Ch 14 Brain & Cranial Nerves

1
1) The adult human brain contains almost ________ of the body's neural tissue.
A) 15 percent
B) 25 percent
C) 68 percent
D) 97 percent
E) 35 percent
D) 97 percent
2
2) Male brains are typically ________ compared to female brains.
1. A) larger

2. B) smaller

3. C) the same size

4. D) very smooth

5. E) more convoluted

A) larger
3
3) During embryonic development, which of the following secondary brain vesicles will
form the cerebrum?
A) telencephalon
B) diencephalon
C) mesencephalon
D) metencephalon
E) myelencephalon
A) telencephalon
4
4) Which of these is not one of the main divisions of the adult brain?
1. A) cerebrum

2. B) diencephalon

3. C) prosencephalon

4. D) midbrain
 5. E) pons

C) prosencephalon
5
5) Which of the following lies between the cerebrum and the brain stem?
A) medulla oblongata
B) pons
C) mesencephalon
D) diencephalon
E) cerebellum
D) diencephalon
6
6) The floor of the diencephalon is formed by the
1. A) hypothalamus.

2. B) thalamus.

3. C) brain stem.

4. D) mesencephalon.

5. E) myelencephalon

A) hypothalamus
7
7) The tracts that connect the cerebellum to the brain stem are located in the
1. A) medulla oblongata.

2. B) pons.

3. C) mesencephalon.

4. D) diencephalon.

5. E) thalamus.

B) pons
8
8) Autonomic centers that control blood pressure, heart rate, and digestion are located
in the
1. A) medulla oblongata.

2. B) pons.
 3. C) mesencephalon.

4. D) diencephalon.

5. E) cerebellum

A) medulla oblongata
9
9) The cerebellum and pons develop from the
1. A) telencephalon.

2. B) diencephalon.

3. C) mesencephalon.

4. D) metencephalon.

5. E) myelencephalon

D) metencephalon
10
10) Sensory information is processed and relayed to the cerebrum by the
1. A) medulla oblongata.

2. B) pons.

3. C) midbrain.

4. D) thalamus.

5. E) cerebellum

D) thalamus
11
11) A neural cortex is found on the surface of the
1. A) cerebrum.

2. B) pons.

3. C) thalamus.

4. D) midbrain.

A) cerebrum
12
12) As you ascend from the medulla oblongata to the cerebrum, the functions of each
successive level become
 1. A) more complex.

2. B) simpler.

3. C) better understood.

4. D) more crucial to visceral functions.

5. E) critical to reflexes

A) more complex
13
13) The ________ provides the principal link between the nervous and endocrine
systems.
1. A) cerebellum

2. B) medulla oblongata

3. C) cerebrum

4. D) pons

5. E) hypothalamus

1. E)
hypotha
lamus

14
14) The thin partition that separates the first and second ventricles is the
1. A) falx cerebri.

2. B) septum pellucidum.

3. C) septum insula.

4. D) interventricular foramina.

5. E) cerebral aqueduct

B) septum pellucidum
15
15) The most obvious feature that one notices about the cerebrum is the
1. A) smoothness of the surface of the cortex.

2. B) extensiveness of the gyri and sulci.

 3. C) small size of it compared to other brain areas.

4. D) transverse fissure running through it.

5. E) color of the cerebrum compared to the other brain areas

B) extensiveness of the gyri and sulci

16
16) The third and fourth ventricles are linked by a slender canal designated as the
1. A) central canal.

2. B) tentorium cerebelli.

3. C) cerebral aqueduct.

4. D) interventricular foramina.

5. E) pontine canal.

C) cerebral aqueduct
17
17) The ventricle associated with the pons and upper medulla is the
1. A) first.

2. B) second.

3. C) third.

4. D) fourth.

5. E) lateral.

D) fourth
18
18) Specialized ________ cells form the secretory component of the choroid plexus.
1. A) epididymal

2. B) ependymal

3. C) appended

4. D) astrocytes

5. E) blood

B) ependymal
19
19) The dural sinuses are located in the
1. A) paranasal cavity.

2. B) arachnoid.

3. C) pia mater.

4. D) dural folds.

5. E) tentorium cerebelli

D) dural folds
20
20) What structure is covered by many blood vessels and adheres tightly to the surface
of the brain?
1. A) pia mater

2. B) arachnoid

3. C) dura mater

4. D) cranial plexus

5. E) choroid plexus

A) pia mater
21
21) The brain requires a substantial blood supply. The vessels that deliver blood to the
brain are the
1. A) external carotid arteries.

2. B) facial arteries.

3. C) jugular veins.

4. D) internal carotid and vertebral arteries.

5. E) dural sinuses

D) internal carotid and vertebral arteries

22
22) Which of the following is a property of the blood-brain barrier?
1. A) The capillary endothelial cells are interconnected by tight junctions.

2. B) It is generally permeable to lipid-soluble compounds.

 3. C) Astrocytes surround the CNS capillaries.

4. D) It is absent in portions of the hypothalamus.

5. E) All of the answers are correct

E) All of the answers are correct

23
23) The dural fold that projects into the longitudinal fissure between cerebral
hemispheres is called the
1. A) dural sinus.

2. B) falx cerebri.

3. C) tentorium cerebelli.

4. D) falx cerebelli.

5. E) choroid plexus

B) falx cerebri
24
24) Cerebrospinal fluid
1. A) is secreted by ependymal cells.

2. B) is formed by a passive process.

3. C) is normally produced twice as fast as it is removed.

4. D) has almost the same composition as blood plasma.

5. E) contains blood cells and blood plasma

A) is secreted by ependymal cells

25
25) Which statement is true regarding the meninges and cerebrospinal fluid of the
spinal cord and brain?
1. A) Spinal fluid is secreted both in the brain and in the spinal cord areas.

2. B) There is an epidural space associated with the spinal meninges, but not
with the cranial meninges.

3. C) The meninges around the brain are not the same as those around the
spinal cord.
 4. D) There is a subarachnoid space within the spinal meninges but not the
cranial meninges.

5. E) The choroid plexuses are located only within the brain, not within the
spinal cord.

E) The choroid plexuses are located only within the brain, not within the spinal cord
26
26) The choroid plexus is composed of
1. A) lymphatic vessels.

2. B) blood vessels.

3. C) nerve fibers.

4. D) ganglia.

5. E) subarachnoid granulations

B) blood vessels
27
27) Cerebrospinal fluid enters the blood circulation at the
1. A) jugular veins.

2. B) dural drain.

3. C) arachnoid granulations.

4. D) tentorium cerebelli.

5. E) frontal sinus

C) arachnoid granulations
28
28) Which of the following help to protect the brain?
1. A) the blood-brain barrier

2. B) the bones of the skull

3. C) the cranial meninges

4. D) the CSF

5. E) All of the answers are correct

 1. E) All of
the
answer
s are
correct

29
29) What contains a spider web-like network of cells and fibers through which
cerebrospinal fluid flows?
1. A) subdural space

2. B) dural sinus

3. C) falx cerebri

4. D) subarachnoid space

5. E) pia mater

D) subarachnoid space
30
30) Ependymal cells work to
1. A) surround the capillaries of the choroid plexus.

2. B) secrete CSF into the ventricles.

3. C) remove waste products from CSF.

4. D) adjust the composition of CSF.

5. E) All of the answers are correct

E) All of the answers are correct

31
31) A brain hemorrhage is life-threatening because
1. A) neurological changes will occur.

2. B) some areas of the brain will not be receiving blood.

3. C) the person can lose consciousness.

4. D) the pressure increase within the space can distort and potentially
damage brain tissue.

5. E) All of these problems are related to brain hemorrhages

E) All of these problems are related to brain hemorrhages
32
32) Which of the following is not a function of cerebrospinal fluid?
1. A) provides cushioning for delicate neural tissues

2. B) provides buoyant support for the brain

3. C) acts as a transport medium for nutrients

4. D) provides ATP for impulse transmission

5. E) acts as a transport medium for waste products

D) provides ATP for impulse transmission

33
33) Which statement is true regarding cerebrospinal fluid?
1. A) CSF is identical in composition to blood plasma.

2. B) CSF is made during fetal development and does not change through the
lifetime of the person.

3. C) There is about a liter of CSF within the brain and spinal cord.

4. D) If CSF is not properly resorbed, the result would be hydrocephalus.

5. E) CSF moves back into the blood supply by the process of osmosis

D) If CSF is not properly resorbed, the result would be hydrocephalus.

34
34) The cells that cover the outer surfaces of CNS capillary endothelial cells are the
1. A) blastocytes.

2. B) astrocytes.

3. C) monocytes.

4. D) leukocytes.

5. E) lymphocytes.

B) astrocytes.
35
35) The layer of the meninges that closely follows every gyrus and sulcus is the
1. A) pia mater.

2. B) dura mater.
 3. C) arachnoid membrane.

4. D) neural cortex.

5. E) subarachnoid mater

A) pia mater
36
36) Hydrocephalus, or "water on the brain," may result from
1. A) deficient production of cerebrospinal fluid.

2. B) excessive production of cerebrospinal fluid.

3. C) blockage of circulation of CSF.

4. D) excessive water intake.

5. E) blockage of CSF circulation or excessive CSF production.

E) blockage of CSF circulation or excessive CSF production.

37
46) The control of heart rate and blood pressure is based in the
1. A) cerebrum.

2. B) cerebellum.

3. C) diencephalon.

4. D) medulla oblongata.

5. E) heart.

D) medulla oblongata
38
47) The medulla oblongata regulates
1. A) somatic motor contractions.

2. B) food intake.

3. C) auditory reflexes.

4. D) vision and hearing

5. E) blood pressure and respiration

E) blood pressure and respiration

39
48) The respiratory rhythmicity center is located in the
1. A) pons.

2. B) cerebrum.

3. C) medulla oblongata.

4. D) cerebellum.

5. E) midbrain.

C) medulla oblongata
40
49) Damage to the medulla oblongata can result in death because
1. A) electrical activity originates within the medulla.

2. B) the vital centers for blood pressure, heart rate, and breathing are located
there.

3. C) the blood might not be able to circulated properly around the brain.

4. D) control of body temperature and thermoregulation are its functions.

5. E) digestive processes are controlled by the medulla.

B) the vital centers for blood pressure, heart rate, and breathing are located there.
41
50) Jane, a 79-year-old woman, has been diagnosed with a tumor in the brain. She has
lost some sensory and motor functions associated with the face, like control of facial
muscles for emotion and various sensory functions like taste. In addition, she has some
hearing loss and balance problems. The location of the tumor is likely to be the
1. A) cerebellum.

2. B) cerebrum.

3. C) medulla.

4. D) thalamus.

5. E) pons.

E) pons
42
51) If the pons was damaged, which of the following functions would be affected?
1. A) breathing
 2. B) control of blood pressure

3. C) coordination

4. D) sleep patterns

5. E) judgment

A) breathing
43
52) Overseeing the postural muscles of the body and making rapid adjustments to
maintain balance and equilibrium are functions of the
1. A) cerebrum.

2. B) mesencephalon.

3. C) cerebellum.

4. D) pons.

5. E) medulla oblongata.

C) cerebellum
44
53) The cerebellar hemispheres are separated by a band of cortex called the
1. A) flocculonodular lobe.

2. B) arbor vitae.

3. C) folia.

4. D) vermis.

5. E) pyramid.

D) vermis
45
54) The white matter of the cerebellum forms the
1. A) flocculonodular lobe.

2. B) arbor vitae.

3. C) folia.

4. D) vermis.
 5. E) pyramid.

B) arbor vitae
46
55) The presence of many large, highly-branched Purkinje cells in a sample of brain
tissue indicates that it came from the
1. A) pons.

2. B) medulla.

3. C) cerebral cortex.

4. D) cerebellar cortex.

5. E) arbor vitae.

D) cerebellar cortex.
47
56) The cerebellum can be permanently damaged by stroke or temporarily affected by
drugs or alcohol. The resulting disturbance in motor control is known as
1. A) ataxia.

2. B) aphasia.

3. C) dysphagia.

4. D) Parkinson's.

5. E) epilepsy.

A) ataxia
48
57) Stimulation of the reticular activating system results in
1. A) increased consciousness.

2. B) sleep.

3. C) coma.

4. D) decreased cerebral function.

5. E) coughing.

A) increased consciousness
49
58) The medulla oblongata relays auditory information to the
1. A) substantia nigra.
 2. B) red nuclei.

3. C) cerebral peduncles.

4. D) superior colliculi.

5. E) inferior colliculi

E) inferior colliculi
50
59) The structure of the brain that carries ascending sensory information to the
thalamus is the
1. A) midbrain.

2. B) cerebral aqueduct.

3. C) 4th ventricle.

4. D) basal ganglion.

5. E) cerebellum

A) midbrain
51
60) Nerve fiber bundles on the ventrolateral surface of the mesencephalon are the
1. A) tegmenta.

2. B) corpora quadrigemina.

3. C) cerebral peduncles.

4. D) superior colliculi.

5. E) inferior colliculi

C) cerebral peduncles
52
61) The tectum of the mesencephalon contains the
1. A) substantia nigra.

2. B) red nuclei.

3. C) superior and inferior colliculi.

4. D) cerebral peduncles.
 5. E) basal ganglia.

C) superior and inferior colliculi.

53
62) The corpora quadrigemina is composed of the
1. A) four cerebral lobes.

2. B) superior and inferior colliculi.

3. C) first four cranial nerves.

4. D) the 4th cranial nerve.

5. E) two superior cerebellar peduncles and the two inferior cerebellar

peduncles.

B) superior and inferior colliculi.

54
63) The reflex movement of the head toward a loud noise is directed by the
mesencephalon. Which nuclei accomplish this?
1. A) substantia nigra

2. B) red nuclei

3. C) tectum

4. D) superior colliculi

5. E) inferior colliculi

E) inferior colliculi
55
64) Damage to the corpora quadrigemina would interfere with
1. A) control of autonomic function.

2. B) regulation of body temperature.

3. C) visual and auditory reflex movements of the head and neck.

4. D) conscious control of skeletal muscles.

5. E) control of breathing.

C) visual and auditory reflex movements of the head and neck.

56
65) Examination of a tissue sample from the central nervous system reveals many
darkly pigmented cells. This tissue probably came from the
 1. A) nucleus gracilis.

2. B) nucleus cuneatus.

3. C) motor cortex.

4. D) substantia nigra.

5. E) red nucleus.

D) substantia nigra
57
66) The pineal gland is part of the
1. A) hypothalamus.

2. B) diencephalon.

3. C) midbrain.

4. D) mesencephalon.

5. E) 3rd ventricle

B) diencephalon
58
67) Which of the following is a property of the mamillary bodies?
1. A) controls reflex eating movements

2. B) processes olfactory information

3. C) located in posterior hypothalamus

4. D) shaped like little breasts

5. E) All of the answers are correct

E) All of the answers are correct

59
68) The hypothalamus is a key player in the endocrine system because
1. A) it controls the pituitary gland directly underneath it.

2. B) it communicates with all other endocrine organs of the body.

3. C) it produces enzymes that are involved in the production of hormones.

4. D) its autonomic controls also run all of the endocrine organs.

 5. E) None of the answers is correct.

A) it controls the pituitary gland directly underneath it.

60
69) Which of the following is a function of the hypothalamus?
1. A) produces ADH

2. B) controls autonomic centers

3. C) regulates body temperature

4. D) secretes oxytocin

5. E) All of the answers are correct

E) All of the answers are correct

61
70) Which of the following is/are true of the epithalamus?
1. A) contains the mammillary body

2. B) forms the roof of the diencephalon

3. C) processes sensory information and relays it to the cerebrum

4. D) forms the cerebrum

5. E) creates the lateral ventricles

B) forms the roof of the diencephalon

62
71) The anterior nuclei of the thalamus
1. A) are part of the limbic system.

2. B) secrete pituitary hormones.

3. C) secrete melatonin.

4. D) receive axon collaterals from the optic nerve.

5. E) secrete pituitary hormones and melatonin.

A) are part of the limbic system

63
72) The medial nuclei of the thalamus
1. A) are part of the limbic system.

2. B) connect emotional centers in the hypothalamus with the frontal lobe.

 3. C) produce the hormone oxytocin.

4. D) process visual information.

5. E) process olfactory information

B) connect emotional centers in the hypothalamus with the frontal lobe

64
73) The posterior nuclei of the thalamus includes the
1. A) basal nuclei.

2. B) lateral and medial geniculate nuclei.

3. C) mamillary body.

4. D) interthalamic adhesion.

5. E) All of the answers are correct

B) lateral and medial geniculate nuclei

65
74) The optic tracts carry visual information from the retina to the
1. A) pulvinar.

2. B) lateral geniculates.

3. C) medial geniculates.

4. D) supraoptic nuclei.

5. E) paraventricular nuclei

B) lateral geniculates
66
75) Which of the following is a function of the thalamus?
1. A) secrete cerebrospinal fluid

2. B) secrete melatonin

3. C) process sensory information and relay it to the cerebrum

4. D) store memories

5. E) regulate food intake

C) process sensory information and relay it to the cerebrum

67
76) The thalamus is often called the "air traffic controller" of the brain because it
1. A) controls the autonomic functions of the body, such as the fight-or-flight
response.

2. B) determines what can enter the brain from the blood.

3. C) controls reflexes.

4. D) determines the routing of incoming sensory information to the correct

cerebral cortex area.

5. E) passes motor information on to the cerebellum

D) determines the routing of incoming sensory information to the correct cerebral cortex
area.
68
77) The mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus
1. A) regulate lactation.

2. B) secrete oxytocin.

3. C) control feeding reflexes.

4. D) control heart rate and blood pressure.

5. E) secrete antidiuretic hormone

C) control feeding reflexes

69
78) The ________ filters and relays sensory information to cerebral cortex.
1. A) cerebrum

2. B) thalamus

3. C) pons

4. D) medulla oblongata

5. E) cerebellum

B) thalamus
70
79) Damage to the preoptic area of the hypothalamus leads to which problem?
1. A) an intense thirst

2. B) an uncontrolled sex drive

 3. C) reduced ability to regulate body temperature

4. D) an insatiable appetite

5. E) production of a large volume of urine

C) reduced ability to regulate body temperature

71
80) Joe begins to experience mood swings and disturbed thirst and hunger. Imaging
studies indicate that a brain tumor is the likely cause of these disorders. In what part of
the brain is the tumor most likely located?
1. A) prefrontal cortex

2. B) postcentral gyrus

3. C) basal nuclei

4. D) hypothalamus

5. E) reticular formation

D) hypothalamus
72
81) Which of the following is not a component of the limbic system?
1. A) amygdaloid body

2. B) cingulate gyrus

3. C) globus pallidus

4. D) hippocampus

5. E) fornix

C) globus pallidus
73
82) Which of the following is not a property of the limbic system?
1. A) contains cerebral and diencephalic components

2. B) functions in maintaining homeostasis in cold weather

3. C) located between the border of the cerebrum and diencephalon

4. D) links conscious functions of the cerebral cortex with unconscious

functions of the brain stem
 5. E) functions in emotions, learning, and memory

B) functions in maintaining homeostasis in cold weather

74
83) The ________ is important in storage and recall of new long-term memories.
1. A) amygdaloid body

2. B) cingulate gyrus

3. C) mamillary bodies

4. D) hippocampus

5. E) fornix

D) hippocampus
75
84) A tract of white matter that connects the hippocampus with the hypothalamus is the
1. A) amygdaloid body.

2. B) cingulate gyrus.

3. C) mamillary bodies.

4. D) hippocampus.

5. E) fornix.

E) fornix.
76
85) Terry suffers from dissociation of memories from their emotional content as the
result of an automobile accident. What system of the brain is probably damaged?
1. A) the prefrontal lobe

2. B) the general interpretive area

3. C) the limbic system

4. D) the thalamus

5. E) the putamen

C) the limbic system

77
86) Damage to the substantia nigra causes a decrease in the neurotransmitter
dopamine. This causes a gradual, generalized increase in muscle tone, which is the
main symptom of
 1. A) Parkinson's disease.

2. B) rabies.

3. C) Alzheimer's disease.

4. D) myasthenia gravis.

5. E) tetanus.

A) Parkinson's disease.
78
87) The two cerebral hemispheres are separated by the
1. A) longitudinal fissure.

2. B) central sulcus.

3. C) transverse fissure.

4. D) parieto-occipital sulcus.

5. E) postcentral sulcus

A) longitudinal fissure
79
88) Divisions of the cerebral hemispheres that are named after the overlying skull bones
are
1. A) fissures.

2. B) sinuses.

3. C) lobes.

4. D) sulci.

5. E) gyri.

C) lobes
80
89) The cerebral area posterior to the central sulcus is the
1. A) parietal lobe.

2. B) temporal lobe.

3. C) frontal lobe.
 4. D) occipital lobe.

5. E) insula.

A) parietal lobe
81
90) The region(s) of the cerebral cortex superior to the lateral sulcus is/are the
1. A) parietal lobe.

2. B) temporal lobe.

3. C) frontal lobe.

4. D) occipital lobe.

5. E) parietal and frontal lobes

E) parietal and frontal lobes

82
91) The region of the cerebral cortex that is medial and deep to the temporal lobe is the
1. A) parietal lobe.

2. B) temporal lobe.

3. C) frontal lobe.

4. D) occipital lobe.

5. E) insula.

E) insula
83
92) The primary motor cortex is the surface of the
1. A) insula.

2. B) precentral gyrus.

3. C) postcentral gyrus.

4. D) arcuate gyrus.

5. E) corpus callosum.

B) precentral gyrus
84
93) The sense of taste projects to the gustatory cortex located in the ________ and
________.
 1. A) insula; parietal lobe

2. B) frontal lobe; temporal lobe

3. C) insula; frontal lobe

4. D) precentral gyrus; prefrontal cortex.

5. E) corpus callosum; fornix

C) insula; frontal lobe

85
94) The corpus callosum is composed of
1. A) arcuate fibers.

2. B) longitudinal fasciculi.

3. C) association fibers.

4. D) commissural fibers.

5. E) projection fibers.

D) commissural fibers
86
95) The surface of the postcentral gyrus contains the ________ cortex.
1. A) primary sensory

2. B) primary motor

3. C) visual

4. D) olfactory

5. E) auditory

A) primary sensory
87
96) Commissural fibers
1. A) carry pain information to the correct brain structure.

2. B) are divided by the longitudinal fissure.

3. C) link the cerebral cortex to the diencephalon.

4. D) interconnect areas of cerebral cortex.

 5. E) cross from one cerebral hemisphere to the other hemisphere

D) interconnect areas of cerebral cortex

88
97) The visual cortex is located in the
1. A) frontal lobe.

2. B) parietal lobe.

3. C) temporal lobe.

4. D) occipital lobe.

5. E) insula.

D) occipital lobe
89
98) The auditory cortex is located in the
1. A) frontal lobe.

2. B) parietal lobe.

3. C) temporal lobe.

4. D) occipital lobe.

5. E) insula.

C) temporal lobe
90
99) Cortical regions that interpret sensory information or coordinate motor responses
are called ________ areas.
1. A) commissural

2. B) sensory

3. C) association

4. D) somesthetic

5. E) processing

C) association
91
100) The region of the brain responsible for predicting the consequence of events or
actions is the
1. A) prefrontal cerebral cortex.
 2. B) occipital association cortex.

3. C) reticular formation.

4. D) temporal lobe.

5. E) cerebral ganglia

A) prefrontal cerebral cortex

92
101) Parkinson's disease is the result of
1. A) inadequate production of GABA by neurons in the basal nuclei.

2. B) decreased levels of acetylcholine from neurons in the substantia nigra.

3. C) inadequate production of dopamine by substantia nigra neurons.

4. D) hyperactivity of the limbic system.

5. E) weak response of the red nuclei of the mesencephalon

C) inadequate production of dopamine by substantia nigra neurons

93
102) After suffering a stroke, Mary finds that she cannot move her right arm. This would
suggest that the stroke damage is in the area of the ________ lobe.
1. A) right frontal

2. B) left frontal

3. C) right temporal

4. D) left temporal

5. E) occipital

B) left frontal
94
103) After suffering a blow to the back of the head, Phil loses his vision. The blow
probably caused damage to the
1. A) prefrontal cortex.

2. B) postcentral gyrus.

3. C) cerebral nuclei.

4. D) limbic system.
 5. E) occipital lobe.

E) occipital lobe
95
104) The general interpretive area
1. A) is the speech center of the brain.

2. B) is responsible for predicting future consequences.

3. C) is the site of long-term memory storage.

4. D) allows us to interpret what is read or heard.

5. E) may be damaged by even a small stroke

D) allows us to interpret what is read or heard

96
105) Difficulties in estimating temporal relationships between events may stem from
damage to
1. A) the prefrontal cortex.

2. B) the general interpretive area.

3. C) Broca's area.

4. D) Wernicke's area.

5. E) the temporal lobe.

A) the prefrontal cortex

97
106) Within each hemisphere, deep to the floor of the lateral ventricle, you will find the
1. A) anterior commissures.

2. B) basal nuclei.

3. C) motor association areas.

4. D) visual cortex.

5. E) auditory cortex.

B) basal nuclei
98
107) Integrative centers of the brain
1. A) receive information from many sensory association areas.
 2. B) can impact higher intellectual functions.

3. C) direct motor activities.

4. D) include the Wernicke's area.

5. E) All of the answers are correct

E) All of the answers are correct

99
108) Which cerebral area is involved with judgment and predictive abilities?
1. A) Broca's area

2. B) Brodmann area

3. C) prefrontal cortex

4. D) Wernicke's area

5. E) general interpretive area

C) prefrontal cortex
100
109) The highest levels of information processing occur in the
1. A) cerebrum.

2. B) diencephalon.

3. C) cerebellum.

4. D) medulla oblongata.

5. E) corpus callosum.

A) cerebrum
101
110) If the corpus callosum is surgically cut,
1. A) the two cerebral hemispheres operate independently.

2. B) symptoms of the "disconnection syndrome" appear.

3. C) objects touched by the left hand can be recognized but not verbally
identified.

4. D) conscious decisions are made without regard to sensations from the left
side.
 5. E) All of the answers are correct

E) All of the answers are correct

102
111) A person with a damaged visual association area may be
1. A) unable to see rows of letters.

2. B) declared legally blind.

3. C) unable to recognize letters but able to identify whole words and their
meanings.

4. D) able to see letters but unable to associate them into words.

5. E) unable to understand spoken words.

D) able to see letters but unable to associate them into words

103
112) Jane suffers from chronic seizures and in order to control the problem undergoes
surgery in which the fibers of the corpus callosum are cut. As a result of this surgery she
would likely be unable to
1. A) speak.

2. B) move her left arm.

3. C) verbally identify an object placed in her left hand.

4. D) recognize written words.

5. E) touch her nose with her eyes closed.

C) verbally identify an object placed in her left hand

104
113) ________ centers receive information from many association areas and direct
extremely complex motor activities such as speech.
1. A) Frontal

2. B) Integrative

3. C) Communication

4. D) Terminal

5. E) Vocal

B) Integrative
105
114) Integrative centers concerned with the performance of complex processes are
restricted to either the left or the right hemisphere. These complex processes include
1. A) speech.

2. B) writing.

3. C) mathematical computation.

4. D) understanding spatial relationships.

5. E) All of the answers are correct.

E) All of the answers are correct.

106
115) What symptoms would you expect to see in a patient with damage to the basal
nuclei?
1. A) inability to process thoughts in a rational way

2. B) visual problems

3. C) facial tics

4. D) problems in rhythmic movements related to skeletal muscles

5. E) anger problems

D) problems in rhythmic movements related to skeletal muscles

107
116) Bob is struck on the left side of the head and is knocked unconscious. When he
recovers consciousness, he can hear individual words but cannot understand the
meaning of phrases or sentences. This implies damage to his
1. A) vestibulocochlear nerve.

2. B) general interpretive area.

3. C) speech center.

4. D) prefrontal lobe.

5. E) temporal lobe.

B) general interpretive area.

108
117) Damage to the premotor cortex of the frontal lobe would interfere with the ability to
1. A) understand written words.
 2. B) understand spoken words.

3. C) understand visual images.

4. D) play the piano.

5. E) sense the texture of velvet

D) play the piano

109
118) Excitation of neurons in the basal nuclei would lead to
1. A) increased muscle tone.

2. B) loss of consciousness.

3. C) inability to sense pain.

4. D) sexual arousal.

5. E) involuntary speech production

A) increased muscle tone

110
119) ________ is a temporary cerebral disorder accompanied by abnormal movements,
unusual sensations, and/or inappropriate behavior.
1. A) Dyslexia

2. B) Apraxia

3. C) Aphasia

4. D) Parkinson's disease

5. E) A seizure

E) A seizure
111
120) A(n) ________ is a printed record of the brain's electrical activity over a period of
time.
1. A) electrocardiogram

2. B) electroencephalogram

3. C) x-ray

4. D) MRI
 5. E) CT scan

B) electroencephalogram
112
121) ________ is a disorder affecting the ability to speak or read.
1. A) Aphasia

2. B) Ataxia

3. C) Apraxia

4. D) Bell's palsy

5. E) Dysphagia

A) Aphasia
113
122) The basal nuclei
1. A) plan and coordinate voluntary muscle activity.

2. B) provide the general pattern and rhythm for movements such as walking.

3. C) coordinate sensory information.

4. D) control the secretions of the pituitary gland.

5. E) control respiration and blood pressure.

B) provide the general pattern and rhythm for movements such as walking.
114
123) Higher-order functions
1. A) can be adjusted over time based on experience.

2. B) involve complex interactions among areas of the cortex.

3. C) combine both conscious and unconscious information processing.

4. D) occur in the cerebrum.

5. E) All of the answers are correct.

E) All of the answers are correct

115
124) The only sensation that is received directly by the cerebrum is
1. A) olfaction.

2. B) gustation.
 3. C) hearing.

4. D) vision.

5. E) dizziness.

A) olfaction
116
125) Gustatory information reaches the brain by way of
1. A) cranial nerve I.

2. B) cranial nerve II.

3. C) cranial nerve X.

4. D) cranial nerve IV.

5. E) cranial nerve IX

E) cranial nerve IX
117
126) ________ is a condition resulting from an inflammation of a facial nerve.
1. A) Cerebral palsy

2. B) Bell's palsy

3. C) Addison's disease

4. D) Gout

5. E) Hydrocephalus

B) Bell's palsy
118
127) There are ________ pairs of cranial nerves.
1. A) 2

2. B) 6

3. C) 12

4. D) 22

5. E) 31

C) 12
119
128) Droopy eyelids and double vision can result from injury to the ________ nerve.
1. A) optic

2. B) oculomotor

3. C) trochlear

4. D) olfactory

5. E) abducens

B) oculomotor
120
129) The cranial nerves that innervate the eye muscles are
1. A) I, II, and III.

2. B) III, IV, and VI.

3. C) II, III, and IV.

4. D) II and VI.

5. E) III and V.

B) III, IV, and VI

121
130) The cranial nerve that has three major branches is the
1. A) abducens.

2. B) facial.

3. C) vagus.

4. D) trigeminal.

5. E) glossopharyngeal

D) trigeminal
122
131) Sensory innervation of the lower teeth and gums is by the ________ nerve.
1. A) ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal

2. B) maxillary branch of the trigeminal

3. C) mandibular branch of the trigeminal

 4. D) glossopharyngeal

5. E) hypoglossal

C) mandibular branch of the trigeminal

123
132) Difficulty in swallowing may be a sign of damage to which cranial nerve(s)?
1. A) vagus

2. B) facial

3. C) glossopharyngeal

4. D) hypoglossal

5. E) glossopharyngeal and vagus

E) glossopharyngeal and vagus

124
133) A reflex that is used to assess the sensory function of the trigeminal nerve is the
________ reflex.
1. A) corneal

2. B) tympanic

3. C) auditory

4. D) vestibulo-ocular

5. E) consensual

A) corneal
125
134) Which of the cranial nerves is named for the fact that it "wanders," that is,
innervates structures throughout the thorax and abdomen?
1. A) VIII

2. B) IX

3. C) X

4. D) XI

5. E) XII

C) X
126
135) Which sensation(s) does the vestibulocochlear nerve carry?
1. A) hearing

2. B) equilibrium

3. C) atmospheric pressure

4. D) hearing and equilibrium

5. E) hearing, equilibrium, and taste

1. D)
hearing
and
equilibri
um

127
136) Jean needs to have a tooth in her mandible filled. Her dentist injects a local
anesthetic to block pain afferents in one of her cranial nerves. What cranial nerve does
the dentist numb?
1. A) trochlear

2. B) trigeminal

3. C) facial

4. D) glossopharyngeal

5. E) hypoglossal

B) trigeminal
128
137) Tic douloureux is
1. A) a disorder of the maxillary and mandibular branches of nerve V.

2. B) characterized by almost totally debilitating pain.

3. C) triggered by contact with the lip, tongue, or gums.

4. D) also called trigeminal neuralgia.

5. E) All of the answers are correct.

E) All of the answers are correct

129
138) You suspect your friend has damage to cranial nerve I when he is unable to
A) smell his food
130
139) Olfactory receptors send axons through the cribriform plate and synapse on
neurons in the
1. A) medulla.

2. B) thalamus.

3. C) cerebral cortex.

4. D) olfactory bulb.

5. E) olfactory tract.

D) olfactory bulb
131
140) At the optic chiasm,
1. A) axons from the medial halves of each retina cross.

2. B) axons from the lateral halves of each retina cross.

3. C) axons from the retinae synapse on those from the other half.

4. D) the olfactory nerve crosses to the opposite side of the brain.

5. E) the optic nerve enters the cerebellum.

A) axons from the medial halves of each retina cross

132
141) A patient develops a tumor of a cranial nerve that leads to difficulty in speaking
from a loss of tongue movement. Which cranial nerve is affected?
1. A) glossopharyngeal

2. B) hypoglossal

3. C) vagus

4. D) spinal accessory

5. E) trigeminal

B) hypoglossal
133
142) Which of the following symptoms would you associate with damage to the spinal
accessory nerve?
1. A) loss of the sense of taste
 2. B) tooth pain

3. C) weakness of the sternocleidomastoid muscle

4. D) lack of facial expression

5. E) dry mouth from lack of saliva

C) weakness of the sternocleidomastoid muscle

134
143) The patient has the following symptoms: change in vocal tone, problems
swallowing, inability to control urination, erratic heart rate, and gastric problems. You
would identify the problem as being related to the
1. A) vagus nerve.

2. B) pineal gland.

3. C) abducens nerve.

4. D) trigeminal nerve.

5. E) amygdala.

1. A)
vagus
nerve.

135
1) The medulla oblongata, pons, and midbrain comprise the
1. A) basal ganglia.

2. B) brain stem.

3. C) mesencephalon.

4. D) ventricles.

5. E) cortical lobes of the cerebrum.

B) brain stem
136
2) The folds of the cerebrum are called
1. A) sulci.

2. B) arachnoid granulations.
 3. C) cortical folds.

4. D) gyri.

5. E) dural sinuses.

D) gyri.
137
3) The wall between the lateral ventricles is called the
1. A) cerebral aqueduct.

2. B) fornix.

3. C) falx cerebri.

4. D) corpus callosum.

5. E) septum pellucidum

E) septum pellucidum
138
4) The passageway between the lateral ventricles and the third ventricle is the
1. A) foramen of Magendi.

2. B) interventricular foramen.

3. C) cerebral aqueduct.

4. D) lateral foramen.

5. E) central canal.

B) interventricular foramen
139
5) To return CSF to circulation, arachnoid granulations extend into the
1. A) subarachnoid space.

2. B) superior sagittal sinus.

3. C) carotid canal.

4. D) inferior sagittal sinus.

5. E) jugular foramen.

B) superior sagittal sinus

140
6) In each ventricle is a blood vessel network called the ________ that produces
cerebrospinal fluid.
1. A) choroid plexus

2. B) jugular vein

3. C) carotid artery

4. D) vertebral artery

5. E) pia mater

A) choroid plexus
141
7) Chambers within the brain that contain cerebrospinal fluid are called
1. A) plexuses.

2. B) ganglia.

3. C) sinuses.

4. D) aqueducts.

5. E) ventricles.

E) ventricles
142
8) Two large venous sinuses, the sagittal sinuses, lie within a dural fold called the
1. A) cerebral aqueduct.

2. B) basal ganglia.

3. C) falx cerebri.

4. D) arachnoid mater.

5. E) septum pellucidum.

C) falx cerebri
143
9) Cardiovascular centers located in the ________ adjust the heart rate, the strength of
cardiac contractions, and the flow of blood through the peripheral tissues.
1. A) pons

2. B) medulla oblongata
 3. C) prefrontal cortex

4. D) mesencephalon

5. E) basal ganglia

B) medulla oblongata
144
10) The term used to describe the crossing over of a tract to the side of the nervous
system opposite to where the axons originated is
1. A) decussation.

2. B) contralateral.

3. C) ascending crossovers.

4. D) pyramidal tracts.

5. E) consensual tracts.

A) decussation
145
11) The folds of the surface of the cerebrum
1. A) increase the surface area of the cerebrum.

2. B) form a network of blood vessels over the brain.

3. C) consist of axons and dendrites of neurons.

4. D) are bathed in spinal fluid.

5. E) are called sulci.

A) increase the surface area of the cerebrum

146
12) The white matter of the cerebellum forms a branching array called the
1. A) basal ganglia.

2. B) corpus callosum.

3. C) commissural fibers.

4. D) cortical folds.

5. E) arbor vitae.
E) arbor vitae
147
13) The ________ are the four masses on the posterior of the midbrain.
1. A) quadriceps

2. B) tetrahygena

3. C) mesencephalon

4. D) choroid plexuses

5. E) corpora quadrigemina

E) corpora quadrigemina
148
14) The mesencephalon contains the headquarters of the ________, a specialized
component of the reticular formation that controls alertness and attention.
1. A) falx cerebri

2. B) Wernicke's area

3. C) general association area

4. D) reticular activating system

5. E) basal ganglia

D) reticular activating system

149
15) The ________ connects the two sides of the cerebrum.
1. A) decussation

2. B) mesencephalon

3. C) arbor vitae

4. D) ganglion

5. E) commissural fibers

E) commissural fibers
150
16) Emotions and behavioral drives are associated with the
1. A) geniculate nucleus.

2. B) thalamus.
 3. C) fornix.

4. D) general association area.

5. E) hypothalamus.

E) hypothalamus
151
17) Stimulation of the ________ within the hypothalamus produces the sensation of
hunger.
1. A) satiety center

2. B) feeding center

3. C) thirst center

4. D) limbic system

5. E) hormone center

B) feeding center
152
18) The ________, a narrow stalk, connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland.
1. A) hippocampus

2. B) infundibulum

3. C) supraoptic nucleus

4. D) basal ganglia

5. E) amygdala

B) infundibulum
153
19) In most cases, the general interpretive center and the speech center are located in
1. A) the left cerebral hemisphere.

2. B) the right cerebral hemisphere.

3. C) neither of the cerebral hemispheres.

4. D) both of the cerebral hemispheres.

A) the left cerebral hemisphere

154
20) The dominant cerebral hemisphere of the brain
 1. A) is for emotional status.

2. B) is for interpretation of art and music.

3. C) performs analytical tasks.

4. D) controls vital functions such as blood pressure and heart rate.

5. E) controls emotions.

C) performs analytical tasks

155
21) A person who has difficulty comprehending and using written language suffers from
the disorder known as
1. A) Parkinsonism.

2. B) dyslexia.

3. C) a stroke.

4. D) Alzheimer's disease.

5. E) epilepsy

<p>B) dyslexia.</p> <br>

156
22) Cortical regions that interpret sensory information or coordinate motor responses
are called ________ areas.
1. A) association

2. B) motor

3. C) cranial

4. D) sensory

5. E) intercalated

A) association
157
23) The white structure that connects the cerebral hemispheres is the
1. A) geniculate nucleus.

2. B) basal ganglia.

3. C) amygdala.
 4. D) arbor vitae.

5. E) corpus callosum

E) corpus callosum
158
24) The optic nerve crosses at the
1. A) decussation.

2. B) commissural fibers.

3. C) pons.

4. D) optic chiasm.

5. E) cerebral aqueduct

D) optic chiasm