1.
Nano is a unit prefix meaning
a) One-millionth
b) One-billionth
c) One-trillionth
d) One-quadrillionth
Ans: b.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nano-
http://www.thehindu.com/business/iiscs-invention-
powers-up-nanoelectronics-
industry/article8175742.ece
2. Electronic-beam, Optical and Electro-
lithography in the Electronics industry are
processes that are used for
a) Purification of semiconductor wafers used in
the manufacture of Nano-Integrated Circuits
b) Deposition/coating a substrate (an underlying
substance or layer) with a Nanometre-thick layer of
any desired metal
c) Etching thin lines and patterns on substrates
d) Modification of electrical properties of
Graphene
Ans: c.
An invention by Bengaluru-based scientists at IISc
is all set to make inroads into the billion-dollar
Nano-electronics industry. This is disruptive
because the technology can drastically reduce the
cost of the existing state-of-the-art e-beam
lithography and optical lithography. This invention
is a new way to etch thin lines on a substrate using
electrodes, termed electro-lithography.
This will come in very useful in inscribing, for
instance, nanometer-scale circuits which make up
IC chips and minute transistors among others. Once
developed into prototypes, this technique could in
principle reduce the cost of the equipment used
presently from about five crore rupees per piece to
merely Rs.15-20 lakhs.
http://www.thehindu.com/business/iiscs-invention-
powers-up-nanoelectronics-
industry/article8175742.ece
3. With reference to the Rowlatt Bills and Rowlatt
Satyagraha of 1919, which of the following
statements is/are incorrect?
1. A Satyagraha Sabha was formed to mobilise
and organise the Satyagraha
2. The object of the bills was to replace the
provisions of the wartime Defence of India Act
1915 by a permanent law
3. The acts, as passed by the Imperial Legislative
Council, were never actually implemented
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a) 1 Only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 Only
d) None
Ans: d.
Page 181-182, Indias Struggle for Independence
by Bipan Chandra
Rowlatt Acts February 1919: The acts allowed
certain political cases to be tried without juries and
permitted internment of suspects without trial.
Their object was to replace the repressive
provisions of the wartime Defence of India Act
(1915) by a permanent law. All nonofficial Indian
members of the council (i.e., those who were not
officials in the colonial government) voted against
the acts. The acts were never actually
implemented.
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/gujarat
-must-give-up-terror-bill/article8175731.ece
4. Consider the following statements:
1. Under the Indian Telegraph Act, State Home
Secretaries do not have independent authority to
authorise interception of telephone calls
2. The Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2003 is
invoked often to file charges against individuals
suspected of engaging in terrorist activities
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a.
Under the Indian Telegraph Act, State Home
Secretaries do authorise telephone taps, but using
power delegated to them by the Centre.
Indias repeated experiments with anti-terrorism
laws have been, by and large, unsuccessful. The
Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention)
Act, 1985, a law considered as draconian as the
Rowlatt Act of the colonial era, and its latter-day
version, the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2003, had
been allowed to lapse after it was found that they
were prone to persistent misuse. However, with the
substantive amendments made to the Unlawful
Activities (Prevention) Act in 2012, the country
does have an effective law to curb modern-day
terrorism.
 http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/gujarat
-must-give-up-terror-bill/article8175731.ece

5. With regard to the International Monetary Funds

(IMF) recent Country Quota reforms, which of the
following statements is/are correct?

The BRIC nations will be among the ten largest

members alongside large advanced economies in
terms of voting share in the IMF
The combined capital that IMFs 188 member-
countries contribute to it is set to double
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:

a) 1 Only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c.

The greatest gains from the reforms accrue to the

IMF itself, as the combined capital that its 188
member-countries contribute will increase to
approximately $659 billion from nearly $329
billion. Other winners are India and China, who
have respectively increased their voting shares by
0.292 and 2.265 percentage points. The emerging
economies wrested a 2.6 percentage points increase.
The developed nations have had a haircut in their
voting share, somewhere between 0.2 and 0.5
percentage points. Consequently, India, China,
Brazil, and Russia will be among the 10 largest
members alongside large advanced economies.

http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/on-
imfs-country-quota-reforms/article8175732.ece
1. Which of the following are techniques used to
measure distance of celestial objects from earth?
1. Parallax method
2. Cepheid Variable Technique
3. Spitzer Fixed Technique
4. Red Shift
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a) 1 and 4 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans: c.
Nearby stars are measured with parallax method.
The Cepheid variable technique is one such method
which is useful for stars away millions of light-
years. In the case of distant galaxies, in the order of
billions of light years away, distance is measured
with the help of supernova. Red shift is another
technique used for very far objects.
http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/outer-space-
measurement/article8172262.ece
2. Consider the following statements:
1. The ratio of algae-to-corals (area of occupation)
is an indicator of coral reef health
2. A more productive reef releases more oxygen
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c.
As coral is degraded, it is replaced by algae and
hence the ratio of algae to coral is an indicator of
reef condition.
Measuring the oxygen concentration is very
important as productivity is indicated by the change
in oxygen over time for a given area of the reef. A
more productive reef releases more oxygen.
http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/nasas-airborne-
survey-of-coral-reefs/article8172257.ece
3. In the context of events unfolding in the Arunachal
case, consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): A State Governors
recommendations and their relevance to the
imposition of Presidents rule cannot be scrutinised
by a court of law
Reason (R): Article 361 of the Constitution gives
the Governor protection from legal action for acts
done in performance of their powers and duties
Select the correct answer:
a) A and R both are true, and R is the correct
explanation for A
b) A and R both are true, and R is the NOT the
correct explanation for A
c) A is incorrect, R is correct
d) A and R both are incorrect
Ans: c.
The turn of events was triggered by Attorney-
General Mukul Rohatgi, for the Centre, drawing the
Benchs attention to Article 361 (1) of the
Constitution which gives the President and the
Governor protection from legal action. Under the
Article, both the President and the Governor of a
State shall not be answerable to any court for acts
done in performance of their powers and duties.
To prove his point, the AG referred to the
Constitution Bench judgment of 2006 in the Bihar
Assembly dissolution case concerning Governor
Buta Singh.
Senior advocate T.R. Andhyarujina, for the
Governor, said: Neither the President nor the
Governor should be issued notice. However, such
immunity to the Governor does not take away the
power of the Supreme Court to examine the validity
of his action on the ground of mala fide. His
recommendations and their relevance to the
imposition of Presidents rule would be scrutinised
by the court.
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/supreme-
court-recalls-notice-to-
governor/article8180663.ece
4. What are some of the areas of concern for India
which will arise due to implementation of the
recently agreed Trans Pacific Partnership?
1. Labour laws
2. Investor-State dispute settlement mechanism
3. Intellectual Property Rights
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) 1,2 and 3
Ans: d.
 These are issues on which India has been in the http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/nasas-airborne-
news often. survey-of-coral-reefs/article8172257.ece

http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/transpacif
ic-pact-may-impact-exports-says-commerce-
minister-nirmala-sitharaman/article8180054.ece

5. The theme of World Wetlands Day 2016 is

(a) Wetlands and Agriculture

(b) Wetlands, Biodiversity and Climate Change
(c) Wetlands for our Future: Sustainable
Livelihoods
(d) Wetlands and Water Management

Ans: c.

Wetlands for our Future: Sustainable Livelihoods is

the theme for World Wetlands Day in 2016. This
theme is selected to demonstrate the vital role of
wetlands for the future of humanity and specifically
their relevance towards achieving the new
Sustainable Development Goals.

World Wetlands Day is celebrated every year on 2

February. This day marks the date of the adoption
of the Convention on Wetlands on 2 February 1971,
in the Iranian city of Ramsar on the shores of the
Caspian Sea.

http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-
environment/states-to-get-greater-role-in-wetland-
management/article8180052.ece

6. National Aeronautics And Space Administrations

CORAL stands for

(a) Coral Reef Alliance

(b) Council of Research and Astrophysics
Laboratory
(c) Coral Reef Airborne Laboratory
(d) Collaborative Research on Absolute Lunation

Ans: c.

As a first step to estimate the extent of damage to

coral reefs, NASA has embarked on an air-borne
three-year field experiment called The COral Reef
Airborne Laboratory (CORAL), which aims to
survey the conditions of the major reefs of the world
through remote-sensing.

Dr. Eric Hochbergs team will survey the

condition of entire reef systems in Hawaii, Palau,
the Mariana Islands and Australia. The regions were
chosen because they represent a wide range of reef
types (fringing, barrier, atoll, oceanic and
continental) and a wide range of environmental
conditions (from pristine to heavily impacted).
1. Which of the following systems of healthcare is
NOT indigenous to India?
a) Yoga
b) Siddha
c) Yunani
d) Ayurveda
Ans: c.
Introduced by Arabs and Persians to India in
the 12th century and with a rich literature,
Unani medicine remains popular in parts of
South and Central Asia.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?reli
d=136000
2. The Zika virus outbreak has been declared as a
Public Health Emergency of International
Concern (PHEIC) by the World Health
Organisation (WHO). On the basis of which of
the following conditions does the WHO declare
disease outbreaks to be PHEIC?
1. When prevalence of the disease in question is
reported by twenty or more countries
2. When such disease outbreaks potentially
require a coordinated international response
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b.
The term Public Health Emergency of
International Concern is defined in the
International Health Regulations (IHR) as
an extraordinary event which is determined,
as provided in these Regulations:
- to constitute a public health risk to other
States through the international spread of
disease; and
- to potentially require a coordinated
international response. This definition
implies a situation that: is serious, unusual or
unexpected; carries implications for public
health beyond the affected States national
border; and may require immediate
international action.
- The responsibility of determining whether an
event is within this category lies with the
WHO Director-General and requires the
convening of a committee of experts the
IHR Emergency Committee.
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/on
-the-zika-virus-threat-and-measures-to-
eliminate-it/article8184727.ece
3. The Supreme Court case which overturned the
Delhi High Courts 2009 judgement reading
down Section 377 to restrict its criminal import
to non-consensual sexual acts involving adults
and all sexual acts inflicted on minors is better
known as the
a) Prakash Singh case
b) Lily Thomas case
c) Naz Foundation case
d) Suresh Kumar Kaushal case
Ans: d.
Two years ago, the Supreme Court declined to
review its retrograde decision of 2013
upholding the validity of Section 377. There is
new hope that the Delhi High Court judgment
of 2009, reading down Section 377 to restrict
its criminal import to non-consensual sexual
acts involving adults and all sexual acts
inflicted on minors, may be restored.
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/edi
torial-on-section-377-curative-
petition/article8184726.ece
4. Which of the following statements associated
with the Zika Virus is NOT correct?
a) In majority of the cases, the infection
remains asymptomatic
b) It is the main cause for microcephaly
c) The virus could possibly be spreading
through bodily fluids
d) It was discovered in the Zika forest in
Uganda
Ans: b.
From the given statements, b is wrong.
The World Health Organization has declared
that the outbreak of Zika and congenital
malformations and neurological disorders in
 newborns believed to be connected to the virus
is a global public health emergency. 6. Which of the following is NOT one among the
three major classical texts of Ayurveda?
How might Zika cause brain damage in infants?
a) Charaka Samhita
The possibility that the Zika virus causes b) Sushruta Samhita
microcephaly unusually small heads and c) Ashtanga Hridayam
damaged brains emerged only in October, d) Gheranda Samhita
when doctors in northern Brazil noticed a surge
in babies with the condition. Ans: d.

It may be that other factors, such as The multi-cultural origins of Ayurvedic

simultaneous infection with other viruses, are
contributing to the rise; investigators may even
find that Zika virus is not the main cause,
although right now circumstantial evidence
suggests that it is.
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/on
-the-zika-virus-threat-and-measures-to-
eliminate-
it/article8184727.ece?ref=sliderNews
5. Which of the following statements is/are NOT
feature(s) of the American Presidential system
of government?
1. The President is elected directly by the
citizens
2. The President governs with the help of a
cabinet which consists of non-elected
members
3. The President and his secretaries are not
responsible to the Congress (the Senate and
the House of Representatives) for their acts
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
knowledge are revealed in the classical texts
themselves. Both Charaka Samhita and
Sushruta Samhita urge physicians to seek the
help of cowherds, hunters and forest-dwellers
for procuring medicinal plants. In the Charaka
Samhita, we notice the participation and
contribution of a Central Asian physician in
one of the assemblies of scholars gathered to
formulate the principles of Ayurveda.
The three major classical texts give
importance to Buddhist moral values.
Vagbhata, who is said to be the author of one of
the classical texts Ashtangahridayam, was a
Buddhist.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?reli
d=136000
https://www.ayurveda.com/online_resource/an
cient_writings.html

a) 1 Only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: a.

General question associated with the start of

US Presidential Primaries.

The President is elected by an Electoral

College. The Electoral College consists of
members who are directly elected by the
citizens. Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Parliamentary System, Indian Polity 4th

Edition by M Laxmikanth
1. Consider the following statements:
1. Inactivated vaccines consist of disease
causing microbes killed with heat, radiation
or chemicals
2. Most inactivated vaccines stimulate a
weaker immune system response than do
live vaccines
Which of the statements above is/are incorrect?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d.
Scientists produce inactivated vaccines by
killing the disease-causing microbe with
chemicals, heat, or radiation. Such vaccines are
more stable and safer than live vaccines: The
dead microbes cant mutate back to their
disease-causing state. Inactivated vaccines
usually dont require refrigeration, and they can
be easily stored and transported in a freeze-
dried form, which makes them accessible to
people in developing countries.
Most inactivated vaccines, however, stimulate
a weaker immune system response than do live
vaccines. So it would likely take several
additional doses, or booster shots, to maintain a
persons immunity. This could be a drawback
in areas where people dont have regular access
to health care and cant get booster shots on
time.
http://www.thehindu.com/business/bharat-
biotech-to-start-preclinical-trials-soon-on-two-
vaccine-candidates-for-zika-
virus/article8188474.ece
2. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
is constituted under the
(a) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
(b) Geographical Indications of Goods
(Registration and Protection) Act, 1999
(c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
Solution: c.
CS(P) 2015
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/genet
ic-engineering-appraisal-committee-gm-
mustard-study-to-be-out-
soon/article8189436.ece
3. Consider the following statements about the
Committee of Privileges, a type of
Parliamentary Committee:
1. Its functions are semi-judicial in nature
2. It can summon non-members of the
Parliament for hearings in case of breach of
privileges of the House and its members
3. It consists of 25 members (10 from the
Rajya Sabha and 15 from the Lok Sabha)
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
(b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 Only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: b.
The Committees are separate there is one for
the Rajya Sabha and another for the Lok Sabha.
Page 22.33, 22.35 Indian Polity 4th edition by
M Laxmikanth
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/rajya-
sabha-panel-summons-prashant-
bhushan/article8189435.ece
4. Majority portion of the fiscal deficit of the
Centre is devoted to borrowing for
consumption, in the form of revenue deficit
(RD). In this context, which of the following
statements is/are incorrect?
1. A RD implies that the government is using
up the savings of the other sectors of the
economy to finance a part of its
consumption expenditure
2. Grants given to state governments, even if
it may be meant for creation of assets, is a
form of revenue expenditure (RE)
3. Subsidies, salaries and pensions fall under
the head of non-plan RE
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 2 Only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
 d) None
Solution: d.
RE relates to those expenses incurred for the
normal functioning of the government
departments and various services, interest
payments on debt incurred by the government,
and grants given to state governments and other
parties (even though some of the grants may be
meant for creation of assets).
When the government incurs a revenue deficit,
it implies that the government is dissaving and
is using up the savings of the other sectors of
the economy to finance a part of its
consumption expenditure. This situation means
that the government will have to borrow not
only to finance its investment but also its
consumption requirements.
Page 62,65 Macroeconomics Class XII
NCERT
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-
business/govt-must-absolutely-not-relax-on-
deficit/article8190210.ece
5. Jal Kranti Abhiyan is administered by the
(a) Ministry of Water Resources
(b) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
(c) Ministry of Environment and Forests
(d) Ministry of Agriculture
Solution: a.
The Ministry of Water Resources, River
Development and Ganga Rejuvenation initiated
Jal Kranti Abhiyan during 2015-16 for creating
awareness on aspects of water security and
water conservation. Totally 1348 villages have
to be identified in 674 districts, out of which
1001 have been selected as Jal Grams in the
country.
From each Jal Grams, one elected
representative of Panchayat and one
representative of the water users association are
being identified as Jal Mitra/ Neer Nari and
training is being imparted to them to create
mass awareness about issue pertaining to water
as well as providing necessary guidance in
tackling water supply related routine issues. A
card known as Sujalam Card (with the logo
Water Saved, Water Produced) is being
prepared for every Jal gram which would
provide the yearly status/information on
availability of water for the village from all
sources.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?reli
d=136060
http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/jaipur/
Uma-Bharti-launches-Jal-Kranti-
Abhiyan/articleshow/47560221.cms
6. Seema Darshan was a 5-day programme
organised by the
(a) Ministry of Defence
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry of Human Resource
Development
(d) a, b and c
Solution: d.
The Ministry of Human Resource
Development in collaboration with the
Ministry of Defence and the Ministry of Home
affairs organized Seema Darshan programme
for students for a period of five days starting
from 22nd January 2016.
Seema Darshan is a unique initiative
being taken up by the Ministry of Human
Resource Development, in which school
children are visiting the border areas of our
country and present before our soldiers and
troops an array of performances showcasing the
tradition and culture of our country through
traditional songs and dances. Child artists
would demonstrate to the jawans how they are
preserving and taking forward the cultural
legacy of that country for which the armed
forces are constantly on the vigil and also
protecting and guarding its borders
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?reli
d=136072
1. The Government may be looking at big ticket
disinvestment this budget, which includes
Strategic Sales. Which of the following
statements about Strategic Sale is/are
incorrect?
1. 51% or more than 51% of the total equity
goes to the Strategic Partner (SP)
2. The Governments shareholding goes
below 51%
3. The Government has to ensure that the
Agreements signed with the SP adequately
safeguard the employees and nations
interest
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a) 1 Only
b) 1 and 2 Only
c) 3 Only
d) None
Solution: a.
Strategic Sale:
The transfer of shares by Government may not
necessarily be such that more than 51% of the
total equity goes to the Strategic Partner for the
transfer of management to take place. In the
case of PSUs, in order that the company no
longer has the character of a Government
company, the transfer of shares involves
bringing down Governments shareholding
below 51%. The Strategic Partner, after the
transaction, may hold less percentage of shares
than the Government but the control of
management would be with him. For instance,
if in a PSU the shareholding of Government is
51% and the balance is dispersed in public
holdings, then Government may go in for a
25% strategic sale and pass on management
control, though the Government would post-
transfer have a larger share holding (26%) than
the Strategic Partner (25%).
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/union
-budget-2016-bigticket-divestment-
likely/article8194898.ece
2. The South Asian Games is being held in India
for the third time since its inception. It is being
hosted by
(a) Delhi
(b) Kolkatta
c) Guwahati and Shillong
d) Bangalore and Mysore
Solution: c.
From a historical perspective, the South Asian
Games were established as a movement to
foster peace and friendship through regular
sporting contact between athletes from
Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Maldives,
Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka and current host
India. The first edition was held in Kathmandu
in 1984. That the event is being hosted for the
first time in the North East of the country does
add significance to the Games, the curtains to
which will be brought down on February 16.
This is the third time India will host the
Games, after Kolkata in 1987 and Chennai in
1995, and it will have hopes of continuing with
its overall dominance across venues for a
twelfth straight time.
3. Consider the following statements:
1. Between 2001 and 2011, employment
growth was lower than growth in the labour
force
2. Employment elasticity is a measure of how
employment growth varies with the growth
in labour force
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a.
The huge challenge of employment generation
needs to be addressed. As the Economic Survey
2014-15 shows, regardless of the data source
used, employment growth (1.40 per cent) has
lagged behind growth in the labour force (2.23
per cent) between 2001 and 2011. Clearly,
employment elasticity of growth, showing the
effectiveness of the economic system in
generating employment, seems to have
declined over time.
Employment elasticity is a measure of how
employment varies with economic output.
 Example (From 2012): The Planning (b) 2 and 4 Only
Commission says that employment elasticity (c) 2,3 and 4 Only
has come down from 0.44 in the first half of (d) 1,2,3 and 4
the decade 19992000 to 200405, to as low as
0.01 during the second half of the decade 2004 Solution: d.
05 to 200910. An employment elasticity of
0.01 implies that with every 1 percentage point Shri Singh said on the basis of the report of the
growth in GDP, employment increases by just Bhuria Committee submitted in 1995, PESA
one basis point. (One basis point is one- was enacted in 1996 to extend Part IX of the
hundredth of a percentage point.) Its as good Constitution with certain modifications and
as saying that the extraordinary growth during exceptions to Fifth Schedule areas in 108
those years didnt lead to any employment districts in 10 States.
growth at all.
Panchayati Raj, Indian Polity by M
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/going- Laxmikanth
against-the-grain/article8194370.ece

4. With reference to the 73rd amendment to the

Indian Constitution, which of the following
statements is/are incorrect?

1. To reserve seats (both members and

chairpersons) for SCs, STs, OBCs and
women in Panchayats at all three levels is a
compulsory provision
2. The PESA Act, 1996 is applicable only to
Fifth Schedule Areas
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:

a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a.

Providing reservation of seats for OBCs in

Panchayats at any level is a voluntary
provision.

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?reli
d=136091

5. Consider the following list:

1. Bhuria Committee
2. G V K Rao Committee
3. Ashok Mehta Committee
4. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
Which of the above are associated with the
scheme of democratic decentralisation or as it
has come to be known, Panchayati Raj?

(a) 3 and 4 Only

1. Mera Gaon Mera Gaurav is a programme
under which
a) Every Member of each States/Union
Territorys Legislative Assembly will adopt
one village for developing the socio-economic
and physical infrastructure by 2019
b) Scientists of the Indian Council of
Agriculture Research will adopt villages and
assist farmers by undertaking agriculture
extension activities
c) Each village will pick a child aged between
10 and 15 to suggest one developmental work
to be carried out for that month in the village
d) Every Gram Sabha will hold a bi-monthly
meeting to discuss cleanliness and hygiene
issues, and evaluate progress made since the
last meeting
Solution: b.
The Mera Gaon Mera Gaurav programme of
IARI, under which each scientist will adopt a
village, should aim at changing agriculture
from subsistence farming to commercial farm
industry.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?reli
d=136123
2. Consider the following statements:
1. Although India has succeeded in
developing higher-yielding varieties of
crops, seeds of bio-fortified crops to this
day are imported
2. Hidden hunger occurs when the quality of
food people eat does not meet their nutrient
requirements
Which of the statements above is/are incorrect?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a.
Forty-five percent of children below the age of
three years are under-nourished in India. A
large number also suffer from Vitamin-A
deficiency. To address malnutrition in children,
food grains must be bio-fortified with quality
protein and micronutrients. I am happy that
IARI has developed quality protein maize, and
iron and zinc rich wheat, pearl millet and lentil
varieties through molecular breeding, and
genetically modified Golden rice enriched
with pro-vitamin A.
Hidden hunger is a lack of vitamins and
minerals. Hidden hunger occurs when the
quality of food people eat does not meet their
nutrient requirements, so the food is deficient
in micronutrients such as the vitamins and
minerals that they need for their growth and
development. 2 billion people suffer from
vitamin and mineral deficiencies. Women and
children in families with low-income often
dont get enough vitamin a, iodine and iron, and
sometimes other essential nutrients. This limits
their growth, development, health and working
capacity.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?reli
d=136123
3. The city of Pragjyotishpur in Ancient India
refers to which city today?
a) Amaravati
b) Kusinagar
c) Guwahati
d) Unakoti
Solution: c.
Guwahati has come a long way since the days
of Pragjyotishpur in Ancient India. It is now a
modern and vibrant city and a hub of all
economic activities in the North-Eastern
Region of India.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?reli
d=136136
4. Which among the following states does NOT
consist of cities that are on the heritage city list
under the Heritage City Development and
Augmentation Yojana (HRIDAY)?
a) Telangana
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Kerala
d) Gujarat
Solution: c.
As a pilot, this flagship scheme of the
government focuses on revitalising twelve
 heritage cities (Click to see Map), namely
Amaravati (Andhra Pradesh), Gaya (Bihar),
Dwaraka (Gujarat), Badami (Karnataka), Puri
(Odisha), Amritsar (Punjab), Ajmer
(Rajasthan), Kanchipuram and Velankanni
(Tamil Nadu), Warrangal (Telangana) and
Mathura and Varanasi (Uttar Pradesh).
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?reli
d=136132
5. It was once known as Omtikonda or Ekashila
Nagaram. The thousand pillar temple and the
Kush Mahal can be found here. It was once
under the rule of the Delhi Sultanate. This city
today is known as
a) Golkonda
b) Warangal
c) Bijapur
d) Solapur
Amareswaram. The recorded history of
Amaravati and nearby Dharanikota is from 2nd
century BCE. It was the capital of Andhra
Satavahanas who ruled from 2nd century BCE
to 3rd century CE.
According to Vajrayana traditional sources,
the Buddha preached at
Dharanikota/Dhanyakatakam and conducted
Kalachakra ceremony, which would take the
antiquity of Amaravati back to 500 BCE.
Go through the information about cities on the
HRIDAY list as and when time permits.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?reli
d=136132

Solution: b.

Warangal is a city in south-eastern India and

the administrative headquarters of Warangal
district in the state of Telangana. The 11th-14th
century inscriptions and literature refers
Warangal as Omtikonda or Orugallu or
Oruganti or Ekashila Nagaram, on account of
its proximity to a monolithic hillock.

Go through the information about cities on the

HRIDAY list as and when time permits.

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?reli
d=136132

6. This was the capital of the Satavahanas and was

once known as Punyakshetra or Amareswaram.
According to Vajrayana traditional sources, the
Buddha preached at a place close-by. It is
located on the banks of River Krishna. This city
today is known as

a) Amaravati
b) Chitradurga
c) Kanaganahalli
d) Nagarjunakonda

Solution: a.

Amaravati is a city located in Guntur district

in Indias eastern state of Andhra Pradesh. The
city is also known as Punyakshetra or
1. Which of the following categories are
applicable for funds under the Priority Sector
Lending norms?
1. Education
2. Export Credit
3. Renewable Energy
4. Road Sector
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 Only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: a.
The Road Transport and Highways Ministry
has decided to approach the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI) Governor Raghuram Rajan with a
proposal to include road projects under the
priority sector list for lending purposes.
Categories under Priority Sector
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2016/02/01/in
sights-daily-current-events-01-february-2016/
2. It is being said that the State Department of the
United States of America (USA) is actively
considering a reversal of the policy of de-
hyphenation (dealing with India and Pakistan in
silos). What are some of the likely outcomes if
this proposal is carried through?
1. India would be seen to be supporting USA
policy on Afghanistan
2. India-Pakistan disputes will be resolved
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a.
The US is now considering a proposal to re-
merge the office of the Special Representative
for Afghanistan and Pakistan (SRAP) back
with the Bureau of South and Central Asia
(SCA) that handles India, the rest of the
subcontinent and Central Asian republics.
Why is India opposed to being included in
SRAP?
Inclusion of India in SRAP would make the US
third party in India-Pak disputes.
It would also make India indirectly support US
policy on Afghanistan.
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2016/02/01/in
sights-daily-current-events-01-february-2016/
3. The Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic
Techniques Act, 1994 (PCPNDT Act)
a) Prohibits ultrasonography tests on a
pregnant lady
b) Permits ultrasonography tests on a pregnant
lady but with certain conditions
c) Finds no mention in it about
ultrasonography
d) None of the above
Incorrect
Solution: b.
Currently Indias strategy to combat declining
sex ratios hinges on the PCPNDT Act (the Pre-
Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic
Techniques Act, 1994), which prohibits
ultrasonography for the purpose of determining
the sex of the foetus.
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2016/02/02/in
sights-daily-current-events-02-february-2016/
4. The Nodal Agency in India for investigation of
any Zika Virus outbreak is
a) National Institute of Virology (Pune)
b) National Centre for Disease Control (Delhi)
c) Centre for Disease Control and Prevention
d) National Vector Borne Disease Control
Programme
Solution: b.
The Union Health Ministry of India has
sounded an alert for Zika and appointed the
National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC)
as the nodal agency for investigation of any
outbreak of the viral infection in India.
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2016/02/03/in
sights-daily-current-events-03-february-2016/
5. With regard to two new committees set up by
the Ministry of Finance Tax Policy Council
(TPC) and Tax Policy Research Unit (TPRU)
which of the following statements about them
is NOT correct?
a) The decision to constitute these
Committees is based on the recommendation of
the Tax Administration Reform Commission
b) The TPC will be headed by the Union
Finance Minister
c) The TPRU will be headed by the Revenue
Secretary
d) Tax policy and related legislation was
earlier handled by the Central Board of Direct
Taxes and Central Board of Excise and
Customs
Solution: c.
Tax Policy Research Unit (TPRU) shall
comprise of officers from both the Central
Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) and Central
Board of Excise and Customs (CBEC) as well
as economists, statisticians, operational
researchers, legal experts. The unit will be
headed by an officer of the level of Chief
Commissioner at functional level alternatively
from CBDT and CBEC for a fixed tenure, who
will directly report to Revenue Secretary.
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2016/02/03/in
sights-daily-current-events-03-february-2016/
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?reli
d=136014
6. With reference to the newly-created Asian
Infrastructure Investment Bank, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. It was formally set up in Beijing in 2015
2. China, India and Germany are the three
largest shareholders
3. It will invest in, among other sectors, social
infrastructure
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a) 1 Only
b) 1 and 2 Only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: c.
China, India and Russia are the three largest
shareholders.
Former chief secretary of Gujarat D J Pandian
has been appointed vice-president and chief
investment officer of the newly-created Asian
Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB).
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2016/02/04/in
sights-daily-current-events-04-february-2016/
7. Indias National Manufacturing Policy (NMP),
which is nearing finalisation, supports the
application of Compulsory Licensing (CL)
across different manufacturing sectors. In this
context, which of the following statements
about CL is/are incorrect?
1. Access to a CL permits the CL-holder to
manufacture a patented product without the
patent owners consent
2. So far, India has issued only two CLs one
for the Tandem Organic Solar Cell
Architecture by NanoFlex and another for
the anti-cancer medicine Nexavar by
Bayer
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b.
So far, India has issued only one CL. In March
2012, Natco Pharma was granted a license for
an anti-cancer medicine Nexavar patented by
Bayer.
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2016/02/05/in
sights-daily-current-events-05-february-2016/
8. The Geographical Indications of Goods
(Registration and Protection) Act,1999 is
administered by the
a) Controller General of Export Accounts
b) Controller General of Patents, Designs and
Trade Marks
c) Ministry of Culture
d) Controller General of Geographical
Wonders

Solution: b.
In December 1999, the Parliament had passed
the Geographical Indications of Goods
(Registration and Protection) Act,1999. This
Act seeks to provide for the registration and
better protection of geographical indications
relating to goods in India. The Act would be
administered by the Controller General of
Patents, Designs and Trade Marks- who is the
Registrar of Geographical Indications. The
Geographical Indications Registry would be
located at Chennai.
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2016/02/06/in
sights-daily-current-events-06-february-2016/
9. In the context of efforts to control/eliminate
malaria from our country, which of the
following statements is/are incorrect?
1. The National Vector Borne Disease Control
Programme is the nodal agency for
coordination of the malaria programme
2. Currently, malaria control officials are
responsible for reporting their own progress
3. Successive budgets over the past few years
have allocated lesser funds for malaria
control programmes
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) 3 Only
Solution: d.
Some issues plaguing the malaria control
programme that are common to many other
government programmes include:
Poor data collection/monitoring/evaluation
(Under-reporting, unreliable data)
Understaffed clinics
Controversies in procurements (in this case,
procurement of mosquito nets using WB-
funded money)
Shortage of medicines
Administrative costs overshooting costs
associated with the actual prevention and
control of disease (medicines, nets, insecticide
sprays etc)
Lack of political will
Despite lower overall health spending,
national spending on malaria control increased
from Rs.400 crore to Rs.500 crore last year, and
a new procurement policy has gone a long way
towards speeding up the purchase of nets and
pesticides
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/on-
malaria-the-governments-rhetoric-must-meet-
reality/article8203628.ece
10. To prevent diet-related chronic diseases,
micronutrient deficiencies and reduce the risk
of contracting Non-Communicable Diseases,
the World Health Organisation recommends
a) a daily intake of at least 100 grams of fruits
and vegetables
b) a daily intake of at least 200 grams of fruits
and vegetables
c) a weekly intake of at least 1200 grams of
fruits and vegetables
d) a daily intake of at least 400 grams of fruits
and vegetables
Solution: d.
WHO: Increasing fruit and vegetable
consumption to reduce the risk of non-
communicable diseases
Indians fall terribly short of the
recommendation. This finding is part of the
Indias Phytonutrient Report brought out by a
Delhi-based think tank, the Indian Council for
Research on International Economic Relations
(ICRIER), which conducted the study across
five cities covering 1,001 individuals from the
upper and middle income groups.
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-
ed/apples-and-oranges-are-the-meat-of-the-
matter/article8203634.ece
11. Consider the following statements:
1. The past two successive Union Budgets
have allocated lesser money to the health
sector
2. Under the Union Health Ministrys Sarva
Swasthya Abhiyan, fifty essential
medicines are accessible to the public for
free in public health facilities
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
 a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a.

Two successive Union Budgets have slashed

support to the health sector, and by more than
20 per cent. These cuts have brought
programme implementation in already under-
resourced areas to a virtual standstill.

There have been vague assurances that some

small incentives would be extended to States
that initiate free medicine schemes, a far cry
from the vision initially that promised Central
funding for all such schemes. Amid conflicting
statements, the only assurance that has held
ground is on support to the availability of just
50 medicines. The actual implementation of
even this grossly inadequate provision has not
been spelt out.

http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/not-
a-good-prognosis/article8203614.ece
1. One of the new approaches for mosquito
eradication that show promise in the war
against Zika and Dengue Virus is the use of
Genetically Engineered (GM) Mosquitoes. In
what way do these mosquitoes help?
a) Male GM Mosquitoes indirectly block
dengue transmission to humans, as their sperms
kill the virus inside the body of the mosquitoes
they breed with
b) Female GM mosquitoes pass on dominant
lethal genes which prevent the multiplication
of virus strains to their offspring and
gradually all female mosquitoes will contain
this gene
c) Tetracycline is a chemical compound
which GM Mosquitoes produce. This
compound prevents mosquitoes from
successfully reproducing, thus reducing
population significantly in a few weeks
d) Male GM Mosquitoes pass on a dominant
lethal gene to offspring which prevents
mosquito larvae from growing properly and
causes them to die before adulthood
Solution: d.
Two novel strategies have shown promise in
recent years. One involves the use of
genetically modified male Aedes aegypti
mosquitoes that carry a dominant lethal gene.
The gene is passed down to offspring when
they mate with wild female mosquitoes that are
not genetically altered. The lethal gene in the
offspring produces a protein that stops their
cells from functioning normally by producing
more of itself and prevents other genes
essential for survival from turning on. This
prevents the mosquito larvae from growing
properly and causes them to die before
adulthood, essentially breaking the insects life
cycle.
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/with-
zika-indian-firm-scales-up-trials-for-gm-
mosquitoes/article8206480.ece
2. Point NJ9842 refers to
a) The southernmost point on the demarcated
Line of Control (LoC)
b) The northernmost point on the Siachen
Glacier
c) The northernmost point on the demarcated
Line of Actual Control
d) The northernmost point on the demarcated
LoC
Solution: d.
Point NJ9842
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/NJ9842
3. Consider the following statements:
1. Altitude sickness occurs at higher altitudes
due to lower percentage of oxygen in the
atmosphere
2. Acclimatisation, or homeostasis, refers to
any of the numerous gradual, long-term
responses of an organism to changes in its
environment
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d.
At sea level, because air is compressible, the
weight of all that air above us compresses the
air around us, making it denser. As you go up a
mountain, the air becomes less compressed and
is therefore thinner. The important effect of this
decrease in pressure is this: in a given volume
of air, there are fewer molecules present. This
is really just another way of saying that the
pressure is lower. The percentage of those
molecules that are oxygen is exactly the same:
21%. The problem is that there are fewer
molecules of everything present, including
oxygen. So although the percentage of oxygen
in the atmosphere is the same, the thinner air
means there is less oxygen to breathe.
Homeostasis: The numerous sudden changes
that evoke rapid and short-term responses via
the nervous and hormonal systems are not
examples of acclimatization (What is
acclimatisation?). An individual organism can
regulate its internal processes rapidly to sustain
itself within the usual range of environmental
changes that it encounters hourly or daily. But
this rapid regulation, or homeostasis, is limited
in its operation to a small range of
environmental variations.
 http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/army
s-unseen-enemy-in-siachen/article8206435.ece
4. With reference to the Civil Liabilities for
Nuclear Damage Act, 2010, which of the
following statements is/are incorrect?
1. Section 17(b) permits victims of a nuclear
incident to sue the operator or the supplier
for damages applying tort law and thus
exposing suppliers to unlimited liability
2. Under Section 46 liability for a nuclear
accident can be channelled from the
operator to suppliers of nuclear material
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
since has been under an indefinite
moratorium on its cultivation
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c.
The Indian GM crops saga is a convoluted
one. Currently, it has the worlds fourth largest
GM crop acreage on the strength of Bt cotton,
the only genetically modified crop allowed in
the country.

a) 1 Only Following the study of biosafety data and field

b) 2 Only trials by two expert committees, Bt brinjal was
c) Both 1 and 2 cleared for commercialization by Indias top
d) Neither 1 nor 2 biotech regulator, the Genetic Engineering
Appraisal Committee, in 2009. But nothing
Solution: c. came of it, with moratoriums imposed by then
Union environment minister Jairam Ramesh
Both are incorrect. Provisions of each section and his successor Jayanthi Natarajan following
have been interchanged in the statements opposition from civil society groups and
above. brinjal-growing states.

Under Section 17(b), liability for a nuclear http://www.livemint.com/Opinion/2KSuCjSTz

accident can be channelled from the operator, 3qvRG9OyqHBJM/Genetically-modified-
which is the Nuclear Power Corporation of crops-the-way-forward.html
India, to suppliers of nuclear material,
specifically if the accident is due to an act of the
supplier or his employee, which includes
supply of equipment or material with patent or
latent defects or sub-standard services.

Section 46 permits victims of a nuclear incident

to sue the operator or the supplier for damages
applying tort law, even though such
proceedings would be beyond the scope of
CLNDA and its liability cap, and thus exposing
suppliers to unlimited liability.

http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/nu
clear-ambiguities/article8206363.ece

5. Consider the following statements:

1. Bt cotton is the only genetically modified

crop allowed to be grown by farmers in
India
2. Bt brinjal was cleared for
commercialization by the Genetic
Engineering Appraisal Committee, but it
1. The recently launched Project Sunrise,
associated with the states of Northeast India, is
a) A programme by the Ministry of Health and
Family Welfare that will complement the
regions National AIDS Control Programme
b) A Start Up India, Stand Up India sub-
scheme for the region launched by the Ministry
of Commerce and Industry
c) A Mission Mode Project initiated by the
Ministry of Railways to connect all 8 state
capitals by 2019
d) A Mission Mode Project initiated by the
Ministry of Power to generate surplus
electricity in the region by 2019
Solution: a.
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2016/02/08/in
sights-daily-current-events-08-february-2016/
2. United Through Oceans is the theme for
a) Ministry of Shippings Project Sagarmala
b) The Joint Space Project of SAARC nations
c) The International Fleet Review 2016,
hosted by the Indian Navy
d) The International Maritime Organisations
World Maritime Day 2016
Solution: c.
https://ifr16.indiannavy.gov.in/logo-mascot-
theme-ifr16-theme-song.htm
3. Consider the following statements:
1. The single directive provision (of the
CVC Act) was struck down by the Supreme
Court as it discriminated between common
citizens and central government officials
2. The ultimate power of sanction to prosecute
a central/state government official in a
court of law rests with the central/state
government
Which of the above statements is/are true?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b.
The single directive provision (of the CVC
Act) was struck down by the Supreme Court as
it discriminated between officers of and above
the rank of Joint Secretary and the rest of the
bureaucracy.
Autonomy to anti-corruption agencies in
initiating a Preliminary Enquiry or regular case
will not result in miscarriage of justice because
the ultimate power of sanction to prosecute a
government official in a court of law rests with
the government. What should give confidence
to both Central and a State government is the
fact that the Supreme Court has not disputed
their competence in granting or denying
sanction requested by an investigating agency.
The court has merely demanded greater speed
in a government decision in this regard.
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/an-
order-against-the-antigraft-
fight/article8210121.ece
4. The Mandal Commissions recommendations
paved the way for reservation of government
jobs for the Other Backward Classes. Under
which article of the Indian Constitution did the
President have the authority to set up this
commission?
a) Article 15 (Prohibition of discrimination on
certain grounds)
b) Article 16 (Equality of opportunity in
public employment)
c) Article 340
d) Directive Principles of State Policy
Solution: c.
Article 340 in The Constitution Of India:
Appointment of a Commission to investigate
the conditions of backward classes
Chapter 7, Indian Polity 4th Edition by M
Laxmikanth
Improvisation:
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/the-
dalithindutva-paradox/article8210119.ece
5. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The Siachen glacier has seen an
increase in erratic events (disasters) in recent
times
Reason (R): Shrinking glaciers affect the slope
gradient of mountains, which in turn affects
their stability

Select the correct answer:

a) A and R both are true, and R is the correct

explanation for A
b) A and R both are true, and R is the NOT the
correct explanation for A
c) A is correct, R is incorrect
d) A is incorrect, R is correct

Ans: a.

A small board at the Siachen Base Camp

reads: Snout of the glacier was here on 10
April 2005. Today the snout, the starting point
of the Siachen glacier, has moved about a
kilometre ahead from that point. It is a
testimony to the accelerating pace of human-
induced climate change and is the likely culprit
behind increased disasters on the glacier.

Dr. Tayal, who studies glaciers in Kashmir

and the North-East, said glaciers were not only
shrinking, but also shortening and thinning
because of which they affect the local
conditions. Glaciers are typically present
between mountains, and their shrinking affects
the slope gradient of mountains, which in turn
affects their stability, he observed. This
resulted in an increase in landslides and
avalanches. This is precisely what is unfolding
on Siachen, which sits between the Karakoram
ranges.

http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/army
s-unseen-enemy-in-siachen/article8206435.ece
1. With reference to India economy, consider the
following:
1. Bank rate
2. Open market operations
3. Public debt
4. Public revenue
Which of the above is/are
component/components of Monetary Policy?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 and 4 Only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Solution: c.
CS(P) 2015
RBI buys Rs 10,000 crore via OMOs
2. Consider the following statements:
1. When the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) sells
government securities to the general public
it decreases the stock of high powered
money in the economy
2. The total liability of the RBI is called high
powered money, which also consists of
currency held by the public
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c.
High Powered Money: The total liability of the
monetary authority of the country, RBI, is
called the monetary base or high powered
money. It consists of currency (notes and coins
in circulation with the public and vault cash of
commercial banks) and deposits held by the
Government of India and commercial banks
with RBI. If a member of the public produces a
currency note to RBI the latter must pay her
value equal to the figure printed on the note.
Similarly, the deposits are also refundable by
RBI on demand from deposit-holders. These
items are claims which the general public,
government or banks have on RBI and hence
are considered to be the liability of RBI.
Page 41, Macroeconomics Class XII NCERT
RBI buys Rs 10,000 crore via OMOs
3. The Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas
recently released the Hydrocarbon Vision
2030 for North-East India document, outlining
steps to leverage the hydrocarbon sector for
development of the region. The states NOT
covered by it include:
1. West Bengal
2. Sikkim
3. Nagaland
4. Mizoram
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a) 1 Only
b) 1 and 2 Only
c) 1,2 and 4 Only
d) 2,3 and 4 Only
Solution: a.
The objectives of the plan are to leverage the
regions hydrocarbon potential, enhance access
to clean fuels, improve availability of
petroleum products, facilitate economic
development and to link common people to the
economic activities in this sector. The states
covered include Arunachal Pradesh, Assam,
Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland,
Sikkim and Tripura.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?reli
d=136255
4. India is said to be taking steps in order to be at
the forefront of the war against Neglected
Tropical Diseases (NTDs). What are NTDs?
a) a group of infectious diseases which
primarily affect the poorest sections of society,
in both rural and urban areas
b) a group of infectious diseases which
primarily affect the tribal population
c) a group of infectious diseases which affect
people regardless of their socio-economic
status and are characterized by little attention
from policy-makers
d) None of the above
Solution: a.
 The neglected tropical diseases (NTDs) are a
group of infectious diseases which primarily
affect the poorest sectors of society, especially
the rural poor and the most disadvantaged
urban populations. Nearly one billion people in
the world suffer from NTDs, which are referred
to as neglected because they are
characterized by little attention from policy-
makers, lack of priority within health strategies,
inadequate research, limited resource
allocation and few interventions.
The Union Health Minister stated that India
shall be in the forefront of the war against
Neglected Tropical Diseases. Shri Nadda said:
the National Deworming Day will mobilize
health personnel, state governments and other
stakeholders to prioritize investment in control
of Soil Transmitted Helminth (STH)
infectionsone of the most common
infections.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?reli
d=136254
5. Which of the following statements with
reference to Indias dairy sector is/are
incorrect?
1. India occupies the top position in the world
in terms of milk production
2. The primary objective of the National
Gokul Mission is to bridge the gap in milk
productivity between India and developed
dairy nations
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b.
In its journey to the top position in the world
in terms of milk production, the sector has
witnessed several structural changes in
production, processing and consumption that
have been conditioned by the changing socio-
economic conditions in the country. Today we
have been able to provide on an average 302 gm
per person per day milk in the country which is
more than the minimum required
recommended by the WHO.
Keeping in mind the national requirement for
augmenting milk production, development
programmes focussed on promoting cross
breeding of dairy cows. This resulted in neglect
of our indigenous cattle breeds. It is time now
that programmes focussing on improvement in
productivity of indigenous cattle is developed
and implemented intensively. A new initiative
as National Gokul Mission has been launched
for the preservation and promotion of
indigenous breed of cows under national
bovine genetic and dairy development
programme for the first time in the country.
Enhancing milk production and productivity is
one of the objectives, not primary.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?reli
d=136246
6. The nodal agency authorised to possess and
carry out research on meteorites in India is
a) Indian Institute of Astrophysics
b) Indian Space Research Organisation
c) Geological Survey of India
d) National Institute of Meteor Science
Solution: c.
In the wake of two suspected meteorite falls in
Vellore district in the last fortnight, the
Geological Survey of India (GSI) has written to
the State government seeking a direction to all
District Collectors that any such cases be
reported to GSI and any finds handed over, as
it was the only nodal agency authorised to
possess and carry out research on meteorites in
the country.
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-
national/gsi-says-it-is-custodian-of-meteorite-
falls/article8215933.ece
7. Which of the following terms is/are associated
with water supply/sources from medieval
India?
1. Bawadis
2. Karez
3. Gunjs
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
 a) 1 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d.

We are conducting a preliminary survey of all

major water sources of Adil Shahi era, which
includes, Karez (meaning underground water
supply system in Persian), Gunjs (overhead
stone tanks), and Bawadis (open wells) of the
city. Within a couple of months, we expect to
submit the preliminary report to the
government, said Kishore Raykar, director of
the agency.

http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-
national/ancient-water-supply-system-in-
karnataka-being-mapped/article8215934.ece

8. The implementation of the Foreign

Contribution (Regulation) Act is administered
by

a) Ministry of Home Affairs

b) Reserve Bank of India
c) Ministry of Finance
d) The Intelligence Bureau

Solution: a.

Unlike other international donors, the BMGF

is not registered under the Foreign Contribution
Regulation Act (FCRA), leaving its funding out
of the ambit of the Ministry of Home Affairs
(MHA), which is the regulatory authority for
NGOs and associations who receive foreign
funds

http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/gates-
foundation-on-centres-
radar/article8215060.ece

https://fcraonline.nic.in/home/index.aspx
1. To ensure energy security, the Government of
India is setting up strategic crude oil storages at
three locations. Which of the following are
among these locations?
1. Vishakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh
2. Padur, Kerala
3. Mangalore, Karnataka
4. Ratnagiri, Maharashtra
Select the correct answer using the code given
below
a) 1, 2 and 3 Only
b) 2 and 4 Only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: c.
India is building underground storages in
Visakhapatnam and Mangalore and Padur in
Karnataka to store about 5.33 million tonnes of
crude oil to guard against global price shocks
and supply disruptions.
These strategic storages would be in addition
to the existing storages of crude oil and
petroleum products with the oil companies and
would serve as a cushion in response to external
supply disruptions. The construction of the
strategic crude oil storage facilities is being
managed by Indian Strategic Petroleum
Reserves Limited (ISPRL), a Special Purpose
Vehicle, which is a wholly owned subsidiary of
Oil Industry Development Board (OIDB).
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-
national/uaes-adnoc-to-store-crude-in-
india/article8220460.ece
2. Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao scheme is
administered by
a) Ministry of Women and Child
Development
b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
c) Ministry of Human Resource Development
d) a, b and c
Solution: a.
Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) Scheme was
launched on 22nd January, 2015 at Panipat in
Haryana. It is a tri-ministerial effort of
Ministries of Women and Child Development,
Health & Family Welfare and Human Resource
Development.
Project Implementation: The Ministry of
Women and Child Development would be
responsible for budgetary control and
administration of the scheme from the Centre.
At the State level, the Secretary, Department of
Women and Child Development will be
responsible for overall direction and
implementation of the scheme.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?reli
d=136289
3. Consider the following statements:
1. Pakistan views the Line of Control (LoC) as
going from Point NJ9842 along the Saltoro
Range to the Karakoram Pass
2. India on the other hand views the LoC as
going straight from Point NJ9842 to the
Karakoram Pass
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d.
This question was framed in order to learn
about the political geography of this area of
dispute.
Pak LoC
Pakistan argues that this means that the line
should go from NJ 9842 straight to the
Karakoram pass on the Sino-Indian border.
India, however, insists that the line should
proceed north from NJ 9842 along the Saltoro
range to the border with China. Between these
two interpretations lies a substantial amount of
glaciated territory that both sides want control
of.
 http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?reli
d=136255

4. With reference to the Hydrocarbon Vision 2030

for North-East India, which of the following
statements is/are incorrect?

1. The vision statement lays out a detailed

roadmap for the upstream (Exploration and
Production) sector of the hydrocarbon
value chain only
2. The Vision aims at doubling Oil and Gas
production by 2030 and promoting
cooperation with neighbouring countries in
the hydrocarbon sector
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:

a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a.

Beyond production, the focus areas include

exploring hydrocarbon linkages and trade
opportunities with Bangladesh, Myanmar,
Nepal & Bhutan; implementation of Make In
India in the region; development of health &
medical facilities; industrial policy &
infrastructure related action points; focus on
skill development; and employment generation
requirement in the region. The vision statement
lays out a detailed roadmap for the entire
hydrocarbons value chain, covering upstream,
midstream and downstream segments. This
report includes an action plan of immediate,
medium-term and long-term initiatives to
help achieve the objectives.

The Vision aims at doubling Oil & Gas

production by 2030, making clean fuels
accessible, fast tracking projects, generating
employment opportunities and promoting
cooperation with neighbouring countries.
1. What is the significance of the ability to detect
gravitational waves, or as they are also
known, space time ripples?
1. We may be able to understand the events
that unfolded at the moment of the Big
Bang
2. We can study any phenomena which do not
emit light or particles, but emit
gravitational waves
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c.
So we have a new way to probe black holes?
Not just black holes, but the dark Universe in
general. So much of what we theorise to be out
there does not radiate light in any of its forms
from gamma-rays to the ultraviolet, from the
visible to radio waves or emit particles. And
unlike light or particles, gravitational waves
cannot be blocked or deflected; they will pass
through any and all obstructions unhindered.
And that makes them a free pass to begin
exploring phenomena that were previously off
limits. We know, for example, that it is
impossible to see across space to before
380,000 years after the Big Bang the Universe
hadnt cooled sufficiently until that point to
permit light to propagate. But, theoretically,
there should still be background gravitational
waves washing over us from the very earliest
moments of the expanding cosmos. If future
space-borne gravitational-wave observatories
can detect this remnant signal, it will bring us
closer than ever to understanding what
happened at T=0.
3. The World Banks recently released World
http://www.thehindu.com/sci-
tech/science/gravitational-waves-landmark-
announcement-may-shed-light-on-early-
universe/article8223840.ece
2. Which of the following statements associated
with Gravitational Waves is/are incorrect?
1. Its recent detection for the first time was
made using the technique of Laser
Interferometry
2. These waves are actually space and time
which are waving
3. Everything with mass and/or energy can
make gravitational waves
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a) 1 Only
b) 3 Only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None
Solution: d.
Just how small is the effect?
The effect of GWs is very weak, however, and
only the biggest masses, moving under the
greatest accelerations, are expected to warp
their surroundings to any appreciable degree.
The Advanced Laser Interferometry
Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO)
interferometers have been searching for this
stretching and squeezing for over a decade,
gradually improving the sensitivity of their
equipment. The expectation was that their
experiments would need to detect disturbances
no bigger than a fraction of the width of a
proton.
Everything with mass and/or energy can make
gravitational waves, but much of it is
practically undetectable. Watch the video, apart
from going through the article, provided on the
following webpage:
http://www.thehindu.com/sci-
tech/science/gravitational-waves-landmark-
announcement-may-shed-light-on-early-
universe/article8223840.ece
Development Report (WDR) Digital
Dividends finds that
a) Digital technologies have spread rapidly
throughout much of the world and the
associated digital dividends have been
commensurate
b) Digital technologies have spread rapidly
throughout much of the world, but their digital
dividends have lagged behind
 c) Closing or reducing the digital divide
(access to the Internet) has shown to always
yield commensurate dividends
d) Increased adoption of digital technologies
has resulted in an unintended consequence -
increased transparency of governments
Solution: b.
Option a and c are similar. Both are
incorrect. Option d may be true, but it is often
a choice that the governments make whether
or not to leverage technology to increase
transparency. The core finding of the report, is
option b.
The WDR finds that digital technologies have
spread rapidly throughout much of the world,
but their digital dividends the broader
development benefits from using these
technologies have lagged behind. In many
instances digital technologies have boosted
growth, expanded opportunities, and improved
service delivery. Yet their aggregate impact has
fallen short and is unevenly distributed.
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-
ed/indias-digital-
transformation/article8224206.ece
4. The World Development Report (WDR)
Digital Dividends says that to get the most out
of a digital revolution, countries also need to
work on its analogue complements. Which of
the following may NOT be regarded as one of
these complements?
a) Encouraging innovative ideas such as Zero
Ratings
b) Enhancing workers skills
c) Government institutions should make
themselves accountable
d) Improving the quality of basic
infrastructure such as postal delivery systems
and expressways
Solution: a.
This question would have given you a hint for
the answer to the third question!
Innovative ideas such as Zero Ratings would
not be one of the analogue complements. Zero
Ratings would only help increase the number of
people who could access the internet (and of
course, only a small part of it).
But greater digital adoption will not be
enough. To get the most out of the digital
revolution, countries also need to work on its
analogue complements by strengthening
regulations that ensure competition among
businesses, by adapting workers skills to the
demands of the new economy, and by ensuring
that government institutions and others are
accountable.
The slow pace of improvement of the quality
of basic infrastructure expressways,
logistics, storage, postal delivery system and
reliable supply of electricity have also
hampered the growth of e-commerce in India.
Hampered growth of e-commerce implies
that we have been unable to fully harness the
potential of digital technologies. Hence, good
quality basic infrastructure too is a part of
analogue complements.
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-
ed/indias-digital-
transformation/article8224206.ece
5. India occupied the Siachen Glacier in 1984 in a
preemptive move. What was this mission
called?
a) Operation Snow
b) Operation Steeplechase
c) Operation Meghdoot
d) Operation Rose
Solution: c.
The 76-km-long glacier in the Saltoro ridge
beyond Point NJ 9842, where the Line of
Control ends, was left un-demarcated all these
years. Pakistan began allowing tourists in the
1970s, and there were occasional reports of its
attempt to occupy the glacier. In a pre-emptive
move, the Indian Army occupied the highest
peaks, at 21,000 feet, in April 1984 under
Operation Meghdoot. For 30 years, it remains
the longest continuing military operation
anywhere in the world.
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/he-
made-the-supreme-sacrifice-says-
pranab/article8224371.ece
1. Consider the following statements: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.as
px?relid=136371
1. Agriculture and allied activities
employ about 49% of Indias total 3. The Ganga Sanskriti Yatra being
workforce organized by the Ministry of Culture
2. Agriculture sector accounts for only will showcase the culture heritage of
about 14% of Indias Gross Domestic River Ganga. Which of the following
Product statements about River Ganga is/are
Which of the statements above is/are incorrect?
correct?
1. Geologists believe that a few million
a) 1 Only years ago River Indus, Ganga and a
b) 2 Only part of Brahmaputra flowed as a
c) Both 1 and 2 single River Shiwalik
d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. In order from east to west, its left
bank tributaries include River
Solution: c. Gandak, Ghaghara and Gomati and
Ramganga
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.as Select the correct answer using the code
px?relid=136375 given below:

2. With reference to the Consumer Price a) 1 Only

Index (CPI) released periodically by the b) 2 Only
Central Statistics Office (CSO), c) Both 1 and 2
Ministry of Statistics and Programme d) Neither 1 nor 2
Implementation, which of the following
statements is/are correct? Solution: d.

1. The base year of the CPI is taken as Both statements are correct.
2010
2. Separate CPI data is available for Geologists believe that a mighty river
rural and urban areas called Shiwalik or Indo-Brahma
3. CPI data is also available for each traversed the entire longitudinal extent
state of the Himalaya from Assam to Punjab
Select the correct answer using the code and onwards to Sind, and finally
given below: discharged into the Gulf of Sind near
lower Punjab, some 5-24 million years
a) 1 Only ago.
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 only The important left bank tributaries (from
d) 1,2 and 3 west to east) are the Ramganga, the
Gomati, the Ghaghara, the Gandak, the
Solution: b. Kosi and the Mahananda.

The base year of the CPI is taken as Page 24-25, India Physical Environment
2012. Class XI NCERT
 http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.as
px?relid=136349

4. Which of the following committees on

centre-state relations have dealt with
Article 356?

1. Sarkaria Commission
2. P V Rajamannar Committee
3. Punchhi Commission
4. S R Bommai Commission
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:

a) 1,2 and 3 Only

b) 2,3 and 4 Only
c) 1,2 and 4 Only
d) 1,2,3 and 4

Solution: a.

There was no Bommai Commission on

centre-state relations. But the S R
Bommai v/s Union of India case is the
landmark case associated with
Presidents rule.

Page 14.12 Indian Polity 4th Edition by

M Laxmikanth

http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/t
he-presidential-
prerogative/article8229394.ece
1. Which among the following statements about
the Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement
Project is correct?
a) Its objective is to improve the safety and
operational performance of selected existing
dams
b) Its objective is to improve the outcome of
efforts towards rehabilitation of displaced
communities due to dam construction
c) Project implementation costs will be shared
by the central and respective state government
d) It is a project initiated by the South Asia
Network on Dams, Rivers and People
(SANDRP) in the South Asian region to create
awareness among affected communities about
their rights
Solution: a.
In April 2012, the Central Water Commission
(CWC) with assistance from the World Bank,
embarked upon the six year Dam Rehabilitation
and Improvement Project (DRIP) at an
estimated cost of Rs. 2100 crore
The objective of the Dam Rehabilitation and
Improvement Project for India is to improve the
safety and operational performance of selected
existing dams in the territory of the
participating states. The project development
objective (PDO) will be achieved through
rehabilitation and improvement of dams and
improvement in central and state-level
institutional capacity to sustainably manage
dam safety administration and operation and
maintenance.
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2016/02/13/in
sights-daily-current-events-13-february-2016/
2. The Ministry of Water Resources is
undertaking an Aquifer Mapping (AM)
project. Which of the following statements
associated with AM is/are correct?
1. It would assist in estimating the quantity as
well as quality of ground water in an aquifer
2. It can help make India climate change
resilient
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c.
An aquifer is an underground layer of water-
bearing rock, from which groundwater can be
extracted. The mapping would assist in
estimating the quantity and quality of ground
water in an aquifer and would help in
assessment of sustainable level of ground water
extraction. This would also help in making the
Country climate change resilient.
This mapping is being undertaken by Central
Ground Water Board (CGWB). The final
objective of the programme is to prepare
Management Plans, in consultation with
stakeholders and State Governments, which
will identify the recharge and other measures to
replenish the declining trend of groundwater.
This Plan would help in predicting the ground
water scenario, the recharge potential and
possibilities and would also help in educating
the stakeholders in water use efficiency.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?reli
d=136334
3. With reference to the Himalayan Griffon or
the Himalayan Vulture, which of the
following statements is/are incorrect?
1. The IUCN has listed it as a critically
endangered species
2. Apart from the Himalayas, this bird can be
found in South India as well as Central Asia
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a.
The species has been listed as Near Threatened
by the IUCN. In recent years the bird has been
spotted in southern states including Kerala,
Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. It is also found
in western China, Kazakhstan, Uzbekistan,
Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Afghanistan and
Pakistan.
 http://www.insightsonindia.com/2016/02/13/in
sights-daily-current-events-13-february-2016/
4. With reference to the chemical Pyriproxyfen,
consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The World Health Organisation
has recommended its introduction in drinking
water supply in disease-carrying mosquito-
infested areas
Reason (R): It is a larvicide which produces
malformations in mosquito larvae (it inhibits
the development of adult insect characteristics)
Select the correct answer:
a) A and R both are true, and R is the correct
explanation for A
b) A and R both are true, and R is the NOT the
correct explanation for A
c) A is incorrect, R is correct
d) A and R both are incorrect
Ans: c.
With direct causality between Zika virus and
microcephaly, a congenital brain development
anomaly, yet to be established, Latin American
doctors have come up with an alternative
explanation: that a pesticide, Pyriproxyfen, was
introduced into the drinking water supply in
2014.
Pyriproxyfen is used in a state-controlled
programme aimed at eradicating disease-
carrying mosquitoes. The PCST report states,
Pyriproxyfen is a growth inhibitor of mosquito
larvae, which alters the development process
from larva to pupa to adult, thus generating
malformations in developing mosquitoes and
killing or disabling them. It acts as an insect
juvenile hormone or juvenoid, and has the
effect of inhibiting the development of adult
insect characteristics (for example, wings and
mature external genitalia) and reproductive
development.
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/is-
the-zika-threat-overhyped/article8234567.ece
5. The term Blue Water refers to
a) Fresh surface and groundwater
b) The precipitation on land that does not run
off or recharge the groundwater but is stored in
the soil or temporarily stays on top of the soil
c) The relatively clean waste water from
baths, sinks, washing machines, and other such
home appliances
d) Ocean Water
Solution: a.
There are specific geographical areas where the
water crisis is particularly acute. For instance,
in the Ganges basin, blue water or fresh
water (surface water and aquifers) is being
consumed in a countercyclical fashion, with
water consumption being highest when water
availability is lowest.
Researchers looked at blue water scarcity on a
per-month basis dividing up the area according
to specific grid cells. Water scarcity was
calculated as the ratio of the blue water
footprint (consumption) in a grid cell to the
total blue water availability in the cell.
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-
ed/inching-towards-a-crisis-drop-by-
drop/article8234565.ece
6. As per the Agreement on the Monetary Policy
Framework between the Government of India
and Reserve Bank of India, which of the
following statements is/are incorrect?
1. A consumer inflation target of 4 per cent,
with a band of plus or minus 2 percentage
points, by the financial year ending in
March 2017 has been set
2. The central bank will be deemed to have
missed its target if consumer inflation is at
more than 6 percent or at less than 2 percent
for three consecutive months
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b.
As per the Agreement on the Monetary Policy
Framework between the Government of India
and Reserve Bank of India, the two sides set a
consumer inflation target of 4 per cent, with a
band of plus or minus 2 percentage points, by
the financial year ending in March 2017. (But
the RBI has set on its own, a target of 5% by
March 17)

The central bank will be deemed to have missed

its target if consumer inflation is at more than 6
percent or at less than 2 percent for three
consecutive quarters (not months).

http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-
business/reserve-bank-cant-drop-guard-on-
inflation/article8235185.ece

http://finmin.nic.in/reports/MPFAgreement28
022015.pdf
1. With regard to the Indias first mission to study
the Sun, which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. Suryoday-1 will be placed in such an orbit
that it will be able to continuously view the
Sun without any eclipses
2. This mission is meant to observe only the
solar corona it will carry one payload for
this purpose
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d.
Aditya-L1, the Indian Sun mission due after
three years, may turn out to be a unique
formation of not one but two spacecraft looking
at the Sun from two stable orbital points. That
is if the Advisory Committee on Space
Sciences (ADCOS), which is the brain behind
the countrys extra-planetary missions, has its
way.
Aditya is the nations third big extra-terrestrial
outing after Moon and Mars, all conceived and
designed by ADCOS, the multi-faculty body of
the Indian Space Research Organisation.
The Aditya-1 mission was initially conceived
as a 400kg class satellite carrying one payload,
the Visible Emission Line Coronagraph
(VELC). the Aditya-1 mission has now been
revised to Aditya-L1 mission and will carry
additional six payloads with enhanced science
scope and objectives.
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-
national/aditya-gets-ready-to-gaze-at-the-
sun/article8212387.ece
2. A crucial point of the womens movement
resonated in a recent Supreme Court order
emphasising that real development is only
possible with womens economic
empowerment. Which of the following
statements with reference to womens
movements in India is/are incorrect?
1. There was an active womens movement
before 1947, which became dormant after
2. The growth of what is termed as the
autonomous womens movements is called
by some as the second phase of the Indian
womens movement
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d.
An issue that is often raised is that if there was an
active womens movement before 1947, whatever
happened afterwards.
In the mid 1970s there was a renewal of the
womens movement in India. Some call it the
second phase of the Indian womens movement.
While many of the concerns remained the same
there were changes both in terms of organisational
strategy as well as ideologies. There was the
growth of what is termed as the autonomous
womens movements. The term autonomy
referred to the fact that they were autonomous or
independent from political parties as distinct from
those womens organisations that had links with
political parties.
Page 157-158, Social Change and development in
India Class XII NCERT
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/a-
judgment-for-womens-rights/article8237561.ece
3. Consider the following statements:
1. Swami Dayanand Saraswati supported
widow remarriage
2. Schools for girls were established by the
Arya Samaj
3. The Arya Samaj sought to revive Vedic
learning as modern education was detested
by the Samaj
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 Only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Solution: b.
Arya Samaj: A North Indian Hindu reform
organisation of the late nineteenth and early
twentieth centuries, particularly active in the
Punjab, which sought to revive Vedic learning
and combine it with modern education in the
sciences.
Page 383 Themes in Indian History III Class
XII NCERT
Chapter 9 Our Pasts III Part 2 Class VIII
NCERT
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?reli
d=136393
4. Wind circulations from the surface upwards
and vice-versa are called cells, which set the
pattern for the general circulation of the
atmosphere. Which of the following statements
is/are incorrect?
1. The Hadley Cell is associated with the
tropics whereas the Ferrel Cell is associated
with the mid-latitudes
2. Changes in temperature of the polar region
affects the strength of wind circulation in
the tropical cell
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d.
The temperature gradient between the equator
and the poles essentially drives the atmospheric
circulation in the southern hemisphere in the
form of three north-south systems: the polar
cell, the mid-latitude Ferrel cell and the tropical
Hadley cell. These cells are dynamically linked
together.
When the polar region warms, the location of
the boundary between the polar and Ferrel cells
will change, along with the strength of
circulation in both cells. This in turn will
influence the strength of tropical circulation on
the other side of the Ferrel cell. These linkages
between polar regions and mid- and tropical
latitudes are known as teleconnections.
http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-
environment/antarctica-influencing-weather-
in-tropics/article8233664.ece
5. When corals are under stress, they expel the
algae living in their tissues causing the coral to
turn completely white. This is called coral
bleaching. In this context, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. Corals can survive a bleaching event
2. Cold water temperatures can result in coral
bleaching
3. Corals and algae live in a symbiotic
relationship
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 2 Only
d) 1,2 and 3
Solution: d.
All statements are correct.
Symbiotic associations are mutually useful
associations. Ex: Algae and Fungi in Lichens.
The coral provides the algae with a protected
environment and the compounds necessary for
photosynthesis, which are metabolic waste
products of the coral. In return, the algae
produce oxygen and help the coral to remove
wastes. Most importantly, they supply the coral
with organic products of photosynthesis which
are predominantly carbohydrates.
When a coral bleaches, it is not dead. Corals
can survive a bleaching event, but they are
under more stress and are subject to mortality.
Not all bleaching events are due to warm
water. In January 2010, cold water
temperatures in the Florida Keys caused a coral
bleaching event that resulted in some coral
death.
http://oceanservice.noaa.gov/facts/coral_bleac
h.html
http://www.thehindu.com/sci-
tech/science/unravelling-mysteries-of-coral-
bleaching/article8233738.ece
1. Which of the following statements associated
with John Maynard Keynes is/are correct?
1. He tried to theorise about and explain the
fact that the economy may have long lasting
unemployment
2. He advocated that government fiscal policy
should be used to stabilise the level of
output and employment
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c.
The dominant thinking in economics before
Keynes was that all the labourers who are ready
to work will find employment and all the
factories will be working at their full capacity.
This school of thought is known as the classical
tradition. However, the Great Depression of
1929 and the subsequent years saw the output
and employment levels in the countries of
Europe and North America fall by huge
amounts. The fact that the economy may have
long lasting unemployment had to be theorised
about and explained. Keynes book was an
attempt in this direction. Unlike his
predecessors, his approach was to examine the
working of the economy in its entirety and
examine the interdependence of the different
sectors. The subject of macroeconomics was
born.
Page 4, 66 Macroeconomics Class XII NCERT
Yet, back on his table again this year is
Keynesian advice: invest your way out of sub-
8 per cent GDP growth to steer the economy to
a higher trajectory.
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/columns/ne
ver-waste-a-crisis/article8241269.ece
2. The strait of Bab-el-Mandeb connects
a) Indian Ocean and Persian Gulf
b) North Atlantic Ocean and Mediterranean
Sea
c) Black Sea and the Mediterranean Sea
d) None of the above
Solution: d.
The Horn of Africa nation is strategically
located on the junction of the Indian Ocean and
the Red Seaa gateway to the Suez Canal via
the strait of Bab Al-Mandab.
http://www.thehindu.com/news/international/d
jibouti-myanmar-and-sri-lanka-anchor-chinas-
maritime-silk-road/article8240828.ece
3. Consider the following State Associated Folk
Dance pairs:
1. Arunachal Pradesh Bro-Zai
2. Assam Bardoishikla
3. Mizoram Cheraw
4. Sikkim Hozagiri
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
matched?
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 2 Only
d) 1 and 3 Only
Solution: a.
Tripura Hozagiri Dance
Destination North East 2016 Flyer
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?reli
d=136256
4. Consider the following statements:
1. Wholesale prices as measured by the
Wholesale Price Index have been
continuously declining for over the past
year
2. The continuous decline of overall
merchandise exports for over the past year
has been stemmed due to a sudden
expansion in shipments to the United States
of America
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a.
 Exports shrink for 14th straight month in http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?reli
January d=136406

Wholesale prices decline for 15th consecutive

month

5. Which among the following constitute Non-

Tax Revenue Receipts?

1. RTI Application fees

2. Spectrum charges
3. Dividends from the Reserve Bank of India
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:

a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 2 Only
d) 1,2 and 3

Solution: d.

The annual collection of Non Tax Receipts is

over Rs. 2 lakh crores. The biggest share flows
from Dividends paid by Public Sector
Undertakings, RBI etc. The other major items
of Non Tax Receipts are interest receipts,
spectrum charges, royalty, license fee, sale of
forms, RTI application fee etc.

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?reli
d=136436

6. Following are commodity groups in the

Wholesale Price Index:

1. Primary Articles
2. Fuel and Power
3. Manufactured Products
Select the correct answer using the code given
below, where comparison is being made on the
basis of weights that have been accorded to
each of them:

a) 3>2>1
b) 3>1>2
c) 1>3>2
d) 2>1>3

Solution: b.

Manufactured Products (Weight 64.97%);

Primary Articles (Weight 20.12%); Fuel &
Power (Weight 14.91%)
1. India is said to be preparing to expand its
sphere of operations in the Indian Ocean a) 1 Only
Region (IOR). In this context, which of b) 2 Only
the following pairs is/are correctly c) Both 1 and 2
matched? d) Neither 1 nor 2

(Joint Solution: d.
(Participating
Military
country)
Exercise) Both statements are true.

1. Sri Lanka Ekuverin Tantia Tope, also spelled Tatya Tope or

Tantia Topi, (original name Ramchandra
Mitra Panduranga, born c. 181319, Pune,
2. Maldives
Shakti Indiadied April 18, 1859, Shivpuri),
Garuda was a leader of the Indian Mutiny of
3. Seychelles
Shakti 185758.
4. Indonesia Ex Limtaye
Tantia Tope was a Maratha Brahman in
Select the correct answer using the code the service of the former peshwa (ruler)
given below: of the Maratha confederacy, Baji Rao
(Peshwa Baji Rao II), and of his adopted
a) 1 and 3 Only son Nana Sahib, who was also
b) 2 and 3 Only prominent in the mutiny.
c) 1 and 2 Only
d) None http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.as
px?relid=136456
Solution: d.
3. The regulatory authority of the Atomic
Exercise with Sri Lanka Mitra Shakti Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) is
Exercise with Maldives Ekuverin derived from the rules and notifications
Exercise with Seychelles Ex Limtaye promulgated under the
Exercise with Indonesia Garuda Shakti
a) Atomic Energy Act, 1962
Exercise with Nepal Suryakiran b) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
Exercise with China, Pakistan and c) Safety and Radiation Protection Act,
Thailand Cobra Gold (hosted by 1971
Thailand) d) Both a and b

2. Which of the following statements about Solution: d.

Ramachandra Panduranga is/are false?
1. He was a Maratha Brahmin in the
service of Peshwa Baji Rao II
2. He was one of the rebel leaders in
Indias first war of Independence
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
An independent body, the Atomic
Energy Regulatory Board (AERB)
monitors safety. The safety standards
formulated by AREB are at par with
those recommended by the international
bodies such as the International Atomic
Energy Agency (IAEA) and the
 International Commission
Radiological Protection (ICRP). The
mission of the Board is to ensure that the
use of ionizing radiation and nuclear
energy in India does not cause undue
risk to health and the environment.
The Atomic Energy Regulatory Board
was constituted on November 15, 1983
by the President of India to carry out
certain regulatory and safety functions
under the Act. The regulatory authority
of AERB is derived from the rules and
notifications promulgated under the
Atomic Energy Act, 1962 and the
Environmental (Protection) Act, 1986.
Dr Jitendra Singh said, the safeguards
for the purpose are observed as per the
rules, procedures and principles laid
down by the Atomic Energy Regulatory
Board (AERB) under the DAE are
among the best practices in the world.
4. Albendazole is
a) An anthelminthic
b) An Ethanol derivative which
increases the Octane number of petrol
c) Bharat Biotechs inactivated Zika
Virus vaccine
d) None of the above
Solution: a.
There have been a few reports in media
that this medicine under the National
Deworming Programme is responsible
for complications in children.
Soil-transmitted helminth infections are
among the most common infections
worldwide and affect the poorest and
most deprived communities. The
National Deworming Programme seeks
to rid children of worms that cause these
infections.
on
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.as
px?relid=136450
5. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): There is still
considerable resistance on the part of
litigants in India to opt for mediation in
the form of Alternate Dispute Resolution
(ADR) methods
Reason (R): The mediation process in
India lacks proper statutory framework
Select the correct answer:
a) A and R both are true, and R is the
NOT the correct explanation for A
b) A and R both are true, and R is the
correct explanation for A
c) A and R both are incorrect
d) A is incorrect, R is correct
Ans: b.
The Minister said ADR methods such
as Lok Adalats and Arbitration have
gained considerable traction as an
effective means of dispute resolution.
However, there is still considerable
resistance on the part of litigants to opt
for mediation due to the lack of proper
statutory framework for the mediation
process. It is in this regard the third
agenda item explored the pre-litigation
dispute resolution scenario in India and
the need to give statutory backing to
mediation by enacting a standalone
law.
1. With reference to the Government of 2. Paracel Islands
Indias decision to cut interest rates on 3. Spratly Islands
short-tenure small savings schemes, 4. Brunei
which of the following statements Select the correct answer using the
is/are correct? code given below:

1. This move could result in the a) 4-2-1-3

improvement of investor sentiment
2. The rates on such small savings
schemes would from now onward be
revised every quarter
3. High interest rates on small savings
schemes was one of the key reasons
for poor monetary policy
transmission in recent times in the
economy
Select the correct answer using the
code given below:
3. The Union Cabinet recently gave its in
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) 1,2 and 3
Solution: d.
The finance ministry has also
announced that the rates on such small
savings schemes would, henceforth, be
revised every quarter.
http://indianexpress.com/article/opini
on/editorials/kvp-finance-ministry-
small-savings-no-small-gain/
Atomic Energy and Department of
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/edi
torial/right-step-on-savings-
schemes/article8249371.ece
2. What is the correct sequence of
occurrence of the following regions in
East Asia as one proceeds from South to
North?
1. Hong Kong
b) 3-2-4-1
c) 3-4-1-2
d) 4-3-2-1
Ans: d.
http://www.thehindu.com/news/inter
national/china-deploys-missiles-in-
disputed-south-china-
sea/article8248382.ece
principle approval to Project INDIGO.
This project is being piloted by
a) Department of Atomic Energy
b) Department of Science and
Technology
c) Indian Institute of Science
d) Both a and b
Solution: d.
The proposal, known as LIGO-India
project (Laser Interferometer
Gravitational-wave Observatory in
India) is piloted by Department of
Science and Technology (DST). The
LIGO-India project will establish a state-
of-the-art gravitational wave
observatory in India in collaboration
with the LIGO Laboratory in the U.S. run
by Caltech and MIT.
http://www.thehindu.com/news/natio
nal/indian-gravity-wave-detector-8-
years-away/article8238176.ece
 d) Indian Institute of Himalayan
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease. Geology
aspx?relid=136479
Solution: b.
4. The Ministry of AYUSH has the mandate
to promote, propagate and globalize Khanij = minerals; Khoj = search
recognized Traditional and
Complementary Systems of Medicine The Operation Khanij Khoj project of
(T&CM) which include GSI (Ministry of Mines) launched during
the meeting is targeting concealed and
1. Naturopathy deep seated mineral deposits. GSI has
2. Unani planned two projects in (i) Northern
3. Siddha parts of Arravallies and Bundelkhand
4. Sowa-Rigpa craton; (ii) Western and Eastern
5. Homeopathy Dharwad cratons. It is focused on
Select the correct answer using the probing for deep seated/concealed
code given below: mineral deposits.

a) 2, 3 and 5 only
b) 1, 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

Solution: c.

Ministry of AYUSH having the mandate

to promote, propagate and globalize
the recognized Traditional and
Complementary Systems of Medicine
(T&CM) including Ayurveda, Yoga,
Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, Sowa
Rigpa and Homeopathy, proposes to
collaborate and cooperate with the
World Health Organization.

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.
aspx?relid=136482

5. Operation Khanij Khoj is being

undertaken by

a) Ministry of Science and Technology

b) Ministry of Mines
c) Ministry of Earth Sciences
1. Which of the following statements about
Sowa-Rigpa, a recognized Traditional
and Complementary System of
Medicine in India, are correct?
1. It is commonly known as Amchi
system of medicine
2. Much of its theory and practice is
similar to Ayurveda
3. It is practiced in some parts of Nepal,
Bhutan and also in former Soviet
Union
4. This medical tradition originated in
Tibet
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 1 and 3 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) 3 and 4 only
Solution: a.
Its origin remains uncertain.
Sowa-Rigpa commonly known as
Amchi system of medicine is one of the
oldest, living and well documented
medical tradition of the world. It has
been popularly practiced in Tibet,
Magnolia, Bhutan, some parts of China,
Nepal, Himalayan regions of India and
few parts of former Soviet Union etc.
There are various schools of thought
about the origin of this medical tradition,
some scholars believe that it is
originated from India, some says China
and others consider it to be originated
from Tibet itself. The majority of theory
and practice of Sowa-Rigpa is similar to
Ayurveda.
In India this system has been practiced
in Sikkim, Arunachal Pardesh,
Dargeling (West Bangal), Lahoul &
Spiti (Himanchal Pardesh) and Ladakh
region of Jammu& Kashmir etc.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.as
px?relid=136482
2. Which of the following statements about
the Bar Council of India is/are correct?
1. It is a statutory body
2. It prescribes standards of
professional conduct and etiquette
for members of the bar
3. It provides financial assistance to
organizes welfare schemes for the
members
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 and 2 Only
Solution: c.
All statements are correct.
The Bar Council of India (BCI) on
Thursday told the Supreme Court that
serious action would be taken against
the errant lawyers who brazenly defied
the courts order for calm and indulged
in violence in the Patiala House courts
complex.
The Bar Council of India (BCI) is a
statutory body created by Parliament to
regulate and represent the Indian bar (It
was established under the Advocates
Act, 1961). We perform the regulatory
function by prescribing standards of
professional conduct and etiquette and
by exercising disciplinary jurisdiction
over the bar. We also sets standards for
legal education and grants recognition to
Universities whose degree in law will
 serve as qualification for enrolment as
an advocate.
In addition, we perform certain
representative functions by protecting
the rights, privileges and interests of
advocates and through the creation of
funds for providing financial assistance
to organise welfare schemes for them.
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-
paper/bci-vows-serious-
action/article8254924.ece
3. The act or process of fixing limits or
boundaries of territorial constituencies
in a country or a province is known as
delimitation. This job is carried out in
India by the
a) Territorial Commission
b) Boundary Commission
c) Committee on Delimitation in the
Rajya Sabha
d) None of the above
Solution: b.
Delimitation literally means the act or
process of fixing limits or boundaries of
territorial constituencies in a country or
a province having a legislative body.
The job of delimitation is assigned to a
high power body. Such a body is known
as Delimitation Commission or a
Boundary Commission.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.as
px?relid=136484
4. With reference to the Delimitation
Commission, consider the following
statements:
1. The orders of the Delimitation
Commission cannot be challenged in
a Court of Law
2. When the orders of the Delimitation
Commission are laid before the Lok
Sabha or State Legislative Assembly,
they cannot effect any modifications
in the orders
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c.
CS(P) 2012, Mrunal
The Delimitation Commission in India is
a high power body whose orders have
the force of law and cannot be called in
question before any court of law. These
orders come into force on a date to be
specified by President of India. The
copies of its orders are laid before the
House of People and the State legislative
assembly concerned but no
modifications are permissible therein by
them.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.as
px?relid=136484
5. It is said that in the absence of long-
pending structural reforms, public sector
banks (PSBs) have more to contend with
than mounting Non-Performing Assets
(NPAs). Which of the following may be
these concerns?

1. The rapid emergence and adoption of

Fintech
2. Setting up of new as well as
differentiated banks
3. Staff shortage, specifically the top
and middle-rung managers, in the
near future
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:

a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3 Only

Solution: c.

All are valid concerns for PSBs in India.

http://indianexpress.com/article/opinion
/editorials/rbi-psb-not-just-bad-debts/
1. Ibadat Khana from the Mughal Empire
may refer to
a) the mosque for the use of Royal
Family
b) Akbars private prayer chamber
c) the hall in which Akbar held
discussions with scholars of various
religions
d) the room in which the nobles
belonging to different religions gathered
to discuss religious affairs
Solution: c.
CS(P) 2014
NCERT class7 History, Chapter4, Page
54: While Akbar was at Fatehpur Sikri
during the 1570s he started discussions
on religion with the ulama, Brahmanas,
Jesuit priests who were Roman
Catholics, and Zoroastrians. These
discussions took place in the Ibadat
Khana.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.as
px?relid=136579
2. Akbars Ibadat Khana is located in sects. His Sacred Majesty does not value
a) Agra
b) Fatehpur Sikri
c) Delhi
d) Lahore
Solution: b.
Read explanation above.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.as
px?relid=136579
3. With reference to Emperor Ashoka,
which of the following statements is/are
incorrect?
1. He believed that an individual
harmed others as well as his own
religion when that individual
honoured his religion and
condemned others
2. He established the Mauryan Empire
in the third century BCE
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Mauryan
Empire was established by
Chandragupta Maurya in the 4th
Century BCE. His successor was
Bindusara who was succeeded by
Ashoka.
Emperor Ashokas Girnar Rock Edict
near Junagarh in Gujarat around the year
260 BC:
The King honours all religions and
gifts and honours as he values the
growth of the essential elements of all
religious sects. But the root of it is
restraint of speech, that is, there should
not be honour only of ones own religion
and condemnation of other religions. On
the other hand, other religions should be
honoured too. By doing this, one helps
his own religion to grow and benefits the
religion of others also. By doing
otherwise, one harms his own religion
and injures the other religions too. For
whoever honours only his own religion
and condemns other religions injures
more gravely his own religion. Hence
concord alone is commendable and all
 should listen, and be willing to listen, to
the beliefs professed by others.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.as
px?relid=136579
4. During the second half of the nineteenth
century, modern industry began to take
root in India but its progress remained
very slow. In this context, which of the
following statements is/are incorrect?
1. Initially, this development was
confined to the setting up of jute and
cotton textile mills
2. In the early years of the modern
industry in India, the cotton textile
mills were mainly dominated by
Indians while the jute mills were
dominated by the foreigners
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
a) 1 Only
b 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d.
Both statements are correct.
Page 7 Indian Economic Development
Class XI NCERT
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.as
px?relid=136566
5. A flag march is
6. Consider the following statements:
a) an ancient concept of the Kings who
used their armies to suppress difficult
law and order situations in their
kingdoms
b) another term for combing
operations used by armed forces today
to eliminate any remaining threat in a
volatile area
c) A show of the might of a government
with the help of its armed forces a
concept that was introduced by the
British
d) None of the above
Solution: a.
What is a flag march?
It is an ancient concept of the Kings who
used their armies to suppress difficult
law and order situations in their
kingdoms. King Ashoka and rulers in
Mughal and medieval periods in India
are said to have used their armies to quell
civil up-risings in their territories. This
worldwide concept had been frequently
used by the British, first against their
own people during the Tudor period in
the 15th century, and then more freely,
in their colonies to suppress revolts
organised by natives against the British
rule. During the struggle for
independence in India, these marches
were often conducted by the British
Indian army.
The Army conducted a flag march in
tense areas of the State and used
helicopters to reach parts of Rohtak
district.
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-
paper/blockades-force-army-to-airdrop-
troops/article8262745.ece
Assertion (A): Many victims of extreme
hypothermia peel off most or all of their
clothing
Reason (R): Extreme hypothermia
causes sudden, uncontrolled and
intermittent spikes in body temperature
Select the correct answer:
a) A and R both are true, and R is the
correct explanation for A
b) A and R both are true, and R is the
NOT the correct explanation for A
c) A is incorrect, R is correct
d) A is correct, R is incorrect
Solution: d.
The term paradoxical undressing
describes the behavior among many
victims of extreme hypothermia of
peeling off most or all of their clothing,
increasing heat loss.
To shut down the loss of heat from the
extremities, the body induces
vasoconstriction, the reflexive
contraction of blood vessels. Over time,
however, the muscles necessary for
inducing vasoconstriction become
exhausted and fail, causing warm blood
to rush from the core to the extremities.
This results in a kind of hot flash that
makes victims of severe hypothermia
who are already confused and
disoriented feel as though theyre
burning up, so they remove their clothes,
researchers have concluded.
When the rescue teams found him, he
was wearing nothing but his thermals.
He was found in a sitting position, says
Lt. Gen. S.D. Duhan, Director and
Commandant of the Army hospital.
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-
ed/siachen-avalanche-fortyeight-hours-
to-martyrdom/article8262020.ece
7. Which of the following statements about
the Bacillus CalmetteGurin (BCG)
vaccine is/are incorrect?
1. It is a vaccine primarily used against
tuberculosis (TB), and is also used as
an additive in a number of cancer
vaccines
2. The BCG vaccine, in use at present,
can only protect against severe forms
of the disease in children but cannot
prevent pulmonary TB in all age
groups, including children
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d.
Both statements are correct.
BCG vaccine
All eyes are on a new BCG-based TB
vaccine, VPM1002, which has shown
promise in animal and small-scale
human trials. Besides better efficacy,
this recombinant BCG vaccine has been
found to be superior safety-wise. Unlike
the currently used vaccine that causes
BCG-related disease in HIV-positive
babies (as they have reduced immunity),
the recombinant vaccine is expected to
be safe in this population.
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-
ed/new-bcgbased-tb-vaccine-revamped-
safer-and-with-greater-
punch/article8262023.ece
8. Which of the following is NOT one of
the recommendations of the Fourteenth
Finance Commission?

a) Distribution of the net proceeds of
taxes of the Union for vertical as well as
horizontal devolution
b) Constitution of an Independent
Fiscal Council that objectively evaluates
budget announcements and forecasts
c) In understanding the States needs, it
has ignored the Plan and non-Plan
distinctions
d) Distribution of grants to States for
local bodies using 1971 population data
Solution: d.
FFC has recommended distribution of
grants to States for local bodies using
2011 population data with weight of
90% and area with weight of 10%.
Any Finance Commission is required to
recommend the distribution of the net
proceeds of taxes of the Union between
the Union and the States (commonly
referred to as vertical devolution); and
the allocation between the States of the
respective shares of such proceeds
(commonly known as horizontal
devolution). In recommending
horizontal distribution, the FFC has used
broad parameters of population (1971)
and changes of population since, income
distance, forest cover and area.
Members of the XIV Finance
Commission have questioned the
governments failure to act on its
recommendation to constitute an
Independent Fiscal Council that
objectively evaluates budget
announcements and forecasts, stressing
that such an institution was critical to
improve the governments credibility on
fiscal management.
Salient Recommendations
http://www.thehindu.com/business/Eco
nomy/experts-want-body-to-oversee-
budget/article8262005.ece
9. With reference to the FRBM Act, which
of the following statements is/are
incorrect?
1. The thirteenth finance commission
had suggested setting up of a body
which would undertake an ex ante
analysis of the financial implications
of budget proposals
2. At present, the Comptroller Auditor
General periodically monitors the
compliance by the Government with
the provisions of the Act (ex-post
review)
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d.
Both statements are correct. The
Thirteenth FC too had recommended a
body similar to what the FFC has
recommended an Independent fiscal
council.
Source (No need to read this, it is the
entire 13th FC report, source is just
being provided here): Recommendation
#32, Summary of Recommendations
In 2012, the FRBM Act was amended to
allow the CAG the periodically monitor
the compliance with the provisions of
the Act. But the FFC found this
inadequate this was an ex-post review;
what is needed is an ex-ante review.
 http://www.thehindu.com/business/Eco
nomy/experts-want-body-to-oversee-
budget/article8262005.ece

http://swarajyamag.com/economy/stron
g-frbm-act-is-the-time-right-to-loosen-
the-chastity-belt

10.What is a Bad Bank, often mentioned

in the news?

a) An Asset Reconstruction Company

b) A bank which has more than 5
percent of its loans categorized as Non-
Performing Assets
c) Another name for Public Sector
Banks in India
d) A Non-Banking Financial Company
which has more than 5 percent of its
loans categorized as Non-Performing
Assets

Solution: a.

.Even as mounting bad loans have

put Indian banks in a pincer-like
situation, the idea of a government-
backed bad bank has kicked off quite a
debate. Bad bank concept allows a
government-supported entity to buy bad
loans from stressed banks at a fair price
(discount). Such an entity will then be
responsible for recovering the debt.

http://www.thehindu.com/business/Indu
stry/banks-require-holistic-
cure/article8262010.ece
1. Which of the following is a provision
made by Section 124A of the Indian
Penal Code?
a) Whoever speaks against the
government has committed the offence
of sedition
b) Whoever means to excite or attempts
to excite disaffection (among others, by
words spoken or written) towards the
nation has committed the offence of
sedition
c) Whoever promotes enmity between
different groups on grounds of religion
shall be punished with imprisonment, or
with fine, or with both
d) None of the above
Solution: d.
3. Consider the following statements with
Section 124A of the IPC says, says:
Whoever by words either spoken or
written or by signs or by visible
representation or otherwise brings or
attempts to bring into hatred or
contempt, the government established
by law; or
Whoever by the above means excites or
attempts to excite disaffection towards
the government established by law (and
NOT towards the nation), has committed
the offence of sedition.
General Question based on the ongoing
debates/discussions on Section 124A of
IPC.
2. Unemployment Rate is defined as
a) The number of persons unemployed
as a proportion of the labour force
(persons who are either working or
seeking or available for work)
b) The number of persons unemployed
as a proportion of the working age
population
c) The ratio of persons unemployed to
those employed
d) Both a and b
Solution: a.
Unemployment rate is defined as the
number of persons unemployed as a
proportion of the labour force (persons
who are either working or seeking or
available for work), not the total
population or the working age
population.
http://www.thehindu.com/data/unemplo
yment-down-in-urban-centres-but-
persists-in-rural-areas-says-
survey/article8264731.ece
regard to the findings of the recently
released National Sample Survey
Offices employment and
unemployment survey:
1. Self-employment is the major source
of income for almost half the
households, across all religious
groups, in rural areas
2. In urban areas, the proportion of
households deriving major income
from regular wage or salary earnings
is the highest
Which of the statements above is/are
correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c.
http://www.thehindu.com/data/unemplo
yment-down-in-urban-centres-but-
persists-in-rural-areas-says-
survey/article8264731.ece

4. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Christians in India have
the highest rate of unemployment in
both rural and urban areas
Reason (R): Unemployment level in
India is highest among those people who
are richer and more educated
Select the correct answer:
a) A and R both are true, and R is the
correct explanation for A
b) A and R both are true, and R is the
NOT the correct explanation for A
c) A is incorrect, R is correct
d) A is correct, R is incorrect
Ans: a.
Christians have the highest rate of
unemployment in both rural (4.5 per
cent) and urban (5.9 per cent) areas in
2011-12. The rate in urban areas for
Christians stood at 8.6 per cent in 2004-
05 while the rural rate stays constant.
Speaking to The Hindu, Alakh
Sharma, Director of Institute of Human
Development, said: Unemployment
level in India is highest among those
people who are richer and more
educated. The reason is that poor people
cant afford to stay unemployed, and
hence, opt for any kind of work,
irrespective of the nature of the job. The
better off have the capacity to be
unemployed as they look for the right
job. Christians are the most educated
group, hence unemployment rate is
higher among them. Data from the
report supports the claim
http://www.thehindu.com/data/unemplo
yment-down-in-urban-centres-but-
persists-in-rural-areas-says-
survey/article8264731.ece
5. Urur Olcott Kuppam Vizha is
a) A music festival which showcases
Keralas tribal folk music
b) An art festival associated with the
fisher folk of a village in Tamil Nadu
c) A dance festival associated with the
Araiyar community of Muttukuru in
Andhra Pradesh
d) A celebration to mark the beginning
of the fishing season in the coastal city
of Udupi in Karnataka
Solution: b.
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-
ed/chennai-art-festival-from-sabhas-to-
fishing-villages/article8264553.ece
6. The Ministry of Environment and
Forests has extended the general
approval for creation of critical public
utility infrastructure by government
departments, in the Left Wing
Extremism (LWE) affected areas, up to
2018. Under which act has this general
approval been accorded?
a) The Forest Rights Act 2006
b) Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
c) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
d) The Environment Protection Act,
1986
Solution: b.
Realising the importance of
developmental activities in the Left
Wing Extremism (LWE) affected areas,
the general approval as contained in the
Ministry of Environment and Forest
letter, dated 13th May, 2011, has been
extended up to December 31, 2018, as
per the extant terms and conditions.
In an effort to expedite the creation of
public utility infrastructure in 60 Left
Wing Extremism (LWE) affected
districts identified by the Planning
Commission for implementation of the
Integrated Action Plan (IAP), the
Ministry of Environment & Forests, vide
letter dated May 13, 2011, had accorded
general approval under section 2 of
Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980, for
creation of critical public utility
infrastructure by government
departments, not involving more than
5.00 hectares of forest land. This
provision was further extended to a total
of 117 LWE affected districts. The
approval was valid upto December 31,
2015.

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.as
px?relid=136612
1. The Banaras Hindu University (BHU) Solution: d.
recently held its centenary year
celebrations. In this context, which of All statements are correct.
the following statements is/are
incorrect? CERN is the worlds largest body of
experts in nuclear and particle physics,
1. Gandhijis first major public where scientists and engineers are
appearance in India was at the probing the fundamental structure of
opening of the BHU universe by using the most sophisticated
2. BHUs inauguration marked the scientific instruments and advanced
opening of a nationalist university, systems. CERN was established in 1954
sustained by Indian money and and is based in Geneva. Significantly,
Indian initiative CERN is the birthplace of www
Select the correct answer using the code (World Wide Web) which is regularly
given below: used to browse the internet. Similarly,
the touch screen widely used in
a) 1 Only smartphones was also first developed by
b) 2 Only CERN.
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.as
px?relid=136644
Solution: d.
3. An application to become an Associate
Page 347, 348 Themes in Indian Member (AM) of CERN has been
History Part III Class XII NCERT submitted by the Department of Atomic
Energy, Government of India. In this
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.as context, which of the following
px?relid=136637 statements is/are correct?

2. Which of the following statements about 1. Pakistan is already an AM of CERN

CERN is/are correct? 2. AMs dont have to contribute to the
CERN budget
1. It stands for European Organisation 3. AMs have reduced voting rights in
for Nuclear Research comparison to Members of CERN
2. It is the birthplace of www the Select the correct answer using the code
World Wide Web given below:
3. The touch screen widely used in
smartphones was also first developed a) 1 Only
by it b) 1 and 3 Only
Select the correct answer using the code c) 1 and 2 Only
given below: d) 1, 2 and 3

a) 2 and 3 Only Solution: a.

b) 1 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 2 Only 1.2 Associate Membership
d) 1, 2 and 3
 This status can either take the form of
regular Associate Membership (of
indefinite duration) or of Associate
Membership as the pre-stage to
Membership, normally for a period of
between two and five years. Associate
Members pay a reduced contribution to
the CERN budget and enjoy benefits
which are reduced accordingly. They are
represented at the CERN Council,
except at Closed Sessions, and do not
have voting rights. CERN currently has
one Associate Member in the pre-stage
to Membership, Serbia and two
Associate Members, Pakistan and
Turkey.
The major advantage of the associate
membership of CERN is that this will
entitle India to become a part of huge
scientific and technological endeavour.
This will also offer an opportunity to
Indian industry to bid for CERN
contracts for industrial collaboration in
advanced technologies.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.as
px?relid=136644
4. Which of the following statements about
the Association of World Election
Bodies (A-WEB) is NOT correct?
a) It provides training for election
officials
b) The Election Commission of India
spearheaded its establishment
c) It organizes various election
observations
d) Its members comprise some regional
associations and international electoral
organisations
Solution: b.
The National Election Commission of
the Republic of Korea (NEC) proposed
its establishment.
Association of World Election Bodies
was established in 2013 and has 106
members from 102 countries. The
members comprise national Election
Management Bodies and some regional
associations and international electoral
organisations. A-WEBs vision is to
foster efficiency and effectiveness in
conducting free, fair, transparent and
participative elections worldwide. Its
activities are guided by its mission to
identify latest trends, challenges and
developments in democratic electoral
management and electoral processes and
to facilitate appropriate exchange of
experience and expertise among
members with the objective of
strengthening electoral democracy
worldwide.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.as
px?relid=136639
5. Which of the following statements is/are
incorrect?
1. The division of India into a number
of seismic zones is termed Seismic
Microzonation
2. The impact of an earthquake does not
necessarily decrease as one moves
away from its epicenter
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a.
 Earlier, a seismic zoning map for entire
India was prepared and published by the
Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS),
classifying the entire country into 4
major groups Zone-V (High intensity) to
Zone-II (Low intensity). This showed
the macro seismic zones.
It was seen that due to an earthquake in
1985 there was severe damage in
Mexico city, though the earthquake
source was located about 350 km away
from the city. It was realized that putting
a large region into a single seismic
hazard zone is not a good idea. This and
several other examples led to a new
concept, called Microzonation. Seismic
microzonation is a process of identifying
such related geological, seismological,
hydrological and geotechnical site
characteristics in a specific region.
These would help design of safe
structures to reduce loss of human life.
According to Wikipedia, In most
general terms, seismic microzonation is
the process of estimating the response of
soil layers under earthquake excitations
and thus the variation of earthquake
characteristics on the ground surface
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.as
px?relid=136632
6. Consider the following statements about
Britain and its relationship with the
European Union (EU):
1. Britain is a member of the EU
2. Britain does not share the Euro but is
a part of the Schengen border-free
zone
Which of the statements above is/are
correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a.
As of February 23rd 2016, Britain is still
a member of the EU.
That Britain is in a minority of
countries that neither share the euro nor
participate in the Schengen border-free
zone does not diminish its weight and
importance in the larger EU
framework.
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/edito
rial/referendum-gamble-for-
britain/article8268210.ece
7. Consider the following statements:
a. River Bhadra originates from here
b. It consists of montane grasslands as
well as tropical rainforests
c. This is a part of a UNESCO World
Heritage Site
The above statements refer to
a) Great Himalayan National Park
Conservation Area
b) Kudremukh National Park
c) Kaziranga National Park
d) Manas Wildlife Sanctuary
Solution: b.
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/colu
mns/disappearing-forests-of-
kudremukh/article8268142.ece
1. An exhibition on the Coin and
Currency of India was recently
organised by the Department of
Expenditure, Ministry of Finance.
Consider the following statements
regarding coinage in India:
1. The earliest of documented coinage
is deemed to start with coins issued
around the 3rd century BCE
2. The earliest coins were mostly made
of silver and were punch-marked
3. Coins are considered to have been
issued initially by merchant guilds
and later by states
Which of the statements above is/are
correct?
a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 1 and 2 Only
d) 2 and 3 Only
Solution: d.
This Exhibition depicts how money has
changed in appearance and substance
and evolved from barter to coins to the
present day bank notes and e-money.
The first documented coinage is
deemed to start with Punch Marked
coins issued between the 7th-6th century
BC and 1st century AD. These coins are
called punch-marked coins because of
their manufacturing technique. Mostly
made of silver, these bear symbols, each
of which was punched on the coin with
a separate punch.
Issued initially by merchant Guilds and
later by States, the coins represented a
trade currency belonging to a period of
intensive trade activity and urban
development. The motifs found on these
coins were mostly drawn from nature
like the sun, various animal motifs, trees,
hills etc. and some were geometrical
symbols.
https://www.rbi.org.in/currency/museu
m/c-ancient.html
2. Under what circumstances is the Army
requisitioned by the civilian
administration?
a) Maintenance of law and order
b) Maintenance of essential services
c) Any type of assistance which may be
needed by the civil authorities
d) All of the above
Solution: d.
Regulations permit civil authorities to
requisition the Army for (1)
maintenance of law and order, (2)
maintenance of essential services, (3)
assistance during natural calamities such
as earthquakes, (4) any other type of
assistance which may be needed by the
civil authorities.
http://indianexpress.com/article/explain
ed/jat-agitation-army-in-aid-of-civil-
authority-when-how-do-troops-come-
in/
3. The International Roma Conference and
Cultural Festival was recently took place
in Delhi. In this context, which of the
following statements about Roma is
correct?
a) Roma in Greek refers to a tribal
people who are known to have migrated
to different parts of Europe, Asia and
Africa
b) It means fusion food and the
conference celebrates the diverse foods
of our world
 c) They are a travelling people who live
mostly in Europe and America, and
whose origins lie in India
d) From the Greek Roma was derived
the English word aroma; the festival is
a celebration of different brews in coffee
of the world
Solution: c.
The International Roma Conference and
Cultural Festival was organised recently
by International Council for Cultural
Relations, the cultural wing of MEA,
and Antar Rashtriya Sahayog Parishad-
Bharat.
http://indianexpress.com/article/explain
ed/meet-the-roma-2000-years-ago-the-
first-indians-to-go-to-europe/
4. In economics, the Laffer curve is
a) a representation of the relationship
between rates of taxation and the
resulting levels of government revenue
b) indicates that there is a level of
government spending that maximises
economic growth - the optimal level of
government spending accordingly is 15
25% of GDP
c) It organizes various election
observations
c) is a graphical representation of the
distribution of income, viz. representing
inequality of wealth distribution
Solution: a.
We also know that there is a maximum
feasible tax-to-GDP ratio, which
corresponds to the peak of the celebrated
Laffer curve, but this is only an upper
bound on the governments taxing
capacity, again not a statement of what
is the optimum.
http://www.livemint.com/Opinion/brbD
6Tw1akpGS3um0t3CaM/India-is-an-
outlier-in-its-tax-policy.html
5. Which of the following statements
associated with Aerosols is/are correct?
1. Aerosol Optical Depth is a measure
of the extinction of the solar beam by
dust and haze
2. Aerosols can either cool the surface,
or warm it
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c.
Aerosol optical depth or optical
thickness is a measure of the extinction
of the solar beam by dust and haze. In
other words, particles in the atmosphere
(dust, smoke, pollution) can block
sunlight by absorbing or by scattering
light. AOD tells us how much direct
sunlight is prevented from reaching the
ground by these aerosol particles. It is a
dimensionless number that is related to
the amount of aerosol in the vertical
column of atmosphere over the
observation location.
A value of 0.01 corresponds to an
extremely clean atmosphere, and a value
of 0.4 would correspond to a very hazy
condition.
Tiny solid and liquid particles suspended
in the atmosphere are called aerosols.
Windblown dust, sea salts, volcanic ash,
smoke from wildfires, and pollution
from factories are all examples of
aerosols. Depending upon their size,
 type, and location, aerosols can either
cool the surface, or warm it. They can
help clouds to form, or they can inhibit
cloud formation. And if inhaled, some
aerosols can be harmful to peoples
health.
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/edito
rial/air-pollution-in-india-clean-air-
agenda-for-the-
cities/article8272573.ece
6. Which of the following has/have been
accorded Geographical Indication
status?
1. Basmati
2. Nizamabad Black Pottery
3. Meghalayas Memong Narang
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 2 Only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: d.
Each of the above-mentioned
goods/produce has been granted GI
status post-April 2015.
Click on registered GIs link in the list
on the left hand side on this page.
http://indianexpress.com/article/explain
ed/whats-the-row-robbing-basmati-of-
its-aroma/
7. Consider the following statements:
1. Fiscal metrics in India are weak when
compared to other countries with
similar sovereign credit ratings
2. India, compared to its peers, relies
lower on foreign currency debt one
reason being its public debt-to-GDP
ratio is lower than similarly rated
countries
Which of the statements above is/are
correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a.
The rating agency did highlight one
silver lining for India compared to its
peers lower reliance on foreign
currency debt, even though its public
debt to GDP ratio is higher than
similarly rated countries like Indonesia,
Philippines, Romania and Turkey.
http://www.thehindu.com/business/Eco
nomy/fiscal-metrics-remain-weak-
moodys/article8272615.ece
1. Certain medicines will soon carry a red
line on their packaging, differentiating
them from other drugs. What is this
coloured line supposed to convey?
a) The drug is on the National List of
Essential Medicines
b) That the drug must be used carefully,
and to discourage unnecessary
prescription and over-the-counter sale
c) The drug is a generic drug
d) That the drug is manufactured by
Public-Private Partnership Enterprises
Solution: b.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.as
px?relid=136657
http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india
/Govt-draws-thin-red-line-to-curb-
antibiotics-
misuse/articleshow/51114973.cms
2. Consider the following statements:
1. The penetration and success of
modern card/digital payment
products and services is concentrated
to a large extent in the tier-l and tier-
ll locations of the country
2. Merchant Discount Rate is the rate
charged to a customer by the
merchant on account of bank-charges
s/he bears for providing debit and
credit card services
Which of the statements above is/are
correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a.
Merchant Discount Rate: The rate
charged to a merchant by a bank for
providing debit and credit card services.
The rate is determined based on factors
such as volume, average ticket price,
risk and industry. The merchant must set
up this service with a bank, and agree to
the rate prior to accepting debit and
credit cards as payment.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.as
px?relid=136755
3. Associated with Indian History, the
Battle of Aberdeen refers to
a) Vanquish of the Dutch from
Travancore by the British in the 18th
century
b) A battle fought by the Andamanese
aborigines and British
c) The last battle fought by Indian
soldiers in World War II
d) One of the many engagements in the
wars fought among the Portuguese,
French and the British on Indian lands
Solution: b.
The Andaman & Nicobar
Administration has apprised that a
Memorial has been constructed at the
entrance of the Water Sports Complex at
Port Blair in the memory of those Great
Andamanese, who had laid down their
lives in the famous Battle of Aberdeen
fought on 17th May 1859 against
Britishers and a solemn function is
organized every year on this day.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.as
px?relid=136699
4. Agitations for Cooch Behar to be http://indianexpress.com/article/explain
designated as a C category state have ed/simply-put-whats-behind-the-
been ongoing. What does this C protests-rail-roko-in-north-bengal/
category state mean?

a) An entirely separate state

b) A centrally administered
division/state
c) Any state with its own Constitution
and Flag
d) None of the above

Solution: b.

There is a demand that the Greater

Cooch Behar area be recognised either
as a separate C category state or a
Union Territory. [These Part-C states
were centrally administered Page 5.2
Indian Polity 4th Edition by M.
Laxmikanth]

The demand for a separate Greater

Cooch Behar, comprising Cooch Behar,
Darjeeling, Jalpaiguri, North and South
Dinajpur, and the undivided Goalpara
district of Assam, is based on the claim
that the original merger agreement
between the Maharaja of Cooch Behar
and the Government of India was
ignored during Cooch Behars inclusion
into India in 1949.

Cooch Behar was a princely state until it

became a part of India on August 20,
1949, and the GCPA argues that its
inclusion in West Bengal violated the
terms of that agreement. The GCPA
maintains that the original agreement
between the king of Cooch Behar and
the Indian government promised Cooch
Behar C category statehood, but it was
merged with West Bengal an A
category state.
1. Consider the following statements:
1. Advertising is a source of Non-fare
box revenue for the Indian Railways
(IR)
2. A lower figure of Operating Ratio is
indicative of better financial health of
a system such as the IR
Which of the statements above is/are
correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c.
Railway Minister Suresh Prabhus
projection of savings of Rs.8,720 crore
compared with budget estimates for the
current fiscal year reflects a finance
professionals approach in adopting
austerity measures to contain costs.
Building on those gains, the budget has
projected that notwithstanding the
substantial jump in salary and pension
costs consequent upon the
implementation of the Seventh Pay
Commissions recommendations, the
impact would be minimised to an 11.6
per cent increase in working expenses
next year. This will lead to a two
percentage point rise in the operating
ratio.
http://indianexpress.com/article/explain
ed/railway-budget-non-tariff-revenue-
or-non-fare-box-revenue-suresh-
prabhu/
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/edito
rial/railway-budget-2016-marshalling-
resources-to-stay-on-
track/article8281274.ece
2. Before the Socio-Economic Caste
Census (SECC) 2011, the only effort at
collecting data on different castes and
their socio-economic circumstances was
undertaken by the
a) Census 2001
b) Census 1931
c) SECC 1981
d) Census 1971
Solution: b.
Since the 1931 Census, the only effort
at collecting data on different castes and
their socio-economic circumstances was
undertaken by the Socio-Economic
Caste Census (SECC), 2011. The
National Commission for Backward
Classes claimed, in a report dated
February 2015, that these data are
neither available nor usable for the
purpose of establishing the economic
condition of various castes.
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-
ed/caste-reservation-quantifying-the-
caste-quotes/article8281303.ece
3. The Office of the Controller General of
Patents, Designs & Trade Marks comes
under
a) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
b) Ministry of Law and Justice
c) Ministry of Science and Technology
d) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
Solution: a.
The Office of the Controller General of
Patents, Designs & Trade Marks comes
under the Department of Industrial
Policy and Promotion, Ministry of
Commerce and Industry.
 http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/edito backward castes, resulting in frequent
rial/can-computer-programmes-be- discordance between these lists.
granted-patents/article8281275.ece
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-
4. Consider the following statements: ed/caste-reservation-quantifying-the-
caste-quotes/article8281303.ece
1. In India, software in itself is not
patentable
2. Patent thicket is a term used by the
developed nations to denote what
they perceive to be rigid patent
regimes such as Indias
Which of the statements above is/are
correct?

a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a.

In the U.S., a more open policy has led

to a flood of patents, and consequently
the negative connotation that the term
patent thicket carries now.

http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/edito
rial/can-computer-programmes-be-
granted-patents/article8281275.ece

5. The Mandal Commission was the

Second Backward Class Commission.
The First Backward Class Commission
was the

a) Kaka Kalelkar Commission

b) Morarji Desai Commission
c) Shastri Commission
d) Jagjivan Ram Commission

Ans: a.

Since the First Backward Classes

Commission headed by Kaka Kalelkar
submitted its report in 1955, several
attempts have been made to identify
1. What, according to the latest Economic
Survey, are the most critical short term
challenges confronting the Indian
economy?
1. Poor monsoons
2. Impaired financial position of the
Public Sector Banks
3. Impaired financial position of some
corporate houses
4. Impact on inflation due to
implementation of 7th Pay
Commission recommendation
5. The turmoil in global economy
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
a) 2,3 and 4 Only
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 4 and 5 only
Solution: c.
The Survey cautions that one of the
most critical short term challenges
confronting the Indian economy is the
twin balance sheet problem the
impaired financial positions of the
Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and some
corporate houses. The twin balance
sheet challenge is the major impediment
to private investment and a full-fledged
economic recovery.
The Survey enumerates three down
side risks (and not challenges) turmoil
in global economy could worsen the
outlook of exports, contrary to
expectations oil prices rise would
increase the drag from consumption and
the most serious risk is combination of
the above two factors.
On the domestic side, two factors can
boost consumption, increased spending
from higher wages and allowances of
government workers if the seventh pay
commission is implemented and return
of normal monsoon.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.as
px?relid=136850
2. For addressing the most critical short
term challenges confronting the Indian
economy, the latest Economic Survey
recommends adopting the 4R method.
Which of these Rs as mentioned
below, are correctly defined?
1. Recognition: That foreign demand is
weak and hence activate domestic
sources of demand to prevent the
growth momentum from weakening
2. Recapitalisation: Capital position of
banks must be safeguarded via
infusions of equity
3. Resolution: Of constraints to ease of
doing business so as to instill
confidence in investors and
subsequently attract investment
4. Reform: The contribution of the
agriculture sector to the GDP must be
enhanced by ushering in structural
reforms
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
a) 1, 3 and 4 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 1 and 2 Only
d) 2, 3 and 4 Only
Solution: b.
Comprehensively resolving the twin
balance sheet challenge would require 4
Rs: Recognition, Recapitalization,
Resolution, and Reform.
Banks must value their assets as far as
possible close to true value (recognition)
as the RBI has been emphasizing;
 Once they do so, their capital position
must be safeguarded via infusions of
equity (re-capitalisation)as the banks
have been demanding;
The underlying stressed assets in the
corporate sector must be sold or
rehabilitated (resolution) as the
government has been desiring; and
Future incentives for the Private Sector
and corporates must be set-right
(reform) to avoid a repetition of the
problem, as everyone has been
clamouring.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.as
px?relid=136850
3. Consider the following statements:
1. In the last two years Indian services
exports have been more affected than
Indian manufacturing exports
2. Currently, Indias services exports
constitutes about 3 percent of world
exports
Which of the statements above is/are
incorrect?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d.
On the external outlook, the Survey
says that overall exports declined by
about 18% in the first three quarters. It
points-out that in the last two years
Indian services exports have been more
affected than Indian manufacturing
exports and also world service exports.
Realizing Indias medium term growth
potential of 8-10 percent will require
rapid growth of export. To achieve
trajectory similar to China, Indias
competitiveness will have to improve so
that its services exports, currently about
3 percent of world exports, capture
nearly 15% of world market share.
4. Consider the following statements:
1. As an investment proposition, the
Rational Investor Ratings Index
shows that India compares
favourably with peer countries
2. In India, for the last year or so, even
as real growth has been accelerating,
nominal growth has been falling
Which of the statements above is/are
correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c.
The Survey highlights that India stands
out internationally as an investment
proposition and the Rational Investor
Ratings Index (RIRI) shows that India
compares favourably with peer countries
in the BBB investment grade and almost
matches the performance of A-grade
countries.
Graphs on page 11 of Volume 1,
Economic Survey 2015-16:
From around Q4 of Fiscal Year 2014-15,
growth rate of GDP at constant prices
has been gradually rising while the
growth rate of GDP at current prices is
declining overall (just one spike between
Q2 and Q3 of FY2015-16).
The Survey points out that even as real
growth has been accelerating, nominal
growth has been falling, an unusual
trend highlighted in the Mid-Year
Economic Analysis (MYEA), 2015-16.
 undernourished people at 194.6 million
persons (FAO, State of Food Insecurity
in the World, 2015) which warrants
immediate attention.

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.as
px?relid=136851
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.as
6. With reference to the dairy sector in
px?relid=136850
India, which of the following statements
is/are correct?
5. Which of the following statements is/are
incorrect?
1. India ranks first in milk production,
accounting for close to 20 per cent of
1. Average protein intake per capita per
world production
day rises steadily with the Monthly
2. The per capita availability of milk in
Per Capita Expenditure in rural as
India is just below the world average
well as urban India
Select the correct answer using the code
2. India has the highest number of
given below:
undernourished people
Select the correct answer using the code
a) 1 Only
given below:
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
a) 1 Only
d) Neither 1 nor 2
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
Solution: a.
d) Neither 1 nor 2
India ranks first in milk production,
Solution: b.
accounting for 18.5 per cent of world
production, achieving an annual output
As per the Report of Nutritional Intake
of 146.3 million tones during 2014-15
in India, 2011-12 (NSSO, 68th round),
as compared to 137.69 million tonnes
among the bottom 5 per cent of rural
during 2013-14 recording a growth of
population ranked by Monthly Per
6.26 per cent. Whereas, the Food and
Capita Expenditure (MPCE), 57 per cent
Agriculture Organization (FAO) has
of households had calorie intake below
reported a 3.1 per cent increase in world
2160 Kcal/consumer unit/day. The
milk production from 765 million tones
average protein intake per capita per day
in 2013 to 789 million tones in 2014.
rises steadily with MPCE level in rural
India from 43 gm for the bottom 5 per
The per capita availability of milk in
cent of population ranked by MPCE to
India has increased from 176 grams per
91 gm for the top 5 per cent, and in urban
day in 1990-91 to 322 grams per day by
India from 44 gm for the bottom 5 per
2014-15. It is more than the world
cent to about 87 gm for the top 5 per
average of 294 grams per day during
cent.
2013.
Economic Survey 2015-16 states that
India has the second highest number of
 http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.as
px?relid=136849
7. 2014-15 witnessed the highest ever
increase in generation capacity of 26.5
GW compared to the average annual
addition of around 19 GW over the past
five years. In this backdrop, consider the
following statements:
1. High tariffs and erratic supply have
led to a slow but steady decline of
industrial electricity purchases from
utilities
2. Current power plant load factors have
reached their lowest levels in recent
times
Which of the statements above is/are
incorrect?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a.
High tariffs and erratic supply have led
to a slow but steady decline in growth of
industrial electricity purchases from
utilities. So industrial electricity
purchases as a whole is not declining,
but the growth in purchases is.
The power generation capacity has
increased while the financial ability of
discoms to purchase electricity has
diminished. This has resulted in current
power plant load factors reaching their
lowest mark at around 60%.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.as
px?relid=136848
8. An Open Access (OA) policy was
introduced under the Electricity Act
2003. What is the purpose of this policy?
a) It gives buyers, with electricity load
above 1 Mega Watt (MW), the right to
procure electricity directly from
electricity markets
b) It gives buyers, with electricity load
above 5 MW, the right to procure
electricity directly from electricity
markets
c) It gives households, which
domestically generate power, the option
of storing the surplus to discoms which
can be acquired by the households in
times of need, for free
d) It gives households, which
domestically generate power, the option
of selling the surplus to discoms which
can be acquired by the households in
times of need, at a subsidized price
Solution: a.
The Survey states that steps have been
taken towards Making One India in
the power sector. The Open Access
(OA) policy introduced under the
Electricity Act 2003, which allows
consumers with electricity load above 1
MW to procure electricity directly from
the electricity market was the first step
towards discovering a single market
price for power around the country.
The power generation capacity has
increased while the financial ability of
discoms to purchase electricity has
diminished. This has resulted in current
power plant load factors reaching their
lowest mark at around 60% as The
Survey notes that the time is ripe to
allow industries with higher power
demands to absorb excess generation
capacity through Open Access to
energize Make in India
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.as
px?relid=136848
1. The right to raise a question of privilege
shall NOT be governed by which of the
following conditions?
1. Not more than one question shall be
raised at the same sitting
2. The question shall be restricted to a
specific matter of recent occurrence
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d.
The right to raise a question of privilege
shall be governed by the following
conditions, namely:
3. Consider the following statements:
not more than one question shall be
raised at the same sitting;
the question shall be restricted to a
specific matter of recent occurrence; and
the matter requires the intervention of
the House.
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national
/congress-to-move-privilege-motion-
against-smriti-irani/article8290288.ece
2. With reference to Parliamentary
Privileges, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. These privileges are available not
only to members of the Parliament
2. Parliamentary Privileges do not
extend to the President who is also an
integral part of the Parliament
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c.
The Attorney General of India is entitled
to speak and take part in the proceedings
of a house of the Parliament or any of its
Committees. The Constitution extends
Parliamentary Privileges to the AGI and
members of such committees as well.
Page 22.34 Indian Polity 4th Edition by
M Laxmikanth
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national
/congress-to-move-privilege-motion-
against-smriti-irani/article8290288.ece
Assertion (A): Coral reefs are vulnerable
to ocean acidification
Reason (R): Any rise in acidity of water
increases the susceptibility of coral
skeleton to dissolve in water
Select the correct answer:
a) A and R both are true, and R is the
correct explanation for A
b) A and R both are true, and R is the
NOT the correct explanation for A
c) A is incorrect, R is correct
d) A is correct, R is incorrect
Ans: d.
Ocean acidification arises when nearly
25 per cent of carbon dioxide released
into the atmosphere and absorbed by the
oceans reacts with water to form
carbonic acid. The carbonic acid thus
produced leads to ocean acidification by
 decreasing the pH of the ocean, reducing
the concentration of carbonate ion
(which is essential for organisms such as
corals and clams to build their shells and
skeletons) and a decreased aragonite
mineral saturation state (a measure of
the availability of dissolved carbonate
and calcium ions).
http://www.thehindu.com/sci-
tech/landmark-experiment-improves-
coral-calcification-by-
7/article8289731.ece
4. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Mosquitoes are
unharmed by and unable to transmit HIV
virus
Reason (R): T-cells or T-lymphocytes
are absent in a mosquitos digestive
system
Select the correct answer:
a) A and R both are true, and R is the
correct explanation for A
b) A and R both are true, and R is the
NOT the correct explanation for A
c) A is incorrect, R is correct
d) A is correct, R is incorrect
Ans: a.
Why does a mosquito get infected by
Zika virus while it is unharmed by HIV
and other deadly viruses?
The blood sucked by a mosquito goes
straight into its digestive system and not
in its blood stream. Unlike mosquito
borne diseases, HIV is unable to
replicate within the mosquitos gut as it
has no T cells over there and therefore is
broken down very soon. HIV must have
blood as medium to further proliferate.
The mosquitoes thus remain unharmed
by HIV. Not only this, they can not
transfer the HIV into any person as they
have no mechanism to inject back the
HIV from their guts to human body. On
the other hand, the Zika virus is a
mosquito-transmitted infection related
to dengue, yellow fever and West Nile
virus.
NCERT 12th Class Biology: HIV enters
into helper T-lymphocytes (TH),
replicates and produce progeny viruses.
The progeny viruses released in the
blood attack other helper T-
lymphocytes. This is repeated leading to
a progressive decrease in the number of
helper T-lymphocytes in the body of the
infected person. During this period, the
person suffers from bouts of fever,
diarrhoea and weight loss. Due to
decrease in the number of helper T
lymphocytes, the person starts suffering
from infections that could have been
otherwise overcome such as those due to
bacteria especially Mycobacterium,
viruses, fungi and even parasites like
Toxoplasma. The patient becomes so
immuno-deficient that he/she is unable
to protect himself/herself against these
infections.
5. Article 130 of the Indian Constitution
states that
a) The Supreme Court (SC) may, in its
discretion, grant special leave to appeal
from any judgment in any cause or
matter passed or made by any court or
tribunal
b) The SC shall sit in Delhi or in such
other place or places, as the Chief Justice
of India (CJI) may, with the approval of
the President, from time to time, appoint
c) The CJI may at any time, with the
previous consent of the president,
request a former Judge of the SC to sit
and act as a Judge of the SC
d) An appeal shall lie to the SC from
any judgment, if the High Court certifies
that the case involves a substantial
question of law as the interpretation of
this Constitution
Solution: b.
The Union Law Ministry has obtained
legal opinion that a Constitution
amendment to revisit the Supreme
Courts role would be impermissible as
it would change the courts character
under the Constitution. The opinion
appears to disfavour a suggestion by the
Law Commission in its 229th Report
(2009) that if necessary Article 130
(The Supreme Court shall sit in Delhi
or in such other place or places, as the
Chief Justice of India may, with the
approval of the President, from time to
time, appoint) may be amended to
implement its suggestion that Cassation
Benches may be set up in four regions,
while the Constitution Bench sits in
Delhi.
Article 136 is the option a.
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/edito
rial/reworking-the-supreme-courts-
role/article8292595.ece
6. Which of the following statements about
the Comptroller and Auditor General of
India is/are incorrect?
1. He is appointed by the President of
India
2. He is not eligible for further office
either under the Government of India
or of any State after he has ceased to
hold his office
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d.
Congress spokesperson Randeep
Singh Surjewala told The Hindu that
since Mr. Rai had retired as the CAG, he
could not be rewarded with a new
government job. Does it not violate
Article 148(4) of the Constitution, Mr.
Surjewala asked, adding the CAG was
not eligible to take any post-retirement
job under the government
Chapter 45 Indian Polity 4th Edition by
M Laxmikanth
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national
/rais-appointment-is-unconstitutional-
congress/article8293333.ece
Clarification regarding Question 5, Quiz
56:
This is what the State of Food Insecurity
in the World, 2015 report of the Food
and Agriculture Organisation (which has
been used by the Economic Survey) has
to say about undernourishment in India
and China:

Most countries in Southern Asia have

made progress towards the international
hunger targets, even if the pace has been
too slow for them to reach either the
WFS or the MDG targets, including, for
example, Afghanistan, India, Pakistan
and Sri Lanka. As these countries
constitute a large share of the regions
population, they account for the low
overall performance India still has the
second-highest estimated number of
undernourished people in the
world. China is still home to an
estimated 134 million people facing
hunger, and the country with the highest
number of undernourished people.

So the answer for question 5 is correct

(viz. as asked in the question, statement
2 only is incorrect). The Economic
Survey (along with the corrigendum)
one can consider the data/stats/facts
given in it to be gospel truth. Do NOT go
wrong with such data/stats/facts.