CLS PREPARATION CLASS

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
 Bearings
B1
What are the three main functions of bearings?
.
B2
Name four functions of a bearing lubricant.

B3
What are five things to find out before selecting a bearing lubricant?
.
B4
What are two types of sliding type (plain) bearing?

B5
List three design features incorporated into sliding bearings to aid lubrication.

B6
What are five desirable characteristics of a journal bearing lubricant?

B7
The orientation of oil grooves in fluid-film journal bearings falls into two main categories.
What are they?

B8
Channels are placed ______ _____ _____ _____ _____ in order to maintain the load carrying
ability of plain bearings.

B9
What are three advantages that plain bearings have over anti-friction bearings?

B10
What are three advantages that anti-friction bearings have over plain bearings?

Q B11
Where would anti-friction bearings be used where plain bearings would not be used?

Q B12
What is a Kingsbury thrust bearing?
Q B13
What are five types of rolling element bearings?

Q B14
Name four parts of a rolling element bearing.

Q B15
What are the five dimensions of a rolling element bearing?

Q B16
Where there are two anti-friction bearings on a shaft, one should be ________ and the other
should be _______.

Q B17
What are the relative strengths and weaknesses of ball versus roller bearings?

Q B18
Approximately what percentage of bearings fail prematurely?

Q B19
What are six causes of failures in babbitted bearings?

Q B20
What causes the eventual failure of a well-installed and lubricated anti-friction bearing?

Q B21
What is False Brinelling?

Q B22
What is Brinelling?

Q B23
__________ Brinell and above have a tendency to show destructive pitting (spalling).

Q B24
What is spalling?

Q B25
A sintered (also called porous or impregnated) metal bearing can contain up to ____% liquid
lubricant impregnated between the metal pores.
Q B28
Various means are used to lubricate large bearings. What physical characteristics are
incorporated into bearing assemblies to assure adequate lubrication?

Q B29
What does a lubrication chain do in a bearing assembly?

Q B30
What is a bearing shield?

Q B31
What are the advantages of a chamfered oil groove in a bearing?

Q B32
What are four benefits of lubricating a bearing with grease?

Q B33
What are four benefits of lubricating a bearing with oil rather than grease?

Q B34
What are four common causes of bearing failure?

Q B35
What do the following noises sometimes signify in faulty bearing applications?
1. Low pitched noise
2. High pitched whine
3. Rattle
4. Low rumble.
5. Marbles rolling around.

Q B36
Name two good methods to heat a bearing for installation.

Q B37
What is the chain reaction caused by abrasive wear?

Q B38
The operating or dynamic clearance of a bearing depends upon the __________ and lubricant
______________.

Q B39
What is meant by the rated life of a bearing?
Q B40
What are two ways to remove a bearing from a shaft without damaging it or the shaft?

Q B41
An__________________________ may be used to aid in mounting roller bearings.

Q B42
The outer race of a bearing should show normal wear in the _______ half of the race.

Q B43
_________ _________ in the bearing case occurs when the shaft simply pushes the oil around
within the internal clearances of the bearing.
 Fluid Conductors
Q CON1
What does the term fluid conductors mean in relation to a hydraulic system?

Q CON2
What is the most important characteristic of fluid Conductors?

Q CON3
For maximum efficiency, fluid conductors should have what two characteristics?

Q CON4
Name four factors that may cause turbulent flow in fluid conductors.

Q CON5
Would you increase or decrease the velocity of a hydraulic fluid to reduce turbulent flow?

Q CON6
Name three negative results of turbulent flow.

Q CON7
What is the preferred fluid conductor material?

Q CON8
Where are flexible lines necessary?

Q CON9
What is flexible hose normally made of?

Q CON10
Name the three grades of flexible hose.

Q CON11
Name five precautions to follow when using flexible hose.

Q CON12
Name four types of fittings used in industrial hydraulic systems.

Q CON13
How can the number of fittings be reduced?
Q CON14
How much straight length of tube must be allowed from the end of the tube to the start of the
bend when installing hydraulic tubing?

Q CON15
Name four possible problems that can be avoided by the use of tube bending equipment.

Q CON16
Why is it important to use as few fittings as possible?

Q CON17
What can be done to reduce the possibility of tubing fatigue?

Q CON18
Name five methods of cleaning pipes, tubes and fittings prior to assembly of a hydraulic
system.

Q CON19
When filling a hydraulic system with hydraulic fluid, what mesh screen is recommended?

Q CON20
How can air in hydraulic lines be eliminated?

Q CON21
What type of chemical is used in pickling?

Q CON22
What must be done to stop the pickling process?

Q CON23
When the pickling process is completed, what is the next step?

Q CON25
Why does the burst pressure of a Schedule 40 pipe decrease as the ID increases?

Q CON 26
What are three primary advantages of tubing over piping?

Q CON27
List three types of fluid conductors.

Q
CON28
A properly designed piping system will have feed lines operating at _______ to _______ FPS,
return lines at ______ to ______ FPS, and suction lines to the pump at ______ to ______ FPS.

Q
CON29
Piping selection is based on ___________, which is measured in FPS.
Q CON30

Piping must be large enough to prevent ________ in the pump suction lines
 Fluid Conditioning
Q FC1
What are four sources of ingressed contamination?

Q FC2
What is ISO 4406?

Q FC3
What does ISO 16/14 mean?

Q FC4
What is a beta ratio?

Q FC5
What does 3200 mean?

Q FC6
What is a graded pore filter?

Q FC7
What is more effective, a fixed pore or a non-fixed pore filter?

Q FC8
The three forms of water in lube oil are _______, _______, and _______.

Q FC9
Name at least three negative effects the presence of water will have on the properties of a
lubricant.

Q FC10
How does emulsification of water affect a lubricants viscosity?

Q FC11
What is the smallest dot that most people (under age 40) can see with the naked eye?

Q FC12
Other than continuous filtering, what are other options that can be used to clean up systems that
tend to get contaminated?

Q FC13
What are three types of filter ratings?
Q FC14
Give recommended beta ratios for ball bearings, roller bearings and industrial gear boxes.

Q FC16
What are two primary objectives to consider when selecting a filter?
Q FC17
What are the two most important numbers that indicate the capacity of a filter?

Q FC18
What are the three major categories of component failure?

Q FC19
Clearance sized particles have what three effects on valves?
 Fluid Power
Q FP1
Draw and label a typical hydraulic system schematic.

Q FP2
Name the components of a hydraulic reservoir.

Q FP5
What are the five steps for flushing a new hydraulic system?

Q FP6
What are some advantages of oil mist lubrication?

Q FP3
Name three types of positive displacement pumps.

Q FP4
Name four sources (not types) of contamination in a hydraulic system.

Q FP7
Hydraulic systems generally required fluid to be filtered through ______ to _____ micron
filters.

Q FP8
Name three factors that favor hydrodynamic lubrication.

Q FP9
Name four desirable properties of dielectric oils commonly used in aerial lift devices (also
called cherry pickers or bucket trucks).

Q FP10
How is it possible to change the flow rate of a pump?

Q FP11
What are good locations for filters and strainers in a hydraulic system?

Q FP12
Name four types of fire resistant hydraulic fluids.

Q FP13
What elastomers are compatible with phosphate ester hydraulic fluids?
Q FP14
Pumps work of the principle of ________ volume at suction side and _________ volume at
pressure side.

Q FP15
List three disadvantages of water-glycol FR fluids.

Q FP17
What is the hydraulic system schematic symbol for a pressure relief valve?

Q FP18
What is the most hydraulic system schematic symbol for two working lines that cross and
connect?

Q FP19
What is the hydraulic system schematic symbol for flexible lines?

Q FP20
What is the hydraulic system schematic symbol for a pump?

Q FP 21
What id the hydraulic system schematic symbol for a filter or strainer?

Q FP22
Which type of hydraulic pump produces the greatest pressure?

Q
FP23
Name two types of hydraulic actuators and what type of motion they have.

Q FP24
What is the purpose of baffles in a hydraulic reservoir?

Q FP25
Most centrifugal pumps have a _________ and a _______ bearing.
 Gears
Q G1
Name five types of gear designs.

Q G2
________________ gears have curved angled teeth that transmit motion between parallel
shafts.

Q G3
____________ gears have straight cut teeth and transmit motion between parallel shafts.

Q G4
______ gears have cone shaped shafts and transmit motion between shafts at right angles.

Q G5
Helical gears are not preferred to spur gears because they create____________________.

Q G6
Name the main advantage that double helical (or herringbone) gears have over single helical
gears.

Q G7
In general, worm gears should be lubricated with oils of ______ viscosity than spur and helical
gears. Why?

Q G8
Name the type of gear that is able to product the largest decrease in speed and the largest
increase in torque.

Q G9
What type of gear typically uses bronze as its material?

Q G10
What are four functions of gears?

Q G11
Name five gear failure modes.
Q G12
What are three factors (or conditions) that affect gear life?

Q G13
What destructive forces lead to plastic flow in gears?

Q G14
What generally causes gear tooth breakage due to fatigue?

Q G15
The gear tooth dedendum (below the pitch line) will generally show initial pitting. True or
False.

Q G16
Name four methods that gear manufacturers use to improve surface durability (decrease
pitting).

Q G17
Name two immediate effects of overfilling a gearbox.

Q G18
If you wanted to use only two gear lubricants for an entire plant, what two would you pick and
where would they be used?

Q G19
What type of lubricant should be used in a gear box that contains a hypoid gear set?

Q G20
Name five gear oil additives.

Q G21
Why are EP additives not particularly effective with steel in contact with metals such as brass,
bronze, babbitt, or aluminum?

Q G22
Name three types of open gear lubricants.

Q G23
What are some of the effects of using gear oil whose viscosity is too low?

Q G24
What form of scoring on gears is worse galling or scuffing?
 Fluid Analysis
Q FA1
Name ten test methods used to evaluate oils.

Q FA2
Name ten grease tests.

Q FA3
After running a demulsibility test, the results were recorded as 40/40/0. What does this mean?

Q FA4
What industry group sets standards for the following products? Lubricants in general, gear oils,
engine oils, grease, and industrial oils.

Q FA5
Name five terms used to report viscosity.

Q FA6
How is absolute viscosity measured?

Q FA7
How is kinematic viscosity measured?

.
Q FA8
Viscosity Index is calculated from viscosities measured at what temperatures?

Q FA9
An AGMA 5 gear oil is approximately what ISO VG? SAE gear oil grade? SAE engine oil
grade?

Q FA10
The change in neutralization number of industrial lube oil in service is useful for monitoring
what property of the oil?

Q FA11
How is neutralization number expressed? What does it signify?

Q FA12
Name three oxidation tests.
Q FA13
What does RBOT stand for?

Q FA14
What is flash point?

Q FA15
Name three flash point tests?

Q FA16
What is fire point?

Q FA17
Emission spectroscopy cannot detect particles in lubricating oil greater than _____ microns in
size.

Q FA18
What type of analysis measures wavelength absorbance by water, hydrocarbons, oxidation
products, nitration products, and glycol?

Q FA19
Name two methods of measuring water in oil.

Q FA20
What is the difference between the static and dynamic demulsibility test?

Q FA21
What does a water washout test measure?

Q FA 22

What is the Dropping Point test?

Q FA23
What is BS&W?

Q FA24
What test would be used to detect nitration in gas engine oil?

Q FA25
What is the Timken OK Load test?

Q FA 26
What is copper strip corrosion?
Q FA27
What test is performed on electrical insulating oils to determining their suitability for continued
use?

Q FA28
What is pH? Why is a pH test generally not run on lubricating oils?
Q FA29
What on-site test can be performed on water-based hydraulic fluids or metalworking coolants
to check water content?

Q FA 30
What are Conradson and Ramsbottom carbon.

Q FA31
What does a panel coker test measure?

Q FA33
When is the best time to take a sample for oil analysis?

Q FA34
A4-Ball EP Load Wear Index Test result of 56 would indicate what level of EP performance:
None, mild or high?

Q FA35
When taking a sample from a valve in a system, you must first_____________ the valve and
then ______________ it before taking the sample.
 Lubricant Fundamentals
Q LF1
What does ASTM stand for?

Q LF2
What does STLE stand for?

Q LF3
What is tribology?

Q LF4
What is lubrication?

Q LF5
What is hydrodynamic lubrication?

Q LF6
What is mixed film lubrication?

Q LF7
What is boundary lubrication?

Q LF8
What does EHL stand for, and how does it work?

Q LF9
What is the primary function of a lubricant?
What are five secondary functions?

Q LF10
Name three types (physical phases) of lubricant films.

Q LF11
Improper lubrication contributes to approximately ________ percent of machine failures.

Q LF12
One inch approximately = ________ microns
25 microns approximately = ____________ inch

Q LF13
Convert 0.05% to ppm.
Q LF14
What does the abbreviation ISO VG mean?

Q LF15
What is an approximate conversion from cSt at 40C to SSU at 100F?

Q LF16
What are the units of Kinematic viscosity and Absolute viscosity?
Q LF17
What is VI? In most lubricant applications, what is better, high VI or low VI?

Q LF18
As the temperature of a lubricating oil increases, what effect does this have on the oils
viscosity and density?

Q LF19
When pressure increases the viscosity of an oil ________ .

Q LF20
Name the five rights of lubrication.

Q LF21
What is viscosity?

Q LF22
What is friction?

Q LF23
List three harmful effects of friction.

Q LF24
What is the most common type of wear mechanism?

Q LF25
What are asperities?

Q LF26
Name three types of synthetic oils.

Q LF27
What does NLGI mean?

Q LF28
What specifications are unique to grease?
Q LF29
Name three soaps used to thicken oil.

Q LF30
What are three types of thickeners used in greases?

Q LF31
Name the NLGI grades.

Q LF32
What are considered the 3 most basic and important characteristics of grease to consider when
selecting the right grease for an application?

Q LF33
What are H1 lubricants?

Q LF34
What are the three basic types of lubricant films?

Q LF35
What is specific gravity?

Q LF36
How is API gravity calculated from specific gravity?

Q LF 37
The lowest temperature at which oil will flow is known as its___________________________.

Q LF38
What is a squeeze film?

Q LF39
What is DN, and how is it calculated?

Q LF40
When choosing the viscosity of a lubricant for a particular application, the most important
factor to take into account is ________.
Q LF41
In a specific family of lube oils, if a higher flash point is desired, then the ______ of the oil
must be increased.

Q LF42
In general, an oils_____________ should be about 20F below the lowest temperature to
which the fluid will be exposed in service.
Q LF43
Name three elements/compounds used in additives to enhance EP/anti-wear properties of
lubricants.
Q LF44
Name two negative effects that occur if EP additives are too active or in too great a
concentration.

Q LF46
What NLGI consistency grade is a grease with a worked penetration of 320?

Q LF47
What is the most commonly used NLGI grade?

Q LF48
List three grease properties that need to be taken into consideration for high temperature
applications.

Q LF49
List two grease performance capabilities that can be degraded when two incompatible greases
are mixed.

Q LF50
What type of lubricant is described by the following set of specifications? ISO VG = 32; VI =
105; RBOT = 600 minutes; SSW Rust Test = Pass; Neutralization Number = 0.05; 4-Ball wear
scar = 0.8mm.

Q LF51
What type of lubricant is described by the following set of specifications? ISO VG = 68; VI =
48; Pour Point = -35F; Aniline Point = 180F; Water = 10ppm; Cu Corrosion = 1A.

Q LF52
What is the term used to refer to the ability of a grease to restore itself to its original NLGI
grade penetration value after it has been severely worked?

Q LF53
Draw a Stribeck Curve
 Lubricant Manufacturing
Q LM1
What is crude oil and where is it found?

Q LM2
What are the major compositional classifications of crude oil?

Q LM3
How many gallons are in a crude oil barrel?

Q LM4
What is the primary product produced from crude oil?

Q LM5
How is crude oil converted into lubricating oil?

Q LM6
How can the yield of lubricating oil from crude oil be increased?
Q LM7
What does cracking mean?

Q LM8
Name three cracking processes.

Q LM9
What is distillation?

Q LM10
Name four specifications commonly used for base stock?

Q LM11
What are two characteristics of paraffinic stock that makes it a preferred base stock for most
lubricant applications?

Q LM12
What are synthetic base oils?

Q LM13
Lubricants are primarily composed of what?

Q LM14
List 10 additives

Q LM15
What additive reduces thinning of an oil at high temperatures?
Q LM16
If a lubricating oil has a VI of 95, it is probably made with which type of base stock?

Q LM17
Bunker C marine oil is similar to _______ fuel oil
Lubricant Programs
Q LP1
What steps should be taken when changing lubricant suppliers?

Q LP2
What should be the primary source of lubrication recommendations?

Q LP3
What seven items should be listed on a lubrication survey?

Q LP4
Specifications for lubricants should be developed as a cooperative effort between what groups
of people in a company that uses lubricants?

Q LP5
Define Root Cause and how it applies to lubrication.

Q LP6
Define Failure Mode and how it applies to lubrication.

Q LP7
What are the 12 most common lubrication errors?

Q LP8
How might you determine if an oil change interval could be extended?

Q LP9
List five different application intervals that might be listed on a lubrication survey.
Monitoring and Reducing Lubricant Consumption
Q MRC1
Oilers go to each machine regularly. Name three things an oiler can do in addition to
lubricating machines.

Q MRC2
What are ten extra costs incurred when high oil losses are tolerated?

Q MRC3
Name 5 devices for lube applications that are considered ALL LOSS methods.

Q MRC4
Name three oil analysis tests used to determine the level of oil deterioration due to oxidation, or
remaining useful life, for used oil.

Q MRC5
Lubricants should be purchased in ____________ containers to reduce waste.

Q MRC6
Oil Conservation can be divided into three categories. What are they?
 Metalworking
Q MW1
Name three general classifications of fluids used in cutting and grinding.

Q MW2
What two primary functions do cutting fluids perform?

Q MW3
What is the most important characteristic of a soluble oil?

Q MW4
The primary function of a soluble oil emulsion in metalworking is as a ___________.

Q MW5
In order to form a stable emulsion of oil and water, which should be added to which?

Q MW6
Why does hard water make it difficult to form a stable emulsion?

Q MW7
Water with a hardness of more than ______ ppm is considered hard.

Q MW8
List best practices to prevent degradation and odors in oil soluble fluids.

Q MW9
What is the primary problem encountered with bacteria growth in oil emulsions?

Q MW10
What is skimming of metalworking fluids?

Q MW11
Name three advantages of tri-purpose cutting oils.

Q MW12
What material has been used as one of the most effective extreme pressure additives for heavy-
duty cutting?
Q MW13
What is the primary effect on a work-piece of using fatty additives in cutting fluids?

Q MW14
Most EDM processes are performed with the work-piece submerged in a light petroleum fluid
called the ______ fluid.

Q MW15
The ____________ is generally regarded as the primary machine tool and the father of all
others.

Q MW16
What is a slushing oil?

Q MW17
What is the difference between high speed quenching and marquenching?

Q MW18
What are ways to stop a cutting coolant from misting?
 Pneumatics
Q P1
There are two main categories of air compressors; what are they?

Q P2
Name three types of compressors.

Q P3
What is the main advantage that multi-stage compressors have over single stage compressors?

Q P4
Name two key characteristics of all good compressor lubricants.

Q P5
In an oil-flooded rotary screw compressor, what functions does the lubricant perform? Name 3.

Q P6
How do compressors generate water? How do you get rid of it?

Q P7
Why is a dryer or a knockout drum needed in a pneumatic system?

Q P8
What is the difference between a double-acting and a single-acting reciprocating compressor?

Q P9
How is volume and pressure controlled in an axial piston?

Q P10
What is a swashplate?

Q P11
What happens to the temperature of gas as it is compressed?

Q P12
What should all compressors have on intake?

Q P13
What is an FRL?
Q P14
What removes heat generated during compression?

Q P15
What three advantages do rotary vane and rotary screw compressors have over reciprocating
compressors?
 Problem Solving
Q PS1
A rubber return line keeps breaking. What are the possible causes?

Q PS2
A machine operator complains of dermatitis. What are some causes and possible remedies?

Q PS3
An engine oil has thickened considerably. Oil analysis shows elevated levels of sodium and
potassium. What has happened?

Q PS4
A strainer blows out in a hydraulic system. What are some reasons why?

Q PS5
The viscosity of circulating oil has decreased. Name three reasons why this may occur.

Q PS6
The viscosity of circulating oil has increased. Name three reasons why this may occur,
assuming no water is emulsified in the system.

Q PS7
A bearing has failed. After it is removed and cleaned, it was noticed that the cage was dark
blue. What conclusions can you make from the observation?

Q PS8
What are five indicators that a bearing has failed or is getting ready to fail?

Q PS9
As you enter an area where a piece of machinery is being used, what kind of information can be
gathered with the use of your hands, ears, and nose?

Q PS10
What two things can cause a lubricant to appear milky?

Q PS11
Name three factors that can accelerate degradation of a lube oil in
service.
Q PS12
Name three causes of excessive foaming in a circulating oil or hydraulic system.

Q PS13
A simple hydraulic jack consists of a small pump-driven piston used to apply pressure through
a fluid to a large piston that supports a load. How can the size of the load that can be lifted by
the jack be increased?

Q PS14
What needs to be checked if a hydraulic system is running with no work being done, but the oil
temperature in the reservoir continues to increase?

Q PS15
When working on a hydraulic system, once the pumps have locked out, what two things must
be checked before breaking any lines?
 Seals
Q S1
Name two functions of a seal.

Q S2
What is the function of packing?

Q S3
Name three types of seals.

Q S4
Name three types of compression packing.

Q S5
What kind of seal face material would you choose for water? For gasoline? For oil? For acids?

Q S6
Name three materials used for packing binders.

Q S8
What is the function of a positive drive on a seal?

Q S9
Name five types of positive drive designs in seals.

Q S10
What are some special characteristics of fluids that must be considered when choosing a seal?

Q S11
What special operating environment conditions can affect seal choice?

Q S12
What are the ten most important things to find out before specifying a seal?

Q S13
Give some performance advantages of different elastomeric packing materials.

Q S14
What elastomeric seal material is most resistant to degradation by petroleum fluids?
Q S15
Name three seal materials that can be used with synthetic lubricants.

Q S16
What are three types of seals used with journal bearings?

Q S18
What type of face loading on a seal eliminates the need for springs?

Q S19
What is one of the most important functions of a felt packing seal?

Q S20
A seal that keeps oil in is called a ____________ seal.

Q S21
If both retention and exclusion are required, then a _______ seal is required.

Q S22
Which way should a lip seal face to retain lubricant?

Q S24
What are the advantages of mechanical seals compared to lip seals?

Q S26
If zero leakage were required in an application, what kind of seal would you use?

Q S27
Where is the most common area of wear in a pump packing assembly that can allow leakage?

Q S28
To slow excessive leaking of a packing seal, it is necessary to tighten the ______.

Q S29
When a packing seal is leaking the right amount, _______ usually results.

Q S30
What component in a piston assembly is considered a floating packing?

Q S31
What are more effective, shields or seals?
Q S32
What is the most common type of seal?

Q S34
A lip seal forms a tight seal in only __________ ___________.
Storage, Handling, and Application of Lubricants
Q SHA1
What are six important factors to consider in the design of a circulating oil system?

Q SHA2
Name three methods of applying grease.

Q SHA3
Where should baffles be placed in a reservoir in relation to the inlet and suction line in a lube
system?

Q SHA4
In a bulk storage tank, the suction line should be located at least _______ to _______ _______
from the _______ of the tank.

Q SHA5
Name six types of automatic lubricating systems.

Q SHA6
Name the major types of lubricants used in and on machine tools.

Q SHA7
What are some correct ways to store oil drums if they must be stored outside?
 Solvents
Q SO1
What is the flash point range for combustible liquids?

Q SO2
What are the flash point ranges for class I, II and III liquids?

Q SO3
What is perc (or perchloroethylene)?

Q SO4
Name one solvent in each of the following categories: Petroleum solvents, coal tar solvents,
chlorinated solvents, oxygenated solvents.

Q SO5
What is a TLV?

Q SO6
Name three common methods of industrial cleaning.

Q SO7
What property does aniline point and Kauri Butanol test?

Q SO8
What are some important solvent properties?

Q SO9
What is a VOC?

Q SO10
Does a solvent with a mixed aniline point of around 500F have relatively high or low solvency?

Q SO11
What is the difference between an aromatic and aliphatic solvent?

Q SO12
Organic solvents can come from ________ _______ or _______ ______.

Q SO13
A surfactant is defined as a ____________________________
__________________________________________________

Q SO14
Organic solvents used for maintenance cleaning can be classified as _________, __________,
and ____________.
Q SO15
How do toxic materials enter the body?

Q SO16
Name three components of the fire triangle, or, what three things are necessary for
combustion to occur?

Q SO17
Why are VOCs being phased out?

Q SO18
What is the fastest growing type of maintenance cleaning?

Q SO19
How should you dispose of spent (used) cleaning solvents?
Q SO20
Name two solvents that are potential depleters of the ozone layer under the international
Montreal protocol.
 Transportation Lubricants
Q T1
List the designations for the top performance level in the NLGI automotive classifications
system for chassis and wheel bearing greases.

Q T2
What is a quick field test used to measure detergency and dispersancy of used internal
combustion engine oils?

Q T3
What are the words that are found on the ILSAC (API) starburst?

Q T4
What are the three designations found on the API donut?

Q T5
What are the most current API service classifications?

Q T6
An SAE 30 engine oil is approximately __________cSt or _____ SSU.

Q T7
What is the primary difference between Ford, Chrysler and GM automatic transmission fluids?

Q T8
What do the S in SJ and the C in CF-4 stand for?

Q T9
What does the W signify in 10W-30?

Q T10
In most engine applications, what would exhibit lower oil consumption, SAE 40 or SAE 15W-
40?