolution (pixels per inch) and triads. The actual
figure of 84 is irrelevant (as there are many different CRT resolutions). The question is asking whether you know the definition of
resolution. http://www.lgeservice.com
Question Number. 30. An LCD display.

Option A. has three colours only.
Option B. is monochrome.
Option C. has infinite colours.
Correct Answer is. has three colours only.
Explanation. An LCD display uses only red, green and blue filters. By mixing them, it can get different colours, but not an infinite
amount.
Question Number. 31. A segmented configuration for the display of alphanumeric data requires.
Option A. the starburst display for numbers and lower case letters only.
Option B. 16 segments to display the full range of capital letters and numerals.
Option C. at least 13 segments for all upper and lower case letters.
Correct Answer is. 16 segments to display the full range of capital letters and numerals.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. Electronic CRT beam display is used typically in.
Option A. weather radar indicators.
Option B. IRU control display units.
Option C. distance measuring indicators; digital counters.
Correct Answer is. weather radar indicators.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 33. In a colour cathode ray tube, how is the phosphor arranged in the tube.
Option A. A single phosphor layer containing red, green and blue.
Option B. A red layer on the front with two green layers behind it.
Option C. Layers of red, blue and green.
Correct Answer is. A single phosphor layer containing red, green and blue.
Explanation. Success in Electronics By Tom Duncan p285.
Question Number. 34. A colour LCD which is back lit has.

Option A. three colours.
Option B. monochrome.
Option C. an infinite amount of colours.
Correct Answer is. three colours.
Explanation. LCDs have 3 colours (RGB) which can be blended to make other colours (of limited number).
Question Number. 35. A dot matrix/LED construction is.

Option A. 4*7 or a 9*5 rolling end display.
Option B. 5*9 or a 4*7 rolling end display.
Option C. 4*7 or a 5*7 rolling end display.
Correct Answer is. 4*7 or a 9*5 rolling end display.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Pages 13 - 15 (Although, in the real world, others are available too).
Question Number. 36. What are the advantages of an LCD display over an LED?.
Option A. It is brighter.
Option B. It uses less current.
Correct Answer is. It uses less current.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 37. A seven segment display is used to.
Option A. display alpha-numeric characters.
Option B. display octal and decimal numbers only.
Option C. display octal and binary numbers only.
Correct Answer is. display octal and decimal numbers only.
Explanation. NIL. http://video-equipment.globalspec.com/LearnMore/Video_Imaging_Equipment/Meters_Readouts_Indicators/
Digital_LED_Display
Question Number. 38. How are Alphanumeric Displays produced on a CRT?.

Option A. By Stroke pulse.
Option B. Raster scanning.
Option C. by the use of X & Y EM Coils.
Correct Answer is. By Stroke pulse.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 39. The Shorter lead near the Flat portion of an LED is the.
Option A. Cathode.
Option B. Anode.
Option C. Gate.
Correct Answer is. Cathode.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 40. Submarining' is.

Option A. caused by the inability of some LCD screens to respond to fast moving images on screen.
Option B. a CRT screen defect which can usually be remedied by degaussing the screen.
Option C. the process used to form liquid crystals into a flat screen.
Correct Answer is. caused by the inability of some LCD screens to respond to fast moving images on screen.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.fpc.fujitsu.com/www/penworld/technology.shtml?glossary
05.12. Electrostatic Sensitive Devices.
Question Number. 1. ESDS bags are sealed by.

Option A. ESDS labels.
Option B. zip locks.
Option C. twine (100% cotton).
Correct Answer is. twine (100% cotton).
Explanation. Boeing manual says 100% cotton twine. Other manuals say ESDS label. However, it could be considered that ESDS
labels do not 'seal'.
Question Number. 2. What precautions are required when removing ESDS equipment?.
Option A. Wear a wrist strap connected to an approved ground point.
Option B. No special precautions are required.
Option C. Keep one hand on the airframe.
Correct Answer is. Wear a wrist strap connected to an approved ground point.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. A flight deck CRT LRU is being replaced. What does the ESDS label indicate?.
Option A. Wrist straps should be worn.
Option B. Do not touch plug pins or leave them exposed.
Option C. Remove power before connecting.
Correct Answer is. Do not touch plug pins or leave them exposed.
Explanation. See Pallet's Micro Electronics In Aircraft Systems or CAAIPs 9-4 para.7.1.3.
Question Number. 4. During an EFIS screen fit.

Option A. dont touch terminals.
Option B. no tooling is required.
Option C. use bonding strap.
Correct Answer is. dont touch terminals.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. With a relative humidity of 10% to 20%, if you walked over a carpet what electrostatic voltage value
would you expect to see?.
Option A. 35,000 volts.
Option B. 6,000 volts.
Option C. 12,000 volts.
Correct Answer is. 35,000 volts.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. Before fitting a Printed Circuit Board you should check the.
Option A. resistance between skin and strap end plug is less than 10 megohms.
Option B. resistance between skin and strap end plug is more than 1 megohms.
Option C. resistance between strap and strap end plug is less than 1 megohms.
Correct Answer is. resistance between strap and strap end plug is less than 1 megohms.
Explanation. CAAIP Leaflet 9-4 5.3.1.
Question Number. 7. The resistance of the wrist strap used as part of anti static precautions should be.
Option A. 0 - 200 ohm.
Option B. 20 megohm - 200 megohm.
Option C. 250 kilohm - 1.5 megohm.
Correct Answer is. 250 kilohm - 1.5 megohm.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-4 5.3.1.
Question Number. 8. When handling PCB's labelled ESDS, what precaution are taken?.
Option A. Do not touch its pins as copper contamination can occur.
Option B. Isolate electrical power before installing on Aircraft.
Option C. First earth with aircraft then to it.
Correct Answer is. Isolate electrical power before installing on Aircraft.
Explanation. Microelectronics in Aircraft Systems. Pallett. Page 219.
Question Number. 9. After attaching a wrist strap to your wrist (which is connected to aircraft ground), prior to removal of
ESDS equipment, the resistance measured.
Option A. between your skin and the pin ground must be >1 megohms.
Option B. between the strap and the pin ground must be <1 megohms.
Option C. between the strap and the pin ground must be >1 Megohms.
Correct Answer is. between the strap and the pin ground must be >1 Megohms.
Explanation. Answer found in Boeing SWPM. 20-41-01 3(2) (e) Hold the red lead of the (test) meter between the forefinger and the
thumb. The acceptable range is less than 10,000,000 ohms. Lower limit of range however seems to vary. This reference says >0.9 M,
but if anyone has a more definitive reference, please send it in.
Question Number. 10. Which of the following ESDS devices can withstand higher static electricity voltage?.
Option A. MOSFET.
Option B. SCR.
Option C. ECL.
Correct Answer is. SCR.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. A wrist band must be worn when working with ESDS devices.
Option A. to dissipate and prevent static build-up on the operator.
Option B. to prevent the operator from getting an electric shock.
Option C. to dissipate static charge on the device.
Correct Answer is. to dissipate and prevent static build-up on the operator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. A humid atmosphere.

Option A. reduces static charge.
Option B. eliminates static charge.
Option C. has no effect on the level of charge.
Correct Answer is. reduces static charge.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. Electrostatic discharge occurs when.

Option A. the ground lead on a wrist strap touches the skin.
Option B. materials are rubbed together or pulled apart.
Option C. materials of different potential are brought in close proximity to each other.
Correct Answer is. materials of different potential are brought in close proximity to each other.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. Before removing an assembly from an aircraft, with regards to HIRF, you must first ensure that there is
minimum current flow between.
Option A. the assembly and the aircraft.
Option B. you and the assembly.
Option C. you and the aircraft.
Correct Answer is. you and the assembly.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. When removing a PC card from an ESDS assembly ensure a low current path between.
Option A. aircraft and ground.
Correct Answer is. you and the aircraft.
Explanation. NIL.
05.13. Software Management Control.
Question Number. 1. An aircraft system that, should it fail due to a software error, would cause a significant reduction in
safety margins may also cause.
Option A. no injuries to occupants.
Option B. injuries to some occupants.
Option C. the loss of the aircraft.
Correct Answer is. injuries to some occupants.
Explanation. DO-178/ED-12 or the old AWN 45 (no removed/replaced).
Question Number. 2. An aircraft system allocated a software level of C that, should it fail due to a software error, may cause.
Option A. injuries to some occupants.
Option B. injuries to a large proportion of occupants.
Option C. no injuries to occupants.
Explanation. DO-178/ED-12 or the old AWN 45 (no removed/replaced). Download a copy from the Tutorial Support forums.
Question Number. 3. An aircraft system allocated a Criticality Category of Hazardous has a Software Level of.
Option A. A.
Option B. B.
Option C. C.
Correct Answer is. B.
Question Number. 4. An aircraft system that, should it fail due to a software error, would cause a slight increase in crew
workload, has a software level of.
Option A. D.
Option B. B.
Option C. C.
Correct Answer is. D.
Question Number. 5. An aircraft system with a software level of D, should it fail due to a software error, may cause the
aircraft safety margin to be.
Option A. slightly decreased.
Option B. slightly increased.
Option C. significantly decreased.
Correct Answer is. slightly decreased.
Question Number. 6. If due to a software error in an aircraft system that would cause injuries to some of the occupants, the
system has a software criticality category of.
Option A. major effect.
Option B. hazardous effect.
Option C. minor effect.
Correct Answer is. major effect.
Question Number. 7. An aircraft system that, should it fail due to a software error, would cause no injuries to occupants, has a
criticality category of.
Option B. minor effect.
Option C. hazardous effect.
Correct Answer is. minor effect.
Question Number. 8. Requirements for software control can be found in.

Option A. JAR AWO.
Option B. AWN 43.
Option C. JAR OPS.
Correct Answer is. AWN 43.
Explanation. Old AWN 43 (Field Loadable Software) has been deleted at issue 133. Now see RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/
ED-12.
Question Number. 9. Software can be modified by.

Option A. the manufacturer.
Option B. using the same rules as apply as to modifications to hardware.
Option C. licensed avionics engineers.
Correct Answer is. using the same rules as apply as to modifications to hardware
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. Who is responsible for producing the operational program of the FMS?.
Option A. The manufacturer.
Option B. The pilot.
Option C. The engineer.
Correct Answer is. The manufacturer.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. Software documentation procedures are laid down in.
Option A. MOE.
Option B. JAA Ops.
Option C. AWN (45).
Correct Answer is. AWN (45).
Explanation. AWN 45 has been deleted at issue 133. Now see RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12.
Question Number. 12. Control of software is carried out by.

Option A. the aircraft manufacturers.
Option B. a licensed engineer.
Option C. the National Aviation Authority.
Correct Answer is. the National Aviation Authority.
Explanation. Old AWN 45.
Question Number. 13. What is the definition of level one software?.

Option A. Non-essential.
Option B. Essential.
Option C. Critical.
Correct Answer is. Critical.
Explanation. Now see RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12.
Question Number. 14. Who can sign for a software update?.

Option A. Design organization or the aircraft manufacturer.
Option B. Engineer.
Option C. Chief pilot.
Correct Answer is. Engineer.
Explanation. Old AWN 43. Now see RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12.
Question Number. 15. What is the effect of a level 1 software failure?.
Option A. Significant reduction in safety margins.
Option B. Large reduction in safety margins.
Option C. Loss of aircraft and / or fatalities.
Correct Answer is. Loss of aircraft and / or fatalities.
Question Number. 16. Software changes come under the responsibility of.
Option A. the engineer.
Option B. the national aviation authority.
Option C. the aircraft constructor.
Correct Answer is. the aircraft constructor.
Explanation. AWN 45. Now see RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12.
Question Number. 17. Who can design new software?.

Option A. BCAR section A8 approved company.
Option B. BCAR section A1 approved company.
Option C. The CAA.
Correct Answer is. BCAR section A8 approved company.
Explanation. AWN45a para 3.1.3 (BCAR section A sub section A8). Now see RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12.
Question Number. 18. As far as a software product is concerned.

Option A. the 'Software Release' phase is the same as the 'Finished Product' phase.
Option B. the 'Validation' phase is done to the software rather than to the component.
Option C. the 'Verification' phase includes performance testing a programmed EPROM.
Correct Answer is. the 'Verification' phase includes performance testing a programmed EPROM.
Question Number. 19. AWN 43 requires that.

Option A. the aircraft operator be responsible for software assessment.
Option B. the CAA be responsible for software assessment.
Option C. the aircraft constructors be responsible for software assessment.
Correct Answer is. the aircraft constructors be responsible for software assessment.
Question Number. 20. Level 1 software failure.

Option A. is defined as essential and will reduce safety margins.
Option B. is defined as essential and may have a minor effect.
Option C. is defined as critical and can lead to loss of aircraft.
Correct Answer is. is defined as critical and can lead to loss of aircraft.
Question Number. 21. Requirements for configuration management of software can be found in.
Option A. AWN 43.
Option B. JAR Ops (M).
Option C. ATA Chapter 46, Information Systems.
Question Number. 22. Where would you find the rules regarding upgrade of software?.
Option A. JAR OPS.
Option B. The aircraft manufacturer.
Option C. AWN 43.
05.14. Electromagnetic Environment.
Question Number. 1. In order to maintain HIRF protection, bonding checks between airframe and electrical components
carrying voltages greater than 50 volts RMS or DC or main earth return should not exceed.
Option A. 0.05 ohm.
Option B. 1 ohm.
Option C. 1 megohm.
Correct Answer is. 1 ohm.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 Table 1.
Question Number. 2. Ribbon cables effected by mutual impedance and current loop leakage should be protected by.
Option A. earthing each alternative conductor to separate point.
Option B. connecting all conductors to a common earth.
Option C. shielding each individual conductor.
Correct Answer is. earthing each alternative conductor to separate point.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. To shield a fibre optic from EMI you must.

Option A. earth both transducer and couplings.
Option B. shield it with a braided shield.
Option C. use an opto-isolator.
Correct Answer is. use an opto-isolator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. Manufacturers of aircraft can ensure HIRF protection by.
Option A. advising operators of all points susceptible to deterioration due to corrosion, moisture ingress, flexing etc.
Option B. designing specific avionic areas that are shielded against HIRF.
Option C. ensuring all single wires are shielded with metal conduit.
Correct Answer is. designing specific avionic areas that are shielded against HIRF.
Explanation. Understanding HIRF By Gerald L. Fuller.
Question Number. 5. Which of the following could be a primary cause of HIRF protection failure?.
Option A. Broken or missing static wicks.
Option B. Corrosion on bonding leads.
Option C. Unserviceable radio filters.
Correct Answer is. Unserviceable radio filters.
Question Number. 6. Manufacturers of aircraft can ensure HIRF protection.

Option A. by designing specific avionic areas that are shielded against HIRF.
Option B. by ensuring all single wires are shielded with metal conduit.
Option C. by advising the operator of parts of the aircraft susceptible to degradation due to corrosion, moisture ingress, flexing etc.
Correct Answer is. by designing specific avionic areas that are shielded against HIRF.
Question Number. 7. HIRF protection of LRUs is provided by.

Option A. internally shielded cables.
Option B. built in filters and overvoltage circuits.
Option C. built in filters only.
Correct Answer is. built in filters and overvoltage circuits.
Question Number. 8. To stop earth loops forming, you would.
Option A. earth both ends of the cable screen.
Option B. leave both ends of the cable screen open circuit.
Option C. earth only one end of the cable screen.
Correct Answer is. earth only one end of the cable screen.
Explanation. NIL. http://www1.electusdistribution.com.au/images_uploaded/humloop.pdf
Question Number. 9. An aircraft may have been HIRF affected.

Option A. A bonding load check is required.
Option B. A static wick check is required.
Option C. Test all radio frequencies for interference.
Correct Answer is. A static wick check is required.
Question Number. 10. Testing of HIRF on aircraft systems is done.

Option A. by periodically listening for interference on all systems.
Option B. at and during production and testing (initial certification).
Option C. only after a report of radio interference.
Correct Answer is. at and during production and testing (initial certification).
Question Number. 11. When carrying out a bonding check on a surface protected by anodic film.
Option A. the film is conductive so no preparations are required.
Option B. the anodic film should be removed locally to ensure a good contact.
Option C. add a bonding factor to the result of the test to account for the resistance of the anodic film.
Correct Answer is. the anodic film should be removed locally to ensure a good contact.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. When clamping cable looms containing co-axial cables.
Option A. avoid distortion to the co-axial cable to maintain the dielectric constant.
Option B. the clamps must be no more than 1 metre apart.
Option C. distortion of the outer sheath is allowed providing the inner cable is not affected.
Correct Answer is. avoid distortion to the co-axial cable to maintain the dielectric constant.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. When incorporating an aerial cable it must be.

Option A. in the centre of the other wires.
Option B. outside the other wires for easy access.
Option C. positioned separately from the loom.
Correct Answer is. positioned separately from the loom.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. When carrying out airframe bonding checks as part of a program of HIRF prevention the airframe
bonding resistance should be less than.
Option A. 100 milliohms.
Option B. 1 ohm.
Option C. 50 milliohms.
Correct Answer is. 50 milliohms.
Explanation. CAAIP Leaflet 9-1.
Question Number. 15. Electromagnetic compatibility is achieved by.

Option A. shielding, screening, earthing, bonding and interference filters.
Option B. coating in a conductive paint.
Option C. enclosing the system with same frequency and strength of which screening is done.
Correct Answer is. shielding, screening, earthing, bonding and interference filters.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. To reduce HIRF on radio equipment.

Option A. ensure all static wicks are in place.
Option B. periodically check bonding leads for condition.
Option C. transmit on all radio frequencies to determine which frequencies are causing the interference.
Correct Answer is. ensure all static wicks are in place.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. For braided cables, the amount of braiding.

Option A. must conform to the requirement for the shielding to cover at least 50% of the surface of the cable.
Option B. keeps radiated power inside the emitting assembly or away from the susceptible circuit.
Option C. is a trade-off design feature.
Correct Answer is. keeps radiated power inside the emitting assembly or away from the susceptible circuit.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 18. HIRF is acronym for.

Option A. Heavily Ionised Radio Frequencies.
Option B. High Intensity Radiated Field.
Option C. High Intensity Radio Frequencies.
Correct Answer is. High Intensity Radiated Field.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. HF aerials are protected against lightning strike by.
Option A. current mode coupler.
Option B. bus terminal.
Option C. spark gap.
Correct Answer is. spark gap.
Explanation. NIL.
05.15. Typical Electronic/Digital Aircraft Systems .
Question Number. 1. An FMS system, besides controlling navigation, thrust and auto-nav, also provides.
Option A. GPWS warnings.
Option B. dedicated status and warnings.
Option C. take-off and landing warnings.
Correct Answer is. dedicated status and warnings.
Explanation. The FMS is not used for Take Off or Landing The GPWS warnings come from the GPWS Computer.
Question Number. 2. The minimum standards for aircraft instrumentation is set by.
Option A. CAA.
Option B. ICAO.
Option C. JAA.
Correct Answer is. JAA.
Explanation. NIL.

Option A. raster scan.
Option C. synthetic TV signals.
Explanation. Pallett - Aircraft Instruments Page 302 Fig. 12.5.
Question Number. 4. HSI heading is valid if the heading flag is.
Option A. in view.
Option B. green.
Option C. out of view.
Correct Answer is. out of view.
Explanation. Warning flags 'in view' indicate failure. Normally the only coloured flag used is RED, indicating failure.
Question Number. 5. MFD is the abbreviation for.

Option A. Multi function display.
Option B. Mandatory flight display.
Option C. Master flight display.
Correct Answer is. Multi function display.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. A TCAS uses the radar mile definition in its calculations, which is.
Option A. 12.36 microsecond.
Option B. 6.18 microsecond.
Option C. 24.72 microsecond.
Correct Answer is. 12.36 microsecond.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.atis.org/tg2k/_radar_mile.html
Question Number. 7. GPS navigation uses a constellation of satellites that is made up of.
Option A. 21 active and 3 spare.
Option B. 28 active and 7 spare.
Option C. 23 active and 5 spare.
Correct Answer is. 21 active and 3 spare.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. An IRS is only certifed for alingment up to.
Option A. +88.45 and -88.45 degrees.
Option B. +78.25 and -78.25 degrees.
Option C. +60 and -60 degrees.
Correct Answer is. +78.25 and -78.25 degrees.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 9. The command bars on an ADI relate to.

Option A. roll indications.
Option B. path being followed.
Option C. path required.
Correct Answer is. path required.
Question Number. 10. ECAM has at its heart.

Option A. a multi function symbol generator.
Option B. a central maintenance computer.
Option C. ACARS.
Correct Answer is. a multi function symbol generator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. The recording medium in an FDR is.

Option A. copper foil coated with ferrite.
Option B. a high density floppy disc.
Option C. magnetic tape coated with ferrite.
Correct Answer is. magnetic tape coated with ferrite.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. An FMS databank memory is updated.
Option A. every 365 days.
Option B. every 28 days.
Option C. every 32 days.
Correct Answer is. every 28 days.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. What does the CADC feed?.

Option A. cabin pressure controller sensor / machmeter / altimeter.
Option B. Altimeter / FMS / secondary radar.
Option C. standby altimeter / machmeter.
Correct Answer is. cabin pressure controller sensor / machmeter / altimeter.
Question Number. 14. In a Flight Management System (FMS), data is input manually to the computing system through the.
Option A. Data Acquisition Unit.
Option B. Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring control panel.
Option C. Control and Display Unit.
Correct Answer is. Control and Display Unit.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. In a Global Positioning System (GPS), the number of satellites required to achieve a 3 dimensional fix is.
Option A. 2.
Option B. 3.
Option C. 4.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. In a Global Positioning System (GPS), each satellite transmission identifies the satellite using a.
Option A. different channel frequency.
Option B. pseudo random code.
Option C. whisper shout method.
Correct Answer is. pseudo random code.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. In a Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites below the Mask Angle are ignored as these may cause.
Option A. range errors.
Option B. clock errors.
Option C. ephemeris errors.
Correct Answer is. range errors.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 18. Information required by a Flight Management System (FMS) to function correctly is indicated on the
display by.
Option A. dashes.
Option B. a flashing cursor.
Option C. boxes.
Correct Answer is. boxes.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. A flight data recorder can obtain information from aircraft instruments.
Option A. provided there is adequate damping.
Option B. provided there is adequate isolation.
Option C. by direct connection to the instruments.
Correct Answer is. provided there is adequate isolation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 20. The inputs and outputs of a CADC are.

Option A. pitot and static in; altitude, attitude, CAS and VS out.
Option B. pitot and static in; altitude, CAS, mach and VS out.
Option C. pitot in; static, altitude, mach, CAS and VS out.
Correct Answer is. pitot and static in; altitude, CAS, mach and VS out.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. EICAS provides the following:.

Option A. Engine parameters and engine warnings only.
Option B. Engine parameters and system warnings only.
Option C. Engine parameters only.
Correct Answer is. Engine parameters and system warnings only.
Question Number. 22. A central maintenance computer provides.

Option A. ground and flight monitoring and testing on an on-board computer.
Option B. ground and BITE testing using a portable control panel.
Option C. display of system warnings and cautions.
Correct Answer is. ground and flight monitoring and testing on an on-board computer.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 23. The rising runway is positioned from information derived from.
Option A. barometric height.
Option B. radio altimeter.
Option C. vertical speed.
Correct Answer is. radio altimeter.
Question Number. 24. Where are the Digital Flight Data Recorder outputs supplied to?.
Option A. The recording unit.
Option B. There are no outputs.
Option C. Flight instruments.
Correct Answer is. There are no outputs.
Explanation. Information recorded in the DFDR is only accessable in the shop.
Question Number. 25. FMS failure and warnings are.

Option A. EFIS warnings only.
Option B. displayed on EICAS.
Option C. engine warnings only.
Correct Answer is. displayed on EICAS.
Explanation. FMS warnings are displayed on EICAS and EFIS, but the answers given are 'EICAS' or 'EFIS only' so for the purposes
of this question the correct answer is EICAS.
Question Number. 26. Flight director command bars are moved to the correct position by.
Option A. calibration.
Option B. position feedback.
Option C. amplifier gain.
Correct Answer is. position feedback.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 27. What information is required before completion of the alignment of an Inertial Navigation System?.
Option A. Aircraft present position.
Option B. Heading and attitude.
Option C. Aircraft present position and heading.
Correct Answer is. Aircraft present position.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 28. IRS accelerometers are mounted.

Option A. 90 to each other.
Option B. 45 to each other.
Option C. 60 to each other.
Correct Answer is. 90 to each other.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 29. An FMS navigation database is updated.

Option A. once a month.
Option C. at the operators request.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 30. A single failure of a fly-by-wire system.

Option A. will reduce operational heights and speeds.
Option B. will limit the flight profile.
Option C. has no effect on aircraft operation.
Correct Answer is. has no effect on aircraft operation.
Explanation. Redundant FBW systems will continue to fly the aircraft.
Question Number. 31. Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in turbulent conditions will result in.
Option A. spoilers moving symmetrically upwards.
Option B. ailerons moving symmetrically upwards.
Option C. ailerons and spoilers moving symmetrically upwards.
Correct Answer is. ailerons and spoilers moving symmetrically upwards.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. Fly-by-wire roll control is achieved by.

Option A. spoilers and ailerons.
Option B. ailerons.
Option C. spoilers.
Correct Answer is. spoilers and ailerons.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control, Pallett and Coyle Page 296.
Question Number. 33. The movement of fly-by-wire control surfaces are.

Option A. hydraulically controlled and electrically actuated.
Option B. both electrically controlled and electrically actuated.
Option C. electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated.
Correct Answer is. electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 34. An FMS system, besides controlling navigation, thrust and auto-nav, also provides.
Option A. dedicated status warnings.
Option B. take-off and landing warnings.
Option C. GPWS warnings.
Correct Answer is. dedicated status warnings.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 35. If an EFIS has 3 symbol generators. What is the purpose of the 3rd symbol generator?.
Option A. Comparison with No.1 symbol generator.
Option B. Parity function.
Option C. Standby.
Correct Answer is. Standby.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 36. FMS operational program is updated every.

Option A. 90 days.
Option B. 28 days.
Option C. 7 days.
Correct Answer is. 28 days.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 37. An FDR fitted to a helicopter begins recording.

Option A. when power is applied to the aircraft.
Option B. on take-off.
Option C. on engine start-up.
Correct Answer is. on engine start-up.
Explanation. See ANO Art 53 para.1.
Question Number. 38. The FMS databases consist of.

Option A. one navigation and one performance database.
Option B. one performance and two navigation databases.
Option C. two performance and one navigation database.
Correct Answer is. one performance and two navigation databases.
Explanation. Normally we consider the FMS as having 2 databases (1 navigational and 1 performance). (Jeppesen Avionics
Fundamentals Page 385). However, the Navigational database is split in two. 1 is for Jeppesen data, uploaded on the ground, the other
is for pilot input data (additional waypoints etc.). See http://www.b737.org.uk/fmc.htm for more.
Question Number. 39. The FMS can update the IRS position outputs by using information from either.
Option A. VOR and DME only.
Option B. GPS, DME, LOC and VOR.
Option C. DME and GPS only.
Correct Answer is. GPS, DME, LOC and VOR.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 40. The accepted error from INS/IRS is.

Option A. 3 miles / hour + 3 miles.
Option B. 2 miles per hour + 3 miles.
Option C. 1 mile/hour+3 miles.
Correct Answer is. 3 miles / hour + 3 miles.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 41. Before an IRS can complete the alignment sequence.
Option A. the current present position must be entered.
Option B. either the last or current position must be entered.
Option C. the shutdown present position must be entered.
Correct Answer is. the current present position must be entered.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 42. What warnings can an FMS provide?.

Option A. Discrete warnings.
Option B. Spurious faults.
Option C. Ground faults only.
Correct Answer is. Discrete warnings.
Explanation. This means it can warn of inoperative equipment, but not when equipment is providing incorrect data.
Question Number. 43. Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System.

Option A. performs in-flight and ground tests of aircraft systems by carrying out a BITE interrogation.
Option B. performs in-flight BITE interrogation only.
Option C. give red warnings and amber cautions to display system status.
Correct Answer is. give red warnings and amber cautions to display system status.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 44. The control of the speed or rate that the flight director command bars move can be controlled by.
Option A. position feedback.
Option B. rate or velocity feedback.
Correct Answer is. rate or velocity feedback.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 45. The Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System uses the maintenance mode of operation.
Option A. on the ground only.
Option B. in the air only.
Option C. either in the air or on the ground.
Correct Answer is. on the ground only.
Question Number. 46. The third EFIS Symbol Generator is operated.

Option A. in an emergency.
Option B. with EICAS.
Option C. as a standby to the No1 and No2 system.
Correct Answer is. as a standby to the No1 and No2 system.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 47. EFIS displays of the right hand and left hand displays are compared by comparators in the.
Option A. FMS.
Option B. EICAS.
Option C. Symbol Generators.
Correct Answer is. Symbol Generators.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 48. What is the approximate earth rate?.

Option A. 10/hour.
Option B. 5/hour.
Option C. 15/hour.
Correct Answer is. 15/hour.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems. Pallett Page 102.
Question Number. 49. An IRS has.

Option A. two or three accelerometers depending on the system.
Option B. three accelerometers.
Option C. two accelerometers.
Correct Answer is. three accelerometers.
Explanation. Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 137.
Question Number. 50. IRS Laser Ring Gyros provide.
Option A. rate of movement about an axis.
Option B. displacement about an axis.
Option C. both rate and displacement about an axis.
Correct Answer is. rate of movement about an axis.
Question Number. 51. What are the outputs of a Digital ADC?.

Option A. TAS, MACH, Altitude and TAT.
Option B. TAS, MACH, Altitude, TAT and SAT.
Option C. TAS, MACH and Altitude.
Correct Answer is. TAS, MACH, Altitude, TAT and SAT.
Explanation. Both Static and Total Air Temperatures are outputs of a digital ADC.
Question Number. 52. Fly By Wire systems in the fully active mode, the actuators will.
Option A. both be active.
Option B. both be in damping mode, awaiting control inputs.
Option C. one in active mode, one in damping mode.
Correct Answer is. both be active.
Explanation. Ref to B777 and A330 manuals, the term active mode will always be associated with fully operational of redundancy of
all actuators or servo controls. This means, each primary flight control surfaces' actuators (either 2 or 3 actuators configuration
designed to provide fully-powered controls that suit the size and purpose of surfaces) are actually active on all phases. If any failure
occurs, the failed actuator will then revert to 'damping' mode, becoming slave to remaining active actuators.
Question Number. 53. On a Fly By Wire system, what controls the stab trim?.
Option A. ELAC and SEC.
Option B. SEC.
Option C. ELAC.
Correct Answer is. ELAC and SEC.
Explanation. ELAC = Elevator Aileron Computer, SEC = Spoilers Elevator Computer and FAC = Flight Augmentation Computers
(rudder).
Question Number. 54. The minimum requirement for a cockpit voice recorder to begin operating is.
Option A. on engine start-up.
Option B. on commencing the takeoff roll.
Option C. once established in the en-route climb.
Explanation. JAR Ops states that the CVR must begin when the aircraft is capable of moving under its own power.
Question Number. 55. Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting Systems is used to.
Option A. download aircraft status reports.
Option B. make telephone calls.
Option C. allow the pilot of an aircraft to talk to base.
Correct Answer is. download aircraft status reports.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 56. B-RNAV system must be capable of.

Option A. holding six waypoints.
Option B. displaying distance and bearing to waypoint.
Option C. reversing the waypoints for.
Correct Answer is. displaying distance and bearing to waypoint.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 57. The basic principle of radar is based upon.

Option A. the amount of power in the signal returned.
Option B. the time delay between outward and returning pulse.
Option C. ultrasonic wave propagation.
Correct Answer is. the time delay between outward and returning pulse.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 58. What systems does the ADC feed?.

Option A. Altimeter / FMS / secondary radar.
Option B. Cabin pressure controller sensor / machmeter / Altimeter.
Option C. Standby altimeter/machmeter.
Correct Answer is. Cabin pressure controller sensor / machmeter / Altimeter.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 59. Which systems does a modern ADC give information to?.
Option A. EFIS.
Option B. EICAS.
Option C. Flight control computer, Air Data Instrument, Engine systems.
Correct Answer is. Flight control computer, Air Data Instrument, Engine systems.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 60. Where do the outputs from a DADC go?.

Option A. EHSI.
Option B. EADI.
Option C. IRMP: Inertial Reference Mode Panel.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems by EHJ Pallett page 179.
Question Number. 61. How many satellite signals are required to achieve precise 3D positioning?.
Option A. 4.
Option B. 5.
Option C. 6.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 62. The minimum requirement for an aeroplane CVR is.
Option A. from power on.
Option B. from engine start.
Option C. from beginning of take off roll.
Correct Answer is. from engine start.
Explanation. JAR OPS Para 1.700 (c) OR answer c by CAP 393 Section I Para 53.
Question Number. 63. An Inertial Navigation System (INS/IRS) computes distance from acceleration by.
Option A. two successive integrations.
Option B. a simple integration.
Option C. a differentiation followed by an integration.
Correct Answer is. two successive integrations.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 64. Before the aircraft is moved from the loading pier the pilot must.
Option A. insert the longitude and latitude of the first waypoint into the INS.
Option B. set the altitude to be fed into the INS.
Option C. insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the IRS.
Correct Answer is. insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the IRS.
Explanation. NIL.
Option A. accelerometers and gyros fixed to a the airframe.
Option B. accelerometers fixed to the airframe and gyros on a stable platform.
Option C. accelerometers on a stable platform and gyros fixed to the airframe.
Correct Answer is. accelerometers and gyros fixed to a the airframe.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 66. An IRS system requires data for wind computation from.
Option A. Doppler System.
Option B. satellites.
Option C. central Air Data Computer.
Correct Answer is. central Air Data Computer.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 67. The FMS carries out a Rho/Theta navigation function, the purpose of this is to.
Option A. update the IRS system with an accurate position fix of latitude and longitude.
Option B. to update the VOR and DME systems with an accurate position fix.
Option C. to update the EMS with the new lateral flight profile for the flight plan.
Correct Answer is. update the IRS system with an accurate position fix of latitude and longitude.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 68. The FMS is updated.

Option A. automatically by update data from the ACARS.
Option B. by an aircraft engineer updating the system either by a magnetic tape or floppy disc.
Option C. by the aircrew by reference to the Tech Log.
Correct Answer is. by an aircraft engineer updating the system either by a magnetic tape or floppy disc.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 69. Pitch Control of a fly by wire system is achieved by.
Option A. stabilizer only.
Option B. elevators only.
Option C. stabilizer and elevator.
Correct Answer is. stabilizer and elevator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 70. In a fly by wire system, if the pilot control input is derived from a side stick controller:.
Option A. there is no control surface feedback to the side stick.
Option B. control surface feedback is fed to the side stick.
Option C. there will be only control surface feedback to the side stick after a computer failure.
Correct Answer is. there is no control surface feedback to the side stick.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 71. A basic IRS platform has.

Option A. 3 accelerometers and 2 laser gyros.
Option B. 2 Accelerometers and 3 laser gyros.
Option C. 3 accelerometers and 3 laser gyros.
Correct Answer is. 3 accelerometers and 3 laser gyros.
Question Number. 72. What must be entered into the IRS before the aircraft can be moved?.
Option A. Flight plan.
Option B. Present position.
Option C. Cruise height.
Correct Answer is. Present position.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 73. The FMS Operational Database is.
Option A. updated once a month.
Option B. is fed with information on aircraft weight, cruise altitude and cost index before take off.
Option C. needs no update information.
Correct Answer is. is fed with information on aircraft weight, cruise altitude and cost index before take off.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 74. Control surface feedback is fed back to.

Option A. the Flight Control Computer only.
Option B. the side stick controller only.
Option C. the Flight Control Computer and side stick controller.
Correct Answer is. the Flight Control Computer only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 75. The accelerometer output in an INS/IRS is.

Option A. integrated once to give distance.
Option B. integrated twice to give velocity.
Option C. integrated twice to give distance.
Correct Answer is. integrated twice to give distance.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 76. An INS/IRS Battery Unit provides.

Option A. standby power only whilst in flight.
Option B. standby power when airborne and on the ground.
Option C. standby power only on the ground.
Correct Answer is. standby power when airborne and on the ground.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems. Pallett Page 247 & 248.
Question Number. 77. If a fly by wire actuator loses hydraulic power the control surface will.
Option A. automatically move back to the neutral position.
Option B. remain rigid in the failure position.
Option C. remain in the failure position but may move due to aerodynamic pressure.
Correct Answer is. remain in the failure position but may move due to aerodynamic pressure.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 78. IRS alignment.

Option A. takes up to 10 minutes and the present position can be entered at any time during alignment.
Option B. takes up to 10 minutes and present position must be entered before alignment.
Option C. takes up to 10 minutes and the previous flight shut down present position is used for the alignment.
Correct Answer is. takes up to 10 minutes and the present position can be entered at any time during alignment.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 79. A fault light appears on the IRS Mode Selector Unit during the alignment sequence. The correct action
is.
Option A. immediately switch off and select the standby system.
Option B. select HDG/STS on the Inertial System Display Unit (ISDU), observe the action code in the right alpha/numeric
display.
Option C. refer to the warning display on the EICAS/ECAM system.
Correct Answer is. select HDG/STS on the Inertial System Display Unit (ISDU), observe the action code in the right alpha/numeric
display.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 80. A FMS has a total of how many Databases.

Option A. 2.
Option B. 4.
Option C. 1.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 81. Fly by wire High Speed protection is.

Option A. to prevent tuck under.
Option B. to increase the pitch angle as speed increases.
Option C. to prevent high speed stall.
Correct Answer is. to prevent tuck under.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 82. An IRS Laser gyro provides.

Option A. detection of the rate of movement about an aircraft axis.
Option B. detection of the earths gravitational force to establish true north.
Option C. detection of the earths rotation to establish true north.
Correct Answer is. detection of the rate of movement about an aircraft axis.
Question Number. 83. The left and right cockpit displays.

Option A. are supplied from separate Symbol Generators at all times.
Option B. are supplied from the same Symbol Generator.
Option C. will only be supplied from the same symbol generator when all other symbol generators have failed.
Correct Answer is. will only be supplied from the same symbol generator when all other symbol generators have failed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 84. A single failure of a fly by wire control surface computer will.
Option A. cause the system to revert to an alternate law of operation.
Option B. not have any operational effect on the system.
Option C. cause the system to revert to a direct law of operation.
Correct Answer is. not have any operational effect on the system.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 85. What are the outputs from digital clocks used for?.
Option A. Flight data acquisition unit, Flight management computer and Voice recorder.
Option B. VOR, ILS and DME.
Option C. Weather radar, TCAS and ACARS.
Correct Answer is. Flight data acquisition unit, Flight management computer and Voice recorder.
Explanation. Only these require real time reference.
Question Number. 86. A full operation system BITE check will carry out a internal system test that ensures the system meets
design requirements and is operational.
Option A. but will not move the controls.
Option B. as well as checking full system and will move the controls to their stops.
Option C. as well as checking full system but will not move the controls to their stops.
Correct Answer is. as well as checking full system but will not move the controls to their stops.
Explanation. Digital Avionic Systems - Cary Spitzer. Page 109, Arinc report 604 guidance for design and use of built in test
equipment states... 'BITE should exercise the hardware sufficiently to determine if it meets the performance requirements but should
not drive it against mechanical stops.'.
Question Number. 87. If on a flight deck EFIS system all the displays were missing one bit of information. This is most likely
to be.
Option A. the input sensor bus and display controller.
Option B. the symbol generator and display.
Option C. the display controller and symbol generator.
Correct Answer is. the display controller and symbol generator.
Explanation. By elimination, a fault in the display would be more general, and a fault with the sensor would still display, but an
erroneous value.
Question Number. 88. A centralised monitoring computer system is used.

Option A. to test system during flight and for BITE test of systems on the ground using a carry on control unit.
Option B. to test systems in flight and on the ground using a centralised on board control unit.
Option C. testing systems on the ground only.
Correct Answer is. to test systems in flight and on the ground using a centralised on board control unit.
Question Number. 89. In an EFIS display, the lines, scales, indicator and synoptic are generated by.
Option B. synoptic scan.
Option C. stroke pulse.
Correct Answer is. stroke pulse.
Explanation. 757 MM 34-22-00 page 40 (p) and 737 MM 34-22-00 page 47, 4(b).
Question Number. 90. The method of producing (white) lines for aircraft symbols, V/S scale etc. on an EADI is by.
Option B. trapezoidal input.
Explanation. MM 737-300/400/500, 34-22-00 page 47 4b or MM 757 34-22-00 page 40 (p). 'The special symbols, characters, letters,
vectors and arcs are displayed using the stroke method. The EADI sky/ground ball or EHSI weather radar are displayed using the
raster method.
Question Number. 91. In modern aircraft, the output from the clock is used.
Option A. to synchronise the signals on the control bus.
Option B. to provide a clock pulse for CRT.
Option C. to give GMT details to the flight recorder and other systems.
Correct Answer is. to give GMT details to the flight recorder and other systems.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 92. As a minimum requirement, when must a cockpit voice recorder start recording?.
Option A. From the start of the aircraft take off run.
Option B. After take off when airborne.
Option C. On first engine start.
Correct Answer is. On first engine start.
Explanation. CAP 393 Section I Para 53, OR answer a by JAR OPS Para 1.700 .
Question Number. 93. The operational database of the FMS may have to be modified in flight.
Option A. It cannot be modified in flight.
Option B. by the pilot.
Option C. automatically by the DADC.
Correct Answer is. It cannot be modified in flight.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 94. CADC outputs are.

Option A. altitude, vertical speed, IAS, mach no.
Option B. altitude, vertical speed, TAS, CAS, mach no, SAT, TAT.
Option C. altitude ,vertical speed, angle of attack, TAT, SAT.
Correct Answer is. altitude, vertical speed, TAS, CAS, mach no, SAT, TAT.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 162.
Question Number. 95. If one EICAS CRT fails.
Option A. the FMS CDU will display the failed CRT data.
Option B. the remaining CRT will display primary EICAS data.
Option C. the standby CRT will automatically take over.
Correct Answer is. the remaining CRT will display primary EICAS data.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 96. Variations in light on EFIS displays are compensated for by.
Option A. An external light dependant resistor mounted on the flight deck compensating for all displays in a parallel-parallel
format.
Option B. manual adjustment by flight crew on EFIS controller.
Option C. integrated light dependant resistors in the display compensating for each display individual.
Correct Answer is. An external light dependant resistor mounted on the flight deck compensating for all displays in a parallel-
parallel format.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems by EHJ Pallett pages 296 & 299.
Question Number. 97. A method used in modern aircraft for reporting in flight faults to an engineering and monitoring ground
station is.
Option A. TCAS II.
Option B. ACARS.
Option C. TAWS.
Correct Answer is. ACARS.
Question Number. 98. The self test function on an EFIS system can be tested.
Option C. in the air and on the ground.
Correct Answer is. in the air and on the ground.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 99. Each of the symbol generator outputs in an EFIS system can be.
Option A. displayed on each individual display.
Option B. only no. 2 can be displayed on the no.1.
Option C. can not be interchanged.
Correct Answer is. displayed on each individual display.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 100. BITE tests are inhibited for ground use during.
Option A. forward motion.
Option B. gear retraction.
Option C. take-off.
Correct Answer is. take-off.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 101. Modern aircraft with electronic displays would display information on airframe and engine on which
system?.
Option A. Electronic centralised aircraft monitoring system (ECAM).
Option B. Flight management system.
Option C. EADI.
Correct Answer is. Electronic centralised aircraft monitoring system (ECAM).
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 102. The Flight data recorder starts recording.
Option A. after take off.
Option B. on aircraft roll out from stand.
Option C. after the first engine has started.
Correct Answer is. after the first engine has started.
Explanation. JAR OPS Subpart K 1.715 e.
Question Number. 103. Data to flight data recorder can be taken from a communal data bus if.
Option A. the power is within flight data recorder limits.
Option B. it goes directly to it.
Option C. source isolation has been considered.
Correct Answer is. source isolation has been considered.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 104. A central fault display system should be available through.
Option A. a bite test.
Option B. a central bite test box with clear LED indications.
Option C. a easily accessible multifunction control display unit.
Correct Answer is. a easily accessible multifunction control display unit.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 105. A flight data recorder should be capable of recording.

Option A. the last 25 hours.
Option B. the last 25 hours of aircraft flight.
Option C. the last 25 hours with engines running.
Correct Answer is. the last 25 hours with engines running.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 106. BITE for ground use only is switched off.
Option A. on take-off.
Option B. when brakes are released.
Option C. when undercarriage up.
Correct Answer is. on take-off.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 107. During normal functioning of an ECAM system the engine data shown on the Engine/Warning display
comes from the.
Option A. EFIS channel of DMC3.
Option B. ECAM channel of DMC1.
Option C. ECAM channel of DMC3.
Correct Answer is. ECAM channel of DMC3.
Explanation. A330-200 31-50-00 pg4.
Question Number. 108. Using I.N.S. an aircraft flies.

Option A. rhumb line.
Option B. course directed by ground station.
Option C. great circle route.
Correct Answer is. great circle route.

Option A. Ground faults only.
Option B. Discrete warnings.
Option C. Spurious faults.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 110. Aircraft heading (HDG) is.

Option A. the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
Option B. the angle between True North and the actual track.
Option C. the angle between True North and the desired track.
Correct Answer is. the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
Question Number. 111. For an IRS System to pass the Alignment System Performance Test the the latitude entered must be
within given limits of the.
Option A. latitude computed by IRU.
Option B. entered present latitude and longitude must agree with the latitude and longitude at last power down.
Option C. the No 1 and No 2 must both have the same latitude and longitude present position entered.
Correct Answer is. the latitude entered must be within given limits of the latitude computed by IRU.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett pages 279-280.
Question Number. 112. Control Display Unit (CDU ) selection of TKE (Track Angle Error), displays.
Option A. difference in degrees that the aircraft is to the right or left of the desired track.
Option B. distance perpendicular from the selected track.
Option C. difference in degrees from True North in a clockwise direction from the desired track.
Correct Answer is. difference in degrees that the aircraft is to the right or left of the desired track.
Question Number. 113. In the EICAS system, when is the maintenance mode available?.
Option A. Lower screen only - only available on the ground.
Option B. In flight.
Option C. On the upper and lower screens - only available on the ground.
Correct Answer is. Lower screen only - only available on the ground.
Explanation. B747 Maintenance Manual. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems. Pallett Page 380.
Question Number. 114. On a modern aircraft when are BITE checks carried out?.
Option A. Continuously when system is in use.
Option B. After engine shut down.
Option C. Only when BITE selected.
Correct Answer is. Continuously when system is in use.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, 5th edition, Eismin, Pages 152 and 268.
Question Number. 115. In an IN system, the purpose of the stable platform is to.
Option A. provide attitude reference.
Option B. prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers.
Option C. stop the gyros from toppling.
Correct Answer is. prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers.
Question Number. 116. An IN system requires data from the.

Option A. Doppler system.
Option B. airdata computer.
Option C. satellites.
Correct Answer is. airdata computer.
Question Number. 117. TK (cross track) is the.

Option A. actual track across the earths surface.
Option B. angle in degrees that the aircraft track is left or right of desired track.
Option C. perpendicular distance from the desired track.
Correct Answer is. perpendicular distance from the desired track.
Question Number. 118. The output of an INS can be fed to the.

Option A. attitude indicators.
Option B. altimeters.
Option C. vertical speed indicators.
Correct Answer is. attitude indicators.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 247 fig 10.1. Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 137
& 138.
Question Number. 119. The three accelerometers on a strapdown system are mounted.
Option B. parallel to each other.
Option C. 120 apart.
Question Number. 120. Gyro-compassing is the term used for.

Option A. self-alignment in the vertical.
Option B. use of the gyro-magnetic compass system to align the platform.
Option C. self-alignment in azimuth.
Correct Answer is. self-alignment in azimuth.
Question Number. 121. Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring System operates to.
Option A. give red warnings and amber cautions to display system status.
Option B. perform in-flight BITE only.
Option C. perform in-flight and ground tests of aircraft systems by carrying out a BITE.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 122. The Centralized Aircraft Monitoring System uses the maintenance mode of operation.
Option C. either ground or air.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 123. If part of a display is lost on a CRT, this could be due to.
Option A. an inoperative symbol generator or control panel.
Option B. an inoperative symbol generator or input sensor.
Option C. loss of power to the CRT.
Correct Answer is. an inoperative symbol generator or input sensor.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 124. A cyclic test (watch dog) should be performed for ECAM.
Option A. via MCDU.
Option B. during power up.
Option C. during flight.
Correct Answer is. during flight.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin, 5th Edition. Pg 154.
Question Number. 125. How does the symbol generator detect a program error?.
Option A. By looking at the even parity without error.
Option B. By looking at the odd parity without error.
Option C. By check sum bites for error detect.
Correct Answer is. By looking at the odd parity without error.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 126. Relationship of CMCs to BITE systems is best described as.
Option A. CMCs replaced but is not related to the older BITE system.
Option B. CMCs monitors the individual BITE systems and presents data.
Option C. CMCs modifies and upgrades BITE systems.
Correct Answer is. CMCs monitors the individual BITE systems and presents data.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 127. An IRU interface test is carried out.

Option A. in the air.
Option B. only on the ground.
Option C. on the ground or in the air.
Correct Answer is. only on the ground.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 128. FMS system gives warning indications for.

Option A. take off and landings only.
Option B. any flight phase.
Option C. cruise.
Correct Answer is. cruise.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 129. FMS CDU warnings are.
Option A. fail and MSG.
Option B. OFST and Fail.
Option C. MSG, fail and OFST.
Correct Answer is. MSG, fail and OFST.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 130. CMC (central maintenance computer) works to.

Option A. perform in-flight bite and ground tests of aircraft systems, i.e. BITE.
Option B. give red warnings and amber cautions to display in accordance with system status.
Option C. perform in-flight bite only.
Correct Answer is. perform in-flight bite and ground tests of aircraft systems, i.e. BITE.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 131. BITE test carried out on input sensors and actuators performs.
Option A. validation of the information of the LRU.
Option B. a performance test of the system.
Option C. a test of the LRU.
Correct Answer is. a performance test of the system.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 132. A BITE check for automatic performance and fault monitoring is carried out when?.
Option A. Power-up self test.
Option B. For in-flight monitoring.
Option C. To check the performance of the LRU.
Correct Answer is. Power-up self test.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 133. In which of the following does TCAS II advise the pilot to make a maneouvre?.
Option A. RA.
Option B. TA.
Option C. either RA or TA.
Correct Answer is. RA.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 134. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display?.
Option A. White circles, red diamonds and amber squares.
Option B. White diamonds, red squares and amber circles.
Option C. White squares, red diamonds and amber circles.
Correct Answer is. White diamonds, red squares and amber circles.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 135. If a display shows a red cross only, it is due to.
Option A. Symbol Generator failure.
Option B. CRT failure.
Option C. Altimeter failure.
Correct Answer is. Symbol Generator failure.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 136. ACARS is an acronym for.

Option A. ARINC Communicating Addressing and Reporting System.
Option B. Airborne Communicating Addressing and Reporting System.
Option C. Aircraft Communicating Addressing and Reporting System.
Correct Answer is. Aircraft Communicating Addressing and Reporting System.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.acarsonline.co.uk/alabout.htm
Question Number. 137. When does the flight data recorder start recording ?.
Option A. Undercarriage up.
Option B. Parking brake released.
Option C. When the first engine starts.
Correct Answer is. When the first engine starts.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 138. Brake temperature displayed on a flight deck CRT has.
Option A. a master warning light.
Option B. same colour throughout.
Option C. different colour for different temperatures.
Correct Answer is. different colour for different temperatures.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 139. When performing test on Electronic Displays using the Built In Test system.
Option A. CRT continues to display current data while the SGs and Display are internally tested.
Option B. SG injects a test signal into the display system and the word TEST appears on the screen.
Option C. displays cannot be tested it is only SG which are tested by BITE.
Correct Answer is. SG injects a test signal into the display system and the word TEST appears on the screen.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 140. Heading reference required to establish initial heading during alignment sequence comes from.
Option A. FMS which gathers data from other Radio devices.
Option B. Magnetic compass installed on the airplane.
Option C. Earths Rotation.
Correct Answer is. Earths Rotation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 141. What is primary mode of navigation on a modern aeroplane?.

Option A. Both GPS and IRS.
Option B. Only IRS.
Option C. Inch precise GPS.
Correct Answer is. Only IRS.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 142. In a flight director, how are small deviations corrected?.
Option A. Pilot input.
Option B. Instrument is calibrated at fitment to remove any possible error.
Option C. Instrument feedback.
Correct Answer is. Pilot input.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 143. For a 3 dimensional fix in a Global Positioning System.

Option A. Minimum of 3 satellites must be in view.
Option B. Minimum of 2 satellites must be in view and altitude used to simulate a 3rd satellite.
Option C. Minimum of 4 satellites must be in view.
Correct Answer is. Minimum of 4 satellites must be in view.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 144. In an aircraft equipped with TCAS II and EFIS.

Option A. RA pitch command is shown on the EHSI and TA/RA traffic on the EADI.
Option B. RA pitch command is shown on the VSI and TA/RA traffic on the EHSI.
Option C. RA pitch command is shown on the EADI and TA/RA traffic on the EHSI.
Correct Answer is. RA pitch command is shown on the EADI and TA/RA traffic on the EHSI.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 145. The BITE indicator on a DFDR shows Yellow colour. This indicates.
Option A. power is ON but DFDR is not recording data.
Option B. power is ON and DFDR is recording data.
Option C. power is OFF or DFDR is at Fault.
Correct Answer is. power is OFF or DFDR is at Fault.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 146. In a typical 'Glass Cockpit' EICAS provides the following.
Option A. engine parameters and system warnings only.
Option B. engine parameters and engine warnings only.
Correct Answer is. engine parameters and system warnings only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 147. What is the minimum requirement for CVR to operate?.
Option A. BEFORE take-off.
Option B. BEFORE engine start.
Option C. at any time the manufacturer decides.
Correct Answer is. BEFORE take-off.
Explanation. Minimum requirement is AT first engine start (according to JAR OPS) which is BEFORE take-of.
Question Number. 148. ECAM system was adopted for.

Option A. Airbus A310.
Option B. both Boeing and Airbus aircraft.
Option C. Boeing 757 and 767 aircraft.
Correct Answer is. Airbus A310.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 149. A modern electromagnetic Flight Data Recorder, for recording data, could use:.
Option A. a floppy disk.
Option B. a plastic tape coated in ferrite.
Option C. a copper oxide string.
Correct Answer is. a plastic tape coated in ferrite.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 150. What is the minimum requirement for a CVR to start recording?.
Option A. When parking brake is released.
Option B. On commencement of flight.
Option C. When aircraft is capable of moving under its own power.
Correct Answer is. When aircraft is capable of moving under its own power.
Explanation. JAR Ops 1.700 para c.
Question Number. 151. As a minimum requirement when must a cockpit voice recorder start recording?.
Option A. Once airborne after take off.
Option B. Before engine start.
Option C. Once aircraft is ready to move under its own power.
Correct Answer is. Once aircraft is ready to move under its own power.
05.16.
Question Number. .1 101012 + 110012 =.
Option A. 462.
Option B. 468.
Option C. 4610.
Explanation. 101012 + 110012 = 1011102 = 4610.
Module 5 Digital Techniques/Electronic Instrument Systems
Sample Questions
Module 5
Digital Techniques/Electronic
Instrument Systems
1. An FMS system, besides controlling navigation, thrust and auto-nav,
also provides
c) GPWS warnings

b) raster scan
c) stroke pulse

a) in view
b) green
c) out of view

a) NAND gate
b) AND gate
c) OR gate

a) 11 to 28
b) 11 to 29
c) 1 to 8

c) a silica glass core with a cladding having a lower refractive index

a) path required
c) roll indications

Page 1
Sample Questions
a) 25
b) 33
c) 35

c) cabin pressure controller sensor / machmeter / altimeter

b) two cables, bi directional

a) AWN 45
b) JAR OPS
c) JAR AWO

b) the manufacturer
c) The same rules apply as to modifications to hardware
14. Two connected fibre optic cable ends are parallel but not quite
touching. This is called
a) lens connector
b) end to end coupling

c) end terminals are susceptible to environmental contamination

b) a phosphor coating and rare mercury gas
17. What kind of light is used in fibre optic systems?

a) Infrared
b) Visible
c) Ultraviolet

Page 2
Sample Questions
19. An EADI display showing a moving runway moves down during the
final stages of an approach. The aircraft must
a) fly up
b) fly down

a) to input into a Digital Flight Data Recorder

a) NAND gate
b) OR gate
c) NOR gate

a) a twisted shielded pair of wires

a) square wave
b) sawtooth wave
c) sinusoidal wave


a) 207
b) 223
c) 215

a) 65
b) 513
c) 9
Page 3
Sample Questions
C B A
0 0 0
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 1 1
a) NAND gate
b) AND gate
c) OR gate

a) pitot and static in; altitude, attitude, IAS and VS out
# b) pitot and static in; altitude, IAS, mach and VS out
c) pitot in; static, altitude, mach, IAS and VS out

# b) engine parameters and system warnings only
31. During an instrument approach, the glideslope pointer deflects below

the glideslope centre mark. This means the aircraft is positioned
# a) above the glideslope

# a) ECAM
b) EHSI
c) FMSCDU

# a) ground and flight monitoring and testing on an on-board computer
34. ARINC 573 is related to what system

a) INS
# b) FDR
c) Weather Radar

b) vertical speed
# c) radio altimeter
# c) There are no outputs
Page 4
Sample Questions
# a) displayed on EICAS

# a) The pilot
b) The engineer
c) The manufacturer
# a) position feedback
b) amplifier gain
c) calibration

a) digital
b) synchronous
# c) analogue
41. In a CRT, if the magnetic field is parallel to the Y plates, what will be the
direction of the electron beam movement?
# a) Vertical
b) No movement
c) Horizontal

# c) The aircraft symbol

# a) red, green and blue
44. What information is required before completion of the alignment of an

Inertial Navigation System?
# a) Aircraft present position

# c) 90o to each other

b) once a month
Page 5
Sample Questions
# c) every 28 days

# a) has no effect on aircraft operation

# b) ailerons and spoilers moving symmetrically upwards

a) ailerons
b) spoilers
# c) spoilers and ailerons

# c) electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated

a) capacitive
b) resistive
# c) inductive
52. on an EADI, the Flight Director command bars show

# b) the required path with respect to the actual path

# a) EADI
b) EHSI
c) ECAM

# b) Y plates move the beam vertically, X plates move the beam horizontal

# c) one bus, bi-directional data flow
56. an FMS system, besides controlling navigation, thrust and auto-nav, also
provides
Page 6
Sample Questions
# b) dedicated status warnings
c) GPWS warnings
57. In order to maintain HIRF protection, bonding checks between airframe

and electrical components carrying voltages greater than 50 volts RMS or DC
or main earth return should not exceed
a) 1 megohm
# b) 1 ohm
c) 0.05 ohm
58. Ribbon cables effected by mutual impedance and current loop leakage
should be protected by
# c) earthing each alternative conductor to separate point

# b) raster scan
c) stroke pulse
60. Normal transmission order of ARINC 629 LRUs in periodic mode is in

order of
# a) power up

# a) 50/60 Hz
b) 400 Hz
c) 250Hz
62. If an EFIS has 3 symbol generators, what is the purpose of the 3rd symbol
generator?
# b) Standby
c) Parity function

# a) trapezoidal
b) sinusoidal
c) sawtooth

a) 7 days
# b) 28 days
c) 90 days

# a) modulating the frequency of a laser beam
Page 7
Sample Questions
c) a strobe light

a) 100111001
b) 110011001
# c) 101011001

# a) OR gate
c) NAND gate

# a) AWN 45
b) JAA Ops
c) MOE

# c) using an opto-isolator coupling

# b) monitored parameter

# b) common to each terminal

# c) a calibrated light source and an optometer

# c) use an opto-isolator

# b) make sure the pins are not touched and covers fitted

Page 8
Sample Questions
# b) trapezoidal waveform

a) on take-off
# b) on engine start-up

# c) Digital Information Transfer System

# c) connecting the inputs

# b) a shift register

# c) one performance and two navigation databases
81. The FMS can update the IRS position outputs by using information from
either
a) VOR and DME only
b) DME and GPS only
# c) GPS, DME, LOC and VOR

b) 2 miles/hour + 3 miles
# c) 3 miles/hour + 3 miles

# b) the current present position must be entered
84. within a computer controlled flight system, position feedback is converted

from
# a) analogue to digital
Page 9
Sample Questions
85. What shape does the waveform take to counter the impedence effect of
the coils in an electromagnetic controlled CRT?
# a) Trapezoid
b) Sawtooth
c) Rectangular

# a) Discrete warnings
b) Spurious faults
c) Ground faults only.

a) performs in-flight and ground tests of aircraft systems by carrying out a
BITE interrogation
# b) give red warnings and amber cautions to display system status
88. The control of the speed or rate that the flight director command bars
move can be controlled by
# b) rate or velocity feedback
c) amplifier gain
89. The Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System uses the maintenance mode
of operation
a) in the air only
# b) on the ground only

a) with EICAS
b) in an emergency
# c) as a standby to the No1 and No2 system

# b) Full arc, Wx and Map Mode
c) Full Arc only
92. EFIS displays of the right hand and left hand displays are compared by
comparators in the
a) FMS
b) EICAS
# c) Symbol Generators

a) 5o/hour
b) 10o/hour
# c) 15o/hour
Page 10
Sample Questions
# b) three accelerometers

# a) rate movement about an axis
96. What are the outputs of a Digital ADC?

# a) TAS, MACH, Altitude, TAT and SAT

# a) normal operation
c) database loads

# b) can transmit on several channels at the same time

# a) reflection
b) refraction
c) dispersion

# a) designing specific avionic areas that are shielded against HIRF
c) advising operators of all points susceptible to deterioration due to

# b) By an inductive pickup

a) both 0
b) 1 and 0
# c) both 1

# a) 272
b) 282
c) 32
Page 11
Sample Questions

a) 16
# b) 12
c) 11
# a) Through the bus controller

a) analogue
# b) digital
c) logic

a) 12
# b) 14
c) 15

a) NOT
b) OR
# c) AND

b) Less strong and durable when compared to twisted pair and coaxial
cable
# c) Expensive to install
110. When 4 binary serial counters are connected in cascade for frequency
division, what division factor is required
a) 4
b) 8
# c) 16

# b) a trapezoidal waveform
112. Fly by Wire systems in the fully active mode, the actuators will
a) both be active
# b) one in active mode, one in damping mode

Page 12
Sample Questions
# b) to check the validity of data information
114. on a Fly by Wire system, what controls the stab trim

a) ELAC
# b) ELAC and SEC
c) SEC

# c) liable to environmental contamination of end terminals

a) 1 - 8
# b) 9 - 10
c) 32

a) 80
# b) 50
c) 34

a) Encoder/Decoder
# b) Multiplex/Demultiplex
c) Switching

# a) To check for corruption during transmission of a word

# a) 8
b) 16
c) 32

# a) the National Aviation Authority
b) engineers

a) F-type connector
# b) coupling type, with lens fitted

a) binary
Page 13
Sample Questions
# b) octal
c) hexadecimal

a) Triac
b) Thyristor
# c) Laser Diode
# a) Large bandwidth
a) 120
# b) 20
c) 60

a) 13
b) 14
c) 15

a) 1101
# b) 1111
c) 1110

a) 3616
# b) 2416
c) 2216

# b) When both inputs are at 1
# a) 120
b) 20
c) 60

a) E
b) G
# c) F
Page 14
Sample Questions
133. Which logic gate has this truth table A B C
C B A
0 0 0
1 1 0
1 0 1
0 1 1
a) NOT
# b) Exclusive OR
c) NAND

# a) OR
b) Exclusive OR
c) NAND

# a) Critical
b) Essential
c) Non-essential

a) zip locks
b) ESDS labels
# c) twine (100% cotton)

# a) 101011001
b) 110011001
c) 100111001

# a) 250 kilohms to 1.5 megohms
b) 2 megohms to 5 megohms

a) 29
# b) 11101
c) 101001


# a) 54
b) 44
c) 35
Page 15
Sample Questions
a) a filament lamp
# b) a laser or LED
c) a strobe light

# a) Wear a wrist strap connected to an approved ground point

# b) a twisted shielded pair of wires
145. The minimum requirement for a cockpit voice recorder to begin operating
is
# b) on commencing the takeoff roll

# b) connect the aircraft to base

# c) binary coded decimal
148. with radio coupled autopilot, what are the inputs

a) ADF and ILS
b) ADF and VOR
# c) ILS and VOR

# b) displaying distance and bearing to waypoint

# b) the time delay between outward and returning pulse
a) 11 - 28
# b) 11 - 29
c) 1 - 8
Page 16
Sample Questions
# a) ECAM
b) EHSI
c) CDU
153. A flight deck CRT LRU is being replaced. What does the ESDS label
indicate?
# b) Do not touch plug pins or leave them exposed

# c) Cabin pressure controller sensor / machmeter / Altimeter

a) 8
b) 2
# c) 16

# b) 32 bit word over a twisted pair of wires

# b) a negative temperature coefficient
158. When using a wrist strap, before touching the LRU the resistance should
be measured from your skin to the end of the earth probe. This should be
# a) more than 10 kilohms
c) less than 1 ohm

a) 52
# b) 510
c) 210
160. Physical variables in quantitative forms, such as voltage or angular

rotation of a shaft are
# a) analogue
b) digital
c) binary

# a) 8
Page 17
Sample Questions
b) 4
c) 2

a) Up to 10,000 ft
# b) Up to 2,500 ft
c) Up to 100 ft
163. Which of the following could be a primary cause of HIRF protection

failure?
# a) Unserviceable radio filters
164. The binary coded decimal number 10011000 expressed as a decimal

number is
# a) 9810
b) 15210
c) 1522

# a) 1112
b) 72
c) 1012

a) 25
b) 33
# c) 35

# a) by designing specific avionic areas that are shielded against HIRF
c) by advising the operator of parts of the aircraft susceptible to
degradation due to corrosion, moisture ingress, flexing etc.

# c) data can transmit in both directions down the data bus
169. in an ARINC 429 word string, bits 1 - 8 represent

# b) the monitored parameter

# b) The parallel input impedance
c) The weight
Page 18
Sample Questions
# b) number of inputs to a gate
172. Very Large Scale Integrated (VLSI) means the number of gates in a
single IC is
a) up to 1000
b) up to 10,000
# c) over 10,000

# c) are cheaper to manufacture

a) a 12 bit word
# b) an 8 bit word
c) a six bit word

# b) manchester bi-phase
176. The fibre optic cable can be identified on aircraft by its jacket colour
which is
# a) purple
b) red
c) yellow
177. For a fibre optic cable connector that is not regularly disconnected you
would use the
b) ball lens type
# c) butt type

# a) an amplifier and an oscillator

# a) built in filters and overvoltage circuits

a) cyan
Page 19
Sample Questions
b) red
# c) magenta

# a) Flight control computer, Air Data Instrument, Engine systems
b) EFIS
c) EICAS

a) 80
# b) 50
c) 34

# a) Via ARINC 573
b) Via ARINC 629
c) Source isolated
# a) AND gate
b) NOR gate
c) NOT gate

a) EADI
b) EHSI
# c) IRMP: Inertial Reference Mode Panel

# b) dont touch terminals

# c) earth only one end of the cable screen
188. How many satellite signals are required to achieve precise 3D

positioning?
# a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
Page 20
Sample Questions
# a) 58
b) 61
c) 70

# a) ARINC 429, in dataword labels only
b) ARINC 629
c) ARINC 573

a) Corrosion
b) Earthing faults
# c) Kinking and contamination of connectors

a) Design organization or the aircraft manufacturer
# b) Engineer
c) Chief pilot
a) Or gate
# b) NOR gate
c) NOT gate

# a) Sawtooth frequency
c) Trapezoidal

# a) modulating intensity on direct read
c) HIRF

# a) A static wick check is required

# a) 215
b) 107
c) 53
Page 21
Sample Questions
# a) 513
b) 613
c) 713
199. with a relative humidity of 10% to 20%, if you walked over a carpet what
electrostatic voltage value would you expect to see?
a) 6,000 volts
b) 12,000 volts
# c) 35,000 volts
b) resistance between skin and strap end plug is more than 1 megohms
# c) resistance between strap and strap end plug is less than 1 megohms

# b) can transmit several messages simultaneously

a) from power on
# b) from engine start
c) from beginning of take off roll
203. on an ARINC 629 data bus, the maximum amount of current-mode

couplers per data bus is
a) 46
# b) 120
c) 64

# a) a current mode coupler, serial interface module and terminal controller
is required
b) current mode coupler, terminal controller and a production break is
required
205. A current-mode coupler contains an E-Core assembly. The purpose of

the E-Core is to
# a) couple the signal to the data bus
b) provide effective screening of the signal through the current-mode
coupler

# a) 12-14 Kbits/second with high of 100 kBits/second
Page 22
Sample Questions
207. A D to A converter is required to produce an output range of 0 to 10V.

This can be achieved by
a) A non inverting op amp connected in parallel with output
# b) An inverting op amp connected in parallel with output
c) A differentiator with a 100 Kilohm feedback resistor

# a) Ensure that the output voltages remain accurate
b) Ensure that the input voltage remains accurate
c) Compensate for the variation of the feedback resistor with temperature
209. A given transducer provides a voltage which corresponds to true

heading. This voltage can be converted to 'bits' by using a
a) commutator
# c) analogue to digital converter

a) logic 1
# b) logic 0
c) both logic 1

# c) a 130 ohm resistor at both ends

# a) connects bi-directional data between the LRU and current mode
coupler
b) connects single directional data between the LRU and current mode
coupler
213. Care must be taken when installing ARINC 629 cables into bus panels,
damage to cables can cause
b) standing waves.
# c) corrosion of the conductor

# c) can use both systems, ARINC 629 and ARINC 429 via system card
files and signal gateways
215. An Inertial Navigation System (INS/IRS) computes distance from

acceleration by
Page 23
Sample Questions
# c) two successive integrations
# a) insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the IRS

a) 2 wire series address line
# c) 4 bit parallel address line

# b) increase speed

# a) two values of resistors whose precision is not important
b) two values of precision resistors

b) hand tight only
# c) very carefully to ensure alignment and reduce light loss
221. An IRS has

# b) accelerometers and gyros fixed to a the airframe

# a) central Air Data Computer
b) satellites
c) Doppler System
223. The FMS carries out a Rho/Theta navigation function, the purpose of this
is to
# a) update the IRS system with an accurate position fix of latitude and
longitude

# c) by an aircraft engineer updates the system either by a magnetic tape or
floppy disc
Page 24
Sample Questions

a) elevators only
# b) stabilizer and elevator
c) stabilizer only
226. In a fly by wire system, if the pilot control input is derived from a side
stick controller:
# b) there is no control surface feedback to the side stick
c) there will be only control surface feedback to the side stick after a
computer failure
227. in memory using multivibrators, when power is switched off the data will
# b) be lost
228. The resistance of the wrist strap used as part of anti static precautions
should be
a) 0 - 200 ohm
# b) 250 kilohm - 1.5 megohm
c) 20 megohm - 200 megohm

# a) To indicate the status of the processor

# b) Can be re-programmed

# c) 3 accelerometers and 3 laser gyros
# a) Present position
b) Flight plan
c) Cruise height

# b) is fed with information on aircraft weight, cruise altitude and cost index
before take off
Page 25
Sample Questions
# a) the Flight Control Computer only

# b) provide a sampling in sequence of a number of parameters
c) provide continuous availability of all parameters connected to the
system
236. When the voltage that represents a logic 1 state is less than the voltage
that represents a logic 0 state, the logic being used is
b) positive
# c) negative
237. The output of an AND gate having two inputs A and B is logic 1. The two
inputs will have the logic states of
a) A = 0, B = 0
# b) A = 1, B = 1
c) A = 1, B = 0

# b) store a limited amount of information on a temporary basis
239. What is 0111000012 in Octal?

a) 28110
b) 2258
# c) 3418

# a) normal flight
b) emergency only

# b) at and during production and testing (initial certification)

# a) Ground only one end of the cable screen
# a) the anodic film should be removed locally to ensure a good contact
Page 26
Sample Questions
c) add a bonding factor to the result of the test to account for the
resistance of the anodic film

# b) integrated twice to give distance

# a) standby power when airborne and on the ground

a) once a month
# b) every 28 days
# c) remain in the failure position but may move due to aerodynamic
pressure
248. The output of an OR gate having two inputs A and B is logic 0. The two
inputs will have the logic states of
# a) A = 0, B = 0
b) A = 1, B = 0
c) A = 0, B = 1

# a) avoid distortion to the co-axial cable to maintain the dielectric constant
b) distortion of the outer sheath is allowed providing the inner cable is not
affected

# c) positioned separately from the loom
# c) non conductive, higher bandwidth, higher security, smaller size and
weight
252. When carrying out airframe bonding checks as part of a program of HIRF
prevention the airframe bonding resistance should be less than
Page 27
Sample Questions
# a) 50 milliohms
b) 100 milliohms
c) 1 ohm

# a) ac voltage
b) variable current dc voltage
c) fixed current dc voltage
254. IRS alignment

# a) takes up to 10 minutes and the present position can be entered at any
time during alignment
b) takes up to 10 minutes and present position must be entered before
alignment.
c) takes up to 10 minutes and the previous flight shut down present
position is used for the alignment
255. A fault light appears on the IRS Mode Selector Unit during the alignment
sequence. The correct action is
# b) select HDG/STS on the Inertial System Display Unit (ISDU), observe
the action code in the right alpha/numeric display

a) to provide display control by one control panel whilst the other provides
a standby
# c) one to control the type of EFlS display and the other to select the
source of the information being displayed

a) 1
# b) 2
c) 4

# c) to prevent tuck under

# b) the diameter of the cable is dependent on the wavelength of the light
used
260. A semiconductor which emits photons and releases electrons when

stimulated by photons is called
a) an LED
Page 28
Sample Questions
b) a photodiode
# c) a laser diode

# a) detection of the rate of movement about an aircraft axis
# c) it requires no cooling

# c) will only be supplied from the same symbol generator when all other
symbol generators have failed

# c) not have any operational effect on the system

# c) data from one format to another

# a) changes analogue to digital
# a) 12 14.5 kbits / second
Page 29
Sample Questions
# b) Exclusive OR gate
a) AND gate
# b) OR gate
c) NOR gate

# c) Loss of aircraft and / or fatalities
271. Ribbon cables affected by mutual impedance and current loop leakage
are protected by
# b) earthing each alternate conductor

# a) 1 bit per second

a) reset
# b) set
c) zero
274. What is the Boolean Algebra for the XOR Circuit below?
Page 30
Sample Questions
a)
# b)
c)
275. What does the logic circuit below represent?
a) Half adder circuit

# b) Full Adder Circuit
c) Multi-bit adder

a) a zener diode
# b) an LED
c) a photo diode
277. When a JK flip flop is used as a memory device, what type of memory
would it be
a) non-volatile
b) read-only
# c) volatile
278. Once an ARINC 629 LRU has transmitted a message it will wait how
long before transmitting again?
# b) Until the end of the transmit interval

a) Decimal 206
b) Binary 11000110
# c) Octal 01100001
Page 31
Sample Questions
# c) Inertial Navigation Systems
a) VOR, ILS and DME
# b) Flight data acquisition unit, Flight management computer and Voice
recorder

# a) Provides direct point-to-point services to units on dedicated lines
emanating from the central hub

# c) The part of the CPU unit where arithmetic & logic operations are carried
out
a) NAND gate
b) XOR gate
# c) AND gate

# a) ALU
b) CPU
c) LSI
a) 4
# b) 3
c) 2
287. in a MUX, how is parallel converted to serial?

# a) By way of a shift register
288. If a magnetic field is parallel to the X plates in a CRT, which way will the
beam move?
a) Diagonally
b) Vertically
# c) Horizontally
Page 32
Sample Questions
# a) Flight director command bars, slip indicator, rate to altitude & autoland

a) 22BC16
b) A8E516
c) FFFF16
291. A fibreoptic lens type coupling with lens and integral LED compared to
an end-fire coupling is
# a) more efficient
b) less efficient
c) equally efficient

# a) the sampling rate
b) the frequency
c) the amplitude
293. A digital to analogue converter that requires the output to range between
0v and -10v would have
# b) an inverting amplifier in series with the output line
c) a non-inverting amplifier in line with the output with a resistor to
ground

a) red and green
# b) monochrome only
c) high definition
b) flight director bars, autoland, altitude, range to altitude, decision height
# c) decision height, autoland, rad alt, altitude
296. A full operation system BITE check will

a) but will not move the controls
b) as well as checking full system and will move the controls to their
stops
# c) as well as checking full system but will not move the controls to their
stops
297. If on a flight deck EFIS system all the displays were missing one bit of
information this is most likely to be
# b) the input sensor bus and display controller
Page 33
Sample Questions
298. A arinc data word is bits 11-29, if bits 11-18 are patched which of the
following would be the LSB bit
# a) 19
b) 29
c) 21
299. What is a band?

a) A block of data
# b) A bit of data
c) A byte of data

a) require power for the processing signal before they send them down
the fibre optic
# b) require no power and they do not process signals
c) process the signal but do not require power

# a) Continuous AC
b) Variable level DC voltage
c) DC voltage

# a) bi-directional
b) one way data buses
c) simplex
303. 0011011000101001 when transferred to computer language this

information can be a representation of
b) hex, octal and binary numbers
# c) hex, octal and decimal numbers

# a) the memory is lost as soon as power is removed
b) the memory is retained indefinably
305. in an analogue to digital converter, the input voltage

# a) stays on constantly
b) is switched by the digital input
c) is intermittent

# a) set
b) reset
c) intermediate

a) full duplex
Page 34
Sample Questions
# b) half duplex
c) simplex

a) absorption only
# b) absorption, scattering and reflection

# a) longitudinal axis of the core and the outer angle
b) the two outer angles

# b) whose relative precision are accurate

# a) LSI
b) SSI
c) MSI

# a) Switches closed, magnetised
b) Switches open, unmagnetised
c) High frequency

a) to test system during flight and for BITE test of systems on the ground
using a carry on control unit
# b) to test systems in flight and on the ground using a centralised on
board control unit

# b) a twisted pair of wires or fibre optics
c) a single wire

# a) electromagnetism
b) electrostatic
c) solid state

# a) inputs connected together
b) inputs inverted
c) outputs inverted
Page 35
Sample Questions
# b) time dividing multiplexing
c) encoder

# b) refractive outer shell

# a) 90 degrees out of phase
b) 180 degrees out of phase
c) In phase

b)is repetitive transmitting
# c) will transmit only once during each transmit interval

a) Quicker
b) More information sent
# c) Only one pair of conductors
322. The number of LRUs which transmit/receive on ARINC-429 is

dependent upon
a) size of S.D.I
b) speed of transmission & size of aircraft systems
# c) parallel input impedance

# a) active optic filter
b) passive optic filter
c) low pass filter
324. In an EFIS display, the lines, Scales, Indicator and Synoptic are
generated by
a) synoptic scan
# b) stroke scan
c) raster scan

# b) the time period to access the memory
326. A typical example of a mass storage memory device which "write once"
and "read many" is
# a) a CD Rom
Page 36
Sample Questions
b) an IC
c) a magnetic tape
# a) Isolate electrical power before installing on Aircraft
b) First earth with aircraft then to it

# a) memory and input & output port
b) register section, ALU, timing and control section

# a) shielding, screening, earthing, bonding and interference filters
b) enclosing the system with same frequency and strength of which
screening is done

# a) AC
b) current restricted DC
331. The method of producing (white) lines for aircraft symbols, V/S scale etc.
on an EADI is by
# a) stroke scan
b) raster scan

# b) give GMT details to the flight recorder and other systems

# b) are superior quality and "data preservation"
a) 1 milliohm
b) 1 ohm
# c) 0.05 ohms

a) binary
b) octal
# c) hexadecimal
Page 37
Sample Questions
a) hexadecimal
# b) BCD
c) octal

a) On engine start
# b) From aircraft take off run

# a) 2C
b) 4F
c) 2F
339. A heading reference of 320 degrees in a word label format would be

written as
a) 101010001
# b) 11010000
c) 01000111
340. within an EFIS display system, all displays have 1 bit of information
missing. What would be the most probable cause?
# a) Symbol generator and sensor input
b) Display controller and sensor input bus

a) a compact disc
# b) an integrated circuit (chip)
c) magnetic tape

# a) q = 1
b) q = 0
c) either
# c) above the glideslope
344. 2D in decimal is
# a) 45
b) 43
c) 41
345. The operational data base of the FMS may have to be modified in flight
a) by the pilot
b) automatically by the DADC
Page 38
Sample Questions
# c) It cannot be modified in flight

# a) it is forward biased
b) it is reverse biased
c) either forward or reverse biased if a sufficient level of ac voltage is
applied

a) the EADI
# b) the EHSI
c) the FMC CDU
348. CADC outputs are

b) altitude ,vertical speed, angle of attack, TAT, SAT
# c) altitude, vertical speed, TAS, CAS, mach no, SAT, TAT


a) a clock signal
# b) parallel data
c) serial data

# a) low power dissipation
b) high voltage handling

# a) the remaining CRT will display primary EICAS data
b) the FMS CDU will display the failed CRT data

# a) 54
b) f4
c) 5f
354. EADI displays

# a) pitch and roll attitudes
b) heading and weather radar
355. on an EHSI in weather radar mode, a severe storm would be shown as

Page 39
Sample Questions
# b) red areas with black surrounds

# a) integrated light dependant resistors in the display compensating for
each display individual
b) An external light dependant resistor mounted on the flight deck

a) one way bus
# b) bi directional bus
c) two way bus
358. A method used in modern aircraft for reporting in flight faults to an

engineering and monitoring ground station is
a) TCAS II
# b) ACARS
c) TAWS

b) more energy efficient
# c) large viewing angle

a) the receptacle has to torque to a designated torque to ensure correct
alignment
# b) the connectors can not be over tightened

a) in the air only

# a) displayed of each individual display
b) only no. 2 can be displayed on the no.1
363. An AND gate with inverted inputs and an inverted output is equivalent to
a) an AND gate
# b) an OR gate
c) a NOR gate

# b) transistors
Page 40
Sample Questions
c) diodes

# b) 2 sine waves 90 degrees out of phase

a) higher bandwidth than visible light
# b) lower bandwidth than visible light
c) visible light
367. When the power is removed from a bi-stable memory device, it's memory
will
# a) be lost indefinitely
b) be saved indefinitely

# a) take-off
b) gear retraction
c) forward motion

# b) the aircraft constructor
c) the engineer
370. A multiplexer
# a) takes many signals in and converts it to a serial transmission output
b) takes one signal in and converts it to a parallel transmission output
c) takes many signals in and puts these in a parallel transmission on the
output

# b) ALU, timing and control section, register
b) harvard bi phase
# c) bi-directional return to zero

a) 429
# b) 629
c) 573
Page 41
Sample Questions

b) data bus cable, stub cable, voltage mode coupler
# c) data bus cable, current mode coupler, stub cable
376. To deflect the beam of a CRT horizontally, coils are placed on the neck
of the tube
b) each side
# c) top and bottom
377. During flight (non fault conditions) the EICAS system displays on the
lower CRT
# a) secondary engine parameters
b) synoptic display

# a) BCAR section A8 approved company
b) BCAR section A1 approved company
c) The CAA

# a) 130 ohms resistor
b) 100 ohms resistor
c) 25 ohms resistor
380. Modern aircraft with electronic displays would display information on

airframe and engine on which system?
# b) Electronic centralised aircraft monitoring system (ECAM)
c) EADI

a) after take off
b) on aircraft roll out from stand
# c) after the first engine has started
b) the power is within flight data recorder limits
# c) if source isolation has been considered
383. In ARINC 429 data field is bits 11 to 28. If the bits 11 to 18 had pad bits,
the L.S.B. Of the data would be
# a) bit 19
Page 42
Sample Questions
b) bit 11
c) bit 28
384. The BCD data field of ARINC 429 is contained within bits
a) 1- 8
# b) 11- 29
c) 11- 28
385. After attaching a wrist strap to you wrist (which is connected to aircraft
ground), prior to removal of ESDS equipment, the resistance measured
# b) between your skin and the pin ground must be <10 megohms

a) corrosion
b) damage to static wicks
# c) radio filter break down
387. The resistance of the magnetic coils of a C.R.T. Is offset by using

# a) trapezoidal voltage
b) constant voltage
c) saw tooth voltage
388. If the magnetic deflection plates produce a magnetic field which is

parallel to the horizontal then the trace is deflected in
a) horizontal axis
b) circular motion
# c) vertical axis

# a) repeated internal reflection
b) refraction of the light
390. The name given to the joining of two fibre optic cables by aligning them
carefully and bringing them into close proximity of each other is
a) Fusion
# b) End to end
c) Lens Coupling

# b) multiple data signals can be sent down it at one time
392. A logic 1 may be represented in an analogue system by (where Q is an

output of a latch / flip-flop)
a) switch open / light on / Q
b) switch closed / light off / Not Q
Page 43
Sample Questions
# c) positive / magnetised / Q

a) a bite test
# b) a easily accessible multifunction control display unit
394. An analogue to digital converter where it counts up to binary state equal

to the analogue in put and then back down when this is reached is a
a) successive approximation counter
# b) a tracking ramp type converter

b) switch of the inputs
# c) change the state of the inputs
396. Radio altitude is displayed on a EFIS system

a) on the Electronic horizontal situation indicator
# b) on the electronic artificial direction indicator
c) on the RMI

b) the last 25 hours of aircraft flight
# c) the last 25 hours with engines running
398. Op amps generally used in ADCs and DACs are normally

# a) high input impedance, low output impedance
b) high input impedance , high output impedance
c) low input impedance , how output impedance

a) ROMs only
# b) some RAMs
c) EPROM

a) clockwise
# b) anticlockwise
c) cross ways

# a) reads each bit to be stored simultaneously
b) requires a clock pulse for each bit

# a) hardened skin and protecting wires / LRUs
Page 44
Sample Questions
b) bonding as many parts of the aircraft as possible and a maximum
resistance of 0.05ohms

a) 38
b) 48
# c) 22
a) A or B = 1
b) A and B = 1
# c) A and B = 0
405. What logic gate would this circuit represent?
a) NAND Gate
b) NOR gate
# c) AND gate

a) 1111
b) 1001
# c) 1010

# a) Decimal
b) Digital
c) Octal

a) Octal
b) BCD
# c) Hexadecimal

# a) stroke pulse
b) raster scanning

# a) refractive outer cladding
Page 45
Sample Questions
b) reflective outer cladding

# a) trapezoidal
b) ramp
c) analogue

# b) closed circuit, Logic Q=1
c) open circuit

# a) fibre optics or twisted pair of wires
b) single wire for each transmitter
c) SWG 28 wire

b) when undercarriage up
# c) on take-off

# b) light reflecting off cladding
416. The "light" emitted from a LED used within a fibre-optic system will have
a wavelength
# a) slightly longer then that of visible light
b) slightly shorter then that of visible light

# a) four "0s" or "1s"
b) 2 lots of four "0s" or "1s"
c) 3 lots of four "0s" or "1s"

# a) 1 transmitter and multiple receivers
b) 1 bus controller and 1 remote terminal
a) non-conductive, easier to manufacture and assemble, greater
bandwidth
# b) non-conductive, greater bandwidth, greater signal security
Page 46
Sample Questions
420. a EFIS system ADI displays pitch, roll
b) autoland, decision height, range to altitude and flight director bars and
slip indicator
# c) autoland, rad alt, decision height and slip indicator

# a) 111110000110
b) 111110000001
c) 3974
422. What is 11000012 - 1011002?

a) 1101112
b) 100011012
# c) 1101012
423. During normal functioning of an ECAM system the engine data shown on
the Engine/Warning display comes from the
# b) ECAM channel of DMC1
424. To create a bi-directional communications link within an ARINC 429

system
# b) two databuses are required

# b) great circle route
c) rhumb line

b) Spurious faults

b) the angle between True North and the actual track
# c) the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
a) entered present latitude and longitude must agree with the latitude
and longitude at last power down
b) the No 1 and No 2 must both have the same latitude and longitude
# c) the latitude entered must be within given limits of the latitude computed
by IRU
Page 47
Sample Questions

b) l mile / hour + 3 miles
# c) 3 miles / hour + 3 miles
430. Control Display Unit (CDU) selection of TKE (Track Angle Error),
displays
# b) difference in degrees that the aircraft is to the right or left of the desired
track
c) difference in degrees from True North in a clockwise direction from
the desired track
431. in the EICAS system, when is the maintenance mode available?

# b) Lower screen only - only available on the ground
c) In flight

b) After engine shut down
# c) Continuously when system is in use
# a) Electromagnetic
b) Electrostatic
c) Either
434. in an IN system, the purpose of the stable platform is to

# a) prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers
b) provide attitude reference

# b) orthogonally
c) 12Oo apart

a) doppler system
b) satellites
# c) air data computer

a) angle in degrees that the aircraft track is left or right of desired track
b) actual track across the earths surface
# c) perpendicular distance from the desired track
Page 48
Sample Questions
# b) attitude indicators
c) altimeters

# b) 90o to each other
c) 120o apart

b) self alignment in the vertical
# c) use of the gyro-magnetic compass system to align the platform

a) perform in-flight and ground tests of aircraft systems by carrying out a
BITE
442. The control of the speed or rate that the F/D Command bars move can
be controlled by
c) amplifier gain
443. The Centralized Aircraft Monitoring System uses the maintenance mode
of operation
a) in the air only
b) Takes less time
# c) Saves weight
# a) Yes
b) No

a) when addressed
# b) when terminal gap is sensed

# a) by addition
b) by subtraction
Page 49
Sample Questions
c) by coupling

# a) To indicate the status of the microprocessor
b) To store a program during an interrupt

# b) increase speed

# a) ensure the output voltages remain accurate
b) ensure the input remains accurate
temperature
451. A BCD word occupies bits 11-29, if 11-15 are filled with padders then the
LSB of the word will be
# a) 16
b) 29
c) 11

# a) an inoperative symbol generator or input sensor
b) an inoperative symbol generator or control panel

# b) ensure all static wicks are in place
c) transmit on all radio frequencies to determine which frequencies are
causing the interference
454. When a BITE test is carried out on a system with moving parts it should
be
b) carried out ensuring all moving parts are operated and taken to there
stops
# c) carried out ensuring all moving parts are operated but not to there
mechanical stops

# a) one transmitter, many receivers
b) a bus controller and separate controller

# a) the timescale
Page 50
Sample Questions
b) the processor sub-cycle
457. in a fibre optic system, different light frequencies are separated by

# a) an active filter
b) a passive filter
c) a star network

a) electrostatic
b) electromagnetic
# c) combined

# b) do not require power

# a) give output at required level
b) compensate for temperature variation
461. L.E.D.s can give

b) red and green displays only
# c) monochrome displays only

b) in two directions
# c) both directions at the same time

# a) electrical power is isolated
b) ground yourself first to aircraft then PCB
c) ensure you do not touch the ends so that copper contacts do not
become contaminated
464. For large bandwidth high-speed fibre optic transmission what sort of
cable would you use?
# a) Single mode
b) Graded index
c) Step index

a) are precise
# b) do not need to be of precise values
Page 51
Sample Questions
# b) more than visible light
467. What is the advantage of an ILD over an LED when used as a light
source in fibre optics
a) higher bandwidth
# b) lower frequency range
c) lower intensity

# a) CD ROM
b) IC
c) magnetic tape

a) ALU
# b) CPU
c) dip switch
470. A circular time constant produces what sort of output?

a) in phase
b)180o out of phase
# c) 90o out of phase

# b) is never greater then the speed of light in free space
472. A device, which converts serial to parallel and parallel to serial for
arithmetical functions, is a
# b) Shift Register
473. In an Arinc 429 Word label-representing heading is 320, this is

represented in bits 1-8 as
a) 01101000
b) 01011001
# c) 00001011
Page 52
Sample Questions
# a) 0, 1
b) 1, 1
c) 0, 0
a) 0, 1
b) 1, 1
# c) 1, 0
# b) approximately half that of the cone of acceptance
477. A fibre optic cable is connected to a unit that will not be frequently
disconnected. The preferred type of connector to be used is a
a) Ball lens type
# b) Butt type
Page 53
Sample Questions
a) during power up
# b) during in-flight
c) MCDU

# a) looking at the odd parity without error
b) looking at the even parity without error
480. What is EPROM?

# a) erasable programmable read only memory
b) enhanced programmable read only memory
481. A CRT is
# a) electromagnetic
b) electrostatic
c) solid state i

a) octal
b) digital
# c) decimald

# a) 2c
b) 2d
c) 2F
484. What is octal 33in hexadecimal?

a) 22
b) 11
# c) 1b
485. at low ambient temperatures, an LCD screen

a) loses contrast
# b) is slower to update as data changes
c) viewing angle becomes larger

# a) 84 triads
b) 400 lines per square inch

# a) analogue to digital converter
b) frequency divider
Page 54
Sample Questions
488. Where does the clock signal in a microiprocessor come from?

a) ALU
# b) Control unit
c) Memory
489. Where is the operating program for the CPU stored?

a) ALU
b)Control unit
# c) Memory unit
490. An LCD display

# a) has three colours only
b) has infinite colours
c) is monochrome
491. in ARINC 629 aperiodic mode, LRUs transmit in order of

a) power up
# b) shortest terminal gap to longest terminal gap
c) longest terminal gap to shortest terminal gap

a) for normal operation
b) for landing and approach operation
# c) for database loads
493. What is the device used to convert Binary Coded Decimal into separate
supplies for a seven segment digital display?
a) Multiplexer
b) Demultiplexer
# c) Decoder

# b) Using two data buses
c) Via a current mode coupler

a) register section, ALU and timing and control section
# b) memory, input/output ports and CPU
496. A B S
000
011
101
110 This is the truth table for a
# a) E-OR
b) NOT
Page 55
Sample Questions
c) NAND

# a) EADI
b) EFIS
c) CRTs in the passenger cabin
498. What is ILS marker frequency?

# a) 75 Mhz
b) 100 Mhz
c) 125 Mhz

# b) to prevent arcing when inserting and extracting the socket
500. Flat plate antenna is

# a) series of waveguides with slots
b) a parabolic antenna

# b) CMCS monitors the individual BITE systems and presents data.

# a) it changes the incoming waveform to a standard square wave.
b) It detects incidences of peak value
c) it compares the incoming waveform with standard sine waves

# a) the 'Verification' phase includes performance testing a programmed
EPROM
b) the 'Validation' phase is done to the software rather than to the
component.
c) the 'Software Release' phase is the same as the 'Finished Product'
phase
504. A segmented configuration for the display of alphanumeric date requires

b) the starburst display for numbers and lower case letters only.
# c) 16 segments to display the full range of capital letters and numerals
505. for braided cables, the amount of braiding

b) must conform to the requirement for the shielding to cover at least
50% of the surface of the cable
Page 56
Sample Questions
# c) keeps radiated power inside the emitting assembly or away from the
susceptible circuit

b) distance measuring indicators; digital counters
# c) weather radar indicators

# b) Flash converter
508. in a colour cathode ray tube, how is the phosphor arranged in the tube?
b) Layers of red, blue and green
# c) A single phosphor layer containing red, green and blue

a) monochrome
b) three colours
# c) multicoloured
# a) 3
b) 2
c) 8

# b) Mode control panel, Raster and Stroke generator display,
microprocessor and Data inputs

a) 101 011
b) 110 111
# c) 111 111
513. What is a passive device?

a) Matrix LCD
# b) Capacitor
c) LED

# b) Outputs the highest input
Page 57
Sample Questions
# b) Harvard bi-phase 12 bit

a) +5v
b) -5v
# c) +10v to -10v

# a) 4 bytes
b) 2 bytes
c) 8 bytes

# a) 12 bits
b) 8 bits
c) 10 bits
519. Which of the following ESDS devices can withstand higher static
electricity voltage?
a) ECL
b) MOSFET
# c) SCR

# a) only on the ground
b) in the air

a) ALU
b) RAM
# c) ROM

a) Matrix LCD
b) LED
# c) Capacitor

b) is monochrome
# c) has only 3 colours

a) DIP switch
b) ALU
# c) Control Processor Unit
Page 58
Sample Questions
# a) timing cycle
b) processor sub-cycle
c) processor cycle

a) ferrite material
b) permeamag material
# c) ferromagnetic material

# a) cruise
b) take off and landings only
c) any flight phase
528. An aircraft on an ILS approach is below the glideslope centre line, the
glideslope pointer is
# a) above the centre line
b) below the centre line

# a) 4x7 or a 9x5 rolling end display
b) 4x7 or a 5x7 rolling end display

a) OFST and Fail
b) fail and MSG
# c) MSG, fail and OFST
531. A current mode coupler contains E core assembly. The purpose of the
E core is
b)provide effective screening of the signal through the current mode
coupler

a) in the air
# b) ground only
c) air and ground
533. EHSI information displayed, is invalid in the pre-set heading mode when
b) flag green
# c) flag in view

# a) perform in-flight bite and ground tests of aircraft systems, i.e.
Page 59
Sample Questions
BITE
b) give red warnings and amber cautions to display in accordance with
system status
535. The TX/RX of Arinc 629 is

a) encoder/decoder
# b) multiplex/de-multiplex
c) switching

b) flexible
# c) can be changed by adjusting the rx/tx software
537. DRAM
# a) requires a refreshing charge
b) memory is stored when power supply is removed
c) it does not require a refreshing charge
538. What is f86 hex when converted to binary?

a) 1000010000110
b) 100000000000
# c) 111110000110
539. BITE test carried out on input sensors and actuators performs
a) a test of the LRU
# b) a performance test of the system
c) validation of the information of the LRU
540. A continuous balance ADC uses

# a) a closed loop system to compare the analogue input to give the
required digital output
b) a closed loop system to check the analogue input with the input
sample
c) successive approximation logic circuit to control the output
541. A BITE check for automatic performance and fault monitoring is carried
out when?
# a) Power-up self test
b) For in-flight monitoring
c) To check the performance of the LRU
542. A clock pulse in processor equipment

a) is used for the maintenance tests
b) is to give the correct timing when calculations are made
# c) is to synchronise everything
543. The EFIS system consists of

# a) EADI, EHSI, Symbol generators
Page 60
Sample Questions
b) Mode control Panel, RDMI, EHSI
c) EHSI, Mode control panel, EADI
544. in a computer, the address 3B8 is

a) decimal
b) octal
# c) hexadecimal
545. in a optical fibre, the angle of acceptance is

a) equal to the cone of acceptance
# b) 1/2 the cone of acceptance
c) 1/2 the signal wavelength
546. The signal sent between a MUX/DEMUX is controlled by:

a) the ALU
# b) control unit
c) clock
547. in a computer, the code that fetches correct data and feeds it to the ALU
is called
a) the computer program
# b) the instruction set
c) ARINC
548. What is this?
# a) Multiplexor
b) Shift register
c) Counter
549. Bubble memory stores data on

# a) ferrite disk
b) ferrite core
c) magnetic tape
Page 61
Sample Questions
550. Ferrite medium is used because

# a) data is stored after the power is removed
b) it has low eddy current losses
c) it is light
551. A dynamic EPROM

a) requires constant refreshing
# b) is non-volatile memory
c) is erased after reading
552. A computer requires to operate

# a) data bus, control bus, address bus
b) data bus, control bus
c) address bus, data bus
553. A computer processor has within it

# a) ALU, control section, register
b) register, buffer, data bus
c) ALU, register, memory
554. when using a TDR (time delay reflectometer) the loss value of the cable
is:
a) set on the TDR
# b) shown by the curve
c) allowed for in the calculation
555. Common aircraft fibre optics uses

# b) modulating frequency on direct read
c) modulating intensity on indirect read
556. What manoeuvre does TCAS II advise the pilot to make

a) TA
# b) RA
c) either RA or TA
557. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display?

# a) White diamonds, red squares and amber circles
558. What is a Grays converter?

a) Digital to Analogue
# b) Analogue to Digital
c) Analogue to Analogue
559. Data memory is usually stored in

a) RAM
# b) ROM
Page 62
Sample Questions
c) EEPROM
560. Tristate devices are found

# a) on input circuits
b) on output circuits
c) on both input and output circuits
561. AWN 45 requires that

a) The aircraft operator be responsible for software assessment
# b) The aircraft constructors be responsible for software assessment
c) The CAA be responsible for software assessment
562. What is the main cause of attenuation in fibre optics?

a) Refractive index
# b) Poor termination
c) Bends in the cable
563. What are the advantages of an LCD display over an LED?

a) It is brighter
# b) It uses less current
564. If a dislay shows a red cross only, it is due to

a) CRT failure
# b) Symbol Generator failure
c) Altimeter failure
565. What is the advantage of a laser diode over an LED?

a) Greater bandwidth
# b) Narrower bandwidth
566. How does ARINC 629 bus transmit and receive information?
a) Optical coupling
b) Sockets and pins
# c) Inductive coupling

a) To specify Flight Data Recorder data bus
# b) To specify Radio Comms data bus
c) To specify LRU pin-outs
568. Sample and hold is a technique used in

a) D to A convertion
# b) A to D convertion
c) Moving coil instruments
569. ACARS is an acronym for

a) Analogue Communications Airborne Radio System
b) Airborne Communications Addressing and Reporting System
Page 63
Sample Questions
# c) ARINC Communications Addressing and Reporting System
570. What are the colours of traffic shown on a TCAS display?

# a) White diamonds, red squares and amber circles
571. Level 1 software failure

# a) is defined as critical and can lead to loss of aircraft
b) is defined as essential and will reduce safety margins
c) is defined as essential and may have a minor effect
572. A wrist band must be worn when working with ESDS devices
a) to prevent the operator from getting an electric shock
b) to dissipate static charge on the device
# c) to dissipate and prevent static build-up on the operator
573. A humid atmosphere

a) eliminates static charge
# b) reduces static charge
c) has no effect on the level of charge
574. Control of aircraft software updates

# a) is the responsibility of the certifying engineer
b) is the manufacturer responsibility
c) is identified by LRU pin-out changes
575. The arithmetic logic unit (ALU) in a central processor unit (CPU) carries
out
# a) addition, subtraction, multiplication and division
b) timing and synchronisation
c) computations as instructed
576. A seven segment display is used to

a) display octal and binary numbers only
b) display octal and decimal numbers only
# c) display alpha-numeric characters
577. What sort of gate requires two negative input voltages to operate?
a) NOT
b) XOR
# c) NAND
578. A high level language statement is usually equivalent to several

statements in
a) assembly
# b) basic
c) pascal
579. The CPU requires a clock to determine
Page 64
Sample Questions
# a) the speed of operation
b) the date and time
c) the number of bits on the highway
580. An ALU performs the following

a) Arithmetic, Logic, Branch and Move Operations
b) Arithmetic, Logic, Branch and Find Operations
# c) Input/Output operations, Arithmetic, Logic Functions
581. HIRF is acronym for

# a) High Intensity Radiated Field
b) Heavily Ionised Radio Frequencies
c) High Intensity Radio Frequencies
582. An asynchronous system

a) uses a clock pulse after a settling time to input data
# b) provides data real-time without the need for a clock pulse
c) both a and b depending on the system
583. What is the purpose of the parity bit on an ARINC 429 bus?
a) To indicate if the data is analogue
b) To indicate that the data is digital
# c) To indicate to the receiver that the data is valid
584. An analogue to digital converter (ADC) requires the following:

a) a reference voltage, an input gate, an internal counter
b) a reference voltage, an input gate, an internal counter, a comparitor
# c) a reference voltage, an input gate, a comparitor
585. When does the flight data recorder start recording?

# a) When the first engine starts
b) Parking brake released
c) Undercarriage up
586. ILS indications on PFD/ND are shown in

a) cyan
# b) magenta
c) green
587. The four distinct sections of a digital system are: sense, decide
a) divide and store
b) divide and ship
# c) act and store
588. Brake temperature displayed on a flight deck CRT has

a) same colour throughout
# b) different colour for different temperatures
c) a master warning light
589. When does the lateral deviation scale flash?
Page 65
Sample Questions
a) When the localiser rx is faulty
b) When the aircraft is out of range
# c) When the deviation is excessive
590. What is Throughput rate for the A/D converter?

# a) Number of complete digital words encoded in a specified unit of time.
b) Speed of variable resistor which senses the analogue signal
c) None of the above
591. What is the Resolution of A/D and D/A converters?

a) Resolution of the Instrument which displays the values
b) Rate at which data is converted
# c) Number of discrete values that can be represented by the digital word
592. ARINC 429 is

a) Single Source Single Sink system
# b) Single Source Multiple Sink System
c) Multiple Source Multiple Sink system
593. What is the purpose of intermediate production breaks in ARINC 429 or

629 Data cables?
# a) To allow maintenance personnel to divide the right and left system
buses into two parts for easy removal and installation
b) To allow connection of new cables to the existing ones in case of a
modification
c) Cables are only manufactured 40 feet long
Page 70 Mod 5
594. How are Alphanumeric Displays produced on a CRT
a) Raster scanning
b) by the use of X & Y EM Coils
# c) By Stroke pulse
595. In Positive Logic representation

# a) State 1 is more positive than state 0
b) state 0 is more positive than state 1
c) both states have same positive voltages but stage 1 has more
current
596. When performing test on Electronic Displays using the Built In Test
system
a) CRT continues to display current data while the SGs and Display
are internally tested
# b) SG injects a test signal into the display system and the word TEST
appears on the screen
c) Displays cannot be tested it is only SG which are tested by BITE
597. Strapdown Inertial Navigation system requires

# a) Three accelerometers and three gyros
b) Two Accelerometers and Three Gyros
Page 66
Sample Questions
c) only Ring Laser Gyros. By having the RLG there is no need of
accelerometers
598. Heading reference required to establish initial heading during alignment

sequence comes from
a) Magnetic compass installed on the airplane
b) FMS which gathers data from other Radio devices
# c) Earths Rotation
599. What is primary mode of navigation on a Modern Aeroplane?

a) Inch precise GPS
b) Both GPS and IRS
# c) Only IRS
600. HF aerials are protected against lightning strike by

# a) spark gap
b) bus terminal
c) current mode coupler
601. Where is the parity bit installed in a data word?

a) Front
b) Middle
# c) End MSB
602. In a flight director, how are small deviations corrected?

# a) Instrument feedback
b) Pilot input
c) Instrument is calibrated at fitment to remove any possible error
603. Switching within logic gates is normally achieved with the use of
a) relays
# b) diodes
c) BTB's
604. RZ bi-polar modulation consists of bits which are one of ------------ states?
a) Two
# b) Three
c) Eight
605. Which one uses bistable switches or flip-flops?

a) RAM
# b) SRAM
c) DRAM
606. A weather radar image can be displayed on the ND on all modes except
a) nav rose
b) arc
# c) plan
607. In a typical commercial aircraft Head Up Guidance System
Page 67
Sample Questions
a) all instrument information is displayed on the windshield
# b) the type of information shown on the attitude director indicator is
displayed on a transparent plate
c) only emergency indications or warnings are displayed to the pilot
608. In the ARINC 429 digital information transfer system, data may travel in:
# a) one direction only
b) both directions on the same bus simultaneously
c) both directions on the same bus sequentially by time multiplexing
609. Digital signals can be represented

a) only as a binary value
# b) by a series of integers
c) by real numbers
610. A modern Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator will display the

following:
a) Ground speed, Magnetic Heading, Way points and Localiser
# b) Waypoints, ILS Steering Information, Distance to go and Magnetic
Heading
c) ILS Steering Information, Flight director information and Glide
Slope Deviation
611. An ARINC 629 data word

a) includes an 8 bit label and a 16 bit data field
b) comprises up to 256 data bits
# c) has only 20 bits
612. Electrostatic discharge occurs when

# a) materials of different potential are brought in close proximity to each
other
b) materials are rubbed together or pulled apart
c) the ground lead on a wrist strap touches the skin
613. A type A fibre optic connector

a) is used when regular disconnection and re-connection of a cable is
required
# b) would be used for connections not regularly disconnected
c) produces a larger light loss that a type B connector
614. A full adder has

a) two inputs and one output
# b) three inputs and two outputs
c) three inputs and one output
615. The truth table of A =0011 B=0101 and X =0110 indicates that the logic
device is
a) an AND gate
b) a NOR gate
Page 68
Sample Questions
# c) an EXCLUSIVE OR gate
616. In an ARINC 429 digital word bit number 32 is used for

# a) checking parity
b) identifying word type
c) terminating the data field
617. Transistors are used in Digital to Analogue converter to

a) switch the input to "ON"
# b) switch the output to "OFF"
c) connecting the output to earth
618. For a 3 dimensional fix in a Global Positioning System

# a) Minimum of 4 satellites must be in view
b) Minimum of 3 satellites must be in view
c) Minimum of 2 satellites must be in view and altitude used to simulate
a 3rd satellite
619. Cockpit panels have a matt colour finish. The purpose is

a) so that dust and dirt are less evident on panels
# b) so that the amount of glare is reduced to minimum
c) so that pilots feel more comfortable during daytime
620. When testing EGT probe

# a) it must be soaked and ambient temperature allowance taken into
consideration
b) if its not soaked, a minimum temperature of 20 degrees C taken
as OAT
c) not necessarily soaked but ambient temperature must be taken
into consideration
621. What is the hexadecimal number AE5 in octal form

# a) 5345
b) 5340
c) 5445
622. The firmware used to convert High level instructions into Binary machine
codes in a computer is called
a) Assembler
b) Converter
# c) Compiler
623. In an aircraft equipped with TCAS II and EFIS

a) RA pitch command is shown on the EHSI and TA/RA traffic on the
EADI
# b) RA pitch command is shown on the EADI and TA/RA traffic on the
EHSI
c) RA pitch command is shown on the VSI and TA/RA traffic on the
EHSI
Page 69
Sample Questions
624. The BITE indicator on a DFDR shows Yellow color. This indicates
a) power is ON and DFDR is recording data
# b) power is OFF or DFDR is at Fault
c) power is ON but DFDR is not recording data
625. A Digital to Analogue Converter has a resolution of 0.3 Volts. What will
be the analogue output when the digital input is 10110
# a) 6.6 Volts dc
b) -6.6 Volts dc
c) 6.6 Volts rms
626. In a Master Slave, negative edge triggered JK flip flop, both inputs are
connected to logic 1. The output
a) will change state when the leading edge of the clock pulse is
applied
b) does not change state when a clock pulse is applied
# c) will change state when the trailing edge of the clock pulse is applied
627. The Shorter lead near the Flat portion of an LED is the
a) Anode
b) Gate
# c) Cathode
628. What connects an LRU to the Bus Coupler in an ARINC 629 Data Bus?
a) Patch Cord
# b) Stub Cable
c) Interconnect Cable
629. What do bits 1 to 8 represent in ARINC 429?

# a) Source of the word
b) measured parameter
c) Destination
630. Before removing an assembly from an aircraft, with regards to HIRF, you
must first ensure that there is minimum current flow between
a) you and the aircraft
# b) you and the assembly
c) the assembly and the aircraft
631. A complete EFIS installation in an aircraft is made up of

# a) left (captain) and right (co-pilot)
b) right (captain) and left (co-pilot)
c) either of the above
632. Requirements for configuration management of software can be found in

a) ATA Chap 46, Information Systems
b) JAR Ops (M)
# c) AWN 43
633. Where would you find the rules regarding upgrade of software?
Page 70
Sample Questions
a) The aircraft manufacturer
# b) AWN 43
c) JAR OPS
634. In a typical 'Glass Cockpit' EICAS provides the following:

a) engine warnings only
635. On a modern "glass cockpit" aircraft engine information will be

displayed on
a) ECAM
b) FMS
c) EFIS
636. When removing a PC card from an ESDS assembly ensure a low current
path between
a) you and the assembly
# b) you and the aircraft
c) aircraft and ground
637. What does EFIS mean?

a) Electronic Fire Indication Signal
# b) Electronic Flight Instrument System
c) Electronic Flight Information System
638. What does EICAS mean?

# a) Engine indicating and Crew ale
b) Electronic indic tor
c) Electronic indic tor and crew
639. What does ECAM mean?

a) Engine Centralised Aircraft Mo
# b) Electronic Centralised Aircraf
c) Engine Centralised Aircraft Ma
640. What is the minimum requirement for CVR to operate?

a) BEFORE engine start
# b) BEFORE take- off
c) at any time the manufacturer decides
641. ECAM system was adopted for

a) Boeing 757 and 767 aircraft
# b) Airbus A310
c) both Boeing and Airbus aircraft
642. HIRF stands for

# a) High Intensity Radia
b) High Intensity Radio
c) High Intensity Radiated Force
Page 71
Sample Questions
643. What input is required to activate the relay?
a) A=0 B=1
b) A=1 B=0
# c) A=1 B=1
644. A computer is acting in real time when

a) the time to access memory is equal to the data speed in
# b) the output is equal to the input of data
c) the CPU requires a clock pulse
645. A modern electromagnetic Flight Data Recorder, for recording data,

could use:
a) a floppy disk
# b) a plastic tape coated in ferrite
c) a copper oxide string
646. An optical fibre is constructed from

a) a plastic core with a high refractive index cladding
b) a silica glass core with a high refractive index cladding
# c) a silica glass core with a low refractive index cladding
647. Command bars on a modern EFIS represent

a) actual flight path in relation to required flight path
b) actual flight path in relation to the horizon
# c) required flight path in relation to actual flight path
648. A number represented as a physical quantity, e.g. voltage or speed of

rotation is
# a) analogue
b) digital
c) maximum value
649. A NAND gate has inputs A and B and output C. If the output (c) was
zero, what are the inputs?
a) A=0 B=0
b) A=1 B=0
# c) A=1 B=1
650. Hexadecimal 5C is what in binary?
Page 72
Sample Questions
a) 1110100
b) 1011111
# c) 1011100
651. What is the minimum requirement for a CVR to start recording?

a) On commencement of flight
# b) When aircraft is capable of moving under its own power
c) When parking brake is released
652. Binary 11001101 converted to octal is

a) 205
# b) 315
c) 12E
653. What is the binary notation for 29?

# a) 0001 1101
b) 0001 0110
c) 0010 1001
654. As a minimum requirement when must a cockpit voice recorder start

recording?
a) Once airborne after take off
# b) Once aircraft is ready to move under its own power
c) Before engine start
Page 73
EASA Part 66 : Digital Question
Module 05.Digital Techniques

05.01. Electronic Instrument Systems.
Question Number. 1. What are the basic elements for 'Classic T' format?.
Option A. Direction, altitude and height.
Option B. Airspeed, pitch and roll.
Option C. Airspeed, attitude, altitude and direction.
Correct Answer is. Airspeed, attitude, altitude and direction.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 2. Typical displays on an EHSI are.

Option A. Engine indications.
Option B. VOR, Map, Plan and weather radar.
Option C. VOR, Plan, Map and Attitude.
Correct Answer is. VOR, Map, Plan and weather radar.
Explanation. Pallett - Aircraft Instruments.
Question Number. 3. An EADI display showing a moving runway moves down during the
final stages of an approach. The aircraft must.
Option A. fly down.
Option B. fly up.
Option C. hold descent path.
Correct Answer is. fly down.
Explanation. At 200ft, during Approach, the Rising Runway starts to move up the EADI display until,
at touch down, it touches the bottom of the aircraft symbol. If the Rising Runway start to move down
again it means that the aircraft is climbing and should FLY DOWN.
Question Number. 4. During an instrument approach, the glideslope pointer eflects below the
glideslope centre mark. This means the aircraft is positioned.
Option A. above the glideslope.
Option B. below the glideslope.
Option C. to the left of the localiser.
Explanation. Consider the centre of the G/S scale as the aircraft position and the pointer as the centre
of the G/S beam.
Question Number. 5. Engine parameters are displayed on.

Option A. ECAM.
Option B. EHSI.
Option C. FMSCDU.
Explanation. Engine parameters can be displayed on ECAM by selecting the Engine Page. See Pallett
- Aircraft Instrumnets and Integrated Systems Page 391.
Question Number. 6. What is the fixed feature of an ADI?.

Option A. The glideslope pointer.
Option B. The aircraft symbol.
Option C. The lateral deviation bar.
Correct Answer is. The aircraft symbol.
Explanation. The little aeroplane pianted in the middle of the instrument.
Question Number. 7. On an EADI, the Flight Director command bars show.

Option A. the path with respect to the horizon.
Option B. the required path with respect to the actual path.
Option C. the actual path with respect to the required path.
Correct Answer is. the required path with respect to the actual path.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. What instrument includes a display of a rising runway?.

Option A. ECAM.
Option B. EHSI.
Option C. EADI.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 9. What functions are available on the EHSI?.

Option A. Full arc and Wx only.
Option B. Full arc, Wx and Map Mode.
Option C. Full Arc only.
Correct Answer is. Full arc, Wx and Map Mode.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. With radio coupled autopilot, what are the inputs?.
Option A. ADF and VOR.
Option B. ILS and VOR.
Option C. ADF and ILS.
Correct Answer is. ILS and VOR.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. An EADI display of flight director commands are

coloured.
Option A. cyan.
Option B. magenta.
Option C. red.
Explanation. Aircraft instruments and integrated systems,(pallet) page 302 fig 12.5 eadi flight director
command bars are magenta.
Question Number. 12. EFIS systems have two control panels, their purpose is.
Option A. one to control the type of EFIS display and the other to select the source of the
information being displayed.
Option B. one for the EADI display and one for the EHSI display.
Option C. to provide display control by one control panel whilst the other provides a
standby.
Correct Answer is. one to control the type of EFIS display and the other to select the source of the
information being displayed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. What would you expect to see displayed on an EADI
display?.
Option A. Compass heading, selected heading and VOR.
Option B. Course information, weather radar, way point alert and bearing pointers.
Option C. Flight director command bars, slip indicator, rate to altitude & autoland.
Correct Answer is. Flight director command bars, slip indicator, rate to altitude & autoland.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. An EFIS ADI display will show along with pitch and roll.
Option A. flight director bars, autoland, compass rose, altitude.
Option B. decision height, autoland, rad alt , altitude.
Option C. flight director bars, autoland, altitude, range to altitude, decision height.
Correct Answer is. decision height, autoland, rad alt , altitude.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. If the glideslope pointer is below the centre mark the aircraft
is.
Option A. below the glideslope.
Option B. on the glideslope.
Option C. above the glideslope.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. On an EFIS system the weather radar is displayed on.
Option A. the FMC CDU.
Option B. the EADI.
Option C. the EHSI.
Correct Answer is. the EHSI.
Question Number. 17. EADI displays show.

Option A. pitch, roll and waypoints.
Option B. pitch and roll attitudes.
Option C. heading and weather radar.
Correct Answer is. pitch and roll attitudes.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 18. On an EHSI in weather radar mode, a severe storm would be shown
as.
Option A. orange areas with black or yellow surrounds.
Option B. red areas with black surrounds
Option C. blue areas with white background.
Correct Answer is. red areas with black surrounds.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. During flight (non fault conditions) the EICAS system displays on the
lower CRT.
Option A. flight phase page.
Option B. secondary engine parameters.
Option C. synoptic display.
Correct Answer is. secondary engine parameters.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 20. Radio altitude is displayed on an EFIS system.

Option A. on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator.
Option B. on the Electronic Attitude Direction Indicator.
Option C. on the RMI.
Correct Answer is. on the Electronic Attitude Direction Indicator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. An EFIS system ADI displays pitch, roll.

Option A. autoland, altitude, compass rose and flight director bars.
Option B. autoland, decision height, range to altitude and flight director bars and slip indicator.
Option C. autoland, rad alt, decision height and slip indicator.
Correct Answer is. autoland, decision height, range to altitude and flight director bars and slip
indicator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 22. An electronic flight instrument display consists of.

Option A. Mode control panel, Raster and Stroke generator display, microprocessor and Data
inputs.
Option B. ADC, Altimeter, VSI and ASI.
Option C. ADI, HSI and Symbol generator.
Correct Answer is. Mode control panel, Raster and Stroke generator display, microprocessor and
Data inputs.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control by EHJ Pallett and Shawn Coyle page 268.
Question Number. 23. The EFIS system consists of.

Option A. EHSI, Mode control panel, EADI.
Option B. EADI, EHSI, Symbol generators.
Option C. Mode control Panel, RDMI, EHSI.
Correct Answer is. EADI, EHSI, Symbol generators.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 24. ILS indications on PFD/ND are shown in.

Option A. cyan.
Option B. magenta.
Option C. green.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 25. A weather radar image can be displayed on the ND on all modes
except.
Option A. arc.
Option B. nav rose.
Option C. plan.
Correct Answer is. plan.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 26. In a typical commercial aircraft Head Up Guidance

System.
Option A. the type of information shown on the attitude director indicator is displayed on a
transparent plate.
Option B. all instrument information is displayed on the windshield.
Option C. only emergency indications or warnings are displayed to the pilot.
Correct Answer is. the type of information shown on the attitude director indicator is displayed on a
transparent plate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 27. A modern Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator will display the
following:.
Option A. Waypoints, ILS Steering Information, Distance to go and Magnetic Heading.
Option B. ILS Steering Information, Flight director information and Glide Slope Deviation.
Option C. Ground speed, Magnetic Heading, Way points and Localiser.
Correct Answer is. Waypoints, ILS Steering Information, Distance to go and Magnetic Heading.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 28. Cockpit panels have a matt colour finish. The purpose is.
Option A. so that pilots feel more comfortable during daytime.
Option B. so that the amount of glare is reduced to minimum.
Option C. so that dust and dirt are less evident on panels.
Correct Answer is. so that the amount of glare is reduced to minimum.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 29. A complete EFIS installation in an aircraft is made up of.

Option A. either of the above.
Option B. right (captain) and left (co-pilot).
Option C. left (captain) and right (co-pilot).
Correct Answer is. either of the above.
Explanation. could be either, as helicopters are the other way round when compared to aeroplanes.
Question Number. 30. On a modern 'glass cockpit' aircraft, engine information will be displayed
on.
Option A. FMS.
Option B. EFIS.
Option C. ECAM.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 31. What does EFIS mean?.

Option A. Electronic Fire Indication Signal.
Option B. Electronic Flight Instrument System.
Option C. Electronic Flight Information System.
Correct Answer is. Electronic Flight Instrument System.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. What does EICAS mean?.

Option A. Electronic indicator and control alerting system.
Option B. Engine indicating and Crew alerting system.
Option C. Electronic indicator and crew alerting system.
Correct Answer is. Engine indicating and Crew alerting system.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 33. What does ECAM mean?.

Option A. Engine Centralised Aircraft Management System.
Option B. Engine Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System.
Option C. Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System.
Correct Answer is. Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System.
Explanation. NIL.
05.02. Numbering Systems.
Question Number. 1. Convert 011101 Base2 to octal.

Option A. 25.
Option B. 35.
Option C. 33.
Explanation. The OCTAL code has 8 digits, 0 - 7. To convert binary to octal divide the binary number
into groups of three starting from the right. You've got to know your binary, octal, hex and bcd
conversions!.
Question Number. 2. The binary number 11010111 expressed as a decimal is.

Option A. 215.
Option B. 223.
Option C. 207.
Explanation. NIL.

Option A. 9.
Option B. 65.
Option C. 513.
Explanation. NIL.

Option A. 100111001.
Option B. 101011001.
Option C. 110011001.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. What is hex 110 in decimal?.

Option A. 282.
Option B. 272.
Option C. 32.
Explanation. NIL.

Option A. 11.
Option B. 16.
Option C. 12.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. If a data message is made up of 1s and 0s, it is.

Option A. analogue.
Option B. binary.
Option C. digital.
Correct Answer is. digital.
Explanation. Digital is 1s and 0s, either binary or grey code.

Option A. 12.
Option B. 14.
Option C. 15.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 9. Convert the binary number 110010 to decimal.

Option A. 80.
Option B. 50.
Option C. 34.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. Convert the hexadecimal number D into decimal.

Option A. 13.
Option B. 15.
Option C. 14.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. Convert decimal 15 into binary.

Option A. 1111.
Option B. 1101.
Option C. 1110.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. Convert 448 to hex.

Option A. 22 Base16.
Option B. 36 Base16.
Option C. 24 Base16.
Correct Answer is. 24 Base16.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. Convert decimal 15 into hexadecimal.

Option A. G.
Option B. E.
Option C. F.
Correct Answer is. F.
Explanation. NIL.

Option A. 100111001.
Option B. 110011001.
Option C. 101011001.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. Convert 1D to binary.

Option A. 11101.
Option B. 29.
Option C. 101001.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. Convert 2C hex to octal.

Option A. 35.
Option B. 44.
Option C. 54.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. A hexadecimal is a number to base.

Option A. 2.
Option B. 16.
Option C. 8.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 18. 1012 converted to decimal is.

Option A. 52.
Option B. 210.
Option C. 510.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. The binary coded decimal number 10011000 expressed as a decimal
number is.
Option A. 1528.
Option B. 9810.
Option C. 1522.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 20. The decimal number 7 expressed as a binary number is.
Option C. 7 Base 2.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. Convert 011101 binary to octal.

Option A. 25.
Option B. 35.
Option C. 33.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 22. Binary Number: 110010 is.

Option A. 80.
Option B. 50.
Option C. 34.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 23. Binary addition of 1101 + 101101 is.

Option A. 58.
Option B. 70.
Option C. 61.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 24. The binary number 11010111 is expressed as a decimal is.
Option A. 107.
Option B. 215.
Option C. 53.
Explanation. NIL.
Option A. 713.
Option B. 613.
Option C. 513.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 26. What is 011100001 Base2 in Octal?.

Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 27. The binary number 1010100011100101 Base2 in hexadecimal

is.
Option A. 22BC Base 16.
Option B. FFFF Base 16.
Option C. A8E5 Base 16.
Correct Answer is. A8E5 Base 16.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 28. 0011011000101001 when transferred to computer language this

information can be a representation of.
Option A. binary, octal or decimal numbers.
Option B. hex, octal and binary numbers.
Option C. hex, octal and decimal numbers.
Correct Answer is. hex, octal and decimal numbers.
Explanation. Binary IS 'computer language' not a representation. Therefore any answer with 'binary'
in it is wrong.
Question Number. 29. A computer message 3B4 is.

Option A. Octal.
Option B. binary.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 30. What is 54 octal in hexadecimal?.

Option A. 2F.
Option B. 4F.
Option C. 2C.
Correct Answer is. 2C.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 31. 2D in decimal is.

Option A. 43.
Option B. 45.
Option C. 41.
Question Number. 32. 84 decimal in hexadecimal is.

Option A. 5f.
Option B. f4.
Option C. 54.
Question Number. 33. 16 hexadecimal converted to decimal is equivalent to.

Option A. 48.
Option B. 38.
Option C. 22.
Question Number. 34. Decimal 10 converted to binary is.

Option A. 1111.
Option B. 1001.
Option C. 1010.
Question Number. 35. What systems uses base 10?.

Option A. Octal.
Option B. Binary.
Option C. Decimal.
Question Number. 36. What systems use base 16?.

Option A. BCD.
Option B. Octal.
Option C. Hexadecimal.
Correct Answer is. Hexadecimal.
Question Number. 37. Binary coded decimal (BCD) format has a minimum of.
Option A. 2 lots of four.
Option B. four.
Option C. 3 lots of four.
Correct Answer is. four.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 38. What is the Hexadecimal number F86 in Binary?.

Option A. 111110000001.
Option B. 3974.
Option C. 111110000110.
Explanation. Convert it to Decimal first (15 x 256 + 8 x 16 + 6 x 1) = 3974. Since it is an even
number, it must be the answer with a zero on the end.
Question Number. 39. What is 11000012 - 1011002?.

Question Number. 40. What is used for the power of 10?.

Option A. Digital.
Option B. Octal.
Option C. Decimal.
Explanation. Decimal is a power of 10 counting system.
Question Number. 41. What is 44 in hexadecimal?.

Option A. 2d.
Option B. 2c.
Option C. 2F.
Correct Answer is. 2c.
Explanation. (2 * 16) + (12 * 1) = 44 (c = 12).
Question Number. 42. What is octal 33 in hexadecimal?.

Option A. 1b.
Option B. 11.
Option C. 22.
Correct Answer is. 1b.
Explanation. Octal 33 = (3 * 8) + (3 * 1) = 27 decimal. 27 = (1 * 16) + (11 * 1) = 1b (b = 11).
Question Number. 43. An octal format hexadecimal number 3F written as binary would
be.
Option A. 110 111.
Option B. 111 111.
Option C. 101 011.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 44. What is f86 hex when converted to binary?.

Option A. 1000010000110.
Option B. 111110000110.
Option C. 100000000000.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 45. In a computer, the address 3B8 is.

Option B. decimal.
Option C. octal.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 46. What is a Grays converter?.

Option A. Analogue to Analogue.
Option B. Analogue to Digital.
Option C. Digital to Analogue.
Correct Answer is. Analogue to Digital.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 47. What is the hexadecimal number AE5 in octal form?.
Option A. 5445.
Option B. 5340.
Option C. 5345.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 48. Hexadecimal 5C is what in binary?.

Option A. 1011111.
Option B. 1011100.
Option C. 1110100.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 49. Binary 11001101 converted to octal is.

Option A. 12E.
Option B. 315.
Option C. 205.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 50. What is the binary notation for 29?.

Option A. 0001 0110.
Option B. 0010 1001.
Option C. 0001 1101.
Explanation. Despite the deliberate gap between the blocks of 4 digits, this is not a BCD question.
Question Number. 51. 101012 + 110012 =.

Option A. 462.
Option B. 468.
Option C. 4610.
Explanation. 101012 + 110012 = 1011102 = 4610.
05.03. Data Conversion.
Question Number. 1. If a signal has quantity in volts and physical position it is.
Option A. digital.
Option B. synchronous.
Option C. analogue.
Explanation. This is the definition of an analogue signal.
Question Number. 2. Within a computer controlled flight system, position feedback is

converted from.
Option A. position feedback to rate feedback.
Option C. digital to analogue.
Correct Answer is. analogue to digital.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. What is serial to parallel and vice-versa called?.

Option A. Switching.
Option B. Multiplex/Demultiplex.
Option C. Encoder/Decoder.
Correct Answer is. Multiplex/Demultiplex.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. A thyristor is a device which has.

Option A. a positive temperature coefficient.
Option B. a negative temperature coefficient.
Option C. a temperature coefficient of zero.
Correct Answer is. a negative temperature coefficient.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. Physical variables in quantitative forms, such as voltage or angular

rotation of a shaft are.
Option A. digital.
Option B. analogue.
Option C. binary.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. A D to A converter is required to produce an output range of 0 to 10V.

This can be achieved by.
Option A. a non inverting op amp connected in series with output.
Option B. an inverting op amp connected in series with output.
Option C. a differentiator with a 100 Kilohm feedback resistor.
Correct Answer is. an inverting op amp connected in series with output.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. A D to A converter would use a precision amplifier to.

Option A. compensate for the variation of the feedback resistor with temperature.
Option B. ensure that the output voltages remain accurate.
Option C. ensure that the input voltage remains accurate.
Correct Answer is. ensure that the output voltages remain accurate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. A given transducer provides a voltage which corresponds to true heading.
This voltage can beconverted to 'bits' by using a.
Option A. analogue to digital converter.
Option B. digital to analogue converter.
Option C. commutator.
Correct Answer is. analogue to digital converter.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 9. An A to D converter uses successive approximation to.
Option A. increase resolution.
Option C. increase speed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. An R-2R D to A converter uses.

Option A. two values of resistors whose precision is not important.
Option B. two values of precision resistors.
Option C. resistors whose values are logarithmic.
Correct Answer is. two values of resistors whose precision is not important.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. The function of a commutator is to.

Option A. convert from analogue to binary form.
Option B. provide continuous availability of all parameters connected to the system.
Option C. provide a sampling in sequence of a number of parameters.
Correct Answer is. provide a sampling in sequence of a number of parameters.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. An encoder using Grey code.

Option A. changes analogue to binary.
Option B. changes digital to analogue.
Option C. changes analogue to digital.
Correct Answer is. changes analogue to digital.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. An analogue to digital converter is as accurate as.

Option A. the frequency.
Option B. the sampling rate.
Option C. the amplitude.
Correct Answer is. the sampling rate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. A digital to analogue converter that requires the output to range between
0v and -10v would have.
Option A. a non-inverting amplifier in line with the output with a resistor to ground.
Option B. an inverting amplifier in series with the output line.
Option C. a non-inverting amplifier in parallel with the output line.
Correct Answer is. an inverting amplifier in series with the output line.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. In an analogue to digital converter, the input voltage.
Option A. is switched by the digital input.
Option B. is intermittent.
Option C. stays on constantly.
Correct Answer is. stays on constantly.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. An R-2R Converter has values or resistance.

Option A. whose relative precision are accurate.
Option B. whose precision are not accurate.
Option C. whose precision are accurate.
Correct Answer is. whose precision are not accurate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. What does 1 represent in an analogue system?.

Option A. High frequency
Option B. Switches closed, magnetised
Option C. Switches open, unmagnetised
Correct Answer is. Switches closed, magnetised
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 18. Audio sounds recorded digitally.

Option A. are superior quality and graeter bandwidth.
Option B. are narrow bandwidth.
Option C. are not as accurate due to clipping and input errors.
Correct Answer is. are superior quality and graeter bandwidth.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. An analogue to digital converter where it counts up to binary state equal
to the analogue input and then back down when this is reached is a.
Option A. a ramp type converter.
Option B. successive approximation counter.
Option C. flash type converter.
Correct Answer is. a ramp type converter.
Explanation. Digital Fundamentals T L Floyd page 790.
Question Number. 20. Transistors are used in a current triggered D to A device to.
Option A. switch off the inputs.
Option B. switch on the input.
Option C. change the state of the inputs.
Correct Answer is. change the state of the inputs.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. Op amps generally used in ADCs and DACs are normally.
Option A. high input impedance, high output impedance.
Option B. high input impedance, low output impedance.
Option C. low input impedance , how output impedance.
Correct Answer is. high input impedance, low output impedance.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 22. Analogue logic 1 is.

Option A. closed switch, Logic Q=0.
Option B. closed circuit, Logic Q=1.
Option C. open circuit.
Correct Answer is. closed circuit, Logic Q=1.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 23. An ADC uses successive approximation to.

Option A. increase speed.
Option C. increase resolution.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 24. A DAC uses a precision amplifier to.

Option A. ensure the output voltages remain accurate.
Option B. compensates for the variation of the feedback resistor due to temperature.
Option C. ensure the input remains accurate.
Correct Answer is. ensure the output voltages remain accurate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 25. A precision op-amp is used in a DAC to.

Option A. compensate for temperature variation.
Option B. give output at required level.
Option C. make output between 0 - 5V.
Correct Answer is. give output at required level.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 26. In an R-2R ladder converter the values of resistors.

Option A. do not need to be of precise values.
Option B. only the first resistor need to be precise.
Option C. are precise.
Correct Answer is. do not need to be of precise values.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 27. What is the quickest method of analogue to digital
conversion?.
Option A. Voltage to frequency.
Option B. Flash converter.
Option C. Single ramp method.
Correct Answer is. Flash converter.
Explanation. Digital Fundamentals by Thomas L Floyd.
Question Number. 28. A charge balancing ADC uses.

Option A. successive approximation logic circuit to control the output.
Option B. a closed loop system to compare the analogue input to give the required digital
output.
Option C. a closed loop system to check the analogue input with the input sample.
Correct Answer is. a closed loop system to compare the analogue input to give the required digital
output.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 29. Sample and hold is a technique used in.

Option A. D to A conversion.
Option B. Moving coil instruments.
Option C. A to D conversion.
Correct Answer is. A to D conversion.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 30. An analogue to digital converter (ADC) requires the

following.
Option A. a reference voltage, an input gate, an internal counter, a comparitor.
Option B. a reference voltage, an input gate, a comparator.
Option C. a reference voltage, an input gate, an internal counter.
Correct Answer is. a reference voltage, an input gate, a comparator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 31. What is 'Throughput Rate' for the A/D converter?.
Option A. Number of complete digital words encoded in a specified unit of time.
Option B. None of the above.
Option C. Speed of variable resistor which senses the analogue signal.
Correct Answer is. Number of complete digital words encoded in a specified unit of time.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. What is the Resolution of A/D and D/A converters?.
Option A. Resolution of the Instrument which displays the values.
Option B. Number of discrete values that can be represented by the digital word.
Option C. Rate at which data is converted.
Correct Answer is. Number of discrete values that can be represented by the digital word.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 33. Digital signals can be represented.

Option A. only as a binary value.
Option B. by a series of integers.
Option C. by real numbers.
Correct Answer is. by a series of integers.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 34. When testing EGT probe.

Option A. it must be soaked and ambient temperature allowance taken into consideration.
Option B. not necessarily soaked but ambient temperature must be taken into consideration.
Option C. if its not soaked, a minimum temperature of 20 degrees C taken as OAT.
Correct Answer is. it must be soaked and ambient temperature allowance taken into
consideration.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 35. A Digital to Analogue Converter has a resolution of 0.3 Volts. What will
be the analogue output when the digital input is 10110.
Option A. 6.6 Volts RMS.
Option B. -6.6 Volts DC.G36.
Option C. 6.6 Volts DC.
Correct Answer is. 6.6 Volts DC.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 36. A number represented as a physical quantity, e.g. voltage or speed of
rotation is.
Option A. digital.
Option B. maximum value.
Option C. analogue.
Explanation. NIL.
05.04. Data Buses.
Question Number. 1. In arinc 629, LRUs are programmed to transmit.

Option A. one at a time.
Option B. one transmits and one recieves.
Option C. all at the same time.
Correct Answer is. one transmits and one recieves.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 2. In aircraft use, fibre optic cables should comply with.
Option A. ARINC 629 standard.
Option B. ARIND 429 standard.
Option C. ARIND 636 standard.
Correct Answer is. ARIND 636 standard.
Explanation. NIL.

Option A. one cable, bi-directional.
Option B. two cables, uni-directional.
Option C. two cables, bi directional.
Correct Answer is. two cables, bi directional.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. An ARINC 573 data bus is used.

Option A. to input into a Digital Flight Data Recorder.
Option B. to supply digital inputs from a Symbol Generator to the EADI and EHSI.
Option C. to input into a FDR Digital Acquisition Unit.
Correct Answer is. to input into a Digital Flight Data Recorder.
Explanation. The FDR can have different inputs depending upon the age of the system, modern
systems use ARINC 573. The inputs to FDR DAU are only analogue, discreet and ARINC 429. The
interface between SGUs, EADI and EHSI is only ARINC 429.

Option B. two bi-directional twin sheathed and earthed wires.
Option C. a single twin wire cable for each transmitter.
Question Number. 6. The ARINC 429 data bus word systems use.
Option A. binary coded decimal.
Option B. decimal numbering.
Option C. hexadecimal numbering.
Question Number. 7. ARINC 573 is related to what system?.

Option A. Weather Radar.
Option B. FDR.
Option C. INS.
Correct Answer is. FDR.
Question Number. 8. ARINC 629 current mode couplers are.
Option A. capacitive.
Option B. resistive.
Option C. inductive.
Correct Answer is. inductive.
Explanation. NIL.

Option A. one bus, bi-directional data flow.
Option B. two buses, unidirectional.
Option C. two buses, bi-directional data flow.
Correct Answer is. one bus, bi-directional data flow.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. Normal transmission order of ARINC 629 LRUs in periodic mode is in
order of.
Option A. shortest to largest TI.
Option B. shortest to largest TG.
Option C. power up.
Correct Answer is. power up.
Explanation. B777 MM 23-91-00 pg 41. Shortest to longest terminal gap is for aperiodic mode only.
Question Number. 11. In an ARINC 429 wordstring, bits 1 to 8 represent the.

Option A. destination LRU address.
Option B. monitored parameter.
Option C. message.
Correct Answer is. monitored parameter.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 159 and ARINCs tutorial.

Option B. unique to each terminal.
Option C. when all terminals are quiet.
Explanation. The ARINC 629 TI is common to all LRUs.
Question Number. 13. MIL-STD-1533 is a data bus for.

Option A. Inertial Reference System.
Option B. Flight Data Recorders.
Option C. Digital Information Transfer System.
Correct Answer is. Digital Information Transfer System.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. ARINC 629 periodic mode is used for.
Option A. transferring data only on events important to aircraft operation.
Option B. database loads.
Option C. normal operation.
Correct Answer is. normal operation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. How is data coupled to an ARINC 629 data bus?.
Option A. By a resistive pickup.
Option B. By an inductive pickup.
Option C. By a capacitive pickup.
Correct Answer is. By an inductive pickup.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. How does MIL-STD-1533 put data onto the databus?.
Option A. Through the bus controller.
Option B. R1 (remote terminal).
Option C. SSIFU (sub-system interface unit).
Correct Answer is. Through the bus controller.
Explanation. Through the bus controller.
Question Number. 17. The parity bit in digital information is used.

Option A. to check the validity of data information.
Option B. for BITE programs.
Option C. to check the status of the system.
Correct Answer is. to check the validity of data information.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 18. ARINC 429 SDI word format is at bits.

Option A. 32.
Option B. 1-8.
Option C. 9-10.
Explanation. SDI = Source Destination Ident.
Question Number. 19. What is the parity bit for on an ARINC 429 bus?.
Option A. To act as a terminal gap in an emergency.
Option B. To delay the signal.
Option C. To check for corruption during transmission of a word.
Correct Answer is. To check for corruption during transmission of a word.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 20. An ARINC 429 word label format is.

Option B. octal.
Option C. binary.
Correct Answer is. octal.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. How many LRUs can be connected to an ARINC 429 data bus?.
Option A. 120.
Option B. 60.
Option C. 20.
Explanation. NIL.

Option B. is when all transmissions are quiet.
Option C. unique to each terminal.
Explanation. NIL.

Option B. a single twin cable for each transmitter.
Option C. two bi-directional twin, sheathed and earthed wires.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 24. ARINC 429 data bus systems uses.

Option A. hexadecimal numbering.
Option B. binary coded decimal.
Option C. decimal numbering.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 25. An ARINC 429 Binary Coded Decimal word occupies word
bits.
Option A. 1-8.
Option B. 11-29.
Option C. 11-28.
Explanation. Two versions of ARINC 429. BCD uses 11 - 29, Binary uses 11 - 28.
Question Number. 26. An ARINC 429 system uses a.

Option A. 20 bit word over a bi-directional bus.
Option B. 32 bit word over a twisted pair of wires.
Option C. 16 bit word over a twisted pair of wires.
Correct Answer is. 32 bit word over a twisted pair of wires.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 27. An ARINC 629 characteristic is.

Option A. all LRUs can transmit and receive at the same time.
Option B. data can transmit in both directions down the data bus.
Option C. all LRUs can transmit at the same time.
Correct Answer is. data can transmit in both directions down the data bus.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 28. What limits the number of ARINC 429 receivers on a bus?.
Option A. The speed and size.
Option B. The weight.
Option C. The parallel input impedance.
Correct Answer is. The parallel input impedance.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 29. Data is transferred on the MIL-STD-1553B by.

Option C. bi-polar return to zero.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 30. How are engine indications sent to the FDR?.
Option A. Source isolated.
Option B. Via ARINC 629.
Option C. Via ARINC 573.
Correct Answer is. Via ARINC 573.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 31. What system uses base 8?.

Option A. ARINC 429, in dataword labels only.
Option B. ARINC 573.
Option C. ARINC 629.
Correct Answer is. ARINC 429, in dataword labels only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. On an ARINC 629 data bus, the maximum amount of current-mode
couplers per data bus is.
Option A. 46.
Option B. 120.
Option C. 64.
Explanation. 120 LRUs maximum (but the B777 uses 46).
Question Number. 33. To connect an LRU to the data bus.

Option A. a terminal controller and interface module only is required.
Option B. current mode coupler, terminal controller and a production break is required.
Option C. a current mode coupler, serial interface module and terminal controller is required.
Correct Answer is. a current mode coupler, serial interface module and terminal controller is
required.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 34. A current-mode coupler contains an E-Core assembly. The purpose of the
E-Core is to provide effective screening of the signal through the.
Option A. current-mode coupler.
Option B. couple the signal to the data bus.
Option C. enable easy access for monitoring of the signal.
Correct Answer is. couple the signal to the data bus.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 35. The ARINC 429 low rate of transmission is.
Option A. 100 kbits/second with high of 12-14 Mbits/second.
Option B. 12-14 Kbits/second with high of 100 kBits/second.
Option C. 12-14 Mbits/second with high of 100 Mbits/secon.
Correct Answer is. 12-14 Kbits/second with high of 100 kBits/second.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 36. An ARINC 629 bus cable is a twisted pair of wires with.
Option A. a 130 ohm resistor at one end.
Option B. a 130 ohm resistor at both ends.
Option C. a 230 ohm resistor at one end.
Correct Answer is. a 130 ohm resistor at both ends.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 37. An ARINC 629 stub cable.

Option A. connects single directional data between the LRU and current mode coupler.
Option B. connects bi-directional data between the LRU and current mode coupler.
Option C. connects bi-directional data between two LRUs.
Correct Answer is. connects bi-directional data between the LRU and current mode coupler.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 38. Care must be taken when installing ARINC 629 cables into bus panels,
damage to cables can cause.
Option A. corrosion of the conductor.
Option B. arcing of high voltage signals.
Option C. standing waves.
Correct Answer is. corrosion of the conductor.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 39. An aircraft databus system.

Option A. can use both ARINC 629 and ARINC 429 as they are compatible.
Option B. can use both systems, ARINC 629 and ARINC 429 via system card files and signal
gateways.
Option C. cannot use both ARINC 629 and ARINC 429 data buses.
Correct Answer is. can use both systems, ARINC 629 and ARINC 429 via system card files and
signal gateways.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 40. ARINC 629 is used for.

Option A. emergency only.
Option B. a backup to ARINC 429.
Option C. normal flight.
Correct Answer is. normal flight.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 41. Once an ARINC 629 LRU has transmitted a message it will wait how
long before transmitting again?.
Option A. Until the end of the synchronization gap.
Option B. Until the start of the terminal gap.
Option C. Until the end of the transmit interval
Correct Answer is. Until the end of the transmit interval.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 42. How is the word label 206 written in ARINC 429?.
Option A. Decimal 206.
Option B. Octal 01100001.
Option C. Binary 11000110.
Correct Answer is. Octal 01100001.
Explanation. Label is Octal - MSB to right - so yes, it is backwards.

Option A. Fly by Wire systems.
Option B. Flight Data Recorder systems.
Option C. Inertial Navigation Systems.
Correct Answer is. Inertial Navigation Systems.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 44. An ARINC data word is bits 11-29, if bits 11-18 are patched which of the
following would be the LSB bit?.
Option A. 19.
Option B. 29.
Option C. 21.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 45. Fibreoptic databus links are.

Option A. simplex.
Option B. bi-directional.
Option C. one way data buses.
Correct Answer is. bi-directional.
Explanation. NIL.

Option A. half duplex.
Option B. full duplex.
Option C. simplex.
Correct Answer is. half duplex.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 47. A signal in an ARINC 629 system uses.

Option A. a pair of wires per transmitter unit.
Option B. a single wire.
Option C. a twisted pair of wires or fibre optics.
Correct Answer is. a twisted pair of wires or fibre optics.
Question Number. 48. An in-series ARINC 429 system transmits using.

Option A. encoder.
Option B. time division multiplexing.
Option C. wave division multiplexing.
Correct Answer is. time division multiplexing.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 49. A terminal controller.

Option A. is repetitive transmitting.
Option B. will transmit only once during each transmit interval.
Option C. transmits only when addressed.
Correct Answer is. will transmit only once during each transmit.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 50. The number of LRUs which transmit/receive on ARINC-429 is

dependent upon.
Option A. speed of transmission & size of aircraft systems.
Option B. parallel input impedance.
Option C. size of S.D.I.
Correct Answer is. parallel input impedance.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 51. One of the ARINC 429 formats is.

Option A. BCD.
Option B. octal.
Correct Answer is. BCD.
Question Number. 52. A group of bits transmitted at the same time is.
Option A. parallel data.
Option B. a clock signal.
Option C. serial data.
Correct Answer is. parallel data.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 53. The ARINC 429 system uses which of the following system to transfer
data?.
Option A. Non return to zero.
Option B. Harvard bi phase.
Option C. Bi-directional return to zero.
Correct Answer is. Bi-directional return to zero.
Question Number. 54. Which of the following ARINCs is bidirectional?.

Option A. 629.
Option B. 429.
Option C. 573.
Question Number. 55. Data is transferred on the MIL-STD-1553B by using.

Option C. bipolar return to zero.
Explanation. http://www.condoreng.com MIL-STD-1553 tutorial
Question Number. 56. The general arrangement of ARINC 629 includes.

Option A. databus cable, current mode coupler, stub cable.
Option B. current mode coupler, databus cable only.
Option C. databus cable, stub cable, voltage mode coupler.
Correct Answer is. databus cable, current mode coupler, stub cable.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 57. ARINC 629 Databus cables are terminated using.
Option A. 100 ohms resistor.
Option B. 130 ohms resistor.
Option C. 25 ohms resistor.
Correct Answer is. 130 ohms resistor.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 58. In ARINC 429 data field is bits 11 to 28. If the bits 11 to 18 had pad bits,
the L.S.B. Of the data would be.
Option A. bit 11.
Option B. bit 28.
Option C. bit 19.
Correct Answer is. bit 19.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 59. The BCD data field of ARINC 429 is contained within bits.
Option A. 11-29.
Option B. 11-28.
Option C. 1-8.
Explanation. Binary Word is 11 - 28. BCD Word is 11 - 29.
Question Number. 60. ARINC 629 is transmitted using.

Option A. single wire for each transmitter.
Option B. fibre optics or twisted pair of wires.
Option C. SWG 28 wire.
Correct Answer is. fibre optics or twisted pair of wires.

Option A. 1 transmitter and multiple receivers.
Option B. 1 bus controller and 1 remote terminal.
Option C. 1 bus controller and multiple receivers.
Correct Answer is. 1 transmitter and multiple receivers.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 62. To create a bi-directional communications link within an ARINC 429
system.
Option A. four databuses are required.
Option B. only one databus is required.
Option C. two databuses are required.
Correct Answer is. two databuses are required.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 63. Why does an ARINC databus system send data to LRUs in
series?.
Option A. Saves weight.
Option B. More information can be sent.
Option C. Takes less time.
Correct Answer is. Saves weight.
Question Number. 64. Can an LRU transmit and receive on more than one 629
bus?.
Option A. Yes.
Option B. Only if paralleled.
Option C. No.
Correct Answer is. Yes.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 65. ARINC 629 LRUs transmit.

Option A. when addressed.
Option B. when signal gap is sensed.
Option C. when terminal gap is sensed.
Correct Answer is. when terminal gap is sensed.
Question Number. 66. An ARINC 429 BCD word occupies bits 11-29, if 11-15 are filled with
padders then the LSB of the word will be.
Option A. 11.
Option B. 16.
Option C. 29.
Option A. one transmitter, many receivers.
Option B. a bus controller and separate controller.
Option C. one transmitter, one receiver.
Correct Answer is. one transmitter, many receivers.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 68. In an Arinc 429 Word label-representing heading is 320, this is
represented in bits 1- 8 as.
Option A. 01011001.
Option B. 00001011.
Option C. 01101000.
Explanation. Octal 320 converted to binary, and reversed.
Question Number. 69. In ARINC 629 aperiodic mode, LRUs transmit in order of.
Option A. longest terminal gap to shortest terminal gap.
Option B. power up.
Option C. shortest terminal gap to longest terminal gap.
Correct Answer is. shortest terminal gap to longest terminal gap.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 70. ARINC 629, aperiodic mode is used.

Option A. for landing and approach operation.
Option B. for normal operation.
Option C. for database loads.
Correct Answer is. for database loads.
Explanation. B777 MM 23-91-00 pg 41. Periodic mode is for normal operation. Aperiodic mode is
for non-normal operation and large information transfer such as database loads and operating software
loads.
Question Number. 71. How is ARINC 429 bi-directional data transfer achieved?.
Option A. Via a current mode coupler.
Option B. Using two data buses.
Option C. Via a twisted pair of shielded cables.
Correct Answer is. Using two data buses.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 72. The data format use to transmit signal to flight data
recorder.
Option A. Harvard bi-phase 12 bit.
Option B. Bi-Polar RZ 12 bit.
Option C. Manchester 2 bi-phase 12 bit.
Correct Answer is. Harvard bi-phase 12 bit.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 73. The output voltage of ARINC 429 signal is.
Option A. +5v.
Option B. +10v to -10v. H73.
Option C. -5v.
Correct Answer is. +10v to -10v. H73.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 74. An ARINC 629 label word is.

Option A. 10 bits.
Option B. 12 bits.
Option C. 8 bits.
Correct Answer is. 12 bits.
Explanation. 12-bit label field, 4-bit label extension, single parity, 3-bit time hi-lo synch pulse. 20 bit
in total.
Question Number. 75. The T/R of ARINC 629 is.

Option A. Encoder / decoder.
Option B. Multiplex / demultiplex.
Option C. switching.
Correct Answer is. Multiplex / demultiplex.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 76. Terminal gap in ARINC 629 is.

Option A. always the same period.
Option B. flexible.
Option C. can be changed by adjusting the rx/tx software.
Correct Answer is. can be changed by adjusting the rx/tx software.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin 5th Ed, pg149.
Question Number. 77. How does ARINC 629 bus transmit and receive
information?.
Option A. Sockets and pins.
Option B. Inductive coupling.
Option C. Optical coupling.
Correct Answer is. Inductive coupling.
Explanation. NIL.

Option A. To specify LRU pin-outs.
Option B. To specify Radio Comms data bus.
Option C. To specify Flight Data Recorder data bus.
Correct Answer is. To specify Radio Comms data bus.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 79. What is the purpose of the parity bit on an ARINC 429
bus?.
Option A. To indicate if the data is analogue.
Option B. To indicate that the data is digital.
Option C. To indicate to the receiver that the data is valid.
Correct Answer is. To indicate to the receiver that the data is valid.
Explanation. NIL.

Option A. Single Source Multiple Sink System.
Option B. Multiple Source Multiple Sink system.
Option C. Single Source Single Sink system.
Correct Answer is. Single Source Multiple Sink System.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 81. What is the purpose of intermediate production breaks in ARINC 429 or
629 Data cables?.
Option A. Cables are only manufactured 40 feet long.
Option B. To allow maintenance personnel to divide the right and left system buses into two parts
for easy removal and installation.
Option C. To allow connection of new cables to the existing ones in case of a modification.
Correct Answer is. To allow maintenance personnel to divide the right and left system buses into
two parts for easy removal and installation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 82. Where is the parity bit installed in a data word?.
Option A. Front.
Option B. End MSB.
Option C. Middle.
Correct Answer is. End MSB.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 83. RZ bi-polar modulation consists of bits which are one of __________
states?.
Option A. Eight.
Option B. Two.
Option C. Three.
Correct Answer is. Three.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 84. In the ARINC 429 digital information transfer system, data may travel
in:.
Option A. both directions on the same bus simultaneously.
Option B. one direction only.
Option C. both directions on the same bus sequentially by time multiplexing.
Correct Answer is. one direction only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 85. An ARINC 629 data word.

Option A. includes an 8 bit label and a 16 bit data field.
Option B. has only 20 bits.
Option C. comprises up to 256 data bits.
Correct Answer is. has only 20 bits.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 86. In an ARINC 429 digital word bit number 32 is used for.
Option A. terminating the data field.
Option B. checking parity.
Option C. identifying word type.
Correct Answer is. checking parity.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 87. What connects an LRU to the Bus Coupler in an ARINC 629 Data
Bus?.
Option A. Patch Cord.
Option B. Stub Cable.
Option C. Interconnect Cable.
Correct Answer is. Stub Cable.
Explanation. NIL.
05.05a. Logic Circuits.
Question Number. 1. What is the equivalent of this gate?.
Option A. = (NOT-A + NOT-B).

Option B. = (A + B)NOT.
Option C. = (A.B)NOT.
Correct Answer is. = (NOT-A + NOT-B).
Explanation. Draw the truth table for the NAND gate, then draw the truth tables for each answer in
turn until you get one to match.
Question Number. 2. A NOR gate with both inputs inverted becomes a.
Option A. NAND gate.
Option B. AND gate.
Option C. OR gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. Adding invertors to the two inputs of an AND gate makes
a.
Option A. OR gate.
Option B. NOR gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. This truth table is for a.
Option A. OR gate.
Option B. AND gate.
Explanation. NIL.

Option A. OR gate.
Option B. Exclusive OR gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. Making an inverter from a NAND or NOR gate is achieved

by.
Option A. connecting the inputs.
Option B. inverting the input.
Option C. connecting two in series.
Correct Answer is. connecting the inputs.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. An AND gate output is 1 when inputs are.

Option A. both 1.
Option B. both 0.
Option C. 1 and 0.
Correct Answer is. both 1.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. What sort of gate requires two positive voltages to

operate?.
Option A. AND.
Option B. OR.
Option C. NOT.
Correct Answer is. AND.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 9. When will a NAND gate give logic 0 at the output?.
Option A. When both inputs are at 1.
Option B. When the inputs are different.
Option C. When both inputs are at 0.
Correct Answer is. When both inputs are at 1.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. Which logic gate has this truth table?.
Option A. NOT.
Option B. NAND.
Option C. Exclusive OR.
Correct Answer is. Exclusive OR.
Explanation. NIL.
Option A. Exclusive OR.
Option B. NAND.
Option C. OR.
Correct Answer is. OR.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. What is this truth table?.
Option A. NOR gate.

Option B. NOT gate.
Option C. AND gate.
Explanation.
Question Number. 13. What sort of gate is this?.
Option A. NOT gate.

Option B. NOR gate.
Option C. Or gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. The output of a NOT gate is logic 1. The input is.
Option A. logic 0.
Option B. logic 1.
Option C. both logic 1.
Correct Answer is. logic 0.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. When the voltage that represents a logic 1 state is less than the voltage
that represents a logic 0 state, the logic being used is.
Option A. either positive or negative.
Option B. positive.
Option C. negative.
Correct Answer is. negative.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. The output of an AND gate having two inputs A and B is logic 1. The
two inputs will have the logic states of.
Option A. A = 0, B = 0.
Option B. A = 1, B = 0.
Option C. A = 1, B = 1.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. The output of an OR gate having two inputs A and B is logic 0. The two
inputs will have the logic states of.
Option A. A = 1, B = 0.
Option B. A = 0, B = 1.
Option C. A = 0, B = 0.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 18. What is this symbol?.

Option A. Exclusive AND gate.
Option B. Exclusive NOR gate.
Option C. Exclusive OR gate.
Correct Answer is. Exclusive OR gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. What Logic Gate does this switch circuit indicate?.
Option A. NOR gate.

Option B. AND gate.
Option C. OR gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 20. Which logic gate has both inputs high to get an output?.
Option A. AND gate.
Option B. OR gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. A NAND and NOR to become a NOT gate have.
Option A. inputs inverted.
Option B. outputs inverted.
Option C. inputs connected together.
Correct Answer is. inputs connected together.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 22. An AND gate with inverted inputs and an inverted output is equivalent
to.
Option A. an AND gate.
Option C. an OR gate.
Correct Answer is. an OR gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 23. Logic gates internal operating mechanisms are produced
from.
Option A. thin film resistors.
Option B. transistors.
Option C. diodes.
Correct Answer is. transistors.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 24. A logic 1 may be represented in an analogue system by (where Q is an

output of a latch / flip-flop).
Option A. switch closed / light off / Not Q.
Option B. positive / magnetised / Q.
Option C. switch open / light on / Q.
Correct Answer is. positive / magnetised / Q.
Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 26. What logic gate would this circuit represent?.
Option A. NAND Gate.

Option B. NOR gate.
Option C. AND gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 27. What type of gate is this?.
Option A. NAND.
Option B. NOT.
Option C. E-OR.
Correct Answer is. E-OR.
Explanation. E-OR is another name for XOR.
Question Number. 28. What sort of gate requires two negative input voltages to
operate?.
Option A. OR.
Option B. NAND.
Option C. NOT.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 28. What sort of gate requires two negative input voltages to
operate?.
Option A. NAND.
Option B. OR.
Option C. NOT.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 29. In Positive Logic representation.

Option A. both states have same positive voltages but stage 1 has more current.
Option B. state 1 is more positive than state 0.
Option C. state 0 is more positive than state 1.
Correct Answer is. state 1 is more positive than state 0.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 30. Switching within logic gates is normally achieved with the use
of.
Option A. BTB's.
Option B. relays.
Option C. diodes.
Correct Answer is. diodes.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 31. The truth table of A =0011 B=0101 and =0110 indicates that the logic
device is.
Option A. an ECLUSIVE OR gate.
Option C. an AND gate.
Correct Answer is. an ECLUSIVE OR gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. What input is required to activate the relay shown?.
Option A. A=0 B=1.

Option B. A=1 B=0.
Option C. A=1 B=1.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 33. A NAND gate has inputs A and B and output C. If the output (c) was
zero, what are the inputs?.
Option A. A=1 B=1.
Option B. A=0 B=0.
Option C. A=1 B=0.
Explanation. NIL.
05.05b. Logic Circuits.
Question Number. 1. The 'fan-in' in a gate is the.

Option A. number of inputs to a gate.
Option B. number of outputs from a gate.
Option C. number of inputs and outputs of a gate.
Correct Answer is. number of inputs to a gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 2. What does the logic circuit shown represent?.
Option A. Full Adder Circuit.

Option B. Half adder circuit.
Option C. Multi-bit adder.
Correct Answer is. Full Adder Circuit.
Explanation. NIL.
Option A. 1, 1.
Option B. 0, 1.
Option C. 0, 0.
Explanation. Check out the table on http://www.play-hookey.com/digital/adder.html.
http://www.play-hookey.com/digital/adder.html
Option A. 0, 1.
Option B. 1, 1.
Option C. 1, 0.
Explanation. Check out the table on http://www.play-hookey.com/digital/adder.html.
http://www.play-hookey.com/digital/adder.html
Question Number. 5. Tristate devices are found.
Option A. on input circuits.
Option B. on output circuits.
Option C. on both input and output circuits.
Correct Answer is. on input circuits.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. A full adder has.

Option A. three inputs and two outputs.
Option B. two inputs and one output.
Option C. three inputs and one output.
Correct Answer is. three inputs and two outputs.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. What is the Boolean Algebra for the circuit shown?.
Option A. .
Option B. .
Option C. .
Correct Answer is. .
Explanation. NIL.
05.06a. Basic Computer Structure.

Question Number. 1. In a computer memory device, which one of these has the slowest access
time?.
Option A. floppy disk.
Option C. 8mm video tape.
Correct Answer is. magnetic tape.
Explanation. 8mm video tape is not (and never has been) a computer memory device.
Question Number. 2. The advantage of DRAM over SRAM is.

Option A. are cheaper to manufacture.
Option B. has a larger storage capacity per chip area.
Option C. they operate slower.
Correct Answer is. has a larger storage capacity per chip area.
Explanation. NIL. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/DRAM
Question Number. 3. A BYTE is usually.

Option A. an 8 bit word.
Option B. a six bit word.
Option C. a 12 bit word.
Correct Answer is. an 8 bit word.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. What is the definition of baud rate?.

Option A. 1 word per second.
Option B. 1 byte per second.
Option C. 1 bit per second.
Correct Answer is. 1 bit per second.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. Which would have the least components?.

Option A. ALU.
Option B. CPU.
Option C. LSI.
Correct Answer is. ALU.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. What is a baud?.

Option A. A bit of data.
Option B. A block of data.
Option C. A byte of data.
Correct Answer is. A bit of data.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. In a bi-stable memory circuit.
Option A. the memory is retained indefinably.
Option B. the memory is lost as soon as power is removed.
Option C. the memory needs to be refreshed constantly, even when power is on.
Correct Answer is. the memory is lost as soon as power is removed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. What is the advantage of series over parallel message

sending?.
Option A. Only one pair of conductors.
Option B. More information sent.
Option C. Quicker.
Correct Answer is. Only one pair of conductors.
Question Number. 9. A typical example of a mass storage memory device which is also
WORM (Write Once Read Many) is.
Option A. an IC.
Option B. a magnetic tape.
Option C. a CD Rom.
Correct Answer is. a CD Rom.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. A computer using RAM would utilize.

Option B. a compact disc.
Option C. an integrated circuit (chip).
Correct Answer is. an integrated circuit (chip).
Question Number. 11. Magnetic materials are used in.

Option A. ROMs only.
Option B. some RAMs.
Option C. EPROM.
Correct Answer is. some RAMs.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. A typical example of a mass storage device is.

Option A. IC.
Option C. CD.
Correct Answer is. CD.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. What is EPROM?.

Option A. Enhanced programmable read only memory.
Option B. Erasable programmable read only memory.
Option C. Erasable programming read only module.
Correct Answer is. Erasable programmable read only memory.
Explanation. Basic Electronics Malcolm Plant Page 87E.
Question Number. 14. How many bytes can be carried in a 32bit word?.
Option A. 8 bytes.
Option B. 4 bytes.
Option C. 2 bytes.
Correct Answer is. 4 bytes.
Explanation. 8 bits per byte.
Question Number. 15. A common used material in computer manufacturing is.

Option A. ferrite material.
Option B. permeamag material.
Option C. ferromagnetic material.
Correct Answer is. ferromagnetic material.
Explanation. Ferromagnetic material is that which hard-drives and floppy drives are made
from.
Question Number. 16. Ferrite medium is used for computer memory because.
Option A. data is stored after the power is removed.
Option B. it is light.
Option C. it has low eddy current losses.
Correct Answer is. data is stored after the power is removed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. Data is usually stored in.

Option A. RAM.
Option B. ROM.
Option C. EEPROM.
Correct Answer is. ROM.
Explanation. NIL.
05.06b. Basic Computer Structure.
Question Number. 1. Registers are used in digital computers to.

Option A. store bits of information in a permanent memory.
Option B. store a limited amount of information on a temporary basis.
Option C. keep a count of operations completed.
Correct Answer is. store a limited amount of information on a temporary basis.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 2. A computer consist of at least the C.P.U and.

Option A. memory and input & output port.
Option B. memory, ALU, input & output port.
Option C. register section, ALU, timing and control section.
Correct Answer is. memory and input & output port.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 144, and Aircraft
Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 153 Fig 6.1.
Question Number. 3. A basic computer would consist of.

Option A. register section, ALU and timing and control section.
Option B. memory, input/output ports and CPU.
Option C. RAM/ROM and input/output ports.
Correct Answer is. memory, input/output ports and CPU.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft instuments & Integrated Systems Page 153.
Question Number. 4. DRAM.

Option A. requires a refreshing charge.
Option B. memory is stored when power supply is removed.
Option C. it does not require a refreshing charge.
Correct Answer is. requires a refreshing charge.
Explanation. NIL. http://computer.howstuffworks.com/ram4.htm
Question Number. 5. Bubble memory stores data on.

Option B. semiconductor material.
Option C. ferrite core.
Correct Answer is. semiconductor material.
Explanation. NIL. www.tpub.com/neets/book22/92a.htm
Question Number. 6. An EPROM.

Option A. is non-volatile memory.
Option B. requires constant refreshing.
Option C. is erased after reading.
Correct Answer is. is non-volatile memory.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. A computer requires to operate, a.

Option A. address bus, a data bus only.
Option B. data bus, a control bus, a address bus.
Option C. data bus, a control bus only.
Correct Answer is. data bus, a control bus, a address bus.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. data bus, a control bus only.

Option A. DRAM.
Option B. SRAM.
Option C. RAM.
Correct Answer is. SRAM.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 9. A computer is acting in real time when.

Option A. the CPU requires a clock pulse.
Option B. the output is equal to the input of data.
Option C. the time to access memory is equal to the data speed in.
Correct Answer is. the output is equal to the input of data.
Explanation. NIL.
05.07. Microprocessors.
Question Number. 1. What is the function of a status register in a

microprocessor?.
Option A. To indicate the status of the processor.
Option B. In the ALU, to store the position of the program during an interrupt.
Option C. To synchronize the clock pulse.
Correct Answer is. To indicate the status of the processor.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.i-garden.org/docu/cecs/cs14.pdf
Question Number. 2. What is the purpose of the ALU?.

Option A. To store data being used by the CPU.
Option B. The part of the CPU unit where arithmetic & logic operations are carried out.
Option C. To convert serial into parallel data.
Correct Answer is. The part of the CPU unit where arithmetic & logic operations are carried
out.
Question Number. 3. The CPU consists of.

Option A. ALU, timing and control section, register.
Option B. register and arithmetic logic unit only.
Option C. register, timing and control section only.
Correct Answer is. ALU, timing and control section, register.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 153 Basic CPU,. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 145.
Question Number. 4. How is multiplication achieved in an ALU?.
Option A. by addition.
Option B. by subtraction.
Option C. by coupling.
Correct Answer is. by addition.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. The smallest operation of a CPU is.

Option A. the processor cycle.
Option B. the processor sub-cycle.
Option C. the time cycle.
Correct Answer is. the time cycle.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. Where does the clock signal in a microprocessor come

from?.
Option A. ALU.
Option B. Memory.
Option C. Control unit.
Correct Answer is. Control unit.
Question Number. 7. Where is the operating program for the CPU stored?.
Option A. Control unit.
Option B. ALU.
Option C. Memory unit.
Correct Answer is. Memory unit.
Question Number. 8. A priority encoder.

Option A. outputs the highest input.
Option B. outputs the selected input.
Option C. outputs the lowest input.
Correct Answer is. outputs the highest input.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 9. The smallest operation possible in a computer is the.

Option A. timing cycle.
Option B. processor sub-cycle.
Option C. processor cycle.
Correct Answer is. timing cycle.
Explanation. Also known as the clock pulse.
Question Number. 10. A clock pulse in processor equipment.
Option A. is to synchronise everything.
Option B. is used for the maintenance tests.
Option C. is to give the correct timing when calculations are made.
Correct Answer is. is to synchronise everything.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. In a computer, the code that fetches correct data and feeds it to the ALU
is called.
Option A. the instruction set.
Option B. ARINC.
Option C. the computer program.
Correct Answer is. the instruction set.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/I/instruction.html
Question Number. 12. A computer processor has within it.

Option A. register, buffer, data bus.
Option B. ALU, register, memory.
Option C. ALU, control section, register.
Correct Answer is. ALU, control section, register.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. The arithmetic logic unit (ALU) in a central processor unit (CPU) carries
out.
Option A. addition, subtraction, multiplication and division.
Option B. computations as instructed.
Option C. timing and synchronisation.
Correct Answer is. addition, subtraction, multiplication and division.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. The CPU requires a clock to determine.

Option A. the number of bits on the highway.
Option B. the speed of operation.
Option C. the date and time.
Correct Answer is. the speed of operation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. An ALU performs the following.

Option A. Arithmetic, Logic, Branch and Move Operations.
Option B. Input/Output operations, Arithmetic, Logic Functions.
Option C. Arithmetic, Logic, Branch and Find Operations.
Correct Answer is. Input/Output operations, Arithmetic, Logic Functions.
Explanation. NIL.
05.08. Integrated Circuits.
Question Number. 1. What function do gates 1 and 2 perform?.
Option A. Full adder.

Option B. Half Adder.
Option C. Shift Register.
Correct Answer is. Half Adder.
Explanation. NIL. http://gs.fanshawec.ca/tlc/math270/2_7_Binary_Adders.htm
Question Number. 2. On an IC, pin 1 is to the left of the notch. Which way are the pins
numbered?.
Option A. Left to right.
Option B. Anticlockwise.
Option C. Clockwise.
Correct Answer is. Anticlockwise.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.kpsec.freeuk.com/components/ic.htm
Question Number. 3. When 4 binary serial counters are connected in cascade for frequency
division, what division factor is required?.
Option A. 8.
Option B. 16.
Option C. 4.
Explanation. Each serial counter changes its state once every 2 clock pulses. So 4 serial counters
divides by 2x2x2x2 = 16.
Question Number. 4. 3 binary counters in cascade. What is the division?.
Option A. 32.
Option B. 8.
Option C. 16.
Explanation. Each serial counter changes its state once every 2 clock pulses. So 3 serial counters
divides by 2x2x2 = 8.
Question Number. 5. Within a 3 bit frequency cascade, division is to.

Option A. 2.
Option B. 4.
Option C. 8.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. Very Large Scale Integrated (VLSI) means the number of gates in a
single IC is.
Option A. up to 10,000.
Option B. over 10,000.
Option C. up to 1000.
Correct Answer is. over 10,000.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. An encoder changes.

Option A. digital to analogue.
Option C. data from one format to another.
Correct Answer is. data from one format to another.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. An RS flip-flop with Q at 1 is said to be.

Option A. set.
Option B. reset.
Option C. zero.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 9. When a JK flip flop is used as a memory device, what type of memory
would it be?.
Option A. read-only.
Option B. non-volatile.
Option C. volatile.
Correct Answer is. volatile.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. In an RS flip flop, output is one. This means it is.
Option A. intermediate.
Option B. reset.
Option C. set.
Question Number. 11. An ALU is an example of.

Option A. MSI.
Option B. SSI.
Option C. LSI.
Correct Answer is. LSI.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. With a j-k flip flop which is the output set.
Option A. q = 1.
Option B. q = 0.
Option C. either.
Correct Answer is. q = 1.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. Data is converted from serial to parallel and parallel to serial
by.
Option A. a synchronous counter.
Option B. a parallel register.
Option C. a shift register.
Correct Answer is. a shift register.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. A typical characteristic of a CMOS is.

Option A. high power dissipation.
Option B. high voltage handling.
Option C. low power dissipation.
Correct Answer is. low power dissipation.
Question Number. 15. The pins on an op amp are numbered.

Option A. anticlockwise.
Option B. clockwise.
Option C. cross ways.
Correct Answer is. anticlockwise.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. A parallel register.

Option A. requires a clock pulse for each bit.
Option B. reads each bit to be stored simultaneously.
Option C. reads the stored data when logic 0 is applied to the read line.
Correct Answer is. reads each bit to be stored simultaneously.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. A device, which converts serial to parallel and parallel to serial for
arithmetical functions, is a.
Option A. Parallel to serial and serial to parallel converter.
Option B. Shift Register.
Option C. Multiplexer and De-Multiplexer.
Correct Answer is. Shift Register.
Explanation. Pulse code modulation/parallel to seria.
Question Number. 18. What is the device used to convert Binary Coded Decimal into separate
supplies for a seven segment digital display?.
Option A. Multiplexer.
Option B. Decoder.
Option C. Demultiplexer.
Correct Answer is. Decoder.
Explanation. RS catalogue...part number CA3161 (see www.RSwww.com website and enter the part
number in their search box).
Question Number. 19. Operation of a frequency counter is such that.

Option A. it compares the incoming waveform with standard sine waves.
Option B. it detects incidences of peak value.
Option C. it changes the incoming waveform to a standard square wave.
Correct Answer is. it changes the incoming waveform to a standard square wave.
Question Number. 20. An example of a small size integrated circuit would be.
Option A. DIP switch.
Option B. Control Processor Unit.
Option C. ALU.
Correct Answer is. Control Processor Unit.
Explanation. A DIP switch is not an IC. ALU is an integrated part of the CPU. The 'Control Processor
Unit' is another term used for the 'Central Processor Unit (CPU)' or sometimes a switching unit used in
telegraphy (such as the touch-pad of a telephone) - the latter would be an SSI (defined as containing up
to 100 transistors or gates).
Question Number. 21. What is this?.
Option A. Counter.
Option B. Shift register.
Option C. Multiplexer.
Correct Answer is. Multiplexer.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 22. In a Master Slave, negative edge triggered JK flip flop, both inputs are
connected to logic 1. The output.
Option A. will change state when the leading edge of the clock pulse is applied.
Option B. will change state when the trailing edge of the clock pulse is applied.
Option C. does not change state when a clock pulse is applied.
Correct Answer is. will change state when the trailing edge of the clock pulse is applied.
Explanation. NIL.
05.09. Multiplexing.
Question Number. 1. A 12 bit 16 Channel encoder will use a multiplexer with.

Option A. 3 bit parallel address line.
Option B. 4 bit parallel address line.
Option C. 2 wire series address line.
Correct Answer is. 4 bit parallel address line.
Explanation. With 16 inputs, it needs 4 data select lines (to provide all 16 combinations).
Question Number. 2. How many address lines would be needed for an 8 line
MU?.
Option A. 2.
Option B. 3.
Option C. 4.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. In a MU, how is parallel converted to serial?.

Option A. By way of a shift register.
Option B. By way of an encoder.
Option C. By way of a demultiplexer.
Correct Answer is. By way of a shift register.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. A multiplexer.

Option A. takes many signals in and converts it to a serial transmission output.
Option B. takes many signals in and puts these in a parallel transmission on the output.
Option C. takes one signal in and converts it to a parallel transmission output.
Correct Answer is. takes many signals in and converts it to a serial transmission output.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. A multiplexer in test equipment could be used for.

Option A. frequency divider.
Option B. analogue to digital converter.
Option C. digital to analogue converter.
Correct Answer is. frequency divider.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. An 8 data input multiplexer has how many Data Select
lines.
Option A. 8.
Option B. 3.
Option C. 2.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. The signal sent between a MU/DEMU is controlled by.

Option A. clock.
Option B. the ALU.
Option C. control unit.
Correct Answer is. control unit.
Explanation. NIL.
05.10. Fibre Optics.
Question Number. 1. Some of the advantages of fibre optic cable over copper cables
are.
Option A. non conductive, easy to manufacture and assemble, more robust, cheap.
Option B. smaller in size and weight, non conductive, higher security and higher bandwidth.
Option C. non conductive, smaller in size and weight, easy to manufacture and assemble and
higher security.
Correct Answer is. smaller in size and weight, non conductive, higher security and higher
bandwidth.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 2. A fibre optic cable consists of.

Option A. a silica glass core with a cladding having a lower refractive index.
Option B. a silica glass core with a cladding having a higher refractive index.
Option C. a plastic core with a cladding having a higher refractive index.
Correct Answer is. a silica glass core with a cladding having a lower refractive index.
Explanation. NIL. www.commspecial.com/fiberguide
Question Number. 3. Fibre optic cables.

Option A. are immune to EMI.
Option B. attenuate EMI.
Option C. are susceptible to EMI.
Correct Answer is. are immune to EMI.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. Two connected fibre optic cable ends are parallel but not quite touching.
This is called.
Option A. end to end coupling.
Option B. lens connector.
Option C. end fire coupling.
Correct Answer is. end to end coupling.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. A disadvantage of a fibre optic cable is.

Option A. couplings susceptible to ingress of fluid.
Option B. end terminals are susceptible to environmental contamination.
Option C. shallow bend radius allowed.
Correct Answer is. end terminals are susceptible to environmental contamination.
Explanation. NIL. www.commspecial.com/fiberguide.htm
Question Number. 6. What kind of light is used in a fibre optic systems?.

Option A. Infrared.
Option B. Visible.
Option C. Ultraviolet.
Correct Answer is. Infrared.
Explanation. NIL. www.floti.bell.ac.uk/MathsPhysics/light.htm
Question Number. 7. Fibreoptic data is sent by.

Option A. modulating the frequency of a laser beam.
Option B. a strobe light.
Option C. modulating the frequency of a filament beam.
Correct Answer is. a strobe light.
Explanation. Modulating the frequency would change the colour of the light.
Question Number. 8. HIRF is prevented from entering a fibre optic cable by.
Option A. using an opto-isolator coupling.
Option B. grounding the fibre at both ends.
Option C. enclosing it in a metal braid.
Correct Answer is. using an opto-isolator coupling.
Explanation. Although a fiber optic cable is 'immune' from collecting HIRF, it can still transmit HIRF
which has been picked up by the source circuitry. An optoelectronic isolator will filter out the HIRF
prior to transmission.
Question Number. 9. Continuity of a fibreoptic cable is checked by.

Option A. a calibrated light source.
Option B. a calibrated light source and an opto-power meter.
Option C. a light source and an opto-power meter.
Correct Answer is. a calibrated light source and an opto-power meter.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.tpub.com/neets/tm/109-13.htm
Question Number. 10. A fibreoptic data bus used on an aircraft.

Option A. can send only one message at a time.
Option B. can transmit on several channels at the same time.
Option C. connects non-essential systems only.
Correct Answer is. can transmit on several channels at the same time.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. Light travels along a fibre optic by.

Option A. refraction.
Option B. reflection.
Option C. dispersion.
Correct Answer is. reflection.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. What is the main disadvantage of a fibre optic data bus?.
Option A. Less strong and durable when compared to twisted pair and coaxial cable.
Option B. Expensive to install.
Option C. Bend radius and moisture ingress at connections.
Correct Answer is. Expensive to install.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. A typical fibre optic connector is.

Option A. F-type connector.
Option B. coupling type, with lens fitted.
Option C. push-pull connector.
Correct Answer is. coupling type, with lens fitted.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. Which of the following is an optoelectronic device?.

Option A. Triac.
Option B. Laser Diode.
Option C. Thyristor.
Correct Answer is. Laser Diode.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. What is the advantage of a single mode fibreoptic over ordinary
wire?.
Option A. Not prone to damage.
Option B. Large bandwidth.
Option C. Small bend radius.
Correct Answer is. Large bandwidth.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. A fibreoptic light source is normally.

Option A. a strobe light.
Option B. a filament lamp.
Option C. a laser or LED.
Correct Answer is. a laser or LED.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. The fibreoptic cable can be identified on aircraft by its jacket colour
which is.
Option A. purple.
Option B. yellow.
Option C. red.
Correct Answer is. purple.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 18. For a fibre optic cable connector that is not regularly disconnected you
would use the.
Option A. butt type.
Option B. ball lens type.
Option C. ceramic lens type.
Correct Answer is. butt type.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. What maintenance problems are associated with

fibreoptics?.
Option A. Corrosion.
Option B. Kinking and contamination of connectors.
Option C. Earthing faults.
Correct Answer is. Kinking and contamination of connectors.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 20. A fibreoptic data bus.

Option A. can transmit several messages simultaneously.
Option B. is only used for non essential messages.
Option C. can only transmit 1 message at a time.
Correct Answer is. can transmit several messages simultaneously.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. A fiberoptic cable to LRU connector should be connected.

Option A. very carefully to ensure alignment and reduce light loss.
Option B. using torque-loaded pliers.
Option C. hand tight only.
Correct Answer is. very carefully to ensure alignment and reduce light loss.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 22. Some of the advantages of fibreoptic cable over copper cable
are.
Option A. smaller size and weight, non conductive, more rugged, higher security.
Option B. non conductive, easy to manufacture and assemble, higher bandwidth.
Option C. non conductive, higher bandwidth, higher security, smaller size and weight.
Correct Answer is. non conductive, higher bandwidth, higher security, smaller size and weight.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 23. In a single mode fibreoptic cable.
Option A. several waves travel down the cable.
Option B. the diameter of the cable is dependent on the wavelength of the light used.
Option C. the distortion of the signal is dependent on the length of cable.
Correct Answer is. the diameter of the cable is dependent on the wavelength of the light used.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 24. A semiconductor which emits photons and releases electrons when
stimulated by photons is called.
Option A. a photodiode.
Option B. a laser diode.
Option C. an LED.
Correct Answer is. a laser diode.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 25. What does a fibreoptic star connection do?.

Option A. Provides a continuous loop of fibre interconnecting all nodes.
Option B. Provides direct point-to-point services to units on dedicated lines emanating from the
central hub.
Option C. Shares a common bandwidth of a common cable.
Correct Answer is. Provides direct point-to-point services to units on dedicated lines emanating
from the central hub.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 26. A fibreoptic lens type coupling with lens and integral LED compared to
an end-fire coupling is.
Option A. more efficient.
Option B. less efficient.
Option C. equally efficient.
Correct Answer is. more efficient.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 27. Passive sensors in fibreoptics.

Option A. Passive sensors in fibreoptics.
Option B. require power for processing the signal before they send them down the fibre
optic.
Option C. require no power and they do not process signals.
Correct Answer is. process the signal but do not require power.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 28. Optical fibre losses are due to.

Option A. absorption only.
Option B. absorption, scattering and reflection.
Option C. radiation, absorption and reflection.
Correct Answer is. absorption, scattering and reflection.
Question Number. 29. The cone of acceptance is measured between.

Option A. the two outer angles.
Option B. the two outer angles.
Option C. longitudinal axis of the core and the outer angle.
Correct Answer is. longitudinal axis of the core and the outer angle.
Question Number. 30. Fibreoptic cables use.

Option A. refractive outer shell.
Option B. reflective inner shell.
Option C. reflective outer shell.
Correct Answer is. refractive outer shell.
Explanation. The outer cladding is glass, so it is refractive (but less so than the core). Cladding causes
Total Internal Reflection (TIR), so question can be interpreted in two ways.
Question Number. 31. In fibreoptic cable, signals are separated by.

Option A. active optic filter.
Option B. low pass filter.
Option C. passive optic filter.
Correct Answer is. active optic filter.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. Most fibreoptic connectors are designed so.

Option A. the receptacle has to be torqued to a designated value to ensure correct alignment.
Option B. the connectors can not be over tightened.
Option C. the connector can not be replaced on the aircraft.
Correct Answer is. the connectors can not be over tightened.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 33. The light source used in fibreoptics is.

Option A. visible light.
Option B. lower bandwidth than visible light.
Option C. higher bandwidth than visible light.
Correct Answer is. higher bandwidth than visible light.
Explanation. Introduction to Fiber Optics J Crisp Page 18/19.
Question Number. 34. Light transmission in a fibreoptic cable is due to.

Option A. repeated internal reflection.
Option B. defraction of the light.
Option C. refraction of the light.
Correct Answer is. repeated internal reflection.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 35. The name given to the joining of two fibreoptic cables by aligning them
carefully and bringing them into close proximity of each other is.
Option A. Fusion.
Option B. Lens Coupling.
Option C. End to end.
Correct Answer is. End to end.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 36. In a fibreoptic cable.

Option A. multiple data signals can be sent down it at one time.
Option B. data can only be sent in one direction.
Option C. only one data signal can be sent down it at any one time.
Correct Answer is. multiple data signals can be sent down it at one.
Question Number. 37. Fibreoptics relies on.

Option A. fibre absorbing light.
Option B. light escaping cladding.
Option C. light reflecting off cladding.
Correct Answer is. light reflecting off cladding.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 38. The 'light' emitted from a LED used within a fibre-optic system will have
a wavelength.
Option A. slightly shorter then that of visible light.
Option C. slightly longer then that of visible light.
Correct Answer is. slightly longer then that of visible light.
Explanation. Infrared from 850nm. Visible light is 400 - 800 nm.
Question Number. 39. Sensors in a fibreoptic flight control system.

Option A. require processing to give output.
Option B. does not require power.
Option C. require power for processors.
Correct Answer is. require power for processors.
Explanation. The sensor is usually a photo-diode.
Question Number. 40. Fibreoptic systems can transmit data in.

Option A. in two directions.
Option B. both directions at the same time.
Option C. one direction only.
Correct Answer is. both directions at the same time.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 41. For high bandwidth high-speed fibreoptic transmission what sort of cable
would you use?.
Option A. Step index.
Option B. Single mode.
Option C. Graded index.
Correct Answer is. Single mode.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 42. In fibreoptics the wavelength of the light is.

Option A. more than visible light.
Option C. less than visible light.
Correct Answer is. more than visible light.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 43. What is the advantage of an ILD over an LED when used as a light
source in fibre optics?.
Option A. Lower frequency range.
Option B. Lower intensity.
Option C. Higher bandwidth.
Correct Answer is. Lower frequency range.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 44. Speed of light in a fibreoptic fibre.

Option A. increases if it passes through material of higher refractive index.
Option B. is always the same no matter what material it is.
Option C. is never greater then the speed of light in free space.
Correct Answer is. is never greater then the speed of light in free space.
Explanation. Fiber Optics Communication and Other Applications Page 15.
Question Number. 45. The angle of incidence of a beam of light in a fibreoptic cable will
be.
Option A. twice that of the cone of acceptance.
Option B. approximately half that of the cone of acceptance.
Option C. parallel with the end of the cable.
Correct Answer is. approximately half that of the cone of acceptance.
Explanation. Fiber Optics Communication and Other Applications Page 46/7. Presumably, this means
the MAIMUM angle of incidence.
Question Number. 46. In an optical fibre, the angle of acceptance is.
Option A. 1/2 the signal wavelength.
Option B. equal to the cone of acceptance.
Option C. 1/2 the cone of acceptance.
Correct Answer is. equal to the cone of acceptance.
Question Number. 47. When using a TDR (time delay reflectometer) the loss value of the cable
is.
Option A. shown by the curve on the screen.
Option B. set on the TDR.
Option C. allowed for in the calculation.
Correct Answer is. shown by the curve on the screen.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 48. Common aircraft fibreoptics use.

Option A. modulating intensity on direct read.
Option B. modulating intensity on indirect read.
Option C. modulating frequency on direct read.
Correct Answer is. modulating intensity on direct read.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 49. What is the main cause of attenuation in fibreoptics?.

Option A. Poor termination.
Option B. Refractive index.
Option C. Bends in the cable.
Correct Answer is. Poor termination.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 50. What is the advantage of a laser diode over an LED?.
Option A. Greater bandwidth.
Option B. Narrower bandwidth.
Correct Answer is. Narrower bandwidth.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 51. A 'type A' fibre optic connector.

Option A. is used when regular disconnection and re-connection of a cable is required.
Option B. produces a larger light loss that a type B connector.
Option C. would be used for connections not regularly disconnected.
Correct Answer is. would be used for connections not regularly disconnected.
Explanation. NIL.
05.11. Electronic Displays.

Question Number. 1. The inside of a CRT consists of.
Option A. an oxide coating and rare mercury gas.
Option B. a phosphor coating and rare mercury gas.
Option C. iodine and rare mercury gas.
Correct Answer is. a phosphor coating and rare mercury gas.
Question Number. 2. CRT horizontal beam control is achieved by a.

Option A. sinusoidal wave.
Option B. square wave.
Option C. sawtooth wave.
Correct Answer is. sawtooth wave.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. In a CRT, if the magnetic field is parallel to the Y plates, what will be the
direction of the electron beam movement?.
Option A. Horizontal.
Option B. Vertical.
Option C. No movement.
Correct Answer is. Vertical.
Explanation. The Y plates lie horizontal. Use the right hand rule to work out the direction of electron
beam movement. Aircraft Instruments & Integrated Systems, Pallett, page 287.
Question Number. 4. Primary colours of a CRT are.

Option A. red, green and yellow.
Option B. red, blue and yellow.
Option C. red, green and blue.
Correct Answer is. red, green and blue.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. What are the effects of the X and Y plates on a CRT?.
Option A. Y plates move the beam vertically, X plates move the beam horizontally.
Option B. X plates move the beam vertically, Y plates move the beam horizontally.
Option C. X and Y plates can move the beam in either direction.
Correct Answer is. Y plates move the beam vertically, X plates move the beam horizontally.
Explanation. NIL.

Option A. synthetic TV signals.
Option C. raster scan.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. What frequency creates the raster effect on a CRT?.

Option A. 50/60 Hz.
Option B. 250Hz.
Option C. 400 Hz.
Correct Answer is. 50/60 Hz.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. The sweep waveform used on a electromagnetic CRT is.

Option A. trapezoidal.
Option B. sinusoidal.
Option C. sawtooth.
Correct Answer is. trapezoidal.
Explanation. Do not get confused with an electrostatic CRT. Electromagnetic CRT uses trapezoidal
waveform to overcome the impedance of the coil.
Question Number. 9. What shape does the waveform take to counter the impedance effect of
the coils in an electromagnetic controlled CRT?.
Option A. Sawtooth.
Option B. Rectangular.
Option C. Trapezoid.
Correct Answer is. Trapezoid.
Explanation. Do not get confused with an electrostatic CRT.
Question Number. 10. Magnetic deflection in a CRT is achieved by.

Option A. a sawtooth waveform.
Option B. a trapezoidal waveform.
Option C. a sinusoidal voltage.
Correct Answer is. a trapezoidal waveform.
Explanation. Do not get confused with electrostatic deflection (plates), which would be sawtooth.
Question Number. 11. The timebase in a CRT consists of.

Option A. an amplifier and an oscillator.
Option B. an oscillator only.
Option C. an amplifier only.
Correct Answer is. an amplifier and an oscillator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. What creates the raster effect on a CRT?.

Option A. Sawtooth frequency.
Option B. Trapezoidal frequency.
Option C. Sinusoidal frequency.
Correct Answer is. Sawtooth frequency.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. LCD screens are driven by.

Option A. AC voltage.
Option B. variable current DC voltage.
Option C. fixed current DC voltage.
Correct Answer is. AC voltage.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. A Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) has the advantage over a CRT
that.
Option A. it requires no cooling.
Option B. it displays more colours.
Option C. it requires less servicing.
Correct Answer is. it requires no cooling.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. The release of a photon by another photon is the principle
of.
Option A. a photo diode.
Option B. a zener diode.
Option C. an LED.
Correct Answer is. an LED.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. If a magnetic field is parallel to the X plates in a CRT, which way will
the beam move?.
Option A. Vertically.
Option B. Horizontally.
Option C. Diagonally.
Correct Answer is. Horizontally.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. An LED display is.

Option A. monochrome only.
Option B. red and green.
Option C. high definition.
Correct Answer is. monochrome only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 18. An LCD display uses what type of power supply?.
Option A. DC voltage.
Option B. Continuous AC.
Option C. Variable level DC voltage.
Correct Answer is. Continuous AC.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. A beam deflection on EFIS displays are.

Option A. electrostatic.
Option B. electromagnetic.
Option C. solid state.
Correct Answer is. electromagnetic.
Question Number. 20. The supply to an LCD is.

Option A. AC.
Option B. current restricted DC.
Option C. voltage restricted DC.
Correct Answer is. AC.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. An LED will emit light when.

Option A. it is reverse biased.
Option B. either forward or reverse biased if a sufficient level of ac voltage is applied.
Option C. it is forward biased.
Correct Answer is. it is forward biased.
Question Number. 22. A CRT display has the advantage over an LCD display of a.
Option A. brighter clearer output.
Option B. more energy efficient.
Option C. large viewing angle.
Correct Answer is. large viewing angle.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 23. To display a circle on a CRT you use.

Option A. 2 square wave 90 degrees out of phase.
Option B. 2 sine waves 180 degrees out of phase.
Option C. 2 sine waves 90 degrees out of phase.
Correct Answer is. 2 sine waves 90 degrees out of phase.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 24. To deflect the beam of a CRT horizontally, coils are placed on the neck of
the tube.
Option A. each side.
Option B. top and bottom.
Option C. one on the side, one at the bottom.
Correct Answer is. top and bottom.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 25. If the magnetic deflection plates produce a magnetic field which is
parallel to the horizontal then the trace is deflected in.
Option A. circular motion.
Option B. horizontal axis.
Option C. vertical axis.
Correct Answer is. vertical axis.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 26. The most common CRT control for an EFIS system screen
is.
Option A. a combined system.
Option B. an electrostatic system.
Option C. an electromagnetic system.
Correct Answer is. a combined system.
Explanation. Boeing 757 MM 34-22-00 page 8 paragraph G (EADI), Section (2)........'It (the CRT)
utilizes magnetic deflection and electrostaic focus control.
Question Number. 27. L.E.D.s can give.

Option A. high definition displays.
Option B. monochrome displays only.
Option C. red and green displays only.
Correct Answer is. monochrome displays only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 28. At low ambient temperatures, an LCD screen.

Option A. is slower to update as data changes.
Option B. viewing angle becomes larger.
Option C. loses contrast.
Correct Answer is. is slower to update as data changes.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 29. Colour CRT shadow mask screen resolution is.
Option A. 400 lines per square inch.
Option B. 84 triads.
Option C. 600 lines per scan.
Correct Answer is. 84 triads.
Explanation. See http://www.lgeservice.com/monterms.html for definition of resolution (pixels per
inch) and triads. The actual figure of 84 is irrelevant (as there are many different CRT resolutions). The
question is asking whether you know the definition of resolution. http://www.lgeservice.com
Question Number. 30. An LCD display.
Option A. has three colours only.
Option B. is monochrome.
Option C. has infinite colours.
Correct Answer is. has three colours only.
Explanation. An LCD display uses only red, green and blue filters. By mixing them, it can get
different colours, but not an infinite amount.
Question Number. 31. A segmented configuration for the display of alphanumeric data
requires.
Option A. the starburst display for numbers and lower case letters only.
Option B. 16 segments to display the full range of capital letters and numerals.
Option C. at least 13 segments for all upper and lower case letters.
Correct Answer is. 16 segments to display the full range of capital letters and numerals.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. Electronic CRT beam display is used typically in.
Option A. weather radar indicators.
Option B. IRU control display units.
Option C. distance measuring indicators; digital counters.
Correct Answer is. weather radar indicators.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 33. In a colour cathode ray tube, how is the phosphor arranged in the
tube.
Option A. A single phosphor layer containing red, green and blue.
Option B. A red layer on the front with two green layers behind it.
Option C. Layers of red, blue and green.
Correct Answer is. A single phosphor layer containing red, green and blue.
Explanation. Success in Electronics By Tom Duncan p285.
Question Number. 34. A colour LCD which is back lit has.

Option A. three colours.
Option B. monochrome.
Option C. an infinite amount of colours.
Correct Answer is. three colours.
Explanation. LCDs have 3 colours (RGB) which can be blended to make other colours (of limited
number).
Question Number. 35. A dot matrix/LED construction is.

Option A. 4*7 or a 9*5 rolling end display.
Option B. 5*9 or a 4*7 rolling end display.
Option C. 4*7 or a 5*7 rolling end display.
Correct Answer is. 4*7 or a 9*5 rolling end display.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Pages 13 - 15 (Although, in the real
world, others are available too).
Question Number. 36. What are the advantages of an LCD display over an LED?.
Option A. It is brighter.
Option B. It uses less current.
Correct Answer is. It uses less current.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 37. A seven segment display is used to.

Option A. display alpha-numeric characters.
Option B. display octal and decimal numbers only.
Option C. display octal and binary numbers only.
Correct Answer is. display octal and decimal numbers only.
Explanation. NIL. http://video-
equipment.globalspec.com/LearnMore/Video_Imaging_Equipment/Meters_Readouts_Indicators/Digita
l_LED_Display
Question Number. 38. How are Alphanumeric Displays produced on a CRT?.

Option A. By Stroke pulse.
Option B. Raster scanning.
Option C. by the use of X & Y EM Coils.
Correct Answer is. By Stroke pulse.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 39. The Shorter lead near the Flat portion of an LED is the.
Option A. Cathode.
Option B. Anode.
Option C. Gate.
Correct Answer is. Cathode.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 40. Submarining' is.

Option A. caused by the inability of some LCD screens to respond to fast moving images on
screen.
Option B. a CRT screen defect which can usually be remedied by degaussing the screen.
Option C. the process used to form liquid crystals into a flat screen.
Correct Answer is. caused by the inability of some LCD screens to respond to fast moving images
on screen.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.fpc.fujitsu.com/www/penworld/technology.shtml?glossary
05.12. Electrostatic Sensitive Devices.
Question Number. 1. ESDS bags are sealed by.

Option A. ESDS labels.
Option B. zip locks.
Option C. twine (100% cotton).
Correct Answer is. twine (100% cotton).
Explanation. Boeing manual says 100% cotton twine. Other manuals say ESDS label. However, it
could be considered that ESDS labels do not 'seal'.
Question Number. 2. What precautions are required when removing ESDS

equipment?.
Option A. Wear a wrist strap connected to an approved ground point.
Option B. No special precautions are required.
Option C. Keep one hand on the airframe.
Correct Answer is. Wear a wrist strap connected to an approved ground point.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. A flight deck CRT LRU is being replaced. What does the ESDS label
indicate?.
Option A. Wrist straps should be worn.
Option B. Do not touch plug pins or leave them exposed.
Option C. Remove power before connecting.
Correct Answer is. Do not touch plug pins or leave them exposed.
Explanation. See Pallet's Micro Electronics In Aircraft Systems or CAAIPs 9-4 para.7.1.3.
Question Number. 4. During an EFIS screen fit.

Option A. dont touch terminals.
Option B. no tooling is required.
Option C. use bonding strap.
Correct Answer is. dont touch terminals.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. With a relative humidity of 10% to 20%, if you walked over a carpet
what electrostatic voltage value would you expect to see?.
Option A. 35,000 volts.
Option B. 6,000 volts.
Option C. 12,000 volts.
Correct Answer is. 35,000 volts.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. Before fitting a Printed Circuit Board you should check
the.
Option A. resistance between skin and strap end plug is less than 10 megohms.
Option B. resistance between skin and strap end plug is more than 1 megohms.
Option C. resistance between strap and strap end plug is less than 1 megohms.
Correct Answer is. resistance between strap and strap end plug is less than 1 megohms.
Explanation. CAAIP Leaflet 9-4 5.3.1.
Question Number. 7. The resistance of the wrist strap used as part of anti static precautions
should be.
Option A. 0 - 200 ohm.
Option B. 20 megohm - 200 megohm.
Option C. 250 kilohm - 1.5 megohm.
Correct Answer is. 250 kilohm - 1.5 megohm.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-4 5.3.1.
Question Number. 8. When handling PCB's labelled ESDS, what precaution are
taken?.
Option A. Do not touch its pins as copper contamination can occur.
Option B. Isolate electrical power before installing on Aircraft.
Option C. First earth with aircraft then to it.
Correct Answer is. Isolate electrical power before installing on Aircraft.
Explanation. Microelectronics in Aircraft Systems. Pallett. Page 219.
Question Number. 9. After attaching a wrist strap to your wrist (which is connected to aircraft
ground), prior to removal of ESDS equipment, the resistance measured.
Option A. between your skin and the pin ground must be >1 megohms.
Option B. between the strap and the pin ground must be <1 megohms.
Option C. between the strap and the pin ground must be >1 Megohms.
Correct Answer is. between the strap and the pin ground must be >1 Megohms.
Explanation. Answer found in Boeing SWPM. 20-41-01 3(2) (e) Hold the red lead of the (test) meter
between the forefinger and the thumb. The acceptable range is less than 10,000,000 ohms. Lower limit
of range however seems to vary. This reference says >0.9 M, but if anyone has a more definitive
reference, please send it in.
Question Number. 10. Which of the following ESDS devices can withstand higher static
electricity voltage?.
Option A. MOSFET.
Option B. SCR.
Option C. ECL.
Correct Answer is. SCR.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. A wrist band must be worn when working with ESDS devices.
Option A. to dissipate and prevent static build-up on the operator.
Option B. to prevent the operator from getting an electric shock.
Option C. to dissipate static charge on the device.
Correct Answer is. to dissipate and prevent static build-up on the operator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. A humid atmosphere.

Option A. reduces static charge.
Option B. eliminates static charge.
Option C. has no effect on the level of charge.
Correct Answer is. reduces static charge.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. Electrostatic discharge occurs when.

Option A. the ground lead on a wrist strap touches the skin.
Option B. materials are rubbed together or pulled apart.
Option C. materials of different potential are brought in close proximity to each other.
Correct Answer is. materials of different potential are brought in close proximity to each
other.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. Before removing an assembly from an aircraft, with regards to HIRF, you
must first ensure that there is minimum current flow between.
Option A. the assembly and the aircraft.
Correct Answer is. you and the assembly.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. When removing a PC card from an ESDS assembly ensure a low current
path between.
Option A. aircraft and ground.
Correct Answer is. you and the aircraft.
Explanation. NIL.
05.13. Software Management Control.
Question Number. 1. An aircraft system that, should it fail due to a software error, would cause
a significant reduction in safety margins may also cause.
Option A. no injuries to occupants.
Option B. injuries to some occupants.
Option C. the loss of the aircraft.
Explanation. DO-178/ED-12 or the old AWN 45 (no removed/replaced).
Question Number. 2. An aircraft system allocated a software level of C that, should it fail due
to a software error, may cause.
Option A. injuries to some occupants.
Option B. injuries to a large proportion of occupants.
Option C. no injuries to occupants.
Explanation. DO-178/ED-12 or the old AWN 45 (no removed/replaced). Download a copy from the
Tutorial Support forums.
Question Number. 3. An aircraft system allocated a Criticality Category of Hazardous has a

Software Level of.
Option A. A.
Option B. B.
Option C. C.
Correct Answer is. B.
a slight increase in crew workload, has a software level of.
Option A. D.
Option B. B.
Option C. C.
Correct Answer is. D.
Question Number. 5. An aircraft system with a software level of D, should it fail due to a
software error, may cause the aircraft safety margin to be.
Option A. slightly decreased.
Option B. slightly increased.
Option C. significantly decreased.
Correct Answer is. slightly decreased.
Question Number. 6. If due to a software error in an aircraft system that would cause injuries
to some of the occupants, the system has a software criticality category of.
Option B. hazardous effect.
Option C. minor effect.
Correct Answer is. major effect.
no injuries to occupants, has a criticality category of.
Option B. minor effect.
Option C. hazardous effect.
Correct Answer is. minor effect.
Question Number. 8. Requirements for software control can be found in.

Option A. JAR AWO.
Option B. AWN 43.
Option C. JAR OPS.
Explanation. Old AWN 43 (Field Loadable Software) has been deleted at issue 133. Now see
RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12.
Question Number. 9. Software can be modified by.

Option A. the manufacturer.
Option B. using the same rules as apply as to modifications to hardware.
Option C. licensed avionics engineers.
Correct Answer is. using the same rules as apply as to modifications to hardware
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. Who is responsible for producing the operational program of the
FMS?.
Option A. The manufacturer.
Option B. The pilot.
Option C. The engineer.
Correct Answer is. The manufacturer.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. Software documentation procedures are laid down in.
Option A. MOE.
Option B. JAA Ops.
Option C. AWN (45).
Correct Answer is. AWN (45).
Explanation. AWN 45 has been deleted at issue 133. Now see RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-
178/ED-12.
Question Number. 12. Control of software is carried out by.

Option A. the aircraft manufacturers.
Option B. a licensed engineer.
Option C. the National Aviation Authority.
Correct Answer is. the National Aviation Authority.
Explanation. Old AWN 45.
Question Number. 13. What is the definition of level one software?.

Option A. Non-essential.
Option B. Essential.
Option C. Critical.
Correct Answer is. Critical.
Question Number. 14. Who can sign for a software update?.

Option A. Design organization or the aircraft manufacturer.
Option B. Engineer.
Option C. Chief pilot.
Correct Answer is. Engineer.
Explanation. Old AWN 43. Now see RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12.
Question Number. 15. What is the effect of a level 1 software failure?.

Option A. Significant reduction in safety margins.
Option B. Large reduction in safety margins.
Option C. Loss of aircraft and / or fatalities.
Correct Answer is. Loss of aircraft and / or fatalities.
Question Number. 16. Software changes come under the responsibility of.
Option A. the engineer.
Option B. the national aviation authority.
Option C. the aircraft constructor.
Correct Answer is. the aircraft constructor.
Explanation. AWN 45. Now see RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12.
Question Number. 17. Who can design new software?.

Option A. BCAR section A8 approved company.
Option B. BCAR section A1 approved company.
Option C. The CAA.
Correct Answer is. BCAR section A8 approved company.
Explanation. AWN45a para 3.1.3 (BCAR section A sub section A8). Now see RTCA/EUROCAE
document Do-178/ED-12.
Question Number. 18. As far as a software product is concerned.

Option A. the 'Software Release' phase is the same as the 'Finished Product' phase.
Option B. the 'Validation' phase is done to the software rather than to the component.
Option C. the 'Verification' phase includes performance testing a programmed EPROM.
Correct Answer is. the 'Verification' phase includes performance testing a programmed
EPROM.
Question Number. 19. AWN 43 requires that.

Option A. the aircraft operator be responsible for software assessment.
Option B. the CAA be responsible for software assessment.
Option C. the aircraft constructors be responsible for software assessment.
Correct Answer is. the aircraft constructors be responsible for software assessment.
Question Number. 20. Level 1 software failure.

Option A. is defined as essential and will reduce safety margins.
Option B. is defined as essential and may have a minor effect.
Option C. is defined as critical and can lead to loss of aircraft.
Correct Answer is. is defined as critical and can lead to loss of aircraft.
Question Number. 21. Requirements for configuration management of software can be found
in.
Option A. AWN 43.
Option B. JAR Ops (M).
Option C. ATA Chapter 46, Information Systems.
Question Number. 22. Where would you find the rules regarding upgrade of
software?.
Option A. JAR OPS.
Option B. The aircraft manufacturer.
Option C. AWN 43.
05.14. Electromagnetic Environment.
Question Number. 1. In order to maintain HIRF protection, bonding checks between airframe
and electrical components carrying voltages greater than 50 volts RMS or DC or main earth return
should not exceed.
Option A. 0.05 ohm.
Option B. 1 ohm.
Option C. 1 megohm.
Correct Answer is. 1 ohm.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 Table 1.
Question Number. 2. Ribbon cables effected by mutual impedance and current loop leakage
should be protected by.
Option A. earthing each alternative conductor to separate point.
Option B. connecting all conductors to a common earth.
Option C. shielding each individual conductor.
Correct Answer is. earthing each alternative conductor to separate point.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. To shield a fibre optic from EMI you must.

Option A. earth both transducer and couplings.
Option B. shield it with a braided shield.
Option C. use an opto-isolator.
Correct Answer is. use an opto-isolator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. Manufacturers of aircraft can ensure HIRF protection by.

Option A. advising operators of all points susceptible to deterioration due to corrosion, moisture
ingress, flexing etc.
Option B. designing specific avionic areas that are shielded against HIRF.
Option C. ensuring all single wires are shielded with metal conduit.
Correct Answer is. designing specific avionic areas that are shielded against HIRF.
Question Number. 5. Which of the following could be a primary cause of HIRF protection
failure?.
Option A. Broken or missing static wicks.
Option B. Corrosion on bonding leads.
Option C. Unserviceable radio filters.
Correct Answer is. Unserviceable radio filters.
Question Number. 6. Manufacturers of aircraft can ensure HIRF protection.

Option A. by designing specific avionic areas that are shielded against HIRF.
Option B. by ensuring all single wires are shielded with metal conduit.
Option C. by advising the operator of parts of the aircraft susceptible to degradation due to
Correct Answer is. by designing specific avionic areas that are shielded against HIRF.
Question Number. 7. HIRF protection of LRUs is provided by.
Option A. internally shielded cables.
Option B. built in filters and overvoltage circuits.
Option C. built in filters only.
Correct Answer is. built in filters and overvoltage circuits.
Question Number. 8. To stop earth loops forming, you would.

Option A. earth both ends of the cable screen.
Option B. leave both ends of the cable screen open circuit.
Option C. earth only one end of the cable screen.
Correct Answer is. earth only one end of the cable screen.
Explanation. NIL. http://www1.electusdistribution.com.au/images_uploaded/humloop.pdf
Question Number. 9. An aircraft may have been HIRF affected.

Option A. A bonding load check is required.
Option B. A static wick check is required.
Option C. Test all radio frequencies for interference.
Correct Answer is. A static wick check is required.
Question Number. 10. Testing of HIRF on aircraft systems is done.

Option A. by periodically listening for interference on all systems.
Option B. at and during production and testing (initial certification).
Option C. only after a report of radio interference.
Correct Answer is. at and during production and testing (initial certification).
Question Number. 11. When carrying out a bonding check on a surface protected by anodic
film.
Option A. the film is conductive so no preparations are required.
Option B. the anodic film should be removed locally to ensure a good contact.
Option C. add a bonding factor to the result of the test to account for the resistance of the anodic
film.
Correct Answer is. the anodic film should be removed locally to ensure a good contact.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. When clamping cable looms containing co-axial cables.
Option A. avoid distortion to the co-axial cable to maintain the dielectric constant.
Option B. the clamps must be no more than 1 metre apart.
Option C. distortion of the outer sheath is allowed providing the inner cable is not affected.
Correct Answer is. avoid distortion to the co-axial cable to maintain the dielectric constant.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. When incorporating an aerial cable it must be.
Option A. in the centre of the other wires.
Option B. outside the other wires for easy access.
Option C. positioned separately from the loom.
Correct Answer is. positioned separately from the loom.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. When carrying out airframe bonding checks as part of a program of
HIRF prevention the airframe bonding resistance should be less than.
Option A. 100 milliohms.
Option B. 1 ohm.
Option C. 50 milliohms.
Correct Answer is. 50 milliohms.
Explanation. CAAIP Leaflet 9-1.
Question Number. 15. Electromagnetic compatibility is achieved by.

Option A. shielding, screening, earthing, bonding and interference filters.
Option B. coating in a conductive paint.
Option C. enclosing the system with same frequency and strength of which screening is
done.
Correct Answer is. shielding, screening, earthing, bonding and interference filters.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. To reduce HIRF on radio equipment.

Option A. ensure all static wicks are in place.
Option B. periodically check bonding leads for condition.
Option C. transmit on all radio frequencies to determine which frequencies are causing the
interference.
Correct Answer is. ensure all static wicks are in place.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. For braided cables, the amount of braiding.

Option A. must conform to the requirement for the shielding to cover at least 50% of the surface of
the cable.
Option B. keeps radiated power inside the emitting assembly or away from the susceptible
circuit.
Option C. is a trade-off design feature.
Correct Answer is. keeps radiated power inside the emitting assembly or away from the susceptible
circuit.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 18. HIRF is acronym for.

Option A. Heavily Ionised Radio Frequencies.
Option B. High Intensity Radiated Field.
Option C. High Intensity Radio Frequencies.
Correct Answer is. High Intensity Radiated Field.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. HF aerials are protected against lightning strike by.
Option A. current mode coupler.
Option B. bus terminal.
Option C. spark gap.
Correct Answer is. spark gap.
Explanation. NIL.
05.15. Typical Electronic/Digital Aircraft Systems .
Question Number. 1. An FMS system, besides controlling navigation, thrust and auto-nav, also
provides.
Option A. GPWS warnings.
Option B. dedicated status and warnings.
Option C. take-off and landing warnings.
Correct Answer is. dedicated status and warnings.
Explanation. The FMS is not used for Take Off or Landing The GPWS warnings come from the
GPWS Computer.
Question Number. 2. The minimum standards for aircraft instrumentation is set

by.
Option A. CAA.
Option B. ICAO.
Option C. JAA.
Correct Answer is. JAA.
Explanation. NIL.

Option C. synthetic TV signals.
Question Number. 4. HSI heading is valid if the heading flag is.

Option A. in view.
Option B. green.
Option C. out of view.
Correct Answer is. out of view.
Explanation. Warning flags 'in view' indicate failure. Normally the only coloured flag used is RED,
indicating failure.
Question Number. 5. MFD is the abbreviation for.

Option A. Multi function display.
Option B. Mandatory flight display.
Option C. Master flight display.
Correct Answer is. Multi function display.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. A TCAS uses the radar mile definition in its calculations, which
is.
Option A. 12.36 microsecond.
Option B. 6.18 microsecond.
Option C. 24.72 microsecond.
Correct Answer is. 12.36 microsecond.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.atis.org/tg2k/_radar_mile.html
Question Number. 7. GPS navigation uses a constellation of satellites that is made up

of.
Option A. 21 active and 3 spare.
Option B. 28 active and 7 spare.
Option C. 23 active and 5 spare.
Correct Answer is. 21 active and 3 spare.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. An IRS is only certifed for alingment up to.

Option A. +88.45 and -88.45 degrees.
Option B. +78.25 and -78.25 degrees.
Option C. +60 and -60 degrees.
Correct Answer is. +78.25 and -78.25 degrees.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 9. The command bars on an ADI relate to.

Option A. roll indications.
Option B. path being followed.
Option C. path required.
Correct Answer is. path required.
Question Number. 10. ECAM has at its heart.

Option A. a multi function symbol generator.
Option B. a central maintenance computer.
Option C. ACARS.
Correct Answer is. a multi function symbol generator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. The recording medium in an FDR is.

Option A. copper foil coated with ferrite.
Option B. a high density floppy disc.
Option C. magnetic tape coated with ferrite.
Correct Answer is. magnetic tape coated with ferrite.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. An FMS databank memory is updated.

Option A. every 365 days.
Option C. every 32 days.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. What does the CADC feed?.

Option A. cabin pressure controller sensor / machmeter / altimeter.
Option B. Altimeter / FMS / secondary radar.
Option C. standby altimeter / machmeter.
Correct Answer is. cabin pressure controller sensor / machmeter / altimeter.
Question Number. 14. In a Flight Management System (FMS), data is input manually to the
computing system through the.
Option A. Data Acquisition Unit.
Option B. Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring control panel.
Option C. Control and Display Unit.
Correct Answer is. Control and Display Unit.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. In a Global Positioning System (GPS), the number of satellites required
to achieve a 3 dimensional fix is.
Option A. 2.
Option B. 3.
Option C. 4.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. In a Global Positioning System (GPS), each satellite transmission
identifies the satellite using a.
Option A. different channel frequency.
Option B. pseudo random code.
Option C. whisper shout method.
Correct Answer is. pseudo random code.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. In a Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites below the Mask Angle
are ignored as these may cause.
Option A. range errors.
Option B. clock errors.
Option C. ephemeris errors.
Correct Answer is. range errors.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 18. Information required by a Flight Management System (FMS) to function
correctly is indicated on the display by.
Option A. dashes.
Option B. a flashing cursor.
Option C. boxes.
Correct Answer is. boxes.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. A flight data recorder can obtain information from aircraft
instruments.
Option A. provided there is adequate damping.
Option B. provided there is adequate isolation.
Option C. by direct connection to the instruments.
Correct Answer is. provided there is adequate isolation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 20. The inputs and outputs of a CADC are.

Option A. pitot and static in; altitude, attitude, CAS and VS out.
Option B. pitot and static in; altitude, CAS, mach and VS out.
Option C. pitot in; static, altitude, mach, CAS and VS out.
Correct Answer is. pitot and static in; altitude, CAS, mach and VS out.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. EICAS provides the following:.

Option A. Engine parameters and engine warnings only.
Option B. Engine parameters and system warnings only.
Option C. Engine parameters only.
Correct Answer is. Engine parameters and system warnings only.
Question Number. 22. A central maintenance computer provides.
Option A. ground and flight monitoring and testing on an on-board computer.
Option B. ground and BITE testing using a portable control panel.
Option C. display of system warnings and cautions.
Correct Answer is. ground and flight monitoring and testing on an on-board computer.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 23. The rising runway is positioned from information derived
from.
Option A. barometric height.
Option B. radio altimeter.
Option C. vertical speed.
Correct Answer is. radio altimeter.
Question Number. 24. Where are the Digital Flight Data Recorder outputs supplied
to?.
Option A. The recording unit.
Option B. There are no outputs.
Option C. Flight instruments.
Correct Answer is. There are no outputs.
Explanation. Information recorded in the DFDR is only accessable in the shop.
Question Number. 25. FMS failure and warnings are.

Option A. EFIS warnings only.
Option B. displayed on EICAS.
Correct Answer is. displayed on EICAS.
Explanation. FMS warnings are displayed on EICAS and EFIS, but the answers given are 'EICAS' or
'EFIS only' so for the purposes of this question the correct answer is EICAS.
Question Number. 26. Flight director command bars are moved to the correct position
by.
Option A. calibration.
Option B. position feedback.
Correct Answer is. position feedback.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 27. What information is required before completion of the alignment of an
Inertial Navigation System?.
Option A. Aircraft present position.
Option B. Heading and attitude.
Option C. Aircraft present position and heading.
Correct Answer is. Aircraft present position.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 28. IRS accelerometers are mounted.

Option B. 45 to each other.
Option C. 60 to each other.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 29. An FMS navigation database is updated.

Option A. once a month.
Option C. at the operators request.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 30. A single failure of a fly-by-wire system.

Option A. will reduce operational heights and speeds.
Option B. will limit the flight profile.
Option C. has no effect on aircraft operation.
Correct Answer is. has no effect on aircraft operation.
Explanation. Redundant FBW systems will continue to fly the aircraft.
Question Number. 31. Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in turbulent conditions will result
in.
Option A. spoilers moving symmetrically upwards.
Option B. ailerons moving symmetrically upwards.
Option C. ailerons and spoilers moving symmetrically upwards.
Correct Answer is. ailerons and spoilers moving symmetrically upwards.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. Fly-by-wire roll control is achieved by.

Option A. spoilers and ailerons.
Option B. ailerons.
Option C. spoilers.
Correct Answer is. spoilers and ailerons.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control, Pallett and Coyle Page 296.
Question Number. 33. The movement of fly-by-wire control surfaces are.

Option A. hydraulically controlled and electrically actuated.
Option B. both electrically controlled and electrically actuated.
Option C. electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated.
Correct Answer is. electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 34. An FMS system, besides controlling navigation, thrust and auto-nav, also
provides.
Option A. dedicated status warnings.
Option B. take-off and landing warnings.
Option C. GPWS warnings.
Correct Answer is. dedicated status warnings.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 35. If an EFIS has 3 symbol generators. What is the purpose of the 3rd
symbol generator?.
Option A. Comparison with No.1 symbol generator.
Option B. Parity function.
Option C. Standby.
Correct Answer is. Standby.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 36. FMS operational program is updated every.

Option A. 90 days.
Option B. 28 days.
Option C. 7 days.
Correct Answer is. 28 days.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 37. An FDR fitted to a helicopter begins recording.

Option A. when power is applied to the aircraft.
Option B. on take-off.
Option C. on engine start-up.
Explanation. See ANO Art 53 para.1.
Question Number. 38. The FMS databases consist of.

Option A. one navigation and one performance database.
Option B. one performance and two navigation databases.
Option C. two performance and one navigation database.
Correct Answer is. one performance and two navigation databases.
Explanation. Normally we consider the FMS as having 2 databases (1 navigational and 1
performance). (Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 385). However, the Navigational database is split
in two. 1 is for Jeppesen data, uploaded on the ground, the other is for pilot input data (additional
waypoints etc.). See http://www.b737.org.uk/fmc.htm for more.
Question Number. 39. The FMS can update the IRS position outputs by using information from
either.
Option A. VOR and DME only.
Option B. GPS, DME, LOC and VOR.
Option C. DME and GPS only.
Correct Answer is. GPS, DME, LOC and VOR.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 40. The accepted error from INS/IRS is.

Option A. 3 miles / hour + 3 miles.
Option B. 2 miles per hour + 3 miles.
Option C. 1 mile/hour+3 miles.
Correct Answer is. 3 miles / hour + 3 miles.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 41. Before an IRS can complete the alignment sequence.
Option A. the current present position must be entered.
Option B. either the last or current position must be entered.
Option C. the shutdown present position must be entered.
Correct Answer is. the current present position must be entered.
Explanation. NIL.

Option A. Discrete warnings.
Option B. Spurious faults.
Option C. Ground faults only.
Explanation. This means it can warn of inoperative equipment, but not when equipment is providing
incorrect data.
Question Number. 43. Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System.

Option A. performs in-flight and ground tests of aircraft systems by carrying out a BITE
interrogation.
Option B. performs in-flight BITE interrogation only.
Option C. give red warnings and amber cautions to display system status.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 44. The control of the speed or rate that the flight director command bars
move can be controlled by.
Option A. position feedback.
Option B. rate or velocity feedback.
Correct Answer is. rate or velocity feedback.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 45. The Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System uses the maintenance mode
of operation.
Option C. either in the air or on the ground.
Question Number. 46. The third EFIS Symbol Generator is operated.

Option A. in an emergency.
Option B. with EICAS.
Option C. as a standby to the No1 and No2 system.
Correct Answer is. as a standby to the No1 and No2 system.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 47. EFIS displays of the right hand and left hand displays are compared by
comparators in the.
Option A. FMS.
Option B. EICAS.
Option C. Symbol Generators.
Correct Answer is. Symbol Generators.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 48. What is the approximate earth rate?.

Option A. 10/hour.
Option B. 5/hour.
Option C. 15/hour.
Correct Answer is. 15/hour.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems. Pallett Page 102.

Option A. two or three accelerometers depending on the system.
Option B. three accelerometers.
Option C. two accelerometers.
Correct Answer is. three accelerometers.
Question Number. 50. IRS Laser Ring Gyros provide.

Option A. rate of movement about an axis.
Option B. displacement about an axis.
Option C. both rate and displacement about an axis.
Correct Answer is. rate of movement about an axis.
Question Number. 51. What are the outputs of a Digital ADC?.

Option A. TAS, MACH, Altitude and TAT.
Option B. TAS, MACH, Altitude, TAT and SAT.
Option C. TAS, MACH and Altitude.
Correct Answer is. TAS, MACH, Altitude, TAT and SAT.
Explanation. Both Static and Total Air Temperatures are outputs of a digital ADC.
Question Number. 52. Fly By Wire systems in the fully active mode, the actuators
will.
Option A. both be active.
Option B. both be in damping mode, awaiting control inputs.
Option C. one in active mode, one in damping mode.
Correct Answer is. both be active.
Explanation. Ref to B777 and A330 manuals, the term active mode will always be associated with
fully operational of redundancy of all actuators or servo controls. This means, each primary flight
control surfaces' actuators (either 2 or 3 actuators configuration designed to provide fully-powered
controls that suit the size and purpose of surfaces) are actually active on all phases. If any failure
occurs, the failed actuator will then revert to 'damping' mode, becoming slave to remaining active
actuators.
Question Number. 53. On a Fly By Wire system, what controls the stab trim?.
Option A. ELAC and SEC.
Option B. SEC.
Option C. ELAC.
Correct Answer is. ELAC and SEC.
Explanation. ELAC = Elevator Aileron Computer, SEC = Spoilers Elevator Computer and FAC =
Flight Augmentation Computers (rudder).
Question Number. 54. The minimum requirement for a cockpit voice recorder to begin
operating is.
Option A. on engine start-up.
Option B. on commencing the takeoff roll.
Option C. once established in the en-route climb.
Explanation. JAR Ops states that the CVR must begin when the aircraft is capable of moving under
its own power.
Question Number. 55. Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting Systems is used
to.
Option A. download aircraft status reports.
Option B. make telephone calls.
Option C. allow the pilot of an aircraft to talk to base.
Correct Answer is. download aircraft status reports.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 56. B-RNAV system must be capable of.

Option A. holding six waypoints.
Option B. displaying distance and bearing to waypoint.
Option C. reversing the waypoints for.
Correct Answer is. displaying distance and bearing to waypoint.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 57. The basic principle of radar is based upon.

Option A. the amount of power in the signal returned.
Option B. the time delay between outward and returning pulse.
Option C. ultrasonic wave propagation.
Correct Answer is. the time delay between outward and returning pulse.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 58. What systems does the ADC feed?.

Option A. Altimeter / FMS / secondary radar.
Option B. Cabin pressure controller sensor / machmeter / Altimeter.
Option C. Standby altimeter/machmeter.
Correct Answer is. Cabin pressure controller sensor / machmeter / Altimeter.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 59. Which systems does a modern ADC give information to?.
Option A. EFIS.
Option B. EICAS.
Option C. Flight control computer, Air Data Instrument, Engine systems.
Correct Answer is. Flight control computer, Air Data Instrument, Engine systems.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 60. Where do the outputs from a DADC go?.

Option A. EHSI.
Option B. EADI.
Option C. IRMP: Inertial Reference Mode Panel.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems by EHJ Pallett page 179.
Question Number. 61. How many satellite signals are required to achieve precise 3D
positioning?.
Option A. 4.
Option B. 5.
Option C. 6.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 62. The minimum requirement for an aeroplane CVR is.
Option A. from power on.
Option B. from engine start.
Option C. from beginning of take off roll.
Correct Answer is. from engine start.
Explanation. JAR OPS Para 1.700 (c) OR answer c by CAP 393 Section I Para 53.
Question Number. 63. An Inertial Navigation System (INS/IRS) computes distance from
acceleration by.
Option A. two successive integrations.
Option B. a simple integration.
Option C. a differentiation followed by an integration.
Correct Answer is. two successive integrations.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 64. Before the aircraft is moved from the loading pier the pilot
must.
Option A. insert the longitude and latitude of the first waypoint into the INS.
Option B. set the altitude to be fed into the INS.
Option C. insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the IRS.
Correct Answer is. insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the IRS.
Explanation. NIL.

Option A. accelerometers and gyros fixed to a the airframe.
Option B. accelerometers fixed to the airframe and gyros on a stable platform.
Option C. accelerometers on a stable platform and gyros fixed to the airframe.
Correct Answer is. accelerometers and gyros fixed to a the airframe.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 66. An IRS system requires data for wind computation from.
Option A. Doppler System.
Option B. satellites.
Option C. central Air Data Computer.
Correct Answer is. central Air Data Computer.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 67. The FMS carries out a Rho/Theta navigation function, the purpose of this
is to.
Option A. update the IRS system with an accurate position fix of latitude and longitude.
Option B. to update the VOR and DME systems with an accurate position fix.
Option C. to update the EMS with the new lateral flight profile for the flight plan.
Correct Answer is. update the IRS system with an accurate position fix of latitude and longitude.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 68. The FMS is updated.

Option A. automatically by update data from the ACARS.
Option B. by an aircraft engineer updating the system either by a magnetic tape or floppy
disc.
Option C. by the aircrew by reference to the Tech Log.
Correct Answer is. by an aircraft engineer updating the system either by a magnetic tape or floppy
disc.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 69. Pitch Control of a fly by wire system is achieved by.
Option A. stabilizer only.
Option B. elevators only.
Option C. stabilizer and elevator.
Correct Answer is. stabilizer and elevator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 70. In a fly by wire system, if the pilot control input is derived from a side
stick controller:.
Option A. there is no control surface feedback to the side stick.
Option B. control surface feedback is fed to the side stick.
Option C. there will be only control surface feedback to the side stick after a computer
failure.
Correct Answer is. there is no control surface feedback to the side stick.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 71. A basic IRS platform has.

Option A. 3 accelerometers and 2 laser gyros.
Option B. 2 Accelerometers and 3 laser gyros.
Option C. 3 accelerometers and 3 laser gyros.
Correct Answer is. 3 accelerometers and 3 laser gyros.
Question Number. 72. What must be entered into the IRS before the aircraft can be
moved?.
Option A. Flight plan.
Option B. Present position.
Option C. Cruise height.
Correct Answer is. Present position.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 73. The FMS Operational Database is.

Option A. updated once a month.
Option B. is fed with information on aircraft weight, cruise altitude and cost index before take off.
Option C. needs no update information.
Correct Answer is. is fed with information on aircraft weight, cruise altitude and cost index before
take off.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 74. Control surface feedback is fed back to.

Option A. the Flight Control Computer only.
Option B. the side stick controller only.
Option C. the Flight Control Computer and side stick controller.
Correct Answer is. the Flight Control Computer only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 75. The accelerometer output in an INS/IRS is.

Option A. integrated once to give distance.
Option B. integrated twice to give velocity.
Option C. integrated twice to give distance.
Correct Answer is. integrated twice to give distance.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 76. An INS/IRS Battery Unit provides.

Option A. standby power only whilst in flight.
Option B. standby power when airborne and on the ground.
Option C. standby power only on the ground.
Correct Answer is. standby power when airborne and on the ground.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems. Pallett Page 247 & 248.
Question Number. 77. If a fly by wire actuator loses hydraulic power the control surface
will.
Option A. automatically move back to the neutral position.
Option B. remain rigid in the failure position.
Option C. remain in the failure position but may move due to aerodynamic pressure.
Correct Answer is. remain in the failure position but may move due to aerodynamic pressure.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 78. IRS alignment.

Option A. takes up to 10 minutes and the present position can be entered at any time during
alignment.
Option B. takes up to 10 minutes and present position must be entered before alignment.
Option C. takes up to 10 minutes and the previous flight shut down present position is used for the
alignment.
Correct Answer is. takes up to 10 minutes and the present position can be entered at any time during
alignment.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 79. A fault light appears on the IRS Mode Selector Unit during the alignment
sequence. The correct action is.
Option A. immediately switch off and select the standby system.
Option B. select HDG/STS on the Inertial System Display Unit (ISDU), observe the action code in
the right alpha/numeric display.
Option C. refer to the warning display on the EICAS/ECAM system.
Correct Answer is. select HDG/STS on the Inertial System Display Unit (ISDU), observe the action
code in the right alpha/numeric display.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 80. A FMS has a total of how many Databases.

Option A. 2.
Option B. 4.
Option C. 1.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 81. Fly by wire High Speed protection is.

Option A. to prevent tuck under.
Option B. to increase the pitch angle as speed increases.
Option C. to prevent high speed stall.
Correct Answer is. to prevent tuck under.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 82. An IRS Laser gyro provides.

Option A. detection of the rate of movement about an aircraft axis.
Option B. detection of the earths gravitational force to establish true north.
Option C. detection of the earths rotation to establish true north.
Correct Answer is. detection of the rate of movement about an aircraft axis.
Question Number. 83. The left and right cockpit displays.

Option A. are supplied from separate Symbol Generators at all times.
Option B. are supplied from the same Symbol Generator.
Option C. will only be supplied from the same symbol generator when all other symbol generators
have failed.
Correct Answer is. will only be supplied from the same symbol generator when all other symbol
generators have failed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 84. A single failure of a fly by wire control surface computer
will.
Option A. cause the system to revert to an alternate law of operation.
Option B. not have any operational effect on the system.
Option C. cause the system to revert to a direct law of operation.
Correct Answer is. not have any operational effect on the system.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 85. What are the outputs from digital clocks used for?.
Option A. Flight data acquisition unit, Flight management computer and Voice recorder.
Option B. VOR, ILS and DME.
Option C. Weather radar, TCAS and ACARS.
Correct Answer is. Flight data acquisition unit, Flight management computer and Voice
recorder.
Explanation. Only these require real time reference.
Question Number. 86. A full operation system BITE check will carry out a internal system test
that ensures the system meets design requirements and is operational.
Option A. but will not move the controls.
Option B. as well as checking full system and will move the controls to their stops.
Option C. as well as checking full system but will not move the controls to their stops.
Correct Answer is. as well as checking full system but will not move the controls to their
stops.
Explanation. Digital Avionic Systems - Cary Spitzer. Page 109, Arinc report 604 guidance for design
and use of built in test equipment states... 'BITE should exercise the hardware sufficiently to determine
if it meets the performance requirements but should not drive it against mechanical stops.'.
Question Number. 87. If on a flight deck EFIS system all the displays were missing one bit of
information. This is most likely to be.
Option A. the input sensor bus and display controller.
Option B. the symbol generator and display.
Option C. the display controller and symbol generator.
Correct Answer is. the display controller and symbol generator.
Explanation. By elimination, a fault in the display would be more general, and a fault with the sensor
would still display, but an erroneous value.
Question Number. 88. A centralised monitoring computer system is used.

Option A. to test system during flight and for BITE test of systems on the ground using a carry on
control unit.
Option B. to test systems in flight and on the ground using a centralised on board control
unit.
Option C. testing systems on the ground only.
Correct Answer is. to test systems in flight and on the ground using a centralised on board control
unit.
Question Number. 89. In an EFIS display, the lines, scales, indicator and synoptic are generated
by.
Option B. synoptic scan.
Explanation. 757 MM 34-22-00 page 40 (p) and 737 MM 34-22-00 page 47, 4(b).
Question Number. 90. The method of producing (white) lines for aircraft symbols, V/S scale
etc. on an EADI is by.
Option B. trapezoidal input.
Explanation. MM 737-300/400/500, 34-22-00 page 47 4b or MM 757 34-22-00 page 40 (p). 'The
special symbols, characters, letters, vectors and arcs are displayed using the stroke method. The EADI
sky/ground ball or EHSI weather radar are displayed using the raster method.
Question Number. 91. In modern aircraft, the output from the clock is used.
Option A. to synchronise the signals on the control bus.
Option B. to provide a clock pulse for CRT.
Option C. to give GMT details to the flight recorder and other systems.
Correct Answer is. to give GMT details to the flight recorder and other systems.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 92. As a minimum requirement, when must a cockpit voice recorder start
recording?.
Option A. From the start of the aircraft take off run.
Option B. After take off when airborne.
Option C. On first engine start.
Correct Answer is. On first engine start.
Explanation. CAP 393 Section I Para 53, OR answer a by JAR OPS Para 1.700 .
Question Number. 93. The operational database of the FMS may have to be modified in
flight.
Option A. It cannot be modified in flight.
Option B. by the pilot.
Option C. automatically by the DADC.
Correct Answer is. It cannot be modified in flight.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 94. CADC outputs are.
Option A. altitude, vertical speed, IAS, mach no.
Option B. altitude, vertical speed, TAS, CAS, mach no, SAT, TAT.
Option C. altitude ,vertical speed, angle of attack, TAT, SAT.
Correct Answer is. altitude, vertical speed, TAS, CAS, mach no, SAT, TAT.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 162.
Question Number. 95. If one EICAS CRT fails.

Option A. the FMS CDU will display the failed CRT data.
Option B. the remaining CRT will display primary EICAS data.
Option C. the standby CRT will automatically take over.
Correct Answer is. the remaining CRT will display primary EICAS data.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 96. Variations in light on EFIS displays are compensated for
by.
Option A. An external light dependant resistor mounted on the flight deck compensating for all
displays in a parallel-parallel format.
Option B. manual adjustment by flight crew on EFIS controller.
Option C. integrated light dependant resistors in the display compensating for each display
individual.
Correct Answer is. An external light dependant resistor mounted on the flight deck compensating for
all displays in a parallel-parallel format.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems by EHJ Pallett pages 296 & 299.
Question Number. 97. A method used in modern aircraft for reporting in flight faults to an
engineering and monitoring ground station is.
Option A. TCAS II.
Option B. ACARS.
Option C. TAWS.
Correct Answer is. ACARS.
Question Number. 98. The self test function on an EFIS system can be tested.
Option C. in the air and on the ground.
Correct Answer is. in the air and on the ground.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 99. Each of the symbol generator outputs in an EFIS system can
be.
Option A. displayed on each individual display.
Option B. only no. 2 can be displayed on the no.1.
Option C. can not be interchanged.
Correct Answer is. displayed on each individual display.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 100. BITE tests are inhibited for ground use during.
Option A. forward motion.
Option B. gear retraction.
Option C. take-off.
Correct Answer is. take-off.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 101. Modern aircraft with electronic displays would display information on
airframe and engine on which system?.
Option A. Electronic centralised aircraft monitoring system (ECAM).
Option B. Flight management system.
Option C. EADI.
Correct Answer is. Electronic centralised aircraft monitoring system (ECAM).
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 102. The Flight data recorder starts recording.

Option A. after take off.
Option B. on aircraft roll out from stand.
Option C. after the first engine has started.
Correct Answer is. after the first engine has started.
Explanation. JAR OPS Subpart K 1.715 e.
Question Number. 103. Data to flight data recorder can be taken from a communal data bus
if.
Option A. the power is within flight data recorder limits.
Option B. it goes directly to it.
Option C. source isolation has been considered.
Correct Answer is. source isolation has been considered.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 104. A central fault display system should be available through.
Option A. a bite test.
Option B. a central bite test box with clear LED indications.
Option C. a easily accessible multifunction control display unit.
Correct Answer is. a easily accessible multifunction control display unit.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 105. A flight data recorder should be capable of recording.
Option A. the last 25 hours.
Option B. the last 25 hours of aircraft flight.
Option C. the last 25 hours with engines running.
Correct Answer is. the last 25 hours with engines running.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 106. BITE for ground use only is switched off.
Option A. on take-off.
Option B. when brakes are released.
Option C. when undercarriage up.
Correct Answer is. on take-off.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 107. During normal functioning of an ECAM system the engine data shown
on the Engine/Warning display comes from the.
Option A. EFIS channel of DMC3.
Option B. ECAM channel of DMC1.
Option C. ECAM channel of DMC3.
Correct Answer is. ECAM channel of DMC3.
Explanation. A330-200 31-50-00 pg4.
Question Number. 108. Using I.N.S. an aircraft flies.

Option A. rhumb line.
Option B. course directed by ground station.
Option C. great circle route.
Correct Answer is. great circle route.

Option A. Ground faults only.
Option B. Discrete warnings.
Option C. Spurious faults.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 110. Aircraft heading (HDG) is.

Option A. the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
Option B. the angle between True North and the actual track.
Option C. the angle between True North and the desired track.
Correct Answer is. the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
Question Number. 111. For an IRS System to pass the Alignment System Performance Test the
the latitude entered must be within given limits of the.
Option A. latitude computed by IRU.
Option B. entered present latitude and longitude must agree with the latitude and longitude at last
power down.
Option C. the No 1 and No 2 must both have the same latitude and longitude present position
entered.
Correct Answer is. the latitude entered must be within given limits of the latitude computed by IRU.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett pages 279-280.
Question Number. 112. Control Display Unit (CDU ) selection of TKE (Track Angle Error),
displays.
Option A. difference in degrees that the aircraft is to the right or left of the desired track.
Option B. distance perpendicular from the selected track.
Option C. difference in degrees from True North in a clockwise direction from the desired
track.
Correct Answer is. difference in degrees that the aircraft is to the right or left of the desired track.
Question Number. 113. In the EICAS system, when is the maintenance mode
available?.
Option A. Lower screen only - only available on the ground.
Option B. In flight.
Option C. On the upper and lower screens - only available on the ground.
Correct Answer is. Lower screen only - only available on the ground.
Explanation. B747 Maintenance Manual. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems. Pallett Page
380.
Question Number. 114. On a modern aircraft when are BITE checks carried out?.
Option A. Continuously when system is in use.
Option B. After engine shut down.
Option C. Only when BITE selected.
Correct Answer is. Continuously when system is in use.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, 5th edition, Eismin, Pages 152 and 268.
Question Number. 115. In an IN system, the purpose of the stable platform is to.
Option A. provide attitude reference.
Option B. prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers.
Option C. stop the gyros from toppling.
Correct Answer is. prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers.
Question Number. 116. An IN system requires data from the.

Option A. Doppler system.
Option B. airdata computer.
Option C. satellites.
Correct Answer is. airdata computer.
Question Number. 117. TK (cross track) is the.

Option A. actual track across the earths surface.
Option B. angle in degrees that the aircraft track is left or right of desired track.
Option C. perpendicular distance from the desired track.
Correct Answer is. perpendicular distance from the desired track.
Question Number. 118. The output of an INS can be fed to the.

Option A. attitude indicators.
Option B. altimeters.
Option C. vertical speed indicators.
Correct Answer is. attitude indicators.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 247 fig 10.1. Jeppesen
Avionics Fundamentals Page 137 & 138.
Question Number. 119. The three accelerometers on a strapdown system are

mounted.
Option B. parallel to each other.
Option C. 120 apart.
Question Number. 120. Gyro-compassing is the term used for.

Option A. self-alignment in the vertical.
Option B. use of the gyro-magnetic compass system to align the platform.
Option C. self-alignment in azimuth.
Correct Answer is. self-alignment in azimuth.
Question Number. 121. Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring System operates

to.
Option A. give red warnings and amber cautions to display system status.
Option B. perform in-flight BITE only.
Option C. perform in-flight and ground tests of aircraft systems by carrying out a BITE.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 122. The Centralized Aircraft Monitoring System uses the maintenance mode
of operation.
Option C. either ground or air.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 123. If part of a display is lost on a CRT, this could be due to.
Option A. an inoperative symbol generator or control panel.
Option B. an inoperative symbol generator or input sensor.
Option C. loss of power to the CRT.
Correct Answer is. an inoperative symbol generator or input sensor.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 124. A cyclic test (watch dog) should be performed for ECAM.
Option A. via MCDU.
Option B. during power up.
Option C. during flight.
Correct Answer is. during flight.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin, 5th Edition. Pg 154.
Question Number. 125. How does the symbol generator detect a program error?.
Option A. By looking at the even parity without error.
Option B. By looking at the odd parity without error.
Option C. By check sum bites for error detect.
Correct Answer is. By looking at the odd parity without error.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 126. Relationship of CMCs to BITE systems is best described

as.
Option A. CMCs replaced but is not related to the older BITE system.
Option B. CMCs monitors the individual BITE systems and presents data.
Option C. CMCs modifies and upgrades BITE systems.
Correct Answer is. CMCs monitors the individual BITE systems and presents data.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 127. An IRU interface test is carried out.

Option A. in the air.
Option B. only on the ground.
Option C. on the ground or in the air.
Correct Answer is. only on the ground.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 128. FMS system gives warning indications for.
Option A. take off and landings only.
Option B. any flight phase.
Option C. cruise.
Correct Answer is. cruise.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 129. FMS CDU warnings are.

Option A. fail and MSG.
Option B. OFST and Fail.
Option C. MSG, fail and OFST.
Correct Answer is. MSG, fail and OFST.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 130. CMC (central maintenance computer) works to.

Option A. perform in-flight bite and ground tests of aircraft systems, i.e. BITE.
Option B. give red warnings and amber cautions to display in accordance with system
status.
Option C. perform in-flight bite only.
Correct Answer is. perform in-flight bite and ground tests of aircraft systems, i.e. BITE.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 131. BITE test carried out on input sensors and actuators
performs.
Option A. validation of the information of the LRU.
Option B. a performance test of the system.
Option C. a test of the LRU.
Correct Answer is. a performance test of the system.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 132. A BITE check for automatic performance and fault monitoring is carried
out when?.
Option A. Power-up self test.
Option B. For in-flight monitoring.
Option C. To check the performance of the LRU.
Correct Answer is. Power-up self test.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 133. In which of the following does TCAS II advise the pilot to make a
maneouvre?.
Option A. RA.
Option B. TA.
Option C. either RA or TA.
Correct Answer is. RA.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 134. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display?.
Option A. White circles, red diamonds and amber squares.
Option B. White diamonds, red squares and amber circles.
Option C. White squares, red diamonds and amber circles.
Correct Answer is. White diamonds, red squares and amber circles.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 135. If a display shows a red cross only, it is due to.
Option A. Symbol Generator failure.
Option B. CRT failure.
Option C. Altimeter failure.
Correct Answer is. Symbol Generator failure.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 136. ACARS is an acronym for.

Option A. ARINC Communicating Addressing and Reporting System.
Option B. Airborne Communicating Addressing and Reporting System.
Option C. Aircraft Communicating Addressing and Reporting System.
Correct Answer is. Aircraft Communicating Addressing and Reporting System.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.acarsonline.co.uk/alabout.htm
Question Number. 137. When does the flight data recorder start recording ?.
Option A. Undercarriage up.
Option B. Parking brake released.
Option C. When the first engine starts.
Correct Answer is. When the first engine starts.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 138. Brake temperature displayed on a flight deck CRT has.
Option A. a master warning light.
Option B. same colour throughout.
Option C. different colour for different temperatures.
Correct Answer is. different colour for different temperatures.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 139. When performing test on Electronic Displays using the Built In Test
system.
Option A. CRT continues to display current data while the SGs and Display are internally
tested.
Option B. SG injects a test signal into the display system and the word TEST appears on the
screen.
Option C. displays cannot be tested it is only SG which are tested by BITE.
Correct Answer is. SG injects a test signal into the display system and the word TEST appears on
the screen.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 140. Heading reference required to establish initial heading during alignment
sequence comes from.
Option A. FMS which gathers data from other Radio devices.
Option B. Magnetic compass installed on the airplane.
Option C. Earths Rotation.
Correct Answer is. Earths Rotation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 141. What is primary mode of navigation on a modern

aeroplane?.
Option A. Both GPS and IRS.
Option B. Only IRS.
Option C. Inch precise GPS.
Correct Answer is. Only IRS.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 142. In a flight director, how are small deviations corrected?.
Option A. Pilot input.
Option B. Instrument is calibrated at fitment to remove any possible error.
Option C. Instrument feedback.
Correct Answer is. Pilot input.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 143. For a 3 dimensional fix in a Global Positioning System.

Option A. Minimum of 3 satellites must be in view.
Option B. Minimum of 2 satellites must be in view and altitude used to simulate a 3rd
satellite.
Option C. Minimum of 4 satellites must be in view.
Correct Answer is. Minimum of 4 satellites must be in view.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 144. In an aircraft equipped with TCAS II and EFIS.

Option A. RA pitch command is shown on the EHSI and TA/RA traffic on the EADI.
Option B. RA pitch command is shown on the VSI and TA/RA traffic on the EHSI.
Option C. RA pitch command is shown on the EADI and TA/RA traffic on the EHSI.
Correct Answer is. RA pitch command is shown on the EADI and TA/RA traffic on the EHSI.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 145. The BITE indicator on a DFDR shows Yellow colour. This
indicates.
Option A. power is ON but DFDR is not recording data.
Option B. power is ON and DFDR is recording data.
Option C. power is OFF or DFDR is at Fault.
Correct Answer is. power is OFF or DFDR is at Fault.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 146. In a typical 'Glass Cockpit' EICAS provides the following.
Option A. engine parameters and system warnings only.
Option B. engine parameters and engine warnings only.
Correct Answer is. engine parameters and system warnings only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 147. What is the minimum requirement for CVR to operate?.
Option A. BEFORE take-off.
Option B. BEFORE engine start.
Option C. at any time the manufacturer decides.
Correct Answer is. BEFORE take-off.
Explanation. Minimum requirement is AT first engine start (according to JAR OPS) which is
BEFORE take-of.
Question Number. 148. ECAM system was adopted for.

Option A. Airbus A310.
Option B. both Boeing and Airbus aircraft.
Option C. Boeing 757 and 767 aircraft.
Correct Answer is. Airbus A310.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 149. A modern electromagnetic Flight Data Recorder, for recording data,
could use:.
Option A. a floppy disk.
Option B. a plastic tape coated in ferrite.
Option C. a copper oxide string.
Correct Answer is. a plastic tape coated in ferrite.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 150. What is the minimum requirement for a CVR to start
recording?.
Option A. When parking brake is released.
Option B. On commencement of flight.
Option C. When aircraft is capable of moving under its own power.
Correct Answer is. When aircraft is capable of moving under its own power.
Question Number. 151. As a minimum requirement when must a cockpit voice recorder start
recording?.
Option A. Once airborne after take off.
Option B. Before engine start.
Option C. Once aircraft is ready to move under its own power.
Correct Answer is. Once aircraft is ready to move under its own power.
05.16.
Question Number. .1 101012 + 110012 =.

Option A. 462.
Option B. 468.
Option C. 4610.
Explanation. 101012 + 110012 = 1011102 = 4610.
MODULE 05 PRACTICE MCQ PART 01
An # represents the correct answer
1. An FMS system, besides controlling navigation, thrust and auto-nav, also provides
# b) dedicated status and warnings
c) GPWS warnings
# b) raster scan
c) stroke pulse
a) in view
b) green
# c) out of view
a) NAND gate
# b) AND gate
c) OR gate
a) 11 to 28
# b) 11 to 29
c) 1 to 8
# c) a silica glass core with a cladding having a lower refractive index
# a) path required
c) roll indications
# b) plastic tape coated with ferrite

a) 25
b) 33
# c) 35
# c) cabin pressure controller sensor / machmeter / altimeter
# b) two cables, bi directional
# a) AWN 45
b) JAR OPS
c) JAR AWO
b) the manufacturer
# c) The same rules apply as to modifications to hardware
14. Two connected fibre optic cable ends are parallel but not quite touching. This is called
a) lens connector
# b) end to end coupling
# c) end terminals are susceptible to environmental contamination
# b) a phosphor coating and rare mercury gas

17. What kind of light is used in a fibre optic systems?
# a) Infrared
b) Visible
c) Ultraviolet
# a) VOR, Map, Plan and weather radar
19. An EADI display showing a moving runway moves down during the final stages of an
approach. The aircraft must
a) fly up
# b) fly down
# a) to input into a Digital Flight Data Recorder
# a) provided there is adequate isolation
a) NAND gate
b) OR gate
# c) NOR gate
# a) a twisted shielded pair of wires
a) square wave
# b) sawtooth wave
c) sinusoidal wave
a) 207
b) 223
# c) 215
a) 65
# b) 513
c) 9
C B A
0 0 0
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 1 1
a) NAND gate
# b) AND gate
c) OR gate
a) pitot and static in; altitude, attitude, IAS and VS out
# b) pitot and static in; altitude, IAS, mach and VS out
c) pitot in; static, altitude, mach, IAS and VS out
31. During an instrument approach, the glideslope pointer deflects below the glideslope centre
mark. This means the aircraft is positioned
# a) above the glideslope
# a) ECAM
b) EHSI
c) FMSCDU
# a) ground and flight monitoring and testing on an on-board computer
34. ARINC 573 is related to what system
a) INS
# b) FDR
c) Weather Radar
b) vertical speed
# c) radio altimeter
# c) There are no outputs

# a) displayed on EICAS
# a) The pilot
b) The engineer
c) The manufacturer
# a) position feedback
b) amplifier gain
c) calibration
a) digital
b) synchronous
# c) analogue
41. In a CRT, if the magnetic field is parallel to the Y plates, what will be the direction of the
electron beam movement?
# a) Vertical
b) No movement
c) Horizontal
# c) The aircraft symbol
# a) red, green and blue
44. What information is required before completion of the alignment of an Inertial Navigation
System?
# a) Aircraft present position

# c) 90o to each other
b) once a month
# c) every 28 days
# a) has no effect on aircraft operation
# b) ailerons and spoilers moving symmetrically upwards

a) ailerons
b) spoilers
# c) spoilers and ailerons
# c) electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated
a) capacitive
b) resistive
# c) inductive
52. on an EADI, the Flight Director command bars show
# b) the required path with respect to the actual path

# a) EADI
b) EHSI
c) ECAM
# b) Y plates move the beam vertically, X plates move the beam horizontal
# c) one bus, bi-directional data flow
56. an FMS system, besides controlling navigation, thrust and auto-nav, also provides
# b) dedicated status warnings
c) GPWS warnings
57. In order to maintain HIRF protection, bonding checks between airframe and electrical
components carrying voltages greater than 50 volts RMS or DC or main earth return should
not exceed
a) 1 megohm
# b) 1 ohm
c) 0.05 ohm
58. Ribbon cables effected by mutual impedance and current loop leakage should be protected
by
# c) earthing each alternative conductor to separate point
# b) raster scan
c) stroke pulse
60. Normal transmission order of ARINC 629 LRUs in periodic mode is in order of
# a) power up
# a) 50/60 Hz
b) 400 Hz
c) 250Hz
62. If an EFIS has 3 symbol generators, what is the purpose of the 3rd symbol generator?
# b) Standby
c) Parity function
# a) trapezoidal
b) sinusoidal
c) sawtooth
a) 7 days
# b) 28 days
c) 90 days
# a) modulating the frequency of a laser beam
c) a strobe light
a) 100111001
b) 110011001
# c) 101011001
# a) OR gate
c) NAND gate
# a) AWN 45
b) JAA Ops
c) MOE
# c) using an opto-isolator coupling
# b) monitored parameter
# c) a calibrated light source and an optometer

# c) use an opto-isolator
# b) make sure the pins are not touched and covers fitted
# b) trapezoidal waveform
a) on take-off
# b) on engine start-up

# c) Digital Information Transfer System
# c) connecting the inputs
# c) one performance and two navigation databases

81. The FMS can update the IRS position outputs by using information from either
a) VOR and DME only
b) DME and GPS only
# c) GPS, DME, LOC and VOR
# b) the current present position must be entered
84. within a computer controlled flight system, position feedback is converted from
# a) analogue to digital

85. What shape does the waveform take to counter the impedence effect of the coils in an
electromagnetic controlled CRT?
# a) Trapezoid
b) Sawtooth
c) Rectangular
b) Spurious faults
c) Ground faults only.
a) performs in-flight and ground tests of aircraft systems by carrying out a BITE
interrogation
88. The control of the speed or rate that the flight director command bars move can be
controlled by
c) amplifier gain
89. The Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System uses the maintenance mode of operation
a) in the air only
a) with EICAS
b) in an emergency
# c) as a standby to the No1 and No2 system
# b) Full arc, Wx and Map Mode
c) Full Arc only
92. EFIS displays of the right hand and left hand displays are compared by comparators in
the
a) FMS
b) EICAS
# c) Symbol Generators
a) 5o/hour
b) 10o/hour
# c) 15o/hour
# b) three accelerometers
# a) rate movement about an axis
96. What are the outputs of a Digital ADC?
# a) TAS, MACH, Altitude, TAT and SAT

# a) normal operation
c) database loads
# b) can transmit on several channels at the same time
# a) reflection
b) refraction
c) dispersion
# a) designing specific avionic areas that are shielded against HIRF
c) advising operators of all points susceptible to deterioration due to corrosion, moisture

ingress, flexing etc.
# b) By an inductive pickup
a) both 0
b) 1 and 0
# c) both 1
# a) 272
b) 282
c) 32
a) 16
# b) 12
c) 11
# a) Through the bus controller
a) analogue
# b) digital
c) logic
a) 12
# b) 14
c) 15
a) NOT
b) OR
# c) AND
# a) Bend radius and moisture ingress at connections
b) Less strong and durable when compared to twisted pair and coaxial cable
c) Expensive to install
110. When 4 binary serial counters are connected in cascade for frequency division, what
division factor is required
a) 4
b) 8
# c) 16
# b) a trapezoidal waveform
112. Fly by Wire systems in the fully active mode, the actuators will
a) both be active
# b) one in active mode, one in damping mode

# b) to check the validity of data information
114. on a Fly by Wire system, what controls the stab trim
a) ELAC
# b) ELAC and SEC
c) SEC
# c) liable to environmental contamination of end terminals
a) 1 - 8
# b) 9 - 10
c) 32
a) 80
# b) 50
c) 34
a) Encoder/Decoder
# b) Multiplex/Demultiplex
c) Switching
# a) To check for corruption during transmission of a word
# a) 8
b) 16
c) 32
# a) the National Aviation Authority
b) engineers
a) F-type connector
# b) coupling type, with lens fitted
a) binary
# b) octal
c) hexadecimal
a) Triac
b) Thyristor
# c) Laser Diode
# a) Large bandwidth
a) 120
# b) 20
c) 60
# a) 13
b) 14
c) 15
a) 1101
# b) 1111
c) 1110
a) 3616
# b) 2416
c) 2216
# b) When both inputs are at 1
# a) 120
b) 20
c) 60
a) E
b) G
# c) F
133. Which logic gate has this truth table A B C
C B A
0 0 0
1 1 0
1 0 1
0 1 1
a) NOT
# b) Exclusive OR
c) NAND
# a) OR
b) Exclusive OR
c) NAND
# a) Critical
b) Essential
c) Non-essential
a) zip locks
b) ESDS labels
# c) twine (100% cotton)

# a) 101011001
b) 110011001
c) 100111001
a) 250 kilohms to 1.5 megohms
# b) 2 megohms to 5 megohms
a) 29
# b) 11101
c) 101001

# a) 54
b) 44
c) 35
a) a filament lamp
# b) a laser or LED
c) a strobe light
# a) Wear a wrist strap connected to an approved ground point
# b) a twisted shielded pair of wires

145. The minimum requirement for a cockpit voice recorder to begin operating is
# b) on commencing the takeoff roll
# b) connect the aircraft to base
148. with radio coupled autopilot, what are the inputs
a) ADF and ILS
b) ADF and VOR
# c) ILS and VOR

# b) displaying distance and bearing to waypoint
# b) the time delay between outward and returning pulse
a) 11 - 28
# b) 11 - 29
c) 1 - 8
# a) ECAM
b) EHSI
c) CDU
153. A flight deck CRT LRU is being replaced. What does the ESDS label indicate?
# b) Do not touch plug pins or leave them exposed
# c) Cabin pressure controller sensor / machmeter / Altimeter
a) 8
b) 2
# c) 16
# b) 32 bit word over a twisted pair of wires

# b) a negative temperature coefficient
158. When using a wrist strap, before touching the LRU the resistance should be measured
from your skin to the end of the earth probe. This should be
# a) more than 10 kilohms
c) less than 1 ohm
a) 52
# b) 510
c) 210
160. Physical variables in quantitative forms, such as voltage or angular rotation of a shaft
are
# a) analogue
b) digital
c) binary
# a) 8
b) 4
c) 2
a) Up to 10,000 ft
# b) Up to 2,500 ft
c) Up to 100 ft
163. Which of the following could be a primary cause of HIRF protection failure?
# a) Unserviceable radio filters
164. The binary coded decimal number 10011000 expressed as a decimal number is
# a) 9810
b) 15210
c) 1522
# a) 1112
b) 72
c) 1012
a) 25
b) 33
# c) 35
# a) by designing specific avionic areas that are shielded against HIRF
c) by advising the operator of parts of the aircraft susceptible to degradation due to

# c) data can transmit in both directions down the data bus

169. in an ARINC 429 word string, bits 1 - 8 represent
# b) the monitored parameter
# b) The parallel input impedance
c) The weight
# b) number of inputs to a gate
172. Very Large Scale Integrated (VLSI) means the number of gates in a single IC is
a) up to 1000
b) up to 10,000
# c) over 10,000
# c) are cheaper to manufacture
a) a 12 bit word
# b) an 8 bit word
c) a six bit word
176. The fibre optic cable can be identified on aircraft by its jacket colour which is
# a) purple
b) red
c) yellow
177. For a fibre optic cable connector that is not regularly disconnected you would use the
b) ball lens type
# c) butt type
# a) an amplifier and an oscillator
# a) built in filters and overvoltage circuits
a) cyan
b) red
# c) magenta
# a) Flight control computer, Air Data Instrument, Engine systems
b) EFIS
c) EICAS
a) 80
# b) 50
c) 34
# a) Via ARINC 573
b) Via ARINC 629
c) Source isolated
A.B B A
0 0 0
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 1 1
# a) AND gate
b) NOR gate
c) NOT gate
a) EADI
b) EHSI
# c) IRMP: Inertial Reference Mode Panel
# b) dont touch terminals
# c) earth only one end of the cable screen
188. How many satellite signals are required to achieve precise 3D positioning?
# a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
# a) 58
b) 61
c) 70
# a) ARINC 429, in dataword labels only
b) ARINC 629
c) ARINC 573
a) Corrosion
b) Earthing faults
# c) Kinking and contamination of connectors
# a) Design organization or the aircraft manufacturer
b) Engineer
c) Chief pilot
a) Or gate
# b) NOR gate
c) NOT gate
# a) Sawtooth frequency
c) Trapezoidal
# b) modulating frequency on direct read
c) HIRF
# a) A static wick check is required
# a) 215
b) 107
c) 53
# a) 513
b) 613
c) 713
199. with a relative humidity of 10% to 20%, if you walked over a carpet what electrostatic
voltage value would you expect to see?
a) 6,000 volts
b) 12,000 volts
# c) 35,000 volts
# b) resistance between skin and strap end plug is more than 1 megohms
c) resistance between strap and strap end plug is less than 1 megohms
# b) can transmit several messages simultaneously
a) from power on
# c) from beginning of take off roll

203. on an ARINC 629 data bus, the maximum amount of current-mode couplers per data bus
is
a) 46
# b) 120
c) 64
# a) a current mode coupler, serial interface module and terminal controller is required
b) current mode coupler, terminal controller and a production break is required
205. A current-mode coupler contains an E-Core assembly. The purpose of the E-Core is to
b) provide effective screening of the signal through the current-mode coupler
# a) 12-14 Kbits/second with high of 100 kBits/second

207. A D to A converter is required to produce an output range of 0 to 10V. This can be

achieved by
a) A non inverting op amp connected in parallel with output
# b) An inverting op amp connected in parallel with output
c) A differentiator with a 100 Kilohm feedback resistor
# a) Ensure that the output voltages remain accurate
b) Ensure that the input voltage remains accurate
c) Compensate for the variation of the feedback resistor with temperature
209. A given transducer provides a voltage which corresponds to true heading. This voltage
can be converted to 'bits' by using a
a) commutator
# c) analogue to digital converter
a) logic 1
# b) logic 0
c) both logic 1
# c) a 130 ohm resistor at both ends
# a) connects bi-directional data between the LRU and current mode coupler
b) connects single directional data between the LRU and current mode coupler
213. Care must be taken when installing ARINC 629 cables into bus panels, damage to cables
can cause
b) standing waves.
# c) corrosion of the conductor
# c) can use both systems, ARINC 629 and ARINC 429 via system card files and signal
gateways
215. An Inertial Navigation System (INS/IRS) computes distance from acceleration by
# c) two successive integrations
# a) insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the IRS
# a) 2 wire series address line
c) 4 bit parallel address line
# b) increase speed
a) two values of resistors whose precision is not important
# b) two values of precision resistors
b) hand tight only
# c) very carefully to ensure alignment and reduce light loss
221. An IRS has
# b) accelerometers and gyros fixed to a the airframe
# a) central Air Data Computer
b) satellites
c) Doppler System
223. The FMS carries out a Rho/Theta navigation function, the purpose of this is to
# a) update the IRS system with an accurate position fix of latitude and longitude
# c) by an aircraft engineer updates the system either by a magnetic tape or floppy disc
a) elevators only
# b) stabilizer and elevator
c) stabilizer only
226. In a fly by wire system, if the pilot control input is derived from a side stick controller:
# b) there is no control surface feedback to the side stick
c) there will be only control surface feedback to the side stick after a computer failure
227. in memory using multivibrators, when power is switched off the data will
# b) be lost
228. The resistance of the wrist strap used as part of anti static precautions should be
a) 0 - 200 ohm
b) 250 kilohm - 1.5 megohm
# c) 20 megohm - 200 megohm
# a) To indicate the status of the processor
# b) Can be re-programmed

# c) 3 accelerometers and 3 laser gyros
# a) Present position
b) Flight plan
c) Cruise height
# b) is fed with information on aircraft weight, cruise altitude and cost index before take off
# a) the Flight Control Computer only

# b) provide a sampling in sequence of a number of parameters
c) provide continuous availability of all parameters connected to the system
236. When the voltage that represents a logic 1 state is less than the voltage that represents a
logic 0 state, the logic being used is
b) positive
# c) negative
237. The output of an AND gate having two inputs A and B is logic 1. The two inputs will
have the logic states of
a) A = 0, B = 0
# b) A = 1, B = 1
c) A = 1, B = 0
# b) store a limited amount of information on a temporary basis

239. What is 0111000012 in Octal?
a) 28110
b) 2258
# c) 3418
# a) normal flight
b) emergency only
# b) at and during production and testing (initial certification)
# a) Ground only one end of the cable screen

# a) the anodic film should be removed locally to ensure a good contact
c) add a bonding factor to the result of the test to account for the resistance of the anodic
film
# b) integrated twice to give distance
# a) standby power when airborne and on the ground
a) once a month
# b) every 28 days

# c) remain in the failure position but may move due to aerodynamic pressure
248. The output of an OR gate having two inputs A and B is logic 0. The two inputs will have
the logic states of
# a) A = 0, B = 0
b) A = 1, B = 0
c) A = 0, B = 1
# a) avoid distortion to the co-axial cable to maintain the dielectric constant
b) distortion of the outer sheath is allowed providing the inner cable is not affected
# c) positioned separately from the loom

# c) non conductive, higher bandwidth, higher security, smaller size and weight
252. When carrying out airframe bonding checks as part of a program of HIRF prevention
the airframe bonding resistance should be less than
# a) 50 milliohms
b) 100 milliohms
c) 1 ohm
# a) ac voltage
b) variable current dc voltage
c) fixed current dc voltage
254. IRS alignment
# a) takes up to 10 minutes and the present position can be entered at any time during
alignment
b) takes up to 10 minutes and present position must be entered before alignment.
c) takes up to 10 minutes and the previous flight shut down present position is used for the
alignment
255. A fault light appears on the IRS Mode Selector Unit during the alignment sequence. The
correct action is
# b) select HDG/STS on the Inertial System Display Unit (ISDU), observe the action code in
the right alpha/numeric display
a) to provide display control by one control panel whilst the other provides a standby
# c) one to control the type of EFlS display and the other to select the source of the
information being displayed
a) 1
# b) 2
c) 4
# c) to prevent tuck under

# b) the diameter of the cable is dependent on the wavelength of the light used*
260. A semiconductor which emits photons and releases electrons when stimulated by photons
is called
a) an LED
b) a photodiode
# c) a laser diode
# a) detection of the rate of movement about an aircraft axis
# c) it requires no cooling
# c) will only be supplied from the same symbol generator when all other symbol generators
have failed
# c) not have any operational effect on the system
# c) data from one format to another
# a) changes analogue to digital

# a) 12 14.5 kbits / second
# b) Exclusive OR gate
a) AND gate
# b) OR gate
c) NOR gate
# c) Loss of aircraft and / or fatalities

271. Ribbon cables affected by mutual impedance and current loop leakage are protected by
# b) earthing each alternate conductor
# a) 1 bit per second
a) reset
# b) set
c) zero
a) a zener diode
# b) an LED
c) a photo diode
277. When a JK flip flop is used as a memory device, what type of memory would it be
a) non-volatile
b) read-only
# c) volatile
278. Once an ARINC 629 LRU has transmitted a message it will wait how long before
transmitting again?
# b) Until the end of the transmit interval
a) Decimal 206
b) Binary 11000110
# c) Octal 01100001
# c) Inertial Navigation Systems

a) VOR, ILS and DME
# b) Flight data acquisition unit, Flight management computer and Voice recorder
# a) Provides direct point-to-point services to units on dedicated lines emanating from the
central hub
# c) The part of the CPU unit where arithmetic & logic operations are carried out
a) NAND gate
b) OR gate
# c) AND gate
# a) ALU
b) CPU
c) LSI
a) 4
# b) 3
c) 2
287. in a MUX, how is parallel converted to serial?
# a) By way of a shift register
288. If a magnetic field is parallel to the X plates in a CRT, which way will the beam move?
a) Diagonally
b) Vertically
# c) Horizontally
# a) Flight director command bars, slip indicator, rate to altitude & autoland
a) 22BC16
# b) A8E516
c) FFFF16
1. A fibreoptic lens type coupling with lens and integral LED compared
to an end-fire coupling is
# a) more efficient
b)less efficient
c)equally efficient
# a) the sampling rate
b)the frequency
c) the amplitude
3. A digital to analogue converter that requires the output to range
between 0v and -10v would have
# b)an inverting amplifier in series with the output line
c) a non-inverting amplifier in line with the output with a resistor
to ground
a) red and green
# b)monochrome only
c) high definition
b)flight director bars, autoland, altitude, range to altitude, decision
height
# c) decision height, autoland, rad alt , altitude

6. A full operation system BITE check will
# a) carry out a internal system test that ensures the system meets
design requirements and is operational
b)as well as checking full system will move the controls to their stops
c) as well as checking full system will not move the controls to
their stops
7. If on a flight deck EFIS system all the displays were missing
one bit of information this is most likely to be
# b)the input sensor bus and display controller
8. A arinc data word is bits 11-29, if bits 11-18 are patched which of
the following would be the LSB bit
# a) 19
b)29
c) 21
9. What is a band?
a) A block of data
# b)A bit of data
c) A byte of data
a) require power for the processing signal before they send them down
the fibre optic
b)require no power and they do not process signals
# c) process the signal but do not require power
# a) Continuous AC
b)Variable level DC voltage
c) DC voltage
# a) bi-directional
b)one way data buses
c) simplex
3. 0011011000101001 when transferred to computer language this
information can be a representation of
# b)hex, octal and binary numbers
c) hex, octal and decimal numbers
# a) the memory is lost as soon as power is removed
b)the memory is retained indefinably
5. In an analogue to digital converter, the input voltage
# a) stays on constantly
b)is switched by the digital input
c) is intermittent
# a) set
b)reset
c) intermediate
# a) full duplex
b)half duplex
c) simplex
a) absorption only
# b)absorption, scattering and reflection
# a) longitudinal axis of the core and the outer angle
b)the two outer angles

# b)whose relative precision are accurate
# a) LSI
b)SSI
c) MSI
# a) Switches closed, magnetised
b)Switches open, unmagnetised
c) High frequency
a) to test system during flight and for BITE test of systems on the
ground using a carry on control unit
# b)to test systems in flight and on the ground using a centralised on
board control unit
# b)a twisted pair of wires or fibre optics
c) a single wire
# a) electromagnetism
b)electrostatic
c) solid state
# a) inputs connected together
b)inputs inverted
c) outputs inverted
# b)time dividing multiplexing
c) encoder
# b)refractive outer shell
# a) 90 degrees out of phase
b)180 degrees out of phase
c) In phase
b)is repetitive transmitting
# c) will transmit only once during each transmit interval
a) Quicker
b)More information sent
# c) Only one pair of conductors
2. The number of LRUs which transmit/receive on ARINC-429 is dependent
upon
a) size of S.D.I
b)speed of transmission & size of aircraft systems
# c) parallel input impedance
# a) active optic filter
b)passive optic filter
c) low pass filter

4. In an EFIS display, the lines, Scales, Indicator and Synoptic are
generated by
a) synoptic scan
# b)stroke scan
c) raster scan
# b)the time period to access the memory
6. A typical example of a mass storage memory device which "write once"
and "read many" is
# a) a CD Rom
b)an IC
c) a magnetic tape
# a) Isolate electrical power before installing on Aircraft
b)First earth with aircraft then to it

# a) memory and input & output port
b)register section, ALU, timing and control section
# a) shielding, screening, earthing, bonding and interference filters
b)enclosing the system with same frequency and strength of which
screening is done
# a) AC
b)current restricted DC
1. The method of producing (white) lines for aircraft symbols, V/S scale
etc. on an EADI is by
# a) stroke scan
b)raster scan
# b)give GMT details to the flight recorder and other systems
# b)are superior quality and "data preservation"
a) 1 milliohm
b)1 ohm
# c) 0.05 ohms
a) binary
b)octal
# c) hexadecimal
a) hexadecimal
# b)BCD
c) octal
# a) On engine start
b)From aircraft take off run
# a) 2C
b)4F
c) 2F
9. A heading reference of 320 degrees in a word label format would be
written as
a) 101010001
# b)11010000
c) 01000111
10. Within an EFIS display system, all displays have 1 bit of
information missing. What would be the most probable cause?
a) Symbol generator and sensor input
# b)Display controller and sensor input bus
a) a compact disc
# b)an integrated circuit (chip)
c) magnetic tape
# a) q = 1
b)q = 0
c) either
b)below the glideslope
# c) above the glideslope

4. 2D in decimal is
# a) 45
b)43
c) 41
5. The operational data base of the FMS may have to be modified in
flight
a) by the pilot
b)automatically by the DADC
# c) It cannot be modified in flight
# a) it is forward biased
b)it is reverse biased
c) either forward or reverse biased if a sufficient level of ac
voltage is applied
a) the EADI
# b)the EHSI
c) the FMC CDU

8. CADC outputs are
b)altitude ,vertical speed, angle of attack, TAT, SAT
# c) altitude, vertical speed, TAS, CAS, mach no, SAT, TAT
# b)a shift register
a) a clock signal
# b)parallel data
c) serial data
# a) low power dissipation
b)high voltage handling

# a) the remaining CRT will display primary EICAS data
b)the FMS CDU will display the failed CRT data
# a) 54
b)f4
c) 5f
4. EADI displays
# a) pitch and roll attitudes
b)heading and weather radar
5. On an EHSI in weather radar mode, a severe storm would be shown as
# b)red areas with black surrounds

# a) integrated light dependant resistors in the display compensating for
each display individual
b)An external light dependant resistor mounted on the flight deck
# a) one way bus
b)bi directional bus
c) two way bus
8. A method used in modern aircraft for reporting in flight faults to an
engineering and monitoring ground station is
a) TCAS II
# b)ACARS
c) TAWS
b)more energy efficient
# c) large viewing angle
a) the receptacle has to torque to a designated torque to ensure
correct alignment
# b)the connectors can not be over tightened
a) in the air only
# b)on the ground only

# a) displayed of each individual display
b)only no. 2 can be displayed on the no.1
3. An AND gate with inverted inputs and an inverted output is equivalent
to
a) an AND gate
# b)an OR gate
c) a NOR gate
# b)transistors
c) diodes
# b)2 sine waves 90 degrees out of phase

# a) higher bandwidth than visible light
b)lower bandwidth than visible light
c) visible light
7. When the power is removed from a bi-stable memory device, it's
memory will
# a) be lost indefinitely
b)be saved indefinitely
a) take-off
b)gear retraction
# c) forward motion
# b)the aircraft constructor
c) the engineer
10. A multiplexer
# a) takes many signals in and converts it to a serial transmission
output
b)takes one signal in and converts it to a parallel transmission output
c) takes many signals in and puts these in a parallel transmission on
the output
# b)ALU, timing and control section, register
b)harvard bi phase
# c) bi-directional return to zero

a) 429
# b)629
c) 573
# b)manchester bi-phase
b)data bus cable, stub cable, voltage mode coupler
# c) data bus cable, current mode coupler, stub cable
6. To deflect the beam of a CRT horizontally, coils are placed on the
neck of the tube
b)each side
# c) top and bottom

7. During flight (non fault conditions) the EICAS system displays
on the lower CRT
# a) secondary engine parameters
b)synoptic display
# a) BCAR section A8 approved company
b)BCAR section A1 approved company
c) The CAA
# a) 130 ohms resistor
b)100 ohms resistor
c) 25 ohms resistor
10. Modern aircraft with electronic displays would display information
on airframe and engine on which system?
# b)Electronic centralised aircraft monitoring system (ECAM)
c) EADI
a) after take off
b)on aircraft roll out from stand
# c) after the first engine has started
b)the power is within flight data recorder limits
# c) if source isolation has been considered
3. In arinc 429 data field is bits 11 to 28. If the bits 11 to 18 had
pad bits, the L.S.B. Of the data would be
# a) bit 19
b)bit 11
c) bit 28
4. The BCD data field of arinc 429 is contained within bits
a) 1- 8
# b)11- 29
c) 11- 28
5. After attaching a wrist strap to you wrist (which is connected to
aircraft ground), prior to removal of ESDS equipment, the resistance
measured
# b)between your skin and the pin ground must be <10 megohms
a) corrosion
b)damage to static wicks
# c) radio filter break down
7. The resistance of the magnetic coils of a C.R.T. Is offset by
using
# a) trapezoidal voltage
b)constant voltage
c) saw tooth voltage

8. If the magnetic deflection plates produce a magnetic field which is
parallel to the horizontal then the trace is deflected in
a) horizontal axis
b)circular motion
# c) vertical axis
# a) repeated internal reflection
b)refraction of the light
10. The name given to the joining of two fibre optic cables by aligning
them carefully and bringing them into close proximity of each other is
a) Fusion
# b)End to end
c) Lens Coupling
# b)multiple data signals can be sent down it at one time

2. A logic 1 may be represented in an analogue system by
(where Q is an output of a latch / flip-flop)
a) switch open / light on / Q
b)switch closed / light off / Not Q
# c) positive / magnetised / Q
a) a bite test
# b)a easily accessible multifunction control display unit
4. An analogue to digital converter where it counts up to binary state
equal to the analogue in put and then back down when this is reached is a
a) successive approximation counter
# b)a tracking ramp type converter
b)switch of the inputs
# c) change the state of the inputs

6. Radio altitude is displayed on a EFIS system
a) on the Electronic horizontal situation indicator
# b)on the electronic artificial direction indicator
c) on the RMI
b)the last 25 hours of aircraft flight
# c) the last 25 hours with engines running
8. Op amps generally used in ADCs and DACs are normally
# a) high input impedance, low output impedance
b)high input impedance , high output impedance
c) low input impedance , how output impedance
a) ROMs only
# b)some RAMs
c) EPROM
a) clockwise
# b)anticlockwise
c) cross ways
# a) reads each bit to be stored simultaneously
b)requires a clock pulse for each bit
# a) hardened skin and protecting wires / LRUs
b)bonding as many parts of the aircraft as possible and a maximum
resistance of 0.05ohms
a) 38
b)48
# c) 22
a) A or B = 1
b)A and B = 1
# c) A and B = 0
a) 1111
b)1001
# c) 1010
# a) Decimal
b)Digital
c) Octal
a) Octal
b)BCD
# c) Hexadecimal
# a) stroke
b)raster
# a) refractive outer cladding
b)reflective outer cladding
# a) trapezoidal
b)ramp
c) analogue
# b)closed circuit, Logic Q=1
c) open circuit
# a) fibre optics or twisted pair of wires
b)single wire for each transmitter
c) SWG 28 wire
b)when undercarriage up
# c) on take-off
# b)light reflecting off cladding
6. The "light" emitted from a LED used within a fibre-optic system will
have a wavelength
# a) slightly longer then that of visible light
b)slightly shorter then that of visible light

# a) four "0s" or "1s"
b)2 lots of four "0s" or "1s"
c) 3 lots of four "0s" or "1s"
# a) 1 transmitter and multiple receivers
b)1 bus controller and 1 remote terminal
a) non-conductive, easier to manufacture and assemble, greater
bandwidth
# b)non-conductive, greater bandwidth, greater signal security
10. A EFIS system ADI displays pitch, roll
b)autoland, decision height, range to altitude and flight director bars
and slip indicator
# c) autoland, rad alt, decision height and slip indicator

# a) 111110000110
b)111110000001
c) 3974
2. What is 11000012 - 1011002?
a) 1101112
b)100011012
# c) 1101012
3. During normal functioning of an ECAM system the engine data shown on
the Engine/Warning display comes from the
# b)ECAM channel of DMC1
4. To create a bi-directional communications link within an ARINC 429
system
# b)two databuses are required

# b)great circle route
c) rhumb line
b)Spurious faults
b)the angle between True North and the actual track
# c) the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
a) entered present latitude and longitude must agree with the latitude
and longitude at last power down
b)the No 1 and No 2 must both have the same latitude and longitude
# c) the latitude entered must be within given limits of the latitude
computed by IRU
b)l mile / hour + 3 miles
10. Control Display Unit (CDU ) selection of TKE (Track Angle Error),
displays
# b)difference in degrees that the aircraft is to the right or left of
the desired track
c) difference in degrees from True North in a clockwise direction
from the desired track
1. In the EICAS system, when is the maintenance mode available?
# b)Lower screen only - only available on the ground
c) In flight
b)After engine shut down
# c) Continuously when system is in use

# a) Electromagnetic
b)Electrostatic
c) Either
4. In an IN system, the purpose of the stable platform is to
# a) prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers
b)provide attitude reference
# b)orthogonally
c) 12Oo apart
a) doppler system
b)satellites
# c) air data computer

a) angle in degrees that the aircraft track is left or right of desired
track
b)actual track across the earths surface
# c) perpendicular distance from the desired track
# b)attitude indicators
c) altimeters
# b)90o to each other
c) 120o apart
b)self alignment in the vertical
# c) use of the gyro-magnetic compass system to align the platform

a) perform in-flight and ground tests of aircraft systems by carrying
out a BITE
# b)give red warnings and amber cautions to display system status
2. The control of the speed or rate that the F/D Command bars move can
be controlled by
# b)rate or velocity feedback
c) amplifier gain
3. The Centralized Aircraft Monitoring System uses the maintenance mode
of operation
a) in the air only
# b)on the ground only
b)Takes less time
# c) Saves weight
# a) Yes
b)No
a) when addressed
# b)when terminal gap is sensed
# a) by addition
b)by subtraction
c) by coupling
# a) To indicate the status of the microprocessor
b)To store a program during an interrupt

# b)increase speed
# a) ensure the output voltages remain accurate
b)ensure the input remains accurate
temperature
1. A BCD word occupies bits 11-29, if 11-15 are filled with padders then
the LSB of the word will be
# a) 16
b)29
c) 11
# a) an inoperative symbol generator or input sensor
b)an inoperative symbol generator or control panel

# b)ensure all static wicks are in place
c) transmit on all radio frequencies to determine which frequencies
are causing the interference
4. When a BITE test is carried out on a system with moving parts it
should be
# b)carried out ensuring all moving parts are operated and taken to there stops
c) carried out ensuring all moving parts are operated but not to there
mechanical stops
# a) one transmitter, many receivers
b)a bus controller and separate controller
# a) the timescale
b)the processor sub-cycle

7. In a fibre optic system, different light frequencies are separated by
# a) an active filter
b)a passive filter
c) a star network
a) electrostatic
b)electromagnetic
# c) combined
# b)do not require power
a) give output at required level
# b)compensate for temperature variation

1. L.E.D.s can give
b)red and green displays only
# c) monochrome displays only
b)in two directions
# c) both directions at the same time
a) electrical power is isolated
# b)ground yourself first to aircraft then PCB
c) ensure you do not touch the ends so that copper contacts do not
become contaminated
4. For large bandwidth high-speed fibre optic transmission what sort of
cable would you use?
# a) Single mode
b)Graded index
c) Step index
# a) are precise
b)do not need to be of precise values
# b)more than visible light
7. What is the advantage of an ILD over an LED when used as a light
source in fibre optics
a) higher bandwidth
# b)lower frequency range
c) lower intensity
# a) CD ROM
b)IC
c) magnetic tape
a) ALU
# b)CPU
c) dip switch
10. A circular time constant produces what sort of output?
a) in phase
b)180o out of phase
# c) 90o out of phase
# b)is never greater then the speed of light in free space
2. A device, which converts serial to parallel and parallel to serial
for arithmetical functions, is a
# b)Shift Register

3. In an Arinc 429 Word label-representing heading is 320, this is
represented in bits 1-8 as
# a) 01101000
b)01011001
c) 00001011
# a) 0, 1
b)1, 1
c) 0, 0
a) 0, 1
b)1, 1
# c)1, 0
# b)approximately half that of the cone of acceptance

7. A fibre optic cable is connected to a unit that will not be frequently disconnected. The
preferred type of connector to be used is a
a) Ball lens type
# b)Butt type
# a) during power up
b)during in-flight
c) MCDU
# a) looking at the odd parity without error
b)looking at the even parity without error
10. What is EPROM?
# a) erasable programmable read only memory
b)enhanced programmable read only memory

1. A CRT is
# a) electromagnetic
b)electrostatic
c)solid state i
a) octal
b)digital
# c) decimald
# a) 2c
b)2d
c)2F
4.What is octal 33in hexadecimal?
a) 22
b)11
# c) 1b
5. At low ambient temperatures, an LCD screen
a) loses contrast
# b)is slower to update as data changes
c)viewing angle becomes larger
# a) 84 triads
b)400 lines per square inch
# a) analogue to digital converter
b)frequency divider
8. Where does the clock signal in a microiprocessor come from?
a) ALU
# b)Control unit
c)Memory
9.Where is the operating program for the CPU stored?
a) ALU
b)Control unit
# c)Memory unit
10.An LCD display
# a) has three colours only
b)has infinite colours
c)is monochrome
1. In ARINC 629 aperiodic mode, LRUs transmit in order of
a) power up
# b)shortest terminal gap to longest terminal gap
c)longest terminal gap to shortest terminal gap
# a) for normal operation
b)for landing and approach operation
c) for database loads

3. What is the device used to convert Binary Coded Decimal into separate supplies for a
seven segment digital display?
a) Multiplexer
b)Demultiplexer
# c) Decoder
# b)Using two data buses
c)Via a current mode coupler
a)register section, ALU and timing and control section
# b)memory, input/output ports and CPU

6.A B S
000
011
101
110
This is the truth table for a
# a) E-OR
b)NOT
c)NAND
# a) EADI
b)EFIS
c)CRTs in the passenger cabin
8.What is ILS marker frequency?
# a) 75 Mhz
b)100 Mhz
c) 125 Mhz
# b)to prevent arcing when inserting and extracting the socket
10 Flat plate antenna is
# a) series of waveguides with slots
b)a parabolic antenna
# b)CMCS monitors the individual BITE systems and presents data.
a) it changes the incoming waveform to a standard square wave.
# b)It detects incidences of peak value
c) It compares the incoming waveform with standard sine waves

# a) the 'Verification' phase includes performance testing a programmed
EPROM
b)the 'Validation' phase is done to the software rather than to the
component.
c) the 'Software Release' phase is the same as the 'Finished Product'
phase
4. A segmented configuration for the display of alphanumeric date
requires
b)the starburst display for numbers and lower case letters only.
# c) 16 segments to display the full range of capital letters and
numerals
5. For braided cables, the amount of braiding
b)must conform to the requirement for the shielding to cover at least 50%
of the surface of the cable
# c) keeps radiated power inside the emitting assembly or away from the
susceptible circuit
b)distance measuring indicators; digital counters
# c) weather radar indicators
# b)Flash converter
8. In a colour cathode ray tube, how is the phosphor arranged in the
tube?
b)Layers of red, blue and green
# c) A single phosphor layer containing red, green and blue
a) monochrome
b)three colours
# c) multicoloured
# a) 3
b)2
c) 8
# b)Mode control panel, Raster and Stroke generator display, microprocessor
and Data inputs
a) 101 011
b)110 111
# c) 111 111
a) Matrix LCD
# b)Capacitor
c) LED
# b)Outputs the highest input
# b)Harvard bi-phase 12 bit
a) +5v
b)-5v
# c) +10v to -10v
# a) 4 bytes
b)2 bytes
c) 8 bytes
# a) 12 bits
b)8 bits
c) 10 bits
9. Which of the following ESDS devices can withstand higher static
electricity voltage?
a) ECL
b)MOSFET
# c) SCR
# a) only on the ground
b)in the air
a) ALU
b)RAM
# c) ROM
a) Matrix LCD
b)LED
# c) Capacitor
b)is monochrome
# c) has only 3 colours
a) DIP switch
b)ALU
# c) Control Processor Unit
# a) timing cycle
b)processor sub-cycle
c) processor cycle
a) ferrite material
b)permeamag material
# c) ferromagnetic material
a) cruise
b)take off and landings only
# c) any flight phase
8. An aircraft on an ILS approach is below the glideslope centre line,
the glideslope pointer is
# a) above the centre line
b)below the centre line
# a) 4x7 or a 9x5 rolling end display as per LBP of MODULE 05, BOOK 3,PAGE02,
FIG 04, LED DISPLAY
b)4x7 or a 5x7 rolling end display

a) OFST and Fail
b)fail and MSG
# c) MSG, fail and OFST
1.A current mode coupler contains E core assembly. The purpose of the E core is
b)provide effective screening of the signal through the current mode
coupler
a) in the air
# b)ground only
c) air and ground

3. EHSI information displayed, is invalid in the pre-set heading mode
when
b)flag green
# c) flag in view
# a) perform in-flight bite and ground tests of aircraft systems, ie BITE
b)give red warnings and amber cautions to display in accordance with
system status
5. The TX/RX of Arinc629 is
a) encoder/decoder
# b)multiplex/de-multiplex
c) switching
b) flexible
# c) can be changed by adjusting the rx/tx software

1. An FMS system, besides controlling navigation, thrust and auto-nav,
also provides:
c) GPWS warnings b) dedicated status and warnings
2. EADI sky and ground display is provided by:
b) raster scan
c) stroke pulse b) raster scan
3. HSI heading is valid if the heading flag is :
a) in view
b) green
c) out of view c) out of view
4. A NOR gate with both inputs inverted becomes a:
a) NAND gate
b) AND gate
c) OR gate b) AND gate
5. An ARINC 429 binary coded decimal data word occupies bits:
a) 11 to 28
b) 11 to 29
c) 1 to 8 b) 11 to 29
6. A fiber optic cable consists of
b) a silica glass core with a cladding having a higher refractive
index
c) a silica glass core with a cladding having a lower refractive
index c) a silica glass core with a cladding having a lower refractive

index
7. The command bars on an ADI relate to:
a) path required
c) roll indications a) path required
8. The recording medium in an FDR is:
c) copper foil coated with ferrite b) magnetic tape coated with ferrite
9. Convert 0111012 to octal :
a) 25
b) 33
c) 35 c) 35
10. What does the CADC feed :
b) standby altimeter / mach meter
c) cabin pressure controller sensor / mach meter / altimeter c) cabin pressure controller sensor /
mach meter / altimeter
11. What kind of light is used in a fiber optic systems?
a) Infrared
b) Visible
c) Ultraviolet a) Infrared
12. Typical displays on an EHSI are:
c) Engine indications a) VOR, Map, Plan and weather radar
13. An EADI display showing a moving runway moves down during the
final stages of an approach. The aircraft must:

a) fly up
b) fly down
c) hold descent path b) fly down
14. A flight data recorder can obtain information from aircraft
Instruments:
c) provided there is adequate damping a) provided there is adequate isolation
15. Adding invertors to the two inputs of an AND gate makes a :
a) NAND gate
b) OR gate
c) NOR gate c) NOR gate
16. The binary number 11010111 expressed as a decimal is:
a) 207
b) 223
c) 215 c) 215
a) 65
b) 513
c) 9 b) 513
18. This truth table is for a:
ABC
000
100
010
111
a) NAND gate
b) AND gate
c) OR gate b) AND gate
19. The inputs and outputs of a CADC are:
a) pitot and static in; altitude, attitude, CAS and VS out
b) pitot and static in; altitude, CAS, mach and VS out
c) pitot in; static, altitude, mach, CAS and VS out b) pitot and static in; altitude, CAS, mach and
VS out
20. EICAS provides the following:
b) engine parameters and system warnings only
c) engine parameters and engine warnings only b) engine parameters and system warnings only
21. During an instrument approach, the glide slope pointer deflect below
the glide-slope centre mark. This means the aircraft is positioned:
a) above the glide-slope
b) below the glide-slope
c) to the left of the localizer a) above the glide-slope
22. Engine parameters are displayed on:
a) ECAM
b) EHSI
c) FMSCDU a) ECAM
23. A central maintenance computer provides:
a) ground and flight monitoring and testing on an on-board
computer
c) display of system warnings and cautions a) ground and flight monitoring and testing on an on-
board
computer
c) There are no outputs c) There are no outputs
25. FMS failure and warnings are;
a) displayed on EICAS
c) EFIS warnings only a) displayed on EICAS
a) The pilot
b) The engineer
c) The manufacturer a) The pilot
27. If a signal has quantity in volts and physical position it is:
a) digital
b) synchronous
c) analogue c) analogue
a) The glide-slope pointer
c) The aircraft symbol c) The aircraft symbol
29. What information is required before completion of the alignment of
an Inertial Navigation System?
a) Aircraft present position
c) Heading and attitude a) Aircraft present position
30. IRS accelerometers are mounted:

c) 90o to each other c) 90o to each other
31. An FMS navigation database is updated:
b) once a month
c) every 28 days c) every 28 days
32. A single failure of a fly-by-wire system:
a) has no effect on aircraft operation
c) will reduce operational heights and speeds a) has no effect on aircraft operation
33. On an EADI, the Flight Director command bars show :
b) the required path with respect to the actual path
c) the path with respect to the horizon b) the required path with respect to the actual path
a) EADI
b) EHSI
c) ECAM a) EADI
35. In order to maintain HIRF protection, bonding checks between
airframe and electrical components carrying voltages greater than
50 volts RMS or DC or main earth return should not exceed:
a) 1 mega ohm
b) 1 ohm
c) 0.05 ohm b) 1 ohm
36. If an EFIS has 3 symbol generators, what is the purpose of the 3rd
symbol generator?
b) Standby
c) Parity function b) Standby
37. FMS operational program is updated every:
a) 7 days
b) 28 days
c) 90 days b) 28 days
a) 100111001
b) 110011001
c) 101011001 c) 101011001
a) OR gate
c) NAND gate a) OR gate
40. HIRF is prevented from entering a fiber optic cable by:
b) grounding the fiber at both ends
c) using an opto-isolator coupling c) using an opto-isolator coupling
41. Continuity of a fiber optic cable is checked by:
c) a calibrated light source and an optometry c) a calibrated light source and an optometry
42. To shield a fiber optic from EMI you must:
c) use an opto-isolator c) use an opto-isolator
43. A symbol generator displays ESDs warning. During replacement:
a) you must wear a wrist strap connected to an approved earth

point
b) make sure the pins are not touched and covers fitted
c) you must earth the unit to the airframe structure b) make sure the pins are not touched and
covers fitted
44. An FDR fitted to a helicopter begins recording:
a) on take-off
b) on engine start-up
c) when power is applied to the aircraft b) on engine start-up
45. MIL-ST-1533 is a data bus for:
c) Digital Information Transfer System c) Digital Information Transfer System
46. Making an invertors from a NAND or NOR gate is achieved by:
c) connecting the inputs c) connecting the inputs
47. The FMS databases consist of:
c) one performance and two navigation databases c) one performance and two navigation
databases
48. The FMS can update the IRS position outputs by using information
from either:
a) VOR and DME only
b) DME and GPS only
c) GPS, DME, LOC and VOR c) GPS, DME, LOC and VOR
49. The accepted error from INS/IRS is:
c) 3 miles / hour + 3 miles c) 3 miles / hour + 3 miles
50. Before an IRS can complete the alignment sequence :
b) the current present position must be entered
c) either the last or current position must be entered b) the current present position must be
entered
b) Spurious faults
c) Ground faults only a) Discrete warnings
52. Centralized Aircraft Monitoring System:
a) performs in-flight and ground tests of aircraft systems by
carrying out a BITE interrogation
b) give red warnings and amber cautions to display system
status
c) performs in-flight BITE interrogation only b) give red warnings and amber cautions to display
system
status
53. The Centralized Aircraft Monitoring System uses the maintenance
mode of operation:
a) in the air only
c) either in the air or on the ground b) on the ground only
a) Full arc and Wx. only
b) Full arc, Wx. and Map Mode
c) Full Arc only b) Full arc, Wx. and Map Mode

55. EFIS displays of the right hand and left hand displays are compared
by comparators in the:
a) FMS
b0) EICAS
c) Symbol Generators c) Symbol Generators
a) 5/hour
b) 10/hour
c) 15/hour c) 15/hour
57. An IRS platform has:
b) three accelerometers
c) two or three accelerometers depending on the system b) three accelerometers
58. IRS Laser Ring Gyros provide:
a) rate movement about an axis
c) both rate and displacement about an axis a) rate movement about an axis
59. What are the outputs of a Digital ADC:
a) TAS, MACH, Altitude, TAT and SAT
c)TAS, MACH, Altitude and TAT a) TAS, MACH, Altitude, TAT and SAT
60. A fiber optic data bus used on an aircraft:
b) can transmit on several channels at the same time
c) can send only one message at a time b) can transmit on several channels at the same time
61. Light travels along a fiber optic by :
a) reflection
b) refraction
c) dispersion a) reflection
62. Manufacturers of aircraft can ensure HIRF protection by:
a) designing specific avionic areas that are shielded against HIRF
c) advising operators of all points susceptible to deterioration
due to corrosion, moisture ingress, flexing etc a) designing specific avionic areas that are shielded
against HIRF
63. An AND gate output is 1 when inputs are:
a) both 0
b)1 and 0
c) both 1 c) both 1
64. What is hex 110 in decimal:
a) 272
b) 282
c) 32 a) 272
65. Convert the binary word 1100 to decimal :
a) 16
b) 12
c) 11 b) 12
66. Convert the binary word 1110 to decimal:
a) 12
b) 14
c) 15 b) 14
67. What is the main disadvantage of a fiber optic data bus?
b) Less strong and durable when compared to twisted pair and
coaxial cable
c) Expensive to install a) Bend radius and moisture ingress at connections
68. Fly By Wire systems in the fully active mode, the actuators will:
a) both be active
b) one in active mode, one in damping mode
c) both be in damping mode, awaiting control inputs b) one in active mode, one in damping mode
69. The parity bit in digital information is used:
b) to check the validity of data information
c) to check the status of the system b) to check the validity of data information
70. On a Fly By Wire system, what controls the stab trim:
a) ELAC
b) ELAC and SEC
c)SEC b) ELAC and SEC
71. Convert the binary number 110010 to decimal :
a) 80
b) 50
c) 34 b) 50
72. What is serial to parallel and vice-versa called:
a) Encoder/Decoder
b) Multiplex/ De-multiplex
c) Switching b) Multiplex/ De-multiplex
73. Control of software is by:
a) the National Aviation Authority
b) engineers
c) the aircraft manufacturers a) the National Aviation Authority
74. A typical fiber optic connector is:
a) F-type connector
b) coupling type, with lens fitted
c) push-pull connector b) coupling type, with lens fitted
75. Which of the following is an optoelectronic device?
a) Triac
b) Thyristor
c) Laser Diode c) Laser Diode
76. What is the advantage of a single mode fibre optic over ordinary
wire?
a) Large bandwidth
c) Not prone to dam a) Large bandwidth
77. How many LRUs can be connected to an ARINC 429 data bus:
a) 120
b) 20
c) 60 b) 20
78. Convert the hexadecimal number D into decimal:
a) 13
b) 14
c) 14 a) 13
79. Convert decimal 15 into binary:
a) 1101
b) 1111
c) 1110 b) 1111
80. Convert 448 to hex:
a) 3616
b) 2416
c) 2216 b) 2416
b) When both inputs are at 1
c) When the inputs are different b) When both inputs are at 1
82. Convert decimal 15 into hexadecimal:
a) E
b) G
c) F c) F
a) OR
b) Exclusive OR
c) NAND a) OR
a) Critical
b) Essential
c) Non-essential a) Critical
a) 101011001
b) 110011001
c) 100111001 a) 101011001
86. Convert 1D to binary:
a) 29
b) 11101
c) 101001 b) 11101
87. Convert 2C hex to octal:
a) 54
b) 44
c) 35 a) 54
88. A fiber optic light source is normally:
a) a filament lamp
b) a laser or LED
c) a strobe light b) a laser or LED
a) Wear a wrist strap connected to an approved ground point
c) No special precautions are required a) Wear a wrist strap connected to an approved ground point
90. ARINC Communications Addressing and Reporting Systems is used
To:
b) connect the aircraft to base
c) make telephone calls b) connect the aircraft to base
91. With radio coupled autopilot, what are the inputs:
a) ADF and ILS
b) ADF and VOR
c) ILS and VOR c) ILS and VOR
92. The basic principle of radar is based upon:
b) the time delay between outward and returning pulse
c) ultrasonic wave propagation b) the time delay between outward and returning pulse
a) ECAM
b) EHSI
c) CDU a) ECAM
94. A flight deck CRT LRU is being replaced. What does the ESDS label
indicate?
b) Do not touch plug pins or leave them exposed
c) Remove power before connecting b) Do not touch plug pins or leave them exposed
b) Standby altimeter/mach meter
c) Cabin pressure controller sensor / mach meter / Altimeter c) Cabin pressure controller sensor /
mach meter / Altimeter
96. 1012 converted to decimal is:
a) 52
b) 510
c) 210 b) 510
97. Physical variables in quantitative forms, such as voltage or angular
rotation of a shaft are:
a) analogue
b) digital
c) binary a) analogue
98. Within a 3 bit frequency cascade, division is to:
a) 8
b) 4
c) 2 a) 8
a) Up to 10,000 ft
b) Up to 2,500 ft
c) Up to 100 ft b) Up to 2,500 ft
100. The binary coded decimal number 10011000 expressed as a
decimal number is:

a) 98 b10
b) 152 10
c) 152 2a) 98 b10
101. The decimal number 7 expressed as a binary number is:
a) 111 2
b) 7 2
c) 101 2a) 111 2
102. Convert 011101 binary to octal:
a) 25
b) 33
c) 35 c) 35
103. The 'fan-in' in a gate is the :
b) number of inputs to a gate
c) number of inputs and outputs of a gate b) number of inputs to a gate
104. Very Large Scale Integrated (VLSI) means the number of gates in a
single IC is:
a) up to 1000
b) up to 10,000
c) over 10,000 c) over 10,000
105. The fiber optic cable can be identified on aircraft by its jacket
color which is:
a) purple
b) red
c) yellow a) purple
106. For a fiber optic cable connector that is not regularly disconnected
you would use the:

b) ball lens type
c) butt type c) butt type
107. Binary Number: 110010 :
a) 80
b) 50
c) 34 b) 50
a) Via ARINC 573
b) Via ARINC 629
c) Source isolated a) Via ARINC 573
109. To stop earth loops forming, you would:
c) earth only one end of the cable screen c) earth only one end of the cable screen
110. How many satellite signals are required to achieve precise 3D
positioning?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6 a) 4
111. Binary addition of 1101 + 101101 is:
a) 58
b) 61
c) 70 a) 58
a) ARINC 429, in data word labels only
b) ARINC 629
c) ARINC 573 a) ARINC 429, in data word labels only
a) Or gate
b) NOR gate
c) NOT gate b) NOR gate
114. An aircraft may have been HIRF affected:
a) A static wick check is required
c) Test all radio frequencies for interference a) A static wick check is required
a) 215
b) 107
c) 53 a) 215
a) 513
b) 613
c) 713 a) 513
117. With a relative humidity of 10% to 20%, if you walked over a carpet
what electrostatic voltage value would you expect to see?
a) 6,000 volts
b) 12,000 volts
c) 35,000 volts c) 35,000 volts
118. The minimum requirement for an aeroplane CVR is:
a) from power on
c) from beginning of take off roll b) from engine start
119. The output of a NOT gate is logic 1. The input is :

a) logic 1
b) logic 0
c) both logic 1 b) logic 0
120. An Inertial Navigation System (INS/IRS) computes distance from
acceleration by:
c) two successive integrations c) two successive integrations
121. Before the aircraft is moved from the loading pier the pilot must:
a) insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the IRS
c) insert the longitude and latitude of the first waypoint into the
INS a) insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the IRS
122. An IRS system requires data for wind computation from:
a) central Air Data Computer
b) satellites
c) Doppler System a) central Air Data Computer
123. Pitch Control of a fly by wire system is achieved by:
a) elevators only
b) stabilizer and elevator
c) stabilizer only b) stabilizer and elevator
124. A basic IRS platform has:
c) 3 accelerometers and 3 laser gyros c) 3 accelerometers and 3 laser gyros
125. What must be entered into the IRS before the aircraft can be
moved?
a) Present position
b) Flight plan
c) Cruise height a) Present position
126. The FMS Operational Data Base is:
b) is fed with information on aircraft weight, cruise altitude and
cost index before take off
c) needs no update informationb) is fed with information on aircraft weight, cruise altitude and
cost index before take off
127. An INS/IRS Battery Unit provides :
a) standby power when airborne and on the ground
c) standby power only on the ground a) standby power when airborne and on the ground
128. IRS alignment:
a) takes up to 10 minutes and the present position can be entered
at any time during alignment
b) takes up to 10 minutes and present position must be entered
before alignment.
c) takes up to 10 minutes and the previous flight shut down
present position is used for the alignment a) takes up to 10 minutes and the present position
can be entered
at any time during alignment
129. A Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) has the advantage over a CRT
Because:
a) it displays more colors
c) it requires no cooling c) it requires no cooling

c) Exclusive NOR gate b) Exclusive OR gate
a) AND gate
b) OR gate
c) NOR gate b) OR gate
132. Digital Computer Processes information in a :
a) Binary State.
b) Unique Application.
c) Analog fashion a) Binary State.
133. The higher degree of integration of system and Flexibility for aircraft
Designers, will be achieved by:
a) The using analog technology.
b) The usage of digital technology.
c) The degradation of units b) The usage of digital technology.
134. The Hardware type of computer are:
a-) Analog computer.
b) Digital computer .
c) Analog- Digital- Hybrid computer. c) Analog- Digital- Hybrid computer.
135- The application type or task of computer are:
a) Reference, information. and storage/monitor.
b) Controlling, Interactive.
c) Answer "A" and "B" both can be. c) Answer "A" and "B" both can be.
136. Digital computers use input, which are ........ ........... or ....... And ...
a) Digital signal --- High - Low.
b) Analog signal --- Peak - Peak./

c) Hybrid signal --- High - Low. a) Digital signal --- High - Low.
137. For adaptation of a computer on several different airframes:
a) Program must be changed.
b) Strapping Pins should be used.
c) Potentiometer is used. b) Strapping Pins should be used.
138.What is the name of computer, which is used for a source of
information
or data?
A) Storage computer.
b) Controlling computer.
c) Reference computer. c) Reference computer.
139.An example of reference computer is:
a) Central Air Data computer(CADC).
b) Inertial Reference System.
c) E.I.C.A.S. Engine indication and crew alerting system. b) Inertial Reference System.
140. The computer, which perform several different task, depending on
operator inputs, is known as.
a) Interactive computer.
b) Controlling computer.
c) Reference computer. a) Interactive computer.
141. In the numbering system, the LSD and MSD stands for:
a) Least significant digit and most significant digit.
b) Line signal display.
c) Most signal distortion. a) Least significant digit and most significant digit.
142. The decimal number 4572 is equal to:
2310
a) (4x10 ) + (5x10 ) + (7x10 ) + (2x10 ).

0231
b) (4x10) + (5x10) + (7x10) + (2x10).
3210
c) (4x10) + (5x10) + (7x10) + (2x10). c) (4x10) + (5x10) + (7x10) + (2x10).
143. The decimal numbering system, which is on base 10, has:
a) 5 digits.
b) 10 digits.
c) 8 digits. b) 10 digits.
144. The binary system has:
a) A basic 7
b) A basic 16
c) A basic 2. c) A basic 2.
145. The 0 and 1 are two binary digit, which is known as:
a) Bits.
b) Words.
c) Frame. a) Bits.
146. All input to digital computer must be converted to :
a) Decimal number.
b) Binary (0-1)
c) Hexadecimal.b) Binary (0-1)
147. Convert 9110 to binary form:
a) 011011.
b) 1011011.
c) 110011. b) 1011011.
148. The MSB, in one,s complement method, is set to "0", it indicate:
a) Positive number.
b) Negative number
c) Decimal number. a) Positive number.
149. Which stated below, indicate binary subtraction rules.
a) 0 - 0 = 0 , 1 - 0 = 1
b) 1 - 1 = 0 , 0 - 1 = 1
c) Answer "A" and "B" both correct. c) Answer "A" and "B" both correct.
150. The short method of adding a numbers to itself as many times as is
specified. Is known as:
a) Addition.
b) Multiplication.
c) Divider b) Multiplication.
151. The real world is ............... in nature:
a) Digital.
b) Analog.
c) Hybrid b) Analog.
152. The Aircraft control surface is driven by:
a) Digital signal.
b) Discrete Signal.
c) Analog signal. c) Analog signal.
153. The circuits used to interface digital computers to the analog world
are known as:
a) D/A converter.
b) A/D converter.
c) Discrete circuit. a) D/A converter.
154. System information has to be transmitted to the peripherals, in the
form of ................ Or ......... .............. signal and are known as
............. :
a) Mechanical - Electrical - CPU.

b) Electrical - Mechanical - ALU.
c) Electrical - Fiber optic - Data Buses. c) Electrical - Fiber optic - Data Buses.
155. The ARINC, stands for:
a) Aircraft radio incorporation.
b) Aeronautical radio incorporated.
c) Aeronautical range indication. b) Aeronautical radio incorporated.
156. The ARINC activity is:
a) To produce specifications and reports.
b) To supply electronics parts.
c) To train in avionics field. a) To produce specifications and reports.
157. The specification for transfer of digital data between avionics
components, Exist in:
a) ARINC 561.
b) ARINC 573.
c) ARINC 429. c) ARINC 429.
158. The data bus is:
a) A single wire.
b) A pair of twisted wires with shielding.
c) A coaxial cable. b) A pair of twisted wires with shielding.
159. What is the MIL-STD-1553B:
a) A military standard, which adapted as a NATO standard. It is a
multiple source data transmission system
b) The transmission can take place from more than one source.
c) All above answer are correct.c c) All above answer are correct.c
160. Many different kind of logical outputs can be obtained by:
a) Logic gates.
b) Operational Amplifiers.
c) Detector units. a) Logic gates.
161. What are the logical gates?
a) AND, OR, NOT.
b) Exclusive OR , Exclusive NOR.
c- AND, OR, NAND, NOR, Exclusive OR, NOT. c- AND, OR, NAND, NOR, Exclusive OR, NOT.
162. The logical gates are made-up of electronic components, and output
can be presented by:
a) Boolean Algebra.
b) Newtons law.
c) Bernoulli law. a) Boolean Algebra.
163. What is the function of logic elements?
a) They operates like amplifier.
b) Allows digital circuits to make decision based on various input
parameter.
c) Current to flow in one way only. b) Allows digital circuits to make decision based on various
input
parameter.
164. For more complicated decision:
a) More logic elements needed.
b) Only, one element required.
c) Only one logic gate enough. a) More logic elements needed.
165. What is the name of gate, which provide "1" output, while all inputs
are "1"?
a) OR gate.
b) NOR gate.
c) And gate. c) And gate.
166. The equivalent circuit for an AND gate is:
a) Parallel circuits.
b) Series circuits.
c) Combination circuits. b) Series circuits.
167. What is the name of the gate, which is combination of AND gate and
an Inverter?
a)AND gate.
b)NAND gate.
c)NOR gate. b)NAND gate.
168. An "OR" gate with all inputs inverted is similar to:
a) NAND gate
b) NOR gate.
c) OR gate. a) NAND gate
169. The Boolean expression for OR gate is:
a) A 0B = S.
b) A + B = S
___
c) A + B = S. b) A + B = S
___
170. The below Boolean expression , Indicate:
___
A0B=S
a) AND logic gate.
b) OR logic gate.
c) NAND logic gate. c) NAND logic gate.
171. The system for mathematically analysis of logic system , is known
as:
a) Boolean algebra.
b) Geometry.
c) Exclusive gate. c) Exclusive gate.
172. The system for mathematical analysis of logic system , is known as:
a) Boolean algebra.
b) Geometry.
c) Trigonometry a) Boolean algebra.
173. The Boolean expression is A0B=S, what is the name of relative
gate?
a) Inverter.
b) Exclusive or gate.
c) AND gate. c) AND gate.
174. The exclusive or gate indicate:
a) Equal condition of inputs.
b) Different condition of inputs.
c) Availability of all inputs. b) Different condition of inputs.
175. The operation of the logic gate, can be described by means of:
a) Electronic components.
b) Truth Table.
c) AND gate only. b) Truth Table.
176. An apparatus, which made up of electronic circuitry , that generate
an output based on the input of one or more variable is known as:
a) Logic element.
b) Oscillator.
c) Amplifier. a) Logic element.
238. The horizontal situation indicator (HSI) uses information derived
from:
(a) the VO receiver
(b) the pitot-static system

(c ) the airspeed indicator. (a) the VO receiver
178. In order to energize the relay in the circuit shown below, the logic
state at the input must be:
a) logic 0 at points A and B
b) logic 0 at point A and logic 1 at point B A B
c) logic 1 at both points c) logic 1 at both points
179. The circuit shown below, performs a logic:
a)AND gate
b) NAND gate
c) NOR gate c) NOR gate
180. The M.P.U. stands for:
a) Microprocessor unit.
b) Maintenance Power Unit.
c) Micro computer unit.a) Microprocessor unit.
181. The M.P.U. is similar to:
a) Memory.
b) A.L.U.
c) C.P.U. c) C.P.U.
182. What device is used for storing information and computer
operation:
a)A.L.U. device.
b) Memory device.
c) Input / output device. b) Memory device.
183. The fundamental unit of information used in the computer is:
a) Word.
b) Alphabet.
c) Octal. a) Word.
184. The most important characteristics of any microprocessor is:
a) Memory capacity.
b) C.P.U.
c) Word length. c) Word length.
185. The fiber optic data bus, is specified by:
a- Arinc 429 .
b- Arinc 636.
c- Arinc 629.. c- Arinc 629.
186. Each word contains:
a) 10 bit.
b) 6 bit.
c) 8 bit c) 8 bit
187. The L.S.B. of computer word number, located:
a)on the right of the number.
b)On the left of the number.
c) On the central of the number. a)on the right of the number.
188. The physical equipment of a computer system is known as:
a) Software.
b) Hardware.
C_ Instruction. b) Hardware.
189. What is the software?
a- Physical equipment of computer.
b- Input information.
c- It is the instructions that make the hardware function c- It is the instructions that make the
hardware function
190. The combination of hardware and software is refer to:
a) Firmware.
b) Hard-Software.
c) Hardware. a) Firmware.
191. A binary digit is:
a- Bit.
b- Word.
c- Map. a- Bit.
192. The element of computer which, store and retrieve, bit or words is
Known as:
a-C.P.U.
b-A.L.U.
c-Memory. a-C.P.U.
193. What are the format of data bits, which can be stored in memory?
a- Parallel.
b- Serial.
c- Parallel or serial. c- Parallel or serial.
194. The memory capacity is generally specified in term of:.
a- K bites.
b- M bites. 0r G bite
c- All of the above answers are correct. c- All of the above answers are correct.
195. In computer application "K" means:
a- 1024 bits.
b- 4056 bits.
c- 11224 bits. a- 1024 bits.
196. What is the name of a memory device, from which data can
repeatedly be read out but can not written into it?
a-Random access memory.
b-Read only memory.
c-Dynamic ram device. b-Read only memory.

197. Computer classified by hardware, as:
a- Analog computer. Ana Digital computer
b- Hybrid computer.
c- Analog ,digital, hybrid computer c- Analog ,digital, hybrid computer
198. Computers used on aircraft, are classified, according to task, as:
a- Reference, Information computers. Controlling computer
b- Storage / Monitoring computers. And Interactive computer
d- All above answers are used on aircraft d- All above answers are used on aircraft
199. The computer, which has a combination of the amplitude of input
signals and analog circuitry, to produce output of continuous
voltage or current. Is known as:
a-Digital computer.
b-Analog computer.
c-Flight management system b-Analog computer.
200. In digital computer processing occurs in:
a- Central processing units.
b- Microprocessors.
c- Microprocessors, or central processing units. c- Microprocessors, or central processing units.
201. What is the name of computer, which use, both analog and digital
elements in one computer:
a-Analog computer.
b-Digital computer.
c-Hybrid computer. c-Hybrid computer.
202. The flight management computer, is an example of:
a- Reference computer.
b- Controlling computer.
c- Interactive computer. c- Interactive computer.

203. For high-speed transmission of data, by light:
a-The Fiber Optics are used.
b-The Microwave signal s are used.
c-The R.F. signals are used. a-The Fiber Optics are used.
204. What are the elements of an optical fiber?
a- Central core of suitable glass material.
b- Outer cladding with lower refracting index.
c- All above answer are correct c- All above answer are correct
205. The transmission of light in any optical fiber, depends on:
a- Outer covering materials.
b- Optical property of total internal reflection.
c- Cladding material. b- Optical property of total internal reflection.
206. The modes, by which light can be guided along a fiber optics
depends on:
a- Incident angle ().
b- Light intensity.
c- Cladding material. a- Incident angle ().
207. What are the basic modes of fiber optics?
a- Single mode fiber.
b- Multimode fiber.
c- Answer "A" and "B" both correct c- Answer "A" and "B" both correct
208. The fiber optic link between, flight control computers and the
actuator
control electronics is:
a-A two way system.
b-A single way system.
c-A four root system. a-A two way system.

209 LED (light emitting diode) emits light when:
a-It is reverse biased.
b-It is Forward biased.
c-It has no current flow through it b-It is Forward biased.
210. The configuration, of LED s, which are used on aircraft displays are:
a- Seven segment LED display.
b- DOT matrix.
c- Seven segment or Dot matrix. c- Seven segment or Dot matrix.
211. LCD stands for:
a- Liquid Control display .
b- Liquid Crystal Display.
c- Light control display. b- Liquid Crystal Display.
212. The Cathode ray tube (CRT) is:
a- An evacuated glass tube.
b- An liquid crystal display.
c- A diode. a- An evacuated glass tube.
213. The color CRT has:
a-Single electron guns.
b- double electron guns.
c- three electron guns. c- three electron guns.
214. The display which produces light, when electrically activated is
known as:
a- Passive display.
b- Active display.
c- Fail passive display b- Active display.
215. E.F.I.S. stands for:
a- Electronic Flight Instrument Systems.

b- Liquid crystal display.
c- Electronic fault isolation system. a- Electronic Flight Instrument Systems.
216. The electrostatic charge or:
a-Electrical energy at rest.
b-Electrical energy, which has no voltage.
c-Electrical energy, which has current flow. a-Electrical energy at rest.
217. Electro static charge, generated due to:
a- different phase between current and voltage.
b- Friction between different materials.
c- High voltage in the circuit. b- Friction between different materials.
218. The material, which store, electrostatic charge is:
a- A conductive materials.
b- A semiconductor materials.
c- A non-conductive materials c- A non-conductive materials
219. The transfer of electrostatic charge between bodies at different
electrostatic potentials is known as:
a-Energy at rest.
b-Semiconductor devices.
c-Electrostatic Discharge (EDS). c-Electrostatic Discharge (EDS).
220. The electrostatic discharge (EDS) ,caused by:
a- Direct contact.
b- Induced by an electrostatic field.
c- Direct contact or induced by electrostatic field. c- Direct contact or induced by electrostatic

field.
221. The precautions necessary for safe handling of units, identified by:
a- ESDS labels.
b- Voice warning.
c- Voltage indication. a- ESDS labels.

222. For identifying the ESD sensitive area or equipments, that contain
ESDS device:
a-A yellow caution sensitive label uses.
b-A red caution label uses.
c-A green label can be used. a-A yellow caution sensitive label uses.
223. What are the type of labels(decals), which are used to identify units
as containing ESDS sensitive circuits?
a-The military and commercial symbols are used on some units.
and The international (JEDEC) symbol is used on most ESDS
decals.
b-ESDS printed circuit boards (cards) that are LRU,s are
identified by decals labeled" Static Sensitive".
c-All above answers are the three basic types of labels(decals). c-All above answers are the three
basic types of labels(decals).
224. What colors are the conductive caps and covers?
a- black or green.
b- green or gray.
c- black or gray. c- black or gray.
225. The electrostatic voltage is generated by the :
a- Sliding action between materials. or separating action between
material
b- Rubbing action between materials.
c- By action on all above answer the electrostatic voltages will be
generated. c- By action on all above answer the electrostatic voltages will be
generated.
226. The control and certification of software in aircraft systems and
components is laid down in:
a-Annex 1.
b-Airworthiness Notices 45 and 45A.(AWN 45.,45A)
c-Air low. b-Airworthiness Notices 45 and 45A.(AWN 45.,45A)
227. The aircraft systems, which uses software are:
a- Flying controls, engine control, Electrical generation and
distribution.
b- Brakes, Radio and Navigational equipment.
c- Answer A and B plus Flight instruments and AFCS
components. c- Answer A and B plus Flight instruments and AFCS
components.
228. The E.M.I. stands for:
a-Electromagnetic indicator.
b-Electromagnetic Interference.
c-Electromagnetic Image. b-Electromagnetic Interference.
229. The unit or system, can be damaged by:
a- EMI.
b- Electromagnetic Interference.
c- Answer "A" and "B" are the same c- Answer "A" and "B" are the same
230. For equipment protection, the unit must be effectively screened
from:
a- B.M.I.
b- A.T.A.
c- E.M.I. c- E.M.I.
231. The electromagnetic interference created from:
a- Lightning strikes. Or failures in the electromagnetic screening
system.
b- Over flying high power radio/radar transmitter (E.M.C.)
c- The EMI arise from all above answer. c- The EMI arise from all above answer.
232. The electromagnetic compatibility(EMC) stated that.
a- The equipment must not exceed specified emission level for a
wide range of radio frequencies. Or Must not be susceptible to
external source of high level of radio frequency energy over
very wide frequency band.
b- The equipment must be able to withstand the very high
electromagnetic pulse arising from lightning strikes.
c- All above answers are stated in EMC. c- All above answers are stated in EMC.
233. HIRF. Means:
a- High internal radiated frequency.
b- High injected ray frequency.
c- High intensity radiated field. c- High intensity radiated field.
234. A multi-function display (MFD) an be:
a) used only for basic flight information
(b) configured for more than one type of information
(c ) set to display information from the standby magnetic
compass. a) used only for basic flight information
235.Which standby instruments are driven from the aircrafts pitot-
Static system?
(a) airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator
(b) airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, and magnetic
compass
(c ) airspeed indicator, altimeter, and angle of attack indicator. (a) airspeed indicator, altimeter, and
vertical speed indicator
236. Static pressure is fed:
(a) only to the airspeed indicator
(b) only to the airspeed indicator and vertical speed indicator

(c ) to the airspeed indicator as well as the altimeter and vertical (c ) to the airspeed indicator
as well as the altimeter and vertical
238. The term glass cockpit refers to:
(a) the use of LCD and C T displays
(b) the use of toughened glass windows (a) the use of LCD and C T displays
239. Basic air data instruments are:
(a) airspeed indicator, altimeter, and magnetic compass
(b) airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator
(c ) airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, and artificial
horizon. (b) airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator
240.Three airborne parameters that an be used to assess air raft
Position are:
(a) airspeed, height and weight
b) heading, airspeed and height
(c ) heading, weight and airspeed. b) heading, airspeed and height
241. Engine parameters such as turbine speed, are displayed on:
(a) ECAM
(b) EHSI
(c ) EADI. (a) ECAM
242. The aircraft slip indicator is found in the:
(a) EADI
(b) ECAM
(c ) C Ts in the passenger cabin. (a) EADI
a) EADI
(b) ECAM
(c ) C Ts in the passenger cabin. a) EADI
244. Under visual flight rules (VF ) the pilots most important sour e of
Information concerning the air rafts position and attitude is:
(a) the view out of the cockpit window
(b) the altimeter and vertical speed indicators
(c ) the airspeed indicator and the magnetic compass. (a) the view out of the cockpit window
245. The EFIS fitted to a large air raft usually consists of:
(a) a single multi-function display
(b) separate primary flight and navigation displays
(c ) a primary display with several standby instruments. (b) separate primary flight and navigation
displays
246. In a basic T- configuration of instruments:
(a) the ADI appears on the left and the ASI appears on the right
(b) the ADI appears on the left and the HSI appears on the right.
(c ) the ASI appears on the left and the altimeter appears on the
right. (c ) the ASI appears on the left and the altimeter appears on the
right.
247. The flight director system receives information:
(a) only from the VO /localizer
(b) only from the attitude gyro and altimeter
(c ) from both of the above. (c ) from both of the above.
248. EICAS provides the following:
(a) engine parameters only
(b) engine parameters and system warnings
(c ) engine parameters and navigational data. (b) engine parameters and system warnings
249. The two sets of flight regulations that a pilot may fly by are:
(a) VF and IF
(b) VHF and IF
(c ) VF and IFU. (a) VF and IF
250. Secondary heading information is obtained from:

(a) the gyro
(b) the compass
(c ) the pitot-static system. (a) the gyro
251. A major advantage of EFIS is a reduction in:
(a) effects of EMI
(b) wiring and cabling
(c ) moving parts present in the flight deck. (c ) moving parts present in the flight deck.
252. The term artificial horizon is sometimes used to describe the
indication produced by:
(a) the altimeter
(b) the attitude indicator.
(c ) the vertical speed indicator. (b) the attitude indicator.
253. Typical displays on an EHSI are:
(a) engine indications
(b) VO , heading, track
(c ) VO , altitude, rate of limb. (b) VO , heading, track
254. In a basic T- configuration of instruments:
(a) the ADI appears at the top and the HSI appears at the bottom
(b) the HSI appears at the top and the ASI appears at the bottom
(c) the ASI appears at the top and the ADI appears at the bottom. (a) the ADI appears at the top
and the HSI appears at the bottom
255. Operational faults in FMS an be detected by:
(a) automatically comparing outputs on a continuous basis
(b) routine maintenance inspection of the air raft
( c) pre-flight checks. (a) automatically comparing outputs on a continuous basis
256. The upper ECAM display provides:
(a) navigation information
(b) secondary flight information

(c) engine parameters. (c) engine parameters.
257. The binary number 10101 is equivalent to the decimal number:
(a) 19
(b) 21
(c) 35. (b) 21
258. The decimal number 29 is equivalent to the binary number:
(a) 10111
(b) 11011
(c) 11101. (c) 11101.
259. Which one of the following gives the two s complement f the
Binary number 1 11 ?
(a) 01010
(b) 01001
(c) 10001. (a) 01010
260.The binary coded decimal (BCD) number 1001000 1 is equivalent to
the decimal number:
(a) 19
(b) 91
(c) 145. (b) 91
261.The decimal number 37 is equivalent to the binary coded decimal
(BCD) number:
(a) 00110111
(b) 00100101
(c) 00101111. (a) 00110111
262. Which one of the following numbers could NOT be an octal
number?
(a) 11011
(b) 771
(c) 139. (c) 139.
263.The octal number 73 is equivalent to the decimal number:
(a) 47
(b) 59
(c) 111. (a) 47
264.The binary number 100010001 is equivalent to the octal number:
(a) 111
(b) 273
(c) 421. (c) 421.
265. The hexadecimal number 111 is equivalent to the octal number:
(a) 73
(b) 273
(c) 421. (c) 421.
266 .The hexadecimal number C9 is equivalent to the decimal number:
(a) 21
(b) 129
(c) 2 1. (c) 2 1.
267.The binary number 10110011 is equivalent to the hexadecimal
number:
(a) 93
(b) B3
(c) 113. (b) B3
268.The hexadecimal number AD is equivalent to the binary number:
(a) 10101101
(b) 11011010
(c) 10001101. ...

269.The number 70 6 8 is equivalent to :
(a) 1C616
(b) 11100 1110 2
(c) 484110 (a) 1C616
270. A DAC can produce 256 different output voltages. This DAC has
A resolution of:
(a) 8 bits
(b) 128 bits
(c) 256 bits. (a) 8 bits
271. In a bipolar ADC a logic 1 in the MSB position indicates:
(a) zero input voltage
(b) negative input voltage
(c) positive input voltage. (b) negative input voltage
272. Which one of the following types of ADC is the fastest?
(a) ramp type
(b) flash type
(c) successive approximation type. (b) flash type
273. Which one of the following ADC types uses a large number of
comparators?
(a) ramp type
(b) flash type
(c) successive approximation type. (b) flash type
274. T e advantage of an R-2R ladder DAC is that:
(a) it uses less resistors overall
(b) it uses a smaller number of analogue switches
(c) it avoids having a large number of different value resistors. (c) it avoids having a large number of
different value resistors.
275. A 10-bit DAC is capable of producing:

(a) 10 different output levels
(b) 100 different output levels
(c) 1,024 different output levels. (c) 1,024 different output levels.
276.The process of sampling approximating an analogue signal to a
series of discrete levels is referred to as:
(a) interfacing
(b) quantizing
(c) data conversion. (b) quantizing
277. In a binary weighted DAC the voltage gain for each digital input is
determined by:
(a) a variable slope ramp
(b) a variable reference voltage
(c) resistors having different values. (c) resistors having different values
278. The resolution of a DAC is stated in terms of:
(a) the accuracy of t e voltage reference
(b) the open-loop gain of t e comparator
(c) the number of bits used in t e conversion. (c) the number of bits used in t e conversion.
279. The conversion time of a flash ADC is typically in the range:
(a) 50 ns to 1 s
(b) 50 s to 1 ms
(c) 50 ms to 1 s. (a) 50 ns to 1 s
280. The DAC used in a successive approximation ADC is usually:
(a) ramp type
(b) binary weighted type
(c) successive approximation type. (b) binary weighted type
281. A bus that supports the transfer of data in both directions is referred to
as:
(a) universal
(b) bidirectional
(c) asynchronous. (b) bidirectional
282. The main advantage of using a serial bus in an aircraft is:
(a) there is no need for data conversion
(b) it supports the highest possible data rates
(c) reduction in the size and weight of cabling. (c) reduction in the size and weight of cabling.
283. Which one of the following is used to minimize reflections present in a
bus cable?
(a) coupler panels
(b) bus terminators
(c) shielded twisted pair cables. (b) bus terminators
284. The data format in an ARINC 429 stub cable consists of:
(a) serial analogue doublets
(b) parallel data from the local bus
(c) Manchester encoded serial data. (a) serial analogue doublets
285. In order to represent negative data values, BNR data uses:
(a) twos complement binary
(b) BCD data and a binary sign bit.
(c) an extra parity bit to indicate the sign (a) twos complement binary
286. The physical bus media specified in ARINC 629 is:
(a) fiber optic
(b) coaxial cable
(c) shielded twisted pair. (c) shielded twisted pair.
287. The validity of an ARINC 429 data word is checked b using:
(a) a parity bit
(b) a checksum
(c) multiple redundancy . (a) a parity bit
288. The label field in an ARINC 429 data word consists of:
(a) five bits
(b) three bits
(c) eight bits. (c) eight bits.
289. The voltages present on an ARINC 429 d a t a bus cable are:
(a) 5 V
(b) 15 V
(c) +5 V and +10V (a) 5 V
290. The maximum bit rate supported b ARINC 429 is:
(a) 12.5 Kbps
(b) 100 Kbps
(c) 1 Mbps. (b) 100 Kbps
291. An ARINC 429 NULL state is represented b :
(a) a voltage of .5 V
(b) a voltage of 0 V
(c) a voltage of +5 V. (b) a voltage of 0 V
292. The maximum data rate supported MIL-STD- 1553 is:
(a) 12.5 Kbps
(b) 100 Kbps
(c) 1 Mbps. (c) 1 Mbps.
293. A bus that is self-clocking is referred to as:
(a) universal
(b) bidirectional
(c) asynchronous. (c) asynchronous.
294. The physical bus media specified in MIL- STD-1773B is:
(a) fiber optic

(b) coaxial cable
(c) shielded twisted pair. (a) fiber optic
295. The length of an ARINC 429 word is:
(a) 16 bits
(b) 20 bits
(c) 32 bits. (c) 32 bits.
296. ARINC 573 is designed for use with:
(a) INS
(b) FDR
(c) Weather radar. (b) FDR
297. The normal supply voltage for a TTL logic device is:
(a) 2.5 V 5%
(b) 5 V 5%
(c) 12 V 5%. (b) 5 V 5%
298. A two-input NAND gate will produce a logic 0 output when:
(a) both of the inputs are at logic 0
(b) either one of the inputs is at logic 0
(c) both of the inputs are at logic 1. (c) both of the inputs are at logic 1.
299. In a binary count r, the clock input of ach bi-stable stag is fed from:
(a) the same clock line
(b) the Q output of the previous stag
(c) the CLEA line . (b) the Q output of the previous stag
300. In an optical fiber, the refractive index of the core is :
(a) the same as the cladding
(b) larger than the cladding
(c) smaller than the cladding. (b) larger than the cladding
301. A suitable optical transmitter for use with an optical fiber i :

(a) a photodiode
(b) a phototransistor
(c) a low-power laser diode. (c) a low-power laser diode.
302.The typical core diameter for a mono-mode fiber is :
(a) 5 m
(b) 50 m
(c) 125 m. (a) 5 m
303. In a multi-core fiber optic cable:
(a) the core are color coded
(b) the cladding i color coded
(c) the buffer are color coded. (c) the buffer are color coded.
304. The typical wavelength of light in a fiber is :
(a) 1.3 m
(b) 13 m (a) 1.3 m
305. What aircraft standard applies to fiber optic network ?
(a) ARINC 429
(b) ARINC 573
(c) ARINC 636. (c) ARINC 636.
306. In order to support a high data rate, a fiber optic cable should have:
(a) zero bandwidth
(b) limited bandwidth
(c) wide bandwidth. (c) wide bandwidth.
307. A significant advantage of fiber optic network in large passenger aircraft
Is:
(a) lower installation co t
(b) reduced weight
(c) ea e of maintenance. (b) reduced weight

308. A particular problem with the build-up of static charge is that:
(a) it is worse when wet
(b) it is invariably lethal
(c) it cannot easily be detected. (c) it cannot easily be detected.
309. The typical resistance of a wrist strap lead is:
(a) 1 B
(b) 1 kB
(c) 1 MB. (c) 1 MB.
310.which one of the following devices is most susceptible to damage from
stray static charges:
(a) a power rectifier
(b) a TTL logic gate
(c) a MOSFET transistor. (c) a MOSFET transistor.
311. The static voltage generated when a person walks across a carpet can
be:
(a) no more than about 10 kV
(b) between 10 kV and 20 kV
(c) more than 20 kV. (c) more than 20 kV.
312. Which of the materials listed is negative on the tribo-electric scale?
(a) glass
(b) silk
(c) polyester. (c) polyester.
313. When transporting ESD it is important to:
(a) keep them in a conductive package
b) remove them and place them in metal foil
(c) place them in an insulated plastic package (a) keep them in a conductive package
314. To reduce the risk of damaging an ESD during soldering it is important

to:
(a) use only a low- voltage soldering iron
(b) use only a mains operated soldering iron
(c) use only a low-temperature soldering iron. (a) use only a low- voltage soldering iron
315.Which one of the following items of clothing is most likely to cause
static problems?
(a) nylon overalls
(b) a cotton T-shirt
(c) polyester-cotton trousers. (a) nylon overalls
316. A Level C software classification is one in which a failure could result
in:
(a) aircraft loss
(b) fatal injuries to passengers or crew
(c) minor injuries to passengers or crew. (c) minor injuries to passengers or crew.
317. A Level B software classification is one in which the probability of failure
is:
(a) extremely i probable
(b) extremely remote
(c) remote. (b) extremely remote
318. A software Configuration Management Plan (CMP) must be created and
maintained by:
(a) the CAA or AA
(b) the aircraft operator
(c) the relevant DO. (c) the relevant DO.
319. Weather radar is an example of:
(a) Class B software
(b) Class C software

(c) Class D software (c) Class D software
320. Electronic Engine Control (EEC) software is an example of:
(a) D LD
(b) LSAP
(c) OSS. (b) LSAP
321. OSS and UMS are specific classes of:
(a) LS
b) LSAP
(c) D LD. (a) LS
322. The final stage of loading EEC software is:
(a) disconnecting the PDL
(b) verifying the loaded software
(c) switching on and testing the syste . (b) verifying the loaded software
323. A periodic noise is:
(a) regular but not continuous
(b) regular and continuous
(c) entirely random in nature. (a) regular but not continuous
324. EMI an be conveyed from a source to a receiver by:
(a) conduction only
(b) radiation only
(c) conduction and radiation. (c) conduction and radiation.
325. The display produced by a spectrum analyzer shows:
(a) frequency plotted against time
(b) amplitude plotted against time
(c) amplitude plotted against frequency. (c) amplitude plotted against frequency.
326. EMI an be reduced by means of:
(a) screening only

(b) screening and filtering
(c) screening, bonding and filtering. (c) screening, bonding and filtering.
327. The effects of HIRF an be reduced by:
(a) screening only
(b) screening and filtering
(c) screening, bonding and filtering. ...
328. The typical maximum value of bonding resistance is:
(a) less than 0.005 M
(b) between 0.005 M and 0.05 M
(c) more than 0.05 M. (a) less than 0.005 M
329. Effective protection against lightning and static discharge damage to an
air raft requires that:
(a) all isolated conducting parts must have high resistance to
ground
(b) all parts of the metal structure of the air raft must be bonded to
ground
(c) all power and bus cables must be well insulated. (b) all parts of the metal structure of the air
raft must be bonded to
ground
330. Supply borne noise an be eliminated by means of:
(a) a low-pass filter
(b) a high-pass filter
(c) a band-pass filter. (a) a low-pass filter
331. Noise generated by a switching circuit is worse when:
(a) switching is fast and current is low
(b) switching is slow and current is high
(c) switching is fast and current is high. (c) switching is fast and current is high.
332. The standard for ACARS is defined in:

(a) ARINC 429
(b) ARINC 573
(c) ARINC 724. (c) ARINC 724.
(a) ECAM
(b) EHSI
(c) CDU. (a) ECAM
334. A basic IRS platform has:
(a) three accelerometers and two laser gyros
(b) two accelerometers and three laser gyros
(c) three accelerometers and three laser gyros. (c) three accelerometers and three laser gyros.
335. The operational FMS database is:
(a) updated once a month
(b) is fed with information on aircraft weight before take off
(c) needs no update information. (b) is fed with information on aircraft weight before take off
336. The left and right cockpit displays:
(a) are supplied from separate symbol generators at all times
(b) are supplied from the same symbol generator
(c) will only b supplied from the same symbol generator when all
Other symbol generators have failed. (c) will only b supplied from the same symbol generator when
all
Other symbol generators have failed.
337. A single failure in a fly-by-wire system should:
(a) cause the system to revert to mechanical op ration
(b) result in immediate intervention by the flight crew
(c) not have any effect on the operation of the system. (c) not have any effect on the operation of
the system.
338. On a flight deck EFIS system, if all of the displays were missing
information from a particular source , the most likely cause would be :
(b) the sensor, input bus or display controller
(c) the display controller and symbol generator.(b) the sensor, input bus or display controller
339. A central maintenance computer provides:
(a) ground and in-flight monitoring and testing
(b) ground and BITE testing using a portable control pan l
(c) display of system warnings and cautions. (a) ground and in-flight monitoring and testing
340. The FMS navigation database is updated:
(a) at the request of the flight crew
(b) during pre -flight checks
(c) every 28 days. (c) every 28 days.
341. In an EFIS with three symbol generators, what is the purpose of the
third symbol generator?
(a) Comparison with the pilots symbol generator
(b) Standby in case of failure
(c) To provide outputs for ECAM. (b) Standby in case of failure
342. The ACARS system uses channels in the :
(a) HF spectrum
(b) VHF spectrum
(c) UHF spectrum. (b) VHF spectrum
343. A method used in modern aircraft for reporting in-flight faults to an
engineering and monitoring ground station is:
(a) TCAS II
(b) ACARS
(c) GPS. (b) ACARS
344. In a successive approximation ADC, the time interval between the SC

and EOC signals is:
(a) the clock time
(b) the cycle time
(c) the conversion time.(c) the conversion time.
345. An advantage of a dual-ramp ADC is:
(a) a fast conversion time
(b) an inherent ability to reject noise
(c) the ability to operate wit out the need for a clock. (b) an inherent ability to reject noise
346. A bus that supports the transfer of data in both directions is referred to
as:
(a) universal
(b) bidirectional
(c) asynchronous. (b) bidirectional
347. The main advantage of using a serial bus in an aircraft is:
(a) there is no need for data conversion
(b) it supports the highest possible data rates
(c) reduction in the size and weight of cabling. (c) reduction in the size and weight of cabling.
348. Which one of the following is used to minimize reflections present in a
bus cable?
(a) coupler panels
(b) bus terminators
(c) shielded twisted pair cables. (b) bus terminators
349.The data format in an ARINC 429 stub cable consists of:
(a) serial analogue doublets
(b) parallel data from the local bus
(c) Manchester encoded serial data. (a) serial analogue doublets
350. In order to represent negative data values, BNR data uses:

(a) twos complement binary
(b) BCD data and a binary sign bit.
(c) an extra parity bit to indicate the sign (a) twos complement binary
351. The physical bus media specified in ARINC 629 is:
(a) fiber optic
(b) coaxial cable
(c) shielded twisted pair. (c) shielded twisted pair.
352. The validity of an ARINC 429 data word is checked b using:
(a) a parity bit
(b) a checksum
(c) multiple redundancy . (a) a parity bit
353. The label field in an ARINC 429 data word consists of:
(a) five bits
(b) three bits
(c) eight bits. (c) eight bits.
354.The voltages present on an ARINC 429 d a t a bus cable are:
(a) 5 V
(b) 15 V
(c) +5 V and +10V (a) 5 V
355. The maximum bit rate supported by ARINC 429 is:
(a) 12.5 Kbps
(b) 100 Kbps
(c) 1 Mbps. (b) 100 Kbps
356. An ARINC 429 NULL state is represented b :
(a) a voltage of .5 V
(b) a voltage of 0 V
(c) a voltage of +5 V. (b) a voltage of 0 V

357. The maximum data rate supported MIL-STD- 1553 is:
(a) 12.5 Kbps
(b) 100 Kbps
(c) 1 Mbps. (c) 1 Mbps.
358. A bus that is self-clocking is referred to as:
(a) universal
(b) bidirectional
(c) asynchronous. (c) asynchronous.
359. The physical bus media specified in MIL- STD-1773B is:
(a) fiber optic
(b) coaxial cable
(c) shielded twisted pair. (a) fiber optic
360. The length of an ARINC 429 word is:
(a) 16 bits
(b) 20 bits
c) 32 bits c) 32 bits
361. ARINC 573 is designed for use with:
a) INS
(b) FDR
(c) Weather radar. (b) FDR
362. The maximum data rate supported by the FDDI bus is:
(a) 1 Mbps
(b) 10 Mbps
(c) 100 Mbps. (c) 100 Mbps.
363. Which computer bus is used to specify memory locations?
(a) address b s
(b) control b s
(c) data b s. (a) address b s
364. What is the largest hexadecimal address that can appear on a 24-bit
address b s?
(a) FFFF
(b) FFFFF
(c) FFFFFF. (b) FFFFF
365. Bus arbitration is required in order to:
(a) prevent memory loss
(b) avoid b s contention
(c) reduce errors ca used by noise and EMI. (b) avoid b s contention
366. A memory device in which any item of data can be retrieved with
equal ease is known as:
(a) parallel access
(b) random access
(c) sequential access (b) random access
367. Which one of the following memory devices can be erased and
reprogrammed?
(a) Mask programmed ROM
(b) OTP EPROM
(c) EPROM. (c) EPROM.
368. The processor instruction HLT is classed as:
(a) a control instruction
(b) a data transfer instruction
(c) a logical instruction. (a) a control instruction
369. The VME b s standard uses:
(a) a single 32-way DIN 41612 connector
(b) two 32-way DIN 41612 connectors

(c) a 100-way PCB edge connector. (b) two 32-way DIN 41612 connectors
370. What type of memory uses the principle of charge storage?
(a) bipolar static RAM
(b) MOS static memory
(c) MOS dynamic memory. (c) MOS dynamic memory.
371. How many 16K 4 bit DRAM devices will be required to provide
32 K bytes of storage?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 8. (b) 4
372. A memory device has a pin marked CAS. The function of this pin is:
(a) chip active select
(b) control address signal
(c) column address select. (c) column address select.
373. A semiconductor memory consists of 256 rows and 256 columns.
The capacity of this memory will be:
(a) 256 bits
(b) 512 bits
(c) 64K bits. (c) 64K bits.
374. In the assembly language instruction MOV AX,07FEh the operation
code is:
(a) MOV
(b) AX
(c) 07FE. (a) MOV
375. A bus arbitration system based on the physical location of cards is
referred to as:
(a) serial arbitration

(b) parallel arbitration
(c) sequential arbitration. (a) serial arbitration
376. The stack is used for:
(a) permanent storage of data
(b) temporary storage of data
(c) temporary storage of program . (b) temporary storage of data
377. The stack is a structure located:
(a) in the ALU
b) in the general purpose register
(c) in external read/ rite memory. (c) in external read/ rite memory.
378. A byte of data is to be inverted. This task is performed by:
(a) the ALU
(b) the instruction register
(c) the instruction decoder. (a) the ALU
379. Data can be transferred from one bus to another by mean of:
(a) a bus cycle
(b) a bus buffer
(c) a bus bridge. (c) a bus bridge.
380. The output of the instruction pointer appear on:
(a) the address bus
(b) the data bus
(c) the control bus . (a) the address bus
381. The CPU data bus buffer i :
(a) unidirectional
(b) bidirectional
(c) omni-directional. (b) bidirectional
382. Another way to describe the CPU register that act as an instruction
pointer is :
(a) the program counter
(b) the stack pointer
(c) the instruction register (a) the program counter
383. In which cycle is an instruction fetched and decoded:
(a) M0
(b) M1
(c) M2. (b) M1
384. If a microprocessor clock runs at 50 MHz, an instruction requiring 11
T- state will execute in a time of:
a) 220 n
(b) 440 n
(c) 2.2 m a) 220 n
385. An external device can gain the attention of the CPU by generating a
ignal on the:
(a) R/W line
(b) RESET line
(c) IRQ line. (c) IRQ line.
386. When executing the assembly language instruction MOV AX,07FEh the
operation code will be transferred to:
(a) the accumulator
(b) the instruction register
(c) the instruction pointer. (b) the instruction register
387. After executing the assembly language instruction MOV AX,07FEh the
binary data in the AL register will be:
(a) 11101111
(b) 00000111
(c) 11111110. (c) 11111110.
388. The advantage of pipelining is :
(a) easier programming
(b) faster execution time
(c) more reliable operation. (b) faster execution time
389. Segmentation is used with x86 process or in-order to:
(a) increase the speed of processing
(b) set up an instruction pipeline
(c) extend the addressing range. (c) extend the addressing range.
390. A standard logic gate is a typical example of:
(a) an SSI device
(b) an LSI device
(c) a VLSI device. (a) an SSI device
391. Which one of the following scales of integration is the largest?
(a) SSI
(b) LSI
(c) MSI. (b) LSI
392. A microprocessor is an example of::
(a) SSI technology
(b) MSI technology
(c) VLSI technology. (c) VLSI technology.
393. When compared with DIP packaging, PLCC offers:
(a) more pins
(b) larger size
(c) greater reliability. (a) more pins
394.Which one of the following integrated circuit packaging technologies
requires that the chip should always be soldered in place?

(a) DIL
(b) SOIC
(c) PGA. (b) SOIC
395. The connections from the pads on an integrated circuit die are:
(a) soldered to the internal wire links
(b) crimped to the internal wire links
(c) welded to the internal wire links. (c) welded to the internal wire links.
396.An integrated circuit bus transceiver contains 64 logic gates and buffers.
This chip is an example of:
(a) SSI
(b) MSI
c) LSI. (b) MSI
397. Production tests are performed on an integrated circuit wafer:
(a) before cutting it into individual hips
(b) after cutting it into individual hips
(c) only when the hips are finally mounted. (a) before cutting it into individual hips
398. Each individual integrated circuit produced from a wafer is known as a:
(a) blank
(b) die
(c) gate. (b) die
399. A standard TTL logic gate has a fan-out of:
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 10. (c) 10.
400. Another name for a multiplexer is:
(a) a data selector
(b) a bus transceiver

(c) a shift register. (a) a data selector
401. A four to one multiplexer has:
(a) one select input
(b) Two select inputs
(c) four select input s. (b) Two select inputs
402. Additional enable input s and output s are provided in some encoders in
order to permit :
(a) inverting
(b) cascading
(c) error detection. (b) cascading
403. The peak wavelength of light emitted from a red LED is typically:
(a) 475 nm
b) 525 nm
(c) 635 nm. (c) 635 nm.
404. The spectral response of the human eye peaks at around:
(a) 450 nm
(b) 550 nm
(c) 650 nm. (b) 550 nm
405.Adjacent phosphors of blue and green are illuminated on the screen of a
CRT. The resultant color produced will be:
(a) Cyan
(b) white
(c) magenta. (a) Cyan
406. The human eye is most sensitive to:
(a) red light
(b) blue light
(c) green light. (a) red light

407. A seven segment LED display has segments a, b, c , d, and g
illuminated. The character displayed will be:
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5. (b) 3
408.The BCD input to a seven segment display decoder is 1001. The digit
displayed will be:
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9. (c) 9.
409. The potential at the gird of a CRT is:
(a) the same as the cathode
(b) negative with respect to the cathode
(c) positive with respect to the cathode. (b) negative with respect to the cathode
410. The function of the final anode of a CRT is:
(a) accelerating the electron beamm
(b) deflecting the electron beam
(c) controlling the brightness of the display (a) accelerating the electron beam
411. Electromagnetic deflection of a CRT uses:
(a) oils inside the CRT
(b) X- and Y-plates inside the CRT
(c) oils around the neck of the CRT. (c) oils around the neck of the CRT.
412. The three beams in a color CRT are associated with the colors:
(a) red, yellow and blue
(b) red, green and blue
(c) green, blue and yellow. (b) red, green and blue
413. When compared with CRT displays, AMLC displays have:

(a) larger volume and lower reliability
(b) larger volume and greater reliability
(c) smaller volume and greater reliability. (c) smaller volume and greater reliability.
414. The final anode of a CRT display requires:
(a) a low voltage AC supply
(b) a high voltage AC supply
(c) a high voltage C supply. (c) a high voltage C supply.
415. The deflecting waveform supplied to the plates of an electrostatic CRT
will be:
(a) a sine wave
(b) a ramp wave
(c) a square wave. (b) a ramp wave
416. The typical value of maximum forward current for an LED indicator is:
(a) 0.03 A
(b) 0.3 A
(c) 3 A. (a) 0.03 A
417. The patterns required to display alphanumeric character in a CRT
controller are stored in:
(a) static RAM
(b) dynamic RAM
(c) character generator ROM. (c) character generator ROM.
418. When compared with passive matrix LCD , AMLCD are:
(a) faster and sharper
(b) faster and less sharp
(c) slower and less sharp. (a) faster and sharper

1) Typical displays on an EHSI are
Engine indications.
VOR, Map, Plan and weather radar.
VOR, Plan, Map and Attitude.
2) An EADI display showing a moving runway moves down during the final stages of an approach.
The aircraft must
fly down.
fly up.
hold descent path.
3) During an instrument approach, the glideslope pointer eflects below the glideslope centre mark.
This means the aircraft is positioned
above the glideslope.
below the glideslope.
to the left of the localiser.
4) Engine parameters are displayed on

ECAM.
EHSI.
FMSCDU.
5) What is the fixed feature of an ADI?

The glideslope pointer.
The aircraft symbol.
The lateral deviation bar.
6) On an EADI, the Flight Director command bars show

the path with respect to the horizon.
the required path with respect to the actual path.
the actual path with respect to the required path.
7) What instrument includes a display of a rising runway?

ECAM.
EHSI.
EADI.
8) What functions are available on the EHSI?

Full arc and Wx only.
Full arc, Wx and Map Mode.
Full Arc only.
9) With radio coupled autopilot, what are the inputs?

ADF and VOR.
ILS and VOR.
ADF and ILS.
10) An EADI display of flight director commands are coloured

cyan.
magenta.
red.
11) EFIS systems have two control panels, their purpose is:
one to control the type of EFIS display and the other to select the source of the information being displayed.
one for the EADI display and one for the EHSI display.
to provide display control by one control panel whilst the other provides a standby.
12) What would you expect to see displayed on an EADI display?

Compass heading, selected heading and VOR.
Course information, weather radar, way point alert and bearing pointers.
Flight director command bars, slip indicator, rate to altitude & autoland.
13) An EFIS ADI display will show along with pitch and roll
flight director bars, autoland, compass rose, altitude.
decision height, autoland, rad alt , altitude.
flight director bars, autoland, altitude, range to altitude, decision height.
14) If the glideslope pointer is below the centre mark the aircraft is
below the glideslope.
on the glideslope.
above the glideslope.
15) On an EFIS system the weather radar is displayed on

the FMC CDU.
the EADI.
the EHSI.
16) EADI displays show

pitch, roll and waypoints.
pitch and roll attitudes.
heading and weather radar.
17) On an EHSI in weather radar mode, a severe storm would be shown as

orange areas with black or yellow surrounds.
red areas with black surrounds.
blue areas with white background.
18) During flight (non fault conditions) the EICAS system displays on the lower CRT
flight phase page.
secondary engine parameters.
synoptic display.
19) Radio altitude is displayed on an EFIS system

on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator.
on the Electronic Attitude Direction Indicator.
on the RMI.
20) An EFIS system ADI displays pitch, roll

autoland, altitude, compass rose and flight director bars.
autoland, decision height, range to altitude and flight director bars and slip indicator.
autoland, rad alt, decision height and slip indicator.
21) An electronic flight instrument display consists of
Mode control panel, Raster and Stroke generator display, microprocessor and Data inputs.
ADC, Altimeter, VSI and ASI.
ADI, HSI and Symbol generator.
22) The EFIS system consists of

EHSI, Mode control panel, EADI.
EADI, EHSI, Symbol generators.
Mode control Panel, RDMI, EHSI.
23) ILS indications on PFD/ND are shown in

cyan.
magenta.
green.
24) A weather radar image can be displayed on the ND on all modes except
arc.
nav rose.
plan.
25) A modern Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator will display the following:
Waypoints, ILS Steering Information, Distance to go and Magnetic Heading.
ILS Steering Information, Flight director information and Glide Slope Deviation.
Ground speed, Magnetic Heading, Way points and Localiser.
26) A complete EFIS installation in an aircraft is made up of

either of the above.
right (captain) and left (co-pilot).
left (captain) and right (co-pilot).
27) What does EFIS mean?

Electronic Fire Indication Signal.
Electronic Flight Instrument System.
Electronic Flight Information System.
28) What does EICAS mean?

Electronic indicator and control alerting system.
Engine indicating and Crew alerting system.
Electronic indicator and crew alerting system.
29) What does ECAM mean?

Engine Centralised Aircraft Management System.
Engine Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System.
Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System.
30) Convert 011101 Base2 to octal

25
35
33
31) The binary number 11010111 expressed as a decimal is
215.
223.
207.
32) The octal number 1001 expressed as a decimal is

9.
65.
513.
33) What is 345 in binary?

100111001.
101011001.
110011001.
34) What is hex 110 in decimal?

32.
282.
272.
35) Convert the binary word 1100 to decimal

11
16
12
36) If a data message is made up of 1s and 0s, it is

analogue.
binary.
digital.
37) Convert the binary word 1110 to decimal

12
14
15
38) Convert the binary number 110010 to decimal

80.
50.
34.
39) Convert the hexadecimal number D into decimal

13.
15.
14.
40) Convert decimal 15 into binary

1111.
1101.
1110.
41) Convert decimal 15 into hexadecimal

G.
E.
F.
42) What is 345 in binary?

100111001.
110011001.
101011001.
43) Convert 1D to binary

29.
11101.
101001.
44) Convert 2C hex to octal

35.
44.
54.
45) A hexadecimal is a number to base

2.
16
8.
46) The decimal number 7 expressed as a binary number is

101 Base 2.
111 Base 2.
7 Base 2.
47) Convert 011101 binary to octal

25.
35.
33.
48) Binary Number: 110010 is

80.
50.
34.
49) Binary addition of 1101 + 101101 is

58
70
85
50) The binary number 11010111 is expressed as a decimal is

107.
215.
53.
51) The octal number 1001 expressed as a decimal is

713.
613.
513.
52) What is 011100001 Base2 in Octal?

225 Base 8.
281 Base 10.
341 Base 8.
53) The binary number 1010100011100101 Base2 in hexadecimal is

22BC Base 16.
FFFF Base 16.
A8E5 Base 16.
54) 0011011000101001 when transferred to computer language this information can be a

representation of
binary, octal or decimal numbers.
hex, octal and binary numbers.
hex, octal and decimal numbers.
55) A computer message 3B4 is

Octal.
binary.
hexadecimal.
56) What is 54 octal in hexadecimal?

2F.
4F.
2C.
57) 2D in decimal is
43.
45.
41.
58) 84 decimal in hexadecimal is

5F.
F4.
54.
59) 16 hexadecimal converted to decimal is equivalent to

48.
38.
22.
60) Decimal 10 converted to binary is

1111.
1001.
1010.
61) What systems uses base 10?

Octal.
Binary.
Decimal.
62) What systems use base 16?

BCD.
Octal.
Hexadecimal.
63) Binary coded decimal (BCD) format has a minimum of

2 lots of four.
four.
3 lots of four.
64) What is the Hexadecimal number F86 in Binary?

111110000001.
3974.
111110000110.
65) What is 1100001 Base 2 - 101100 Base 2?

110101 Base 2.
110111 Base 2.
10001101 Base 2.
66) What is used for the power of 10?

Digital.
Octal.
Decimal.
67) What is 44 in hexadecimal?

2D.
2C.
2F.
68) What is octal 33 in hexadecimal?

1B.
11.
22.
69) An octal format hexadecimal number 3F written as binary would be

110 111.
111 111.
101 011.
70) What is f86 hex when converted to binary?

1000010000110.
111110000110.
100000000000.
71) In a computer, the address 3B8 is

hexadecimal.
decimal.
octal.
72) What is a Grays converter?

Analogue to Analogue.
Analogue to Digital.
Digital to Analogue.
73) What is the hexadecimal number AE5 in octal form?

5445.
5340.
5345.
74) Hexadecimal 5C is what in binary?

1011111.
1011100.
1110100.
75) Binary 11001101 converted to octal is

12E.
315.
205.
76) What is the binary notation for 29?

0001 0110.
0010 1001.
0001 1101.
77) If a signal has quantity in volts and physical position it is

digital.
synchronous.
analogue.
78) Within a computer controlled flight system, position feedback is converted from
position feedback to rate feedback.
analogue to digital.
digital to analogue.
79) What is serial to parallel and vice-versa called?

Switching.
Multiplex/Demultiplex.
Encoder/Decoder.
80) A thyristor is a device which has

a positive temperature coefficient.
a negative temperature coefficient.
a temperature coefficient of zero.
81) Physical variables in quantitative forms, such as voltage or angular rotation of a shaft are
digital.
analogue.
binary.
82) A D to A converter is required to produce an output range of 0 to 10V. This can be achieved by
a non inverting op amp connected in series with output.
an inverting op amp connected in series with output.
a differentiator with a 100 Kilohm feedback resistor.
83) A D to A converter would use a precision amplifier to

compensate for the variation of the feedback resistor with temperature.
ensure that the output voltages remain accurate.
ensure that the input voltage remains accurate.
84) An A to D converter uses successive approximation to

increase resolution.
increase accuracy.
increase speed.
85) An R-2R D to A converter uses

two values of resistors whose precision is not important.
two values of precision resistors.
resistors whose values are logarithmic.
86) The function of a commutator is to

convert from analogue to binary form.
provide continuous availability of all parameters connected to the system.
provide a sampling in sequence of a number of parameters.
87) An encoder using Grey code

changes analogue to binary.
changes digital to analogue.
changes analogue to digital.
88) An analogue to digital converter is as accurate as

the frequency.
the sampling rate.
the amplitude.
89) A digital to analogue converter that requires the output to range between 0v and -10v would
have
a non-inverting amplifier in line with the output with a resistor to ground.
an inverting amplifier in series with the output line.
a non-inverting amplifier in parallel with the output line.
90) In an analogue to digital converter, the input voltage

is switched by the digital input.
is intermittent.
stays on constantly.
91) An R-2R Converter has values or resistance

whose relative precision are accurate.
whose precision are not accurate.
whose precision are accurate.
92) What does 1 represent in an analogue system?
High frequency
Switches closed, magnetised
Switches open, unmagnetised
93) Audio sounds recorded digitally

are superior quality and graeter bandwidth.
are narrow bandwidth.
are not as accurate due to clipping and input errors.
94) An analogue to digital converter where it counts up to binary state equal to the analogue input
and then back down when this is reached is
a ramp type converter.
a successive approximation counter.
a flash type converter.
95) Transistors are used in a current triggered D to A device to

switch off the inputs.
switch on the input.
change the state of the inputs.
96) Op amps generally used in ADCs and DACs are normally

high input impedance, high output impedance.
high input impedance, low output impedance.
low input impedance , how output impedance.
97) Analogue logic 1 is

closed switch, Logic Q=0.
closed circuit, Logic Q=1.
open circuit.
98) An ADC uses successive approximation to

increase speed.
increase accuracy.
increase resolution.
99) A DAC uses a precision amplifier to

ensure the output voltages remain accurate.
compensates for the variation of the feedback resistor due to temperature.
ensure the input remains accurate.
100) A precision op-amp is used in a DAC to

compensate for temperature variation.
give output at required level.
make output between 0 - 5V.
101) In an R-2R ladder converter the values of resistors

do not need to be of precise values.
only the first resistor need to be precise.
are precise.
102) What is the quickest method of analogue to digital conversion?
Voltage to frequency.
Flash converter.
Single ramp method.
103) A charge balancing ADC uses

successive approximation logic circuit to control the output.
a closed loop system to compare the analogue input to give the required digital output.
a closed loop system to check the analogue input with the input sample.
104) Sample and hold is a technique used in

D to A conversion.
Moving coil instruments.
A to D conversion.
105) An analogue to digital converter (ADC) requires the following:

a reference voltage, an input gate, a comparator.
a reference voltage, an input gate, an internal counter, a comparator.
a reference voltage, an input gate, an internal counter.
106) What is the Resolution of A/D and D/A converters?

Resolution of the Instrument which displays the values.
Number of discrete values that can be represented by the digital word.
Rate at which data is converted.
107) Digital signals can be represented

only as a binary value.
by a series of integers.
by real numbers.
108) When testing EGT probe

it must be soaked and ambient temperature allowance taken into consideration.
not necessarily soaked but ambient temperature must be taken into consideration.
if its not soaked, a minimum temperature of 20 degrees C taken as OAT.
109) A Digital to Analogue Converter has a resolution of 0.3 Volts. What will be the analogue output
when the digital input is 10110
6.6 Volts RMS.
-6.6 Volts DC.
6.6 Volts DC.
110) A number represented as a physical quantity, e.g. voltage or speed of rotation is

digital.
maximum value.
analogue.
111) In aircraft use, fibre optic cables should comply with

ARINC 629 standard.
ARIND 429 standard.
ARIND 636 standard.
112) ARINC 629 databus is
one cable, bi-directional.
two cables, uni-directional.
two cables, bi directional.
113) An ARINC 573 data bus is used

to input into a Digital Flight Data Recorder.
to supply digital inputs from a Symbol Generator to the EADI and EHSI.
to input into a FDR Digital Acquisition Unit.
114) An ARINC 429 bus uses

a twisted shielded pair of wires.
two bi-directional twin sheathed and earthed wires.
a single twin wire cable for each transmitter.
115) The ARINC 429 data bus word systems use

binary coded decimal.
decimal numbering.
hexadecimal numbering.
116) ARINC 573 is related to what system?

Weather Radar.
FDR.
INS.
117) ARINC 629 current mode couplers are

capacitive.
resistive.
inductive.
118) ARINC 629 databus is

one bus, bi-directional data flow.
two buses, unidirectional.
two buses, bi-directional data flow.
119) Normal transmission order of ARINC 629 LRUs in periodic mode is in order of
shortest to largest TI.
shortest to largest TG.
power up.
120) In an ARINC 429 wordstring, bits 1 to 8 represent the

destination LRU address.
monitored parameter.
message.
121) ARINC 629 terminal transmit interval is

common to each terminal.
unique to each terminal.
when all terminals are quiet.
122) MIL-STD-1533 is a data bus for
Inertial Reference System.
Flight Data Recorders.
Digital Information Transfer System.
123) ARINC 629 periodic mode is used for

transferring data only on events important to aircraft operation.
database loads.
normal operation.
124) How is data coupled to an ARINC 629 data bus?

By a resistive pickup.
By an inductive pickup.
By a capacitive pickup.
125) How does MIL-STD-1533 put data onto the databus?

Through the bus controller.
R1 (remote terminal).
SSIFU (sub-system interface unit).
126) The parity bit in digital information is used

to check the validity of data information.
for BITE programs.
to check the status of the system.
127) ARINC 429 SDI word format is at bits

32.
1-8.
9-10.
128) What is the parity bit for on an ARINC 429 bus?

To act as a terminal gap in an emergency.
To delay the signal.
To check for corruption during transmission of a word.
129) An ARINC 429 word label format is

hexadecimal.
octal.
binary.
130) How many LRUs can be connected to an ARINC 429 data bus?
120.
60.
20.
131) ARINC 629 terminal transmit interval is

common to each terminal.
is when all transmissions are quiet.
unique to each terminal.
132) An ARINC 429 bus uses

a twisted shielded pair of wires.
a single twin cable for each transmitter.
two bi-directional twin, sheathed and earthed wires.
133) ARINC 429 data bus systems uses

hexadecimal numbering.
binary coded decimal.
decimal numbering.
134) An ARINC 429 Binary Coded Decimal word occupies word bits
1-8.
11-29.
11-28.
135) An ARINC 429 system uses a

20 bit word over a bi-directional bus.
32 bit word over a twisted pair of wires.
16 bit word over a twisted pair of wires.
136) An ARINC 629 characteristic is:

all LRUs can transmit and receive at the same time.
data can transmit in both directions down the data bus.
all LRUs can transmit at the same time.
137) What limits the number of ARINC 429 receivers on a bus?

The speed and size.
The weight.
The parallel input impedance.
138) Data is transferred on the MIL-STD-1553B by

non return to zero.
Manchester bi-phase.
bi-polar return to zero.
139) How are engine indications sent to the FDR?

Source isolated.
Via ARINC 629.
Via ARINC 573.
140) What system uses base 8?

ARINC 429, in dataword labels only.
ARINC 573.
ARINC 629.
141) On an ARINC 629 data bus, the maximum amount of current-mode couplers per data bus is
46.
120.
64.
142) To connect an LRU to the data bus

a terminal controller and interface module only is required.
current mode coupler, terminal controller and a production break is required.
a current mode coupler, serial interface module and terminal controller is required.
143) A current-mode coupler contains an E-Core assembly. The purpose of the E-Core is to provide
effective screening of the signal through the
current-mode coupler.
couple the signal to the data bus.
enable easy access for monitoring of the signal.
144) The ARINC 429 low rate of transmission is

100 kbits/second with high of 12-14 Mbits/second.
12-14 Kbits/second with high of 100 kBits/second.
12-14 Mbits/second with high of 100 Mbits/secon.
145) An ARINC 629 bus cable is a twisted pair of wires with

a 130 ohm resistor at one end.
a 130 ohm resistor at both ends.
a 230 ohm resistor at one end.
146) An ARINC 629 stub cable

connects single directional data between the LRU and current mode coupler.
connects bi-directional data between the LRU and current mode coupler.
connects bi-directional data between two LRUs.
147) Care must be taken when installing ARINC 629 cables into bus panels, damage to cables can
cause
corrosion of the conductor.
arcing of high voltage signals.
standing waves.
148) An aircraft databus system

can use both ARINC 629 and ARINC 429 as they are compatible.
can use both systems, ARINC 629 and ARINC 429 via system card files and signal gateways.
cannot use both ARINC 629 and ARINC 429 data buses.
149) ARINC 629 is used for

emergency only.
a backup to ARINC 429.
normal flight.
150) Once an ARINC 629 LRU has transmitted a message it will wait how long before transmitting
again?
Until the end of the synchronization gap.
Until the start of the terminal gap.
Until the end of the transmit interval.
151) How is the word label 206 written in ARINC 429?

Decimal 206.
Octal 01100001.
Binary 11000110.
152) What is ARINC 561 used for?
Fly by Wire systems.
Flight Data Recorder systems.
Inertial Navigation Systems.
153) An ARINC data word is bits 11-29, if bits 11-18 are patched which of the following would be
the LSB bit?
19.
29.
21.
154) Fibreoptic databus links are

simplex.
bi-directional.
one way data buses.
155) ARINC 629 is

half duplex.
full duplex.
simplex.
156) A signal in an ARINC 629 system uses

a pair of wires per transmitter unit.
a single wire.
a twisted pair of wires or fibre optics.
157) An in-series ARINC 429 system transmits using

encoder.
time division multiplexing.
wave division multiplexing.
158) A terminal controller

is repetitive transmitting.
will transmit only once during each transmit interval.
transmits only when addressed.
159) The number of LRUs which transmit/receive on ARINC-429 is dependent upon

speed of transmission & size of aircraft systems.
parallel input impedance.
size of S.D.I.
160) One of the ARINC 429 formats is

BCD.
octal.
hexadecimal.
161) A group of bits transmitted at the same time is

parallel data.
a clock signal.
serial data.
162) The ARINC 429 system uses which of the following system to transfer data?
Harvard bi-phase.
Bi-polar return to zero.
Non return to zero.
163) Which of the following ARINCs is bidirectional?

629.
429.
573.
164) Data is transferred on the MIL-STD-1553B by using

non return to zero.
Manchester bi-phase.
bipolar return to zero.
165) The general arrangement of ARINC 629 includes

databus cable, current mode coupler, stub cable.
current mode coupler, databus cable only.
databus cable, stub cable, voltage mode coupler.
166) ARINC 629 Databus cables are terminated using

100 ohms resistor.
130 ohms resistor.
25 ohms resistor.
167) In ARINC 429 data field is bits 11 to 28. If the bits 11 to 18 had pad bits, the L.S.B. of the data
would
bit 19.
bit 28.
bit 11.
168) The BCD data field of ARINC 429 is contained within bits
11-29.
11-28.
1-8.
169) ARINC 629 is transmitted using

single wire for each transmitter.
fibre optics or twisted pair of wires.
SWG 28 wire.
170) A simplex system has

1 transmitter and multiple receivers.
1 bus controller and 1 remote terminal.
1 bus controller and multiple receivers.
171) To create a bi-directional communications link within an ARINC 429 system

four databuses are required.
only one databus is required.
two databuses are required.
172) Why does an ARINC databus system send data to LRUs in series?
Saves weight.
More information can be sent.
Takes less time.
173) Can an LRU transmit and receive on more than one 629 bus?
Yes.
Only if paralleled.
No.
174) ARINC 629 LRUs transmit

when addressed.
when signal gap is sensed.
when terminal gap is sensed.
175) An ARINC 429 BCD word occupies bits 11-29, if 11-15 are filled with padders then the LSB of
the word will be
11.
16.
29.
176) A simplex system has

one transmitter, many receivers.
a bus controller and separate controller.
one transmitter, one receiver.
177) In an Arinc 429 Word label-representing heading is 320, this is represented in bits 1- 8 as
01011001.
00001011.
01101000.
178) In ARINC 629 aperiodic mode, LRUs transmit in order of

longest terminal gap to shortest terminal gap.
power up.
shortest terminal gap to longest terminal gap.
179) ARINC 629, aperiodic mode is used

for landing and approach operation.
for normal operation.
for database loads.
180) How is ARINC 429 bi-directional data transfer achieved?

Via a current mode coupler.
Using two data buses.
Via a twisted pair of shielded cables.
181) The data format use to transmit signal to flight data recorder
Harvard bi-phase 12 bit.
Bi-Polar RZ 12 bit.
Manchester 2 bi-phase 12 bit.
182) The output voltage of ARINC 429 signal is
-5v.
+10v to -10v.
+5v.
183) An ARINC 629 label word is

10 bits.
12 bits.
8 bits.
184) The T/R of ARINC 629 is

Encoder / decoder.
Multiplex / demultiplex.
switching.
185) Terminal gap in ARINC 629

is always the same period.
is flexible.
can be changed by adjusting the rx/tx software.
186) How does ARINC 629 bus transmit and receive information?
Sockets and pins.
Inductive coupling.
Optical coupling.
187) What is ARINC 561 used for?

To specify LRU pin-outs.
To specify Radio Comms data bus.
To specify Flight Data Recorder data bus.
188) What is the purpose of the parity bit on an ARINC 429 bus?
To indicate if the data is analogue.
To indicate that the data is digital.
To indicate to the receiver that the data is valid.
189) ARINC 429 is

Single Source Multiple Sink System.
Multiple Source Multiple Sink system.
Single Source Single Sink system.
190) What is the purpose of intermediate production breaks in ARINC 429 or 629 Data cables?
Cables are only manufactured 40 feet long.
To allow maintenance personnel to divide the right and left system buses into two parts for easy removal
and installation.
To allow connection of new cables to the existing ones in case of a modification.
191) Where is the parity bit installed in a data word?

Front.
End MSB.
Middle.
192) RZ bi-polar modulation consists of bits which are one of __________ states?
Eight.
Two.
Three.
193) In the ARINC 429 digital information transfer system, data may travel in:
both directions on the same bus simultaneously.
one direction only.
both directions on the same bus sequentially by time multiplexing.
194) An ARINC 629 data word

includes an 8 bit label and a 16 bit data field.
has only 20 bits.
comprises up to 256 data bits.
195) In an ARINC 429 digital word bit number 32 is used for

terminating the data field.
checking parity.
identifying word type.
196) What connects an LRU to the Bus Coupler in an ARINC 629 Data Bus?
Patch Cord.
Stub Cable.
Interconnect Cable.
197) A 12 bit 16 Channel encoder will use a multiplexer with

3 bit parallel address line.
4 bit parallel address line.
2 wire series address line.
198) How many address lines would be needed for an 8 line MU?
2.
3.
4.
199) In a MU, how is parallel converted to serial?

By way of a shift register.
By way of an encoder.
By way of a demultiplexer.
200) A multiplexer
takes many signals in and converts it to a serial transmission output.
takes many signals in and puts these in a parallel transmission on the output.
takes one signal in and converts it to a parallel transmission output.
201) A multiplexer in test equipment could be used for

frequency divider.
analogue to digital converter.
digital to analogue converter.
202) An 8 data input multiplexer has how many Data Select lines?
8.
3.
2.
203) The signal sent between a MU/DEMU is controlled by

clock.
the ALU.
control unit.
204) Some of the advantages of fibre optic cable over copper cables are
non conductive, easy to manufacture and assemble, more robust, cheap.
smaller in size and weight, non conductive, higher security and higher bandwidth.
non conductive, smaller in size and weight, easy to manufacture and assemble and higher security.
205) A fibre optic cable consists of

a silica glass core with a cladding having a lower refractive index.
a silica glass core with a cladding having a higher refractive index.
a plastic core with a cladding having a higher refractive index.
206) Fibre optic cables

are immune to EMI.
attenuate EMI.
are susceptible to EMI.
207) Two connected fibre optic cable ends are parallel but not quite touching. This is called
end to end coupling.
lens connector.
end fire coupling.
208) A disadvantage of a fibre optic cable is

couplings susceptible to ingress of fluid.
end terminals are susceptible to environmental contamination.
shallow bend radius allowed.
209) What kind of light is used in a fibre optic systems?

Infrared.
Visible.
Ultraviolet.
210) Fibreoptic data is sent by

modulating the frequency of a laser beam.
a strobe light.
modulating the frequency of a filament beam.
211) HIRF is prevented from entering a fibre optic cable by

using an opto-isolator coupling.
grounding the fibre at both ends.
enclosing it in a metal braid.
212) Continuity of a fibreoptic cable is checked by

a calibrated light source.
a calibrated light source and an opto-power meter.
a light source and an opto-power meter.
213) A fibreoptic data bus used on an aircraft

can send only one message at a time.
can transmit on several channels at the same time.
connects non-essential systems only.
214) Light travels along a fibre optic by

refraction.
reflection.
dispersion.
215) What is the main disadvantage of a fibre optic data bus?

Less strong and durable when compared to twisted pair and coaxial cable.
Expensive to install.
Bend radius and moisture ingress at connections.
216) A typical fibre optic connector is

F-type connector.
coupling type, with lens fitted.
push-pull connector.
217) Which of the following is an optoelectronic device?

Triac.
Laser Diode.
Thyristor.
218) What is the advantage of a single mode fibreoptic over ordinary wire?
Not prone to damage.
Large bandwidth.
Small bend radius.
219) A fibreoptic light source is normally

a strobe light.
a filament lamp.
a laser or LED.
220) The fibreoptic cable can be identified on aircraft by its jacket colour which is
purple.
yellow.
red.
221) For a fibre optic cable connector that is not regularly disconnected you would use the
butt type.
ball lens type.
ceramic lens type.
222) What maintenance problems are associated with fibreoptics?

Corrosion.
Kinking and contamination of connectors.
Earthing faults.
223) A fibreoptic data bus

can transmit several messages simultaneously.
is only used for non essential messages.
can only transmit 1 message at a time.
224) A fiberoptic cable to LRU connector should be connected

very carefully to ensure alignment and reduce light loss.
using torque-loaded pliers.
hand tight only.
225) Some of the advantages of fibreoptic cable over copper cable are
non conductive, higher bandwidth, higher security, smaller size and weight.
non conductive, easy to manufacture and assemble, higher bandwidth.
smaller size and weight, non conductive, more rugged, higher security.
226) In a single mode fibreoptic cable

several waves travel down the cable.
the diameter of the cable is dependent on the wavelength of the light used.
the distortion of the signal is dependent on the length of cable.
227) A semiconductor which emits photons and releases electrons when stimulated by photons is
called
a photodiode.
a laser diode.
an LED.
228) What does a fibreoptic star connection do?

Provides a continuous loop of fibre interconnecting all nodes.
Provides direct point-to-point services to units on dedicated lines emanating from the central hub.
Shares a common bandwidth of a common cable.
229) A fibreoptic lens type coupling with lens and integral LED compared to an end-fire coupling is
more efficient.
less efficient.
equally efficient.
230) Optical fibre losses are due to

absorption only.
absorption, scattering and reflection.
radiation, absorption and reflection.
231) The cone of acceptance is measured between

longitudinal axis of the core and the outer angle.
longitudinal axis of the core and the inner angle.
the two outer angles.
232) Fibreoptic cables use

refractive outer shell.
reflective inner shell.
reflective outer shell.
233) In fibreoptic cable, signals are separated by

active optic filter.
low pass filter.
passive optic filter.
234) Most fibreoptic connectors are designed so

the receptacle has to be torqued to a designated value to ensure correct alignment.
the connectors can not be over tightened.
the connector can not be replaced on the aircraft.
235) The light source used in fibreoptics is

visible light.
lower bandwidth than visible light.
higher bandwidth than visible light.
236) Light transmission in a fibreoptic cable is due to

repeated internal reflection.
defraction of the light.
refraction of the light.
237) The name given to the joining of two fibreoptic cables by aligning them carefully and bringing
them into close proximity of each other is
Fusion.
Lens Coupling.
End to end.
238) In a fibreoptic cable

multiple data signals can be sent down it at one time.
data can only be sent in one direction.
only one data signal can be sent down it at any one time.
239) Fibreoptics relies on

fibre absorbing light.
light escaping cladding.
light reflecting off cladding.
240) The light emitted from a LED used within a fibre-optic system will have a wavelength
slightly shorter then that of visible light.
equal to that of visible light.
slightly longer then that of visible light.
241) Sensors in a fibreoptic flight control system

require processing to give output.
does not require power.
require power for processors.
242) Fibreoptic systems can transmit data in

in two directions.
both directions at the same time.
one direction only.
243) For high bandwidth high-speed fibreoptic transmission what sort of cable would you use?
Step index.
Single mode.
Graded index.
244) In fibreoptics the wavelength of the light is

more than visible light.
equal to that of visible light.
less than visible light.
245) What is the advantage of an ILD over an LED when used as a light source in fibre optics?
Lower frequency range.
Lower intensity.
Higher bandwidth.
246) Speed of light in a fibreoptic fibre

increases if it passes through material of higher refractive index.
is always the same no matter what material it is.
is never greater then the speed of light in free space.
247) The angle of incidence of a beam of light in a fibreoptic cable will be

twice that of the cone of acceptance.
approximately half that of the cone of acceptance.
parallel with the end of the cable.
248) In an optical fibre, the angle of acceptance is

1/2 the signal wavelength.
equal to the cone of acceptance.
1/2 the cone of acceptance.
249) When using a TDR (time delay reflectometer) the loss value of the cable is
shown by the curve on the screen.
set on the TDR.
allowed for in the calculation.
250) Common aircraft fibreoptics use

modulating intensity on direct read.
modulating intensity on indirect read.
modulating frequency on direct read.
251) What is the main cause of attenuation in fibreoptics?

Poor termination.
Refractive index.
Bends in the cable.
252) What is the advantage of a laser diode over an LED?

Greater bandwidth.
Narrower bandwidth.
There are no advantages.
253) A type A fibre optic connector
is used when regular disconnection and re-connection of a cable is required.
produces a larger light loss that a type B connector.
would be used for connections not regularly disconnected.
254) The inside of a CRT consists of

an oxide coating and rare mercury gas.
a phosphor coating and rare mercury gas.
iodine and rare mercury gas.
255) CRT horizontal beam control is achieved by a

sinusoidal wave.
square wave.
sawtooth wave.
256) In a CRT, if the magnetic field is parallel to the Y plates, what will be the direction of the
electron beam movement?
Horizontal.
Vertical.
No movement.
257) Primary colours of a CRT are

red, green and yellow.
red, blue and yellow.
red, green and blue.
258) What are the effects of the X and Y plates on a CRT?

Y plates move the beam vertically, X plates move the beam horizontally.
X plates move the beam vertically, Y plates move the beam horizontally.
X and Y plates can move the beam in either direction.
259) EADI sky and ground display is provided by

synthetic TV signals.
stroke pulse.
raster scan.
260) What frequency creates the raster effect on a CRT?

50/60 Hz.
250Hz.
400 Hz.
261) The sweep waveform used on a electromagnetic CRT is

trapezoidal.
sinusoidal.
sawtooth.
262) What shape does the waveform take to counter the impedance effect of the coils in an
electromagnetic controlled CRT?
Sawtooth.
Rectangular.
Trapezoid.
263) Magnetic deflection in a CRT is achieved by

a sawtooth waveform.
a trapezoidal waveform.
a sinusoidal voltage.
264) The timebase in a CRT consists of

an amplifier and an oscillator.
an oscillator only.
an amplifier only.
265) What creates the raster effect on a CRT?

Sawtooth frequency.
Trapezoidal frequency.
Sinusoidal frequency.
266) LCD screens are driven by

AC voltage.
variable current DC voltage.
fixed current DC voltage.
267) A Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) has the advantage over a CRT that
it requires no cooling.
it displays more colours.
it requires less servicing.
268) The release of a photon by another photon is the principle of

a photo diode.
a zener diode.
an LED.
269) If a magnetic field is parallel to the X plates in a CRT, which way will the beam move?
Vertically.
Horizontally.
Diagonally.
270) An LED display is

monochrome only.
red and green.
high definition.
271) An LCD display uses what type of power supply?

DC voltage.
Continuous AC.
Variable level DC voltage.
272) A beam deflection on EFIS displays are

electrostatic.
electromagnetic.
solid state.
273) The supply to an LCD is
AC.
current restricted DC.
voltage restricted DC.
274) An LED will emit light when

it is reverse biased.
either forward or reverse biased if a sufficient level of ac voltage is applied.
it is forward biased.
275) A CRT display has the advantage over an LCD display of a

brighter clearer output.
more energy efficient.
large viewing angle.
276) To display a circle on a CRT you use

2 square wave 90 degrees out of phase.
2 sine waves 180 degrees out of phase.
2 sine waves 90 degrees out of phase.
277) To deflect the beam of a CRT horizontally, coils are placed on the neck of the tube
top and bottom.
one on the side, one at the bottom.
left and right.
278) If the magnetic deflection plates produce a magnetic field which is parallel to the horizontal then
the trace is deflected in
circular motion.
horizontal axis.
vertical axis.
279) The most common CRT control for an EFIS system screen is
a combined system.
an electrostatic system.
an electromagnetic system.
280) L.E.D.s can give

high definition displays.
monochrome displays only.
red and green displays only.
281) At low ambient temperatures, an LCD screen

is slower to update as data changes.
viewing angle becomes larger.
loses contrast.
282) Colour CRT shadow mask screen resolution is

400 lines per square inch.
84 triads.
600 lines per scan.
283) An LCD display
has three colours only.
is monochrome.
has infinite colours.
284) A segmented configuration for the display of alphanumeric data requires

the starburst display for numbers and lower case letters only.
16 segments to display the full range of capital letters and numerals.
at least 13 segments for all upper and lower case letters.
285) Electronic CRT beam display is used typically in

weather radar indicators.
IRU control display units.
distance measuring indicators; digital counters.
286) In a colour cathode ray tube, how is the phosphor arranged in the tube?
A red layer on the front with two green layers behind it.
A single phosphor layer containing red, green and blue.
Layers of red, blue and green.
287) A colour LCD which is back lit has

three colours.
monochrome.
an infinite amount of colours.
288) A dot matrix/LED construction is

4*7 or a 9*5 rolling end display.
289) What are the advantages of an LCD display over an LED?

It is brighter.
It uses less current.
There are no advantages.
290) A seven segment display is used to

display alpha-numeric characters.
display octal and decimal numbers only.
display octal and binary numbers only.
291) How are Alphanumeric Displays produced on a CRT?

By Stroke pulse.
Raster scanning.
by the use of X & Y EM Coils.
292) The Shorter lead near the Flat portion of an LED is the
Cathode.
Anode.
Gate.
293) Submarining is
caused by the inability of some LCD screens to respond to fast moving images on screen.
a CRT screen defect which can usually be remedied by degaussing the screen.
the process used to form liquid crystals into a flat screen.
294) ESDS bags are sealed by

ESDS labels.
zip locks.
twine (100% cotton).
295) What precautions are required when removing ESDS equipment?

Wear a wrist strap connected to an approved ground point.
No special precautions are required.
Keep one hand on the airframe.
296) A flight deck CRT LRU is being replaced. What does the ESDS label indicate?
Wrist straps should be worn.
Do not touch plug pins or leave them exposed.
Remove power before connecting.
297) During an EFIS screen fit

dont touch terminals.
no tooling is required.
use bonding strap.
298) With a relative humidity of 10% to 20%, if you walked over a carpet what electrostatic voltage
value would you expect to see?
35,000 volts.
6,000 volts.
12,000 volts.
299) Before fitting a Printed Circuit Board you should check the
resistance between skin and strap end plug is less than 10 megohms.
resistance between skin and strap end plug is more than 1 megohms.
resistance between strap and strap end plug is less than 1 megohms.
300) The resistance of the wrist strap used as part of anti static precautions should be
0 - 200 ohm.
20 megohm - 200 megohm.
250 kilohm - 1.5 megohm.
301) When handling PCB labelled ESDS, what precaution are taken?
Do not touch its pins as copper contamination can occur.
Isolate electrical power before installing on Aircraft.
First earth with aircraft then to it.
302) After attaching a wrist strap to your wrist (which is connected to aircraft ground), prior to
removal of ESDS equipment, the resistance measured
between your skin and the pin ground must be >1 megohms.
between the strap and the pin ground must be <1 megohms.
between the strap and the pin ground must be >1 Megohms.
303) Which of the following ESDS devices can withstand higher static electricity voltage?
MOSFET.
SCR.
ECL.
304) A wrist band must be worn when working with ESDS devices
to dissipate and prevent static build-up on the operator.
to prevent the operator from getting an electric shock.
to dissipate static charge on the device.
305) A humid atmosphere

reduces static charge.
eliminates static charge.
has no effect on the level of charge.
306) Electrostatic discharge occurs when

the ground lead on a wrist strap touches the skin.
materials are rubbed together or pulled apart.
materials of different potential are brought in close proximity to each other.
307) Before removing an assembly from an aircraft, with regards to HIRF, you must first ensure
that there is minimum current flow between
the assembly and the aircraft.
you and the assembly.
you and the aircraft.
308) When removing a PC card from an ESDS assembly ensure a low current path between
aircraft and ground.
you and the assembly.
you and the aircraft.
309) An aircraft system that, should it fail due to a software error, would cause a significant
reduction in safety margins may also cause
no injuries to occupants.
injuries to some occupants.
the loss of the aircraft.
310) An aircraft system allocated a software level of C that, should it fail due to a software error,
may cause
injuries to some occupants.
injuries to a large proportion of occupants.
no injuries to occupants.
311) An aircraft system allocated a Criticality Category of Hazardous has a Software Level of
A.
B.
C.
312) An aircraft system that, should it fail due to a software error, would cause a slight increase in
crew workload, has a software level of
B.
C.
D.
313) An aircraft system with a software level of D, should it fail due to a software error, may cause
the aircraft safety margin to be
slightly decreased.
slightly increased.
significantly decreased.
314) If due to a software error in an aircraft system that would cause injuries to some of the
occupants, the system has a software criticality category of
major effect.
hazardous effect.
minor effect.
315) An aircraft system that, should it fail due to a software error, would cause no injuries to
occupants, has a criticality category of
major effect.
minor effect.
hazardous effect.
316) Requirements for software control can be found in

JAR AWO.
AWN 43.
JAR OPS.
317) Software can be modified by

the manufacturer.
using the same rules as apply as to modifications to hardware.
licensed avionics engineers.
318) Who is responsible for producing the operational program of the FMS?
The manufacturer.
The pilot.
The engineer.
319) Software documentation procedures are laid down in

MOE.
JAA Ops.
AWN 45.
320) Control of software is carried out by

the aircraft manufacturers.
a licensed engineer.
the National Aviation Authority.
321) What is the definition of level one software?

Non-essential.
Essential.
Critical.
322) Who can sign for a software update?
Design organization or the aircraft manufacturer.
Engineer.
Chief pilot.
323) What is the effect of a level 1 software failure?

Significant reduction in safety margins.
Large reduction in safety margins.
Loss of aircraft and / or fatalities.
324) Software changes come under the responsibility of

the engineer.
the national aviation authority.
the aircraft constructor.
325) Who can design new software?

BCAR section A8 approved company.
BCAR section A1 approved company.
The CAA.
326) As far as a software product is concerned

the "Software Release" phase is the same as the "Finished Product" phase.
the "Validation" phase is done to the software rather than to the component.
the "Verification" phase includes performance testing a programmed EPROM.
327) AWN 43 requires that

the aircraft operator be responsible for software assessment.
the CAA be responsible for software assessment.
the aircraft constructors be responsible for software assessment.
328) Level 1 software failure

is defined as essential and will reduce safety margins.
is defined as essential and may have a minor effect.
is defined as critical and can lead to loss of aircraft.
329) Requirements for configuration management of software can be found in

AWN 43.
PART M.
ATA Chapter 46, Information Systems.
330) Where would you find the rules regarding upgrade of software?
JAR OPS.
The aircraft manufacturer.
AWN 43.
331) In order to maintain HIRF protection, bonding checks between airframe and electrical
components carrying voltages greater than 50 volts RMS or DC or main earth return should not
exceed
1 megohm.
1 ohm.
0.05 ohm.
332) Ribbon cables effected by mutual impedance and current loop leakage should be protected by
earthing each alternative conductor to separate point.
connecting all conductors to a common earth.
shielding each individual conductor.
333) To shield a fibre optic from EMI you must

earth both transducer and couplings.
shield it with a braided shield.
use an opto-isolator.
334) Manufacturers of aircraft can ensure HIRF protection by

advising operators of all points susceptible to deterioration due to corrosion, moisture ingress, flexing etc.
designing specific avionic areas that are shielded against HIRF.
ensuring all single wires are shielded with metal conduit.
335) Which of the following could be a primary cause of HIRF protection failure?
Broken or missing static wicks.
Corrosion on bonding leads.
Unserviceable radio filters.
336) Manufacturers of aircraft can ensure HIRF protection

by designing specific avionic areas that are shielded against HIRF.
by ensuring all single wires are shielded with metal conduit.
by advising the operator of parts of the aircraft susceptible to degradation due to corrosion, moisture ingress,
flexing etc.
337) HIRF protection of LRUs is provided by

internally shielded cables.
built in filters and overvoltage circuits.
built in filters only.
338) To stop earth loops forming, you would

earth both ends of the cable screen.
leave both ends of the cable screen open circuit.
earth only one end of the cable screen.
339) An aircraft may have been HIRF affected.

Test all radio frequencies for interference.
A static wick check is required.
A bonding load check is required.
340) Testing of HIRF on aircraft systems is done

by periodically listening for interference on all systems.
at and during production and testing (initial certification).
only after a report of radio interference.
341) When carrying out a bonding check on a surface protected by anodic film
the film is conductive so no preparations are required.
the anodic film should be removed locally to ensure a good contact.
add a bonding factor to the result of the test to account for the resistance of the anodic film.
342) When clamping cable looms containing co-axial cables

avoid distortion to the co-axial cable to maintain the dielectric constant.
the clamps must be no more than 1 metre apart.
distortion of the outer sheath is allowed providing the inner cable is not affected.
343) When incorporating an aerial cable it must be

in the centre of the other wires.
outside the other wires for easy access.
positioned separately from the loom.
344) When carrying out airframe bonding checks as part of a program of HIRF prevention the
airframe bonding resistance should be less than
100 milliohms.
1 ohm.
50 milliohms.
345) Electromagnetic compatibility is achieved by

shielding, screening, earthing, bonding and interference filters.
coating in a conductive paint.
enclosing the system with same frequency and strength of which screening is done.
346) To reduce HIRF on radio equipment

ensure all static wicks are in place.
periodically check bonding leads for condition.
transmit on all radio frequencies to determine which frequencies are causing the interference.
347) For braided cables, the amount of braiding

must conform to the requirement for the shielding to cover at least 50% of the surface of the cable.
keeps radiated power inside the emitting assembly or away from the susceptible circuit.
is a trade-off design feature.
348) HIRF is acronym for

Heavily Ionised Radio Frequencies.
High Intensity Radiated Field.
High Intensity Radio Frequencies.
349) HF aerials are protected against lightning strike by

current mode coupler.
bus terminal.
spark gap.
350) An FMS system, besides controlling navigation, thrust and auto-nav, also provides
GPWS warnings.
dedicated status and warnings.
take-off and landing warnings.
351) The minimum standards for aircraft instrumentation is set by

CAA.
ICAO.
JAA.
352) EADI sky and ground display is provided by

raster scan.
stroke pulse.
synthetic TV signals.
353) HSI heading is valid if the heading flag is

in view.
green.
out of view.
354) MFD is the abbreviation for

Multi function display.
Mandatory flight display.
Master flight display.
355) A TCAS uses the radar mile definition in its calculations, which is
36 microsecond.
18 microsecond.
72 microsecond.
356) GPS navigation uses a constellation of satellites that is made up of

21 active and 3 spare.
357) An IRS is only certifed for alingment up to

+88. 45 and -88.45 degrees.
+78. 25 and -78.25 degrees.
+60 and -60 degrees.
358) The command bars on an ADI relate to

roll indications.
path being followed.
path required.
359) ECAM has at its heart

a multi function symbol generator.
a central maintenance computer.
ACARS.
360) The recording medium in an FDR is

copper foil coated with ferrite.
a high density floppy disc.
magnetic tape coated with ferrite.
361) The recording medium in an FDR is

copper foil coated with ferrite.
a high density floppy disc.
magnetic tape coated with ferrite.
362) An FMS databank memory is updated
every 365 days.
every 28 days.
every 32 days.
363) What does the CADC feed?

cabin pressure controller sensor / machmeter / altimeter.
Altimeter / FMS / secondary radar.
standby altimeter / machmeter.
364) In a Flight Management System (FMS), data is input manually to the computing system
through the
Data Acquisition Unit.
Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring control panel.
Control and Display Unit.
365) In a Global Positioning System (GPS), the number of satellites required to achieve a 3
dimensional fix is
2.
3.
4.
366) In a Global Positioning System (GPS), each satellite transmission identifies the satellite using a
different channel frequency.
pseudo random code.
whisper shout method.
367) In a Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites below the Mask Angle are ignored as these may
cause
range errors.
clock errors.
ephemeris errors.
368) Information required by a Flight Management System (FMS) to function correctly is indicated
on the display by
dashes.
a flashing cursor.
boxes.
369) A flight data recorder can obtain information from aircraft instruments
provided there is adequate damping.
provided there is adequate isolation.
by direct connection to the instruments.
370) The inputs and outputs of a CADC are

pitot and static in; altitude, attitude, CAS and VS out.
pitot and static in; altitude, CAS, mach and VS out.
pitot in; static, altitude, mach, CAS and VS out.
371) EICAS provides the following:

Engine parameters and engine warnings only.
Engine parameters and system warnings only.
Engine parameters only.
372) A central maintenance computer provides

ground and flight monitoring and testing on an on-board computer.
ground and BITE testing using a portable control panel.
display of system warnings and cautions.
373) The rising runway is positioned from information derived from

barometric height.
radio altimeter.
vertical speed.
374) Where are the Digital Flight Data Recorder outputs supplied to?
The recording unit.
There are no outputs.
Flight instruments.
375) FMS failure and warnings are

EFIS warnings only.
displayed on EICAS.
engine warnings only.
376) Flight director command bars are moved to the correct position by
calibration.
position feedback.
amplifier gain.
377) What information is required before completion of the alignment of an Inertial Navigation
System?
Aircraft present position.
Heading and attitude.
Aircraft present position and heading.
378) IRS accelerometers are mounted

90 to each other.
45 to each other.
60 to each other.
379) An FMS navigation database is updated

once a month.
every 28 days.
at the operators request.
380) A single failure of a fly-by-wire system

will reduce operational heights and speeds.
will limit the flight profile.
has no effect on aircraft operation.
381) Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in turbulent conditions will result in

spoilers moving symmetrically upwards.
ailerons moving symmetrically upwards.
ailerons and spoilers moving symmetrically upwards.
382) Fly-by-wire roll control is achieved by

spoilers and ailerons.
ailerons.
spoilers.
383) The movement of fly-by-wire control surfaces are

hydraulically controlled and electrically actuated.
both electrically controlled and electrically actuated.
electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated.
384) An FMS system, besides controlling navigation, thrust and auto-nav, also provides
dedicated status warnings.
take-off and landing warnings.
GPWS warnings.
385) If an EFIS has 3 symbol generators. What is the purpose of the 3rd symbol generator?
Comparison with No.1 symbol generator.
Parity function.
Standby.
386) FMS operational program is updated every

90 days.
28 days.
7 days.
387) An FDR fitted to a helicopter begins recording

when power is applied to the aircraft.
on take-off.
on engine start-up.
388) The FMS databases consist of

one navigation and one performance database.
one performance and two navigation databases.
two performance and one navigation database.
389) The FMS can update the IRS position outputs by using information from either
VOR and DME only.
GPS, DME, LOC and VOR.
DME and GPS only.
390) The accepted error from INS/IRS is

3 miles / hour + 3 miles.
2 miles per hour + 3 miles.
1 mile/hour+3 miles.
391) Before an IRS can complete the alignment sequence

the current present position must be entered.
either the last or current position must be entered.
the shutdown present position must be entered.
392) What warnings can an FMS provide?

Discrete warnings.
Spurious faults.
Ground faults only.
393) Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System

performs in-flight and ground tests of aircraft systems by carrying out a BITE interrogation.
performs in-flight BITE interrogation only.
give red warnings and amber cautions to display system status.
394) The control of the speed or rate that the flight director command bars move can be controlled
by
position feedback.
rate or velocity feedback.
amplifier gain.
395) The Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System uses the maintenance mode of operation
on the ground only.
in the air only.
either in the air or on the ground.
396) The third EFIS Symbol Generator is operated

in an emergency.
with EICAS.
as a standby to the No1 and No2 system.
397) EFIS displays of the right hand and left hand displays are compared by comparators in the
FMS.
EICAS.
Symbol Generators.
398) What is the approximate earth rate?

10/hour.
5/hour.
15/hour.
399) An IRS has

two or three accelerometers depending on the system.
three accelerometers.
two accelerometers.
400) IRS Laser Ring Gyros provide

rate of movement about an axis.
displacement about an axis.
both rate and displacement about an axis.
401) What are the outputs of a Digital ADC?

TAS, MACH, Altitude and TAT.
TAS, MACH, Altitude, TAT and SAT.
TAS, MACH and Altitude.
402) Fly By Wire systems in the fully active mode, the actuators will
both be active.
both be in damping mode, awaiting control inputs.
one in active mode, one in damping mode.
403) On a Fly By Wire system, what controls the stab trim?

ELAC and SEC.
SEC.
ELAC.
404) The minimum requirement for a cockpit voice recorder to begin operating is
on engine start-up.
on commencing the takeoff roll.
once established in the en-route climb.
405) Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting Systems is used to

download aircraft status reports.
make telephone calls.
allow the pilot of an aircraft to talk to base.
406) B-RNAV system must be capable of

holding six waypoints.
displaying distance and bearing to waypoint.
reversing the waypoints for.
407) The basic principle of radar is based upon

the amount of power in the signal returned.
the time delay between outward and returning pulse.
ultrasonic wave propagation.
408) What systems does the ADC feed?

Altimeter / FMS / secondary radar.
Cabin pressure controller sensor / machmeter / Altimeter.
Standby altimeter/machmeter.
409) Which systems does a modern ADC give information to?

EFIS.
EICAS.
Flight control computer, Air Data Instrument, Engine systems.
410) Where do the outputs from a DADC go?

EHSI.
EADI.
IRMP: Inertial Reference Mode Panel.
411) How many satellite signals are required to achieve precise 3D positioning?
4.
5.
6.
412) The minimum requirement for an aeroplane CVR is

from power on.
from engine start.
from beginning of take off roll.
413) An Inertial Navigation System (INS/IRS) computes distance from acceleration by

two successive integrations.
a simple integration.
a differentiation followed by an integration.
414) Before the aircraft is moved from the loading pier the pilot must
insert the longitude and latitude of the first waypoint into the INS.
set the altitude to be fed into the INS.
insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the IRS.
415) An IRS has

accelerometers and gyros fixed to a the airframe.
accelerometers fixed to the airframe and gyros on a stable platform.
accelerometers on a stable platform and gyros fixed to the airframe.
416) An IRS system requires data for wind computation from

Doppler System.
satellites.
central Air Data Computer.
417) The FMS carries out a Rho/Theta navigation function, the purpose of this is to
update the IRS system with an accurate position fix of latitude and longitude.
to update the VOR and DME systems with an accurate position fix.
to update the EMS with the new lateral flight profile for the flight plan.
418) The FMS is updated

automatically by update data from the ACARS.
by an aircraft engineer updating the system either by a magnetic tape or floppy disc.
by the aircrew by reference to the Tech Log.
419) Pitch Control of a fly by wire system is achieved by

stabilizer only.
elevators only.
stabilizer and elevator.
420) In a fly by wire system, if the pilot control input is derived from a side stick controller:
there is no control surface feedback to the side stick.
control surface feedback is fed to the side stick.
there will be only control surface feedback to the side stick after a computer failure.
421) A basic IRS platform has

3 accelerometers and 2 laser gyros.
2 Accelerometers and 3 laser gyros.
3 accelerometers and 3 laser gyros.
422) What must be entered into the IRS before the aircraft can be moved?
Flight plan.
Present position.
Cruise height.
423) The FMS Operational Database is

updated once a month.
is fed with information on aircraft weight, cruise altitude and cost index before take off.
needs no update information.
424) Control surface feedback is fed back to

the Flight Control Computer only.
the side stick controller only.
the Flight Control Computer and side stick controller.
425) The accelerometer output in an INS/IRS is

integrated once to give distance.
integrated twice to give velocity.
integrated twice to give distance.
426) An INS/IRS Battery Unit provides

standby power only whilst in flight.
standby power when airborne and on the ground.
standby power only on the ground.
427) If a fly by wire actuator loses hydraulic power the control surface will
automatically move back to the neutral position.
remain rigid in the failure position.
remain in the failure position but may move due to aerodynamic pressure.
428) IRS alignment

takes up to 10 minutes and the present position can be entered at any time during alignment.
takes up to 10 minutes and present position must be entered before alignment.
takes up to 10 minutes and the previous flight shut down present position is used for the alignment.
429) A fault light appears on the IRS Mode Selector Unit during the alignment sequence. The
correct action
immediately switch off and select the standby system.
select HDG/STS on the Inertial System Display Unit (ISDU), observe the action code in the right
alpha/numeric display.
refer to the warning display on the EICAS/ECAM system.
430) A FMS has a total of how many Databases?

1.
2.
4.
431) Fly by wire High Speed protection is

to prevent tuck under.
to increase the pitch angle as speed increases.
to prevent high speed stall.
432) An IRS Laser gyro provides

detection of the rate of movement about an aircraft axis.
detection of the earths gravitational force to establish true north.
detection of the earths rotation to establish true north.
433) The left and right cockpit displays

are supplied from separate Symbol Generators at all times.
are supplied from the same Symbol Generator.
will only be supplied from the same symbol generator when all other symbol generators have failed.
434) A single failure of a fly by wire control surface computer will

cause the system to revert to an alternate law of operation.
not have any operational effect on the system.
cause the system to revert to a direct law of operation.
435) What are the outputs from digital clocks used for?
Flight data acquisition unit, Flight management computer and Voice recorder.
VOR, ILS and DME.
Weather radar, TCAS and ACARS.
436) A full operation system BITE check will carry out a internal system test that ensures the system
meets design requirements and is operational
but will not move the controls.
as well as checking full system and will move the controls to their stops.
as well as checking full system but will not move the controls to their stops.
437) If on a flight deck EFIS system all the displays were missing one bit of information. This is most
likely to be
the input sensor bus and display controller.
the symbol generator and display.
the display controller and symbol generator.
438) A centralised monitoring computer system is used

to test system during flight and for BITE test of systems on the ground using a carry on control unit.
to test systems in flight and on the ground using a centralised on board control unit.
testing systems on the ground only.
439) In an EFIS display, the lines, scales, indicator and synoptic are generated by
raster scan.
synoptic scan.
stroke pulse.
440) The method of producing (white) lines for aircraft symbols, V/S scale etc. on an EADI is by
raster scan.
trapezoidal input.
stroke pulse.
441) In modern aircraft, the output from the clock is used

to synchronise the signals on the control bus.
to provide a clock pulse for CRT.
to give GMT details to the flight recorder and other systems.
442) As a minimum requirement, when must a cockpit voice recorder start recording?
From the start of the aircraft take off run.
After take off when airborne.
On first engine start.
443) The operational database of the FMS may have to be modified in flight
It cannot be modified in flight.
by the pilot.
automatically by the DADC.
444) CADC outputs are

altitude, vertical speed, IAS, mach no.
altitude, vertical speed, TAS, CAS, mach no, SAT, TAT.
altitude ,vertical speed, angle of attack, TAT, SAT.
445) If one EICAS CRT fails

the FMS CDU will display the failed CRT data.
the remaining CRT will display primary EICAS data.
the standby CRT will automatically take over.
446) Variations in light on EFIS displays are compensated for by

an external light dependant resistor mounted on the flight deck compensating for all displays in a parallel-
parallel format.
manual adjustment by flight crew on EFIS controller.
integrated light dependant resistors in the display compensating for each display individual.
447) A method used in modern aircraft for reporting in flight faults to an engineering and
monitoring ground station is
TCAS II.
ACARS.
TAWS.
448) The self test function on an EFIS system can be tested

on the ground only.
in the air only.
in the air and on the ground.
449) Each of the symbol generator outputs in an EFIS system can be

displayed on each individual display.
only no. 2 can be displayed on the no.1.
can not be interchanged.
450) BITE tests are inhibited for ground use during

forward motion.
gear retraction.
take-off.
451) Modern aircraft with electronic displays would display information on airframe and engine on
which system?
Electronic centralised aircraft monitoring system (ECAM).
Flight management system.
EADI.
452) The Flight data recorder starts recording

after take off.
on aircraft roll out from stand.
after the first engine has started.
453) Data to flight data recorder can be taken from a communal data bus if
the power is within flight data recorder limits.
it goes directly to it.
source isolation has been considered.
454) A central fault display system should be available through

a bite test.
a central bite test box with clear LED indications.
a easily accessible multifunction control display unit.
455) A flight data recorder should be capable of recording

the last 25 hours.
the last 25 hours of aircraft flight.
the last 25 hours with engines running.
456) BITE for ground use only is switched off

on take-off.
when brakes are released.
when undercarriage up.
457) Using I.N.S. an aircraft flies

rhumb line.
course directed by ground station.
great circle route.
458) What warnings can an FMS provide?

Ground faults only.
Discrete warnings.
Spurious faults.
459) Aircraft heading (HDG) is

the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
the angle between True North and the actual track.
the angle between True North and the desired track.
460) Control Display Unit (CDU ) selection of TKE (Track Angle Error), displays
difference in degrees that the aircraft is to the right or left of the desired track.
distance perpendicular from the selected track.
difference in degrees from True North in a clockwise direction from the desired track.
461) In the EICAS system, when is the maintenance mode available?

Lower screen only - only available on the ground.
In flight.
On the upper and lower screens - only available on the ground.
462) On a modern aircraft when are BITE checks carried out?

Continuously when system is in use.
After engine shut down.
Only when BITE selected.
463) In an IN system, the purpose of the stable platform is to

provide attitude reference.
prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers.
stop the gyros from toppling.
464) An IN system requires data from the

Doppler system.
airdata computer.
satellites.
465) TK (cross track) is the

actual track across the earths surface.
angle in degrees that the aircraft track is left or right of desired track.
perpendicular distance from the desired track.
466) The output of an INS can be fed to the

attitude indicators.
altimeters.
vertical speed indicators.
467) The three accelerometers on a strapdown system are mounted

90 to each other.
parallel to each other.
120 apart.
468) Gyro-compassing is the term used for

self-alignment in the vertical.
use of the gyro-magnetic compass system to align the platform.
self-alignment in azimuth.
469) Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring System operates to

give red warnings and amber cautions to display system status.
perform in-flight BITE only.
perform in-flight and ground tests of aircraft systems by carrying out a BITE.
470) The Centralized Aircraft Monitoring System uses the maintenance mode of operation
on the ground only.
in the air only.
either ground or air.
471) If part of a display is lost on a CRT, this could be due to

an inoperative symbol generator or control panel.
an inoperative symbol generator or input sensor.
loss of power to the CRT.
472) A cyclic test (watch dog) should be performed for ECAM

via MCDU.
during power up.
during flight.
473) How does the symbol generator detect a program error?

By looking at the even parity without error.
By looking at the odd parity without error.
By check sum bites for error detect.
474) Relationship of CMCs to BITE systems is best described as

CMCs replaced but is not related to the older BITE system.
CMCs monitors the individual BITE systems and presents data.
CMCs modifies and upgrades BITE systems.
475) An IRU interface test is carried out

in the air.
only on the ground.
on the ground or in the air.
476) FMS system gives warning indications for

take off and landings only.
any flight phase.
cruise.
477) FMS CDU warnings are

fail and MSG.
OFST and Fail.
MSG, fail and OFST.
478) CMC (central maintenance computer) works to

perform in-flight BITE and ground tests of aircraft systems, i.e. BITE.
give red warnings and amber cautions to display in accordance with system status.
perform in-flight BITE only.
479) BITE test carried out on input sensors and actuators performs
validation of the information of the LRU.
a performance test of the system.
a test of the LRU.
480) A BITE check for automatic performance and fault monitoring is carried out when?
Power-up self test.
For in-flight monitoring.
To check the performance of the LRU.
481) In which of the following does TCAS II advise the pilot to make a maneouvre?
RA.
TA.
either RA or TA.
482) What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display?

White circles, red diamonds and amber squares.
White diamonds, red squares and amber circles.
White squares, red diamonds and amber circles.
483) If a display shows a red cross only, it is due to

Symbol Generator failure.
CRT failure.
Altimeter failure.
484) ACARS is an acronym for

Aircraft Communicating Addressing and Reporting System.
Airborne Communicating Addressing and Reporting System.
ARINC Communicating Addressing and Reporting System.
485) When does the flight data recorder start recording ?

Undercarriage up.
Parking brake released.
When the first engine starts.
486) Brake temperature displayed on a flight deck CRT has

a master warning light.
same colour throughout.
different colour for different temperatures.
487) When performing test on Electronic Displays using the Built In Test system
CRT continues to display current data while the SGs and Display are internally tested.
SG injects a test signal into the display system and the word TEST appears on the screen.
displays cannot be tested it is only SG which are tested by BITE.
488) Heading reference required to establish initial heading during alignment sequence comes from
FMS which gathers data from other Radio devices.
Magnetic compass installed on the airplane.
Earths Rotation.
489) What is primary mode of navigation on a modern aeroplane?

Both GPS and IRS.
Only IRS.
Inch precise GPS.
490) In a flight director, how are small deviations corrected?

Pilot input.
Instrument is calibrated at fitment to remove any possible error.
Instrument feedback.
491) For a 3 dimensional fix in a Global Positioning System

Minimum of 3 satellites must be in view.
Minimum of 2 satellites must be in view and altitude used to simulate a 3rd satellite.
Minimum of 4 satellites must be in view.
492) In an aircraft equipped with TCAS II and EFIS
RA pitch command is shown on the EHSI and TA/RA traffic on the EADI.
RA pitch command is shown on the VSI and TA/RA traffic on the EHSI.
RA pitch command is shown on the EADI and TA/RA traffic on the EHSI.
493) The BITE indicator on a DFDR shows Yellow colour. This indicates
power is ON but DFDR is not recording data.
power is ON and DFDR is recording data.
power is OFF or DFDR is at Fault.
494) In a typical "Glass Cockpit" EICAS provides the following:

engine parameters and system warnings only.
engine parameters and engine warnings only.
engine warnings only.
495) ECAM system was adopted for

Airbus A310.
both Boeing and Airbus aircraft.
Boeing 757 and 767 aircraft.
496) A modern electromagnetic Flight Data Recorder, for recording data, could use:
a floppy disk.
a plastic tape coated in ferrite.
a copper oxide string.
497) What is the minimum requirement for a CVR to start recording?

When parking brake is released.
On commencement of flight.
When aircraft is capable of moving under its own power.
498) As a minimum requirement when must a cockpit voice recorder start recording?
Once airborne after take off.
Before engine start.
Once aircraft is ready to move under its own power.
499) A NOR gate with both inputs inverted becomes a

NAND gate.
AND gate.
OR gate.
500) Adding invertors to the two inputs of an AND gate makes a

OR gate.
NOR gate.
NAND gate.
501) Which logic gate can be represented as a parallel circuit?

OR gate.
Exclusive OR gate.
NAND gate.
502) Making an inverter from a NAND or NOR gate is achieved by
connecting the inputs.
inverting the input.
connecting two in series.
503) When will a NAND gate give logic 0 at the output?

When both inputs are at 1.
When the inputs are different.
When both inputs are at 0.
504) The output of a NOT gate is logic 1. The input is

logic 0.
logic 1.
both logic 1.
505) When the voltage that represents a logic 1 state is less than the voltage that represents a logic 0
state, the logic being used is
either positive or negative.
positive.
negative.
506) The output of an AND gate having two inputs A and B is logic 1. The two inputs will have the
logic states of
A = 0, B = 0.
A = 1, B = 0.
A = 1, B = 1.
507) The output of an OR gate having two inputs A and B is logic 0. The two inputs will have the
logic states
A = 1, B = 0.
A = 0, B = 1.
A = 0, B = 0.
508) Which logic gate has both inputs high to get an output?
AND gate.
OR gate.
NAND gate.
509) A NAND and NOR to become a NOT gate have

inputs inverted.
outputs inverted.
inputs connected together.
510) An AND gate with inverted inputs and an inverted output is equivalent to
an AND gate.
a NOR gate.
an OR gate.
511) Logic gates internal operating mechanisms are produced from

thin film resistors.
transistors.
diodes.
512) A logic 1 may be represented in an analogue system by (where Q is an output of a latch / flip-
flop)
switch closed / light off / Not Q.
positive / magnetised / Q.
switch open / light on / Q.
513) What sort of gate requires two negative input voltages to operate?
NOT.
NAND.
OR.
514) In Positive Logic representation

both states have same positive voltages but stage 1 has more current.
state 1 is more positive than state 0.
state 0 is more positive than state 1.
515) Switching within logic gates is normally achieved with the use of
BTB.
relays.
diodes.
516) The truth table of A=0011 B=0101 and C=0110 indicates that the logic device is
a NOR gate.
an ECLUSIVE OR gate.
an AND gate.
517) A NAND gate has inputs A and B and output C. If the output was zero, what are the inputs?
A=1 B=1.
A=0 B=0.
A=1 B=0.
518) The "fan-in" in a gate is the

number of inputs to a gate.
number of outputs from a gate.
number of inputs and outputs of a gate.
519) Tristate devices are found

on input circuits.
on output circuits.
on both input and output circuits.
520) A full adder has

three inputs and two outputs.
two inputs and one output.
three inputs and one output.
521) In a computer memory device, which one of these has the slowest access time?
floppy disk.
magnetic tape.
8mm video tape.
522) The advantage of DRAM over SRAM is

are cheaper to manufacture.
has a larger storage capacity per chip area.
they operate slower.
523) A BYTE is usually

an 8 bit word.
a six bit word.
a 12 bit word.
524) What is the definition of baud rate?

1 word per second.
1 byte per second.
1 bit per second.
525) Which would have the least components?

ALU.
CPU.
LSI.
526) What is a baud?

A bit of data.
A block of data.
A byte of data.
527) In a bi-stable memory circuit

the memory is retained indefinably.
the memory is lost as soon as power is removed.
the memory needs to be refreshed constantly, even when power is on.
528) What is the advantage of series over parallel message sending?

Only one pair of conductors.
More information sent.
Quicker.
529) A typical example of a mass storage memory device which is also WORM (Write Once Read
Many) is
an IC.
a magnetic tape.
a CD Rom.
530) A computer using RAM would utilize

magnetic tape.
a compact disc.
an integrated circuit (chip).
531) Magnetic materials are used in

ROMs only.
some RAMs.
EPROM.
532) A typical example of a mass storage device is

IC.
magnetic tape.
CD.
533) What is EPROM?

Enhanced programmable read only memory.
Erasable programmable read only memory.
Erasable programming read only module.
534) How many bytes can be carried in a 32bit word?

8 bytes.
4 bytes.
2 bytes.
535) A common used material in computer manufacturing is

ferrite material.
permeamag material.
ferromagnetic material.
536) Ferrite medium is used for computer memory because

data is stored after the power is removed.
it is light.
it has low eddy current losses.
537) Data is usually stored in

RAM.
ROM.
EEPROM.
538) Registers are used in digital computers to

store bits of information in a permanent memory.
store a limited amount of information on a temporary basis.
keep a count of operations completed.
539) A computer consist of at least the C.P.U and

memory and input & output port.
memory, ALU, input & output port.
register section, ALU, timing and control section.
540) A basic computer would consist of

register section, ALU and timing and control section.
memory, input/output ports and CPU.
RAM/ROM and input/output ports.
541) DRAM
requires a refreshing charge.
memory is stored when power supply is removed.
it does not require a refreshing charge.
542) Bubble memory stores data on
magnetic tape.
semiconductor material.
ferrite core.
543) An EPROM
is non-volatile memory.
requires constant refreshing.
is erased after reading.
544) A computer requires to operate, a

address bus, a data bus only.
data bus, a control bus, a address bus.
data bus, a control bus only.
545) A computer is acting in real time when

the CPU requires a clock pulse.
the output is equal to the input of data.
the time to access memory is equal to the data speed in.
546) What is the function of a status register in a microprocessor?

To indicate the status of the processor.
In the ALU, to store the position of the program during an interrupt.
To synchronize the clock pulse.
547) What is the purpose of the ALU?

To store data being used by the CPU.
The part of the CPU unit where arithmetic & logic operations are carried out.
To convert serial into parallel data.
548) The CPU consists of

ALU, timing and control section, register.
register and arithmetic logic unit only.
register, timing and control section only.
549) How is multiplication achieved in an ALU?

by addition.
by subtraction.
by coupling.
550) The smallest operation of a CPU is

the processor cycle.
the processor sub-cycle.
the time cycle.
551) Where does the clock signal in a microprocessor come from?

ALU.
Memory.
Control unit.
552) Where is the operating program for the CPU stored?
Control unit.
ALU.
Memory unit.
553) A priority encoder

outputs the highest input.
outputs the selected input.
outputs the lowest input.
554) The smallest operation possible in a computer is the

timing cycle.
processor sub-cycle.
processor cycle.
555) A clock pulse in processor equipment

is to synchronise everything.
is used for the maintenance tests.
is to give the correct timing when calculations are made.
556) In a computer, the code that fetches correct data and feeds it to the ALU is called
the instruction set.
ARINC.
the computer program.
557) A computer processor has within it

register, buffer, data bus.
ALU, register, memory.
ALU, control section, register.
558) The arithmetic logic unit (ALU) in a central processor unit (CPU) carries out
addition, subtraction, multiplication and division.
computations as instructed.
timing and synchronisation.
559) The CPU requires a clock to determine

the number of bits on the highway.
the speed of operation.
the date and time.
560) An ALU performs the following

Arithmetic, Logic, Branch and Move Operations.
Input/Output operations, Arithmetic, Logic Functions.
Arithmetic, Logic, Branch and Find Operations.
561) On an IC, pin 1 is to the left of the notch. Which way are the pins numbered?
Left to right.
Anticlockwise.
Clockwise.
562) When 4 binary serial counters are connected in cascade for frequency division, what division
factor is required?
8.
16.
4.
563) 3 binary counters in cascade. What is the division?

32.
8.
16.
564) Within a 3 bit frequency cascade, division is to

2.
4.
8.
565) Very Large Scale Integrated (VLSI) means the number of gates in a single IC is
up to 10,000.
over 10,000.
up to 1000.
566) An encoder changes

digital to analogue.
analogue to digital.
data from one format to another.
567) An RS flip-flop with Q at 1 is said to be

set.
reset.
zero.
568) When a JK flip flop is used as a memory device, what type of memory would it be?
read-only.
non-volatile.
volatile.
569) In an RS flip flop, output is one. This means it is

intermediate.
reset.
set.
570) An ALU is an example of

MSI.
SSI.
LSI.
571) With a j-k flip flop which is the output set

q = 1.
q = 0.
either.
572) Data is converted from serial to parallel and parallel to serial by

a synchronous counter.
a parallel register.
a shift register.
573) A typical characteristic of a CMOS is

high power dissipation.
high voltage handling.
low power dissipation.
574) The pins on an op amp are numbered

anticlockwise.
clockwise.
cross ways.
575) A parallel register

requires a clock pulse for each bit.
reads each bit to be stored simultaneously.
reads the stored data when logic 0 is applied to the read line.
576) A device, which converts serial to parallel and parallel to serial for arithmetical functions, is a
Parallel to serial and serial to parallel converter.
Shift Register.
Multiplexer and De-Multiplexer.
577) What is the device used to convert Binary Coded Decimal into separate supplies for a seven
segment digital display?
Multiplexer.
Decoder.
Demultiplexer.
578) Operation of a frequency counter is such that

it compares the incoming waveform with standard sine waves.
it detects incidences of peak value.
it changes the incoming waveform to a standard square wave.
579) An example of a small size integrated circuit would be

DIP switch.
Control Processor Unit.
ALU.
580) In a Master Slave, negative edge triggered JK flip flop, both inputs are connected to logic 1. The
output
will change state when the leading edge of the clock pulse is applied.
will change state when the trailing edge of the clock pulse is applied.
does not change state when a clock pulse is applied.
581) What is the equivalent of this gate?
= (NOT-A + NOT-B)
= (A + B)NOT
= (A.B)NOT
582) This truth table is for a
OR gate.
AND gate.
NAND gate.
583) Which logic gate has this truth table?
NOT
NAND
Exclusive OR
584) What is this truth table?
NOR gate
NOT gate
AND gate
585) What sort of gate is this?
NOT gate
NOR gate
OR gate
586) What is this symbol?
Exclusive AND gate.

Exclusive NOR gate.
Exclusive OR gate.
587) What Logic Gate does this switch circuit indicate?

NOR gate
AND gate
OR gate
588) To get logic 1 using this gate
A and B = 0.
A or B = 1.
A and B = 1.
589) What logic gate would this circuit represent?
NAND gate
NOR gate
AND gate
590) What type of gate is this?
NAND
NOT
E-OR
591) What input is required to activate the relay shown?
A=0 B=1
A=1 B=0
A=1 B=1
592) What does the logic circuit shown represent?

Full adder circuit.
Half adder circuit.
Multi-bit adder.
593) What would be the outputs of this circuit, if A=0 B=0 C=1?
1, 1
0, 1
0, 0
594) What would be the outputs of this circuit, if A=1 B=1 C=0?
0, 1
1, 1
1, 0
595) What is the Boolean Algebra for the circuit shown?
A
B
C
596) What function do gates 1 and 2 perform?

Full adder
Half adder
Shift register
597) What is this?
Counter
Shift register
Multiplexer

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MODULE 5

Digital Techniques / Electronic Instrument Systems

1. An FMS system, besides controlling navigation, thrust and auto-nav, also

2. EADI sky and ground display is provided by

3. HSI heading is valid if the heading flag is

4. A NOR gate with both inputs inverted becomes a

5. An ARINC 429 binary coded decimal data word occupies bits

The correct answer is b Pallett - Aircraft Instruments Page 159

6. A fibre optic cable consists of

The correct answer is c See www.commspecial.com/fiberguide

7. The command bars on an ADI relate to

8. The recording medium in an FDR is

The correct answer is b See www.l-ar.com/html/history.html

9. Convert 0111012 to octal

10. What does the CADC feed

1. ARINC 629 databus is

The correct answer is b Pallett - Aircraft Instruments Page 160

2. Requirements for software control can be found in

3. Software can be modified by

The correct answer is c Read up on software control - get a copy of AWNs

The correct answer is b There are several websites on fibre optics

5. A disadvantage of a fibre optic cable is

The correct answer is c www.commspecial.com/fiberguide.htm

6. The inside of a CRT consists of

The correct answer is b Pallett - Aircraft Instruments Page 284

7. What kind of light is used in a fibre optic systems?

The correct answer is a www.floti.bell.ac.uk/MathsPhysics/light.htm

8. Typical displays on an EHSI are

10. An ARINC 573 data bus is used

2. Adding invertors to the two inputs of an AND gate makes a

3. An ARINC 429 bus uses

The correct answer is a Pallett - Aircraft Instruments Page 157

4. CRT horizontal beam control is achieved by a

5. The ARINC 429 data bus word systems use

The correct answer is c Pallett - Aircraft Instruments Page 156

6. The binary number 11010111 expressed as a decimal is

7. The octal number 1001 expressed as a decimal is

8. This truth table is for a

9. The inputs and outputs of a CADC are

10. EICAS provides the following

The correct answer is b Pallett - Aircraft Instruments Page 377

1. During an instrument approach, the glideslope pointer deflects below the

2. Engine parameters are displayed on

3. A central maintenance computer provides

The correct answer is a Read up on BITE systems

4. ARINC 573 is related to what system?

5. The rising runway is positioned from information derived from

The correct answer is c Boeing Maintenance Training notes for B757

7. FMS failure and warnings are

8. Who is responsible for the operational program of the FMS?

9. Flight director command bars are moved to the correct position by

The correct answer is a Read up on the flight director indication system

10. If a signal has quantity in volts and physical position it is

2. What is the fixed feature of an ADI?

3. Primary colours of a CRT are

The correct answer is a Rotor Gear Box

4. What information is required before completion of the alignment of an Inertial

The correct answer is a Read up on INS

5. IRS accelerometers are mounted

6. An FMS navigation database is updated

7. A single failure of a fly-by-wire system

8. Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in turbulent conditions will result in

9. Fly-by-wire roll control is achieved by

10. The movement of fly-by-wire control surfaces are