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Occupational English Test (OET) or IELTS academic module :
ADC now accepts either of the following English language tests:
The International English Language Testing System Academic module (IELTS); or
The Occupational English Test (OET).
The occupational English Test is a test of English for medical and health professionals. It is used
for professional registration and migration purposes.
As part of the ADCs assessment and examination pathway, overseas qualified dental practitioners must
successfully complete either of the following English language tests at the specified level:
The IELTS academic module, with a minimum score of seven in each of the four components (listening,
reading, writing and speaking); or
The OET, with grades of A or B in each of the four sub-tests (listening, reading, writing and speaking).
All components or sub-tests of either test must be passed at the specified level in a single sitting.
A pass in the IELTS or OET (at the specified level) is valid for two years only.
Preliminary examination :
It is a written examination in multiple choice and short written answer format. It is designed to test your
knowledge of the practice of dentistry and of clinical and technical procedures as they are practiced in
Australia. Previous examination papers are not available, but sample multiple choice questions are made
available to enrolled candidates. Unlimited attempts are permitted for this examination but a new fee must
be paid for each attempt. A pass is valid for three years.
Option 2 : Regular Classes with Tests & Discussions for ADC part 1 Exam
Classes are conducted by experienced faculty in all specialties on every Sat
& Sun as per the predecided Schedule. Summarized Class notes are
distributed.
Mock ADC Exams are conducted followed by discussions with experts &
explanatory answers are distributed after the tests.
These sessions cover both MCQs & SAQs as per the ADC Exam Pattern.
Doubt Solving sessions are also conducted with the teachers in all subjects.
Weekly assignments are given to all students in order to prepare for the
next forthcoming subject wise test.
Please refer to the examining bodies for details of the additional fees charged to sit the examinations
2 Physiology
3 Sun, 10th Feb, 13 Biochemistry
4 Sun, 17th Feb, 13 Microbiology
5 Sun, 24th Feb, 13 Module Completion Test
6 Sun, 3rd March, 13 General Pathology
Sun, 10th March, 13
Module II
7 Pharmacology
8 Sun, 17th March, 13 Preventive & Community Dentistry
9 Sun, 24th March, 13 Oral Pathology
10 Sun, 31st March, 13 Module Completion Test
11 Sun, 7th April, 13 General Medicine
Module III
20 Prosthodontics
21 Sun, 16th June, 13 Oral Surgery
22 Sun, 23rd June, 13 General Surgery
23 Sun, 30th June, 13 Module Completion Test
24 Sun, 7th July, 13 Dental Anatomy & Histology
Module VI
ADC (Prelims)
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AHEAD Test and Discussions SAQ
Short answers
From a personal experience, do not write too much in the short answers exam; write just heading or points of the procedures
or description
March 2000
1. From the medical history you find the patient is on Tricyclic Anti-depression medication.
2. A 23 year-old female comes to you with Gingival abscess in the right upper central incisor region which she had a
blow to 10 days ago; since then the tooth is a bit loose, now she is complaining of pain and tenderness started two days ago.
What are the causes? How to prevent them? What is your management?
Most probable cause of the rampant caries is the frequent intake of sugar, then the oral hygiene methods that have been
adapted by the patient. But we must be able to visualize adequately a childs teeth and mouth and have access to a reliable
historian for non-clinical data elements.
ADC (Prelims)
4. Which of the following statement about the defective 15. What is the correct sequence of events
margins of amalgam restorations is true? A. Differentiation of odontoblast, elongation of enamel
A. The larger the breakdown, the greater the chance of epithelium, dentine formation then enamel formation.
decay. B. Differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then
enamel formation, elongation of enamel epithelium.
5. The retention pin in an amalgam restoration should be C. Elongation of enamel epithelium, differentiation of
placed, odontoblast, dentine formation then enamel formation.
A. Parallel to the outer wall
B. Parallel to the long axis of tooth 16. What is the sequence from superficial to the deepest in
dentine caries?
6. The most common cause of failure of the IDN Inferior A. Zone of bacterial penetration, demineralisation,
Dental Nerve block is, sclerosis, reparative dentine
A. Injecting too low B. Injecting too high B. Zone of bacterial penetration, reparative dentine,
demineralisation, sclerosis.
7. Which one of the following is used in water C. Zone of bacterial penetration, sclerosis, reparative
fluoridation: dentine, demineralisation.
A. SnF2 B. 1.23% APF
C. H2SiF2 D. CaSiF2 17. The nerve supply of the pulp is composed of which type
E. 8% Stannous fluoride of nerve fibres?
A. Afferent & sympathetic
8. The best way to clean a cavity before the placement of
GIC is, 18. Which direction does the palatal root of the upper first
A. H2O2 B. Phosphoric Acid molar usually curve towards?
C. Polyacrylic acid A. Facial / buccal B. Lingual
C. Mesial D. Distal
9. The most mineralised part of dentine is,
A. Peritubular dentine 19. What is the common appearance of vertical tooth
fracture?
10. A 45 years-old patient awoke with swollen face, puffiness A. Perio abscess like appearance
around the eyes, and oedema of the upper lip with redness B. Displacement of fragments
and dryness. When he went to bed he had no swelling, pain
or dental complaints. Examination shows several deep 20. Which of the following would be ONE possible
silicate restorations in the anterior teeth but examination is indication for indirect pulp capping?
negative for caries, thermal tests, percussion, palpation, A. Where any further excavation of dentine would result
pain, and periapical area of ramififaction. The patients in pulp exposure.
temperature is normal. The day before he had a series of B. Removal of caries has exposed the pulp
gastrointestinal x-rays at the local hospital and was given a C. When carious lesion has just penetrated DEJ
clean bill of health. The condition is:
A. Acute periapical abscess B. Angioneurotic oedema
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Acute maxillary sinusitis
E. Acute apical periodontitis
Academy of Higher Education and Advancements in Dentistry (A.H.E.A.D)
57 / 11, Old Rajinder Nagar, New Delhi 110060.
Ph: 011 - 25716297, 9310187297. Email- ahead_academy@yahoo.com www.aheadacademy.com
AHEAD Test and Discussions ADC Preliminary examination
21. Following trauma to tooth, the next day there was no 28. Loss of sensation in the lower lip may be produced by,
response to pulp tests you should? A. Bells palsy
A. Review again later B. Traumatic bone cyst
B. Start endodontic treatment C. Trigeminal neuralgia
C. Extraction of tooth D. Fracture in the mandible first molar region
E. Ludwigs angina
22. What is the main purpose of performing pulp test on a
recently traumatised tooth? 29. Patient received heavy blow to the right body of the
A. Obtain baseline response mandible sustaining a fracture there. You should suspect
B. Obtain accurate indication about pulp vitality a second fracture to be present in,
A. Symphysis region
23. What is the main function of EDTA in endodontics? B. Left body of the mandible
A. Decalcification of dentine C. Left sub-condylar region
B. Cleaning debris from root canal D. Right sub-condylar region
E. sub-condylar region
24. What is NOT TRUE in relation to the prescription of
5mg or 10mg of diazepam for sedation? 30. Signs and symptoms that commonly suggest cardiac
A. Patient commonly complain of post operative failure in a patient being assessed for oral surgery are,
headache A. Elevated temperature and nausea
B. An acceptable level of anxiolytic action is obtained B. Palpitations and malaise
when the drug is given one hour preoperatively C. Ankle oedema and dyspnoea
C. There is a profound amnesic action and no side D. Erythema and pain
affects E. Pallor and tremor
D. Active metabolites can give a level of sedation up to 8
hours post operatively 31. A cyst at the apex of an upper central incisor measuring
E. As Benzodiazepine the action can be reversed with 1 cm in diameter is visualized in radiograph and
Flumazepil confirmed by aspiration biopsy; which method of
treatment would you consider?**
25. Which of the following is TRUE in regard to high risk A. Extraction of the central incisor and retrieving the
patient? cyst through the socket
A. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is less B. Exteriorizing the cyst through the buccal bone and
infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient mucosa
B. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is more C. Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst
infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient through an opening made in the alveolar bone,
C. Level of virus are similar in the blood and saliva of followed by tooth removal.
HIV patient D. Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst
D. Level of virus in the saliva is not significant for through an opening made in the alveolar bone,
Hepatitis B patient followed by endodontic treatment.
E. The presence of Hepatitis B core Antigen in the blood E. Routine orthograde endodontic treatment followed by
means that active disease is not present observation.
26. Your employer makes an attempt to update office 32. A persistent oroantral fistula for a 12 weeks period
sterilization procedures; what would you recommend as following the extraction of a maxillary first permanent
the BEST method to verify that sterilization has molar is best treated by,
occurred:** A. Further review and reassurance since it will most
A. Use spore test daily probably heal spontaneously
B. Use indicator strips in each load and colour change B. Antibiotic therapy and nasal decongestants
tape on each package C. Curettage and dressing of the defect
C. Use indicator strips daily and spore test weekly D. Excision of the fistula and surgical closure
D. Use colour change tape daily and spore test monthly E. Maxillary antral wash out and nasal antrostomy.
E. Use colour change tape in each load and spore tests
weekly 33. The most significant finding in clinical evaluation of
parotid mass may be accompanying,
27. A 65 years-old woman arrived for dental therapy. The A. Lympha adenopathy
answered questionnaire shows that she is suffering from B. Nodular consistency
severe cirrhosis. The problem that can be anticipated in C. Facial paralysis
the routine dental therapy is: D. Slow progressive enlargement
A. Extreme susceptibility to pain E. Xerostomia
B. Tendency towards prolonged haemorrhage
C. Recurring oral infection
D. Increased tendency to syncope
E. Difficulty in achieving adequate local anaesthesia
Academy of Higher Education and Advancements in Dentistry (A.H.E.A.D)
57 / 11, Old Rajinder Nagar, New Delhi 110060.
Ph: 011 - 25716297, 9310187297. Email- ahead_academy@yahoo.com www.aheadacademy.com
AHEAD Test and Discussions ADC Preliminary examination
34. As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned, 41. Benign migratory glossitis or Geographic Tongue,
which of the following is true?** manifests itself in the oral cavity as,
A. Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces A. Irregularly outlined areas of hyperkeratosis of the
dramatically the chances of infection dorsal surface of the tongue
B. Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of B. Furrows outlined the dorsal surface radiating out from
neurapraxia but will reduce the incidence of a central groove in the centre of the tongue
neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve C. Loss (atrophy) of filiform papillae in multiple
C. Prophylactic prescription of dexamethasone will irregularly outlined areas
dramatically reduces post operative swelling D. Irregularly outlined erythematous area of hyper
D. Inferior dental nerve injury is unlikely since the nerve trophic fungiform
passes medial to the wisdom tooth root E. A fibrinous exudate on the dorsal surface
E. The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will F. Grooves (fissures) radiating from a central fissure
increase the chances of infection. G. Irregular area in the midline of the tongue
35. Endogenous morphine like substances which can 42. Which one of the following is true about oral hairy
control pain are known as, leukoplakia?
A. Bradykinins B. Peptides A. Associated with HIV virus infection and is
C. Prostaglandins D. Serotonins E. Enkephalins commonly seen on the dorsal of the tongue
B. Associated with HIV virus infection and is
36. Platelets play an important role in haemostasis; which of commonly seen on the lateral side of the tongue
the following describes this role? C. Usually caused by Candida species
A. They convert fibrinogen to fibrin D. Always associated with trauma to the lateral side of
B. They agglutinate and plug small, ruptured vessels the tongue
C. They initiate fibrinolysis in thrombosis E. Always associated with pernicious anaemia
D. They supply fibrin stabilizing factors
E. They supply proconvertin for thromboplastin 43. Which of the following have a tendency to recur if not
activation treated?
A. Giant cell granuloma
37. Suppuration is mainly the result of the combined action B. Lipoma
of four factors; which of the following is not one of these C. Fibrous epulis
factors? D. Haematoma
A. Necrosis E. Pulp polyps
B. Presence of lymphocytes
C. Collection of neutrophils 44. Basal cell carcinoma is characterised by,
D. Accumulation of tissue fluid A. Rapid growth and metastasis
E. Autolysis by proteolytic enzymes B. Local cutaneous invasion
C. Inability to invade bone
38. Which of the following lesions CANNOT BE classified D. Poor prognosis
as an intra-epithelial lesion? E. Radiation resistance
A. Herpes simplex infections B. Pemphigus vulgaris F. Can not metastasise to the bone
C. Herpangina D. Lichen planus
E. Hand, foot and mouth disease 45. Carcinoma of the tongue has a predilection for which of
the following sites?**
39. In regard to HIV infection, which of the following is the A. Lateral border anteriorly
earliest finding? B. Anterior dorsal surface
A. Kaposi sarcoma on the palate C. Posterior dorsal surface
B. Reduced haemoglobin D. Lateral border posteriorly
C. Infection with pneumocystic carinii E. No preferred location
D. Reduction in white cells count E. B cell lymphoma
46. A patient presents complaining of a stomach upset 48
40. Which of the following is NOT CHARACTERISTIC of hours after starting a course of antibiotic for oral
trigeminal neuralgia?** infection, this is an example of,
A. The pain usually last for few seconds up to a minute A. Type I allergic reaction B. Nervous disorder
in the early stages of the disease C. Side effect of the drug
B. The pain is usually unilateral D. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction E. Pyloric stenosis
C. Patient characteristically have sites on the skin that
when stimulated precipitate an attack of pain 47. Trichloroacetic acid, a strong acid, has been used by
D. An attack of pain is usually preceded by sweating in dentists for chemical cautery of hypertrophic tissue and
the region of the forehead aphthous ulcers; its mechanism of action is,
E. It is a paroxysmal in nature and may respond to the A. Thermodynamic action B. Activation of tissue enzymes
treatment with Carbamazepine C. Osmotic pressure D. Protein precipitation (PPT)
E. Neutralization
Academy of Higher Education and Advancements in Dentistry (A.H.E.A.D)
57 / 11, Old Rajinder Nagar, New Delhi 110060.
Ph: 011 - 25716297, 9310187297. Email- ahead_academy@yahoo.com www.aheadacademy.com