Xii - Combined Test - 1 (Neet) - 11.06.2017

CLASS XII | 11.06.
2017
COMBINED TEST (P, C, B)

Time: 3 hrs
Part A (Physics)
1. Equal charges q are placed at the four corners A, B, C, D of a square of length a. The magnitude
of the force on the charge B will be
3q 2 4q 2
(1) (2)
4 0 a 2 4 0 a 2
1 2 2 q2 1 q2
(3) (4) 2
2 4 a 2

2 4 0 a
2
0
2. Two free charges q and 4q are placed at a distance d apart. A third charge Q is placed between
them at a distance x from charge q such that the system is in equilibrium. Then
4q d 4q d 4q d 4q d
(1) Q ;x (2) Q ;x (3) Q ;x (4) Q ;x
9 3 9 4 9 3 9 4
3. Two point charges q1=+2C and q2= 1 C are separated by a distance d. The position on the line
joining the two charges when a third charge q=+1 C will be in equilibrium is at a distance
d d
(1) from q1 between q1 and q2 (2) from q1 away from q2
2 2
d d
(3) from q2 between q1 and q2 (4) from q2 away from q1
2 1 2 1
4. Three charges each of the value q are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle.
A fourth charge Q is placed at the centre of the triangle. If Q= q:
(1) The charges will move towards the centre
(2) The charges will move away from the centre
(3) The charges will remain stationary
(4) The charges may move in any direction
5. A charge Q is placed at each of two opposite corners of a square. A charge q is placed at each of
the other two corners. If resultant electric force on q is zero, then q/Q is
1 1
(1) (2) 2 (3) (4) 2 2
2 2 2
6. Two small balls having equal positive charge Q (Coulomb) on each are suspended by two
insulating strings of equal length L metre, from a hook fixed to a stand. The whole setup is taken in
a satellite into space where there is no gravity (state of weightlessness). Then the angle between
the two strings is
(1) 00 (2) 900 (3) 1800 (4) 00<<1800
7. Two identical charges +Q are kept fixed some distance apart. A small particle P with charge q is
placed midway between them. If P is given a small displacement , it will undergo simple
harmonic motion if
(i) q is positive and is along the line joining the charges.
(ii) q is positive and is perpendicular to the line joining the charges.
(iii) q is negative and is perpendicular to the line joining the charges.
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CLASS XII | 11.06.2017
(iv) q is positive and is along the line joining the charges

(1) (i), (ii) (2) (i), (iii) (3) (ii), (iii) (4) (i), (iv)
8. In a regular polygon of n sides, each corner is at a distance r from the centre. Identical charges of
1
magnitude Q are placed (n 1) corners. The field at the centre is k
4 0
Q Q n Q n 1 Q
(1) k 2 (2) (n 1)k 2
(3) k 2 (4) k 2
r r n 1 r n r
9. A point charge q moves from point P to point S along the path PQRS in a uniform electric field E
pointing parallel to the positive direction of the x-axis. The coordinates of the points P, Q, R and S
are (a, b, 0), (2a, 0, 0), (a,b, 0) and (0, 0, 0) respectively. The work done by the field in the
above process is given by the expression.
(1) q a E (2) q a E (3) q a2 b2 E (4) 3qE (a 2 b2 )

10. A cubical block of mass m containing a net positive charge Q is placed on a
smooth horizontal surface which terminates in a vertical wall, as shown in the
figure. The distance between the wall and the block is d. A horizontal electric
field E directed towards the wall is suddenly switched on, assuming elastic
collision the time period of the resulting collision is
4md md 8md md
(2) (3) (4)
(1) QE 8QE QE 4QE
11. A small metallic bob of mass m of a simple pendulum of length l is suspended from a silk thread
between two parallel charged plates. The electric field intensity E act vertically downwards. If bob
is given a charge +q, time period of oscillation
1
(i) T 2 , if the lower plate is charged positively.
qE
g
m
1
(ii) T 2 , if the lower plate is charged negatively.
qE
g
m
1
(iii) T 2 , if the lower plate is charged positively.
qE
g
m
1
(iv) T 2 , if the lower plate is charged negatively.
qE
g
m
(1) (i), (ii) (2) (i), (iii) (3) (i), (iv) (4) all
12. A simple pendulum has a length l, mass of bob m. The bob is given a charge q. The pendulum is
suspended between the vertical plates of charged parallel plate capacitor. If E is the field strength
between the plates, then time period T=

CLASS XII | 11.06.2017

l 1 1 1
2 (2) 2 (3) 2 (4) 2 1/2
(1) g g qE g qE 2 qE 2
m m g
m
13. There is an electric field E in x-direction. If the work done on moving a charge 0.2 C through a
distance of 2 m along a line making an angle 600 with the X-axis is 4 J, what is the value of E?
(1) 3 N / C (2) 4 N / C (3) 5N / C (4) None of these

14. Two large vertical and parallel metal plates having a separation of 1 cm are connected to a
DC voltage source of potential difference X. A proton is released at rest midway between the two
plates. It is found to move at 450 to the vertical, just after release. Then X is nearly
(1) 1 x 105 V (2) 1 x 107 V (3) 1 x 109 V (4) 1 x 1010 V
15. Four electric charges +q, +q, -q and q are placed at the corners of a square of side 2L
(see figure). The electric potential at point A, midway between the two charges +q.
1 2q 1 2q 1 1 2q 1
(1) Zero (2) (1 5) (3) (1 ) (4) 1
4 0 L 4 0 L 5 4 0 L 5
16. Two fixed charges 2 Q and Q are located at the points with coordinates (3a, 0) and (3a, 0) in
the x-y plane. The locus of all points in the x-y plane where the electric potential due to the
charges is zero is a
(1) Straight line (2) ellipse (3) circle (4) parabola
17. If identical charges (-q) are placed at each corner of a cube of side b, then electric potential energy
of charge (+q) which is placed at centre of the cube will be
8 2q 2 8 2q 2 4 2q 2 4q 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 0b 0b 0b 3 0b
18. Identify the wrong statement.
(1) The electrical potential energy of a system of two protons shall increase if the separation
between the two is decreased
(2) The electrical potential energy of a proton, electron system will increase if the separation
(3) The electrical potential energy of a proton, electron system will increase if the separation
between the two is increased
(4) The electrical potential energy of a system of two electrons shall increase if the separation

CLASS XII | 11.06.2017
19. Positive and negative point charges of equal magnitude are kept at a , 0, 0 and , 0, 0
a
2 2
respectively. The work done by the electric field when another positive point charge is moved from
(-a, 0, 0) to (a, 0, 0) is
(1) Positive (2) negative (3) zero
(4) Depends on the path connecting the initial and final positions
20. Four identical charges are placed at the points (1, 0, 0), (0, 1, 0), (1, 0, 0) and (0, 1, 0).
(i) The potential at the origin is zero
(ii) The field at the origin is zero
(iii) The potential at all points on the z-axis, other than the origin, is zero
(iv) The potential at all points on the z-axis, other than the origin, acts along the z-axis
(1) (i), (ii) (2) (i), (iii) (3) (ii), (iii) (4) (ii), (iv)
21. Six point charges are kept at the vertices of a regular hexagon of side L and
1 q
centre O, as shown in the figure. Given that K , which of the
4 0 L2
following statement is wrong?
(1) The electric field at O is 6 K along OD
(2) The potential at O is zero
(3) The potential at all points on the line PR is same
(4) The potential at all points on the line ST is same
22. A point charge +q is at a distance d/2 from a square surface of side d and is directly above the
centre of the square as shown in figure. The electric flux through the square is
q q q
(1) (2) (3) (4) zero
0 6 0 0
23. If the flux of the electric field through a closed surface is zero,
(i) The electric field must be zero everywhere on the surface
(ii) The electric field may be zero everywhere on the surface
(iii) The charge inside the surface must be zero
(iv) The charge in the vicinity of the surface must be zero
(1) (i), (ii) (2) (ii), (iii) (3) (ii), (iv) (4) (i), (iii)
24. Charges Q1 and Q2 lie inside and outside respectively of a closed surface S. Let E be the field at
any point on S and be the flux of E over S. (Choose incorrect option)
(1) If Q1 charges, both E and will change
(2) If Q2 charges, E will change but will not change
(3) If Q1 = 0 and Q2 0 then E 0 but = 0
(4) If Q1 0 and Q2 0 then E = 0 but 0
25. Three concentric spherical shells have radii a, b and c (a < b < c) and have surface charge
densities , and respectively. If VA, VB and VC denote the potentials of the three shells, then,
for c=a+b, we have
(1) VC=VA VB (2) VC=VB VA (3) VC VA VB (4) VC = VB = VA
CLASS XII | 11.06.2017
26. Two concentric thin metallic spheres of radii R1 and R2 (R1 > R2) bear charges Q1 and Q2
respectively. Then potential at radius r between R1 and R2 will be
Q1 Q2 Q1 Q2 Q2 Q1 Q1 Q2
(1) k (2) k (3) k (4) k
r r R2 r r R1 r
27. A long, hollow conducting cylinder is kept coaxially inside another long, hollow conducting
cylinder of larger radius. Both the cylinders are initially electrically neutral
(1) A potential difference appears between the two cylinders when a charge density is given to the
inner cylinder
(2) A potential difference appears between the two cylinders when a charge density is given to the
outer cylinder
(3) No potential difference appears between the two cylinders when a uniform line charge is kept
along the axis of the cylinders
(4) No potential difference appears between the two cylinders when same charge density is given
to both the cylinders
28. A positively charged thin metal ring of radius R is fixed in the x-y plane, with its centre at the
origin O. A negatively charged particle P is released from rest at the point (0, 0, z0), where z0>0.
Then the motion of P is (Choose incorrect option).
(1) Periodic , for all value of z0 satisfying 0 < z0 <
(2) Simple harmonic, for all value of z0 satisfying 0 < z0 R
(3) Approximately simple harmonic provided z0 << R
(4) Such that P crosses O and continuous to move along the negative z-axis towards z=
29. A and B are two points on the axis and the perpendicular bisector respectively of an electric dipole.

A and B are far away from the dipole and at equal distances from it. The fields at A and B are EA

and EB .
1 ar
(1) EA = EB (2) EA =2 EB (3) EA = 2 EB (4) EB E A , EB E A
2
30. An electric dipole of moment p is placed in an electric field of intensity E. The dipole acquires a
position such that the axis of the dipole makes an angle with the direction of the field. Assuming
that the potential energy of the dipole to be zero when =900, the torque and the potential energy
of the dipole will respectively be
(1) pE sin , pE cos (2) pE sin , 2pE cos
(3) pE sin , 2pE cos (4) pE cos , pE cos
31. The electric field at the origin is along the position X-axis. A small circle is drawn with the centre at
the origin cutting the axes at points A, B, C and D having coordinates (a, 0), (0, a), (a, 0), (0, a)
respectively. Out of the points on the periphery of the circle, the potential is minimum at
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

32. An electric field E 20i 30 j N / C exists in the space. If the potential at the origin is taken to
be zero, the potential at the point (2 m ,2 m) is
(1) 50 V (2) 100 V (3) 100 V (4) 200 V
33. The electric potential decreases uniformly from 120 V to 80 V as one moves on the X-axis from
x=1 cm to x=+1 cm. The electric field at the origin
(i) Must be equal to 20 V/cm (ii) May be equal to 20 V/cm
CLASS XII | 11.06.2017
(iii) May be greater than 20 V/cm (iv) May be less than 20 V/cm
(1) (i) only (2) (ii), (iii) (3) (ii), (iii), (iv) (4) (iii), (iv)
34. A thin, metallic spherical shell contains a charge Q on it. A point charge q is placed at the centre of
the shell and another charge q1 is placed outside it as shown in figure. All the three charges are
positive. The force on the charge at the centre is
(1) Towards left (2) towards right (3) upward (4) zero
35. A solid conducting sphere having a charge Q is surrounded by an uncharged concentric
conducting hollow spherical shell. Let the potential difference between the surface of the solid
sphere and that of the outer surface of the hollow shell be V. If the shell is now given a charge
of 3Q, the new potential difference between the same two surfaces is
(1) V (2) 2 V (3) 4 V (4) 2 V
36. A, B and C are three concentric metallic shells. Shell A is the innermost and shell C is the
outermost. A is given some charge
(i) The inner surfaces of B and C will have the same charge
(ii) The inner surfaces of B and C will have the same charge density
(iii) The outer surfaces of A, B and C will have the same charge
(iv) The outer surfaces of A, B and C will have the same charge density
(1) (i), (ii) (2) (ii), (iii) (3) (ii), (iv) (4) (i), (iii)
37. A positively charged oil dropped remains stationary in the electric field between two horizontal
plates separated by a distance of 1 cm. The charge on the drop is 1015 C and mass of the
droplet is 1011 g, the potential difference between the plates and if the polarity is reversed, the
instantaneous accelerations of the droplet are
(1) 1 V, 9.8 m/sec2 (2) 1 V, 0 m/sec2 (3) 1 V, 19.6 m/sec2 (4) 2 V, 19.6 m/sec2
38. A large solid sphere with uniformly distributed positive charge has a smooth narrow tunnel
through its centre. A small particle with negative charge, initially at rest far from the sphere,
approaches it along the line of the tunnel, reaches its surface with a speed v and passes through
the tunnel, its speed at the centre of sphere will be
(1) 0 (2) 3 v (3) 2 v (4) 1.5 v
39. Consider a thin spherical shell of radius R with its centre at the origin, carrying uniform positive

surface charge density. The variation of the magnitude of the electric field E (r ) and the electric
potential V(r) with the distance r from the centre, is best represented by which graph.
(1) (2) (3) (4)

40. A conducting sphere of radius R is given a charge Q. The electric potential and the electric field
at the centre of the sphere respectively are
Q Q Q
(1) and zero (2) and
4 0 R 4 0 R 4 0 R 2
Q
(3) both are zero (4) Zero and
4 0 R 2

CLASS XII | 11.06.2017
41. Point charges 4 q, q and 4 q are kept on the x-axis at points x=0, x=a and x=2 a
respectively.
(1) Only q is in stable equilibrium
(2) None of the charges are in equilibrium
(3) All the charges are unstable equilibrium
(4) All the charges are in stable equilibrium
42. Two equal positive charges are kept at points A and B. The electric potential at the points between
A and B (excluding these points) is studied while moving from A to B. The potential
(1)Continuously increases (2) continuously decreases
(3) Increases then decreases (4) decreases then increases
43. Four charges, all of the same magnitude, are placed at the four corners of a square. At the centre
of the square, the potential is V and the field is E. By suitable choice of the signs of the four
charges, which of the following can be obtained?
(i) V=0, E=0 (ii) V=0, E 0 (iii) V 0, E =0 (iv) V 0, E 0
(1)(i), (ii) (2) (i), (iii) (3) (ii), (iii) (4) all
3R
44. The electric field at a distance from the centre of a charged conducting spherical shell of radius
2
R
R is E. The electric field at a distance from the centre of the sphere is
2
(1) Zero (2) E (3) E/2 (4) E/3
45. Three concentric metallic spherical shells of radii R, 2R, 3R are given charges Q 1, Q2, Q3
respectively. It is found that the surface charge densities on the outer surfaces of the shells are
equal. Then, the ratio of the charges given to the shells, Q1:Q2:Q3, is
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 3 : 5 (3) 1 : 4 : 9 (4) 1 : 8 : 18
Part B (Chemistry)
46. Dipole moment of CH3CH2CH3(I), CH3CH2OH (II) and CH3CH2F(III) is in order
(1) I II III (2) I II III
(3) I III II (4) III I II
47. The strongest acid among the following aromatic compounds is
(1) p-chlorophenol (2) p-nitrophenol
(3) m-nitrophenol (4) o-nitrophenol
48. The boiling points to isomeric alcohols follow the order
(1) primary secondary tertiary (2) tertiary secondary primary
(3) secondary tertiary primary (4) does not follow any order
49. Phenol can be distinguished from alcohol with
(1) Tollens reagent (2) Schiff's base
(3) Neutral FeCl3 (4) HCl
50. Which of the following is a primary alcohol?
(1) Butan 2-ol (2) Butan 1-ol
(3) Propan -2-ol (4) 2-Dimethylhexane-4-ol
51. Which of the following are isomers
(1) Methyl alcohol and dimethyl ether (2) Ethyl alcohol and dimethyl ether
(3) Acetone and acetaldehyde (4) Propionic acid and propanone
CLASS XII | 11.06.2017
52. Which compound is formed when CH3OH reacts with CH3 Mg - X

(1) Acetone (2) Alcohol (3) Methane (4) Ethane
53. Methyl alcohol can be distinguished from ethyl alcohol using
(1) Fehling solution (2) Schiffs reagent
(3) Sodium hydroxide and iodine (4) Phthalein fusion test
54. An alcohol on oxidation is found to give CH3COOH and CH3CH2COOH. The structure of the
alcohol is
(1) CH3CH2CH2OH (2) (CH3)2C(OH)CH2CH3
(3) CH3CH2CHOHCH3 (4) CH3CH(OH)CH2CH2CH3
55. The reagent which easily reacts with ethanol and propanol is
(1) Fehling solution (2) Grignard reagent
(3) Schiffs reagent (4) Tollens reagent
56. The reaction of C2H5OH with H2SO4 does not give
(1) Ethylene (2) Diethyl ether
(3) Acetylene (4) Ethyl hydrogen sulphate
57. HBr reacts fastest with
(1) 2-methylpropan-2-ol (2) Propan-2-ol
(3) Propan-2-ol (4) 2-methylpropna-1-ol
58. Choose the correct statement(s) for the reaction
OH
O
O
O HO

AlCl3 / CS2
heat
CH3 CH3
CH3
O (b)
(a)
(1) (B) is formed more rapidly at higher temperature
(2) (B) is more volatile than (A)
(3) (A) is more volatile than (B)
(4) (A) is formed in higher yields at lower temperature
59. The end product C for the following reaction is
Na CH3I
(C6H5)2CHCH2OH X Y
(1) (C6H5)2C=CH2 (2) (C6H5)2CHCH2ONa+
O
||
(3) (C6H5)2CHCH2O C SNa+ (4) (C6H5)2CHCH2OCH3
60. Which of the following compounds is oxidised to prepare methyl-ethyl ketone?
(1) 2-Propanol (2) 1-Butanol
(3) 2-Butanol (4) ter-Butyl alcohol
61. Dehydration of cyclopentyl carbinol with conc. H2SO4 forms
(1) Cyclopentene (2) Cyclohexene
(3) Cyclohexane (4) None of these
62. Order of reactivity of HX towards ROH is
(1) HI HBr HCl (2) HCl HBr HI
(3) HI HBr HCl (4) HI HBr HCl

CLASS XII | 11.06.2017

H 3O
63. Ester A (C4H8O2) + CH3 MgBr B C4 H10 O .
(2 parts) (alcohol)
Alcohol B reacts fastest with Lucas reagent. Hence A and B are:

O CH3 O H3C
H3C , HC H , OH
(1) O
3 OH
(2) O
CH3 H3C
H5 C 2 H7 C 3
O OH O CH3
H3C , H3C H , H3C OH
(3) (C) O
(4)
CH3 O
CH3
H5 C 2 H7 C 3
64. CH3
cold
alkaline KMnO
A
CrO3
AcOH
B. A and B are
4
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

OH -
OH
(1) ,
OH
(2) ,
C O
OH O OH O
CH3
CH3
(4) No formation of a and b
OH
(3) ,
OH OH
65. Hydrogen bonding is maximum in

(1) Ethanol (2) Diethyl ether
(3) Ethyl chloride (4) Triethyl amine
CH3 CH3
66. H3C
HBr
A (predominant)
CH3 OH
A is:
CH3 Br Br CH3
(1) H3C (2) H3C
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
(3) Both (4) None is correct

67. Phenol is heated with chloroform and alcoholic KOH when salicyladehyde is produced. This
reaction is known as
(1) Fridel-Crafts reaction (2) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(3) Rosenmund reaction (4) Sommelet reaction
68. The reaction of elemental sulphur with Grignard reagent followed by acidification leads to the
formation of
(1) Mercapton (2) Sulphoxide
(3) Thioether (4) Sulphonic acid
69. A mixture of benzoic acid and phenol may be separated by treatment with
(1) NaHCO3 (2) NaOH (3) NH3 solution (4) KOH
70. Phenol does not react with NaHCO3 because
(1) Phenol is a weaker acid than carbonic acid
(2) Phenol is a stronger acid than carbonic acid
(3) Phenol is as strong as carbonic acid (4) Phenol is insoluble in water.

CLASS XII | 11.06.2017
71. Predict the product of reaction below

O
OH H3C
Pyridine

Cl
O
O
(1) CH3
(2)
OH
O
O
(4) CH3
(3) CH3
72. Predict the product of the reaction below
O
OH H3C
AlCl3

Cl
OH
OH O
(1) CH3 (2)
H3C O
O
O CH3
(3) Both (A) and (B)
(3)
73. The correct decreasing order of acidic strength is

(1) C6H5OH C6H5CH2OH C6H5COOH C6H5SO3H
(2) C6H5CH2OH C6H5OH C6H5SO3H C6H5COOH
(3) C6H5COOH C6H5CH2OH C6H5OH C6H5SO3H
(4) C6H5SO3H C6H5COOH C6H5OH C6H5CH2OH
74. The acidic character of 1, 2, 3 alcohols, H2O and RCCH is in the order
(1) H2O 1 2 3 RCCH (2) RCCH 3 2 1 H2O
(3) 1 2 3 H2O RCCH (4) 3 2 1 H2O RCCH
75. Which of the ether(s) below is (are) not likely to form peroxides when exposed to air?
(1) H3C O CH3 (2)

O
H3C
O O
CH3 (4)
(3) H3C
H3C CH3
CH3
H3C
76. H3C

CO, H 2 [CoH(CO) 4 ]

H2
product
125, pressure Cu Zn
CH2
This represents Oxo method of alcohol synthesis. Product can be:

CH3
(1) H3C OH (2) OH
H3C
(3) Both are true (4) None is true

CLASS XII | 11.06.2017
77. Reaction of tertiarty butyl alcohol with hot Cu at 350C produces

(1) Butanol (2) Butanal
(3) 2-Butene (4) 2-methyl propene
78. In the Lucas test of alcohols, appearance of cloudiness is due to the formation of
(1) Aldehydes (2) Ketones
(3) Acid Chloride (4) Alkyl chloride
79. Which of the following compounds give most stable carbonium ion on dehydration?
CH3
CH3CHCH2OH
(1) CH3 C OH (2)
CH3
CH3
CH3CHCH2CH3 CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
(3) (4)
OH
80. Dehydration of alcohols by conc. H2SO4 takes place according to following steps:
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
+ +
H3C H
step 1
H3C H2O

step 2
H3C CH2 1,2 H shift
step 3
H C C CH
+ 3 3
H OH H OH2 H
CH3

H

step 4
H2C CH 3
The slowest and fastest steps in the above reaction are

(1) step 1 is slowest, while 3 is fastest (2) step 2 is slowest, while 3 is fastest
(3) step 2 is slowest, while 4 is fastest (4) all steps proceed at equal rate
81. The major product P in the following reaction is

(CH3 )3 COH C2 H5OH
H
P
(1) (CH3)3COC(CH3)3 (2) (CH3)3COC2H5
(3) C2H5OC2H5 (4) (CH3)2C = CH2
82. Which of the carbonium ion is formed in the following reaction?
CH2

H

OH O CH3
CH2 CH3
(1) (2)
+
OH2 OH
+
CH2
(3) (4) All the three
OH

CLASS XII | 11.06.2017
83. OD
D

NaOH
[ ]
i) CO2
ii)D
P.
Here P is
OH OD OD OD
D D
(1) O (2) O
OD OH
D
(3) O (4) Reaction not possible
84. CH2
14
O
D D heat
X; X is
OD OD
D D D
(1) (2)
CH2 CH2
14 14
OD OH
D 14 CH2 D 14 CH2
(3) (4)
85. Which of the following is correct order for the decreasing rate of solvolysis?
(1) tert-BuCl tert-BuBr tert-BuI (2) tert-BuI tert-BuBr tert-BuCl
(3) tert-BuBr tert-BuiI tert-BuCl (4) tert-BuCl = tert-BuBr = tert-BuI
86. H 3 C 18
CH OH
B 3
CH 3ONa

H O

2
H
A
H3C O
A and B are
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
(1) H3C ; H3C (2) H3C ; H3C

OH OH O CH3 OH OH O CH3
18
OH 18 OH
(3) Both are correct (4) None is correct

87.
The reaction of with RMgX leads to the formation of
O
R R
(1) R (2) CH3
HO HO

CLASS XII | 11.06.2017
R R
(3) (4)
R OH OH
88. The product (B) in the following sequence of reaction is:

C6 H5CO3H
A
HCl
B
CH2
OH
O
(1) (2)
Cl
Cl O
(3) (4)
OH OH
89. OH

H2SO4

OH
CHO OH
(1) (2)
(3) CHO (4) None of these

90. O
Mg dust

Et 2 O

H3O
A
H 2SO4
B
OH
O
(1) (2)
OH O
(3) (4)
Part C (Biology)
91. Most recent branch of Taxonomy is
(1) Karyotaxonomy (based on nucleus and number, structure and arrangement of chromosomes)
(2) Biochemical taxonomy (based on biochemicals)
(3) Numerical taxonomy (based on number of shared characters using statisti cal methods)
(4) Classical systematics (based on morphological features).
92. In binomial nomenclature proposed by Linnaeus, every organism has
(1 ) two names, one Latin and other common
(2) two names, one scientific and other ver-nacular
(3) one scientific name, given by two scientists
(4) one scientific/biological name with two words- a genus and a species
93. Phenetic classification is based on
(1) dendrograms based on DNA characteristics
(2) sexual characteristics
(3) the ancestral lineage of existing organisms (4) observable characteristics of existing organisms
CLASS XII | 11.06.2017
94. Linnaeus sexual system of classification of plants on the basis of number and arrangement of
stamens and carpels / morphology of floral parts is
(1) artificial (2) natural
(3) phylogentic (4) partly natural and partly artificial
95. Hutchinson's phylogenetic classification is based on Bessey's 22 principles. It states that
(1) evolution in downward direction cause reduction and suppression.
(2) evolution does not necessarily involve all organs at same time
(3) monocots are advanced over dicots (4) all of the above
96. A parasite which becomes saprophytic in the absence of host is called
(1) Obligate parasite (2) Facultative parasite
(3) Obligate saprophyte (4) Facultative saprophyte.
97. Mucopeptide is abundant in cell wall of
(1) Cyanobacteria (2) Gram (+) bacteria (3) Gram (-) bacteria (4) Bacteriophage.
98. Bacteria obtaining energy by oxidation of inorganic substances are
(1) Chemo-lithotrophs (2) Chemo-organotrophs
(3) Photo-lithotrophs (4) Photo-organotrophs.
99. Which one does not evolve oxygen
(1) Photosynthetic bacteria (2) Blue Green algae
(3) Green algae (4) Autotrophic plants
100. Nitrogen fixation is performed by
(1) Green algae and fungi (2) Ferns and cycads
(3) Legumes and cereals (4) Blue-green algae and bacteria.
101. Match items of column I with those of column II and choose the correct combinations
Column-l Column-II
(a) Pneumonia (p) Vibrio comma
(b) Citrus Canker (q) Mycobacterium leprae
(c) Cholera (r) Yersinia pestis
(d) Leprosy (s) Xanthomonas citri
(t) Diplococcus pneumoniae
(1) a-t, b-s, c-p, d-q (2) a-t, b-p , c-s , d-q (3) a-t, b-s, c-q, d-p (4) a-t, b-q, c-p, d-s.
102. Cell wall of Gram (+) bacteria is formed of
(1) Cellulose (2) Murein (3) Lipid and protein (4) Cellulose and lipid.
103. Which of the following statement is/are correct with respect to Bacteria
(a) Bacteria are the sole members of the Kingdom Monera.
(b) Bacteria occur almost everywhere
(c) Bacteria are the most abundant micro organism
(d) 80 S type of Ribosome are present in bacteria
(1) a & d (2) b & d (3) a, b, c (4) b, c, d.
104. Which statement is/are wrong with respect to Archaebacteria.
(a) Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having a different cell wall structure.
(b) feature of cell wall is responsible for their survival in extreme conditions.
(c) Methanogens are present in the guts of sereral ruminant animals such as cow & buffalo.
(d) These are oldest of the living fossils.
(e) Peptidoglycan & muramic acid are present in cell wall
(1) a and e (2) b and e (3) a, b and c (4) only e
CLASS XII | 11.06.2017
105. The Blue-green algae also referred to as _____(i)_______have chlorohyll similar to green plants.
Some of these organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialised cell
called______(ii)________eg. Nostock & Anabaena._______(iii)________bacteria oxidise various
inorganic substance such as nitrates, nitrites and ammonia & use the released energy for their ATP
production in above question (i), (ii) & (iii) are respectively.(1) (i) Cyanobacteria
(ii) Chromatophores (iii) Heterotrophic bacteria
(2) (i) Cyanobacteria (ii) Chromatophores (iii) Chemosynthetic autotrophic
(3) (i) Eubacteria (ii) Heterocysts (iii) Chemosynthetic autotrophic
(4) (i) Cyanobacteria (ii) Heterocysts (iii) Chemosynthetic autotrophic
106. The diatomaceous earth is used for insulating boilers and steam pipes because
(1) The diatomaceous earth is very cheap (2) It is a good conductor of heat
(3) It is a bad conductor of heat (4) It is composed of calcium carbonate
107. Diatoms do not decay as readily as most other algae because
(1) They are non living cells (2) They have waterproof cell walls
(3) They have siliceous cell walls (4) They have mucilaginous cell walls
108. Paraflagellar body occurs in Euglena
(1) Near base of flagella (2) Region of union of flagellar branches
(3) Area of basal granules (4) On reservoir wall.
109. Eye spot granules of Euglena are formed of
(1) Fucoxanthin (2) Astaxanthin (3) a-carotene (4) b-carotene.
110. Mesokaryon is
(1) A nucleus like structure (2) Nucleoid with condensed chromosomes
(3) A nucleus with condensed chromosomes (4) A nucleoid with distinct chromosomes.
111. The storage product of chrysophytes is
(1) Oil and leucosin (2) Starch (3) Paramylum (4) Glycogen.
112. Mixotrophic nutrition is present in
(1) Navicula (2) Amoeba (3) Paramecium (4) Euglena.
113. Protistans are connecting link between
(1) Plants and animals (2) Fungi and plants
(3) Monoerans and kingdoms of multicellular organisms
(4) Fungi and animals.
114. Which statement is/are wrong with respect to kingdom protista.
(i) All single celled eukaryotes are placed under protista
(ii) The boundaries of this kingdom are not well defined.
(iii) Chrysophytes, dinoflagellated, Euglenoids, slimemoulds and protozoans are included under
protista.
(iv) All protista are eukaryotic, achlorophyllous, heterotrophic, nonvascular organism.
(1) only (ii) (2) only (iii) (3) only (iv) (4) None of these
115. Match Column I with Column II
Column I Column II
(i) Chrysophytes (a) Absence of cell wall
(ii) Dinoflagellates (b) Golden algae
(iii) Euglenoids (c) Gonyaulax
(iv) Slime moulds (d) Saprophytic protists.

CLASS XII | 11.06.2017
(1) (i) a (ii) b, (iii) c, (iv) d

(2) (i) b (ii) c, (iii) a, (iv) d
(3) (i) b (ii) c, (iii) d, (iv) a
(4) (i) c (ii) a, (iii) b, (iv) d
116. Slime moulds are _____(i)______protists. The body moves along decaing twigs and leaves
engulfing organic material under suitable conditions, they form an aggregation
called_____(ii)______which may grow and spread over several feet.
In above question (i) & (ii) are respectively.
(1) (i) Autotrophic, (ii) plasmodium
(2) (i) Chemosynthetic autotrophic (ii) plasmodium
(3) (i) Saprophytic, (ii) Phycobiont
(4) (i) saprophytic, (ii) plasmodium
117. Match column I with column II
(i) Amoeboid protozoan (a) Plasmodium
(ii) Flagellated protozoan (b) Paramoecium
(iii) Ciliated protozoan (c) Trypanosma
(iv) Sporozoans (d) Amoeba
(1) (i) d, (ii) c, (iii) a, (iv) b
(2) (i) a, (ii) d, (iii) b, (iv) c
(3) (i) b, (ii) a, (iii) c, (iv) d
(4) (i) d, (ii) c, (iii) b, (iv) a
118. Read statements A to D & find out how many statement are wrong
(A) Golden Algae are classified under chrysophytes.
(B) Gonyaulax & Diatoms are classified under Dinoflagellates
(C) In Diatoms the cell wall form thin overlapping shell, which fit together as in soap box.
(D) Most of the Dinoflagellates have two flagello.
How many statement are wrong.
(1) one (2) two (3) three (4) four
119. Read the following four statements (A-D) and answer as asked next to them.
(A) All single celled eukaryotes are placed under protista
(B) Most of the organism of chrysophytes are photosynthetic.
(C) Dinoflagellates appear yellow, green brown, blue or red depend on the main pigments present
in their cells.
(D) Chloroplast absent in Euglena
How many of the above statement are correct ?
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) one
120. As compared to slime moulds, Euglenoids has:
(A) Presence of chloroplast
(B) Holophytic nutrition
(C) Presence of proteinaceous pellicle
(D) Presence of contractile vacuole
(1) A & B, (2) B & C (3) A, B & C (4) A, B, C & D
121. Chlorophyll absent, nutrition absorptive, sexual reproduction gradually becoming simple and
degnerated are sepecialites of
(1) Algae (2) Fungi (3) Lichen (4) Bacteria
CLASS XII | 11.06.2017
122. What is meant by holocarpic thallus

(1) Reproductive structure present on whole thallus
(2) Thallus unicellular and reprodctive structure absent
(3) Thallus unicellular and reproductive structure multicellular
(4) Unicellular thallus converted to reproductive structure at the time of reproduction
123. Which process occurs during sexual reproduction in Mucor
(1) Gametangial contact (2) Gametangial copulation
(3) Spermatisation (4) Somatogamy
124. The ascospores are the type of spores
(1) Asexual (2) Sexual (3) Vegetative (4) None of these
125. Which of the following does not have ascocarp
(1) Penicillium (2) Claviceps (3) Morchella (4) Yeast
126. The sexual cycle in fungi involves three steps, which statement is/are correct
(A) Fusion of protoplasm between two motile or nonmotile gamete called karyogamy
(B) Fusion of two nuclei called plasmogamy
(C) Meiosis in zygote resulting in haploid spores
(1) A & B (2) B & C (3) A & C (4) only C
127. Column I Column II
(i) Phycomycetes (a) Albugo
(ii) Ascomycetes (b) Puccinia
(iii) Basidiomycetes (c) Alternaria
(iv) Deuteromycetes (d) Neurospora
(1) (i) a, (ii) d, (iii) b, (iv) c
(2) (i) a, (ii) b, (iii) c, (iv) d
(3) (i) b, (ii) a, (iii) c, (iv) d
(4) (i) c, (ii) d, (iii) a, (iv) b
128.
Column I Column II
(i) Phycomycetes (a) Imperfect fungi
(ii) Asocomycetes (b) Agaricus
(iii) Basidiomycetes (c) Sac fungi
(iv) Deuteromycetes (d) Algal fungi
(1) (i) a (ii) b (iii) c (iv) d
(2) (i) d (ii) c (iii) b (iv) a
(3) (i) c (ii) b (iii) d (iv) a
(4) (i) b (ii) a (iii) c (iv) d
129. Read the following statement (A-D) & select wrong statement
(A) In phycomycetes mycelium is multinucleate (Coenocytic) and septate
(B) Wall of hyphae is composed of cellulose
(C) A sexual reproduction take place through sporangia.
(D) Sexual reproduction take place by gametangial contact.
(1) only A (2) only B (3) only C (4) A & D
130. In fungi (Ascomycetes & Basidomycetes) an intervening stage (n + n, i.e. two nuclei per cell)
occurs; such a condition is called.
(1) Monokaryon (2) Dikaryon (3) Diploid stage (4) None of these
CLASS XII | 11.06.2017
131. Clone is a group of individuals got through-

(1) Self pollination (2) Cross pollination
(3) Vegetative propagation (4) Hybridisation
132. Grafting is not possible in monocots as they-
(1) Lack cambium (2) Are herbaceous
(3) Have scattered vascular bundles (4) Have parallel venation
133. A piece of Potato tuber will form a new plant if it has-
(1) Branches (2) stored food (3) Roots (4) Scales / eyes
134. Girdling cannot be performed in Sugarcane because its-
(1) Vascular bundles are scattered (2) Phloem is internal to xylem
(3) Sugarcane plants are delicate (4) Inability to bear injury
135. Bulbils occur is-
(1) Cycas (2) Agave (3) Dioscorea (4) All the above
136. Mango and Guava are propagated through-
(1) Tissue culture (2) Grafting (3) stem' cuttings (4) Layering
137. In a grafted plant, stock has 48 chromosomes while scion has 24 chromosomes. The chromosome
number for root cells and eggs are-
(1) 48 and 24 (2) 24 and 24 (3) 24 and 12 (4) 48 and 12
138. The site of meiotic division in higher plants is
(1) Vegetative buds (2) Root tip cells (3) Stomatal cells (4) Spore mother cells
139. Largest pollen grain is found in-
(1) Halophila (2) Myosotis (3) Mirabilis (4) Lodoicea
140. Which layer of anther has fibrous thickening.
(1) Tapetum (2) Middle layer (3) Epidermis (4) Endothecium
141. Pollinium can be seen in
(1) Calotropis (2) Coelogynae (3) Asclepias (4) All the above
142. Which of the following one protect the pollen grain from damaging effects of U.V. Radiations?
(1) Tapetum (2) Endothecium (3) Sporopollenin (4) Pollen kitt
143. The nourishment of developing pollen grains is performed by
(1) Endothecium (2) Microspore Mother cell
(3) Tapetum (4) Pollen tube
144. On culturing the young anther of a plant a botanist got a few diploid plants along with haploid
plants which of the following might have given the diploid plants :
(1) Exine of pollen grain (2) Vegetative cell of pollen grain
(3) Cells of anther wall (4) Generative cell of pollen grain.
145. Chromosome number in pollen grain is 6. What shall be its number in leaf tip cells.
(1) 6 (2) 12 (3) 24 (4) 3
146. Mature male gametophyte of Angiosperm is
(1) 13 celled (2) 4 celled (3) 5 celled (4) 3 celled
147. How many pollen mother cells will form 1000 pollen grains-
(1) 200 (2) 250 (3) 300 (4) 100
148. If sporangia are developed from a single initial cell, the development of sporangia is designated as
(1) Eusporangiate (2) Leptosporangiate (3) Monosporangiate (4) Monocarpic

CLASS XII | 11.06.2017
149. Callase enzyme which dissolves callose of tetrad of microspores to separate 4 microspores is
prodvided by -
(1) Pollen grains (2) Middle layer (3) Tapetum (4) Endothecium
150.
In the above diagrams identify i, ii, iii & iv and select the suitable options.
(1) i - Vacuole; ii - symmetrical spindle, iii - Vegetative cell; iv - generative cell
(2) i - Cytoplasm; ii - Asymmetrical spindle, iii - Generative cell; iv - Vegetative cell
(3) i - Nuclei; ii - Symmetrical spindle, iii - Tube cell; iv - Vegetative cell
(4) i - Vacuole; ii -Asymmetrical spindle, iii - Vegetative cell; iv - generative cell
151. Choose incorrect statement.
(1) In western countries, a large number of pollen products in the form of tablets & syrups are
available in market.
(2) Some cereals such as rice and wheat, pollen grains lost viability within one year of their
release.
(3) It is possible to store pollen grains of a large number of species for year in liquid nitrogen
(196C).
(4) Store pollen grains can be used in crop breeding programme.
152. An orthrotropous ovule is one, in which micropyle and chalaza are
(1) At right angles to funicle (2) Parallel to the funicle
(3) In straight line of funicle (4) Parallel along with ovule
153. Polar nuclei are located in-
(1) Pollen tube (2) Embryo sac (3) Ovule (4) Thalamus
154. The ovule of capsella is-
(1) Bitegmic (2) Unitegmic (3) Ategmic (4) Polytegmic
155. Group of lingnified cells above the vascular supply of funiculus, which acts as barrier for the
growing embryo sac into the base is called-
(1) Nucellar beak (2) Epistase (3) Hypostase (4) Perisperm
156. Filiform apparatus is the feature of-
(1) Egg (2) Synergids (3) Antipodal (4) None of these
157. The given figure shows a typical anatropous ovule. What do A, B, C & D represents.
(1) A gHilum, B gFunicle, C gNucellus, D gMicropyle

CLASS XII | 11.06.2017
(2) A gHilum, B gOuter integument, C gNucellus, D gMicropyle

(3) A gHilum, B gOuter integument, C gEmbryosac, D gMicropyle
(4) None of these
158. Which structure develops into seed-
(1) Ovary (2) Ovule (3) Egg (4) Zygote
159. In Angiosperms, the functional megaspore of a linear tetrad is the -
(1) First nearest to the micropyle (2) Second from the micropyle
(3) Third from the micropyle (4) Fourth from the micropyle
160. The megasporangium of the angiosperms on maturation gives rise to-
(1) Fruit (2) Seed (3) Embryo (4) Cotyledon
161. The given figure shows a mature embryo sac. What do A, B, C & D represents.
D
(1) A gEmbryosac, B gSynergids, C gCentral cell, D gMicropylar end
(2) A gCentral cell, B gSynergids, CgCentral cell, DgMicropylar end
(3) A gCentral cell, B gPolar nuclei, C gCentral cell, D gFiliform apparatus
(4) A gCentral cell, B gSynergids, CgPolar nuclei, D gFiliform apparatus
162. Match the column
Column I Column II
(a) Chiropterophily (i) Bombax ceiba.
(b) Cleistogamy (ii) Calotropis procera
(c) Herkogamy (iii) Kigelia pinnata
(d) Ornithophily (iv) Triticum aestivum
(e) Anemophily (v) Commelina benghalensis
(1) (a) (V), (b) (iii), (c) (ii), (d) (i), (e) (iv) (2) (a) (iii), (b) (v), (c) (ii), (d) (i), (e) (iv)
(3) (a) (ii), (b) (v), (c) (iv), (d) (i), (e) (iii) (4) (a) (iii), (b) (v), (c) (ii), (d) (iv), (e) (i)
163. If pollination takes place between the two flowers of same plant, It is known as
(1) Xenogamy (2) Cleistogamy (3) Geitanogamy (4) Herkogamy
164. When pollen of a flower is transferred to the stigma of another flower of different plant, the
pollination is-
(1) Xenogamy (2) Geitonogamy (3) Homogamy (4) Cleistogamy
165. Dichogamy favouring cross pollination is type of floral mechanism where -
(1) Anthers and stigma are placed at different levels
(2) Stamens and stigma mature at different times
(3) Structure of anther and stigma act as barrier
(4) Pollen is unable to germinate on its own stigma
166. Choose the correct statement from the following:
(1) Cleistogamous flowers always exhibit autogamy
(2) Chasmogamous flowers always exhibit geitonogamy
(3) Cleistogamous flowers exhibit both auotogamy and geitonogamy
(4) Chasmogamous flowers never exhibit autogamy
CLASS XII | 11.06.2017
167. From among the situations given below, choose the one that prevents both autogamy and
geitonogamy.
(1) Monoecious plant bearing unisexual flowers
(2) Dioecious plant bearing only male or female flowers
(3) Monoecious plant with bisexual flowers
(4) Dioecious plant with bisexual flowers
168. A plant has 24 chromosomes in microspore mother cell. The number of chromosomes in its
endosperm will be
(1) 36 (2) 24 (3) 12 (4) 48
169. In pinus, Leaf cell has 2n = 12 chromosomes. The number of chromosomes in its endosperm cell
will be
(1) 18 (2) 24 (3) 12 (4) 6
170. Siphonogamy is feature of
(1) Bryophytes (2) pteridophyte
(3) Gymnosperm and Angiosperm (4) Algae
171. In angiosperms normally after fertilization
(1) The zygote divides earlier than the primary endosperm nucleus
(2) The primary endosperm nucleus divides earlier than the zygote
(3) Both the zygote and primary endosperm nucleus divide simultaneously
(4) Both the zygote and primary endosperm nucleus undergo a resting period
Column-I Column-II
(a) Prepotency (i) shield shaped cotyledon of monocots.
(b) Scutellum (ii) Pinus
(c) Translator mechanism (iii) opening of floral bud
(d) Cleavage polyembryony (iv) Calotropis
(e) Anthesis (v) Apple
(1) (a) ii, (b) i, (c) iv, (d) v, (e) iii (2) (a) v, (b) i, (c) iv, (d) iii, (e) ii
(3) (a) iii, (b) v, (c) iv, (d) ii, (e) i (4) (a) v, (b) i, (c) iv, (d) ii, (e) iii
173. If Diploid embryo is directly formed by megaspore mother cell it is called.
(1) Non recurrent agamospermy (2) adventive embryony
(3) Diplospory (4) Parthenogenesis.
174. Choose correct statements
(a) Seed typically consists of seed coat(s), cotyledon(s) & and embryo axis.
(b) Cotyledons of embryo are simple strucures, generally thick and swollen due to storage of food
reserve.
(c) Albuminous seeds have no residual endosperm e.g. pea, groundnut.
(d) Micropyle facilitates entry of O2 & water into the seed during germination.
(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) a, b, c (4) a, b, d

CLASS XII | 11.06.2017
175.
In the above diagram, Identify the correct Labelling & select the correct option
(1) a - Embryo axis, b - Endosperm, c - Coleorhiza, d - scutellum, e - coleoptile
(2) a - Radicle, b - Aleuron layer, c - Coleorhiza, d - Endosperm, e - Plumula
(3) a - Radicle, b - Endosperm, c - Coleorhiza, d - scutellum, e - Plumule
(4) a - Embryo axis, b - Aleuron layer, c - Root-cap, d - Endosperm, e - Coleoptile
Column-I Column-II
(a) Helobial endosperm (i) Cucurbita
(b) Hypophysis (ii) Areca
(c) Ruminate endosperm (iii) removal of anther from floral bud
(d) Emasculation (iv) Radicle
(e) Mesogamy (v) Asphodelus
(1) a - ii ; b - v ; c - i ; d - iii ; e - iv (2) a - v ; b - iv ; c - ii ; d - iii ; e - i
(3) a - i ; b - v ; c - iv ; d - ii ; e - iii (4) a - v ; b - iv ; c - ii ; d - i ; e - iii
177.
Identify the parts labelled A,B,C,D,E from the list (i- vii) and select the correct options.
Components
(i) Scutellum (ii) Shoot apex (iii) Coleoptile (iv) Radicle
(v) Epiblast (vi) Coleorhiza (vii) Root cap.
A B C D E
(1) iii v i vi vii
(2) iii vi vii ii iv
(3) ii vii vi i v
(4) iii vi vii i iv

CLASS XII | 11.06.2017
178. A dicotyledonous plant bears flowers but never produces fruits and seeds. The most probable
cause for the above situation is :
(1) Plant is dioecious and bears only pistillate flowers
(2) Plant is dioecious and bears both pistillate and staminate flowers
(3) Plant is monoecious
(4) Plant is dioecious and bears only staminate flowers.
179. The given figure shows false fruits of apple. What do A, B, C & D represents.
(1) A gEndosperm, B gThalamus, C gSeed, D gMesocarp

(2) A gThalamus, B gSeed, C gEndocarp , D gAchene
(3) A gThalamus, B gSeed, C gEndocarp, D gMesocarp
(4) None of these
180. Match column I with column II
Column I Column II
(A) Albuminous seed (i) Pea, ground nut
(B) Non albuminous seed (ii) Wheat, barley
(C) Apomixis (iii) Banana
(D) Parthenocarpic fruit (iv) Asteraceae & grasses
(1) A g(i), B g(iv), C g(iii), D g (ii)
(2) A g(ii), B g(i), C g(iv), D g(iii)
(3) A g(ii), B g(iv), C g(i), D g(iii)
(4) A g(ii), B g(iv), C g(iii), D g(i)


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CLASS XII | 11.06.

COMBINED TEST (P, C, B)

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.)

(iv) q is positive and is along the line joining the charges

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.)

(1) 3 N / C (2) 4 N / C (3) 5N / C (4) None of these

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.)

52. Which compound is formed when CH3OH reacts with CH3 Mg - X

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.)

Alcohol B reacts fastest with Lucas reagent. Hence A and B are:

CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

65. Hydrogen bonding is maximum in

(1) H3C (2) H3C

CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

(3) Both (4) None is correct

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.)

71. Predict the product of reaction below

(1) CH3 (2)

73. The correct decreasing order of acidic strength is

(1) H3C O CH3 (2)

This represents Oxo method of alcohol synthesis. Product can be:

(3) Both are true (4) None is true

77. Reaction of tertiarty butyl alcohol with hot Cu at 350C produces

The slowest and fastest steps in the above reaction are

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.)

(1) H3C ; H3C (2) H3C ; H3C

(3) Both are correct (4) None is correct

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.)

88. The product (B) in the following sequence of reaction is:

(3) CHO (4) None of these

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.)

(1) (i) a (ii) b, (iii) c, (iv) d

122. What is meant by holocarpic thallus

131. Clone is a group of individuals got through-

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.)

(1) A gHilum, B gFunicle, C gNucellus, D gMicropyle

(2) A gHilum, B gOuter integument, C gNucellus, D gMicropyle

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.)

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.)

(1) A gEndosperm, B gThalamus, C gSeed, D gMesocarp

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.)

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