Male 65 years old enter the emergency room by ambulance after B.

B. Anterior dislocation of the hip joint: away from the middle of the
accident 2 hours ago. Patient bleeding in lower extremities and look body
anemic. C. Fracture of the intertrochanteric femur
1. Which first action of rescue after found that the patient is D. Posterior dislocation of the hip joint: towards the middle
unconscious: E. Central dislocation of the hip joint
a. call for help
b. airway assessment 10. What is the additional sign you will be find?
c. check carotid pulse A. Leg length discrepancy
d. breathing assessment B. Unlimited range of motion of hip joint
e. perform IV line C. Gallezi sign (-)
D. Head of femur protude on the inguinal
2. If the patient become cardiac arrest, Which of the following can be E. Head of femur protude on the lateral
included in manage witness cardiac arrest within first minute of arrest:
A. Recovery Position 11. What is the treatment for this patient
B. Precordial Thumb A. Traction countertraction
C. Anti arrhytmic agent B. Milch maneuver
D. Trendelenburg position C. Kocher maneuver
E. Syncrhronized cardioversion D. Stimson technique
E. Parvin method
3. Which following condition may cause cardiac arrest to this patient?
A. Acidosis Metabolic 12. What is make different treatment for children in the neck femur
B. Drug overdose fracture?
C. Vagal Stimulation A. Vessel in the ligamentum teres
D. Massive haemorrhage B. Vessel in the retinacula
E. Stimulation of the heart C. Intraosseus vessels
D. Femoral artery branch
4. Which following statement is NOT APPROPRIATE with external E. Artery surround on the femoral capsule
cardiac compression?
a. compression rate 100x/minute 33 yo men a heavy construction work, hit by machine direct to the fore
b. check circulation after each cycle foot, from physical examination, there was pain, swelling, ecchymosis,
c. push hard vertically downward 4-5 cm deformity on the first toe and difficult ROM ambulation
d. adrenaline i.v. each 3-5 minutes during compression 13. What is the possible diagnosis of this patient?
e. ratio compression ventilation 30:2 for 1 or 2 rescue A. Open fracture of the proximal phalanx of the hallux
B. Fracture of the middle phalanx of the first toe
65 y.o woman with numbness and tingling sensation over thumb and C. Fracture of the distal metatarsal of the first toe
index finger of the left palm, especially in night time, since 2 years ago. D. Open fracture of the distal metatarsal of the first toe
Weakness when holding things, but still can do housework. Inspection: E. Fracture of the middle phalanx of the hallux
color f the skin is normal, no scar, no apparent tumor. Wasting thenar
muscle (-). Palpable: temperature of the skin is the same compare to 14. What is the right choice fot the patient problem?
the right hand, no palpable tumor, no tenderness. Pressure of the volar A. Buddy tapping immobilization and rest
wrist join increase numbness & tingling over the finger. B. Cryotherapy
C. Conservative treatment
5. What is the suspect problem of the patient? D. Buddy tapping and antibiotic
A. Ulnar vessels and nerve problem E. Surgery
B. Carpal Tumor Syndrome
C. Median nerve problem because cooking 15. The result of X-ray is communitive fracture of the interphalangeal
D. Ulnar nerve injury joint, What is your definitive treatment for this patient?
E. Radial nerve disruption because trauma A. External fixation
B. Kirschner wires
6. What is the risk factor for this patient? C. Buddy tapping
A. Osteoporosis D. Casting
B. Osteopetrosis E. Splinting
C. Atrophic Synovium
D. Osteophyte 28 yo Mn, a badminton player came in hospital with chief complain
E. Atrophic Tendon difficult to dorsoflexion of the foot after doing smash jumping, from
physical exam, Thompson test was positif.
7. What is the treatment for this patient? 16. what is the possibility diagnosis of the patient?
a. antibiotic injection a. fracture of the great toe
b. wrist splint b. fracture of the fore foot bone
c. division transverse carpal ligament c. rupture of the flexor hallucis longus tendon
d. open surgery d. rupture of the achilles tendon
e. endoscopic release e. rupture of the extensor first digit tendon

8. If there was thenar muscle atrophy. What is your therapy for this 17. What is the injury mechanism of the patient problem?
patient? a. Violent plantar flexion of the flexed foot as in the fall from height
A. Steroid injection b. Direct trauma first digit
B. NSAIDs c. twisting mechanism at the interphalangeal joint of the hallux
C. Rest and NSAIDs d. Pushing of with the weight bearing forefoot while extending the knee
D. Wrist splint e. Sudden unexpected plantarflexion on the ankle joint
E. Open surgical division
18. What is the treatment for the patient?
35 yo man, history traffic accident, there was ecchymosis on the knee, a. Fixation with kirschner wire
came to your hospital with the position of the hip joint slight flexion, b. Kessler techinique
adduction, internal rotation. c. Buddy tapping
9. What is your diagnosis? d. Debridement
A. Fracture of the neck femur e. Open reduction with plating
A G2P1 woman came to a hospital with history of abdominal pain and B. Oxygen 8-10L/min
vaginal bleeding. She didnt have her period for 2 months. In physical C. Position change, trendelenburg or modified sims position, or the
exam, it was found a distended abdomen and palable pain. In vaginal knee-elbow postion
exam, the uterus was found a bit larger, OUE and OUI were closed, D. IV fluid
Douglas pouch was protruded and palpable pain (1). E. Monitoring FHR
19. The possible diagnosis for this case is:
A. Imminent abortion 31. The most risk factor that may lead to fetal distress:
B. Hydatidiform mole A. Diabetes
C. Insipient abortion B. Pregnancy-included hypertension or chronic hypertension
D. Ectopic pregnancy C. Rh sensitizion from previous pregnancy
D. Asthma
20. To ensure the diagnosis, it is needed to do an additional exam that E. Sickle cell anemia
is by inserting a needle to Douglas pouch. The exam called:
A. Amniocentensis 32. Meconeum aspiration most often occur, exept:
B. Laparocopy A. Term infants
C. Culdocentesis B. Growth retarded infant
D. Chordocentesis C. Post date infants
D. Transverse lie position delivery
21. The adventages of laparoscopy in treating ectopic pregnancy is: E. Breech presentation delivery
A. Lower operational cost
B. No need a special training for the operation 33. The mother`s condition must be treated to prevent hypoxia to the
C. Post operational adhesion will be minimal fetus cause by cord prolaps is:
D. Post operational fertility will be better a. Blood pressure stbilization
b. Maternal positioning on the left side
22. The true statement for conservative treatment ectopic pregnancy c. Monitoring maternal oxygenation
are: d. IV fluid
(1) can be given Methotrexate e. Pelvic exam to identify and presentation
(2) can be done if bHCG level > 15.000 IU/L
(3) can be done if the size of gestational sac < 3,5 cm 34. The most intrapartum events that may cause fetal hypoxia is:
(4) can be give Folinic acid a. Prolonged labour
b. administrations of narcotic and anastesi
23. In the case of ruptured ectopic pregnancy, the treatment that we c. prolapsed umbilical cord
could do is/are: d. placental abruption
1. Operative e. maternal hypoventilation
2. Medicine
3. Expectation 35. Appropriate tracheal stoma position for elective tracheostomy:
4. SAM (Surgically Administered Medical) a. 1st-2nd tracheal ring
b. 2nd-3rd tracheal ring
24. he main cause of first trisemester abortion is: c. 3rd-4th tracheal ring
A. Toxoplasmosis 3rd trimester d. 4th-5th tracheal ring
B. Genetic Disorder e. 5th-6th tracheal ring
C. DM 3rd trimester
D. Bicornuate Uterus rarely but 1st trimester 36. strong indication for elective tracheostomy, according to the
Jacksons dyspnea gradin, is :
25. The true statement for imminent abortion is/are: a. Dyspnea grade I
(1) In vaginal touch, the OUE is opened b. Dyspnea grade II
(2) In vaginal touch, the OUE is closed c. Dyspnea grade III
(3) The best treatment is currettage (blunt): missed abortion d. Dyspnea grade IV
(4) Can be given analgetic if the pain persist e. Dyspnea grade V

26. A correct statement for abortus habitualis: 37. The disease of foreign bodies in nasal cavity from flies maggots is...
1. Can be caused by diabetes melitus a. Nasal mitosis
2. Can be caused by the abnormal morphology of the uterus b. Nasal meiosis
3. It is called abortus habitualis if happened 2 or 3 times in a row c. Nasal maggots
4. The main caused is the defect in luteal phase d. Nasal myasis
e. Nasal worms
27. Pathologic feature which is specific to hydatidiform mole is:
A. Hydrophilic degeneration 38. the urgent maneuvere for acute total obstruction of upper repiratory
B. Decidua cell metaplasia tract, are :
C. Hypervascularization in villi 1. Endotracheal tube intubation
D. Endometrial Dyslasia 2.Cricothyroidotomy
3. Trans nasopharyngeal oxygenation
28. The symptom of hypertiroid in mole s related with: 4. Heimlich manuevre
a. The excessive increase of TSH
b. Less of iodine 39. Rapid killing fir foreign body at external auditory canal, except:
c. The excessive increase of b-HCG A. Paraffin oil
d. A sign of malignancy B. Glyserin oil
C. Coconut oil
29. The most cause of cord prolapse is: D. Kayu putih oil
A. A long umbilical cord E. Fried oil
B. Abnormal presentation expl incomplete breech presentation
C. Polyhydramions 40. komplikasi dari septum nasi hemorrhage jika tidak ditangani dengan
D. Prematurity tepat..
E. An unengaged presenting part a. septal abcess
b. septal perforation
30. The first effort for nursing cord prolapse is: c. saddle nose
A. Sterile towel wrap the cord d. conchal atrophy
 d.traumatic brain injury
41. The cardinal signs of menieres disease, are : e.liver disease
1. tinittus
2. sensory neural hearing loss 52. Neurologic symtomps and sign of hypertensive encephalophaty
3. vertigo a. hemiparesis, hemihypesthesia
4. severe pain b. unilateral cranial nerves palsy
c. headache, decrease of consciousnesss, visual disturbances, seizures,
42. the statement below are related to the posterior nasal bleed are, nausea, vomiting, papiledema un funduscopy
except : d. papil atrophy in funduscopy, headache on the posterior region,
a. wondruffs plexus delirium
b. bellocqs tampon e. unilateral cranial nerves palsy, papil atropy in funduscopy
c. sphenopalatine artery
d. superior labial artery 53. things to consider in treatment of hypertensive encephalopathy,
e. large in diameter vascular involvement except:
a. dont be too excessive in lowering blood pressure
43. The statement below is situation need urgent procedures, except : b. hypertensive emergency requires a prompt reduction in blood
A. Coin of esophageal foreign bodies pressure within minutes or hours
B. Cafe coronary c. hypertensive urgency requires reduction in blood pressure within 24-
C. Uncontrolled nasal bleeding 48 hours
D. Difteri laring d. lowering blood pressure as low as possible and as fast as possible
E. Grade 3 of jackson's dyspneu e. medication in acute phase: sodium nitroprusside, nicardipine,
labetalol, esmolol
44. coma requires disfunction of
a. RAS or bihemispheric cerebral dysfunction 54. the condition below are the clinical diagnosis of brain death except:
b. olfactory sistem a. cerebral function must not exist
c. motoric system b. brainstem function must not exist
d. memory c. patient must be apnue
e. coordination system only d. direct & unovercome cause brain death must be determinated
e. disappearance of brain function last for 30 minutes
45. which can cause compression in brainstem?
a.hypoglicemia 55. Most common shot acting antiepileptic drugs used in status
b.hyperglicemia epilepticus
c. hyponatremia a. Phenytoin per oral
d. tumor mass in brain b. topiramat per oral
e. intoxication c. Lorazepam or diazepam i.v
d pregabalin per oral
46. Based on anatomy-pathophysiology, we can classify coma in : e gabapentin per oral
a. Supratentorial coma and infratentorial coma
b. bihemispheric-cortical coma and diencephalic coma 56. diagnostic criteria of tetanus except
c. bihemispheric-cortical coma and infratentorial coma a. local muscle spasm around the wound (local tetanus)
d. bihemispheric-cortical coma and and supratentorial coma b. Hypertonicity and muscle spasm (trismus, risus sardonicus, neck
e. diencephalic coma and structural lession rigidity, abdominal wall muscles spasm)
c. tonic spasm with conscious preserved
47. High probable to cause unconsciousness with meningeal sign: d. Hypotomia and flaccidity of all muscle
a. ischemic/ hypoxia e. History of wound
b. intoxication
c. systemic infection 57. Things to consider in therapy of tetanus except
d. meningitis a. the room must be very bright
e. brain infarction b. Anti tetanus serum or Human Tetanus Immunoglobulin
c. Antibiotics: Penicillin Procain combined with metronidazole or
48. Vital sign exam in comatose patient include? Ampicillin combined with metronidazole
a. pulse, BP, respiratory, temperature d. Diazepam can be given 10-20mg/slow iv, continued with
b. chest x-ray, CT-scan, MRI maintenance dose 10 mg/kg/day
c. Lab and intoxication exam e. wound debriment
d. EEG and ECG
e. Liquor of cerebrospinal and trans... doppler (TCD) A 56 years old woman was admitted to the hospital with decrease of
consciousness. The patient had history of diabtes meillitus and regular
49. if pupil reflex is abnormal, but oculovestibular reflex is positive, the insulin use. In the last some days, she forgot to take her insulin
pathologic lesion is located in: because she was busy
a. pontine 58. The first management in ER
b. spinal cord: A. perform head CT scan examination
c. cerebral hemisphere B. 5b (Breathing, blood, brain, bladder, bowel) management, check
d. mesenchepalon blood glucose level and manage it
e. medulla oblongata c. check serum electrolyte
d consult to internal department
50. routine diagnostic investigations in metabolic comatose patients: e. Laboratory examination: blood ph, ureum, creatinine, SGOT/SGPT
a. CT scan, EMG, serum drug analysis
b. CSF analysis, MRI, serum drug analysis 59. If this patients respiratory pattern was cheyne-stokes/periodic
c. EEG, urine drug analysis, NCV breathing, it means the pathologic process locates in
d. Evoked responses, urine drug analysis, MRI a. tegmentum (border of mesenchepalon and pons)
e. Laboratory test: blood glucose level, electrolytes, renal function, liver b. cerebral hemisphere
function c. low pontine lesion
d high medullar
51. most common cause of hipertensive encephalopathy.. e spinal cord
a.hipoglikemi
b.abrupt bp elevation in the chronically hypertensive pressure 60. this patient was diagnosed as hyperglicemia coma. What is usual in
c.hyperglycemia neurological examination of metabolic/ diffuse bihemispheric coma?
a. focal cerebral dysfunction is dominant E. evidence of underlying pulmonary disease
b. motor signs are often asymetrical
c. without focal neurological deficits/finding 69. 800 gr baby at 26 weeks gestation is born to 20 y.o G1P0 mother
d. cranial nerve palsies usually present by vaginal delivery. Mom presented in preterm labor 6 hours prior to
e. inititaing sign usually of focal cerebral dysfunction delivery. Mom had no fever. Mother receive one dose of betametasone
4 hours prior to delivery. Apgar Score are 3 and 7 at 1 and 5 min. 5
P2A1, 28 thn with bledding as much as 2 sarong. Shes post delivery hours after birth Downe Score is 5.
mother 1 week ago in a primary health service asisted by midwife. Baby Most likely cause of the respiratory distress ?
alive and term. Mother with a history of curretage after delivery her first a. Hypoglycemia
baby due to fragment placental retention. Phsyical exam : BP = 70/40 b. Hyaline Membran Disease
mmHg, Pulse = 128x / menit uterine fundal height is at the umbilical. c. Trancient Tachipneu of the newborn
Vaginal exam; internal and external uterine os are 2 cm dilatated, d. Patent Ductus Arteriosus
bloodclot(+), tissue fragments can be felt e. Early onset sepsis
61. such condition is called:
a. primary post partum hemorrhage 70. 19 y.o primaparous women develop toxemia in last 3mester of
b. secondry post partum hemorrage pregnancy.
c. antepartum hemorrage durig the course of labour is treated with magnesium. 38 weeks
d. puerperal hemorrage gestation, she delivered 2100 g baby with APGAR 1 and 5 respectively,
e. thromboembolism hemorrage lab studies at 18 h of age reaveal hematourelite 75 %, platelet count of
100.000/ ul. magnesium 2,5 mEq/L. calcium 8,7 m9/dL. has a
62. diagnosis criteria of tetanus EXCEPT generalized convulsion..
a. local muscle spasm around the wound a. polycythemia
b. hipertonicity and muscle spasm b. hypoglicemia
c. tonic spasm with conscius preserved c. hypocalcaemia
d. hipotonia and flaccidity of all d. hypomagnesemia
e. history of wound e. thrombocytopenia

63. The ultimate management for this condition: 71. The seizure in above case could be differentiates with jitteriness by
A. Antibiotics :
B. Uterovaginal tamponade a. Absence of abnormality eye movement
C. Uterine massage b. Movement case by passive flexion
D. Management of shock c. autonomic changes
E. Blood clot evacuation d. Tremor as a predominant movement
e. Movement exquisetely stimulus sensitive
64. possible etiology for this condition :
a. total placental accreta Male 35 yo, they complaint gross hematuria. It suspicious renal injury.
b. focal placental accreta BP: 80/50, Pulse:120x/minute, B:40x/minute
c. placenta previa 72. The first choice of treatment:
d. abruptio placenta A. Ultrasound
e. placental acessory B. Lab exam
C. Resuscitation
65. management for such condition: D. KUB/IVU
a. adriamcyin E. Abdominal CT Scanning
b. methotrexate
c. uterotonic 73. The following physical exam finding suggest renal injury:
d. antibiotics A. Tenderness in the flank or upper quadrant
e. curretage after stabilisation patient condition B. Flank Mass
C. Contusion of flank
A baby weighing with 3600g is born at 40 weeks gestation to a 33-years D. Pneumothorax
old G2P1 mother by emergency C-section for fetal distress and late E. A,B,C
decelaration. thick amnion stained amniotic fluiid was noted at that
time. The baby is vigorous at birth. Apgar score 7 at 1 and 9 at 5 min of 74. The following are long term sequele of conservative treatment of
life. Shortl after birth, Downe Score is 5. major renal cortical laceration, except:
66.Fiffferential diagnosis of the respirartory distress in this baby? a. Secondary hemorrhage
A. Respiratory distress syndrome b. Abscess formation
B. Meconium aspiration c. renal atrophy
C. Trancient Tachipneu of Newborn d. hypertension
D. A and B e. renal vein thrombosis
E. B and C
Man, 15 yo came to RS with complaint cant void and have bloody
67. what the further follow up is indicated? discharge from meatus urethra.
A. Chest radiolograph 75. Urethral rupture can occur due to all of the following, except:
B. complete Blood count, differential leucocyte count A. Blunt Force
C. Blood culture B. Penetrating Wound
D. Blood gas analysis C. Iatrogenic factor like instrumentation
e. All of the above D. Spontaneous
E. A and C
68. A 3day old infant born at 32 wwk gestation and weighing 1700 g
has three episode of apnea each lasting 20 to 25 and occured after a 76. Which in the investigation of choice in a suspected case of urethral
feeding. During these episode the heart rate drops from 140 to 100 and injury:
the baby remains motionless between episodes, however the baby A. Retrograde Urethrogram
displays normal activity. Blood sugar is 50mg/dl and serum calcium is B. IV urogram with Micturating cystourethrogram
normal the baby apneic periosds most likely are: C. Micturating cystourethrogram
A. a part of periodic breathing D. Cystopaendoscopy
B. due to an immature respiratory center E. USG
C. secondry hypoglikemia
D. manifestation of seizures
 77. If the injury to anterior urethra from the physical exam we can find, 4. Perforans ocular unjury
except:
A. Perinium is very tender 87. Total body water of male is approximately . % of total body
B. Skin is usually swollen & dissolved weight.
C. Massive urine extravasation in the perineum and scrotum a. 10
D. Rectal examination finding prostate displaced superiorly b. 20
E. Bladder is over distended c. 40
d. 60
78. If the bladder is over distended, it can be managed by: e. 80
A. Percutaneous cystomy
B. Open cystostomy 88. The extra- and intracellular concentration of sodium are
C. Immediate repair approximately mEq/L and ..mEq/L, respectively.
D. Urethral Catheter a. 140 mEq/L and 10 mEq/L
E. A,B,C b. 140 mEq/L and 30 mEq/L
c. 140 mEq/L and 50 mEq/L
Male 19yo comes with pain and edema at the right testicle, 2 hours ago d. 20 mEq/L and 140 mEq/L
after have a time. Physical exam there was edema at the right testicle e. 110 mEq/L and 40 mEq/L
and slightly arise from position and pain at palpation:
79. The most probably diagnosis for this condition is: 89 The extra- and intra concentration of potassium are approximately
A. Right acute orchitis mEq/L and .. mEq/L , respectively
B. Right testicle torsion
C. Testicle hydrocele infected
1. 12 mEq/L and 110 mEq/L
D. Acute tubercolous epididymitis
2. 12 mEq/L and 130 mEq/L
E. Incarserata inguinal hernia
3. 4 mEq/L and 150 mEq/L
4. 4 mEq/L and 12 mEq/L
80. The examination to establish the diagnosis are:
5. 130 mEq/L and 110 mEq/L
a. Angel and phren sign
b. Bag of warm
c. Transllumination positive test
d. Valsalva Manuver 90. Which of the following statement concerning abnormal sodium
e. String pearl/Rosario on epydidimis concentration is/are TRUE:
1. A decrease in plasma Natrium leads to a decrease in intracellular
81. After the diagnose has established, the action should be done: brain water
A. Orchidectomy 2. Hyponatremia may result from inappropriate ADH secretion
B. Reposition and orchidopexy bilateral 3. Mannitol may result in hypernatremia in the presence of high serum
C. Berkmann-Winkelmann operation osmolarity
D. Tubercolastic and vasectomy 4. Absorption of irrigant solution (water) may result in hyponatremia in
E. Herniotomy the phase of high serum osmolality

A 50yo present complaining blurred in his right eye. 3 hours ago he had 91. Which of the following statement concernijng acute hyponatremia
injury on the right head (traffic accident) is/are TRUE:
82. Which of the following is the most correct statement regarding to 1. CNS sign typically develop at Natrium concentration <120mEg/L
lens dislocation on his right eye: 2. Furosemide administration typically will increase serum Natrium
1. Slitlamp exam there is no lens concentration in setting
2. Pain on the right eye 3. The CNS changes relate primarily to brain overhydration
3. Distance vision 1/60 coo S+ 10.00D = 6/7.7 4. It may be treated with 3% saline at rate of 10-20mL/kgBW/hour
4. Near vision not disturbance
92. Which of the following statement concerning hyperkalemia is/are
83. which is the following statement is most likely to be found in lens TRUE:
subluxation patient 1. It may be treated with triamterene
1. decrease vision 2. It may be result from mineralocorticoid deficiency
2. astigmatism 3. It may be treated with ACE inhibitors
3. monocular diplopia 4. Furosemide promotes kaliuresis
4. iridodenesis
93. Change associated with hypokalemia include:
84. complication of lens dislocation 1. Hyperpolarization of cardiac cell
1. to anterior chamber 2. ST-segment depression
2. papillary block secondary glaucoma 3. Re-entrant arrhtmias
3. cataract 4. Exacebartion of digitalis toxicity
4. to vitreus cavity
94. Effect of hyperkalemia include:
85. theraphy of lens dislocation : operation 1. Tall, peaked T-waves
The kind of operation is : 2. Shortened P-R interval
3. Widened QRS comples
4. Peaked P waves
1. Extracapsular lens extraction and implanted intra ocular lens (IOL) in
the sulcus
95. Symptomatic hyperkalemia may be treated with
2. Intracapsular lens extraction and implanted Intra Ocular Lens (IOL) in
1. Calcium chloride
the sulcus
2. Sodium bicarbonate
3. Extracapsular lens extraction and implanted aphakic IOL
3. Regular insulin
4. Intracapsular lens extraction and implanted aphakic IOL
4. Beta 2 agonist

96. which of the following statement concerning hypokalemia is/are

86. Causes of lens dislocation are : TRUE?
1. blunt ocular injury 1. the ratio of intra- to extracellular K+ remains relatively stable with
2. traffic accident (head injury) chronic K+ loss
3. Congenital like Marfan Syndrome
2. As a general rule, a decrease of 1.0 mEq/L in the plasma K+
concentration is associated with a total body deficit of 200-300 mEq
3. both metabolic and respiratory alkalosis lead to decreases in plasma
[K+]
4. hypothermia may cause acute hypokalemia

Case 1 : The patients of 6 week old boy take their children to

emergency room at 5 am because of their child not breathing at
home.There were no history cough,dyspneu or vomiting. He was placed
prone at bed tima at 10pm following the last feeding. At 4.45am the
parent went to his room and see their child apneic and pulseless .The
ressucitation effort has failed to elicit any response and child died. The
parents asked for autopsy and result was no abnormalities
97.what is the most likely diagnosis for this case?
A. Respiratory Distress of the Newborn
B. Bronchopneumonia
C. SIDS (sudden infant death syndrome)
D. Laryngspasm
E. Aspiration pneumonie

98. True statement concerning that disorder in this case is :

A. The peak incidence in children younger than 1 month
B. Approximately two third this occur in infant aged 2-4 months
c. usually appears in infant who were born >37 weeks
d. there were many reports in infants who were breast feeding
e. The higher incidence in girls than boys

99. which of the following is associated with the increase risk of that
diseases
1. high maternal parity
2. Infant age 2-4 months
3. Premature
4. Breast feeding

100.The appropriate action in this case

A. Blood gas analysis
B. arrange for Autopsy
c. ECG
d. Complete Blood Count
e. Blood culture