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PAPER-I
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UPSC has introduced the sectional cutoffs of each paper and screening cut off in
three objective papers (out of 600 marks). The conventional answer sheets of only
those students will be evaluated who will qualify the screening cut offs.
In my opinion the General Ability Paper was easier than last year but Civil
Engineering objective Paper-I and objective Paper-II both are little tougher/
lengthier. Hence the cut off may be less than last year. The objective papers of ME
and EE branches are average but E&T papers are easier than last year.
Expected Minimum Qualifying Marks in Each OBJECTIVE Paper (out of 200 Marks)
Expected Minimum Qualifying Marks in Each CONVENTIONAL Paper (out of 200 Marks)
Note: These are expected screening cut offs for ESE 2016. MADE EASY does not
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 3
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Ans. (c)
Ans. (d)
An ideal core material should have high permeability which causes the magnetic
field lines to be concentrated in the core material.
The magnetic field is often created by a coil of wire around the core that carries
a current. So if there is no current then it should loose all its magnetism.
Core saturation means the core flux stops increasing with increase in magnetizing
current, which is undersirable. Hence for proper operation the core should not
saturate easily.
Ans. (d)
Ans. (d)
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 4
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5. In a series R-L-C circuit supplied by a source of 125 V at a resonant frequency of 220 Hz,
the magnitudes of the voltages across the capacitor and the inductor are found to be
4150 V. If the resistance of the circuit is 1, then the selectivity of the circuit is
(a) 33.20 (b) 3.32
(c) 0.0301 (d) 0.301
Ans. (a)
f0 = 220 Hz
VC = VL = 4150 volts
R=1
+
VL or VC 4150
Q= = = 33.2
V 125 125 V
Selectivity = Q = 33.2
1 0
(c) (d)
0 0 0
Ans. (a)
Ans. (c)
Ans. (a)
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Drawing instruments, drawing standard, geometric construction and curves, orthographic
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of ethical dilemmas, indian ethics, ethics and sustainability, ethical theories, environmental
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9. Three equal point charges are located at the vertices of an equilateral triangle on the
circumference of a circle of radius r. The total electric field intensity at the centre of the
circle would be
3q
(a) zero (b)
4 0r 2
q q
(c) (d)
12 0r 2 3 0r 2
Ans. (a)
10. The Poynting vector on the surface of a long straight conductor of radius a and
conductivity 0, which carries current I in the z-direction, is
I2 I 2
(a) a
3 r (b) ar
0 b 2 0 2 a 2
I2 I 2
(c) a
3 r (d) ar
0 2a 2 0 2 a 3
Ans. (d)
Ans. (d)
12. The variation of | B | with distance r from a very long straight conductor carrying a current
I is correctly represented by
(a) |B | (b) |B |
r r
(c) |B | (d) |B |
r r
Ans. (d)
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 6
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13. The resistivity of hard drawn copper at 20C is 1.9 106 cm. The resistivity of annealed
copper compared to hard drawn copper is
(a) lesser (b) slightly larger
(c) same (d) much larger
Ans. (a)
The mechanical treatment such as cold working produces localized strain in the material
which results in the increase in resistivity of material. A hard drawn copper wire thus
has lower conductivity (i.e., higher resistivity) than annealed copper.
14. The number of electrons excited into the conduction band from valence band (with
E = forbidden energy gap and k = Boltzmanns constant) is proportional to
E 2E
(a) exp (b) exp
kT kT
E 2 E
(c) exp (d) exp
kT kT
Ans. (c)
n = Nce (EC EF )/ kT
= Nce E / kT .e (EF EV )/ kT
n e E / kT
Ans. (c)
Superconductivity can be destroyed
1. by increasing the temperature above a critical temperature (TC).
2. by applying magnetic field greater than the critical magnetic field (HC).
3. by passing a current greater than the critical current (IC) as per Silsbee rule.
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 7
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16. The relative permeability of a medium is equal to (with M = magnetization of the medium
and H = magnetic field strength)
M M
(a) 1 + (b) 1
H H
M M
(c) 1 + (d) 1
H H
Ans. (a)
We have susceptibility
M
HM = = r 1
H
so relative permeability
M
r = 1 +
H
17. The electrical resistivity of many metals and alloys drops suddenly to zero when they
are cooled to a low temperature (i.e., nearly equal to liquid helium temperature). Such
materials (metals and alloys) are known as
(a) piezoelectric materials (b) diamagnetic materials
(c) superconductors (d) high-energy hard magnetic materials
Ans. (c)
Superconductors are the materials whose resistivity becomes very small or zero below
a critical temperature.
18. The dielectric strength of rubber is 40000 V/mm at frequency of 50 Hz. What is the
thickness of insulation required on an electrical conductor at 33 kV to sustain the
breakdown?
(a) 0.83 mm (b) 8.3 mm
(c) 8.3 cm (d) 0.083 mm
Ans. (a)
Dielectric strength of rubber is = 40000 V/mm
Applied voltage = 33 kV
Let us assume thickness is t then
40000V 33 103V
=
103 m t
33 103 103
t= = 8.25 104 m = 0.825 103 m
40000
= 0.83 mm
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Comprehensive problem solving sessions Old students who have undergone classroom course from any
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Batch Non-MADE EASY Those students who were enrolled in Those students who
Students Postal Study Course, Rank Improvement, were enrolled in long term
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 8
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Ans. (c)
20. An intrinsic semiconductor has equal number of electrons and holes in it. This is due
to
(a) doping (b) free electrons
(c) thermal energy (d) valence electrons
Ans. (c)
In an intrinsic semiconductor if we increase temperature then few of the electrons in
valence band acquire sufficient energy so that they overcome forbidden gap and reach
into the conduction band; and a corresponding hole is generated in valence band. Hence
because of the thermal energy equal number electrons and holes are generated in an
intrinsic semiconductor.
21. When a very small amount of higher conducting metal is added to a conductor, its
conductivity will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain the same
(d) increase or decrease depending on the impurity
Ans. (b)
When we add a metal with another metal this makes an alloy. Conductivity of alloy is
less than the conductivity of metal as alloy has less regular structure than metal.
22. An electrically balanced atom has 30 protons in its nucleus and 2 electrons in its
outermost shell. The material made of such atom is
(a) a conductor (b) an insulator
(c) a semiconductor (d) a superconductor
Ans. (a)
There are 30 protons in electrically balanced atom of material, hence atomic number
of material is 30. So this material is Zn (having atomic number 30, and 2 electrons in
its outermost shell), which is a conductor.
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 9
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Ans. (d)
For a normally doped semiconductor temperature coefficient of resistance is negative.
But a heavily doped semiconductor (i.e. degenerate semiconductor) has metal like
properties, hence it has positive temperature coefficient of resistance.
So the temperature coefficient of resistance for a doped semiconductor can be positive
or negative depending upon level of doping.
Ans. (b)
In the slice processing of an integrated circuit the components are formed in selective
areas known as windows where silicon dioxide has been etched.
25. Permanent magnet loses the magnetic behaviour when heated because of
(a) atomic vibration (b) dipole vibration
(c) realignment of dipoles
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (c)
As a permanent magnet is heated, the electron spins (like tiny magnets) become
more likely to be in high energy state, which leads to atomic vibration. That means
that are less lined up so the total magnetism is reduced.
Heating means providing extra thermal energy because of which it becomes easy
for domain walls (the boundaries between regions that are lined up pointing different
directions) to slide around. Hence the domain walls will rearrange so that they reduce
the large scale field energy by pointing different directions, hence permanent magnet
loses magnetic behaviour.
As we further heat the individual dipole spin (dipole vibration) within domain become
more likely to point opposite to their neighbour which results in losing permanent
magnetic behaviour.
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 10
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26. The magnetic field required to reduce the residual magnetization to zero is called
(a) retentivity (b) coercivity
(c) hysteresis (d) saturation
Ans. (b)
The magnetic field required to reduce the residual magnetization (or spontaneous
magnetization) to zero value is applied in reverse direction and is called coercive field.
Ans. (b)
Constant of Fluxmeter
G = Nc Bc Ac
= 40 0.05 750 106 = 1500 106
Flux linkage with search coil = 0.5 200 106
= 1 104 wb
As the flux is reversed, the change in flux linking with search coil is
= 2 1 104 = 2 104 Wb
G
=
N
1500 106
2 104 =
10
180
= 1.33 rad = 1.33 = 76.2
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 11
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Ans. (d)
In ferrimagnetic materials dipoles are oriented in opposite direction but having different
magnitude as shown below:
While in ferromagnetic materials in a domain all the dipoles are oriented in same direction
as shown below:
29. The Hall voltage, VH , for a thin copper plate of 0.1 mm carrying a current of 100 A with
the flux density in the z-direction, Bz = 1 Wb/m2 and the Hall coefficient,
RH = 7.4 x 1011 m3/C, is
(a) 148 V (b) 111 V
(c) 74 V (d) 37 V
Ans. (c)
VH = ?
t= 0.1 mm
I= 100 A
B= 1 Wb/m2
RH = 7.4 1011 m3/c
BI 7.4 10 11 1 100
VH = RH = = 7.4 10 5 V
t 0.1 10 3
VH = 74 volt
30. A Zener regulator has an input voltage varying between 20 V and 30 V. The desired
regulated voltage is 12 V, while the load varies between 140 and 10 k. The maximum
resistance in series with the unregulated source and Zener diode would be
(a) 3.3 (b) 6.6
(c) 36.6 (d) 93.3
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 12
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Ans. (d)
Imin = Iz min + Iz max
0 + Vz 12
=
RL min 140
Vmin Vz 20 12
R= = = 93.3
Imin 12/140
31. A short in any type of circuit (series, parallel or combination) causes the total circuit
1. resistance to decrease
2. power to decrease
3. current to increase
4. voltage to increase
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
Ans. (d)
A short in any type of circuit causes the total circuit resistance to decrease and thereby
the current to increase.
32. An air-cored solenoid of 250 turns has a cross-sectional area A = 80 cm2 and length
l = 100 cm. The value of its inductance is
(a) 0.425 mH (b) 0.628 mH
(c) 0.751 mH (d) 0.904 mH
Ans. (b)
N 2 a 250 250 4 10 7 80 10 4
L= = = 0.628 mH
l 100 102
= 0r as air r 1
33. The current in a coil changes uniformly from 10 A to 1 A in half a second. A voltmeter
connected across the coil gives a reading of 36 V. The self-inductance of the coil is
(a) 0.5 H (b) 1 H
(c) 2 H (d) 4 H
Ans. (c)
di
V= L
dt
9
36 = L = L = 2H
1/ 2
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 13
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34. In a mutually coupled circuit, the primary current is reduced from 4 A to zero in 10 s.
A voltage of 40000 V is observed across the secondary. The mutual inductance between
the coils is
(a) 100 H (b) 10 H
(c) 0.1 H (d) 0.01 H
Ans. (c)
di 4
V= M 4000 = M
dt 10 106
M = 101 M = 0.1 H
35. N resistors each of resistance R when connected in series offer an equivalent resistance
of 50 and when reconnected in parallel the effective resistance is 2 . The value of
R is
(a) 2.5 (b) 5
(c) 7.5 (d) 10
Ans. (d)
RP
R
RS = nR RP =
n
R
n R = 50 2 =
n
50
R = ....(1) R = 2n ....(2)
n
Multiplying equation (1) and (2)
50
R2 = 2n = 100 R = 100
n
R = 10
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 14
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Ans. (a)
i (t) = 2 sin(t 45)
L = 1
Z XL
R
XL XL
tan = R =
R tan
1
R= R = 1
tan45
37. A single-phase full-wave rectifier is constructed using thyristors. If the peak value of
the sinusoidal input voltage is Vm and the delay angle is radian, then the average
3
value of output voltage is
(a) 0.32 Vm (b) 0.48 Vm
(c) 0.54 Vm (d) 0.71 Vm
Ans. (a)
The average output voltage of single phase full wave rectifier is
2Vm 2Vm
V0 = cos = cos60
Vm
V0 = = 0.32 Vm
+ VAB
VA VB
1 3
5V
4 3
is
(a) 0.8 V (b) 0.8 V
(c) 1.8 V (d) 1.8 V
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 15
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Ans. (b)
1A
1 VC = 5 V 3
VA VB
5V
4 3
V C 0 = 5 VC = 5 V
At node A:
VA 5 VA
1+ + =0
1 4
16
5 VA = 16 VA = V
5
At node B:
VB 5 VB
1 + + = 0 2VB = 8
3 3
VB = 4 V
16
VAB = VA VB = 4 = 0.8 V
5
39. Two bulbs of 100 W/250 V and 150 W/250 V are connected in series across a supply
of 250 V. The power consumed by the circuit is
(a) 30 W (b) 60 W
(c) 100 W (d) 250 W
Ans. (b)
100W/250 V 150W/250 V
V2 250 250
R1 = R1 = R1 = 625
P1 100
V2 250 250
R2 = R2 = = 416.67
P2 150
Req = R1 + R2
= 1041.67
V2 250 250
P= = ; 60 W
Req 1041.66
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 16
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Ans. (b)
Z = 2.38 j 0.667
Z = R j XC
or Z = R j (X C X L) but X C > X L
Thevenin impedance can be realised by using either R and C or by using R, L and
C but minimal realisation will be with R and C.
41. Analog-to-digital converter with the minimum number of bits that will convert analog input
signals in the range of 0-5 V to an accuracy of 10 mV is
(a) 6 (b) 9
(c) 12 (d) 15
Ans. (b)
In A to D converter
Accuracy = Resolution = Error
VFS
10 mV
2n 1
5V
n 10 mV
2 1
1
n 2 103
2 1
2n 1 500
2n 501
n9
42. Three 30 resistors are connected in parallel across an ideal 40 V source. What would
be the equivalent resistance seen by the load connected across this circuit?
(a) 0 (b) 10
(c) 20 (d) 30
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AIR-2 AIR-2 AIR-4 AIR-5 AIR-6 AIR-7 AIR-8 AIR-10
ME 9in
Top 10
A I R Nishant Bansal Gaurav Sharma Manpreet Singh Sayeesh T. M. Aakash Tayal Amarjeet Kumar Tushar Sumit Kumar Suman Dutta
EE 10
in
Top 10
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CE 8
in
Top 10
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EC 6
in
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IN 9
in
Top 10
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CS in
6
Top 10
AIR Ankita Jain Debangshu Chatterjee Himanshu Agarwal Jain Ujjwal Omprakash Sreyans Nahata Nilesh Agrawal
PI in
5
Top 10
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1st Ranks in ME, EE, EC, CS, IN & PI 53 Selections in Top 10 96 Selections in Top 20 368 Selections in Top 100
ME CE EE EC CS & PI IN
Top 20 Top 100 Top 20 Top 100 Top 20 Top 100 Top 20 Top 100 Top 20 Top 100 Top 20 Top 100
17
Selections
68
Selections
16
Selections
65
Selections
19
Selections
76
Selections
10
Selections
45
Selections
17
Selections
53
Selections
17
Selections
61
Selections
MADE EASY is the only institute which has consistently produced toppers in ESE & GATE
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 17
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Ans. (a)
+
40 V 30 30 30
Req
Req = 0
43. The current i(t) through a 10 resistor in series with an inductance is given by
i(t) = 3 + 4 sin (100t + 45) + 4 sin (300t + 60) A
The RMS value of the current and the power dissipated in the circuit are respectively
(a) 5 A and 150 W (b) 11 A and 250 W
(c) 5 A and 250 W (d) 11 A and 150 W
Ans. (c)
2 2
Irms = Irms1 + Irms 2 + ........
2 2
4 4
= (3)2 + = 25 = 5A
2 2
2
P = Irms R = (5)2 (10) = 250 W
44. Thevenins equivalents of the network in Fig. (i) are 10 V and 2 . If a resistance of
3 is connected across terminals AB as shown in Fig. (ii), what are Thevenin's
equivalents?
A A
3
B B
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 18
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Ans. (b)
2 2
A +
10 V + 3 VTh
10 V
B
10
VTH = 3 = 6V
3+2
RTH: Deactivate independent source
2
Rth
32 6
RTH = = = 1.2
3+2 5
Ans. (c)
500 + j100
+
10 V ZL
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 19
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Ans. (d)
In an ideal transformer
N1 N2
2
N
Zi = Z L 1 ...(1)
N2
V1 N1 220 N1 N
As = = 1 =2
V2 N2 110 N2 N2
From equation (1), Zi = ZL (2)2 Zi = 4ZL
And for maximum power transfer,
Zi = 2
1
4 ZL = 2 ZL = = 0.5
2
47. Consider the following values for the circuit shown below :
100
VR
1. VR = 100 2 V
2. I = 2A
3. L = 0.25 H
Which of the above values are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
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AIR 2 AIR 3 AIR 4 AIR 5 AIR 6 AIR 7 AIR 8 AIR 9 AIR 10
CE 10
Selections in
AIR
Top 10
CE Palash Pagaria
Piyush Pathak Amit Kumar Mishra Amit Sharma Dhiraj Agarwal Pawan Jeph Kirti Kaushik Aman Gupta Mangal Yadav Aishwarya Alok
ME 10
Selections in
AIR
Top 10
ME Pratap Ashok Bansal Aarish Bansal Vikalp Yadav Naveen Kumar Raju R N Sudhir Jain Bandi Sreenihar Kotnana Krishna Arun Kr. Maurya
EE 9
Selections in
AIR
Top 10
EE S. Siddhikh Hussain Partha Sarathi T. Nikki Bansal Nagendra Tiwari Anas Feroz Amal Sebastian Dharmini Sachin Sudhakar Kumar Vishal Rathi
E&T 9
Selections in
AIR
Top 10
E&T Ijaz M Yousuf
Saurabh Pratap Siddharth S. Piyush Vijay Manas Kumar Panda Kumbhar Piyush Nidhi Shruti Kushwaha Anurag Rawat
4 Streams 38 73 352
4 Toppers
All 4 MADE EASY
in in
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out of total
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MADE EASY selections in ESE-2015 : 82% of Total Vacancies
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E &T Selections in Top 10 9 Selections in Top 20 19 MADE EASY Selections 82 Out of 98 Vacancies MADE EASY Percentage 84%
MADE EASY is the only institute which has consistently produced toppers in ESE & GATE
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Ans. (*)
100
+ VR
+
v(t) 150 V
V 2 = VR2 + VL2
250 2
Vrms = = 250
2
(250)2 = VR2 + (150)2 VR = 200V
VR 200
I= = I = 2A
100 100
150
VL = IXL XL = = 75
2
75
L = 75 L = = 0.125 H
600
L = 0.125 H
1 2V q0 et / RC 2V q0
(a) (b)
R C R C
(c) Infinity (d) Zero
Ans. (d)
lim i(t ) = lim s I (s)
t s 0
2V q0
C
= lim s =0
s 0 1
R s +
RC
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 21
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49. What should be done to find the initial values of the circuit variables in a first-order R-C
circuit excited by only initial conditions?
(a) To replace the capacitor by a short circuit
(b) To replace the capacitor by an open circuit
(c) To replace the capacitor by a voltage source
(d) To replace the capacitor by a current source
Ans. (c)
As capacitor does not allow the sudden change in voltage
for initial values we replace capacitor by a voltage source.
Ans. (d)
+ + + +
V V1 V2 V3 R
R
Req =
3
V2 V2 3V 2
P= = =
Req R /3 R
V1 = V2 = V3 = V
+ + + R
V V1 V2 R Req =
2
V2 2V 2
=P=
R /2 R
V1 = V2 = V
As we can see from above circuits,
Total resistance increases.
Total power decreases.
Total voltage and branch voltage remain unaffected
We have taken equal resistances even unequal values give the same analysis.
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 22
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Ans. (b)
Wire wound resistors are used as precision resistors. They have high power rating and
low resistance value.
52. In nodal analysis, the preferred reference node is a node that is connected to
1. ground
2. many parts of the network
3. the highest voltage source .
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
We always prefer to take that node as the reference node which is at ground potential.
Ans. (b)
Duality means mathematical representation of both the networks should be identical (kVL
and kCL)
Loop equations of one network are analogous to the node euqations of the other.
Ans. (a)
Reciprocity theorem is applicable in case of linear and bilateral networks containig only
one independent source.
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 23
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55. Which of the following is true for the complete response of any network voltage or current
variables for a step excitation to a first-order circuit?
(a) It has the form k1eat
(b) It has the form k
(c) It may have either the form (a) or the form of (a) plus (b)
(d) It has the form e+at
Ans. (c)
Total Response = Forced Response + Natural Response
i(t) = i() + [i(0+) i()] et /
v (t) = v () + [v (0+) v () et /
So it can be either in the form
K1 e at or K + K1 eat
if final valueis zero
56. A piezoelectric crystal has a coupling coefficient K of 0.32. How much electrical energy
must be applied to produce output energy of 7.06 x 103 J?
(a) 25.38 mJ (b) 22.19 mJ
(c) 4.80 mJ (d) 2.26 mJ
Ans. (b)
Ans. (d)
+
5A 1 VL RL = 1 For maximum power transfer RL = 1
IL
5
IL = 1 = 2.5 A
1+ 1
VL = 2.5 1 = 2.5 V
2
Pmax = IL2 R = (2.5) 1
Pmax = 6.25 W
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 24
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58. Three star-connected loads of 360 each and three delta-connected loads of 960
each are connected in parallel and fed from a three-phase balanced source having line-
to-neutral voltage of 120 V. The line currents drawn from the supply will be
(a) 10 A each (b) 20 A each
(c) 80 A each (d) 160 A each
Ans. (c)
R
360
960
B
Converting -Load into star
R
80 A
120 V 360 120 V 360
120
I= = 40A
3
Itotal = 40 + 40 = 80 A
59. A wattmeter reads 10 kW, when its current coil is connected in R phase and the potential
coil is connected across R and neutral of a balanced 400 V (RYB sequence) supply.
The line current is 54 A. If the potential coil reconnected across B-Y phases with the
current coil in R phase, the new reading of the wattmeter will be nearly
(a) 10 kW (b) 13 kW
(c) 16 kW (d) 19 kW
Ans. (b)
W
R
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 25
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400
10 103 = 54 cos
3
W
R
Y
cos = 0.8
P = VLIL sin
= 400 54 0.6 = 12.46 kW 13 kW
Ans. (d)
62. Consider the following statements regarding the effect of adding a pole in the open-
loop transfer function on the closed-loop step response:
1. It increases the maximum overshoot.
2. It increases the rise time.
3. It reduces the bandwidth.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 26
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Ans. (a)
We know that adding a pole i.e., the order of denominator increase then
(i) maximum overshoot increase (ii) rise time increases
(iii) unstability increases (iv) reduces band width
so answer is (a)
63. A CRO screen has 10 divisions on the horizontal scale. If a voltage signal 5 sin (314t + 45)
is examined with a line base setting of 5 ms/div, the number of signals displayed on
the screen will be
(a) 1.25 cycles (b) 2.5 cycles
(c) 5 cycles (d) 10 cycles
Ans. (b)
Time period of I/P signal 5 sin (314 t + 45)
2
= 314
T
T = 20 m sec
CRO horizontal scale has 10 divisions with base setting 5 ms/div
Total time period of horizontal scale = 10 5 = 50 m sec
50 msec
No. of cycle =
20 msec = 2.5
64. A series R-L-C circuit is connected to a 25 V source of variable frequency. The circuit
current is found to be a maximum of 0.5 A at a frequency of 400 Hz and the voltage
across C is 150 V. Assuming ideal components, the values of R and L are respectively
(a) 50 and 300 mH (b) 12.5 and 0.119 H
(c) 50 and 0.119 H (d) 12.5 and 300 mH
Ans. (c)
Imax = 0.5 A ; fr = 400 Hz, VC = 150 V
As the circuit is in resonance,
VL = VC and VR = VS
VR = 25 V
25
VR = IR R = R = 50
0.5
150
VL = I XL XL = = 300
0.5
300
XL = L L = L = 0.119 H
2 400
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ONLINE For
TEST SERIES ESE - 2017
Preliminary Examination (Paper-I & Paper-II)
15 Part Syllabus Tests : GS & Engg. Aptitude (Paper-I)
Total
17 Part Syllabus Tests : Engineering Discipline (Paper-II)
4 Full Syllabus Tests : GS & Engg. Aptitude (Paper-I) 40
Tests
4 Full Syllabus Tests : Engineering Discipline (Paper-II)
C R
Ans. (b)
L
C R
Zeq
Zeq = jL + Z
1
R
j c R 1 j RC
Z= =
1 1 + j RC 1 j RC
R+
j c
R j R 2C
Z=
1 + 2R 2C 2
R j R 2C
Zeq = j L +
1 + 2R 2C 2
=
( )
j L 1 + 2 R 2C 2 + R j R 2C
1 + R 2C 2
2
L + 3R 2C 2L R 2C
R
= +j
1 + 2 R 2C 2 1 + 2 R 2C 2
At resonance impedance is purely resistive in nature.
Equating Imaginary part to zero.
L + 3R2C2L R2C = 0
3R2C2L = [R2C L]
R 2C 1
2 = 2 2
R C L R C 2L
2
1 1 1 1
2 = 2 2 2 =
LC R C 10.21 1
2 = 5 1 2 = = 2 rad/sec
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 28
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66. Which one of the following conditions will be correct, when three identical bulbs forming
a star are connected to a three-phase balanced supply?
(a) The bulb in R phase will be the brightest
(b) The bulb in Y phase will be the brightest
(c) The bulb in B phase will be the brightest
(d) All the bulbs will be equally bright
Ans. (d)
+ I1 I2 +
V1 V2
V1 = 60I1 + 20I2 and V2 = 20I1 + 40I2
Consider the following for the above network :
1. The network is both symmetrical and reciprocal.
2. The network is reciprocal.
3. A = D
1
4. y11 =
50
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 only (d) 1 and 3
Ans. (b)
V1 = 60I1 + 20 I2 ...(1)
V2 = 20I1 + 40I2 ...(2)
Comparing (1) and (2) with standard Z-parameters equations i.e.
V1 = Z11 I1 + Z12 I2
V2 = Z21I1 + Z22 I2
Z11 = 60 Z12 = 20
Z21 = 20 Z22 = 40
For symmetry
Z11 = Z22 but as in the given case
60 40 Network is not symmetrical
For reciprocity
Z12 = Z21
and 20 = 20 Network is reciprocal.
From equation (2)
1
20I1 = V2 40I2 I1 = V2 2 I2 ...(3)
20
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68. If the total powers consumed by three identical phase loads connected in delta and star
configurations are W1 and W2 respectively, then W1 is
W2
(a) 3W2 (b)
3
W2
(c) 3W2 (d)
3
Ans. (a)
P = 3PY
W1 = 3 W2
69. A 100 Aammeter has an internal resistance of 100 . For extending its range to measure
500 A, the required shunt resistance is
(a) 10 (b) 15
(c) 20 (c) 25
Ans. (d)
Rm 100
Rsh = = = 25
I 500
I 1 1
100
m
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70. A 200 V PMMC voltmeter is specified to be accurate within 2% of full scale. The limiting
error, when the instrument is used to measure a voltage of 100 V, is
(a) 8% (b) 4%
(c) 2% (d) 1%
Ans. (b)
% Error at any reading
Full scale error Full scale value
=
Full scale reading value
2 200
= = 4%
100
Ans. (c)
s 3 + 2s + 1
Since function is f(s) =
s 2 + 3s + 2
Nothing is common between numerator and denominator so number of pole is 2.
72. The degree to which an instrument indicates the changes in measured variable without
dynamic error is
(a) repeatability (b) hysteresis
(c) precision (d) fidelity
Ans. (d)
73. Loading by the measuring instruments introduces an error in the measured parameter.
Which of the following devices gives the most accurate result?
(a) PMMC (b) Hot-wire
(c) CRO (d) Electrodynamic
Ans. (c)
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 31
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Ans. (c)
Ans. (c)
Ans. (b)
77. During the measurement of resistance by Carey Foster bridge, no error is introduced
due to
1. contact resistance
2. connecting leads
3. thermoelectric e.m.f.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 32
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78. Schering bridge is a very versatile AC bridge and is used for capacitor testing in terms
of
1. capacitance value (magnitude)
2. loss angle measurement
3. simple balance detector like PMMC instrument
4. providing safety to operators by incorporating Wagner earthing device
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
Ans. (b)
Ans. (a)
81. A wattmeter is measuring the power supplied to a circuit whose power factor is 0.7. The
frequency of the supply is 50 c/s. The wattmeter has a potential coil circuit of resistance
1000 . and inductance 0.5 H. The error in the meter reading is
(a) 4% (b) 8%
(c) 12% (d) 16%
Ans. (d)
Pm PT
% Er = 100 = tan tan 100
PT
2fLP
= tan R 100
P
2 50 0.5
= tan(cos 1 0.7) 100 = 16%
1000
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 33
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82. A moving-coil instrument gives full-scale deflection of 10 mA, when a potential difference
10 mV is applied across its terminals. To measure currents up to 100 A, the same
instrument can be used
(a) with shunt resistance of 0.0001 (b) with series resistance of 0.01
(c) with shunt resistance of 0.01 (d) with series resistance of 0.0001
Ans. (a)
Rm V /I
Rsh = = m m
m 1 I
1
Im
10
= 10 = 0.0001
100
1
10 10 3
83. A 400 V, three-phase, rated frequency balanced source is supplying power to a balanced
three-phase load carrying a line current of 5 A at an angle of 30 lagging. The readings
of the two wattmeters W1 and W2, used for measuring the power drawn by the circuit,
are respectively
(a) 2000 W and 1000 W (b) 1500 W and 1500 W
(c) 2000 W and 1500 W (d) 1500 W and 1000 W
Ans. (a)
W1 = VL I L cos (30 )
= 400 50 cos (30 30) = 2000 W
W2 = VL I L cos (30 + )
= 400 50 cos(30 + 30) = 1000 W
84. A current of 4 + 3 2 sin(t + 30) A is passed through a centre zero PMMC meter and
a moving-iron meter. The two meters will read respectively
(a) 4 A and 5 A (b) 4 A and 5 A
(c) 4 A and 5 A (d) 4 A and 5 A
Ans. (c)
PMMC reads Avg. value = 4 A
1 2 1
MI reads RMS value = I 02 + I1 = (4)2 + (3 2 )2 = 5A
2 2
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 34
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85. A structural member is compressed to produce a strain of 5 m/m. The nickel wire strain
gauge has a gauge factor of 12.1. The pre-stress resistance of the gauge is 120 .
The change in resistance due to compressive strain will
(a) increase the resistance by 7.26 m
(b) decrease the resistance by 7.26 m
(c) increase the resistance by 49.6 m
(d) decrease the resistance by 49.6 m
Ans. (b)
R /R
Gauge factor = Gf =
(l /l)
l
R = Gf R
l
= 12.1 120 5 106 = 7.26 m
ve indicates decrease of resistance.
86. The values of ammeter and voltmeter resistances are 0.1 and 2000 respectively
as shown in the figure below. The percentage error in the calculated value of R =100
(voltmeter reading 200 V/ammeter reading 2 A) is nearly
A
R
RA = 0.1
A
RV = 2000
(a) 2% (b) 5%
(c) 2% (d) 5%
Ans. (b)
V 200
% Er = 100 = 100 = 5%
I Rv 2 2000
87. What is the multiplying power of a shunt of 200 resistance when used with a
galvanometer of 1000 resistance?
(a) 4 (b) 6
(c) 12 (d) 20
Ans. (b)
Rm 1000
m = R + 1 = 200 + 1 = 6
sh
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 35
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Ans. (b)
Mesh analysis is valid only for planar networks and for its application we apply kVL.
89. An 8-bit successive approximation A-to-D converter is driven by a 2 MHz clock. Its
conversion time is
(a) 18 s (b) 16 s
(c) 8 s (d) 4.5 s
Ans. (d)
Convertion time = Clock period (No. of bits being converted)
1
= 8 = 4 ms
2 106
90. In using instrument transformers, care should be taken not to open circuit the
(a) primary of a voltage transformer when the secondary is connected to the rated load
(b) secondary of a voltage transformer when the primary is energized with the rated
voltage
(c) primary of a current transformer when the secondary is connected to the rated load
(d) secondary of a current transformer when the primary is carrying the rated current
Ans. (d)
Ans. (*)
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 36
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Ans. (a)
4 4 2 21
The transfer function of system is 2 poles are at i
s + 1.6s + 4 5 5
The 2% tolerance ban setting time is 4
4 4
so 4 =5
n 4
5
93. Consider the following statements with reference to the response of a control system:
1. A large resonant peak corresponds to a small overshoot in transient response.
2. A large bandwidth corresponds to slow response.
3. The cut-off rate indicates the ability of the system to distinguish the signal from noise.
4. Resonant frequency is indicative of the speed of transient response.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
K
94. The open-loop transfer function of a unity feedback system is . For a damping
s(s + 4)
factor of 0.5, the value of the gain K must be set to
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 4 (d) 16
Ans. (d)
k
Open loop transfer function is
s(s + 4)
since the = 1 and damping factor = 0.5
k
so closed loop function is 2
s + 4s + k
so 0 = k
and 2 0.5 k = 4
so k = 16
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 37
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95. For a unity feedback control system, the forward path transfer function is given by
40
G(s) =
s(s + 2)(s2 + 2s + 30)
5t 2
The steady-state error of the system for the input is
2
(a) 0 (b)
(c) 20t 2 (d) 30t 2
Ans. (b)
40
G(s) =
s(s + 2)(s 2 + 2s + 30)
5t 2
since type of system is 1 so steady state error for will be
2
96. When gain K of the open-loop transfer function of order greater than unity is varied from
zero to infinity, the closed-loop system
(a) may become unstable (b) stability may improve
(c) stability may not be affected (d) will become highly stable
Ans. (a)
When gain k of the system is varied from 0 to then the closed loop system may
became unstable, because the poles may go to the right half of s plane.
97. The frequency of sustained oscillation for marginal stability, for a control system
2K
G(s)H(s) =
s(s + 1)(s + 5)
and operating with negative feedback, is
Ans. (a)
2k
G(s)H(s) =
s(s + 1)(s + 5)
for marginal stability we need to find frequency of sustained oscillation.
If G (s)H (s) s(s + 1)(s + 5) + 2k = 0
s 3 + 6 s 2 + 5s + 2k = 0
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 38
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so k = 15
Now we get that k = 15
So 6s2 + 30 = 0
oscillation = 5 rad/sec
Ans. (c)
(a) adding a zero lead to decrease in the angle of asymptote so push root locus to
left
(b) adding a pole lead to increase in the angle of asymptote so push root locus to right.
(c) Complementary root locus refer to root loci with negative k.
(d) adding of pole in forward path transfer function increase maximum overshoot and
adding a zero reduces maximum overshoot.
s 2 + 10s + 24
Gc(s) =
s 2 + 10s + 16
The network could be used as
1. lead compensator
2. lag compensator
3. lag-lead compensator
Which of the above is/are, correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 39
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Ans. (c)
s 2 + 10s + 24
Gc(s) =
s 2 + 10s + 16
so poles are 2, 8
and zero are 4, 6
(s + 4)(s + 6) (s + 4) (s + 6)
so Gc(s) = =
(s + 2)(s + 8) (s + 8) (E55
E55F s + 2)
F
lead lag
so Gc(s) will work as lead lag or lag lead compensation.
Ans. (b)
101. If an energy meter makes 5 revolutions in 100 seconds, when a load of 225 W is
connected, the meter constant is
(a) 800 rev/kWh (b) 222 rev/kWh
(c) 147 rev/kWh (d) 13 rev/kWh
Ans. (a)
No. of revolutions 5
meters constant k= = = 800 Rev/kWhr
kW hr 225 100
1000 3600
Ans. (d)
Since closed loop system is having a feedback so the control action depends on output.
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 40
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Ans. (d)
Since poles are most important to determine properties of a system so denominator
of closed loop system is called characteristic polynomial of a system.
Ans. (b)
For critically damped system the system should have poles which are purely real, equal
and negative.
Ans. (b)
57.3k
G(s) =
s(s + 10)
X (s)
Input is 10 rpm and steady state error is 1 steady state error is given by slim
0 1 + G(s )H (s)
10 60
lim s
so
s 0 (57.3)k = 1
1+
s(s + 10)
10 60
so k= = 10.47
57.3
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 41
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106. Gain margin is the factor by which the system gain can be increased to drive it to
(a) stability (b) oscillation
(c) the verge of instability (d) critically damped state
Ans. (b)
Gain margin is the factor by which the gain of system should be increased to drive
it to marginally stable condition on drive it to oscillations.
Ans. (b)
108. For a type-I system, the intersection of the initial slope of the Bode plot with 0 dB axis
gives
(a) steady-state error (b) error constant
(c) phase margin (d) cross-over frequency
Ans. (b)
For type-1 system, the intersection of initial slope of bode plot with 0 dB axis give error
constant
k
for example
s(s + p)
0 dB line ()
k
Ans. (a)
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 42
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Directions:
Each of the following eleven (11) items consists of two statements, one labelled as
'Statement (I) and the other as Statement (II). Examine these two statements carefully
and select the answers to these items using the code given below :
Code :
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the
correct explanation of Statement (I)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true but Statement (II) is not
the correct explanation of Statement (I)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
110. Statement (I): For type-II or higher systems, lead compensator may be used.
Statement (II): Lead compensator increases the margin of stability.
Ans. (a)
Since lead compensation increases the margin of stability so we use higher order lead
compensation.
111. Statement (I): Stability of a system deteriorates when integral control is incorporated
into it.
Statement (II): With integral control action, the order of a system increases and higher
the order of the system, more the system tends to become unstable.
Ans. (a)
112. Statement (I): Self-loops can exist in block diagram but not in signal flow graph.
Statement (II) : Both block diagrams and signal flow graphs are applicable to linear
time-invariant systems.
Ans. (d)
Self loop can exist in signal flow graph also.
113. Statement (I): The gauge factor of a strain gauge is the ratio of strain to per unit change
in resistance.
Statement (II): Poisson's effect is defined as producing less strain with opposite sign
on the plane perpendicular to the applied load.
Ans. (d)
R / R
Q Gf =
l /l
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 43
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114. Statement (I): Voltage is the energy per unit charge created by charge separation.
Statement (II): Power is energy per unit of time.
Ans. (b)
As we know that
voltage is the work done per unit charge
dW
i.e.,
dQ
and power is the energy per unit of time
dW
i.e.
dt
Both are correct.
115. Statement (I): The electrical conductivity of a solid solution alloy drops off rapidly with
increased alloy content.
Statement (II): A solid solution has a less regular structure than a pure metal.
Ans. (a)
Alloy has less regular structure than a metal because of which conductivity of alloy
decreases with increase in alloy content and resistivity of alloy increases in comparison
to metal.
116. Statement (I): In type-0 and type-l systems, stable operation is possible if gain is
suitably reduced.
Statement (II): Any one of the compensators lag, lead, lag-lead may be used to improve
the performance.
Ans. (a)
117. Statement (I): Open-loop system is inaccurate and unreliable due to internal disturbances
and lack of adequate calibration.
Statement (II): Closed-loop system is inaccurate as it cannot account environmental or
parametric changes and may become unstable.
Ans. (c)
Closed loop system has feedback to account environment changes and became stable.
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Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A 44
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118. Statement (I): A constant temperature type hot-wire anemometer is suitable for turbulent
flow measurements.
Statement (II): When the resistance of the hot wire is kept constant by incorporating
current feedback, the bandwidth is increased.
Ans. (a)
119. Statement (I): Optical pyrometers are used as transducers for the measurement of flame
temperature in a boiler.
Statement (II): Non-invasive methods are suitable for flame temperature measurement
in a boiler.
Ans. (a)
120. Statement (I): The null voltage of an LVDT cannot be reduced to an insignificant value.
Statement (II): Hall effect transducers are primarily used to measure flux density.
Ans. (b)
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