CET(PG)-2013

Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No. In Figures In Words In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.

Signature of the Candidate :
Subject : Masters in Public Health
Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO

INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.
Masters in Public Health/BZL/48973-A 2
 Masters in Public Health/A
1. In which year WHO gave definition of health ?
(A) 1956 (B) 1948
(C) 1978 (D) 1984
2. Incubation Period for Diphtheria is :
(A) 2 6 days (B) 10 14 days
(C) 15 18 days (D) 7 14 days
3. Quarantine was first applied for :
(A) HIV (B) Tuberculosis
(C) Leprosy (D) Plague
4. Natural history of disease is best studied by :
(A) Cross sectional study (B) RCT
(C) Case control study (D) Cohort study
5. Virulence of disease is indicated by :
(A) Proportional mortality rate
(B) Specific mortality rate
(C) Case fatality rate
(D) Amount of GDP spent on control of disease
6. When causative agent is present but there is no transmission of disease. It is known as :
(A) Elimination (B) Control
(C) Eradication (D) Holoendemic
7. There is no carrier of :
(A) Typhoid (B) Diphtheria
(C) Whooping cough (D) Hepatitis B
8. Maximum power of destruction of a disease is measured by :
(A) Survival rate (B) Case fatality rate
(C) Specific death rate (D) Proportional mortality rate
9. Bhopal gas tragedy is an example of :
(A) Point source epidemic (B) Continuous epidemic
(C) Propagated epidemic (D) Slow epidemic

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10. Savlon contains :
(A) Cetrimide + Chlorhexidine
(B) Cetrimide + Chlorhexidine + Butyl alcohol
(C) Cetrimide + Butyl Alcohol
(D) Cetrimide + Cetavlon
11. Epidemiological survey of 'at risk' is called :
(A) Survey (B) Screening
(C) Surveillance (D) Rehabilitation
12. Schick test does not indicate :
(A) Immunity to diphtheria (B) Susceptibility to diphtheria
(C) Hypersensitivity to diphtheria (D) Carriers of diphtheria
13. Dengue shock syndrome is characterized by the following except :
(A) Hepatomegaly (B) Pleural effusion
(C) Thrombocytopenia (D) Decreased Haemoglobin
14. Mitsuda reaction is read at :
(A) 3rd day (B) 10th day
(C) 21st day (D) 45th day
15. Word Cancer Day falls on :
(A) 2nd Dec. (B) 4th Feb.
(C) 28th Sept. (D) 25th April
16. Ideal cholesterol level should be below :
(A) 200 (B) 220
(C) 300 (D) 350
17. According to maternal health programme, the daily dose of folic acid for pregnant women
should be :
(A) 100 mcg (B) 200 mcg
(C) 300 mcg (D) 400 mcg
18. Births in India must be registered within :
(A) 14 days (B) 21 days
(C) 1 month (D) 7 days

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19. Preterm babies are born before :
(A) 37 weeks (B) 40 weeks
(C) 42 weeks (D) 47 weeks
20. Additional Calories required for lactation :
(A) 550 (B) 440
(C) 300 (D) 130
21. A person with an IQ of 45 is said to have :
(A) Mild mental retardation (B) Moderate mental retardation
(C) Severe mental retardation (D) Profound mental retardation
22. "One dietary cycle" comprises of :
(A) 24 hrs (B) 48 hrs
(C) 7 days (D) 1 month
23. WHO defines blindness if the visual acuity is less than :
(A) 3/60 (B) 18/38
(C) 9/60 (D) 6/6
24. The infective form of malarial parasite through a blood transfusion is :
(A) Trophozoite (B) Merozoite
(C) Sporozoite (D) Schizont
25. E.coli produces the following toxins :
(A) Enterotoxins (B) Endotoxins
(C) Verocytotoxins (D) Hemolysins
26. Cori's cycle transfers :
(A) Glucose from muscles to liver (B) Lactate from muscles to liver
(C) Lactate from liver to muscles (D) Pyruvate from liver to muscles
27. The most common vitamin deficiency worldwide is that of :
(A) Ascorbic acid (B) Folic acid
(C) Vitamin A (D) Vitamin D
28. A heteropolysaccharide among the following is :
(A) Inulin (B) Cellulose
(C) Heparin (D) Dextrin

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29. Non stick cooking utensils are coated with :
(A) Teflon (B) PVC
(C) Black Paint (D) Polystyrene
30. Potassium Permanganate is used for purifying drinking water, because :
(A) It is a sterilising agent (B) It dissolves the impurities of water
(C) It is a reducing agent (D) It is an oxidising agent
31. Which is naturally occurring anti-malarial drug ?
(A) Artimisinine (B) Quinacrine
(C) Mepacrine (D) Mefloquine
32. Monday fever is associated with :
(A) Bagassosis (B) Byssinosis
(C) Asbestosis (D) Silicosis
33. Haemophilia is a genetic disorder and is transmitted as :
(A) X-linked dormant (B) Y-linked dormant
(C) X-linked recessive (D) Autosomal recessive
34. The gland which can be classified as an endocrine as well as exocrine gland is :
(A) Thymus (B) Pancreas
(C) Thyroid (D) Pituitary
35. The adjustments made for bending of light falling at the cornea of eye is called :
(A) Reflection (B) Refraction
(C) Accommodation (D) Defraction
36. In which phase of mitosis chromosomes move toward the poles ?
(A) Metaphase (B) Anaphase
(C) Prophase (D) Telophase
37. During protein synthesis the polypeptide chain starts with :
(A) Glycine (B) Leucine
(C) Methionine (D) Lysine
38. Exchange of segments between non-homologous chromosomes is called
(A) Inversion (B) Translocation
(C) Deletion (D) Duplication

Masters in Public Health/BZL/48973-A 6

39. Production of testosterone is stimulated by :
(A) Inhibin (B) LH
(C) FSH (D) Progesterone
40. Which of the following cells produce antibodies ?
(A) Monocytes (B) B-lymphocytes
(C) T-lymphocytes (D) Phagocytes
41. The valve between right atrium and right ventricle is :
(A) Tricuspid valve (B) Mittral valve
(C) Bicuspid valve (D) Semilunar valve
42. Reabsorption of water in collecting tubule increases under the influence of :
(A) Rennin (B) ADH
(C) Insulin (D) Aldosterone
43. The condition in which there is a decrease in the number of white blood cells in humans is
know as :
(A) Leukocytosis (B) Leukopenia
(C) Leukemia (D) Leukohyperia
44. Cariology is the study of the :
(A) Human heart (B) Tooth decay
(C) Kidneys (D) Liver
45. Which of the following is not part of a neuron ?
(A) Synaptic cleft (B) Axon
(C) Nissl bodies (D) Dendrite
46. The blastula develops into the :
(A) Gastrula (B) Morula
(C) Endoderm (D) Zygote
47. Crypts of Lieberkuhn is present in :
(A) Stomach (B) Buccal cavity
(C) Small intestine (D) Trachea
48. The corpeus luteum secretes :
(A) HCG (B) LH
(C) FSH (D) Progesterone

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49. Trypsinogen act upon :
(A) Carbohydrate (B) Protein
(C) Fats (D) Lipids
50. Nosocomial Infections are :
(A) Night infections (B) Hospital infections
(C) Home infections (D) Community infections
51. Acid rain is formed due to contribution from the following pair of gases :
(A) Methane and ozone (B) Oxygen and nitrous oxide
(C) Methane and sulphur dioxide (D) Carbon dioxide and sulphur dioxide
52. Which of the following is a prime health risks associated with greater UV radiation through
the atmosphere due to depletion of stratospheric ozone ?
(A) Damage to digestive system (B) Increased liver cancer
(C) Neurological disorder (D) Increased skin cancer
53. The most serious environmental effect posed by hazardous wastes is :
(A) Air pollution (B) Contamination of groundwater
(C) Increased us of land for landfills (D) Destruction of habitat
54. The concentration of which gas is highest in our environment ?
(A) Oxygen (B) Hydrogen
(C) Nitrogen (D) Carbon dioxide
55. Which of the following is not a primary contributor to the greenhouse effect ?
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Chlorofluorocarbons (D) Methane gas
56. Montreal protocol is concerned with :
(A) Ozone treaty (B) Save the earth
(C) Clean air programme (D) Environment education
57. The depletion in the Ozone layer is caused by :
(A) Nitrous oxide (B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Chlorofluorocarbons (D) Methane
58. How the biological oxygen demand gets affected with the increased presence of organic
matter in water ?
(A) The oxygen demand increases (B) The oxygen demand decreases
(C) The oxygen demand remains unchanged (D) The hydrogen demand increases

Masters in Public Health/BZL/48973-A 8

59. Groundwater mining in coastal areas can result into :
(A) Increase in the salinity of groundwater
(B) Decrease in the toxicity of groundwater
(C) Decrease in the salinity of groundwater
(D) Increase in the water table
60. Which of the following is not an important characteristic of the Green Revolution ?
(A) Mechanized agriculture (B) Hybrid seeds
(C) Slash and burn (D) Monoculture
61. The three primary soil macronutrients are :
(A) Carbon, Oxygen and Water (B) Copper, Cadmium and Carbon
(C) Potassium, Phosphorus and Nitrogen (D) Boron, Zinc and Manganese
62. Pain in the ear occurs at :
(A) 80 dB (B) 120 dB
(C) 140 dB (D) 40 dB
63. Mosquitoes that breed in dirty water collection are :
(A) Anopheles (B) Culex
(C) Aedes (D) Mansonia
64. Incineration is :
(A) High temperature reduction process
(B) Low temperature reduction process
(C) High temperature oxidation process
(D) Low temperature oxidation process
65. Color coding of bag in hospitals to dispose of Human anatomical wastes such as body
parts :
(A) Yellow (B) Black
(C) Red (D) Blue
66. The social arrangement in which a group of people plans the activities which others are
obliged to participate in is called :
(A) Informal organisation (B) Formal organisation
(C) Association (D) Social group

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67. Non-conformity to social norms is called :
(A) Social change (B) Deviance
(C) Social conflict (D) Struggle
68. According to Summer 'Mores' are :
(A) Popular habits and tradition (B) Tradition
(C) Customs (D) Culture of society
69. Accommodation is essentially a process of :
(A) Adjustment (B) Cooperation
(C) Group formation (D) Competition
70. Who has classified accommodation in two types ?
(A) Park and Burgess (B) Park and Redfield
(C) Robert Redfield (D) R. E. Park
71. "Interaction without social contact" is :
(A) Integration (B) Assimilation
(C) Competition (D) Association
72. "A Scientific Theory of Culture" is the work of :
(A) Frazer (B) Radcliffe Brown
(C) Malinowski (D) Redfield
73. Established modes of thought and action is called :
(A) Culture (B) Personality
(C) Behaviour (D) Customs
74. The Primary civilisation of India is divided into :
(A) Little tradition and great tradition
(B) Big tradition and small tradition
(C) Educated tradition and uneducated tradition
(D) Rural tradition and caste tradition
75. Social organisation means :
(A) Planned activities (B) Organised activities
(C) Calculated activities (D) Defined activities

Masters in Public Health/BZL/48973-A 10

 ROUGH WORK

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 ROUGH WORK

Masters in Public Health/BZL/48973-A 12 168

 Panjab University, Chandigarh
CET(PG)-2013
ANSWERS / KEY
Subject: Master in Public Health
Booklet Series Code: A
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A D D C A C B A A

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B D D C B A D B A A

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B C A A B B B C A D

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A B C B C B C B B B

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A B B B A A C D B B

51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B D B C C A C A A C

61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C C C C A B B A A A

71 72 73 74 75
C C D A A

Note: An 'X' in the key indicates that either the question is ambiguous or it has
printing mistake. All candidates will be given credit for this question.

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