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General Aptitude Questions


Q.No-1-5 Carry One Mark Each

1. The volume of a sphere of diameter 1 unit is than the volume of a cube of side 1 unit.
(A) least (B) less (C) lesser (D) low
Answer: (B)
4
(1 2 ) = 6 and volume of a cube of side 1 unit is
3
Exp: Volume of a sphere of diameter 1 unit is
3
13 = 1

2. The unruly crowd demanded that the accused be without trial.


(A) hanged (B) hanging (C) hankering (D) hung
Answer: (A)

3. Choose the statement(s) where the underlined word is used correctly:


(i) A prone is a dried plum.
(ii) He was lying prone on the floor.
(iii) People who eat a lot of fat are prone to heart disease.
(A) (i) and (iii) only (B) (iii) only
(C) (i) and (ii) only (D) (ii) and (iii) only
Answer: (D)

4. Fact: If it rains, then the field is wet.


Read the following statements:
(i) It rains
(ii) The field is not wet
(iii) The field is wet
(iv) It did not rain
Which one of the options given below is NOT logically possible, based on the given fact?
(A) If (iii), then (iv). (B) If (i), then (iii).
(C) If (i), then (ii). (D) If (ii), then (iv).
Answer: (C)

5. A window is made up of a square portion and an equilateral triangle portion above it. The base of
the triangular portion coincides with the upper side of the square. If the perimeter of the window
is 6 m, the area of the window in m2 is .
(A) 1.43 (B) 2.06 (C) 2.68 (D) 2.88

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Answer: (A)

Exp: , Area of the window = Area of square + Area of equilateral triangle

= 12 +
4
( )
3 2
1 = 1+
4
3
= 1.43

[Perimeter of the window is 6 m


4x+2x = 6, where x is length of each side]
x=1

Q.No-6-10 Carry Two Marks Each

6. Students taking an exam are divided into two groups, P and Q such that each group has the same
number of students. The performance of each of the students in a test was evaluated out of 200
marks. It was observed that the mean of group P was 105, while that of group Q was 85. The
standard deviation of group P was 25, while that of group Q was 5. Assuming that the marks were
distributed on a normal distribution, which of the following statements will have the highest
probability of being TRUE?
(A) No student in group Q scored less marks than any student in group P.
(B) No student in group P scored less marks than any student in group
(C) Most students of group Q scored marks in a narrower range than students in group P.
(D) The median of the marks of group P is 100.
Answer: (C)

7. A smart city integrates all modes of transport, uses clean energy and promotes sustainable use of
resources. It also uses technology to ensure safety and security of the city, something which
critics argue, will lead to a surveillance state.
Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above paragraph?
(i) All smart cities encourage the formation of surveillance states.
(ii) Surveillance is an integral part of a smart city.
(iii) Sustainability and surveillance go hand in hand in a smart city.
(iv) There is a perception that smart cities promote surveillance.
(A) (i) and (iv) (B) (i) only
(C) (iv) only (D) (ii) and (iii) only
Answer: (C)

8. Find the missing sequence in the letter series. B, FH, LNP, _ _ _ _.


(A) SUWY (B) TUVW (C) TVXZ (D) TWXZ
Answer: (C)

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9. The binary operation is defined as a + b = ab+(a+b), where a and b are any two real numbers.
The value of the identity element of this operation, defined as the number x such that a x = a,
for any a, is .
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 10

Answer: (A)
Exp: ax = a ax + ( a + x ) = a
x (1 + a ) = 0 x = 0 is the identity element

10. Which of the following curves represents the y = ln e ( sin( x )


) for x < 2 ?
Here x represents the abscissa and y represents the ordinate.

(A)

(B)

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(C)

(D)

Answer: (B)

Exp: (
y = ln e
1sin x
) is a periodic function having period and maximum value of y is 1 and y > 0.

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Biotechnology
Q.No-1-25 Carry One Mark Each

1. Bacteria with two or more flagella at one or both ends are called
(A) amphitrichous (B) peritrichous (C) lophotrichous (D) atrichous
Answer: (C)
Exp: Monotrichous bacteria have a single flagellum (e.g., Vibrio cholerae).
o Lophotrichous bacteria have multiple flagella located at the same spot on the bacteria's
surfaces which act in concert to drive the bacteria in a single direction. In many cases, the
bases of multiple flagella are surrounded by a specialized region of the cell membrane,
the so-called polar organelle. lophotrichous (lo-fot ri-kus) [lopho- + Gr. thrix hair]
having two or more flagella at one or both ends; said of a bacterial cell
o Amphitrichous bacteria have a single flagellum on each of two opposite ends (only one
flagellum operates at a time, allowing the bacteria to reverse course rapidly by switching
which flagellum is active).
o Peritrichous bacteria have flagella projecting in all directions (e.g., E. coli).

2. Which family of viruses has single stranded DNA?


(A) Herpesviridae (B) Poxviridae (C) Retroviridae (D) Parvoviridae
Answer: (D)
Exp: Although bacteriophages were first described in 1927, it was only in 1959 that Sinshemer
working with phage Phi X 174 showed that they could possess single-stranded DNA genomes.
Despite this discovery until relatively recently it was believed that the majority of DNA viruses
belonged to the double-stranded clade. Recent work suggests that this may not be the case with
single-stranded viruses forming the majority of viruses found in sea water, fresh water, sediment,
terrestrial, extreme, metazoan-associated and marine microbial mats. Many of these
"environmental" viruses belong to the family Microviridae.[11] However, the vast majority has yet
to be classified and assigned to genera and higher taxa. Because most of these viruses do not
appear to be related or are only distantly related to known viruses additional taxa will be created
for these. Families in this group have been assigned on the basis of the nature of the genome
(circular or linear) and the host range. Eleven families are currently recognised.
o Family Anelloviridae
o Family Bacillariodnaviridae
o Family Bidnaviridae
o Family Circoviridae
o Family Geminiviridae
o Family Inoviridae
o Family Microviridae
o Family Mycodnaviridae
o Family Nanoviridae
o Family Parvoviridae
o Family Spiraviridae

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3. What will be the binding status of regulatory proteins in lac operon when concentrations of both
lactose and glucose are very low in the culture medium?
(A) Only the repressor remains bound to the operator
(B) Only the cyclic AMP-Catabolic Activator Protein (cAMP-CAP) complex remains bound to
the CAP binding site
(C) Neither the repressor nor cAMP-CAP complex remain bound to their respective binding sites
(D) Both the repressor and cAMP-CAP complex remain bound to their respective binding sites
Answer: (B)
Exp: Catabolite control of the lac operon. The operon is inducible by lactose to the maximal levels
when CAMP and CAP form a complex. (a) Under conditions of high glucose, a glucose
breakdown product inhibits the enzyme adenylate cyclase, preventing the conversion of ATP into
CAMP. (b) Under conditions of low glucose, there is no breakdown product, and therefore
adenylate cyclase is active and CAMP is formed. (c) When CAMP is present, it acts as
anallosteric effector, complexing with CAP. (d) The CAMPCAP complex acts as
an activator of lac operon transcription by binding to a region within the lac promoter. (CAP =
catabolite activator protein; cAMP = cyclic adenosine monophosphate.)

4. Which of the following are TRUE for Treponema pallidum?


P. It is the causative agent of syphilis
Q. It is a spirochete
R. It is a non-motile bacterium
S. It is generally susceptible to penicillin
Choose the correct combination.
(A) P, Q and R only (B) P, Q and S only (C) P, R and S only (D) Q, R and S only
Answer: (B)
Exp: Treponema pallidum is a spirochaete bacterium with subspecies that cause treponemal diseases
such as syphilis, bejel, pinta, and yaws. The treponemes have a cytoplasmic and an outer
membrane. Using light microscopy, treponemes are only visible using dark field illumination.
They are Gram negative, but some regard them too thin to be Gram stained. T. p. pallidum is a
motile spirochaete that is generally acquired by close sexual contact, entering the host via
breaches in squamous or columnar epithelium. The organism can also be transmitted to a fetus
by transplacental passage during the later stages of pregnancy, giving rise to congenital syphilis.
The helical structure of T. p. pallidum allows it to move in a corkscrew motion through a viscous
medium such as mucus. It gains access to the host's blood and lymph systems through tissue and
mucous membranes. Penicillin, the first antibiotic developed, was the first known effective
antibiotic for T. pallidum and remains the treatment of choice today (12, 30, 94). The maximally
treponemicidal serum concentration of penicillin is 0.36 g/ml which can kill the organism in 6 to
9 hours (27). However, a concentration as low as 0.005 g/ml can clear T. pallidum from
chancres if it is maintained for 48 to 96 hours (27). In the rabbit model, viable treponemes may
persist in the lymph nodes even after early lesions have been cleared. T. pallidum can regenerate
if the serum penicillin concentration falls to sub-inhibitory levels for 24-30 hours.

5. In a typical mitotic cell division cycle in eukaryotes, M phase occurs immediately after the
(A) G0 phase (B) S phase (C) G1 phase (D) G2 phase

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Answer: (D)
Exp: Interphase
Interphase consists of 3 phases; G1 phase (growth), S phase (replication) and G2phase
(preparation for division). During interphase, cells actively prepare for mitosis by gathering
nutrients and conducting normal cellular functions i.e. they are metabolically active. Since cell
division operates in a cycle, interphase is preceded by the previous cycle of mitosis.
Interphase Mitosis

S G2 M G1 S G2 M
G1

Stan dard cell cycle

When G2 is complete, the cell enters a relatively brief period of nuclear and cellular division,
composed of mitosis and cytokinesis; together they define the mitotic phase (M phase) of the cell
cycle involving the division of the mother cell into two daughter cells, genetically identical to
each other and to their parent cell. This accounts for approximately 10% of the cell cycle.
The process of mitosis is complex and highly regulated. The M phase (nuclear division) has been
characterised into five sequential phases (prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase) (PMAT)
in which the pairs of chromosomes condense and attach to fibres that pull the sister chromatids to
opposite sides of the cell. In a standard mammalian cell, mitosis can typically take around 1 hour
to complete.
The cell then divides in cytokinesis, to produce two identical daughter cells

6. Which one of the following is NOT a therapeutic agent based on nucleic acid for the treatment of
genetic disorders?
(A) Antisense oligonucleotide (B) Ribozyme
(C) Aptamer (D) Avidin
Answer: (D)
Exp: Gene therapy is a technique for correcting defective genes responsible for disease development.
Nucleic acid-based molecules (deoxyribonucleic acid, complementary deoxyribonucleic acid,
complete genes, ribonucleic acid, and oligonucleotides) are utilized as research tools within the
broad borders of gene therapy and the emerging field of molecular medicine. Deoxyribonucleic
acidbased therapeutics includes plasmids, oligonucleotides for antisense and antigene
applications, deoxyribonucleic acid aptamers, and deoxyribonucleic acidzymes, while ribonucleic
acid-based therapeutics includes ribonucleic acid aptamers, ribonucleic acid decoys, antisense
ribonucleic acid, ribozymes, small interfering ribonucleic acid, and micro ribonucleic acid. To
the evoiutionary unity or me

7. ATP biosynthesis takes place utilizing the H+ gradient in mitochondria and chloroplasts. Identify
the correct sites of H+ gradient formation.
(A) Across the outer membrane of mitochondria and across the inner membrane of chloroplast
(B) Across the inner membrane of mitochondria and across the thylakoid membrane of
chloroplast

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(C) Within the matrix of mitochondria and across the inner membrane of chloroplast
(D) Within the matrix of mitochondria and within the stroma of chloroplast
Answer: (D)
Exp: The mechanism of the two enzymes are similar, but their orientations differ. In chloroplasts,
protons flow through the ATP synthase out of the thylakoid lumen into the stroma (where the
ATP synthesized). In mitochondria the protons flow out of the intermembrane space into the
mitochondrial matrix.

8. Which one of the following is NOT an algorithm for building phylogenetic trees?
(A) Maximum parsimony (B) Neighbor joining
(C) Maximum likelihood (D) Bootstrap
Answer: (D)
Exp: Methods for estimating phylogenies include neighbor-joining, maximum parsimony (also simply
referred to as parsimony), UPGMA,Bayesian phylogenetic inference, maximum likelihood and dis
tance matrix methods.
Maximum parsimony (MP) is a method of identifying the potential phylogenetic tree that requires
the smallest total number ofevolutionary events to explain the observed sequence data. Some ways
of scoring trees also include a "cost" associated with particular types of evolutionary events and
attempt to locate the tree with the smallest total cost. This is a useful approach in cases where not
every possible type of event is equally likely - for example, when particularnucleotides or amino
acids are known to be more mutable than others...The maximum likelihood method uses standard
statistical techniques for inferringprobability distributions to assign probabilities to particular
possible phylogenetic trees.In bioinformatics, neighbor joining is a bottom
up(agglomerative) clustering method for the creation of phylogenetic trees, created by Naruya Sait
ou and Masatoshi Nei in 1987. Usually used for trees based on DNAor protein sequence data, the
algorithm requires knowledge of the distance between each pair of taxa (e.g., species or sequences)
to form the tree..Bootstrap, jackknife, and permutation tests are common tests used in
phylogenetics to estimate the significance of the branches of a tree. This process can be very time
consuming because of the large number of samples that have to be taken in order to have an
accurate confidence estimate

9. Cesium chloride density gradient centrifugation is commonly used for the separation of DNA
molecules. The buoyant density, , of a double stranded Cs+DNA is given by the equation
= 1.66 + 0.098 XG+C where XG+C denotes
(A) total number of G and C (B) mole fraction of G+C
(C) number of GC repeats (D) ratio of G+C to A+T content
Answer: (B)
= 1.660 + 0.098 ( GC )
Exp: bouyant density ( gcm 1 ) 1660
% G + content = 100
0.098
XG+C=mole fraction of G and C

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10. Disaccharide molecules that contain (1 4 ) glycosidic linkage are


(A) sucrose and maltose (B) sucrose and isomaltose
(C) maltose and isomaltose (D) lactose and cellobiose
Answer: (D)
Exp:
Disaccharide Unit 1 Unit 2 Bond
Sucrose (table sugar, cane, sugar, beet Glucose Fructose (1 2 )
sugar, or saccharose)
Lactulose Galactose Fructose (1 4 )

Lactose (milk sugar) Galactose Glucose (1 4 )

Maltose (malt sugar) Glucose Glucose (1 4 )

Trehalose Glucose Glucose (1 4 )

Cellobiose Glucose Glucose (1 4 )

Chitobiose Glucosamine Glucosamine (1 4 )

11. Junctional diversity of antibody molecules results from


(A) the addition of switch region nucleotides
(B) the addition of N and P nucleotides
(C) the joining of V, D and J segments
(D) mutations in complementary-determining regions
Answer: (C)
Exp: Junctional diversity results from the imprecise joining of gene segments and from the addition of
nucleotides to the DNA sequence at splice sites. TdT adds up to 15 nucleotides to the DNA
sequence of human VH and JHregions. Junctional diversity affects predominantly CDR3; it is
significant but difficult to quantify, since it also results in many nonproductive rearrangements.

12. Which one of the following is NOT used for the measurement of cell viability in animal cell
culture?
(A) Trypan blue dye exclusion (B) Tetrazolium (MTT) assay
(C) LDH activity in the culture medium (D) Coulter counter
Answer: (D)
Exp: Cell viability and cytotoxicity assays are used for drug screening and cytotoxicity tests of
chemicals.Many have established methods such as Colony Formation method, Crystal Violet
method, Tritium-Labeled Thymidine Uptake method, MTT, and WST methods, which are used for
counting the number of live cells.

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Trypan Blue is a widely used assay for staining dead cells. In this method, cell viability must be
determined by counting the unstained cells with a microscope or other instruments. However,
Trypan Blue staining cannot be used to distinguish between the healthy cells and the cells that are
alive but losing cell functions.Cellular enzymes such as lactate dehydrogenase, adenylate kinase,
and glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase are also used as cell death markers, and there are several
products available on the market. However, adenylate kinase and glucose-6-phosphate are not
stable and only lactate dehydrogenase does not lose its activity during cell death assays. Therefore,
cell death assays based on lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) activity are more reliable than other
enzyme-based cell death assays. Enzyme-based methods using MTT and WST rely on a reductive
coloring reagent and dehydrogenase in a viable cell to determine cell viability with a colorimetric
method

13. Which one of the following techniques relies on the spin angular momentum of a photon?
(A) CD spectroscopy (B) Fluorescence spectroscopy
(C) IR spectroscopy (D) Raman spectroscopy
Answer: (D)
Exp: For Raman spectra the molecules undergo transitions in which an incident photon is absorbed and
another scattered photon is emitted. The general selection rule for such a transition to be allowed is
that the molecularpolarizability must be anisotropic, which means that it is not the same in all
directions.[13] Polarizability is a 3-dimensionaltensor that can be represented as an ellipsoid. The
polarizability ellipsoid of spherical top molecules is in fact spherical so those molecules show no
rotational Raman spectrum. For all other molecules both Stokesand anti-Stokes lines[notes 5] can be
observed and they have similar intensities due to the fact that many rotational states are thermally
populated. The selection rule for linear molecules is J = 0, 2 . The reason for the values 2 is that
the polarizability returns to the same value twice during a rotation.[14] The value J = 0 does not
correspond to a molecular transition but rather to Rayleigh scattering in which the incident photon
merely changes direction.
The selection rule for symmetric top molecules is
K = 0If K = 0, then J = 2If K 0, then J = 0, 1, 2
Transitions with J = +1 are said to belong the an R series, whereas transitions with J = +2
belong to an S series. Since Raman transitions involve two photons, it is possible for the molecular
angular momentum to change by two units.

14. Which one of the following statements is NOT true?


(A) In competitive inhibition, substrate and inhibitor compete for the same active site of an
enzyme
(B) Addition of a large amount of substrate to an enzyme cannot overcome uncompetitive
inhibition
(C) A transition state analogue in enzyme catalyzed reaction increases the rate of product
formation
(D) In non-competitive inhibition, Km of an enzyme for its substrate remains constant as the
concentration of the inhibitor increases
Answer: (C)
Exp: Transition state analogs (transition state analogues), are chemical compounds with a chemical
structure that resembles the transition state of a substrate molecule in anenzyme-
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catalyzed chemical reaction. Enzymes interact with a substrate by means of strain or distortions,
moving the substrate towards the transition state.[1] Theory suggests that enzyme inhibitors which
resembled the transition state structure would bind more tightly to the enzyme than the actual
substrate.[2] Transition state analogs can be used as inhibitors in enzyme-catalyzed reactions by
blocking the active site of the enzyme. Examples of drugs that are transition state analog
inhibitors include flu medications such as the neuraminidase inhibitor oseltamivir and the HIV
protease inhibitors saquinavir in the treatment of AIDS.
In non-competitive inhibition, the Km does not change. This is because Km is a measure of the
affinity of the enzyme for its substrate and this can only be measured by active enzyme. The fixed
amount of inactive enzyme in non-competitive inhibition does not affect the Km and the Km,
therefore is unchanged

15. Based on their function, find the ODD one out.


(A) miRNA (B) siRNA (C) shRNA (D) snRNA
Answer: (D)
Exp: Two types of small ribonucleic acid (RNA) molecules microRNA (miRNA) and small
interfering RNA (siRNA) are central to RNA interference. RNAs are the direct products of
genes, and these small RNAs can bind to other specific messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules and
either increase or decrease their activity, for example by preventing an mRNA from producing
a protein. RNA interference has an important role in defending cells against
parasitic nucleotidesequences viruses and transposons. It also influences development.A small
hairpin RNA or short hairpin RNA(shRNA) is an artificial RNA molecule with a tight hairpin
turn that can be used to silence target gene expression via RNA interference(RNAi).Expression of
shRNA in cells is typically accomplished by delivery ofplasmids or through viral or
bacterial vectors

16. Prandtl number is the ratio of


(A) thermal diffusivity to momentum diffusivity
(B) mass diffusivity to momentum diffusivity
(C) momentum diffusivity to thermal diffusivity
(D) thermal diffusivity to mass diffusivity
Answer: (C)
Exp: The Prandtl number (Pr) or Prandtl group is a dimensionless number, named after the German
physicist LudwigPrandtl, defined as the ratio of momentum diffusivityto thermal diffusivity

17. Fed batch cultivation is suitable for which of the following?


P. Processes with substrate inhibition processes with product inhibition R. High cell density
cultivation
(A) P and Q only (B) P and R only (C) Q and R only (D) P, Q and R
Answer: (B)
Exp: The types of bioprocesses for which fed-batch culture is effective can be summarized as follows:
1. Substrate inhibition Nutrients such as methanol, ethanol, acetic acid, and aromatic compounds
inhibit the growth of microorganisms even at relatively low concentrations. By adding such
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substrates properly lag-time can be shortened and the inhibition of the cell growth markedly
reduced.
2. High cell density (High cell concentration)
To achieve very high cell concentrations, e.g.50-100 g of dry cells/L, in a batch culture a high
initial concentrations of the nutrients in the medium are needed. At such high concentrations of
the nutrients become inhibitory, even though they have no such effect at the normal
concentrations used in batch cultures

18. A biological process is involved in the _ treatment of industrial effluent.


(A) Primary (B) secondary (C) tertiary (D) quaternary
Answer: (B)
Exp: Secondary treatment removes dissolved and suspended biological matter. Secondary treatment is
typically performed by indigenous, water-borne micro-organisms in a managed habitat.
Secondary treatment may require a separation process to remove the micro-organisms from the
treated water prior to discharge or tertiary treatment

19. In dead-end filtration, rate of filtration is


(A) directly proportional to the square root of pressure drop across the filter medium
(B) inversely proportional to the pressure drop across the filter medium
(C) inversely proportional to the viscosity of the solution
(D) inversely proportional to the square of viscosity of the solution
Answer: (C)
Exp: The main modeling equation for the dead-end filtration at constant pressure dropis represented by
Darcys law: where Vp and Q are the volume of the permeate and its
volumetric flow raterespectively (proportional to same characteristics of the feed flow),
is dynamic viscosity of permeating fluid, A is membrane area, Rm and R are the respective
resistances of membrane and growing deposit of the foulants. Rm can be interpreted as a
membrane resistance to the solvent (water) permeation. This resistance is a
membraneintrinsic property and is expected to be fairly constant and independent of the driving
force, p

20. The power required for agitation of non-aerated medium in fermentation is kW.
Operating conditions are as follows:
Fermentor diameter = 3 m
Number of impellers = 1
Mixing speed = 300 rpm
Diameter of the Rushton turbine = 1 m
Viscosity of the broth = 0.001 Pa.s
Density of the broth = 1000 kg.m-3
Power number = 5
Answer: (5)

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P = Np Ni3 Di5
Exp:
P = 5 1000 11 = 5000

21. Which one of the following is the most suitable type of impeller for mixing high viscosity
(viscosity > 105 cP) fluids?
(A) Propeller (B) Helical ribbon (C) Paddle (D) Flat blade turbine
Answer: (B)
Exp:

107

Helical ribbons
106

Helical screws
Viscosity (centiopoise)

105

104
Gate
Flat-blade turbines

Paddles

103
Anchors

Propellers

102

10

1
Im peller type

Viscosity ranges for different impellers

22. Runs scored by a batsman in five one-day matches are 55, 75, 67, 88 and 15. The standard
deviation is________
Answer: (24.93)
Exp: N = 5, x1 = 55, x2 = 75, x3 = 67, x4 = 88 and x5 = 15
1 n 1
x= x i = ( 300 ) = 60
n i =1 5

1 n
( )
2
Standard deviation, = xi x
n i =1
1
= [ 25 + 225 + 49 + 784 + 2025]
5
= 621.6 = 24.93

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23. The positive Eigen value of the following matrix is .


2 1
5 2

Answer: (3)
Exp: Characteristic equation is 2 ( 2 2 ) + ( 4 5 ) = 0
2 9 = 0
= 3,3
The positive Eigen value of the matrix is 3

24 The Laplace transform F(s) of the function f(t) = cos (at), where a is constant, is .
2
s a s s
(A) (B) (C) (D)
s + a2 2
s + a2
2
s + a2
2
s a2
2

Answer: (C)
s
Exp: L f ( t ) = L cos ( at ) = ( standard laplace transform )
s + a2
2

0.9 dx
25. The value of the integral 0 (1 x)(2 x)
is _________ ____ .

Answer: (1.7)
Exp:
1 1 1
= + ( using partial fractions )
(1 x )( 2 x ) 1 x 2 x
dx
= ln (1 x ) 0 + ln ( 2 x ) 0
0.9 0.9 0.9

0
(1 x )( 2 x )
= ln ( 0.1) + ln (1) + ln (1.1) ln ( 2 )
1.1
= ln = ln ( 5.5 ) = 1.70
0.2

Q.No-26-55 Carry Two Marks Each

26. Which combination of the following statements is CORRECT for cyanobacteria?


P. They can perform oxygenic photosynthesis
Q. Usually filamentous forms are involved in nitrogen fixation
R. Nitrogen fixation occurs in heterocysts
S. They cannot grow in a mineral medium exposed to light and air

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(A) P, Q and R (B) P, S and R (C) Q, R and S (D) P, Q and S


Answer: (A)
Exp: Because they are photoautotrophs, cyanobacteria can be grown in simple mineral media. Vitamin
B12 is the only growth factor that is known to be required by some species. Media must be
supplemented with the essential nutrients needed to support cell growth, including sources of
nitrogen, phosphorus, trace elements, etc. Toxigenic strains of cyanobacteria are deposited in
international-type culture collections. Clonal cultures are distributed for research, taxonomic
work and teaching purposes.

27. Which set of the following events occurs during the elongation step of translation?
P. Attachment of mRNA with the smaller subunit of ribosome
Q. Loading of correct aminoacyl-tRNA into the A site
R. Formation of a peptide bond between the amino acyl-tRNA in the A site and the peptide chain
that is attached to the peptidyl-tRNA in the P site
S. Dissociation of the ribosomal subunits
T. Translocation of peptidyl-tRNA from the A site to the P site of the ribosome
(A) P, Q and R (B) P, Q and T (C) Q, R and T (D) R, S and T
Answer: (C)
Exp: During chain elongation, each additional amino acid is added to the nascent polypeptide chain in
a three-step microcycle. The steps in this microcycle are (1) positioning the correct aminoacyl-
tRNA in the A site of the ribosome, (2) forming the peptide bond and (3) shifting the mRNA by
one codon relative to the ribosome
On the other hand, non-competitive inhibitors do NOT bind to the active site of the enzyme and
do not resemble the substrate. Therefore, addition of more substrate cannot eliminate the effect of
the inhibitor. As a result, there is always a fixed amount of enzyme inactive in non-competitive
inhibition. As you recall, when you change the amount of enzyme, you change the Vmax (from
last lecture), so in the presence of a non-competitive inhibitor, the Vmax decreases.

28. A DNA sequence, 5-ATGGACGTGCTTCCCAAAGCATCGGGC-3, is mutated to obtain


P. 5-ATGGACGTGCTTCaCAAAGCATCGGGC-3
Q. 5-ATGGACGTGCTTCCCgAAAGCATCGGGC-3
R. 5-ATGGACGTGCTTCC-AAAGCATCGGGC-3
S. 5-ATGGACGTGCTTCCCAAtGCATCGGGC-3
T. 5-ATGGACGaGCTTCCCAAAGCATCGGGC-3
[Point mutations are shown in the lower case or - within the sequences]
Which of the above mutant sequences DO NOT have frame-shift?
(A) P, Q and S (B) P, S and T (C) Q, R and S (D) Q, S and T

29. Which of the following events occur during the stationary phase of bacterial growth?
P. Rise in cell number stops
Q. Spore formation in some Gram-positive bacteria such as Bacillus subtilis
R. Cell size increases in some Gram-negative bacteria such as Escherichia coli
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S. Growth rate of bacterial cells nearly equals their death rate


T. Decrease in peptidoglycan crosslinking
(A) P, Q and S only (B) P, S and T only (C) Q, R and S only (D) P, R and T only
Answer: (C)
Exp: The AbrB protein of the spore-forming bacterium Bacillus sabtilis is a repressor of numerous
genes that are switched on during the transition from the exponential to the stationary phase of
growth.The stationary phase is often due to a growth-limiting factor such as the depletion of an
essential nutrient, and/or the formation of an inhibitory product such as an organic acid.
Stationary phase results from a situation in which growth rate and death rate are equal. The
number of new cells created is limited by the growth factor and as a result the rate of cell growth
matches the rate of cell death. tely digested by lysozyme due to de-N-acetylation of glucosamine,
which occurs on 17.3% of muropeptides. The cross-linking index of the polymer changes with the
growth phase. It is highest in late stationary phase, with a value of 33.2 or 44% per muramic acid
residue, as determined by reverse-phase high-pressure liquid chromatography or gel filtration
Division should occur subsequent to carbon source exhaustion. For example, an approximately
twofold increase in cell number has been reported during the first part of stationary phase for both
Beneckea natriegens and Escherichia coli (Wade, 1952; Nazly et al.., 1980). The increase in cell
number in the stationary phase consequently leads to a reduction in the cell size (Henrici.
Growth rate of bacterial cells nearly equals their death rate

30. Select the CORRECT combination of genetic components that are essential for the transfer of T-
DNA segment from Agrobacterium tumefaciens to plant cells.
(A) Border repeat sequences and oncogenes (B) Border repeat sequences and vir genes
(C) Opine biosynthetic genes and vir genes (D) Opine biosynthetic genes and oncogenes
Answer: (C)
Exp: Ti Plasmid: a: T-DNA, b: Vir genes , c: Replication origin , d: Opines catabolism genes

31. Match the secondary metabolites (Column-I) with the corresponding plant species (Column-II).
Column-I Column-II
P. Morphine 1. Datura stramonium
Q. Pyrethrins 2. Catharanthus roseus
R. Scopolamine 3. Papaver somniferum
S. Vincristine 4. Tagetes erecta
(A) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (B) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
Answer: (B)
Exp: Norman strain of P. Somniferum, also developed in Tasmania, produces down to 0.04%
morphine but with much higher amounts of thebaine andoripavine, which can be used to
synthesise semi-synthetic opioids as well as other drugs like stimulants, emetics, opioid
antagonists, anticholinergics, and smooth-muscle agents.The callus tissue of Tagetes erecta
maintained on revised Murashige and Skoog's medium (RT) as static cultures showed the
presence of insecticidal pyrethrins. The percentage of pyrethrins further increased by feeding the
tissue with various concentrations of ascorbic acid. All Datura plants contain tropane
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alkaloids such as scopolamine, hyoscyamine, and atropine, primarily in their seeds and flowers.
Because of the presence of these substances, Datura has been used for centuries in some cultures
as a poison.[6][7] There can be a 5:1 toxin variation between plants, and a given plant's toxicity
depends on its age, where it is growing, and the local weather conditions. These variations
makes Datura exceptionally hazardous as a drug. Vinblastine and vincristine are excellent anti-
cancer drugs but their current production using plants is non-abundant and expensive. In order to
make these drugs readily available to the patients at affordable prices, we isolated the endophytic
fungi from Catharanthus roseus plant and found a fungus AA-CRL-6 which produces vinblastine
and vincristine in appreciable amounts

32. A variety of genetic elements are used in the transgenic plant research. Match the genetic
elements Column-I) with their corresponding source (Column-II).
Column-I Column-II
P. Ubiquitin1 promoter 1. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Q. Nos transcriptional terminator 2. Streptomyces hygroscopicus
R. bar selection marker gene 3. Escherichia coli
S. gus reporter gene 4. Zea mays
(A) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
Answer: (D)
Exp: Enhanced expression of the CAT marker gene suggests increased expression of selectable marker
genes, thus improving the selection procedure in cereal transformation. A combination of maize
ubiquitin 1 promoter with the bar gene, conferring resistance against the herbicide
phosphinotricin, has already been constructed by Christensen and Quail (pAHC25, unpublished)
 The promoter region of the Agrobacterium tumefaciens T-cyt gene was linked in a
translational fusion to the coding DNA of the reporter gene uidA (for beta-glucuronidase or
GUS protein; EC 3.2.1.31) and to nos 3 flanking DNA [1].
 They are flanked by the nopaline synthase (nos) or the cauliflower mosaic virus (CaMV) 355
promoters on one side by the nos polyadenylation signal on the other (2)
The bar gene was originally cloned from Streptomyces hygroscopicus, an organism which
produces the tripeptide bialaphos as a secondary metabolite.

33. Match the type of chromosomal inheritance (Column-I) with the corresponding genetic disease
or trait (Column-II).
Column-I Column-II
P. Autosomal recessive inheritance 1. Huntington disease
Q. Autosomal dominant inheritance 2. Hairy ears
R. X-linked inheritance 3. Cystic fibrosis
S. Y-linked inheritance 4. Hemophilia
(A) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2 (B) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
Answer: (C)

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Exp: Examples of diseases with autosomal dominant inheritance include myotonic muscular
dystrophy and Huntingtondisease.examples of diseases with autosomal recessive inheritance
include sickle cell anemia and cystic fibrosis.Examples of diseases with X-linked dominant
inheritance are hypophosphatemic ricketsm, oral-facial-digital syndrome type I, and Fragile
X syndrome.Examples of diseases with X-linked recessive inheritance include Ducheme
muscular dystrophy, hemophilia A and hypohidrotic or anhidrotic ectodermaldysplasia

34. A crossing was performed between the genotypes DdEeFfgg and ddEeFfGg. Assuming that the
allelic pairs of all genes assort independently, the proportion of progeny having the genotype
ddeeffgg is expected to be %.

35. The equilibrium potential of a biological membrane for Na+ is 55 mV at 37 C. Concentration of


Na+ inside the cell is 20 mM. Assuming the membrane is permeable to Na+ only, the Na+
concentration outside the membrane will be mM.
(Faraday constant: 23062 cal.V-1.mol-1, Gas constant: 1.98 cal.mol-1.K-1)

36. A 1.2 kb DNA fragment was cloned into BamHI and EcoRI sites located on a 2.8 kb cloning
vector.The BamHI and EcoRI sites are adjacent to each other on the vector backbone. The vector
contains an XhoI site located 300 bp upstream of the BamHI site. An internal XhoI site is present
in the gene sequence as shown in the figure. The resultant recombinant plasmid is digested with
EcoRI and XhoI and analyzed through 1% agarose gel electrophoresis. Assuming complete
digestion with EcoRI and XhoI, the DNA fragments (in base pairs) visible on the agarose gel will
correspond to:
(A) 2800, 700 and 500 (B) 2800, 700 and 800
(C) 2500, 700 and 800 (D) 2500, 1200 and 300

37. Find the INCORRECT combination.


(A) Surface immunoglobulins -B cell antigen receptor
(B) Affinity maturation isotype switching
(C) Fc region of antibodies binding to complement proteins
(D) Spleen, the secondary lymphoid organ no connection with the lymphatic system
Answer: (D)
Exp: B cells derive from the bone-marrow and as mature B cells recirculate regularly through
secondary lymphoid organs in search of signs of infection. On their surface they carry cell-
surface immunoglobulin, the B cell receptor (BCR), which is specific for antigen. After
antigen encounter, B cells initially congregate at the boundary between B cell follicles and T
cell areas in search of T cell help.Immunoglobulin class switching, also known as isotype
switching, isotypic commutationor class-switch recombination (CSR), is a biological
mechanism that changes a B cell's production of immunoglobulin (antibodies) from one type to
another, such as from theisotype IgM to the isotype IgG. Class switching occurs after activation
of a mature B cell via its membrane-bound antibody molecule (or B cell receptor) to generate the
different classes of antibody, all with the same variable domains as the original antibody
generated in the immature B cell during the process of V(D)J recombination, but possessing
distinct constant domains in their heavy chains. The fragment crystallizable region (Fc region)
is the tail region of an antibody that interacts with cell surface receptors called Fc receptors and
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some proteins of thecomplement system. Secondary lymphoid tissue provides the environment
for the foreign or altered native molecules (antigens) to interact with the lymphocytes. It is
exemplified by the lymph nodes, and the lymphoid follicles in tonsils,Peyer's
patches, spleen, adenoids, skin, etc. that are associated with the mucosa-associated lymphoid
tissue

38. Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT for antigen activated effector T cells?
P. CD4+ cells make contact with macrophages and stimulate their microbicidal activity
Q. CD4+ cells make contact with B cells and stimulate them to differentiate into plasma cells
R. CD8+ cells make contact with B cells and stimulate them to differentiate into plasma cells
S. CD8+ cells make contact with virus infected cells and kill them
(A) Q only (B) Q and S only (C) P, Q and S only (D) P, Q, R and S
Answer: (C)
Exp: In contrast with CD8 T cells,CD4 T cells differentiate into several subsets of effector T cells with
a variety of different functions. The main functional classes are TH 1, TH 2, TH 17, and the
regulatory T cells. A recently recognized class specialized for providing help to B cells in the
lymphoid follicles is called the T follicular helper cell, or TFH . The subsets, particularly
TH 1, TH 2, and TH 17, are defined on the basis of the different combinations of cytokines that they
secrete (Fig.9.28). The first to be distinguished were the TH 1 and TH 2 sub-sets, hence their
names.
TH 1 cells help control bacteria that can set up intravesicular infections in macrophages, such as
the mycobacteria that cause tuberculosis and leprosy. These bacteria are taken up by macrophages
in the usual way but can evade the killing mechanisms described in Chapter 3. If a TH 1 cell
recognizes bacterial antigens displayed on the surface of an infected macrophage, it will interact
with the infected cell to activate it further, stimulating the macrophages microbicidal activity to
enable it to kill its resident bacteria.
The final step of B-cell activation occurs when a CD4 helper T cell recognizes and binds with an
antigen-MHC II complex on the B cell. This binding causes the CD4 cell to secrete cytokines,
which then stimulate the B cell to proliferate and differentiate into two types of cells plasma cells
and memory B cells. The plasma cells are the cells that make antibodies. CD8 T lymphocytes
can kill virus-infected cells by at least two mechanism which, although acting on different signal
pathways, both will end in the induction of apoptotic killing machinery of the affected target
cells.

39. Which one of the following statements regarding G proteins is INCORRECT?


(A) GDP is bound to G protein in the resting stage
(B) GTP bound  subunit cannot reassemble with  dimer
(C) All G proteins are trimeric
(D) Activation of G protein may result in activation or inhibition of the target enzymes
Answer: (B)
Exp: In the resting state, G protein forms a heterotrimer, consisting of GDP-bound form of the G
protein subunit (G(GDP)) and G protein subunit (G).

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GTP binding changes the conformation of switch regions within the alpha subunit, which allows
the bound trimeric G protein (inactive) to be released from the receptor, and to dissociate into
active alpha subunit (GTP-bound) and beta/gamma dimer. The alpha subunit and the beta/gamma
dimer go on to activate distinct downstream effectors, such as adenylyl cyclase,
phosphodiesterases, phospholipase C, and ion channels.
Many different mammalian cell-surface receptors are coupled to a trimeric signal-transducing G
protein. Ligand binding to these receptors activates their associated G protein, which then
activates an effector enzyme to generate an intracellular second messenger
GDP to dissociate and to be replaced with GTP (GDP-GTP exchange), which is turn causes
dissociation of the G protein trimer, releasing GTP and subunits; these are the active
forms of the G protein, which diffuse in the membrane and can associate with various enzymes
and ion channels, causing activation of the target (Fig. 3.9). It was originally through that only the
subunit had a signaling function, the complex serving merely as a chaperone to keep the
flighty subunits out of range of the various effector proteins that they might otherwise excite.
However, the complexes actually make assignations of their own, and control effectors in
much the same way as the subunits. Association of or subunits with target enzymes or
channels can cause either activation or inhibition, depending on which G protein is involved (see
Table 3.3).

40. In animal cell culture, a CO2 enriched atmosphere in the incubator chamber is used to maintain
the culture pH between 6.9 and 7.4. Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?
(A) Higher the bicarbonate concentration in the medium, higher should be the requirement of
gaseous CO2
(B) Lower the bicarbonate concentration in the medium, higher should be the requirement of
gaseous CO2
(C) Higher the bicarbonate concentration in the medium, lower should be the requirement of
gaseous CO2
(D) CO2 requirement is independent of bicarbonate concentration in the medium
Answer: (C)
Exp: The optimal pH range of 7.2 to 7.4 can be maintained by supplementing the medium with sodium
bicarbonate and regulating the level of CO2 in the atmosphere above the medium as shown by the
reaction below: H2O + CO2 + NaHCO3 H+ + Na+ + 2HCO3 In tissue culture, cells are grown
either in open systems (where there is free exchange of the atmosphere immediately above the
medium with the atmosphere of the incubator) or in closed systems (where the two atmospheres
are kept separate). The buffering system employed in the medium needs to be matched to the
culture system. Otherwise the cells may be subject to metabolic stress which will impair their
performance. In closed systems the level of CO2 is regulated by the metabolism of the cells. The
culture vessel must be sealed (flasks tightly capped) to retain any CO2 generated by the cells.
Consequently, closed systems provide additional protection against contamination and have
simpler incubator requirements than open systems. Closed systems usually require media with
buffers based on Hanks balanced salt solution having relatively low levels of sodium
bicarbonate. In open systems, humidity (to reduce evaporation) and a means of regulating CO2
levels (if the culture medium contains sodium bicarbonate) are required during incubation to
maintain the pH of the culture medium. Open systems usually require the higher levels of sodium
bicarbonate found in Earles salt solution combined with a 5 to 10% CO2 atmosphere supplied by
the incubator. In general, 1.2 g/L to 2.2 g/L of sodium bicarbonate is used with 5% CO2 whereas

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3.7 g/L sodium bicarbonate is used with 10% CO2 . The exact amount will depend upon the
medium formulation.

41. Choose the CORRECT combination of True (T) and False (F) statements about microcarriers
used in animal cell culture.
P. Higher cell densities can be achieved using microcarriers
Q. Microcarriers increase the surface area for cell growth
R. Microcarriers are used for both anchorage- and nonanchorage-dependent cells
S. Absence of surface charge on microcarriers enhances attachment of cells
(A) P-T, Q-F, R-T and S-F (B) P-T, Q-T, R-F and S-F
(C) P-F, Q-F, R-T and S-T (D) P-F, Q-T, R-F and S-T
Answer: (B)
Exp: Microcarrier beads in bioreactor systems are being applied as a large scale production method.
SoloHill is developing a family of unique microcarrier products which are superior to those
currently available. The overall aim is to develop a novel small microcarrier bead (38-63
micrometers) which will foster the aggregation of cells. This will encourage the use of
microcarriers for conditions where higher cell densities have been shown to be advantageous.
For anchorage-dependent cells, microcarrier culture provides the advantage of greatly increased
surface area for cell growth and increasing the growth area per unit volume in the culture.

42. In an assay of the type II dehydroquinase of molecular mass 18 kDa, it is found that the Vmax of
the enzyme is 0.0134 mol.min-1 when 1.8 g enzyme is added to the assay mixture. If the Km
for the substrate is 25 M, the kcat/Km ratio will be 104 M-1.S-1.

43. The molar extinction coefficients of Trp and Tyr at 280 nm are 5690 and 1280 M-1.cm-1,
respectively. The polypeptide chain of yeast alcohol dehydrogenase (37 kDa) contains 5 Trp and
14 Tyr residues. The absorbance at 280 nm of a 0.32 mg.mL-1 solution of yeast alcohol
dehydrogenase measured in a cuvette of 1 cm pathlength will be .
(Assume that the molar extinction coefficient values for Trp and Tyr apply to these amino acids in
the yeast alcohol dehydrogenase).

44. The activity of lactate dehydrogenase can be measured by monitoring the following reaction:
Pyruvate + NADH
Lactate + NAD+
The molar extinction coefficient of NADH at 340 nm is 6220 M-1.cm-1. NAD+ does not absorb at
this wavelength. In an assay, 25 L of a sample of enzyme (containing 5 g protein per mL) was
added to a mixture of pyruvate and NADH to give a total volume of 3 mL in a cuvette of 1 cm
pathlength. The rate of decrease in absorbance at 340 nm was 0.14 min-1. The specific activity of
the enzyme will be ___________mol.min-1.mg-1.

45. Analysis of a hexapeptide using enzymatic cleavage reveals the following result:
 Amino acid composition of the peptide is: 2R, A,V, S, Y
 Trypsin digestion yields two fragments and the compositions are: (R, A, V) and (R, S, Y)

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 Chymotrypsin digestion yields two fragments and the compositions are: (A, R, V, Y) and (R,S)
 Digestion with carboxypeptidase A yields no cleavage product.
Given: Trypsin cleaves at carboxyl side of R.
Chymotrypsin cleaves at carboxyl side of Y.
Carboxypeptidase A cleaves at amino side of the C-terminal amino acid
(except R and K) of the peptide.
The correct amino acid sequence of the peptide is:
(A) RSYRVA (B) AVRYSR (C) SRYVAR (D) SVRRYA

46. The empirical formula for biomass of an unknown organism is CH1.8O0.5N0.2. To grow this
organism, ethanol (C2H5OH) and ammonia are used as carbon and nitrogen sources, respectively.
Assume no product formation other than biomass. To produce 1 mole of biomass from 1 mole of
ethanol, the number of moles of oxygen required will be .

47. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is cultured in a chemostat (continuous fermentation) at a dilution rate


of 0.5 h-1. The feed substrate concentration is 10 g.L-1. The biomass concentration in the
chemostat at steady state will be . g.L1.
Assumptions: Feed is sterile, maintenance is negligible and maximum biomass yield with respect
to substrate is 0.4 (g biomass per g ethanol).
ms
Microbial growth kinetics is given by =
Ks + s
where is specific growth rate (h-1), m = 0.7 h-1, Ks = 0.3 g.L-1 and s is substrate concentration
(g.L-1).

48. Decimal reduction time of bacterial spores is 23 min at 121 C and the death kinetics follow first
order. One liter medium containing 105 spores per mL was sterilized for 10 min at 121 C in a
batch sterilizer. The number of spores in the medium after sterilization (assuming destruction of
spores in heating and cooling period is negligible) will be 107.

49. A bioreactor is scaled up based on equal impeller tip speed. Consider the following parameters for
small and large bioreactors:
Parameters Small bioreactor Large bioreactor
Impeller speed N1 N2
Diameter of impeller D1 D2
Power consumption P1 P2
Assuming geometrical similarity and the bioreactors are operated in turbulent regime, what will
beP2/P1?
(A) (D1/D2)2 (B) (D2/D1)2
(C) (D1/D2)5 (D) (D2/D1)5
Answer: (D)
Exp: Physical properties of the broth in geometrically similar conditions and fully baffled fermentors
are assumed to be same. Items relevant to liquid behavior in agitated fermentor vessel are: Power
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requirement of the agitation, P, or power requirements of agitation in gassed systems, Pg, rotation
speed of the impeller, n, and pumping rate of impeller, F. For turbulent liquid motion,
P n 3 Di5

Pg P = f ( Na )

in addition, VDi3 F nDi3

3
P D
So, 2 = 2
P1 D1

50. An enzyme converts substrate A to product B. At a given liquid feed stream of flow rate 25
L.min-1 and feed substrate concentration of 2 mol.L-1, the volume of continuous stirred tank
reactor needed for 95% conversion will be L.
0.1CA
Given the rate equation rA =
1 + 0.5CA
Where --rA is the rate of reaction in mol.L-1.min-1 and CA is the substrate concentration in mol.L-1
Assumptions: Enzyme concentration is contant and does not undergo any deactivation during the
reaction.

51. A protein is to be purified using ion-exchange column chromatography. The relationship between
HETP (Height Equivalent to Theoretical Plate) and the linear liquid velocity of mobile phase is
given by:
A
H= + Bu + C
u
where H is HETP (m) and u is linear liquid velocity of mobile phase (m.s-1). The values of A, B
and C are 310-8 m2.s-1, 3 s and 610-5 m, respectively. The number of theoretical plates based on
minimum HETP for a column of 66 cm length will be .

52. An enzyme is immobilized on the surface of a non-porous spherical particle of 2 mm diameter.


The immobilized enzyme is suspended in a solution having bulk substrate concentration of 10
mM. The enzyme follows first order kinetics with rate constant 10 s-1 and the external mass
transfer coefficient is 1 cm.s-1. Assume steady state condition wherein rate of enzyme reaction
(mmol.L-1.s-1) at the surface is equal to mass transfer rate (mmol.L-1.s-1). The substrate
concentration at the surface of the immobilized particle will be mM.

d2 y
53. y = 0 The initial conditions for this second order homogeneous differential equation are
dx 2
dy
y(0) = 1 and = 3 at x = 0.
dx
The value of y when x = 2 is .
Answer: (14.64)

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d2 y
Exp: D.E is y=0
dx 2
A.E: m2-1 = 0 m = -1, 1
The general solution is y = C.F = c1e x + c2 e x ___ (1)
dy
= c1e x + c2 e x _____ ( 2 )
dx
dy
Using the initial conditions y(0) = 1 and = 3 at x = 0,
dx
(1) and (2) gives

1 = C1 + C2 and 3 = -C1+C2

Solving, we get C1 = -1, C2 = 2


y = e x + 2e x
2
When x = 1, y = e + 2e = 14.64
2

54. The value of determinant A given below is .

5 16 81

A = 0 2 2
0 0 16

Answer: (160)
5 16 81
Exp: 0 2 2 = ( 5 )( 2 )(16 ) = 160
0 0 16

55. Consider the equation


aS
V=
S2
b +S+
c
Given a = 4, b = 1 and c = 9, the positive value of S at which V is maximum, will be .
Answer: (3)
aS 4S 36s
Exp: V= = =
2
S 2
s s + 9s + 9
2
b +S+ + s +1
c 9
For maximum or minimum,

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dV
=0
( )
s 2 + 9s + 9 ( 36 ) 36s ( 2s + 9 )
=0
( )
2
ds s 2 + 9s + 9
s 2 + 9 = 0 s = 3,3
2
d V
< 0 at s = 3
ds 2
The positive value of S at which V is maximum, is 3

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