Test Book 1 PDF

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1. Among the following revolt which is C. Only 1

not from Bengal and Eastern India? D. All of the above
A. Kol Rising 4. Consider the statements:

B. Chuar and Ho Risings
C. The Ahoms Revolt 1. Gandhi Irwin Pact was effected
D. Koli Risings on 5 March 1931
2. The pact declared that Dominion
2. With which objective, CR Das and status was the goal of Indias
Motilal Nehru formed the Swaraj constitutional development.
Party within the Congress? 3. Gandhijee attended the Second
Round Table Conference, and the
A. Spearhead the mass struggles conference was successful.
B. Forge Hindu-Muslim unity
Choose the correct statement:
C. Participate in elections to the
provincial council A. Only 1
B. Only 2
D. Organise legislative protests C. 1 and 2
against Rowlatt D. All
3. Consider the following statements:
5. Consider the following statements:
1. The Non-cooperation Movement
1. Demand for Purna Swaraj was
sought to bring the working of the
made in 1929 in Karachi Session.
Government to a standstill by not
2. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru presided
cooperating with the
over the Congress Session in1929
administration.
3. Tricolour Flag of Indian
2. The Civil disobedience
Independence was unfurled by the
movements aim was to paralyse
Congress President Pt. Jawahar Lal
the administration by performance
Nehru in Karachi Session.
of specific illegal acts.
3. The Non-cooperative movement
Choose the correct statements
was started by Gandhij through
Dandi March.
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
Choose the correct options:
C. Only 3
D. 1,2 and 3
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2
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6. Consider the statements regarding B 2 1 4 3

INA (Indian National Army):
C 4 2 1 3
1. INA was organised by Capt. D 3 4 1 2
Mohan Singh.
2. Subhash Chandra Bose re-
organised INA as Azad Hind Fauj. 8. Identify the incorrect statements
3. The captured INA soldiers were about B.M.Malabari
tried by the British Govt. of India.
4. Jawahar Lal Nehru was the a. A parsi social reformer who
Defence Counsel for the INA heroes. advocated for widow remarriage
b. His relentless efforts led to the
Choose the correct statements: enactment of The Age Consent
Act in 1891 which forbade the
A. 1 and 3 marriage for girls below age of 12
B. 2 and 3 c. He founded Seva Sadan in 1885
C. 1,2 and 3 which specialized in taking care
D. All the above of exploited women
d. He himself married a widow and
7. Match List I with List II. proved to be an inspiration to his
followers.
List I List II
(Association) (Founder/Member 9. The slogan One religion, one caste,
) one god for mankind was coined by
I East India 1 Justice Ranade

A. E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker
Associatio
B. Sri Narayan Guru
n C. Sahadaran Ayyappan
II Poona 2 Dada Bhai
D. Swami Dayanand Saraswati
Sarvajanik Naoroji
Sabha 10. Which was the first newspaper
II Madras 3 M. Veer published by Gandhi?
I Mahajan Raghvachari
Sabha A. Harijan
IV Bombay 4 Firozshah B. Young India
Presidency Mehta C. Indian Opinion
D. Navjivan
I II III IV 11. Dr B R Ambedkar clashed with

Mahatma Gandhi at the 2nd Round
A 1 2 3 4 Table Conference demanding
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A. Reservation for Dalits in D. Siddhartha Gautama

Government jobs
15. Ajithantha purana was composed by
B. Reservation for Dalits in Ministries
A. Ranna
C. Separate citizen status for Dalits B. Ponna
C. Pampa
D. Separate Electorate for Dalits D. Bhoja
12. Which of the following were the
salient features of the government of 16. Choose the correct statements about
India Act, 1935? Hyder Ali
I. Provided for bicameral I. He was the commander in chief
federation legislature in the army of Dalawyi Nanjayya
II. Provided provincial autonomy II. He lost the first Anglo Mysore
III. Provided for a federal court war against the British in 1767
IV. Diarchy in Sind and Orissa was III. He was killed in the second Anglo
maintained Mysore war in 1782
Select the correct answer using the IV. He built Dariya daulat and
lalbagh gardens at Srirangapatna
code given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only A. Only 1 is correct

B. 1 and 2 are correct
B. 2 and 4 only C. 1,3 and 4 are correct
D. All are correct
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2,3 and 4
17. Who was the founder of Arvidu
13. The doctrine of suleh kul among dynasty
the Sufis represents
A. Achyuta Raya
A. Internal purification B. Sadasiva Raya
B. Universal brotherhood C. Krishnadeva Raya
C. Salvation D. Tirumala Raya
D. Bond of love between God and
individual soul
18. Who rose in revolt against the
14. Who among the following was
British during the 1857-58 uprising
known as Prachanna Buddha?
A. Raja Venkatappa Nayaka of
A. King Ashoka
Surapur
B. Shankaracharya
B. Dhondiya Wagh
C. Ramanujachraya
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C. Kittur Rani Chennamma C. Nizam of Hyderabad

D. Krishshnappa Nayaka of Balam D. janardan Rao Desai
19. The kodagu uprising was led by

24. The integral principles of Indias
A. Budibasappa in 1830-31 foreign policy Non Alignment and Five
B. Swamy Aparamara in 1835-37 principles for peaceful existence was
C. Sardar Gurusiddappa in 1833 propogated by
D. Sangolli Rayanna in 1829
A. Mahatma Gandhi
20. Which of the following are kannada B. Lal Bahadur Shastri
journals that spread nationalistic spirit C. Jawaharlal Nehru
among the people of Karnataka D. IndiraGandhi
A. Vrittanta chintamani
B. Kesari 25. Justice Miller Committee was
C. Suryakanta formed in 1918 for
D. Jaimini bharata
A. To look into the grievances of
21. Who shifted the capital of Mysore ivory canal peasants
state to Bangalore? B. To recommend for the upliftment
of Backward classes in Mysore
A. Lewin Bowring
C. To look into the causes of
B. Mark Cubbon Ganapathi disturbances
D. To set up a strong institution
C. John Briggs against the congress dominance
in Mysore
D. Sir Richard Meade
22. Mysore Chalo movement was

26. Identify the correct statements
A. Demand for responsible about Praja Mitra Mandali in Mysore
government state
B. Demand for karnataka
unification
I. It was inspired by The Justice
C. No tax campaign in Mysore state
Party of Madras
D. Quit India movement in
II. It opposed the demand for
Karnataka
responsible government in
23. Hyderabad State Congress was Mysore
started by III. It demanded expansion of
educational facilities of backward
A. Swamy ramananda teerta classes by opening hostels and
B. Sir Mirza Ismail extending scholarships
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IV. It was successful in becoming a 29. I. Mysore Rule during the period of
strong force against the Congress Krishnaraja odeyar is called the Golden
dominance in Mysore age of Mysore
A. Only 1 and 2 II. Krishnaraja odeyar III was called

B. Only 1, 2 and 3 the Morning star of Renaissance in
C. All the above Karnataka
D. None of the above
30. Identify the incorrect statements
27. Nagar Insurrection that led to the I. The Dakshinadi school is the
annexation of Mysore by the East India
Karnataka school of music
company during 1831 was during the
II. The Taphe dance form in
period of
temples which was banned gave
A. Krishnaraja wodeyar II a blow to traditional dance in
Mysore
B. Krishnaraja Wodeyar III III. The rule of Krishnaraja Odeyar
IV encouraged the development
C. Chamaraja VIII of independent Mysore School of
Painting
D. Chamarajendra
IV. The Gudigars of north west
Question 28 and 29 contain two Karnataka are famous sculptors
statements I and II. Answer these using known for their intricate work
the following codes to identify the True on ivory or wood
statements:
A. 1 and 2 only
Code: B. 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
A. Both the statements are true
D. 1 and 4 only
B. Only statement I is true
31. Gandhara School of Art developed in
C. Only statement II is true the reign of
D. Both statement are false A. Chandra Gupta Maurya

B. Ashoka
28. I. Representative assembly was C. Chandra Gupta
convoked in 1881 when Sheshadri Iyer D. Kanishka
was the dewan of Mysore
32. In which of the following places rock
II. Rangacharlu was the first Diwan cut architecture is not found
of Mysore A. Aihole
B. Badami
C. Ajanta
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D. Pattadkal III. Praja Samyukta Paksha was

merged with Congess
33. Which of the following is called the IV. Gandhiji presided the Congress
tajmahal of Deccan session
A. 1 and 4 only
A. Gol gumbaz B. 4 only
B. Jami masjid C. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. Ibrahim rouza D. All the above
D. Rangin mahal
36. Consider the following statements
34. With respect to the Mysore about Constituent Assembly of India:
legislative council, which of the I. It was set up as a result of
following statement is true? negotiations between the Indian
Leaders and Cripps Mission
I. It was established when V.P
II. Its members were directly
Madhavarao was the Dewan of Mysore
elected
II. At that time of its formation the III. It worked as Indias parliament
Council consisted of not less than 10 till the first election were carried
and not more than 15 additional out
members to be nominated by the
Government, out of which not less than Which among the above statements is/
two-fifths were required to be non- are correct?
officials. A. Only 1
B. Only 2 & 3
Select the correct answer using the code C. Only 3
given below: D. None of them
A. 1 only
37. The Directive Principles of State
B. 2 only policy, though attractive, are not
enforceable by law. But there is one
C. Both 1 and 2 among the given options, which has
been so far made enforceable by a
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Supreme Court fiat. Identify that DPSP
35. Which of the following significant from the given options:
events occurred during Belgaum
session of Congress in 1924 A. Uniform Civil Code
I. The state anthem of Karnataka B. Free Education till the children
was sung for the first time complete age of 6 years (provision
II. State Karnataka Unification after 86th amendment act)
Conference was also held C. Equal pay for equal work
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D. Prohibition of intoxicating drinks D. All of the above

and of drugs which are injurious to
health
42. Consider the following:
38. Which is the smallest parliament
1. Chief Justice of India
constituency in India?
2. Other Judges of Supreme Court
A. Sikkim
President may consult the Judges of
B. Goa
the Supreme Courts for
C. Anandaman & Nicobar
appointment of which among the
D. Lakshadweep
above?
39. Consider the following statements
A. Only 1
in context with Legislative procedures
B. Only 2
at Center:
C. Both 1 & 2
1. A Money bill can be referred to a
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Joint Committee of the Houses
2. A motion for introduction of a
43. The C & AG of India does not audit
Finance Bill or an Appropriation
the receipts and expenditure of
Bill in either house of Parliament
Which among the above statements is/ A. Municipal undertakings

are correct? B. State Governments
C. Government companies
A. Only 1 is correct D. Central Government
B. Only 2 is correct
C. Both 1 & 2 are correct
D. Both 1 & 2 are incorrect 44. A member of a State Public Service
Commission can be appointed and
40. The salary and allowances of Chief removed respectively by __:
Justice of India and Other judges can be A. Governor, Governor
reduced only if approval comes from: B. Governor, President
A. President C. President, Governor
B. Parliament D. President, President
C. Supreme Court
D. None of them 45. With reference to the executive
power in a state in India, which among
41. Part IV of the Constitution of India the following statements is / are
deals with correct?
A. Civil rights
1. Executive power of the state is
B. Political Rights
vested in Governor
C. Economic Social and Cultural
rights
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2. Real executive authority in a 47. How long a person should have

state is Council of Ministers practiced in a High Court to be eligible
3. All executive decisions in a state to be appointed as a Judge of Supreme
are taken in the name of Chief Court of India?
Minister
A. 10 Years
Choose the correct option from the B. 15 Years
codes given below: C. 12 Years
D. 5 Years
A. Only 1 & 2
B. Only 2 & 3 48. Who among the following is known
C. Only 3 as the father of local self government
D. 1, 2 & 3 in India ?
A. Mahatma Gandhi
46. With reference to the State B. Lord Canning
Legislative Council in India, which C. Lord Ripon
among the following statements is / are D. Lord Wellesley
correct?
49. The power to vote money for public
I. The Legislative Council is a
expenditure rests in India with ___:
continuing House & two-third of
the members retire in two years. 1. Lok Sabha
II. Members of local bodies elect 2. Rajya Sabha
one-third of the total number of 3. Legislative Assembly
members of the legislative 4. Legislative Council
council
III. If a state legislative council is to Choose the correct option from the
be created or abolished , a codes given below:
resolution to that effect is to be
first passed by the State A. Only 1 & 2
legislature by a two-third B. Only 1 & 3
majority C. Only 1, 2 & 3
D. 1, 2, 3 & 4
Choose the correct option from the
codes given below: 50. With respect to the President of
India, which among the following
A. Only 1 & 2 statements is / are correct?
B. Only 2 & 3
C. Only 1 & 3 1. A person who has been president of
D. 1, 2 & 3 India is eligible for immediate re-
election
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2. A person can not hold the office of departmental proceedings for the
president of India for more than two same offence
consecutive terms B. punished departmentally cannot
be prosecuted in a court of law
Choose the correct option from the for the same offence
codes given below: C. shall not be prosecuted and
punished for the same offence
A. Only 1 more than once
B. Only 2 D. cannot be subjected to
C. Both 1 & 2 proceedings in civil courts for
D. Neither 1 nor 2 disobedience of an injunction
along with criminal proceedings
51. The Sarkaria Commission was set
up to review the relation between 55. According to the Constitution, the
Lok Sabha must meet at least
A. Prime Minister and the President A. thrice each year with no more
B. Executive and Judiciary than two months between
C. Legislative and Executive sessions
D. Centre and the State B. twice each year with no more
than three months between
52. One of the following members was sessions
not included in the drafting Committee C. twice each year with no more
of the Indian Constitution than four months between
A. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar sessions
B. Jawaharlal Nehru D. twice each year with no more
C. Shri N Madhava Rao than six months between
D. Shri KM Munshi sessions
53. The question asked orally after the 56. Provisions of the Indian
question hour in the House is called Constitution relating to the formation of
A. Supplementary question new States can be amended by
B. Short notice question
C. Starred question
D. Unstarred question A. two-third majority of the
members present and voting in
each House of the Parliament
54. Under the term Double Jeopardy provided they also constitute the
implied in Clause 2 of Article 20 of the majority of the total membership
Constitution of India, a person in each House
A. convicted by a court of law
cannot be punished under
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B. a Parliamentary resolution which

should be ratified by a majority 61.With reference to the procedure of
of State Legislatures the Mercy petitions in India, consider
C. a simple majority in each House the following statements:
of Parliament
D. a three-fourth majority in each i. A mercy petition can be filed only by
House of Parliament Indian Citizens
ii. There is no time limit for the

57. The quorum requirement in the
president to respond on the mercy
Rajya Sabha is
petition
A. 25
B. 50
iii. The mercy petition is subject to
C. 100
Judicial Review
D. 126
iv. In India, the only authority to decide
on mercy petitions is the President
58. A proclamation of failure of the
constitutional machinery (president Which among the above statements
rule) in a State is valid in the first is/are correct?
instance for
A. One month A. Only 1 & 2 are correct
B. Three months B. Only 1, 2 & 3 are correct
C. Four months C. Only 2 & 3 are correct
D. Six months D. 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct
59. The Tenth Schedule of the

Constitution of India deals with the 62. In Lok Sabha of India, the Leader of
A. languages of the Union the House is nominated by ___:
B. lists of legislative business
C. anti-defection law
D. special status of Jammu and A. President
Kashmir B. Lok Sabha Speaker
C. Prime Minister
60. For removal of a Governor from D. Deputy Speaker
office, the President seeks advice from
______: 63. In the Indian context, the term De-
A. Council of Ministers notified tribes refers to
B. Supreme Court
C. Chief Minister of the concerned
A. Tribes which are aboriginals
state
B. Nomadic tribes
D. None of them
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C. Tribes practising shifting C. The Prime Minister

cultivation D. The Vice-President
D. Tribes which were earlier
classified as criminal tribes
67. Which of the following is not in the
64. Which one of the following is not State List under the Constitution of
explicitly stated in the Constitution of India?
India but followed as a convention? A. Fisheries
B. Agriculture
C. Insurance
A. The Finance Minister is to be a D. Betting and Gambling
member of the Lower House
B. The Prime Minister has to resign 68. The power to promulgate
if he loses majority in the Lower ordinances during recess of Parliament
House is vested with
C. All the parts of India are to be
represented in the Council of A. The Council of Ministers
Ministers B. The Parliamentary Standing
D. In- the event of both the Committee on Urgent Enactment
President and the Vice President C. The President
demitting office simultaneously D. The Prime Minister
before the end of their tenure, the
Speaker of the Lower House of 69. Who is non-member who can
Parliament will officiate as the participate in the debate of Lok Sabha?
President A. Vice President
B. Chief Justice of India
65. The Appellate jurisdiction of the C. Attorney General of India
Supreme Court does not involve D. None of the above
70. In which among the following

A. civil cases cases, the Supreme Court of India
B. criminal cases propounded the theory of basic
C. disputes arising out of pre- structure of the Constitution?
Constitution treaties and
agreements A. Gopalan vs. State of Madras
D. cases involving interpretation of B. Golak Nath
the Constitution C. Keshvanand Bharati
D. Minerva Mills
66. Who administers the Oath of Office
to the President?
A. The Chief Justice of India
B. The Speaker
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71. Of the various ways of financing 75. Which one of the following is the
governments investment expenditure, basic objective of monetary policy?
the least inflationary is:
A. To control deficit of the budget
A. foreign aid B. To control deficit in the balance of
B. deficit financing payment
C. taxation C. To control cost and availability of
D. public borrowing money
D. To control public expenditure
72. Devaluation means:
76. Consider the following actions by
A. converting rupee into gold the government
B. lowering of the value of one
currency in comparison of some i. cutting the tax rates
foreign currency ii. increasing the government
C. making rupee dealer in comparison spending
to some foreign currency iii. abolishing the subsidies
D. None of these In context of economic recession,
which of the above actions can be
73. Monetary policy is regulated by: considered a part of fiscal stimulus
package?
A. money lenders
B. Central Bank A. i only
C. private entrepreneurs B. i and ii only
C. i and iii only
D. Government policy
D. i, ii and iii
74. Which of the following comes under
77. When the reserve bank of India
non-plan expenditure?
announces an increase in the Cash
I. Subsidies Reserve Ratio, what does it mean?
II. Interest payments A. The commercial banks will have

more money to lend
III. Defence expenditure B. The reserve Band of India will have
less money to lend
IV. Maintenance expenditure for the
C. The commercial banks will have less
infrastructure created in the previous
money to lend
plans
D. The Union government will have less
A. I,II money to lend
B. I, III
C. II, IV 78. In order to comply with TRIPS
D. I, II, III, IV Agreement, India enacted the
geographical indication of Goods Act,
1999. The difference between a Trade
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Mark and a Geographical Indication ii. Finance minister

is/are:
i. A trade Mark is an individual or a iii. Chief ministers of all states
company right whereas a Answer choices
geographical Indication is a
community right A. Only 1 and 2
ii. A Trade mark can be licensed
whereas a GI cannot be licensed B. Only 2 and 3
iii. A TM is assigned to the agricultural
C. Only 1 and 3
good/products and handicraft only.
A. i only D. all of them
B. ii and iii only
C. i and ii only 82. If five year planning was continued,
D. i, ii and iii the period of 13th five year plan would
be
79. The Government has been making
efforts for 100% Financial Inclusion in A. 2013-2018
recent times. What does Financial
B. 2015-2020
Inclusion comprise?
C. 2017-2022
i. Access to Credit
ii. Access to Financial Advice D. None of above
iii. Access to Insurance
iv. Access to savings account 83. The Goods and Services Tax (GST)
A. i only will subsume which among the
B. iv only following central and state taxes?
C. i and iv only
i. Excise duty
D. all the above
ii. Sales tax
iii. Income tax
80. Deficit financing means that the iv. Value added tax (VAT)
government borrows money from the v. Luxury tax
A. RBI Choose the correct option:

B. Local bodies
A. i, ii and iii
C. Big businessmen
B. i, ii, iv and v
D. IMF
C. ii, iii, iv and v
81. Governing council of the NITI Aayog D. i, ii, iii and iv
includes
84. Which of the following is/are the
i. Prime minister major objectives of MGNREGA?
i. Wage employment
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ii. Create durable community assets 87. Consider the following:

iii. Empower Gram Panchayats
i. Market borrowing
Choose the correct option: ii. Treasury bills
iii. Special securities issued to RBI
A. i only
B. i and ii Which of these is/are components(s) of
C. i and iii internal debt?
D. i, ii and iii
A. 1 only
85. Which among the following states B. 1 and 2
has maximum number of Special C. 2 only
Economic Zones (SEZ) as on February D. 1,2 and 3
2015?
88. In India, the interest Rate on savings
A. Karnataka accounts in all the nationalized
B. Andhra Pradesh commercial banks is fixed by
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Telangana A. Union Ministry of Finance
B. Union Finance Commission
86. With respect to Anti-Dumping Duty C. Indian Banks Association
which of the following statement is D. None of the above.
incorrect?
89. Which of the statements given
A. It is duty imposed by government below is/are correct?
on imported products which
have prices less than their 1. The Finance minister declared in
normal values or domestic price. the Budget for 2015-16 that
B. Usually countries initiate anti- General Anti-Avoidance (GAAR)
dumping probes to check if will be implemented with the
domestic industry has been hurt effect from 1 April 2015
because of a surge in below-cost
2. The provisions of GAAR were
imports.
aimed at checking tax avoidance
C. Anti-Dumping Duty is imposed by overseas investors
under the multilateral WTO
regime and vary from product to Select the correct answer using the code
product and from country to given below:
country.
D. In India, anti-dumping duty is A. 1 only
recommended by the Union
B. 2 only
Finance Ministry, while the Union
Ministry of Commerce imposes it. C. Both 1 and 2
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D. Neither 1 nor 2 I. Credit Guarantee fund will be

created in the first phase of the
90. Government of India recently Programme
announced constitution of NITI Aayog II. Mera Khata Bhagya Vidhaata is
as a policy think-tank replacing the slogan of the mission
Planning Commission. NITI stands for III. Micro Insurance will be provided
in the second phase of the
A. National Institution for
programme
Transforming India
B. It is not an acronym, but only a Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Sanskrit word for Policy
A. 1 only
C. National Initiative for
Technological India B. 2 and 3 only
D. New Initiative for Transforming C. 1 and 2 only
India
D. 1, 2 and 3
91. Which of the following indices is
not considered while calculating 94. Which one among the following
Human Development Index (HDI)? sectors in India has the highest share
of employment?
A. Life expectancy
A. Agriculture and allied activities
B. Education
B. Manufacturing
C. Housing
C. Construction
D. Income
D. Tertiary sector
92. Yellow Revolution in India refers to
growth of 95. Which one among the following
items has maximum weight in
A. Militancy in the north-east wholesale price index in India?
B. Oilseeds production A. Primary article
C. Advertising industry B. Fuel and power
D. Jaundice outbreak C. Manufactured product
93. Which of the following statement D. Food item
is/are true about Pradhan Mantri Jan
Dhan Yojana?
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96. If we deduct grants for creation of C. Both 1 and 2

capital assets from revenue deficit, we
arrive at the concept of D. Neither 1 nor 2
A. primary deficit 99. Who is the current director general

of World Trade organisation?
B. net fiscal deficit
A. Roberto Azevdo
C. budgetary deficit B. Pascal Lamy
C. Jim Yong Kim
D. effective revenue deficit D. Christine Lagarde
97. Privatization includes 100. The Union government has
recently given its approval for setting
A. sale of public enterprises to
up of the first ESDM (electronic system
private sector
design and manufacturing) in which
B. disinvestment of public city?
enterprise equity
A. Mumbai
C. participation of private sector in B. Bangalore
management in public sector C. Mysore
enterprises D. Kochi
D. All of the above
98. What is/are the facility/facilities

the beneficiaries can get from the
services of Business Correspondent
(Bank Saathi) in branchless areas?
1. It enables the beneficiaries to

draw their subsidies and social
security benefits in their villages.
2. It enables the beneficiaries in the

rural areas to make deposits and
withdrawals.
Select the correct answer using the code

given below.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
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B. Educated professionals from one

country to another
Direction: (Q. No. 1 to 15) Read the five C. Goods from one country to another
passages given below and answer the D. All the above
fifteen questions that follow based on
the information given in the passage. Passage 2
Passage 1 The best definition of Sustainable

development was presented by the report
Brain drain, which is the action of having Our Common Future (also known as the
highly skilled and educated people leaving Brundtland Report):
their country to work abroad, has become "Sustainable development is development
one of the developing countries concern. that meets the needs of the present
What makes those educated people leave without compromising the ability of future
their countries should be seriously generations to meet their own needs."
considered and a distinction between Green development is generally
push and pull factors must be made. The differentiated from sustainable
push factors include low wages and lack of development in that Green development
satisfactory working and living conditions. prioritizes what its proponents consider
Social unrest, political conflicts and wars to be environmental sustainability over
may also be determining causes. The pull economic and cultural considerations. In
factors, however, include intellectual addition to that, sustainable development
freedom and substantial funds for has underlying concepts: the concept of
research. 'needs', in particular the essential needs of
the world's poor, to which overriding
1. Which of these conditions most likely priority should be given; and the idea of
would lead to brain drain from a country limitations imposed by the state of
according to the passage? technology and social organization on the
A. New programmes like Skill India and environment's ability to meet present and
the Make in India Programmes will future needs. There is an additional focus
make India the manufacturing hub of on the present generations' responsibility
the World to improve the future generations' life by
B. Policy of Housing for all aims to restoring the previous ecosystem damage
build 2 crore houses in Urban areas and resisting to contribute to further
and 4 crore houses in Rural areas ecosystem damage.
C. The government spends a meagre
amount for research in science and
technology compared to other 3. Sustainable development stresses upon:
countries A. The relationship between man and
D. None of the above development,
B. A development that takes into
consideration the needs of future
2. Brain drain results in movement of generations.
A. People from one country to another
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C. The luxuries of the worlds poor industrialization and the social protest
D. Only preventing any further damage that it accompanied.
to the ecosystem as much as possible
On this day women are usually given
4. The word proponent in the passage flowers and small gifts. It is also
most nearly means celebrated as an equivalent of Mother's
A. one who denies the existence of a Day in some countries. Children also give
deity or of divine beings small gifts to their mothers and
B. one who believes it impossible to grandmothers. In countries like Portugal,
know anything about God it is customary, at the night of 8 March, for
C. the leader or principal person in a groups of women to celebrate the holiday
movement, cause, etc. with women-only dinners and parties. In
D. a person who advocates a theory, 1975, the United Nations gave official
proposal, or course of action sanction to and started financing
International Women's Day.
5. Green development in the passage
means Although, women are becoming more
A. Eco system centric approach to powerful in business, entertainment,
development politics and many more areas, there are
B. Culture centric approach to still a lot of inequalities around the world
development which call for the mobilization of
C. Development considering the needs everybody to grant women the proper
of the poor and marginalized status they merit.
D. Maximum monetary benefits is the
main concern 6. When was the first IWD celebrated?
A. In the end of the 20th century
B. In the middle of the 20th century
Passage 3 C. Early in the 20th century.
D. In the 19th century
International Women's Day (IWD) is
marked on March 8 every year. Countries
around the world celebrate IWD to give
credit to the economic, political and social
achievements of women and to show 7. Which of the statement is true according
respect to their contributions in the to the passage?
development of their countries. The IWD A. Social unrest and industrialization
was first celebrated on 19 March 1911 in were some of the causes that led to
Germany following a declaration by the IWD
Socialist Party of America. It's only in the B. IWD is officially celebrated all over
beginning of the 20th century that the day the world
was officially and internationally C. Women are restricted only to
acknowledged due to the rapid domestic spheres all over the world
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D. There is no monetary support for the 8. The word palpably most nearly means
international womens day across A. empirically
the world B. obviously
C. tentatively
Passage 4 D. markedly
The chief claim for the use of science in 9. The author blames all of the following
education is that it teaches a child for the failure to impart scientific method
something about the actual universe in through the education system except
which he is living, in making him A. poor teaching
acquainted with the results of scientific B. examination methods
discovery, and at the same time teaches C. the social and education systems
him how to think logically and inductively D. lack of interest on the part of
by studying scientific method. A certain students
limited success has been reached in the
first of these aims, but practically none at 10. If the author were to study current
all in the second. Those privileged education in science to see how things
members of the community who have have changed since he wrote the piece, he
been through a secondary or public school would probably be most interested in the
education may be expected to know answer to which of the following
something about the elementary physics questions?
and chemistry of a hundred years ago, but A. Do students spend more time in
they probably know hardly more than any laboratories?
bright boy can pick up from an interest in B. Can students apply their knowledge
wireless or scientific hobbies out of school logically?
hours. As to the learning of scientific C. Have textbooks improved?
method, the whole thing is palpably a D. Do they respect their teachers?
farce. Actually, for the convenience of
teachers and the requirements of the
examination system, it is necessary that
the pupils not only do not learn scientific 11. Astrology is mentioned as an example
method but learn precisely the reverse, of
that is, to believe exactly what they are A. a science that needs to be better
told and to reproduce it when asked, understood
whether it seems nonsense to them or not. B. a belief which no educated people
The way in which educated people hold
respond to such quackeries as spiritualism C. something unsupportable to those
or astrology shows that fifty years of who have absorbed the methods of
education in the method of science in science
Britain or Germany has produced no D. an acknowledged failure of science
visible effect whatever.
Passage 5
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B. repetition and exclamation

It begins the moment you set foot ashore, C. accumulation of details
the moment you step off the boat's D. irony and satire
gangway. The heart suddenly, yet vaguely,
sinks. It is no lurch of fear. Quite the 14. The extensive use of the pronoun you
contrary. It is as if the life- urge failed, and in passage one indicates that the author
the heart dimly sank. You trail past the A. is speaking to one particular person
benevolent policeman and the inoffensive B. is describing the experience of
passport officials, through the fussy and someone else
somehow foolish customs - and we get C. believes that his feelings will be
into the poky but inoffensive train, with shared by many others
poky but utterly inoffensive people, and D. wishes to add variety to his style
we have a cup of inoffensive tea from a
nice inoffensive boy, and we run through 15. The author apparently believes that
small, poky but nice and inoffensive the nightmare is
country, till we are landed in the big but A. uniquely caused by city life
unexciting station of Victoria, when an B. only over when he leaves the country
inoffensive porter puts us into an C. made worse by the weather
inoffensive taxi and we are driven through D. dispelled by a longer stay in London
the crowded yet strangely dull streets of
London to the cosy yet strangely poky and 16. Pointing at a girl, Ramesh (male) said
dull place where we are going to stay. And She is the daughter of my mothers only
brother. How is Ramesh related to the
the first half-hour in London, after some
girl?
years abroad, is really a plunge of misery.
This life here is one vast complex of A. Cousin brother
dullness! I am dull! I am being dulled! My B. Maternal uncle
spirit is being dulled! My life is dulling C. Brother
down to London dullness. This is the D. Data inadequate
nightmare that haunts you the first few
weeks of London. No doubt if you stay 17. Pointing to a man on the stage, Priya
longer you get over it, and find London as said He is the brother of the daughter of
thrilling as Paris or Rome or New York. the wife of my husband. How is the man
on the stage related to Priya?
12. It in line 1 refers to a feeling of
A. foreboding A. Son
B. fear B. Husband
C. depression C. Cousin
D. malaise D. Nephew
18. Looking at a portrait of a man, Rajesh

13. The author of passage one makes his
said, His mother is the wife of my fathers
point mainly by the use of
A. metaphor and simile
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son. Brothers and sisters I have none. At many boys are there in both the rows
whose portrait was Rajesh looking? together?
A. His son A. 36
B. His cousin B. 37
C. His uncle C. 39
D. His nephew D. None of these
19. Avinash walks 10 km towards North. 23. In a class of 35 children, Maanyas rank
From there he walks 6km towards South. is sixth from the top. Annie is seven ranks
Then he walks 3 km towards East. How far below Maanya. What is Annies rank from
and in which direction is he with reference the bottom?
to his starting point?
A. 22
A. 5 km West B. 20
B. 7km West C. 19
C. 7km East D. 23
D. 5km North-east
24. In the Venn diagram given below,
20. A watch reads 4:30 Oclock. If minute circle represents sportspersons, square
hand points towards the East, in which represents unmarried persons, triangle
direction does the hour hand point? represents women and rectangle
represents educated persons. Each section
A. North-East is number. Study this diagram to answer
B. South-East the following question.
C. North-West
D. North Which sections are represented by the
region numbered 11?
21. Priya walked from P to Q in North, 100
m. Then, she turned to the left and walked
30 m. Again, she turned to left and walked
140 m. Now, how far is she from the
starting point?
A. 30m
B. 50m
C. 20m
D. 40m
22. In a row of boys, Pavan is seventh from

A. Married educated sportswomen
the start and eleventh from the end. In
B. Unmarried uneducated women
another row of boys, Vikas is tenth from
sportspersons
the start and twelfth from the end. How
C. Married educated sportsmen
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D. Unmarried educated sportswomen 27. Statement: All windows are doors. All
buildings are doors. All doors are boats.
Direction (Qs 25 to 26): These
questions are based on the diagram Conclusion:
given below:
I. All windows are boats
II. All buildings are boats
III. Some boats are doors
Answer choices:
A. I and II follow
B. I and III follow
25. Which number is inside all the three
C. II and III follow
figures?
D. All follow
A. 2
28. Statements: All belts are rollers. Some
B. 6
rollers are wheels. All wheels are mats.
C. 7
Some mats are cars.
D. 8
Conclusion:
26. What is the sum of the numbers which
belong to two figures only? I. Some mats are rollers
II. Some mats are belts
A. 10
III. Some cars are rollers
B. 14
IV. Some rollers are belts
C. 18
D. None of these
Answer choices:
Direction (Qs 27 to 29): In following A. I and II follow
three questions below is given a B. I, III and IV follow
statement followed by conclusions. You C. I and IV follow
have to assume everything in the D. II, III and IV follow
statement to be true, then consider the
29. Statements
conclusions together and decide which
of them logically follows beyond a i. All poets are intelligent
reasonable doubt from the information ii. All singers are intelligent.
given in the statement and mark the
appropriate option. Conclusion
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I. all singers are poets 32. Which one among the following boxes
II. some intelligent persons are not are similar to the box formed from the
singers given sheet of of paper (x)?
Answer choices
A. Only conclusion one follows

B. Only conclusion two follows
C. Either conclusion one or conclusion
two follows
D. Neither follows
30. Which one among the following

diagrams illustrates relationship among
animals, cows and horses?
33. Find the Number of triangles in the

figure below.
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
31. What will be the next figure in this D. 14
series?
34. Find the number of square in the
figure below.
A. 8
B. 12
C. 15
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D. 18 5. H, a lady member is second to the

left of J.
35. The six faces of a dice have been 6. F, a male member is seated opposite
marked with alphabets A, B, C, D, E and F to E, a lady member.
respectively. This dice is rolled down 7. There is a lady member between F
three times. The three positions are shown and I
as:
37. Who among the following is to the
immediate left of F ?
A. G
B. I
C. J
Find the alphabet opposite A: D. H
A. C 38. What is true about J and K ?

B. D
C. E A. J is male, K is female
D. F B. J is female, K is male
C. Both are female
36. A, B, C, D and E when arranged in D. Both are male
descending order of there weight from the
top. A becomes third, E is between D and 39. How many persons are seated
A, while C and D are not at the top. Who between K and F ?
among them is the second?
A. 1
A. C
B. B B. 2
C. E C. 3
D. Data inadequate D. 4
40. Who among the following are three

Direction (Qs 37 to 41): Each of these lady members ?
questions are based on the information
given below: A. E, H And J
B. E, F and G
1. 8 persons E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are C. E,H and G
seated around a square table - two D. C, H and J
on each side.
2. There are 3 ladies who are not 41. Who among the following is seated
seated next to each other. between E and H ?
3. J is between L and F.
4. G is between I and F. A. F
B. I
C. K
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D. Cannot be determined father's age will be twice that of his son.

The ratio of their present ages is:
42. A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a
rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell A. 5:2
to gain 20%? B. 7:3
C. 9:2
A. 3 D. 13:4
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
47. The average weight of A, B and C is 45
kg. If the average weight of A and B be 40
kg and that of B and C be 43 kg, then the
43. A is two years older than B who is weight of B is:
twice as old as C. If the total of the ages of
A, B and C be 27, then how old is B? A. 17
B. 20
A. 7 C. 26
B. 8 D. 31
C. 9
D. 10 48. The average monthly income of P and
Q is Rs. 5050. The average monthly
44. A train running at the speed of 60 income of Q and R is Rs. 6250 and the
km/hr crosses a pole in 9 seconds. What is average monthly income of P and R is Rs.
the length of the train? 5200. The monthly income of P is:
A. 120mts A. 3500
B. 180mts B. 4000
C. 324mts C. 4050
D. 150mts D. 5000
45. Sakshi can do a piece of work in 20 49. 36 men can complete a piece of work
days. Tanya is 25% more efficient than in 18 days. In how many days will 27 men
Sakshi. The number of days taken by complete the same work?
Tanya to do the same piece of work is:
A. 12
A. 15 B. 18
B. 16 C. 22
C. 18 D. 24
D. 25
50. In what ratio must a grocer mix two
46. The age of father 10 years ago was varieties of pulses costing Rs. 15 and Rs.
thrice the age of his son. Ten years hence,
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20 per kg respectively so as to get a B. North

mixture worth Rs. 16.50 kg? C. South
D. West
A. 3:7
B. 5:7 55. Two pipes can fill a cistern in 7 and 8 h
C. 7:3 respectively. When they were opened
D. 7:5 together, due to a leakage, the cistern took
16 min more to fill. The leakage alone can
51. A man completes a journey in 10 empty the cistern in
hours. He travels first half of the journey
at the rate of 21 km/hr and second half at A. 42h
the rate of 24 km/hr. Find the total B. 14h
journey in km. C. 56h
D. 28h
A. 220km
B. 224km Direction (Qs 56 to 60): Study the
C. 230km diagram given below and answer each
D. 234km of the following questions.
52. The percentage increase in the area of

a rectangle, if each of its sides is increased
by 20% is:
A. 40%
B. 42%
C. 44%
D. 46%
53. The difference between the length and

breadth of a rectangle is 23 m. If its
perimeter is 206 m, then its area is:
56. How many persons who take tea and
A. 1520m2 wine but not coffee ?
B. 2420 m2
A. 20
C. 2480m2
B. 17
D. 2520m2
C. 25
54. One evening before Sunset, Rupesh D. 15
was standing facing a pole. The shadow of
57. How many persons are there who take
the pole fell exactly to his left. To which
both tea and coffee but not wine ?
direction was he facing?
A. 22
A. East
B. 17
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C. 7 62. The total of the ages of Amar, Akbar

D. 20 and Anthony is 80 years. What was the
total of their ages three years ago ?
58. How many persons take wine ?
A. 71
A. 100 B. 72
B. 82 C. 74
C. 92 D. 77
D. 122
63. There are deer and peacocks in a zoo.
59. How many persons are there who By counting heads they are 80. The
takes only coffee ? number of their legs is 200. How many
peacocks are there ?
A. 90
B. 45 A. 20
C. 25 B. 30
D. 20 C. 50
D. 60
60. How many persons takes all the three ?
64. If you write down all the numbers
A. 20
from 1 to 100, then how many times do
B. 17
you write 3 ?
C. 25
D. 15 A. 11
B. 18
61. Which number replaces the question?
C. 20
D. 22
65. The number of boys in a class is three

times the number of girls. Which one of
the following numbers cannot represent
the total number of children in the class ?
A. 48
B. 42
C. 44
D. 52
66. A sum of Rs. 12,500 amounts to Rs.

A. 9 15,500 in 4 years at the rate of simple
B. 11 interest. What is the rate of interest?
C. 13
D. 15 A. 3
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B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
67. A library has an average of 510 visitors

on Sundays and 240 on other days. The
A. 1
average number of visitors per day in a
B. 2
month of 30 days beginning with a Sunday
C. 3
is:
D. 4
A. 250
Direction (Qs 71 to 75): Examine the
B. 276
following graph and answer the
C. 280
questions that follow.
D. 285
68. A man has Rs. 480 in the

denominations of one-rupee notes, five-
rupee notes and ten-rupee notes. The
number of notes of each denomination is
equal. What is the total number of notes
that he has?
A. 45
B. 60
C. 70
D. 90
69. A rectangular field is to be fenced on 71. Which month showed the highest
three sides leaving a side of 20 feet difference in inflation rate over the
uncovered. If the area of the field is 680 sq. previous month?
feet, how many feet of fencing will be
required? A. March
B. April
A. 34 C. May
B. 40 D. June
C. 68
D. 88 72. Which month showed the highest
percentage difference in the inflation rate
70. Choose the correct mirror image of the over the previous month?
given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives. A. March
B. April
C. May
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D. July
73. For how many months was the

inflation rate greater than 16?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. None of these
74. In how many month was there a

decrease in the inflation rate?
A. Zero 76. In the case of how many years was

B. One the production below the average
C. Two production of the given years?
D. Three
A. One
75. The difference in the number of B. Two
months in which there was an increase in C. Three
the inflation rate and the number of D. Four
months in which there was a decrease,
77. What was the percentage drop in
was
production from 1996 to 1997?
A. Four
A. 100
B. Three
B. 50
C. Two
C. 65
D. One
D. 40
Direction (Qs 76 to 80): Examine the
78. In which year was the production 50%
following graph and answer the
of the total production in 1993 and 1998
together?
A. 1994
B. 1995
C. 1996
D. 1997
79. If the production in 1999 will be above

the average production of the given years,
which of the following could be the
minimum production for 1999?
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A. 105000 A. Rs 1040
B. 120000 B. Rs 1020
C. 100900 C. Rs 980
D. 130000 D. Rs 940
80. What was the approximate percentage 83. Gita donated her earning of
increase in production from 1993 to Wednesday to Naveen. What was Naveens
1994? total earnings on Wednesday after Gitas
donation?
A. 60
B. 40 A. Rs 520
C. 110 B. Rs 550
D. 30 C. Rs 540
D. Rs 560
84. What is the difference between Rahuls

Direction (Qs 81 to 85): Examine the earnings on Monday and Gitas earnings
following graph and answer the on Tuesday?
A. Rs 40
B. Rs 20
C. Rs 50
D. Rs 30
85. What is the respective ratio between

Naveens earnings on Monday, Wednesday
and Thursday?
A. 7:3:5
B. 8:6:5
C. 8:7:4
D. 9:3:4
81. What is Gitas average earnings over
all the days together?
A. Rs 285
B. Rs 290
C. Rs 320
D. Rs 310
82. What is the total amount earned by

Rahul and Naveen together on Tuesday
and Thursday together?
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Direction (Qs 86 to 90): Examine the film production who have not participated
following graph and answer the in the strike?
A. 3271
B. 3819
C. 3948
D. 1273
89. What is the total number of employees

in engineering profession and industries
together?
A. 5698
B. 5884
C. 5687
D. 5896
90. In teaching profession if three-fifth of

the teachers are not permanent, what is
86. What is the difference between the the number of permanent teachers in the
total number of employees in teaching and teaching profession?
medical profession together and the
A. 1608
number of employees in management
B. 1640
professions?
C. 1764
A. 6770 D. 1704
B. 7700
C. 6700
D. 7770
87. In management profession three-

fourth of the number of employees are
female. What is the number of male
employees in management profession?
A. 1239
B. 1143
C. 1156
D. 1139
88. 25% of employees from film

production profession went on a strike.
What is the number of employees from
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Directions (Q. Nos. 91-100) Given your village. When the train is about to
below are ten questions. Each question start, you come to know that your ticket
describes a situation and is followed by has slipped somewhere from your pocket.
four possible responses. Indicate the What would you do in such a situation
response you find the most A. Cancel your journey and get down
appropriate. Choose only one response from the train
for each question. The responses will B. You use your power and travel
be evaluated based on the level of without a ticket. Infact order the TTI
appropriateness for the given question. to arrange for a seat for you
C. Rush towards the window of ticket
Please attempt all the items. There is no counter to buy another ticket
penalty for wrong answers for these ten D. Inform the incident to the TTI and
items. buy another ticket as per the rules
from the TTI
91. You are being sent for an intensive
efficiency improvement training program, 94. You are offered a heavy bribe in return
which you are not interested in going for. of granting profile tender relating to a
You will telecom services. The matter is not at all
A. Proceed for the training keeping serious and granting of tender is not going
your interest aside to harm anyone. You will
B. Inform your boss to send someone A. Take legal action against the
else for the training organization offering bribes and will
C. Go for the training but you will spend strive to penalize the guilty
most of the time roaming here and B. Accept the bribe
there C. Try to keep yourself away from the
D. Try on finding excuses for avoiding situation
the training D. Revolt against the system of bribery
and try to get the tender in a positive
92. You are the head of anti-naxal way
operation in the jungles. Suddenly you
spot some naxalites hiding in the bush. 95. You are acting as presiding officer
You will during the polling time. You see a
A. Warn them to surrender physically weak and old lady came to cast
B. Make a sudden assault on them her vote and waiting in queue for her turn.
C. Inform your senior officers and wait What is your reaction
for some forces to come A. Go to her; tell her not to cast her vote
D. Circle them first and ask them to and advise her to go home
surrender. If they refuse, then order B. Ask someone to bring her to you and
firing help her to cast her vote
C. Do nothing as others may object for
93. You are a railway officer. For an doing so
important personal work you have to go to
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D. Go to her; encourage her to cast her B. Order the police to arrest all those
vote by helping her to vote with the people who are involved in such
help of others and ask the media to heinous crimes
take her photograph C. Talk to the people directly and warn
them not to get involved in honour
96. You are the district magistrate of a killings
district. Sarpanch elections are going on in D. Give protection to the people who
the districts. During election in a village, married outside their community
two leading parties had a conflict. How
will you handle the situation? 99. You go to your village in summer
A. Direct the police to control the vacation. You saw fire in a nearby village
situation and people were panicking. You
B. Tell the parties that you will cancel
A. Pacify the people, form a team and
their candidature
use sand and water to put off fire
C. Go there and try to mediate in the
B. Call up the fire brigade from the city
situation
C. Wait for situation to calm down
D. Write to the state election
D. Leave the village and rush away
commission about the incident
100. You are DM of a flood prone district.
One day while on a survey of the area in a
97. You are a traffic police inspector. One
boat with your subordinates, you found
day, your brother was caught ina case of
that the boat had developed a hole in it
while drunk and driving. What will you
and water started coming in. you will
do?
A. Order your subordinates to jump out
A. Go by the law and punish him
of the boat in order to guess the
accordingly
depth of the water
B. Give him a warning and let him go
B. Jump out the boat as you know how
C. Let him go thinking that you will
to swim
make him understand at home
C. Order your subordinates to plug the
D. Warn him and let him go because
leak with a cloth, threw the water by
this is the first time he has done this
bucket and started boating fast to
mistake
reach the destination
D. Call the disaster management
98. You are the police commissioner of a
authority and tell them about the
state. Honour killing is very common in
situation
your state. One or more such cases are
reported every day. What will you do to
control the situation
A. Launch a campaign to open the
minds of the people and to make
them realize that honour killing is a
crime
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1. The following sources give information 4. The mountain building in Himalayas

about the earths interior began
i. Meteors A. about 45 million years ago
ii. Magma from Volcanic eruptions B. when the continental plates of India
iii. Seismic activity and Eurasia converged on each other
iv. Magnetic surveys C. both (a) and (b)
v. Gravity anomoly D. None of the above
below 5. Which of the following is an example of
A. 1 and 2 only metamorphic rocks?
B. 1, 2 and 3 A. Sandstone
C. All of the above B. Basalt
D. None of the above C. Shale
D. Slate
2. Which of the following statements are
incorrect 6. The least explosive type of volcano is
A. Oceanic crust is thinner than called
continental crust A. Basalt plateau
B. Oceanic crust is lighter than B. Cinder cone
continental crust C. Shield volcanoes
C. Oxygen is the most abundant element D. Composite volcanoes
in the earths crust
D. The earths crust constitutes less than 7. Which of the following is true about
1% of earths total volume stratosphere?
A. Vertical winds are almost absent in
this region
3. The main source of salinity in the ocean is: B. Temperature decreases with height in
A. Land this region
C. Violent weather changes are seen in
B. Marine life
this region
C. Meteorites D. Aurora borealis are seen in this layer
D. Volcanoes
8. Highest temperature is recorded at
A. The equator
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B. Slightly north of equator D. All the above

C. Slightly south of equator
D. At both the tropics 12. Match the following
9. The land-sea distribution or the positions

of the world's continents and major oceans Select the correct answer using the code
influences
below
A. the major pressure belts that develop
from the general circulation of the
atmosphere
B. the development of the mid-latitude
cyclonic depressions, at the
I Valley 1 Violent storms over ocean
convergence zone between polar and
breeze in tropical areas
subtropical air masses II Katabatic 2 Tornado over seas in mid
C. both (a) and (b) wind latitudes
D. None of the above III Typhoons 3 The wind moving upslope
during the day in
mountains
10. The humidity of the air depends upon IV Water 4 The cool air draining into
A. temperature sprouts the valleys during night
B. location
I II III IV
C. weather
D. All of the above A 3 4 1 2
B 3 4 2 1
11. Consider the following statements about
C 4 3 2 1
extra tropical cyclones
D 4 3 1 2
1. They develop in the mid and high
latitude
2. They develop due frontal situation at
the mid latitudes 13. Which of the following statement is not
3. They can originate only on seas correct?
4. They move from west to east
A. Strait of Malacca lies between
Which of the above are true Malaysia and Sumatra
A. 1 and 2 only B. Strait of Malacca lies between
B. 1,2 and 3 only Sulawesi and New Guinea
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
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C. Strait of Makassar lies between C. Both 1 & 2 are correct

Sumatra and Sulawesi D. Both 1 & 2 are incorrect
D. Strait of Sunda lies between Java and
Sumatra 16. The pass located at the southern end of
the Nilgiri Hills in south India is called
A. The Palghat gap
14. Tides are caused by
B. The Bhorghat pass
1. Gravitational attraction of the sun
C. The Thalgat pass
2. Gravitational attraction of the moon
D. The Bolan pass
3. Centrifugal force
4. Centripetal force
17. The Radcliffe line is a boundary between
A. India and Pakistan
Choose the correct option from the codes B. India and China
given below: C. India and Myanmar

D. India and Afghanistan
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 1,2 and 3
18. Which of the following are true with
C. Only 2 and 3 respect to the Indian Peninsular Plateau?
D. All the above 1. The southern plateau block is formed
mainly of granite and gneiss
2. The Deccan lava plateau is an elevated
tableland consisting of horizontally
arranged lava sheets
3. The Malwa plateau dominates the
15. Consider the following statements: Vindhyan scraps, forming the northern
1. India lies entirely in the Northern flank of the plateau
4. The trough of the Narmada and Tapti
Hemisphere are interposed between the Vindhyan
2. India is divided into two almost equal and the Satpura ranges
halves by Tropic of Cancer
Which among the above statements is / are Choose the correct option from the codes
correct? given below:
A. Only 1 is correct
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. Only 2 is correct
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B. 1 and 2 3. They are mainly made up of

C. 1, 2 and 4 sedimentary rocks and consolidated
D. all the above
and semi consolidated deposits
19. The most plausible explanation for the 4. They receive heavy amounts of rainfall
location of the Thar desert in western India over short periods
is
A. the obstruction caused by the Aravalis
to the rain-bearing wind that proceeds Choose the correct option from the codes
to the Ganga Valley given below:
B. the evaporation of moisture by heat
A. 1 and 3 only
C. the absence of mountains to the north
of Rajasthan to cause orographic B. 2 and 4 only
rainfall in it C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. that the moisture carried by the South- D. All the above
west monsoon is driven away by the
dry upper air current 22. Which among the following in India are
known for substantial coral reef formations?
20. Which among the following is/are the 1. Gulf of Mannar
major factor/factors responsible for the 2. Gulf of Kachchh
monsoon type of climate in India? 3. Andaman and Nicobar
1. Location 4. Lakshadweep Islands
2. Thermal contrast
3. Upper air circulation
Choose the correct option from the codes
4. Inter-tropical convergence zone
given below:
Select the correct answer using the code A. Only 1 & 2
below
B. Only 2 & 3
A. Only 1 & 2
B. Only 2 & 3 C. Only 2, 3 & 4
C. Only 2, 3 & 4 D. All the above
D. 1, 2, 3 & 4
23. The state having a largest area of forest

21. Landslides occur in Nilgiris for the
cover in India is
following reasons
A. Arunachal Pradesh
1. Nilgiris are tectonically active
B. Haryana
2. The slopes of Nilgiris are very steep
C. Madhya Pradesh
with vertical cliffs
D. Assam
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C. plantation agriculture
24. Which of the following has a potential D. subsistence agriculture
for harnessing of tidal energy in India?
A. Gulf of Cambay 28. The scarcity or crop failure of which of
B. Gulf of Mannar the following can cause a serious edible oil
crisis in India?
C. Backwaters of Kerala
D. Chilka lake A. coconut
B. Groundnut
C. Linseed
D. Mustard
25. Which of the following groups
29. Karnataka is divided administratively
accounts for over 90 per cent of India's into following divisions
annual coal production? 1. Bangalore division
2. Mysore division
A. Bihar, Orissa and West Bengal
3. Belgaum division
B. Bihar, Orissa and Madhya Pradesh 4. Dharwad division
C. Orissa, Madhya Pradesh and Tamil 5. Gulbarga division
6. Malnad division
Nadu
D. West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh and Choose the correct option from the codes
given below:
Tamil Nadu
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1,2, 4 and 6
26. The only state in India that produces C. 1, 2, 3 and 5
D. 1, 2 ,4, 5 and 6
saffron is
A. Assam 30. Sargur super crystals is the name given
to the
B. Himachal Pradesh
A. High grade metamorphic rocks in the
C. Jammu and Kashmir southern part of the state containing
D. Meghalaya economically important minerals
B. Volcanic rocks in the eastern part of
the state which are the host rocks for
27. What is the predominant type of gold mineralization
C. Sedimentary rocks on the northern
Indian agriculture?
part with vast reserves of limestones
A. Commercial agriculture D. Monazite minerals found on the
B. Extensive agriculture coastal regions of karnataka
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31. Deccan traps are

1. Igneous rocks due to the volcanic Protected Area Conservation
eruptions I. Bandipur national 1 Peacock
2. Formed in the cretaceous to tertiary park
periods II. Adichunchangiri 2 Black buck
3. Cover substantial part of north sanctuary
Karnataka III. Daroji sanctuary 3 Sloth bear
4. Acidic rocks of marine origin IV. Ranebennur 4 Tiger
Choose the correct option from the codes sanctuary
given below:
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only given below:
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. All the above I II III IV
A 4 2 3 1
32. Consider the following statements in
B 4 1 3 2
context with Coffee production in
Karnataka: C 4 2 1 3
1. Karnataka is the major coffee D 4 3 1 2
producing state of India, accounting

about 53% total coffee production of 34. The oldest rocks in India are reported
the country from
A. Dharwar region, Karnataka
2. Major coffee producing districts of
B. Aravalli range, Rajasthan
Karnataka are Tumkur, Davanagere C. Vindhyan range, Madhya Pradesh
and Shimoga D. Siwalik range, Punjab
Which of the above statements is/are
35. Which among the following river is not
correct?
an east flowing river of Karnataka?
A. Only 1 A. Krishna
B. Only 2 B. South pennar
C. Kali
C. Both 1 & 2
D. Godavari
D. Neither 1 nor 2
36. Which of the following is true about

Great Indian Bustard?
33. Match the protected areas with their 1. Its found in Karnataka
main focus of conservation
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2. Its listed as critically endangered C. Whale is a cold-blooded fish.

species list by IUCN D. Polar bear is a cold blooded animal
3. Its threatened majorly by the presence because it goes in hibernation.
of wind mills, poaching and
encroachment into habitats
39. Which of the following statements are
4. Its natural habitat is grassland
ecosystem true?
1. Green Revolution has increased
biodiversity in India.
given below:
A. Only 2 2. CITES convention regulates the whale
B. Only 2 and 3 poaching.
C. All the above
3. Western Himalaya and Eastern Ghats
are examples of biodiversity hotspots.
37. Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? Choose the correct option from the codes
1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the given below:
lower latitudes as compared to the A. Only 1 and 3
higher latitudes. B. Only 3
C. All of the above
2. Along the mountain gradients,
biodiversity is normally greater in the
lower altitudes as compared to the
higher altitudes. 40. Which among the following result in the
conservation of the water?
Choose the correct option from the codes 1. Wastewater treatment
given below: 2. Wasteland Development
A. 1 only 3. Watershed Protection
B. 2 only 4. Rainwater Harvesting
C. Both 1 and 2 Choose the correct option from the codes
D. Neither 1 nor 2 given below:
38. Which of the following statement is true? A. Only 1, 2 & 3
A. Construction of large dam will increase B. Only 1, 2 & 4
the biodiversity in the area. C. Only 1, 3 & 4
B. Fish and Amphibians are cold-blooded D. 1, 2, 3 & 4
animals.
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41. Which of the statements given below

is/are correct? 44. In India most of plant flowers during
1. Chemototrops are organism that spring or summer because
convert organic matter into inorganic A. It is breeding season for butterflies
matter B. More solar radiation are available
C. Fruits and seed setting must be
2. Autotrophs are organisms that
completed before the onset of
produce complex organic compounds monsoon
from using energy from light or D. Environment fluctuations are low
inorganic chemical reaction.

45. Which of the following would not qualify
as an ecosystem service?
given below:
A. Rain falling to Earth
A. 1 only
B. Squirrels burying acorns
B. 2 only
C. Leaves falling on a forest floor
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Blowfly larvae infesting a deer carcass
D. Neither 1 nor 2
46. The first community to establish itself in

42. Which contains the largest store of
an area having no vegetation is formed by
carbon in the world?
A. Xerosere
A. Oceans
B. Pioneers
B. Atmosphere C. Beginees
C. Hydrosphere D. Climate climax
47. Which sector shows the highest Global
D. Lithosphere
Green House Gas Emission?
A. Agriculture and Forestry
43. Which of the following levels of B. Energy supply sector
organisation is arranged in the correct C. Industry
D. Transport
sequence from most to least inclusive?
A. Ecosystem, community, population, 48. Question contain two statements I and
individual II. Answer these using the following codes
B. Community, individual, population, to identify the True statements:
Ecosystem Code:
C. Individual, Population, Ecosystem, A. Both the statements are true
Community B. Only statement I is true
D. Ecosystem , population, individual C. Only statement II is true
Community D. Both statement are false
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are 2 of the projects proposed by

I Biomass accounts for the largest share in NABARD to Adaptation Fund Board
the Renewable energy capacity in India D. At present NABARD is the 2nd such
II Indias renewable energy sector is driven NIE in the Asia Pacific Region
primarily by private sector.
51. Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT)

49. With respect to National clean Energy
scheme under the National Mission on
Fund (NCEF) consider the following
statement Enhanced Efficiency is an example of
i. The scope of the NCEF has now been
expanded to include funding in the
A. Carbon Tax
area of clean environment initiatives.
ii. Rs 50 per tonne cess on coal is used to B. Carbon Trading
fund NCEF C. Carbon Research
Select the correct answer using the code D. Carbon Money
given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2 52. Which of the following are the by
D. Neither 1 nor 2
products of composting
1. Humus
50. With respect to The Adaptation Fund
2. Water
created under the UNFCCC identify the
3. methane
incorrect statement
4. Carbon dioxide
A. NABARD is Indias National
Implementing Entity (NIE) for the
Adaptation Fund created under the
given below:
UNFCCC
A. Only 1
B. 2 of NABARDs proposal on climate
B. Only 1, 2 and 3
change adaptation has been sanctioned
C. Only 1,2 and 4
by the Adaptation Fund Board
D. All the above
C. Promoting Climate resilient agriculture
53. The appropriate conditions for coral
systems in West Bengal and enabling
growth are
the fisheries sector in Andhra Pradesh
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1. Temperature between 23-29 degree I II III IV

celsius
A 3 2 1 4
2. Salinity
3. Calcium B 2 4 1 3
4. Shallow waters
C 4 2 1 3
Choose the correct option from the codes D 3 4 1 2

given below:
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 3 and 4
55. Consider the following statement
D. All the above
54. Match List I with List II.

i. Hydroflurocarbon (HFCs) has no
harm to ozone but is a greenhouse
List I List II gas
(Convention/ (Purpose) ii. Hydrofluro carbon (HFCs) is one of
protocol)
the gases to be phased out under
I CITES 1 Climate change
the Montreal Protocol.
II Nagoya 2 Access To Genetic
Protocol resources and the fair
and equitable sharing Select the correct answer using the code
of Benefits arising from given below:
their utilization
A. 1 only
III Kyoto 3 Ozone layer
B. 2 only
Protocol
C. Both 1 and 2
IV Vienna 4 Stop illicit trade of
convention wildlife D. Neither 1 and 2
Choose the correct option from the codes 56. Which of the following dont use
given below: sunlight for synthesis of food
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A. Cyanobacteria D. All the above

B. Rhododendrons
59. Which of the following is not a desert
C. Nitrosomonas
adaptation?
D. Algae A. Succulent stems
B. Coating of wax and protected stomata
C. Plants germinate only during rainy
57. Identify the incorrect statements
season
1. Phytoplanktons are present only in the
D. Pneumatophores
upper 200 meters of an aquatic
ecosystem
60. Which is the only community reserve in
2. Eutrophication is increase in the
Karnataka
phytoplanktons due to increase in
A. Kokkarebellur
nutrients in the water body
B. Ranganathittu
3. All animals in an aquatic eco system
C. Nilgiri reserve
solely depend upon phytoplanktons
D. Bandipur reserve
for their nutrients
4. An aquatic ecosystem can be depicted
61. The Environment (protection) act covers
as an upright food pyramid of biomass
the following
1. Handling of hazardous substances
2. Grassland conservation
given below:
3. Endangered wildlife
A. 1 and 2
4. Forest conservation
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 3 and 4
given below:
A. 1 and 2
58. Grasslands are affected by increased
grazing in following ways B. 2 and 3
1. Reduced mulch cover leading to drier C. 1, 3 and 4
conditions D. All the above
2. Invasion by xerophytic plants
3. Breakdown of biogeochemical cycles
4. Creates new habitat for burrowing 62. Which of the following pollutants are not
animals found in automobile emissions
A. Nitrogen oxides
given below: B. Volatile organic compounds
A. Only 1 C. Ozone
B. 1 and 3 D. Chloro flouro compounds
C. 1, 3 and 4
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63. Which of the following are incorrect 65. Match the Wildlife Sanctuaries/ National
about Fly ash park of Karnataka given in the map below
with the appropriate code.
1. Its very fine residue produced by
burning of solid material
2. Settles on soil and acts as a fertile
manure for growth of plants
3. Can be used as a fill material in road
embankments
4. Is a major component of vehicle
emissions
given below:
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4 1. Bandipur National Park

2. Dandeli Wildlife sanctuary
D. None of the above 3. Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary
4. Ranebennur Wildlife sanctuary
64. Which of the following is not a cause for Choose the correct option from the codes
given below:
land degradation
I II III IV
A. Overgrazing
A 4 2 3 1
B. Extractive industries
C. Zero tillage farming B 2 1 4 3
D. Sea water inundation C 2 4 3 1
D 3 4 1 2
66. H1N1 or Swine flu is a

A. Viral infection
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B. Bacterial infection C. Its a new service under Department of

C. Fungal infection Posts
D. Parasitic infestation D. Its a new scheme for Indias Rainfed
areas
67. NISAR mission is
A. Is a mission mode project to improve 70. Rashtriya Vigyan Diwas is celebrated on
renewable energy situation in the February 28 of every year to mark
country A. the discovery of Raman Effect by
B. a joint project between NASA and ISRO Indian physicist C. V. Raman
B. the birthday of Indian physicist C. V.
to launch a dual frequency synthetic
Raman
aperture radar satellite. C. the launch of first Indian satellite into
C. Is a research project to study the space
D. to launch of Mars Mission into its orbit
vulnerabilities of the coastal cities of
the country
71. Bioprinting refers to
D. Addresses the state of nutrition among
A. The use of 3D printing technology with
the particularly vulnerable tribal materials that incorporate viable living
groups cells.
B. Use of eco friendly materials for
printing like natural dyes etc
68. In which among the following states, the C. Imprinting of genetic code on the
government is proposing a Neutrino-based individuals DNA during gamete
Observatory? formation
D. Imprinting of cancer markers on
A. Rajasthan normal cells
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Karnataka
D. Kerala 72. Vishing refers to
A. using phone calls or voice messages to
69. Recently, the government of India has trick people in revealing sensitive
launched a new initiative called MeghRaj. information.
What is this MeghRaj? B. group wishing for occasions on social
A. Its a new Monsoon prediction system media
B. Its a new project related to Cloud C. is unauthorized access to another
Computing person's or company's data limited to
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gaining access to data during its B. Tuberculosis resistant to all known

transmission drugs
D. casual observance of an e-mail that C. Tuberculosis resistant to first line
appears on another's computer screen antibiotics
or watching what someone else is D. None of the above
typing.
77. What is renewable kerosene
73. In terms of percentage, which of the A. A type of bio fuel produced by bagasse
following metals has highest composition in B. Fuel formed by using artificial sunlight,
Polymetalic nodules? water and carbon dioxide
A. Manganese C. Normal kerosene used in fuel efficient
B. Iron stoves
C. Nickel D. A byproduct of refining of petroleum
D. Copper
74. In which of the following crop Azolla- Super heavy elements
Anabaena biofertilizer is used? 1. They have atomic number more than
A. wheat 104
B. rice 2. They are not found In nature
C. maize 3. They are formed by fusion of nuclei
D. Egyptian cotton 4. They have a very short half life
75. When viewed in white light, soap bubble Select the correct answer using the code
shows colour because of given below:
A. Interference A. Only 1
B. Polarisation B. 1 and 2 only
C. Refraction C. All the above
D. Diffraction D. None of the above
76. MDR-TB is 79. Hydrogen bomb is based on the

A. Tuberculosis which is not treatable following principle
A. Controlled nuclear fusion
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B. Controlled nuclear fission

C. uncontrolled nuclear fission 83. If a star emitting yellow light starts
D. uncontrolled nuclear fusion moving towards the earth, its colours as
seen from the earth will
80. Consider the following A. Turn gradually red
1. The volume of water is minimum at 4 B. Turn gradually blue
degree Celsius C. Remain yellow
2. If the expansion of water had not been D. Turn bright yellow
anamolous, the ponds and the lakes
would have frozen from top to bottom 84. A man is standing between two plane
3. Ice is a bad conductor of heat mirrors inclined at an angle of 60 degree the
number of images formed are
Select the correct answer using the code A. 4
given below: B. 6
A. All are correct C. 2
B. 1 and 2 are correct D. 5
C. 1 and 3 correct
D. 2 and 3 are correct 85. If a magnet is left to itself, it will lead to
A. Increase in its magnetic property
81. Weightlessness experienced while B. No change in its magnetic property
orbiting the earth is due to C. Decrease in its magnetic property
A. Acceleration D. Its magnetic properties will first
B. Zero gravity increase and then decrease
C. Inertia
D. Centre of gravity 86. Consider the following statements.
Which of these is incorrect
82. Ball pen functions on which of the A. Laser is a technique to produce light of
following principle same wavelength, in a single direction
A. Viscosity and in phase
B. Boyles law B. Light produced by laser is incoherent
C. Gravitational force whereas that of an incandescent bulb
D. Surface tension is cohernt
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C. Laser beams are used to remove D. This technique is useless for TB

unhealthy tissue from the body bacteria as it is heat resistant
D. Laser is also used to weld a detached
retina back into space 90. The reason for stainless steel being rust
proof is
87. The phenomenon of emission of light in A. High chromium content
certain bacteria and fishes is due to B. High nickel content
presence of C. High molybdenum content
A. Amylase D. High carbon content
B. Luciferase
C. Serinace
D. Valinifin 91. Which of the following are reactions
to noise pollution
1. Increase in heart rate
88. Concave mirror is not used for which of 2. Constriction of blood vessels
these
3. Digestive spasms
A. Shaving mirror
4. Dilation of pupil of the eye
B. Reflection in search lights
C. Examination of internal parts of the
ear
given below:
D. Rear view mirror
A. 1 and 2
89. Identify the incorrect statements B. 1 and 3

A. Pasteurization is a technique of C. All the above
preservation by sterilization of fluid D. None of the above
foods only
B. It helps destroy all microorganisms 92. Which of the following is incorrect
like virus yeast bacteria etc in the food A. Cholesterol is a component of cell
C. The food is heated to temperature membranes in human body
slightly below boiling point of water
B. Cholesterol is essential for synthesis
then suddenly cooled to chilling
of hormones
temperatures
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C. Pure cholesterol is liquid at room 95.

temperature and is insoluble in i. Artificial sweeteners are nutritious
water agents
ii. Aspartame is used as artificial
D. Excess cholesterol is deposited in
sweetener as it produces less calories
arteries resulting in atherosclerosis than per gram of sucrose
96. Satellites used for telecommunication

relay are kept in a geostationary orbit. A
satellite is said to be in such an orbit when:
Instruction for question 93 to 95
In the following questions select the 1. The orbit is geosynchronous
correct code 2. The orbit is circular
A. Both 1 and 2 are correct 3. The orbit lies in the plane of the earths
B. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect equator
C. Only 1 is correct 4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236km
D. Only 2 is correct

93.
given below:
i. LPG contains ethane, propane butane
and pentane A. 1,2 and 3
ii. The leakage can be detected by the B. 1,3 and 4
typical smell of these above
C. 2 and 4
hydrocarbons
D. 1,2,3 and 4
94.
97. Which one of the following pairs is not
i. Microwave oven can heat all
correctly matched?
materials irrespective of the water
content in them A. Arjun: Indigenously produced Main
ii. Heat is not supplied from outside in
Battle Tank (MBT)
the oven but is generated within the
food materials B. Phalcon: Cruise missile supplied by
Russia to India
C. Saras: Indigenously developed civilian
passenger aircraft
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D. Operation seabird: New Indian Naval

base at Karwar
98. In case of a nuclear disaster which of the

following options for cooling the nuclear
reactors may be adopted?
1. Pumping of water to the reactors

2. Use of boric acid
3. Taking out the fuel rods and keeping
them in a cooling pond

given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
99. Use of biology in industrial process and

for improving quality of life is called
A. Genetic engineering
B. Eugenics
C. Microbiology
D. Biotechnology
100. Bluetooth technology allows
A. Wireless communications between

equipments
B. Signal transmission on mobile phones
only
C. Landline to mobile phone
communication
D. Satellite television communication
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1. Identify the incorrect statement with A. It is an initiative of the Ministry of

respect to the recently launched Sansad Rural Development.
Adarsh Gram Yojana.
B. This programme will be launched
A. It encourages MPs or Sansads to in collaboration with the Indian
Institutes of Technology (IIT) and
identify and develop one village
the National Institutes of
from their respective constituency Technology (NITs) across the
as a model village by 2016 and country which will prepare a
two more by 2019 roadmap for holistic rural
development.
B. MPs are required to pick one
village with a population of 3000- C. Each IIT will identify 10 villages in
4000 in plains and 1000-3000 in its neighbourhood and work out
technologies to solve the most
hills within a month of the launch
pressing issues of the region.
C. It is applicable only to the elected
members of Lok Sabha and Rajya D. Once the solution is identified then
they will involve the industry in
Sabha.
this to solve the problem.
D. MPs cannot pick villages which
belong to themselves or their 4. Bachpan Bachao Andolan (Save the
Childhood Movement) is an initiative
spouses. started by
2. Find correct statements about Beti A. Kailash Satyarthi

bachao-beti padhaao (BBBP) B. The Indian Red cross
A. Itll be implemented through C. Ministry of women's and child
ministry of human resource development
Development.
D. Bill and Malinda Gates Foundation
B. Sukanya Samriddhi account is a
sub-component of BBBP.
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
3. Identify the incorrect statement with

respect to Unnat Bharat Abhiyan
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5. With respect to programmes aimed at the UN has declared to celebrate which

bringing minorities into mainstream day as International Yoga Day?
development Match List I with List II.
A. 21 June
List I List II
B. 16 September
(Programme) (purpose)
C. 12 August
I Manzil 1 Leadership
training D. 17 December
programme for
women 7. Government recently re-launched
Kisan Vikas Patra scheme (KVP). It is a
II USTAAD 2 Upgrading certificate saving scheme available for
entrepreneurial
skills of A. Any Farmer
minority youths
B. Women Farmer
III Nai Roshni 3 Education and C. General citizen
skill
development of D. Member of farmer cooperative
dropouts
8. Which Disease is not covered under
IV MANAS 4 Build capacity of the Government scheme Indradhanush?
traditional
artisans and A. Diphtheria
craftsmen
B. whooping cough
belonging to
minority C. tetanus
communities D. rotavirus
I II III IV
9. With respect to Motion of Thanks to the
A 1 2 3 4 President for his address in the parliament.
Consider the following statement
B 2 1 4 3
i. If an Amendment to Motion of Thanks
C 4 2 1 3
to the President for his address is
D 3 4 1 2 passed in the Lok Sabha, it will lead to
censure of the government
ii. So far the Motion of Thanks to the
6. Paying heed to the Prime Ministers President for his address has been
exhortation during his address to UN amended 4 times in the Lok Sabha.
General Assembly in September 2014,
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Select the correct answer using the code A. Mary Kom

given below: B. Sarita Devi
C. Kavita Goyat
A. 1 only D. Sarjubala Devi
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2 14. 31st October, will be celebrated as
D. Neither 1 nor 2 National Integration Day or Rashtriya Ekta
Divas to celebrate the Birth Anniversary of
10. Which is the first state to make voting
compulsory in the Local body elections? A. Lal Bahadur Shastri
B. Indira Gandhi
A. Kerala C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
B. Karnataka D. lala lajpat rai
C. Jammu and Kashmir
D. Gujarat 15. As per Census 2011 data, which among
the following States has higher sex ratio
11. Identify the incorrect statement with than the national average?
respect to National Lok Adalat (peoples
courts)? A. Nagaland
B. Delhi
A. It is aimed at reducing the backlog of C. Arunachal Pradesh
cases in the courts D. Tripura
B. It settles dispute through conciliation
and compromise
C. It adjudicates matters based on
ancient Indian customary laws 16. Professor Arvind Panagariya was
D. It was organized by the National Legal recently appointed as
Service Authority (NALSA)
A. Chairman, University Grants
12. what is the name of the documentary by Commission
the British film-maker Leslee Udwin about B. Vice Chairman, NITI Aayog
the Delhi Gang rape victim? C. Economic Advisor to the Prime
Minister
A. Indias Daughter
D. Governor, Reserve Bank of India
B. In Cold Blood
C. Mind of the Rapist
17. The government in the Budget 2015-
D. Death of a Princess
16 has decided to extend visa on arrival
13. Which Indian boxer was provisionally from the existing ___ countries to ____
suspended by the AIBA for refusing to countries in Phased manner. Fill the
accept the bronze medal won after losing Blank by choosing the appropriate
the semi-final fight over a controversial option.
decision at the 2014 Asian Games?
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A. 43/150 B. Strategic location along borders

B. 56/119 with neighbouring countries
C. 34/119
C. Low Female Sex Ratio in the state
D. 52/148
D. Hilly and difficult terrain
18. Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS)
is an integrated bill payment system 21. Which variable has been included by
offering inter-operable and accessible bill the Fourteenth Finance commission in
payment service to customers. Which the Horizontal Devolution Formula?
institute has been appointed as the nodal
agency for its implementation? A. Fiscal discipline
B. Forest Cover
A. Reserve Bank of India
C. Area
B. NABARD
D. Education
C. State Bank of India (SBI)
D. The National Payment Corporation
of India (NPCI)
22. In the General Budget 2015-16 8

centrally sponsored schemes were delinked
19. Which Company was accused by the
from support of the central government. It
Income Tax department for under-
includes all except
pricing the shares in a rights issue to the
parent firm for fiscal 2009-2010? A. Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban
Renewal Mission (JNNURM)
A. Airtel India B. National e-Governance Plan
B. Vodafone India C. Backward Regions Grant Funds
D. Rajiv Gandhi Panchayat
C. Tata Indicom Sashaktikaran Abhiyaan (RGPSA)
D. Reliance Infocomm
23. What constitutional amendment bill has
been introduced in the Lok Sabha on 19th
20. Which of the following is not a
December, 2014, which provides for levy of
feature required for granting special
a Goods and Services tax (GST)?
status to a state by Finance Commission
A. 122nd constitutional amendment Bill
A. Economic and infrastructural B. 112th constitutional amendment Bill
backwardness C. 119th constitutional amendment Bill
D. 118th constitutional amendment Bill
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24. Which of the following are not A. IRNSS 1C was launched on a PSLV
recommended by Shanta Kumar Committee
C26 from Sriharikota.
on FCI restructuring
B. It is the third satellite in its series
i. Coverage of National food security act
C. It was placed into a sun
should be widened.
ii. Priority households under NFSA synchronous Polar orbit
should be given more grain allotment D. It was launched using an XL
iii. Antyodaya households should be
given grains at 50% below the MSP version of the PSLV rocket
Select the correct answer using the code 27. Consider the following statement
given below : with respect to Nirbhay
A. Only 1 and 2 i. It is Indias first indigenously

B. Only 2 and 3 designed and developed long
C. Only 1 and 3
range sub-sonic cruise missile.
D. None of them
ii. It is capable of carrying only
25. With respect to Internet.org consider conventional warhead
the following statement
i. It is an initiative by Bill and given below
Melinda gates foundation A. 1 only

ii. It aims to make internet more B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
accessible and affordable to all
D. Neither 1 and 2
people around the world.
Select the correct answer using the code with respect to Ebola Virus
given below
i. Camels are believed to be the
A. 1 only natural Host of this virus
B. 2 only ii. The virus is spread through contact
with body fluids of inflected
C. Both 1 and 2 persons such as blood, urine and
D. Neither 1 and 2 saliva
26. Indentify the incorrect statement Select the correct answer using the code
with respect to IRNSS 1C given below
A. 1 only
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B. 2 only D. United states

C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 and 2 32. What is GreenPHABLET?
A. It is a device that provides farmers

precise information related to
agriculture
B. It is a device used to calculate the
29. Identify the incorrect statement with Carbon foot print
respect to SpaceX C. It is a device used by forest
department to keep track of forest
A. It is a private space transport cover
services company D. It is a device which uses solar energy
B. It has developed two reusable to power itself
launch vehicles: the Falcon 1 and
33. Which state of India received its first
Falcon 9 and a spacecraft called
train in the year 2014?
Dragon
C. It was responsible for the first A. Meghalaya
privately funded, liquid-fuelled B. Sikkim
rocket to reach orbit C. Tripura
D. It is the first private company to D. Manipur
send a satellite in to Martian orbit
34. For the first time Voter Verifiable Paper
30. Recently the Defence Research Audit Trail (VVPAT) with Electronic Voting
Development Organisation (DRDO) has Machines was used for
developed herbal drug Lukosin, for
A. Leh district of J&K
treatment of B. Jaisalmer district of Rajasthan
C. Tuensang district of Nagaland
A. Leucoderma
D. Thiruvananthapuram district of
B. Leukaemia
Kerala
C. Malaria
D. Kala Azar 35. Operation Kali was launched in Delhi
Metro for better protection of Women
31. Long Range Surface-to-Air Missile commuters. Which central armed Police
(LRSAM) {Barak-8} which was recently force launched this operation?
tested successfully is co-developed by
India and A. BSF
B. CISF
A. Russia C. CRPF
B. France D. ITBP
C. Israel
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36. Which of the following countries are and receive____ enclaves covering 7,110
member of Shanghai Cooperation acres
Organisation?
A. 121,61
A. China, Belarus, Kazakhstan, B. 131,71
Kyrgyzstan, Russia and Tajikistan C. 111, 51
D. 101,41
B. China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan,
Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan 40. Among the following who is not a part of
C. China, Kazakhstan, Ukraine, Russia, the New Development Bank (NBD)
Afghanistan and Uzbekistan
D. Russia, Belarus, Kazakhstan, A. India
Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan and B. Russia
Uzbekistan C. China
D. Japan
37. Exercise MALABAR 2014 was a
41. The maritime dispute involving the
trilateral naval exercise involving the
South Talpatti or New Moore island decided
navies of India and which other 2
by United Nations tribunal was between
Nations? India and
A. United states and Japan A. Pakistan

B. United states and Australia B. Sri Lanka
C. Srilanka and Maldives C. Bangladesh
D. Singapore and Australia D. Myanmar
38. The defence deal under negotiation 42. Recently, a loose pro-democracy political
involving the ShinMaywa US-2 movement referred to as umbrella
amphibious aircraft is between India and movement took place in 2014 at
which other country?
A. Singapore
A. South Korea B. Hong Kong
C. Thailand
B. Japan
D. Russia
C. United States
D. Israel 43. Which of the following is true about
ISIL?
i. is a Salafi extremist group

39. According to the Land Boundary
ii. The proclaimed goal of ISIL is to
Agreement (LBA between India and
establish itself as a Caliphate, an
Bangladesh, India will exchange ___ enclaves
Islamic state worldwide
measuring 17,160 acres with Bangladesh
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iii. ISIL is destroying Iraq's cultural 47. Which Indian company was granted
heritage permission by Australian government to
iv. India is a party to the Coalition to extract coal in Queensland?
Counter the ISIL
A. Vedanta Resource
A. Only 1 B. Adani Mining Ltd
B. Only 1 and 2 C. Coal India Ltd
C. 1,2 and 3 only D. Hindalco Industries
D. All the above
48. Which country returned a Bronze
44. What does CLMV countries stand for
Nataraj Idol to India that was sold illegally
A. Cambodia, Laos, Myanmar, Vietnam by one subash Kapoor?
B. Cambodia, Laos, Malaysia, Vietnam A. United Kingdom
C. China, Laos, Myanmar, Vietnam B. United States
D. China, Laos, Malaysia, Vietnam C. Norway
D. Australia
45. The 13th amendment of Srilankais
significant as it guarantees 49. With respect to 6th BRICS summit
consider the following statement
A. Devolution of powers to the provinces
by creation of Provincial Councils i. It was held in Fortaleza, Brazil
B. Peace accord between LTTE and ii. BRICS countries agreed to set up a
SriLankan government new development bank
C. Rehabilitation of the war affected iii. Deal on $100 billion Currency
Tamils Reserve Arrangement (CRA) was
D. Independent investigation of the war agreed upon
crimes
given below
46. Which of these is party to Treaty of
A. 1 only
Nuclear Non Proliferation?
B. 2 and 3 only
A. India C. 1 and 3 only
B. Israel D. 1, 2 and 3
C. Iran
50. What was Indias total medal tally in
D. Pakistan
the 2014 Asian Games, Incheon?
A. 57
B. 62
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C. 45 D. It will be used by District Health

D. 71 Department for the transportation of
Heart from Donors
51. With respect to the Bidaai Scheme
launched by Government of Karnataka, 53. In which Tiger Reserve of Karnataka the
consider the following statement Forest Department launched the habitat
tracking device called HEJJE?
i. It is a financial assistance scheme to
A. Bandipur Tiger Reserve
poor women belonging to only B. Bhadra Tiger Reserve
Muslim community C. Dandeli-Anshi Tiger Reserve
D. Nagarhole Tiger Reserve
ii. Under the scheme Rs 50000/- will
be given to the Beneficiaries at the 54. The state government launched Mythri a
pension scheme for
time of their marriage.
A. Old aged
Select the correct answer using the B. Destitute women
C. Street Vendors
code given below:
D. Sexual Minorities
A. 1 only 55. Yettinahole is a tributary of which River?

B. 2 only
A. Tungabhadra
C. Both 1 and 2 B. Kabini
D. Neither 1 nor 2 C. Netravati
D. Hemavati
56. The Union Government Launched the

Nirbhaya scheme in the state. Who will this
52. What is the use of the recently launched
scheme benefit?
'Dhruv' category helicopter called Garuda
Vasudha from the Hindustan Aeronautics A. Victims of Endosulphan Poisoning
(HAL) Complex, Bangalore? B. Victims of Rape
C. Victims of Acid attack
A. It will be used by the police for traffic
D. Victims of Domestic Violence
management and crowd control in
Bangalore Urban 57. Who won the 2015 Hero I-League
B. It will be used for ferrying VIPs from Football cup?
Bangalore international airport
C. It will be used by the Geological Survey A. Mohun Bagan Athletic Club, Kolkata
of India for detecting deep seated B. Royal Wahingdoh Football Club,
mineral deposits Shillong
C. Dempo Sports club, Goa
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D. Bangalore Football club, Bangalore C. The growing incidence of rape in

Karnataka
58. With regard to Karnataka Integrated and D. The alleged attack on churches
sustainable water Resources Management
Investment Programme (2014-22) consider
the following statement.
61. Arka Rakshak developed by Indian
i. It will be executed by the Karnataka Institute of Horticultural Research, Bangalore
Neeravari Nigam Ltd. is a variety of
ii. The programme receiving loan from
the World Bank A. Tomato
iii. The project is in two phases- Gondi B. Brinjal
Irrigation (shimoga) and Vijayanagara
C. Ladies Finger
canals and Tungabhadra Left bank
canals (Bellary) D. Green Grapes
Select the correct answer using the code 62. What is the objective of the recently
given below launched Health Adalat, a first of its kind in
the country at Gulbarga?
A. i and ii only
B. iii only
C. i and iii only
D. i, ii and iii A. It is a tribunal related to Health sector
B. It is a government-Citizen interface on
59. Department of Atomic Energy undertook health issues
aerial survey to scan for uranium and C. It is a grievance redressal centre for
thorium deposits at government healthcare workers
D. It is the nodal agency for implementing
A. Bagalkote Government health schemes in
B. Dakshina Kannada Karnataka
C. Mangalore
D. Uttara Kannada 63. Karnataka got its first food park under
the mega food park scheme of Ministry of
60. The state government constituted a Food Processing at
commission of Inquiry, headed by H.S
Kempanna, retired judge of the High court of A. Chikkaballapur
Karnataka, to probe B. Kolar
C. Doddaballapur
A. The alleged denotification of land D. Tumkur
acquired for the formation of the
Arkavathi Layout 64. State government will observe December
B. The alleged sexual crime committed in 29 as Rationalism Day to mark the birth
a Bangalore school anniversary of
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A. G.S Shivarudrappa
B. U.R Ananthamurthy
C. Kuvempu
D. Kavi Pradeep
65. Government has set up a 14 member

search committee to choose a poet for the
title of Rashtrakavi. Who among the following
have not been awarded the title of
Rashrakavi?
A. M. Govinda Pai
B. Kuvempu
C. G. S. Shivarudrappa
D. D R Bendre
1 Pattadakallu
66. Suvarna gramodaya yojana is 2 Hoysala complex
3 Hampi
A. State government programme focusing 4 Monuments and Forts of Deccan
on development of 1000 villages every Sultanate
year by concerted efforts by the
government, NGOs private and village Select the appropriate code
communities
B. Central government programme that I II III IV
aims at development of a model village
adopted by each MP by dedicating A 4 1 3 2
funds
B 4 1 2 3
C. Achieving villages which are open
defecation free under the total C 2 4 3 1
sanitation campaign
D. Developing village infrastructure D 4 3 1 2
under the PURA scheme of central
government 68. Basava Vasathi Yojane
67. Match the World heritage sites in A. Provides housing for rural house less
Karnataka given in the map below with the
poor with a component of subsidy and
appropriate code that follows.
along with beneficiary contribution
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B. Provides housing for urban slum D. None of the above

dwellers with equal contribution from
71. Backward Region Grants are not
state and centre provided to which of the following districts
C. Is a CSS to provide housing for rural
A. Kalburgi
SCs and STs by providing built houses
B. Yadgir
at subsidized rates C. Chitradurga
D. Is a scheme of building shelter homes D. Bagalkot
for urban street vendors 72. Major source of energy to the power
sector in Karnataka is
69. Soura Belaku
A. aims at universal installation of roof A. Hydel energy

top solar devices in industrial B. Thermal energy
establishments
C. Wind energy
B. Aims at installation of Solar Street
Lights at grama panchayat level D. Biomass energy
C. Solar pump set will be distributed to
farmers at 50% subsidy or maximum 73. Deendayal Upadhyay gram Jjyothi yojana
up to Rs.3 lakhs/solar pump set
D. Improving agricultural income of i. Aims to supply 24x7 uninterrupted
farmers by incentivizing them to power supply to all homes
integrate biofuel tree species into
ii. Involves separating agricultural and
agriculture
non agricultural feeders
70. Karnataka biofuel policy has following
iii. Involves strengthening sub
provisions
transmission and distribution
i. It provides for usage of oilseeds for bio infrastructure in rural areas
fuel production like groundnut, linseed
iv. Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran
oil etc
ii. Oilseeds should be grown only in dry Yojana (RGGVY) has been subsumed in
or infertile land or land unsuitable for the new scheme
cultivation
given below given below
A. Only 1 A. 1 and 3Only

B. Only 2
B. 1 and 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
C. 1,2 ,3 and 4
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D. All the above Select the correct answer using the code
given below
74. Rural infrastructure development fund
A. 1 and 3 Only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
i. Was instituted in NABARD
C. 1,2 and 3 only
ii. Objective of giving low cost fund D. All the above
support to State Governments for
76. Stree Shakti programme is
quick completion of ongoing rural
infrastructure projects. A. Empowering rural women by a SHG-
iii. Designed to support innovative, risk credit linkage programme
B. Financial Assistance to run hostels for
friendly, unconventional experiments
girls from rural areas
in these sectors that would have the C. Scheme of financial assistance for
potential to promote livelihood remarriage of destitute widows and
marriage of devadasis
opportunities and employment in rural
D. Empowering victims of atrocities by
areas providing financial relief, temporary
iv. Banks who cant meet their priority shelter, protection etc to lead a normal
life
sector lending targets are required to
deposit the shortfall amount in this 77. High Power Committee For Redressal of
fund Regional Imbalances (HPCFRRI) was headed
by the renowned economist
A. Dr. Nanjudappa.
given below
B. L. G. Havanur
C. V.K. Gokak
A. 1 and 3 Only
D. Amartyasen
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1,2 and 3 only
78. The lowest in the the ranking of
D. All the above
development in terms of HDI (human
Development Index) 2001
75. Electronic benefit scheme is
implemented on a pilot basis in the A. Raichur
following districts B. Gadag
C. Davanagere
i. Ballari D. Chamarajnagar
ii. Chitradurga
iii. Chamarajanagar 79. The State government has identified five
iv. Mandya facilities ie. Pancha Saulabhya under Sarva
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Shiksha Abhiyan Which of these are not B. Empanelled private hospitals are
included under this incentivized to conduct all normal
deliveries for free
A. drinking water C. All surgeries in private hospitals
B. toilets require part contribution from the
patients
C. school building
D. BPL pregnant women (including
D. library SC/ST) who undergo deliveries in
Government Hospitals are given
80. 'Naipunya Nidhi'' is set up for the incentive for getting their
following purpose nutritional requirement
A. Skill Training programme for all the 82. AYUSH Pusti programme is
degree students studying in
A. giving AYUSH medicines given in
Government First Grade colleges the form of Syrup and Biscuits to
across the State. correct malnourishment in children
B. Provide the Human Resources and aged between 3 to 6 years
B. Free health check up programmes
enhance the teaching efficiency of the
to popularize AYUSH system in
staff, the teaching faculties have been
rural areas.
deputed to higher education C. Training given to Medical and
C. An aim to harness collaborative Paramedical staff, General Public,
potential of students by encouraging ASHA worker, Anganawadi worker
and others regarding AYUSH health
innovation to solve persistent
system
problems of our state D. Teaching yoga to school children to
D. Aims for the development of higher maintain mental and physical well
education in the country by ensuring being
access, equity and quality
83. National Food Security Mission was
81. Which of the following is true about started during 11th Five Year Plan in the
THAYI BHAGYA state. Impact of NFSM Programme in the
state is as follows
A. It is implemented in all the districts
of Karnataka
i. 9% increase in average yield of Rice
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ii. 17% and 53% increase in area, losses due to adverse weather
production and yield of pulses conditions
respectively B. Scheme for improving livelihood of
iii. Farmers have taken up improved rain dependent farming community by
production technologies practices achieving sustainable growth in
like inter cropping etc in pulses agriculture
iv. 15 % increase in average yield and C. Procurement of perishable agriculture
area of production of oil seeds commodities through hopcoms in the
districts/taluks
D. Mission goal of increasing average
given below
productivity of selected rainfed crops
A. 1 and 3 Only by 20 %
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
86. Majority of forest cover in Karnataka
C. 1,2 ,and 3 only
is under
D. All the above
A. Wet evergreen forests
84. Implementation of Soil Health
B. Semi-evergreen forests
Mission does not include
C. Deciduous forests
A. Collection of soil samples D. Plantations form
B. Analysis of soil samples for macro
nutrients and micro nutrients
C. Analysis is linked to k-kissan project
D. Crop specific organic fertilizer
distribution
85. Krishi Bhagya is a
A. scheme that compensates the insured

farmers against losses due to financial
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87. Match the following e governance I II III IV

projects of Karnataka with their importance
A 3 4 2 1
List I List II
B 4 1 3 2
(Governance (importance)
project)
C 4 3 1 2
I Telegram 1 Unified
electronic D 3 4 1 2
platform to
handle all
kinds of
agricultural 88. The Hyderabad-Karnataka region have
activities been provided the following privileges after
II Krishi Gyan 2 Website to the enactment of Article 371(J)
Sagar provide
A. 100% of budget of SDP is earmarked
timely
for Hyderabad-Karnataka region.
information
B. Provides for reservation of 70% of the
on various
seats in any educational institution
schemes in
C. Provides for creation of a local cadre
agriculture
D. Establishment of a separate
III K-KISAN 3 Collection of
development board
Good
Agricultural 89. Bhagyalakshmi scheme is
Practices
IV Raitha Mitra 4 Application A. Deposit of fixed amount in the name of
where girl child which will be paid to the girl
farmers child after completing 18 years
groups can B. providing shelter and counselling to
exchange victims of domestic violence
progress and C. Self employment training programme
problems for rehabilitation of sex workers
faced by D. Extending financial assistance to
them transgenders who were exploited by
the Society

Sneha Shivir
i. Involves a cluster of 4-5 anganwadi
given below
centres
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ii. Parents of all children are given ii. Brings around 100 ha. area under
training for 12 days in preparation organic farming in each hobli of the
of nutrition food, feeding practices,
taluka
health and hygiene.
iii. Its taken up in 4 high burdened
districts of Bagalkote, Kolar, Bellary Select the correct answer using the code
and Gulbarga given below

given below A. only 1
B. only 2
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 Only C. both 1 and 2
C. 1 and 2 only D. none of the above
D. All the above
93. Custom Hire and Service Centres
Karnataka Nuthana Javali Neethi 2013-18 primarily catering to
i. Maximum Financial Assistance is A. Small and marginal farmers

being provided to MSME sector
B. Farmers in rain fed areas
ii. Karnataka is the first State in the
Country to launch State Textile C. SC and STS
Policy. D. Farmers producing breeder seeds

given below
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither of them
92. Savayava bhagya yojaneIs an
improvement over earlier organic
farming programmes as it
i. Aims at developing good marketing

linkages and market development
for the organic products of the state
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Questions 94 and 95 consists of two B. Provide incentives for research,

statements. Determine whether conducts awareness and training
Statement A is correct and Statement B programmes
is correct, and if Statement B is the C. Give approval to Monsanto for use
correct explanation for Statement A. of biological resources commercial
Choose the correct options or research purposes
D. Declaration of biodiversity Heritage
A. Both Statement A and Statement B are sites
correct and Statement B is the correct
explanation for Statement A. 97. Which of the following is true about
Annabhagya Yojane
B. Both Statement A and Statement B are
correct but Statement B is not the correct i. It is a CSS which was launched in
explanation for Statement A. July-2013
ii. It Aims to supply 30 kg of food
C. Statement A is correct but Statement B grains @ Rs. 1/- per kg to BPL
is incorrect. families across the State.
iii. It is implemented with a cost
D. Statement A is incorrect but Statement sharing formula of 50:50 between
B is correct. centre and state
94. A: Oil Palm is a water loving plant Select the correct answer using the code
B: Its cultivation is being taken up in given below
the farmer's fields of the districts prone
A. 1 and 3 Only
to droughts to improve farmers income
B. 2 only
95. A: Fertigation delivers fertilizers at C. All the above
the roots of the plant D. None of the above
B: Its promoted under the Central
Sponsored scheme of National Mission
on Sustainable Agriculture 98. The infant mortality rate (IMR) of
Karnataka in 2013 is about
96. Karnataka Biodiversity Board does
not have the authority to perform A. 31 per 1000 live births
following functions B. 31 per 100,000 live births
A. Promotion of in-situ and ex-situ C. 10 per 1000 live births

conservation of biological resources D. 10 per 100,000 live births
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99. Which of the following is not true

about JANANI SURAKSHA YOJANE (JSY)
A. Objective is reduction in maternal and

infant mortality rate
B. Aims at increasing the institutional
deliveries of BPL and SC/ST families
C. Cash assistance is provided for
deliveries taking place only in health
institutions
D. It is implemented in both urban and
rural areas
100. MGNREGS is operational in all

districts of Karnataka since
A. 2005-06
B. 2006-07
C. 2008-09
2004-05
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1. AFSPA is currently applicable in which B. ii only

of the following states C. Both i and ii
D. Neither i and ii
i. Assam
ii. Jammu and Kashmir 4. What are the salient features of Sukanya
iii. Punjab Samridhi Yojana
iv. Arunachal Pradesh
i. It is meant for girl child of 10 years
Select the correct code: or above.
ii. It can be opened with nil-balance.
A. Only i
iii. Girl child receives free 1 lakh
B. Only i and ii
C. Only i, ii and iv accident insurance and 30,000 life
D. All the above insurance tied up with her account.
2. Which of the following is true about Select the correct answer using the code
Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)? given below:
i. Flagship programme for A. Only i and ii

universalizing elementary education B. Only ii and iii
ii. Seeks to open new schools in those C. Only i and iii
habitations which do not have D. None of them
schooling facilities
iii. Strengthen existing school 5. Consider the following statement with
infrastructure respect to National Optical Fibre Network
iv. Has special focus on girl's education Project
and children with special needs.
i. It is Being implemented by
Select the correct code: Department of Telecommunications
(DOT)
A. i only ii. It is aimed at connecting 22,50,000
B. i,ii and iii only Gram Panchayats in the country with
C. All the above a minimum 500Mbps bandwidth
D. None of the above internet
iii. It is funded by Universal Service
3. Under the revised Rashtriya Khel Obligation
Protsahan Puruskar, which of the following
categories has been included into the Which of the following statement is true?
award criteria?
i. Identification and nurturing of A. i and ii only
budding/young talent. B. i only
ii. Employment of sportspersons and C. i and iii only
provide sports welfare measures. D. i, ii and iii
Select the correct answer using the code 6. The recently launched programme called
given below: Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana is aimed
at promoting
A. i only
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A. Organic Farming 9. Under Land ordinance 2014, who

B. Plantation in the North east states among the following can acquire private
C. Oil seed cultivation land for public purpose?
D. Minor Irrigation
i. One person company
7. Identify the correct statement about ii. Public limited company
the proposed Investigative Units on iii. private limited company
Crimes against Women (IUCAW)? iv. Educational trust.
v. Religious charity organization
A. This scheme is externally funded
by the World Bank
given below:
B. Under this scheme, each state
capital / UT and all metro cities A. Only ii and iii
will have dedicate police units for B. Only i, ii and iii
C. Only i, ii, iii and iv
crime against women D. All of them
C. These units will be given
additional powers to search-seize 10. Who became the 4th Indian to enter the
and arrest beyond the traditional ICC cricket hall of fame recently?
powers available to a police office A. Anil Kumble
under CrPC. B. Sachin Tendulkar
D. These units will be on 50:50 cost C. Kapil Dev
sharing basis between Union : D. Mahendra Singh Dhoni
State 11. Sec 66 A of IT Act which was recently
annulled by the SC had jurisdiction over
8. 121st Constitutional Amendment Bill, following
2014 which got president assent on 31st
A. Information posted by making use of
December deals with
such computer resource or a
communication device, causing
A. Establishment of National Judicial insult, injury, criminal intimidation,
Appointments Commission (NJAC) enmity, hatred or ill will
B. Goods and services Tax (GST) B. Websites which could affect
C. Agreement to transfer land to sovereignty and integrity of the
country, defence, security, friendly
Bangladesh, on the basis of Indo- relations with foreign states
Bangladesh Land transfer C. Information posted online with the
agreement criminal intent in striking terror in
D. Special status to Hyderabad the minds of people
D. Information posted online with the
Karnataka region
purpose of religious incitement
12. Declining oil prices will lead to

increase in GDP growth by
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i. Adding to spending power of the initiative for developing skills in

households Rural Area
ii. Increase profit margins of the
II. Swavalamban Yojana is a scheme
corporates
iii. Increasing foreign inflows for Physical Rehabilitation of
disabled, which includes early
Select from the codes below detection and intervention,
A. Only 1 counselling & medical
B. Only 1 and 2 interventions and provision of
C. Only 2 and 3 aids & appliances
D. All the above
16
13. Which of the following natural
resources garnered a whopping amount of
I. India has the second largest
revenue for the nation upon auctioning?
foreign exchange reserve holder
A. Coal mines as on 6th February, 2015
B. Telecom spectrum II. China has the largest foreign
C. Land
D. Petroleum reserves
exchange reserve in the world.
14. Disaster management is under which 17. Mobile commerce service M-Pesa is an
list in 7th schedule initiative of whom among the following
A. Central list i. Vodafone India

B. State list ii. ICICI Bank
C. Concurrent list iii. Airtel
D. None of the above iv. HDFC
Question 15 and 16 contain two Which among the following codes are
statements I and II. Answer these using correct?
the following codes to identify the True
statements: A. i and ii only
B. ii and iii only
Code: C. iii and iv only
D. i, ii and iv only
C. Only statement II is true
D. Both statement are false 18. Which variable has been excluded by
the Fourteenth Finance commission in
15. the Horizontal Devolution Formula?
I. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen A. Fiscal discipline
Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is a B. Forest Cover
Ministry of Rural Development C. Area
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D. Education Select the correct answer using the code

given below:
19. Which of the following statement
about Goods and Services Tax (GST) is A. i only
correct? B. ii only
C. Both i and ii
i. Imports would be zero rated D. Neither i nor ii
ii. An integrated GST would be levied
on interstate supply 22. What are the functions of Food
iii. It will be a Origin-based tax as Corporation of India (FCI)
against the present destination-
based tax i. public procurement of foodgrains
ii. storage of foodgrains
Select the correct answer using the code iii. distribution of foodgrains
given below
A. i and ii only given below:
B. i and iii only
C. ii only A. Only i and ii
D. i, ii and iii B. Only ii and iii
C. Only i and iii
20. The main objective of GAAR is to D. All of them
A. Prevent tax avoidance 23. Public debt management agency

B. To recover the black money proposed in the recent budget will help
stashed abroad in
C. To prevent tax evasion
D. To strengthen bond market i. Development of the bond market
in the country
21. Which of the statements given below ii. Regulating government lending
about Falling Global Crude Prices is/are iii. Preventing leakages of public
correct? funds
iv. Bringing in fiscal discipline
i. Due to weakening of demand for
crude oil in the economies of Asia, Choose the correct option from the
codes given below:
especially china and Europe
ii. Exploration of shale gas by A. i and ii only
countries like US and Canada has B. i, ii and iii only
led to lower demand for oil C. i, iii and iv only
D. All of the above
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27. The Aircraft carrier Admiral Gorshkov

24. Priority sector includes lending to has been renamed and commissioned into
the following sectors Indian Navy as
i. Agriculture A. INS VIRAAT

ii. Micro, Small and medium B. INS VIKRANT
C. INS VISHAL
enterprises,
D. INS VIKRAMADITYA
iii. Education
iv. Social infrastructure 28. Which of the following is not correctly
v. sanitation matched?
vi. renewable energy
A. Akash- Surface to Surface
Choose the correct option from the Missile
codes given below: B. Nag-Surface to Air Missile
C. Brahmos-Cruise missile
A. Only i and ii D. Sagarika-Submarine Launched
B. Only i, ii, iii and iv Ballistic Missile (SLBM)
C. i, ii, iii, iv and v
D. All the above 29. Which country is set to become the
first country to legalize creation of
three-parent IVF designer babies using
25. Which of the following is incorrect
Mitochondrial Donation Technique?
about the Forwards Market Commission?
A. Its a statutory body A. United Kingdom

B. It regulates the commodity market in B. Switzerland
India C. United States of America
C. It functions under the ministry of
D. Brazil
finance
D. It has powers to investigate and
prosecute cases of commodity 30. Consider the following statement
market irregularities regarding Asian Infrastructure
Investment Bank (AIIB).
about INS Kolkata (D63) i. It is a multilateral development
bank to provide finance to
A. It is second largest destroyer to be infrastructure projects in the
operated by Indian Navy after INS Asia-Pacific region
Delhi ii. It has been promoted by the
B. It was commissioned by Prime United States to counter the
Minister on 16th August, 2014
China influence in the region
C. It was Built at Maza Dock Limited,
Mumbai Select the correct answer using the
D. It fitted with advance stealth
code given below
technology
A. i only
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B. ii only D. None of the above

C. Both i and ii
D. Neither i and ii 35. Maitri project for the co-development
of a short Range Surface-to-air Missile is
31. Recently, a series of uprisings of between India and
people referred to as Arab Spring
A. Israel
originally started from
B. Russia
C. France
A. Egypt
D. Britain
B. Lebanon
C. Syria 36. Following the cancellation of more
D. Tunisia than 200 coal mines allocated by the
government between 1993 and 2010,
the government is preparing to auction
32. or allocate ______ coal mines in the 1st
round.
REGION OFTEN IN
COUNTRY A. 110
NEWS
i. Kiev Ukraine B. 101
ii. Darfur Mali C. 121
iii. Swat Valley Pakistan D. 130
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly 37. Cyclone Hudhud (name given by
matched? Oman) that hit the odisha and Andhra
Pradesh Coast on October is named after
A. iii only
a
B. ii and iii only
C. i and iii only
A. Afro-Eurasian bird
D. i, ii and iii
B. State dish of Oman
33. Which of the following is not a party to C. The 2nd largest city of Oman
Central Asian Nuclear-Weapon-Free-Zone D. River in Oman
(CANWFZ) treaty
38. Pekiti-Tirsia Kali is
A. Kazakhstan
B. Kyrgyzstan A. A style of martial arts that has its
C. Tajikistan origin in Philippines.
D. Afghanistan B. A Women self help group scheme
of West Bengal
34. Houthi tribes are C. A form of Ancient medicine
promoted under AYUSH mission
A. Rebels in Yemen who caused the fall
D. A new all women battalion of the
of the government in yemen
BSF
B. Particularly vulnerable tribe in
Assam
C. Group of nomadic tribes in
Karnataka famous for bee keeping
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39. In which state a proposal to setup an A. 1914 May 21

IIT was taken in the recent union B. 1914 August 18
Budget? C. 1915 March 19
D. 1915 January 9
A. Telangana
B. Goa 45. The first round table conference
C. Karnataka was held in
D. Andrapradesh
A. London
40. What is Bitcoin? B. Edinburgh
C. Delhi
A. It is a form of digital currency D. Calcutta
B. It is Indian domestic card scheme
conceived and launched by the 46. Tripitakas are sacred books of
National Payments Corporation of
India (NPCI) A. Buddhists
C. It is a new digital encrypted system B. Hindus
to prevent forgery of currency C. Jains
D. It is the first digital bank of India D. None of the above
41. Who of the following leader died on 47. Which Governor Generals of India is
the day when Non-cooperation Movement known as the father of Indian Civil
was launched in 1920?
Services
A. Pheroz shah Mehta
A. Lord Cornwallis
B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
C. Gopal Krishna Gokhale B. Warren Hastings
D. C.R. Das C. Lord Wellesley
D. Lord William Bentinck
42. Which Movement was launched along
with the Khilafat Movement? 48. Who started Bhoodan Movement?
A. Swadeshi movement A. Mahatma Gandhi

B. Home rule movement B. Jayaprakash Narayan
C. Civil Disobedience movement
D. Non-cooperation Movement
C. Swami Vivekananda
D. Acharya Vinoba Bhave
43. M.K. Gandhi applied his "Satyagraha"
first against?
49. The National Song of India was
A. The European Indigo Planters
B. The mill owners of Ahmedabad
composed by
C. The British Government
D. The racist authorities of South A. Rabindranath Tagore
Africa B. Bankim Chandra Chatterji
C. Iqbal
44. Gandhiji returned from South Africa
D. Jai Shankar Prasad
on?
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50. Subhas Chandra Bose organized the i. Renaissance in Karnataka

Indian soldiers taken as prisoners by ii. Pro unification policies of Nizam of
an Axis power into the Azad Hind Fauj Hyderabad
by an agreement. The Axis power was iii. Belgaum Congress in 1924
iv. Karnataka State Political
A. China Conference, Dharwad in 1920
B. Germany
Select the correct code
C. Italy
D. Japan A. i ii and iv only
B. i iii and iv only
51. The Non-Cooperation Movement in C. i and iii only
1920 was withdrawn D. i ii and iv ony
A. Because of Gandhijis ill-health 55. Mysore congress held its first

B. Due to extremist policy then conference at
adopted by the National congress
C. On a fervent appeal from the A. Sivapur
Government B. Ankola
C. Sirsi
D. Because of violence at Chauri-
D. Siddapur
Chaura
56. When an ordinary Bill is referred to a
52. Krishnadevaraya was given the title
joint sitting of the both the houses of
of Indian parliament, it has to be passed by a
A. Gajabentekara A. Simple majority of the total number

B. Bhashege tappuva rayara of members of both the Houses
ganda present and voting
C. Mooru rayara ganda B. Two-third majority of the total
number of members of both the
D. Yavana Rajya Sthapanacharya houses
C. Simple majority of the total number
53. The treaty of Srirangapatna was of members of both the Houses
signed between Tipu Sultan and D. Two-third majority of the total
A. Robert Clive Houses present and voting
B. Cornwallis
57. Which one of the following has the
C. Dalhousie right to address the Parliament?
D. Warren Hastings
A. Attorney General of India
54. Which of the following are the cause B. Chief election commissioner of
that led to the movement for Unification in India
C. Chief justice of India
Karnataka?
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D. National security Advisor D. Only if the issue poses a threat to

the unity and integrity of the
58. Which one of the following statements country
about parliament of India is not correct?
62. If the Prime Minister of India belonged
A. The Constitution provides for a to the Upper House of the Parliament
Parliamentary form of Government
B. The foremost function of the A. He will not be able to vote in his
Parliament is to provide a Cabinet favour in the event of a non-
C. The membership of the cabinet is confidence motion
restricted to the Lower House B. He will not be able to speak on the
D. The Cabinet has to enjoy the Budget in the lower House
confidence of the majority in the C. He can make statements only in the
Popular Chamber Upper House
D. He has to become a member of the
Lower House within six months
59. Which one of the following is a after being sworn in as the Prime
function of the Pro-Tem speaker of the Lok Minister
Sabha?
63. The President can be impeached for
A. Conduct of the proceedings of the
House in the absence of the speaker A. Violating the constitution
B. To check if the election certificates B. Disregarding parliament
of the members of the House are in C. For not taking the advice of council
order of minister
C. Swear in the members of the House D. All of the above
and hold the charge till a regular
Speaker is elected 64. The name of the union given in the
D. To endorse a bill as Money bill constitution is
60. The resolution for removing the vice- A. Hindustan or Bharatavarsha

president of India can be moved in the B. India or Hindustan
C. India or Bharat
A. Lok Sabha alone D. Bharatadesh or India
B. Either House of Parliament
C. Joint sitting of Parliament 65. The purpose of the inclusion of
D. Rajya Sabha alone Directive Principles of state policy in
the Indian Constitution is to establish
61. The supreme Court of India tenders
advice to the President on a matter of law
or act A. Political democracy
B. Social democracy
A. On its own initiative C. Gandhian democracy
B. Only if he seeks such advice
D. Social and economic democracy
C. Only if the matter relates to the
fundamental rights of citizens
66. The constitution of India recognizes
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A. Only religious minorities A. Right to vote and rights to be

B. Only Linguistic minorities elected without any distinction of
caste, religion, sex, property etc
C. Religious and linguistic
B. Right to vote and right to be elected
minorities without any distinction of age,
D. Religious, Linguistic and ethnic caste, creed or sex
minorities C. Equal opportunity for taking part in
elections
67. Which of the following rights are D. The right to occupy highest office in
the state irrespective of
available to Indian citizens as well as qualifications
foreigners residing in Indian territory?
70. The preventive Detention Act has a
i. Cultural and educational rights restraining effect on
ii. Right to freedom of religion
A. Right to Equality
iii. Right against discrimination by B. Right to Freedom
the state on grounds of religion, C. Right to Religion
race, caste, sex or place of birth D. Right to constitutional Remidies
iv. Right to personal Liberty
71. The duties levied on alcoholic liquors,
narcotic drugs and opium comes under
Select the correct answer from the code
given below: A. Central Excise Duty
B. CENVAT
A. i and ii only C. State Excise Duty
B. iii and iv only D. General Sales Tax
C. ii and iv only 72. Protection means
D. i, ii, iii and iv
A. Restriction imposed on import
68. A college student desires to get elected trade
to the Municipal Council of his city. The B. Protection to home goods
validity of his nomination would depend C. No free exchange of goods and
on the important condition, among others, services between countries
that D. All of these
A. He obtains permission from the 73. Agricultural income-tax is a source of

Principal of his college revenue to
B. He is a member of a political party
C. His name figures in the voters list A. Central Government
D. He flies a declaration owing B. State Government
allegiance of the constitution of C. Local administration
India D. Central and state Government
69. Civil and political equality gives 74. Which of the following is not the
citizens instrument of fiscal policy?
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A. Bank rate ii. Fourteenth Finance commission

B. Government expenditure was set under chairmanship of
C. Taxes
Yaga Venugopal Reddy
D. Licence fees
iii. To make recommendations on
75. Consider the following statements the devolution of taxes, the
about SDR(Special Drawing Right): Fourteenth Finance commission
i. It is an international financing has been directed to use the
instrument census figures of 1971
ii. It is created in 2000
iii. It is neither paper nor gold but an Which of the statements given above
accounting entry is/are correct?
iv. IMF is associated with it
A. i and ii
Which of the above statements are
correct? B. ii and iii
C. i and iii
A. i and ii only D. i, ii and iii
B. i, ii and iii only
C. i and iii only
78. Commercialisation of agriculture
D. i, iii and iv only
implies
76. With referece to steps taken to
achieve financial inclusion in India, A. Cultivation of timbers
consider the following statements: B. Plantation
C. Production of crops for sale
i. Nationalisation of banks D. Production of crops like wheat
ii. Formation of RRBs and rice
iii. Adoption of village by bank
branches 79. Quota (in cross border trade) is
Which of the statements given above A. Tax on imports

is/are correct? B. Imports of capital goods
A. i and ii C. Limit on quantity of imports
B. ii and iii D. Limit on quantity of exports
C. i and iii
D. i, ii and iii 80. Open market operations of the RBI
77. Consider the following statement: mean
i. Fourteenth Finance commission A. Buying and selling of shares

was set up in 2011
B. Auctioning of foreign exchange
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C. Trading in securities i. Trade balance

D. Transacting in gold ii. Current account balance
iii. Capital account balance
81. Mixed economy means
A. Co-existence of small and large codes given below:
industries
A. i and ii
B. Promoting both agriculture and
B. ii and iii
industries in the economy
C. i, ii and iii
C. Co-existence of public and
D. i and iii
private sectors
D. Co-existence of rich and poor 84. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer using the codes given
82. Consider the following statements below the lists.
regarding new Corporate Social
List I List II
Resposibility (CSR) rules: (PLAN MODEL) (PROPOSER)
I Bombay plan 1 Jai Prakash
i. Companies to spend 2% of their Narayan
3 years average annual net profit II Gandhian Plan 2 M N Roy
on CSR activities III Peopless Plan 3 Sriman Narayan
ii. Surplus from CSR activities can IV Sarvodaya Plan 4 Birla and Tata
Groups
become a part of the profit of the
company Choose the correct option
iii. All CSR activities will have to be
within India I II III IV
iv. The new rules will not be A 4 2 3 1
applicable to the foreign
companies registered in India B 4 1 2 3
C 4 3 2 1
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? D 4 3 1 2
A. i and ii 85. Which of the following can be used for

B. i and iii checking inflation temporarily?
C. i, ii and iii A. Increase in wages
D. i, ii, iii and iv B. Decrease in money supply
C. Decrease in taxes
83. Too much of import of gold by India D. None of these
adversely affects:
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86. Which of the following is not true 90. Which among the following a line or
about sea floor spreading? surface drawn on a map or chart indicates
connected point of equal salinity in the
A. There is constant creation of new ocean?
oceanic crust at the oceanic ridges
B. There is eruption of magma at the A. Isotherm
oceanic ridges B. Isohaline
C. Spreading of one ocean leads to C. Isogyre
shrinking of another ocean D. Isodiaphere
D. Sediments on the ocean floor are
thinner than expected 91. Continental drift theory was put
forward by
87. Which of the following landforms are
not formed by glaciers A. Arthur Holmes
B. Alfred Wegner
A. Cirques C. Abraham Ortelius
B. Glacial troughs
D. Mc Kenzie and Parker
C. Moraines
D. Playas
92. The Yarlung Zangbo river, in India,
88. Which of the following statements are is known as
true about red soil
A. Ganga
A. Red soil is derived from igneous B. Indus
rocks in area of low rainfall C. Brahmaputra
B. The colour of soil is red due to D. Mahanadi
mangnesium oxides
C. They are rich in nitrogen and lime 93. Which of the following areas or
D. They are moisture retentive regions is most prone to earthquakes?
89. The pattern of planetary winds A. Ganga-Brahmaputra valley

depends on the following B. Deccan plateau
C. Plains of northern India
i. Latitudinal variation of atmospheric D. Western Ghats
heating
ii. Emergence of pressure belts 94. Which of the following are true
iii. Migration of pressure belts
regarding Jhum cultivation in India?
iv. Land and sea distribution
i. It is largely practiced in Assam
given below: ii. It is referred to as 'slash and
burn' technique
A. i only iii. In it, the fertility is exhausted in a
B. i,ii and iv only few years
C. i and iii only
D. All the above Choose the correct option from the
codes given below:
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A. Only i & ii
B. Only ii & iii
C. Only i & iii 97. Consider the diagram below.
D. All the above
95. The significant shifts in Indian

agriculture during green revolution
include
a. Non-food grains reported some

spectacular progress and shift in
the cropping pattern
b. Major food grains, in the eastern
regions productions decreased
and in the northern states
increased
The diagram shows the position of
Choose the correct option from the the Earth, the moon and the Sun
codes given below:
where
A. Only a
A. Only situation A explains the
B. Only b
spring tides
C. Both (a) and (b)
B. Only situation B explains the
spring tides
96. Which of the following types of soil
C. Both A and B explains the
are mostly confined to river basins and
spring tides
coastal plains of India?
D. None of these explains the
A. Alluvial soils spring tides
B. Black soils
C. Laterite soils
D. Red soils
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98. Pre monsoon showers in karnataka B. i and ii only

are C. i and iii only
D. i, ii and iii
i. Also called as mango showers
ii. Due to sea breezes over the 100. Which is the most common type of
Maidan soil found in Karnataka?
iii. Develop due to low pressure
A. Red Soil
during the summer months
B. Back Soil
iv. The rainfall generally exceeds
C. Laterite Soil
50cms
D. Alluvial Soil
codes given below:
A. Only i
B. Only i and ii.
C. Only i, ii and iii
D. All the above
99. Which of the passes of Karnataka

given below and their locations are
matched properly?
i. Kollur Ghat: Udupi district

ii. Agumbe Ghat: between
chikmagalur and Mangalore
iii. Charmadi Ghat: between
Shimoga and Udupi
Select the correct answer using the

code given below:
A. i only
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1. AFSPA is currently applicable in which B. ii only

of the following states C. Both i and ii
D. Neither i and ii
i. Assam
ii. Jammu and Kashmir 4. What are the salient features of Sukanya
iii. Punjab Samridhi Yojana
iv. Arunachal Pradesh
i. It is meant for girl child of 10 years
Select the correct code: or above.
ii. It can be opened with nil-balance.
A. Only i
iii. Girl child receives free 1 lakh
B. Only i and ii
C. Only i, ii and iv accident insurance and 30,000 life
D. All the above insurance tied up with her account.
2. Which of the following is true about Select the correct answer using the code
Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)? given below:
i. Flagship programme for A. Only i and ii

universalizing elementary education B. Only ii and iii
ii. Seeks to open new schools in those C. Only i and iii
habitations which do not have D. None of them
schooling facilities
iii. Strengthen existing school 5. Consider the following statement with
infrastructure respect to National Optical Fibre Network
iv. Has special focus on girl's education Project
and children with special needs.
i. It is Being implemented by
Select the correct code: Department of Telecommunications
(DOT)
A. i only ii. It is aimed at connecting 22,50,000
B. i,ii and iii only Gram Panchayats in the country with
C. All the above a minimum 500Mbps bandwidth
D. None of the above internet
iii. It is funded by Universal Service
3. Under the revised Rashtriya Khel Obligation
Protsahan Puruskar, which of the following
categories has been included into the Which of the following statement is true?
award criteria?
i. Identification and nurturing of A. i and ii only
budding/young talent. B. i only
ii. Employment of sportspersons and C. i and iii only
provide sports welfare measures. D. i, ii and iii
Select the correct answer using the code 6. The recently launched programme called
given below: Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana is aimed
at promoting
A. i only
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A. Organic Farming 9. Under Land ordinance 2014, who

B. Plantation in the North east states among the following can acquire private
C. Oil seed cultivation land for public purpose?
D. Minor Irrigation
i. One person company
7. Identify the correct statement about ii. Public limited company
the proposed Investigative Units on iii. private limited company
Crimes against Women (IUCAW)? iv. Educational trust.
v. Religious charity organization
A. This scheme is externally funded
by the World Bank
given below:
B. Under this scheme, each state
capital / UT and all metro cities A. Only ii and iii
will have dedicate police units for B. Only i, ii and iii
C. Only i, ii, iii and iv
crime against women D. All of them
C. These units will be given
additional powers to search-seize 10. Who became the 4th Indian to enter the
and arrest beyond the traditional ICC cricket hall of fame recently?
powers available to a police office A. Anil Kumble
under CrPC. B. Sachin Tendulkar
D. These units will be on 50:50 cost C. Kapil Dev
sharing basis between Union : D. Mahendra Singh Dhoni
State 11. Sec 66 A of IT Act which was recently
annulled by the SC had jurisdiction over
8. 121st Constitutional Amendment Bill, following
2014 which got president assent on 31st
A. Information posted by making use of
December deals with
such computer resource or a
communication device, causing
A. Establishment of National Judicial insult, injury, criminal intimidation,
Appointments Commission (NJAC) enmity, hatred or ill will
B. Goods and services Tax (GST) B. Websites which could affect
C. Agreement to transfer land to sovereignty and integrity of the
country, defence, security, friendly
Bangladesh, on the basis of Indo- relations with foreign states
Bangladesh Land transfer C. Information posted online with the
agreement criminal intent in striking terror in
D. Special status to Hyderabad the minds of people
D. Information posted online with the
Karnataka region
purpose of religious incitement
12. Declining oil prices will lead to

increase in GDP growth by
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i. Adding to spending power of the initiative for developing skills in

households Rural Area
ii. Increase profit margins of the
II. Swavalamban Yojana is a scheme
corporates
iii. Increasing foreign inflows for Physical Rehabilitation of
disabled, which includes early
Select from the codes below detection and intervention,
A. Only 1 counselling & medical
B. Only 1 and 2 interventions and provision of
C. Only 2 and 3 aids & appliances
D. All the above
16
13. Which of the following natural
resources garnered a whopping amount of
I. India has the second largest
revenue for the nation upon auctioning?
foreign exchange reserve holder
A. Coal mines as on 6th February, 2015
B. Telecom spectrum II. China has the largest foreign
C. Land
D. Petroleum reserves
exchange reserve in the world.
14. Disaster management is under which 17. Mobile commerce service M-Pesa is an
list in 7th schedule initiative of whom among the following
A. Central list i. Vodafone India

B. State list ii. ICICI Bank
C. Concurrent list iii. Airtel
D. None of the above iv. HDFC
Question 15 and 16 contain two Which among the following codes are
statements I and II. Answer these using correct?
the following codes to identify the True
statements: A. i and ii only
B. ii and iii only
Code: C. iii and iv only
D. i, ii and iv only
C. Only statement II is true
D. Both statement are false 18. Which variable has been excluded by
the Fourteenth Finance commission in
15. the Horizontal Devolution Formula?
I. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen A. Fiscal discipline
Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is a B. Forest Cover
Ministry of Rural Development C. Area
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D. Education Select the correct answer using the code

given below:
19. Which of the following statement
about Goods and Services Tax (GST) is A. i only
correct? B. ii only
C. Both i and ii
i. Imports would be zero rated D. Neither i nor ii
ii. An integrated GST would be levied
on interstate supply 22. What are the functions of Food
iii. It will be a Origin-based tax as Corporation of India (FCI)
against the present destination-
based tax i. public procurement of foodgrains
ii. storage of foodgrains
Select the correct answer using the code iii. distribution of foodgrains
given below
A. i and ii only given below:
B. i and iii only
C. ii only A. Only i and ii
D. i, ii and iii B. Only ii and iii
C. Only i and iii
20. The main objective of GAAR is to D. All of them
A. Prevent tax avoidance 23. Public debt management agency

B. To recover the black money proposed in the recent budget will help
stashed abroad in
C. To prevent tax evasion
D. To strengthen bond market i. Development of the bond market
in the country
21. Which of the statements given below ii. Regulating government lending
about Falling Global Crude Prices is/are iii. Preventing leakages of public
correct? funds
iv. Bringing in fiscal discipline
i. Due to weakening of demand for
crude oil in the economies of Asia, Choose the correct option from the
codes given below:
especially china and Europe
ii. Exploration of shale gas by A. i and ii only
countries like US and Canada has B. i, ii and iii only
led to lower demand for oil C. i, iii and iv only
D. All of the above
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27. The Aircraft carrier Admiral Gorshkov

24. Priority sector includes lending to has been renamed and commissioned into
the following sectors Indian Navy as
i. Agriculture A. INS VIRAAT

ii. Micro, Small and medium B. INS VIKRANT
C. INS VISHAL
enterprises,
D. INS VIKRAMADITYA
iii. Education
iv. Social infrastructure 28. Which of the following is not correctly
v. sanitation matched?
vi. renewable energy
A. Akash- Surface to Surface
Choose the correct option from the Missile
codes given below: B. Nag-Surface to Air Missile
C. Brahmos-Cruise missile
A. Only i and ii D. Sagarika-Submarine Launched
B. Only i, ii, iii and iv Ballistic Missile (SLBM)
C. i, ii, iii, iv and v
D. All the above 29. Which country is set to become the
first country to legalize creation of
three-parent IVF designer babies using
25. Which of the following is incorrect
Mitochondrial Donation Technique?
about the Forwards Market Commission?
A. Its a statutory body A. United Kingdom

B. It regulates the commodity market in B. Switzerland
India C. United States of America
C. It functions under the ministry of
D. Brazil
finance
D. It has powers to investigate and
prosecute cases of commodity 30. Consider the following statement
market irregularities regarding Asian Infrastructure
Investment Bank (AIIB).
about INS Kolkata (D63) i. It is a multilateral development
bank to provide finance to
A. It is second largest destroyer to be infrastructure projects in the
operated by Indian Navy after INS Asia-Pacific region
Delhi ii. It has been promoted by the
B. It was commissioned by Prime United States to counter the
Minister on 16th August, 2014
China influence in the region
C. It was Built at Maza Dock Limited,
Mumbai Select the correct answer using the
D. It fitted with advance stealth
code given below
technology
A. i only
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B. ii only D. None of the above

C. Both i and ii
D. Neither i and ii 35. Maitri project for the co-development
of a short Range Surface-to-air Missile is
31. Recently, a series of uprisings of between India and
people referred to as Arab Spring
A. Israel
originally started from
B. Russia
C. France
A. Egypt
D. Britain
B. Lebanon
C. Syria 36. Following the cancellation of more
D. Tunisia than 200 coal mines allocated by the
government between 1993 and 2010,
the government is preparing to auction
32. or allocate ______ coal mines in the 1st
round.
REGION OFTEN IN
COUNTRY A. 110
NEWS
i. Kiev Ukraine B. 101
ii. Darfur Mali C. 121
iii. Swat Valley Pakistan D. 130
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly 37. Cyclone Hudhud (name given by
matched? Oman) that hit the odisha and Andhra
Pradesh Coast on October is named after
A. iii only
a
B. ii and iii only
C. i and iii only
A. Afro-Eurasian bird
D. i, ii and iii
B. State dish of Oman
33. Which of the following is not a party to C. The 2nd largest city of Oman
Central Asian Nuclear-Weapon-Free-Zone D. River in Oman
(CANWFZ) treaty
38. Pekiti-Tirsia Kali is
A. Kazakhstan
B. Kyrgyzstan A. A style of martial arts that has its
C. Tajikistan origin in Philippines.
D. Afghanistan B. A Women self help group scheme
of West Bengal
34. Houthi tribes are C. A form of Ancient medicine
promoted under AYUSH mission
A. Rebels in Yemen who caused the fall
D. A new all women battalion of the
of the government in yemen
BSF
B. Particularly vulnerable tribe in
Assam
C. Group of nomadic tribes in
Karnataka famous for bee keeping
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39. In which state a proposal to setup an A. 1914 May 21

IIT was taken in the recent union B. 1914 August 18
Budget? C. 1915 March 19
D. 1915 January 9
A. Telangana
B. Goa 45. The first round table conference
C. Karnataka was held in
D. Andrapradesh
A. London
40. What is Bitcoin? B. Edinburgh
C. Delhi
A. It is a form of digital currency D. Calcutta
B. It is Indian domestic card scheme
conceived and launched by the 46. Tripitakas are sacred books of
National Payments Corporation of
India (NPCI) A. Buddhists
C. It is a new digital encrypted system B. Hindus
to prevent forgery of currency C. Jains
D. It is the first digital bank of India D. None of the above
41. Who of the following leader died on 47. Which Governor Generals of India is
the day when Non-cooperation Movement known as the father of Indian Civil
was launched in 1920?
Services
A. Pheroz shah Mehta
A. Lord Cornwallis
B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
C. Gopal Krishna Gokhale B. Warren Hastings
D. C.R. Das C. Lord Wellesley
D. Lord William Bentinck
42. Which Movement was launched along
with the Khilafat Movement? 48. Who started Bhoodan Movement?
A. Swadeshi movement A. Mahatma Gandhi

B. Home rule movement B. Jayaprakash Narayan
C. Civil Disobedience movement
D. Non-cooperation Movement
C. Swami Vivekananda
D. Acharya Vinoba Bhave
43. M.K. Gandhi applied his "Satyagraha"
first against?
49. The National Song of India was
A. The European Indigo Planters
B. The mill owners of Ahmedabad
composed by
C. The British Government
D. The racist authorities of South A. Rabindranath Tagore
Africa B. Bankim Chandra Chatterji
C. Iqbal
44. Gandhiji returned from South Africa
D. Jai Shankar Prasad
on?
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50. Subhas Chandra Bose organized the i. Renaissance in Karnataka

Indian soldiers taken as prisoners by ii. Pro unification policies of Nizam of
an Axis power into the Azad Hind Fauj Hyderabad
by an agreement. The Axis power was iii. Belgaum Congress in 1924
iv. Karnataka State Political
A. China Conference, Dharwad in 1920
B. Germany
Select the correct code
C. Italy
D. Japan A. i ii and iv only
B. i iii and iv only
51. The Non-Cooperation Movement in C. i and iii only
1920 was withdrawn D. i ii and iv ony
A. Because of Gandhijis ill-health 55. Mysore congress held its first

B. Due to extremist policy then conference at
adopted by the National congress
C. On a fervent appeal from the A. Sivapur
Government B. Ankola
C. Sirsi
D. Because of violence at Chauri-
D. Siddapur
Chaura
56. When an ordinary Bill is referred to a
52. Krishnadevaraya was given the title
joint sitting of the both the houses of
of Indian parliament, it has to be passed by a
A. Gajabentekara A. Simple majority of the total number

B. Bhashege tappuva rayara of members of both the Houses
ganda present and voting
C. Mooru rayara ganda B. Two-third majority of the total
D. Yavana Rajya Sthapanacharya houses
C. Simple majority of the total number
53. The treaty of Srirangapatna was of members of both the Houses
signed between Tipu Sultan and D. Two-third majority of the total
A. Robert Clive Houses present and voting
B. Cornwallis
57. Which one of the following has the
C. Dalhousie right to address the Parliament?
D. Warren Hastings
A. Attorney General of India
54. Which of the following are the cause B. Chief election commissioner of
that led to the movement for Unification in India
C. Chief justice of India
Karnataka?
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D. National security Advisor D. Only if the issue poses a threat to

the unity and integrity of the
58. Which one of the following statements country
about parliament of India is not correct?
62. If the Prime Minister of India belonged
A. The Constitution provides for a to the Upper House of the Parliament
Parliamentary form of Government
B. The foremost function of the A. He will not be able to vote in his
Parliament is to provide a Cabinet favour in the event of a non-
C. The membership of the cabinet is confidence motion
restricted to the Lower House B. He will not be able to speak on the
D. The Cabinet has to enjoy the Budget in the lower House
confidence of the majority in the C. He can make statements only in the
Popular Chamber Upper House
D. He has to become a member of the
Lower House within six months
59. Which one of the following is a after being sworn in as the Prime
function of the Pro-Tem speaker of the Lok Minister
Sabha?
63. The President can be impeached for
A. Conduct of the proceedings of the
House in the absence of the speaker A. Violating the constitution
B. To check if the election certificates B. Disregarding parliament
of the members of the House are in C. For not taking the advice of council
order of minister
C. Swear in the members of the House D. All of the above
and hold the charge till a regular
Speaker is elected 64. The name of the union given in the
D. To endorse a bill as Money bill constitution is
60. The resolution for removing the vice- A. Hindustan or Bharatavarsha

president of India can be moved in the B. India or Hindustan
C. India or Bharat
A. Lok Sabha alone D. Bharatadesh or India
B. Either House of Parliament
C. Joint sitting of Parliament 65. The purpose of the inclusion of
D. Rajya Sabha alone Directive Principles of state policy in
the Indian Constitution is to establish
61. The supreme Court of India tenders
advice to the President on a matter of law
or act A. Political democracy
B. Social democracy
A. On its own initiative C. Gandhian democracy
B. Only if he seeks such advice
D. Social and economic democracy
C. Only if the matter relates to the
fundamental rights of citizens
66. The constitution of India recognizes
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A. Only religious minorities A. Right to vote and rights to be

B. Only Linguistic minorities elected without any distinction of
caste, religion, sex, property etc
C. Religious and linguistic
B. Right to vote and right to be elected
minorities without any distinction of age,
D. Religious, Linguistic and ethnic caste, creed or sex
minorities C. Equal opportunity for taking part in
elections
67. Which of the following rights are D. The right to occupy highest office in
the state irrespective of
available to Indian citizens as well as qualifications
foreigners residing in Indian territory?
70. The preventive Detention Act has a
i. Cultural and educational rights restraining effect on
ii. Right to freedom of religion
A. Right to Equality
iii. Right against discrimination by B. Right to Freedom
the state on grounds of religion, C. Right to Religion
race, caste, sex or place of birth D. Right to constitutional Remidies
iv. Right to personal Liberty
71. The duties levied on alcoholic liquors,
narcotic drugs and opium comes under
Select the correct answer from the code
given below: A. Central Excise Duty
B. CENVAT
A. i and ii only C. State Excise Duty
B. iii and iv only D. General Sales Tax
C. ii and iv only 72. Protection means
A. Restriction imposed on import
68. A college student desires to get elected trade
to the Municipal Council of his city. The B. Protection to home goods
validity of his nomination would depend C. No free exchange of goods and
on the important condition, among others, services between countries
that D. All of these
A. He obtains permission from the 73. Agricultural income-tax is a source of

Principal of his college revenue to
B. He is a member of a political party
C. His name figures in the voters list A. Central Government
D. He flies a declaration owing B. State Government
allegiance of the constitution of C. Local administration
India D. Central and state Government
69. Civil and political equality gives 74. Which of the following is not the
citizens instrument of fiscal policy?
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A. Bank rate ii. Fourteenth Finance commission

B. Government expenditure was set under chairmanship of
C. Taxes
Yaga Venugopal Reddy
D. Licence fees
iii. To make recommendations on
75. Consider the following statements the devolution of taxes, the
about SDR(Special Drawing Right): Fourteenth Finance commission
i. It is an international financing has been directed to use the
instrument census figures of 1971
ii. It is created in 2000
iii. It is neither paper nor gold but an Which of the statements given above
accounting entry is/are correct?
iv. IMF is associated with it
A. i and ii
Which of the above statements are
correct? B. ii and iii
C. i and iii
A. i and ii only D. i, ii and iii
B. i, ii and iii only
C. i and iii only
78. Commercialisation of agriculture
D. i, iii and iv only
implies
76. With referece to steps taken to
achieve financial inclusion in India, A. Cultivation of timbers
consider the following statements: B. Plantation
C. Production of crops for sale
i. Nationalisation of banks D. Production of crops like wheat
ii. Formation of RRBs and rice
iii. Adoption of village by bank
branches 79. Quota (in cross border trade) is
Which of the statements given above A. Tax on imports

is/are correct? B. Imports of capital goods
A. i and ii C. Limit on quantity of imports
B. ii and iii D. Limit on quantity of exports
C. i and iii
D. i, ii and iii 80. Open market operations of the RBI
77. Consider the following statement: mean
i. Fourteenth Finance commission A. Buying and selling of shares

was set up in 2011
B. Auctioning of foreign exchange
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C. Trading in securities i. Trade balance

D. Transacting in gold ii. Current account balance
iii. Capital account balance
81. Mixed economy means
A. Co-existence of small and large codes given below:
industries
A. i and ii
B. Promoting both agriculture and
B. ii and iii
industries in the economy
C. i, ii and iii
C. Co-existence of public and
D. i and iii
private sectors
D. Co-existence of rich and poor 84. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer using the codes given
82. Consider the following statements below the lists.
regarding new Corporate Social
List I List II
Resposibility (CSR) rules: (PLAN MODEL) (PROPOSER)
I Bombay plan 1 Jai Prakash
i. Companies to spend 2% of their Narayan
3 years average annual net profit II Gandhian Plan 2 M N Roy
on CSR activities III Peopless Plan 3 Sriman Narayan
ii. Surplus from CSR activities can IV Sarvodaya Plan 4 Birla and Tata
Groups
become a part of the profit of the
company Choose the correct option
iii. All CSR activities will have to be
within India I II III IV
iv. The new rules will not be A 4 2 3 1
applicable to the foreign
companies registered in India B 4 1 2 3
C 4 3 2 1
is/are correct? D 4 3 1 2
A. i and ii 85. Which of the following can be used for

B. i and iii checking inflation temporarily?
C. i, ii and iii A. Increase in wages
D. i, ii, iii and iv B. Decrease in money supply
C. Decrease in taxes
83. Too much of import of gold by India D. None of these
adversely affects:
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86. Which of the following is not true 90. Which among the following a line or
about sea floor spreading? surface drawn on a map or chart indicates
connected point of equal salinity in the
A. There is constant creation of new ocean?
oceanic crust at the oceanic ridges
B. There is eruption of magma at the A. Isotherm
oceanic ridges B. Isohaline
C. Spreading of one ocean leads to C. Isogyre
shrinking of another ocean D. Isodiaphere
D. Sediments on the ocean floor are
thinner than expected 91. Continental drift theory was put
forward by
87. Which of the following landforms are
not formed by glaciers A. Arthur Holmes
B. Alfred Wegner
A. Cirques C. Abraham Ortelius
B. Glacial troughs
D. Mc Kenzie and Parker
C. Moraines
D. Playas
92. The Yarlung Zangbo river, in India,
88. Which of the following statements are is known as
true about red soil
A. Ganga
A. Red soil is derived from igneous B. Indus
rocks in area of low rainfall C. Brahmaputra
B. The colour of soil is red due to D. Mahanadi
mangnesium oxides
C. They are rich in nitrogen and lime 93. Which of the following areas or
D. They are moisture retentive regions is most prone to earthquakes?
89. The pattern of planetary winds A. Ganga-Brahmaputra valley

depends on the following B. Deccan plateau
C. Plains of northern India
i. Latitudinal variation of atmospheric D. Western Ghats
heating
ii. Emergence of pressure belts 94. Which of the following are true
iii. Migration of pressure belts
regarding Jhum cultivation in India?
iv. Land and sea distribution
i. It is largely practiced in Assam
given below: ii. It is referred to as 'slash and
burn' technique
A. i only iii. In it, the fertility is exhausted in a
B. i,ii and iv only few years
C. i and iii only
D. All the above Choose the correct option from the
codes given below:
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A. Only i & ii
B. Only ii & iii
C. Only i & iii 97. Consider the diagram below.
D. All the above
95. The significant shifts in Indian

agriculture during green revolution
include
a. Non-food grains reported some

spectacular progress and shift in
the cropping pattern
b. Major food grains, in the eastern
regions productions decreased
and in the northern states
increased
The diagram shows the position of
Choose the correct option from the the Earth, the moon and the Sun
codes given below:
where
A. Only a
A. Only situation A explains the
B. Only b
spring tides
C. Both (a) and (b)
B. Only situation B explains the
spring tides
96. Which of the following types of soil
C. Both A and B explains the
are mostly confined to river basins and
spring tides
coastal plains of India?
D. None of these explains the
A. Alluvial soils spring tides
B. Black soils
C. Laterite soils
D. Red soils
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98. Pre monsoon showers in karnataka B. i and ii only

are C. i and iii only
D. i, ii and iii
i. Also called as mango showers
ii. Due to sea breezes over the 100. Which is the most common type of
Maidan soil found in Karnataka?
iii. Develop due to low pressure
A. Red Soil
during the summer months
B. Back Soil
iv. The rainfall generally exceeds
C. Laterite Soil
50cms
D. Alluvial Soil
codes given below:
A. Only i
B. Only i and ii.
C. Only i, ii and iii
D. All the above
99. Which of the passes of Karnataka

given below and their locations are
matched properly?
i. Kollur Ghat: Udupi district

ii. Agumbe Ghat: between
chikmagalur and Mangalore
iii. Charmadi Ghat: between
Shimoga and Udupi

code given below:
A. i only
16
1. Consider the following statements 4. Who is the recipient of the 2014 Sahitya
regarding the Jyothi Sanjeevini Scheme Akademi Award for Kannada?
i. It a health scheme for Government A. Gopal Krishna Pai

employees B. H.S Shivaprakash
ii. The scheme also covers the C. C N Ramachandran
dependent spouses, parents and D. Govindray H Nayak
dependent children
iii. It is a cashless treatment against 5. Ricky Kej won this years Grammy Award in
seven life threatening the Best new Age Album category for his
ailments/hazards collaborated album called
iv. Suvarna Arogya Surakasha Trust will
A. Winds of Samsara
administer the programme
B. Winds of change
Select the correct statement using the code C. Winds of winter
given below: D. Winds of rath
A. i only 6. Abhaya is a scheme lauched by Mysore

B. i, ii and iii only City Police for the safety of
C. i and iii only
A. Women
B. Senior citizens
2. Which is not a service provided by C. School children
Karnataka MobileOne? D. Tourists
A. Bill payments 7. e-Sugam is an initiative by

B. Redressal of issues like road potholes
A. Ministry of women and child
or street lights
development
C. Online FIR from police
B. Department of Agriculture
D. Information to Farmers about
C. Depatment of Commercial tax
monsoon, market rates and subsidies.
D. Ministry of Home
3. Government of India has recently
8. What is the objective of Suryajyothi
launched National Heritage City
scheme?
Development and Augmentation Yojana
(HRIDAY) in 12 cities across India. Which A. To provide Solar lighting to Poor
Historical place from Karnataka is included farmers belonging to SC and ST
under this scheme? B. To provide Solar water heaters at
subsidised rates
A. Badami
C. To provide Solar lamp to all
B. Hampi
government school children
C. Mysore
D. To provide solar powered pump sets
D. Srirangapatna
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9. Identify the incorrect statement with i. It is a scheme to provide free hostel

respect to Gourava Yojane facility to students
ii. The scheme was originally for
A. Under the scheme financial students belonging to OBC, has been
assistance is provided to rural families extended to SC/ST postgraduate
to construct bathroom cum toilet student in the 2014-15 budget.
B. Beneficiaries have to belong to BPL
families Select the correct statement using the code
C. Construction will be under NREGA given below:
D. Beneficiaries would be shortlisted by
MLA concerned A. i only
B. ii only
10. Namma Bhoomi is C. Both i and i
D. Neither i nor ii
A. An online delivery and management
of land record project 13. Who among the following will be the
B. Software to identify illegal beneficiary of Mukhyamantrigala Santhwana
construction under akrama sakrama Yojane?
C. Scheme for landless
D. Name of the textbook that has been A. Rape Victim
introduced in the Primary school B. Victims of Bonded labour
C. Industrial workers who sustain
11. Consider the following statement with injuries during work
respect to Ksheera Bhagya Yojane D. Victims of Road accident
i. It is Nutritional supplementary 14. Who won the best Actor award in the
Programme
62nd National film awards for his
ii. The Nodal agency is the Department
performance in Nannau Avanalla Avalu?
of Education
iii. 150 ml of milk is provided 3 times a
week to school children at A. Sanchari Vijay
Government schools only B. Marasu Manjunath
C. Charuhasan
Select the correct statement using the code D. Bobby Simha
given below:
A. i only
B. i, ii and iii only 15. Manaswini is a scheme for
C. i and ii only
D. i, and iii only A. Unmarried or divorced women of age
40-65 age
12. Consider the following statement with B. Women above the age of 65
respect to Vidyasiri scheme
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C. Unmarried women belonging to Select the correct answer using the code
Minority communities given below:
D. Working mothers
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
16. The beneficiary of Ashakiran includes: D. Neither 1 nor 2
A. Sports persons from the state 19. Who presided over the 81st Kannada
B. Physically challenged person Sahitya Sammelana?
C. Children suffering from mental
disorder A. Na D'Souza
D. Old aged person without home B. KO.Chanabassapa
C. Siddalingaiah
D. Devanooru Mahadeva
17. Consider the following statement with

respect to Jaladhara.
20. What was the demand of Gokak
i. It aims at providing drinking water agitation?
facility through tap connection
ii. It will cover all household in rural A. Demand for special status to
area Hyderabad-Karnataka
B. Demand to give Kannada language
Select the correct answer using the code first-language status in Karnataka
given below: C. Against the verdict of Kaveri water
tribunal
A. 1 only
D. Against Marati influence in Belgaum
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
21. The proposed reservoir at Mekedatu is
proposed to be built across
A. River Cauvery
B. River Nethravathi
C. River Bhima
regarding Kannada Sahitya Parishat
D. River Godavari
i. Its head quarter is located at
22. Power supply in Karnataka is
Bangalore
ii. It is under the ministry of Higher
education
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i. Free of cost for the agricultural B. Is a specially designed placement

purposes cell for migrant population
ii. Is provided at a subsidised cost for C. Is meant for skill development
agricultural purpose programme under skill India
iii. Provided at subsidised cost only in programme
rural areas D. Extension centre for young
entreprenuers belonging to SC and
Which of the above statements are true? ST
Select from the codes below 25. Which of the following is true
A. Only 1 i. Bengaluru, is the 4th Best

B. Only 1 and 2 Technology Hub in the world
C. Only 1 and 3 ii. The share of Karnataka in IT
D. None of the above exports is nearly 38% of the
country's exports.
23. Karnataka Legislators Local Area
Development Scheme involves Select from the codes below
i. Investment in development A. Only 1

programmes based on a sectoral B. Only 2
planning process C. Both 1 and 2
ii. A participatory demand responsive D. Neither of the above
development approach to address
infrastructure development
requirements of the local area within
a Legislator's Constituency 26. Which of the following is not true
about Karnataka I4 Policy ?
Which of the above is true? Choose the
correct codes from below A. Land allotment for companies
linked to employment
A. Only 1
generation
B. Only 2
B. Sole focus on Bangalore rural
C. Both 1 and 2
and urban areas
D. Neither of the above
C. Start-up companies to be
24. Karnataka Udyog Mitra provided internet at
concessional rates
A. Is specially meant for the D. Skill development programme
promotion and facilitation of
for training unemployed youth
investments in the State.
in basic IT/BPO/ESDM/Telecom
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27. Which of these form part of ii. Training in various computer

Karnatakas exports courses and plastic processing
technology
i. Electronics and computer
software Select from the codes below
ii. Petroleum and petroleum
products A. Only 1
iii. Gems& jewellery B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
Select from codes below D. Neither of the above
A. Only 1 30. Match the programmes with its

B. Only 1 and 3 objectives
C. Only 1 and 2
Programmes Objective
D. All the above
I Swavalambana 1 Financial
assistance for
Sports for
28. Which of the following schemes are disabled
extended for the welfare of SC/STs II Prathibe 2 Financial
assistance for
i. Ganga Kalyana Scheme
Cultural
ii. Micro Credit Scheme
activities for
iii. Self-Employment Scheme
disabled
iv. Sandhya suraksha scheme
III Sadhane 3 Insurance
Select from codes below scheme for
the disabled
A. Only 1 IV Niramaya 4 Margin Money
B. Only 1,2 and 3 Loan Scheme
C. Only 1,2 and 4 for minorities
D. All the above
29. Which of the following is true about below
Koushalya scheme?
I II III IV
i. Its extended for unemployed
A 3 4 1 2
women belonging to minority
communities B 3 4 2 1
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C 4 2 1 3 Solid Waste Management

problems.
D 4 3 1 2 ii. Municipal Corporations
(Amendment) Act, 2013 imposes
31. Grameena Punarvasathi Yojane
penalties on the violators of rules
A. Scheme of education, training and for waste disposal
rehabilitation of persons with iii. Karnataka doesnt have
disabilities anIntegrated policy on Solid
B. Provision of housing for SC/STs in Waste Management
rural areas
Select from the code below
C. Provision of shelter for STs
subjected to land alienation A. Only 1
D. Rehabilitation of migrant labour B. Only 2
C. Only 3
32. Heritage Based Urban Development is
A. Aimed at better preservation the Nanna Mane scheme?
various heritage sites of the
i. Affordable Housing for
historical past
Belowpoverty line people
B. Aimed at improving the quality of
ii. Aimed at Auto drivers, Film
life and socioeconomic
Industryworkers, Unorganized
development opportunities in
sector workers,Beedi workers,
heritage towns and cities
Hamals Street Vendors etc
C. Conserving the natural heritage
iii. Centrally sponsored scheme
like various green belts, reserved
forests etc in urban areas Select from codes below
D. Identifying newer places of
archaeological importance and A. Only 1
developing them into tourist B. Only 1 and 2
hotspots C. Only 2
D. Only 2 and 3
35. Which of the following are true about

33. Which of the following statements is Comprehensive Horticulture Development
true? Scheme of Karnataka
i. Karnataka is yet to implement its i. It aims to divert farmers from

first Biogas Plant unit to tackle its traditional agriculture crops to
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more income fetching A. Only 1

Horticultural crops. B. Only 1 and 2
ii. It also aims to decrease the post C. Only 1 and 3
harvest loss from 25% to 10% by D. None of the above
correcting the defects in post
harvest chain 38. Which of the following statements
iii. But fails to provide for a market are true about Mahatma Gandhi National
mechanism for sale of farmers Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
horticultural produce
i. Aimed at enhancing livelihood
iv. There is no thrust on the newer
security in rural areas
technological innovations in
ii. By providing at least 100 days of
farming
guaranteed wage employment
Select from codes below iii. Provides unskilled manual work to
adult members of every
A. Only 1 and 2 household who volunteer to work.
B. Only 1 and 3 iv. It also involves generation of
C. Only 1,2 and 3 productive assets in rural areas
D. All the above
Select from the codes below
36. Precision Farming in banana is a scheme
directed at A. Only 1
B. Only 1 and 2
A. Schedule Caste/Schedule Tribe C. Only 1 and 3
farmers D. All the above
B. Farmers in rainfed areas
C. Farmers in hilly areas 39. Tamarind grove, Nallur; Hogrekhan,
D. BPL farmers Chikmaglur; GKVK,UAS Bangalore; and
Ambargudda, Shimoga are all example of
37. CPCB has specified water quality criteria
depending on the designated best use and A. Conservation reserve
activities in the river. Which of these classes B. Botanical Garden
refer to drinking water C. Heritage site
D. Biofuel Park
i. Class A
ii. Class B
40. In Karnataka which type of irrigation
iii. Class C
accounts for the highest proportion in
iv. Class D
net irrigated area?
v. Class E
A. Tube wells/ bore wells
Select from the codes below
B. Canals
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C. Dug wells 43. Which of the following statements is/are

D. Tanks correct with regard to the Solar cell
technologies:
41. Horticulture is the science of
cultivation of: 1. Crystalline silicon solar cells have a
greater market share than thin film
1. Fruit. solar cells.
2. Vegetables. 2. Thin film solar cells are cheaper
3. Flowers. than crystalline silicon solar cells.
3. Crystalline silicon cells are more
Select the correct answer using the efficient than thin film solar cells.
code given below: 4. Both the technology operates on
the same photovoltaic principle.
A. 1 & 2 only. 5. Crystalline silicon solar cells are
B. 3 only. more environmental friendly to
C. 1, 2 & 3. dispose than thin film solar cells at
D. 1 & 3 only. the end of their respective lives
42. Consider the following statements with Select the correct answer using the code
regard to Thorium based nuclear power given below:
plants:
A. All except 2 & 5.
Assertion: Thorium cannot be used directly B. All except 2 & 3.
to produce nuclear energy. C. All except 3.
D. All the above options are wrong.
Reason: Thorium does not contain any fissile
material. 44. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about Dark Matter:
A. Assertion & Reason both are
correct and Reason is the correct 1. Dark matter does not interact with
explanation. any electromagnetic radiation.
B. Assertion & Reason both are 2. Dark matter interacts with ordinary
correct but reason is not the matter through gravity only.
correct explanation. 3. The force between dark matter and
C. Assertion is wrong, Reason is ordinary matter is repulsive.
correct.
D. Assertion is correct, reason is
given below:
wrong.
A. 1 only.
B. 1 & 2 only.
C. 2 & 3 only.
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D. 1, 2 & 3 48. Which of the following is not a feature of

Graphene?
45. What is Kessler Syndrome ?
A. Elastic
A. A disease where human talk while B. Lightweight
sleeping. C. Weak
B. A rare viral disease causing D. Flexible
respiratory problems.
C. A problem found in space launch
vehicles.
D. Proliferation of space debris in low
earth orbit.
49. Night blindness can be corrected by the
intake of ?
46. Consider the following statements. A. Vitamin A

B. Vitamin B Complex
1. IRNSS is an Independent regional C. Vitamin C
navigation satellite system being D. Vitamin D
developed by India.
2. IRNSS will provide Standard 50. The purpose of Genetically modifying
Positioning Service (SPS) only. brinjal and cotton as Bt-Brinjal, Bt-Cotton
3. IRNSS satellites revolve round the was to make them?
earth at the height of about 18,000
A. Drought resistant
km from the earths surface.
B. High yielding
Which of the above statements are correct? C. Pest resistant
D. Short-duration crops
A. 1 only
B. 1 and3 51. The release of which one of the
C. 2 and 3 following into Ponds and wells helps in
D. 1, 2 and 3 controlling mosquitoes ?
47. In year 2014, a drug named ZMapp was A. Crab

approved by World Health B. Gambusia Fish
Organisation(WHO) to against C. Dogfish
D. Snail
A. Ebola
B. Malaria 52. What is a Firewall in Computer Network?
C. Tuberculosis
A. An operating System of Computer
D. Dengue
Network
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B. The physical boundary of Network

C. A web browsing Software 55. Consuming unsaturated fats reduce the
D. A system designed to prevent occurrence of cardiovascular problems like
unauthorized access stroke, heart failure and heart attacks.
Which of the following are rich sources of
unsaturated fats
1. olive oil
53. What is the difference between a CFL
2. leafy greens
and an LED lamp? 3. fish
4. coconut oil
1. To produce light, a CFL uses
5. butter
mercury vapour and phosphor
while an LED lamp uses semi- Which of the statements given above is/are
conductor material. correct?
2. The average life span of a CFL is
A. 1 and 3Only
much longer than that of an
B. 1,2 and 3 only
LED lamp
C. 1,2 ,3 and 4
3. A CFL is less energy-efficient as
D. All the above
compared to an LED lamp.
56. Which of the following are biofuels
is/are correct? 1. Biogas
2. Bioethanol
A. 1 only 3. Syngas
B. 1 and 2 4. Green diesel
C. 1 and 3
D. All the above Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. 1 and 2
54. Which of the following is used in
B. 1, 2 and 3
pencils?
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. All the above
A. Graphite
B. Silicon
C. Charcoal
D. Phosphorous
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57. Which of the following statements are 1. Ultra violet rays strike on the
true earth due to depletion of ozone
layer
1. Carbon di oxide is not a 2. Wet scrubbers method is used to
greenhouse gas remove sulphur dioxide and
2. Nitrogen dioxide and methane are ammonia from the polluted aur
greenhouse gases produced from 3. Compound of mercury cause
agricultural fields minamata disease
3. The greenhouse effect is due to
impermeability of long Select the correct answer using the code
wavelength radiations through the given below:
atmosphere
A. 1 and 2
Select the correct answer using the code B. 2 and 3
given below: C. All of these
D. None of these
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3 60. Which of the following are
C. 2 and 3 characteristics of persistent organic
D. All the above pollutants
1. Highly toxic to humans and the

58. Which of the following are techniques of
environment
preventing soil erosion?
2. Persistent in the environment,
resisting bio-degradation
1. Terrace cultivation 3. Taken up and bio-accumulated in
2. Contour ploughing terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems
3. Jhuming 4. Capable of long-range,
4. Strip cropping transboundary atmospheric
transport and deposition
given below: Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. 1 and 2
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3 B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 3 and 4 D. All the above
61. Septic tank is:
59. Which of the following statements are A. An aerobic attached growth

not true treatment system
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B. An aerobic suspended growth D. 1 and 4

biological treatment system
C. An anaerobic attached growth 65. A recent study taken up by a team of
biological treatment system
researchers from the Zoological Survey of
D. An anaerobic suspended growth
treatment system India (ZSI), Chennai, brought to light the
serious threat of extinction the coral reef
62. Biological oxygen demand of ______ is
colonies and mangrove forests in the Palk
the least.
Bay are facing. The probable reasons for this
A. sewage
decline are:
B. sea water
C. pure water
1. Global Warming.
D. polluted water
2. Siltation.
63. The three primary soil macronutrients 3. Overgrowth of Algae.
are
A. carbon, oxygen, and water.
B. copper, cadmium, and carbon. given below:
C. potassium, phosphorus, and
nitrogen. A. 1 & 2 only.
D. boron, zinc, and manganese. B. 1 & 3 only.
64. Identify the correctly matched pairs C. 2 & 3 only.

D. 1, 2 & 3
1. Basel convention-biodiversity
convention
2. Montreal protocol- ozone
conservation
3. Kyoto protocol-climate change
4. Ramsar convention-endangered 66. Which of the following statements are
species conservation correct with regard to Red tide a term
used to describe Harmful Algal Blooms
Select the correct answer using the code (HABs) in marine coastal areas.
given below:
1. These blooms are not associated
with tides.
A. 1 and 2
2. HABs tint the seawater to a
B. 2 and 3 reddish color.
C. 3 and 4
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3. Not all algal blooms are harmful, C. Reducing Environmental

even those involving red
Degeneration and Land
discoloration.
Degaradation
D. Reducing Ecological Destruction
given below:
by Deforestation
A. 1 & 3 only.
B. 1 & 2 only.
69. Global warming has the following
C. 2 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3 effects
67. Which of the pairs are correctly matched 1. Earths crust is moving upwards in
1. Olive Ridley sea turtle - the Northern Antarctic Peninsula

Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary. 2. Rising sea levels
2. Dolphins-Vikramshila Sanctuary
3. Indian Rhinos-Kaziranga National
3. Disrupted monsoons
Park 4. Ozone hole formation

given below:
code given below:
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3 A. 2 and 3
C. All of these
D. None of these
B. 1 and 2
C. 1 ,2 and 3
D. All the above
68. REDD refers to 70. Consider the following statements

aboutThe Jawaharlal Nehru National
A. Reducing Emissions from
Solar Mission
Deforestation and Forest
Degradation 1. It is apart of National Action Plan on
B. Reducing Deforestation and Climate Change
Land Degardation
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2. The Mission hasset a target of the cost of doing so. Yet economists and
policy makers have not drawn the
deploying 2000 MW of grid implication of this calculus for the reform
connected solar power by 2022 agenda, be it in trade energy or
infrastructure. Sadly the costs of such
3. The first phase up to 2013 focussed neglect are large. Also, no country has
enough motivation to confront global
on promoting off-grid systems to
problems alone. Because only a part of the
serve populations without access to benefits of addressing those problems
would accrue to countries taking action,
electricity while others have a free rid. The gains are
4. Phase II focuses on modest capacity also spread over time, beyond the horizon of
politicians interest. Such situations call for
addition in grid-based systems. collective action even if they are not easy
when many diverse countries are involved.
Which of the above statements are 71. Which of the following is true in the
correct? Choose from the codes given context of the passage?
A. Pollution from vehicles is the greatest
below
contributor to global warming
B. The rise of middle income countries
A. 1 and 2 has doubled the level of green house
B. 1 and 3 gases emissions
C. Urban crowding has resulted in
C. 1, 3 and 4
extreme weather conditions
D. All the above D. None of the above
72. According to the passage, why are

politicians reluctant to formulate
Direction: (Q. No. 71 to 77) Read the three
environmental reforms?
passages given below and answer the
seven questions that follow based on the 1. The expenditure on implementing
information given in the passage. environmental reform does not justify
the benefits
Passages-1
2. Economic stability is a more pressing
Growth fuelled by energy intensive industry, concern for countries today
urban crowding and deforestation has 3. The impact of these policies will only
added to atmospheric concentrations of be felt in the long run which does not
carbon, warming land and oean bringing benefit them politically
extreme weather. Societal benefits of
abating high levels of emissions far outweigh
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Select the correct answer using the code these things, however, would seem to them
given below: to involve any essential change in the beliefs
and purposes of men as they had known
A. Only 3 them. The Prohibition Amendment, on the
B. Only 1 contrary, would evidence to their minds the
C. 1 and 3 breaking down of a principle of government
D. 2 and 3 which they had deemed axiomatic, the
abandonment of a purpose which they had
73. Which of the following is a means to supposed immutable.
reduce the environmental threat to growth?
74. It can be inferred that the paragraph is
A. Governments should conduct a cost intended as
benefit analysis of various
environmental protection measures A. An introduction to a discussion of a
and implement those which are cost constitutional amendment
efficient B. A summary of social and political
B. Participation of all countries in arriving change since the writing of the Federal
at consensus on measures necessary Constitution
to combat environment challenges to C. An introduction to a history of the
growth Constitution
C. Scientists, not economists should D. A clarification of the authors view of a
determine the risks of climate change controversy
75. The author apparently believes that the
principle of government mentioned in the
last sentence is
Passage-2
A. Not implicit in the original Constitution
Could Washington, Madison, and the other B. To be taken as true for all time
framers of the Federal Constitution revisit C. Apparently violated by the Prohibition
the earth in this year 1922, it is likely that Amendment
nothing would bewilder them more than the D. An essential change in the beliefs of
recent Prohibition amendment. Railways, the American people
steamships, the telephone, automobiles,
flying machines, submarines all these Passage-3
developments, unknown in their day, would
fill them with amazement and admiration. I have previously defined a sanctuary as a
They would marvel at the story of the rise place where man is passive and the rest of
and downfall of the German Empire; at the Nature active. But this general definition is
growth and resent greatness of the Republic too absolute for any special case. The mere
they themselves had founded. None of fact that man has to protect a sanctuary
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does away with his purely passive attitude. During a party, a person was exposed to
Then, he can be beneficially active by contaminated water. A few days later, he
destroying pests and parasites, like bot-flies developed fever and loose motions. He
or mosquitoes, and by finding antidotes for suffered for some days before going to a
diseases like the epidemic which periodically doctor for treatment. On starting the
kills off the rabbits and thus starves many of treatment, he soon became better and
the carnivora to death. But, except in cases recovered completely a few days later. The
where experiment has proved his following graph show shows different
intervention to be beneficial, the less he phases of the persons disease condition as
upsets the balance of Nature the better, regions A, B, C, D and E of the curve.
even when he tries to be an earthly
Providence
76. The author implies that his first

definition of a sanctuary is
A. Totally wrong
B. Somewhat idealistic
C. Unhelpful
78. Which region/regions of the curve
D. Indefensible
corresponds to incubation phase of the
infection?
77. The authors argument that destroying
bot-flies and mosquitoes would be a
A. A only
beneficial action is most weakened by all of
B. B only
the following except
C. B and C only
D. No part of the curve indicates the
A. Parasites have an important role to
incubation Phase
play in the regulation of populations
B. The elimination of any species can
79. which region of the curve indicates that
have unpredictable effects on the
the person began showing the symptoms of
balance of nature
infection?
C. The pests themselves are part of the
food chain A. A
D. These insects have been introduced to B. B
the area by human activities C. C
D. D
Directions (Qs 78-80): Read the passage 80. Which region of the curve indicates that
given below. Study the graph that follows the treatment yielded effective relief?
and answer the three items given below
the figure. A. C
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B. D C. 70km
C. E D. 80km
D. The curve doesnot indicate the
treatment 85. A sum of money at simple interest
amounts to Rs. 815 in 3 years and to Rs. 854
81. Ayesha's father was 38 years of age in 4 years. The sum is:
when she was born while her mother was 36
years old when her brother four years A. Rs 650
younger to her was born. What is the B. Rs 690
difference between the ages of her parents? C. Rs 698
D. Rs 700
A. 2 years
B. 4 years 86. The percentage increase in the area of a
C. 6 years rectangle, if each of its sides is increased by
D. 8 years 20% is:
82. If the average marks of three batches of A. 40

55, 60 and 45 students respectively is 50, 55, B. 42
60, then the average marks of all the C. 44
students is: D. 46
A. 53.33 87. In a swimming pool measuring 90m by

B. 54.68 40m, 150 men take a dip. If the average
C. 55 displacement of water by man is 8 cubic
D. none of these metres, what will be the rise in water level?
83. Find the ratio in which rice at Rs. 7.20 a A. 33.33cm

kg be mixed with rice at Rs. 5.70 a kg to B. 30cm
produce a mixture worth Rs. 6.30 a kg. C. 20cm
D. 25cm
A. 1:3
B. 2:3 88. The population of a town increased from
C. 3:4 1,75,000 to 2,62,500 in a decade. The
D. 4:5 average percent increase of population per
year is:
84. If a person walks at 14 km/hr instead of
10 km/hr, he would have walked 20 km A. 4.37%
more. The actual distance travelled by him B. 5%
is: C. 6%
D. 8.75%
A. 50km
B. 56km
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89. A fruit seller had some apples. He sells D. 4

40% apples and still has 420 apples.
Originally, he had:
A. 588 apples
B. 600 apples
93. Find the number of triangles in the given
C. 672 apples
figure.
D. 700 apples
90. A man has Rs. 480 in the denominations

of one-rupee notes, five-rupee notes and
ten-rupee notes. The number of notes of
each denomination is equal. What is the
A. 16
total number of notes that he has ?
B. 18
A. 45 C. 19
B. 60 D. 21
C. 75
Direction for Q.No 94-96: Study the
D. 90
following figure and answer the questions
91. A man has some hens and cows. If the given below.
number of heads be 48 and the number of
feet equals 140, then the number of hens
will be:
A. 26
B. 24
C. 23
D. 22
94. How many doctors are neither artists nor
players ?
92. When the following figure is folded to
form a cube, how many dots lie opposite the
A. 17
face bearing five dots?
B. 5
C. 10
D. 30
95. How many doctors are both players and

artists?
A. 1
A. 22
B. 2
B. 8
C. 3
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C. 3 98. You are a manager of a construction

D. 30 company. There have been regular
complaints about an employee by many
96. How many artists are players ?
customers in written. You will
A. 5
A. Punish the concerned employee
B. 8
C. 25 instantly
D. 16 B. Sack the employee from the job as
it is affecting the working conditions
Directions for the following four (4) items: of the company
C. Call the concerned employee and
Given below are four items. Each item
discuss the matter
describes a situation and is followed by
D. Try to enquire about the concerned
four possible responses. Indicate the
response you find most appropriate. employee from his co-workers and
Choose only one response for each item. till then give some assurance to the
The responses will be evaluated based on customers
the level of appropriateness for the given
situation. 99. You are returning home and you find
a sealed envelope on the street. Its fully
[note: KPSC notification mentions that the addressed with unused stamps on it. You
negative marking for the following questions would
shall be inbuilt in the form of different marks
being awarded to the most appropriate and A. Leave it there as it was and walk
not so appropriate answer for such away
questions] B. Remove the stamps and destroy the
envelope
97. You are an employee in one of the
C. Open the envelope, find out who
public enterprises. You have to make a
has dropped by mistake and send it
presentation in front of your customers
to him if possible
with one of your co-workers. Just before
D. Post it at the nearest post office
stating the presentation, you found your
partner missing. You would
A. Take the suitable substitute partner

B. Not take part in the presentation
C. Deliver the whole presentation 100. You are the head of a village
alone panchayat. In a national level meeting on
D. Get tense and frustrated the success of a government project, you
have to make a presentation giving all
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the feedbacks. You have collected all the

data and some of the data that you have
gathered for the presentation opposes
the success of the project, some of the
important ministers are attending the
conference. What should you do?
A. Make the presentation giving all the

feedbacks and data despite the risk
of losing hold
B. Make the presentation on the basis
of only favouring data
C. Exaggerate the favourite data,
without much highlighting the
opposing data
D. Modify the opposing data to make
it upto the mark
21

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1. Among the following revolt which is C. Only 1

A. Kol Rising 4. Consider the statements:

6. Consider the statements regarding B 2 1 4 3

I East India 1 Justice Ranade

I II III IV 11. Dr B R Ambedkar clashed with

A. Reservation for Dalits in D. Siddhartha Gautama

A. 1, 2 and 3 only A. Only 1 is correct

C. Kittur Rani Chennamma C. Nizam of Hyderabad

19. The kodagu uprising was led by

22. Mysore Chalo movement was

A. Only 1 and 2 II. Krishnaraja odeyar III was called

D. Both statement are false A. Chandra Gupta Maurya

D. Pattadkal III. Praja Samyukta Paksha was

D. Prohibition of intoxicating drinks D. All of the above

Which among the above statements is/ A. Municipal undertakings

2. Real executive authority in a 47. How long a person should have

B. a Parliamentary resolution which

ii. There is no time limit for the

59. The Tenth Schedule of the

C. Tribes practising shifting C. The Prime Minister

70. In which among the following

II. Interest payments A. The commercial banks will have

Mark and a Geographical Indication ii. Finance minister

A. RBI Choose the correct option:

ii. Create durable community assets 87. Consider the following:

D. Neither 1 nor 2 I. Credit Guarantee fund will be

96. If we deduct grants for creation of C. Both 1 and 2

A. primary deficit 99. Who is the current director general

D. All of the above

98. What is/are the facility/facilities

1. It enables the beneficiaries to

2. It enables the beneficiaries in the

Select the correct answer using the code

B. Educated professionals from one

Passage 1 The best definition of Sustainable

B. repetition and exclamation

18. Looking at a portrait of a man, Rajesh

22. In a row of boys, Pavan is seventh from

A. Only conclusion one follows

30. Which one among the following

33. Find the Number of triangles in the

D. 18 5. H, a lady member is second to the

A. C 38. What is true about J and K ?

40. Who among the following are three

D. Cannot be determined father's age will be twice that of his son.

20 per kg respectively so as to get a B. North

52. The percentage increase in the area of

53. The difference between the length and

C. 7 62. The total of the ages of Amar, Akbar

65. The number of boys in a class is three

66. A sum of Rs. 12,500 amounts to Rs.

67. A library has an average of 510 visitors

68. A man has Rs. 480 in the

73. For how many months was the

74. In how many month was there a

A. Zero 76. In the case of how many years was

79. If the production in 1999 will be above

84. What is the difference between Rahuls

85. What is the respective ratio between

82. What is the total amount earned by

89. What is the total number of employees

90. In teaching profession if three-fifth of