VISION IAS

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ANSWERS & EXPLANATION

GENERAL STUIDES (P) TEST 2115 (2017)

Q 1.B

Statement 1 is correct: Gram Nyayalaya is a mobile court and exercises the powers of both Criminal and
Civil Courts; i.e., the seat of the Gram Nyayalaya will be located at the headquarters of the intermediate
Panchayat, but they will go to villages, work there and dispose of the cases. It can try criminal cases, civil
suits, claims or disputes which are specified in the First Schedule and the Second Schedule to the Gram
Nyayalaya Act and the scope of these cases can be amended by the Central as well as the State
Governments, as per their respective legislative competence.
Statement 2 is correct: Gram Nyayalaya are courts of Judicial Magistrate of the first class and its presiding
officer (Nyayadhikari) is appointed by the State Government in consultation with the High Court of the
State concerned; The Nyayadhikaris who will preside over these Gram Nyayalayas are strictly judicial
officers and will be drawing the same salary and deriving the same powers as First Class Magistrates
working under High Courts.
Statement 3 is not correct: Appeal in criminal cases shall lie to the Court of Session, which shall be heard
and disposed of within a period of six months from the date of filing of such appeal. Appeal in civil cases
shall lie to the District Court, which shall be heard and disposed of within a period of six months from the
date of filing of the appeal.

Q 2.D

As held by the Supreme Court in 1979, the office of Governor of a state is not an employment under the
Central government. It is an independent constitutional office and is not under the control of or
subordinate to the Central government.
Hence, both the statements 1 and 2 are not correct.

Q 3.D

Statement 1 is correct: In July, 2016 UN General Assembly unanimously adopted a resolution

approving an agreement to make the International Organisation for Migration part of the UN as a related
organization.
Established in 1951, IOM is the leading inter-governmental organization in the field of migration and
works closely with governmental, intergovernmental and non-governmental partners.
Statement 2 is correct: It was founded in the wake of the World War II to resettle refugees from Europe.
IOM was granted Permanent Observer status to the UN General Assembly in 1992, and a cooperation
agreement between IOM and the UN was signed in 1996.
Statement 3 is correct: India is its member state.

Q 4.D

Statement 1 is not correct: Amendment of Article 271 (Surcharge on taxes by union):- Parliament has
exclusive right to charge the surcharge on any tax and such surcharge will form the part of consolidated
fund. But the GST is exception to above article. In other words, Parliament cannot charge any tax by way
of surcharge on GST.
Statement 2 is not correct: Due to insertion of Article 246A it is imperative to amend union list and
state list to make proper arrangement for GST. The amendments are as follow: Amendment in Entry No
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 84, 92, 92C to Union List & Amendment in Entry No 52, 54, 55 and 62 to State List. Distinct system of
State and Union List is still intact
Statement 3 is not correct: Amendment of Article 250(1) (Proclamation of Emergency) :- In the event of
announcement of emergency, Parliament of India has power to make the laws in respect of any item
covered under state list for the whole India or part of the India under article 250(1). Goods and service tax
under article 246A i.e. ONLY Parliament of India can make the GST law in case of emergency.

Q 5.D

Statement 1 is correct: Lok Adalat is one of the alternative dispute redressal mechanisms, it is a forum
where disputes/cases pending in the court of law or at pre-litigation stage are settled/ compromised
amicably.
Statement 2 is correct: Lok Adalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities
Act, 1987.
Statement 3 is correct: Under the Act, the award (decision) made by the Lok Adalats is deemed to be a
decree of a civil court and is final and binding on all parties and no appeal against such an award lies
before any court of law. If the parties are not satisfied with the award of the Lok Adalat though there is no
provision for an appeal against such an award.

Q 6.D

All the surcharges and cess can be levied by the Centre at any time. And the proceeds of such taxes
belong exclusively to the Centre. (Article 271)
All the duties and taxes mentioned in the Union list except surcharges, any cess, and taxes and duties
mentioned in article 268, 268-A, 269 and 271 are taxes levied and collected by centre but distributed
between centre and state. (article 270)
Taxes on sale and purchase of in interstate trade and commerce do not form part of Consolidated Fund of
India because these taxes are assigned to states after being appropriated by Centre (article 269)

Q 7.B

President has the following powers:

summon and prorogue both the houses of Parliament.

dissolve the lok sabha.
summon the joint sitting.

Whereas the power to adjourn Lok sabha lies with the Speaker and to adjourn Rajya sabha lies with
the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.(An adjournment suspends the work in a sitting for a specified time, which may
be hours, days or weeks)

Q 8.C

The Union government has given its 'in-principle' approval to set up the countrys 13th major port at
Enayam, near Colachel in Tamil Nadu. A special purpose vehicle (SPV) will be formed for the
development of port that will act as a major gateway container port for cargo and become a trans-
shipment hub for East-West trade route.
Currently, all of India's trans-shipment traffic gets handled in Colombo, Singapore and other international
ports due to which the Indian port industry loses out around Rs.1,500 crore revenues each year.

Q 9.D

There is no provision of joint sitting in the state legislature.

The Legislative Council has the same power and status as that of Legislative Assembly in respect of
enlargement of the jurisdiction of State Public Service Commission.

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Q 10.D

NITI Aayog, Department of Atomic Energy and National Board of Wildlife are headed by Prime
Minister.
Zonal Councils have been established by the state reorganization act 1956 to advise on matters of
common interest to each of the five zones, into which the territory of India has been divided. They are
headed by Union Home Minister.

Q 11.D

If the bill (under dispute) has already lapsed due to the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, no joint sitting can
be held if the Lok Sabha is dissolved after the President has notified his intention to summon such a
sitting (as the bill does not lapse in this case).
After the President notifies his intention to summon a joint sitting of the two Houses, none of the Houses
can proceed further with the bill.
If the bill in dispute is passed by a majority of the total number of members of both the Houses present
and voting in the joint sitting, the bill is deemed to have been passed by both the Houses. Normally, the
Lok Sabha with great number wins the battle in a joint sitting.
The Constitution has specified that in a joint sitting, new amendments to the bill cannot be proposed
except in two cases:
Those amendments that have caused final disagreement between the Houses; and
Those amendments that might have become necessary due to the delay in the passage to the bill.

It must be noted here that the provision of joint sitting is applicable to ordinary bills or financial bills and not
to money bills or Constitutional amendment bills.

Q 12.D

Statement 1 is not correct : A proclamation of emergency may be revoked by the President at any time
by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require the parliamentary approval.
However, proclamation of national emergency can be done only after receiving a written recommendation
from the cabinet.
Statements 2 and 3 are not correct: President must revoke the Emergency , if the Lok Sabha (only)
passes a resolution disapproving its continuation by simple majority ( 44th Amendment Act, 1978)

Q 13.A

Statement 1 is correct: The 74th amendment act provides for the constitution of the following three types
of municipalities in every state. 1. A nagar panchayat for a transitional area, that is, an area in transition
from a rural area to an urban area. 2. A municipal council for a smaller urban area. 3. A municipal
corporation for a larger urban area.
Statement 2 is correct: A cantonment board is established for municipal administration for civilian
population in the cantonment area. It is set up under the provisions of the Cantonments Act of 2006a
legislation enacted by the Central government. It works under the administrative control of the defence
ministry of the Central government.
Statement 3 is not correct: A town area committee is set up for the administration of a small town. It is a
semi-municipal authority and is entrusted with a limited number of civic functions like drainage, roads,
street lighting, and conservancy. It is created by a separate act of a state legislature. Its composition,
functions and other matters are governed by the act.

Q 14.C
The Indian President has the veto power over the bills passed by both the Parliament and State
legislature.The veto power enjoyed by Indian President can be classified into the following three types:
Absolute veto, that is, withholding of assent to the bill passed by the legislature.
Suspensive veto, which can be over ridden by the legislature with an ordinary majority.
Pocket veto, that is, taking no action on the bill passed by the legislature.
The President of India has no veto power in respect of a Constitutional Amendment Bill. The 24th
Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971 made it obligatory for the President to give his assent to a
Constitutional Amendment Bill.

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 Under the Constitution ( Articles 111 and 201) , a Money Bill ( both Centre and State) cannot be returned
to the House by the President for reconsideration but he may either give or withhold his assent to a Money
Bill.

Q 15.A

The budget goes through six steps. The first three stages are: Presentation, General Discussion and
Scrutiny by departmental committees.
On the basis of report of the departmental committees, the Lok Sabha takes up voting of demand for
grants. The demands are presented ministry wise. A demand become a grant after it has been voted upon.
The next step is the passing of Appropriation bill. This is done in order to satisfy the constitutional
requirement which says: "no money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under
appropriation made by law".
However, passing of this bill takes time. In the meantime, government needs certain amount to run its
normal activities. To overcome this functional difficulty, the constitution has authorised the Lok Saha to
make any grant in advance in respect to the estimated expenditure for a part of the financial year, pending
the completion of the voting of demands for grants and the enactment of the appropriation bill. This
provision is known as the 'vote on account'. It is passed after the general discussion on budget is over.
Finally, the Finance Bill is introduced to give effect to the financial proposals of the Government of India
for the following year. The Finance Act legalises the income side of the budget and completes the process
of the enactment of the budget.

Q 16.B

A threatened breed of sheep found only in coastal Jagatsinghpur and Kendrapara districts of Odisha has
been conferred 'rare and singular species' tag by the Central government. The National Bureau of Animal
Genetic Resources (NBAGR) has accorded genetic recognition to the breed of sheep, locally called 'kuji
mendha'.
The sheep that are reared in this part are delicate domestic animals. Sheep in other parts of Odisha are not
known for giving multiple birth. This characteristic makes them distinctive from other species.
In Sundarbans area of West Bengal, Garol breed sheep are found who are multiple-breeders. Kendrapara
district accounts for about 75,000 'kuji' breed of sheep. Because of multiple-birth characteristics, rearing
of 'kuji' sheep is a profitable livelihood source.

Q 17.A

Advocate General is appointed by the Governor and holds office during the pleasure of the Governor.
Members of State Public Service Commission and State Election Commissioner are appointed by the
Governor but can be removed only by the President.

Q 18.C

The budget consists of two types of expenditure-the expenditure 'charged' upon the Consolidated Fund of
India and the expenditure made from the Consolidated Fund of India. The charged expenditure is non-
votable by the Parliament, that is, it can only be discussed by the Parliament, while the other type has to be
voted by the Parliament. The list of the charged expenditure is as follows:

Emoluments and allowances of the President and other expenditure relating to his office.
Salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and the Speaker
and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Salaries, allowances and pensions of the judges of the Supreme Court.
Pensions (and not salaries)of the judges of high courts. Hence, (c) is not correct.
Salary, allowances and pension of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Salaries, allowances and pension of the chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission.
Administrative expenses of the Supreme Court, the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
and the Union Public Service Commission including the salaries, allowances and pensions of the persons
serving in these offices.

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 The debt charges for which the Government of India is liable, including interest, sinking fund charges and
redemption charges and other expenditure relating to the raising of loans and the service and redemption
of debt.
Any sum required to satisfy any judgement, decree or award of any court or arbitral tribunal.
Any other expenditure declared by the Parliament to be

Q 19.B

Statement 1 is correct: The Vice-President is not a member of either House of Parliament or of a House
of a Legislature of any state. If a member of either House of Parliament or of a House of a Legislature of
any state is elected as Vice-President, he is deemed to have vacated his seat in that House on the date
he/she enters his office as Vice-President.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Vice-President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the
Council of States by a majority of all the members of the Council and agreed to by the House of the
People. No such resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the
intention to move the resolution.
Statement 3 is not correct: American Vice President succeeds to Presidency when it falls vacant, and
remains President for unexpired term. Whereas Indian Vice-President merely serves as an acting President
until new President assumes charge.

Q 20.A

The Lok Sabha can express lack of confidence in the government in the following ways:

By not passing a motion of thanks on the President's inaugural address.

By rejecting a money bill.
By passing a censure motion or an adjournment motion.
By defeating the government on a vital issue.
By passing a cut motion.

Q 21.D

India's first Green Rail Corridor has been inaugurated on the 114-km long Rameswaram- Manamadurai
stretch in Tamil Nadu.
About 150 coaches in 13 pairs of express and passenger trains, running in the section, would have bio-
toilets and there would be zero discharge of human waste on tracks in the section. Rameswaram railway
station, which handled the trains, had already been developed as a 'Green Station' to handle the bio-toilets
in the coaches.
To ensure proper working of the bio-toilets, Southern Railway has established a bio-lab at the coaching
depot, which handled the coaches, for testing the discharge. Indian Railway has developed the
environment friendly IR-DRDO Bio-toilets, in association with Defence Research and Development
Organisation (DRDO).
Regenerative type anaerobic bacteria in liquid form are poured into the six-chamber retention tanks in the
bio-toilets and the bacteria helps in disintegrating human waste into liquid and gas. The liquid is
chlorinated and discharged with no harm to the environment.

Q 22.B

A cut motion, to be admissible, must satisfy the following conditions:

It should relate to one demand only.

It should be clearly expressed and should not contain arguments or defamatory statements.
It should be confined to one specific matter. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
It should not make suggestions for the amendment or repeal of existing laws.
It should not refer to a matter that is not primarily the concern of Union government.
It should not relate to the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
It should not relate to a matter that is under adjudication by a court. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
It should not raise a question of privilege.

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 It should not revive discussion on a matter on which a decision has been taken in the same session.
It should not relate to a trivial matter.

Q 23.A

Only pair 1 is correctly matched.

Pardon : completely absolves from all sentences and punishments.
Commutation: substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form. e.g. - death sentence commuted
to rigorous imprisonment.
Remission: reduces the period of sentence without changing the character of sentence e.g. - four
years rigorous imprisonment remissioned to one year rigorous imprisonment
Reprieve: put a stay on the execution of sentence for a temporary period.
Respite: awarding lesser sentence in special conditions e.g. pregnancy.

Q 24.B

Pattiseema lift irrigation project interlinking rivers Godavari & Krishna, in West Godavari district of
Andhra Pradesh has been commissioned recently. It is South Indias first River Integration Project.

Q 25.D

The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs, organizes All India Whips Conference to establish suitable links
among the whips of various political parties at the Centre and the states.
It also culls out assurances, promises, undertakings, etc., given by Ministers in both the Houses of
Parliament, from the daily proceedings and forwards them to the concerned ministries/departments for
implementation. After due scrutiny of the implementation reports received from the various
ministries/departments concerned, statements showing action taken by the Government in implementation
of the assurances are periodically laid on the Table of the Houses by Minister/Minister of State for
Parliamentary Affairs.
It sponsors Government Goodwill Delegation of Members of Parliament to other countries and receives
similar Government sponsored delegations of parliamentarians under the exchange programme from other
countries through the Ministry of External Affairs.
It looks after the welfare of ailing MP admitted for treatment in hospitals in Delhi and renders any
assistance required by them.

Q 26.D

Statement 1 is correct: The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the
Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
Statement 2 and 3 are correct: The principal objective of NALSA is to provide free and competent legal
services to the weaker sections of the society and to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not
denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities, and to organize Lok Adalats for
amicable settlement of disputes. Apart from the abovementioned, functions of NALSA include spreading
legal literacy and awareness, undertaking social justice litigations etc.

Q 27.C

Bills related to changing the official language of the Parliament doesnot require prior recommendation of
the President in its introduction.
Bills requiring prior Presidential assent are: Money Bill (as per Article 110) & Finance Bill ; Bills relating
to such matters -admission or establishment of new States, formation of new States, and alteration of
areas, boundaries or names of existing States. Any bill which affects the taxation in which the states are
interested (Article 274); State Bills which impose restriction upon freedom of trade (Article 304) etc.

Q 28.B

All the questions regarding disqualification of Members of state legislature are decided by Governor in
consultation with Election Commission of India.
Speaker has the power to decide questions of disqualification only under Tenth schedule i.e. Anti-
defection law.
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Q 29.A

Statement 1 is correct: The oath of office is administered by Chief Justice of India and in his absence,
the senior most judge of SC available.
Statement 2 is not correct: President can resign from his office at any time by addressing the resignation
letter to the Vice President.
Statement 3 is not correct: A person to be eligible for election as President should not hold any office of
profit. A sitting President, Vice President, Governor and ministers of union and state are not deemed to
hold any office of profit and hence qualified as a presidential candidate.

Q 30.C

Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution does not contain any separate provisions for the administration
of acquired territories. But, the constitutional provisions for the administration of union territories also
apply to the acquired territories.
Statement 2 is correct: A regulation made by the President has the same force and effect as an act of
Parliament and can also repeal or amend any act of Parliament in relation to these union territories.

Q 31.D

Education and Forests were transferred from State list to Concurrent list by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
Pilgrimages, other than pilgrimages to places outside India and Agriculture, including agricultural
education and research, protection against pests and prevention of plant diseases comes under the state
list.
Q 32.C

Article 243G states that the Legislature of a State may, by law, endow the Panchayats with such powers
and authority and may be necessary to enable them to function as institutions of self government and such
law may contain provisions for the devolution of powers and responsibilities upon Panchayats, at the
appropriate level, subject to such conditions as may be specified therein, with respect to (a) the
preparation of plans for economic development and social justice; (b) the implementation of schemes for
economic development and social justice as may be entrusted to them including those in relation to the
matters listed in the Eleventh Schedule.

Q 33.B

The Constitution of India contains the following provisions with regard to the enactment of budget:
Statement 1 is correct: Article 112(2) provides that the budget shall distinguish expenditure on
revenue account from other expenditure.
Statement 2 is not correct: Parliament can reduce or abolish a tax but cannot increase it.
Statement 3 is not correct: Article 113(3) states that no demand for a grant shall be made except on
the recommendation of the President.

Q 34.B

Statement a correct: Supreme Court in a judgement in 1971 held that 'even after the dissolution of the
Lok sabha, the CoM does not cease to hold office. This is because article 74 is mandatory and President
cannot exercise executive powers without aid and advice of CoM.
Statement b is not correct: Dissolution can take place only after the President is satisfied that it is not
possible to form an alternative government following the defeat and resignation of the Council of
Ministers. It is a moot point whether the President should accept automatically the advice of a defeated
Government to dissolve the House without his exploring the possibility of an alternative government
which enjoys the confidence of the House. In case the President dissolves that House, the defeated
Government continues in office as caretaker government until the general elections, following the
dissolution of the Lok Sabha, are over
Statement c is correct: CoM can advise President to dissolve the Lok sabha on the ground that the House
does not represent the vies of the electorate faithfully and call for new elections. And if CoM is enjoying
the majority in Lok sabha while making such advice, President has to follow the advise.

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Q 35.B

The Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN) and the Bertelsmann Stiftung have launched a
new Sustainable Development Goal Index.
The index helps countries identify priorities for early actions and shows that every country faces major
challenges in achieving the SDGs.
India is ranked at a low 110 of 149 nations with regard to achieving the Sustainable Development Goals.

Q 36.A

The 'nine-dash line' stretches hundreds of kilometers south and east of its southerly Hainan Island,
covering the strategic Paracel and Spratly island chains. China laid claim to the SCS back in 1947.
It demarcated its claims with a U-shaped line made up of eleven dashes on a map, covering most of the
area. The Communist Party, which took over in 1949, removed the Gulf of Tonkin portion in 1953,
erasing two of the dashes to make it a nine-dash line.

Q 37.C

Ministry of Science and Technology includes following Departments:

Department of Science and Technology

Department of Scientific and Industrial Research
Department of Bio-Technology

Department of Atomic Energy is independent department directly under PMO.

Q 38.A

Statement 1 is correct : India and France have launched an International Solar Alliance to boost solar
energy in developing countries.
Statement 2 is not correct : Its HQ is situated in India ( New Delhi). Further, India is providing land and
$30 million to form a secretariat for the Alliance, and also support it for five years.
Statement 3 is not correct : The initiative was launched at the UN Climate Change Conference in Paris.
It will be a common platform for cooperation among solar resource rich countries lying fully or
practically between the Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn.
It was launched at the UN Climate Change Conference in Paris in 2015 by India and France.
Among the tasks that the Alliance would pursue are, cooperation in training, building institutions,
regulatory issues, common standards, and investment including joint venture.

Q 39.D

Statement 1 is correct: Government of India has given Ganga the status of a National River and has
constituted the National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) on 20th February 2009 under Section
3(3) of the Environment (Protection Act, 1986.
Statement 2 is correct: The authority is chaired by the Prime Minister and has as its members the Union
Ministers concerned, the Chief Ministers of the States through which Ganga flows, viz., Uttarakhand,
Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal, among others. This initiative is expected to rejuvenate
the collective efforts of the Centre and the States for cleaning the river. The Ministry of Water Resources,
River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation(MoWR, RD & GR) is the nodal Ministry for the NGRBA.
Statement 3 is correct: NGRBA functions include development of a Ganga River Basin Management
Plan, regulation of activities aimed at prevention, control and abatement of pollution, to maintain water
quality and to take measures relevant to the river ecology in the Ganga basin states. It is mandated to
ensure the maintenance of minimum ecological flows in the river Ganga and abate pollution through
planning, financing and execution of programmes including that of - 1) Augmentation of Sewerage
Infrastructure 2) Catchment Area Treatment 3) Protection of Flood Plains 4) Creating Public Awareness.

Q 40.D

The Election Commission of India has launched the Purification and Authentication Programme of National
Electoral Roll in collaboration with C-DAC under the mission mode project for authenticating, purifying and
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 linking Aadhar with the electoral Roll. The objective is to make electoral roll cent percent error free and
multiple entries free.

The Objectives of the programme are:

Linking and authentication of electors EPIC data with Aadhaar of UIDAI

Voluntary disclosure of multiple entries in electoral roll.
Correction of errors in electoral roll.
Improvement of image quality of photograph of the elector in electoral Data.

Q 41.A

Original Jurisdiction means the power of a high court to hear disputes in the first instance, not by way of
appeal. It extends to the following:

Matters of admirality, will, marriage, divorce, company laws and contempt of court.
Disputes relating to the election of members of Parliament and state legislatures.
Regarding revenue matter or an act ordered or done in revenue collection.
Enforcement of fundamental rights of citizens.
Cases ordered to be transferred from a subordinate court involving the interpretation of the Constitution to
its own file.
The four high courts (i.e., Calcutta, Bombay, Madras and Delhi High Courts) have original civil
jurisdiction in cases of higher value.

Supreme courts holds the original jurisdication in case of any dispute between the Centre and any state.

Q 42.D

Operation Sankat Mochan: The Union Government undertook operation Sankat Mochan to
evacuate Indian citizens stranded in South Sudans capital Juba. Sankat Mochan in Hindi means
reliever from troubles.
Operation Maitri: Operation Maitri is the rescue and relief operation in Nepal by the Government of India
and Indian Armed Forces in the aftershock of the 2015 Nepal earthquake.
Operation Rahat: In early April, 2015, India had evacuated 5,600 displaced persons from Yemen under
Operation Rahat (relief).

Q 43.B

Statement 1 is not correct: It is the President (and not the Parliament) who can declare national
emergency under Article 352.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 352(1) states that a Proclamation of Emergency declaring that the security
of India or any part of the territory thereof is threatened by war or by external aggression or by armed
rebellion may be made before the actual occurrence of war or of any such aggression or rebellion, if the
President is satisfied that there is imminent danger thereof.
Statement 3 is not correct: Immunity from judicial review for the proclamation of National Emergency
was deleted by 44 th Amendment Act. Further, Supreme Court in Minerva Mills case held that the
proclamation of national emergency can be challenged in the court.
Statement 4 is not correct: 38th Amendment adds Clause (9) to Article 352 as "The power conferred on
the President by this article shall include the power to issue different Proclamations on different grounds,
being war or external aggression or armed rebellion or imminent danger of war or external aggression or
armed rebellion, whether or not there is a Proclamation already issued by the President under clause (l)
and such Proclamation is in operation".

Q 44.C

To resolve question of conflict between two lists i.e. where the question arises of determining whether a
particular law relates to a particular subject mentioned in one list or another, Supreme Court has laid down
certain principles through various judgments.
Doctrine of Pith and Substance: Pith means "true nature" or "essence" and substance means the essential
nature underlying a phenomenon. Thus, the doctrine of pith and substance relates to finding out the true
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 nature of a statute. This doctrine is widely used when deciding whether a state is within its rights to create
a statute that involves a subject mentioned in Union List of the Constitution. The basic idea behind this
principle is that an act or a provision created by the State is valid if the true nature of the act or the
provision is about a subject that falls in the State list. The case of State of Bombay vs F N Balsara AIR
1951 illustrates this principle very nicely.
Doctrine of Colourable Legislation This doctrine is based on the principle that what cannot be done
directly cannot be done indirectly. In other words, if the constitution does not permit certain provision of
legislation, any provision that has the same effect but in a roundabout manner is also unconstitutional.
K.C. G. Narayana Deo v. The State Of Orissa: transgression may be patent, manifest or direct, but
it may also be disguised, covert and indirect and it is to this latter class of cases that the expression
Colorable Legislation has been applied in certain judicial pronouncements. The idea conveyed by the
expression is that although apparently a legislature in passing a statute purported to act within the limits of
its powers, yet in substance and in reality it transgressed these powers, the transgression being veiled by
what appears, on proper examination, to be a mere presence or disguise. This Doctrine is also called as
Fraud on the Constitution.

Q 45.A

The Union Agriculture Ministry and the U.S. Agency for International Development (USAID) have
launched the second phase of the Feed the Future India triangular training programme in a bid to bring
specialised agriculture training to 1,500 agricultural professionals across Africa and Asia.
The first phase trained more than 200 professionals from Kenya, Liberia and Malawi, and they are now
implementing the new farming methods to increase farm productivity and income. India and the U.S. are
expanding the programme with the second phase launch to reach hundreds of professionals and in turn
thousands of smallholder farmers.

Q 46.D

Statement 1 is correct: In January 1957, the Government of India appointed a committee to examine the
working of the Community Development Programme (1952) and the National Extension Service (1953)
and to suggest measures for their better working. The chairman of this committee was Balwant Rai G
Mehta. The committee submitted its report in November 1957 and recommended the establishment of the
scheme of democratic decentralisation, which ultimately came to be known as Panchayati Raj.
Statement 2 is correct: In 1986, Rajiv Gandhi government appointed a committee on Revitalisation of
Panchayati Raj Institutions for Democracy and Development under the chairmanship of L M Singhvi.
Statement 3 is correct: In December 1977, the Janata Government appointed a committee on panchayati
raj institutions under the chairmanship of Ashok Mehta. It submitted its report in August 1978 and made
132 recommendations to revive and strengthen the declining panchayati raj system in the country.

Q 47.C

Statement 1 is not correct: Governor can reserve the money bill for the consideration of the President.
But here President can either give his assent or reject the bill. He cannot ask state legislature for
reconsideration.
Statement 2 is correct: When the Governor reserve the bill for the consideration of the President, he will
not have any further role in the enactment of the bill. This means that the assent of the Governor is no
longer required.
Statement 3 is correct: According to Article 200 - Governor shall not assent to, but shall reserve for the
consideration of the President, any Bill which in the opinion of the Governor would, if it became law, so
derogate from the powers of the High Court as to endanger the position which that Court is by this
Constitution designed to fulfill.

Q 48.A

Statement 1 is correct: They are a naturally occurring, ice-like combination of natural gas and water.
Generally they are found in oceans and Polar Regions. By nature, Gas hydrates are mostly methane
(CH4). Methane gas hydrate is most stable at the seafloor at water depths which is below about 500
meters. They are considered as vast resources of natural gas and are known to occur in marine sediments

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 on continental shelf margins. The total amount of gas available within the world's gas hydrate
accumulations is believed to greatly exceed the quantity of all known conventional gas resources.
Statement 2 is not correct: India has discovered a potentially producible large accumulation of natural
gas hydrate in the KG Basin off the east coast. Gas hydrate resources in India are estimated to be at 1,894
trillion cubic meters and these deposits are mainly found in Western, Eastern and Andaman offshore
areas.

Q 49.D

Statement 1 is correct: Part-IX to the Constitution of India s entitled as The Panchayats and
consists of provisions from Articles 243 to 243 O.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 40 under the Directive principles of state policy states that the State shall
take steps to organize village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be
necessary to enable them to function as units of self government.
Statement 3 is correct: 11th schedule contains 29 functional items of the panchayats. It deals with
Article 243-G.

Q 50.A

Statement 1 is correct: The Governor is empowered to direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to
a scheduled area in the state or apply with specified modifications and exceptions. under Para 5 of the
5th Schedule.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Governor of Assam may direct that an act of Parliament does not apply
to a tribal area (autonomous district) in the state or apply with specified modifications and exceptions.
[Para 121)(b) of 6thSchedule]. The President enjoys the same power with respect to tribal areas
(autonomous districts) in Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

Q 51.A

Although Rajya Sabha can't amend or reject the money bill, but it can make recommendations, which lok
sabha may or may not accept. So statement 1 is correct.

Q 52.D

Statement 1 is not correct: With regard to the matters included in Concurrent List the executive function
shall ordinarily remain with states, but subject to the provisions of the Constitution or of any law of the
Parliament conferring such function expressly upon the Union.
Statement 2 is not correct: Under Article 73(1)(b) , the executive power to implement any treaty or
international agreement belongs exclusively to the Union, whether the subject pertains to the Union, State
or Concurrent List.

Q 53.B
The Presidential candidate must: Be a citizen of India. Have completed the age of thirty-five years. - Be
qualified for elections as a member of the Lok Sabha. - Not hold any office of profit under the Union or
any State government, or any local or other authority. So 'X' cannot become a President.
The candidate contesting for election of Chairman of Rajya Sabha (Vice-President) of India should fulfill
the below conditions: He must be a citizen of India - He must have completed age of 35 years - - He
cannot hold an office for profit. He must be qualified to become a member of Rajya Sabha. So 'X' cannot
become a President.
As per Article 84 of the constitution, a person is qualified to be a Member of Parliament provided he: - is
a citizen of India - has completed 30 years of age in case of Rajya Sabha and 25 years in case of Lok
Sabha. - possesses such other qualifications as may be prescribed in that behalf by or under any law made
by Parliament.
The third condition above led the Parliament to include other qualifications for MPs in the Representation
of People Act (1951). These qualifications are as follows: - Only an elector can be elected. Thus, the
candidate must be registered as a voter in a parliamentary constituency and must be eligible to vote. - It is
not necessary that a person should be registered as a voter in the same constituency. This is applicable for
both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Hence, 'X' is qualified to become both Prime Minister and Speaker of Lok Sabha.

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Q 54.D

The Parliament can make laws on any matter in the state list for implementing the international treaties,
agreements or conventions without the consent of any state. This provision enables the Central
government to fulfill its international obligations and commitments. (Article 253)
Examples of laws enacted under this provision are Geneva Convention Act, 1960; legislations relating to
environment and TRIPS; Anti-Hijacking Act, 1982 etc.

Q 55.B

The Constitution authorized the Parliament to establish a Contingency Fund of India, into which
amounts determined by law are paid from time to time. Accordingly, the Parliament enacted the
contingency fund of India Act in 1950. This fund is placed at the disposal of the President, and he can
make advances out of it to meet unforeseen expenditure pending its authorization by the Parliament. The
fund is held by the finance secretary on behalf of the president. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Like the public account of India, it is also operated by executive action i.e. that is, the payments from this
account can by made without parliamentary appropriation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Prime Ministers National Relief Fund (PMNRF)- It was established in 1948 with public contributions
to assist displaced persons from Pakistan. The resources of the PMNRF are now utilized primarily to
render immediate relief to families of those killed in natural calamities like floods, cyclones and
earthquakes, etc. and to the victims of the major accidents and riots, etc.The fund consists entirely of
public contributions and does not get any budgetary support. The corpus of the fund is invested with PSU
banks in various forms. Disbursements are made with the approval of the Prime Minister. PMNRF has not
been constituted by the Parliament. PMNRF operates from the Prime Ministers Office. PMNRF is
exempt under Income Tax Act, 1961 under Section 10 and 139 for return purposes. PMNRF accepts only
voluntary donations by individuals and institutions. Contributions flowing out of budgetary sources of
Government or from the balance sheets of the public sector undertakings are not accepted.

Q 56.A

Statement 1 is correct: Prime Minister's Office (PMO) is an extra-constitutional body as there is no

mention of PMO in the Constitution.
Statement 2 is not correct: Administrative Head of PMO is Principal Secretary - PMO acts as a staff
agency to provide Secretarial assistance to PM.
Statement 3 is not correct: NITI Aayog is a separate think tank of government. It does not come under
PMO.
It enjoys the status of a department of the Government.
All the subjects which are not allotted to any Ministry or Department comes under PMO.

Q 57.B

Consultative committees are attached to various ministries / departments of the Central Government.
They consist of members of both the Houses of Parliament.
The Minister / Minister of State in charge of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs concerned acts as the
chairman of the consultative committee of that ministry. Hence, (b) is not correct.
These committees provide a forum for informal discussions between the ministers and the members of
Parliament on policies and programmes of the government and the manner of their implementation.
These committees are constituted by the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs. The guidelines regarding the
composition, functions and procedures of these committees are formulated by this Ministry.
Ministry also makes arrangements for holding their meetings both during the session and the intersession
period of Parliament.
The membership of these committees is voluntary and is left to the choice of the members and the leaders
of their parties. The maximum membership of a committee is 30 and the minimum is 10.
These committees are normally constituted after the new Lok Sabha is constituted, after General Elections
for the Lok Sabha. In other words, these committees shall stand dissolved upon dissolution of every Lok
Sabha and shall be reconstituted upon constitution of each Lok Sabha

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Q 58.C

Statement 1 is correct: Article 243 H states that the Legislature of a State may, by law, (a) authorise a
Panchayat to levy, collect and appropriate such taxes, duties, tolls and fees in accordance with such
procedure and subject to such limits; (b) assign to a Panchayat such taxes, duties, tolls and fees levied and
collected by the State Government for such purposes and subject to such conditions and limits; (c) provide
for making such grants in aid to the Panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of the State; and (d) provide
for constitution of such Funds for crediting all moneys received, respectively, by or on behalf of the
Panchayats and also for the withdrawal of such moneys therefrom, as may be specified in the law.
Statement 2 is correct: The Central Finance Commission can also suggest the measures needed to
augment the consolidated fund of a state to supplement the resources of the panchayats in the states (on
the basis of the recommendations made by the finance commission of the state.

Q 59.D

Statement 1 is correct: It decides the disputes regarding the election of the president and the vice-
president. In this regard, it has the original, exclusive and final authority.
Statement 2 is correct: It enquires into the conduct and behaviour of the chairman and members of the
Union Public Service Commission on a reference made by the president. If it finds them guilty of
misbehaviour, it can recommend to the president for their removal. The advice tendered by the Supreme
Court in this regard is binding on the President.
Statement 3 is correct: It is authorised to withdraw the cases pending before the high courts and dispose
them by itself. It can also transfer a case or appeal pending before one high court to another high court.

Q 60.A

Kerala Government has launched Kochi Water Metro project, the first ever Water Metro project in India.
The project aims to provide water connectivity to people living between islands in the Kochi
agglomeration area and the city.
The Water Metro, being developed as one of the fastest means of transport, will help people commute
easily to hubs which generate employment.
The Indo-German Bilateral Cooperation, under the 'Climate Friendly Urban Mobility Plan', will finance
the project.

Q 61.D

Statement 1 is correct: The members of the committee are elected from both Lok Sabha and Rajya
Sabha. Every year from amongst its members according to the principle of proportional representation by
means of the single transferable vote. Thus, all parties get due representation in it. It consists of 22
members (15 from the LS and 7 from RS).The members are elected by the Parliament .
Statement 2 correct: A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee.
Statement 3 is correct: The function of the committee is to examine the annual audit reports of the
comptroller and auditor general of India (CAG), which are laid before the Parliament by the
president. The committee examines public expenditure not only from legal and formal point of view to
discover technical irregularities but also from the point of view of economy, prudence, wisdom and
propriety to bring out the cases of waste, loss, corruption, extravagance, inefficiency and nugatory
expenses. Whereas, the function of the Estimates committee is to examine the estimates included in the
budget and suggest economies in public expenditure only.

Q 62.B

President does not enjoy Parliamentary privileges. Constitution has extended the parliamentary privileges
to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceeding of a house of Parliament or any
of its committees. These include the attorney general of India and Union ministers.

Parliamentary privileges are special rights, immunities and exemptions enjoyed by the two Houses of
Parliament, their committees and their members. They are necessary in order to secure the independence and
effectiveness of their actions. Without these privileges, the Houses can neither maintain their authority,

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 dignity and honour nor can protect their members from any obstruction in the discharge of their parliamentary
responsibilities.

Q 63.A

The function of the Public Accounts Committee is to examine the annual audit reports of the comptroller
and auditor general of India (CAG), which are laid before the Parliament by the President.
The function of the Estimates committee is to examine the estimates included in the budget and suggest
economies in public expenditure.
The functions of the Committee on Public Undertakings includes to examine the reports of the
comptroller and auditor general on public undertakings.

Q 64.D

Statement 1 is correct: The reservation of seats in the Scheduled Areas in every Panchayat shall be in
proportion to the population of the communities for whom reservation is sought to be given under Part IX
of the Constitution. However, the reservation for the Scheduled Tribes shall not be less than one half of
the total number of seats. Further, all seats of Chairpersons of Panchayats at all levels shall be reserved for
the Scheduled Tribes.
Statement 2 is correct: The recommendations of the Gram Sabha or the Panchayats at the appropriate level
shall be mandatory for grant of prospecting licence or mining lease for minor minerals in the Scheduled
Areas.The prior recommendation of the Gram Sabha or the Panchayats at the appropriate level shall be
mandatory for grant of concession for the exploitation of minor minerals by auction.
Statement 3 is correct.While endowing Panchayats in the Scheduled Areas with such powers and authority
as may be necessary to enable them to function as institutions of self-government, a State Legislature shall
ensure that the Panchayats at the appropriate level and the Gram Sabha are endowed specifically with
(i) the power to enforce prohibition or to regulate or restrict the sale and consumption of any intoxicant
(ii) the ownership of minor forest produce (iii) the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled
Areas and to take appropriate action to restore any unlawfully alienated land of a Scheduled Tribe (iv) the
power to manage village markets (v) the power to exercise control over money lending to the Scheduled
Tribes (vi) the power to exercise control over institutions and functionaries in all social sectors (vii) the
power to control local plans and resources for such plans including tribal sub-plans

Q 65.D

Madhya Pradesh has become the first State in the country to set up a 'Happiness Department'. It will work
to ensure "happiness in the lives of the common people" on the lines of the neighbouring country Bhutan.
The newly-constituted department will give suggestions to ensure happiness in the lives of the people. The
State Government believes that happiness will not come into the lives of people merely with materialistic
possessions or development but by infusing positivity in their lives so that they dont take extreme
steps like suicide.

Q 66.D

Article 61 in the Indian Constitution provides a procedure for removal of President.

According to this article President can only be removed by an impeachment. And the only reason for
impeachment mentioned in the Constitution is for 'violation of the Constitution.'

Impeachment Procedure:

The charges for impeachment should be signed by 1/4 members of the house in which the process begins
and a notice of 14 days should be given to the President.
The impeachment bill has to be passed by majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of
the House {special majority}.
Once passed in that house, the bill reaches to another house, which shall investigate the charges. President
has right to appear and be represented in case of such investigations.
If other house also sustains those charges, then it would again need to pass the bill by special majority and
thus president stands removed from the office on which the bill is passed in other house. Since it is a bill
for removal of president himself, no presidential assent is needed here.
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Q 67.C

Articles 239 to 241 in Part VIII of the Constitution deal with the union territories.
Statement 1 is correct: The Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists (including the
State List) for the union territories. This power of Parliament also extends to Puducherry and Delhi, which
have their own local legislatures. This means that, the legislative power of Parliament for the union
territories on subjects of the State List remain unaffected even after establishing a local legislature for
them. But, the legislative assembly of Puducherry can also make laws on any subject of the State List and
the Concurrent List. Similarly, the legislative assembly of Delhi can make laws on any subject of the State
List (except public order, police and land) and the Concurrent List.
Statement 2 is correct: The Parliament can establish a high court for a union territory or put it under the
jurisdiction of the high court of adjacent state. Delhi is the only union territory that has a high court of its
own (since 1966).

Q 68.B

Statement 1 is correct: A municipal corporation has three authorities, namely, the council, the standing
committees and the commissioner. The Council is the deliberative and legislative wing of the corporation.
It consists of the Councillors directly elected by the people, as well as a few nominated persons having
knowledge or experience of municipal administration.
Statement 2 is not correct: It is an entirely nominated body, that is, all the members of a notified area
committee including the chairman are nominated by the state government. It is neither an elected body nor
a statutory body.
Statement 3 is correct. A cantonment board consists of partly elected and partly nominated members. The
elected members hold office for a term of five years while the nominated members (i.e., ex-officio
members) continue so long as they hold the office in that station.

Q 69.D

Declaration of Scheduled Areas ( Vth Schedule): The President is empowered to declare an area to be a
scheduled area. He can also increase or decrease its area, alter its boundary lines, rescind such designation
or make fresh orders for such redesignation on an area in consultation with the governor of the state
concerned.

Q 70.B

Statement 1 is correct: Article 257(3) states that The executive power of the Union shall also extend to
the giving of directions to a State as to the measures to be taken for the protection of the railways within
the State. Proviso under Article 257(2) states that that nothing in this clause shall be taken as restricting
the power of Parliament to declare highways or waterways to be national highways or national waterways
so declared or the power of the Union to construct and maintain means of communication as part of its
functions with respect to naval, military and air force works.
Statement 2 is not correct: Article 257(2) states that the executive power of the Union shall also extend
to the giving of directions to a State as to the construction and maintenance of means of communication
declared in the direction to be of national or military importance (not commercial importance)
Statement 3 is not correct: Article 339(2) states that The executive power of the Union shall extend to
the giving of directions to a State as to the drawing up and execution of schemes specified in the direction
to be essential for the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes in the State( and not Scheduled Castes).

Q 71.B

Statement 1 is not correct: The judges of the Supreme Court are provided with the Security of Tenure.
They can be removed from office by the President only in the manner and on the grounds mentioned in
the Constitution. This means that they do not hold their office during the pleasure of the President, though
they are appointed by him.
Statement 2 is correct. The retired judges of the Supreme Court are prohibited from pleading or acting in
any Court or before any authority within the territory of India. This ensures that they do not favour any
one in the hope of future favour

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Q 72.A

Aquila- is the solar-powered plane/drone designed to beam internet to remote parts of the world. It has
been created by Facebook. It is a solar-powered airplane that can be used to bring affordable internet to
hundreds of millions of people in the hardest-to-reach places.
When complete, Aquila will be able to circle a region up to 60 miles in diameter, beaming connectivity
down from an altitude of more than 60,000 feet using laser communications and millimeter wave systems.

Q 73.B

Based on the report of the Sarkaria Commission on Centre-state Relations (1988), the Supreme Court in
Bommai case (1994) enlisted the situations where the exercise of power under Article 356 could be proper
or improper.
Statement 2 is correct: Imposition of Presidents Rule in a state would be proper, where after general
elections to the assembly, no party secures a majority, that is, Hung Assembly.
The imposition of President's Rule in a state would be improper under the following situations:
Where a ministry resigns or is dismissed on losing majority support in the assembly and the Governor
recommends imposition of Presidents Rule without probing the possibility of forming an alternative
ministry. (Statement 1 is not correct)
Maladministration in the state (Statement 3 is not correct) or allegations of corruption (Statement 4
is not correct) against the ministry or stringent financial exigencies of the state.

Q 74.B

The Red Corridor is a region in the east of India that experiences considerable NaxaliteMaoist
insurgency. The 106 districts that span 10 States Bihar, Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra,
Odisha, Telangana, West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Chhattisgarh are described as
those affected by Left Wing Extremism (LWE) and constitute the Red Corridor.

Q 75.A

The appointment, posting and promotion of district judges in a state are made by the governor of the state
in consultation with the high court.
A person to be appointed as district judge should have the following qualifications: (a) He should not
already be in the service of the Central or the state government. (b) He should have been an advocate or a
pleader for seven years. (c) He should be recommended by the high court for appointment.

Q 76.B

National Automotive Testing and R&D Infrastructure Project (NATRiP), the largest and one of the most
significant initiatives in Automotive sector. It represents a unique joining of hands between the
Government of India, a number of State Governments and Indian Automotive Industry to create a state of
the art Testing, Validation and R&D infrastructure in the country.
The Project aims at creating core global competencies in Automotive sector in India and facilitate
seamless integration of Indian Automotive industry with the world as also to position the country
prominently on the global automotive map.

Q 77.A

Statement 1 is correct: The Jnanpith Award recognises literateurs who write in any one of the 22 Indian
languages listed in the Schedule Eight of the Indian Constitution.
Statement 2 is not correct: The nomination and award is decided by the Bhartiya Jnanpith foundation.

Q 78.B

Pair 1 is not matched correctly: The New Horizons mission aims to understand worlds at the edge of our
solar system by making the first reconnaissance of the dwarf planet Pluto and by venturing deeper into the
distant, mysterious Kuiper Belt - a relic of solar system formation.
Kuiper belt is flat ring of icy small bodies that revolve around the Sun beyond the orbit of the planet
Neptune. It comprises hundreds of millions of objects-presumed to be leftovers from the formation of the
16 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
 outer planets-whose orbits lie close to the plane of the solar system. The Kuiper belt is thought to be the
source of most of the observed short-period comets, particularly those that orbit the Sun in less than 20
years.
Pair 2 is matched correctly: NASA's Juno spacecraft aims to:
To understand the origin and evolution of Jupiter.
Investigate the existence of a solid planetary core.
Map Jupiter's intense magnetic field,
Measure the amount of water and ammonia in the deep atmosphere and
Observe the planet's aurora
Pair 3 is matched correctly: European Space Agency's LISA Pathfinder mission has demonstrated the
technology needed to build a space-based gravitational wave observatory. LISA would be the first
dedicated space-based gravitational wave detector. It aims to measure gravitational waves directly by
using laser interferometry. As a prelude to the massive LISA mission, the smaller LISA Pathfinder was
launched by ESA in 2015

Q 79.C

Statement 1 is not correct: In case of a conflict between the Central law and the state law on a subject
enumerated in the Concurrent List, the Central law prevails over the state law. But, there is an exception.
If the state law has been reserved for the consideration of the president and has received his assent, then
the state law prevails in that state. But, it would still be competent for the Parliament to override such a
law by subsequently making a law on the same matter.
Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution expressly secures the predominance of the Union List over the
State List and the Concurrent List and that of the Concurrent List over the State List. Thus, in case of
overlapping between the Union List and the State List, the former should prevail. In case of overlapping
between the Union List and the Concurrent List, it is again the former which should prevail. Where there
is a conflict between the Concurrent List and the State List, it is the former that should prevail.
Statement 3 is not correct: The bills on certain matters ( and not all matters) in the State List can be
introduced in the State Legislature only with the previous sanction of the President (For example bills
imposing restriction on freedom of trade & commerce)

Q 80.D

The United Nations World Health Organization (WHO) has announced the elimination of yaws, and
maternal and neonatal tetanus in India. India is the first country under the 2012 WHO neglected tropical
diseases (NTD) roadmap to eliminate yaws, a disease known to affect the most underserved population.
In January 2016, India completed five years of being polio-free. The last case of polio in the country was
reported from Howrah district in West Bengal on January 13, 2011.

Q 81.B

Statement 1 is not correct: The Supreme Court is authorised to grant in its discretion special leave to
appeal from any judgement in any matter passed by any court or tribunal in the country except military
tribunal and court martial.
Statement 2 is correct: It is a discretionary power and hence, cannot be claimed as a matter of right.
Statement 3 is not correct: It can be granted in any judgement whether final or interlocutory

Q 82.D

Statement 1 is correct: A state legislature can make laws for the whole or any part of the state. The laws
made by a state legislature are not applicable outside the state, except when there is a sufficient nexus
between the state and the object.
Statement 2 is correct: The Parliament can make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India.
The territory of India includes the states, the union territories, and any other area for the time being
included in the territory of India.
Statement 3 is correct: The Parliament alone can make 'extra-territorial legislation'. Thus, the laws of the
Parliament are also applicable to the Indian citizens and their property in any part of the world. These
laws cannot be held invalid on the ground that it would have extra-territorial operation.

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Q 83.D

Antrix Corporation Limited (Antrix), incorporated on 28 September 1992 (under the Companies Act,
1956), is a wholly owned Government of India Company under the administrative control of Department
of Space (DOS). Antrix is the commercial arm of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). Antrix
promotes and commercially markets the products and services emanating from the Indian Space
Programme.
In the year 2008, the Company was awarded MINIRATNA status. The current business activities of
Antrix include: a) Provisioning of communication satellite transponders to various users, b) Providing
launch services for customer satellites, c) Marketing of data from Indian and foreign remote sensing
satellites, d) Building and marketing of satellites as well as satellite sub-systems, e) Establishing ground
infrastructure for space applications, and f) Mission support services for satellites.

Q 84.A

Statement 1 is correct: Article 124 of the constitution provides only two grounds for the removal of the
judges of Supreme Court i.e. proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
Statement 2 is not correct: The consultation with the Chief Justice of India is not required before the
introduction of the motion for removal of the judge of the Supreme Court.
Statement 3 is not correct: The motion must be supported by a special majority of each House of
Parliament (ie, a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds
of the members of that House present and voting)

Q 85.C

Department of Economic Affairs prepares the Budget. Public Accounts includes provident fund deposits,
judicial deposits, savings bank deposits, departmental deposits, remittances and so on. This account is
operated by executive action, that is, the payments from this account can by made without parliamentary
appropriation. Such payments are mostly in the nature of banking transactions. So only second statement
is correct.

Q 86.C

The President elections is held with the system of proportional representation by means of single
transferable vote and the voting is by secret ballot.The Election Commission of India ( Article 324) is
vested with the power of superintendence, direction and control of conducting the elections to the offices
of the President and Vice-President of India.
Statement 1 is correct: he legislative Councils have no role in electing the President. The President shall
be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of - (a) The elected members of both Houses
of Parliament and (b) The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States (including
National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Pondicherry vide the Constitution 70th
amendment Act, 1992).
Statement 2 is correct: Article 71 stipulates that all doubts arising out of election of the president will be
decided by the Supreme Court whose decision is final. Therefore Supreme Court of India is the only
authority to try an election petition regarding Presidents election and declare the elections as void.

Q 87.A

Statement 1 is correct: The President shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or
remission of punishment or to suspend remit or commute the sentence of any persons convicted of any
offence against a Central law. Since central law can be on either on union list or concurrent list hence
pardoning power of Presidents extends to Union and Concurrent list.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Governor shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or
remission of punishment or to suspend remit or commute the sentence of any persons convicted of any
offence against a state law. Since state law can be on either on state list or concurrent list hence pardoning
power of governor extends to state and Concurrent list.

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Q 88.D

Statement 1 is not correct: As per Article 155 and Article 156 of the Constitution, a Governor of a state
is an appointee of the President, and he or she holds office during the pleasure of the President. If a
Governor continues to enjoy the pleasure of the President, he or she can be in office for a term of five
years. Because the President is bound to act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers under
Article 74 of the Constitution, in effect it is the central government that appoints and removes the
Governors. Pleasure of the President merely refers to this will and wish of the central government.
Statement 2 is not correct: In 2010, a constitutional bench of the Supreme Court interpreted these
provisions and laid down some binding principles (B.P. Singhal v. Union of India). In this case, the
newly elected central government had removed the Governors of Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, Haryana and
Goa in July, 2004 after the 14th Lok Sabha election. When these removals were challenged, the Supreme
Court held:
The President, in effect the central government, has the power to remove a Governor at any time
without giving him or her any reason, and without granting an opportunity to be heard.
However, this power cannot be exercised in an arbitrary, capricious or unreasonable manner. The
power of removing Governors should only be exercised in rare and exceptional circumstances for
valid and compelling reasons.
The mere reason that a Governor is at variance with the policies and ideologies of the central
government, or that the central government has lost confidence in him or her, is not sufficient to
remove a Governor. Thus, a change in central government cannot be a ground for removal of
Governors, or to appoint more favourable persons to this post.
A decision to remove a Governor can be challenged in a court of law. In such cases, first the petitioner
will have to make a prima facie case of arbitrariness or bad faith on part of the central government. If
a prima facie case is established, the court can require the central government to produce the materials
on the basis of which the decision was made in order to verify the presence of compelling reasons.

Q 89.C

Statement 1 is correct: Council of ministers is a constitutional body, dealt in detail by the Articles 74
and 75 of the Constitution. Its size and classification are, however, not mentioned in the Constitution. Its
size is determined by the Prime Minister according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of the
situation. The word 'Cabinet' was inserted in Article 352 of the Constitution in 1978 by the 44th
Constitutional Amendment Act. Also, Article 352 only defines the cabinet saying that it is the council
consisting of the prime minister and other ministers of cabinet rank appointed under Article 75 and
does not describe its powers and functions.
Statement 2 is not correct: Council of ministers functions' are determined by the cabinet. It implements
the decisions taken by the cabinet. Cabinet exercises, in practice, the powers of the council of ministers
and thus, acts for the latter.Cabinet directs the council of ministers by taking policy decisions which are
binding on all ministers. It supervises the implementation of its decisions by the council of ministers.
Statement 3 is correct: Council of ministers(CoM) includes all the three categories of ministers, that is,
cabinet ministers, ministers of state, and deputy ministers whereas, Cabinet includes the cabinet
ministers only. But it is a part of the council of ministers

Q 90.D

Twelfth Schedule It contains the following 18 functional items placed within the purview of municipalities:

Urban planning including town planning;

Regulation of land use and construction of buildings;
Planning for economic and social development;
Roads and bridges;
Water supply for domestic, industrial and commercial purposes;
Public health, sanitation, conservancy and solid waste management;
Fire services;
Urban forestry, protection of the environment and promotion of ecological aspects;
Safeguarding the interests of weaker sections of society, including the handicapped and mentally retarded;
Slum improvement and upgradation;
Urban poverty alleviation;
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 Provision of urban amenities and facilities such as parks, gardens, playgrounds;
Promotion of cultural, educational and aesthetic aspects;
Burials and burial grounds, cremations and cremation grounds and electric crematoriums;
Cattle ponds, prevention of cruelty to animals;
Vital statistics including registration of births and deaths;
Public amenities including street lighting, parking lots, bus stops and public conveniences; and
Regulation of slaughter houses and tanneries.

Q 91.B

Special majority are of 4 types, with different clauses.

Type 1 - Special Majority as Per Article 249 - To pass the Rajya Sabha resolution to empower the
parliament to make laws in state list (valid upto 1 year, but can be extended any number of times) requires
a majority of 2/3rd members present and voting only.
Type 2 - Special Majority as per Article 368 requires a majority of 2/3rd members present and voting
supported by more than 50% of the total strength of the house. This type of majority is used for most
of the Constitution amendment bills.
Type 3 - Special Majority as per Article 368 + 50 percent state ratification by simple majority i.e. Special
majority as per article 368 plus state ratification requires a majority of 2/3rd members present and
voting supported by more than 50% of the state legislatures by a simple majority. This type of
special majority is required when a constitutional amendment bill try to change the federal structure.
Type 4 - Special Majority as per Article 61 requires a majority of 2/3rd members of the total strength of
the house e.g . Impeachment of the President.

Q 92.D

Governor lays the reports of : State Finance Commission; State Public Service Commission; Reports of
CAG relating to state before the state legislature; Annual financial statement(State budget) is laid before
the state legislature.

Q 93.A

Statement 1 is correct: The high court can issue writs to any person, authority and government not only
within its territorial jurisdiction but also outside its territorial jurisdiction if the cause of action arises
within its territorial jurisdiction.
Statement 2 is correct: In the Chandra Kumar case (1997), the Supreme Court ruled that the writ
jurisdiction of both the high court and the Supreme Court constitute a part of the basic structure of the
Constitution. Hence, it cannot be ousted or excluded even by way of an amendment to the Constitution.
Statement 3 is not correct: The writ jurisdiction of the high court is wider than that of the Supreme Court.
This is because, the Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights and not
for any other purpose, that is, it does not extend to a case where the breach of an ordinary legal right is
alleged.

Q 94.D

Speaker of the Loksabha or the Chairperson of the Rajyasabha heads following committees:

Business Advisory Committee

General Purpose Committee
Rules Committee

Q 95.B

A 'mixed site' exhibits qualities of both natural and cultural significance.

The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO), has added Sikkim's
Khangchendzonga National Park (KNP) and Chandigarh' Capitol Complex in its list of World Heriatge
Sites.

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 Khangchendzonga National Park (KNP) in Sikkim has been named a world heritage site by the World
Heritage Committee (WHC) of UNESCO. It is the first 'mixed' heritage site from India to make it to the
list.
The Khangchendzonga National Park exhibits one of the widest altitudinal ranges of any protected area
worldwide. It covers 25 per cent of Sikkim, is home to a significant number of endemic, rare and
threatened plant and animal species. The park combines the religious and cultural practices of Buddhism
as well as the ecological significance of the region, and stands out as an outstanding example of traditional
knowledge and environmental preservation. It is also a unique example of coexistence and exchange
between different religious traditions and people.

Q 96.D

Kerala Government has proposed a "Fat Tax" on fast food items like burgers, pizzas, donuts and pasta etc.
served in branded restaurants in a bid to discourage the junk food culture.
The revised state budget for 2016-17 expects the Fat tax will add an additional Rs.10 crore to the state
coffers. The fat taxs major concern is with issues related to public health more than revenue generation.

Q 97.B

The Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA) is an intergovernmental organization located at The

Hague in the Netherlands. The PCA is not a court, but rather an organiser of arbitral tribunals to resolve
conflicts between member states. It should not be confused with the International Court of Justice, a
separate institution.
The court was established in 1899 by the first Hague Peace Conference. It was first permanent
organization to solve international disputes through arbitration.
India is a member country of PCA.
It was in news due to Italian marine, Salvatore Girone, facing a murder charge in India.

Q 98.B

The eleventh edition of the Asia-Europe Meeting Summit (ASEM11) or ASEM2016 issued Ulaanbaatar
Declaration.
The declaration has reaffirmed ASEM's commitment for greater partnership through informal political
dialogue and initiatives in economic and socio-cultural fields. It also has expressed its commitment for
united fight against terrorism and violent extremism.

Q 99.D

Statement 1 is not correct: A proclamation declaring financial emergency must be approved by both the
Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue by a simple majority.
Statement 2 is not correct: Once approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the Financial Emergency
continues indefinitely till it is revoked.
Statement 3 is not correct: No use of Financial Emergency (Article 360) has ever been made.

Q 100.C

Report on animal and plant discoveries 2015 was released by Ministry of environment and climate
change.
As per report around 400 new species got added in the list of newly discovered species (both fauna and
flora).
The highest number of new species were reported from Eastern Himalaya region (19%) followed by
Western Ghats (18%) and Andaman and Nicobar islands(155).

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