Mechanjical Engineering Mcqs Editedp1

Table of Contents
MECHANJICAL ENGINEERING MCQS EDITEDP1.................................................................6

1. MECHANICAL ENGINEERING...............................................................................................6
Engineering Mechanics - Section 1.................................................................................................6
Engineering Mechanics - Section 2...............................................................................................18
2. Hydraulics and Fluid Mechanics - Section 1.............................................................................82
Hydraulics and Fluid Mechanics - Section 2.................................................................................94
Hydraulics and Fluid Mechanics - Section 3...............................................................................105
3. Thermodynamics - Section 1...................................................................................................171
Thermodynamics - Section 2.......................................................................................................183
4. Steam Nozzles and Turbines - Section 1.................................................................................241
Steam Nozzles and Turbines - Section 2.....................................................................................252
Steam Nozzles and Turbines - Section 3.....................................................................................263
5. IC Engines and Nuclear Power Plants.....................................................................................273
IC Engines and Nuclear Power Plants - Section 1.......................................................................273
1
IC Engines and Nuclear PowerPlants Section 3.......................................................................295
6. Compressors, Gas Dynamics and Gas Turbines......................................................................325
Compressors, Gas Dynamics and Gas Turbines - Section 1........................................................325
7. Heat Transfer, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning.................................................................362
Heat Transfer, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning - Section 1...................................................362
MECHANJICAL ENGINEERING MCQS EDITEDP2.............................................................453
8. Production Engineering...........................................................................................................453
Production Engineering - Section 1.............................................................................................453
9. Industrial Engineering and Production Management..............................................................545
Industrial Engineering and Production Management - Section 1................................................545
2
10. Strength of Materials.............................................................................................................585
Strength of Materials - Section 1.................................................................................................585
11. Hydraulic Machines...............................................................................................................700
Hydraulic Machines - Section 1..................................................................................................700
12. Steam Boilers and Engines....................................................................................................740
Steam Boilers and Engines - Section 1........................................................................................740
MECHANJICAL ENGINEERING MCQS EDITEDP3.............................................................793
13. Machine Design.....................................................................................................................793
Machine Design - Section 1.........................................................................................................793
3
14. Engineering Materials............................................................................................................886
Engineering Materials - Section 1...............................................................................................886
15. Theory of machines...............................................................................................................951
Theory of machines - Section 1...................................................................................................951
Theory of machines - Section 5.................................................................................................1000
16. Workshop Technology.........................................................................................................1049
Workshop Technology - Section 1.............................................................................................1049
17. Automobile Engineering......................................................................................................1108
Automobile Engineering - Section 1..........................................................................................1108
4
18. Technical Drawing Questions and Answers.........................................................................1180
Technical Drawing Questions and Answers..............................................................................1180
1. Traditional Drafting Techniques............................................................................................1180
Engineering Mechanics Questions & Answers..........................................................................1271
5
MECHANJICAL ENGINEERING MCQS EDITEDP1
1. MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
Engineering Mechanics - Section 1

1. According to principle of conservation of energy, the total momentum of a system of masses
in any direction remains constant unless acted upon by an external force in that direction.
A. True
B. False
. The friction experienced by a body, when in motion, is known as

A. rolling friction
B. dynamic friction
C. limiting friction
D. static friction
3. Two balls of equal mass and of perfectly elastic material are lying on the floor. One of the ball
with velocity v is made to struck the second ball. Both the balls after impact will move with a
velocity
A. V
B. v/2
C. v/4
D. v/8
4. The term 'force' may be defined as an agent which produces or tends to produce, destroys or
tends to destroy motion.
A. Agree
B. Disagree
5. The coefficient of restitution for elastic bodies is one.
6
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
6. The velocity ratio in case of an inclined plane inclined at angle to the horizontal and weight
being pulled up the inclined plane by vertical effort is
A
sin
.
B. cos
C
tan
.
D
cosec
.
7. The range of projectile on a downward inclined plane is __________ the range on upward
inclined plane for the same velocity of projection and angle of projection.
A
less than
.
B. more than
C
equal to
.
8. The angle of inclination of a vehicle when moving along a circular path __________ upon its
mass.
A
depends
.
B. does not depend
9. A body of weight W is required to move up on rough inclined plane whose angle of

inclination with the horizontal is . The effort applied parallel to the plane is given by(where
= tan = Coefficient of friction between the plane and the body.)
A
P = W tan
.
7
B. P = W tan( + )
C
P = W (sin + cos)
.
D
P = W (cos + sin)
.
10. If the resultant of two equal forces has the same magnitude as either of the forces, then the
angle between the two forces is
A
30
.
B. 60
C
90
.
D
120
.
11. A smooth cylinder lying on its convex surface remains in __________ equilibrium.
A
stable
.
B. unstable
C
neutral
.
12. Coefficient of friction is the ratio of the limiting friction to the normal reaction between the
two bodies.
A
Yes
.
B. No
13. Moment of inertia of a circular section about an axis perpendicular to the section is
A
d3/16
.
8
B. d3/32
C
d4/32
.
D
d4/64
.
14. The time of flight (t) of a projectile on an upward inclined plane is(where u = Velocity of
projection, = Angle of projection, and = Inclination of the plane with the horizontal.)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
15. The unit of angular acceleration is

A
N-m
.
B. m/s
C
m/s2
.
D
rad/s2
.
16. Moment of inertia of a triangular section of base (b) and height (h) about an axis passing
through its C.G. and parallel to the base, is
A
bh3/4
.
9
B. bh3/8
C
bh3/12
.
D
bh3/36
.
17. If the masses of both the bodies, as shown in the below figure, are reduced to 50 percent,
then tension in the string will be
A
same
.
B. half
C
double
.
18. Which of the following is an equation of linear motion?(where, u and v = Initial and final
velocity of the body, a = Acceleration of the body, and s = Displacement of the body in
time t seconds.)
A. v = u + a.t
B. s = u.t + 1/2 a.t2
C. v2 = u2+2a.s
D. all of these
19. If a number of forces are acting at a point, theirresultant will be inclined at an angle with
the horizontal, such that
A. tan = H/V
10
2
0
.
B. tan = V/H
C. tan = VxH
Th
e
abo D.
ve
fig
ure
sho Mass moment of inertia of a uni form thin rod of mass M and length (l) about its mid-point
ws and perpendicular to its length is
the A
two .
equ
al
for B.
ces
at
rig C
ht .
ang
les
acti D
ng .
at a
poi A resultant force is a single force which produces the same effect as produced by all the
41.
nt. given forces acting on a body.
Th A
e . True
val
ue
of B. False
for
ce When a rigid body is suspended vertically, and it oscillates with a small amplitude under the
42.
R action of the force of gravity, the body is known as
acti A
ng . simple pendulum
alo
ng
thei B. compound pendulum
r
bis C
ect . torsional pendulum
or
and
in D second's pendulum
opp
osit 11
e
dir
ecti
.
43. Moment of inertia of a hollow circular section, as shown in the below figure about X-axis, is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
44. If two blocks of equal mass are attached to the two ends of a light string and one of the
blocks is placed over a smooth horizontal plane while the other is hung freely after passing
over a smooth pulley, then the two blocks will have some motion.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
45. During elastic impact, the relative velocity of the two bodies after impact is __________ the
relative velocity of the two bodies before impact.
A
equal to
.
12
B. equal and opposite to
C
less than
.
D
greater than
.
46. Work done is said to be zero, when

A
some force acts on a body, but displacement is zero
.
B. no force acts on a body but some displacement takes place
C
either (a) or (b)
.
D
none of the above
.
47. The force which acts along the radius of a circle and directed away from the centre of the
circle is called centrifugal force.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
48. One watt is equal to

A
0.1 joule/s
.
B. 1 joule/s
C
10 joules/s
.
D
100 joules/s
.
49. two like parallel forces are acting at a distance of 24 mm apart and their resultant is 20 N. It
13
the line of action of the resultant is 6 mm from any given force, the two forces are
A
15 N and 5 N
.
B. 20 N and 5 N
C
15 N and 15 N
.
D
none of these
.
50. If two bodies having masses m1 and m2 (m1>m2) have equal kinetic energies, the momentum
of body having mass m1 is __________ the momentum of body having mass m2.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.

1. The point, through which the whole weight of the body acts, irrespective of its position, is
known as
A
moment of inertia
.
B. centre of gravity
C
centre of percussion
.
D
centre of mass
.
2. The loss of kinetic energy during elastic impact is zero.

A Agree
14
.
B. Disagree
3. The overturning of a vehicle on a level circular path can be avoided if the velocity of vehicle
is __________ .
A
less than
.
B. greater than
4. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

A
Force
.
B. Speed
C
Velocity
.
D
Acceleration
.
5. The rate of change of momentum is directly proportional to the impressed force, and takes
place in the same direction in which the force acts. This statement is known as
A
Newton's first law of motion
.
B. Newton's second law of motion
C
Newton's third law of motion
.
D
none of these
.
6. In ideal machines, mechanical advantage is __________ velocity ratio.

A
equal to
.
15
B. less than
C
greater than
.
7. The minimum force required to slide a body of weight W on a rough horizontal plane is
A
W sin
.
B. W cos
C
W tan
.
D
none of these
.
8. The moment of inertia of a square of side a about its diagonal is

A
a2/8
.
B. a3/12
C
a4/12
.
D
a4/16
.
9. The angular velocity (in rad / s) of a body rotating at N revolutions per minute is
A
N/60
.
B. N/180
C
2N/60
.
D 2N/180
16
.
10. The maximum efficiency of a lifting machine is

A
1/m
.
B. V.R./m
C
m/V.R.
.
D
1/(m x V.R.)
.
11. The centre of gravity of a semi-circle lies at a distance of __________ from its base
measured along the vertical radius.
A
3r/ 8
.
B. 4r/ 3
C
8r/3
.
D
3r/4
.
12. The process of finding out the resultant force is called __________ of forces.
A
composition
.
B. resolution
13. A weight of 1000 N can be lifted by an effort of 80 N. If the velocity ratio is 20, the machine
is
A
reversible
.
B. non-reversible
17
C
ideal
.
14. In a framed structure, as shown in the below figure, the force in the member BC is
A
W/3 (compression)
.
B. W/3 (tension)
C
2W/3 (compression)
.
D
2W/3 (tension)
.
15. The potential energy of a vertically raised body is __________ the kinetic energy of a
vertically falling body.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
16. If a number of forces acting at a point be represented in magnitude and direction by the three
sides of a triangle, taken in order, then the forces are not in equilibrium.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
17. The periodic time of a particle with simple harmonic motion is __________ proportional to
18
the angular velocity.
A
directly
.
B. inversely
18. The motion of a particle round a fixed axis is

A
translatory
.
B. rotary
C
circular
.
D
translatory as well as rotatry
.
19. A block of mass m1, placed on an inclined smooth plane is connected by a light string passing
over a smooth pulley to mass m2, which moves vertically downwards as shown in the below
figure. The tension in the string is
A
m1/m2
.
B. m1.g sin
C
m1.m2/m1+m2
.
D
.
20. If a given force (or a given system of forces) acting on a body __________ the position of
the body, but keeps it in equilibrium, then its effect is to produce internal stress in the body.
A
change
19
B. does not change
21. The principle of transmissibility of forces states that, when a force acts upon a body, its effect
is
A
same at every point on its line of action
.
B. different at different points on its line of action
C
minimum, if it acts at the centre of gravity of the body
.
D
maximum, if it acts at the centre of gravity of the body
.
22. A differential pulley block has larger and smaller diameters of 100 mm and 80 mm
respectively. Its velocity ratio is
A
5
.
B. 10
C
20
.
D
40
.
23. If three forces acting at a point are represented in magnitude and direction by the three sides
of a triangle, taken in order, then the forces are in equilibrium.
A
Yes
.
B. No
24. Newton's second law motion __________ a relation between force and mass of a moving
body.
A
gives
.
20
B. does not give
25. The periodic time of one oscillation for a simple pendulum is(where l = Length of the
pendulum.)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
26. The resultant of two forces P and Q acting at an angle is

A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
27. Which of the following are vector quantities?

A
Linear displacement
.
B. Linear velocity
C
Linear acceleration
.
21
D
all of these
.
28. The maximum acceleration of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is
A

.
B. r
C
2r
.
D
/r
.
29. A lift moves downwards with an acceleration of 9.8 m/s2. The pressure exerted by a man on
the floor of the lift is zero.
A
True
.
B. False
30. Non-coplaner concurrent forces are those forces which

A
meet at one point, but their lines of action do not lie on the same plane
.
B. do not meet at one point and their lines of action do not lie on the same plane
C
meet at one point and their lines of action also lie on the same plane
.
D
do not meet at one point, but their lines of action lie on the same plane
.
31. Which of the following statement is correct?

A
The kinetic energy of a body during impact remains constant.
.
B. The kinetic energy of a body before impact is equal to the kinetic energy of a body
22
after impact.
C The kinetic energy of a body before impact is less than the kinetic energy of a body
. after impact.
D The kinetic energy of a body before impact is more than the kinetic energy of a body
. after impact.
32. The maximum efficiency of a screw jack is

A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
33. In a framed structure, as shown in the below figure, the force in the member AC is
numerically equal to the force in member BC.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
34. The force which acts along the radius of a circle and directed towards the centre of the circle
is known as centripetal force.
A
True
.
23
B. False
35. Moment of inertia of a triangular section of base (b) and height (h) about an axis through its
base, is
A
bh3/4
.
B. bh3/8
C
bh3/ 12
.
D
bh3/ 36
.
36. Concurrent forces are those forces whose lines of action

A
lie on the same line
.
B. meet at one point
C
meet on the same plane
.
D
none of these
.
37. Tension in the cable supporting a lift is more when the lift is moving __________ with
acceleration.
A
upwards
.
B. downwards
38. According to the law of moments, if a number of coplaner forces acting on a particle are in
equilibrium, then
A
their algebraic sum is zero
.
B. their lines of action are at equal distances
24
C
the algebraic sum of their moments about any point in their plane is zero
.
D the algebraic sum of their moments about any point is equal to the moment of their
. resultant force about the same point.
39. If u1 and u2 are the velocities of two moving bodies in the same direction before impact
and v1 and v2 are their velocities after impact, then coefficient of restitution is given by
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
40. Two bodies of masses m1,and m2 are hung from the ends of a rope, passing oyer a frictionless
pulley as shown in the figure below. The acceleration of the string will be
A
.
B.
25
C
.
D
.
41. The centre of gravity of a trapezium with parallel sides a and b lies at a distance of y from the
base b, as shown in the below figure. The value of y is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
42. A machine having an efficiency less than 50%, is known as

A
reversible machine
.
B. non-reversible machine
C
neither reversible nor non-reversible machine
.
D ideal machine
26
.
43. The total momentum of a system of masses (i. e. moving bodies) in any one direction
remains constant, unless acted upon by an external force in that direction. This statement is
called
A
Newton's first law of motion
.
C
principle of conservation of energy
.
D
principle of conservation of momentum
.
44. The velocity ratio of a differential pulley block with D and d as the diameters of larger and
smaller pulley, is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
45. The unit of mass moment of inertia in S.I. units is kg-m2.

A
True
.
B. False
46. The centre of gravity of an is osceles triangle with base (p) and sides (q) from its base is
A
.
27
B.
C
.
D
.
47. A newton is defined as the force while acting upon a mass of one kg, produces an
acceleration of 1 m / s2 in the direction of which it acts.
A
Yes
.
B. No
48. The acceleration of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion, at any instant is given
by
A
.y
.
B. 2.y
C
2 /y
.
D
3.y
.
49. The skidding away of the vehicle on a level circular path can be avoided if the force of
friction between the wheels and the ground is __________ the centrifugal force.
A
less than
.
B. greater than

1. If the masses of both the bodies, as shown in the below figure, are doubled, then the
28
acceleration in the string will be
A
same
.
B. half
C
double
.
2. The loss of kinetic energy during inelastic impact, is given by(where m1 = Mass of the first
body,m2 = Mass of the second body, and u1 and u2 = Velocities of the first and second bodies
respectively.)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
3. The centre of gravity of a hemisphere lies at a distance of 3r / 8 from its base measured along
the vertical radius.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
29
4.
The above figure shows the three coplaner forces P, Q and R acting at a point O. If these
forces are in equilibrium, then
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
5. Moment of inertia of a rectangular section having width (b) and depth (d) about an axis
passing through its C.G. and parallel to the depth (d), is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
6. The polygon law of forces states that if a number of forces, acting simultaneously on a
particle, be represented in magnitude and direction by the sides a polygon taken in order,
30
then their resultant is represented in magnitude and direction by the closing side of the
polygon, taken in opposite direction.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
7. A smooth cylinder lying on a __________ is in neutral equilibrium.

A
curved surface
.
B. convex surface
C
horizontal surface
.
8. The velocity of a particle (v) moving with simple harmonic motion, at any instant is given
by(where r = Amplitude of motion, and y = Displacement of the particle from mean
position.)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
9. Varingon's theorem of moments states that if a number of coplaner forces acting on a particle
are in equilibrium, then
A
their algebraic sum is zero
.
B. their lines of action are at equal distances
C
the algebraic sum of their moments about any point in their plane is zero
.
31
D the algebraic sum of their moments about any point is equal to the moment of their
. resultant force about the same point.
10. A block ot mass 20 kg lying on a rough horizontal plane is connected by a light string
passing over a smooth pulley to another mass 5 kg, which can move freely in the Vertical
direction, as shown in the below figure. The tension in the string will __________ with the
increase in coefficient of friction.
A
increase
.
B. decrease
C
not be effected
.
11. One end of a helical spring is fixed while the other end carries the load W which moves with
simple harmonic motion. The frequency of motion is given by(where = Deflection of the
spring.)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
12. The angle of inclination with the vertical is __________ if the cyclist is running at a faster
speed than that when he is running at a slower speed.
A
more
.
32
B. less
13. The range of projectile(R) on an upward inclined plane is

A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
14. The centre of gravity of a right circular solid cone is at a distance of __________ from its
base, measured along the vertical axis.(where h = Height of a right circular solid cone.)
A
h/2
.
B. h/3
C
h/4
.
D
h/6
.
15. In actual machines, mechanical advantage is __________ velocity ratio.

A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
16. The radius of gyration is the distance where the whole mass (or area) of a body is assumed to
be concentrated.
A
Correct
.
33
B. Incorrect
17. If three coplaner forces acting on a point are in equilibrium, then each force is proportional to
the sine, of the angle between the other two.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
18. A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 2 m. If there is no loss of velocity after rebounding,
the ball will rise to a height of
A
1m
.
B. 2m
C
3m
.
D
4m
.
19. In the shown figure, the tension (T) in the string will be
A
.
B.
C
.
34
D
.
20. When the spring of a watch is wound, it will possess

A
strain energy
.
B. kinetic energy
C
heat energy
.
D
electrical energy
.
21. In a framed structure, as shown in the below figure, the force in the member CD is tensile in
nature.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
22. An irregular body may have more than one centre of gravity.
A
Yes
.
B. No
23. The rate of doing work is known as

A
potential energy
.
35
B. kinetic energy
C
power
.
D
none of these
.
24. In a wormed geared pulley block, if the number of teeth on the worm wheel is doubled, then
its velocity ratio is also doubled.
A
True
.
B. False
25. Moment of inertia of a circular section about its diameter (d) is

A
d3/16
.
B. d3/32
C
d4/32
.
D
d4/64
.
26. The centre of oscillation and centre of suspension for a compound pendulum are
interchangeable.
A
True
.
B. False
27. In a screw jack, the effort required to lower the load is __________ the effort required to
raise the same load.
A
less than
.
B. equal to
36
C
more than
.
28. The unit of work in S.I. units is

A
newton
.
B. erg
C
kg-m
.
D
joule
.
29. The static friction

A
bears a constant ratio to the normal reaction between the two surfaces
.
B. is independent of the area of contact, between the two surfaces
C
always acts in a direction, opposite to that in which the body tends to move
.
D
all of the above
.
30. The maximum height of a projectile on a horizontal plane, is

A
.
B.
C
.
37
D
.
31. The acceleration of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is __________ at
themean position.
A
zero
.
B. minimum
C
maximum
.
32. The velocity of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is __________ at the mean
position.
A
zero
.
B. minimum
C
maximum
.
33. A framed structure is imperfect, if the number of members are __________ (2j - 3).
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
D
either (b) or (c)
.
34. The linear acceleration (a) of a body rotating along a circular path of radius (r) with an
angular acceleration of rad / s2, is
A
a = / r
.
38
B. a = .r
C
a=r/
.
D
none of these
.
35. The total energy possessed by a system of moving bodies

A
is constant at every instant
.
B. varies from point to point
C
is maximum in the start and minimum at the end
.
D
is minimum in the start and maximum at the end
.
36. The moment of inertia of a solid cylinder of mass m, radius r and length l about the
longitudinal axis or polar axis is
A
mr2/2
.
B. mr2/4
C
mr2/6
.
D
mr2/8
.
37. In a screw jack, the effort required to lift the load is given by(where W = Load lifted, =
Helix angle, and = Angle of friction.)
A
P = W tan ( - )
.
B. P = W tan ( + )
39
C
P = W tan ( - )
.
D
P = W cos ( + )
.
38. The terms 'leverage' and 'mechanical advantage' Of a compound lever have got the same
meaning.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
39. A couple produces

A
translatory motion
.
B. rotational motion
C
combined translatory and rotational motion
.
D
none of the above
.
40. Energy may be defined as the capacity of doing work.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
41. For a self locking machine, the efficiency must be

A
equal to 50%
.
B. less than 50%
C
greater than 50%
.
40
D
100%
.
42. The resultant of the two forces P and Q is R. If Q is doubled, the new resultant is
perpendicular to P. Then
A
P=Q
.
B. Q = R
C
Q = 2R
.
D
none of these
.
43. One joule is equal to

A
0.1 N-m
.
B. 1 N-m
C
10 N-m
.
D
100 N-m
.
44. Whenever a force acts on a body and the body undergoes a displacement, then
A
work is said to be done
.
B. power is being transmitted
C
body has kinetic energy of translation
.
D
none of these
.
41
45. When a particle moves along a straight path, there will be centripetal acceleration as well as
tangential acceleration.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
46. If the body falls freely under gravity, then the gravitational acceleration is taken as
A
+8.9 m/s2
.
B. -8.9 m/s2
C
+9.8 m/s2
.
D
-9.8 m/s2
.
47. A framed structure, as shown in the below figure, is a
A
perfect frame
.
B. deficient frame
C
redundant frame
.
D
none of the above
.
48. The rate of change of displacement of a body is called

A
velocity
.
42
B. acceleration
C
momentum
.
D
none of these
.
49. The efficiency of a screw jack is maximum, when(where = Helix angle, and = Angle of
friction.)
A
= 45 + /2
.
B. = 45 - /2
C
= 90 +
.
D
= 90 -
.
50. The periodic time (T) is given by(where = Angular velocity of particle in rad / s.)
A
/2
.
B. 2/
C
2 x
.
D
/
.

1. Three forces acting on a rigid body are represented in magnitude, direction and line of action
by the three sides of a triangle taken in order. The forces are equivalent to a couple whose
moment is equal to
A area of the triangle
43
.
B. twice the area of the triangle
C
half the area of the triangle
.
D
none of these
.
2. If tension in the cable supporting a lift moving downwards is half the tension when it is
moving upwards, the acceleration of the lift is
A
g/2
.
B. g/3
C
g/4
.
D
none of these
.
3. Efficiency of a screw jack is given by(where = Helix angle, and = Angle of friction.)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
4. When a train is rounding a curve, the side thrust on the wheel flanges is prevented by raising
the outer edge of the rail.
A Yes
44
.
B. No
5. Frequency of vibrations means the number of cycles per second.

A
Yes
.
B. No
6. The time of flight (t) of a projectile on a horizontal plane is given by

A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
7. The velocity ratio for the third system of pulleys is

A
n
.
B. n2
C
2n
.
D
2n - 1
.
8. If the gravitational acceleration at any place is doubled, then the weight of a body will be
A
g/2
.
45
B. g
C
2g
.
D
2g
.
9. The moment of inertia of a thin spherical shell of mass m and radius r, about its diameter is
A
mr2/3
.
B. 2mr2/3
C
2mr2/5
.
D
3mr2/5
.
10. The resultant of two forces P and Q (such that P > Q) acting along the same straight line, but
in opposite direction, is given by
A
P+Q
.
B. P - Q
C
P/Q
.
D
Q/P
.
11. The velocity ratio for the second system of pulleys is n.

A
True
.
B. False
12. The law of motion involved in the recoil of gun is

A
46
C
Newton's third law of motion
.
D
none of these
.
13. When a particle moves along a circular path, its acceleration has two components, one is
normal component and the other is tangential component of acceleration.
A
True
.
B. False
14. A machine which is not capable of doing any work in the reversed direction, after the effort
is removed, is called a reversible machine.
A
True
.
B. False
15. The range of projectile will be maximum for a given velocity of projectile, when the angle of
projection () is
A
/2
.
B. 30 + /2
C
45 + /2
.
D
60 + /2
.
16. When two elastic bodies collide with each other,

A
the two bodies will momentarily come to rest after collision
.
B. the two bodies tend to compress and deform at the surface of contact
47
C
the two bodies begin to regain their original shape
.
D
all of the above
.
17. The centre of gravity of a triangle lies at a point where its medians intersect each other.
A
True
.
B. False
18. In order to double the period of simple pendulum, the length of the string should be
A
halved
.
B. doubled
C
quadrupled
.
19. The moment of inertia of a square of side a about its base is a4/ 3.
A
True
.
B. False
20. If the number of pulleys in a system is equal to its velocity ratio, then it is a __________
system of pulleys
A
first
.
B. second
C
third
.
21. The centre of gravity of a right angled triangle lies at its geometrical centre.
A
48
B. Incorrect
22. Vectors method for the resultant force is also called polygon law of forces.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
23. Two equal and opposite parallel forces whose lines of action are different form a couple.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
24. When a person, on a bicycle, drives round a curve, he has to lean __________ to maintain
equilibrium.
A
inward
.
B. outward
25. A circular hole of 50 mm diameter is cut out from a circular disc of 100 mm diameter as
shown in the below figure. The centre of gravity of the section will lie
A
in the shaded area
.
B. in the hole
C
at O
.
26. The maximum velocity of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is
49
B. r
C
2r
.
D
/r
.
27. The loss of kinetic energy due to direct impact of two bodies __________ upon the value of
coefficient of restitution.
A
depends
.
B. does not depend
28. A body of mass m moving with a constant velocity v strikes another body of same
mass m moving with same velocity but in opposite direction. The common velocity of both
the bodies after collision is
A
v
.
B. 2v
C
4v
.
D
8v
.
29. Moment of inertia of a rectangular section having width (b) and depth (d) about an axis
passing through its C.G. and parallel to the width (b), is
A
.
B.
C
.
50
D
.
30. The unit of power in S.I. units is

A
Horsepower
.
B. Joule
C
watt
.
D
kg-m
.
31. According to parallel axis theorem, the moment of inertia of a section about an axis parallel
to the axis through centre of gravity (i.e. IP) is given by(where, A = Area of the section, IG =
Moment of inertia of the section about an axis passing through its C.G., and h = Distance
between C.G. and the parallel axis.)
A
IP = IG + Ah2
.
B. IP = IG - Ah2
C
IP = IG / Ah2
.
D
IP = Ah2 / IG
.
32. The resultant of two equal forces P making an angle , is given by

A
2 P sin /2
.
B. 2 P cos /2
C
2 P tan /2
.
D 2 P cot /2
51
.
33. The force, by which the body is attracted, towards the centre of the earth, is called
A
impulsive force
.
B. mass
C
weight
.
D
momentum
.
34. Coplaner concurrent forces are those forces which

A
.
C
meet at one point and their lines of action also lie on the same plane
.
D
do not meet at one point, but their lines of action lie on the same plane
.
35. The power developed by a body acted upon by a torque T newton metre (N - m) and
revolving at radian/s is given by
A
T. (in watts)
.
B. T./60 (in watts)
C
T./75 (in kilowatts)
.
D
T./4500 (in kilowatts)
.
36. The time taken by a particle for one complete oscillation is known as periodic time.
A
52
B. Disagree
37. The velocity ratio of a first system of pulleys with 4 pulleys is

A
4
.
B. 8
C
16
.
D
20
.
38. One joule means that

A
work is done by a force of 1 N when it displaces a body through 1m
.
B. work is done by a force of 1 kg when it displaces a body through 1 m
C
work is done by a force of 1 dyne when it displaces a body through 1 cm
.
D
work is done by a force of 1 g when it displaces a body through 1 cm
.
39. The moment of inertia of a sphere of mass m and radius r, about an axis tangential to it, is
A
2mr2/3
.
B. 2mr2/5
C
7mr2/3
.
D
7mr2/5
.
40. The velocity ratio for the first system of pulleys is(where n is the number of pulleys.)
A
n
.
53
B. n2
C
2n
.
D
2n - 1
.
41. The ideal angle of banking provided on the curves on roads depends upon
A
weight of the vehicle
.
B. (velocity)2 of the vehicle
C
nature of the road surface
.
D
coefficient of friction between the road and vehicle contact point
.
42. If a pendulum is taken 1 km below the earth surface in a mine, it will __________ in time.
A
gain
.
B. loose
43. The moment of inertia of a thin disc of mass m and radius r, about an axis through its centre
of gravity and perpendicular to the plane of the disc is
A
mr2/2
.
B. mr2/4
C
mr2/6
.
D
mr2/8
.
44. The linear velocity of a body rotating at rad / s along a circular path of radius r is given by
A
54
B. .r
C
2/r
.
D
2.r
.
45. A machine which is capable of doing work in the reversed direction, after the effort is
removed, is called a non-reversible machine.
A
Yes
.
B. No
46. The forces which do not meet at one point and their lines of action do not lie on the same
plane are known as
A
coplaner concurrent forces
.
B. coplaner non-concurrent forces
C
non-coplaner concurrent forces
.
D
none of these
.
47. A non-reversible machine is also called a self-locking machine.

A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
48. Mass moment of inertia of a thin rod about its one end is __________ the mass moment of
inertia of the same rod about its mid-point
A
same as
.
B. Twice
55
C
Thrice
.
D
four times
.
49. Moment of inertia of a hollow rectangular section as shown in the below figure about Y-
Y axis, is not the same as that about X-X axis.
A
Yes
.
B. No
50. The angle of the inclined plane at which a body just begins to slide down the plane, is called
helix angle.
A
True
.
B. False

1. The forces, which meet at one point and their lines of action also lie on the same plane, are
known as
A
.
56
C
non-coplaner concurrent forces
.
D
non-coplaner non-concurrent forces
.
2. The amount, by which the outer edge of the rail is raised, is known as super-elevation.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
3. The unit of energy in S.I. units is

A
Dyne
.
B. Watt
C
kg-m
.
D
Joule
.
4. The angle of inclination of the plane at which the body begins to move down the plane, is
called
A
angle of friction
.
B. angle of repose
C
angle of projection
.
D
none of these
.
5. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

A A force acting in the opposite direction to the motion of the body is called force of
. friction.
57
B. The ratio of the limiting friction to the normal reaction is called coefficient of friction.
C
A machine whose efficiency is 100% is known as an ideal machine.
.
D
The velocity ratio of a machine is the ratio of load lifted to the effort applied.
.
6. The potential energy stored by a spring in compression, is called strain energy.

A
Yes
.
B. No
7. The moment of a force

A
is the turning effect produced by a force, on the body, on which it acts
.
is equal to the product of force acting on the body and the perpendicular distance of a
B.
point and the line of action of the force
C is equal to twice the area of the traingle, whose base is the line representing the force
. and whose vertex is the point, about which the moment is taken
D
all of the above
.
8. The frequency of oscillation of a compound pendulum is(where kG = Radius of gyration

about the centroidal axis, and h = Distance between the point of suspension and C.G. of the
body.)
A
.
B.
C
.
58
D
.
9. In a single threaded worm and worm wheel, the number of teeth on the worm is 50. The
diameter of the effort wheel is 100 mm and that of load drum is 50 mm. The velocity ratio is
A
50
.
B. 100
C
150
.
D
200
.
10. The total motion possessed by a body, is called

A
impulsive force
.
B. mass
C
weight
.
D
momentum
.
11. A lead ball with a certain velocity is made to strike a wall, it falls down, but rubber ball of
same mass and with same velocity strikes the same wall, it rebounds. Select the correct
reason from the following:
A
both the balls undergo an equal change in momentum
.
B. the change in momentum suffered by rubber ball is more than the lead ball
C
the change in momentum suffered by rubber ball is less than the lead ball
.
59
D
none of the above
.
12. If P is the force acting on the body, m is the mass of the body and a is the acceleration of the
body, then according to Newton's second law of motion,
A
P + m.a = 0
.
B. P - m.a = 0
C
P x m.a = 0
.
D
P/m.a = 0
.
13. If the resultant of a number of forces acting on a body is zero, then the body will not be in
equilibrium.
A
Yes
.
B. No
14. The friction experienced by a body, when at rest, is known as

A
static friction
.
B. dynamic friction
C
limiting friction
.
D
coefficient of friction
.
15. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere of mass m and radius r is

A
2mr2/3
.
B. 2mr2/5
60
C
mr2
.
D
mr2/2
.
16. The matter contained in a body, is called

A
impulsive force
.
B. mass
C
weight
.
D
momentum
.
17. The centre of percussion is below the centre of gravity of the body and is at a distance equal
to
A
h/kG
.
B. h2/kG
C
kG2/h
.
D
h x kG
.
18. If a number of coplaner forces acting at a point be in equilibrium, the sum of clockwise
moments must be __________ the sum of anticlockwise moments, about any point.
A
equal to
.
61
B. less than
C
greater than
.
19. The forces, which do not meet at one point, but their lines of action lie on the same plane, are
known as coplaner non-concurrent forces.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
20. If three forces acting at a point be represented in magnitude and direction by the three sides
of a triangle, taken in order, the forces shall be in equilibrium.
A
True
.
B. False
21. The angle which the normal reaction makes with the resultant reaction is called angle of
friction.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree

A The periodic time of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is the time taken
. by a particle for one complete oscillation,
The periodic time of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is directly
B.
proportional to its angular velocity.
C The velocity of the particle moving with simple harmonic motion is zero at the mean
. position.
D The acceleration of the particle moving with simple harmonic motion is maximum at
. the mean position.
23. The law of the machine is(where P = Effort applied to lift the load, m = A constant which is
equal to the slope of the line, W = Load lifted, and C = Another constant which represents the
62
machine friction.)
A
P = mW - C
.
B. P = m/W + C
C
P = mW + C
.
D
P = C - mW
.
24. In a framed structure, as shown in the below figure, the force in the member AB is
__________ the force in member AC.
A
half
.
B. equal to
C
double
.
25. The velocity of a body on reaching the ground from a height h, is

A
.
B.
C
.
63
D
.
26. The moment of the force P about O as shown in the below figure is
A
P x OA
.
B. P x OB
C
P x OC
.
D
P x AC
.
27. According to lami's theorem

A
the three forces must be equal
.
B. the three forces must be at 120 to each other
C
the three forces must be in equilibrium
.
D if the three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, then each force is proportional
. to the sine of the angle between the other two
28. Moment of inertia of a hollow circular section, as shown in the below figure about an axis
perpendicular to the section, is __________ than that about X-X axis.
64
A
two times
.
B. same
C
half
.
29. The amplitude is always __________ radius of the circle.

A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
30. When a body falls freely under gravitational force, it possesses __________ weight.
A
no
.
B. minimum
C
maximum
.
31. The centre of gravity of a quadrant of a circle lies along its central radius (r) at a distance of
A 0.5r
65
.
B. 0.6r
C
0.7r
.
D
0.8r
.
32. The horizontal range of a projectile (R) is given by

A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
33. Which of the following are vector quantities?

A
Angular displacement
.
B. Angular velocity
C
Angular acceleration
.
D
all of these
.
34. The maximum mechanical advantage of a lifting machine is

A
1+m
.
66
B. 1 - m
C
1/m
.
D
m
.
35. A machine having an efficiency greater than 50%, is known as

A
reversible machine
.
B. non-reversible machine
C
neither reversible nor non-reversible machine
.
D
ideal machine
.
36. The impact between two lead spheres is approximately equal to an __________ impact.
A
elastic
.
B. inelastic
37. Moment of inertia of a triangular section of base (b) and height (h) about an axis passing
through its vertex and parallel to the base, is __________ than that passing through its C.G.
and parallel to the base.
A
nine times
.
B. six times
C
four times
.
D
two times
.
67
38. If a body is thrown upwards, then the gravitational acceleration is taken as zero.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
39. An ideal machine is one whose efficiency is

A
between 60 and 70 %
.
B. between 70 and 80%
C
between 80 and 90%
.
D
100%
.
40. The energy possessed by a body, for doing work by virtue of its position, is called
A
potential energy
.
B. kinetic energy
C
electrical energy
.
D
chemical energy
.
41. Moment of inertia is the

A
second moment of force
.
B. second moment of area
C
second moment of mass
.
68
D
all of these
.
42. The coefficient of restitution for inelastic bodies is

A
zero
.
B. one
C
between zero and one
.
D
more than one
.
43. When the lift is moving upwards with some acceleration, the pressure exerted by a man is
__________ proportional to its acceleration.
A
directly
.
B. inversely
44. The term 'centroid' is

A
the same as centre of gravity
.
B. the point of suspension
C the point of application of the resultant of all the forces tending to cause a body to
. rotate about a certain axis
D
none of the above
.
45. Two forces are acting at an angle of 120. The bigger force is 40N and the resultant is
perpendicular to the smaller one. The smaller force is
A
20 N
.
B. 40 N
69
C
80 N
.
D
none of these
.
46. The centre of gravity a T-section 100 mm x 150 mm x 50 mm from its bottom is
A
50mm
.
B. 75mm
C
87.5mm
.
D
125mm
.
47. In order to completely specify angular displacement by a vector, it must fix

A
direction of the axis of rotation
.
B. magnitude of angular displacement
C
sense of angular displacement
.
D
all of these
.
48. Which of the following statement is correct in connection with projectiles?

A
A path, traced by a projectile in the space, is known as trajectory.
.
The velocity, with which a projectile is projected, is known as the velocity of

B.
projection.
70
C The angle, with the horizontal, at which a projectile is projected, is known as angle of
. projection.
D
all of the above
.
49. The acceleration of a body sliding down an inclined surface is

A
g sin
.
B. g cos
C
g tan
.
D
none of these
.
50. If a body is acted upon by a number of coplaner non-concurrent forces, it may

A
rotate about itself without moving
.
B. move in any one direction rotating about itself
C
be completely at rest
.
D
all of these
.

1. The velocity ratio of a simple wheel and axle with D and d as the diameters of effort wheel
and load axle, is
A
D+d
.
B. D - d
71
C
Dxd
.
D
D/d
.
2. The unit of force in S.I. system of units is

A
dyne
.
B. kilogram
C
newton
.
D
watt
.
3. The moment of inertia of a solid cone of mass m and base radius r about its vertical axis is
A
3mr2/5
.
B. 3mr2/10
C
2mr2/5
.
D
4mr2/5
.
4. A body is said to move or vibrate with simple harmonic motion if its acceleration is directed
towards the mean position.
A
True
.
B. False
5. A ladder is resting on a rough ground and leaning against a smooth vertical wall. The force of
friction will act
A downward at its upper end
72
.
B. upward at its upper end
C
zero at its upper end
.
D
perpendicular to the wall at its upper end
.
6. Joule is the unit of

A. force
B. work
C. power
D. velocity
7. The force induced in the string AB due to the load W, as shown in the below figure is
A. W sin
B. W cos
C. W sec
D. W cosec
8. A spherical body is symmetrical about its perpendicular axis. According to Routh's rule, the
moment of inertia of a body about an axis passing through its centre of gravity is(where, M =
Mass of the body, and S = Sum of the squares of the two semi-axes.)
A. MS/3
B. MS/4
C. MS/5
D. none of these
9. The three forces of 100 N, 200 N and 300 N have their lines of action parallel to each other but
act in the opposite directions. These forces are known as
A. coplaner concurrent forces
73
C. like parallel forces
D. unlike parallel forces
10. The efficiency of a lifting machine is the ratio of
A. output to the input
B. work done by the machine to the work done on the machine
C. mechanical advantage to the velocity ratio
D. all of the above
11. A ladder is resting on a smooth ground and leaning against a rough vertical wall. The force of
friction will act
A. towards the wall at its upper and
B. away from the wall at its upper end
C. downward at its upper end
D. upward at its upper end
12. The length of a second's pendulum is
A. 94.9cm
B. 99.4cm
C. 100cm
D. 101cm
13. The slope on the road surface generally provided on the curves is known as
A. angle of friction
B. angle of repose
C. angle of banking
D. none of these
14. Coplaner non-concurrent forces are those forces which __________ at one point, but their
lines of action lie on the same plane.
A. meet
B. do not meel
15. The moment of inertia of a rectangular section 3cm wide and 4cm deep about X-X axis is
74
A. 9cm4
B. 12cm4
C. 16cm4
D. 20cm4
16. A pendulum which executes one beat per second is known as
A
simple pendulum
.
B. compound pendulum
C
torsional pendulum
.
D
second's pendulum
.
17. Two blocks A and B of masses 150 kg and 50 kg respectively are connected by means of a
string as shown in the below figure. The tension in all the three strings __________ be same.
A
will
.
B. will not
18. D' Alembert's principle basically depends upon Newton's second law of motion.
A
Correct
.
75
B. Incorrect
19. The forces, whose lines of action are parallel to each other and act in the same directions, are
known as
A
.
C
like parallel forces
.
D
unlike parallel forces
.
20. A number of forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium, if

A
all the forces are equally inclined
.
B. sum of all the forces is zero
C
sumof resolved parts in the vertical direction is zero (i.e. V = 0)
.
D
none of these
.
21. The cartesian equation of trajectory is(where u = Velocity of projection, = Angle of

projection, and x, y = Co-ordinates of any point on the trajectory after t seconds.)
A
.
B.
C
.
76
D
.
22. In collision of elastic bodies, the coefficient of restitution is the ratio of the relative velocity
after impact to the relative velocity before impact.
A
True
.
B. False
23. In a framed structure, as shown in the below figure, the forces in the members AB and BC are
respectively
A
. (tensile) and 2W (compressive)
B. 2W(tensile) and (compressive)
C
. (tensile) and (compressive)
D
none of the above
.
24. The acceleration of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is proportional to the
displacement of the particle from the mean position.
A
True
.
B. False
25. The unit of moment of inertia of an area is

A kg-m2
77
.
B. kg-m-s2
C
kg/m2
.
D
m4
.
26. The moment of inertia of a thin rod of mass m and length l,about an axis through its centre of
gravity and perpendicular to its length is
A
ml2/4
.
B. ml2/ 6
C
ml2/8
.
D
ml2/12
.
27. When a body of mass m attains a velocity v from rest in time t, then the kinetic energy of
translation is
A
mv2
.
B. mgv2
C
0.5 mv2
.
D
0.5 mgv2
.
28. The unit of angular velocity is

A
m/min
.
78
B. rad/s
C
revolutions/min
.
D
both (B) and (C)
.
E. none of these
29. If a number of forces are acting at a point, their resultant is given by

A
(V)2 + (H)2
.
B.
C
(V)2 +(H)2 +2(V)(H)
.
D
.
30. A force acting in the opposite direction to the motion of the body is called force of friction.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
31. For any system of coplaner forces, the condition of equilibrium is that the
A
algebraic sum of the horizontal components of all the forces should be zero
.
B. algebraic sum of the vertical components of all the forces should be zero
C
algebraic sum of moments of all the forces about any point should be zero
.
D
all of the above
.
79
32. The ratio of static friction to dynamic friction is always
A
equal to one
.
B. less than one
C
greater than one
.
D
none of these
.
33. A science teacher claimed that Newton's third law of motion is involved while studying the
motion of rockets. His statement is
A
justified
.
B. not justified
34. One kg force is equal to

A
7.8 N
.
B. 8.9 N
C
9.8 N
.
D
12 N
.
35. Coefficient of friction depends upon

A
area of contact only
.
B. nature of surface only
C
both (a) and (b)
.
80
D
none of these
.
36. The kinetic energy of a body __________ upon its mass and velocity.
A
does not depend
.
B. depends
37. According to Newton's first law of motion,

A everybody continues in its state of rest or of uniform motion, in a straight line, unless
. it is acted upon by some external force
the rate of change of momentum is directly proportional to the impressed force, and
B.
takes place in the same direction, in which the force acts
C
to every action, there is always an equal and opposite reaction
.
D
none of the above
.
38. The moment of inertia of a square of side (a) about an axis through its centre of gravity is
A
a4/4
.
B. a4/8
C
a4/12
.
D
a4/36
.
39. The velocity ratio of a single purchase crab winch can be increased by
A
increasing the length of the handle
.
B. increasing the radius of the load drum
81
C
increasing the number of teeth of the pinion
.
D
all of the above
.
40. The motion of a wheel of a car is

A
purely translation
.
B. purely rotational
C
combined translation and rotational
.
D
none of these
.
41. If the efficiency of a lifting machine is kept constant, its velocity ratio is __________
propotional to its mechanical advantage.
A
directly
.
B. inversely
42. Non-coplaner non-concurrent forces are those forces which

A
.
C
do not meet at one point but their lines of action lie on the same plane
.
D
none of the above
.
43. The forces which meet at one point, but their lines of action __________ on the same plane,
are Known as non-coplaner concurrent forces.
A lie
82
.
B. do not lie
44. A force while acting on a body may

A
change its motion
.
B. balance the forces, already acting on it
C
give rise to the internal stresses in it
.
D
all of these
.
45. A screw jack used for lifting the loads is

A
a reversible machine
.
B. a non-reversible machine
C
an ideal machine
.
D
none of these
.
46. The wheels of a moving car possess

A
potential energy only
.
B. kinetic energy of translation only
C
kinetic energy of rotation only
.
D
kinetic energy of translation and rotation both
.
83
47. In order to determine the effects of a force, acting on a body, we must know
A
magnitude of the force
.
B. line of action of the force
C
nature of the force i,e. whether the force is push or pull
.
D
all of the above
.
48. The negative acceleration is called retardation.

A
True
.
B. False
49. The maximum displacement of a body, from its mean position is called amplitude.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
50. A lifting machine lifts a load of 1000N through a distance of 0.2 m by means of an effort of
200N through a distance of 1m. This machine is an ideal one.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect

1. When a body of mass moment of inertia I (about a given axis) is rotated about that axis with
an angular velocity to, then the kinetic energy of rotation is
A
I
.
B. I2
84
C
0.5I
.
D
0.5I2
.
2. The force applied on a body of mass 100 kg to produce an acceleration of 5 m/s2, is

A
20N
.
B. 100N
C
500N
.
D
none of these
.
3. The motion of the body from one extremity to the other is known as a beat.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
4. The centre of gravity of a rectangle lies at a point where its two diagonals meet each other.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
5. A framed structure is perfect, if the number of members are __________ (2j - 3), where j is
the number of joints.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
85
D
either (b) or (c)
.
6. Moment of inertia of a hollow rectangular section as shown in the below figure about X-
X axis, is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
7. Two equal and opposite parallel forces whose lines of action are different, can be replaced by
a single force parallel to the given forces.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
8. All the steel trusses of the bridges, have one of their end roller supported, and other end
hinged. The main advantage of such a support is that the truss remains stable.
A
True
.
B. False
9. The time of flight of a projectile on downward inclined plane depends upon
86
B. angle of inclination of the plane
C
both (a) and (b)
.
D
none of these
.
10. The force induced in the string BC due to the load W as shown in the below figure is
A
W sin
.
B. W cos
C
W tan
.
D
W cot
.

A
The algebraic sum of the forces, constituting the couple is zero.
.
B. The algebraic sum of the forces, constituting the couple, about any point is the same.
C A couple cannot be balanced by a single force but can be balanced only by a couple of
. opposite sense.
D
all of the above
.
12. The velocity ratio of a differential wheel and axle with D as the diameter of effort wheel
and d1,and d2 as the diameters of larger and smaller axles respectively, is
87
B.
C
.
D
.
2. Hydraulics and Fluid Mechanics - Section 1

1. One litre of water occupies a volume of
A
100 cm3
.
B. 250 cm3
C
500 cm3
.
D
1000 cm3
.
2. The value of bulk modulus of a fluid is required to determine

A
Reynold's number
.
B. Froude's number
C
Mach number
.
D
Euler's number
.
3. In a depressed nappe
88
A
the pressure below the nappe is atmospheric
.
B. the pressure below the nappe is negative
C
the pressure above the nappe is atmospheric
.
D
the pressure above the nappe is negative
.
4. In one dimensional flow, the flow

A
is steady and uniform
.
B. takes place in straight line
C
takes place in curve
.
D
takes place in one direction
.
5. The kinematic viscosity is the

A
ratio of absolute viscosity to the density of the liquid
.
B. ratio of density of the liquid to the absolute viscosity
C
product of absolute viscosity and density of the liquid
.
D
product of absolute viscosity and mass of the liquid
.
6. The diameter of the nozzle (d) for maximum transmission of power is given by (where D =
Diameter of pipe, f = Darcy 's coefficient of friction for pipe, and l = Length of pipe )
A
.
89
B.
C
.
D
.
7. The discharge over a right angled notch is (where H = Height of liquid above the apex of
notch)
A
. Cd 2g x H
B.
Cd 2g x H3/2
C
. Cd 2g x H2
D
. Cd 2g x H5/2
8. A weir is said to be broad crested weir, if the width of the crest of the weir is __________
half the height of water above the weir crest.
A
equal to.
.
B. less than
C
more than
.
9. A vertical wall is subjected to a pressure due to one kind of liquid, on one of its sides. The
total pressure on the wall per unit length is (where w = Specific weight of liquid, and H =
Height of liquid)
A
wH
.
90
B. wH/2
C
wH2/2
.
D
wH2/3
.
10. An error of 1% in measuring head over the apex of the notch (H) will produce an error of
__________ in discharge over a triangular notch.
A
1%
.
B. 1.5%
C
2%
.
D
2.5%
.
11. The length AB of a pipe ABC in which the liquid is flowing has diameter (d1) and is suddenly
enlarged to diameter (d2) at B which is constant for the length BC. The loss of head due to
sudden enlargement is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
12. Coefficient of contraction is the ratio of

A
actual velocity of jet at vena contracta to the theoretical velocity
.
91
B. loss of head in the orifice to the head of water available at the exit of the orifice
C
actual discharge through an orifice to the theoretical discharge
.
D
area of jet at vena contracta to the area of orifice
.
13. In a free nappe,

A
the pressure below the nappe is atmospheric
.
B. the pressure below the nappe is negative
C
the pressure above the nappe is atmospheric
.
D
the pressure above the nappe is negative
.
14. The Reynold's number of a ship is __________ to its velocity and length.
A
directly proportional
.
B. inversely proportional
15. When a tube of smaller diameter is dipped in water, the water rises in the tube due to
viscosity of water.
A
True
.
B. False
16. According to equation of continuity,

A
w1a1 = w2a2
.
B. w1v1 = w2v2
92
C
a1v1 = a2v2
.
D
a1/v1 = a2/v2
.
17. Coefficient of resistance is the ratio of

A
.
B. area of jet at vena contracta to the area of orifice
C
loss of head in the orifice to the head of water available at the exit of the orifice
.
D
actual discharge through an orifice to the dieoretical discharge
.
18. Euler's equation in the differential form for the motion of liquids is given by
A
.
B.
C
.dp + g.dz + v.dv = 0
.
D
.dp - g.dz + v.dv = 0
.
19. In order to measure the flow with a venturimeter, it is installed in

A
horizontal line
.
B. inclined line with flow upwards
C
inclined line with flow downwards
.
93
D
any direction and in any location
.
20. The discharge through a large rectangular orifice is given by (where H1 = Height of the liquid
above the top of the orifice, H2 = Height of the liquid above the bottom of the orifice, b =
Breadth of the orifice, and Cd = Coefficient of discharge)
A
. Q= Cd x b2g(H2 - H1)
B.
Q= Cd x b2g(H21/2 - H11/2)
C
. Q= Cd x b2g(H23/2 - H13/2)
D
. Q= Cd x b2g(H22 - H12)
21. The discharge over a rectangular notch is (where b = Width of notch, and H = Height of
liquid, above the sill of the notch)
A
. Cd x b2gH
B.
Cd x b2g x H
C
. Cd x b2g x H3/2
D
. Cd x b2g x H2
22. The discharge through a siphon spillway is

A
Cd x a2gH
.
B. Cd x a2g x H3/2
C
Cd x a2g x H2
.
94
D
Cd x a2g x H5/2
.
23. The maximum discharge over a broad crested weir is

A
0.384 Cd x L x H1/2
.
B. 0.384 Cd x L x H3/2
C
1.71 Cd x L x H1/2
.
D
1.71 Cd x L x H3/2
.
24. In a venturimeter, the velocity of liquid at throat is __________ than at inlet.

A
higher
.
B. lower
25. The loss of head due to friction in a pipe of uniform diameter in which a viscous flow is
taking place, is (where RN= Reynold number)
A
1/RN
.
B. 4/RN
C
16/RN
.
D
64/RN
.
26. Which of the following is an example of laminar flow?

A
Under ground flow
.
B. Flow past tiny bodies
95
C
Flow of oil in measuring instruments
.
D
all of these
.
27. The pressure less than atmospheric pressure is known as

A
suction pressure
.
B. vacuum pressure
C
negative gauge pressure
.
D
all of these
.
28. The total energy line lies over the hydraulic gradient line by an amount equal to the
A
pressure head
.
B. velocity head
C
pressure head + velocity head
.
D
pressure head - velocity head
.
29. A structure whose width is __________ the width of the channel, is called a flumed structure.
A
less than
.
B. more than
30. The maximum efficiency of transmission through a pipe is

A 50%
96
.
B. 56.7%
C
66.67%
.
D
76.66%
.
31. The coefficient of viscosity may be determined by

A
capillary tube method
.
B. orifice type viscometer
C
rotating cylinder method
.
D
all of these
.
32. The stability of a dam is checked for

A
tension at the base
.
B. overturning of the wall or dam
C
sliding of the wall or dam
.
D
all of these
.
33. An ideal fluid is frictionless and incompressible.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
97
34. A manometer is used to measure
A
low pressure
.
B. moderate pressure
C
high pressure
.
D
atomospheric pressure
.
35. The centre of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced is called
A
centre of pressure
.
B. centre of buoyancy
C
metacentre
.
D
none of these
.
36. The coefficient of discharge for an external mouthpiece is

A
0.375
.
B. 0.5
C
0.707
.
D
0.855
.
37. A tank of uniform cross-sectional area (A) containing liquid upto height (H1) has an orifice of
cross-sectional area (a) at its bottom. The time required to empty the tank completely will be
A
.
98
B.
C
.
D
.
38. A siphon is used to connect two reservoirs at different levels intervened by a high ridge.
A
True
.
B. False
39. A flow in which the volume of a fluid and its density does not change during the flow is
called __________ flow.
A
incompressible
.
B. compressible
40. The loss of head due to an obstruction in a pipe is twice the loss of head at its entrance.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
41. The body will sink down if the force of buoyancy is __________ the weight of the liquid
displaced.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
more than
.
42. If a body floating in a liquid returns back to its original position, when given a small angular
99
displacement, the body is said to be in
A
neutral equilibrium
.
B. stable equilibrium
C
unstable equilibrium
.
D
none of these
.
43. The pressure measured with the help of a piezometer tube is in

A
N/mm2
.
B. N/m2
C
head of liquid
.
D
all of these
.
44. The power transmitted through a pipe is (where w = Specific weight in N/m3, and Q =
Discharge in m3/s)
A
wxQxH
.
B. w x Q x hf
C
w x Q (H - hf)
.
D
w x Q (H + hf)
.
45. In an external mouthpiece, the absolute pressure head at vena contracta is __________ the
atmospheric pressure head by an amount equal to 0.89 times the height of the liquid, above
the vena contracta.
A
less than
100
B. more than
46. The weight per unit volume of a liquid at a standard temperature and pressure is called
A
specific weight
.
B. mass density
C
specific gravity
.
D
none of these
.
47. The centre of buoyancy is the centre of area of the immersed body.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
48. The metacentric heights of two floating bodies A and B are 1 m and 1.5 m respectively.
Select the correct statement.
A
The bodies A and B have equal stability
.
B. The body A is more stable than body B
C
The body B is more stable than body A
.
D
The bodies A and B are unstable
.
49. In open channels, the specific energy is the

A
total energy per unit discharge
.
total energy measured with respect to the datum passing through the bottom of the
B.
channel
101
C
total energy measured above the horizontal datum
.
D
kinetic energy plotted above the free surface of water
.
50. The Bernoulli's equation is based on the assumption that

A
there is no loss of energy of the liquid flowing
.
B. the velocity of flow is uniform across any cross-section of the pipe
C
no force except gravity acts on the fluid
.
D
all of the above
.
Hydraulics and Fluid Mechanics - Section 2

1. A compound pipe of diameter d1, d2 and d3 having lengths l1, l2 and l3 is to be replaced by an
equivalent pipe of uniform diameter d and of the same length (l) as that of the compound
pipe. The size of the equivalent pipe is given by
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
2. The velocity corresponding to Reynold number of 2800, is called
102
A
sub-sonic velocity
.
B. super-sonic velocity
C
lower critical velocity
.
D
higher critical velocity
.
3. When the pipes are in series, the total head loss is equal to the sum of the head loss in each
pipe.
A
Yes
.
B. No
4. Whenever a plate is held immersed at some angle with the direction of flow of the liquid, it is
subjected to some pressure. The component of this pressure, at right angles to the direction of
flow of the liquid is known as lift.
A
True
.
B. False
5. The efficiency of power transmission through pipe is (where H = Total supply head, and hf =
Head lost due to friction in the pipe)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
103
6. The discharge over a rectangular weir, considering the velocity of approach, is (where H1 =
Total height of water above the weir = H + Ha H = Height of water, over the crest of the weir,
and Ha = Height of water, due to velocity of approach)
A
. Cd x L2g [H1 - Ha]
B. Cd x L2g [H13/2 - Ha3/2]
C
. Cd x L2g [H12 - Ha2]
D
. Cd x L2g [H15/2 - Ha5/2]
7. A flow in which __________ force is dominating over the viscosity is called turbulent flow.
A
elastic
.
B. surface tension
C
viscous
.
D
inertia
.
8. If an incompressible liquid is continuously flowing through a pipe, the quantity of liquid

passing per second is different at different sections.
A
True
.
B. False
9. The atmospheric pressure at sea level is

A
103 kN/m2
.
B. 10.3 m of water
104
C
760 mm of mercury
.
D
all of these
.
10. When the pressure intensity at a point is less than the local atmospheric pressure, then the
difference of these two pressures is called vacuum pressure.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
11. Reynold's number is the ratio of inertia force to

A
pressure force
.
B. elastic force
C
gravity force
.
D
viscous force
.
12. The unit of dynamic viscosity in S.I. units is

A
N-m/s2
.
B. N-s/m2
C
poise
.
D
stoke
.
13. Bulk modulus of a fluid __________ as the pressure increases.

A
remains same
.
105
B. decreases
C
increases
.
14. The hydraulic gradient line may be above or below the centre line of the pipe.
A
True
.
B. False
15. A water tank contains 1.3 m deep water. The pressure exerted by the water per metre length
of the tank is
A
2.89 kN
.
B. 8.29 kN
C
9.28 kN
.
D
28.9 kN
.
16. The specific gravity has no units.

A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
17. The depth of water in a channel corresponding to the minimum specific energy is known as
critical depth.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
18. The ratio of the inertia force to the gravity force is called Froude number.
A
Agree
.
106
B. Disagree
19. Which of the following statement is wrong?

A
A flow whose streamline is represented by a curve, is called two dimensional flow.
.
The total energy of a liquid particle is the sum of potential energy, kinetic energy and
B.
pressure energy.
C
The length of divergent portion in a venturimeter is equal to the convergent portion.
.
D
A pitot tube is used to measure the velocity of flow at the required point in a pipe.
.
20. A vertically immersed surface is shown in the below figure. The distance of its centre of
pressure from the water surface is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
21. The Francis formula for the discharge over Cippoletti weir is
A 1.84 LH1/2
107
.
B. 1.84 LH
C
1.84 LH3/2
.
D
1.84 LH5/2
.
22. Laminar flow __________ place at very low velocities.

A
takes
.
B. does not take
23. A manometer can be used to measure vacuum pressures.

A
Agree
.
B. disagree
24. The error in discharge (dQ/Q) to the error in measurement of head (dH/H) over a rectangular
notch is given by
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
25. The tendency of a liquid to uplift a submerged body, because of the upward thrust of the
liquid, is known as buoyancy.
A Agree
108
.
B. Disagree
26. An open tank containing liquid is made to move from rest with a uniform acceleration. The
angle 0 which the free surface of liquid makes with the horizontal is such that (where a =
Horizontal acceleration of the tank, and g = Acceleration due to gravity)
A
tan = a/g
.
B. tan = 2 a/g
C
tan = a/2g
.
D
tan = a2/2g
.
27. The discharge over a triangular notch is

A
inversely proportional to H3/2
.
B. directly proportional to H3/2
C
.
D
directly proportional to H5/2
.
28. The discharge through an external mouthpiece is given by (where a = Cross-sectional area of
the mouthpiece, and H = Height of liquid above the mouthpiece)
A
0.855 a2gH
.
B. 1.855 aH2g
C
1.585 a2gH
.
109
D
5.85 aH2g
.
29. The loss of pressure head in case of laminar flow is proportional to

A
velocity
.
B. (velocity)2
C
(velocity)3
.
D
(velocity)4
.
30. The flow of water through the hole in the bottom of a wash basin is an example of
A
steady flow
.
B. uniform flow
C
free vortex
.
D
forced vortex
.
31. A glass tube of smaller diameter is used while performing an experiment for the capillary rise
of water because
A
it is easier to see through the glass tube
.
B. glass tube is cheaper than a metallic tube
C
it is not possible to conduct this experiment with any other tube
.
D
all of the above
.
110
32. The viscosity of a liquid is due to cohesion of its particles.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
33. A compound pipe is required to be replaced by a new pipe. The two pipes are said to be
equivalent, if
A
length of both the pipes is same
.
B. diameter of both the pipes is same
C
loss of head and discharge of both the pipes is same
.
D
loss of head and velocity of flow in both the pipes is same
.
34. In a footstep bearing, if the speed of the shaft is doubled, then the torque required to
overcome the viscous resistance will be
A
double
.
B. four times
C
eight times
.
D
sixteen times
.
35. The viscosity of water is __________ than that of mercury.

A
higher
.
B. lower
36. The velocity at which the laminar flow stops, is known as

A velocity of approach
111
.
B. lower critical velocity
C
.
D
none of these
.
37. When a cylindrical vessel, containing some liquid, is rotated about its vertical axis, the liquid
surface is depressed down at the axis of its rotation and rises up near the walls of the vessel
on all sides. This type of flow is known as
A
steady flow
.
B. turbulent flow
C
vortex flow
.
D
uniform flow
.
38. The Newton's law of resistance is based on the assumption that the
A
planes of the body are completely smooth
.
B. space around the body is completely filled with the fluid
C
fluid particles do not exert any influence on one another
.
D
all of the above
.
39. The Euler's equation for the motion of liquids is based upon the assumption that
A
the fluid is non - viscous, homogeneous and incompressible
.
112
B. the velocity of flow is uniform over the section
C
the flow is continuous, steady and along the stream line
.
D
all of the above
.
40. A weir is usually made of masonry or concrete.

A
Yes
.
B. No
41. The shear stress-strain graph for a newtonian fluid is a

A
straight line
.
B. parabolic curve
C
hyperbolic curve
.
D
elliptical
.
42. If a pitot tube is placed with its nose upstream, downstream or sideways, the reading will be
the same in every case.
A
True
.
B. False
43. A flow in which each liquid particle does not have a definite path and the paths of individual
particles also cross each other, is called turbulent flow.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
113
44. A flow in which the viscosity of fluid is dominating over the inertia force is called
A
steady flow
.
B. unsteady flow
C
laminar flow
.
D
turbulent flow
.
45. An air vessel is provided at the summit in a syphon to

A
avoid interruption in the flow
.
B. increase discharge
C
increase velocity
.
D
maintain pressure difference
.
46. If a body floating in a liquid does not return back to its original position, and heels farther
"away when given a small angular displacement, the body is said to be in neutral
equilibrium.
A
Yes
.
B. No
47. The length of the divergent cone in a venturimeter is __________ that of the convergent
cone.
A
equal to
.
B. double
C three to four times
114
.
D
five to six times
.
48. A flow through a long pipe at constant rate is called

A
steady uniform flow
.
B. steady non-uniform flow
C
unsteady uniform flow
.
D
unsteady non-uniform flow
.
49. The volume per unit mass of a liquid is called specific volume.
A
Yes
.
B. No
50. In an external or internal mouthpiece, the absolute pressure head at vena contracta is zero
when atmospheric pressure head is 10.3 m of water.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect

1. In a short cylindrical external mouthpiece, the vena contracta occurs at a distance
__________ the diameter of the orifice from the outlet of orifice.
A
equal to
.
B. one-fourth
115
C
one-third
.
D
one-half
.
2. Viscous force is the __________ of shear stress due to viscosity and cross-sectionar area of
flow.
A
sum
.
B. different
C
product
.
D
ratio
.
3. The density of air is same at different heights.

A
Correct.
.
B. Incorrect
4. The total pressure on a horizontally immersed surface is (where w = Specific weight of the
liquid, A = Area of the immersed surface, and x = Depth of the centre of gravity of the
immersed surface from the liquid surface)
A
w.A
.
B. wx
C
wAx
.
D
wA/x
.
5. A body floating in a liquid is said to be in a stable equilibrium, if its metacentre coincides

with its centre of gravity.
116
B. False
6. The loss of head at entrance in a pipe is (where v = Velocity of liquid in the pipe)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
7. When an internal mouthpiece is running free, the discharge through the mouthpiece is
(where a = Area of mouthpiece, and H = Height of liquid above the mouthpiece)
A
0.5 a2gH
.
B. 0.707 a2gH
C
0.855 a2gH
.
D
a2gH
.
8. A flow through an expanding tube at increasing rate is called unsteady non-uniform flow.
A
Yes
.
B. No
9. Water is __________ liquid.

A
a compressible
.
B. an incompressible
117
10. With an increase in size of tube, the rise or depression of liquid in the tube due to surface
tension will
A
decrease
.
B. increase
C
remain unchanged
.
D
depend upon the characteristics of liquid
.
11. Which of the following statement is correct ?

A
In a compressible flow, the volume of the flowing liquid changes during the flow.
.
A flow in which the volume of the flowing liquid does not change, is called
B.
incompressible flow.
C When the particles rotate about their own axes while flowing, the flow is said to be
. rotational flow.
D
all of the above
.
12. The rise, in water level, which occurs during the transformation of the unstable shooting flow
to the stable streaming flow is called hydraulic jump.
A
Yes
.
B. No
13. One stoke is equal to

A
10-2 m2/s
.
B. 10-3 m2/s
118
C
10-4 m2/s
.
D
10-6 m2/s
.
14. The water hammer in pipes occurs due to sudden change in the velocity of flowing liquid
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
15. A venturiflume is a flumed structure constructed across a channel by restricting its width.
A
True
.
B. False
16. The velocity corresponding to Reynold number of 2000 is called

A
sub-sonic velocity
.
B. super-sonic velocity
C
lower critical velocity
.
D
.
17. The specific weight of water in S.I. units is taken as

A
9.81 kN/m3
.
B. 9.81 x 103 N/m3
C 9.81 x 10-6 N/mm3
119
.
D
any one of these
.
18. The loss of head at exit of a pipe is

A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
19. The flow in a pipe is laminar, when Reynold number is less than 2000.
A
True
.
B. False
20. The power transmitted through the pipe is maximum when the head lost due to friction is
equal to
A
one-fourth of the total supply head
.
B. one-third of the total supply head
C
one-half of the total supply head
.
D
two-third of the total supply head
.
21. Select the correct statement

A Weber's number is the ratio of inertia force to elastic force.
120
.
B. Weber's number is the ratio of gravity force to surface tension force.
C
Weber's number is the ratio of viscous force to pressure force.
.
D
Weber's number is the ratio of inertia force to surface tension force.
.
The specific weight of sea water is __________ that of pure water.

22. A same as
.
B. less than
C
more than
.
23. If a body floating in a liquid occupies a new position and remains at rest in this new position,
when given a small angular displacement, The body is said to be in __________ equilibrium.
A
neutral
.
B. stable
C
unstable
.
24. The force exerted by a moving fluid on an immersed body is directly proportional to the rate
of change of momentum due to the presence of the body. This statement is called
A
Newton's law of motion
.
B. Newton's law of cooling
C
Newton's law of viscosity
.
121
D
Newton's law of resistance
.
25. The most economical section of a trapezoidal channel is one which has hydraulic mean depth
equal to
A
1/2 depth
.
B. 1/2 breadth
C
1/2 sloping side
.
D
1/4 (depth + breadth)
.
26. A flow is called sub-sonic, if the Mach number is

A
less than unity
.
B. unity
C
between 1 and 6
.
D
more than 6
.
27. The discharge of a depressed nappe is 6 to 7 percent __________ that of a free nappe.
A
less than
.
B. more than
28. Re-entrant or Borda's mouthpiece is an __________ mouthpiece.

A
internal
.
B. external
122
29. The flow in a pipe is neither laminar nor turbulent when Reynold number is
A
less than 2000
.
B. between 2000 and 2800
C
more than 2800
.
D
none of these
.
30. The intensity of pressure on an immersed surface __________ with the increase in depth.
A
does not change
.
B. increases
C
decreases
.
31. According to Pascal's law, the intensity of pressure at any point in a fluid at rest is the same
in all directions.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
32. The ratio of the inertia force to the surface tension force is called Weber's number.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
33. For a perfect incompressible liquid, flowing in a continuous stream, the total energy of a
particle remains the same, while the particle moves from one point to another. This statement
is called
A
continuity equation
.
123
B. Bernoulli's equation
C
Pascal's law
.
D
Archimede's principle
.
34. The buoyancy depends upon the

A
weight of the liquid displaced
.
B. pressure with which the liquid is displaced
C
viscosity of the liquid
.
D
compressibility of the liquid
.
35. In an internal mouthpiece, the absolute pressure head at vena contracta is __________ the
atmospheric pressure head by an amount equal to height of the liquid above the vena
contracta.
A
less than
.
B. more than
36. When the coefficient of discharge (Cd) is 0.623, then the general equation for discharge over
a rectangular weir is
A
1.84(L - 0.1nH)H3/2
.
B. 1.84(L - nH)H2
C
1.84(L - 0.1nH)H5/2
.
124
D
1.84(L - nH)H3
.
37. The total energy line lies over the centre line of the pipe by an amount equal to
A
pressure head
.
B. velocity head
C
.
D
.
38. A piezometer tube is used only for measuring

A
low pressure
.
B. high pressure
C
moderate pressure
.
D
vacuum pressure
.
39. The flow in a pipe is turbulent when Reynold number is

A
less than 2000
.
B. between 2000 and 2800
C
more than 2800
.
D
none of these
.
40. When a tank containing liquid moves with an acceleration in the horizontal direction, then
125
the free surface of the liquid
A
remains horizontal
.
B. becomes curved
C
falls on the front end
.
D
falls on the back end
.
41. The discharge through a small rectangular orifice is given by (where Cd = Coefficient of
discharge for the orifice, a = Cross-sectional area of the orifice, h = Height of the liquid
above the centre of the orifice)
A
Q = Cd x a x 2gh
.
B.
C
.
D
.
42. The siphon will work satisfactorily, if the minimum pressure in the pipe is __________
vapour pressure of liquid.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
more than
.
43. The difference between the notch and weir is that the notch is of bigger size and the weir is
of a smaller size.
A
Agree
.
126
B. Disagree
44. An open tank containing liquid is moving with an acceleration on an inclined plane. The
inclination of the free surface of the liquid will be __________ to the acceleration of the
tank.
A
equal to
.
B. directly proportional
C
inversely proportional
.
45. Euler's number is the ratio of __________ force to pressure force.

A
inertia
.
B. gravity
C
viscous
.
46. The most economical section of a rectangular channel is one which has hydraulic mean depth
or hydraulic radius equal to
A
half the depth
.
B. half the breadth
C
twice the depth
.
D
twice the breadth
.
47. The ratio of velocity of fluid in an undisturbed stream to the velocity of sound wave is
known as Mach number.
A
Yes
.
127
B. No
48. The length AB of a pipe ABC in which the liquid is flowing has diameter (d1) and is suddenly
contracted to diameter (d2) at B which is constant for the length BC. The loss of head due to
sudden contraction, assuming coefficient of contraction as 0.62, is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
49. All the gases are considered to have compressible flow and all the liquids are considered to
have incompressible flow.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
50. When a cylindrical vessel containing liquid is revolved, the surface of the liquid takes the
shape of
A
a triangle
.
B. a paraboloid
C
an ellipse
.
D
none of these
.
128
1. The hydraulic mean depth or the hydraulic radius is the ratio of
A
area of flow and wetted perimeter
.
B. wetted perimeter and diameter of pipe
C
velocity of flow and area of flow
.
D
none of these
.
2. The imaginary line drawn in the fluid in such a way that the tangent to any point gives the
direction of motion at that point, is known as
A
path line
.
B. stream line
C
steak line
.
D
potential line
.
3. A hemispherical tank of radius (R) has an orifice of cross-sectional area (a) at its bottom and
is full of liquid. The time required to empty the tank completely is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
129
4. Stoke is the unit of
A
kinematic viscosity in C. G. S. units
.
B. kinematic viscosity in M. K. S. units
C
dynamic viscosity in M. K. S. units
.
D
dynamic viscosity in S. I. units
.
5. One poise is equal to

A
0.1 N-s/m2
.
B. 1 N-s/m2
C
10 N-s/m2
.
D
100 N-s/m2
.
6. The absolute pressure is equal to

A
gauge pressure + atmospheric pressure
.
B. gauge pressure - atmospheric pressure
C
atmospheric pressure - gauge pressure
.
D
gauge pressure - vacuum pressure
.
7. When the pressure intensity at a point is more than the local atmospheric pressure, then the
difference of these two pressures is called
A
gauge pressure
.
130
B. absolute pressure
C
positive gauge pressure
.
D
vacuum pressure
.
8. The hammer blow in pipes occurs when

A
there is excessive leakage in the pipe
.
B. the pipe bursts under high pressure of fluid
C
the flow of fluid through the pipe is suddenly brought to rest by closing of the valve
.
D
the flow of fluid through the pipe is gradually brought to rest by closing of the valve
.
9. When a body is placed over a liquid, it will sink down if

A
gravitational force is equal to the upthrust of the liquid
.
B. gravitational force is less than the upthrust of the liquid
C
gravitational force is more than the upthrust of the liquid
.
D
none of the above
.
0. When a cylindrical vessel of radius (r) containing liquid is revolved about its vertical axis
rad/s, then depth of parabola which the liquid assumes is
A
.
B.
131
C
.
D
.
11. A flow whose streamline is represented by a curve, is called

A
one-dimensional flow
.
B. two-dimensional flow
C
three-dimensional flow
.
D
four-dimensional flow
.
12. When the Mach number is less than unity, the flow is called
A
sub-sonic flow
.
B. sonic flow
C
super-sonic flow
.
D
hyper-sonic flow
.
13. When the end contractions of the weir are suppressed, then number of end contractions (n)
are taken as zero
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
14. A flow is called hyper-sonic, if the Mach number is

A
less than unity
.
132
B. unity
C
between 1 and 6
.
D
none of these
.
15. The power absorbed (in watts) in overcoming the viscous resistance of a footstep bearing is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
16. The intensity of pressure at any point, in a liquid, is

A
directly proportional to the area of the vessel containing liquid
.
B. directly proportional to the depth of liquid from the surface
C
directly proportional to the length of the vessel containing liquid
.
D
inversely proportional to the depth of liquid from the surface
.
17. If the depth of water in an open channel is greater than the critical depth, the flow is called
A
critical flow
.
B. turbulent flow
133
C
tranquil flow
.
D
torrential flow
.
18. A submerged body is said to be in a stable equilibrium, if its centre of gravity __________
the centre of buoyancy.
A
coincides with
.
B. lies below
C
lies above
.
19. The critical depth for a channel is given by (where q = Unit discharge (discharge per unit
width) through the channel)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
20. The liquid used in manometers should have

A
low density
.
B. high density
C
low surface tension
.
134
D
high surface tension
.
21. The viscosity of a liquid __________ its rate of flow through a hole in a vessel.
A
effects
.
B. does not effect
22. The formula for discharge over a sharp-crested weir and Ogee weir is same as that of a
rectangular weir
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
23. The Cippoletti weir is a __________ weir.

A
rectangular
.
B. triangular
C
trapezoidal
.
D
circular
.
24. When a body is placed over a liquid, it will float if

A
gravitational force is equal to the upthrust of the liquid
.
B. gravitational force is less than the upthrust of the liquid
C
gravitational force is more than the upthrust of the liquid
.
D
none of the above
.
135
25. Gauge pressure at a point is equal to the absolute pressure __________ the atmospheric
pressure.
A
plus
.
B. minus
26. The pressure of a liquid measured with the help of a piezometer tube is
A
vacuum pressure
.
B. gauge pressure
C
absolute pressure
.
D
atmospheric pressure
.
27. The hydraulic gradient line lies over the centre line of the pipe by an amount equal to the
A
pressure head
.
B. velocity head
C
.
D
.
28. The flow in a pipe or channel is said to be non-uniform when

A
the liquid particles at all sections have the same velocities
.
B. the liquid particles at different sections have different velocities
C
the quantity of liquid flowing per second is constant
.
136
D
each liquid particle has a definite path
.
29. The ratio of the inertia force to the viscous force is called
A
Reynold's number
.
B. Froude's number
C
Weber's number
.
D
Euler's number
.
30. A flow whose streamline is represented by a straight line, is called __________ dimensional
flow.
A
one
.
B. two
C
three
.
D
four
.
31. The velocity at which the flow changes from laminar flow to turbulent flow is called
A
critical velocity
.
B. velocity of approach
C
sub-sonic velocity
.
D
super-sonic velocity
.
137
32. The discharge through a channel of trapezoidal section is maximum when
A
width of channel at the top is equal to twice the width at the bottom
.
B. depth of channel is equal to the width at the bottom
C
the sloping side is equal to half the width at the top
.
D
the sloping side is equal to the width at the bottom
.
33. The vacuum pressure is always the negative gauge pressure.

A
Yes
.
B. No
34. The value of coefficient of discharge is __________ the value of coefficient of velocity.
A
less than
.
B. same as
C
more than
.
35. When the water level on the downstream side of a weir is above the top surface of a weir, the
weir is known as
A
narrow-crested weir
.
B. broad-crested weir
C
Ogee weir
.
D
submerged weir
.
138
36. Reynold's number is the ratio of the inertia force to the
A
surface tension force
.
B. viscous force
C
gravity force
.
D
elastic force
.
37. A uniform body 3 m long, 2 m wide and 1 m deep floats in water. If the depth of immersion
is 0.6 m, then the weight of the body is
A
3.53 kN
.
B. 33.3 kN
C
35.3 kN
.
D
none of these
.
38. A weir is said to be narrow-crested weir, if the width of the crest of the weir is __________
half the height of water above the weir crest.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
more than
.
39. The total pressure on an immersed surface inclined at an angle with the liquid surface is
A
wA
.
B. wx
139
C
wAx
.
D
wAx/sin
.
40. Turbulent flow takes place at high velocities.

A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
41. When a plate is immersed in a liquid parallel to the flow, it will be subjected to a pressure
__________ that if the same plate is immersed perpendicular to the flow.
A
less than
.
B. more than
42. The hydraulic mean depth for a circular pipe of diameter (d) is
A
d/6
.
B. d/4
C
d/2
.
D
d
.
43. The tangential velocity of the water element having a free vortex is
A
directly proportional to its distance from the centre
.
B. inversely proportional to its distance from the centre
140
C
directly proportional to its (distance)2 from the centre
.
D
inversely proportional to its (distance)2 from the centre
.
44. The unit of kinematic viscosity in S. I. units is

A
N-m/s
.
B. N-s/m2
C
m2/s
.
D
N-m
.
45. A fluid whose viscosity does not change with the rate of deformation or shear strain is known
as
A
real fluid
.
B. ideal fluid
C
newtonian fluid
.
D
non-newtonian fluid
.
46. The variation in the volume of a liquid with the variation of pressure is called its
A
surface tension
.
B. compressibility
C
capillarity
.
141
D
viscosity
.
47. The pressure measured with the help of a pressure gauge is called
A
.
B. gauge pressure
C
absolute pressure
.
D
mean pressure
.
48. A venturiflume is used to measure

A
pressure of liquid
.
B. discharge of liquid
C
pressure difference between two points in a channel
.
D
pressure difference between two points in a pipe
.
49. The line of action of the force of buoyancy acts through the centre of gravity of the volume
of the liquid displaced.
A
True
.
B. False
50. The metacentric height is the distance between the

A
centre of gravity of the floating body and the centre of buoyancy
.
B. centre of gravity of the floating body and the metacentre
142
C
metacentre and centre of buoyancy
.
D
original centre of buoyancy and new centre of buoyancy
.

1. A glass tube of small diameter (d) is dipped in fluid. The height of rise or fall in the tube
given by (where w = Specific weight of liquid, = Angle of contact of the liquid surface, and
= Surface tension)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
2. An internal mouthpiece is said to be running free if the length of the mouthpiece is

__________ the diameter of the orifice.
A
less than twice
.
B. more than twice
C
less than three times
.
D
more than three times
.
3. The discharge over a rectangular notch is

A
.
143
B. directly proportional to H3/2
C
.
D
.
4. The volume of a fluid __________ as the pressure increases.

A
remains same
.
B. decreases
C
increases
.
5. The pressure of the liquid flowing through the divergent portion of a venturimeter
A
remains constant
.
B. increases
C
decreases
.
D
depends upon mass of liquid
.
6. The vacuum pressure can be measured with the help of a piezometer tube.
A
True
.
B. False
7. A jet of water discharging from a 40 mm diameter orifice has a diameter of 32 mm at its vena
contracta. The coefficient of contraction is
A
0.46
.
144
B. 0.64
C
0.78
.
D
0.87
.
8. According to Bazin's formula, the discharge over a rectangular weir

is mL2g x H3/2 where m is equal to
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
9. A vertical wall is subjected to a pressure due to one kind of liquid, on one of its sides. Which
of the following statement is correct?
A
The pressure on the wall at the liquid level is minimum.
.
B. The pressure on the bottom of the wall is maximum.
C The pressure on the wall at the liquid level is zero, and on the bottom of the wall is
. maximum
D
The pressure on the bottom of the wall is zero.
.
10. Water is a __________ fluid.
145
A
real
.
B. ideal
C
newtonian
.
D
non-newtonian
.
11. The celerity (velocity) of a pressure wave in a fluid is given by (where K = Bulk modulus,
and = Density of the fluid)
A
K.
.
B. K/
C
/K
.
D
K.
.
12. The pressure intensity in kN/m2 (or kPa) at any point in a liquid is (where w = Specific
weight of liquid, and h = Depth of liquid from the surface)
A
w
.
B. wh
C
w/h
.
D
h/w
.
13. The hydraulic gradient line is always parallel to the centre line of the pipe.
A
Correct
.
146
B. Incorrect
14. Barometer is used to measure

A
velocity of liquid
.
B. atmospheric pressure
C
pressure in pipes and channels
.
D
difference of pressure between two points in a pipe
.
15. A closed tank is completely filled with an oil. If it is made to move with a horizontal
acceleration, then the pressure at the back end will be more than that at the front end.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
16. The mass of 2.5 m3 of a certain liquid is 2 tonnes. Its mass density is
A
200 kg/m3
.
B. 400 kg/m3
C
600 kg/m3
.
D
800 kg/m3
.
17. The dynamic viscosity of the liquid __________ with rise in temperature.
A
remain unaffected
.
B. increases
147
C
decreases
.
18. When a vertical wall is subjected to pressures due to liquid on both sides, the resultant
pressure is the __________ of the two pressures.
A
sum
.
B. difference
C
arithmatic mean
.
D
geometric mean
.
19. The increase in pressure at the outer edge of a drum of radius (r) completely filled up with
liquid of density () and rotating at () rad/s is
A
2 r 2
.
B. 2 2 r2
C
.
D
.
20. When the Mach number is between __________ the flow is called super-sonic flow.
A
1 and 2.5
.
B. 2.5 and 4
C
4 and 6
.
148
D
1 and 6
.
21. The property of a liquid which controls its rate of flow is called viscosity.
A
True
.
B. False
22. The kinematic viscosity of an oil (in stokes) whose specific gravity is 0.95 and viscosity
0.011 poise, is
A
0.0116 stoke
.
B. 0.116 stoke
C
0.0611 stoke
.
D
0.611 stoke
.
23. The factional resistance of a pipe varies approximately with __________ of the liquid.
A
pressure
.
B. velocity
C
square of velocity
.
D
cube of velocity
.
24. If the coefficient of discharge is 0.6, then the discharge over a right angled notch is
A
0.417 H5/2
.
B. 1.417 H5/2
149
C
4.171 H5/2
.
D
7.141 H5/2
.
25. According to Bazin, the coefficient of discharge varies with the height of water over the sill
of a weir.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
26. A manometer is used to measure

A
atmospneric pressure
.
B. pressure in pipes and channels
C
pressure in venturimeter
.
D
difference of pressures between two points in a pipe
.
27. The product of mass and accelaration of flowing liquid is called

A
inertia force
.
B. viscous force
C
gravity force
.
D
pressure force
.
28. The discharge through a wholly drowned orifice is given by (where H1 = Height of water (on
the upstream side) above the top of the orifice, H2 = Height of water (on the downstream
side) above the bottom of the orifice, and H= Difference between two water levels on either
side of the orifice)
150
B. Q = Cd x bH2 2gh
C
Q = Cd x b ( H2 - H1 ) 2gh
.
D
Q = Cd x bH 2gh
.
29. If the value of coefficient of discharge increases, the discharge through the orifice decreases.
A
True
.
B. False
30. A point, in a compressible flow where the velocity of fluid is zero, is called
A
critical point
.
B. vena contracta
C
stagnation point
.
D
none of these
.
31. Falling drops of water become spheres due to the property of

A
surface tension of water
.
B. compressibility of water
C
capillarity of water
.
D
viscosity of water
.
32. The D-Alembert's principle is used for changing the dynamic equilibrium of a fluid mass,
into a static equilibrium.
A
151
B. Disagree
33. Whenever a plate is held immersed at some angle with the direction of flow of the liquid, it is
subjected to some pressure. The component of this pressure, in the direction of flow of the
liquid, is known as
A
lift
.
B. drag
C
stagnation pressure
.
D
bulk modulus
.
34. The height of a water column equivalent to a pressure of 0.15 MPa is

A
15.3 m
.
B. 25.3 m
C
35.3 m
.
D
45.3 m
.
35. The total energy of a liquid particle in motion is equal to

A
pressure energy + kinetic energy + potential energy
.
B. pressure energy - (kinetic energy + potential energy)
C
potential energy - (pressure energy + kinetic energy
.
D
kinetic energy - (pressure energy + potential energy)
.
152
36. The power transmitted through the nozzle is maximum when the head lost due to friction in
the pipe is __________ of the total supply head.
A
one-half
.
B. one-third
C
two-third
.
37. In case of flow through parallel pipes,

A
the head loss for all the pipes is same
.
B. the total discharge is equal to the sum of discharges in the various pipes
C
the total head loss is the sum of head losses in the various pipes
.
D
Both (A) and (B)
.
38. The flow at critical depth in an open channel is called torrential flow.
A
Yes
.
B. No
39. The torque required to overcome viscous resistance of a footstep bearing is (where =
Viscosity of the oil, N = Speed of the shaft, R = Radius of the shaft, and t = Thickness of the
oil film)
A
.
B.
C
.
153
D
.
40. Coefficient of velocity is defined as the ratio of

A
.
B. area of jet at vena contracta to the area of orifice
C
actual discharge through an orifice to the theoretical discharge
.
D
none of the above
.
41. A differential manometer is used to measure

A
.
B. pressure in pipes and channels
C
pressure in venturimeter
.
D
difference of pressures between two points in a pipe
.
42. The metacentric height of a ship is 0.6 m and the radius of gyration is 4 m. The time of
rolling of a ship is
A
4.1 s
.
B. 5.2 s
C
10.4 s
.
D
14.1 s
.
154
43. The point at which the resultant pressure on an immersed surface acts, is known as
A
centre of gravity
.
B. centre of depth
C
centre of pressure
.
D
centre of immersed surface
.
44. A tank of uniform cross-sectional area (A) containing liquid upto height (H1) has an orifice of
cross-sectional area (a) at its bottom. The time required to bring the liquid level
from H1 to H2 will be
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
45. The torque required to overcome viscous resistance of a collar bearing is (where R1 and R2 =
External and internal radius of collar)
A
.
B.
C
.
155
D
.
46. A notch is used to measure __________ of liquids.

A
pressure
.
B. discharge
C
velocity
.
D
volume
.
47. A flow is called sonic, if the Mach number is unity.

A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
48. An error of 1% in measuring head over the crest of the notch (H) will produce an error of
__________ in discharge over a triangular notch,
A
1%
.
B. 1.5%
C
2%
.
D
2.5%
.
49. A flow through a long pipe at decreasing rate is called __________ uniform flow.
A
steady
.
B. unsteady
156
50. The surface tension of mercury at normal temperature is __________ that of water.
A
same as
.
B. lower than
C
higher than
.

1. The property of a liquid which enables it to resist tensile stress is called its surface tension.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
2. The magnitude of water hammer depends upon the

A
elastic properties of the pipe material
.
B. elastic properties of the liquid flowing through the pipe
C
speed at which the valve is closed
.
D
all of the above
.
3. The discharge over the trapezoidal notch is equal to the discharge over the rectangular notch
__________ the discharge over the triangular notch.
A
plus
.
B. minus
4. The dynamic viscosity of gases __________ with rise in temperature.

A
remain unaffected
.
157
B. increases
C
decreases
.
5. A flow in which the quantity of liquid flowing per second is constant, is called __________
flow.
A
steady
.
B. streamline
C
turbulent
.
D
unsteady
.
6. The coefficient of venturifiume, generally, lies between

A
0.3 to 0.45
.
B. 0.50 to 0.75
C
0.75 to 0.95
.
D
0.95 to 1.0
.
7. Venturimeter is used to
A
measure the velocity of a flowing liquid
.
B. measure the pressure of a flowing liquid
C
measure the discharge of liquid flowing in a pipe
.
158
D
measure the pressure difference of liquid flowing between two points in a pipe line
.
8. A hemispherical tank of radius (R) containing liquid upto height (H1) has an orifice of cross-
sectional area (a) at its bottom. The time required to lower the level of liquid from (H1) to
(H2) will be
A
.
B.
C
.
D
none of the above
.
9. A flow is called super-sonic if the

A
velocity of flow is very high
.
B. discharge is difficult to measure
C
Mach number is between 1and 6
.
D
none of these
.
10. The force present in a moving liquid is

A
inertia force
.
B. viscous force
C
gravity force
.
159
D
all of these
.
11. The most efficient section of a channel is

A
triangular
.
B. rectangular
C
square
.
D
trapezoidal
.
12. According to Bernoulli's equation

A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
13. The ratio of the inertia force to the elastic force is called
A
Reynold's number
.
B. Froude's number
C
Weber's number
.
160
D
Mach number
.
14. An opening in the side of a tank or vessel such that the liquid surface with the tank is below
the top edge of the opening, is called
A
weir
.
B. notch
C
orifice
.
D
none of these
.
15. The total pressure on the top of a closed cylindrical vessel of radius (r) completely filled up
with liquid of specific weight (w) and rotating at () rad/s about its vertical axis, is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
16. The velocity of the liquid flowing through the divergent portion of a venturimeter
A
remains constant
.
B. increases
C
decreases
.
161
D
depends upon mass of liquid
.
17. In a broad-crested weir, the discharge is maximum if the head of water on the downstream
side of weir is __________ the head of water on the upstream side of weir.
A
equal to
.
B. one-third
C
two-third
.
D
three-fourth
.
18. Bernoulli's equation is applied to

A
venturimeter
.
B. orifice meter
C
pitot tube
.
D
all of these
.
19. A fluid having no viscosity is known as

A
real fluid
.
B. ideal fluid
C
newtonian fluid
.
D
non-newtonian fluid
.
162
20. In the manufacturing of lead shots, the property of surface tension is utilised.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
21. The depth of centre of pressure (h) for a vertically immersed surface from the liquid surface
is given by (where IG= Moment of inertia of the immersed surface about horizontal axis
through its centre of gravity, A = Area of immersed surface, and x = Depth of centre of
gravity of the immersed surface from the liquid surface)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
22. The velocity at which the turbulent flow starts is known as higher critical velocity.
A
Yes
.
B. No
23. According to Francis formula, the discharge over a rectangular weir is (where n = Number of
end contractions)
A
. Cd(L - nH)2gH
B. Cd(L - 0.1nH)2gH3/2
C
. Cd(L - nH)2gH2
163
D
. Cd(L - 0.2nH)2gH5/2
24. The specific weight is also known as weight density.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
25. In a lockgate, the reaction between two gates is (where P = Resultant pressure on the lock
gate, and = Inclination of the gate with the normal to the side of the lock)
A
.
B.
C
P / 2sin
.
D
.
26. The theoretical velocity of jet at vena contracta is (where H = Head of water at vena
contracta)
A
2gH
.
B. H2g
C
2gH
.
D
2gH
.
27. According to Newton's law of viscosity, the shear stress on a layer of a fluid is __________
to the rate of shear strain.
A
equal to
.
164
C
.
28. The force per unit length is the unit of

A
surface tension
.
B. compressibility
C
capillarity
.
D
viscosity
.
29. The shear stress-strain graph for a non-newtonian fluid is a curve.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
30. The intensity of pressure at any point, in a liquid, is __________ to the depth of liquid from
the surface.
A
equal
.
C
.
31. The loss of head due to viscosity for laminar flow in pipes is (where d = Diameter of pipe, l =
Length of pipe, v = Velocity of the liquid in the pipe, = Viscosity of the liquid, and w =
Specific weight of the flowing liquid)
A
.
165
B.
C
.
D
.
32. The viscosity of water at 20C is

A
one stoke
.
B. one cent stroke
C
one poise
.
D
one centi poise
.
33. The rise of liquid along the walls of a revolving cylinder about the initial level is
__________ the depression of the liquid at the axis of rotation.
A
same as
.
B. less than
C
more than
.
34. The discharge through a channel of rectangular section will be maximum, if

A
its depth is twice the breadth
.
B. its breadth is twice the depth
C
its depth is thrice the breadth
.
166
D
its breadth is thrice the depth
.
35. When a body, floating in a liquid, is given a small angular displacement, it starts oscillating
about a point known as
A
centre of pressure
.
B. centre of gravity
C
centre of buoyancy
.
D
metacentre
.
36. The mercury does not wet the glass. This is due to the property of the liquid known as
A
cohesion
.
B. adhesion
C
viscosity
.
D
surface tension
.
37. The coefficient of discharge in case of internal mouthpiece is __________ that of external
mouthpiece.
A
less than
.
B. more than
38. The centre of pressure for a vertically immersed surface lies at a distance equal to
__________ the centre of gravity.
A
. below
167
B.
above
C
. below
D
. above
39. According to Manning's formula, the discharge through an open channel is (where M =
Manning's constant)
A
A x M x m1/2 x i2/3
.
B. A x M x m2/3 x i1/2
C
A1/2 x M2/3 x m x i
.
D
A2/3 x M1/3 x m x i
.
40. When the venturimeter is inclined, then for a given flow it will show __________ reading.
A
same
.
B. more
C
less
.
41. When a cylindrical vessel containing liquid is revolved about its vertical axis at a constant
angular velocity, the pressure
A
varies as the square of the radial distance
.
B. increases linearly as its radial distance
C increases as the square of the radial distance
168
.
D
decreases as the square of the radial distance
.
42. The specific weight of compressible fluids does not remain constant.
A
True
.
B. False
43. The property of a liquid which offers resistance to the movement of one layer of liquid over
another adjacent layer of liquid, is called
A
surface tension
.
B. compressibility
C
capillarity
.
D
viscosity
.
44. In a convergent mouthpiece, the absolute pressure head at vena contracta is the same as that
of the atmosphere.
A
True
.
B. False
45. Newton's law of viscosity is a relationship between

A
pressure, velocity and temperature
.
B. shear stress and rate of shear strain
C
shear stress and velocity
.
169
D
rate of shear strain and temperature
.
46. The pressure of air __________ with the increase of height from the surface of the earth.
A
does not change
.
B. decreases
C
increases
.
47. The sheet of water flowing over a notch or a weir is known as

A
sill or crest
.
B. nappe or vein
C
orifice
.
D
none of these
.
48. A body floating in a liquid is said to be not in equilibrium if its metacentre lies below its
centre of gravity.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
49. A flow in which the quantity of liquid flowing per second is not constant, is called
A
streamline flow
.
B. turbulent flow
C
steady flow
.
170
D
unsteady flow
.
50. In a sharp-crested weir, the thickness of the weir is kept less than half of the height of water
above the crest of the weir.
A
True
.
B. False

1. The specific gravity of an oil whose specific weight is 7.85 kN/m3, is
A
0.8
.
B. 1
C
1.2
.
D
1.6
.
2. The body will float if the force of buoyancy is __________ the weight of the liquid
displaced.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
more than
.
3. According to Darcy's formula, the loss of head due to friction in the pipe is (where f =
Darcy's coefficient, l = Length of pipe, v = Velocity of liquid in pipe, and d = Diameter of
pipe)
A
.
171
B.
C
.
D
.
4. The ratio of specific weight of a liquid to the specific weight of pure water at a standard
temperature is called
A
density of liquid
.
B. specific gravity of liquid
C
compressibility of liquid
.
D
surface tension of liquid
.
5. The velocity of liquid flowing through an orifice varies with the available head of the liquid.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
6. The force of buoyancy is always __________ the weight of the liquid displaced by the body.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
more than
.
7. The coefficient of discharge is the ratio of dieoretical discharge to the actual discharge
through an orifice.
A
True
.
172
B. False
8. The quantity of a liquid flowing per second through a section of a pipe or a channel is called
discharge and is measured in cumecs (m3/s).
A
True
.
B. False
9. The purpose of a surge tank is

A
to control the pressure variations due to rapid changes in the pipe line flow
.
B. to eliminate water hammer possibilities
C
to regulate flow of water to turbines by providing necessary retarding head of water
.
D
all of the above
.
10. A fluid which obeys the Newton's law of viscosity is termed as

A
real fluid
.
B. ideal fluid
C
newtonian fluid
.
D
non-newtonian fluid
.
11. The divergent portion of a venturimeter is made longer than convergent portion in order to
A
avoid the tendency of breaking away the stream of liquid
.
B. to minimise frictional losses
173
C
both (a) and (b)
.
D
none of these
.
12. In a venturiflume, the flow takes place at

A
.
B. gauge pressure
C
absolute pressure
.
D
none of these
.
13. The discharge in an open channel corresponding to critical depth is

A
zero
.
B. minimum
C
maximum
.
14. The pressure of liquid at throat in a venturimeter is __________ than that at inlet.
A
higher
.
B. lower
15. A fluid whose viscosity changes with the rate of deformation or shear strain is known as non-
newtonian fluid.
A
True
.
B. False
174
16. When the flow in an open channel is gradually varied, the flow is said to be
A
steady uniform flow
.
C
.
D
.
17. When the Mach number is equal to unity, the flow is called sonic flow.
A
True
.
B. False
18. The total pressure on the bottom of a closed cylindrical vessel completely filled up with a
liquid is the sum of the total centrifugal pressure and the weight of the liquid in the vessel.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
19. A weir, generally, used as a spillway of a dam is

A
narrow crested weir
.
B. broad crested weir
C
Ogee weir
.
D
submerged weir
.
20. A thick liquid like a syrup has a __________ viscosity than a light liquid like water.
A
lesser
.
175
B. greater
21. The total pressure on the top of a closed cylindrical vessel competely filled up with a liquid
is
A
directly proportional to (radius)2
.
B. inversely proportional to (radius)2
C
directly proportional to (radius)4
.
D
inversely proportional to (radius)4
.
22. Poise is the unit of viscosity in C.G.S. system of units.

A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
23. The discharge through a channel of circular section will be maximum when the depth of
water is __________ the diameter of the circular channel.
A
0.34 times
.
B. 0.67 times
C
0.81 times
.
D
0.95 times
.
24. When the Mach number is more than 6, the flow is called
A
sub-sonic flow
.
B. sonic flow
176
C
super-sonic flow
.
D
hyper-sonic flow
.
25. The discharge through a convergent mouthpiece is __________ the discharge through an
internal mouthpiece of the same diameter and head of water.
A
equal to
.
B. one-half
C
three fourth
.
D
double
.
26. The error in discharge (dQ/Q) to the error in measurement of head (dH/H) over a triangular
notch is given by
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
27. The separation of flow occurs when the hydrodynamic boundary layer thickness is reduced
to zero.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
177
28. If the depth of water in an open channel is less than the critical depth, the flow is called
A
critical flow
.
B. turbulent flow
C
tranquil flow
.
D
torrential flow
.
29. A nozzle placed at the end of a water pipe line discharges water at a
A
low pressure
.
B. high pressure
C
low velocity
.
D
high velocity
.
30. When a body is immersed wholly or partially in a liquid, it is lifted up by a force equal to the
weight of liquid displaced by the body. This statement is called
A
Pascal's law
.
B. Archimede's principle
C
principle of floatation
.
D
Bernoulli's theorem
.
31. The pressure at a stagnation point is always low.

A
Agree
.
178
B. Disagree
32. When an internal mouthpiece is running full, the discharge through the mouthpiece is twice
the discharge when it is running free.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
33. In two dimensional flow, the flow does not take place in a curve.
A
True
.
B. False
34. In order to avoid tendency of separation at throat in a venturimeter, the ratio of the diameter
at throat to the diameter of pipe should be
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
35. The ratio of the inertia force to the __________ is called Euler's number.
A
pressure force
.
B. elastic force
C
.
179
D
viscous force
.
36. Kinematic viscosity is the product of dynamic viscosity and the density of the liquid.
A
Yes
.
B. No
37. A pipe of length more than double the diameter of orifice fitted externally or internally to the
orifice is called a
A
notch
.
B. weir
C
mouthpiece
.
D
nozzle
.
38. A vertical wall is subjected to a pressure due to one kind of liquid, on one of its sides. The
total pressure on the wall acts at a distance __________ from the liquid surface.
A
H/3
.
B. H/2
C
2H/3
.
D
3H/4
.
39. A nozzle is generally made of

A
cylindrical shape
.
B. convergent shape
180
C
divergent shape
.
D
convergent-divergent shape
.
40. The unit of surface tension is

A
N/m
.
B. N/m2
C
N/m3
.
D
N-m
.
41. A notch is, usually, made of a metallic plate.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
42. In an internal mouthpiece, if the jet after contraction expands and fills up the whole
mouthpiece, then the mouthpiece is said to be running free.
A
True
.
B. False
43. A channel is said to be of most economical cross-section, if

A
it gives maximum discharge for a given cross-sectional area and bed slope
.
B. it has minimum wetted perimeter
181
C
it involves lesser excavation for the designed amount of discharge
.
D
all of the above
.
44. The top of the weir over which the water flows is known as
A
sill or crest
.
B. nappe or vein
C
orifice
.
D
none of these
.
45. A moving fluid mass may be brought to a static equilibrium position, by aplying an
imaginary inertia force of the same magnitude as that of the accelerating force but in the
opposite direction. This statement is called
A
Pascal's law
.
B. Archimede's principle
C
D-Alembert's principle
.
D
none of these
.
46. The specific gravity of water is taken as

A
0.001
.
B. 0.01
182
C
0.1
.
D
1
.
47. A pitot tube is used to measure the

A
velocity of flow at the required point in a pipe
.
B. pressure difference between two points in a pipe
C
total pressure of liquid flowing in a pipe
.
D
discharge through a pipe
.
48. The total head of a liquid particle in motion is equal to

A
pressure head + kinetic head + potential head
.
B. pressure head - (kinetic head + potential head)
C
potential head - (pressure head + kinetic head)
.
D
kinetic head - (pressure head + potential head)
.
49. An internal mouthpiece is said to be running __________ if the length of the mouthpiece is
more than three times the diameter of the orifice.
A
free
.
B. partially
C
full
.
183
50. The reciprocal of Euler's number is called Newton number.
A
Yes
.
B. No

1. Bulk modulus of a fluid is the ratio of
A
shear stress to shear strain
.
B. increase in volume to the viscosity of fluid
C
increase in pressure to the volumetric strain
.
D
critical velocity to the viscosity of fluid
.
2. The pressure at a point 4 m below the free surface of water is

A
19.24 kPa
.
B. 29.24 kPa
C
39.24 kPa
.
D
49.24 kPa
.
3. A structure used to dam up a stream or river over which the water flows is called
A
orifice
.
B. notch
C weir
184
.
D
dam
.
4. The coefficient of discharge for an external mouthpiece depends upon

A
velocity of liquid
.
B. pressure of liquid
C
area of mouthpiece
.
D
length of mouthpiece
.
5. The depth of centre of pressure lor an immersed surface inclined at an angle with the liquid
surface lies at a distance equal to __________ the centre of gravity.
A
. below
B.
above
C
. below
D
. above
6. The highest efficiency is obtained with a channel of __________ section.

A
circular
.
B. square
185
C
rectangular
.
D
trapezoidal
.
7. A vessel of 4 m3 contains an oil which weighs 30 kN. The specific weight of the oil is
A
4.5 kN/m3
.
B. 6 kN/m3
C
7.5 kN/m3
.
D
10 kN/m3
.
8. Coefficient of discharge Cd is equal to (where Cc = Coefficient of contraction, Cv =

Coefficient of velocity, and Cr = Coefficient of resistance)
A
Cc x Cv
.
B. Cc x Cr
C
Cv x Cr
.
D
Cc/Cr
.
9. In an internal mouthpiece, if the jet after contraction does not touch the sides of the
mouthpiece, then the mouthpiece is said to be
A
running full
.
B. running free
186
C
partially running full
.
D
partially running free
.
10. The value of coefficient of velocity for a sharp edged orifice __________ with the head of
water.
A
decreases
.
B. increases
11. When a tube of smaller diameter is dipped in water, the water rises in the tube with an
upward __________ surface.
A
concave
.
B. convex
12. An orifice is said to be large, if

A
the size of orifice is large
.
B. the velocity of flow is large
C
the available head of liquid is more than 5 times the height of orifice
.
D
the available head of liquid is less than 5 times the height of orifice
.
13. The flow in a pipe or channel is said to be uniform when

A
the liquid particles at all sectons have the same velocities
.
B. the liquid particles at different sections have different velocities
187
C
the quantity of liquid flowing per second is constant
.
D
each liquid particle has a definite path
.
14. The density of a liquid in kg/m3 is numerically equal to its specific gravity.
A
True
.
B. False
15. The critical depth meter is used to measure

A
velocity of flow in an open channel
.
B. depth of flow in an open channel
C
hydraulic jump
.
D
depth of channel
.
16. The water pressure per metre length on a vertical masonry wall of dam is (where w =
Specific weight of the liquid, and H = Height of the liquid)
A
wH/2
.
B. wH
C
wH2/2
.
D
wH2/4
.
17. Froude's number is the ratio of inertia force to

A
pressure force
.
188
B. elastic force
C
gravity force
.
D
.
18. According to Chezy's formula, the discharge through an open channel is (where A = Area of
flow, C = Chezy's constant, m = Hydraulic mean depth, and i = Uniform slope in bed)
A
Amxi
.
B. C m x i
C
AC m x i
.
D
mi A x C
.
19. When a liquid is flowing through a pipe, the velocity of the liquid is
A
maximum at the centre and minimum near the walls
.
B. minimum at the centre and maximum near the walls
C
zero at the centre and maximum near the walls
.
D
maximum at the centre and zero near the walls
.
20. The pressure of fluid due to hammer blow is

A
directly proportional to density of fluid
.
B. inversely proportional to density of fluid
189
C
directly proportional to (density)1/2 of fluid
.
D
inversely proportional to (density)1/2 of fluid
.
21. A flow in which each liquid particle has a definite path, and the paths of individual particles
do not cross each other, is called
A
steady flow
.
B. uniform flow
C
streamline flow
.
D
turbulent flow
.
22. A body floating in a liquid is said to be in neutral equilibrium, if its metacentre

A
coincides with its centre of gravity
.
B. lies above its centre of gravity
C
lies below its centre of gravity
.
D
lies between the centre of buoyancy and centre of gravity
.
23. One cubic metre of water weighs

A
100 litres
.
B. 250 litres
C
500 litres
.
190
D
1000 litres
.
24. Surface tension force is the product of surface tension per unit length and cross-sectional area
of flow.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
25. An average value of coefficient of velocity is

A
0.62
.
B. 0.76
C
0.84
.
D
0.97
.
26. The shear stress between the two liquid layers is __________ proportional to the distance
between two layers.
A
directly
.
B. indirectly
27. The mass per unit volume of a liquid at a standard temperature and pressure is called
A
specific weight
.
B. mass density
C
specific gravity
.
191
D
none of these
.
28. The centre of pressure acts __________ the centre of gravity of immersed surface.
A
at
.
B. above
C
below
.
29. A flow through an expanding tube at constant rate is called

A
steady uniform flow
.
C
.
D
.
30. When a body is placed over a liquid, it is subjected to gravitational force and upthrust of the
liquid.
A
True
.
B. False
31. The velocity of flow is same at all points in the cross-section of a channel.
A
True
.
B. False
32. The length of a liquid stream while flowing over a weir __________ at the ends of the sill.
A
expands
.
192
B. does not change
C
contracts
.
33. Select the wrong statement

A
An equivalent pipe is treated as an ordinary pipe for all calculations
.
B. The length of an equivalent pipe is equal to that of a compound pipe
C
The discharge through an equivalent pipe is equal to that of a compound pipe
.
D
The diameter of an equivalent pipe is equal to that of a compound pipe
.
34. The velocity through a channel of circular section will be maximum when the depth of water
is __________ the diameter of the circular channel.
A
0.34 times
.
B. 0.67 times
C
0.81 times
.
D
0.95 times
.
35. In a footstep bearing, if the radius of the shaft is doubled, then the torque required to
overcome the viscous resistance will be
A
double
.
B. four times
C
eight times
.
193
D
sixteen times
.
3. Thermodynamics - Section 1
1. All the commercial liquid fuels are derived from natural petroleum (or crude oil).
A
True
.
B. False
2. A cycle consisting of one constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic
processes is known as
A
Carnot cycle
.
B. Stirling cycle
C
Otto cycle
.
D
Diesel cycle
.
3. The efficiency and work ratio of a simple gas turbine cycle are
A
low
.
B. very low
C
high
.
D
very high
.
4. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the unit mass of gas through one
degree at constant volume, is called
A specific heat at constant volume
194
.
B. specific heat at constant pressure
C
kilo Joule
.
D
none of these
.
5. There is a loss of heat in an irreversible process.

A
True
.
B. False
6. An adiabatic process is one in which

A
no heat enters or leaves the gas
.
B. the temperature of the gas changes
C
the change in internal energy is equal to the mechanical workdone
.
D
all of the above
.
7. Water gas is obtained by passing air and a large amount of steam over waste coal at about
650C.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
8. Which of the following represents Otto cycle on temperature - entropy (T - s) diagram?
195
B.
C
.
D
.
9. When the gas is heated at constant volume, the heat supplied increases the internal energy of
the gas.
A
True
.
B. False
196
10. Which of the following is the lightest and most volatile liquid fuel?
A
Gasoline
.
B. Kerosene
C
Fuel oil
.
11. The processes occuring in open system which permit the transfer of mass to and from the
system, are known as
A
flow processes
.
B. non-flow processes
C
adiabatic processes
.
D
none of these
.
12. Which of the following has the minimum atomic mass?

A
Oxygen
.
B. Sulphur
C
Nitrogen
.
D
Carbon
.
13. Workdone in a free expansion process is

A
zero
.
B. minimum
197
C
maximum
.
D
positive
.
14. The pressure exerted by an ideal gas is __________ of the kinetic energy of all the molecules
contained in a unit volume of gas.
A
one-half
.
B. one-third
C
two-third
.
D
three-fourth
.
15. The compression ratio for petrol engines is

A
3 to 6
.
B. 5 to 8
C
15 to 20
.
D
20 to 30
.
16. The most probable velocity of the gas molecules is given by

A
.
B.
198
C
.
D
.
17. The efficiency of Diesel cycle approaches to Otto cycle efficiency when
A
cut-off is increased
.
B. cut-off is decreased
C
cut-off is zero
.
D
cut-off is constant
.
18. The entropy __________ in an irreversible cyclic process.

A
remains constant
.
B. decreases
C
Increases
.
19. The atomic mass of oxygen is

A
12
.
B. 14
C
16
.
D
32
.
20. The ratio of specific heat at constant pressure (cp) and specific heat at constant volume (cv) is
199
B. less than one
C
greater than one
.
D
none of these
.
21. Carbonisation of coal consists of

A
drying and crushing the coal to a fine powder
.
B. moulding the finely ground coal under pressure with or without a binding material
C
heating the wood with a limited supply of air to temperature not less than 280C
.
D
none of the above
.
22. The efficiency of Stirling cycle is __________ Carnot cycle.

A
greater than
.
B. less than
C
equal to
.
23. According to Gay-Lussac law for a perfect gas, p/T = constant, if v is kept constant.
A
True
.
B. False
24. There is no change in internal energy in an isothermal process.

A
Correct
.
200
B. Incorrect
25. If the value of n = 0 in the equation pvn = C, then the process is called
A
constant volume process
.
B. adiabatic process
C
constant pressure process
.
D
isothermal process
.
26. The value of specific heat at constant pressure (cp) is __________ that of at constant volume
(cv).
A
less than
.
B. equal to
C
more than
.
27. When coal is strongly heated continuously for 42 to 48 hours in the absence of air in a closed
vessel, the process is known as __________ of fuel.
A
atomisation
.
B. carbonisation
28. Which of the following is correct?

A
Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure
.
B. Gauge pressure = Absolute pressure + Atmospheric pressure
C
Atmospheric pressure = Absolute pressure + Gauge pressure
.
201
D
Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure - Atmospheric pressure
.
29. The distillation carried out in such a way that the liquid with the lowest boiling point is first
evaporated and recondensed, then the liquid with the next higher boiling point is then
evaporated and recondensed, and so on until all the available liquid fuels are separately
recovered in the sequence of their boiling points. Such a process is called
A
cracking
.
B. carbonisation
C
fractional distillation
.
D
full distillation
.
30. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

A
The liquid fuels consist of hydrocarbons.
.
B. The liquid fuels have higher calorific value than solid fuels.
C
The solid fuels have higher calorific value than liquid fuels.
.
D
A good fuel should have low ignition point.
.
31. Which of the following gas is mostly used in town for street and domestic lighting and
heating?
A
Producer gas
.
B. Coal gas
C Mond gas
202
.
D
Coke oven gas
.
32. The value of gas constant (R) in S. I. units is

A
0.287 J/kgK
.
B. 2.87 J/kgK
C
28.7 J/kgK
.
D
287 J/kgK
.
33. In the first law of thermodynamics, the total energy of the system remains constant.
A
True
.
B. False
34. The efficiency of Diesel cycle increases with

A
decrease in cut-off
.
B. increase in cut-off
C
constant cut-off
.
D
none of these
.
35. Coal gas is obtained by mixing coal and gas at ambient conditions.
A
Yes
.
203
B. No
36. According to Avogadro's law, the density of any two gases is __________ their molecular
masses, if the gases are at the same temperature and pressure.
A
equal to
.
B. directly proportional to
C
inversely proportional to
.
37. The kinetic energy of molecules of a gas becomes zero at absolute zero temperature.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
38. One kg of carbon monoxide requires __________ kg of oxygen to produce 11/7 kg of carbon
dioxide gas.
A
All
.
B. 4/7
C
11/4
.
D
9/7
.
39. The absolute zero temperature is taken as

A
-273C
.
B. 273C
C
237F
.
204
D
-237F
.
40. The specific heat of water is

A
1.817
.
B. 2512
C
4.187
.
D
none of these
.
41. The constant pressure, constant volume and constant pvn processes are regarded as
irreversible process.
A
True
.
B. False
42. Stirling and Ericsson cycles are

A
reversible cycles
.
B. irreversible cycles
C
semi-reversible cycles
.
D
quasi-static cycles
.
43. When cut-off ratio is __________ the efficiency of Diesel cycle approaches to Otto cycle
efficiency.
A
zero
.
B. 1/5
205
C
4/5
.
D
1
.
44. A series of operations, which takes place in a certain order and restore the initial conditions
at the end, is known as
A
reversible cycle
.
B. irreversible cycle
C
thermodynamic cycle
.
D
none of these
.
45. An isothermal process is governed by

A
Boyle's law
.
B. Charles' law
C
Gay-Lussac law
.
D
Avogadro's law
.
46. The sum of internal energy (U) and the product of pressure and volume (p.v) is known as
A
workdone
.
B. entropy
206
C
enthalpy
.
D
none of these
.
47. The value of 1 mm of Hg is equal to

A
1.333 N/m2
.
B. 13.33 N/m2
C
133.3 N/m2
.
D
1333 N/m2
.
48. One kg of carbon requires 4/3 kg of oxygen and produces __________ kg of carbon
monoxide gas.
A
8/3
.
B. 11/3
C
11/7
.
D
7/3
.
49. The behaviour of a perfect gas, undergoing any change in the variables which control
physical properties, is governed by
A
Boyle's law
.
B. Charles' law
207
C
Gay-Lussac law
.
D
all of these
.
50. The universal gas constant of a gas is the product of molecular mass of the gas and the gas
constant.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
Thermodynamics - Section 2
1. According to Kelvin-Planck's statement of second law of thermodynamics,
A it is impossible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole
. purpose is to convert heat energy into work
it is possible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole purpose

B.
is to convert heat energy into work
C it is impossible to construct a device which operates in a cyclic process and produces

. no effect other than the transfer of heat from a cold body to a hot body
D
none of the above
.
2. According to Gay-Lussac law, the absolute pressure of a given mass of a perfect gas varies
__________ as its absolute temperature, when the volume remains constant.
A
directly
.
B. indirectly
3. According to Avogadro's law

A
the product of the gas constant and the molecular mass of an ideal gas is constant
.
208
B. the sum of partial pressure of the mixture of two gases is sum of the two
C equal volumes of all gases, at the same temperature and pressure, contain equal
. number of molecules
D
all of the above
.
4. A process, in which the temperature of the working substance remains constant during its
expansion or compression, is called
A
isothermal process
.
B. hyperbolic process
C
adiabatic process
.
D
polytropic process
.
5. Which of the following gas has a minimum molecular mass?

A
Oxygen
.
B. Nitrogen
C
Hydrogen
.
D
Methane
.
6. The total energy of a molecule is shared equally by the various degrees of freedom
possessed by it. This law is known as
A
law of equipartition of energy
.
B. law of conservation of energy
209
C
law of degradation of energy
.
D
none of these
.
7. The thermodynamic property of a system is said to be an intensive property whose value for
the entire system __________ the sum of their value for the individual parts of the system.
A
is equal to
.
B. is not equal to
8. The absolute pressure of a given mass of a perfect gas varies inversely as its volume, when
the temperature remains constant. This statement is known as Charles' law.
A
Yes
.
B. No
9. The fuel mostly used in steam boilers is

A
brown coal
.
B. peat
C
coking bituminous coal
.
D
non-coking bituminous coal
.
10. The efficiency of Joule cycle is

A
greater than Carnot cycle
.
B. less than Carnot cycle
210
C
equal to Carnot cycle
.
D
none of these
.
11. The hyperbolic pocess is governed by

A
Boyle's law
.
B. Charles' law
C
Gay-Lussac law
.
D
Avogadro's law
.
12. A closed system is one in which heat and work crosses the boundary of the system but the
mass of the working substance does not crosses the boundary of the system.
A
Yes
.
B. No
13. The entropy of water at 0C is assumed to be

A
1
.
B. 0
C
-1
.
D
10
.
14. The greater the pressure difference in throttling, the lesser is the irreversibility.
A
Yes
.
211
B. No
15. During which of the following process does heat rejection takes place in Carnot cycle?
A
Isothermal expansion
.
B. Isentropic expansion
C
Isothermal compression
.
D
Isentropic compression
.
16. Which is the incorrect statement about Carnot cycle?

A
It is used as the alternate standard of comparison of all heat engines.
.
B. All the heat engines are based on Carnot cycle.
C
It provides concept of maximising work output between the two temperature limits.
.
D
all of the above
.
17. When two bodies are in thermal equilibrium with a third body, they are also in thermal
equilibrium with each other. This statement is called
A
Zeroth law of thermodynamics
.
B. First law of thermodynamics
C
Second law of thermodynamics
.
D
Kelvin Planck's law
.
18. The area under the temperature-entropy curve (T - s curve) of any thermodynamic process
212
represents
A
heat absorbed
.
B. heat rejected
C
either (a) or (b)
.
D
none of these
.
19. The free expansion process is a constant enthalpy process.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
20. The specific heat at constant volume is

A the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of unit mass of gas through one
. degree, at constant pressure
the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of unit mass of gas through one
B.
degree, at constant volume
C the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water through one
. degree
D
any one of the above
.
21. One kg of carbon produces __________ kg of carbon dioxide.

A
3/7
.
B. 7/3
C
11/3
.
213
D
3/11
.
22. Ericsson cycle consists of two constant pressure and two isothermal processes.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
23. The isothermal and isentropic processes are reversible non-flow processes.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
24. The blast furnace gas is a by-product in the production of pig iron in the blast furnace.
A
Yes
.
B. No
25. The heat supplied to the gaS at constant volume is (where m = Mass of gas, cv = Specific
heat at constant volume, cp = Specific heat at constant pressure, T2 - T1 = Rise in
temperature, and R = Gas constant)
A
mR(T2 - T1)
.
B. mcv(T2 - T1)
C
mcp(T2 - T1)
.
D
mcp(T2 + T1)
.
26. Liquid fuels have lower efficiency than solid fuels.

A
True
.
B. False
214
27. The heat absorbed during a polytropic process is
A
. x Workdone
B.
C
.
D
all of these
.
28. Liquid fuels consist of hydrocarbons.

A
True
.
B. False
29. The expansion ratio (r) is the ratio of (where v1 = Volume at the beginning of expansion,
and v2 = Volume at the end of expansion)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
30. The dual combustion cycle consists of one constant pressure, two constant volume and two
isentropic processes.
A
Agree
.
215
B. Disagree
31. The general gas energy equation is (where Q1 - 2 = Heat supplied, dU = Change in internal
energy, and W1 - 2 = Work done in heat units)
A
Q1 - 2 = dU + W1 - 2
.
B. Q1 - 2 = dU - W1 - 2
C
Q1 - 2 = dU/W1 - 2
.
D
Q1 - 2 = dU x W1 - 2
.
32. The compression ratio for Diesel engines is

A
3 to 6
.
B. 5 to 8
C
15 to 20
.
D
20 to 30
.
33. In an isothermal process,

A
there is no change in temperature
.
B. there is no change in enthalpy
C
there is no change in internal energy
.
D
all of these
.
34. Which of the following is the correct statement of the second law of thermodynamics?
A It is impossible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole
216
It is impossible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a higher
B.
temperature, without the aid of an external source.
C There is a definite amount of mechanical energy, which can be obtained from a given
. quantity of heat energy.
D
all of the above
.
35. The heating and expanding of a gas is called thermodynamic system.

A
Yes
.
B. No
36. Otto cycle efficiency is higher than Diesel cycle efficiency for the same compression ratio
and heat input because in Otto cycle
A
combustion is at constant volume
.
B. expansion and compression are isentropic
C
maximum temperature is higher
.
D
heat rejection is lower
.
37. Liquid fuels have higher calorific value than solid fuels.
A
Yes
.
B. No
38. The free expansion process is __________ non-flow process.

A
reversible
.
B. irreversible
217
39. A mixture of gas expands from 0.03 m3 to 0.06 m3 at a constant pressure of 1 MPa and
absorbs 84 kJ of heat during the process. The change in internal energy of the mixture is
A
30 kJ
.
B. 54 kJ
C
84 kJ
.
D
114 kJ
.
40. The gas constant (R) is equal to the __________ of two specific heats.
A
sum
.
B. difference
C
product
.
D
ratio
.
41. Hydrogen is the __________ substance.

A
lightest
.
B. heaviest
.42. Otto cycle is also known as

A
constant pressure cycle
.
B. constant volume cycle
C
constant temperature cycle
.
218
D
constant temperature and pressure cycle
.
43. For a perfect gas, according to Boyle's law (where p = Absolute pressure, v = Volume,
and T = Absolute temperature)
A
p v = constant, if T is kept constant
.
B. v/T = constant, if p is kept constant
C
p/T = constant, if v is kept constant
.
D
T/p = constant, if v is kept constant
.
44. Producer gas is obtained by

A
partial combustion of coal, coke, anthracite coal or charcoal in a mixed air steam blast
.
B. carbonisation of bituminous coal
C
passing steam over incandescent coke
.
D
passing air and a large amount of steam over waste coal at about 650C
.
45. The efficiency of a dual combustion cycle __________ upon cut-off ratio.
A
depends
.
B. does not depend
46. The efficiency of Diesel cycle depends upon

A
temperature limits
.
B. pressure ratio
219
C
compression ratio
.
D
cut-off ratio and compression ratio
.
47. Those substances which have so far not been resolved by any means into other substances of
simpler form are called
A
elements
.
B. compounds
C
atoms
.
D
molecules
.
48. The measurement of a thermodynamic property known as temperature is based on

A
.
C
.
D
none of these
.
49. Kelvin-Planck's law deals with

A
conservation of work
.
B. conservation of heat
C
conversion of heat into work
.
220
D
conversion of work into heat
.
1. For the same compression ratio, the efficiency of dual combustion cycle is
A
greater than Diesel cycle and less than Otto cycle
.
B. less than Diesel cycle and greater than Otto cycle
C
greater than Diesel cycle
.
D
less than Diesel cycle
.
2. In an irreversible process, there is a

A
loss of heat
.
B. no loss of heat
C
gain of heat
.
D
no gain of heat
.
3. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of unit mass of a gas through one
degree at constant pressure is called specific heat at constant pressure.
A
True
.
B. False
4. The change of entropy, when heat is removed from the gas, is negative.
A
Yes
.
221
B. No
5. Coke is produced
A
when coal is first dried and then crushed to a fine powder by pulverising machine
.
from the finely ground coal by moulding under pressure with or without a binding
B.
material
C when coal is strongly heated continuously for 42 to 48 hours in the absence of air in a
. closed vessel
D
by heating wood with a limited supply of air to a temperature not less than 280C
.
6. One Joule (J) is equal to

A
1 N-m
.
B. 1 kN-m
C
10 N-m/s
.
D
10 kN-m/s
.
7. When the expansion or compression takes place according to the law pvn = C, the process is
known as
A
isothermal process
.
C
hyperbolic process
.
D
polytropic process
.
222
8. The entropy is a point function and thus it is a property of the same.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
9. The state of a substance whose evaporation from its liquid state is complete, is known as
A
vapour
.
B. perfect gas
C
air
.
D
steam
.
10. An open cycle gas turbine works on

A
Carnot cycle
.
B. Otto cycle
C
Joule's cycle
.
D
Stirling cycle
.
11. The volumetric or molar specific heat at constant pressure is the product of
A
molecular mass of the gas and the specific heat at constant volume
.
B. atomic mass of the gas and the gas constant
C
molecular mass of the gas and the gas constant
.
223
D
none of the above
.
12. The efficiency of Carnot cycle depends upon

A
temperature limits
.
B. pressure ratio
C
volume compression ratio
.
D
cut-off ratio and compression ratio
.
13. The gas turbine cycle with regenerator improves

A
thermal efficiency
.
B. work ratio
C
avoids pollution
.
D
none of these
.
14. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?

A
Peat
.
B. Lignite
C
Bituminous coal
.
D
Anthracite coal
.
15. When a gas is heated, change takes place in

A
224
B. volume
C
temperature
.
D
all of these
.
16. Which of the following is an intensive property of a thermodynamic system?

A
Volume
.
B. Temperature
C
Mass
.
D
Energy
.
17. A triatomic molecule consists of __________ atoms.

A
one
.
B. two
C
three
.
D
four
.
18. The main cause for the irreversibility is

A
mechanical and fluid friction
.
B. unrestricted expansion
C heat transfer with a finite temperature difference
225
.
D
all of the above
.
19. A cycle consisting of __________ and two isothermal processes is known as Stirling cycle.
A
two constant pressure
.
B. two constant volume
C
two isentropic
.
D
one constant pressure, one constant volume
.
20. The heat and mechanical energies are mutually convertible. This statement was established
by
A
Boyle
.
B. Charles
C
Joule
.
D
none of these
.
21. For the same compression ratio, the efficiency of Diesel cycle is __________ Otto cycle.
A
greater than
.
B. less than
C
equal to
.
22. Mond gas is obtained by

A
226
B. carbonisation of bituminous coal
C
passing steam over incandescent coke
.
D
passing air and a large amount of steam over waste coal at about 650C
.
23. The natural solid fuel is

A
wood
.
B. coke
C
anthracite coal
.
D
pulverised coal
.
24. The condition for the reversibility of a cycle is

A the pressure and temperature of the working substance must not differ, appreciably,
. from those of the surroundings at any stage in the process
B. all the processes, taking place in the cycle of operation, must be extremely slow
C
the working parts of the engine must be friction free
.
D
all of the above
.
25. In open cycle gas turbine plants

A
the indirect heat exchanger and cooler is avoided
.
B. direct combustion system is used
C a condenser is used
227
.
D
all of the above
.
26. In an isolated system, neither the heat and work nor the, mass of the working substance
crosses the boundary of the system.
A
True
.
B. False
27. The compression ratio is the ratio of

A
swept volume to total volume
.
B. total volume to swept volume
C
swept volume to clearance volume
.
D
total volume to clearance volume
.
28. When a fluid is allowed to expand suddenly into a vaccum chamber through an orifice of
large dimensions, the process is known as free expansion process.
A
True
.
B. False
29. The efficiency of Ericsson cycle is __________ Carnot cycle.

A
greater than
.
B. less than
C
equal to
.
228
30. One molecule of oxygen consists of __________ atoms of oxygen.
A
2
.
B. 4
C
8
.
D
16
.
31. According to kinetic theory of gases, the velocity of molecules __________ with the increase
in temperature.
A
remains constant
.
B. increases
C
decreases
.
32. The hard coke is obtained when carbonisation of coal is carried out at
A
300 to 500C
.
B. 500 to700C
C
700 to 900C
.
D
900 to 1100C
.
33. According to First law of thermodynamics,

A
total internal energy of a system during a process remains constant
.
B. total energy of a system remains constant
229
C
workdone by a system is equal to the heat transferred by the system
.
D
internal energy, enthalpy and entropy during a process remains constant
.
34. The root mean square velocity of the gas molecules is given by (where k = Boltzmann's
constant, T = Absolute temperature, and m = Mass of one molecule of a gas)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
35. Stirling cycle consists of

A
two constant volume and two isentropic processes
.
B. two constant volume and two isothermal processes
C
two constant pressure and two isothermal processes
.
D
one constant volume, one constant pressure and two isentropic processes
.
36. The ratio of molar specific heats for monoatomic gas is

A
1
.
B. 1.4
C 1.67
230
.
D
1.87
.
37. The general law of expansion or compression is pvn = C, The process is said to be hyperbolic,
if n is equal to
A
0
.
B. 1
C

.
D

.
38. The state of a substance whose evaporation from its liquid state is partial, is known as steam.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
39. The value of universal gas constant is same for all gases.
A
Yes
.
B. No
40. The numerical value of the thermal capacity and the water equivalent of the substance are the
same.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
41. The area under the temperature-entropy curve (i. e. T - s curve) of any thermodynamic
process represents the workdone during the process.
A Agree
231
.
B. Disagree
42. The heating of a gas at constant pressure is governed by Charles' law.

A
True
.
B. False

A
The closed cycle gas turbine plants are external combustion plants.
.
In the closed cycle gas turbine, the pressure range depends upon the atmospheric
B.
pressure.
C The advantage of efficient internal combustion is eliminated as the closed cycle has an
. external surface.
D
In open cycle gas turbine, atmosphere acts as a sink and no coolant is required.
.
44. Carnot cycle consists of

A
.
B. two isothermal and two isentropic processes
C
two constant pressure and two isentropic processes
.
D
one constant volume, one constant pressure and two isentropic processes
.
45. When a gas is heated at constant volume

A
its temperature will increase
.
232
B. its pressure will increase
C
both temperature and pressure will increase
.
D
neither temperature nor pressure will increase
.
46. According to kinetic theory of gases, the kinetic energy of translation of a molecule is
proportional to
A
T
.
B. T
C
1/T
.
D
1/T
.
47. The amount of heat given out by the complete combustion of 1 kg of fuel is known as
calorific value of solid or liquid fuel.
A
True
.
B. False
48. The conditions of temperature and pressure at 0C (273K) and 760 mm of Hg pressure are
termed as __________ temperature and pressure.
A
normal
.
B. standard
49. The value of cp/cv for air is

A
1
.
B. 1.4
233
C
1.8
.
D
23
.
50. The heat absorbed or rejected by the working substance is given by (where ds = Increase or
decrease of entropy, T = Absolute temperature, and dQ = Heat absorbed or rejected)
A
Q = T.ds
.
B. Q = T/ds
C
dQ = ds/T
.
D
none of these
.
1. Which of the following gas has the highest calorific value?
A
Coal gas
.
B. Producer gas
C
Mond gas
.
D
Blast furnace gas
.
2. The oxygen atom is __________ times heavier than the hydrogen atom.
A
2
.
234
B. 4
C
8
.
D
16
.
3. When the gas is cooled at constant pressure,

A
its temperature increases but volume decreases
.
B. its volume increases but temperature decreases
C
both temperature and volume increases
.
D
both temperature and volume decreases
.
4. The work ratio of a gas turbine plant is given by

A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
5. As per Charles' law, the volume of a given mass of a perfect gas varies __________ as its
absolute temperature, when the absolute pressure remains constant.
A
directly
.
B. indirectly
235
6. The principal constituents of a fuel are
A
carbon and hydrogen
.
B. oxygen and hydrogen
C
sulphur and oxygen
.
D
sulphur and hydrogen
.
7. In an extensive property of a thermodynamic system

A
extensive heat is transferred
.
B. extensive work is done
C
extensive energy is utilised
.
D
none of these
.
8. When a gas is heated at constant pressure

A
its temperature will increase
.
B. its volume will increase
C
both temperature and volume will increase
.
D
neither temperature not volume will increase
.
9. By decreasing the highest temperature in the Carnot cycle, its efficiency is increased.
A
True
.
236
B. False
10. Workdone during adiabatic expansion is given by (where p1 v1, T1 = Pressure, volume and
temperature for the initial condition of gas, p2, v2, T2 = Corresponding values for the final
condition of gas, R = Gas constant, and = Ratio of specific heats)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
all of these
.
11. The lower calorific value of fuel may be obtained by adding the heat of steam formed during
combustion to the higher calorific value.
A
Yes
.
B. No
12. One kg of carbon monoxide requires 4/7 kg of oxygen and produces

A
11/3 kg of carbon dioxide gas
.
B. 7/3 kg of carbon monoxide gas
C
11/7 kg of carbon dioxide gas
.
D
8/3 kg of carbon monoxide gas
.
13. The molecular mass expresssed in gram (i.e. 1 g - mole) of all gases, at N. T. P., occupies a
volume of
A
0.224 litres
.
237
B. 2.24 litres
C
22.4 litres
.
D
224 litres
.
14. The absolute zero pressure will be

A
when molecular momentum of the system becomes zero
.
B. at sea level
C
at the temperature of - 273 K
.
D
at the centre of the earth
.
15. The gas in cooling chamber of a closed cycle gas turbine is cooled at
A
constant volume
.
B. constant temperature
C
constant pressure
.
D
none of these
.
16. Which of the following is the correct statement?

A
For a given compression ratio, both Otto and Diesel cycles have the same efficiency.
.
B. For a given compression ratio, Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle.
C For a given compression ratio, Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle.
238
.
D
The efficiency of Otto or Diessel cycle has nothing to do with compressioin ratio.
.
17. The temperature at which the volume of a gas becomes zero is called
A
absolute scale of temperature
.
B. absolute zero temperature
C
absolute temperature
.
D
none of these
.
18. The heating of gas at constant volume is governed by

A
Boyle's law
.
B. Charles' law
C
Gay-Lussac law
.
D
Avogadro's law
.
19. The absolute pressure of a given mass of a perfect gas varies inversely as its volume, when
the temperature remains constant. This statement is known as Boyle's law.
A
Yes
.
B. No
20. The fuel mostly used in cement industry and in metallurgical processes is
A
wood charcoal
.
239
B. bituminous coke
C
pulverised coal
.
D
coke
.
21. Boyle's law states that change of internal energy of a perfect gas is directly proportional to
the change of temperature.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
22. The ratio of specific heat at constant pressure (cp) and specific heat at constant volume (cv) is
always __________ one.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
23. The isothermal and adiabatic processes are regarded as

A
reversible process
.
B. irreversible process
C
reversible or irreversible process
.
D
none of these
.
24. The variables which control the physical properties of a perfect gas are
A
pressure exerted by the gas
.
240
B. volume occupied by the gas
C
temperature of the gas
.
D
all of these
.
25. The heat flows from a cold body to a hot body with the aid of an external source. This
statement is given by
A
Kelvin
.
B. Joule
C
Clausis
.
D
Gay-Lussac
.
26. The unit of power in S.I. units is kilowatt.

A
True
.
B. False
27. Otto cycle consists of

A
.
B. two constant pressure and two isentropic processes
C
two constant volume and two isothermal processes
.
D
one constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic processes
.
28. The increase in entropy of a system represents

A
241
B. increase in temperature
C
decrease in pressure
.
D
degradation of energy
.
29. In a free expansion process,

A
W1 - 2 = 0
.
B. Q1 - 2 = 0
C
dU = 0
.
D
all of these
.
30. The reading of the pressure gauge fitted on a vessel is 25 bar. The atmospheric pressure is
1.03 bar and the value of 'g' is 9.81 m/s2. The absolute pressure in the vessel is
A
23.97 bar
.
B. 25 bar
C
26.03 bar
.
D
34.81 bar
.
31. The general gas equation is (where p = Pressure, v = Volume, m = mass, T = Absolute
temperature, and R = Gas constant)
A
pv = mRT
.
B. pv = RTm
242
C
pvm = C
.
D
pv = (RT)m
.
32. The work ratio of simple gas turbine cycle depends upon
A
maximum cycle temperature
.
B. minimum cycle temperature
C
pressure ratio
.
D
all of these
.
33. The gas constant (R) is equal to the

A
sum of two specific heats
.
B. difference of two specific heats
C
product of two specific heats
.
D
ratio of two specific heats
.
34. Select the wrong statement

A
A Joule cycle consists of two constant volume and two isentropic processes.
.
B. An Otto cycle consists of two constant volume and two isentropic processes.
C
An Ericsson cycle consists of two constant pressure and two isothermal processes.
.
243
D
all of the above
.
35. One kg of hydrogen requires 8 kg of oxygen and produces

A
1 kg of water
.
B. 7 kg of water
C
8 kg of water
.
D
9 kg of water
.
36. The standard value of atmospheric pressure taken at sea level is

A
1.013 bar
.
B. 760 mm of Hg
C
1013 x 102 N/m2
.
D
all of these
.
37. The efficiency of Otto cycle depends upon the specific heats of the working substance.
A
Yes
.
B. No
38. The smallest quantity of a substance, which can exist by itself in a chemically recognizable
form is known as
A
element
.
B. compound
244
C
atom
.
D
molecule
.
39. The absolute zero pressure can be attained at a temperature of

A
0C
.
B. 273C
C
273 K
.
D
none of these
.
40. One kg of ethylene (C2H4) requires 2 kg of oxygen and produces 22/7 kg of carbon dioxide
and __________ kg of water or steam.
A
9/7
.
B. 11/7
C
7/4
.
D
11/4
.
41. One m3 of methane (CH4) requires 2m3 of oxygen and produces 1m3 of carbon dioxide and
2m3 of water or steam.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
42. Coke oven gas is obtained by burning coke in an oven.

A Agree
245
.
B. Disagree
43. A perpetual motion machine of the first kind is __________ according to first law of
thermodynamics.
A
possible
.
B. impossible
44. One kg of carbon requires 8/3 kg of oxygen for its complete combustion and produces 11/3
kg of carbon dioxide gas.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
45. A process, in which the gas is heated or expanded in such a way that product of its pressure
and volume remains constant, is called isothermal process.
A
Yes
.
B. No
46. An open system is one in which

A heat and work crosses the boundary of the system, but the mass of the working
. substance does not crosses the boundary of the system
mass of the working substance crosses the boundary of the system but the heat and
B.
work does not crosses the boundary of the system
C both the heat and work as well as mass of the working substance crosses the boundary
. of the system
D neither the heat and work nor the mass of the working substance crosses the boundary
. of the system
47. One reversible heat engine operates between 1600 K and T2 K and another reversible heat
engine operates between T2 K and 400 K. If both the engines have the same heat input and
output, then temperature T2 is equal to
246
B. 1000K
C
1200K
.
D
1400K
.
48. When the gas is heated at constant volume, the heat supplied
A
increases the internal energy of the gas and increases the temperature of the gas
.
B. does some external work during expansion
C
Both (A) and (B)
.
D
None of these
.
49. The efficiency of a gas turbine is given by

A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
50. In closed cycle gas turbine, the air is compressed

A
isothermally
.
B. isentropically
247
C
polytropically
.
D
none of these
.
1. For the same maximum pressure and temperature,
A
Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle
.
B. Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle
C
Dual cycle is more efficient than Otto and Diesel cycles
.
D
Dual cycle is less efficient than Otto and Diesel cycles
.
2. In a steady flow process, the ratio of

A
heat transfer is constant
.
B. work transfer is constant
C
mass flow at inlet and outlet is same
.
D
all of these
.
3. The entropy of the universe is continually on the increase.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
4. Select the correct statement as per Charles' law
248
A
p.v = constant, if T is kept constant
.
B. v/T = constant, if p is kept constant
C
p/T = constant, if v is kept constant
.
D
T/p = constant, if v is kept constant
.
5. The unit of energy is S. I. units is

A
Joule (J)
.
B. Joule metre (Jm)
C
Watt(W)
.
D
Joule/metre (J/m)
.
6. A process, in which the gas is heated or expanded in such a way that the product of its
pressure and volume remains constant, is called
A
isothermal process
.
C
adiabatic process
.
D
polytropic process
.
7. Which of the following statement is correct according to Clausis statement of second law off
thermodynamics?
A It is possible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a body at a higher
. temperature.
249
It is impossible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a body at a
B.
higher temperature, without the aid of an external source.
C It is possible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a body at a higher

. temperature by using refrigeration cycle.
D
none of the above
.
8. Diesel cycle consists of __________ processes.

A
two constant volume and two isentropic
.
B. two constant pressure and two isentropic
C
two constant volume and two isothermal
.
D
one constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic
.
9. When coal is first dried and then crushed to a fine powder by pulverising machine, the
resulting fuel is called
A
wood charcoal
.
B. bituminous coal
C
briquetted coal
.
D
none of these
.
10. The process is adiabatic, if the value of n in the equation pvn = C, is

A
0
.
B. 1
250
C

.
D

.
11. The molecular mass of a substance is the number of times a molecule of that substance is
heavier than the hydrogen atom.
A
True
.
B. False
12. The behaviour of super-heated vapour is similar to that of

A
perfect gas
.
B. air
C
steam
.
D
ordinary gas
.
13. Briquetted coal is produced from the finely ground coal by moulding under pressure with or
without a binding material.
A
True
.
B. False
14. Which of the following is a reversible non-flow process?

A
Isochoric process
.
B. Isobaric process
251
C
Hyperbolic process
.
D
all of these
.
15. If in the equation pvn = C, the value of n = , then the process is called
A
.
C
constant pressure process
.
D
isothermal process
.
16. The property of the system, whose value for the entire system is equal to the sum of their
values for the individual parts of the system is called extensive property
A
Yes
.
B. No
17. Coal gas consists mainly of hydrogen, carbon monoxide and various hydrocarbons.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
18. High air-fuel ratio in gas turbines

A
increases power output
.
B. improves thermal efficiency
C
reduces exhaust temperature
.
252
D
do not damage turbine blades
.
19. When the finely ground coal is moulded under pressure with or without a binding material,
the resulting fuel is called briquetted coal.
A
Yes
.
B. No
20. For the constant pressure and heat input, the air standard efficiency of gas power cycle is in
the order
A
Dual cycle, Diesel cycle, Otto cycle
.
B. Otto cycle, Diesel cycle, Dual cycle
C
Dual cycle, Otto cycle, Diesel cycle
.
D
Diesel cycle, Otto cycle, Dual cycle
.

A
The increase in entropy is obtained from a given quantity of heat at a low temperature.
.
The change in entropy may be regarded as a measure of the rate of the availability or
B.
unavailability of heat for transformation into work.
C The entropy represents the maximum amount of work obtainable per degree drop in
. temperature.
D
all of the above
.
22. The elements are made up of minute and chemically invisible particles as atoms.
A
True
.
253
B. False
23. All perfect gases change in volume by 1 / 273th of its original volume at 0C for every 1C
change in temperature, when the pressure remains constant. This statement is called
A
Boyle's law
.
B. Charles' law
C
Gay-Lussac law
.
D
Joule's law
.
24. A good fuel should have __________ ignition point.

A
high
.
B. low
25. According to Kelvin-Planck's statement, a perpetual motion of the __________ is

impossible.
A
first kind
.
B. second kind
26. The amount of heat generated per kg of fuel is known as

A
calorific value
.
B. heat energy
C
lower calorific value
.
D
higher calorific value
.
254
27. Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency for
A
petrol engine
.
B. diesel engine
C
reversible engine
.
D
irreversible engine
.
28. The entropy may be expressed as a function of

A
pressure and temperature
.
B. temperature and volume
C
heat and work
.
D
all of these
.
29. It is __________ to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole purpose is
to convert heat energy into work.
A
possible
.
B. impossible
30. Which of the following is the correct statement?

A
All the reversible engines have the same efficiency.
.
B. All the reversible and irreversible engines have the same efficiency.
C
Irreversible engines have maximum efficiency.
.
255
D
All engines are designed as reversible in order to obtain maximum efficiency.
.
31. A close cycle gas turbine gives __________ efficiency as compared to an open cycle gas
turbine.
A
same
.
B. lower
C
higher
.
32. Charles' law states that all perfect gases change in volume by __________ of its original
volume at 0 C for every 1 C change in temperature, when pressure remains constant.
A
1/27th
.
B. 1/93th
C
1/173th
.
D
1/273th
.
33. The calorific value of gaseous fuel is expressed in

A
kJ
.
B. kJ/kg
C
kJ/m2
.
D
kJ/m3
.
34. The throttling process is an irreversible steady flow expansion process.

A Correct
256
.
B. Incorrect
35. The efficiency of the dual combustion cycle for the same compression ratio, is __________
Diesel cycle.
A
greater than
.
B. less than
C
equal to
.
36. The thermal efficiency of an ideal gas turbine plant is given by (where r = Pressure ratio)
A
r - 1
.
B. 1 - r - 1
C
.
D
.
37. To ensure complete and rapid combustion of a fuel, some quantity of air, in excess of the
theoretical or minimum air is supplied.
A
Yes
.
B. No
38. According to Regnault's law, the specific heat at constant pressure (cp) and specific heat at
constant volume (cv) __________ with the change in pressure and temperature of the gas.
A
change
.
B. do not change
257
39. One molecule of oxygen is __________ times heavier than the hydrogen atom.
A
12
.
B. 14
C
16
.
D
32
.
40. Relation between cp and cv is given by (where cp = Specific heat at constant pressure, cv =
Specific heat at constant volume, = cp/cv, known as adiabatic index, and R = Gas constant)
A
.
B. cp - cv = R
C
.
D
Both (B) and (C)
.
41. The heat and work are mutually convertible. This statement is called __________ law of
thermodynamics.
A
Zeroth
.
B. First
C
Second
.
42. Kerosene is distilled at

A 65 to 220C
258
.
B. 220 to 345C
C
345 to 470C
.
D
470 to 550C
.
43. The polytropic index (n) is given by

A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
44. The amount of heat obtained by the complete combustion of 1 kg of a fuel when the products
of its combustion are cooled down to the temperature of supplied air is called __________
calorific value offuel.
A
higher
.
B. lower
45. The mass of flue gas per kg of fuel is the ratio of the
A
mass of oxygen in 1 kg of flue gas to the mass of oxygen in 1 kg of fuel
.
B. mass of oxygen in 1 kg of fuel to the mass of oxygen in 1 kg of flue gas
259
C
mass of carbon in 1 kg of flue gas to the mass of carbon in 1 kg of fuel
.
D
mass of carbon in 1 kg of fuel to the mass of carbon in 1 kg of flue gas
.
46. Equal volumes of all gases, at the same temperature and pressure, contain equal number of
molecules. This statement is called Avogadro's law.
A
True
.
B. False
47. Wood charcoal is produced by heating the wood at 100C.

A
Yes
.
B. No
48. The __________ is obtained when carbonisation of coal is carried out at 500 to 700 C.
A
soft coke
.
B. hard coke
C
pulverised coal
.
D
bituminous coal
.
49. The bomb calorimeter is used for finding the __________ calorific value of solid and liquid
fuels.
A
higher
.
B. lower
50. The efficiency of the Carnot cycle may be increased by

A increasing the highest temperature
260
.
B. decreasing the highest temperature
C
increasing the lowest temperature
.
D
keeping the lowest temperature constant
.
1. The atomic mass of sulphur is
A
12
.
B. 14
C
16
.
D
32
.
2. A path 1-2-3 is given. A system absorbs 100 kJ as heat and does 60 kJ of work while along
the path 1-4-3, it does 20 kJ of work. The heat absorbed during the cycle 1-4-3 is
A
-140 kJ
.
B. -80 kJ
261
C
-40 kJ
.
D
+60 kJ
.
3. The atomic mass of an element is the number of times the atom of that element is heavier
than the hydrogen atom.
A
True
.
B. False
4. The mass of carbon per kg of flue gas is given by

A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
5. A cycle consisting of two isothermal and two isentropic processes, is known as

A
Carnot cycle
.
B. Stirling cycle
C
Ericsson cycle
.
262
D
Joule cycle
.
6. The air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle is given by (where r = Compression ratio, and
= Ratio of specific heats)
A
1 - r - 1
.
B. 1 + r - 1
C
.
D
.
7. In an ideal gas turbine plant, it is assumed that the compression and expansion processes are
A
isothermal
.
B. isentropic
C
polytropic
.
D
none of these
.
8. When gas is heated at constant pressure, the heat supplied is utilised in

A
increasing the internal energy of gas
.
B. doing some external work
C
increasing the internal energy of gas and also for doing some external work
.
D
none of the above
.
263
9. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water through one Kelvin is
called
A
specific heat at constant volume
.
B. specific heat at constant pressure
C
kilo-Joule
.
D
none of these
.
10. When wood is heated with a limited supply of air to a temperature not less than 280C, the
resulting fuel is
A
coke
.
B. wood charcoal
C
bituminous coal
.
D
briquetted coal
.
11. The efficiency of Diesel cycle increases with increase in cut-off.

A
Yes
.
B. No
12. The property of a working substance which increases or decreases as the heat is supplied or
removed in a reversible manner, is known as
A
enthalpy
.
B. internal energy
C entropy
264
.
D
external energy
.
13. It is __________ to make an engine working on a Carnot cycle.

A
possible
.
B. impossible
14. The heating of a gas at constant pressure is governed by

A
Boyle's law
.
B. Charles' law
C
Gay-Lussac law
.
D
Avogadro's law
.
15. Reversed Joule cycle is known as

A
Carnot cycle
.
B. Bell-Coleman cycle
C
Rankine cycle
.
D
Stirling cycle
.
16. Which of the following is the extensive property of a thermodynamic system?

A
Pressure
.
265
B. Volume
C
Temperature
.
D
Density
.
17. It is impossible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a body at a higher
temperature, without the aid of an external source.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
18. One kilowatt is equal to

A
1 N-m/s
.
B. 100 N-m
C
1000 N-m/s
.
D
1 x 106 N-m/s
.
19. Second law of thermodynamics defines

A
heat
.
B. work
C
internal energy
.
D
entropy
.
20. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed, but it can be transformed from one form to
266
another. This statement is known as
A
.
C
.
D
Kinetic theory of gases
.
21. The value of one bar (in S. I. units) is equal to

A
1 x 102 N/m2
.
B. 1 x 103 N/m2
C
1 x 104 N/m2
.
D
1 x 105 N/m2
.
22. Petrol is distilled at

A
65 to 220C
.
B. 220 to 345C
C
345 to 470C
.
D
470 to 550C
.
23. If the carbon content in the bituminous coal is 78 to 81%, it is said to be coking bituminous
coal.
A
Agree
.
267
B. Disagree
24. The efficiency of the Carnot cycle is (where T1 and T2 = Highest and lowest temperature
during the cycle)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
25. The mass of excess air supplied is equal to

A
. x Mass of excess carbon
B.
x Mass of excess oxygen
C
. x Mass of excess carbon
D
. x Mass of excess oxygen
26. When a perfect gas is expanded through an aperture of minute dimensions, the process is
known as
A
isothermal process
.
C
free expansion process
.
268
D
throttling process
.
27. Steam coal is a

A
pulverised coal
.
B. brown coal
C
coking bituminous coal
.
D
non-coking bituminous coal
.
28. In a reversible adiabatic process, the ratio of T1/T2 is equal to

A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
29. The kinetic energy per kg molecule of any gas at absolute temperature T is equal to
(where Ru = Universal gas constant)
A
Ru x T
.
B. 1.5 Ru x T
C
2 Ru x T
.
269
D
3 Ru x T
.
30. The atomic mass of nitrogen is __________ oxygen.

A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
more than
.
31. One kg of sulphur requires 1 kg of oxygen for complete combustion and produces 2 kg of
sulphur dioxide.
A
True
.
B. False
32. The change of entropy, when heat is absorbed by the gas, is

A
positive
.
B. negative
C
positive or negative
.
33. A machine which violates the first law of thermodynamics is known as perpetual motion
machine of the second kind.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
34. Both the Ericsson and Joule's cycle have two constant pressure processes.
A
True
.
B. False
270
35. The general law for the expansion or compression of gases, is
A
pv = C
.
B. pv = m R T
C
pvn = C
.
D
pv = C
.
36. The heat energy stored in the gas and used for raising the temperature of the gas is known as
A
external energy
.
B. internal energy
C
kinetic energy
.
D
molecular energy
.
37. A cycle consisting of two constant pressure and two isentropic processes is known as
A
Carnot cycle
.
B. Stirling cycle
C
Otto cycle
.
D
none of these
.
271
38. When the gas is heated at constant pressure, the heat supplied
A
increases the internal energy of the gas
.
B. increases the temperature of the gas
C
does some external work during expansion
.
D
Both (B) and (C)
.
39. The __________ states that change of internal energy of a perfect gas is directly proportional
to the change of temperature.
A
Boyle's law
.
B. Charle's law
C
Gay-Lussac law
.
D
Joule's law
.
40. A closed cycle gas turbine works on Joule's cycle.

A
True
.
B. False
41. The workdone in a free expansion process is zero.

A
True
.
B. False
42. When a system changes its state from one equilibrium state to another equilibrium state, then
the path of successive states through which the system has passed, is known as
A thermodynamic law
272
.
B. thermodynamic process
C
thermodynamic cycle
.
D
none of these
.
43. The fuel mostly used in blast furnace for extracting pig iron from iron ores is
A
hard coke
.
B. soft coke
C
pulverised coal
.
D
bituminous coal
.
44. The ultimate analysis of coal consists of the determination of the percentage of
A
carbon
.
B. hydrogen and nitrogen
C
sulphur and ash
.
D
all of these
.
45. The change of entropy, when heat is removed from the gas, is positive.
A
Yes
.
B. No
273
46. The ratio of root mean square velocity to average velocity of gas molecules at a particular
temperature is
A
0.086
.
B. 1.086
C
3.086
.
D
4.086
.
47. First law of thermodynamics deals with

A
conservation of heat
.
B. conservation of momentum
C
conservation of mass
.
D
conservation of energy
.

A
The heat and work are boundary phenomena
.
B. The heat and work represent the energy crossing the boundary of the system
C
The heat and work are path functions
.
D
all of the above
.
49. In S. I. units, the value of the universal gas constant is

A
8.314 J/kg mole-K
.
274
B. 83.14 J/kgmole-K
C
831.4 J/kgmole-K
.
D
8314 J/kgmole-K
.
50. The throttling process is __________ process.

A
reversible
.
B. irreversible
C
reversible or irreversible
.
1. A cycle consisting of two constant pressure and two isothermal processes is known as
Ericsson cycle.
A
True
.
B. False
2. A process of heating crude oil to a high temperature under a very high pressure to increase
the yield of lighter distillates, is known as
A
cracking
.
B. carbonisation
C
fractional distillation
.
D
full distillation
.
3. If in the equation pvn = C, the value of n = 1, then the process is called isothermal process.
275
A
True
.
B. False
4. The specific volume of a system is an __________ property.

A
extensive
.
B. intensive
5. Which of the following process can be made reversible with the help of a regenerator?
A
Constant pressure process
.
B. Constant volume process
C
Constant pvn process
.
D
all of these
.
6. The ideal efficiency of simple gas turbine cycle depends upon pressure ratio.
A
Yes
.
B. No
7. A molecule consisting of one atom is known as

A
monoatomic
.
B. diatomic
C
triatomic
.
D polyatomic
276
.
8. The natural petroleum may be separated into

A
petrol
.
B. kerosene
C
fuel oil
.
D
lubricating oil
.
9. A definite area or a space where some thermodynamic process takes place is known as
A
thermodynamic system
.
B. thermodynamic cycle
C
thermodynamic process
.
D
thermodynamic law
.
10. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of __________ water through one
degree is called kilojoule.
A
1g
.
B. 10 g
C
100 g
.
D
1000 g
.
11. The universal gas constant (or molar constant) of a gas is the product of
277
12. A process, in which the working substance neither receives nor gives out heat to its
surroundings during its expansion or compression, is called
A
isothermal process
.
C
adiabatic process
.
D
polytropic process
.
4. Steam Nozzles and Turbines - Section 1

1. A nozzle is said to be a convergent nozzle
A
when the cross-section of the nozzle increases continuously from entrance to exit
.
B. when the cross-section of the nozzle decreases continuously from entrance to exit
C when the cross-section of the nozzle first decreases from entrance to throat and then
. increases from its throat to exit
D
none of the above
.
2. A turbine is said to have an axial discharge when the steam leaves the blade tip at
__________ to the direction of the blade motion.
A
60
.
B. 90
C
180
.
D
270
.
278
3. The flow through a nozzle is regarded as
A
constant volume flow
.
B. constant pressure flow
C
isothermal flow
.
D
isentropic flow
.
4. The ratio of total useful heat drop to the total isentropic heat drop, is called
A
stage efficiency
.
B. internal efficiency
C
Rankine efficiency
.
D
none of these
.
5. The pressure at which the steam leaves the nozzle is known as back pressure.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
6. The discharge of steam in a convergent-divergent nozzle __________ after the throat (i.e. in
the divergent portion of the nozzle)
A
remains constant
.
B. decreases
C
increases
.
279
7. The rate of discharge through the nozzle __________ when the exit pressure is gradually
reduced.
A
remains same
.
B. decreases
C
increases
.
8. The velocity of steam leaving the nozzle (V) is given by (where K = Nozzle coefficient or
nozzle efficiency, and hd= Enthalpy or heat drop during expansion of steam in a nozzle)
A
V = 44.72 hd K
.
B. V = 44.72 K hd
C
V = 44.72 K hd
.
D
V = 44.72 K hd
.
9. In a nozzle, whole frictional loss is assumed to occur between

A
inlet and thoroat
.
B. inlet and outlet
C
throat and exit
.
D
all of these
.
10. The critical pressure ratio for initially wet steam is

A
0.546
.
B. 0.577
280
C
0.582
.
D
0.601
.
11. The isentropic enthalpy drop in moving blade is two-third of the isentropic enthalpy drop in
fixed blades of a turbine. The degree of reaction will be
A
0.4
.
B. 0.56
C
0.67
.
D
1.67
.
12. The impulse reaction turbine has its driving force

A
as an impulsive force
.
B. as a reaction force
C
partly as an impulsive force and partly as a reaction force
.
D
none of the above
.
13. The efficiency of reaction turbine is maximum when (where = Angle made by the absolute
velocity (V) at inlet)
A
Vb = 0.5 V cos
.
B. Vb = V cos
281
C
Vb = 0.5 V2 cos
.
D
Vb = V2 cos
.
14. A regenerative steam cycle renders

A
increased work output per unit mass of steam
.
B. decreased work output per unit mass of steam
C
increased thermal efficiency
.
D
decreased work output per unit mass of steam as well as increased thermal efficiency
.
15. De-Laval turbine is a

A
single rotor impulse turbine
.
B. multi-rotor impulse turbine
C
impulse reaction turbine
.
D
none of these
.
16. The turbine, in which the general direction of the steam flow is parallel to the turbine axis, is
called axial flow turbines
A
True
.
B. False
17. The critical pressure gives the velocity of steam at the throat equal to the velocity of sound.
A
Agree
.
282
B. Disagree
18. The reheat factor is the ratio of the

A
cumulative heat drop to the isentropic heat drop
.
B. isentropic heat drop to the heat supplied
C
total useful heat drop to the total isentropic heat drop
.
D
none of the above
.
19. The turbine blades do not change the direction of steam issuing from the nozzle.
A
True
.
B. False
20. Thermal equilibrium means that the flow of steam is

A
isothermal
.
B. isentropic
C
hyperbolic
.
D
polytropic
.
21. When the back pressure of a nozzle is below the designed value of pressure at exit of nozzle,
the nozzle is said to be
A
choked
.
B. underdamping
283
C
overdamping
.
D
none of these
.
22. The ratio of the workdone on the blades to the energy supplied to the blades, is called
A
blading efficiency
.
B. nozzle efficiency
C
gross or stage efficiency
.
D
mechanical efficiency
.
23. The discharge is __________ at critical pressure.

A
zero
.
B. minimum
C
maximum
.
24. The supersaturated flow of steam through a nozzle as compared to a stable flow, the available
heat drop
A
remains the same
.
B. increases
C
decreases
.
D
is unpredictable
.
284
25. The steam leaves the nozzle at a
A
high pressure and a low velocity
.
B. high pressure and a high velocity
C
low pressure and a low velocity
.
D
low pressure and a high velocity
.
26. The critical pressure gives the velocity of steam at the throat
A
equal to the velocity of sound
.
B. less than the velocity of sound
C
more than the velocity of sound
.
D
none of these
.
27. The Parsons' reaction turbine has

A
only moving blades
.
B. only fixed blades
C
identical fixed and moving blades
.
D
fixed and moving blades of different shape
.
28. The action of steam in a steam turbine is

A
static
.
285
B. dynamic
C
static and dynamic
.
D
neither static nor dynamic
.
29. The blade velocity coefficient is ratio of relative velocity of steam at outlet tip of the blade to
the relative velocity of steam at inlet tip of the blade.
A
True
.
B. False
30. Multi-stage steam turbines are of the

A
velocity compounded type
.
B. reaction type
C
pressure compounded type
.
D
all of these
.
31. The critical pressure ratio (p2/p1) is given by
A
.
B.
C
.
286
D
.
32. In reaction turbines, the axial thrust is due to

A
pressure drop across the rotor
.
B. change in axial velocity
C
both (a) and (b)
.
D
none of these
.

A
The expansion of steam in a nozzle follows Rankine cycle.
.
B. The friction in the nozzle increases the dryness fraction of steam.
C
The pressure of steam at throat is called critical pressure.
.
D
all of the above
.
34. A binary vapour plant consists of

A
steam turbine
.
B. steam condenser
C
mercury boiler
.
D
all of these
.
287
35. In a De-Laval nozzle expanding superheated steam from 10 bar to 0.1 bar, the pressure at the
minimum cross-section (i. e. pressure at throat, p2) will be
A
3.3 bar
.
B. 5.46 bar
C
8.2 bar
.
D
9.9 bar
.
36. The stage efficiency (S) is given by (where B = Blading efficiency, and N = Nozzle
efficiency)
A
S = B x N
.
B. S = B/N
C
S = N/B
.
D
none of these
.
37. The critical pressure ratio for initially dry saturated steam is more as compared to initially
wet steam.
A
Yes
.
B. No
38. In a convergent divergent nozzle, the discharge depends upon the initial conditions of steam
and the area of nozzle at throat.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
39. Parson's reaction turbine is a __________ reaction turbine.

288
B. 50 percent
C
60 percent
.
D
70 percent
.
40. The turbine blades are

A
straight
.
B. circular
C
curved
.
41. The variation of steam pressure in the nozzle depends upon

A
velocity of steam
.
B. specific volume of steam
C
dryness fraction of steam
.
D
all of these
.
42. Steam turbines are used for

A
large marine propulsion
.
B. electric power generation
C
direct drive of fans, compressors, pumps
.
D all of these
289
.
43. Parson's turbine is a

A
simple impulse turbine
.
B. simple reaction turbine
C
impulse-reaction turbine
.
D
none of these
.
44. The value of the reheat factor varies from

A
1.02 to 1.06
.
B. 1.08 to 1.l0
C
1.2 to 1.6
.
D
1.6 to 2
.
45. The steam enters the nozzle at a

A
high pressure and a low velocity
.
B. high pressure and a high velocity
C
low pressure and a low velocity
.
D
low pressure and a high velocity
.
46. The difference of supersaturated temperature and saturation temperature at that pressure is
called
A
290
B. degree of superheat
C
degree of undercooling
.
D
none of these
.
47. The maximum efficiency of a reaction turbine is

A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
48. The ratio of the useful heat drop to the isentropic heat drop is called
A
condenser efficiency
.
C
boiler efficiency
.
D
vacuum efficiency
.
49. The efficiency of steam turbines may be improved by

A
reheating of steam
.
B. regenerative feed heating
291
C
binary vapour plant
.
D
any one of these
.
50. In a reaction turbine, when steam flows through the fixed blades,
A
pressure increases while velocity decreases
.
B. pressure decreases while velocity increases
C
pressure and velocity both decreases
.
D
pressure and velocity both increases
.
Steam Nozzles and Turbines - Section 2

1. A single stage impulse turbine with a diameter of 1.2 m runs at 3000 r.p.m. If the blade speed
ratio is 0.42, then the inlet velocity of steam will be
A
79 m/s
.
B. 188 m/s
C
450 m/s
.
D
900 m/s
.
2. In a De-Laval impulse turbine, the nozzle is kept very close to the blades.
A
Yes
.
B. No
3. The flow of steam is super-sonic
292
A
at the entrance to the nozzle
.
B. at the throat of the nozzle
C
in the convergent portion of the nozzle
.
D
in the divergent portion of the nozzle
.
4. The pressure of steam at throat of a steam nozzle is called critical pressure.

A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
5. For maximum efficiency of an impulse turbine, the steam should leave the blades at right
angles to their motion.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
6. De-Laval turbine is a
A
simple impulse turbine
.
B. simple reaction turbine
C
impulse-reaction turbine
.
D
none of these
.
7. The impulse turbine rotor efficiency will have a maximum value of 0.5 cos2 , where is the
nozzle exit flow angle, if the
A
blades are equiangular
.
293
B. blade velocity coefficient is unity
C
blades are equiangular and frictionless
.
D
blade solidity is 0.65
.
8. When the cross-section of a nozzle increases continuously from entrance to exit, it is called a
A
divergent nozzle
.
B. convergent nozzle
C
convergent-divergent nozzle
.
D
none of these
.
9. Rateau turbine is
A
simple reaction turbine
.
B. velocity compounded turbine
C
pressure compounded turbine
.
D
pressure-velocity compounded turbine
.
10. The ratio of the work delivered at the turbine shaft to the heat supplied is called overall
thermal efficiency of turbine.
A
True
.
B. False
11. In a single stage impulse turbine, the velocity of steam approaching nozzles is negligible.
A
294
B. False
12. Curtis turbine is a

A
simple reaction turbine
.
B. velocity compounded turbine
C
pressure compounded turbine
.
D
pressure-velocity compounded turbine
.
13. The velocity of steam at throat of the nozzle is __________ the velocity of sound.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
more than
.
14. The critical pressure ratio for initially dry saturated steam is
A
0.546
.
B. 0.577
C
0.582
.
D
0.601
.
15. The discharge through a nozzle is maximum for a certain value of exit pressure. This
pressure is known as critical pressure.
A
Agree
.
295
B. Disagree
16. The velocity of steam, in reaction turbines, is increased in the fixed blades as well as in
moving blades.
A
True
.
B. False
17. The critical pressure ratio for gases is

A
0.528
.
B. 0.546
C
0.577
.
D
0.582
.
18. The efficiency of a pressure-velocity compounded impulse turbine is __________ as

compared to pressure compounded impulse turbine.
A
same
.
B. less
C
more
.
19. The effect of supersaturation is that the

A
mass of the steam discharged increases
.
B. entropy and specific volume of the steam increases
C
exit velocity of steam reduces
.
296
D
all of these
.
20. The effect of friction on the flow of steam through a nozzle is to

A
decrease the mass flow rate and to increase the wetness of steam
.
B. increase the mass flow rate and to increase the exit temperature
C
decrease the mass flow rate and to decrease the wetness of steam
.
D
increase the exit temperature without any effect on mass flow rate
.
21. The ratio of the isentropic heat drop to the heat supplied, is called
A
reheat factor
.
B. stage efficiency
C
internal efficiency
.
D
Rankine efficiency
.
22. When the cross-section of a nozzle first increases from its entrance to throat, and then
decreases from its throat to exit, it is not a convergent-divergent nozzle.
A
Yes
.
B. No
23. The efficiency ratio is the ratio of total useful heat drop to the total isentropic heat drop.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
297
24. The purpose of governing in steam turbines is to
A
maintain the speed of the turbine
.
B. reduce the effective heat drop
C
reheat the steam and improve its quality
.
D
completely balance against end thrust
.
25. De-Laval turbines are mostly used

A
where low speeds are required
.
B. for small power purposes and low speeds
C
for large power purposes
.
D
for small power purposes and high speeds
.
26. The reheat factor depends upon

A
initial pressure and superheat
.
B. exit pressure
C
turbine stage efficiency
.
D
all of these
.
27. In an impulse turbine

A
the steam is expanded in nozzles only and there is a pressure drop and heat drop
.
298
B. the steam is expanded both in fixed and moving blades continuously
C
the steam is expanded in moving blades only
.
D
the pressure and temperature of steam remains constant
.
28. A nozzle is said to be a divergent nozzle

A
when the cross-section of the nozzle increases continuously from entrance to exit
.
B. when the cross-section of the nozzle decreases continuously from entrance to exit
C when the cross-section of the nozzle first decreases from entrance to throat and then
. increases from its throat to exit
D
none of the above
.
29. The ratio of the cumulative heat drop to the isentropic heat drop is called reheat factor.
A
Yes
.
B. No
30. The compounding of turbines is done in order to

A
reduce speed of rotor
.
B. improve efficiency
C
reduce exit losses
.
D
all of these
.
31. The pressure of steam __________ while flowing through a nozzle.

A
increases
.
299
B. decreases
C
remains constant
.
32. The process of maintaining the speed of the turbine constant for various load conditions, is
known as
A
bleeding
.
B. reheating
C
governing
.
D
none of these
.
33. Reheating of steam in a turbine

A
increases the workdone through the turbine
.
B. increases the efficiency of the turbine
C
reduces wear on the blades
.
D
all of these
.
34. Which of the following statement is correct for steam turbines as compared to reciprocating
steam engines?
A
A steam turbine develops higher speeds
.
B. The efficiency of steam turbine is higher
C
The steam consumption is less
.
300
D
all of these
.
35. The density of supersaturated steam is about __________ that of the ordinary saturated
vapour at the corresponding pressure.
A
same as
.
B. 2 times
C
4 times
.
D
8 times
.
36. The ratio of the workdone on the blades per kg of steam to the total energy supplied per stage
per kg of steam is called
A
blading efficiency
.
C
stage efficiency
.
D
.
37. The diagram efficiency is the ratio of

A
workdone on the blades to the energy supplied to the blades
.
workdone on the blades per kg of steam to the total energy supplied per stage per kg
B.
of steam
C energy supplied to the blades per kg of steam to the total energy supplied per stage per
. kg of steam
D none of the above
301
.
38. The Rankine efficiency depends upon total useful heat drop and total isentropic heat drop.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
39. Blading efficiency is also known as

A
stage efficiency
.
B. diagram efficiency
C
nozzle efficiency
.
D
none of these
.
40. The pressure of steam, in reaction turbines, is reduced in the fixed blades as well as in
moving blades.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
41. In order to reduce the rotor speed of an impulse turbine, the method employed is
A
velocity compounding
.
B. pressure compounding
C
pressure-velocity compounding
.
D
all of these
.
42. The nozzle efficiency is the ratio of

A
302
workdone on the blades per kg of steam to the total energy supplied per stage per kg
B.
of steam
C energy supplied to the blades per kg of steam to the total energy supplied per stage per
. kg of steam
D
none of the above
.
43. The friction in the nozzle __________ exit velocity of steam.

A
has no effect on
.
B. decreases
C
increases
.
44. In a reaction turbine

A the steam is allowed to expand in the nozzle, where it gives a high velocity before it
. enters the moving blades
the expansion of steam takes place partly in the fixed blades and partly in the moving
B.
blades
C the steam is expanded from a high pressure to a condenser pressure in one or more
. nozzles
D
the pressure and temperature of steam remains constant
.
45. A stage, in reaction turbine, is represented by

A
number of casing
.
B. number of entries of steam
C
number of exits of steam
.
303
D
each row of blades
.
46. When the nozzle operates with the maximum mass flow, the nozzle is said to be
A
choked
.
B. underdamping
C
overdamping
.
D
none of these
.
47. In a velocity compounded impulse turbine, when steam flows through the second row of
moving blades,
A
velocity increases
.
B. velocity decreases
C
velocity remains constant
.
D
pressure remains constant
.
48. The ratio of the energy supplied to the blades per kg of steam to the total energy supplied per
stage per kg of steam is called mechanical efficiency.
A
Yes
.
B. No
49. A steam nozzle converts

A
heat energy of steam into kinetic energy
.
B. kinetic energy into heat energy of steam
304
C
heat energy of steam into potential energy
.
D
potential energy into heat energy of steam
.
50. The maximum discharge of steam through a convergent-divergent nozzle depends upon
A
area of nozzle at throat
.
B. initial pressure and volume of steam
C
final pressure ofsteam leaving the nozzle
.
D
both (a) and (b)
.
Steam Nozzles and Turbines - Section 3

1. Steam turbines may be classified according to
A
direction of steam flow
.
B. number of stages
C
mode of steam action
.
D
all of these
.
2. The process of draining steam from the turbine, at certain points during its expansion and
using this steam for heating the feed water in feed water heaters and then supplying it to the
boiler is known as
A
regenerative heating
.
305
B. reheating of steam
C
bleeding
.
D
none of these
.
3. In a 50% reaction turbine stage, tangential component of absolute velocity at rotor inlet is
537 m/s and the blade velocity is 454 m/s. The power output in kW of steam will be
A
260 kW
.
B. 282 kW
C
296 kW
.
D
302 kW
.
4. In an impulse turbine, steam expands

A
wholly in blades
.
B. wholly in nozzle
C
partly in the nozzle and partly in blades
.
D
none of these
.
5. In a nozzle, the effect of supersaturation is to increase the dryness fraction of steam.

A
Yes
.
B. No
6. In a nozzle, the effect of supersaturation is to

A
306
B. decrease specific volume of steam
C
increase the entropy
.
D
increase the heat drop
.

A
The efficiency of steam turbines is greater than steam engines.
.
B. A flywheel is a must for steam turbine.
C
The turbine blades do not change the direction of steam issuing from the nozzle
.
D The pressure of steam, in reaction turbines, is increased in fixed blades as well as in

. moving blades
8. The pressure velocity compounded impulse turbine allows a bigger pressure drop and hence
__________ number of stages are required.
A
more
.
B. less
9. If the critical pressure ratio for steam is 0.546, then the steam is initially
A
wet steam
.
B. dry saturated steam
C
superheated steam
.
D
none of these
.

A The critical pressure gives the velocity of steam at the throat equal to the velocity of
307
B. The flowin the convergent portion of the nozzle is sub-sonic.
C
The flow in the divergent portion of the nozzle is super-sonic.
.
D To increase the velocity of steam above sonic velocity (super-sonic) by expanding

. steam below the critical pressure, the divergent portion for the nozzle is not necessary.
11. The maximum efficiency of a De-Laval turbine is (where = Nozzle angle)

A
sin2
.
B. cos2
C
tan2
.
D
cot2
.
12. The pressure compounded impulse turbine as compared to velocity compounded turbine
require __________ number of stages.
A
same
.
B. less
C
more
.
13. In a reaction turbine when the degree of reaction is zero, then there is
A
no heat drop in moving blades
.
B. no heat drop in fixed blades
C
maximum heat drop in moving blades
.
308
D
maximum heat drop in fixed blades
.
14. The effect of friction in the nozzle __________ dryness fraction of steam.
A
has no effect on
.
B. decreases
C
increases
.
15. In a Parson's turbine stage, blade velocity is 320 m/s at the mean radius and rotor blade exit
angle is 30. For minimum kinetic energy of the steam leaving the stage, the steam velocity
at the exit of the rotor will be
A
160/3 m/s
.
B. 320/3 m/s
C
640/3 m/s
.
D
640 m/s
.
16. In pressure compounding of an impulse turbine, the total pressure drop of the steam does not
take place in the first nozzle ring, but is divided equally among all the nozzle rings.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
17. When the cross-section of a nozzle __________ continuously from entrance to exit, it is
called a convergent nozzle.
A
increases
.
B. decreases
18. In an ideal impulse turbine, the

309
B. relative velocity at the inlet of the moving blade is equal to that at the outlet
C
axial velocity at inlet is equal to that at the outlet
.
D
whirl velocity at inlet is equalto that at the outlet
.
19. During flow through a nozzle, no heat is supplied or rejected by the steam.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
20. In a reaction turbine, when steam flows through the moving blades,
A
pressure increases while velocity decreases
.
B. pressure decreases while velocity increases
C
pressure and velocity both decreases
.
D
pressure and velocity both increases
.
21. In velocity compounding of an impulse turbine, the expansion of steam takes place in a
nozzle or a set of nozzles from the boiler pressure to condenser pressure.
A
True
.
B. False
22. The critical pressure ratio is given by (where p1 = Initial pressure of steam, and p2 = Pressure
of steam at throat or critical pressure)
A
p1 p2
.
B. p1/p2
310
C
p2/p1
.
D
p1 + p2
.
23. A steam turbine, in which a part of the steam after partial expansion, is used for process
heating and the remaining steam is further expanded for power generation, is known as
A
back pressure turbine
.
B. pass out turbine
C
low pressure turbine
.
D
impulse turbine
.
24. The stage efficiency is the ratio of energy supplied to the blades per kg of steam to the total
energy supplied per stage per kg of steam.
A
True
.
B. False
25. Stage efficiency is also known as

A
diagram efficiency
.
C
gross efficiency
.
D
none of these
.
26. A single stage turbine is not used because it requires large reduction gearing due to very high
311
rotational speed.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
27. In turbines, the fluid undergoes a continuous steady flow process and the speed of flow is
A
low
.
B. very low
C
high
.
D
very high
.
28. A nozzle is said to be a convergent-divergent nozzle, when the cross-section of a nozzle first
decreases from its entrance to throat and then increases from its throat to exit.
A
True
.
B. False
29. In an impulse reaction turbine, the pressure drops gradually and continuously over
A
fixed blades
.
B. moving blades
C
both fixed and moving blades
.
D
none of these
.
30. When the inlet pressure of steam is equal to the exit pressure, then
A
there is a pressure drop in the nozzle
.
312
B. fluid flows through the nozzle
C
pressure drops and fluid flows through the nozzle
.
D
there is no pressure drop and fluid does not flow through the nozzle
.
31. The blade friction in the impulse turbine reduces the velocity of steam by __________ while
it passes over the blades.
A
10 to 15%
.
B. 15 to 20%
C
20 to 30%
.
D
30 to 40%
.
32. The effect of bleeding is that

A
it increases the thermodynamic efficiency of the turbine
.
B. boiler is supplied with hot water
C
it decreases the power developed by the turbine
.
D
all of the above
.
33. The expansion of steam, as it flows over the blades in reaction turbine, represents
A
isothermal process
.
B. isentropic process
313
C
throttling process
.
D
free-expansion process
.
34. The critical pressure ratio for initially superheated steam is __________ as compared to
initially dry saturated steam.
A
more
.
B. less
35. For a Parson's reaction turbine, if 1 and 2 are fixed blade angles at inlet and exit
respectively and 1 and 2are the moving blade angles at entrance and exit respectively, then
A
1 = 2 and 1 = 2
.
B. 1 = 1 and 2 = 2
C
1 < 1 and 2 > 2
.
D
1 = 2 and 1 = 2
.
36. The efficiency of an impulse turbine is maximum when (where Vb = Blade speed, V =
Absolute velocity of steam entering the blade, and = Nozzle angle)
A
Vb = 0.5 V cos
.
B. Vb = V cos
C
Vb = 0.5 V2 cos
.
D
Vb = V2 cos
.
37. The velocity of whirl at outlet for an axial discharge turbine is

A
minimum
314
B. maximum
C
zero
.
38. In impulse turbines, when friction is neglected, the relative velocity of steam at outlet tip of
the blade is __________ the relative velocity of steam at inlet tip of the blade.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
39. The friction present between the steam and the nozzle surfaces reduces the heat drop by
A
10 to 15 percent
.
B. 15 to 25 percent
C
25 to 40 percent
.
D
40 to 60 percent
.
40. An impulse turbine as compared to a reaction turbine, for a given power has __________
row of blades.
A
equal
.
B. less
C
more
.
41. Degree of reaction is defined as the ratio of

A
heat drop in fixed blades to the heat drop in moving blades
.
315
B. heat drop in moving blades to the heat drop in fixed blades
C heat drop in moving blades to the heat drop in fixed blades plus heat drop in moving
. blades
D heat drop in fixed blades plus heat drop in moving blades to the heat drop in moving
. blades
42. The expansion of steam in a nozzle follows

A
Carnot cycle
.
B. Rankine cycle
C
Joule cycle
.
D
Stirling cycle
.
5. IC Engines and Nuclear Power Plants
IC Engines and Nuclear Power Plants - Section 1

1. The reference fuels for knock rating of spark ignition engines would include
A
iso-octane and alpha-methyl naphthalene
.
B. normal octane and aniline
C
iso-octane and normal hexane
.
D
normal heptane and iso-octane
.
2. The diesel engines are also known as __________ engines.
316
A
compression ignition
.
B. spark ignition
3. In a four stroke cycle, the minimum temperature inside the engine cylinder occurs at the
A
beginning of suction stroke
.
B. end of suction stroke
C
beginning of exhaust stroke
.
D
end of exhaust stroke
.
4. In hit and miss governing, the fuel supply is cut-off completely during one or more number
of cycles.
A
Yes
.
B. No
5. The thermal efficiency of a standard Otto cycle for a compression ratio of 5.5 will be
A
25%
.
B. 50%
C
70%
.
D
100%
.
6. The ratio of the volume of charge admitted at N.T.P. to the swept volume of the piston is
called
A
.
317
B. overall efficiency
C
volumetric efficiency
.
D
relative efficiency
.
7. The exhaust valve in a four stroke cycle petrol engine

A
opens at 50 before bottom dead centre and closes at 15 after top dead centre
.
B. opens at bottom dead centre and closes at top dead centre
C
opens at 50 after bottom dead centre and closes at 15 before top dead centre
.
D
may open and close anywhere
.
8. Nuclear reactors are used

A
to produce heat for thermoelectric power
.
B. to produce fissionable material
C
to propel ships, submarines, aircrafts
.
D
all of these
.
9. A moderator generally used in nuclear power plants is

A
graphite
.
B. heavy water
C concrete
318
.
D
graphite and concrete
.
10. The predominent isotope of the naturally occuring element is

A
U235
.
B. U238
C
Pu233
.
D
Pu239
.
11. The brake power of a diesel engine, keeping other parameters constant, can be increased by
A
decreasing the density of intake air
.
B. increasing the temperature of intake air
C
increasing the pressure of intake air
.
D
decreasing the pressure of intake air
.
12. In diesel engines, the fuel is injected in the form of very fine spray, into the engine cylinder,
which gets ignited due to high temperature of the compressed air.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
13. Pre-ignition is caused by the spontantaneous combustion of the mixture before the end of the
compression stroke, and is due to
A
cylinder walls being too hot
.
319
B. overheated spark plug points
C
red hot carbon deposits on cylinder walls
.
D
any one of these
.
14. The expansion of fuel in a four stroke cycle diesel engine

A
starts at 15 before top dead centre and ends at 30 after top dead centre
.
B. starts at top dead centre and ends at 30 after top dead centre
C
starts at 15 after top dead centre and ends at 30 before bottom dead centre
.
D
may start and end anywhere
.
15. The object of supercharging the engine is

A
to reduce mass ofthe engine per brake power
.
B. to reduce space occupied by the engine
C
to increase the power output of an engine when greater power is required
.
D
all of the above
.
16. In open combustion chamber in diesel engines, the shape and layout of the piston crown, the
inlet port and the valve produce the turbulent effect of fuel mixture.
A
True
.
B. False
17. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the charge is ignited at

A
320
B. 30 after top dead centre
C
30 before bottom dead centre
.
D
30 after bottom dead centre
.
18. A moderator, in nuclear power plants, is a medium introduced into the fuel mass in order to
A
slow down the speed of fast moving neutrons
.
B. control the reaction
C
reduce the temperature
.
D
extract heat from nuclear reaction
.
19. Where reactor operation is designed with fast neutrons such as in reactors using highly
enriched fuel, the moderator used is
A
heavy water
.
B. graphite
C
carbon dioxide
.
D
no moderator is needed
.
20. In a diesel engine, the duration between the time of injection and ignition, is known as
A
pre-ignition period
.
B. delay period
321
C
period of ignition
.
D
burning period
.
21. The detonating tendency in petrol engines increases with increase of compression ratio.
A
True
.
B. False
22. Each fission of U235 produces on the average __________ fast neutrons as a product of
reaction.
A
2.46
.
B. 24.6
C
246
.
D
2460
.
23. Reactors for propulsion applications are designed for

A
any form of uranium
.
B. natura uranium
C
enriched uranium
.
D
plutonium
.
24. The primary fuel used in nuclear power plants is

A
U235
.
322
B. U238
C
Pu239
.
D
Pu233
.
25. In petrol engine, using a fixed octane rating fuel and fixed compression ratio, supercharging
will __________ the knocking tendency.
A
not effect
.
B. decrease
C
increase
.
26. Ordinary water is sometimes used as moderator when enriched uranium is used as a fuel in
nuclear power plants.
A
Yes
.
B. No
27. The compensating jet in a carburettor supplies almost constant amount of petrol at all speeds
because the
A
jet area is automatically varied depending on the suction
.
B. the flow from the main jet is diverted to the compensating jet with increase in speed
C
the diameter of the jet is constant and the discharge coefficient is invariant
.
D
flow is produced due to the static head in the float chamber
.
28. The effective inhibitor of pre-ignition is

A alcohol
323
.
B. water
C
lead
.
D
none of these
.
29. The purpose of testing an internal combustion engine is

A
to determine the information, which can not be obtained by calculations
.
B. to conform the data used in design, the validity of which may be doubtful
C
to satisfy the customer regarding the performance of the engine
.
D
all of the above
.
30. The thermal efficiency of diesel engines is about

A
15%
.
B. 30%
C
50%
.
D
70%
.
31. A diesel engine has

A
one valve
.
B. two valves
324
C
three valves
.
D
four valves
.
32. The self ignition temperature of petrol is __________ as compared to diesel oil.
A
same
.
B. lower
C
higher
.
33. The pressure inside the cylinder is __________ the atmospheric pressure during the exhaust
stroke.
A
equal to
.
B. below
C
above
.
34. The increase of cooling water temperature in petrol engine will __________ the knocking
tendency.
A
not effect
.
B. decrease
C
increase
.
35. A carburettor is used to supply

A
petrol, air and lubricating oil
.
B. air and diesel
325
C
petrol and lubricating oil
.
D
petrol and air
.
36. U233 is produced

A
artificially
.
B. as basic raw material
C
when thorium is irradiated by neutrons
.
D
by fission of U238
.
37. The pressure at the end of compression, in diesel engines, is approximately

A
10 bar
.
B. 20 bar
C
25 bar
.
D
35 bar
.
38. The detonation is also called knocking or pinking.

A
Yes
.
B. No
39. The pre-ignition occurs before the spark is produced whereas detonation develops after the
introduction of spark.
A
326
B. Disagree
40. The energy released during the fission of one atom of Uranium - 235 in million electron volts
is about
A
100
.
B. 200
C
300
.
D
400
.
41. Morse test can be conducted for

A
petrol engines
.
B. diesel engines
C
multi-cylinder engines
.
D
all of these
.
42. The basic requirement of a good combustion chamber is

A
minimum turbulence
.
B. low compression ratio
C
high thermal efficiency and power output
.
D
low volumetric efficiency
.
43. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the charge is compressed when both the valves (i.e. inlet
327
valve and exit valve) are closed,
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
44. The thermal efficiency of diesel engines on weak mixtures is

A
unaffected
.
B. lower
C
higher
.
D
dependent on other factors
.
45. The injection pressure in a diesel engine is about

A
10 bar
.
B. 100 bar
C
150 bar
.
D
500 bar
.
46. High speed compression engines operate on

A
Otto cycle
.
B. Diesel cycle
C
Dual-combustion cycle
.
328
D
all of these
.
47. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the inlet valve

A
opens at top dead centre and closes at bottom dead centre
.
B. opens at 20 before top dead centre and closes at 40 after bottom dead centre
C opens at 20 after top dead centre and closes at 20 before bottom dead centre id) may
. open or close anywhere
48. The nuclear power station at Tarapur has the reactor of the __________ type.
A
pressurized water
.
B. boiling water
C
gas cooled
.
D
liquid metal cooled
.
49. In nuclear power plants, due to reflector, less fuel is needed to generate sufficient neutrons to
sustain a chain reaction.
A
Yes
.
B. No
50. The secondary fuel used in nuclear power plants is

A
U233 and Pu239
.
B. U235 and Th232
C
U235 and Pu238
.
329
D
U233 and Pu238
.

1. If V1 is the jet velocity and V0 is the vehicle velocity, then propulsive efficiency of a turbo-jet
engine is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
2. Theoretically, a four stroke cycle engine should develop __________ power as that of a two
stroke cycle engine.
A
half
.
B. same
C
double
.
D
four times
.
3. Light weight substances can not be effective moderators.

A
True
.
B. False
4. The higher combustion chamber wall temperature in compression ignition engines will
330
__________ knocking tendency.
A
increase
.
B. reduce
C
not effect
.
5. The nuclear radiators produced in a reactor which must be sheilded are

A
electrons
.
B. , and rays
C
neutron and gamma rays
.
D
none of these
.
6. A two stroke cycle engine gives __________ mechanical efficiency than a four stroke cycle
engine.
A
higher
.
B. lower
7. The delay period in compression ignition engines depends upon

A
temperature and pressure in the cylinder at the time of injection
.
B. nature of the fuel mixture strength
C relative velocity between the fuel injection and air turbulence pressure of residual
. gases
D
all of the above
.
331
8. Lubrication in I.C. engines dissipates the heat generated from the moving parts due to
friction.
A
True
.
B. False
9. The ratio of the heat equivalent to one kW hour to the heat in fuel per B.P. hour is termed as
brake thermal efficiency.
A
Yes
.
B. No
10. The theoretically correct mixture of air and petrol is

A
10:1
.
B. 15:1
C
20:1
.
D
25:1
.
11. In qualitative governing, the quantity of fuel is varied to suit the load on the engine and the
total charge of air is altered.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
12. The function of a distributor in a coil ignition system of I.C. engines is

A
to distribute spark
.
B. to distribute power
C to distribute current
332
.
D
to time the spark
.
13. A moderator, apart from its high neutron slowing power, and low non-productive neutron,
should be
A
stable under nuclear radiation
.
B. corrosion resistant
C
good thermal conductor
.
D
all of these
.
14. The frictional power (F.P.) is given by

A
F.P. = B.P. - I.P.
.
B. F.P. = I.P. - B.P.
C
F.P. = B.P./I.P.
.
D
F.P. = I.P./B.P.
.
15. The unit million electron volts (Mev) is commonly used to measure the nuclear energy.
A
True
.
B. False
16. The knocking tendency in spark ignition engines can be decreased by adding dopes like tetra
ethyle lead and ethylene dibromide.
A
Agree
.
333
B. Disagree
17. If V1 is the jet velocity and V0 is the vehicle velocity, then the propulsive efficiency of a
rocket is given by
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
18. A diesel engine has compression ratio from

A
6 to 10
.
B. 10 to 15
C
15 to 25
.
D
25 to 40
.
19. A petrol engine, during suction stroke draws

A
air only
.
B. petrol only
C
a mixture of petrol and air
.
20. A supercharged engine as compared to an ordinary engine

A
requires smaller foundation
.
334
B. is lighter
C
consumes less lubricating oil
.
D
all of these
.
21. Which of the following does not relate to a compression ignition engine?
A
Fuel pump
.
B. Fuel injector
C
Governor
.
D
Carburettor
.
22. Which of the following statement is correct regarding petrol engines?

A A fine fuel spray mixed with air is ignited by the heat of compression which is at a
. high pressure.
The fuel supplied to the engine cylinder is mixed with necessary amount of air and the
B.
mixture in ignited with the help of a spark plug.
C The fuel is first evaporated after passing through a carburettor and is mixed with air
. before ignition.
D
all of the above
.
23. Supercharging __________ the power developed by the engine.

A
has no effect on
.
B. increases
335
C
decreases
.
24. Uranium has isotopes

A
U234
.
B. U235
C
U238
.
D
all of these
.
25. The colour of exhaust from diesel engine is generally

A
white
.
B. bluish
C
black
.
D
violent
.
26. In compression ignition engines, swirl denotes a

A
haphazard motion of the gases in the chamber
.
B. rotary motion of the gases in the chamber
C
radial motion of the gases in the chamber
.
D
none of the above
.
27. A mixture containing 65% of iso-octane and 35% of normal heptane will have
A
336
B. octane number 65
C
qetane number 35
.
D
octane number 35
.
28. Which of the following statement is wrong ?

A
In compression ignition engines, detonation occurs near the beginning of combustion.
.
Since the fuel, in compression ignition engines, is injected at the end of compression
B.
stroke, therefore, there will be no pre-ignition.
C To eliminate knock in compression ignition engines, we want to achieve auto-ignition

. not early and desire a long delay period.
D In compression ignition engines, because of hetrogeneous mixture, the rate of pressure

. rise is comparatively lower.
29. The maximum propulsive efficiency of a turbo-jet engine is at a speed of

A
1000 km/h
.
B. 2000 km/h
C
2400 km/h
.
D
3000 km/h
.
30. In order to mix air and petrol in the required proportion and to supply it to the engine during
suction stroke, then __________ is employed.
A
fuel pump
.
B. injector
337
C
carburettor
.
D
none of these
.
31. The advancing of spark timing in spark ignition engines will __________ knocking
tendency.
A
increase
.
B. reduce
C
not effect
.
32. The knocking in spark ignition engines can be reduced by

A
retarding the spark
.
B. increasing the engine speed
C
both (a) and (b)
.
D
none of these
.
33. An atom bomb utilises uncontrolled nuclear fission.

A
True
.
B. False
34. The ratio of the brake power to the indicated power is called
A
.
338
C
indicated thermal efficiency
.
D
.
35. The increase of efficiency of a compression ignition engine, as the load decreases, is due to
A
higher maximum temperature
.
B. qualitative governing
C
quantitative governing
.
D
hit and miss governing
.
36. A turbo-jet does not require a turbine to drive the compressor.

A
True
.
B. False
37. For the same maximum pressure and heat input, the exhaust temperature of petrol engine is
__________ than that of diesel engine.
A
less
.
B. more
38. The compression ratio in petrol engines is kept low as compared to diesel engines because
higher compression ratio in petrol engines would lead to pre-ignition of fuel.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
39. The cetane (C16H34) which is a straight chain paraffin is assigned a cetane number of
A 0
339
.
B. 50
C
100
.
D
120
.
40. Morse test is used to determine the I.P. of a

A
single cylinder petrol engine
.
B. four stroke engine
C
single cylinder diesel engine
.
D
multi-cylinder engine
.
41. A moderator
A
absorbs neutrons
.
B. does not absorb neutrons
C
accelerates neutrons
.
D
none of these
.
42. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, the exhaust valve

A
opens at 30 before bottom dead centre and closes at 10 after top dead centre
.
B. opens at 30 after bottom dead centre and closes at 10 before top dead centre
340
C
opens at bottom dead centre and closes at top dead centre
.
D
.
43. The two stroke cycle engines have lighter flywheel.

A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
44. The thermodynamic cycle on which the petrol engine works, is

A
Otto cycle
.
B. Joule cycle
C
Rankine cycle
.
D
Stirling cycle
.
45. The inlet valve of a four stroke cycle internal combustion engine remains open for
A
130
.
B. 180
C
230
.
D
270
.
46. The correct mixture strength (by weight) for petrol is about
A
14.6:1
.
341
B. 18.5:1
C
20.4:1
.
D
22.6:1
.
47. The working pressure and temperature inside the cylinder of an internal combustion engine is
__________ as compared to a steam engine.
A
low
.
B. very low
C
high
.
D
very high
.
48. The scavenging efficiency of a four stroke cycle diesel engine is

A
below 50%
.
B. between 50 and 85%
C
between 85 and 95%
.
D
between 95 and 100%
.
49. The voltage required to produce a spark across the gap, between the sparking points is
A
2000 to 4000 volts
.
B. 4000 to 6000 volts
342
C
6000 to 10 000 volts
.
D
10 000 to 12 000 volts
.
50. The control rods in the control system of nuclear reactors are used to
A
absorb excess neutrons
.
B. control fuel consumption
C
control temperature
.
all of these
D
.
IC Engines and Nuclear PowerPlants Section 3

1. If the speed of the engine is increased, the indicated power will
A
increase
.
B. decrease
C
remain same
.
2. The petrol engines are also known as __________ engines.

A
compression ignition
.
B. spark ignition
3. The specific fuel consumption per B.P. hour for a petrol engine is about
A
0.2 kg
.
343
B. 0.25 kg
C
0.3 kg
.
D
0.35 kg
.
4. The material most commonly used for sheilding is

A
carbon
.
B. lead
C
concrete
.
D
all of these
.
5. In order to eliminate knocking in compression ignition engines, there should be

A
short delay period
.
B. late auto-ignition
C
low compression ratio
.
D
high self ignition temperature of fuel
.
6. In a petrol engine, the charge is ignited with the help of a spark plug.
A
Yes
.
B. No
7. Reflector in nuclear power plants __________ neutron leakage.

A
increases
.
344
B. decreases
C
have no effect on
.
8. Number of working strokes per min. for a two stroke cycle engine are __________ the speed
of the engine in r.p.m.
A
equal to
.
B. one-half
C
twice
.
D
four-times
.
9. The injector nozzle of a compression ignition engine is required to inject fuel at a sufficiently
high pressure in order to
A
inject fuel in a chamber of high pressure at the end of compression stroke
.
B. inject fuel at a high velocity to facilitate atomisation
C
ensure that penetration is not high
.
D
all of the above
.
10. A two stroke cycle engine occupies larger floor area than a four stroke cycle engine.
A
Yes
.
B. No
11. The indicated mean effective pressure of an engine is obtained from the indicator diagram
drawn with the help of an engine indicator.
A True
345
.
B. False
12. A fuel of cetane number 40 has the same ignition quality as a mixture of
A
40% cetane and 60% alpha methyl napthalene
.
B. 40% alpha methyl napthalene and 60% cetane
C
40% petrol and 60% diesel
.
D
40% diesel and 60% petrol
.
13. The two reference fuels used for cetane rating are
A
cetane and iso-octane
.
B. cetane and alpha-methyl naphthalene
C
cetane and normal heptane
.
D
cetane and tetra ethyl lead
.
14. In petrol engines, the delay period is of the order of

A
0.001 second
.
B. 0.002 second
C
0.003 second
.
D
0.004 second
.
346
15. The reflectivity of a reflector is defined as the fraction of neutrons entering the reflector
which are returned to the core.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
16. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the pressure inside the engine cylinder during the suction
stroke is __________ the atmospheric pressure.
A
equal to
.
B. below
C
above
.
17. A diesel engine is __________ as compared to petrol engine, both running at rated load.
A
equally efficient
.
B. less efficient
C
more efficient
.
18. Which one of the following event would reduce volumetric efficiency of a vertical
compression ignition engine ?
A
inlet valve closing after bottom dead centre
.
B. inlet valve closing before bottom dead centre
C
inlet valve opening before top dead centre
.
D
exhaust valve closing after top dead centre
.
19. The pressure at the end of compression, in petrol engines, is approximately

A
10 bar
347
B. 20 bar
C
25 bar
.
D
35 bar
.
20. The sparking in a petrol engine increases pressure and temperature of the products of
combustion, but the volume remains constant.
A
Yes
.
B. No
21. Solid fuel fabricated into various small shapes, which are assembled to form fuel elements, is
in the form of
A
plates
.
B. pallets
C
pins
.
D
all of these
.

A A four stroke cycle engine develops twice the power as that of a two stroke cycle
. engine.
For the same power developed, a four stroke cycle engine is lighter, less bulky and
B.
occupies less floor area.
C
The petrol engines are costly than diesel engines.
.
348
D
all of the above
.
23. The turbine of the turbo-prop engine is __________ that of the turbo-jet engine.
A
same as
.
B. smaller than
C
bigger than
.
24. A higher compression ratio causes

A
pre-ignition
.
B. increase in detonation
C
an acceleration in the rate of combustion
.
D
any one of these
.

A
Compression ratio for petrol engines varies from 6 to 10.
.
B. Higher compression ratio in diesel engines results in higher pressures.
C
Petrol engines work on Otto cycle.
.
D
all of the above
.
26. The correct sequence of the decreasing order of brake thermal efficiency of the three given
basic types of engines is
349
A
four stroke C.I. engine, four stroke S.I. engine, two stroke S.I. engine
.
B. four stroke S.I. engine, four stroke C.I. engine, two stroke S.I. engine
C
four stroke C.I. engine, two stroke S.I. engine, four stroke S.I. engine
.
D
two stroke S.I. engine, four stroke S.I. engine, four stroke C.I. engine
.
27. The engines in which the combustion of fuel takes place inside the engine cylinder are called
internal combustion engines.
A
True
.
B. False
28. A fuel will detonate less if it has higher self ignition temperature.
A
True
.
B. False
29. The combustion in compression ignition engines is

A
homogeneous
.
B. hetrogeneous
C
both (a) and (b)
.
D
none of these
.
30. Which of the following fuel detonates readily ?

A
Benzene
.
350
B. Iso-octane
C
Normal heptane
.
D
Alcohol
.
31. A spark plug gap is kept from

A
0.3 to 0.7 mm
.
B. 0.2 to 0.8 mm
C
0.4 to 0.9 mm
.
D
0.6 to 1.0 mm
.
32. The injection of fuel by external source is not required in case of engines working on Otto
cycle.
A
Yes
.
B. No
33. The running cost of a petrol engine is __________ than that of a diesel engine.
A
higher
.
B. lower
34. In a petrol engine, if diesel is used, then the engine will

A
not run
.
B. run more efficiently
351
C
run at high speed
.
D
explode
.
35. Number of working strokes per min. for a four stroke cycle engine are __________ the speed
of the engine in r.p.m.
A
equal to
.
B. one-half
C
twice
.
D
four-times
.
36. The air standard efficiency of an I.C. engine depends on

A
fuel used
.
B. speed of engine
C
compression ratio
.
D
none of these
.
37. The mean effective pressure of a diesel engine having fixed compression ratio will
__________ if cut off ratio decreases.
A
increase
.
B. decrease
38. The knocking tendency in spark ignition engines may be decreased by

A controlling the air-fuel mixture
352
.
B. controlling the ignition timing
C
controlling the exhaust temperature
.
D
reducing the compression ratio
.
39. In a two stroke engine, the working cycle is completed in two revolutions of the crankshaft.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
40. A reactor capable of converting a fertile material into fissile isotopes is called regenerative
reactor.
A
Yes
.
B. No
41. Alpha-methyl-naphthalene (C11 H10) has a cetane number of

A
0
.
B. 50
C
100
.
D
120
.
42. In a petrol engine, the mixture has the lowest pressure at the
A
beginning of suction stroke
.
353
B. end of suction stroke
C
end of compression stroke
.
D
none of these
.
43. Which of the following does not relate to a spark ignition engine ?
A
Ignition coil
.
B. Spar kplug
C
Carburettor
.
D
Fuel injector
.
44. The increase in intake temperature of internal combustion engines will __________
efficiency.
A
have no effect on
.
B. increase
C
decrease
.
45. The reflectivity depends upon

A
geometry of the reflector
.
B. energy of neutrons
C
properties of the reflector
.
354
D
all of these
.
46. The indicated power for multi-cylinder engine will be same as that of a single cylinder
engine.
A
True
.
B. False
47. In order to prevent knocking in spark ignition engines, the charge away from the spark plug
should have
A
low density
.
B. low temperature
C
long ignition delay
.
D
all of these
.
48. The size of a reactor at which the chain reaction can be initiated (i.e. when system becomes
critical) with just enough fissionable material (called critical mass of fuel) is known as
critical size of reactor.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
49. The mechanical efficiency (m) of the engine is given by

A
.
B.
355
C
.
D
none of these
.
50. A gas engine has a swept volume of 300 cm3 and clearance volume of 25 cm3. Its volumetric
efficiency is 0.88 and mechanical efficiency is 0.90. The volume of the mixture taken in per
stroke is
A
248 cm3
.
B. 252 cm3
C
264 cm3
.
D
286 cm3
.

1. A supercharger receives air from the atmosphere surrounding the engine, compresses it to a
higher pressure and then feeds it into the inlet valve of the engine.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
2. Iso-octane (C8H18) has octane number of

A
0
.
B. 50
C
100
.
D 120
356
.
3. The brake power is always greater than indicated power.

A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
4. An ignition coil in the spark ignition engines supplies __________ voltage to the spark plug.
A
high
.
B. low
5. The operation of forcing additional air under pressure into the engine cylinder is known as
A
supercharging
.
B. carburation
C
turbulence
.
D
delay period
.
6. The cylinder of a gas engine is made __________ than that of the petrol engine.
A
smaller
.
B. larger
7. The thermal efficiency of a petrol engine is __________ as compared to diesel engine.

A
same
.
B. less
C more
357
.
8. The compression ignition engines are governed by

A
.
C
.
D
combination of (b) and (c)
.
9. The delay period in oil engines increases with increase in the speed of engine.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
10. The specific fuel consumption per B.P. hour for a diesel engine is about
A
0.2 kg
.
B. 0.25 kg
C
0.3 kg
.
D
0.35 kg
.
11. The ignition quality of diesel oil is expressed by

A
cetane number
.
B. octane number
C calorific value
358
.
D
none of these
.
12. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the expansion

A
starts at top dead centre and ends at bottom dead centre
.
B. starts at 30 before top dead centre and ends at 50 before bottom dead centre
C
starts at 30 after top dead centre and ends at 50 after bottom dead centre
.
D
.
13. A fuel of an octane number rating of 75 matches in knocking intensity as a mixture of

A
75% iso-octane and 25% normal heptane
.
B. 75% normal heptane and 25% iso-octane
C
75% petrol and 25% diesel
.
D
75% diesel and 25% petrol
.
14. A two stroke cycle engine gives __________ the number of power strokes as compared to
the four stroke cycle engine, at the same engine speed.
A
half
.
B. same
C
double
.
359
D
four times
.
15. By higher octane number of spark ignition fuel, it is meant that the fuel has
A
higher heating value
.
B. higher flash point
C
lower volatility
.
D
longer ignition delay
.
16. The spark ignition engines are governed by

A
.
C
.
D
combination of (b) and (c)
.
17. If petrol is used in a diesel engine, then

A
low power will be produced
.
B. efficiency will be low
C
higher knocking will occur
.
D
black smoke will be produced
.
18. The sensing element in the control system of nuclear reactors measure the __________ of the
360
neutron flux in the reactor.
A
temperature
.
B. volume
C
density
.
D
none of these
.
19. If the temperature of intake air in internal combustion engine increases, then its efficiency
will
A
remain same
.
B. decrease
C
increase
.
20. In a coil ignition system of petrol engines, a condenser is connected across the contact-
breaker in order to
A
prevent sparking across the gap between the points
.
cause more rapid break of the primary current, giving a higher voltage in the
B.
secondary circuit
C
both (a) and (b)
.
D
none of the above
.
21. Which of the following statement is correct regarding normal cetaine?

A
It is a standard fuel used for knock rating of diesel engines.
.
361
B. Its chemical name is normal-hexadecane.
C
It has long carbon chain structure.
.
D
all of the above
.
22. Enriched uranium is required as a fuel in a nuclear reactor, if light water is used as moderator
and coolant, because light water has
A
high neutron absorption cross-section
.
B. low moderating efficiency
C
high neutron scatter cross-section
.
D
low neutron absorption cross-section
.
23. As compared to air standard cycle, in actual working, the effect of variation in specific heats
is to
A
increase maximum pressure and maximum temperature
.
B. reduce maximum pressure and maximum temperature
C
increase maximum pressure and decrease maximum temperature
.
D
decrease maximum pressure and increase maximum temperature
.
24. The __________ engines can work on very lean mixture of fuel.
A
spark ignition
.
B. compression ignition
362
25. The ignition quality of petrol is expressed by
A
cetane number
.
B. octane number
C
calorific value
.
D
all of these
.
26. The fuel valve in a four stroke cycle diesel engine

A
opens at 15 after top dead centre and closes at 20 before bottom dead centre
.
B. opens at 15 before top dead centre and closes at 20 after top dead centre
C
.
D
.
27. In petrol engines, advancing of the spark timing will __________ the knocking tendency.
A
not effect
.
B. decrease
C
increase
.
28. The knocking tendency in compression ignition engines for a given fuel will be
A
enhanced by decreasing compression ratio
.
B. enhanced by increasing compression ratio
363
C
dependent on other factors
.
D
none of the above
.
29. In a four stroke cycle engine, the sequence of operations is

A
suction, compression, expansion and exhaust
.
B. suction, expansion, compression and exhaust
C
expansion, compression, suction and exhaust
.
D
compression, expansion, suction and exhaust
.
30. Diesel as compared to petrol is

A
highly ignitable
.
B. more difficult to ignite
C
less difficult to ignite
.
D
none of these
.
31. The first nuclear power plant in India was located at

A
Kota
.
B. Tarapur
C
Bareilly
.
364
D
none of these
.
32. The probability of knocking in diesel engines is increased by

A
high self ignition temperature
.
B. low volatility
C
higher viscosity
.
D
all of these
.
33. A diesel engine, during suction stroke, draws

A
air only
.
B. diesel only
C
a mixture of diesel and air
.
34. Anti-knock for compression ignition engines is

A
napthene
.
B. tetra ethyl lead
C
amyl nitrate
.
D
hexadecane
.
35. In an internal combustion engine, the process of removing the burnt gases from the
combustion chamber of the engine cylinder is known as
A
scavenging
.
365
B. detonation
C
supercharging
.
D
polymerisation
.
36. In petrol engines, using a fixed octane rating fuel, the increase in compression ratio will not
effect the knocking tendency.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
37. Supercharging is the process of supplying the intake air to the engine cylinder at a density
__________ the density of the surrounding atmosphere.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
38. The method of determination of indicated power of a multi cylinder spark ignition engine is
by the use of
A
Morse test
.
B. prony brake test
C
motoring test
.
D
heat balance test
.
39. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, , the compression

A starts at 40 after bottom dead centre and ends at 30 before top dead centre
366
.
B. starts at 40 before bottom dead centre and ends at 30 after bottom dead centre
C
starts at bottom dead centre and ends at top dead centre
.
D
.
40. Reflector in nuclear power plants is used to reflect neutrons back into the active core.
A
True
.
B. False
41. During idling, a petrol engine requires __________ mixture.

A
lean
.
B. rich
C
chemically correct
.
42. In natural uranium, the constituents of three naturally occuring isotopes are
A
U234 = 0.006%, U235 = 0.712% and U238 = 99.282%
.
B. U234 = 0.712%, U235 = 0.006% and U238 = 99.282%
C
U234 = 99.282%, U235 = 0.006% and U238 = 0.712%
.
D
U234 = 0.006%, U235 = 99.282% and U238 = 0.712%
.
43. Stoichiometric ratio is

A chemically correct air-fuel ratio by weight
367
.
B. chemically correct air-fuel ratio by volume
C
actual air-fuel ratio for maximum efficiency
.
D
none of the above
.
44. Which of the following fuel has little tendency towards detonation ?
A
Benzene
.
B. Iso-octane
C
Normal heptane
.
D
Alcohol
.
45. In a petrol engine, the fuel supplied to the engine cylinder is mixed with required quantity of
air and the mixture is ignited with a
A
fuel pump
.
B. fuel injector
C
spark plug
.
D
none of these
.
46. A nuclear power plant differs from a conventional steam power station only in the steam
generating part.
A
Agree
.
368
B. Disagree
47. Enriched uranium may contain fissionable contents from

A
1 to 40%
.
B. 10 to 50%
C
1 to 80%
.
D
1 to 99%
.
48. In a four stroke engine, the working cycle is completed in

A
one revolution of the crankshaft
.
B. two revolutions of the crankshaft
C
three revolutions of the crankshaft
.
D
four revolutions of the crankshaft
.
49. If the fuel is rich in fissionable material, the reactor can be made more compact than if the
percentage of fissionable atoms is small.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
50. The overall efficiency is defined as the ratio of the work obtained at the crankshaft in a given
time to the energy supplied during the same time.
A
True
.
B. False
369
1. The cetane number of diesel oil, generally available, is
A
20 to 25
.
B. 25 to 30
C
30 to 40
.
D
40 to 55
.
2. The object of providing masked inlet valve in the air passage of compression ignition engines
is to
A
enhance flow rate
.
B. control air flow
C
induce primary swirl
.
D
induce secondary turbulence
.
3. During suction stroke of a four stroke petrol engine, the inlet valve opens and the charge is
sucked into the cylinder as the piston moves upwards from the bottom dead centre.
A
True
.
B. False
4. The power actually developed by the engine cylinder of an I.C. engine is known as
A
theoretical power
.
B. actual power
C indicated power
370
.
D
none of these
.
5. A nuclear reactor is said to be critical when the neutron population in the reactor core is
A
rapidly increasing leading to the point of explosion
.
B. decreasing from the specified value
C
reduced to zero
.
D
constant
.
6. In diesel engines, the ignition takes place due to the heat produced in the engine cylinder at
the end of compression.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
7. The fuels in order of decreasing knock tendency for spark ignition engines are
A
paraffins, aromatics, napthenes
.
B. paraffins, napthenes, aromatics
C
napthenes, aromatics, paraffins
.
D
napthenes, paraffins, aromatics
.
8. The ratio of the work obtained at the crankshaft in a given time to the energy supplied during
the same time is called
A
.
371
C
.
D
.
9. Plutonium (Pu239) is produced

A
artificially
.
B. by fission of Th232
C
when U238 is irradiated by neutrons
.
D
as basic raw material
.
10. A petrol engine has compression ratio from

A
6 to 10
.
B. 10 to 15
C
15 to 25
.
D
25 to 40
.
11. In petrol engines, using a fixed octane rating fuel, the increase in engine speed will decrease
the knocking tendency.
A
Yes
.
B. No
12. Materials which make good moderators do not make good reflectors.
A
372
B. Incorrect
13. The ignition of the charge by some hot surface within the engine before the passage of spark
is called
A
pre-ignition
.
B. detonation
C
ignition delay
.
D
auto-ignition
.
14. Special reactors, called breeder reactors, supply a net gain of fissionable material.
A
True
.
B. False
15. The ratio of the indicated thermal efficiency to the air standard efficiency is known as
A
.
C
.
D
relative efficiency
.
16. The octane number of petrol, generally available, is

A
20 to 40
.
B. 40 to 60
373
C
60 to 80
.
D
80 to 100
.
17. The brake power is the power available

A
in the engine cylinder
.
B. at the crank shaft
C
at the crank pin
.
D
none of these
.
18. The slowing down of fast neutrons is desirable because slow moving neutrons are more
effective than fast neutrons in triggering fission.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
19. The normal heptane (C7H16) is given a rating of __________ octane number.
A
0
.
B. 50
C
100
.
D
120
.
20. The air standard efficiency ofan I.C. engine is given by (where r = Compression ratio, and
= Ratio of specific heats)
A 1 - r - 1
374
.
B. 1 + r - 1
C
.
D
none of these
.
21. A diesel engine has inlet valve, fuel injection valve and exhaust valve.
A
Yes
.
B. No
22. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, the compression

A
starts at 40 after bottom dead centre and ends at 10 before top dead centre
.
B. starts at 40 before top dead centre and ends at 40 after top dead centre
C
starts at top dead centre and ends at 40 before bottom dead centre
.
D
.
23. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, the inlet valve

A
opens at 20 before top dead centre and closes at 40 after bottom dead centre
.
B. opens at 20 after top dead centre and closes at 20 before bottom dead centre
C
.
D
.
375
24. The knocking in diesel engines may be prevented by
A
reducing the delay period
.
B. raising the compression ratio
C
increasing the inlet pressure of air
.
D
all of these
.
25. The loud pulsating noise heard within the cylinder of an internal combustion engine is known
as
A
detonation
.
B. turbulence
C
pre-ignition
.
D
supercharging
.
26. The air-fuel ratio of the petrol engine is controlled by

A
carburettor
.
B. injector
C
governor
.
D
none of these
.
27. If the compression ratio in I.C. engine increases, then its thermal efficiency will
A
decrease
.
376
B. increase
C
remain same
.
28. The relative efficiency of an I.C. engine is the ratio of the indicated thermal efficiency to the
air standard efficiency.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
29. The volumetric efficiency ofa well designed engine may be

A
30 to 40%
.
B. 40 to 60%
C
60 to 70%
.
D
75 to 90%
.
30. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the features of a Breeder reactor?
A
It produces more fuel than it consumes.
.
B. It requires highly enriched fuel.
C
It requires liquid sodium metal as moderator.
.
D
all of the above
.
31. A long delay period in compression ignition engines gives a more rapid rise in pressure
which causes knocking.
A
Yes
.
377
B. No
32. A fission chain reaction in uranium can be developed

A
by increasing the contents of U235
.
B. by slowing down fast neutrons so that U235 fission continues by slow neutron
C
both (a) and (b)
.
D
none of these
.
33. Thermal efficiency of a two stroke cycle engine is __________ a four stroke cycle engine.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
34. A supercharged engine as compared to an ordinary engine

A
is lighter
.
B. requires smaller foundations
C
consumes less lubricating oil
.
D
all of these
.
35. Which one of the following engines will have heavier flywheel than the remaining ones?
A
30 kW four-stroke petrol engine running at 1500 r.p.m.
.
378
B. 30 kW two-stroke petrol engine running at 1500 r.p.m.
C
30 kW two-stroke diesel engine running at 750 r.p.m.
.
D
30 kW four-stroke diesel engine running at 750 r.p.m.
.
36. Detonation is harmful due to

A increase in the rate of heat transfer, there is a reduction in the power output and
. efficiency of the engine
excessive turbulence which removes most of the insulating gas boundary layer from
B.
the cylinder walls
C
high intensity of knock causes crankshaft vibration and the engine runs rough
.
D
none of the above
.
37. The brake power (B.P.) of the engine is given by (where W = Brake load or dead load in
newtons, l = Length of arm in metres, N = Speed of engine in r.p.m., S - Spring balance
reading in newtons, D = Dia. of brake drum in metres, and d = Dia. of rope in metres)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
all of these
.
38. A power plant giving least running cost of production of electrical power is
A steam power plant
379
.
B. gas turbine power plant
C
hydro electric power plant
.
D
nuclear power plant
.
39. The thermal efficiency of petrol and gas engines is about

A
15%
.
B. 30%
C
50%
.
D
70%
.
40. The firing order in an I.C. engine depends upon

A
arrangement of the cylinders
.
B. design of crankshaft
C
number of cylinders
.
D
all of these
.
6. Compressors, Gas Dynamics and Gas Turbines
Compressors, Gas Dynamics and Gas Turbines - Section 1

1. In a four stage compressor, if the pressure at the first and third stage are 1 bar and 16 bar,
380
then the delivery pressure at the fourth stage will be
A
1 bar
.
B. 16 bar
C
64 bar
.
D
256 bar
.
2. The compressed air may be used

A
in gas turbine plants
.
B. for operating pneumatic drills
C
in starting and supercharging of I.C. engines
.
D
all of the above
.
3. A rocket works with maximum overall efficiency when air-craft velocity is __________ the
jet velocity.
A
equal to
.
B. one-half
C
double
.
4. The volumetric efficiency for reciprocating air compressors is about

A
10 to 40%
.
B. 40 to 60%
381
C
60 to 70%
.
D
70 to 90%
.
5. The maximum temperature in a gas turbine is

A
200C
.
B. 500C
C
700C
.
D
1000C
.
6. The rotary compressors are suitable for large discharge of air at low pressure.
A
True
.
B. False
7. The stagnation pressure rise in a centrifugal compressor takes place

A
in the diffuser only
.
B. in the impeller only
C
in the diffuser and impeller
.
D
in the inlet guide vanes only
.
8. The total heat rejected in a reciprocating air compressor is equal to the sum of the heat
rejected during polytropic compression per kg of air and heat rejected in the intercooler per
kg of air.
A True
382
.
B. False
9. In a jet propulsion
A
the propulsive matter is ejected from within the propelled body
.
B. the propulsive matter is caused to flow around the propelled body
C
its functioning does not depend upon presence of air
.
D
none of the above
.
10. An open cycle gas turbine works on the same cycle as that of a closed cycle gas turbine.
A
Yes
.
B. No

A In a two stage reciprocating air compressor with complete intercooling, maximum
. work is saved.
The minimum work required for a two stage reciprocating air compressor is double
B.
the work required for each stage.
C The ratio of the volume of free air delivery per stroke to the swept volume of the
. piston is called volumetric efficiency.
D
none of the above
.
12. In a single acting reciprocating compressor, the suction, compression and delivery of air
takes place in __________ of the piston.
A
one stroke
.
383
B. two strokes
C
three strokes
.
D
four strokes
.
13. The increase in pressure in a vane blower takes place first due to compression and then due
to back flow of air.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
14. The maximum delivery pressure in a rotary air compressor is

A
10 bar
.
B. 20 bar
C
30 bar
.
D
50 bar
.
15. The capacity of a compressor is expressed in

A
kg/m2
.
B. kg/m3
C
m3/min
.
D
m3/kg
.
16. Intercooling in multi-stage compressors is done

A
384
B. to cool the air at delivery
C
to enable compression in two stages
.
D
to minimise the work of compression
.
17. For a two stage reciprocating compressor, compression from p1 to p3 is with perfect
intercooling and no pressure losses. If compression in both the cylinders follows the same
polytropic process and the atmospheric pressure is pa, then the intermediate pressure p2 is
given by
A
p2 = (p1 + p3)/2
.
B. p2 = p1.p3
C
P2 = Pa x p3/p1
.
D
p2 = pa p3/p1
.
18. The ratio of workdone per cycle to the stroke volume of the compressor is known as
A
compressor capacity
.
B. compression ratio
C
compressor efficiency
.
D
mean effective pressure
.
19. The clearance volume in the compressor is kept minimum because it effects on volumetric
efficiency.
A
Correct
.
385
B. Incorrect
20. The inlet pressure is always __________ the discharge pressure.

A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
more than
.

A The ratio of the discharge pressure to the inlet pressure of air is called compressor
. efficiency.
B. The compression ratio for the compressor is always greater than unity.
C
The compressor capacity is the ratio of workdone per cycle to the stroke volume.
.
D
During isothermal compression of air, the workdone in a compressor is maximum.
.
22. In the aircraft propellers

A
the propulsive matter is ejected from within the propelled body
.
B. the propulsive matter is caused to flow around the propelled body
C
its functioning does not depend upon the presence of air
.
D
none of the above
.
23. The type of rotary compressor used in gas turbines, is of

A
centrifugal type
.
386
B. axial flow type
C
radial flow type
.
D
none of these
.
24. The volume of air delivered by the compressor is called

A
free air delivery
.
B. compressor capacity
C
swept volume
.
D
none of these
.
25. The efficiency of a jet engine is higher at

A
low speeds
.
B. high speeds
C
low altitudes
.
D
high altitudes
.
26. In axial flow compressor, exit flow angle deviation from the blade angle is a function of
A
blade camber
.
B. blade camber and incidence angle
C space-chord ratio
387
.
D
blade camber and space-chord ratio
.
27. Rotary compressors are used for delivering

A
small quantities of air at high pressures
.
B. large quantities of air at high pressures
C
small quantities of air at low pressures
.
D
large quantities of air at low pressures
.
28. Work done by a two-stage reciprocating air compressor per cycle is equal to the work done in
LP. Cylinder and H.P. cylinder.
A
True
.
B. False
29. A rotary compressor is driven by an

A
electric motor
.
B. engine
C
either (a) or (b)
.
D
none of these
.
30. In a centrifugal compressor, an increase in speed at a given pressure ratio causes

A
increase in flow
.
388
B. decrease in flow
C
increase in efficiency
.
D
increase in flow and decrease in efficiency
.
31. A large clearance Volume in a reciprocating compressor results in

A
reduced volume flow rate
.
B. increased volume flow rate
C
lower suction pressure
.
D
lower delivery pressure
.
32. A closed cycle gas turbine gives __________ efficiency as compared to an open cycle gas
turbine.
A
same
.
B. lower
C
higher
.
33. Gas turbine as compared to steam turbine

A
requires less space for installation
.
B. has compressor and combustion chamber
C
has less efficiency
.
389
D
all of these
.
34. Intercooling in gas turbines

A
decreases net output but increases thermal efficiency
.
B. increases net output but decreases thermal efficiency
C
decreases net output and thermal efficiency both
.
D
increases net output and thermal efficiency both
.
35. When the temperature of air leaving the intercooler, in a two stage compression with
intercooler, is __________ the original atmospheric air temperature, then the intercooling is
known as perfect or complete intercooling.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
more than
.
36. The actual volume of air delivered by a compressor, When reduced to the normal
temperature and pressure conditions is called compressor capacity.
A
Yes
.
B. No
37. The compression ratio in a gas turbine is

A
4
.
B. 1
C 9
390
.
D
12
.
38. Intercooling in compressors results in saving of power in compressing given volume of air to
a given pressure.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
39. Only rocket engines can be propelled to space because

A
they can generate very high thrust
.
B. they have high propulsion efficiency
C
these engines can work on several fuels
.
D
they are not air-breathing engines
.
40. The maximum combustion pressure in gas turbine is __________ as compared to I.C. engine.
A
more
.
B. less
41. An aftercooler is used to

A
remove impurities from air
.
B. reduce volume of air
C
cause moisture and oil vapour to drop out
.
391
D
cool the air
.
42. High air-fuel ratio in gas turbines

A
increases power output
.
B. improves thermal efficiency
C
reduces exhaust temperature
.
D
do not damage turbine blades
.
43. The ratio of the volume of free air delivery per stroke to the swept volume of the piston, is
known as
A
.
B. volumetric efficiency
C
isothermal efficiency
.
D
.
44. If p1, is the pressure of air entering the L.P. cylinder and p2 is the pressure of air leaving the
L.P. cylinder (or intercooler pressure), then the ratio of cylinder diameters for a single acting,
two stage reciprocating air compressor with complete intercooling is given by (where D1 =
Dia. of L.P. cylinder, and D2 = Dia. of H.P. cylinder)
A
D1/D2 = p1p2
.
B. D1/D2 = p1/p2
C
D1/D2 = p2/p1
.
392
D
none of these
.
45. The ratio of the indicated power to the shaft power or brake power of the motor or engine
required to drive the compressor, is called
A
.
B. volumetric efficiency
C
isothermal efficiency
.
D
.
46. The increase in pressure in a roots blower is entirely due to back flow of air.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
47. The type of rotary compressor used in aeroplanes, is of

A
centrifugal type
.
B. axial flow type
C
radial flow type
.
D
none of these
.
48. An axial compressor gives optimum performance at high speeds and large volume flows.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
393
49. In a reciprocating air compressor, the compression work per kg of air
A
increases as clearance volume increases
.
B. decreases as clearance volume increases
C
is independent of clearance volume
.
D
increases as clearance volume decreases
.
50. The degree of reaction in an axial flow compressor is defined as the ratio of static enthalpy
rise in the
A
rotor to static enthalpy rise in the stator
.
B. stator to static enthalpy rise in the rotor
C
rotor to static enthalpy rise in the stage
.
D
stator to static enthalpy rise in the stage
.

1. If p1 is the pressure of air entering the L.P, cylinder and p3 is the pressure of air leaving the
H.P. cylinder, then the ratio of cylinder diameters for a single acting, two stage reciprocating
compressor with complete intercooling is given by
A
D1/D2 = (p1p3)1/2
.
B. D1/D2 = (p1/p3)1/4
C
D1/D2 = (p1p3)1/4
.
D D1/D2 = (p3/p1)1/4
394
.
2. Reheating in a gas turbine

A
increases the thermal efficiency
.
B. increases the compressor work
C
increases the turbine work
.
D
decreases the thermal efficiency
.
3. In a single stage, single acting reciprocating air compressor, without clearance, the work
done on the air during isentropic compression is __________ the heat required to raise the
temperature of air from T1 to T2 at a constant pressure.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
4. Work done by an air compressor __________ upon the way in which the air is compressed.
A
depends
.
B. does not depend
5. In a compressor, work is done on the piston during suction of air and work is done by the
piston during compression as well as delivery of air.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
6. Maximum work is saved in a two stage reciprocating air compressor with incomplete
intercooling.
A
Agree
395
B. Disagree
7. The mass of gas turbine per kW developed is about __________ as that of an I.C. engine.
A
same
.
B. one-half
C
one-fourth
.
D
one-sixth
.
8. In a centrifugal compressor, the ratio of the __________ to the blade velocity is called slip
factor.
A
inlet whirl velocity
.
B. outlet whirl velocity
C
inlet velocity of flow
.
D
outlet velocity of flow
.
9. In a turbo jet engine, subsequent to heat addition to compressed air, to get the power output,
the working substance is expanded in
A
exit nozzle, which is a constant volume process
.
B. exit nozzle, which is essentially an isentropic process
C
turbine blades, which is a constant volume process
.
D
turbine blades, which is essentially an isentropic process
.
396
10. The air is delivered __________ in one revolution in case of a three-lobbed rotor.
A
two times
.
B. three times
C
four times
.
D
six times
.
11. The performance of air compressor at high altitudes will be __________ as compared to that
at sea level.
A
same
.
B. lower
C
higher
.
12. In a centrifugal compressor, the highest Mach number leading to shock wave in the fluid
flow occurs at
A
diffuser inlet radius
.
B. diffuser outlet radius
C
impeller inlet radius
.
D
impeller outlet radius
.
13. In a centrifugal compressor, the air enters the impeller axially and leaves the vane radially.
A
Yes
.
B. No
397
14. In gas turbines, the work input with intercooling is __________ the work input with no
intercooling.
A
less man
.
B. more than
15. The compressor capacity will be __________ if the temperature of intake air is lowest.
A
lowest
.
B. highest
16. For perfect intercooling in a three stage compressor,

A
.
B.
C
p1p2 = p3p4
.
D
p1p3 = p2p4
.
17. A machine used to raise the pressure of air is called

A
gas turbine
.
B. I.C engine
C
compressor
.
D
air motor
.
398
18. The overall efficiency of the compressed air system is the
A
ratio of shaft output of the air motor to the shaft input to the compressor
.
B. ratio of shaft input to the compressor to the shaft output of air motor
C
product of shaft output of air motor and shaft input to the compressor
.
D
none of the above
.
19. In a jet engine, the compression varies as the square of the speed.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
20. In a single acting reciprocating air compressor, without clearance, the compression of air
may be
A
isothermal
.
B. polytropic
C
isentropic
.
D
any one of these
.
21. The axial flow compressor is preferred in air-craft gas turbines because of
A
low frontal area
.
B. higher thrust
C
high pressure rise
.
399
D
none of these
.
22. Which of the following statement is correct as regard to centrifugal compressors?

A
The flow of air is parallel to the axis of the compressor.
.
The static pressure of air in the impeller increases in order to provide centripetal force
B.
on the air.
C
The impeller rotates at high speeds.
.
D
The maximum efficiency is higher than multi-stage axial flow compressors.
.
23. The ratio of the net work obtained from the gas turbine plant to the turbine work is known as
A
compression ratio
.
B. work ratio
C
pressure ratio
.
D
none of these
.
24. The process, which causes the air to enter the impeller blades of a centrifugal compressor at
__________ velocity (without effecting the mass of air to flow and velocity of flow) is
known as prewhirl.
A
reduced
.
B. increased
25. In jet propulsion power unit, the inlet duct of diverging shape is used for converting kinetic
energy of air into pressure energy.
A
True
.
400
B. False
26. The temperature of air at the beginning of the compression stroke is __________ the
atmospheric temperature.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
more than
.
27. The compressor efficiency is defined as the ratio of volume of free air delivery per stroke to
the swept volume of the piston.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
28. In a gas turbine, air is obtained from the atmosphere and compressed in an air compressor.
A
True
.
B. False
29. In open cycle turbo-jet engines used in military aircraft, reheating the exhaust gas from the
turbine by burning, more fuel is used to increase the
A
thrust and range of aircraft
.
B. efficiency of the engine
C
both (a) and (b)
.
D
none of these
.
30. Gas turbine as compared to internal combustion engine

A can be driven at a very high speed
401
.
B. produces uniform torque
C
has more efficiency
.
D
all of these
.
31. A closed cycle gas turbine consists of a

A
compressor
.
B. heating chamber
C
cooling chamber
.
D
all of these
.
32. For maximum work, the reheating should be done to an intermediate pressure of (where p1 =
Maximum pressure, and p2 = Minimum pressure)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
p1p2
.
33. The intercooler pressure, for minimum work required, for a two stage reciprocating air
compressor, is given by (where p1 = Intake pressure of air, p2 = Intercooler pressure, and p3 =
Delivery pressure of air)
A p2 = p1 x p3
402
.
B. p2 = p1/p3
C
p2 = p1 x p3
.
D
p2 = p3/p1
.
34. The pressure of air at the beginning of the compression stroke is __________ the
atmospheric pressure.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
more than
.
35. The pressure ratio in a centrifugal compressor can be increased by increasing the tip speed
and lowering the inlet temperature.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
36. Free air is the air at atmospheric conditions at any specific location.
A
True
.
B. False
37. A gas turbine used in air-craft should have low weight and small frontal area.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
38. A closed cycle gas turbine works on

A
403
B. Rankine cycle
C
Ericsson cycle
.
D
Joule cycle
.
39. The clearance, in a single stage, single acting reciprocating air compressor does not affect the
work done on the air and the power required for compressing the air.
A
True
.
B. False
40. Air motors work on the cycle which is the reverse of the reciprocating air compressor cycle.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
41. Which of the following statement is correct relating to rocket engines ?

A The combustion chamber in a rocket engine is directly analogous to the reservoir of a
. super sonic wind tunnel
B. The stagnation conditions exist at the combustion chamber
C
The exit velocities of exhaust gases are much higher than those in jet engine
.
D
all of the above
.
42. In reciprocating air compressors, isothermal efficiency is used for all sorts of calculations.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
404
43. Euler's equation can be used for
A
radial flow compressors
.
B. axial flow compressors
C
pumps
.
D
all of these
.
44. A rocket engine uses __________ for the combustion of its fuel.
A
surrounding air
.
B. compressed atmospheric air
C
its own oxygen
.
D
none of these
.
45. The perfect intercooling, in multistage compression, means that the temperature of air at inlet
to subsequent stages is equal to the initial temperature.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
46. In a compressed air system, the temperature of air discharged from the air motor is
__________ than the initial compressor intake temperature.
A
more
.
B. less
405
47. The efficiency of roots blower __________ with the increase in pressure ratio.
A
decreases
.
B. increases
C
does not change
.
48. The operation of lifts, rams and pumps make use of compressed air.
A
Yes
.
B. No
49. A jet engine has

A
no propeller
.
B. propeller in front
C
propeller at back
.
D
propeller on the top
.
50. A receiver in compressor installations is used to damp pressure waves in compressor

discharge.
A
Yes
.
B. No

1. A compressor at high altitudes will require __________ power.
A
same
.
406
B. less
C
more
.
2. The mean effective pressure of the compressor is the

A actual volume of the air delivered by the compressor when reduced to normal
. temperature and pressure conditions
B. volume of air delivered by the compressor
C
volume of air sucked by the compressor during its suction stroke
.
D
none of the above
.
3. The reason for volumetric efficiency of reciprocating compressor being less than 100 percent
is
A
pressure drop across the valves
.
B. superheating in compressor
C
clearance volume and leakages
.
D
all of these
.
4. For minimum work in multi-stage compression, the workdone on all stages should be equal.
A
Yes
.
B. No
5. The thrust of a jet propulsion power unit can be increased by

A
injecting water into the compressor
.
407
B. burning fuel after gas turbine
C
injecting ammonia into the combustion chamber
.
D
all of the above
.

A The reciprocating compressors are best suited for high pressure and low volume
. capacity
The effect of clearance volume on power consumption is negligible for the same
B.
volume of discharge
C
both (a) and (b)
.
D
none of these
.
7. Slip factor in a centrifugal compressor indicates the amount of air leaked from the storage
vessel.
A
Yes
.
B. No
8. The ratio of the isentropic work to the Euler's work is known as pressure coefficient.
A
Yes
.
B. No
9. A turbo-prop is preferred to turbo-jet because

A
it has high propulsive efficiency at high speeds
.
B. it can fly at super sonic speeds
408
C
it can fly at high elevations
.
D
it has high power for take off
.
10. The air power of the compressor is also known as

A
indicated power
.
B. brake power
C
frictional power
.
D
none of these
.
11. The overall isothermal efficiency of the compressor is defined as the ratio of
A work required to compress the air isothermally to the actual work required to
. compress the air for the same pressure ratio
isothermal power to the shaft power or B.P. of the motor or engine required to drive
B.
the compressor
C
volume of free air delivery per stroke to the swept volume of the piston
.
D
isentropic power to the power required to drive the compressor
.
12. The minimum work required for a three stage reciprocating air compressor is __________
the work required for each stage.
A
equal to
.
B. double
409
C
three times
.
D
six times
.
13. For a multi-stage compressor, the polytropic efficiency is constant throughout for all the
stages.
A
True
.
B. False
14. In a high pressure compressor, the delivery pressure is

A
1 to 5 bar
.
B. 5 to 8 bar
C
8 to 10 bar
.
D
10 to 15 bar
.
15. When the outlet angle from the rotor of a centrifugal compressor is more than 90, then the
blades are said to be
A
forward curved
.
B. backward curved
C
radial
.
D
none of these
.
16. In axial flow compressors, the flow of air is parallel to the axis of compressor.
410
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
17. The ratio of the isothermal power to the shaft power or brake power of the motor or engine
required to drive the compressor is called overall isothermal efficiency.
A
True
.
B. False
18. In a double acting compressor, the air is compressed

A
in one cylinder
.
B. in two cylinders
C
in a single cylinder on both sides of the piston
.
D
in two cylinders on both sides of the piston
.
19. The basic principle of the rocket propulsion is the same as that of jet propulsion.
A
Yes
.
B. No
20. In a centrifugal compressor, the flow of air is __________ to the axis of compressor.
A
parallel
.
B. perpendicular
C
inclined
.
411
D
none of these
.
21. For minimum work required to compress and deliver a quantity of air by multi-stage
compression,
A
the compression ratio in each stage should be same
.
B. the intercooling should be perfect
C
the workdone in each stage should be same
.
D
all of the above
.
22. Separators are generally used in air compressor installations

A
before the intercooler
.
B. after the intercooler
C
between the aftercooler and receiver
.
D
before first stage suction
.
23. If the flow of air through the compressor is perpendicular to its axis, then it is a
A
reciprocating compressor
.
B. centrifugal compressor
C
axial flow compressor
.
D
turbo compressor
.
412
24. In air compressors, free air delivery means the
C
.
D
none of the above
.
25. The propulsive power of the rocket is (where v1 = Jet velocity, and v2 = Air-craft velocity)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
26. The gas in cooling chamber of a closed cycle gas turbine is cooled at
A
constant volume
.
B. constant temperature
C
constant pressure
.
D
none of these
.
27. A 3 m3/min compressor means that it

A
compresses 3 m3/min of standard air
.
413
B. compresses 3 m3/ min of free air
C
delivers 3 m3/ min of compressed air
.
D
delivers 3 m3/ min of compressed air at delivery pressure
.
28. The compression ratio for the compressor is always __________ unity.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
more than
.
29. The assumption made in two stage compression with intercooler is that
A
there is no pressure drop in the intercooler
.
B. the compression in both the cylinders is polytropic
C
the suction and delivery of air takes place at constant pressure
.
D
all of the above
.
30. With the decrease in compression ratio, the volumetric efficiency

A
does not change
.
B. increases
C
decreases
.
31. The volume of air delivered in a medium capacity air compressor per unit time is
A
0.1 to 1.2 m3/s
.
414
B. 0.15 to 5 m3/s
C
above 5 m3/s
.
D
none of these
.
32. In a closed cycle gas turbine, the air is compressed

A
isothermally
.
B. polytropically
C
isentropically
.
D
none of these
.
33. In a single stage, single acting reciprocating air compressor, without clearance volume, the
workdone is minimum during
A
isothermal compression
.
B. isentropic compression
C
polytropic compression
.
D
none of these
.
34. A simple turbo-jet engine is basically a gas turbine engine equipped with a propulsive nozzle
and diffuser.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
415
35. If the flow of air through the compressor is parallel to its axis, then the compressor is
A
.
B. centrifugal compressor
C
axial flow compressor
.
D
turbo-compressor
.
36. The volumetric efficiency of the compressor is defined as the ratio of volume of free air
delivery per stroke to the swept volume of the piston.
A
Yes
.
B. No
37. A centrifugal compressor is an axial flow compressor.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
38. A compressor must be driven by some prime mover.

A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
39. If the clearance ratio for a reciprocating air compressor is 'K', then its volumetric efficiency is
given by
A
.
B.
416
C
.
D
.
40. Volumetric efficiency of a compressor decreases with __________ in compression ratio.

A
decrease
.
B. increase
41. The overall thermal efficiency of an ideal gas turbine plant is (where r = Pressure ratio)
A
r - 1
.
B. 1 - r - 1
C
.
D
.
42. The speed of rotary air compressor is __________ as compared to reciprocating air
compressor.
A
high
.
B. low
43. When air is to be compressed at a high pressure, then it is advantageous to use

A
single stage compression
.
B. multi-stage compression without intercooling
C multi-stage compression with intercooling
417
.
D
none of these
.
44. The absolute pressure of air at the outlet of a compressor is called

A
back pressure
.
B. critical pressure
C
discharge pressure
.
D
none of these
.
45. The degree of reaction is usually kept __________ for all types of axial flow compressors.
A
0.2
.
B. 0.3
C
0.4
.
D
0.5
.
46. Standard air is the air at __________ and relative humidity of 36 percent.
A
0.1 bar and 20 C
.
B. 1 bar and 20 C
C
0.1 bar and 40 C
.
D 1 bar and 40 C
418
.
47. In a single stage, single acting reciprocating air compressor without clearance volume, the
workdone is maximum during
A
isothermal compression
.
B. isentropic compression
C
polytropic compression
.
D
none of these
.
48. The compressor capacity is defined as the

C
.
D
none of the above
.
49. In n1 and n2 are the indices of compression for the first and second stage of compression, then
the ratio of workdone on the first and second stages (W1/W2) with perfect intercoooing is
given by
A
.
B.
C
.
419
D
.
50. The operation of the reciprocating air motor is similar to reciprocating air compressor.
A
True
.
B. False

1. The volume of air sucked by the compressor during its suction stroke is called
A
free air delivery
.
B. compressor capacity
C
swept volume
.
D
none of these
.
2. For perfect intercooling in a two stage compressor,

A
.
B.
C
p1 = p3
.
D
p1 = p2 p3
.
3. The efficiency of the vane blower is (where W1 = Workdone due to compression, and W2 =
Workdone due to back flow)
420
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
4. The volumetric efficiency of a compressor

A
increases with decrease in compression ratio
.
B. decreases with decrease in compression ratio
C
increases with increase in compression ratio
.
D
decreases with increase in compression ratio
.
5. Reheating in a multi-stage expansion gas turbine __________ compressor work.

A
has no effect on
.
B. decreases
C
increases
.
6. The multi-stage compression of air as compared to single stage compression

A
improves volumetric efficiency for the given pressure ratio
.
B. reduces workdone per kg of air
421
C
gives more uniform torque
.
D
all of these
.
7. Which one of the following is the effect of blade shape on performance of a centrifugal
compressor ?
A
Backward curved blades has poor efficiency
.
B. Backward curved blades lead to stable performance
C
Forward curved blades has higher efficiency
.
D
Forward curved blades produce lower pressure ratio
.
8. In a jet engine, the air-fuel ratio is

A
30:1
.
B. 40:1
C
50:1
.
D
60:1
.
9. Which of the following bladings will give maximum pressure rise in a centrifugal
compressor, assuming the same overall dimensions, blade inlet angle and rotational speeds ?
A
Forward curved blades
.
B. Backward curved blades
422
C
Radial blades
.
D
all of these
.
10. In an axial flow compressor, the ratio of pressure in theTOtor blades to the pressure rise in
the compressor in one stage is known as
A
work factor
.
B. slip factor
C
degree of reaction
.
D
pressure coefficient
.
11. In a two stage reciprocating compressor with intercooler, the amount of work saved with
incomplete intercooling is __________ that in case of complete intercooling.
A
less than
.
B. more than
12. The free air delivery is the volume of air that can be delivered by a compressor freely.
A
True
.
B. False
13. The ratio of the discharge pressure to the inlet pressure of air is called
A
compression ratio
.
B. expansion ratio
423
C
.
D
.
14. A regenerator in a gas turbine improves thermal efficiency.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
15. The velocity of air entering in a rocket is __________ as compared to an aircraft.

A
zero
.
B. less
C
more
.
D
same
.
16. A compressor mostly used for supercharging of I.C. engines is

A
radial flow compressor
.
B. axial flow compressor
C
roots blower
.
D
.
17. The workdone on a compressor will be minimum if air is taken from

A
the atmosphere
.
424
B. a source at 0 C
C
a source of low temperature air
.
D
a source of high temperature air
.
18. In a jet propulsion unit, the products of combustion after passing through the gas turbine are
discharged into
A
atmosphere
.
B. vacuum
C
discharge nozzle
.
D
back to the compressor
.
7. Heat Transfer, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning
Heat Transfer, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning - Section 1

1. The wet bulb temperature during sensible heating of air
A
remains constant
.
B. increases
C
decreases
.
2. The C.O.P. of an absorption type refrigerator is given by (where T1 = Temperature at which

the working substance receives heat, T2 = Temperature of cooling water, and T3 = Evaporator
temperature)
425
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.

A
The heat transfer in liquid and gases takes place according to convection.
.
B. The amount of heat flow through a body is dependent upon the material of the body.
C
The thermal conductivity of solid metals increases with rise in temperature,
.
D Logarithmic mean temperature difference is not equal to the arithmetic mean

. temperature difference.
4. In free convection heat transfer transition from laminar to turbulent flow is governed by the
critical value of the
A
Reynold's number
.
B. Grashoff's number
C
Reynold's number, Grashoff's number
.
D
Prandtl number, Grashoff's number
.
5. In a refrigerating machine, heat rejected is __________ heat absorbed.

A equal to
426
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
6. The humidity ratio or specific humidity is the mass of water vapour present in
A
1 m3 of wet air
.
B. 1 m3 of dry air
C
1 kg of wet air
.
D
1 kg of dry air
.
7. The formation of frost on cooling coils in a refrigerator

A
increases heat transfer
.
B. improves C.O.P. of the system
C
increases power consumption
.
D
reduces power consumption
.
8. The by-pass factor for a cooling coil

A
increases with increase in velocity of air passing through it
.
B. decreases with increase in velocity of air passing through it
C
remains unchanged with increase in velocity of air passing through it
.
427
D may increase or decrease with increase in velocity of air passing through it depending
. upon the condition of air entering
9. The difference between dry bulb temperature and wet bulb temperature, is called
A
dry bulb depression
.
B. wet bulb depression
C
dew point depression
.
D
degree of saturation
.
10. Defrosting of a refrigerator may be done by stopping the compressor for a short period.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
11. According to Dalton's law of partial pressures, (where pb = Barometric pressure, pa = Partial
pressure of dry air, and pv = Partial pressure of water vapour)
A
Pb = pa - pv
.
B. Pb = pa + pv
C
Pb = pa x pv
.
D
Pb = pa/pv
.
12. The heat transfer by conduction through a thick sphere is given by

A
.
428
B.
C
.
D
.
13. The relative humidity is defined as

A
the mass of water vapour present in 1 m3 of dry air
.
B. the mass of water vapour present in 1 kg of dry air
the ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in a unit mass of dry air to the mass of
C
water vapour in the same mass of dry air when it is saturated at the same temperature
.
and pressure.
D the ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of moist air to the mass of
. water vapour in the same volume of saturated air at the same temperature and pressure
14. Fourier's law of heat conduction is (where Q = Amount of heat flow through the body in unit
time, A = Surface area of heat flow, taken at right angles to the direction of heat flow, dT =
Temperature difference on the two faces of the body, dx = Thickness of the body, through
which the heat flows, taken along the direction of heat flow, and k = Thermal conductivity of
the body)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
15. The heat transfer by conduction through a thick sphere is same as through a thick cylinder.
A
429
B. False
16. In aqua-ammonia and Lithium-bromide water absorption refrigeration systems, the

refrigerants are respectively
A
water and water
.
B. water and lithium bromide
C
ammonia and lithium bromide
.
D
ammonia and water
.
17. As relative humidity decreases, the dew point temperature will be __________ wet bulb
temperature.
A
same as
.
B. lower than
C
higher man
.
18. The process of heat transfer from a hot body to a cold body, in a straight line, without
affecting the intervening medium, is called radiation.
A
True
.
B. False
19. Reynolds number (RN) is given by (where h = Film coefficient, l = Linear dimension, V =
Velocity of fluid, k = Thermal conductivity, t = Temperature, = Density of fluid, cp =
Specific heat at constant pressure, and = Coefficient of absolute viscosity)
A
.
430
B.
C
.
D
.
20. The optimum effective temperature for human comfort is

A
higher in winter than in summer
.
B. lower in winter than in summer
C
same in winter and summer
.
D
not dependent on season
.
21. The wet bulb temperature lines, on the psychrometric chart, are curved lines.
A
True
.
B. False
22. The sensible heat factor during cooling and dehumidification process is given by (where h1 =
Enthalpy of air entering the cooling coil, h2 = Enthalpy of air leaving the cooling coil,
and hA = Enthalpy of air at the end of dehumidification process)
A
.
B.
C
.
431
D
.
23. Thermal diffusivity is a

A
function of temperature
.
B. physical property of a substance
C
dimensionless parameter
.
D
all of these
.
24. The condition of refrigerant after leaving the compressor and before entering the condenser
is superheated vapour.
A
Yes
.
B. No
25. The total radiation from a black body per second per unit area is __________ fourth power of
the absolute temperature. This statement is known as Stefan-Boltzmann law.
A
equal to
.
C
.
26. Which of the following represents a heat pump?
A
.
432
B.
C
.
D
.
27. In a psychrometric process, the sensible heat added is 30 kJ/s and the latent heat added is 20
kJ/s. The sensible heat factor for the process will be
A
0.3
.
B. 0.6
C
0.67
.
D
1.5
.
28. The amount of radiation mainly depends upon the

A
433
B. temperature of the body
C
type of surface of the body
.
D
all of these
.
29. For ammonia refrigerating systems, the tubes of a shell and tube condenser are made of
A
copper
.
B. aluminium
C
steel
.
D
brass
.
30. The highest thermal diffusivity is of

A
iron
.
B. lead
C
concrete
.
D
wood
.
31. While designing the refrigeration system of an aircraft, the prime consideration is that the
A
system has high C.O.P.
.
B. power per TR is low
C mass of refrigerant circulated in the system is low
434
.
D
mass of the refrigeration equipment is low
.
32. The heat transfer takes place according to

A
.
C
.
D
Kirchhoff's law
.
33. An electrolux refrigerator is called a __________ absorption system.

A
single fluid
.
B. two fluids
C
three fluids
.
34. The heat transfer by radiation __________ a medium.

A
requires
.
B. does not require
35. Thermal conductivity of water __________ with rise in temperature.

A
remains same
.
B. decreases
C increases
435
.
D
may increase or decrease depending upon temperature
.
36. During adiabatic saturation process on unsaturated air __________ remains constant.
A
relative humidity
.
B. dew point temperature
C
dry bulb temperature
.
D
wet bulb temperature
.
37. The thickness of thermal and hydrodynamic boundary layer is equal if Prandtl number is
A
equal to one
.
B. greater than one
C
less than one
.
D
equal to Nusselt number
.
38. A perfect black body is one which

A
is black in colour
.
B. absorbs heat radiations of all wave lengths falling on it
C
reflects all the heat radiations
.
D transmits the heat radiations
436
.
39. Degree of saturation or percentage humidity is

A
the mass of water vapour present in 1 m3 of dry air
.
B. the mass of water vapour present in 1 kg of dry air
the ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in a unit mass of dry air to the mass of
C
water vapour in the same mass of dry air when it is saturated at the same temperature
.
and pressure.
D the ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of moist air to the mass of
. water vapour in the same volume of saturated air at the same temperature and pressure
40. The coefficient of performance of Heat Pump is always __________ one.

A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
41. During a refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by the refrigerant in a

A
compressor
.
B. condenser
C
evaporator
.
D
expansion valve
.
42. A refrigeration system

A
removes heat from a low temperature body and delivers it to a high temperature body
.
437
B. removes heat from a high temperature body and delivers it to a low temperature body
C
rejects energy to a low temperature body
.
D
none of the above
.
43. The subcooling in a refrigeration cycle

A
does not alter C.O.P.
.
B. increases C.O.P.
C
decreases C.O.P.
.
D
none of these
.
44. Nusselt number (NN) is given by

A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
45. During sensible cooling of air __________ decreases.

A
.
B. relative humidity
438
C
.
D
specific humidity
.
46. The critical radius is the insulation radius at which the resistance to heat flow is
A
maximum
.
B. minimum
C
zero
.
D
none of these
.
47. In case of solids, the heat transfer takes place according to radiation.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
48. A water cooled condenser operates at a __________ condensing temperature than an air-
cooled condenser.
A
higher
.
B. lower
49. The relative humidity decreases as air gets wet.

A
True
.
B. False
50. The temperature of ammonia after compression in a vapour compression system is

A
20 to 50 C
.
439
B. 50 to 70 C
C
70 to 110 C
.
D
none of these
.

1. The centrifugal compressors are generally used for refrigerants that require
A
small displacements and low condensing pressures
.
B. large displacements and high condensing pressures
C
small displacements and high condensing pressures
.
D
large displacements and low condensing pressures
.
2. The water, alcohol and ammonia have same refrigerating effect at different altitudes.
A
Yes
.
B. No
3. The automobile radiator is a heat exchanger of

A
parallel flow type
.
B. counter flow type
C
cross flow type
.
440
D
regenerator type
.
4. In mechanical refrigeration system, the refrigerant occurs as liquid between condenser and
expansion valve.
A
True
.
B. False
5. A heat pump working on a reversed Carnot cycle has a C.O.P. of 5. It works as a refrigerator
taking 1 kW of work input. The refrigerating effect will be
A
1 kW
.
B. 2 kW
C
3 kW
.
D
4 kW
.
6. The curved lines on a psychrometric chart indicates

A
.
B. wet bulb temperature
C
dew point temperature
.
D
relative humidity
.
7. During humidification process, __________ increases.

A
.
441
C
.
D
specific humidity
.
8. A pressure gauge on the discharge side of a refrigerant compressor reads too high. The
reasons will be
A
lack of cooling water
.
B. water temperature being high
C
dirty condenser surface
.
D
all of these
.
9. The counter-current flow heat exchanger can transfer __________ heat than parallel flow
heat exchanger.
A
less
.
B. more
10. The Freon group of refrigerants are

A
halo-carbon refrigerants
.
B. azeotrope refrigerants
C
inorganic refrigerants
.
D
hydro-carbon refrigerants
.
442
11. For evaporators and condensers, for the given conditions, the logarithmic mean temperature
difference (tm) for parallel flow is __________ that for counter flow.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
12. A vapour absorption refrigerator uses __________ as a refrigerant.

A
water
.
B. ammonia
C
freon
.
D
aqua-ammonia
.
13. Thermal conductivity of air increases with rise in temperature.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
14. The material of pipe lines for a system using ammonia as a refrigerant should be copper.
A
Yes
.
B. No
15. The wave length corresponding to the maximum energy is inversely proportional to the
absolute temperature. This statement is called Planck's law.
A
Yes
.
B. No
443
16. Which of the following refrigerant has the highest freezing point.
A
Ammonia
.
B. Carbon dioxide
C
Sulphur dioxide
.
D
R-12
.
17. Air conditioning means

A
cooling
.
B. heating
C
dehumidifying
.
D
all of these
.
18. The emissivity for a black body is

A
0
.
B. 0.5
C
0.75
.
D
1
.
19. Which of the following would lead to a reduction in thermal resistance?

A In conduction, reduction in the thickness of the material and an increase in thermal
. conductivity.
444
B. In convection, stirring of the fluid and cleaning the heating surface.
C
In radiation, increasing the temperature and reducing the emissivity.
.
D
all of the above
.
20. The ratio of the thickness of thermal boundary layer to the thickness of hydrodynamic
boundary layer is equal to (Prandtl number)n, where n is equal to
A
-1/3
.
B. -2/3
C
1
.
D
-1
.
21. Free convection flow depends on

A
density
.
B. coefficient of viscosity
C
gravitational force
.
D
all of these
.
22. The critical pressure of a liquid is the pressure

A
above which a liquid will remain a liquid
.
B. above which a liquid will explode
445
C
above which a liquid will always convert into a vapour
.
D
below which a liquid will always be in vapour form
.
23. Conduction is a process of heat transfer

A
from one particle of the body to another without the actual motion of the particles
.
B. from one particle of the body to another by the actual motion of the heated particles.
C from a hot body to a cold body, in a straight line, without affecting the intervening
. medium
D
none of the above
.
24. Thermal diffusivity of a substance is

A
directly proportional to the thermal conductivity
.
B. inversely proportional to density of substance
C
inversely proportional to specific heat
.
D
all of the above
.
25. The sensible heat factor during the heating and humidification process is given by
(where h1 = Enthalpy of air entering the heating coil, h2 = Enthalpy of air leaving the heating
coil, and hA = Enthalpy of air at the end of humidification process)
A
.
B.
446
C
.
D
.
26. Fouling factor is used

A
in heat exchanger design as a safety factor
.
B. in case of Newtonian fluids
C
when a liquid exchanges heat with a gas
.
D
none of the above
.
27. The natural convection air cooled condensers are used in

A
domestic refrigerators
.
B. water coolers
C
room air conditioners
.
D
all of these
.
28. The process, generally used in winter air-conditioning to warm and humidity the air, is called
A
humidification.
.
B. dehumidification
C
heating and humidification
.
447
D
cooling and dehumidification
.
29. At 100% relative humidity, wet bulb temperature, dry bulb temperature, dew point
temperature and saturation temperature are equal.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
30. Bell-Coleman cycle is a

A
reversed Carnot cycle
.
B. reversed Otto cycle
C
reversed Joule cycle
.
D
reversed Rankine cycle
.
31. Sulphur dioxide is extremely toxic and non-flammable.

A
True
.
B. False
32. The transfer of heat from one body to another takes place only when there is a temperature
difference between the bodies.
A
Yes
.
B. No
33. A heat exchanger with heat transfer surface area A and overall heat transfer
coefficient U handles two fluids of heat capacities Cmax and Cmin. The number of transfer units
(NTU) used in the analysis of heat exchanger is specified as
A
.
448
B.
C
AU Cmin
.
D
.
34. Thermal diffusivity of a substance is given by (where h = Thermal diffusivity, = Density of

substance, S = Specific heat, and k = Thermal conductivity)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
35. Which of the following statement is correct for ammonia as a refrigerant?

A
It is toxic to mucous membranes.
.
B. it requires large displacement per TR compared to fluoro carbons.
C
It reacts with copper and its alloys.
.
D
all of these
.
36. The wet bulb temperature at 100% relative humidity is __________ dew point temperature.
A
same as
.
449
B. lower than
C
higher than
.
37. The use of heat exchangers is made in

A
radiators in automobile
.
B. condensers and boilers in steam plants
C
condensers and evaporators in refrigeration and air conditioning units
.
D
all of the above
.
38. In a heat exchanger with one fluid evaporating or condensing, the surface area required is
least in
A
parallel flow
.
B. counter flow
C
cross flow
.
D
all of these
.

A
A grey body is one which absorbs all radiations incident on it.
.
B. At thermal equilibrium, the emissivity and absorptivity are same.
C
The energy absorbed by a body to the total energy falling on it, is called emissivity.
.
450
D
A perfect body is one which is black in colour.
.
40. The horizontal and uniformly spaced lines on a psychrometric chart indicates relative
humidity.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
41. The sensible heat gain is due to the __________ difference between the fresh air and the air
in space.
A
temperature
.
B. humidity
42. During cooling and dehumidification, dry bulb temperature

A
remains constant
.
B. increases
C
decreases
.
43. The coefficient of performance of electrolux refrigerator is the ratio of

A
heat supplied by the gas burner to the heat absorbed by the evaporator
.
B. heat absorbed by the evaporator to the heat supplied by the gas burner
C heat supplied by the gas burner minus the heat absorbed by the evaporator to the heat
. supplied by the gas burner
D heat absorbed by the evaporator minus the heat supplied by the gas burner to the heat
. absorbed by the evaporator
44. The sulphur sticks, in case of leakage of ammonia refrigerant, gives white smoke.
A True
451
.
B. False
45. During gas charging in an ammonia vapour compression system, the connection is made at
the compressor outlet.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
46. The conditioned air supplied to the room must have the capacity to take up
A
room sensible heat load only
.
B. room latent heat load only
C
both room sensible heat and latent heat loads
.
D
none of the above
.
47. The process of removing moisture from the air, without change in its dry bulb temperature, is
called dehumidification.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
48. The specific humidity during dehumidification process

A
remains constant
.
B. increases
C
decreases
.
49. Which of the following refrigerant has the lowest freezing point?
A
452
B. R-12
C
R-22
.
D
Ammonia
.
50. For a white body, absorptivity ( ) = 0, reflectivity () = 1 and transmittivity () = 0.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect

1. Which of the following refrigerant has the maximum ozone depletion potential in the
stratophere?
A
Ammonia
.
B. Carbon dioxide
C
Sulphur dioxide
.
D
Flourine
.

A
The constant enthalpy lines are also constant wet bulb temperature lines.
.
B. The wet bulb and dry bulb temperature are equal at saturation condition.
C
The wet bulb temperature is a measure of enthalpy of moist air.
.
D all of the above
453
.
3. According to Stefan's law, the total radiation from a black body per second per unit area is
directly proportional to the fourth power of the absolute temperature.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
4. In electrolux refrigerator
A
ammonia is absorbed in hydrogen
.
B. ammonia is absorbed in water
C
ammonia evaporates in hydrogen
.
D
hydrogen evaporates in ammonia
.
5. Two long parallel surfaces each of emissivity 0.7 are maintained at different temperatures
and accordingly have radiation heat exchange between them. It is desired to reduce 75% of
the radiant heat transfer by inserting thin parallel shields of emissivity 1 on both sides. The
number of shields should be
A
one
.
B. two
C
three
.
D
four
.
6. A boot-strap air cooling system has

A
one heat exchanger
.
454
B. two heat exchangers
C
three heat exchangers
.
D
four heat exchangers
.
7. The boiling point of __________ is -10.5C.

A
ammonia
.
B. R-12
C
sulphur dioxide
.
D
carbon dioxide
.
8. One tonne of refrigeration (1TR) means that the heat removing capacity is
A
21 kJ/min
.
B. 210 kJ/min
C
420 kJ/min
.
D
620 kJ/min
.
9. The operating pressure for refrigerating units using R-12 as a refrigerant is

A
2 bar
.
B. 8 bar
C 15 bar
455
.
D
30 bar
.
10. The specific humidity during heating and humidification process.

A
remains constant
.
B. increases
C
decreases
.
11. The superheated vapour region, in a pressure enthalpy chart, is represented by the space
A
to the left of saturated liquid line
.
B. to the right of saturated liquid line
C
between the saturated liquid line and saturated vapour line
.
D
none of the above
.
12. The minimum temperature to which water can be cooled in a cooling tower is
A
dew point temperature of air
.
B. wet bulb temperature of air
C
dry bulb temperature of air
.
D
ambient air temperature
.
13. The index which corelates the combined effects of air temperature, relative humidity and air
velocity on the human body, is known as
A
456
B. effective temperature
C
.
D
none of these
.
14. The ratio of Nusselt number and the product of Reynold's number and Prandtl number is
equal to
A
Stanton number
.
B. Biot number
C
Peclet number
.
D
Grashoff number
.
15. The alignment circle is marked on the psychrometric chart at

A
20C DBT and 50% RH
.
B. 26C DBT and 50% RH
C
20C DBT and 60% RH
.
D
26C DBT and 60% RH
.
16. The C.O.P. of a Carnot refrigerator in winter will be __________ as compared to C.O.P. in
summer.
A
same
.
B. lower
457
C
higher
.

A The human body can lose heat even if its temperature is less than the atmospheric
. temperature.
B. The increase in air movement increases the evaporation from the human body.
C
The warm air increases the rate of radiation of heat from the human body.
.
D
both (a) and (b)
.
18. When the temperature of the surrounding is higher than the temperature of the body, then the
heat loss by convection from the body to the surrounding will be
A
positive
.
B. negative
C
zero
.
D
none of these
.
19. If a gas is to be liquified, its temperature must be

A
increased to a value above its critical temperature
.
B. reduced to a value below its critical temperature
C
equal to critical temperature
.
D
none of the above
.
458
20. The thermostatic expansion valve is used in __________ type of evaporators.
A
flooded
.
B. DX coil
C
dry
.
21. According to Prevost's theory of exchanges, everybody irrespective of its temperature

continuously emit heat radiations to the surrounding bodies and at the same time receives
heat radiations from the surrounding bodies.
A
True
.
B. False
22. In a boot-strap air evaporative cooling system, the evaporator is provided

A
between the combustion chamber and the first heat exchanger
.
B. between the first heat exchanger and the secondary compressor
C
between the secondary compressor and the second heat exchanger
.
D
between the second heat exchanger and the cooling turbine
.
23. According to Stefan-Boltzmann law, the total radiation from a black body per second per unit
area is directly proportional to the
A
absolute temperature
.
B. square of the absolute temperature
C
cube of the absolute temperature
.
D fourth power of the absolute temperature
459
.
24. A good refrigerant should have

A
high latent heat of vaporisation and low freezing point
.
B. high operating pressures and low freezing point
C
high specific volume and high latent heat of vaporisation
.
D
low C.O.P. and low freezing point
.
25. The thermal diffusivity for gases is generally __________ those for liquids.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
26. The condition of refrigerant after passing through the expansion or throttle valve, in a vapour
compression system is
A
high pressure saturated liquid
.
B. wet vapour
C
very wet vapour
.
D
dry vapour
.
27. The process of adding moisture to the air, without change in its dry bulb temperature, is
known as humidification.
A
Agree
.
460
B. Disagree
28. In case of liquids and gases, the heat transfer takes place according to
A
conduction
.
B. convection
C
radiation
.
D
none of these
.
29. The logarithmic mean temperature difference (tm) is given by (where t1 and t2 are
temperature differences between the hot and cold fluids at entrance and exit)
A
.
B.
C
tm = (t1 - t1) loge(t1/t1)
.
D
.
30. The radiation emitted by a black body is known as

A
black radiation
.
B. full radiation
C
total radiation
.
461
D
all of these
.
31. The sensible heat during humidification process decreases.

A
True
.
B. False
32. According to Newton's law of cooling, the heat transfer from a hot body to a cold body is
A
directly proportional to the surface area
.
B. directly proportional to the difference of temperatures between the two bodies
C
either (a) or (b)
.
D
both (a) and (b)
.
33. The freezing point of carbon dioxide is equal to boiling point of R-12.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
34. The condition of refrigerant as it leaves the compressor in a vapour compression system is
A
saturated liquid
.
B. wet vapour
C
dry saturated vapour
.
D
superheated vapour
.
35. The super-heating in a refrigeration cycle

A
462
B. increases C.O.P.
C
decreases C.O.P.
.
D
none of these
.
36. Thermal conductivity of a material may be defined as the

A quantity of heat flowing in one second through a slab of the material of area 1 cm2 and
. thickness 1 cm when its faces differ in temperature by 1 C
quantity of heat flowing in one second through one cm of material when opposite
B.
faces are maintained at a temperature difference of 1 C
C heat conducted in unit time across unit area through unit thickness when a temperature
. difference of unity is maintained between opposite faces
D
all of the above
.
37. During sensible heating of air, specific humidity remains constant.

A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
38. Air refrigeration cycle is used in

A
commercial refrigerators
.
B. domestic refrigerators
C
air-conditioning
.
D
gas liquefaction
.
39. Reynolds number is the ratio of

A
463
B. kinematic viscosity to thermal diffusivity
C
inertia force to viscous force
.
D
none of the above
.
40. The wet bulb depression is zero when relative humidity is

A
zero
.
B. 0.5
C
0.75
.
D
1.0
.
41. In a shell and coil condenser, water flows in the shell and the refrigerant in the coil.
A
True
.
B. False
42. In a saturated air-water vapour mixture, the

A
dry bulb temperature is higher than wet bulb temperature
.
B. dew point temperature is lower than wet bulb temperature
C
dry bulb, wet bulb and dew point temperature are same
.
D
dry bulb temperature is higher than dew point temperature
.
43. Dew point temperature corresponds to the saturation temperature of vapour at its partial
pressure.
A
464
B. False
44. The capillary tube is not used in large capacity refrigeration systems because
A
cost is too high
.
B. capacity control is not possible
C
it is made of copper
.
D
required pressure drop can not be achieved
.
45. The ratio of emissive power of a body to the emissive power of a perfectly black body is
called emissivity.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
46. The thermostatic expansion valve operates on the changes in the

A
degree of superheat at exit from the evaporator
.
B. temperature of the evaporator
C
pressure in the evaporator
.
D
none of the above
.
47. In a vapour compression system, the condition of refrigerant before entering the expansion or
throttle valve is
A
high pressure saturated liquid
.
B. wet vapour
465
C
very wet vapour
.
D
dry vapour
.
48. The freezing point of R-12 is

A
-86.6C
.
B. -95.2C
C
-107.7C
.
D
-135.8C
.
49. The refrigerant supplied to a compressor must be

A
superheated vapour refrigerant
.
B. dry saturated liquid refrigerant
C
a mixture of liquid and vapour refrigerant
.
D
none of these
.
50. The unit of thermal diffusivity is

A
m/hK
.
B. m/h
C
m2/h
.
466
D
m2/hK
.

1. The comfort conditions in air conditioning are at (where DBT = Dry bulb temperature,
and RH = Relative humidity)
A
25C DBT and 100% RH
.
B. 20C DBT and 80% RH
C
22C DBT and 60% RH
.
D
25C DBT and 40% RH
.
2. The dry bulb temperature lines, on the psychrometric chart are

A
vertical and uniformly spaced
.
B. horizontal and uniformly spaced
C
horizontal and non-uniformly spaced
.
D
curved lines
.
3. The pressure at the outlet of a refrigerant compressor is called

A
suction pressure
.
B. discharge pressure
C
critical pressure
.
467
D
back pressure
.
4. A simple air cooling system is good for __________ flight speeds.

A
low
.
B. high
5. The highest temperature during the cycle in a vapour compression system occurs after
evaporation.
A
True
.
B. False
6. In a psychrometric chart, dew point temperature lines are horizontal and non-uniformly
spaced.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
7. If the evaporator temperature is kept constant, the coefficient of performance of a

refrigeration cycle __________ with the increase in condenser temperature.
A
increases
.
B. decreases
8. The by-pass factor, in case of sensible cooling of air, is given by (where td1 = Dry bulb
temperature of air entering the cooling coil, td2 = Dry bulb temperature of air leaving the
cooling coil, and td3 = Dry bulb temperature of the cooling coil)
A
.
B.
468
C
.
D
.
9. The evaporator used in house-hold refrigerators is

A
frosting evaporator
.
B. non-frosting evaporator
C
defrosting evaporator
.
D
none of these
.
10. The drier in a refrigeration system removes moisture in the system.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
11. The __________ point of ammonia is -77.7C.

A
freezing
.
B. boiling
12. Sulphur dioxide has the lowest boiling point.

A
Yes
.
B. No
13. For a given dry bulb temperature, as the relative humidity __________ the wet bulb
temperature will increase.
A increases
469
.
B. decreases
14. The lowest thermal diffusivity is of

A
iron
.
B. lead
C
Aluminium
.
D
rubber
.
15. A low wet bulb temperature indicates very __________ humidity.

A
low
.
B. high
16. The operating temperature of a cold storage is - 2 C. The heat leakage from the surrounding
is 30 kW for the ambient temperature of 40 C. The actual C.O.P. of refrigeration plant used
is one fourth that of ideal plant working between the same temperatures. The power required
to drive the plant is
A
1.86 kW
.
B. 3.72 kW
C
7.44 kW
.
D
18.6 kW
.
17. In chemical dehumidification process,

A
dew point temperature decreases
.
470
B. wet bulb temperature decreases
C
dry bulb temperature increases
.
D
all of these
.
18. A one tonne refrigerating machine means that

A
one tonne is the total mass of machine
.
B. one tonne refrigerant is used
C
one tonne of water can be converted into ice
.
D one tone of ice when melts from and at 0 C in 24 hours, the refrigeration effect is
. equivalent to 210 kJ/min
19. The air cooling system mostly used in transport type aircrafts is
A
simple air cooling system
.
B. simple evaporative air cooling system
C
boot-strap air cooling system
.
D
all of these
.
20. The critical thickness of insulation is the ratio of thermal conductivity of the insulating
material (k) to the heat transfer coefficient at the outer surface of the insulation (h0).
A
True
.
B. False
21. In counter-current flow heat exchanger, the logarithmic temperature difference between the
471
fluids is __________ as compared to parallel flow heat exchanger.
A
same
.
B. less
C
greater
.
22. Environmental protection agencies advice against the use of chloro-fluoro-carbon

refrigerants since
A
these react with water vapour and cause acid rain
.
B. these react with plants and cause green-house effect
C
these react with oxygen and cause its depletion
.
D
these react with ozone layer
.
23. When the lower temperature of a refrigerating machine is fixed, then the coefficient of
performance can be improved by
A
operating the machine at higher speeds
.
B. operating the machine at lower speeds
C
raising the higher temperature
.
D
lowering the higher temperature
.
24. The refrigerant carbon dioxide is not widely used because of its __________ power require
ments per tonne of refrigeration and high operating pressures.
A
low
.
472
B. high
25. The by-pass factor of a cooling coil decreases with

A
decrease in fin spacing and increase in number of rows
.
B. increase in fin spacing and increase in number of rows
C
increase in fin spacing and decrease in number of rows
.
D
decrease in fin spacing and decrease in number of rows
.
26. Dehydration is the process of removing water vapour from the surrounding air.
A
True
.
B. False
27. The cooling of air, without any change in its specific humidity, is known as sensible cooling.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
28. The capacity of the cooling tower and spray ponds __________ as the wet bulb temperature
of air decreases.
A
increases
.
B. decreases
29. A mixture of dry air and water vapour, when the air has diffused the maximum amount of
water vapour into it, is called
A
dry air
.
B. moist air
473
C
saturated air
.
D
specific humidity
.
30. The total pressure exerted by the mixture of air and water vapour is equal to the sum of
pressures which each constituent would exert, if it occupied the same space by itself. This
statement is called
A
Kinetic theory of gases
.
B. Newton's law of gases
C
Dalton's law of partial pressures
.
D
Avogadro's hypothesis
.
31. The expansion valve in a refrigerator controls the flow of refrigerant.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
32. Upto the critical radius of insulation,

A
added insulation will increase heat loss
.
B. added insulation will decrease heat loss
C
convective heat loss will be less than conductive heat loss
.
D
heat flux will decrease
.
33. The relative humidity lines on a psychrometric chart are

A vertical and uniformly spaced
474
.
C
.
D
curved lines
.
34. The C.O.P. of a heat pump working on a reversed Carnot cycle is

A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
35. A vapour absorption refrigeration system

A
gives noisy operation
.
B. gives quiet operation
C
requires little power consumption
.
D
cools below 0 C
.
36. The ratio of energy transferred by convection to that by conduction is called

A
Stanton number
.
475
B. Nusselt number
C
Biot number
.
D
Peclet number
.
37. A refrigerating system operating on reversed Brayton refrigeration cycle is used for
maintaining 250 K. If the temperature at the end of constant pressure cooling is 300 K and
rise in the temperature of air in the refrigerator is 50 K, then the net work of compression
will be (assume air as working substance with cp = 1 kJ/kg)
A
25 kJ/kg
.
B. 50 kJ/kg
C
l00 kJ/kg
.
D
125 kJ/kg
.
38. Wet bulb temperature indicates the moisture content in air.

A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
39. A designer chooses the values of fluid flow rates and specific heats in such a manner that the
heat capacities of the two fluids are equal. A hot fluid enters the counter flow heat exchanger
at 100 C and leaves at 60 C. A cold fluid enters the heat exchanger at 40 C. The mean
temperature difference between the two fluids is
A
20C
.
B. 40C
C
60C
.
476
D
66.7C
.
40. The inclined and non-uniformly spaced straight lines on a psychrometric chart indicates wet
bulb temperature.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
41. The heat transfer by conduction through a thick cylinder(Q) is given by (where T1 = Higher
temperature, T2 = Lower temperature, r1 = Inside radius, r2 = Outside radius, l = Length of
cylinder, and k = Thermal conductivity)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
42. The heat is transferred by conduction, convection and radiation in

A
melting of ice
.
B. boiler furnaces
C
condensation of steam in condenser
.
D
none of these
.
43. A thermostatic expansion valve in a refrigeration system

A ensures the evaporator completely filled with refrigerant of the load
477
.
B. is suitable only for constant load systems
C
maintains different temperatures in evaporator in proportion to load
.
D
none of the above
.
44. The temperature rise, between the condenser outlet and expansion valve in ammonia vapour
compression system, should be as low as possible.
A
Yes
.
B. No
45. The ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in a unit mass of dry air to the mass of water
vapour in the same mass of dry air when it is saturated at the same temperature and pressure,
is called
A
humidity ratio
.
C
absolute humidity
.
D
.
46. For unsaturated air, the dew point temperature is __________ wet bulb temperature.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
more than
.
478
47. During dehumidification process, __________ remains constant.
A
.
C
.
D
specific humidity
.
48. Pressure of water vapour is given by

A
.
B.
C
.
D
none of these
.
49. The value of the wave length for maximum emissive power is given by
A
Kirchhoff's law
.
B. Stefan's law
C
Wein's law
.
D
Planck's law
.
50. Emissivity of a body will be equal to its absorptivity at all temperatures.

A Yes
479
.
B. No

1. R-12 is generally preferred over R-22 in deep freezers since
A
it has low operating pressures
.
B. it gives higher coefficient of performance
C
it is miscible with oil over large range of temperatures
.
D
all of the above
.
2. The temperature of air recorded by a thermometer, when its bulb is surrounded by a wet cloth
exposed to the air, is called
A
.
B. dry bulb temperature
C
.
D
none of these
.
3. During sub-cooling, sensible heat from a liquid refrigerant is removed.

A
Yes
.
B. No
4.
The expression is used for calculating relative humidity.
480
A
Yes
.
B. No
5. If the energy radiated per second per sq. cm. of the surface for wave lengths lying between ,
and + d is represented by (e.d), then e is called
A
absorptive power
.
B. emissive power
C
emissivity
.
D
none of these
.
6. Dry bulb temperature is the temperature of air recorded by a thermometer, when

A
it is not affected by the moisture present in the air
.
B. its bulb is surrounded by a wet cloth exposed to the air
C
the moisture present in it begins to condense
.
D
none of the above
.
7. In a spray washing system, if the temperature of water is higher than the dry bulb
temperature of entering air, then the air is
A
heated and dehumidified
.
B. heated and humidified
C
cooled and humidified
.
481
D
cooled and dehumidified
.
8. A valve which maintains a constant degree of superheat at the end of the evaporator coil, is
called
A
automatic expansion valve
.
B. high side float valve
C
thermostatic expansion valve
.
D
low side float valve
.
9. The atmospheric air at dry bulb temperature of 15C enters a heating coil maintained at
40C. The air leaves the heating coil at 25C. The by-pass factor of the heating coil is
A
0.376
.
B. 0.4
C
0.6
.
D
0.67
.
10. An infinite parallel planes with emissivities e1 and e2, the interchange factor for radiation
from surface 1 to surface 2 is given by
A
.
B.
C
e1 + e2
.
482
D
e1e2
.
11. The final relative humidity of the air during cooling and dehumidification is generally
__________ than that of entering air.
A
lower
.
B. higher
12. The emissivity of a polished silver body is __________ as compared to black body.
A
same
.
B. low
C
very low
.
D
high
.
13. In a pressure enthalpy chart, the space between the saturated liquid line and saturated vapour
line, represents sub-cooled liquid region.
A
True
.
B. False
14. R-11 has the highest critical point temperature.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
15. The ratio of heat extracted in the refrigerator to the workdone on the refrigerant is called
A
coefficient of performance of refrigeration
.
B. coefficient of performance of heat pump
483
C
relative coefficient of performance
.
D
refrigerating efficiency
.
16. Air refrigerator works on

A
.
B. Bell Coleman cycle
C
both (a) and ib)
.
D
none of these
.
17. The reciprocating refrigerant compressors are very suitable for

A
small displacements and low condensing pressures
.
B. large displacements and high condensing pressures
C
small displacements and high condensing pressures
.
D
large displacements and low condensing pressures
.
18. The boiling point of carbon dioxide is

A
-20.5C
.
B. -50C
C -63.3C
484
.
D
-78.3C
.
19. The mass of water vapour present in __________ is called absolute humidity.
A
1 m3 of wetair
.
B. 1 m3 of dry air
C
1 kg of wet air
.
D
1 kg of dry air
.
20. The relative coefficient of performance is equal to

A
.
B.
C
Actual C.O.P. x Theoretical C.O.P.
.
D
none of these
.
21. The cooling system used for supersonic aircrafts and rockets is
A
simple air cooling system
.
B. boot-strap air cooling system
C
reduced ambient air cooling system
.
485
D
regenerative air cooling system
.

A
In vapour absorption refrigerator, the compression of refrigerent is avoided.
.
Sub-cooling can be achieved by circulating more quantity of cooling water through

B.
the condenser.
In vapour compression refrigeration, the vapour is drawn in the compressor cylinder

C
during its suction stroke and is compressed adiabatically during the compression
.
stroke.
D
all of the above
.
23. The desirable property of a refrigerant is

A
low boiling point
.
B. high critical temperature
C
high latent heat of vaporisation
.
D
all of these
.
24. The humidification process, on the psychrometric chart is shown by

A
horizontal line
.
B. vertical line
C
inclined line
.
486
D
curved line
.
25. The colour of the flame of halide torch, in case of leakage of freon refrigerant, will change to
A
bright green
.
B. yellow
C
red
.
D
orange
.
26. The wet bulb depression indicates __________ humidity of the air.
A
absolute
.
B. relative
C
specific
.
27. The refrigerant widely used in domestic refrigerators is

A
ammonia
.
B. carbon dioxide
C
sulphur dioxide
.
D
R-12
.
28. When absorptivity () = 1, reflectivity () = 0 and transmittivity () = 0, then the body is said
to be a
A
black body
.
487
B. grey body
C
opaque body
.
D
white body
.
29. Prandtl number (PN) is given by PN = .cp/k.

A
Yes
.
B. No
30. In a vapour compression system, the condition of refrigerant before passing through the
condenser is
A
saturated liquid
.
B. wet vapour
C
.
D
superheated vapour
.
31. A composite slab has two layers of different materials with thermal conductivities k1 and k2.
If each layer has the same thickness, then the equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab will
be
A
k1 k2
.
B. k1 + k2
C
.
488
D
.
32. The critical temperature is the temperature

A
below which a gas does not obey gas laws
.
B. above which a gas may explode
C
below which a gas is always liquified
.
D
above which a gas will never liquified
.
33. The evaporator changes the low pressure liquid refrigerant from the expansion valve into
A
high pressure liquid refrigerant
.
B. low pressure liquid and vapour refrigerant
C
low pressure vapour refrigerant
.
D
none of these
.
34. For air conditioning the operation theatre in a hospital, the percentage of outside air in the air
supplied is
A
Zero
.
B. 20
C
50
.
D
100
.
489
35. In case ofsensible cooling of air, the coil efficiency is given by
A
B.P.F. 1
.
B. 1 - B.P.F.
C
.
D
1 + B.P.F.
.
36. The mass of water vapour present in 1 kg of dry air, is called humidity ratio.
A
True
.
B. False
37. In a vapour compression refrigeration system, a throttle valve is used in place of an expander
because
A
it considerably reduces mass of the system
.
B. it improves the C.O.P., as the condenser is small
C
the positive work in isentropic expansion of liquid is very small
.
D
it leads to significant cost reduction
.
38. The unit of overall coefficient of heat transfer is

A
W/m2K
.
B. W/m2
C
W/mK
.
490
D
W/m
.
39. Most thermostatic expansion valves are set for a superheat of

A
5C
.
B. 10C
C
15C
.
D
20C
.
40. For large tonnage (more than 200 TR) air-conditioning applications, the compressor
recommended is
A
reciprocating
.
B. rotating
C
centrifugal
.
D
screw
.
41. The ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of moist air to the mass of water
vapour in the same volume of saturated air at the same temperature and pressure, is called
A
humidity ratio
.
C
absolute humidity
.
491
D
.
42. The transfer of heat by molecular collision is smallest in

A
solids
.
B. liquids
C
gases
.
D
none of these
.
43. During dehumidification process, the relative humidity

A
remains constant
.
B. increases
C
decreases
.
44. The space between the two walls of a thermos flask is evacuated because vacuum is a
__________ conductor of heat.
A
good
.
B. bad
45. The ratio of actual heat transfer to the maximum possible heat transfer is known as heat
exchanger effectiveness.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
46. When the discharge pressure is too high in a refrigeration system, high pressure control is
installed to stop the compressor.
A
Correct
492
B. Incorrect
47. A grey body is one whose absorptivity does not vary with temperature and wave length of the
incident ray.
A
True
.
B. False
48. The wet bulb temperature during sensible cooling of air

A
remains constant
.
B. increases
C
decreases
.
49. In absorption vapour systems, the refrigerant widely used is R-12.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
50. Hydrogen is used in electrolux refrigeration system so as to __________ the rate of

evaporation of the liquid ammonia passing through the evaporator.
A
equalise
.
B. reduce
C
increase
.

1. A condenser of refrigeration system rejects heat at the rate of 120 kW, while its compressor
consumes a power of 30 kW. The coefficient of performance of the system will be
A 1/4
493
.
B. 1/3
C
3
.
D
4
.
2. A refrigerant with the highest critical pressure is

A
R-11
.
B. R-12
C
R-22
.
D
Ammonia
.
3. In a shell and tube heat exchanger, baffles are provided on the shell side to
A
improve heat transfer
.
B. provide support for tubes
C
prevent stagnation of shell side fluid
.
D
all of these
.
4. The average value of thermal conductivity for water at 20 C saturate is about 0.51.
A
True
.
B. False
494
5. In aqua-ammonia absorption refrigeration system, incomplete rectification leads to
accumulation of water in
A
condenser
.
B. evaporator
C
absorber
.
D
none of these
.
6. The boiling point of ammonia is

A
-10.5C
.
B. -30C
C
-33.3C
.
D
-77.7C
.
7. The by-pass factor (B. P. F.) in case of sensible heating of air is (Where td1 = Dry bulb
temperature of air entering the heating coil, td2 = Dry bulb temperature of air leaving the
heating coil, and td3 = Dry bulb temperature of heating coil)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
495
8. The refrigerant used for absorption refrigerators working on heat from solar collectors is a
mixture of water and
A
carbon dioxide
.
B. sulphur dioxide
C
lithium bromide
.
D
R-12
.
9. In a black body, all radiations are rejected.

A
True
.
B. False
10. Most air cooled condensers are designed to operate with a temperature difference of
A
5C
.
B. 8C
C
14C
.
D
22C
.
11. In a reversed Brayton cycle, the heat is absorbed by the air during
A
isentropic compression process
.
B. constant pressure cooling process
C
isentropic expansion process
.
496
D
constant pressure expansion process
.
12. Wet bulb temperature is the temperature of air recorded by a thermometer, when
A
it is not affected by the moisture present in the air
.
B. its bulb is surrounded by a wet cloth exposed to the air
C
the moisture present in it begins to condense
.
D
none of the above
.
13. A device used for transferring heat from one fluid to another is called heat exchanger.
A
True
.
B. False
14. The coefficient of performance (C.O.P.) of a refrigerator working as a heat pump is given by
A
(C.O.P.)P = (C.O.P.)R + 2
.
B. (C.O.P.)P = (C.O.P.)R + 1
C
(C.O.P)P = (C.O.P)R - 1
.
D
(C.O.P)P = (C.O.P)R
.
15. The temperature, below which a gas is always liquefied, is known as critical temperature.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
16. A Bell Coleman refrigerator working on dense air system as compared to open air system, for
497
the same range of temperature, results in higher coefficient of performance.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
17. The ratio of surface convection resistance to the internal conduction resistance is known as
A
Grashoff number
.
B. Biot number
C
Stanton number
.
D
Prandtl number
.
18. Relative humidity is given by (where pv = Partial pressure of water vapour, pb = Barometric
pressure, ps = Pressure of saturated air, pd = Pressure at dry bulb temperature, pw = Saturation
pressure corresponding to wet bulb temperature, and = Degree of saturation)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
none of these
.
19. Kirchhoff's law states that

A the total radiation from a black body per second per unit area is directly proportional
. to the fourth power of the absolute temperature
the wave length corresponding to the maximum energy is proportional to the absolute
B.
temperature
498
C the ratio of the emissive power and absorptive power of all bodies is the same and is
. equal to the emissive power of a perfectly black body
D
none of the above
.
20. Dew point temperature is the temperature of air recorded by a thermometer, when the
moisture present in it begins to condense.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
21.
The expression is used for calculating
A
relative humidity
.
B. humidity ratio
C
.
D
pressure of water vapour
.
22. The critical thickness of insulation for a sphere is

A
k/h0
.
B. 2k/h0
C
h0/k
.
D
h0/2k
.
23. The difference between dry bulb temperature and dew point temperature, is called
A
dry bulb depression
.
499
B. wet bulb depression
C
dew point depression
.
D
.
24. Logarithmic mean temperature difference is the same as the arithmetic mean temperature
difference.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
25. Film coefficient is defined as the ratio of

A
thermal conductivity to the equivalent thickness of the film of fluid
.
B. temperature drop through the films of fluids to the thickness of film of fluids
C
thickness of film of fluid to the thermal conductivity
.
D
thickness of film of fluid to the temperature drop through the films of fluids
.
26. Planck's law holds good for all coloured bodies.

A
True
.
B. False
27. In mechanical refrigeration system, the refrigerant has the maximum temperature
A
in evaporator
.
B. before expansion valve
500
C
between compressor and condenser
.
D
between condenser and evaporator
.
28. The capacity of a domestic refrigerator is in the range of

A
0.1 to 0.3 TR
.
B. 1 to 3 TR
C
3 to 5 TR
.
D
5 to 7 TR
.
29. The condition of refrigerant after passing through the condenser in a vapour compression
system is
A
saturated liquid
.
B. wet vapour
C
.
D
superheated vapour
.
30. The leakage in a refrigeration system using freon is detected by

A
halide torch
.
B. sulphur sticks
C
soap and water
.
501
D
all of these
.
31. If the condenser temperature is kept constant, the coefficient of performance of a

refrigeration cycle increases with the increase in evaporator temperature.
A
Yes
.
B. No
32. The process of heat transfer from one particle of the fluid to another by the actual movement
of the fluid particles caused by some mechanical means, is known as
A
conduction
.
B. free convection
C
forced convection
.
D
radiation
.
33. When is absorptivity, is reflectivity and is transmittivity, then for a diathermanous body,
A
= 1, = 0 and = 0
.
B. = 0, = 1 and = 0
C
= 0, = 0 and = 1
.
D
+ = 1 and = 0
.
34. When there is an addition of water vapour to the air of enclosed space, a gain in __________
is said to occur.
A
sensible heat
.
502
B. latent heat
35. The relative humidity __________ as air gets drier.

A
increases
.
B. decreases
36. The central air conditioning system has __________ overall efficiency as compared to
individual systems.
A
same
.
B. lower
C
higher
.
37. The ratio of the emissive power and absorptive power of all bodies is the same and is equal
to the emissive power of a perfectly black body. This statement is known as
A
Wien's law
.
B. Stefan's law
C
Kirchhoff's law
.
D
Planck's law
.
38. An ordinary passenger aircraft requires a cooling system of capacity.

A
2 TR
.
B. 4 TR
C
8 TR
.
503
D
10 TR
.
39. In air-conditioning of aeroplanes, using air as a refrigerant, the cycle used is

A
.
B. reversed Joule cycle
C
reversed Brayton cycle
.
D
reversed Otto cycle
.
40. The thermal diffusivity for solids is generally less than those for liquids and gases.
A
True
.
B. False
41. Conduction is the process of heat transfer from one particle of the body to another by the
actual motion of the heated particles.
A
True
.
B. False
42. Moisture should be removed from refrigerants to avoid

A
freezing at the expansion valve
.
B. restriction to refrigerant flow
C
corrosion of steel plates
.
D
all of these
.
504
A
The value of C.O.P. is always greater than one.
.
In a vapour compression system, the condition of refrigerant before entering the

B.
compressor is dry saturated vapour.
C The space between the saturated liquid line and saturated vapour line, in a pressure
. enthalpy chart, is wet vapour region.
D
none of the above
.
44. During humidification process, dry bulb temperature

A
remains constant
.
B. increases
C
decreases
.
45. Fourier's law of heat conduction gives the heat flow for
A
irregular surfaces
.
B. non-uniform temperature surfaces
C
one dimensional cases only
.
D
two dimensional cases only
.
46. The product of Reynolds number and Prandtl number is known as

A
Stanton number
.
B. Biot number
505
C
Peclet number
.
D
Grashoff number
.
47. Carbon dioxide is

A
colourless
.
B. odourless
C
non-flammable
.
D
all of these
.
48. The reduced ambient air cooling system has

A
one cooling turbine and one heat exchanger
.
B. one cooling turbine and two heat exchangers
C
two cooling turbines and one heat exchanger
.
D
two cooling turbines and two heat exchangers
.
49. The heat of sun reaches to us according to

A
conduction
.
B. convection
C
radiation
.
506
D
none of these
.
50. The specific humidity during humidification process

A
remains constant
.
B. increases
C
decreases
.

1. Sensible heat factor is given by (where S.H. = Sensible heat, and L.H. = Latent heat)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
2. Stefan-Boltzmann law is applicable for heat transfer by convection.

A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
3. The most commonly used method for the design of duct size is the
A
velocity reduction method
.
B. equal friction method
507
C
static regain method
.
D
dual or double method
.
4. In counter-current flow heat exchangers

A
both the fluids at inlet are in their hottest state
.
B. both the fluids at inlet are in their coldest state
C
both the fluids at exit are in their hottest state
.
D
one fluid is coldest and the other is hottest at inlet
.
5.
The rate of heat flow through a body is . The term x/kA is known as
A
thermal coefficient
.
B. thermal resistance
C
thermal conductivity
.
D
none of these
.
6. In a vapour compression system, the condition of refrigerant is dry saturated vapour

A
before entering the compressor
.
B. after leaving the compressor
C
before entering the condenser
.
508
D
after leaving the condenser
.
7. An evaporator is also known as

A
freezing coil
.
B. cooling coil
C
chilling coil
.
D
all of these
.
8.
The rate of heat flow through a body is . The term is known as
temperature gradient.
A
Yes
.
B. No
9. Oil separator in a refrigeration cycle is installed

A
before compressor
.
B. between compressor and condenser
C
between condenser and evaporator
.
D
between condenser and expansion valve
.
10. In larger industrial and commercial reciprocating compression systems, refrigerent widely
used is
A
ammonia
.
509
B. carbon dioxide
C
sulphur dioxide
.
D
R-12
.
11. During sensible cooling of air, specific humidity

A
remains constant
.
B. increases
C
decreases
.
12. The transfer of heat by molecular collision is known as

A
conduction
.
B. convection
C
radiation
.
D
none of these
.
13. When tc1 and tc2 are the temperatures of cold fluid at entry and exit respectively
and th1 and th2 are the temperatures of hot fluid at entry and exit point, and cold fluid has
lower heat capacity rate as compared to hot fluid, then effectiveness of the heat exchanger is
given by
A
.
B.
510
C
.
D
.
14. In a psychrometric chart, specific humidity (moisture content) lines are

A
vertical and uniformly spaced
.
C
.
D
curved lines
.
15. The expression Q = AT4 is called

A
Fourier equation
.
B. Stefan-Boltzmann equation
C
Newton-Rikhmann equation
.
D
Joseph-Stefan equation
.
16. Thermal conductivity of solid metals __________ with rise in temperature.

A
remains same
.
B. decreases
C
increases
.
511
17. The horizontal and non-uniformly spaced lines on a psychrometric chart indicates
A
.
C
.
D
specific humidity
.
18. A reversible engine has ideal thermal efficiency of 30%. When it is used as a refrigerating
machine with all other conditions unchanged, the coefficient of performance will be
A
1.33
.
B. 2.33
C
3.33
.
D
4.33
.
19. Which of the following refrigerant is highly toxic and flammable?

A
Ammonia
.
B. Carbon dioxide
C
Sulphur dioxide
.
D
R-12
.
20. The unit of Stefan-Boltzmann constant is

A
Watt/mK
.
512
B. Watt/m2K2
C
Watt/m2K4
.
D
Watt/mK2
.
21. The emissive power of a body depends upon its

A
temperature
.
B. physical nature
C
wave length
.
D
all of these
.
22. An electric cable of aluminium conductor (k = 240 W/mK) is to be insulated with rubber (k =
0.15 W/mK). The cable is to be located in air (h = 6 W/m2). The critical thickness of
insulation will be
A
25 mm
.
B. 40 mm
C
160 mm
.
D
800 mm
.
23. A cube at high temperature is immersed in a constant temperature bath. It loses heat from its
top, bottom and side surfaces with heat transfer coefficients of h1, h2 and h3 respectively. The
average heat transfer coefficient for the cube is
A
h1 + h2 + h3
.
513
B. (h1h2h3)1/3
C
.
D
none of these
.
24. The dehumidification process, on the psychrometric chart, is shown by

A
horizontal Sine
.
B. vertical line
C
inclined line
.
D
curved line
.
25. The vertical and uniformly spaced lines on a psychrometric chart indicates
A
.
C
.
D
specific humidity
.
26. In case of sensible heating of air, the coil efficiency is given by (where B.P.F. = By-pass
factor)
A
B.P.F. - 1
.
B. 1 - B.P.F.
514
C
.
D
1 + B.RF.
.
27. The coefficient of performance (C.O.P.) is the reciprocal of the efficiency of a heat engine.
A
True
.
B. False
28. The wet bulb temperature at 100% relative humidity is __________ dry bulb temperature.
A
same as
.
B. lower than
C
higher than
.
29. The freezing point of sulphur dioxide is

A
-56.6C
.
B. -75.2C
C
-77.7C
.
D
-135.8C
.
30. The ratio of the energy absorbed by the body to the total energy falling on it, is called
A
absorptive power
.
B. emissive power
515
C
emissivity
.
D
none of these
.
31. The coefficient of performance of a domestic refrigerator is __________ as compared to a

domestic air-conditioner.
A
same
.
B. less
C
more
.
32. The process of heat transfer from one particle of the body to another is called conduction,
when the particles of the body
A
move actually
.
B. do not move actually
C
affect the intervening medium
.
D
does not affect the intervening medium
.
33. The human body feels comfortable when the heat stored in the body is
A
positive
.
B. negative
C
zero
.
516
D
none of these
.
34. A Bell Coleman refrigerator working on dense air system as compared to open air system, for
the same range of temperature, results in __________ power per tonne of refrigeration.
A
same
.
B. lower
C
higher
.
35. The amount of heat flow through a body by conduction is

A
directly proportional to the surface area of the body
.
B. directly proportional to the temperature difference on the two faces of the body
C
inversely proportional to the thickness of the body
.
D
all of the above
.
36. A furnace is made of a red brick wall of thickness 0.5 m and conductivity 0.7 W/mK. For the
same heat loss and temperature drop, this can be replaced by a layer of diatomite earth of
conductivity 0.14 W/mK and thickness
A
0.5 m
.
B. 0.1 m
C
0.2 m
.
D
0.5 m
.
37. In a refrigeration system, the expansion device is connected between the

A
compressor and condenser
517
B. condenser and receiver
C
receiver and evaporator
.
D
evaporator and compressor
.
38. The heat rejection factor (HRF) is given by

A
1 + C.O.P
.
B. 1 - C.O.P.
C
.
D
.
39. Wein's law states that the wave length corresponding to __________ is proportional to the
absolute temperature.
A
minimum energy
.
B. maximum energy
40. In a domestic vapour compression refrigerator, the refrigerant commonly used is

A
CO2
.
B. Ammonia
C
R-12
.
D
all of these
.
41. In order to cool and dehumidify a stream of moist air, it must be passed over the coil at a
518
temperature
A
which lies between the dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures of the incoming stream
.
B. which lies between the wet bulb and dew point temperatures of the incoming stream
C
which is lower than the dew point temperature of the incoming stream
.
D
of adiabatic saturation of incoming stream
.
42. The coefficient of performance of vapour compression refrigeration system is quite

__________ as compared to air refrigeration system.
A
low
.
B. high
43. In order to collect liquid refrigerant and to prevent it from going to a __________ , a device
known as accumulator is used at the suction of compressor.
A
compressor
.
B. condenser
C
expansion valve
.
D
evaporator
.
44. Which of the following refrigerant has the lowest boiling point?
A
Ammonia
.
B. Carbon dioxide
519
C
Sulphur dioxide
.
D
R-12
.
45. During sensible cooling of air, the relative humidity increases.

A
Yes
.
B. No
46. In actual air-conditioning applications for R-12 and R-22, and operating at a condenser
temperature of 40 C and an evaporator temperature of 5 C, the heat rejection factor is about
A
1
.
B. 1.25
C
2.15
.
D
5.12
.
47. The undesireable property of a refrigerant is

A
non-toxic
.
B. non-flammable
C
non-explosive
.
D
high boiling point
.
48. The dry bulb temperature during sensible heating of air

A
remains constant
.
520
B. increases
C
decreases
.
9. Radiation is the process of heat transfer in which heat flows from a __________ , in a
straight line, without affecting the intervening medium.
A
cold body to hot body
.
B. hot body to cold body
C
smaller body to larger body
.
D
larger body to smaller body
.
50. The heating of air, without any change in its specific humidity, is known as sensible heating.
A
True
.
B. False

1. The heat transfer from a hot body to a cold body is directly proportional to the surface area
and difference of temperatures between the two bodies. This statement is called
A
First law of thermodynamics
.
B. Newton's law of cooling
C
Newton's law of heating
.
D
Stefan's law
.
2. The pressure at the inlet of a refrigerant compressor is called
521
A
suction pressure
.
B. discharge pressure
C
critical pressure
.
D
back pressure
.
3. The process, generally used in summer air conditioning to cool and dehumidify the air, is
called
A
humidification
.
B. dehumidification
C
heating and humidification
.
D
.
4. The leakage in a refrigeration system using ammonia is detected by

A
halide torch
.
B. sulphur sticks
C
soap and water
.
D
all of these
.
5. The lowest temperature during the cycle in a vapour compression system occurs after
A
compression
.
522
B. expansion
C
condensation
.
D
evaporation
.
6. The temperature of air recorded by a thermometer, when it is not affected by the moisture
present in the air, is called
A
.
B. dry bulb temperature
C
.
D
none of these
.
7. A human body feels comfortable when the heat produced by the metabolism of human body
is equal to the
A
heat dissipated to the surroundings
.
B. heat stored in the human body
C
sum of (a) and (b)
.
D
difference of (a) and (b)
.
8. During sensible cooling,

A
relative humidity remains constant
.
B. wet bulb temperature increases
523
C
specific humidity increases
.
D
partial pressure of vapour remains constant
.
9. The wave length of the radiation emitted depends only on the temperature and is independent
of the material of the body.
A
True
.
B. False
10. The process of heat transfer from one particle of the body to another by the actual motion of
the heated particles, is called
A
conduction
.
B. convection
C
radiation
.
11. In a domestic refrigerator, a capillary tube controls the flow of refrigerant from the
A
expansion valve to the evaporator
.
B. evaporator to the thermostat
C
condenser to the expansion valve
.
D
condenser to the evaporator
.
12. The absolute humidity is the mass of water vapour present in 1 m3 of dry air.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
524
13. In a vapour absorption refrigeration system, the compressor of the vapour compression
system is replaced by
A
liquid pump
.
B. generator
C
absorber and generator
.
D
absorber, generator and liquid pump
.
14. The refrigerant used in small-tonnage commercial machines (hermetically sealed units) is
A
ammonia
.
B. carbon dioxide
C
sulphur dioxide
.
D
R-12
.
15. In a lithium bromide absorption refrigeration system

A
lithium bromide is used as a refrigerant and water as an absorbent
.
B. water is used as a refrigerant and lithium bromide as an absorbent
C
ammonia is used as a refrigerant and lithium bromide as an absorbent
.
D
none of the above
.
16. A condenser is used in the __________ pressure side of a refrigerating system.

A
525
B. high
17. A steam pipe is to be lined with two layers of insulating materials of different thermal
conductivities. For the minimum heat transfer,
A
the better insulation must be put inside
.
B. the better insulation must be put outside
C
one could place either insulation on either side
.
D one should take into account the steam temperature before deciding as to which
. insulation is put where
18. In a parallel flow heat exchanger, the rate of flow of heat and the rate of decrease of
temperature are maximum.
A
Yes
.
B. No
19. When the air is passed through an insulated chamber having sprays of water maintained at a
temperature higher than the dew point temperature of entering air but lower than its dry bulb
temperature, then the air is said to be
A
cooled and humidified
.
B. cooled and dehumidified
C
heated and humidified
.
D
heated and dehumidified
.

A The performance of the vapour compression refrigerator varies considerably with both
. vaporising and condensing temperatures.
526
B. In vapour compression cycle, the useful part of the heat transfer is at the condenser.
C
In ammonia-hydrogen (electolux) refrigerator, no compressor, pump or fan is required.
.
D The effect of under-cooling the liquid refrigerant is to decrease the coefficient of

. performance.
21. It is desired to condition the outside air from 70% relative humidity and 45 C dry bulb
temperature to 50% relative humidity and 25 C dry bulb temperature (room condition). The
practical arrangement will be
A
dehumidification
.
B. cooling and humidification
C
.
D
dehumidification and pure sensible cooling
.
22. During heating and dehumidification process, dry bulb temperature

A
remains constant
.
B. increases
C
decreases
.
23. The C.O.P. of a refrigerator working on a reversed Carnot cycle is (where T1 = Lowest
absolute temperature, and T2 = Highest absolute temperature)
A
.
B.
527
C
.
D
.
24. A refrigerant compressor is used to

A
raise the pressure of the refrigerant
.
B. raise the temperature of the refrigerant
C
circulate the refrigerant through the refrigerating system
.
D
all of the above
.
25. In which of the following refrigeration system, waste heat can be effectively used?
A
Vapour compression cycle
.
B. Vapour absorption cycle
C
Air refrigeration cycle
.
D
none of these
.
26. During heating and humidification, the final relative humidity of air
A
is higher than that of the entering air
.
B. is lower than that of the entering air
C
can be lower or higher than that of the entering air
.
528
D
none of the above
.
27. The fluids used in electrolux refrigerator are

A
water and hydrogen
.
B. ammonia and hydrogen
C
ammonia, water and hydrogen
.
D
none of these
.
28. The process of undercooling is generally brought about by

A
circulating more quantity of cooling water through the condenser
.
B. using water colder than the main circulating water
C
employing a heat exchanger
.
D
.
29. The refrigerant after condensation process is cooled below the saturation temperature before
throttling. Such a process is called
A
sub-cooling or under-cooling
.
B. super-cooling
C
normal cooling
.
D
none of these
.
529
30. R-12 has the __________ freezing point.
A
lowest
.
B. highest
31. The power per tonne of refrigeration is

A
3.5/C.O.P.
.
B. C.O.P/3.5
C
3.5 x C.O.P.
.
D
none of these
.
32. The process of heat transfer from one particle of the fluid to another by the actual movement
of the fluid particles due to difference of density caused by temperature of the particle is
known as
A
conduction
.
B. free convection
C
forced convection
.
D
radiation
.
33. The thermostatic expansion valve is also called

A
constant pressure valve
.
B. constant temperature valve
530
C
constant superheat valve
.
D
none of these
.
34. In figure shown, E is a heat engine with efficiency of 0.4 and R is a refrigerator. It is given
that Q2 + Q4 = 3Q1. The C.O.P. of the refrigerator is
A
2.5
.
B. 3.0
C
4.0
.
D
5.0
.
35. The specific humidity during cooling and dehumidification

A
remains constant
.
B. increases
C
decreases
.
36. The capillary tube, as an expansion device, is used in

A
domestic refrigerators
.
531
B. water coolers
C
room air conditioners
.
D
all of these
.
37. In aircraft, air refrigeration Cycle is used because of

A
low weight per tonne of refrigeration
.
B. high heat transfer rate
C
low temperature at high altitudes
.
D
higher coefficient of performance
.
38. The material of pipe lines for a system using freon as a refrigerant should be
A
brass
.
B. copper
C
steel
.
D
aluminium
.
39. The temperature of air recorded by a thermometer, when the moisture present in it begins to
condense, is called wet bulb temperature.
A
Yes
.
B. No
40. In a pressure enthalpy chart, the space to the left of the saturated liquid line represents
A
532
B. superheated vapour region
C
sub-cooled liquid region
.
D
none of these
.
41. During sensible heating of air __________ decreases.

A
.
C
.
D
specific humidity
.
42. The overall coefficient of heat transfer is used in problems of

A
conduction
.
B. convection
C
radiation
.
D
conduction and convection
.
43. The boiling point of R-12 is about - 30C.

A
True
.
B. False
533
8. Production Engineering
Production Engineering - Section 1

1. Segmental chips are formed during machining
A
mild steel
.
B. cast iron
C
high speed steel
.
D
high carbon steel
.
2. Cemented carbide tool tips are produced by powder metallurgy.

A
True
.
B. False
3. If the diameter of the hole is subject to considerable variation, then for locating in jigs and
fixtures, the pressure type of locator used is
A
conical locator
.
B. cylindrical locator
C
diamond pin locator
.
D
vee locator
.
4. Side rake angle of a single point cutting tool is the angle
534
A
by which the face of the tool is inclined towards back
.
B. by which the face of the tool is inclined sideways
C between the surface of the flank immediately below the point and a plane at right
. angles to the centre line of the point of the tool
D between the surface of the flank immediately below the point and a line drawn from
. the point perpendicular to the base
5. Internal gears can be made by

A
hobbing
.
B. shaping with pinion cutter
C
shaping with rack cutter
.
D
milling
.
6. In order to prevent tool from rubbing the work __________ on tools are provided.
A
rake angles
.
B. relief angles
7. The silicon carbide abrasive is chiefly used for grinding

A
cemented carbide
.
B. ceramic
C
cast iron
.
D all of these
535
.
8. Drilling is an example of
A
orthogonal cutting
.
B. oblique cutting
C
simple cutting
.
D
uniform cutting
.
9. A round nose tool may be fed either from left to right end or from right to left end of the
lathe bed.
A
Yes
.
B. No
10. When the cutting edge of the tool is dull, then during machining
A
continuous chips are formed
.
B. discontinuous chips are formed
C
continuous chips with built-up edge are formed
.
D
no chips are formed
.
11. A fine grained grinding wheel is used to grind hard materials.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
12. Cast iron during machining produces

A
536
B. discontinuous chips
C
continuous chips with built-up-edge
.
D
none of these
.
13. A single point thread cutting tool should ideally have

A
zero rake angle
.
B. positive rake angle
C
negative rake angle
.
D
point angle
.
14. The work or surface speed for cylindrical grinding varies from
A
5 to 10 m/min
.
B. 10 to 20 m/min
C
20 to 30 m/min
.
D
40 to 60 m/min
.
15. The cutting tool in a milling machine is mounted on

A
spindle
.
B. arbor
C column
537
.
D
knee
.
16. The tool made of cemented carbide wear out faster at

A
slow speeds
.
B. medium speeds
C
fast speeds
.
D
very fast speeds
.
17. A push broach as compared to pull broach

A
has less number of teeth
.
B. is short and stocky
C
removes less material for each pass of the tool
.
D
all of the above
.
18. Twist drills are made of

A
high speed steel
.
B. carbon steel
C
stainless steel
.
D either (a) or (b)
538
.
19. A twist drill is a

A
side cutting tool
.
B. front cutting tool
C
end cutting tool
.
D
none of these
.
20. The rake angle required to machine brass by high speed steel tool is
A
0
.
B. 10
C
20
.
D
-10
.
21. The lip angle of a single point tool is usually

A
20 to 40
.
B. 40 to 60
C
60 to 80
.
D
none of these
.
22. The average cutting speed for turning brass with a high speed steel tool is
A
15 to 19 m/min
.
539
B. 25 to 31 m/min
C
60 to 90 m/min
.
D
90 to 120 m/min
.
23. The maximum production of small and slender parts is done by

A
watch maker's lathe
.
B. sliding head stock automatic lathe
C
multispindle automatic lathe
.
D
capastan lathe
.
24. Side rake angle on tools is provided to control chip flow.

A
True
.
B. False
25. The method of grinding used to produce a straight or tapered surface on a workpiece, is
A
internal cylindrical grinding
.
B. form grinding
C
external cylindrical grinding
.
D
surface grinding
.
26. A fixture does not guide the tool.

A
Correct
.
540
B. Incorrect
27. Crater wear occurs mainly on the

A
nose part, front relief face and side relief face of the cutting tool
.
B. face of the cutting tool at a short distance from the cutting edge only
C
cutting edge only
.
D
front face only
.
28. Gear lapping is an operation

A
after heat treatment
.
B. prior to heat treatment
C
for gear reconditioning
.
D
none of these
.
29. The facing is an operation of

A
bevelling the extreme end of a work piece
.
B. embossing a diamond shaped pattern on the surface of a work piece
C
reducing the diameter of a work piece over a very narrow surface
.
D
machining the ends of a work piece to produce a flat surface square with the axis
.
30. A fixture is defined as a device which

A
holds and locates a work piece and guides and controls one or more cutting tools
.
541
B. holds and locates a work piece during an inspection or for a manufacturing operation
C
is used to check the accuracy of work piece
.
D
all of the above
.
31. A drill considered as a cutting tool having zero rake, is known as a

A
flat drill
.
B. straight fluted drill
C
parallel shank twist drill
.
D
tapered shank twist drill
.
32. Which of the following statement is wrong about ultra-sonic machining?

A
It is best suited for machining hard and brittle materials.
.
B. It cuts materials at very slow speeds.
C
It removes large amount of material.
.
D
It produces good surface finish.
.
33. In oblique cutting system, the maximum chip thickness occurs at the middle.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
34. Larger end cutting edge angle __________ tool life.

A
increases
.
542
B. decreases
C
does not effect
.
35. The lead screw of a lathe has __________ threads.

A
single start
.
B. double start
C
multi-start
.
D
any one of these
.
36. A left hand tool on a lathe cuts most efficiently when it travels
A
from left to right end of the lathe bed
.
B. from right to left end of the lathe bed
C
with the help of a compound slide
.
D
across the bed
.
37. The correct sequence of tool materials in increasing order of their ability to retain their hot
hardness is
A
carbide, ceramic, cermet, borazon
.
B. ceramic, carbide, borazon, cermet
C
cermet, carbide, ceramic, borazon
.
543
D
borazon, ceramic, carbide, cermet
.
38. Which of the following statement is incorrect with reference of lathe cutting tools?
A
The flank of the tool is the surface or surfaces below and adjacent to the cutting edges
.
The nose is the corner, arc or chamfer joining the side cutting and the end cutting
B.
edges
C
The heel is that part of the tool which is shaped to produce the cutting edges and face
.
D The base is that surface of the shank which bears against the support and takes tangent
. pressure of the cut
39. In the relation VTn = C, the value of n for carbide tools is

A
0.1 to 0.2
.
B. 0.20 to 0.25
C
0.25 to 0.40
.
D
0.40 to 0.55
.
40. In up milling, the thickness of chip is

A
minimum at the beginning of the cut and maximum at the end of the cut
.
B. maximum at the beginning of the cut and minimum at the end of the cut
C
uniform throughout the cut
.
D
none of these
.
544
41. The machining of titanium is difficult due to
A
high thermal conductivity of titanium
.
B. chemical reaction between tool and work
C
low tool-chip contact area
.
D
none of these
.
42. In orthogonal cutting system, the maximum chip thickness occurs at the middle.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
43. Lapping is an operation of

A
making a cone-shaped enlargement of the end of a hole
.
B. smoothing and squaring the surface around a hole
C
sizing and finishing a small diameter hole
.
D
producing a hole by removing metal along the circumference of a hollow cutting tool
.
44. The different spindle speeds on a lathe form

A
arithmetical progression
.
B. geometrical progression
C
harmonical progression
.
545
D
any one of these
.
45. If the helix angle of the drill is made __________ 30, then the torque required to drive the
drill at a given feed will be more.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
more than
.
46. The angle included between the two lips projected upon a plane parallel to the drill axis and
paralled to the two cutting lips, is called helix angle.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
47. In hot machining, tool is made of

A
tungsten carbide
.
B. brass or copper
C
diamond
.
D
stainless steel
.
48. In ultra-sonic machining, the metal is removed by

A
using abrasive slurry between the tool and work
.
B. direct contact of tool with the work
546
C maintaining an electrolyte between the work and tool in a very small gap between the
. two
D
erosion caused by rapidly recurring spark discharges between the tool and work
.
49. The velocity of tool relative to the workpiece is known as cutting velocity.
A
True
.
B. False
50. Grinding wheels should be tested for balance

A
only at the time of manufacture
.
B. before starting the grinding operation
C
at the end of grinding operation
.
D
occasionally
.

1. The example of snag grinding is
A
trimming the surface left by sprues and risers on castings
.
B. grinding the parting line left on castings
C
removing flash on forgings
.
D
all of these
.
2. The angle between the shear plane and __________ is called shear angle.
547
A
work surface
.
B. tool face
3. In machining soft materials, a tool with negative relief angle is used.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
4. Which of the following parameters influence the axial feed rate in centreless grinding?
A
Regulating wheel diameter
.
B. Speed of the regulating wheel
C
Angle between the axes of grinding and regulating wheels
.
D
all of the above
.
5. The lathe spindles are usually made hollow and provided with
A
internal taper
.
B. external taper
C
internal and external taper
.
D
no taper
.
6. The top and sides of the table of a shaper usually have

A
L-type slots
.
548
B. T-type slots
C
I-type slots
.
D
any one of these
.
7. The binding material used in cemented carbide tools is

A
tungsten
.
B. chromium
C
silicon
.
D
cobalt
.
8. In machining metals, chips break due to __________ of work material.

A
toughness
.
B. ductility
C
elasticity
.
D
work hardening
.
9. For softer materials, the point angle of the drill is kept

A
equal to 118
.
B. less than 118
C more than 118
549
.
D
any one of these
.
10. When the backgear is engaged in a backgeared headstock, the spindle speed reduces
considerably.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
11. In continuous chip cutting, the maximum heat is taken by the cutting tool.
A
Yes
.
B. No
12. Which of the following statement is correct regarding grinding of high carbon steel?
A Grinding at high speed results in the reduction of chip thickness and cutting forces per
. grit.
B. Aluminium oxide wheels are employed.
C
The grinding wheel has to be of open structure.
.
D
all of the above
.
13. The rear teeth of a broach

A
perform burnishing operation
.
B. remove minimum metal
C
remove maximum metal
.
550
D
remove no metal
.
14. High speed steel drills can be operated at about __________ the speed of high carbon steel
drills.
A
one-half
.
B. one-fourth
C
double
.
D
four times
.
15. When the end of a tap is tapered for about three or four threads, it is known as a
A
taper tap
.
B. bottoming tap
C
second tap
.
D
none of these
.
16. Crater wear is predominant in

A
carbon tool steels
.
B. tungsten carbide tools
C
high speed steel tools
.
D
ceramic tools
.
551
17. The method of centreless grinding used to produce taper is
A
infeed grinding
.
B. through feed grinding
C
endfeed grinding
.
D
any one of these
.
18. In a shaper, the length of stroke is increased by

A
increasing the centre distance of bull gear and crank pin
.
B. decreasing the centre distance of bull gear and crank pin
C
increasing the length of the arm
.
D
decreasing the length of the slot in the slotted lever
.
19. Carbon tool steels have low-heat and wear-resistance.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
20. Trepanning is an operation of

A
making a cone-shaped enlargement of the end of a hole
.
B. smoothing and squaring the surface around a hole
C
sizing and finishing a small diameter hole
.
552
D
.
21. The abrasive recommended for grinding materials of high tensile strength is
A
silicon carbide
.
B. aluminium oxide
C
sand stone
.
D
diamond
.
22. The factor responsible for the formation of continuous chips with built up edge is
A
low cutting speed and large rake angle
.
B. low cutting speed and small rake angle
C
high cutting speed and large rake angle
.
D
high cutting speed and small rake angle
.
23. An important geometrical quantity in the cutting of metals which can be used as a criterion
for machinability of metals is
A
cutting speed
.
B. feed rate
C
shear angle
.
D
tool geometry
.
553
24. In centreless grinding, the surface speed of regulating wheel is
A
5 to 15 m/min
.
B. 15 to 60 m/min
C
60 to 90 m/min
.
D
90 to 120 m/min
.
25. In metal cutting, use of low feeds and high cutting speeds is desired when the objective is
A
high metal removal rate
.
B. dry machining
C
use of soft cutting tool
.
D
surface finish
.
26. The angle on which the strength of the tool depends is

A
rake angle
.
B. cutting angle
C
clearance angle
.
D
lip angle
.
27. Larger than 15 side cutting edge angle

A
increases tool life
.
554
B. decreases tool life
C
produces chipping and decreases tool life
.
D
results in excessive stress concentration and greater heat generation
.
28. Which of the following statement is correct for orthogonal cutting system?
A
The cutting edge of the tool is perpendicular to the direction of tool travel.
.
B. The cutting edge clears the width of the work piece on either ends.
C The chip flows over the tool face and the direction of the chip flow velocity is normal
. to the cutting edge.
D
all of the above
.
29. The angle made by the face of the tool and the plane parallel to the base of cutting tool is
called
A
rake angle
.
B. cutting angle
C
clearance angle
.
D
lip angle
.
30. In case of turning, as the machining proceeds, the spindle speed must __________ with the
decrease in diameter of work.
A
decrease
.
B. increase
555
31. Back rake angle of a single point tool is the angle by which the face of the tool is inclined
towards back.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
32. As the cutting speed increases, tool life decreases.

A
Yes
.
B. No
33. In metal machining, the work-tool contact zone is a zone where heat is generated due to
A
plastic deformation of metal
.
B. burnishing friction
C
friction between the moving chip and the tool face
.
D
none of the above
.
34. Thread grinding requires work speed from

A
1 to 3 m/min
.
B. 5 to 10 m/min
C
10 to 14 m/min
.
D
14 to 20 m/min
.
35. Threading is an operation of

A
smoothing and squaring the surface around a hole
.
556
B. sizing and finishing a small diameter hole
C
.
D
cutting helical grooves on the external cylindrical surface
.
36. Glazing in grinding wheels can be decreased by

A
using a harder wheel or by increasing the wheel speed
.
B. using a softer wheel or by decreasing the wheel speed
C
using a harder wheel or by decreasing the wheel speed
.
D
using a softer wheel or by increasing the wheel speed
.
37. The cutting speed is minimum while machining __________ with a high speed steel tool.
A
cast iron
.
B. mild steel
C
brass
.
D
aluminium
.
38. A process of removing metal by pushing or pulling a cutting tool is called

A
up milling
.
B. down milling
C forming
557
.
D
broaching
.
39. The hardness of a grinding wheel is specified by

A
Brinell hardness number
.
B. Rockwel! hardness number
C
Vickers pyramid number
.
D
letter of alphabet
.
40. Which of the following operations can be performed with milling cutters?
A
cutting key ways on shafts
.
B. cutting external screw threads
C
cutting teeth of spur gears
.
D
all of these
.
41. While cutting helical gears on a non-differential gear hobber, the feed change gear ratio is
A
independent of index change gear ratio
.
B. dependent on speed change gear ratio
C
inter-related to index change gear ratio
.
D independent of speed and index change gear ratio
558
.
42. The swing diameter over the bed is __________ the height of the centre measured from the
bed of the lathe.
A
equal to
.
B. twice
C
thrice
.
D
one-half
.
43. In grinding irregular, curved, tapered, convex and concave surfaces, the grinder used is
A
cylindrical grinder
.
B. internal grinder
C
surface grinder
.
D
tool and cutter grinder
.
44. Down milling is also called

A
conventional milling
.
B. climb milling
C
end milling
.
D
face milling
.
45. Any number of equal divisions can be obtained on milling machine by

A
559
B. simple indexing
C
compound indexing
.
D
differential indexing
.
46. The depth of cut in drilling is __________ the drill diameter.

A
equal to
.
B. one-fourth
C
one-half
.
D
double
.
47. The type of tool used on lathe, shaper and planer is

A
single point cutting tool
.
B. two point cutting tool
C
three point cutting tool
.
D
multi-point cutting tool
.
48. A __________ grinding wheel is used to grind soft materials.

A
coarse grained
.
B. medium grained
C Fine grained
560
.
49. The relation between tool life (T) and cutting speed (V) is VTn = Constant. In this relation, the
value of n depends upon
A
work material
.
B. tool material
C
working conditions
.
D
type of chip produced
.
50. In order to grind soft material

A
coarse grained grinding wheel is used
.
B. fine grained grinding wheel is used
C
medium grained grinding wheel is used
.
D
any one of these
.

1. In centreless grinders, the maximum angular adjustment of the regulating wheel is
A
5
.
B. 10
C
15
.
D 20
561
.
2. The type of reamer used for reaming operation in a blind hole, is

A
straight fluted reamer
.
B. left hand spiral fluted reamer
C
right hand spiral fluted reamer
.
D
any one of these
.
3. In a single point tool, the angle between the surface of the flank immediately below the point
and a line drawn from the point perpendicular to the base, is known as
A
side relief angle
.
B. end relief angle
C
back rake angle
.
D
side rake angle
.
4. A set of eight form relieved milling cutters for each module is provided to enable cutting of
gears of different
A
materials
.
B. types of gears
C
number of teeth
.
D
width of gears
.
562
5. Crater wear is usually found while machining brittle materials.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
6. The grinding operaion is a

A
shaping operation
.
B. forming operation
C
surface finishing operation
.
D
dressing operation
.
7. The guideways are of

A
flat type
.
B. V-type
C
dovetail type
.
D
any one of these
.
8. The snag grinding is done

A
to produce good surface finish and high degree of accuracy
.
to remove considerable amount of metal without regard to accuracy of the finished

B.
surface
C
to grind exterior cylindrical surfaces
.
563
D
.
9. The velocity of tool along the tool face is known as

A
shear velocity
.
B. chip velocity
C
cutting velocity
.
D
mean velocity
.
10. The purpose of jigs and fixtures is to

A
increase machining accuracy
.
B. facilitate interchangeability
C
decrease expenditure on quality control
.
D
all of these
.
11. In hot machining, solid carbide tools are preferred over high speed steel tools.
A
True
.
B. False
12. The trade name of a non-ferrous cast alloy composed of cobalt, chromium and tungsten is
called
A
ceramic
.
B. stellite
564
C
diamond
.
D
cemented carbide
.
13. In which of the following milling machine, the table can be tilted in a vertical plane by
providing a swivel arrangement at the knee?
A
Universal milling machine
.
B. Plain milling machine
C
Omniversal milling machine
.
D
Hand milling machine
.
14. A coarse grained grinding wheel is used to grind

A
hard and brittle materials
.
B. soft and ductile materials
C
hard and ductile materials
.
D
soft and brittle materials
.
15. The abrasive slurry used in ultra-sonic machining contains fine particles of
A
aluminium oxide
.
B. boron carbide
C
silicon carbide
.
565
D
any one of these
.
16. High speed steel cutting tools operate at cutting speeds __________ than carbon steel tools.
A
2 to 3 times lower
.
B. 2 to 3 times higher
C
5 to 8 times higher
.
D
8 to 20 times higher
.
17. The factor which affects the tool life is

A
tool geometry
.
B. cutting speed
C
feed rate
.
D
all of these
.
18. In lapping operaion, the amount of metal removed is

A
0.005 to 0.01 mm
.
B. 0.01 to 0.1 mm
C
0.05 to 0.1 mm
.
D
0.5 to 1 mm
.
19. The cutting force in up milling __________ per tooth movement of the cutter.
A
566
B. is maximum
C
decreases from maximum to zero
.
D
increases from zero to maximum
.
20. The height of each tooth of a broach is

A
same throughout
.
B. in progressively decreasing order
C
in progressively increasing order
.
D
none of these
.
21. A right hand tool on a lathe cuts most efficiently when it travels
A
from left to right end of the lathe bed
.
B. from right to left end of the lathe bed
C
with the help of a compound slide
.
D
across the bed
.
22. The surface finish is improved by the increase in

A
cutting speed
.
B. nose radius
C true rake angle
567
.
D
all of these
.
23. The cutting speed for drilling copper with high speed steel drills varies from
A
10 to 20 m/min
.
B. 18 to 30 m/min
C
24 to 45 m/min
.
D
60 to 90 m/min
.
24. A dense structure of a grinding wheel is denoted by the number 9 to 15 or higher.

A
Yes
.
B. No
25. High speed steel tools retain their hardness up to a temperature of

A
250C
.
B. 350C
C
500C
.
D
900C
.
26. A taper tap has

A
its end tapered for about three or four threads
.
568
B. its end tapered for about eight or ten threads
C
full threads for the whole of its length
.
D
none of the above
.
27. For machining a mild steel work piece using carbide tool, the maximum material will be
removed at a temperature of
A
50C
.
B. 100C
C
175C
.
D
275C
.

A The diamond is the hardest tool material and can run at cutting speeds about 50 times
. that of high speed steel tool.
B. The ceramic tools can be used at cutting speeds 40 times that of high speed steel tools.
C The cemented carbide tools can be used at cutting speeds 10 times that of high speed
. steel tools.
D
The ceramic tools can withstand temperature upto 600C only.
.
29. Climb milling is chosen while machining because

A
the chip thickness increase gradually
.
B. it enables the cutter to dig in and start the cut
569
C
the specific power consumption is reduced
.
D
better surface finish can be obtained
.
30. The material which on machining produces chips with built up edge is
A
brittle material
.
B. tough material
C
hard material
.
D
ductile material
.
31. In down milling, the thickness of chip is

A
minimum at the beginning of the cut and maximum at the end of the cut
.
B. maximum at the beginning of the cut and minimum at the end of the cut
C
uniform throughout the cut
.
D
none of these
.
32. The chuck used for setting up of heavy and irregular shaped work should be
A
four jaw independent chuck
.
B. three jaw universal chuck
C
magnetic chuck
.
570
D
drill chuck
.
33. Which of the following operations is carried out at a minimum cutting velocity if the
machines are equally rigid and the tool work materials are the same?
A
Turning
.
B. Grinding
C
Boring
.
D
Milling
.
34. Ceramic tools are fixed to tool body by

A
soldering
.
B. brazing
C
welding
.
D
clamping
.
35. The soft grade grinding wheels are denoted by the letters
A
A to H
.
B. I to P
C
Q to Z
.
D
A to P
.
571
36. The helix angle of a drill is __________ for drilling brass.
A
equal to 30
.
B. less than 30
C
more than 30
.
37. In continuous chip cutting, the maximum heat __________ the velocity of cutting.
A
depends upon
.
B. does not depend upon
38. In a universal milling machine, the table can be swiveled horizontally and can be fed at an
angle to the milling machine spindle.
A
True
.
B. False
39. The size of a shaper is given by

A
stroke length
.
B. motor power
C
mass of machine
.
D
rate size
.
40. The tool life, in case of continuous cutting, is much better than intermittent cutting.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
572
41. The main purpose of a boring operation, as compared to drilling, is to
A
drill a hole
.
B. finish the drilled hole
C
correct the hole
.
D
enlarge the existing hole
.
42. Carbide tipped tools usually have

A
negative rake angle
.
B. positive rake angle
C
any rake angle
.
D
no rake angle
.
43. Gear burnishing is a process for

A
surface finishing
.
B. under-cut gears
C
cycloidal gears
.
D
removing residual stresses from teeth roots
.
44. The continuous chips are in the form of long coils having the same thickness throughout.
A
Agree
.
573
B. Disagree
45. The saw milling is an operation of

A
producing grooves around the periphery of a cylindrical or conical workpiece
.
B. producing narrow slots or grooves on a workpiece
C
reproduction of an outline of a template on a workpiece
.
D
machining several surfaces of a workpiece simultaneously
.
46. The high cutting speed and large rake angle of the tool will result in the formation of
A
continuous chips
.
B. discontinuous chip
C
continuous chips with built up edge
.
D
none of these
.
47. Cutting fluid has no effect on the tool life.

A
True
.
B. False
48. The chisel edge angle of a drill is usually 120 to 135.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
49. The cutting speed of a drill varies from point to point on the cutting edge of the drill.
A
Correct
.
574
B. Incorrect
50. In oblique cutting system, the maximum chip thickness

A
occurs at the middle
.
B. may not occur at the middle
C
depends upon the material of the tool
.
D
depends upon the geometry of the tool
.

1. Dielectric is used in
A
electro-chemical machining
.
B. ultra-sonic machining
C
electro-discharge machining
.
D
laser machining
.
2. The type of reamer used for reaming soft aluminium or copper, is

A
straight fluted reamer
.
B. left hand spiral fluted reamer
C
right hand spiral fluted reamer
.
575
D
any one of these
.
3. The tool material, for faster machining, should have

A
wear resistance
.
B. red hardness
C
toughness
.
D
all of these
.
4. The helix angle of a drill is more than 30 for drilling aluminium.

A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
5. In a single point turning operation with a cemented carbide and steel combination having a
Taylor exponent of 0.25, if the cutting speed is halved, then tool life will become
A
half
.
B. two times
C
eight times
.
D
sixteen times
.
6. An open structure of a grinding wheel is used for

A
soft materials
.
B. tough materials
576
C
ductile materials
.
D
all of these
.
7. A twist drill is specified by its

A
shank, material and diameter
.
B. shank, lip angle and size of flute
C
material, length of body and helix angle
.
D
any one of these
.
8. The hole to be drilled for tapping is __________ the outside diameter of the thread on the
tap.
A
equal to
.
B. smaller than
C
greater than
.
9. Glazing in grinding wheels takes place when the

A
wheel is too hard or wheel revolves at a very high speed
.
B. wheel is too soft or wheel revolves at a very slow speed
C
wheel is too hard and wheel revolves at very slow speed
.
D
wheel is too soft and wheel revolves at a very high speed
.
577
10. Low helix angle drills are preferred for drilling holes in
A
plastics
.
B. copper
C
cast steel
.
D
carbon steel
.
11. In which of the following machine, the work remains stationary and the tool is rotated?
A
Vertical boring machine
.
B. Horizontal boring machine
C
Precision boring machine
.
D
Jig boring machine
.
12. The ratio between two consecutive spindle speeds for a six-speed drilling machine using
drills of diameter 6.25 to 25 mm size and at a cutting velocity of 18 m/min is
A
1.02
.
B. 1.32
C
1.66
.
D
1.82
.
13. The cutting speed of a drill depends upon the

A
material of drill
.
578
B. type of material to be drilled
C
quality of surface finish desired
.
D
all of these
.
14. The part of the tool on which cutting edge is formed is called nose.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
15. The chamfering is an essential operation after

A
knurling
.
B. rough turning
C
boring
.
D
thread cutting
.
16. The broaching operation in which either the work or the tool moves across the other, is
known as
A
pull broaching
.
B. push broaching
C
surface broaching
.
D
continuous broaching
.
17. Ultra-sonic machining is best suited for

A
579
B. sintered carbides
C
glass
.
D
all of these
.
18. In plunge grinding

A the work is reciprocated as the wheel feeds to produce cylinders longer than the width
. of wheel face
the work rotates in a fixed position as the wheel feeds to produce cylinders equal to or
B.
shorter than the width of wheel face
C the work is reciprocated as the wheel feeds to produce cylinders shorter than the width
. of wheel face
D the work rotates in a fixed position as the wheel feeds to produce cylinders longer than
. the width of wheel face
19. When the grinding wheel is marked by the letters from I to P, it indicates that the grinding
wheel is of hard grade.
A
True
.
B. False
20. A 15 mm drilling machine means that it can drill a hole

A
ofmaximumdiameter 15 mm
.
B. in 15 mm thick plates
C
having cross-sectional area of 15 mm2
.
D
none of these
.
580
21. The tap used to cut threads in a blind hole is
A
taper tap
.
B. second tap
C
bottoming tap
.
D
any one of these
.
22. A jig is defined as a device which

A
holds and locates a workpiece and guides and controls one or more cutting tools
.
B. holds and locates a workpiece during an inspection or for a manufacturing operation
C
is used to check the accuracy of workpiece
.
D
all of the above
.
23. A mandrel is used to hold

A
an eccentric work
.
B. a heavy work
C
a thin work
.
D
none of these
.
24. Jigs are used

A
for holding and guiding the tool in drilling, reaming or tapping operations
.
581
B. for holding the work in milling, grinding, planing or turning operations
C
to check the accuracy of workpiece
.
D
none of the above
.
25. The swing diameter over carriage is always less than the swing diameter over bed.
A
Yes
.
B. No
26. The size of abrasive grain required in a grinding wheel depends upon the
A
amount of material to be removed
.
B. hardness of material being ground
C
finish desired
.
D
all of these
.
27. A grinding wheel is said to be of __________ if it holds the abrasive grains more securely.
A
soft grade
.
B. medium grade
C
hard grade
.
28. A dense structure of a grinding wheel is used for

A
hard materials
.
582
B. brittle materials
C
fnishing cuts
.
D
all of these
.
29. The keyways, grooves and slots cannot be cut on a shaper.

A
True
.
B. False
30. Side relief angle of a single point tool is the angle

A
by which the face of the tool is inclined towards back
.
B. by which the face of the tool is inclined sideways
C between the surface of the flank immediately below the point and a plane at right
. angles to the centre line of the point of tool
D between the surface of the flank immediately below the point and a line drawn from
. the point perpendicular to the base
31. Gears can be best produced on mass production by

A
shaping
.
B. casting
C
forming
.
D
hobbing
.
32. In a plain milling machine, the table can be moved

A
longitudinally
.
583
B. crosswise
C
vertically
.
D
all of these
.
33. In drilling operation, the metal is removed by

A
shearing
.
B. extrusion
C
shearing and extrusion
.
D
shearing and compression
.
34. A single point tool has

A
rake angle
.
B. cutting angle
C
lip angle
.
D
all of these
.
35. In hot machining, the work is heated by

A
simple heating
.
B. flame heating
C induction heating
584
.
D
any one of these
.
36. The type of tool used on milling machine and broaching machine is
A
single point cutting tool
.
B. two point cutting tool
C
three point cutting tool
.
D
multi-point cutting tool
.
37. Which of the following statement is correct for oblique cutting system?
A The cutting edge is inclined at an angle less than 90 with the normal to the velocity of
. the tool.
B. Frequently, more than one cutting edges are in action.
C The chip flows on the tool face at an angle less than 90 with the normal on the
. cutting edge.
D
all of the above
.
38. When the tool moves parallel to the lathe axis, the movement is termed as
A
cross feed
.
B. angular feed
C
longitudinal feed
.
D any one of these
585
.
39. In the relation VTn = C, the value of n for ceramic tools is

A
0.1 to 0.2
.
B. 0.20 to 0.25
C
0.25 to 0.40
.
D
0.40 to 0.55
.
40. Chip breakers are used to

A
increase tool life
.
B. remove chips from bed
C
break the chips into short segments
.
D
to minimise heat generation
.
41. The factor responsible for the formation of discontinuous chips is

A
low cutting speed and large rake angle
.
B. low cutting speed and small rake angle
C
high cutting speed and large rake angle
.
D
high cutting speed and small rake angle
.
42. The stroke of a shaping machine is 250 mm. It makes 30 double strokes per minute. The
overall average speed of operation is
A
586
B. 5 m/min
C
7.5 m/min
.
D
15 m/min
.
43. The actual feed in centreless grinders is given by (where d = Dia. of regulating wheel, n =
Revolutions per minute, and = Angle of inclination of wheel)
A
d
.
B. d n
C
d n sin
.
D
d n cos
.
44. For fast removal of materials during grinding, a __________ grinding wheel is used.
A
coarse grained
.
B. fine grained
C
medium grained
.
45. Which of the following process is used for preparing parts having large curved surfaces and
thin sections?
A
Hot machining
.
B. Ultra-sonic machining
C
ECM process
.
587
D
Chemical milling
.
46. A grinding wheel becomes glazed (i.e. cutting edge takes a glass-like appearance) due to
A
wear of bond
.
B. breaking of abrasive grains
C
wear of abrasive grains
.
D
cracks on grinding wheel
.
47. To grind brittle materials, a coarse grained grinding wheel is used.

A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
48. Gears can be cut on a shaper.

A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
49. The grade of grinding wheel depends upon

A
hardness of the material being ground
.
B. speed of wheel and work
C
condition of grinding machine
.
D
all of these
.
50. A dynamometer is a device used for the measurement of

A
588
B. forces during metal cutting
C
wear of the cutting tool
.
D
deflection of the cutting tool
.

1. A broach has
A
roughing teeth
.
B. semi-finishing teeth
C
finishing teeth
.
D
all of these
.
2. A round nose tool has no back rake and side rake.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
3. In electro-discharge machining, tool is made of

A
brass
.
B. copper
C
copper tungsten alloy
.
589
D
all of these
.
4. The cutting speed is maximum while machining __________ with a high speed steel tool.
A
cast iron
.
B. mild steel
C
brass
.
D
aluminium
.
5. The obtuse angle, included between the chisel edge and the lip as viewed from the end of a
drill, is called
A
helix or rake angle
.
B. point angle
C
chisel edge angle
.
D
lip clearance angle
.
6. The plain milling machine is more rigid and heavier in construction than a universal milling
machine of the same size.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
7. An operation of embossing a diamond shaped pattern on the surface of a workpiece, is

known as
A
counter-boring
.
590
B. grooving
C
knurling
.
D
facing
.
8. An operation of enlarging the end of a hole cylindrically is known as grooving.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect

A
The larger side rake angle produces chipping.
.
B. The smaller rake angle produces excessive wear and deformation in tool.
C
The side cutting edge angle (less than 15) increases tool life.
.
D
The increase in nose radius decreases tool life.
.
10. It is desired to perform the operations like drilling, reaming, counter-boring etc. on a work
piece. Which of the following machine will be used?
A
Sensitive drilling machine
.
B. Radial drilling machine
C
Gang drilling machine
.
D
Multiple spindle drilling machine
.
11. The lathe centres are provided with standard taper known as
A
591
B. Seller's taper
C
Chapman taper
.
D
Brown and Sharpe taper
.
12. In a plain milling cutter, the portion of the gash adjacent to the cutting edge on which the
chip impinges is called
A
face
.
B. fillet
C
land
.
D
lead
.
13. The grooving is an operation of

A
bevelling the extreme end of a workpiece
.
B. embossing a diamond shaped pattern on the surface of a workpiece
C
reducing the diameter of a workpiece over a very narrow surface
.
D
enlarging the end of a hole cylindrically
.
14. Cutting fluids are used to

A
cool the tool
.
B. improve surface finish
592
C
cool the workpiece
.
D
all of these
.
15. The structure of a grinding wheel depends upon

A
hardness of the material being ground
.
B. nature of the grinding operation
C
finish required
.
D
all of these
.
16. In a plain milling cutter, the chip space between the back of one tooth and the face of the
next tooth is called
A
face
.
B. fillet
C
gash
.
D
land
.
17. In which of the following machine, the work rotates and the tool is stationary?
A
Vertical boring machine
.
B. Horizontal boring machine
C
Precision boring machine
.
593
D
Jig boring machine
.
18. The cutting fluid mostly used for machining alloy steels is
A
water
.
B. soluble oil
C
dry
.
D
sulphurised mineral oil
.
19. The cutting speed is zero at the periphery and it is maximum at the centre of the drill.
A
Yes
.
B. No
20. In metal cutting operations, chips are formed due to plastic deformation of the metal.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
21. Tool life is generally better when

A
grain size of the metal is large
.
B. grain size of the metal is small
C
hard constituents are present in the microstructure of the tool material
.
D
none of the above
.
22. When the metal is removed by erosion caused by rapidly recurring spark discharges between
594
the tool and work, the process is known as
A
electro-chemical machining
.
B. electro-discharge machining
C
ultra-sonic machining
.
D
none of these
.
23. Cemented carbide tools are generally poor in shear.

A
Yes
.
B. No
24. Which of the following statement is wrong as regard to down milling?

A It cannot be used on old machines due to backlash between the feed screw of the table
. and the nut.
B. The chips are disposed off easily and do not interfere with the cutting.
C
The surface milled appears to be slightly wavy.
.
D The coolant can be poured directly at the cutting zone where the cutting force is
. maximum.
25. In reaming process

A
metal removal rate is high
.
B. high surface finish is obtained
C
high form accuracy is obtained
.
595
D
high dimensional accuracy is obtained
.
26. The lathe spindles at the nose end have

A
internal screw threads
.
B. external screw threads
C
no threads
.
D
tapered threads
.
27. The lip clearance angle is the angle formed by the

A
leading edge of the land with a plane having the axis of the drill
.
B. flank and a plane at right angles to the drill axis
C
chisel edge and the lip as viewed from the end of a drill
.
D
none of the above
.
28. Flank wear occurs mainly on the

A
nose part, front relief face and side relief face of the cutting tool
.
B. face of the cutting tool at a short distance from the cutting edge
C
cutting edge only
.
D
front face only
.
29. The process of changing the shape of grinding wheel as it becomes worn due to breaking
596
away of the abrasive and bond, is called
A
truing
.
B. dressing
C
facing
.
D
clearing
.
30. The infeed grinding is similar to plunge grinding.

A
Yes
.
B. No
31. The cutting angle of a flat drill varies from

A
3 to 8
.
B. 20 to 30
C
60 to 90
.
D
90 to 120
.
32. In electro-discharge machining, dielectric is used to

A
help in the movement of the sparks
.
B. control the spark discharges
C
act as coolant
.
597
D
all of these
.
33. In metal cutting operations, the shear angle is the angle made by the shear plane with the
A
direction of the tool axis
.
B. direction of tool travel
C
perpendicular to the direction of the tool axis
.
D
central plane of the workpiece
.
34. The floating position of the holding fixture in a rotary transfer device is used to
A
improve the accuracy of location
.
B. reduce the tendency to over-index
C
improve upon the acceleration and deceleration characteristics
.
D
reduce the cycle time
.
35. The operation of smoothing and squaring the surface around a hole is known as
A
counter-sinking
.
B. counter-boring
C
trepanning
.
D
spot facing
.
36. The cutting force in down milling is maximum when the tooth begins its cut and reduces to
598
minimum when the tooth leaves the work.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
37. The ductile materials, during machining, produce

A
continuous chips
.
B. discontinuous chips
C
continuous chips with built up edge
.
D
either (a) or (c)
.
38. Slow speed of the spindle is necessary in

A
thread cutting
.
B. turning a work of larger diameter
C
turning a hard or tough material
.
D
all of these
.
39. The hole drilled for tapping should be smaller than the tap size by twice the depth of thread.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
40. Relief angles on high speed steel tools usually vary from
A
0 to 3
.
599
B. 3 to 10
C
10 to 20
.
D
20 to 30
.
41. Discontinuous chips are formed during machining of

A
brittle metals
.
B. ductile metals
C
hard metals
.
D
soft metals
.
42. A drill mainly used in drilling brass, copper or softer materials, is

A
flat drill
.
B. straight fluted drill
C
parallel shank twist drill
.
D
tapered shank twist drill
.
43. In a planer
A
tool is stationary and work reciprocates
.
B. work is stationary and tool reciprocates
C tool moves over stationary work
600
.
D
tool moves over reciprocating work
.
44. Which of the following operation is first performed?

A
Spot facing
.
B. Boring
C
Tapping
.
D
Drilling
.
45. The size of a lathe is specified by the

A
length between centres
.
B. swing diameter over the bed
C
swing diameter over the carriage
.
D
all of these
.
46. If the cutting speed is increased, then the built-up-edge

A
becomes longer
.
B. may or may not form
C
becomes smaller and finally does not form at all
.
D has nothing to do with speed
601
.
47. For machining a mild steel workpiece by a high speed steel tool, the average cutting speed is
A
5 m/min
.
B. 10 m/min
C
15 m/min
.
D
30 m/min
.
48. Tool signature consists of __________ elements.

A
two
.
B. four
C
five
.
D
seven
.
49. The negative rake is usually provided on

A
high carbon steel tools
.
B. high speed steel tools
C
cemented carbide tools
.
D
all of these
.
50. The tool life is affected by

A
depth of cut
.
602
B. cutting speed
C
feed
.
D
all of these
.

1. Up milling is also called conventional milling.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
2. Fixtures are used

A
for holding and guiding the tool in drilling, reaming or tapping operations
.
B. for holding the work in milling, grinding, planing or turning operations
C
to check the accuracy of workpiece
.
D
none of the above
.
3. In ultra-sonic machining, tool is made of

A
tungsten carbide
.
B. brass or copper
C
diamond
.
603
D
stainless steel
.
4. Ceramic tools has greater tool life than carbide tools.

A
True
.
B. False
5. The rake angle of a single point cutting tool corresponds to __________ of a twist drill.
A
lip clearance angle
.
B. helix angle
C
point angle
.
D
chisel edge angle
.
6. A tool used to withdraw a drill from the sleeve is called

A
drill remover
.
B. drill puller
C
drift
.
D
drill drawer
.
7. The cutting fluid mostly used for machining steel is

A
water
.
B. soluble oil
604
C
dry
.
D
heavy oils
.
8. The lip angle is the angle

A
between the tool face and the ground end surface of flank
.
B. made by the face of the tool and the plane parallel to the base of the cutting tool
C between the face of the tool and a line tangent to the machined surface at the cutting
. point
D
none of the above
.
9. Small nose radius

A
increases tool life
.
B. decreases tool life
C
produces chipping and decreases tool life
.
D
results in excessive stress concentration and greater heat generation
.
10. The operation of producing grooves around the periphery of a cylindrical or conical
workpiece is called
A
profile milling
.
B. gang milling
C
saw milling
.
605
D
helical milling
.
11. As the cutting speed increases, the tool cutting forces

A
remain constant
.
B. increases
C
decreases
.
D
first increases and then decreases
.
12. Crater wear leads to

A
increase in cutting temperature
.
B. weakening of tool
C
friction and cutting forces
.
D
all of these
.
13. The addition of lead, sulphur and phosphorus to low carbon steels, help to
A
reduce built up edge
.
B. break up chips
C
improve machinability
.
D
all of these
.
14. The relation between the tool life (T) in minutes and cutting speed (V) in m/min is (where n =
606
An exponent, which depends upon the tool and workpiece, and C = A constant)
A
VnT = C
.
B. VTn = C
C
Vn/T = C
.
D
V/Tn = C
.
15. The width of cutting edge of a parting-off tool varies from

A
3 to 12 mm
.
B. 5 to 20 mm
C
8 to 30 mm
.
D
15 to 40 mm
.
16. The grinding of long, slender shafts or bars is usually done by

A
infeed grinding
.
B. through feed grinding
C
endfeed grinding
.
D
any one of these
.
17. In centreless grinding, work place centre will be

A
above the line joining the two wheel centres
.
607
B. below the line joining the two wheel centres
C
on the line joining the two wheel centres
.
D
at the intersection of the line joining the wheel centres with the work place plane
.
18. Tool life is measured by the

A
number of pieces machined between tool sharpenings
.
B. time the tool is in contact with the job
C
volume of material removed between tool sharpenings
.
D
all of the above
.
19. Soft materials can not be economically ground due to

A
high temperature involved
.
B. frequent wheel clogging
C
rapid wheel wear
.
D
low work piece stiffness
.
20. The process of removing metal by a cutter which is rotated in the same direction of travel of
workpiece, is called
A
up milling
.
B. down milling
608
C
face milling
.
D
end milling
.
21. It is required to cut screw threads of 2 mm pitch on a lathe. The lead screw has a pitch of 6
mm. If the spindle speed is 60 r.p.m., then the speed of lead screw will be
A
10 r.p.m.
.
B. 20 r.p.m.
C
120 r.p.m.
.
D
180 r.p.m.
.
22. The tool life in case of a grinding wheel is the time

A
between two successive regrinds of the wheel
.
B. taken for the wheel to be balanced
C
taken between two successive wheel dressings
.
D
taken for a wear of 1 mm on its diameter
.
23. In which of the following machine, the work is usually rotated while the drill is fed into
work?
A
Sensitive drilling machine
.
B. Radial drilling machine
609
C
Gang drilling machine
.
D
Deep hole drilling machine
.
24. In twist fluted drills, chips do not move out automatically.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
25. Mild steel during machining produces __________ chips.

A
continuous
.
B. discontinuous
26. Crater wear is mainly due to the phenomenon known as

A
adhesion of metals
.
B. oxidation of metals
C
diffusion of metals
.
D
all of these
.
27. The cutting speed for drilling aluminium, brass and bronze with high speed steel drills varies
from
A
10 to 20 m/min
.
B. 18 to 30 m/min
C
24 to 45 m/min
.
610
D
60 to 90 m/min
.
28. Flank wear depends upon the

A
hardness of the work and tool material at the operating temperature
.
B. amount and distribution of hard constituents in the work material
C
degree of strain hardening in the chip
.
D
all of these
.
29. The tool may fail due to

A
cracking at the cutting edge due to thermal stresses
.
B. chipping of the cutting edge
C
plastic deformation of the cutting edge
.
D
all of these
.
30. The operation of machining several surfaces of a workpiece simultaneously is called

A
profile milling
.
B. gang milling
C
saw milling
.
D
helical milling
.
31. The grinding wheel speed (surface speed in m/min) usually varies from
A
611
B. 1000 to 1500
C
1500 to 2000
.
D
2000 to 2500
.
32. The factor considered for evaluation of machinability is

A
cutting forces and power consumption
.
B. tool life
C
type of chips and shear angle
.
D
all of these
.
33. In oblique cutting system, the tool may or may not generate a surface parallel to the
workface.
A
Yes
.
B. No
34. The plunge grinding requires very __________ speed.

A
high
.
B. low
35. In conventional milling, the cutting force tends to lift the work.
A
True
.
B. False
36. In machining metal, cutting force at the cutting edge is measured by a

A
612
B. dynamometer
C
hydrometer
.
D
pyrometer
.
37. With the same tool life, the maximum material per minute is removed by
A
increasing the cutting speed
.
B. decreasing the cutting speed
C
increasing the depth of cut
.
D
increasing the feed rate
.
38. The process of removing metal by a cutter which is rotated against the direction of travel of
workpiece, is called
A
up milling
.
B. down milling
C
face milling
.
D
end milling
.
39. A feed gear box for a screw cutting lathe is designed on the basis of
A
geometric progression
.
B. arithmetic progression
613
C
harmonic progression
.
D
none of these
.
40. In American Standard Association (A S A) system, if the tool nomenclature is 8-6-5-5-10-15-

2 mm, then the side rake angle will be
A
5
.
B. 6
C
8
.
D
10
.
41. The abrasive recommended for grinding materials of low tensile strength is
A
silicon carbide
.
B. aluminium oxide
C
sand stone
.
D
diamond
.
42. The chamfering is an operation of

A
bevelling the extreme end of a workpiece
.
B. embossing a diamond shaped pattern on the surface of a workpiece
C
reducing the diameter of a workpiece over a very narrow surface
.
614
D
enlarging the end of a hole cylindrically
.
43. The hard grade grinding wheels are denoted by the letters
A
A to H
.
B. I to P
C
Q to Z
.
D
A to P
.
44. The tailstock set over required to turn a taper on the entire length of a workpiece having
diameters D and d is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
D-d
.
45. The angle formed by the leading edge of the land with a plane having the axis of the drill, is
called
A
helix or rake angle
.
B. point angle
C
chisel edge angle
.
D lip clearance angle
615
.
46. The lip clearance angle should decrease towards the centre of the drill than at the
circumference.
A
Yes
.
B. No
47. If the shear angle is large and the chip-tool contact area is low, then the tool life will be more.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
48. In drilling brass, a drill with

A
zero helix angle is used
.
B. low helix angle is used
C
high helix angle is used
.
D
any helix angle can be used
.
49. The carbide tools operating at very low cutting speeds (below 30 m/min)
A
reduces tool life
.
B. increases tool life
C
have no effect on tool life
.
D
spoils the work piece
.
50. In oblique cutting of metals, the cutting edge of the tool is

A
616
B. perpendicular to the direction of tool travel
C
parallel to the direction of tool travel
.
D
inclined at an angle less than 90 to the direction of tool travel
.

1. A drill bit of 20 mm diameter rotating at 500 r.p.m. with a feed rate of 0.2 mm/revolution is
used to drill a through-hole in a mild steel plate 20 mm thickness. The depth of cut in this
drilling operation is
A
0.2 mm
.
B. 10 mm
C
20 mm
.
D
100 mm
.
2. The tail stock and the carriage of a lathe may be guided on same or different guide way.
A
True
.
B. False
3. In order to achieve a specific surface finish in single point turning, the most important factor
to be controlled is
A
depth of cut
.
B. cutting speed
C
feed
.
617
D
tool rake angle
.
4. Surface grinding is done to produce

A
tapered surface
.
B. flat surface
C
internal cylindrical holes
.
D
all of these
.
5. Gear finishing operation is called

A
shaping
.
B. milling
C
hobbing
.
D
burnishing
.
6. The tool life is said to be over if

A
poor surface finish is obtained
.
B. there is sudden increase in cutting forces and power consumption
C
overheating and fuming due to heat of friction starts
.
D
all of the above
.
7. Continuous chips with built up edge are formed during machining of

A
618
B. ductile metals
C
hard metals
.
D
soft metals
.
8. The rate of removing metal is __________ by increasing the depth of cut.

A
decreased
.
B. increased
9. The method of grinding used to produce internal cylindrical holes and tapers, is
A
internal cylindrical grinding
.
B. form grinding
C
external cylindrical grinding
.
D
surface grinding
.
10. The tool life is __________ cutting speed.

A
independent of
.
B. dependant upon
11. For machining a cast iron workpiece by a high speed steel tool, the average cutting speed is
A
10 m/min
.
B. 15 m/min
C 22 m/min
619
.
D
30 m/min
.
12. The vector sum of cutting velocity and chip velocity is __________ shear velocity.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
more than
.
13. For harder alloy steel, the point angle of the drill is kept
A
equal to 118
.
B. less than 118
C
more than 118
.
D
any one of these
.
14. An open structure of a grinding wheel is denoted by the number 1 to 8.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
15. In an orthogonal cutting, the depth of cut is halved and the feed rate is double. If the chip
thickness ratio is unaffected with the changed cutting conditions, the actual chip thickness
will be
A
doubled
.
B. halved
620
C
quadrupled
.
D
unchanged
.
16. For turning small taper on long workpiece, the suitable method is
A
by a form tool
.
B. by setting over the tail stock
C
by a taper turning attachment
.
D
by swivelling the compound rest
.
17. In a milling operation, two side milling cutters are mounted with a desired distance between
them so that both sides of a workpiece can be milled simultaneously. This set up is called
A
gang milling
.
B. straddle milling
C
string milling
.
D
side milling
.
18. The time (in minutes) for a drilling a hole is given by
where h is the
A
length of the drill
.
B. drill diameter
621
C
flute length of the drill
.
D
cone height of the drill
.
19. Crack in grinding wheel is developed due to

A
high temperature developed at the contact of the wheel face and work
.
B. grinding hard work
C
low speed of wheel
.
D
high speed of wheel
.
20. The average cutting speed for turning mild steel with a high speed steel tool is
A
15 to 19 m/min
.
B. 25 to 31 m/min
C
60 to 90 m/min
.
D
90 to 120 m/min
.
21. In a shaper, the metal is removed during

A
forward stroke
.
B. return stroke
C
both the forward and return strokes
.
622
D
neither the forward nor the return stroke
.
22. The aluminium oxide abrasive is chiefly used for grinding

A
high speed steel
.
B. carbon steel
C
wrought iron
.
D
all of these
.
23. In __________ operation, the chip thickness is minimum at the beginning of the cut and it
reaches to the maximum when the cut terminates.
A
conventional milling
.
B. climb milling
C
face milling
.
D
end milling
.
24. In __________ operation, the cutting force is maximum when the tooth begins its cut and
reduces it to minimum when the tooth leaves the work.
A
up milling
.
B. down milling
C
face milling
.
623
D
end milling
.
25. The taper on the lathe spindle is

A
1 in 10
.
B. 1 in 15
C
1 in 20
.
D
1 in 30
.
26. Which of the following statement is correct in regard to centreless grinding?

A
The workpiece is supported throughout its entire length as grinding takes place.
.
B. It is a continuous process and adopted for production work.
C
It requires no holding device for the work.
.
D
all of the above
.
27. The specific cutting energy used for establishing the machinability of the metal depends upon
its
A
.
B. microstructure
C
work hardening characteristics
.
D
all of these
.
624
28. The form grinding is used to grind gear teeth, threads, splined shafts and holes.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
29. Which of the following parameters govern the value of shear angle in continuous chip
formation?
A
True feed
.
B. Chip thickness
C
Rake angle of the cutting tool
.
D
all of these
.
30. The relief or clearance at the cutting edge of a flat drill varies from
A
3 to 8
.
B. 20 to 30
C
60 to 90
.
D
90 to 120
.
31. In drilling bakellite and fibrous plastics, the point angle of a drill is
A
90
.
B. 118
C
135
.
625
D
150
.
32. The shear velocity is the velocity of

A
tool relative to the workpiece
.
B. chip relative to the tool
C
tool along the tool face
.
D
none of these
.
33. In centreless grinders, the regulating wheel is inclined at

A
0 to 8
.
B. 9 to 15
C
16 to 20
.
D
21 to 25
.
34. A grinding wheel is said to be of __________ if the abrasive grains can be easily dislodged.
A
soft grade
.
B. medium grade
C
hard grade
.
35. In drilling softer materials, the cutting speed is __________ as compared to harder materials.
A
same
.
626
B. low
C
high
.
36. Which of the following statement is correct about hot machining?

A
It requires less power than machining metals at room temperature.
.
B. The rate of tool wear is lower.
C
It is used for machining high strength and high temperature resistant materials.
.
D
all of the above
.
37. For turning internal tapers, the suitable method is

A
by a form tool
.
B. by setting over the tail stock
C
by a taper turning attachment
.
D
by swivelling the compound rest
.
38. Lathe bed is made of

A
mild steel
.
B. alloy steel
C
pig iron
.
D chilled cast iron
627
.
39. In metal machining, the zone where the maximum heat is generated due to the plastic
deformation of metal, is called
A
friction zone
.
B. work-tool contact zone
C
shear zone
.
D
none of these
.
40. The operation of making a cone-shaped enlargement of the end of a hole is known as
A
counter-sinking
.
B. counter-boring
C
trepanning
.
D
spot facing
.
41. Internal or external threads of different pitches can be produced by

A
pantograph milling machine
.
B. profiling machine
C
planetary milling machine
.
D
piano-miller
.
42. In a shaper
A
628
B. work is stationary and tool reciprocates
C
tool moves over stationary work
.
D
tool moves over reciprocating work
.
43. Which of the following statement is correct about EDM machining?

A
It can machine hardest materials.
.
B. It produces high degree of surface finish.
C
The tool and work are never in contact with each other.
.
D
all of these
.
44. Spot facing is an operation of smoothing and squaring the surface around a hole.
A
True
.
B. False
45. A better machine able metal is one which gives

A
lower chip-tool contact area and larger shear angle
.
B. higher chip-tool contact area and smaller shear angle
C
lower chip-tool contact area and smaller shear angle
.
D
higher chip-tool contact area and larger shear angle
.
46. The angle between the lathe centres is

A
30
.
629
B. 45
C
60
.
D
90
.
47. When the shear angle is large

A
path of shear is short and chip is thin
.
B. path of shear is large and chip is thick
C
path of shear is short and chip is thick
.
D
path of shear is large and chip is thin
.
48. The correct sequence of the following parameters in order of their maximum to minimum
influence on tool life is
A
feed rate, depth of cut, cutting speed
.
B. depth of cut, cutting speed, feed rate
C
cutting speed, feed rate, depth of cut
.
D
feed rate, cutting speed, depth of cut
.
49. In drilling aluminium, a drill with

A
zero helix angle is used
.
B. low helix angle is used
630
C
high helix angle is used
.
D
any helix angle can be used
.
50. Ceramic cutting tools are

A
made by cold pressing of aluminium oxide powder
.
B. available in the form of tips
C
brittle and have low bending strength
.
D
all of these
.

1. The angle between the face and flank of the single point cutting tool is known as
A
rake angle
.
B. clearance angle
C
lip angle
.
D
point angle
.
2. In order to obtain a surface finish in the range of 0.75 m to 1.25 m , the operation used is
called.
A
grinding
.
B. lapping
631
C
honing
.
D
buffing
.
3. Which of the following statement is correct as regard to up milling?

A It cannot be used on old machines due to backlash between the feed screw of the table
. and the nut.
B. The chips are disposed off easily and do not interfere with the cutting.
C
The surface milled appears to be slightly wavy.
.
D The coolant can be poured directly at the cutting zone where the cutting force is
. maximum.
4. In determining the various forces on the chip, Merchant assumed that the
A cutting edge of the tool is sharp and it does not make any flank contact with the
. workpiece
B. only continuous chip without built-up-edge is produced
C
cutting velocity remains constant
.
D
all of the above
.
5. Stellite preserve hardness up to a temperature of

A
350C
.
B. 500C
C
900C
.
632
D
1100C
.
6. Hard and tough materials like cast iron should be turned at

A
slow speed
.
B. high speed
C
any speed
.
D
certain specific speed
.
7. In oblique cutting system, the cutting edge of the tool

A
may clear the width of the workpiece
.
B. may or may not clear the width of the workpiece
C
may not clear the width of the workpiece
.
D
should always clear the width of the workpiece
.
8. When the shear angle is small

A
path of shear is short and chip is thin
.
B. path of shear is large and chip is thick
C
path of shear is short and chip is thick
.
D
path of shear is large and chip is thin
.
9. A fine grained grinding wheel is used to grind

A
633
B. soft and ductile materials
C
hard and ductile materials
.
D
soft and brittle materials
.
10. EDM machining is applied for

A
shaping carbide dies and punches having complicated profiles
.
B. making large number of small holes in sieves and fuel nozzles
C
embossing and engraving on harder materials
.
D
all of these
.
11. In gear hobbing

A
only hob rotates
.
B. only gear blank rotates
C
both hob and gear blank rotates
.
D
neither hob nor gear blank rotates
.
12. Holes are machined by push broaches only for sizing.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
13. The increase in depth of cut and feed rate __________ surface finish.
A
improves
.
634
B. deteriorates
C
does not effect
.
14. A lathe with four steps on the cone pulley and with backgears will have
A
four direct speeds
.
B. four indirect speeds
C
four direct and four indirect speeds
.
D
eight indirect speeds
.
15. The parameter which completely defines the chip formation in a metal cutting process is
A
shear angle
.
B. chip-tool contact length
C
both (a) and (b)
.
D
none of these
.
16. In machining cast iron, no cutting fluid is required.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
17. In machining metals, surface roughness is due to

A
feed marks or ridges left by the cutting tool
.
635
B. fragment of built-up edge on the machined surface
C
cutting tool vibrations
.
D
all of these
.
18. A diamond locating pin is used in jigs and fixtures because

A
diamond is very hard and wear resistant
.
B. it occupies very little space
C
it helps in assembly with tolerance on centre distance
.
D
it has a long life
.
19. In metal machining, the zone where the heat is generated due to friction between the moving
chip and the tool face, is called
A
friction zone
.
B. work-tool contact zone
C
shear zone
.
D
none of these
.
20. The drill spindles are provided with standard taper known as
A
Morse taper
.
B. Seller's taper
636
C
Chapman taper
.
D
Brown and Sharpe taper
.
21. The operation performed on a shaper is

A
machining horizontal surface
.
B. machining vertical surface
C
machining angular surface
.
D
all of these
.
22. Chemical milling operation is performed

A
on universal milling machine
.
B. on plain milling machine
C
in a tank containing an etching solution
.
D
any one of these
.
23. The thrust force will increase with the increase in

A
side cutting edge angle
.
B. tool nose radius
C
rake angle
.
637
D
end cutting edge angle
.
24. The broaching operation in which the work moves past the stationary tool is called
A
pull broaching
.
B. push broaching
C
surface broaching
.
D
continuous broaching
.
25. In transverse grinding

A the work is reciprocated as the wheel feeds to produce cylinders longer than the width
. of wheel face
the work rotates in a fixed position as the wheel feeds to produce cylinders equal to or
B.
shorter than the width of wheel face
C the work is reciprocated as the wheel feeds to produce cylinders shorter than the width
. of wheel face
D the work rotates in a fixed position as the wheel feeds to produce cylinders longer than
. the width of wheel face
26. If the grain size is __________ the tool life is better.

A
smaller
.
B. larger
27. Flank wear is due to the abrasive action of hard mis-constituents including debris from built
up edge as the work material rubs the work surface.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
638
28. The operation of reproduction of an outline of a template on a workpiece is called face
milling.
A
Yes
.
B. No
29. The usual value of the point angle of a drill is

A
70
.
B. 100
C
118
.
D
130
.
30. Buffing wheels are made of

A
softer metals
.
B. cotton fabric
C
carbon
.
D
graphite
.
31. Jigs are heavier than fixtures in construction.

A
Yes
.
B. No
32. In electro-chemical machining, the gap between the tool and work is kept as
A
639
B. 0.25 mm
C
0.4 mm
.
D
0.75 mm
.
33. The process of improving the cutting action of the grinding wheel is called
A
truing
.
B. dressing
C
facing
.
D
clearing
.
34. The cutting speed for drilling aluminium, brass and bronze with carbon steel drills is
__________ cutting speed for drilling mild steel with high speed steel drills.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
more than
.
35. In electro-discharge machining, the tool is connected to cathode.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
36. Broaching is applied for machining

A
internal and external surfaces
.
640
B. round or irregular shaped holes
C
external flat and contoured surfaces
.
D
all of these
.
37. Half nut is used to lock the lathe carriage to the lead screw for thread cutting.
A
True
.
B. False
38. The advantage of a broaching operation is that

A
rate of production is very high
.
B. high accuracy and high class of surface finish is possible
C
roughing and finishing cuts are completed in one pass of the tool
.
D
all of the above
.
39. The tool life __________ as the cutting speed increases.

A
decreases
.
B. increases
40. The infeed grinding is used to

A
produce tapers
.
B. grind shoulders and formed surfaces
C grind long, slender shafts or bars
641
.
D
ail of these
.
41. The enlarging of an existing circular hole with a rotating single point tool is called
A
boring
.
B. drilling
C
reaming
.
D
internal turning
.
42. In the relation VTn = C, the value of n for high speed steel tools varies from 0.25 to 0.40.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
43. Glazing in grinding wheels __________ cutting capacity.

A
has no effect on
.
B. increase
C
decrease
.
44. The usual value of the helix angle of a drill is

A
20
.
B. 30
C 45
642
.
D
60
.
45. The cutting speed for counter-boring should be __________ that of drilling operation.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
46. In drilling mild steel and brass, the point angle of a drill is 118.
A
True
.
B. False
47. The tail stock set over method of taper turning is preferred for
A
internal tapers
.
B. small tapers
C
long slender tapers
.
D
steep tapers
.
48. The chuck preferred for quick setting and accurate centering of a job is
A
four jaw independent chuck
.
B. collect chuck
C three jaw universal chuck
643
.
D
magnetic chuck
.
49. Negative rakes are used for

A
carbide tools
.
B. heavy loads
C
harder materials
.
D
all of these
.
50. A bottoming tap has

A
its end tapered for about three or four threads
.
B. its end tapered for about eight or ten threads
C
full threads for the whole of its length
.
D
none of the above
.
51. The effect of setting a boring tool above centre height leads to
A
increase in the effective rake angle and a decrease in the effective clearance angle
.
B. increase in both effective rake angle and effective clearance angle
C
decrease in the effective rake angle and an increase in the effective clearance angle
.
D decrease in both effective rake angle and effective clearance angle
644
.
52. Which of the following statement is correct about nose radius?

A
It improves tool life
.
B. It improves the surface finish
C
both (a) and (b)
.
D
none of these
.
53. The cutting speed for drilling __________ with high speed steel drills is 24 to 45 m/min.
A
mild steel
.
B. copper
C
aluminium
.
D
brass
.
54. In a centre lathe, the cutting tool is fed in __________ with reference to the lathe axis.
A
cross direction only
.
B. longitudinal direction only
C
both cross and longitudinal direction
.
D
any direction
.
55. The angle between the face of the tool and a line tangent to the machined surface at the
cutting point is called cutting angle.
A
645
B. Incorrect
56. The dressing and truing of grinding wheel are done with the same tools but not for the same
purpose.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
57. The point angle of a drill, for drilling stainless steel, is

A
90
.
B. 118
C
135
.
D
150
.
58. A numerical method of identification of tool is known as tool signature.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
59. Tumbler gears in lathe are used to

A
reduce the spindle speed
.
B. cut gears
C
give desired direction of movement to the lathe carriage
.
D
drill a work piece
.
646
9. Industrial Engineering and Production Management
Industrial Engineering and Production Management - Section 1

1. The aim of value engineering is to
A
find the depreciation value of a machine
.
B. determine the selling price of a product
C
minimise the cost without change in quality of the product
.
D
all of the above
.
2. In time study, the rating factor is applied to determine

A
standard time of a job
.
B. merit rating of the worker
C
fixation of incentive rate
.
D
normal time of a worker
.
3. Gantt chart is used for

A
inventory control
.
B. material handling
C
production schedule
.
D
machine repair schedules
.
4. The main object of scientific layout is

647
A
to produce better quality of product
.
B. to utilise maximum floor area
C
to minimise production delays
.
D
all of these
.
5. The probabilistic time is given by (where to = Optimistic time, tp = Pessimistic time, and tn =
Most likely time)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
6. In value engineering, the term value refers to

A
manufacturing cost of the product
.
B. selling price of the product
C
total cost of the product
.
D
utility of the product
.
7. In inventory control theory, the economic order quantity is

A average level of inventory
648
.
B. optimum lot size
C
capacity of a warehouse
.
D
lot size corresponding to break-even analysis
.
8. Production cost refers to prime cost plus

A
factory overheads
.
B. factory and administration overheads
C
factory, administration and sales overheads
.
D
factory, administration, sales overheads and profit
.
9. A systematic job improvement sequence will consist of

A
motion study
.
B. time study
C
job enrichment
.
D
all of these
.
10. Work sampling is applied for

A
estimation of the percentage utilization of machine tools
.
B. estimating the percentage of the time consumed by various job activities
649
C finding out time standards, specially where the job is not repetitive and where time
. study by stop watch method is not possible
D
all of the above
.
11. Military type of organization is known as

A
line organization
.
B. functional organization
C
line and staff organization
.
D
line, staff and functional organization
.
12. When slack of an activity is negative

A it represents a situation where extra resources are available and the completion of
. project is not delayed
it represents that a programme falls behind schedule and additional resources are
B.
required to complete the project in time
C the activity is critical and any delay in its performance will delay the completion of
. whole project
D
all of the above
.
13. The procedure of modifying work content to give more meaning and enjoyment to the job by
involving employees in planning, organisation and control of their work, is termed as
A
job enlargement
.
B. job enrichment
650
C
job rotation
.
D
job evaluation
.
14. Fixed position layout is also known as

A
analytical layout
.
B. synthetic layout
C
static product layout
.
D
none of these
.
15. In a network shown in the below figure, the critical path is along
A
1-2-3-4-8-9
.
B. 1-2-3-5-6-7-8-9
C
1-2-3-4-7-8-9
.
D
1-2-5-6-7-8-9
.
16. Bar chart is suitable for

A
large project
.
651
B. major work
C
minor work
.
D
all of these
.
17. Which one of the following chart gives simultaneously information about the progress of
work and machine loading?
A
Process chart
.
B. Machine load chart
C
Man-machine chart
.
D
Gantt chart
.
18. Probabilistic time for completion of any activity can be found out from
A
optimistic time
.
B. pessimistic time
C
most likely time
.
D
all of these
.
19. Line organisation is suitable for a big organisation.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
20. PERT is an event oriented technique.

A
652
B. Incorrect
21. Linear programming model can be applied to line balancing problem and transportation
problem.
A
True
.
B. False
22. The chart which gives an estimate about the amount of materials handling between various
work stations is known as
A
flow chart
.
B. process chart
C
travel chart
.
D
operation chart
.
23. The type of organisation preferred for a steel industry, is

A
line organisation
.
B. functional organisation
C
line and staff organisation
.
D
line, staff and functional organisation
.
24. A device used for lifting or lowering objects suspended from a hook at the end of retractable
chains or cable is called
A
hoist
.
B. jib crane
653
C
portable elevator
.
D
chain conveyor
.
25. A diagram showing the path followed by men and materials while performing a task is
known as
A
string diagram
.
B. flow process chart
C
travel chart
.
D
flow diagram
.
26. The determination of standard time in a complex job system is best done through
A
stop watch time study
.
B. analysis of micromotions
C
grouping timing technique
.
D
analysis of standard data system
.
27. In CPM, the cost slope is determined by

A
.
B.
654
C
.
D
.
28. If (R) is the base rate guaranteed per hour, (S) is the standard time for the job and (T) is the
actual time, then according to Rowan plan, wages for the job will be
A
TR
.
B.
C
TR + (S - T)R
.
D
.
29. In a line organisation

A
responsibility of each individual is fixed
.
B. discipline is strong
C
quick decisions are taken
.
D
all of these
.
30. Which of the following are the guidelines for the construction of a network diagram?
A
Each activity is represented by one and only one arrow in the network.
.
B. Dangling must be avoided in a network diagram.
C Dummy activity consumes no time or resource.
655
.
D
all of the above
.
31. Work study involues

A
only method study
.
B. only work measurement
C
method study and work measurement
.
D
only motion study
.
32. A-B-C analysis is used in

A
CPM
.
B. PERT
C
inventory control
.
D
all of these
.
33. PERT analysis is based upon

A
optimistic time
.
B. pessimistic time
C
most likely time
.
D all of these
656
.
34. In order to avoid excessive multiplication of facilities, the layout preferred is

A
product layout
.
B. process layout
C
group layout
.
D
static layout
.
35. In A-B-C analysis, which class of items are generally large in number?
A
A
.
B. B
C
C
.
D
none of these
.
36. Simplex method is the method used for

A
value analysis
.
B. network analysis
C
linear programming
.
D
queuing theory
.
37. Dispatching
A
prescribes the sequence of operations to be followed
.
657
B. determines the programme for the operations
C
is concerned with the starting of processes
.
D
regulates the progress of job through various processes
.
38. Which of the following wage incentive plan guarantees minimum wage to a worker and
bonus is paid for the fixed percentage of time saved?
A
Halsey plan
.
B. Gantt plan
C
Rowan plan
.
D
Emerson's efficiency plan
.
39. Job evaluation is the method of determining the

A
relative values of a job
.
B. worker's performance on a job
C
worth of the machine
.
D
value of overall production
.
40. The routing function in a production system design is concerned with

A
manpower utilisation
.
B. quality assurance of the product
658
C
machine utilisation
.
D
optimising material flow through the plant
.
41. In big automobile repair shop, for elevating and moving the heavy parts such as complete
engine assembly, gear box etc., an overhead crane and a fork lift truck is used.
A
Yes
.
B. No
42. Direct expenses include

A
factory expenses
.
B. selling expenses
C
administrative expenses
.
D
none of these
.
43. String diagram is used

A
for checking the relative values of various layouts
.
B. when a group of workers are working at a place
C
where processes require the operator to be moved from one work place to another
.
D
all of the above
.
44. Which of the following type of layout is suitable for automobile manufacturing concern?
A
product layout
.
659
B. process layout
C
fixed position layout
.
D
combination layout
.
45. Representative time is the average of times recorded by work study man for an operation.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
46. Queuing theory is associated with

A
inventory
.
B. sales
C
waiting time
.
D
production time
.
47. PERT requires

A
single time estimate
.
B. double time estimate
C
triple time estimate
.
D
none of these
.

A
A-B-C analysis is based on Pareto's principle.
.
660
B. Simulation can be used for inventory control.
C
Economic order quantity formula ignores variations in demand pattern
.
D
all of the above
.
49. The product layout is more amenable to automation than process layout.
A
True
.
B. False
50. In break even analysis, total cost consists of

A
fixed cost + sales revenue
.
B. variable cost + sales revenue
C
fixed cost + variable cost
.
D
fixed cost + variable cost + profit
.

1. A critical activity has
A
maximum slack
.
B. minimum slack
C
zero slack
.
661
D
average slack
.
2. Sampling method of determining standard time is profitable for long cycle operation.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
3. Break even analysis is a

A
short term analysis
.
B. long term analysis
C
average of short and long term analysis
.
D
any one of these
.
4. In a functional organisation
A
quality of work is better
.
B. wastage of material is minimum
C
specialised knowledge and guidance to individual worker is provided
.
D
all of the above
.
5. The purpose of micromotion study is to

A
assist in finding out the most efficient way of doing work
.
B. train the individual operator regarding the motion economy principles
662
C
help in collecting the motion time data for synthetic time standards
.
D
all of the above
.
6. A PERT network has three activities on critical path with mean time 3, 8 and 6 and standard
deviations 1, 2 and 2 respectively. The probability that the project will be completed in 20
days is
A
0.50
.
B. 0.66
C
0.84
.
D
0.95
.
7. Scheduling
A
.
C
is concerned with starting of processes
.
D
regulates the progress of job through various processes
.
8. F. W. Taylor introduced a system of organisation known as

A
line organisation
.
663
C
.
D
.
9. The correct sequence of phases in value engineering is

A
creative phase, information phase, investigation phase, evaluation phase
.
B. information phase, creative phase, investigation phase, evaluation phase
C
investigation phase, information phase, creative phase, evaluation phase
.
D
creative phase, investigation phase, evaluation phase, information phase
.
10. Micromotion study is

A
analysis of one stage of motion chart
.
B. motion study, when seen on a time chart
C
subdivision of an operation into therbligs and their analysis
.
D
enlarged view of motion study
.
11. Valve analysis is particularly of interest when

A
jobbing work economics are involved
.
B. production is on large scale
C
only few components are involved
.
664
D
costly equipment is used
.
12. The type of layout used for manufacturing steam turbines, is

A
product layout
.
B. process layout
C
.
D
any one of these
.
13. For material transportation, conveyors are used when the prevailing conditions include
A
loads are uniform
.
B. routes do not vary
C
materials move relatively continuously
.
D
all of these
.
14. The planning and scheduling of job order manufacturing differ from planning and scheduling
of mass production manufacturing.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
15. Gantt chart gives information about

A
scheduling and routing
.
B. sales
665
C
production schedule
.
D
machine utilisation
.
16. Merit rating is the method of determining the

A
relative values of a job
.
B. worker's performance on a job
C
worth of a machine
.
D
value of overall production
.
17. PERT stands for

A
Programme Estimation and Reporting Technique
.
B. Process Estimation and Review Technique
C
Programme Evaluation and Review Technique
.
D
Planning Estimation and Resulting Technique
.
18. In Emerson's efficiency plan of wage incentive system, bonus is paid to a worker
A
whose output exceeds 67% efficiency
.
B. on the percentage of time saved
C
on the percentage of time worked
.
666
D
on the percentage of standard time
.
19. M.T.M. is used to

A
improve existing methods
.
B. establish time standards
C
develop effective methods in advance of the beginning of production
.
D
all of the above
.
20. A dummy activity in a net work diagram

A
is represented by a dotted line
.
B. is an artificial activity
C
does not consume time or resources
.
D
all of these
.
21. The production scheduling is simpler and high volume of output and high labour efficiency
are achieved in the case of
A
product layout
.
B. process layout
C
.
D
a combination of line and process layout
.
667
22. Standard time is equal to
A
normal time minus allowances
.
B. normal time plus allowances
C
representative time multiplied by rating factor
.
D
normal time taken by an operation
.
23. In inventory control, the economic ordering quantity is obtained by the quantity whose
procurement cost is equal to inventory carrying cost.
A
True
.
B. False
24. The essential condition for the decompression of an activity is that

A
the project time should change due to decompression
.
B. after decompression the time of an activity invariably exceeds its normal time
C
an activity could be decompressed to the maximum extent of its normal time
.
D
none of the above
.
25. Time study is carried out

A by finding all the significant informations regarding the job, work place and machine
. tool etc.
by breaking up each operation into small elements which are measurable with the help
B.
of the measuring device accurately
668
C
by observing and recording the time taken by the operator for an operation
.
D
all of the above
.
26. Two alternatives can produce a product. First has a fixed cost of Rs. 2000 and a variable cost
of Rs. 20 per piece. The second method has a fixed cost of Rs. 1500 and a variable cost of
Rs. 30. The break even quantity between the two alternatives is
A
25
.
B. 50
C
75
.
D
100
.
27. Which of the following are the principles of material handling?

A
keep all the handling to the minimum
.
B. select only efficient handling equipment
C
move the heaviest weight to the least distance
.
D
all of the above
.
28. The product layout

A
lowers overall manufacturing time
.
B. requires less space for placing machines
669
C
utilises machine and labour better
.
D
all of these
.
29. An event is a function of two or more activities.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
30. The mathematical technique for finding the best use of limited resources of a company in the
maximum manner is known as
A
value analysis
.
B. network analysis
C
linear programming
.
D
queuing theory
.
31. The factors to be considered for production scheduling are

A
component design
.
B. route sheet
C
time standards
.
D
all of these
.
32. Product layout is best suited where

A
one type of product is produced
.
670
B. product is standardised
C
product is manufactured in large quantities
.
D
all of the above
.
33. Break even analysis consists of

A
fixed expenses
.
B. variable cost
C
sales revenue
.
D
all of these
.
34. Line organisation is suitable for

A
sugar industries
.
B. oil refining industries
C
spinning and weaving industries
.
D
all of these
.
35. Slack represents the difference between the

A
earliest completion time and latest allowable time
.
B. latest allowable time and earliest completion time
C earliest completion time and normal expected time
671
.
D
latest allowable time and normal allowable time
.
36. Acceptance sampling is used in

A
job production
.
B. batch production
C
mass production
.
D
all of these
.
37. Queuing theory is used for

A
job-shop scheduling
.
B. inventory problems
C
traffic congestion studies
.
D
all of these
.

A
When slack of an activity is zero, it falls only on critical path.
.
B. CPM technique is useful to minimise the direct and indirect expenses.
C Critical path of a net work represents the minimum time required for completion of
. project.
D all of the above
672
.
39. Break even point is the point where

A
fixed and variable cost lines intersect
.
B. fixed and total cost lines intersect
C
variable and total cost lines intersect
.
D
sales revenue and total expensive lines intersect
.
40. In a thermal power plant, coal from the coal handling plant is moved to the boiler bunker
through a
A
belt conveyor
.
B. bucket conveyor
C
fork lift truck
.
D
overhead crane
.
41. When slack of an activity is positive

A it represents a situation where extra resources are available and the completion of
. project is not delayed
it represents that a programme falls behind schedule and additional resources are
B.
required to complete the project in time
C the activity is critical and any delay in its performance will delay the completion of
. whole project
D
.
673
42. For a small scale industry, the fixed cost per month is Rs. 5000. The variable cost per product
is Rs. 20 and sales price is Rs. 30 per piece. The break even production per month will be
A
300
.
B. 460
C
500
.
D
1000
.
43. Follow-up prescribes the sequence of operations to be followed.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
44. Dummy activities are used to

A
determine the critical path
.
B. determine the project completion time
C
maintain the required net work
.
D
none of these
.

A An activity consume time and resources whereas an event do not consume time or
. resources.
B. The performance of a specific task is called an activity.
C
An event is an instantaneous point in time at which an activity begins or ends.
.
674
D
The turning of a job on lathe is an event whereas job turned is an activity.
.
46. If F is the fixed cost, V is the variable cost per unit (or total variable costs) and P is the
selling price of each unit (or total sales value), then break even point is equal to
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
47. CPM stands for

A
Combined Process Method
.
B. Critical Path Method
C
Common Planning Method
.
D
Critical Process Method
.
48. The average time recorded by work study man for an operation is called
A
standard time
.
B. normal time
C
representative time
.
675
D
none of these
.
49. In value engineering, important consideration is given to

A
customer satisfaction
.
B. function concept
C
profit maximisation
.
D
cost reduction
.
50. The unit cost in case of batch production is __________ as compared to jobbing production.
A
same
.
B. low
C
high
.

1. Critical path method
A
helps in ascertaining time schedules
.
B. makes better and detailed planning possible
C provides a standard method for communicating project plans schedules and to time
. and cost performance
D
all of the above
.
2. PERT is applied for
676
A
marketing programmes and advertising programmes
.
B. installation of machinery
C
research and development of products
.
D
all of these
.
3. The most important function of inventory control is

A
stock control system
.
B. to run the stores effectively
C
technical responsibility for the state of materials
.
D
all of the above
.
4. Break even analysis represents the relationship between cost and volume.
A
True
.
B. False
5. In product layout
A
specialised and strict supervision is required
.
B. machines can not be used to their maximum capacity
C
manufacturing cost rises with a fall in the volume of production
.
D all of the above
677
.
6. The bonus increases in proportion to the increase in efficiency. This statement applies to
A
Halsey plan
.
B. Ganttplan
C
.
D
Rowan plan
.
7. Which of the following statement is correct about the network diagram?

A The events are represented graphically by circles or nodes at the beginning and the
. end of activity by arrows.
B. The tail end of the arrow represents the start of an activity.
C
The head of the arrow represents the end of an activity.
.
D
all of the above
.
8. P.M.T.S. (Predetermined Motion Time Systems) include

A
M.T.M. (Method Time Measurement)
.
B. W.F.S. (Work Factor Systems)
C
B.M.T.S. (Basic Motion Time Study)
.
D
all of these
.
9. In jobbing production
A
highly skilled workers are needed
.
678
B. unit costs are high
C
operations are labour-intensive
.
D
all of these
.
10. Performance rating is equal to

A
observed performance + normal performance
.
B. observed performance - normal performance
C
observed performance x normal performance
.
D
none of the above
.
11. In perpetual inventory control, the material is checked as it reaches its

A
maximum value
.
B. minimum value
C
average value
.
D
any one of these
.
12. In process layout

A
handling and back-tracking of materials is too much
.
B. production control is more difficult and costly
C routing and scheduling is more difficult
679
.
D
all of the above
.
13. A feasible solution to the linear programming problem should

A
satisfy the problem constraints
.
B. optimise the objective function
C
satisfy the problem constraints and non-negativity restrictions
.
D
satisfy the non-negativity restrictions
.
14. Abbreviated work factor data is applied for

A
material handling operation
.
B. maintenance operation
C
packing and shipping operation
.
D
all of these
.
15. Routing
A
.
C
is concerned with starting of processes
.
D regulates the progress of job through various processes
680
.
16. Which of the following conditions are necessary for applying linear programming?
A
These must be a well defined objective function.
.
B. The decision variables should be interrelated and non-negative.
C
The resources must be in limited supply.
.
D
all of the above
.
17. Indirect expenses include

A
factory expenses
.
B. selling expenses
C
administrative expenses
.
D
all of these
.
18. A dummy activity becomes a critical activity when its earliest start time (EST) is same as its
latest finishing time (LFT).
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
19. In time study, normal time is more than the standard time.
A
Yes
.
B. No
20. The start or completion of task is called

A
681
B. an activity
C
a duration
.
D
none of these
.
21. Monte Carlo solution in queuing theory is extremely useful in queuing problems that can not
be analysed mathematically.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
22. A-B-C analysis

A
is a basic technique of materials management
.
B. is meant for relative inventory control
C
does not depend upon the unit cost of the item but on its annual consumption
.
D
all of the above
.
23. The process capability of a machine is defined as the capability of the machine to
A
produce a definite volume of work per minute
.
B. perform definite number of operations
C
produce job at a definite spectrum of speed
.
D
hold a definite spectrum of tolerance and surface finish
.
24. Service time in queuing theory is usually assumed to follow

A
682
B. Poissons distribution
C
Erlang distribution
.
D
exponential law
.
25. At the break even point,

A
total cost is more than the sales revenue
.
B. total cost is less than the sales revenue
C
total cost is equal to sales revenue
.
D
fixed cost is equal to variable cost
.
26. An activity of the project is graphically represented by __________ on the network diagram.
A
a circle
.
B. a straight line
C
an arrow
.
27. According to Rowan plan of wage incentive system, bonus is paid to a worker
A
whose output exceeds 67% efficiency
.
B. on the percentage of time saved
C
on the percentage of time worked
.
D on the percentage of standard time
683
.
28. Which of the following charts are used for plant layout design?
A
Operation process chart
.
B. Man machine chart
C
Travel chart
.
D
all of these
.
29. Earliest finish time can be regarded as

A
earliest start time + duration of activity
.
B. earliest start time - duration of activity
C
latest finish time + duration of activity
.
D
latest finish time - duration of activity
.
30. If (R) is the base rate guaranteed per hour, (S) is the standard time for the job and (T) is the
actual time, then according to Halsey 50-50 plan, wages for the job will be
A
TR
.
B.
C
TR + (S - T)R
.
D
.
684
31. The time taken by a trained worker to perform an operation, while working a steady pace, is
known as
A
standard time
.
B. normal time
C
representative time
.
D
none of these
.
32. Normal time is the ratio of representative time to the rating factor.
A
True
.
B. False
33. According to Muther, the basic principle of best layout is

A
principle of over-all integration
.
B. principle of flow
C
principle of flexibility
.
D
all of these
.
34. Time study is carried out to determine the time required to complete job by
A
a slow worker
.
B. a fast worker
C
an average worker
.
685
D
an apprentice
.
35. Slack may be positive, zero or negative.

A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
36. A company spends considerable amount on publicity to promote sales. This expenditure in
break even chart is shown below the
A
fixed cost line
.
B. variable cost line
C
total cost line
.
D
sales revenue line
.
37. Time study is used to

A
determine standard costs
.
B. determine the number of machines a person may run
C
provide a basis for setting piece price or incentive wages
.
D
all of the above
.
38. Both Rowan plan and 50-50 Halsey plan will provide the same earning when the actual time
is __________ the standard time.
A
one-fourth
.
B. one-half
686
C
equal to
.
D
twice
.
39. The main objective of work measurement is to

A
plan and schedule of production
.
B. formulate a proper incentive scheme
C
estimate the selling prices and delivery dates
.
D
all of the above
.
40. Generally PERT is preferred over CPM for the purpose of project evaluation.
A
Yes
.
B. No
41. The production cost per unit can be reduced by

A
producing more with increased inputs
.
B. producing more with the same inputs
C
eliminating idle time
.
D
minimising resource waste
.
42. In manufacturing management, the term 'Dispatching' is used to describe

A
dispatch of sales order
.
687
B. dispatch of factory mail
C
dispatch of finished product of the user
.
D
dispatch of work orders through shop floor
.
43. Product layout is also known as

A
analytical layout
.
B. synthetic layout
C
.
D
none of these
.
44. When slack of an activity is zero, the activity is critical and any delay in its performance will
delay the completion of the whole project.
A
Yes
.
B. No
45. The work study is done by means of

A
planning chart
.
B. process chart
C
stop watch
.
D
any one of these
.
46. In fixed position layout

A
688
B. material movement is less
C
capital investment is minimum
.
D
all of these
.
47. The factors which are to be considered while developing a good wage incentive plan will
include
A
adequate incentive
.
B. ease of administration
C
guaranteed basic pay
.
D
all of these
.
48. Work study is mainly aimed at

A
determining the most efficient method of performing a job
.
B. establishing the minimum time of completion of a job
C
developing the standard method and standard time of a job
.
D
economising the motions involved on the part of the worker while performing a job
.
49. The type of organisation preferred for an automobile industry, is

A
line organisation
.
689
C
.
D
.
50. Product layout is used for

A
job production
.
B. batch production
C
mass production
.
D
any one of these
.

1. Linear programming can be applied successfully to
A
chemical industry
.
B. oil industry
C
banks
.
D
all of these
.
2. For handling materials during manufacture of cement, a __________ is widely used.

A
belt conveyor
.
B. bucket conveyor
C fork lift truck
690
.
D
overhead crane
.
3. Process layout is also known as

A
analyticallayout
.
B. synthetic layout
C
.
D
none of these
.
4. PERT is a project planning and control technique.

A
Yes
.
B. No
5. The most suitableincentive plan for the maintenance section of an industry will be
A
piece rate system
.
B. group incentive plan
C
profit sharing plans
.
D
simplification
.
6. If A is the total items consumed per year, P is the procurement cost per order, and C is the
annual inventory carrying cost per item, then the most economic ordering quantity is given
by
A
.
691
B.
C
.
D
.
7. CPM requires
A
single time estimate
.
B. double time estimate
C
triple time estimate
.
D
none of these
.
8. Halsey plan of wage incentive

A
is not applied to all level of workers
.
B. is applied to all level of workers
C
does not guarantee minimum wage
.
D
is based upon efficiency of worker
.
9. Which of the following wage incentive plan is applied to all workers?

A
Halsey plan
.
692
B. Gantt plan
C
.
D
Rowan plan
.
10. Actual performance of a task is called

A
an event
.
B. an activity
C
a duration
.
D
none of these
.
11. The interchangeability can be achieved by

A
standardisation
.
B. better process planning
C
bonus plan
.
D
better product planning
.
12. Travel charts are used to

A
analyse material handling
.
B. determine inventory control difficulties
C plan material handling procedure and routes
693
.
D
all of the above
.
13. The value engineering technique in which experts of the same rank assemble for product
development is called
A
Delphi
.
B. brain storming
C
morphological analysis
.
D
direct expert comparison
.
14. Process layout is employed

A
where low volume of production is required
.
B. where similar jobs are manufactured on similar machines
C
where machines are arranged on functional basis
.
D
all of the above
.
15. Which one of the following techniques is used for determining allowances in time study?
A
Acceptance sampling
.
B. Linear regression
C
Performance rating
.
694
D
Work sampling
.
16. Which of the following networks is correctly drawn?
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
17. PERT
A
provides an approach for keeping planning up-to-date
.
provides a way for management to require that planning be done on a uniform and
B.
logical basis
695
C
permits management to foresee quickly the impact of variations from the plan
.
D
all of the above
.
10. Strength of Materials
Strength of Materials - Section 1

1. Strain energy is the
A
energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limits
.
B. energy stored in a body when strained upto the breaking of a specimen
C
maximum strain energy which can be stored in a body
.
D
proof resilience per unit volume of a material
.
2. A vertical column has two moments of inertia (i.e. Ixx and Iyy ). The column will tend to
buckle in the direction of the
A
axis of load
.
B. perpendicular to the axis of load
C
maximum moment of inertia
.
D
minimum moment of inertia
.
3. The neutral axis of the cross-section a beam is that axis at which the bending stress is
A
zero
.
696
B. minimum
C
maximum
.
D
infinity
.
4. Euler's formula holds good only for

A
short columns
.
B. long columns
C
both short and long columns
.
D
weak columns
.
5. The object of caulking in a riveted joint is to make the joint

A
free from corrosion
.
B. stronger in tension
C
free from stresses
.
D
leak-proof
.
6. A steel bar of 5 mm is heated from 15 C to 40 C and it is free to expand. The bar Will
induce
A
no stress
.
B. shear stress
697
C
tensile stress
.
D
compressive stress
.
7. A body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1200 MPa on one plane and another tensile stress of
600 MPa on a plane at right angles to the former. It is also subjected to a shear stress of 400
MPa on the same planes. The maximum normal stress will be
A
400 MPa
.
B. 500 MPa
C
900 MPa
.
D
1400 MPa
.
8. Two shafts 'A' and 'B' transmit the same power. The speed of shaft 'A' is 250 r.p.m. and that of
shaft 'B' is 300 r.p.m. The shaft 'B' has the greater diameter.
A
True
.
B. False
9. A thick cylindrical shell having ro and ri as outer and inner radii, is subjected to an internal
pressure (p). The maximum tangential stress at the inner surface of the shell is
A
.
B.
C
.
698
D
.
10. The stress induced in a body, when suddenly loaded, is __________ the stress induced when
the same load is applied gradually.
A
equal to
.
B. one-half
C
twice
.
D
four times
.
11.
For a beam, as shown in the below figure, the maximum deflection is .
A
True
.
B. False
12. If the slenderness ratio for a column is 100, then it is said to be a __________ column.
A
long
.
B. medium
C
short
.
13. A masonry dam may fail due to

A tension in the masonry of the dam and its base
699
.
B. overturning of the dam
C
crushing of masonry at the base of the dam
.
D
.
14. In order to prevent crushing of masonry at the base of the dam, the maximum stress should
be __________ the permissible stress of the soil.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
more than
.
15. When a body is subjected to two equal and opposite pushes, as a result of which the body
tends to reduce its length, the stress and strain induced is compressive.
A
True
.
B. False
16. The bending moment at a point on a beam is the algebraic __________ of all the moments on
either side of the point.
A
sum
.
B. difference
17. The maximum diameter of the hole that can be punched from a plate of maximum shear
stress 1/4th of its maximum crushing stress of punch, is equal to (where t = Thickness of the
plate)
A
t
.
700
B. 2t
C
4t
.
D
8t
.
18. Two closely coiled helical springs 'A' and 'B' are equal in all respects but the number of turns
of spring 'A' is half that of spring 'B' The ratio of deflections in spring 'A' to spring 'B' is
A
1/8
.
B. 1/4
C
1/2
.
D
2
.
19. The deformation per unit length is called

A
tensile stress
.
B. compressive stress
C
shear stress
.
D
strain
.
20. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (d) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal pressure
(p). The ratio of longitudinal strain to volumetric strain is
A
.
701
B.
C
.
D
.
21.
In the torsion equation the term J/R is called
A
shear modulus
.
B. section modulus
C
polar modulus
.
D
none of these
.
22. Strain resetters are used to

A
measure shear strain
.
B. measure linear strain
C
measure volumetric strain
.
D
relieve strain
.
23. The torque transmitted by a solid shaft of diameter (D) is (where = Maximum allowable
shear stress)
A
. x x D3
702
B.
x x D3
C
. x x D3
D
. x x D3
24. When a rectangular beam is loaded transversely, the maximum compressive stress is
developed on the
A
top layer
.
B. bottom layer
C
neutral axis
.
D
every cross-section
.
25. For a beam, as shown in the below figure, when the load W is applied in the centre of the
beam, the maximum deflection is
A
.
B.
C
.
703
D
.
26. The point of contraflexure is a point where

A
shear force changes sign
.
B. bending moment changes sign
C
shear force is maximum
.
D
bending moment is maximum
.
27. The simply supported beam 'A' of length l carries a central point load W. Another beam 'B' is
loaded with a uniformly distributed load such that the total load on the beam is W. The ratio
of maximum deflections between beams A and B is
A
5/8
.
B. 8/5
C
5/4
.
D
4/5
.
28. The maximum stress produced in a bar of tapering section is at

A
smaller end
.
B. larger end
C
middle
.
704
D
anywhere
.
29. The energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limit is known as
A
resilience
.
B. proof resilience
C
strain energy
.
D
impact energy
.
30. In compression test, the fracture in cast iron specimen would occur along
A
the axis of load
.
B. an oblique plane
C
at right angles to the axis of specimen
.
D
would not occur
.
31. The bending stress in a beam is __________ section modulus.

A
directly proportional to
.
B. inversely proportional to
32. When shear force at a point is zero, then bending moment is __________ at that point.
A
zero
.
B. minimum
705
C
maximum
.
D
infinity
.
33. The maximum bending moment for the beam shown in the below figure, lies at a distance of
__________ from the end B.
A
l/2
.
B. l/3
C
.
D
.
34. When a bar is cooled to - 5C, it will develop

A
no stress
.
B. shear stress
C
tensile stress
.
D
compressive stress
.
35. The limit of eccentricity is based upon no tension condition.

A
True
.
706
B. False
36. In order to know whether a column is long or short, we must know its slenderness ratio.
A
True
.
B. False
37. A composite shaft consisting of two stepped portions having spring constants k1 and k2 is
held between two rigid supports at the ends. Its equivalent spring constant is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
k1k2
.
38. Resilience is the

A
energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limits
.
B. energy stored in a body when strained upto the breaking of the specimen
C
maximum strain energy which can be stored in a body
.
D
none of the above
.
39. If the depth is kept constant for a beam of uniform strength, then its width will vary in
proportional to (where M = Bending moment)
A
M
.
707
B. M
C
M2
.
D
M3
.
40. A concentrated load is one which

A
acts at a point on a beam
.
B. spreads non-uniformly over the whole length of a beam
C
spreads uniformly over the whole length of a beam
.
D
varies uniformly over the whole length of a beam
.
41. If the tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is 50%, then ratio of rivet hole diameter to the pitch
of rivets is
A
0.20
.
B. 0.30
C
0.50
.
D
0.60
.
42. The rectangular beam 'A' has length l, width b and depth d. Another beam 'B' has the same
length and depth but width is double that of 'A'. The elastic strength of beam 'B' will be
__________ as compared to beam A.
A
same
.
B. double
708
C
four times
.
D
six times
.
43. In a simple bending of beams, the stress in the beam varies

A
linearly
.
B. parabolically
C
hyperbolically
.
D
elliptically
.
44. A beam supported at its both ends is not a simply supported beam.
A
True
.
B. False
45. The stress at which the extension of the material takes place more quickly as compared to the
increase in load, is called
A
elastic limit
.
B. yield point
C
ultimate point
.
D
breaking point
.
46. The strain energy stored in a solid circular shaft subjected to shear stress () is (where C =
709
Modulus of rigidity for the shaft material)
A
. x Volume of shaft
B.
x Volume of shaft
C
. x Volume of shaft
D
. x Volume of shaft
47. When two main plates are kept in alignment butting each other and riveted with cover plate
on both sides of the main plates with two rows of rivets in each main plate, the joint is known
as __________ double cover butt joint.
A
single riveted
.
B. double riveted
48. Whenever a material is loaded within elastic limit, stress is __________ strain.
A
equal to
.
C
.
49. A load which is spread over a beam in such a manner that it varies uniformly over the whole
length of abeam is called uniformly __________ load.
A
distributed
.
B. varying

A The energy stored in a body, when strained within elastic limit is known as strain
. energy.
710
The maximum strain energy which can be stored in a body is termed as proof
B.
resilience.
C
The proof resilience per unit volume of a material is known as modulus of resilience.
.
D
all of the above
.

1. Compression members always tend to buckle in the direction of the
A
axis of load
.
B. perpendicular to the axis of load
C
minimum cross section
.
D
least radius of gyration
.
2. The maximum tangential stress in a thick cylindrical shell is always __________ the internal
pressure acting on the shell.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
3. A thin spherical shell of diameter (d) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal pressure (p).
The stress in the shell material is
A
pd/t
.
B. pd/2t
711
C
pd/4t
.
D
pd/8t
.
4. Rivets are generally specified by

A
thickness of plates to be joined
.
B. overall length
C
shank diameter
.
D
diameter of head
.
5. Principle plane is a plane on which the shear stress is

A
zero
.
B. minimum
C
maximum
.
6. The bending moment in the centre of a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly
distributed load of w per unit length is
A
zero
.
B. wl2/2
C
wl2/4
.
D
wl2/8
.
712
7. When a thin cylindrical shell is subjected to an internal pressure, there will be
A
a decrease in diameter and length of the shell
.
B. an increase in diameter and decrease in length of the shell
C
a decrease in diameter and increase in length of the shell
.
D
an increase in diameter and length of the shell
.
8. A welded joint as compared to a riveted joint has __________ strength.

A
same
.
B. less
C
more
.
9. The shear force at apoint on a beam is the algebraic __________ of all the forces on either
side of the point.
A
sum
.
B. difference
10. The point of contraflexure occurs in

A
cantilever beams
.
B. simply supported beams
C
overhanging beams
.
D
fixed beams
.
713
11. For a 25 mm hole drilled in plates, the diameter of rivet shank should be
A
23mm
.
B. 24.5mm
C
25mm
.
D
26mm
.
12. A beam of uniform strength has

A
same cross-section throughout the beam
.
B. same bending stress at every section
C
same bending moment at every section
.
D
same shear stress at every section
.
13. The shear force of a simply supported beam carrying a central point load changes sign at its
midpoint.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
14. In a simple bending theory, one of the assumption is that the material of the beam is
isotropic. This assumption means that the
A
normal stress remains constant in all directions
.
B. normal stress varies linearly in the material
714
C
elastic constants are same in all the directions
.
D
elastic constants varies linearly in the material
.
15. The polar modulus for a solid shaft of diameter (D) is

A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
16. The extremeties of any diameter on Mohr's circle represent

A
principal stresses
.
B. normal stresses on planes at 45
C
shear stresses on planes at 45
.
D
normal and shear stresses on a plane
.
17. The polar moment of inertia of a hollow shaft of outer diameter (D) and inner diameter (d) is
A
.
B.
715
C
.
D
.
18. Two shafts 'A' and 'B' are made of same material. The shaft 'A' is solid and has diameter D.
The shaft 'B' is hollow with outer diameter D and inner diameter D/2. The strength of hollow
shaft in torsion is __________ as that of solid shaft.
A
1/16
.
B. 1/8
C
1/4
.
D
15/16
.
19. The bending moment of a cantilever beam of length l and carrying a gradually varying load
from zero at free end and w per unit length at the fixed end is __________ at the fixed end.
A
wl/2
.
B. wl
C
wl2/2
.
D
wl2/6
.
20. In the below figure, the stress corresponding to point D is
716
A
yield point stress
.
B. breaking stress
C
ultimate stress
.
D
elastic limit
.
21. The Poisson's ratio for cast iron varies from

A
0.23 to 0.27
.
B. 0.25 to 0.33
C
0.31 to 0.34
.
D
0.32 to 0.42
.
22. The Rankine's theory for active earth pressure is based on the assumption that
A
the retained material is homogeneous and cohesionless
.
the frictional resistance between the retaining wall and the retained material is
B.
neglected
C the failure of the retained material takes place along a plane called rupture plane
717
.
D
all of the above
.
23. The strain energy stored in a spring, when subjected to maximum load, without suffering
permanent distortion, is known as
A
impact energy
.
B. proof resilience
C
proof stress
.
D
modulus of resilience
.
24. An overhanging beam must overhang on both sides.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
25. The resultant stress on an inclined plane which is inclined at an angle to the normal cross-
section of a body which is subjected to a direct tensile stress () in one plane, is
A
sin
.
B. cos
C
sin 2
.
D
cos 2
.
26. The ratio of change in volume to the original volume is called

A
linear strain
.
718
B. lateral strain
C
volumetric strain
.
D
Poisson's ratio
.
27. In a beam where shear force changes sign, the bending moment will be
A
zero
.
B. minimum
C
maximum
.
D
infinity
.
28. The maximum shear stress of a beam of triangular section occurs above the neutral axis,
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
29. For the beam shown in the below figure, the shear force at A is equal to
A
wl/6
.
B. wl/3
C
wl
.
719
D
2 wl/3
.
30. The ductility of a material __________ with the increase in percentage reduction in area of a
specimen under tensile test.
A
increases
.
B. decreases
C
remains same
.
31. The rivets are made from ductile material.

A
Yes
.
B. No
32. The rectangular beam 'A' has length l, width b and depth d. Another beam 'B' has the same
length and width but depth is double that of 'A'. The elastic strength of beam B will be
A
same
.
B. double
C
four times
.
D
six times
.
33. When a closely-coiled helical spring is subjected to an axial load, it is said to be under
A
bending
.
B. shear
C torsion
720
.
D
crushing
.
34. When a rectangular beam is loaded transversely, the zero stress is developed on the neutral
axis.
A
True
.
B. False
35. The given figure shows the Mohr's circle of stress for two unequal and like principal stresses
(x and y) acting at a body across two mutually perpendicular planes. The normal stress on
an oblique section making an angle with the minor principle plane is given by
A
OC
.
B. OP
C
OQ
.
D
PQ
.
36. According to Euler's column theory, the crippling load for a column of length (l) with one
end fixed and the other end free is __________ the crippling load for a similar column
hinged at both the ends.
A
equal to
.
721
B. less than
C
more than
.
37. If percentage reduction in area of a certain specimen made of material 'A' under tensile test is
60% and the percentage reduction in area of a specimen with same dimensions made of
material 'B' is 40%, then
A
the material A is more ductile than material B
.
B. the material B is more ductile than material A
C
the ductility of material A and B is equal
.
D
the material A is brittle and material B is ductile
.
38. The shear force diagram for a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load
of w per unit length, consists of
A
one right angled triangle
.
B. two right angled triangles
C
one equilateral triangle
.
D
two equilateral triangles
.
39. A body is subjected to two normal stresses 20 kN/m2 (tensile) and 10 kN/m2 (compressive)
acting perpendicular to each other. The maximum shear stress is
A
5 kN/m2
.
B. 10 kN/m2
C 15 kN/m2
722
.
D
20 kN/m2
.
40. When a cantilever beam is loaded at its free end, the maximum compressive stress shall
develop at
A
bottom fibre
.
B. top fibre
C
neutral axis
.
D
centre of gravity
.
41. In a cantilever beam of length l subjected to a uniformly distributed load of w per unit length,
the maximum deflection lies at the fixed end.
A
Yes
.
B. No
42. A lap joint is always in __________ shear.

A
single
.
B. double
43. The elongation of a conical bar under its own weight is __________ that of prismatic bar of
the same length.
A
equal to
.
B. half
723
C
one-third
.
D
two-third
.
44. When the shear force diagram is a parabolic curve between two points, it indicates that there
is a
A
point load at the two points
.
B. no loading between the two points
C
uniformly distributed load between the two points
.
D
uniformly varying load between the two points
.
45. The efficiency of a riveted joint is the ratio of the strength of the joint to the strength of the
solid plate.
A
True
.
B. False
46. The maximum deflection of a cantilever beam of length l with a uniformly distributed load
of w per unit length is (where W = wl)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
724
47. The slenderness ratio is the ratio of
A
area of column to least radius of gyration
.
B. length of column to least radius of gyration
C
least radius of gyration to area of column
.
D
least radius of gyration to length of column
.
48. When two shafts of same length, one of which is hollow, transmit equal torques and have
equal maximum stress, then they should have equal
A
polar moment of inertia
.
B. polar modulus
C
diameter
.
D
angle of twist
.
49. For a beam, as shown in the below figure, the maximum deflection lies at
A
. from B
B.
from A
725
C
. from B
D
. from A
50. According to Euler's column theory, the crippling load for a column of length (l) fixed at
both ends is __________ the crippling load for a similar column hinged at both ends.
A
equal to
.
B. two times
C
four times
.
D
eight times
.

1. The shear force and bending moment are zero at the free end of a cantilever beam, if it
carries a
A
point load at the free end
.
B. point load at the middle of its length
C
uniformly distributed load over the whole length
.
D
none of the above
.
2. A rod is enclosed centrally in a tube and the assembly is tightened by rigid washers. If the
assembly is subjected to a compressive load, then
A
rod is under compression
.
726
B. tube is under compression
C
both rod and tube are under compression
.
D
tube is under tension and rod is under compression
.
3. A bar of length L metres extends by l mm under a tensile force of P. The strain produced in
the bar is
A
l/L
.
B. 0.1 l/L
C
0.01 l/L
.
D
0.001 l/L
.
4. A shaft revolving at rad / s transmits torque (T) in N-m. The power developed is
A
T. watts
.
B. 2 T watts
C
. watts
D
. watts
5. The unit of modulus of elasticity is same as those of

A
stress, strain and pressure
.
B. stress, force and modulus of rigidity
727
C
strain, force and pressure
.
D
stress, pressure and modulus of rigidity
.
6. When a bar of length l, width b and thickness t is subjected to a pull of P, its

A
length, width and thickness increases
.
B. length, width and thickness decreases
C
length increases, width and thickness decreases
.
D
length decreases, width and thickness increases
.
7. A column with maximum equivalent length has

A
both ends hinged
.
B. both ends fixed
C
one end fixed and the other end hinged
.
D
one end fixed and the other end free
.
8. A column of length (l) with both ends fixed may be considered as equivalent to a column of
length __________ with both ends hinged.
A
l/8
.
B. l/4
C
l/2
.
728
D
l
.
9. The product of the tangential force acting on the shaft and its distance from the axis of the
shaft (i.e. radius of shaft) is known as
A
bending moment
.
B. twisting moment
C
torsional rigidity
.
D
flexural rigidity
.
10. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress () in one plane, the maximum shear stress
is __________ the maximum normal stress.
A
equal to
.
B. one-half
C
two-third
.
D
twice
.
11. A simply supported beam 'A' of length l, breadth b and depth d carries a central load W.
Another beam 'B' of the same dimensions carries a central load equal to 2 W. The deflection
of beam 'B' will be __________ as that of beam 'A'.
A
one-fourth
.
B. one-half
C
double
.
729
D
four times
.

A
A continuous beam has only two supports at the ends.
.
B. A uniformly distributed load spreads uniformly over the whole length of a beam.
C
The bending moment is maximum where shear force is maximum.
.
D The maximum bending moment of a simply supported beam of length l with a central
. point load W is Wl/8.
13. In the below figure, the point E represents the maximum stress.
A
True
.
B. False
14. The ratio of the largest load in a test to the original cross-sectional area of the test piece is
called
A
elastic limit
.
B. yield stress
C
ultimate stress
.
730
D
breaking stress
.
15. According to Euler's column theory, the crippling load of a column is given by p = 2 EI/Cl2.
In the Euler's formula, the value of C for a column with one end fixed and the other end free,
is
A
1/2
.
B. 1
C
2
.
D
4
.
16. Strain is equal to (where l = Original length, and l = Change in length)

A
l/l
.
B. l/l
C
l.l
.
D
l + l
.
17. The total strain energy stored in a body is termed as

A
resilience
.
B. proofresilience
C
impact energy
.
731
D
modulus of resilience
.
18. Modulus of resilience is the proof resilience per unit volume of a material.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
19. In order to avoid sliding of masonry dam, the force of friction between the dam and soil
should be at least __________ the total water pressure per metre length.
A
equal to
.
B. 1.5 times
C
double
.
D
2.5 times
.
20. In a beam subjected to pure bending, the intensity of stress in any fibre is __________ the
distance of the fibre from the neutral axis.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
more than
.
D
.

A In the theory of simple bending, the assumption is that the plane sections before
. bending remains plane after bending.
B. In a beam subjected to bending moment, the strain is directly proportional to the
732
distance from the neutral axis.
C
At the neutral axis of a beam, the bending stress is maximum.
.
D
The bending stress in a beam is inversely proportional to the section modulus.
.
22. If the modulus of elasticity of a material is twice its modulus of rigidity, then the Poisson's
ratio of the material is equal to zero.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
23. A beam of T-section is subjected to a shear force of F. The maximum shear force will occur
at the
A
top of the section
.
B. bottom of the section
C
neutral axis of the section
.
D
junction of web and flange
.
24. When there is no increase or decrease in shear force between two points, it indicates that
there is no change in the bending moment between these points.
A
True
.
B. False
25. Two bars of different materials and same size are subjected to the same tensile force. If the
bars have unit elongation in the ratio of 2:5, then the ratio of modulus of elasticity of the two
materials will be
A
2:5
.
733
B. 5:2
C
4:3
.
D
3:4
.
26. A beam of uniform strength may be obtained by

A
keeping the width uniform and varying the depth
.
B. keeping the depth uniform and varying the width
C
varying the width and depth both
.
D
.
27. The springs in brakes and clutches are used to

A
to apply forces
.
B. to measure forces
C
to store strain energy
.
D
to absorb shocks
.
28. The maximum deflection of a fixed beam carrying a central point load lies at
A
fixed ends
.
B. centre of beam
C l/3 from fixed ends
734
.
D
none of these
.
29. When a circular bar tapering uniformly from diameter d1, at one end to diameter d2 at the
other end, is subjected to an increase in temperature (t), then the thermal stress induced is
(where = Coefficient of linear expansion, and E = Modulus of elasticity for the bar
material)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
30. Parallel fillet welds are designed for bending strength.

A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
31. The design of thin cylindrical shells is based on

A
hoop stress
.
B. longitudinal stress
C
arithmetic mean of the hoop and the longitudinal stress
.
735
D
geometric mean of the hoop and longitudinal stress
.
32. When a body is subjected to bi-axial stress i.e. direct stresses (x) and (y) in two mutually
perpendicular planes accompanied by a simple shear stress (xy), then maximum shear stress
is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
33. The pull required to crush the rivet per pitch length is
A
p.t.t
.
B. d.t.c
C
/4 x d2 x t
.
D
/4 x d2 x c
.
34. When a bar of length l and diameter d is rigidly fixed at the upper end and hanging freely,
then the total elongation produced in the bar due to its own weight is (where w = Weight per
unit volume of the bar)
A
.
B.
736
C
.
D
.
35. The deformation of the bar per unit length in the direction of the force is known as
A
linear strain
.
B. lateral strain
C
volumetric strain
.
D
shear strain
.

A
The stress is the pressure per unit area.
.
B. The strain is expressed in mm.
C
Hook's law holds good up to the breaking point.
.
D
Stress is directly proportional to strain within elastic limit.
.
37. The relation between Young's modulus (E), shear modulus (C) and bulk modulus (K) is given
by
A
.
B.
737
C
.
D
.
38. In watches, the spring is used to absorb shocks and vibrations.

A
Yes
.
B. No
39. The polar moment of inertia of a solid circular shaft of diameter (D) is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
40. The volumetric strain is the ratio of the

A
original thickness to the change in thickness
.
B. change in thickness to the original thickness
C
original volume to the change in volume
.
D
change in volume to the original volume
.
41. The maximum deflection of a fixed beam of length l carrying a central point load W is
A
.
738
B.
C
.
D
.
42. The breaking stress is __________ the ultimate stress.

A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
43. A bolt is made to pass through a tube and both of them are tightly fitted with the help of
washers and nuts. If the nut is tightened, then
A
bolt arid tube are under tension
.
B. bolt and tube are under compression
C
bolt is under compression and tube is under tension
.
D
bolt is Under tension and tube is under compression
.
MPa on the same planes. The minimum normal stress will be
A
400 MPa
.
B. 500 MPa
739
C
900 MPa
.
D
1400 MPa
.
(x and y) acting at a body across two mutually perpendicular planes. The resultant stress is
given by
A
OC
.
B. OP
C
OQ
.
D
PQ
.
46. The shear force diagram fora cantilever beam of length l and carrying a gradually varying
load from zero at free end and w per unit length at the fixed end is a
A
horizontal straight line
.
B. vertical straight line
C
inclined line
.
740
D
parabolic curve
.
47. When one plate overlaps the other and the two plates are riveted together with two rows of
rivets, the joint is known as
A
single riveted lap joint
.
B. double riveted lap joint
C
double riveted single cover butt joint
.
D
double riveted double cover butt joint
.
48. When a beam is subjected to a bending moment, the strain in a layer is __________ the
distance from the neutral axis.
A
equal to
.
C
.
D
independent of
.
49. The thermal or temperature stress is a function of

A
increase in temperature
.
B. modulus of elasticity
C
coefficient of linear expansion
.
741
D
all of these
.
50. In Mohr's circle, the centre of circle from Y-axis is taken as

A
.
B.
C
.
D
.

1. A pressure vessel is said to be a thin shell when it is made of thin sheets.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
2. When a column is subjected to an eccentric load, the stress induced in the column will be
A
direct stress only
.
B. bending stress only
C
shear stress only
.
D
direct and bending stress both
.
742
A The deformation of the bar per unit length in the direction of the force is called linear
. strain.
B. The Poisson's ratio is the ratio of lateral strain to the linear strain.
C
The ratio of change in volume to the original volume is called volumetric strain.
.
D
The bulk modulus is the ratio of linear stress to the linear strain.
.
4. When a shaft is subjected to a twisting moment, every cross-section of the shaft will be under
A
tensile stress
.
C
shear stress
.
D
bending stress
.
5. The torque transmitted by a hollow shaft of outer diameter (D) and inner diameter (d) is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
6. A column is said to be a short column, when

A its length is very small
743
.
B. its cross-sectional area is small
C
the ratio of its length to the least radhis of gyration is less than 80.
.
D
the ratio of its length to the least radius of gyration is more than 80.
.
7. In a thick cylindrical shell subjected to an internal pressure (p), the radial stress across the
thickness of the cylinder is
A
maximum at the outer surface and minimum at the inner surface
.
B. maximum at the inner surface and minimum at the outer surface
C
maximum at the outer surface and zero at the inner surface
.
D
maximum at the inner surface arid zero at the outer surface
.
8. In order to avoid tearing off the plate at an edge, the distance from the centre of the rivet hole
to the nearest edge of the plate (i.e. margin) should be (where d = Diameter of rivet hole in
mm)
A
d
.
B. 1.5 d
C
2d
.
D
2.5 d
.
9. In a riveted joint, when the rivets in the various rows are opposite to each other, the joint is
said to be
A chain riveted
744
.
B. zig-zag riveted
C
diamond riveted
.
D
none of these
.
10. The load required to produce a unit deflection in a spring is called

A
flexural rigidity
.
B. torsional rigidity
C
spring stiffness
.
D
Young's modulus
.
11. A reinforced cement concrete beam is considered to be made of

A
homogeneous material
.
B. hetrogeneous material
C
composite material
.
D
isotropic material
.
12. The radius of the Mohr 's circle in the given figure is equal to
745
A
sum of two principal stresses
.
B. difference of two principal stresses
C
half the sum of two principal stresses
.
D
half the difference of two principal stresses
.
13. The extension of a circular bar tapering uniformly from diameter d1 at one end to
diameter d2 at the other end, and subjected to an axial pull of P is given by
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
14. The ratio of bulk modulus to Young's modulus for a Poisson's ratio of 0.25 will be
A
1/3
.
B. 2/3
746
C
1
.
D
3/2
.
15. The bending moment diagram for a cantilever beam of length l and carrying a gradually
varying load from zero at the free end and w per unit length at the fixed end is a parabolic
curve.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
perpendicular planes accompanied by a simple shear stress (xy), then minimum normal stress
is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
17. The direct stress, across a principal plane, is known as principal stress.
A
Yes
.
B. No
18. On one side of a neutral axis of a beam, there is a tensile stress and on the other side of the
beam there is a compressive stress.
A
Agree
.
747
B. Disagree
19. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (), the maximum normal stress is equal to
the direct tensile stress.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
20. According to Euler's column theory, the crippling load for a column length (l) hinged at both
ends, is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
21. A bar of copper and steel form a composite system, which is heated to a temperature of 40C.
The stress induced in the copper bar will be
A
tensile
.
B. compressive
C
shear
.
D
zero
.
22. In the below figure, the point C represents
748
A
elastic limit
.
B. upper yield point
C
lower yield point
.
D
breaking point
.
23. Two closely-coiled helical springs 'A' and 'B' of the same matenal, same number of turns and
made from same wire are subjected to an axial load W. The mean diameter of spring 'A' is
double the mean diameter of spring 'B'. The ratio of deflections in spring 'B' to spring 'A' will
be
A
1/8
.
B. 1/4
C
2
.
D
4
.
24. Two shafts 'A' and 'B' have the same material. The shaft 'A' is solid of diameter 100 mm. The
shaft 'B' is hollow with outer diameter 100 mm and inner diameter 50 mm. The torque
transmitted by shaft 'B' is __________ as that of shaft 'A'.
A
1/6
.
749
B. 1/8
C
1/4
.
D
15/16
.
25. The tensile strength of the welded joint for double fillet is (where s = Leg or size of the
weld, l = Length of weld, and t = Allowable tensile stress for weld metal)
A
0.5 s.l.t
.
B. s.l.t
C
2 s.l.t
.
D
2.s.l.t
.
26. A double strap butt joint with equal straps is

A
always in single shear
.
B. always in double shear
C
either in single shear or double shear
.
D
none of these
.
27. At the neutral axis of a beam

A
the layers are subjected to maximum bending stress
.
B. the layers are subjected to minimum bending stress
750
C
the layers are subjected to compression
.
D
the layers do not undergo any strain
.
28. The line of intersection of the neutral layer with any normal cross-section of the beam is
called neutral axis.
A
True
.
B. False
29. In a thick cylindrical shell subjected to an internal pressure (p), the maximum radial stress at
the inner surface of the shell is
A
zero
.
B. p (tensile)
C
-p (compressive)
.
D
2p (tensile)
.
30. Shear strength of the welded joint for double parallel fillet is (where = Allowable shear
stress for weld metal)
A
0.5 s.l.
.
B. s.l.
C
2 s.l.
.
D
2.s.l.
.
31. A column that fails due to direct stress, is called

A
short column
751
B. long column
C
weak column
.
D
medium column
.
32. The thermal stress __________ upon the cross-sectional area of the bar.
A
depends
.
B. does not depend
33. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (d) length (l) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal
pressure (p). The longitudinal stress in the shell is
A
pd/t
.
B. pd/2t
C
pd/4t
.
D
pd/6t
.
34. If the section modulus of a beam is increased, the bending stress in the beam will
A
not change
.
B. increase
C
decrease
.
35. A beam encastered at both the ends is called

A
simply supported beam
.
752
B. fixed beam
C
cantilever beam
.
D
continuous beam
.
36. The bending moment diagram for a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed
load of w per unit length, will be
A
a horizontal line
.
B. a vertical line
C
an inclined line
.
D
a parabolic curve
.
37. The bending moment at the centre of a simply supported beam with a gradually varying load
from zero at both ends to w per metre at the centre is wl/4.
A
Yes
.
B. No
38. A body is subjected to a direct tensile stress of 300 MPa in one plane accompanied by a
simple shear stress of 200 MPa. The maximum shear stress will be
A
-100 MPa
.
B. 250 MPa
C
300 MPa
.
753
D
400 MPa
.
39. In a thick cylindrical shell subjected to an internal pressure (p), the tangential stress is always
a tensile stress where as the radial stress is a compressive stress
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
40. The horizontal thrust offered by the retaining wall on the retained material is (where w =
Specific weight of the retained material, h = height of retaining wall, and () = Angle of
repose of the retained earth)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
41. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (d), length (l) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal
pressure (p). The ratio of longitudinal strain to hoop strain is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
754
42. A simply supported beam of length l is loaded with a uniformly distributed load of w per unit
length. The maximum deflection is and lies at the centre of the beam.
A
True
.
B. False
43. When a rectangular bar of length l, breadth b and thickness t is subjected to an axial pull
of P, then linear strain () is given by (where E = Modulus of elasticity)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
perpendicular planes accompanied by a simple shear stress (xy), then maximum normal stress
is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
45. In a thick cylindrical shell subjected to an internal pressure (p), the tangential stress across
the thickness of a cylinder is
A
.
755
C
.
D
maximum at the inner surface and zero at the outer surface
.
46. The strength of the un-riveted or solid plate per pitch length is
A
d.t.c
.
B. p.t.t
C
(p - d)t.t
.
D
/2 x d2 x
.
47. The relation between Young's modulus (E) and bulk modulus (K) is given by
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
48. A simply supported beam is one which is supported on more than two supports.
A
True
.
B. False
756
49. For long columns, thevalue of buckling load is __________ crushing load.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
more than
.
50. For the beam shown in the below figure, the shear force diagram between A and B is
A
a horizontal line
.
B. a vertical line
C
an inclined line
.
D
a parabolic curve
.

1. The maximum shear stress in a thin cylindrical shell subjected to internal pressure p is
A
pd/t
.
B. pd/2t
C
pd/4t
.
757
D
pd/8t
.
2. When a shaft, is subjected to torsion, the shear stress induced in the shaft varies from
A
minimum at the centre to maximum at the circumference
.
B. maximum at the centre to minimum at the circumference
C
zero at the centre to maximum at the circumference
.
D
maximum at the centre to zero at the circumference
.
3. The maximum bending moment for a simply supported beam with a gradually varying load
from zero at both ends and w per metre at the centre, lies at the centre of a beam.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
MPa on the same planes. The maximum shear stress will be
A
400 MPa
.
B. 500 MPa
C
900 MPa
.
D
1400 MPa
.
5. A shaft of diameter D is subjected to a twisting moment (T) and a bending moment (M). If the
maximum bending stress is equal to maximum shear stress developed, then M is equal to
A
T/2
.
758
B. T
C
2T
.
D
4T
.
6. The maximum deflection of a cantilever beam of length l with a point load W at the free end is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
7. The maximum bending moment of a cantilever beam of length l and carrying a uniformly
distributed load of w per unit length lies at the middle of its length.
A
True
.
B. False
8. A circular shaft fixed at, A has diameter D for half of its length and diameter D/2 over the
other half, as shown in the below figure. If the rotation of B relative to A is 0.1 radian, the
rotation of C relative to B will be
759
B. 0.8 radian
C. 1.6 radian
D. 3.2 radian
9. Young's modulus may be defined as the ratio of

A
linear stress to lateral strain
.
B. lateral strain to linear strain
C
linear stress to linear strain
.
D
.
10. In the below figure, __________ represents glass.
A. curve A
B. curve B
C. curve C
D. curve D

A. The size of hole drilled in riveting plates is less than the actual size of rivet.
760
B. The centre to centre distance between two consecutive rivets in a row is called margin.
C. Rivets are generally specified by its shank diameter.
Tearing of plates can be avoided by taking the pitch of rivets equal to 1.5 times the
D.
diameter of rivet hole.
12. When a bar of length l, width b and thickness t is subjected to a push of P, its
A
length, width and thickness increases
.
B. length, width and thickness decreases
C
length increases, width and thickness decreases
.
D
length decreases, width and thickness increases
.
13. If the magnitude of direct stress and bending stress is equal, then there will be zero stress at
one of the extreme ends of a column.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
14. When a thin cvlindrical shell is subjected to an internal pressure, the volumetric strain is
(where 1 = Hoop strain, and 2 = Longitudinal strain)
A. 21 - 2
B. 21 + 2
C. 22 - 1
D. 22 + 1
15. In a riveted joint, when the rivets in.the adjacent rows are staggered in such a way that every
rivet is in the middle of the two rivets of the opposite row, the joint is said to be diamond
riveted.
A
Yes
.
761
B. No
16. The factor of safety is always more than unity.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
17. Mohr's circle is used to determine the stresses on an oblique section of a body subjected to
A. direct tensile stress in one plane accompanied by a shear stress
B. direct tensile stress in two mutually perpendicular directions
direct tensile stress in two mutually perpendicular directions accompanied by a simple

C.
shear stress
D. all of the above
18. The proof resilience is the maximum strain energy which can be stored in a body.
A. Yes
B. No
19. The maximum shear stress developed in a beam of rectangular section is __________ the
average shear stress.
A. equal to
B. 4/3 times
C. 1.5 times
D. twice
20. In the below figure, curve C represents soft brass.
762
A
True
.
B. False
21. A beam which is fixed at one end and free at the other is called
A
.
B. fixed beam
C
overhanging beam
.
D
cantilever beam
.
22. When a body is subjected to three mutually perpendicular stresses, of equal intensity, the
ratio of direct stress to the corresponding volumetric strain is known as
A
Young's modulus
.
B. modulus of rigidity
C
bulk modulus
.
D
Poisson's ratio
.
23. The bending moment at a section tends to bend or deflect the beam and the internal stresses
resist its bending. The resistance offered by the internal stresses, to the bending, is called
A
763
B. shear stress
C
bending stress
.
D
elastic modulus
.
24. The section modulus of a rectangular section about an axis through its C.G., is
A
b/2
.
B. d/2
C
bd2/2
.
D
bd2/6
.
25. The ratio of shear modulus to the modulus of elasticity for a Poisson's ratio of 0.4 will be
A
5/7
.
B. 7/5
C
5/14
.
D
14/5
.
26. The maximum shear stress is equal to the radius of Mohr's circle.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
27. A closely coiled helical spring is of mean diameter (D) and spring wire diameter (d). The
spring index is the ratio of
A
764
B. 1/D
C
D/d
.
D
d/D
.
28. The strain energy stored in a body, when the load is gradually applied, is (where = Stress in
the material of the body, V = Volume of the body, and E = Modulus of elasticity of the
material)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
29. If the diameter of pressure vessel is 15 times the wall thickness, the vessel is said to be a
thick shell.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
30. The rivets are used for __________ fastenings.

A
permanent
.
B. temporary
31. The strength of a riveted joint is equal to the

A
pull required to tear off the plate per pitch length (Pt)
.
765
B. pull required to shear off the rivet per pitch length (Ps)
C
pull required to crush the rivet per pitch length (Pc)
.
D
minimum value of Pt, Ps or Pc
.
32. In the below figure, Hook's law holds good, for the portion from O to A.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
33. The neutral axis of the symmetrical beam does not pass through the centroid of the beam.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
34. The Poisson's ratio for steel varies from

A
0.23 to 0.27
.
B. 0.27 to 0.30
C
0.31 to 0.34
.
766
D
0.32 to 0.42
.
35. The deformation of a bar under its own weight is __________ the deformation, if the same
body is subjected to a direct load equal to weight of the body.
A
equal to
.
B. half
C
double
.
D
quadruple
.
36. A thick cylindrical shell having ro and ri as outer and inner radii, is subjected to an internal
pressure (p). The minimum tangential stress at the outer surface of the shell is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
37. In a simple bending theory, one of the assumption is that the plane sections before bending
remain plane after bending. This assumption means that
A
stress is uniform throughout the beam
.
B. strain is uniform throughout the beam
C stress is proportional to the distance from the neutral axis
767
.
D
strain is proportional to the distance from the neutral axis
.
38. The maximum shear stress, in the given figure, is equal to __________ of the Mohr's circle.
A
radius
.
B. diameter
C
circumference
.
D
area
.
39. A simply supported beam of length l carries a point load W at a point C as shown in the
below figure. The maximum deflection lies at
A
point A
.
B. point B
768
C
point C
.
D
between points B and C
.
40. When a body is subjected to direct tensile stresses (x and y ) in two mutually perpendicular
directions, accompanied by a simple shear stress xy , then in Mohr's circle method, the circle
radius is taken as
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
41. A uniformly distributed load may be assumed to behave like a point load at the centre of
gravity of the load for all sorts of calculations.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
42. The shear force in the centre of a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed
load of w per unit length, is
A
zero
.
B. wl2/2
C
wl2/4
.
769
D
wl2/8
.
43. When a change in length takes place, the strain is known as

A
linear strain
.
B. lateral strain
C
volumetric strain
.
D
shear strain
.
44. The maximum bending moment of a simply supported beam with central point load lies at
the point of loading.
A
True
.
B. False
45. When the shear force diagram between any two points is an inclined straight line, it indicates
that there is a uniformly varying load between the two points.
A
Yes
.
B. No
46. The maximum deflection of a fixed beam of length l carrying a total load W uniformly
distributed over the whole length is
A
.
B.
C
.
770
D
.
47. The pull required to tear off the plate per pitch length is (where p = Pitch of rivets, t =
Thickness of plates, and t, and c = Permissible tensile, shearing and crushing stresses
respectively)
A
(p - 2d)t x c
.
B. (p - d)t x
C
(p - d)t x t
.
D
(2p - d)t x t
.
48. When a beam is subjected to bending moment, the stress at any point is __________ the
distance of the point from the neutral axis.
A
equal to
.
C
.
D
independent of
.
49. The torsional rigidity of a shaft is given by

A
T/J
.
B. T/
C
T/r
.
D T/G
771
.
50. The unit of strain is

A
N-mm
.
B. N/mm
C
mm
.
D
no unit
.

1. For the two shafts connected in parallel and subjected to twisting moment, the angle of twist
of each shaft will be same.
A
Yes
.
B. No
2. For a shaft, the shear stress at a point is __________ the distance from the axis of the shaft.
A
equal to
.
C
.
3. A spring used to absorb shocks and vibrations is

A
conical spring
.
B. torsion spring
C leaf spring
772
.
D
disc spring
.
4. The shear stress at the centre of a circular shaft under torsion is

A
zero
.
B. minimum
C
maximum
.
D
infinity
.
5. At the neutral axis of a beam, the shear stress is

A
zero
.
B. minimum
C
maximum
.
D
infinity
.
6. In a leaf spring, the deflection at the centre is

A
.
B.
C
.
773
D
.
7. The actual neutral axis of a reinforced cement concrete beam is based on the principle that
the moment of areas of compression and tension zones at the neutral axis are equal.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
8. A cantilever beam is one which is

A
fixed at both ends
.
B. fixed at one end and free at the other end
C
supported at its ends
.
D
supported on more than two supports
.
9. In the above question, the ratio of stiffness of spring 'B' to spring 'A' will be
A
2
.
B. 4
C
6
.
D
8
.
10. The neutral axis of a transverse section of a beam passes through the centre of gravity of the
section and is
A
in the vertical plane
.
B. in the horizontal plane
774
C
in the same plane in which the beam bends
.
D
at right angle to the plane in which the beam bends
.
11. A pressure vessel is said to be a thick shell, when

A
it is made of thick sheets
.
B. the internal pressure is very high
C
the ratio of wall thickness of the vessel to its diameter is less than 1/10.
.
D
the ratio of wall thickness of the vessel to its diameter is greater than 1/10.
.
12. A steel bar 2 m long, 20 mm wide and 10 mm thick is subjected to a pull of 2 kN. If the same
bar is subjected to a push of 2 kN, the Poission's ratio of the bar in tension will be
__________ the Poisson's ratio for the bar in compression.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
13. A square beam and a circular beam have the same length, same allowable stress and the same
bending moment. The ratio of weights of the square beam to the circular beam is
A
1/2
.
B. 1
775
C
1/1.12
.
D
1/2
.
14. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (d), length (l) and thickness (t)is subjected to an internal
pressure (p). The hoop stress in the shell is
A
pd/t
.
B. pd/2t
C
pd/4t
.
D
pd/6t
.
15. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress () in one plane, then tangential or shear
stress on an oblique section of the body inclined at an angle to the normal of the section is
A
sin 2
.
B. cos 2
C
/2 sin 2
.
D
/2 cos 2
.
16. The distance between the centre of a rivet hole to the nearest edge of plate, is called
A
margin
.
B. pitch
776
C
back pitch
.
D
diagonal pitch
.
17. A localised compressive stress at the area of contact between two members is known as
A
tensile stress
.
B. bending stress
C
crushing stress
.
D
shear stress
.
18. Two closely-coiled helical springs 'A' and 'B' are equal in all respects but the number of turns
of spring 'A' is double that of spring 'B'. The stiffness of spring 'A' will be __________ that of
spring 'B'.
A
one-sixteenth
.
B. one-eighth
C
one-fourth
.
D
one-half
.
19. In a tensile test, when the material is stressed beyond elastic limit, the tensile strain
__________ as compared to the stress.
A
decreases slowly
.
B. increases slowly
C decreases more quickly
777
.
D
increases more quickly
.
20. Poisson's ratio is the ratio of linear stein to the volumetric strain.
A
True
.
B. False
21. A section of beam is said to be in pure bending, if it is subjected to

A
constant bending moment and constant shear force
.
B. constant shear force and zero bending moment
C
constant bending moment and zero shear force
.
D
none of the above
.
22. When a body is subjected to two equal and opposite forces, acting tangentially across the
resisting section, as a result of which the body tends to shear off across the section, the stress
and strain induced is
A
tensile stress, tensile strain
.
B. compressive stress, compressive strain
C
shear stress, tensile strain
.
D
shear stress, shear strain
.
23. In the below figure, the plastic range occurs
778
A
before point A
.
B. beyond point A
C
between points A and D
.
D
between points D and E
.
24. The perpendicular distance between the centre lines of the successive rows, is called pitch.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
25. The values of equivalent length (L) and actual length (l) of a column for both ends hinged is
the same
A
Yes
.
B. No
26. The planes, which carry no shear stress, are known as principal planes.
A
True
.
B. False
27. The stiffness of a closely-coiled helical spring is __________ proportional to number of

turns.
779
B. inversely
28. The maximum bending moment of a simply supported beam of span l and carrying a point
load W at the centre of beam, is
A
Wl/4
.
B. Wl/2
C
Wl
.
D
Wl2/4
.
29. A column of length (l) with both ends fixed may be considered as equivalent to a column of
length __________ with one end fixed and the other end free.
A
l/8
.
B. l/4
C
l/2
.
D
l
.
30. For biaxial stress, the planes of maximum shear are at right angles to each other and are
inclined at 45 to the principal planes.
A
True
.
B. False
31. The state of stress at a point in a loaded member is shown in the below figure. The magnitude
of maximum shear stress is
780
A
10 MPa
.
B. 30 MPa
C
50 MPa
.
D
100 MPa
.
32. The maximum shear stress in a thin spherical shell subjected to an internal pressure (p) is
zero.
A
Yes
.
B. No
33. The change in length due to a tensile or compressive force acting on a body is given by
(where P = Tensile or compressive force acting on the body, l = Original length of the
body, A = Cross-sectional area of the body, and E= Young's modulus for the material of the
body)
A
.
B.
C
.
781
D
.
34. The assumption, generally, made in the theory of simple bending is that
A
the beam material is perfectly homogenous and isotropic
.
B. the beam material is stressed within its elastic limit
C
the plane sections before bending remain plane after bending
.
D
all of the above
.
35. The shear force of a cantilever beam of length l carrying a uniformly distributed load
of w per unit length is __________ at the fixed end.
A
zero
.
B. wl/4
C
wl/2
.
D
wl
.
36. In the below figure, stress is proportional to strain, for the portion
A
from O to A
.
782
B. from A to C
C
from A to D
.
D
from D to E
.
37. The product of Young's modulus (E) and moment of inertia (I) is known as
A
modulus of rigidity
.
B. bulk modulus
C
flexural rigidity
.
D
torsional rigidity
.
38. The relation between equivalent length (L) and actual length (l) of a column for both ends
fixed is
A
L = l/2
.
B. L = l/2
C
L=l
.
D
L = 2l
.
39. The ratio of maximum shear stress developed in a rectangular beam and a circular beam of
the same cross-sectional area is
A
2/3
.
B. 3/4
783
C
1
.
D
9/8
.
40. Transverse fillet welds are designed for

A
tensile strength
.
B. compressive strength
C
shear strength
.
D
bending strength
.
41. A beam of triangular section is placed with its base horizontal. The maximum shear stress
occurs at
A
apex of the triangle
.
B. mid of the height
C
centre of gravity of the triangle
.
D
base of the triangle
.
42. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress () in one plane, then normal stress on an
oblique section of the body inclined at an angle to the normal of the section is
A
cos
.
B. cos2
784
C
sin
.
D
sin2
.
43. The columns whose slenderness ratio is less than 80, are known as
A
short columns
.
B. long columns
C
weak columns
.
D
medium columns
.
44. The equivalent length, of a given column with given end conditions, is the length of an
equivalent column of the same material and cross-section with hinged ends, and having the
value of crippling load equal to that of the given column.
A
True
.
B. False
45. Within elastic limit, shear stress is __________ shear strain.

A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
.
D
.
46. Modular ratio of the two materials is the ratio of

A linear stress to linear strain
785
.
B. shear stress to shear strain
C
their modulus of elasticities
.
D
their modulus of rigidities
.
47. The hoop stress in a thick cylindrical shell is maximum at the inner radius.
A
True
.
B. False
48. The bending moment at the free end of a cantilever beam is

A
zero
.
B. minimum
C
maximum
.
49. If there is a fall in the temperature of a composite body, then a member having greater
coefficient of linear expansion will be subjected to compressive stress.
A
True
.
B. False
50. The lower layer of the beam as shown in the below figure, will be
A in tension
786
.
B. in compression
C
neither in tension nor in compression
.

1. In a beam of uniform strength, the bending stress developed is constant and is equal to the
allowable stress at every section of the beam.
A
True
.
B. False
2. The bending moment of a cantilever beam of length l and carrying a uniformly distributed
load of w per unit length is __________ at the fixed end.
A
wl/4
.
B. wl/2
C
wl
.
D
wl2/2
.
3. Two shafts 'A' and 'B' are made of same material. The shaft 'A' is of diameter D and shaft 'B'
is of diameter D/2. The strength of shaft 'B' is __________ as that of shaft 'A'
A
one-eighth
.
B. one-fourth
C
one-half
.
787
D
four times
.
4. A body is subjected to a direct tensile stress () in one plane. The shear stress is maximum at
a section inclined at __________ to the normal of the section.
A
45 and 90
.
B. 45 and 135
C
60 and 150
.
D
30 and 135
.
5. The bending moment on a section is maximum where shear force is

A
minimum
.
B. maximum
C
changing sign
.
D
zero
.
6. The springs in cars are used to store strain energy.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
7. In a stress-strain diagram for mild steel, as shown in the below figure, the point A represents
788
A
elastic limit
.
B. upper yield-point
C
lower yield point
.
D
breaking point
.
8. When the retained material is subjected to some superimposed or surcharged load, the total
horizontal pressure due to surcharged load is (where p = Intensity of the supercharged load)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
9. The unit of Young's modulus is same as that of stress.

A
True
.
B. False
789
10. In the below figure, the point B represents upper yield point.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
11. The tensile test is carried on __________ materials.

A
ductile
.
B. brittle
C
malleable
.
D
plastic
.
12. If percentage elongation of a certain specimen made of a material 'A' under tensile test is
30% and the percentage elongation of a specimen with same dimensions made of another
material 'B' is 40%, then material 'B' is more ductile than material 'A'.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
13. A fixed beam is one which is fixed at __________ of its ends.

A
one
.
B. both
790
14. Factor of safety is defined as the ratio of
A
ultimate stress to working stress
.
B. working stress to ultimate stress
C
breaking stress to ultimate stress
.
D
ultimate stress to breaking stress
.
15. The value of equivalent length is taken to be half of the actual length of a column with one
end fixed and the other end free.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
16. The shear force diagram of a cantilever beam of length l and carrying a uniformly distributed
load of w per unit length will be
A
a right angled triangle
.
B. an issoscles triangle
C
an equilateral triangle
.
D
a rectangle
.
17. Whenever some external system of forces acts on a body, it undergoes some deformation. As
the body undergoes some deformation, it sets up some resistance to the deformation. This
resistance per unit area to deformation, is called
A
strain
.
B. stress
791
C
pressure
.
D
modulus of elasticity
.
18. The longitudinal stress in a riveted cylindrical shell of diameter (d), thickness (t) and
subjected to an internal pressure (p) is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
19. Two solid shafts 'A' and 'B' are made of the same material. The shaft 'A' is of 50 mm diameter
and shaft 'B' is of 100 mm diameter. The strength of shaft 'B' is __________ as that of
shaft A.
A
one-half
.
B. double
C
four times
.
D
eight times
.
20. In calculating the strength of a riveted joint in tearing, shearing and crushing, the
A
actual diameter of rivet is used
.
B. actual diameter of hole drilled for rivet is used
792
C
mean diameter of hole drilled and rivet is used
.
D
smaller of the rivet diameter and hole diameter is used
.
21. The strain energy stored in a hollow circular shaft of outer diameter (D) and inner diameter
(d) subjected to shear stress is
A
. x Volume of shaft
B.
x Volume of shaft
C
. x Volume of shaft
D
. x Volume of shaft
22. Fatigue test is carried out for

A
stresses varying between two limits of equal value, but of opposite sign
.
B. stresses varying between two limits of unequal value, but of opposite sign
C
stresses varying between two limits of unequal value but of same sign
.
D
all of the above
.
23. The section modulus (Z) of a beam is given by

A
I/y
.
B. I.y
793
C
y/I
.
D
M/I
.
24. Every direct stress is always accompanied by a strain in its own direction and an opposite
kind of strain in every direction, at right angles to it. Such a strain is known as
A
linear strain
.
B. lateral strain
C
volumetric strain
.
D
shear strain
.
25. The shear force of a cantilever beam of length l and carrying a gradually varying load from
zero at the free end and w per unit length at the fixed end is __________ at the fixed end.
A
zero
.
B. wl/4
C
wl/2
.
D
wl
.
26. When a rectangular beam is loaded transversely, the maximum tensile stress is developed on
the
A
top layer
.
B. bottom layer
C neutral axis
794
.
D
every cross-section
.
27. The compressive strength of brittle materials is __________ its tensile strength.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
28. When a closely-coiied helical spring of mean diameter (D) is subjected to an axial load (W),
the deflection of the spring () is given by (where d = Diameter of spring wire, n = No. of
turns of the spring, and C = Modulus of rigidity for the spring material)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
29. In spring balances, the spring is used

A
to apply forces
.
C
to absorb shocks
.
D to store strain energy
795
.
In the Euler's formula, the value of C for a column with both ends fixed is 4.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
31. The torsional rigidity of a shaft is expressed by the torque required to produce a twist of one
radian per unit length of a shaft.
A
True
.
B. False
32. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (x) in one plane accompanied by a simple
shear stress (xy ), the minimum normal stress is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
33. The stress developed in the material without any permanent set is called
A
elastic limit
.
B. yield stress
C
ultimate stress
.
D breaking stress
796
.
34. For riveting, the size of hole drilled in plates is __________ shank diameter of rivet.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
35. When a bar is subjected to a change of temperature and its deformation is prevented, the
stress induced in the bar is
A
tensile stress
.
C
shear stress
.
D
thermal stress
.
36. For a given stress, the ratio of moment of resistance of a beam of square cross-section when
placed with its two sides horizontal to the moment of resistance with its diagonal horizontal,
is
A
1/2
.
B. 1
C
1/2
.
D
2
.
37. The Young's modulus of a material is 125 GPa and Poissons ratio is 0.25. The modulus of
rigidity of me material is
A
30 GPa
797
B. 50 GPa
C
80 GPa
.
D
100 GPa
.
38. The layer at the centre of gravity of the beam as shown in the below figure, will be
A
in tension
.
B. in compression
C
neither in tension nor in compression
.
39. If the modulus of elasticity for a given material is twice its modulus of rigidity, then bulk
modulus is equal to
A
2C
.
B. 3C
C
.
D
.
40. A simply supported beam 'A' of length l, breadth b and depth d carries a central point load W.
Another bream 'B' has the same length and breadth but its depth is doubled. The deflection of
beam 'B' will be double as compared to beam 'A'.
A
Correct
.
798
B. Incorrect
41. The centre to centre distance, between two consecutive rivets in a row, is called
A
margin
.
B. pitch
C
back pitch
.
D
diagonal pitch
.
42. The buckling load for a given column depends upon

A
area of cross-section of the column
.
B. length and least radius of gyration of the column
C
modulus of elasticity for the material of the column
.
D
all of the above
.
43. A continuous beam is one which is

A
fixed at both ends
.
B. fixed at one end and free at the other end
C
supported on more than two supports
.
D
extending beyond the supports
.
44. When a body is subjected to two equal and opposite pulls, as a result of which the body tends
to extend its length, the stress and strain induced is
A
799
B. tensile stress, compressive strain
C
tensile stress, tensile strain
.
D
compressive stress, compressive strain
.
45. The hoop stress in a riveted cylindrical shell of diameter (d), thickness (t) and subjected to an
internal pressure (p) is (where = Efficiency of the riveted joint)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
46. According to Euler's column theory, the crippling load for a column of length (l) with one
end fixed and the other end hinged, is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
47. The pull required to shear off a rivet, in double shear, per pitch length is
A
/4 x d2 x t
.
800
B. /4 x d2 x
C
/2 x d2 x t
.
D
/2 x d2 x
.
48. The relation between modulus of elasticity (E) and modulus of rigidity (C) is given by
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
49. Lame's theory is associated with

A
thin cylindrical shells
.
B. thick cylindrical shells
C
direct and bending stresses
.
D
none of these
.
50. The ductility of the material __________ with the decrease in percentage elongation of a
specimen under tensile test.
A
increases
.
B. decreases
801
C
remains same
.

1. A pressure vessel is said to be a thin shell when the ratio of wall thickness of the vessel to its
diameter is __________ 1/10.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
In the Euler's formula, the value of C for a column with one end fixed and the other end
hinged, is 1/2.
A
True
.
B. False
3. A tensile test is performed on a mild steel round bar. Its diameter after fracture will
A
remain same
.
B. increase
C
decrease
.
D
depend upon rate of loading
.
4. Two closely coiled helical springs 'A' and 'B' are equal in all respects but the diameter of wire
of spring 'A' is double that of spring 'B' The stiffness of spring 'B' will be __________ that of
spring 'A'
802
A
one-sixteenth
.
B. one-eighth
C
one-fourth
.
D
one-half
.
5. When a closely-coiled helical spring of mean diameter (D) is subjected to an axial load (W),
the stiffness of the spring is given by
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
shear stress (xy ), the maximum normal stress is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
7. The strain energy stored in a body, when suddenly loaded, is __________ the strain energy
803
stored when same load is applied gradually.
A
equal to
.
B. one-half
C
twice
.
D
four times
.
8. The shear force at the centre of a simply supported beam with a gradually varying load from
zero at both ends to w per metre at the centre, is
A
zero
.
B. wl/4
C
wl/2
.
D
wl2/2
.
9. The proof resilience per unit volume of a material is known as modulus of resilience.
A
True
.
B. False
10. According to Unwin's formula, the relation between diameter of rivet hole (d) and thickness
of plate (t) is given by (where d and t are in mm)
A
d=t
.
B. d = 1.6 t
804
C
d = 2t
.
D
d=6t
.
11. The relation between equivalent length (L) and actual length (l) of a column for one end
fixed and the other end hinged is
A
L = l/2
.
B. L = l/2
C
L=l
.
D
L = 4l
.
12. The total strain energy stored in a body is called proof resilience.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
13. The thermal stress in a bar is __________ proportional to the change in temperature.
A
directly
.
B. indirectly
14. The section modulus of a circular section about an axis through its C.G., is
A
d2/4
.
B. d2/16
C
d3/16
.
805
D
d3/32
.
15. In the above question, the normal stress on an oblique section will be maximum, when is
equal to
A
0
.
B. 30
C
45
.
D
90
.
16. In the below figure, curve D represents mild steel.
A
Yes
.
B. No
17. Which of the following is a proper sequence?

A
proportional limit, elastic limit, yielding, failure
.
B. elastic limit, proportional limit, yielding, failure
C
yielding, proportional limit, elastic limit, failure
.
806
D
none of the above
.
18. The neutral axis of a beam is subjected to __________ stress.

A
zero
.
B. maximum tensile
C
minimum tensile
.
D
maximum compressive
.
19. When a load on the free end of a cantilever beam is increased, failure will occur
A
at the free end
.
B. at the fixed end
C
in the middle of the beam
.
D
at a distance 2l/3 from free end
.
20. The length of a conical bar is l, diameter of base is d and weight per unit volume is w. It is
fixea at its upper end and hanging freely. The elongation of the bar under the action of its
own weight will be
A
.
B.
C
.
807
D
.
21. Which of the following is the correct torsion equation?

A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
22. According to Euler's column theory, the crippling load of a column is given by p =
2 EI/Cl2 In this equation, the value of C for a column with both ends hinged, is
A
1/4
.
B. 1/2
C
1
.
D
2
.
23. The strength of the shaft is judged by the torque transmitted by the shaft.
A
Yes
.
B. No
24. The shear force at a certain point on a beam changes sign from +ve value to -ve value or vice
versa. The bending moment at that point will be zero.
A
True
.
808
B. False
25. In a riveted joint, when the number of rivets decreases from the inner most row to outer most
row, the joint is said to be
A
chain riveted
.
B. zig-zag riveted
C
diamond riveted
.
D
none of these
.
26. A spring, when loaded, is permanently distorted and recover its original shape when the load
is removed.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
27. When a rectangular beam is loaded longitudinally, the shear force develops on the top layer.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
28. The capacity of a strained body for doing work on the removal of the straining force, is
called
A
strain energy
.
B. resilience
C
proof resilience
.
809
D
impact energy
.
(x and y) acting at a body across two mutually perpendicular planes. The tangential stress is
given by
A
OC
.
B. OP
C
OQ
.
D
PQ
.
30. The hoop stress in a thin cylindrical shell is

A
longitudinal stress
.
C
radial stress
.
D
circumferential tensile stress
.
simple shear stress of 200 MPa. The maximum normal stress will be
A -100 MPa
810
.
B. 250 MPa
C
300 MPa
.
D
400 MPa
.
32. A simply supported beam 'A' of length l, breadth b, and depth d carries a central point load W.
Another beam 'B' has the same length and depth but its breadth is doubled. The deflection of
beam 'B' will be __________ as compared to beam 'A'.
A
one-fourth
.
B. one-half
C
double
.
D
four times
.
33. The moment of resistance of a balanced reinforced concrete beam is based on the stresses in
A
steel only
.
B. concrete only
C
steel and concrete both
.
D
none of these
.
34. The load at which the column just buckles, is known as

A
buckling load
.
811
B. critical load
C
crippling load
.
D
any one of these
.
35. The Rankine's constant for a mild steel column with both ends hinged is
A
1/750
.
B. 1/1600
C
1/7500
.
D
1/9000
.
36. The rectangular beam 'A ' has length l, width b and depth d. Another beam 'B' has the same
width and depth but length is double that of 'A'. The elastic strength of beam 'B' will be
A
same
.
B. one-halt
C
one-fourth
.
D
one-eighth
.
37. A simply supported beam with a gradually varying load from zero at B and w per unit length
at A is shown in the below figure. The shear force at B is equal to
812
A
wl/6
.
B. wl/3
C
wl
.
D
2 wl/3
.
38. A tensile test is performed on a round bar. After fracture, it has been found that the diameter
remains approximately same at fracture. The material under test was
A
mild steel
.
B. cast iron
C
glass
.
D
copper
.
39. In a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load w per unit length, the point
of contraflexure
A
lies in the centre of the beam
.
B. lies at the ends of the beam
C
depends upon the length of beam
.
813
D
does not exist
.
40. Modulus of rigidity may be defined as the ratio of

A
linear stress to lateral strain
.
B. lateral strain to linear strain
C
.
D
.
simple shear stress of 200 MPa. The minimum normal stress will be
A
-100 MPa
.
B. 250 MPa
C
300 MPa
.
D
400 MPa
.
42. The polar modulus for a hollow shaft of outer diameter (D) and inner diameter (d) is
A
.
B.
C
.
814
D
.
43. The ratio of linear stress to the linear strain is called

A
modulus of rigidity
.
B. modulus of elasticity
C
bulk modulus
.
D
Poisson's ratio
.
44. The bending equation is

A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
45. A riveted joint may fail by

A
tearing of the plate at an edge
.
B. tearing of the plate across a row of rivets
C
shearing of rivets
.
815
D
any one of these
.
46. A shear stress across a plane, is always accompanied by a balancing shear stress across the
plane and normal to it.
A
True
.
B. False
47. The maximum bending moment for the beam shown in the below figure, is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
shear stress (xy), the maximum shear stress is
A
.
B.
C
.
816
D
.
49. The bending moment diagram for a simply supported beam loaded in its centre is
A
a right angled triangle
.
B. an issoscles triangle
C
an equilateral triangle
.
D
a rectangle
.
50. A load which acts at a point on a beam is not called uniformly distributed load.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree

1. A beam supported on more than two supports is called
A
.
B. fixed beam
C
overhanging beam
.
D
continuous beam
.
2. In a leaf spring, the length of all the leaves are equal.

A
True
.
817
B. False
3. Two beams, one of circular cross-section and the other of square cross-section, have equal
areas of cross-sections. When these beams are subjected to bending,
A
both beams are equally economical
.
B. square beam is more economical
C
circular beam is more economical
.
D
none of these
.
4. A beam extending beyond the supports is called

A
.
B. fixed beam
C
overhanging beam
.
D
cantilever beam
.
5. The compression test is carried on __________ materials.

A
ductile
.
B. brittle
C
malleable
.
D
plastic
.
6. A closely-coiled helical spring is cut into two halves. The stiffness of the resulting spring will
818
be
A
same
.
B. double
C
half
.
D
one-fourth
.
7. When a material is loaded within elastic limit, the material will regain its shape and size
when the load is removed.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
8. The critical neutral axis of a reinforced cement concrete beam is based on the principle that
the neutral axis is situated at the centre of gravity of a given section.
A
True
.
B. False
9. The bending stress in abeam is __________ bending moment.

A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
more than
.
D
.
10. The tensile strength of ductile materials is __________ its compressive strength.
A equal to
819
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
11. In case of an under-reinforced beam, the depth of actual neutral axis is __________ that of
the critical neutral axis.
A
same as
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
12. The maximum shear stress developed in a beam of circular section is __________ the
average shear stress.
A
equal to
.
B. 4/3 times
C
1.5 times
.
D
twice
.
13. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress () in one plane, then maximum normal
stress occurs at a section inclined at __________ to the normal of the section.
A
0
.
B. 30
C
45
.
820
D
90
.
14. For no tension condition in the base of a short column of circular section, the line of action of
the load should be within a circle of diameter equal to __________ of the main circle.
A
one-half
.
B. one-third
C
one-fourth
.
D
one-eighth
.
15. A rectangular beam of length l supported at its two ends carries a central point load W. The
maximum deflection occurs
A
at the ends
.
B. at l/3 from both ends
C
at the centre
.
D
none of these
.
16. A leaf spring is supported at the

A
ends and loaded at the centre
.
B. centre and loaded at the ends
C
ends and loaded anywhere
.
821
D
centre and loaded anywhere
.
17. In leaf springs, the maximum bending stress developed in the plates is (where W = Load
acting on the spring, l = Span of the spring, n = Number of plates, b = Width of plates,
and t = Thickness of plates)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
18. The unit of stress in S.I. units is

A
N/mm2
.
B. kN/mm2
C
N/m2
.
D
any one of these
.
19. The modulus of elasticity for mild steel is approximately equal to

A
10 kN/mm2
.
B. 80 kN/mm2
C
100 kN/mm2
.
822
D
210 kN/mm2
.
20. The Rankine's formula holds good for

A
short columns
.
B. long columns
C
both short and long columns
.
D
weak columns
.
21. A rectangular beam subjected to a bending moment is shown in the below figure. The upper
layer of the beam will be in tension.
A
True
.
B. False
22. The strain energy stored in a body due to shear stress, is (where = Shear stress, C = Shear
modulus, and V = Volume of the body)
A
.
B.
C
.
823
D
.
23. In case of eccentrically loaded struts __________ is preferred.

A
solid section
.
B. hollow section
C
composite section
.
D
reinforced section
.
24. For a beam, as shown in the below figure, the deflection at C is (where E = Young's modulus
for the beam material, and I = Moment of inertia of the beam section. )
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
25. In a stress-strain diagram as shown in the below figure, the curve A represents
824
A
mild steel
.
B. soft brass
C
low carbon steel
.
D
cold rolled steel
.
26. A thick pressure vessel is always used for the generation of steam, as it can withstand high
pressures.
A
True
.
B. False
27. Shear modulus is the ratio of

A
.
B. linear stress to lateral strain
C
volumetric strain to linear strain
.
D
.
28. The assumption made in the theory of the reinforced cement concrete beam is that
A
all the tensile stresses are taken up by the steel reinforcement only
.
825
B. there is a sufficient bond between steel and concrete
C
the steel and concrete are stressed within its elastic limit
.
D
all of the above
.
29. When there is a sudden increase or decrease in shear force diagram between any two points,
it indicates that there is a
A
point load at the two points
.
B. no loading between the two points
C
uniformly distributed load between the two points
.
D
uniformly varying load between the two points
.
30. The steel bars in a reinforced cement concrete beam are embedded __________ of the beam.
A
in the centre
.
B. near the bottom
C
near the top
.
D
at any position
.
31. The distance between the centres of rivets in adjacent rows of zig-zag riveted joint, is called
back pitch.
A
True
.
B. False
826
32. In a watch, the spring is used to store strain energy. This energy is released
A
to stop the watch
.
B. to run the watch
C
to change the time
.
D
all of these
.
33. A flitched beam is used to

A
change the shape of the beam
.
B. effect the saving in material
C
equalise the strength in tension and compression
.
D
increase the cross-section of the beam
.
34. A closely-coiled helical spring of stiffness k is cut into (n) equal parts. The stiffness in each
part of the spring will be
A
kn
.
B. nk
C
nk
.
D
nk2
.
35. The ratio of the lateral strain to the linear strain is called
A
modulus of elasticity
.
827
B. modulus of rigidity
C
bulk modulus
.
D
Poisson's ratio
.
36. Hook's law holds good up to

A
yield point
.
B. elastic limit
C
plastic limit
.
D
breaking point
.
37. The shear force at the ends of a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load
of w per unit length is
A
zero at its both ends
.
B. wl at one end and - wl at the other end
C
wl/2 at one end and - wl/2 at the other end
.
D
wl2/2 at one end and - wl2/2 at the other end
.
38. The shear modulus of most materials with respect to the modulus of elasticity is
A
equal to half
.
B. less than half
828
C
more than half
.
D
none of these
.
39. In a thin cylindrical shell subjected to an internal pressure p, the ratio of longitudinal stress to
the hoop stress is
A
1/2
.
B. 3/4
C
1
.
D
1.5
.
40. The maximum shear stress is __________ the algebraic difference of maximum and
minimum normal stresses.
A
equal to
.
B. one-fourth
C
one-half
.
D
twice
.
41. The bending moment of a cantilever beam of length l and carrying a uniformly distributed
load of w per unit length is __________ at the free end.
A
zero
.
B. wl/4
C wl/2
829
.
D
wl
.
42. The ultimate tensile stress for mild steel is __________ the ultimate compressive stress.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
more than
.
43. The direct stress induced in a long column is __________ as compared to bending stress.
A
same
.
B. more
C
less
.
D
negligible
.
44. The shear force of a cantilever beam of length l carrying a uniformly distributed load
of w per unit length is __________ at the free end.
A
zero
.
B. wl/4
C
wl/2
.
D
wl
.
45. The extension of a circular bar tapering uniformly from diameter d1 at one end to
830
diameter d2 at the other end, and subjected to an axial pull of P is __________ the extension
of a circular bar of diameter d1 d2 subjected to the same load P.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
46. In case of an over-reinforced beam, the depth of actual neutral axis is the same as that of the
critical neutral axis.
A
True
.
B. False
47. The thickness of a thin cylindrical shell with hemispherical ends is __________ that of
spherical ends.
A
equal to
.
B. more than
C
less than
.
48. The assumption made in Euler's column theory is that

A
the failure of column occurs due to buckling alone
.
B. the length of column is very large as compared to its cross-sectional dimensions
C
the column material obeys Hooke's law
.
D
all of the above
.
49. The limit of eccentricity for no tensile conditions for a column of circular section of diameter
(d) is
831
B. d/8
C
d/12
.
D
d/16
.
50. The bending moment at the ends of a simply supported beam will be zero.
A
Yes
.
B. No
11. Hydraulic Machines
Hydraulic Machines - Section 1

1. Power required to drive a centrifugal pump is directly proportional to __________ of its
impeller.
A
diameter
.
B. square of diameter
C
cube of diameter
.
D
fourth power of diameter
.
2. The mechanical efficiency of an impulse turbine is

A ratio of the actual power produced by the turbine to the energy actually supplied by
. the turbine
B. ratio of the actual work available at the turbine to the energy imparted to the wheel
832
C
ratio of the Work done on the wheel to the energy of the jet
.
D
none of the above
.
3. The overshot water wheels are those in which the wheel runs entirely by the __________ of
water.
A
weight
.
B. impulse
4. In a Kaplan turbine runner, the number of blades are generally between

A
2 to 4
.
B. 4 to 8
C
8 to l6
.
D
16 to 24
.
5. If Hg is the gross or total head and hf is the head lost due to friction, then net or effective head
(H) is given by
A
H = Hg/hf
.
B. H = Hg x hf
C
H = Hg + hf
.
D
H = Hg - hf
.
6. Discharge of a centrifugal pump is

A directly proportional to diameter of its impeller
833
.
B. inversely proportional to diameter of its impeller
C
directly proportional to (diameter)2 of its impeller
.
D
inversely proportional to (diameter)2 of its impeller
.
7. A Pelton wheel develops 1750 kW under a head of 100 metres while running at 200 r.p.m.
and discharging 2500 litres of water per second. The unit power of the wheel is
A
0.25 kW
.
B. 0.75 kW
C
1.75 kW
.
D
3.75 kW
.
8. The static head of a centrifugal pump is equal to the __________ of suction head and
delivery head.
A
product
.
B. difference
C
sum
.
9. The ratio of actual work available at the turbine to the energy imparted to the wheel is known
as __________ efficiency.
A
hydraulic
.
B. mechanical
834
C
overall
.
10. Geometric similarity is said to exist between the model and the prototype, if both of them
A
have identical velocities
.
B. are equal in size and shape
C
are identical in shape, but differ only in size
.
D
have identical forces
.
11. The speed of a turbine runner is

A
.
B. inversely proportional to H1/2
C
.
D
.
12. A ship with jet propulsion draws water through inlet orifices at right angles to the direction of
its motion. The propelling force of the jet is (where a = Area of the jet, Vr = Relative velocity
of the jet and ship = V + v, v = Velocity of the ship, and V = Velocity of the jet issuing from
the ship)
A
.
B.
835
C
.
D
.
13. Discharge of a centrifugal pump is (where N = Speed of the pump impeller)

A
directly proportional to N
.
B. inversely proportional to N
C
directly proportional to N2
.
D
inversely proportional to N2
.
14. In a reaction turbine, the draft tube is used

A
to run the turbine full
.
B. to prevent air to enter the turbine
C to increase the head of water by an amount equal to the height of the runner outlet
. above the tail race
D
to transport water to downstream
.
15. The power produced by the reaction turbine is __________ to the head of water.
A
directly proportional
.
B. inversely proportional
16. Slip of a reciprocating pump is defined as the

A
ratio of actual discharge to the theoretical discharge
.
836
B. sum of actual discharge and the theoretical discharge
C
difference of theoretical discharge and the actual discharge
.
D
product of theoretical discharge and the actual discharge
.
17. The efficiency of a centrifugal pump will be maximum when the blades are bent backward.
A
Yes
.
B. No
18. Multi-stage centrifugal pumps are used to

A
give high discharge
.
B. produce high heads
C
pump viscous fluids
.
D
all of these
.
19. The specific speed of a centrifugal pump, delivering 750 litres of water per second against a
head of 15 metres at 725 r.p.m., is
A
24.8 r.p.m.
.
B. 48.2 r.p.m
C
82.4 r.p.m.
.
D
248 r.p.m
.
20. Theoretical power required (in watts) to drive a reciprocating pump is (where w = Specific
837
weight of liquid to be pumped in N/m3, Q = Discharge of the pump in m3/s, Hs = Suction
head in metres, and Hd = Delivery head in metres)
A
wQHs
.
B. wQHd
C
wQ(Hs - Hd)
.
D
wQ(Hs + Hd)
.
21. Which of the following pump is preferred for flood control and irrigation applications?
A
Centrifugal pump
.
B. Axial flow pump
C
Mixed flow pump
.
D
Reciprocating pump
.
22. The efficiency of a Pelton wheel working under constant head __________ with the increase
in power.
A
remains same
.
B. increases
C
decreases
.
23. The discharge of a centrifugal pump working under constant head __________ with the
speed.
A
increases
.
838
B. decreases
24. The unit discharge through the turbine is

A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
25. Delivery head of water of a centrifugal pump is inversely proportional to diameter of its
impeller.
A
Yes
.
B. No
26. The discharge of a double acting reciprocating pump is (where L = Length of stroke, A =
Cross-sectional area of piston, and N = Speed of crank in r.p.m.)
A
L.A.N
.
B. 2 L.A.N
C
.
D
.
27. Which of the following turbine is preferred for 0 to 25 m head of water?

A
Pelton wheel
.
B. Kaplan turbine
839
C
Francis turbine
.
D
none of these
.
28. The speed ratio of a Francis turbine is defined as the ratio of the theoretical jet velocity to the
peripheral speed at inlet.
A
Yes
.
B. No
29. The overall efficiency of a reaction turbine is the ratio of

A
power produced by the turbine to the energy actually supplied by the turbine
.
B. actual work available at the turbine to the energy imparted to the wheel
C workdone on the wheel to the energy (or head of water) actually supplied to the
. turbine
D
none of the above
.
30. Work done by a turbine __________ upon the weight of water flowing per second.
A
depends
.
B. does not depend
31. The maximum number of jets, generally, employed in an impulse turbine without jet
interference are
A
two
.
B. four
840
C
six
.
D
eight
.
32. In a reciprocating pump, air vessels are fitted to the suction pipe and delivery pipe close to
the cylinder of the pump.
A
True
.
B. False
33. Discharge (Q) of a centrifugal pump is given by (where D = Diameter of impeller at

inlet, b = Width of impeller at inlet, and Vf = Velocity of flow at inlet)
A
Q = .D.Vf
.
B. Q = .b.Vf
C
Q = .D.b.Vf
.
D
Q = D.b.Vf
.
34. A centrifugal pump will start delivering liquid only when the pressure rise in the impeller is
equal to the
A
kinetic head
.
B. velocity head
C
manometric head
.
D
static head
.
35. When the speed of the pump increases, its net positive suction head (NPSH) requirement
decreases.
841
B. Disagree
36. A Francis turbine is used when the available head of water is

A
0 to 25 m
.
B. 25 m to 250 m
C
above 250 m
.
D
none of these
.
37. The specific speed from 160 to 500 r.p.m. of a centrifugal pump indicates that the pump is
A
slow speed with radial flow at outlet
.
B. medium speed with radial flow at outlet
C
high speed with radial flow at outlet
.
D
high speed with axial flow at outlet
.
38. A hydraulic coupling belongs to the category of

A
power absorbing machines
.
B. power developing machines
C
energy transfer machines
.
D
energy generating machines
.
39. The principle of jet propulsion is used in driving the ships and aeroplanes.
A
Correct
.
842
B. Incorrect
40. In the casing of a centrifugal pump, the kinetic energy of the water is converted into pressure
energy before the water leaves the casing.
A
True
.
B. False
41. The speed of an imaginary turbine, identical with the given turbine, which will develop a unit
power under a unit head, is known as
A
normal speed
.
B. unit speed
C
specific speed
.
D
none of these
.
42. For centrifugal pump impeller, the maximum value of the vane exit angle is
A
10 to 15
.
B. 15 to 20
C
20 to 25
.
D
25 to 30
.
43. In a reaction turbine, the pressure head of water, while flowing over the vanes, is converted
into kinetic head before leaving the wheel.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
843
44. Manometric head, in case of a centrifugal pump, is equal to
A Suction lift + Loss of head in suction pipe due to friction + Delivery lift + Loss of
. head in delivery pipe due to friction + Velocity head in the delivery pipe
B. Workdone per kN of water - Losses within the impeller
C
Energy per kN at outlet of impeller - Energy per kN at inlet of impeller
.
D
all of the above
.
45. The force exerted by a jet of water (in a direction normal to flow) impinging on a fixed plate
inclined at an angle with the jet is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
46. In an impulse turbine, the jet of water impinges on the bucket with a low velocity and after
flowing over the vanes, leaves with a high velocity.
A
True
.
B. False
47. The capacity of a hydraulic accumulator is generally specified as the maximum amount of
energy stored.
A
True
.
844
B. False
48. The maximum efficiency of jet propulsion of a ship with inlet orifices at right angles to the
direction of motion of ship, is
A
40%
.
B. 50%
C
60%
.
D
80%
.
49. The breast water wheels are those in which the wheel runs partly by the weight of water and
partly by the impulse of water.
A
True
.
B. False
50. The ratio of quantity of liquid discharged per second from the pump to the quantity of liquid
passing per second through the impeller is known as
A
manometric efficiency
.
B. mechanical efficiency
C
overall efficiency
.
D
.

1. The impeller of a centrifugal pump may have
A volute casing
845
.
B. volute casing with guide blades
C
vortex casing
.
D
any one of these
.
2. Kinematic similarity is said to exist between the model and the prototype, if both of them
A
.
C
.
D
have identical forces
.
3. Power required (in watts) to drive a centrifugal pump is (where Hm = Manometric head in
metres, w = Specific weight in N/m3, Q = Discharge of the pump in m3/s, and o = Overall
efficiency of the pump)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
4. A reciprocating pump is suitable for less discharge and higher heads.

A True
846
.
B. False
5. The flow ratio of Francis turbine is defined as the ratio of the

A
velocity of flow at inlet to the theoretical jet velocity
.
B. theoretical velocity of jet to the velocity of flow at inlet
C
velocity of runner at inlet to the velocity of flow at inlet
.
D
none of the above
.
6. Dynamic similarity is said to exist between the model and the prototype, if both of them
A
.
C
.
D
none of the above
.
7. The specific speed of a turbine is given by the equation

A
.
B.
C
.
847
D
.
8. A draft tube is used with impulse turbines.

A
Yes
.
B. No
9. A hydraulic ram is a device used to

A
store the energy of water
.
B. increase the pressure of water
C
to lift water from deep wells
.
D to lift small quantity of water to a greater height when a large quantity of water is
. available at a smaller height
10. Overall efficiency of a centrifugal pump is the ratio of

A energy available at the impeller to the energy supplied to the pump by the prime
. mover
B. actual workdone by the pump to the energy supplied to the pump by the prime mover
C
energy supplied to the pump to the energy available at the impeller
.
D
manometric head to the energy supplied by the impeller per kN of water
.
11. In an inward flow reaction turbine

A
the water flows parallel to the axis of the wheel
.
the water enters at the centre of the wheel and then flows towards the outer periphery
B.
of the wheel
848
C the water enters the wheel at the outer periphery and then flows towards the centre of
. the wheel
D
the flow of water is partly radial and partly axial
.
12. The working of which of the following hydraulic units is based on Pascal's law?
A
Air lift pump
.
B. Jet pump
C
Hydraulic coupling
.
D
Hydraulic press
.
13. The hydraulic efficiency of a reaction turbine, is the ratio of

A
power produced by the turbine to the energy actually supplied by the turbine
.
B. actual work available at the turbine to energy imparted to the wheel
C workdone on the wheel to the energy (or head of water) actually supplied to the
. turbine
D
none of the above
.
14. In order to avoid cavitation in centrifugal pumps

A
the suction pressure should be high
.
B. the delivery pressure should be high
C
the suction pressure should be low
.
849
D
the delivery pressure should be low
.
15. A hydraulic intensifier is a device used to increase the intensity of pressure of water by
means of energy available from a large quantity of water at a low pressure.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
16. The discharge through a reaction turbine __________ with the increase in unit speed.
A
remains same
.
B. increases
C
decreases
.
17. In a mixed flow reaction turbine, the flow of water is partly radial and partly axial.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
18. A Pelton wheel with one nozzle is preferred for a specific speed between 35 to 60 r.p.m.
A
True
.
B. False
19. Which of the following pump is generally used to pump highly viscous fluid?
A
Centrifugal pump
.
B. Reciprocating pump
C
Air lift pump
.
850
D
Screw pump
.
20. The overall efficiency of an impulse turbine is the ratio of the actual power produced by the
turbine to the energy actually supplied by the turbine.
A
Yes
.
B. No
21. By fitting an air vessel to the reciprocating pump, there is always a saving of work done and
subsequently saving of power.The saving in case of a double acting reciprocating pump is
A
39.2%
.
B. 48.8%
C
84.8%
.
D
88.4%
.
22. In a reciprocating pump, air vessels are used to

A
smoothen the flow
.
B. reduce suction head
C
increase delivery head
.
D
reduce acceleration head
.
23. In a Francis turbine, the pressure at inlet is __________ that at outlet.

A
less than
.
B. more than
851
24. If the ratio's of the corresponding forces acting at corresponding points are equal, then the
model and the prototype are said to have.
A
geometric similarity
.
B. kinematic similarity
C
dynamic similarity
.
D
none of these
.
25. A Pelton wheel working under a constant head and discharge, has maximum efficiency when
the speed ratio is
A
0.26
.
B. 0.36
C
0, 46
.
D
0.56
.
26. By fitting an air vessel to the reciprocating pump, there is always a saving of work done and
subsequently saving of power. This saving in case of a single acting reciprocating pump is
A
39.2%
.
B. 48, 8%
C
84.8%
.
852
D
88.4%
.
27. If the Francis turbine is run below 50 percent head for a long period, it will not only lose its
efficiency but also the cavitation danger will become more serious.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
28. The maximum hydraulic efficiency of an impulse turbine is (where = Angle of blade tip at
outlet)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
29. In a Francis turbine runner, the number of blades are generally between
A
2 to 4
.
B. 4 to 8
C
8 to l6
.
D
16 to 24
.
30. The relation between hydraulic efficiency (h), mechanical efficiency (m) and overall
efficiency (o) ) is
A
h = o x m
.
853
B. m = o x h
C
o = h x m
.
D
none of these
.
31. In a centrifugal pump, the water enters the impeller __________ and leaves the vanes axially.
A
axially
.
B. radially
32. A Kaplan turbine is an axial flow reaction turbine.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
and discharging 2500 litres of water per second. The unit speed of the wheel is
A
10 r.p.m.
.
B. 20 r.p.m.
C
40 r.p.m.
.
D
80 r.p.m.
.
34. The hydraulic efficiency of an impulse turbine is maximum when velocity of wheel is
__________ of the jet velocity,
A
one-fourth
.
B. one-half
854
C
three-fourth
.
D
double
.
35. The specific speed of a hydraulic turbine depends upon

A
speed and power developed
.
B. discharge and power developed
C
speed and head of water
.
D
speed, power developed and head of water
.
36. The depth of the bucket for a Pelton wheel is generally __________ the diameter of jet.
A
equal to
.
B. 1.2 times
C
1.8 times
.
D
double
.
37. An impulse turbine is used for

A
low head of water
.
B. high head of water
C
medium head of water
.
855
D
high discharge
.
38. The efficiency of jet propulsion for a ship with inlet orifices at right angles to the direction of
motion of ship, will be maximum when the relative velocity of the jet and ship is equal to
twice the velocity of the ship.
A
Yes
.
B. No
39. The cavitation in reaction turbines is avoided, to a great extent by

A
installing the turbine below the tail race level
.
B. using stainless steel runner of the turbine
C
providing highly polished blades to the runner
.
D
all of the above
.
40. Which type of the pump is different from others in the same group?
A
Screw pump
.
B. Gear pump
C
Cam and piston pump
.
D
Plunger pump
.
41. The power developed by a turbine is (where H = Head of water under which the turbine is
working)
A
.
856
C
.
D
.
42. If V1 and V2 are the velocities of water at inlet and outlet of the draft tube respectively, then
the efficiency of a draft tube is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
43. A jet of water enters and leaves a fixed curved vane tangentially. The force of jet along
perpendicular to the vane is zero.
A
True
.
B. False
44. In a mixed flow centrifugal pump, the flow through the impeller is a combination of radial
and axial flows.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
45. A Pelton wheel is

A tangential flow impulse turbine
857
.
B. inward flow impulse turbine
C
outward flow impulse turbine
.
D
inward flow reaction turbine
.
46. Power required to drive a centrifugal pump is __________ proportional to N3.

A
directly
.
B. inversely
47. The force exerted (in newton) by a jetof water impinging normally on a fixed plate is
(where w = Specific weight of water in N/m3, a = Cross-sectional area of jet in m2, and V =
Velocity of jet in m/s)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
48. The unit power developed by a turbine is (where P = Power developed by the turbine under a
head of water (H))
A
.
B.
858
C
.
D
.
and discharging 2500 litres of water per second. The unit discharge of wheel is
A
0.25 m3/s
.
B. 0.5 m3/s
C
1.5 m3/s
.
D
2.5 m3/s
.
50. Delivery head of a centrifugal pump is

A
directly proportional to N
.
B. inversely proportional to N
C
directly proportional to N2
.
D
inversely proportional to N2
.

1. Slip of a reciprocating pump is negative, when
A
suction pipe is short and pump is running at low speeds
.
B. delivery pipe is long and pump is running at high speeds
859
C
suction pipe is short and delivery pipe is long and the pump is running at low speeds
.
D
suction pipe is long and delivery pipe is short and the pump is running at high speeds
.
2. Which of the following is not an impulse turbine?

A
Girad turbine
.
B. Turgo turbine
C
Pelton wheel
.
D
Kaplan turbine
.
3. A hydraulic accumulator is a device used to store __________ energy which may be supplied
to a machine later on.
A
strain
.
B. pressure
C
kinetic
.
4. The Furneyron turbine is __________ reaction turbine.

A
an axial flow
.
B. an inward flow
C
an outward flow
.
D
a mixed flow
.
860
5. The discharge through a turbine is
A
.
C
.
D
.
6. Which of the following pump is sucessfully used for lifting water to the boilers?
A
Centrifugal pump
.
C
Jet pump
.
D
Air-lift pump
.
7. The efficiency of a reaction turbine for a given head __________ with the increase in speed.
A
decreases
.
B. increases
8. In an impulse turbine, the pressure of water both at entering and leaving the vanes, is
atmospheric.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
9. Which of the following pump is successfully used for lifting water from deep wells?
A
Centrifugal pump
.
861
C
Jet pump
.
D
Air lift pump
.
10. The Thomson's turbine is __________ reaction turbine.

A
an axial flow
.
B. an inward flow
C
an outward flow
.
D
a mixed flow
.
11. Manometric head is the actual head of water against which a centrifugal pump has to work.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
12. The hydraulic efficiency of an impulse turbine is the

A ratio of the actual power produced by the turbine to the energy actually supplied by
. the turbine
B. ratio of the actual work available at the turbine to the energy imparted to the wheel
C
ratio of the work done on the wheel to the energy of the jet
.
D
none of the above
.
13. The overall efficiency for a Pelton wheel lies between

A
0.50 to 0.65
.
862
B. 0.65 to 0.75
C
0.75 to 0.85
.
D
0.85 to 0.90
.

A
The reaction turbines are used for low head and high discharge.
.
B. The angle of taper on draft tube is less than 8.
C
An impulse turbine is generally fitted slightly above the tail race.
.
D
A Francis turbine is an impulse turbine.
.
15. Which of the following statement is correct as regard to water wheels?

A
They have slow speeds.
.
B. They are suitable even for low water heads.
C
They give constant efficiency, even if the discharge is not constant
.
D
all of the above
.
16. The efficiency of a hydraulic press is given by (where W = Weight lifted by ram, P = Force
applied on plunger, A = Area of ram, and a = Area of plunger)
A
.
B.
863
C
.
D
.
17. Braking jet in an impulse turbine is used

A
to break the jet of water
.
B. to bring the runner to rest in a short time
C
to change the direction of runner
.
D
none of these
.
18. The water in a jet propelled boat is drawn through the openings facing the direction of
motion of the boat. The efficiency of propulsion is given by
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
19. Head developed by a centrifugal pump is

A
proportional to diameter of impeller
.
B. proportional to speed of impeller
C proportional to diameter and speed of impeller
864
.
D
none of the above
.
20. The ratio of the normal force of jet of water on a plate inclined at an angle of 30 as
compared to that when the plate is normal to jet, is
A
1/2
.
B. 1/2
C
1
.
D
2
.
21. A reciprocating pump is also called a __________ displacement pump.

A
positive
.
B. negative
22. The head available at the inlet of the turbine is known as net or effective head.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
23. In an axial flow reaction turbine, the water flows __________ to the axis of the wheel.
A
parallel
.
B. perpendicular
24. The air vessel, in a reciprocating pump, is a cast iron closed chamber having an opening at its
base.
A
Agree
.
865
B. Disagree
25. A double overhung Pelton wheel has

A
two jets
.
B. two runners
C
four jets
.
D
four runners
.
26. The specific speed (Ns) of a centrifugal pump is given by

A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
27. Which of the following hydraulic unit is used for transmitting increased or decreased torque
to the driven shaft?
A
Hydraulic ram
.
B. Hydraulic intensifier
C
Hydraulic torque converter
.
866
D
Hydraulic accumulator
.
28. The force exerted by a jet of water impinging normally on a plate which due to the impact of
jet, moves in the direction of jet with a velocity v is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
29. In a reaction turbine, the water enters the wheel under pressure and flows over the vanes.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
30. If the ratio of all the corresponding linear dimensions are equal, then the model and the
prototype are said to have
A
geometric similarity
.
B. kinematic similarity
C
dynamic similarity
.
D
none of these
.
31. The undershot water wheels are those in which

A
the wheel runs entirely by the weight of water
.
867
B. the wheel runs entirely by the impulse of water
C
the wheel runs partly by the weight of water and partly by the impulse of water
.
D
none of the above
.
32. A turbine is required to develop 1500 kW at 300 r.p.m. under a head of 150 m. Which of the
following turbine should be used ?
A
Pelton wheel with one nozzle
.
B. Pelton wheel with two or more nozzles
C
Kaplan turbine
.
D
Francis turbine
.
33. Which of the following pump is suitable for small discharge and high heads?
A
Centrifugal pump
.
B. Axial flow pump
C
Mixed flow pump
.
D
Reciprocating pump
.
34. The gross or total head of the turbine is the __________ of the water levels at the head race
and tail race.
A
sum
.
B. difference
868
C
product
.
35. The specific speed of a centrifugal pump may be defined as the speed of an imaginary pump,
identical with the given pump, which will discharge one litre of water, while it is being raised
through a head of one metre.
A
True
.
B. False
36. In an outward flow reaction turbine

A
the water flows parallel to the axis of the wheel
.
the water enters at the centre of the wheel and then flows towards the outer periphery
B.
of the wheel
C the water enters the wheel at the outer periphery and then flows towards the centre of
. the wheel
D
the flow of water is partly radial and partly axial
.
37. A hydraulic press is a device used

A
to store pressure energy which may be supplied to a machine later on
.
to increase the intensity of pressure of water by means of energy available from a

B.
large quantity of water at a low pressure
C
to lift larger load by the application of a comparatively much smaller force
.
D
all of the above
.
38. The flow ratio in case of Francis turbine varies from

A
0.15 to 0.3
.
869
B. 0.4 to 0.5
C
0.6 to 0.9
.
D
1 to 1.5
.
39. Which of the following turbine is preferred for a specific speed of 60 to 300 r.p.m.?
A
Pelton wheel
.
B. Francis turbine
C
Kaplan turbine
.
D
none of these
.
40. The number of buckets on the periphery of a Pelton wheel is given by

A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
41. The function of guide vanes in a reaction turbine is to

A
allow the water to enter the runner without shock
.
B. allow the water to flow over them, without forming eddies
870
C
allow the required quantity of water to enter the turbine
.
D
all of the above
.

A
In an impulse turbine, the water impinges on the buckets with pressure energy.
.
B. In a reaction turbine, the water glides over the moving vanes with kinetic energy.
C In an impulse turbine, the pressure of the flowing water remains unchanged and is
. equal to atmospheric pressure.
D In a reaction turbine, the pressure of the flowing water increases after gliding over the
. vanes.
43. If the ratio of corresponding velocities at corresponding points are equal, then the model and
the prototype are said to have dynamic similarity.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
44. The jet ratio is defined as the ratio of the

A
diameter of jet to the diameter of Pelton wheel
.
B. velocity of jet to the velocity of Pelton wheel
C
diameter of Pelton wheel to the diameter of jet
.
D
velocity of Pelton wheel to the velocity of jet
.
45. Mechanical efficiency of a centrifugal pump is the ratio of

A energy available at the impeller to the energy supplied to the pump by the prime
. mover
871
B. actual workdone by the pump to the energy supplied to the pump by the prime mover
C
energy supplied to the pump to the energy available at the impeller
.
D
manometric head to the energy supplied by the impeller per kN of water
.
46. The cavitation in a hydraulic machine is mainly due to

A
low velocity
.
B. high velocity
C
low pressure
.
D
high pressure
.
47. The unit speed of the turbine runner is

A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
48. In a centrifugal pump, the regulating valve is provided on the

A
casing
.
B. delivery pipe
872
C
suction pipe
.
D
impeller
.
49. A Francis turbine is an outward flow reaction turbine.

A
True
.
B. False
50. A jet of water enters and leaves a fixed curved vane tangentially. The force of the jet along
normal to the vane is (where and = Inlet and outlet angles of the jet respectively)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.

1. The specific speed of a turbine is the speed of an imaginary turbine, identical with the given
turbine, which
A
delivers unit discharge under unit head
.
B. delivers unit discharge under unit speed
C
develops unit power under unit head
.
873
D
develops unit power under unit speed
.
2. The runaway speed of a hydraulic turbine is the speed

A
at full load
.
B. at which there will be no damage to the runner
C
corresponding to maximum overload permissible
.
D
at which the turbine will run freely without load
.
3. The cavitation in a hydraulic machine

A
causes noise and vibration of various parts
.
B. reduces the discharge of a turbine
C
causes sudden drop in power output and efficiency
.
D
all of the above
.
4. The type of centrifugal pump preferred for a specific speed of 20 r.p.m. is

A
slow speed pump with radial flow at outlet
.
B. medium speed pump with radial flow at outlet
C
high speed pump with radial flow at outlet
.
D
high speed pump with axial flow at outlet
.
5. If the net positive suction head (NPSH) requirement for the pump is not satisfied, then
A
874
B. cavitation will be formed
C
efficiency will be low
.
D
excessive power will be consumed
.
6. A turbine develops 10000 kW under a head of 25 metres at 135 r.p.m. Its specific speed is
A
175.4 r.p.m.
.
B. 215.5 r.p.m.
C
241.5 r.p.m.
.
D
275.4 r.p.m
.
7. The power of a centrifugal pump working under constant head and discharge increases with
the speed.
A
True
.
B. False
8. Which of the following pump is successfully used for lifting water to the turbines?
A
Centrifugal pump
.
C
Jet pump
.
D
Air lift pump
.
9. Which of the following is not a reaction turbine?

A
875
B. Jonval turbine
C
Thomson's turbine
.
D
Pelton wheel
.
10. A jet of water is striking at the centre of a curved vane moving with a uniform velocity in the
direction of jet. For the maximum efficiency, the vane velocity is __________ of the jet
velocity
A
one-half
.
B. one-third
C
two-third
.
D
three-fourth
.
11. The width of the bucket for a Pelton wheel is generally __________ the diameter of jet.
A
double
.
B. three times
C
four times
.
D
five times
.
12. The efficiency of jet propulsion for a ship with inlet orifices at right angles to the direction of
motion of ship is given by
A
.
876
B.
C
.
D
.

A
The centrifugal pump is suitable for large discharge and smaller heads.
.
The centrifugal pump requires less floor area and simple foundation as compared to
B.
reciprocating pump.
C
The efficiency of centrifugal pump is less as compared to reciprocating pump.
.
D
all of the above
.
14. For 450 m head of water, __________ shallbeused.

A
Pelton wheel
.
B. Kaplan turbine
C
Francis turbine
.
D
none of these
.
15. The action of a centrifugal pump is that of a reversed reaction turbine.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
877
16. The centrifugal pump preferred for a specific speed between 80 to 160 r.p.m. is
A
slow speed with radial flow at outlet
.
B. medium speed with radial flow at outlet
C
high speed with radial flow at outlet
.
D
high speed with mixed flow at outlet
.
17. The speed ratio in case of Francis turbine varies from

A
0.15 to 0.3
.
B. 0.4 to 0.5
C
0.6 to 0.9
.
D
1 to 1.5
.
18. A Kaplan turbine is preferred for a specific speed of 300 to 1000 r.p.m.
A
Yes
.
B. No
12. Steam Boilers and Engines
Steam Boilers and Engines - Section 1

1. The object of producing draught in a boiler is
878
A
to provide an adequate supply of air for the fuel combustion
.
B. to exhaust the gases of combustion from the combustion chamber
C
to discharge the gases of combustion to the atmosphere through the chimney
.
D
all of the above
.
2. In a glass tube type water indicator for a boiler, one end of the tube is connected to water
space and the other end is connected to
A
water space also
.
B. chimney
C
steam space
.
D
Super heater
.
3. In water tube boilers

A
water passes through the tubes which are surrounded by flames and hot gases
.
B. the flames and hot gases pass through the tubes which are surrounded by water
C
forced circulation takes place
.
D
none of these
.

A
Locomotive boiler is a water tube boiler.
.
879
B. Water tube boilers are internally fired.
C
La-mont boiler is a low pressure water tube boiler.
.
D
all of the above
.
5. A grate, in a boiler, is a place in the combustion chamber upon which fuel (wood or coal) is
burnt.
A
True
.
B. False
6. Loeffler boiler is a water tube boiler using a forced circulation of water.

A
True
.
B. False
7. La-mont boiler, is a high pressure water tube steam boiler working on forced circulation.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
8. The function of a connecting rod is not to convert reciprocating motion of the piston into
rotary motion.
A
True
.
B. False
9. Which of the following statement is correct for a compound steam engine ?

A The cost of the engine, for the same power and economy, is more than that of a simple
. steam engine.
B. The forces in the working parts are increased as the forces are distributed over more
880
parts.
C
The ratio of expansion is reduced, thus reducing the length of stroke.
.
D The temperature range per cylinder is increased, with corresponding increase in

. condensation.
10. When the speed of the crankshaft is between 100 r.p.m. and 250 r.p.m., the engine said to be
a
A
slow speed engine
.
B. medium speed steam engine
C
high speed steam engine
.
D
none of these
.
11. The natural draught is produced by

A
steam jet
.
B. centrifugal fan
C
chimney
.
D
both (a) and (b)
.
12. Willian's line for the steam engine is a straight line relationship between the steam
consumption per hour and
A
indicated power
.
B. brake power
881
C
efficiency
.
D
pressure of steam
.
13. The temperature of condensate is __________ on leaving the condenser than that of
circulating water at inlet.
A
higher
.
B. lower
14. A draught produced by a chimney due to the difference of densities between the hot gases
inside the chimney and cold atmospheric air outside it, is called natural draught.
A
Yes
.
B. No

A
A fire tube boiler occupies less space than a water tube boiler, for a given power.
.
Steam at a high pressure and in large quantities can be produced with a simple vertical
B.
boiler.
C
A simple vertical boiler has one fire tube.
.
D
all of the above
.
16. A device used to increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising its pressure, is
called
A
blow off cock
.
B. fusible plug
882
C
Super heater
.
D
stop valve
.
17. The diameter of flue tube in a Cornish boiler is __________ that of the shell.
A
one-fourth
.
B. one-third
C
two-fifth
.
D
three-fifth
.
18. An economiser __________ the steam raising capacity of a boiler.

A
increases
.
B. decreases
C
has no effect on
.
19. Fire tube boilers are

A
internally fired
.
B. externally fired
C
internally as well as externally fired
.
D
none of these
.
20. A safety valve usually employed with stationary boilers is

A
883
B. dead weight safety valve
C
high steam and low water safety valve
.
D
all of these
.
21. The draught produced by a steam jet issuing from a nozzle placed in the ashpit under the fire
grate of the furnace is called
A
induced steam jet draught
.
B. chimney draught
C
forced steam jet draught
.
D
none of these
.

A
The factor of evaporation for all boilers is always greater than unity.
.
The amount of water evaporated in kg per kg of fuel burnt is called equivalent

B.
evaporation from and at 100 C.
C The ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat liberated in the
. furnace is called boiler efficiency.
D
none of the above
.
23. The function of a crosshead is to guide motion of the __________ and to prevent it from
bending.
A
piston rod
.
B. connecting rod
884
C
eccentric rod
.
D
valve rod
.
24. The cylinder dimensions of a compound engine may be designed on the basis of
A
equal power developed in each cylinder for uniform turning moment
.
equal initial piston loads on all pistons for obtaining same size of piston rod,
B.
connecting rod etc. for all cylinders
C
equal temperature drop in each cylinder for economy of steam
.
D
all of the above
.
25. The function of a piston rod is

A
to guide motion of the piston rod and to prevent it from bending
.
B. to transfer motion from the piston to the cross head
C
to convert heat energy of the steam into mechanical work
.
D
to exhust steam from the cylinder at proper moment
.
26. An air preheater is installed

A
before the economiser
.
B. before the superheater
885
C
between the economiser and chimney
.
D
none of these
.
27. The length of shell of a Locomotive boiler is

A
1m
.
B. 2 m
C
3m
.
D
4m
.
28. The effect of wire drawing is to decrease the area of indicator diagram and thus work done
by the engine is reduced.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
29. In a uni flow engine

A
steam enters and exhausts through the same port
.
B. steam enters at one end and exhausts at the centre
C
steam enters at the centre and exhausts at the other end
.
D
none of the above
.
30. The shell diameter of a Locomotive boiler is

A
1m
.
886
B. 1.5 m
C
2m
.
D
2.5 m
.
31. The fire tubes in a Scotch marine boiler are

A
horizontal
.
B. vertical
C
inclined
.
32. In a reciprocating steam engine, the heat energy in the steam is converted into mechanical
work by the to and fro motion of the piston.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
33. The power of a boiler may be defined as

A the ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat liberated in the
. furnace
B. the amount of water evaporated or steam produced in kg per kg of fuel burnt
C
the amount of water evaporated from and at 100 C into dry and saturated steam
.
D
the evaporation of 15.653 kg of water per hour from and at 100 C
.
34. When the circulation of water, in a boiler, is by a centrifugal pump, then the boiler is known
as
A
internally fired boiler
.
887
B. externally fired boiler
C
natural circulation boiler
.
D
forced circulation boiler
.
35. The function of a safety valve is

A to blow off steam when the pressure of steam inside the boiler exceeds the working
. pressure
B. to indicate the water level inside the boiler to an observer
C
to measure pressure of steam inside the steam boiler
.
D
none of the above
.
36. The fire tubes in a Cochran boiler are

A
horizontal
.
B. vertical
C
inclined
.
37. A double acting steam engine with a cylinder diameter of 190 mm and a stroke of 300 mm
has a cut-off of 0.35. The expansion ratio for this engine is nearly
A
1.05
.
B. 2.86
C
6.65
.
888
D
10.05
.
38. The aim of a compound steam engine is

A
to reduce the ratio of expansion in each cylinder
.
B. to reduce the length of stroke
C
to reduce the temperature range in each cylinder
.
D
all of the above
.
39. The average operating pressure of Benson boiler is

A
100 bar
.
B. 150 bar
C
200 bar
.
D
250 bar
.
40. The diameter of Cornish boiler varies from

A
0.5 to 1 m
.
B. 1 to 2 m
C
1.25 to 2.5 m
.
D
2 to 3 m
.
41. A single acting steam engine produces __________ power than that of double acting steam
889
engine.
A
equal
.
B. half
C
double
.
D
four times
.
42. The pressure of steam in the engine cylinder at the beginning of the stroke is __________ the
boiler pressure.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
higher than
.
43. The function of a flywheel is

A
to convert reciprocating motion of the piston into rotary motion.
.
B. to convert rotary motion of the crankshaft into to and fro motion of the valve rod
C
to prevent fluctuation of speed
.
D
to keep the engine speed uniform at all load conditions
.
44. The rate of steam produced in Benson boiler is

A
100 tonnes/h
.
B. 135 tonnes/h
890
C
175 tonnes/h
.
D
250 tonnes/h
.
45. In natural circulation steam boilers, the circulation of water is by convection currents which
are set up during the heating of water.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
46. Cut-off governing of steam engines is a method of controlling the engine output by varying
A
volume of intake steam
.
B. pressure of intake steam
C
temperature of intake steam
.
D
all of these
.
47. In a boiler, feed water supplied per hour is 205 kg while coal fired per hour is 23 kg. The net
enthalpy rise per kg of water is 145 kJ. If the calorific valve of the coal is 2050 kJ/kg, then
the boiler efficiency will be
A
56%
.
B. 63%
C
74%
.
D
78%
.
48. A safety valve mainly used with locomotive and marine boilers is
A
lever safety valve
891
B. dead weight safety valve
C
high steam and low water safety valve
.
D
spring loaded safety valve
.
49. Which of the following boiler is best suited to meet the fluctuating demand of steam ?
A
Locomotive boiler
.
B. Lancashire boiler
C
Cornish boiler
.
D
Babcock and Wilcox boiler
.

A
Lancashire boiler is a fire tube boiler.
.
B. Fire tube boilers are internally fired.
C
Babcock and Wilcox boiler is a water tube boiler.
.
D
all of the above
.

1. A compound steam engine in which the high pressure and low pressure cylinders have
common piston rod, is called
A
receiver type compound engine
.
892
B. Tandem type compound engine
C
Woolf type compound engine
.
D
none of these
.
2. An economiser is used to increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising its
pressure.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
3. Besides mean effective pressure, the data required to determine the indicated power of an
engine include
A
piston diameter, length of stroke and calorific value of fuel
.
B. piston diameter, specific fuel consumption and Calorific value of fuel
C
piston diameter, length of stroke and speed of rotation
.
D
specific fuel consumption, speed of rotation and torque
.
4. The function of a governor is to keep the engine speed uniform at all load conditions.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
5. The efficiency of the plant __________ with the mechanical draught.

A
increases
.
B. decreases
893
C
remains constant
.
6. For maximum discharge through a chimney, the temperature of flue gases inside the chimney
should the slightly more than the atmospheric temperature.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
7. The internal flue tubes of a Lancashire boiler are reduced in diameter at the back to provide
access to the lower part of the boiler.
A
True
.
B. False
8. A device in which some portion of waste heat of flue gases is recovered to heat the air before
it passes to the furnace for combustion purpose, is knwon as
A
Super heater
.
B. air preheater
C
economiser
.
D
injector
.
9. In a fire tube boiler, the water is contained inside the tubes which are surrounded by flames
and hot gases from outside.
A
True
.
B. False
10. Steam engines are called external combustion engines.

A
Yes
.
894
B. No
11. The diagram factor is the ratio of the

A
area of the actual indicator diagram to the area of theoretical indicator diagram
.
B. actual workdone per stroke to the theoretical workdone per stroke
C
actual mean effective pressure to the theoretical mean effective pressure
.
D
.
12. By compounding the expansion of steam in two or more cylinders, the length of stroke
A
does not change
.
B. increases
C
decreases
.
13. The velocity of flue gases (V) through the chimney under a static draught of(H') metres is
given by
A
V = 2g H'
.
B. V = 2g/H'
C
V = H'/2g
.
D
V = 2gH'
.
14. A good steam boiler is one which produces maximum quantity of steam with the given fuel
A
Agree
.
895
B. Disagree
15. Cut-off ratio is the ratio of

A
swept volume to the volume at cut-off
.
B. volume at cut-off to the clearance volume
C
volume at cut-off to the swept volume
.
D
clearance volume to the volume at cut-off
.
16. Which of the following is a water tube boiler ?

A
Lancashire boiler
.
B. Babcock and Wilcox boiler
C
Locomotive boiler
.
D
Cochran boiler
.
17. The number of fire tubes in a Cochran boiler are

A
75
.
B. 115
C
165
.
D
225
.
18. The actual power supplied by the engine crankshaft is called

A
indicated power
.
896
B. brake power
C
frictional power
.
D
none of these
.
19. The draught produced by a steam jet issuing from a nozzle placed in the chimney is called
A
induced steam jet draught
.
B. chimney draught
C
forced steam jet draught
.
D
none of these
.
20. The chimney draught varies with

A
climatic conditions
.
B. temperature of furnace gases
C
height of chimney
.
D
all of these
.
21. The relative efficiency is defined as the

A
ratio of thermal efficiency to Rankine efficiency
.
B. ratio of brake power to the indicated power
C ratio of heat equivalent to indicated power to the energy supplied in steam
897
.
D
product of thermal efficiency and Rankine efficiency
.
22. Benson boiler is a __________ water tube steam boiler using forced circulation of water.
A
low pressure
.
B. high pressure
23. Lancashire boiler has __________ internal flue tubes.

A
one
.
B. two
C
three
.
D
four
.
24. Locomotive boiler is a __________ boiler.

A
fire tube
.
B. water tube
25. When steam after doing work in the cylinder passes into a condenser, the engine is said to be
a
A
slow speed engine
.
B. vertical steam engine
C
condensing steam engine
.
898
D
non-condensing steam engine
.
26. Water tube boilers produce steam at a __________ pressure than that of fire tube boilers.
A
lower
.
B. higher
27. The equivalent evaporation is defined as

A the ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat liberated in the
. furnace
B. the amount of water evaporated or steam produced in kg per kg of fuel burnt
C
the amount of water evaporated from and at 100 C into dry and saturated steam
.
D
the evaporation of 15.653 kg of water per hour from and at 100 C
.
28. Locomotive boiler is a

A
single tube, horizontal, internally fired and stationary boiler
.
B. single tube, vertical, externally fired and stationary boiler
C
multitubular, horizontal, internally fired and mobile boiler
.
D
multitubular, horizontal, externally fired and stationary boiler
.
29. The ratio of the __________ to the volume at cut-off is called expansion ratio.
A
swept volume
.
B. clearance volume
30. In water tube boilers, the water passes through the tubes which are surrounded by flames and
899
hot gases.
A
Yes
.
B. No
31. The governing of steam engines keep the engine speed constant according to the changing
load conditions
A
Yes
.
B. No
32. A closed vessel made of steel and used for the generation of steam is called a
A
steam boiler
.
B. steam turbine
C
steam condenser
.
D
steam injector
.
33. A Tandem type compound engine requires a larger flywheel.

A
True
.
B. False
34. An economiser is installed in a boiler primarily to

A
superheat the steam
.
B. reduce fuel consumption
C
increase steam pressure
.
900
D
all of these
.
35. The theoretical indicator diagram of a simple steam engine is based upon the assumption that
A
there is no pressure drop due to condensation
.
B. steam is admitted at boiler pressure and exhausted at condenser pressure
C
the expansion (or compression) of the steam is hyperbolic
.
D
all of the above
.
36. Lancashire boiler is

A
stationary fire tube boiler
.
B. internally fired boiler
C
horizontal boiler
.
D
all of these
.
37. The diameter of a cylindrical shell of a Scotch marine boiler varies from
A
1.5 to 2 m
.
B. 2.5 to 3.5 m
C
3.5 to 4.5 m
.
D
none of these
.
38. The missing quantity per stroke is equal to

A
901
B. cylinder feed + indicated mass of steam
C
mass of cushion steam + indicated mass of steam
.
D
mass of cushion steam + cylinder feed
.
39. In case of non-condensing steam engines, the pressure of steam in the cylinder during
exhaust stroke is __________ the condenser pressure.
A
equal to
.
B. lower than
C
higher than
.
40. A compound steam engine requires a heavier flywheel than simple steam engines.
A
True
.
B. False
41. A compound steam engine in which piston rods of high pressure and low pressure cylinders '
are attached to two different cranks set at 180 to each other, is called
A
.
C
.
D
both (a) and (b)
.
42. The heat balance sheet for the boiler shows the
A
complete account of heat supplied by 1 kg of dry fuel and the heat consumed
.
902
B. moisture present in the fuel
C
steam formed by combustion of hygrogen per kg of fuel
.
D
all of the above
.
43. The performance of a boiler is measured by the

A
amount of water evaporated per hour
.
B. steam produced in kg/h
C
steam produced in kg/kg of fuel burnt
.
D
all of these
.
44. The evaporative capacity of a boiler is defined as the evaporation of 15.653 kg of water per
hour from and at 100 C.
A
Yes
.
B. No
45. The maximum heat loss is a boiler occurs due to

A
moisture in fuel
.
B. dry flue gases
C
steam formation
.
D
unburnt carbon
.
46. Benson boiler requires

A
903
B. one drum
C
two drums
.
D
three drums
.
47. The high pressure and low pressure cylinders in a Tandem type compound engine are
regarded as having cranks
A
180 to each other
.
B. 90 to each other
C
0 to each other
.
D
none of these
.
48. The amount of water evaporated or steam produced in kg per kg of fuel burnt is known as
power of a boiler.
A
True
.
B. False
49. The fire tubes in a Cochran boiler usually have __________ diameter.
A
6.25 mm
.
B. 62.5 mm
C
72.5 mm
.
D
92.5 mm
.
904
50. Cut-off governing as compared to throttle governing is
A
less efficient and less economical
.
B. less efficient and more economical
C
more efficient and less economical
.
D
more efficient and more economical
.

1. For the same diameter and thickness of tube, a water tube boiler has __________ heating
surface as compared to fire tube boiler.
A
more
.
B. less
C
equal
.
2. Throttle governing of steam engines is a method of controlling the engine output by varying
A
volume of intake steam
.
B. pressure of intake steam
C
temperature of intake steam
.
D
all of these
.
3. In a double acting steam engine, the steam is admitted on one side of the piston and two
working strokes are produced during each revolution of the crankshaft.
A Yes
905
.
B. No
4. Cornish boilers are multi-tubular boilers.

A
True
.
B. False
5. Expansion ratio is the ratio of

A
swept volume to the volume at cut-off
.
B. clearance volume to the swept volume
C
.
D
swept volume to the clearance volume
.
6. In cross compounding, the cylinders are arranged

A
side by side and each cylinder has common piston, connecting rod and crank
.
B. side by side and each cylinder has separate piston, connecting rod and crank
C
at 90 and each cylinder has common piston, connecting rod and crank
.
D
at 90 and each cylinder has separate piston, connecting rod and crank
.
7. The motion of a D-slide valve in a steam engine is simple harmonic.

A
Yes
.
B. No
906
8. A device used in a boiler to control the flow of steam from the boiler to the main pipe and to
shut off the steam completely when required, is known as
A
blow off cock
.
B. fusible plug
C
superheater
.
D
stop valve
.
9. A single ended Scotch marine steam boiler may have one to four furnaces which enter from
front end of the boiler.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
10. The high steam and low water safety valve is used to blow off steam when the
A
steam pressure exceeds the working pressure
.
B. water level in the boiler becomes too low
C
both (a) and (b)
.
D
none of the above
.
11. In a Tandem type compound engine, the high pressure and low pressure cylinders
A
have common piston rod
.
B. are set at 90
907
C
have separate piston rods
.
D
are set in V - arrangement
.
12. Lancashire boiler is a stationary fire tube boiler.

A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
13. Lancashire boiler is used where working pressure and power required are
A
low
.
B. moderate
C
high
.
D
none of these
.
14. The amount of water evaporated or steam produced in kg per kg of fuel burnt is termed as
evaporative capacity of a boiler.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
15. In a compound steam engine, the temperature range per cylinder is reduced, with
corresponding reduction in the condensation.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
16. The cylinder condensation or missing quantity may be reduced by

A the efficient steam jacketing of the cylinder walls
908
.
B. superheating the steam supplied to the engine cylinder
C
keeping the expansion ratio small in each cylinder
.
D
all of the above
.
17. The actual vacuum in a condenser is equal to

A
barometric pressure + actual pressure
.
B. barometric pressure - actual pressure
C
gauge pressure + atmospheric pressure
.
D
gauge pressure - atmospheric pressure
.
18. The function of a superheater is to heat the feed water by utilising the heat in the exhaust flue
gases before leaving through the chimney.
A
Yes
.
B. No
19. Willian's line follows the law (where b = A constant representing the shape of the Willian's
line, a = Another constant i.e. no load consumption per hour, I.P. = Indicated power, and m =
Steam consumption per hour)
A
I.P. = a x m + b
.
B. m = a + b x I.P.
C
I.P. = b x m + a
.
909
D
m = b/I.P. - a
.
20. When the total heat of steam is h kJ/kg and the sensible heat of feed water is hf1 kJ/kg, then
the factor of evaporation is given by
A
.
B.
C
.
D
none of these
.
21. The selection of type and size of a steam boiler depends upon
A
the power required and working pressure
.
B. the geographical position of the power house
C
the fuel and water available
.
D
all of the above
.
22. The maximum steam pressure in a Locomotive boiler is limited to

A
0.18 MN/m2
.
B. 1.8 MN/m2
C
18 MN/m2
.
D 180 MN/m2
910
.
23. The high pressure and low pressure cylinders in a receiver type compound engine are
regarded as having cranks
A
180 to each other
.
B. 90 to each other
C
0 to each other
.
D
none of these
.
24. The main object of a boiler trial is

A
to determine the generating capacity of the boiler
.
B. to determine the thermal efficiency of the boiler when working at a definite pressure
C
to prepare heat balance sheet for the boiler
.
D
all of the above
.
25. The artificial draught is produced by

A
steam jet
.
B. centrifugal fan
C
chimney
.
D
both (a) and (b)
.
26. The draught is the __________ of pressures above and below the fire grate.
A
911
B. difference
27. The function of an eccentric is to provide __________ motion to the slide valve.
A
reciprocating
.
B. rotary
28. The water tubes in a Babcock and Wilcox boiler are

A
vertical
.
B. horizontal
C
inclined
.
29. In case of condensing steam engines, the pressure of steam in the cylinder during exhaust
stroke is __________ the atmospheric pressure.
A
equal to
.
B. lower than
C
higher than
.
30. Blow off cock in a boiler is used to

A control the flow of steam from the boiler to the main pipe and to shut off the steam
. completely when required
empty the boiler when required and to discharge the mud, scale or sediments which
B.
are accumulated at the bottom of the boiler
C put off fire in the furnace of the boiler when the level of water in the boiler falls to an
. unsafe limit
D
increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising its pressure
.
912
31. The cut-off ratio is the reciprocal of expansion ratio,
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
32. In a receiver type compound engine, the high pressure and low pressure cylinders
A
.
B. are set at 90
C
have separate piston rods
.
D
.
33. The damper in a steam boiler is provided to control the draught (i.e. rate of flow of air) and
thus regulate the rate of generation of steam.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
34. The clearance in the engine cylinder

A
increases the mean effective pressure
.
B. increases the workdone
C
decreases the efficiency of the engine
.
D
all of these
.
35. Which of the following is not a boiler mounting?

A
Blow off cock
.
913
B. Feed check valve
C
Economiser
.
D
Fusible plug
.
36. The ratio of the clearance volume to the swept volume is called
A
cut-off ratio
.
B. expansion ratip
C
clearance ratio
.
D
none of these
.
37. The air pressure at the fuel bed is reduced below that of atmosphere by means of a fan placed
at or near the bottom of the chimney to produce a draught. Such a draught is called
A
natural draught
.
B. induced draught
C
forced draught
.
D
balanced draught
.
38. The Locomotive boiler has

A
137 fire tubes and 44 superheated tubes
.
B. 147 fire tubes and 34 superheated tubes
914
C
.
D
.
39. The shell of the Cochran boiler is made hemispherical

A
to give maximum space and strength
.
B. to withstand the pressure of steam inside the boiler
C
both (a) and (b)
.
D
none of the above
.
40. A __________ in a boiler is used to put off fire in the furnace of the boiler when the level of
water in the boiler falls to an unsafe limit.
A
blow off cock
.
B. fusible plug
C
stop valve
.
D
safety valve
.
41. Willian's law holds good for throttle-governed engine, but not for cut-off governed engine.
A
True
.
B. False
42. Which of the following is required for a steam condensing plant ?

A
Condenser
.
915
B. Condensate pump
C
Air extraction pump
.
D
all of these
.
43. The missing quantity is mainly due to cylinder condensation and a small amount of steam
leakage past the valves and piston.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
44. There is always some steam left in the clearance space from the previous stroke. This steam
left in the clearance space is called
A
wet steam
.
B. saturated steam
C
superheated steam
.
D
cushion steam
.
45. The ratio of the volume at cut-off to the swept volume is called
A
cut-off ratio
.
B. expansion ratio
C
clearance ratio
.
D
none of these
.
916
46. The function of a D-slide valve is to exhaust steam from the cylinder at proper moment.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
47. The mechanical draught produces more draught than natural draught.
A
True
.
B. False
48. The water tube boilers produce steam at a __________ pressure than that of fire tube boilers.
A
lower
.
B. higher
49. The mechanical draught __________ with the amount of smoke.

A
increases
.
B. decreases
C
does not effect
.
50. When the expansion of steam is carried out in a single cylinder and then exhausted into the
atmosphere or a condenser, the engine is said to be a simple steam engine.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect

1. The high pressure and low pressure cylinders in a Woolf type compound engine are regarded
as having cranks
A 180 to each other
917
.
B. 90 to each other
C
0 to each other
.
D
none of these
.
2. In a single acting steam engine

A the steam is admitted on one side of the piston and one working stroke is produced
. during each revolution of the crankshaft
the steam is admitted, in turn, on both sides of the piston and one working stroke is
B.
produced during each revolution of the crankshaft
C the steam is admitted on one side of the piston and two working strokes are produced
. during each revolution of the crankshaft
D the steam is admitted, in turn, on both sides of the piston and two working strokes are
. produced during each revolution of the crankshaft.
3. The cylindrical shell of a Lancashire boiler has diameter from

A
1 to 2 m
.
B. 1.25 to 2.25 m
C
1.5 to 2.5 m
.
D
1.75 to 2.75 m
.
4. Which of the following boiler works on a forced circulation of water?

A
La-mont boiler
.
918
B. Benson boiler
C
Loeffler boiler
.
D
all of these
.
5. The clearance in the engine cylinder has no effect on the steam consumption.
A
True
.
B. False
6. The pressure of feed water has to be raised before its entry into the boiler. The pressure is
raised by a device known as
A
Feed pump
.
B. injector
C
feed check valve
.
D
pressure gauge
.
7. Which of the following statement indicates the difference between Cornish boiler and
Lancashire boiler ?
A
Cornish boiler is a water tube boiler whereas Lancashire boiler is a fire tube boiler.
.
B. Cornish boiler is a fire tube boiler whereas Lancashire boiler is a water tube boiler.
C
Cornish boiler has one flue tube whereas Lancashire boiler has two flue tubes.
.
D
Cornish boiler has two flue tubes whereas Lancashire boiler has one flue tube.
.
919
8. By compounding the expansion of steam in two or more cylinders, the ratio of expansion
A
does not change
.
B. increases
C
decreases
.
9. The water tubes in a simple vertical boiler are

A
horizontal
.
B. vertical
C
inclined
.
10. The ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat liberated in the furnace, is
known as
A
equivalent evaporation
.
B. factor of evaporation
C
boiler efficiency
.
D
power of a boiler
.
11. In a La-mont boiler, there is a __________ circulation of water and steam.

A
forced
.
B. natural
12. The diameter of internal flue tubes of a Lancashire boiler is about __________ that of its
shell.
A one-fourth
920
.
B. one-third
C
two-fifth
.
D
one-half
.
13. Locomotive boiler produces steam at a very high rate.

A
Yes
.
B. No
14. Which of the following is a fire tube boiler ?

A
Lansashire boiler
.
B. Babcock and Wilcox boiler
C
Yarrow boiler
.
D
none of these
.

A
The mechanical draught reduces the height of chimney.
.
B. The natural draught reduces the fuel consumption.
C
A balanced draught is a combination of induced and forced draught.
.
D
all of the above
.
921
16. Which of the following are boiler accessories ?
A
economiser
.
B. superheater
C
both (a) and (b)
.
D
none of these
.
17. All steam engines work on

A
.
C
.
D
none of these
.
18. The capacity and working pressure.of a Cornish boiler is __________ as compared to
Lancashire boiler.
A
low
.
B. high
19. For the same length of stroke and speed of crankshaft, the piston speed for a double acting
steam engine is __________ the piston speed of single acting steam engine.
A
equal to
.
B. twice
922
C
three times
.
D
four times
.
20. A compound steam engine in which piston rods of high pressure and low pressure cylinders
are attached to two different cranks set at 90 to each other, is called
A
.
C
.
D
both (a) and (b)
.
21. When the circulation of water, in a boiler, is by convection currents which are set up during
the heating of water, then the boiler is known as
A
internally fired boiler
.
B. externally fired boiler
C
natural circulation boiler
.
D
forced circulation boiler
.
22. The ratio of heat equivalent to brake power to the energy supplied in steam is known as
A
.
923
C
.
D
brake thermal efficiency
.
23. When the speed of the engine is controlled by means of a valve in a steam pipe, which
regulates the pressure of steam entering the engine, then the governing is known as
A
throttle governing
.
B. cut-off governing
C
by-pass governing
.
D
none of these
.
24. The length of Lancashire boiler varies from

A
5 to 6 m
.
B. 6 to 7 m
C
7.25 to 9 m
.
D
9 to 10 m
.
25. The ratio of brake power to the indicated power is known as

A
.
C
.
924
D
brake thermal efficiency
.
26. The draught may be produced by a

A
mechanical fan
.
B. chimney
C
a steam jet
.
D
all of these
.
27. The rate of flow of steam is __________ in case of fire tube boilers.
A
less
.
B. more
28. The number of water level indicators in a boiler are generally __________ in number.
A
one
.
B. two
C
three
.
D
four
.
29. The fire tubes in a Locomotive boiler has __________ diameter.

A
4.75 mm
.
B. 5.47 mm
925
C
7.45 mm
.
D
47.5 mm
.
30. A throttle governed steam engine develops 15 kW with 280 kg per hour of steam and 35 kW
with 520 kg per hour of steam. The steam consumption in kg per hour when developing 20
kW will be nearly
A
150 kg/h
.
B. 210 kg/h
C
280 kg/h
.
D
340 kg/h
.
31. Fire tube boilers are limited to a maximum working pressure of

A
0.17 MN/m2
.
B. 1.7 MN/m2
C
17 MN/m2
.
D
170 MN/m2
.
32. The average value of diagram factor lies between

A
0.2 to 0.5
.
B. 0.5 to 0.65
926
C
0.65 to 0.9
.
D
0.8 to 1.2
.
33. The fittings mounted on the boiler for its proper and safe functioning is a
A
water level indicatior
.
B. pressure gauge
C
safety valve
.
D
all of these
.
34. The diameter of superheated tubes in a locomotive boiler is

A
13 mm
.
B. 31 mm
C
130 mm
.
D
230 mm
.
35. The amount of water evaporated from feed water at __________ into dry and saturated steam
at 100 C at normal atmospheric pressure is called equivalent evaporation from and at 100
C.
A
0C
.
B. 40C
927
C
60C
.
D
100C
.
36. Willian's law states that the steam consumption per hour provided with a throttled governor
is proportional to (where I.P. = Indicated power)
A
.
B.
C
I.P.
.
D
(I.P.)2
.
37. A condenser where circulating water flows through tubes which are surrounded by steam, in
known as
A
surface condenser
.
B. jet condenser
C
barometric condenser
.
D
evaporative condenser
.
38. Combustuion of fuel takes place __________ the engine cylinder of a steam engine.
A
outside
.
B. inside
39. The forced circulation of water does not take place in

A
La-Mont boiler
928
B. Lancashire boiler
C
Velox boiler
.
D
Benson boiler
.
40. A device used to heat feed water by utilising the heat in me exhaust flue gases before leaving
through the chimny, is known as
A
economiser
.
B. fusible plug
C
superheater
.
D
stop valve
.
41. The factor of evaporation for all boilers is always

A
equal to unity
.
B. less than unity
C
greater than unity
.
42. The ratio of the actual vacuum to the ideal vacuum in a condenser is called
A
condenser efficiency
.
B. vacuum efficiency
C
nozzle efficiency
.
929
D
boiler efficiency
.
43. The draught (in mm of water), for maximum discharge of flue gases through the chimney, is
given by (where H = Height ot the chimney in metres, and T1 = Absolute temperature of air
outside the chimney in K)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
44. An air preheater

A
increases evaporative capacity of the boiler
.
B. increases the efficiency of the boiler
C
enables low grade fuel to be burnt
.
D
all of the above
.
45. A condenser in a steam power plant

A
increases expansion ratio of steam
.
B. reduces back pressure of steam
C
reduces temperature of exhaust steam
.
930
D
all of these
.
46. The amount of water evaporated in kg per kg of fuel burnt is called

A
evaporative capacity of a boiler
.
B. equivalent evaporation from and at 100 C
C
boiler efficiency
.
D
none of these
.
47. In a compound steam engine, the first stage of expansion is carried out in a high pressure
cylinder whereas the last expansion is completed in low pressure cylinder. The diameter of
high pressure cylinder is __________ the lowpressure cylinder.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
more than
.
48. Babcock and Wilcox boiler is a stationary type of water tube boiler.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
49. A Cochran boiler is a horizontal multi-tubular boiler.

A
Yes
.
B. No
50. In forced circulation steam boilers, the force is applied

A to draw water
931
.
B. to circulate water
C
to drain off the water
.
D
all of these
.

1. In order to compare the capacity of boilers, the feed water temperature and working pressure
are taken as
A
50 C and normal atmospheric pressure
.
B. 50 C and 1.1 bar pressure
C
100 C and normal atmospheric pressure
.
D
100 C and 1.1 bar pressure
.
2. A condenser maintains a low pressure (below atmospheric) so as to obtain the maximum

possible energy from steam and thus to secure a high efficiency.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
3. The amount of water evaporated from and at 100 C into dry and saturated steam is called
evaporative capacity of a boiler.
A
Yes
.
B. No
4. The difference between the atmospheric pressure and the absolute pressure is known as
932
vacuum in a condenser.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
5. In a steam condenser, the partial pressure of steam and air are 0.06 bar and 0.007 bar
respectively. The condenser pressure is
A
0.007 bar
.
B. 0.053 bar
C
0.06 bar
.
D
0.067 bar
.
6. The ratio of the energy required to produce the artificial draught (expressed in metres head or
J/kg of flue gas) to the mechanical equivalent of extra heat carried away per kg of flue gases
due to natural draught, is known as
A
efficiency of the boiler
.
B. efficiency of the chimney
C
efficiency of the fan
.
D
power of the boiler
.
7. The function of a piston in a steam engine is

A
to guide motion of the piston rod and to prevent it from bending
.
B. to transfer motion from the piston to the cross-head
C to convert heat energy of the steam into mechanical work id) to exhaust steam from
933
. the cylinder at proper moment
8. The high steam and low water safety valve is not used in
A
Cochran boiler
.
B. Cornish boiler
C
Lancashire boiler
.
D
Locomotive boiler
.
9. In a Woolf type compound engine, the high pressure and low pressure cylinders
A
.
B. are set at 90
C
have separate piston rod
.
D
.
10. The actual power generated in the engine cylinder is called

A
indicated power
.
B. brake power
C
frictional power
.
D
none of these
.
11. Which of the following is correct ? (where pa = Actual mean effective pressure, pm =
Theoretical mean effective pressure, and K = Diagram factor)
A
934
B. pa = pm x K
C
pa = K/pm
.
D
pa = pm + K
.
12. The working pressure range for a La-Mont boiler is

A
0.5 to 10 MN/m2
.
B. 1 to 15 MN/m2
C
2.5 to 15 MN/m2
.
D
3.5 to 20 MN/m2
.
13. The draught in locomotive boilers is produced by a

A
chimney
.
B. centrifugal fan
C
steam jet
.
D
none of these
.
14. The ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat liberated in the furnace is
known as equivalent evaporation from and at 100 C.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
15. There is about 15 to 20% of coal saving when an economiser is used in a boiler.
A
935
B. False
16. An economiser is generally placed between

A
last superheater or reheater and air preheater
.
B. induced draft fan and forced draft fan
C
air preheater and chimney
.
D
none of the above
.
17. In fire tube boilers

A
water passes through the tubes which are surrounded by flames and hot gases
.
B. the flames and hot gases pass through the tubes which are surrounded by water
C
forced circulation takes place
.
D
none of these
.
18. The efficiency of a boiler is defined as

A
ratio of heat actually used in producing steam to the heat liberated in the furnace
.
B. ratio of the mass of steam produced to the mass of total water supplied in a given time
C
ratio of the heat liberated in the furnace to the heat actually Used in producing steam
.
D
none of the above
.
19. The ratio of the temperature rise of cooling water to the vacuum temperature minus inlet
cooling water temperature is called
A
936
B. vacuum efficiency
C
nozzle efficiency
.
D
boiler efficiency
.
20. A valve installed between the boiler and the feed pump is
A
blow off cock
.
B. feed check valve
C
steam stop valve
.
D
none of these
.
21. The principal function of a stop valve is to

A control the flow of steam from the boiler to the main pipe and to shut off the steam
. completely when required
empty the boiler when required and to discharge the mud, scale or sediments which
B.
are accumulated at the bottom of the boiler
C put off fire in the furnace of the boiler when the level of water in the boiler falls to an
. unsafe limit
D
increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising its pressure
.
22. The length of Cornish boiler varies from

A
2 to 4.5 m
.
B. 3 to 5 m
937
C
5 to 7.5 m
.
D
7 to 9 m
.
23. The indicated thermal efficiency is defined as the

A
ratio of thermal efficiency to the Rankine efficiency
.
B. ratio of brake power to the indicated power
C
ratio of heat equivalent to indicated power to the energy supplied in steam
.
D
product of thermal efficiency and Rankine efficiency
.
24. In surface condensers, the condensate and the cooling water mixes up.
A
True
.
B. False
25. A water level indicator is a device to indicate the exact water level in the boiler at any
instant.
A
True
.
B. False
26. A vessel into which the steam is exhausted and condensed after doing work in an engine
cylinder or turbine is known as
A
steam condenser
.
B. steam boiler
938
C
steam preheater
.
D
economiser
.
27. The value of diagram factor depends upon

A
initial conditions of steam
.
B. back pressure
C
initial pressure of steam
.
D
all of these
.
28. The function of an eccentric rod is

A
to provide reciprocating motion to the slide valve
.
B. to convert reciprocating motion of the piston into rotary motion of the crank
C
to convert rotary motion of the crankshaft into to and fro motion of the valve rod
.
D
to provide simple harmonic motion to the D-slide valve
.
29. A receiver type compound engine, requires a lighter flywheel.

A
Yes
.
B. No
30. The function of a valve rod is

A
to provide reciprocating motion to the slide valve
.
939
B. to convert reciprocating motion of the piston into rotary motion of the crank
C
to convert rotary motion of the crankshaft into to and fro motion of the valve rod
.
D
to provide simple harmonic motion to the D-slide valve
.
31. A device used to put off fire in the furnace of the boiler when the level of water in the boiler
falls to an unsafe limit, is called
A
blow off cock
.
B. stop valve
C
superheater
.
D
none of these
.
32. The device attached to the steam chest for preventing explosions due to excessive internal
pressure of steam is called
A
safety valve
.
B. water level indicator
C
pressure gauge
.
D
fusible plug
.
33. In a steam engine, superheated steam from the boiler is fed into the steam chest at a pressure
of
A
10 atmospheres
.
B. 20 atmospheres
940
C
30 atmospheres
.
D
40 atmospheres
.
34. A device used to empty the boiler whenever required and to discharge the mud, scale or
sediments which are accumulated at the bottom of the boiler, is called blow off cock.
A
Yes
.
B. No
35. Clearance ratio is the ratio of

A
clearance volume to the swept volume
.
B. clearance volume to the volume at cut-off
C
.
D
swept volume to the clearance volume
.
36. The boiler efficiency is given by (where m = Total mass of water evaporated into steam in
kg/h, mf = Mass of fuel in kg/h, C = Calorific valve of fuel in kJ/kg of fuel, h = Total heat of
steam in kJ/kg, and hf1 = Sensible heat of feed water in kJ /kg)
A
.
B.
C
.
941
D
.
37. In a boiler, the heat is lost

A
to dry flue gases
.
B. in moisture present in the fuel
C
to steam formed by combustion of hydrogen per kg of fuel
.
D
all of the above
.
38. The crown of the fire box is made hemispherical in order to resist intense heat in the fire box.
A
True
.
B. False
39. For maximum discharge through a chimney, the condition is that height of hot gas column
producing the draught should be
A
one-half the height of chimney
.
B. equal to the height of chimney
C
two times the height of chimney
.
D
four times the height of chimney
.
40. Water tube boilers are

A
internally fired
.
B. externally fired
942
C
internally as well as externally fired
.
D
none of these
.

A
A horizontal steam engine requires less floor area than a vertical steam engine.
.
The steam pressure in the cylinder is not allowed to fall below the atmospheric
B.
pressure.
C
The compound steam engines are generally non-condensing steam engines.
.
D
all of the above
.
42. Which of the following compound steam engine requires a smaller flywheel ?
A
Receiver type
.
B. Tandem type
C
Woolf type
.
D
all of these
.
13. Machine Design
Machine Design - Section 1

1. The sleeve or muff coupling is designed as a
943
A
dun cylinder
.
B. thick cylinder
C
solid shaft
.
D
hollow shaft
.
2. A sliding bearing in which the working surfaces are completely separated from each other by
lubricant is called zero film bearing.
A
True
.
B. False
3. Screws used for power transmission should have

A
Low efficiency
.
B. high efficiency
C
very fine threads
.
D
strong teeth
.
4. The number of rivets in shear shall be equal to the number of rivets in crushing.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
5. When bevel gears connect two shafts whose axes intersect at an angle greater than a right
angle and one of the bevel gears has a pitch angle of 90, then they are known as
A
angular bevel gears
.
944
B. crown bevel gears
C
internal bevel gears
.
D
mitre gears
.
6. The toughness of a material __________ when it is heated.

A
increases
.
B. decreases
C
does not change
.
7. The number of slots in a 25 mm castle nut is

A
2
.
B. 4
C
6
.
D
8
.
8. A screw is said to be over hauling screw, if its efficiency is

A
less than 50%
.
B. more than 50%
C
equal to 50%
.
D none of these
945
.
9. The application of third type levers is found in

A
handle of a hand pump
.
B. hand wheel of a punching press
C
lever of a loaded safety valve
.
D
a pair of tongs
.
10. For unequal width of butt straps, the thickness of butt straps are
A
0.75 t for wide strap on the inside and 0.625 t for narrow strap on the outside
.
B. 0.75 t for narrow strap on the inside and 0.625 t for wide strap on the outside
C
0.75 t for both the straps on the inside and outside
.
D
0.625 t for both the straps on the inside and outside
.
11. In second type of levers,

A
load is in between the fulcrum and effort
.
B. effort is in between the fulcrum and load
C
fulcrum is in between the load and effort
.
D
none of these
.
12. Soderberg relation is based on __________ of the material whereas all other failure relation
for dynamic loading are based on ultimate strength of the material.
A
946
B. yield strength
C
shear strength
.
13. In a flange coupling, the flanges are coupled together by means of

A
bolts and nuts
.
B. studs
C
headless taper bolts
.
D
none of these
.
14. A transmission shaft includes

A
counter shaft
.
B. line shaft
C
over head shaft
.
D
all of these
.
15. According to I.B.R., shearing resistance required to shear off the rivet per pitch length (in
double shear) is (where n = Number of rivets per pitch length)
A
. d2 x x n
B. 1.875 x d2 x x n
C
. 2x d2 x x n
947
D
. 3x d2x x n
16. A locking device in which the bottom cylindrical portion is recessed to receive the tip of the
locking set screw, is called
A
castle nut
.
B. jam nut
C
ring nut
.
D
sawn nut
.
17. Slenderness ratio is the ratio of

A
maximum size of column to minimum size of column
.
B. width of column to depth of column
C
effective length of column to least radius of gyration of the column
.
D
effective length of column to width of column
.
18. A crankshaft is a __________ shaft.

A
Transmission
.
B. Machine
19. According to Indian standard specifications, 100 H6/g5 means that the
A
actual size is 100 mm
.
B. basic size is 100 mm
948
C
difference between the actual size and basic size is 100 mm
.
D
none of the above
.
20. A plate with an elliptical hole in the centre, with semi-major axis (a) perpendicular to the
direction of loading and semi-minor axis (b) along the direction of loading, is subjected to a
pull P. The maximum stress induced at the edge of the hole is equal to (where = Stress for
a plate with no hole i.e. nominal stress)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
21. The velocity of sliding __________ the distance of the point of contact from the pitch point.
A
is directly proportional to
.
B. is inversely proportional to
C
is equal to cos multiplied by
.
D
does not depend upon
.
22. A column is known as a long column if the slenderness ratio is

A
40
.
949
B. 50
C
70
.
D
100
.
23. Circumferential joint in boilers is used to get the required length of a boiler.
A
True
.
B. False
24. The ball bearings are provided with a cage

A
to reduce friction
.
B. to facilitate slipping of balls
C
to prevent the lubricant from flowing out
.
D
to maintain the balls at a fixed distance apart
.
25. When screw threads are to be used in a situation where power is being transmitted in one
direction only, then the screw threads suitable for this will be
A
square threads
.
B. acme threads
C
knuckle threads
.
D
buttress threads
.
26. In radial cams, the follower moves

A
950
B. in a direction parallel to the cam axis
C
in any direction irrespective of cam axis
.
D
along the cam axis
.
27. The square threads are not so strong as V-threads but they offer less frictional resistance to
motion than Whitworth threads.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
28. According to Unwin's formula, the relation between the diameter of rivet hole (d) and the
thickness of plate (t) is given by (where d and t are in mm)
A
d=t
.
B. d = 1.6 t
C
d=2t
.
D
d=6t
.
29. In order to avoid tearing of the plate at an edge, the distance from the centre line of the rivet
hole to the nearest edge of the plate should be equal to (where d = Diameter of rivet hole)
A
d
.
B. 1.5 d
C
2d
.
951
D
2.5 d
.
30. The value of stress concentration factor depends upon

A
material of the part
.
B. geometry of the part
C
material and geometry of the part
.
D
none of these
.
31. Which of the following material has the maximum ductility?

A
Mild steel
.
B. Copper
C
Zinc
.
D
Aluminium
.
32. When a bolt is subjected to shock loading, the resilience of the bolt should be considered in
order to prevent breakage at the
A
head
.
B. shank
C
thread
.
D
middle
.
952
33. In order to obtain the bolts of uniform strength, an axial hole is drilled through the head as
far as the threaded portion such that the area of shank becomes equal to the root area of the
thread.
A
True
.
B. False
34. An open belt drive is used when

A
shafts are arranged parallel and rotate in the opposite directions
.
B. shafts are arranged parallel and rotate in the same directions
C
shafts are arranged at right angles and rotate in one definite direction
.
D driven shaft is to be started or stopped whenever desired without interferring with the
. driving shaft
35. In unilateral system of tolerance, the tolerance is allowed on

A
one side of the actual size
.
B. one side of the nominal size
C
both sides of the actual size
.
D
both sides of the nominal size
.
36. The constant factor in case of R10 series of preferred numbers is

A
1.06
.
B. 1.12
953
C
1.26
.
D
1.58
.
37. The pipe joint mostly used for pipes carrying water at low pressures is
A
socket joint
.
B. nipple joint
C
union joint
.
D
spigot and socket joint
.
38. According to Guest's theory, the failure occurs at a point in a member when the maximum
shear stress in a bi-axial stress system reaches the shear stress at elastic limit in simple
tension test.
A
True
.
B. False
39. For maximum power, the velocity of the belt will be

A
.
B.
C
.
D
none of these
.
40. Surface endurance limit of gear material is dependent upon its

A
954
B. yield strength
C
brinell hardness number
.
D
toughness
.
41. In a hydrodynamic lubricated bearing

A
there is a thick film of lubricant between the journal and the bearing
.
B. there is a thin film of lubricant between the journal and the bearing
C
there is no lubricant between the journal and the bearing
.
D
the lubricant is forced between the journal and the bearing, by external pressure
.
42. Which of the following statement is correct for gears?

A
The addendum is less than dedendum
.
B. The pitch circle diameter is equal to the product of module and number of teeth
C
The pitch circle is always greater than the base circle
.
D
all of the above
.
43. A flanged pipe joint will be a leak-proof joint, if the circumferential pitch of the bolts is
(where d = Diameter of bolt hole)
A
less than 20 d
.
B. greater than 30 d
955
C
between 20 d and 30 d
.
D
equal to inside diameter of pipe
.
44. Stress concentration is caused due to

A
variations in load acting on a member
.
B. variations in properties of materials in a member
C
abrupt change of cross-section
.
D
all of these
.
45. The resistance to fatigue of a material is measured by

A
elastic limit
.
B. Young's modulus
C
ultimate tensile strength
.
D
endurance limit
.
46. The load cup of a screw jack is made separate from the head of the spindle to
A
enhance the load carrying capacity of the jack
.
B. reduce the effort needed for lifting the working load
C
prevent the rotation of load being lifted
.
956
D
reduce the value of frictional torque
.
47. Two shafts A and B under pure torsion are of identical length and identical weight and are
made of the same material. The shaft A is solid and the shaft B is hollow. We can say that
A
shaft B is better than shaft A
.
B. shaft A is better than shaft B
C
both the shafts are equally good
.
48. The centre distance between two meshing involute gears is equal to
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.

A The power transmitted by V-belts is less than flat belts for the same coefficient of
. friction, arc of contact and allowable tension in the belts
B. The V-belt drive is used with large centre distance
C The V-belt may be operated in either direction with tight side of the belt at the top or
. bottom
D
The ratio of driving tensions in V-belt drive is more than flat belt drives
.
50. In a flange coupling, the thickness of flanges is taken as one-half the diameter of shaft.
A Agree
957
.
B. Disagree

1. The rolling contact bearings are known as
A
thick lubricated bearings
.
B. plastic bearings
C
thin lubricated bearings
.
D
antifriction bearings
.
2. The backlash for spur gears depends upon

A
module
.
B. pitch line velocity
C
tooth profile
.
D
both (a) and (b)
.
3. The size of a gear is usually specified by

A
pressure angle
.
B. pitch circle diameter
C
circular pitch
.
958
D
diametral pitch
.
4. The circumferential and longitudinal strains in a cylindrical boiler under internal steam
pressure are c and lrespectively. The change in volume of the boiler cylinder per unit
volume will be
A
c + 2l
.
B. 2c + l
C
c + l2
.
D
c2 + l
.
5. The bearings of heavy series have capacity __________ over the medium series.
A
10 to 20%
.
B. 20 to 30%
C
30 to 40%
.
D
40 to 50%
.
6. A steel containing more than 0.8% carbon is known as eutectoid steel.

A
Yes
.
B. No
7. In leaf springs, the longest leaf is known as

A
lower leaf
.
B. master leaf
959
C
upper leaf
.
D
none of these
.
8. The taper on cotter varies from

A
1 in l5 to 1 in 10
.
B. 1 in 24 to 1 in 20
C
1 in 32 to 1 in 24
.
D
1 in 48 to 1 in 24
.
9. Which of the following screw thread is used for power transmission in one direction only.
A
Acme threads
.
B. Square threads
C
Buttress threads
.
D
Multiple threads
.
10. When the bearing is subjected to large fluctuations of load and heavy impacts, the bearing
characteristic number should be __________ the bearing modulus.
A
5 times
.
B. 10 times
960
C
15 times
.
D
20 times
.
11. The rolling contact bearings as compared to sliding contact bearings have
A
small overall dimensions
.
B. accuracy of shaft alignment
C
low starting and low running friction except at very high speeds
.
D
all of the above
.
12. The maximum normal stress theory is used for

A
brittle materials
.
B. ductile materials
C
plastic materials
.
D
non-ferrous materials
.
13. When two non-intersecting and non-coplaner shafts are connected by gears, the arrangement
is known as
A
spur gearing
.
B. helical gearing
C
bevel gearing
.
961
D
spiral gearing
.
14. When a nut is tightened by placing a washer below it, the bolt will be subjected to
A
tensile stress
.
C
shear stress
.
D
none of these
.
15. A locking device extensively used in marine type connecting rod ends is a
A
jam nut
.
B. castle nut
C
sawn nut
.
D
ring nut
.
16. The difference between the tooth space and the tooth thickness as measured on the pitch
circle, is called
A
working depth
.
B. clearance
C
face width
.
D
backlash
.
962
17. When a load W is suddenly applied to a bar of weight W1, the stress induced in the bar will
increase with the increase in weight W1.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
18. The endurance limit for a mirror polished material will be __________ as compared to
unpolished material.
A
same
.
B. less
C
more
.
19. A sliding bearing which operates without any lubricant present, is called
A
zero film bearing
.
B. boundary lubricated bearing
C
hydrodynamic lubricated bearing
.
D
hydrostatic lubricated bearing
.
20. The material used for brake lining should have __________ coefficient of friction.
A
low
.
B. high
21. Screws jacks have multiple threads.

A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
963
22. In an ordinary bolt, the effect of the impulsive loads applied axially is concentrated on the
cross-sectional area at the root of the threads.
A
Yes
.
B. No
23. The radial distance of a tooth from the pitch circle to the top of the tooth is called
A
dedendum
.
B. addendum
C
clearance
.
D
working depth
.
24. In a gear, having involute teeth, the normal to the involute is a tangent to the
A
pitch circle
.
B. base circle
C
addendum circle
.
D
dedendum circle
.

A
The toughness of a material increases when it is heated.
.
The shear stress in a beam varies from zero at the neutral surface and maximum at the
B.
outer fibres.
964
C The stress concentration in static loading is more serious in brittle materials and less
. serious in ductile materials.
D The stress concentration in static loading is more serious in ductile materials and less
. serious in brittle materials.
26. The metal suitable for bearings subjected to light loads is

A
silicon bronze
.
B. white metal
C
monel metal
.
D
phosphor bronze
.
27. A connecting rod subjected to an axial load may buckle in the plane perpendicular to the
plane of motion of the connecting rod.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
28. Which of the following is an antifriction bearing?

A
journal bearing
.
B. pedestal bearing
C
collar bearing
.
D
needle bearing
.
29. A connecting rod is four times strong in buckling about Y-axis than about X-axis.
A
Agree
.
965
B. Disagree
30. In designing a sleeve coupling, length of the sleeve is taken as (where d = Diameter of the
shaft)
A
d + 17 mm
.
B. 2 d + 13 mm
C
2 d + 20 mm
.
D
3.5 d
.
31. When a shaft is subjected to combined twisting moment (T) and bending moment (M), then
the equivalent twisting moment is equal to
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
32. In helical gears, the right hand helixes on one gear will mesh __________ helixes on the
other gear.
A
right hand
.
B. left hand
33. A connecting rod is designed as a

A
long column
.
B. short column
966
C
strut
.
D
all of these
.
34. The cross-section of the arm of a bell crank lever is

A
rectangular
.
B. elliptical
C
I-section
.
D
any one of these
.
35. The rocker arms in internal combustion engines are of first type levers.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
36. In a crossed belt drive, the shafts are arranged parallel and rotate in the same directions.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
37. In worm gears, the angle between the tangent to the pitch helix and an element of the
cylinder, is known as
A
helix angle
.
B. pressure angle
967
C
pitch lead angle
.
D
none of these
.
38. Idler pulley is used for

A
increasing velocity ratio
.
B. for applying tension
C
changing the direction of motion of belt
.
D
all of these
.
39. The bell crank levers used in railway signalling arrangement are of third type levers.
A
True
.
B. False
40. When spring index increases, the value of Wahl's stress factor
A
increases linearly
.
B. decreases linearly
C
remains same
.
D
increases exponentially
.
41. A shaft is subjected to a maximum bending stress of 80 N/mm2 and maximum shearing stress
equal to 30 N/mm2at a particular section. If the yield point in tension of the material is 280
N/mm2 and the maximum shear stress theory of failure is used, then the factor of safety
obtained will be
A
2.5
968
B. 2.8
C
3.0
.
D
3.5
.
42. The longitudinal stress is __________ of the circumferential stress.

A
one-half
.
B. two-third
C
three-fourth
.
D
double
.
43. The expression 0.175 - 0.841/T is the Lewis form factor for
A
. composite and full depth involute system
B. 20 full depth involute system
C
20 stub system
.
D
none of the above
.
44. A screw will be self locking, if

A
friction angle is less than helix angle
.
B. friction angle is more than helix angle
C friction angle is equal to helix angle
969
.
D
efficiency of screw is 100%
.
45. The maximum shear stress theory is used for

A
brittle materials
.
C
plastic materials
.
D
non-ferrous materials
.
46. The elasticity is the property of a material which enables it to

A
regain its original shape after deformation when the external forces are removed
.
B. draw into wires by the application of a tensile force
C
resist fracture due to high impact loads
.
D
retain deformation produced under load permanently
.
47. The surface finish factor for a mirror polished material is

A
0.45
.
B. 0.65
C
0.85
.
D 1
970
.
48. For low and moderate speed engines, the cam follower should move with
A
uniform velocity
.
B. simple harmonic motion
C
uniform accleration and retardation
.
D
cycloidal motion
.

A
A parallel sunk key is a taperless key
.
B. A parallel sunk key may be rectangular or square in cross-section
C A flat saddle key is a taper key which fits in a key way of the hub and is flat on the
. shaft
D
all of the above
.
50. When a bolt and nut is made of mild steel, then the effective height of nut is made equal to
(where d = Nominal diameter of bolt)
A
0.5 d
.
B. 0.75 d
C
d
.
D
1.25 d
.
971
1. If a bearing is designated by the number 305, it means that the bearing is of
A
light series whose bore is 5 mm
.
B. light series whose bore is 25 mm
C
medium series whose bore is 5 mm
.
D
medium series whose bore is 25 mm
.
2. Tapered roller bearings can take

A
radial load only
.
B. axial load only
C
both radial and axial loads and the ratio of these being less than unity
.
D
both radial and axial loads and the ratio of these being greater than unity
.
3. In order to remove internal stresses produced by hardening the steel, the process usually
adopted is
A
tempering
.
B. annealing
C
normalising
.
D
spheroidising
.
4. A pressure vessel is said to be a thin shell, if the ratio of wall thickness to its diameter is
equal to 1/10.
972
A
Yes
.
B. No
5. A bolt of uniform strength can be developed by

A keeping the core diameter of threads equal to the diameter of unthreaded portion of the
. bolt
B. keeping the core diameter smaller than the diameter of the unthreaded portion
C keeping the nominal diameter of threads equal to the diameter of unthreaded portion
. of the bolt
D
none of the above
.
6. The ratio of endurance limit in shear to the endurance limit in flexure is

A
0.25
.
B. 0.40
C
0.55
.
D
0.70
.
7. The lower deviation is the algebraic difference between the

A
minimum limit and the basic size
.
B. maximum limit and the basic size
C
actual size and the corresponding basic size
.
D none of the above
973
.
8. When plates are fastened by a rivet, the holes in the plates should be made by punching and
reaming.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
9. When carbon in the cast iron is principally in the form of graphite, the cast iron will be of
A
grey colour
.
B. white colour
C
yellow colour
.
D
brown colour
.
10. A shoe brake is commonly used in railway trains.

A
Yes
.
B. No
11. The rivet head used for boiler plate riveting is usually
A
snap head
.
B. pan head
C
counter sunk head
.
D
conical head
.
12. A single strap butt joint is always in __________ shear.

A
974
B. double
13. 18/8 steel contains

A
18% nickel and 8% chromium
.
B. 18% chromium and 8% nickel
C
18% nickel and 8% vanadium
.
D
18% vanadium and 8% nickel
.
14. The module in the reciprocal of diametral pitch.

A
Yes
.
B. No
15. The velocity factor for carefully cut gears operating at velocities upto __________ is equal to
4.5/4.5 + v.
A
10 m/s
.
B. 12.5 m/s
C
15 m/s
.
D
20 m/s
.
16. A localised compressive stress at the area of contact between two members is known as
A
tensile stress
.
B. bending stress
975
C
bearing stress
.
D
shear stress
.
17. The metal suitable for bearings subjected to heavy loads is

A
silicon bronze
.
B. white metal
C
monel metal
.
D
phosphor bronze
.
18. The V-belts are particularly suitable for __________ drives.

A
short
.
B. long
19. For hardening alloy steels and high speed steels, they are heated to
A
500 to 600C
.
B. 700 to 900C
C
1100 to 1300C
.
D
1300 to 1500C
.
20. An universal coupling is used to connect two shafts

A
which are perfectly aligned
.
976
B. which are not in exact alignment
C
have lateral misalignment
.
D
whose axes intersect at a small angle
.
21. Euler's formula for a mild steel column is not valid if the slenderness ratio is
A
60
.
B. 90
C
100
.
D
120
.
22. The standard length of the shaft is

A
5m
.
B. 6 m
C
7m
.
D
all of these
.
23. According to I.B.R., when the thickness of boiler shell (t) is greater than 8 mm, then the
diameter of rivet hole (d) is obtained by
A
equating tearing resistance of the plate to the shearing resistance of the rivets
.
B. equating tearing resistance of the plate to the crushing resistance of the rivets
977
C
equating shearing resistance to the crushing resistance of the rivets
.
D
none of the above
.
24. When the shaft rotates in anticlockwise direction at slow speed in a bearing, it will
A
have contact at the bottom most of the bearing
.
B. move towards right of the bearing making the metal to metal contact
C
move towards right of the bearing making no metal to metal contact
.
D
move towards left of the bearing making metal to metal contact
.
25. A taper key which fits half in the key way of the hub and half in the key way of shaft, is
known as
A
sunk key
.
B. flat saddle key
C
hollow saddle key
.
D
tangent key
.
26. When bevel gears having equal teeth and equal pitch angles connect two shafts whose axes
intersect at right angle, then they are known as
A
angular bevel gears
.
B. crown bevel gears
978
C
internal bevel gears
.
D
mitre gears
.
27. A sliding bearing which can support steady loads without any relative motion between the
journal and the bearing, is called
A
zero film bearing
.
B. boundary lubricated bearing
C
hydrodynamic lubricated bearing
.
D
hydrostatic lubricated bearing
.
28. In case of pressure vessels having closed ends, the fluid pressure induces
A
longitudinal stress
.
B. circumferential stress
C
shear stress
.
D
none of these
.
29. A machine part subjected to __________ is called a strut.

A
an axial tensile force
.
B. an axial compressive force
C
a tangential force
.
979
D
any one of these
.
30. The yield point in static loading is __________ as compared to fatigue loading.
A
higher
.
B. lower
C
same
.
31. When two helical springs of equal lengths are arranged to form a cluster spring, then
A
shear stress in each spring will be equal
.
B. load taken by each spring will be half the total load
C
all of the above
.
D
none of these
.
32. For a shaft diameter of 200 mm, the number of bolts in a marine flange coupling should be
A
4
.
B. 6
C
8
.
D
10
.
33. The stress in the threaded part of the bolt will be __________ as compared to the shank.
A
same
.
980
B. higher
C
lower
.
34. A shaft is a rotating machine element.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
35. The dedendum circle diameter is equal to (where = Pressure angle)

A
pitch circle diameter x cos
.
B. addendum circle diameter x cos
C
clearance circle diameter x cos
.
D
pitch circle diameter x sin
.
36. Which one of the following is a positive drive?

A
Crossed flat belt drive
.
B. Rope drive
C
V-belt drive
.
D
Chain drive
.
37. Two closely coiled helical springs with stiffnesses k1 and k2 respectively are connected in
series. The stiffness of an equivalent spring is given by
A
.
981
B.
C
.
D
.
38. The period during which the cam follower remains at rest, when cam moves, is known as
A
constant period
.
B. fixed period
C
dwell period
.
D
idle period
.
39. The flank of the tooth is the

A
surface of the top of the tooth
.
B. surface of the tooth above the pitch surface
C
surface of the tooth below the pitch surface
.
D
width of the tooth measured along the pitch circle
.
40. The included angle for the British Association thread is

A
29
.
B. 47.3
982
C
55
.
D
60
.
41. The contact ratio is the ratio of

A
length of path of contact to the circular pitch
.
B. length of arc of contact to the circular pitch
C
length of arc of approach to the circular pitch
.
D
length of arc of recess to the circular pitch
.
42. The bearing characteristic number is given by (where p = Bearing pressure on the projected
bearing area, Z = Absolute viscosity of the lubricant, and N = Speed of the journal)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
43. The cracks in helical springs used in railway carriages usually start on the inner side of the
coil because of the fact that
A
it is subjected to a higher stress than the outer side
.
B. it is subjected to a higher cyclic loading than the outer side
C it is more stretched than the outer side during the manufacturing process
983
.
D
it has a lower curvature than the outer side
.
44. In a marine flange coupling, the thickness of flange is taken as

A
d/4
.
B. d/3
C
d/2
.
D
3 d/4
.
45. The wire ropes make contact at

A
bottom of groove of the pulley
.
B. sides of groove of the pulley
C
sides and bottom of groove of the pulley
.
D
anywhere in the groove of the pulley
.
46. A metal pipe of 1 m diameter contains a fluid having a pressure of 1 N/mm2. If the
permissible tensile stress in the metal is 20 N/mm2, then the thickness of the metal required
for making the pipe will be
A
5 mm
.
B. 10 mm
C
15 mm
.
984
D
25 mm
.
47. A tangent key is provided in pairs at right angles and each key is to withstand torsion in one
direction only.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
48. When the speed of belt increases,

A
the coefficient of friction between the belt and pulley increases
.
B. the coefficient of friction between the belt and pulley decreases
C
the power transmitted will decrease
.
D
the power transmitted will increase
.
49. According to law of gearing, the common normal at the point of contact between a pair of
teeth must always pass through the pitch point.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
50. An involute pinion and gear are in mesh. If both have the same size of addendum, then there
will be interference between the
A
tip of the gear and flank of pinion
.
B. tip of the pinion and flank of gear
C
flanks of both gear and pinion
.
D tip of both gear and pinion
985
.

1. The major diameter of a screw thread is also known as core or root diameter.
A
Yes
.
B. No
2. The initial tension (in newtons) in a bolt used for making a fluid tight joint like steam engine
cover joints, is calculated by the relation (where d = Nominal diameter of bolt in mm)
A
1420 d
.
B. 1680 d
C
2080 d
.
D
2840 d
.
3. The property of a material which enables it to be drawn into wires with the application of a
tensile force, is called
A
plasticity
.
B. elasticity
C
ductility
.
D
malleability
.
4. The helix angle for single helical gears ranges from

A
10 to 15
.
986
B. 15 to 20
C
20 to 35
.
D
35 to 50
.
5. In order to withstand resistance to wear, the best profile of gear is

A
. full depth involute tooth
B. 20 full depth involute tooth
C
20 involute stub tooth
.
D
. stub tooth
6. A circular shaft can transmit a torque of 5 kN-m. If the torque is reduced to 4 kN-m, then the
maximum value of bending moment that can be applied to the shaft is
A
1 kN-m
.
B. 2 kN-m
C
3 kN-m
.
D
4 kN-m
.
7. The design of pin of a rocker arm of an I.C. engine is based on

A
bearing failure
.
B. shearing failure
987
C
bending failure
.
D
all of these
.
8. For a shaft diameter of 100 mm, the number of bolts in a flange coupling should be
A
4
.
B. 6
C
8
.
D
10
.
9. A wood-ruff key is
A
a tapered key with head at one end
.
B. fitted in pairs at right angles
C
capable of tilting in a recess milled out in the shaft
.
D
all of the above
.
10. In a V-belt drive, the belt makes contact at the bottom of the groove of the pulley.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
11. In worm gears, the pressure angle is half the angle between two inclined faces in axial plane.
A
Correct
.
988
B. Incorrect
12. For crank shaft bearings, the ratio of the length of the journal to its diameter is less than
unity.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
13. Lewis equation in gears is used to find the

A
tensile stress in bending
.
B. shear stress
C
compressive stress in bending
.
D
fatigue stress
.
14. In order to determine the stresses in a thin cylinder due to an internal pressure, it is assumed
that
A
the effect of curvature of the cylinder wall is neglected
.
B. the tensile stresses are uniformly distributed over the section of the walls
C the effect of the restraining action of the heads at the end of the pressure vessel is
. neglected
D
all of the above
.
15. All stresses produced in a belt are

A
compressive stresses
.
B. tensile stresses
989
C
both tensile and compressive stresses
.
D
shear stresses
.
16. An elastic bar is fixed at the upper end and loaded at the lower end by a falling weight. The
shock load produced can be reduced by
A
increasing the length of bar
.
B. decreasing the cross-sectional area of the bar
C
decreasing the modulus of elasticity of the bar
.
D
all of the above
.
17. The ratio of driving tensions in V-belt drives is __________ flat belt drives.
A
equal to
.
B. sin times more than
C
sin times less than
.
D
cosec times more than
.
18. A shaft is designed on the basis of rigidity and stiffness.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
19. Which of the following spring is used in mechanical wrist watch?

A
Helical compression spring
.
990
B. Spiral spring
C
Torsion spring
.
D
Bellevile spring
.
20. In helical bevel gearing, the axes of shafts are __________ and the teeth are curved.
A
intersecting
.
B. non-intersecting and non-parallel
21. Which of the following has threads at both ends?

A
Bolt
.
B. Tap bolt
C
Stud
.
D
none of these
.
22. The ratio of the ultimate stress to the design stress is known as
A
elastic limit
.
B. strain
C
factor of safety
.
D
bulk modulus
.
23. According to Indian standards, the diameter of rivet hole is made larger than the basic size of
rivet by
A
991
B. 1 mm for rivet diameter from 27 mm to 36 mm
C
2 mm for rivet diameter from 39 mm to 48 mm
.
D
all of the above
.
24. The cam follower extensively used in air-craft engines is

A
knife edge follower
.
B. flat faced follower
C
spherical faced follower
.
D
roller follower
.
25. The minor diameter of a screw thread is also known as outside or nominal diameter.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
26. A pressure vessel is said to be a thick shell, if the ratio of wall thickness to its diameter is
A
equal to 1/10
.
B. less than 1/10
C
greater than 1/10
.
D
none of these
.
27. The radial stress across the thickness of a thick cylinder is maximum at the inner surface and
zero at the outer surface.
A
992
B. False
28. The diameter of the rivet hole is usually __________ the nominal diameter of the rivet.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
more than
.
29. The resilience of a bolt may be increased by

A
increasing its shank diameter
.
B. increasing its length
C
decreasing its shank diameter
.
D
decreasing its length
.
30. In worm, gears, pitch lead angle is

A
half the angle between two inclined faces in axial plane
.
B. the angle between the tangent to the pitch helix and the plane of rotation
C
the angle between the tangent to the pitch helix and an element of the cylinder
.
D
none of the above
.
31. The effective stress in wire ropes during normal working is equal to the stress due to
A
axial load plus stress due to bending
.
993
B. acceleration/retardation of masses plus stress due to bending
C
axial load plus stress due to acceleration/retardation
.
D
bending plus stress due to acceleration/retardation
.
32. When the length of the journal is equal to the diameter of the journal, then the bearing is said
to be a
A
short bearing
.
B. long bearing
C
medium bearing
.
D
square bearing
.
33. A connecting rod should be

A
strong in buckling about X-axis
.
B. strong in buckling about Y-axis
C
equally strong in buckling about X-axis and Y-axis
.
D
.
34. According to I.B.R., the efficiency of a triple riveted butt joint with double straps of unequal
width (5 rivets per pitch length) should be
A
45 to 60%
.
B. 63 to 70%
994
C
70 to 83%
.
D
80 to 90%
.
35. When two non-parallel or intersecting but coplaner shafts are connected by gears, the
arrangement is known as bevel gearing.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
36. According to Indian standards, a bolt thread of 6 mm size of coarse pitch and with allowance
on the threads and normal tolerance grade is designated as
A
M6
.
B. M8
C
M6 - 8d
.
D
M8 - 6d
.
37. According to maximum normal stress theory, the maximum normal stress in the shaft is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
38. When a beam of rectangular cross-section of width b and depth d, is subjected to a shear
force F, the maximum shear stress induced will be
995
B.
C
.
D
.
39. In designing a connecting rod, it is considered like __________ for buckling about Y-axis.
A
both ends hinged
.
B. both ends fixed
C
.
D
.
40. A steel containing __________ 0.8% carbon is known as hypo-eutectoid steel.

A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
41. When the connected members are very yielding (soft gasket) as compared to the bolt, then
the resultant load on the bolt will be equal to the
A
initial tension
.
B. external load applied
C
sum of the initial tension and external load applied
.
996
D
initial tension or external load, whichever is greater
.
42. Which one of the following loading is considered for the design of axles?
A
Bending moment only
.
B. Twisting moment only
C
Combined bending moment and twisting moments
.
D
Combined action of bending moment, twisting moment and axial thrust
.
43. The shear stress in a beam varies from zero at the outer fibres to a maximum at the neutral
surface.
A
Yes
.
B. No
44. A basic hole is one whose

A
lower deviation is zero
.
B. upper deviation is zero
C
lower and upper deviations are zero
.
D
none of these
.
45. In a flange coupling, the keys are staggered at __________ along the circumference of the
shafts in order to divide the weakening effect caused by key ways.
A
90
.
B. 135
997
C
160
.
D
180
.
46. A tapered key which fits in a key way in the hub and the bottom of which is shaped to fit the
curved surface of the shaft, is known as hollow saddle key.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
47. In levers, leverage is the ratio of

A
load lifted to the effort applied
.
B. mechanical advantage to the velocity ratio
C
load arm to the effort arm
.
D
effort arm to the load arm
.
48. The diameter of washer is generally taken bigger than the nut size.
A
True
.
B. False

A The pitch of rivets is obtained by equating the tearing resistance of the plate to the
. shearing resistance of the rivets
B. The pitch of rivets should not be less than 2 d, where d is the diameter of rivet hole
998
C The maximum value of the pitch of rivets for a longitudinal joint of a boiler, as per
. I.B.R., is given by Pmax = C.t + 41.28 mm
D
According to I.B.R., the thickness of butt strap shall not be less than 5 mm
.
50. If a shaft made from ductile material is subjected to combined bending and twisting moment,
calculations based on which one of the following failure theories will give the most
conservative value?
A
Maximum principal stress theory
.
B. Maximum shear stress theory
C
Maximum strain energy theory
.
D
Maximum distortion energy theory
.

1. Which of the following property is desirable in parts subjected to shock and impact loads?
A
Strength
.
B. Stiffness
C
Brittleness
.
D
Toughness
.
2. In block brakes, the ratio of shoe width to wheel diameter is taken between
A
0.1 and 0.25
.
B. 0.25 and 0.50
999
C
0.50 and 0.75
.
D
0.75 and 1
.
3. Oldham coupling is used to transmit power between two parallel shafts which are slightly
offset.
A
True
.
B. False
4. A shaft is subjected to fluctuating loads for which the normal torque (T) and bending moment
(M) are 1000 N-m and 500 N-m respectively. If the combined shock and fatigue factor for
bending is 1.5 and combined shock and fatigue factor for torsion is 2, then the equivalent
twisting moment for the shaft is
A
2000 N-m
.
B. 2050 N-m
C
2100 N-m
.
D
2136 N-m
.
5. When a machine member is subjected to torsion, the torsional shear stress set up in the
member is
A
zero at both the centroidal axis and outer surface of the member
.
B. maximum at both the centroidal axis and outer surface of the member
C
zero at the centroidal axis and maximum at the outer surface of the member
.
D
maximum at the centroidal axis and zero at the outer surface of the member
.
1000
6. Pitch point of a cam is
A
a point on the pitch curve having minimum pressure angle
.
B. a point on the pitch curve having maximum pressure angle
C
any point on the pitch curve
.
D
any point on the pitch circle
.
7. When two parallel and coplaner shafts are connected by gears having teeth parallel to the
axis of the shaft, the arrangement is known as spiral gearing.
A
Yes
.
B. No
8. A screw is specified by its

A
major diameter
.
B. minor diameter
C
pitch diameter
.
D
pitch
.
9. The wear load should be __________ the dynamic load.

A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
1001
10. The velocity factor for ordinary cut gears operating at velocities upto 12.5 m/s is equal to
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
11. Antifriction bearings are

A
thick lubricated bearings
.
B. plastic bearings
C
thin lubricated bearings
.
D
ball and roller bearings
.
12. Stress concentration factor is defined as the ratio of

A
maximum stress to the endurance limit
.
B. nominal stress to the enurance limit
C
maximum stress to the nominal stress
.
D
nominal stress to the maximum stress
.
13. The property of a bearing material which has the ability to accomodate shaft deflections and
bearing inaccuracies by plastic deformation without excessive wear and heating, is known as
A bondability
1002
.
B. embeddability
C
comformability
.
D
fatigue strength
.
14. In the levers of __________ type, the mechanical advantage is less than one.
A
first
.
B. second
C
third
.
15. A hollow saddle key is

A
a taper key which fits half in the key way of hub and half in the key way of shaft
.
B. a taper key which fits in a key way of the hub and is flat on the shaft
C a taper key which fits in a key way of the hub and the bottom of the key is shaped to
. fit the curved surface of the shaft
D provided in pairs at right angles and each key is to withstand torsion in one direction
. only
16. A special case of ductility which permits materials to be rolled or hammered into thin sheets,
is called
A
plasticity
.
B. elasticity
C ductility
1003
.
D
malleability
.
17. Crowning on pulley helps

A
in decreasing the slip of the belt
.
B. in increasing the slip of the belt
C
to keep the belt in centre on a pulley while it is in motion
.
D
to increase pulley life
.
18. The temperature required for full annealing in hyper-eutectoid steel is

A
50C above upper critical temperature
.
B. 50C below upper critical temperature
C
50C above lower critical temperature
.
D
50C below lower critical temperature
.
19. The effect of key ways on a shaft is to reduce its load carrying capacity and to increase its
torsional rigidity.
A
True
.
B. False
20. The efficiency of a riveted joint is equal to

A
Pt/P
.
1004
B. Ps/P
C
Pc/P
.
D
least of Pt, Ps and Pc/P
.
21. Which of the following welded joint is designed for shear strength ?
A
Transverse fillet welded joint
.
B. Parallel fillet welded joint
C
Butt welded joint
.
D
all of these
.
22. In designing a connecting rod, it is considered like __________ for buckling about X-axis.
A
both ends hinged
.
B. both ends fixed
C
.
D
.
23. The material commonly used for crane hooks is

A
cast iron
.
B. wrought iron
C mild steel
1005
.
D
aluminium
.
24. The eye bolts are used for

A
transmission of power
.
B. locking devices
C
lifting and transporting heavy machines
.
D
absorbing shocks and vibrations
.
25. The endurance or fatigue limit is defined as the maximum value of the stress which a
polished standard specimen can withstand without failure, for infinite number of cycles,
when subjected to
A
static load
.
B. dynamic load
C
static as well as dynamic load
.
D
completely reversed load
.
26. The Wahl's stress factor (K) for springs is given by
(where )
A
.
B.
1006
C
.
D
.
27. According to Rankine's theory, the failure occurs at a point in a member

A when the maximum shear stress in a bi-axial stress system reaches the shear stress at
. elastic limit in a simple tension test
when the maximum principal stress in a bi-axial stress system reaches the elastic limit
B.
of the material in a simple tension test
C when the strain energy per unit volume in a bi-axial stress system reaches the strain
. energy at the elastic limit per unit volume as determined from a simple tension test
D when the maximum principal strain in a bi-axial stress system reaches the strain at the
. elastic limit as determined from a simple tension test
28. The dedendum is the radial distance from the

A
pitch circle to the top of a tooth
.
B. pitch circle to the bottom of a tooth
C
top of a tooth to the bottom of a tooth
.
D
addendum circle to the clearance circle
.
29. In a steam engine, the valve rod is connected to an eccentric rod by means of
A
cotter joint
.
B. knuckle joint
C
universal joint
.
1007
D
flange coupling
.
30. In helical gears, the distance parallel to the axis, between similar faces of adjacent teeth, is
called
A
normal pitch
.
B. axial pitch
C
diametral pitch
.
D
module
.
31. Which of the following formula is used in designing a connecting rod ?

A
Euler's formula
.
B. Rankine's formula
C
Johnson's straight line formula
.
D
Johnson's parabolic formula
.
32. When a material is subjected to fatigue loading, the ratio of the endurance limit to the
ultimate tensile strength is
A
0.20
.
B. 0.35
C
0.50
.
1008
D
0.65
.
33. The lead angle of a worm is 22.5. Its helix angle will be
A
22.5
.
B. 45
C
67.5
.
D
90
.
34. The root angle of a bevel gear is equal to

A
pitch angle - addendum angle
.
B. pitch angle + addendum angle
C
pitch angle - dedendum angle
.
D
pitch angle + dedendum angle
.
35. A thin spherical shell of internal diameter d is subjected to an internal pressure p. If V is the
storage capacity of shell, then its diameter will be
A
.
B.
C
.
1009
D
.
36. The property of a bearing material which has the ability to accomodate small particles of
dust, grit etc. without scoring the material of the journal, is called
A
bondability
.
B. embeddability
C
comformability
.
D
fatigue strength
.
37. The shock resistance of steel is increased by adding

A
nickel
.
B. chromium
C
nickel and chromium
.
D
cobalt and molybedenum
.
38. The ratio of driving tensions for flat belts, neglecting centrifugal tension, is (where T1,
and T2 = Tensions on the tight and slack sides of belt respectively, = Coefficient of friction,
between the belt and pulley, and = Angle of contact)
A
.
B.
C
.
1010
D
.
39. A flange coupling is a type of rigid coupling.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
40. The strength of the un-riveted plate (P) per pitch length is equal to
A
p.d.t
.
B. p.t.t
C
(p - d)t
.
D
(p - d)tt
.
41. Two shafts of the same length and material are joined in series. If the ratio of their diameters
is 2, then the ratio of their angles of twist will be
A
2
.
B. 4
C
8
.
D
16
.
42. Wahl's stress factor __________ very rapidly as the spring index decreases.
A
increases
.
B. decreases
1011
43. For circumferential joint in boilers, the type of joint used is
A
butt joint with single cover plate
.
B. butt joint with double cover plate
C
lap joint with one ring overlapping the other
.
D
.
44. In cyclic loading, stress concentration is more serious in

A
brittle materials
.
C
brittle as well as ductile materials
.
D
elastic materials
.
45. For a square key made of mild steel, the shear and crushing strength are related as
A
shear strength is equal to crushing strength
.
B. shear strength is greater than crushing strength
C
shear strength is less than crushing strength
.
D
none of the above
.
46. The velocity factor for precision metallic gears cut with high accuracy and operating at
velocities upto 20 m/s is equal to
A
.
1012
B.
C
.
D
.
47. In a bolt, the plane of shear should be across the threaded portion of the shank.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
48. When a metal or alloy is cold worked,

A
its hardness and strength increases
.
B. it is worked below recrystallisation temperature
C
Both (A) and (B)
.
D
None of these
.
49. A leaf spring in automobiles is used

A
to apply forces
.
C
to absorb shocks
.
D
to store strain energy
.
50. According to I.B.R., the factor of safety of riveted joint should not be less than
A
1013
B. 2
C
3
.
D
4
.

1. Two rigid plates are clamped by means of bolt and nut with an initial force F. After
tightening, a separating force P(P < F) is applied to the lower plate, which in turn acts on the
nut. The tension in the both after this is
A
F+P
.
B. F - P
C
P
.
D
F
.
2. The bearings of medium series have capacity __________ over the light series.
A
10 to 20%
.
B. 20 to 30%
C
30 to 40%
.
D
40 to 50%
.
3. The antifriction bearings

A
have low starting and low running friction at moderate speeds
.
1014
B. have high initial cost
C
can carry both radial and thrust loads
.
D
all of these
.
4. In a partial journal bearing, the angle of contact of the bearing with the journal is
A
120
.
B. 180
C
270
.
D
360
.
5. A shaft coupling should

A
be easy to connect or disconnect
.
B. transmit full power of the shaft
C
hold the shafts in perfect alignment
.
D
all of these
.
6. In the levers of first type, the mechanical advantage is __________ one.

A
less than
.
B. equal to
C more than
1015
.
7. The load placed at the top of the screw in a mechanical screw jack is prevented from rotation
by providing a swivelling mechanism.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
8. The usual proportion for the width of key is (where d = Diameter of shaft or diameter of hole
in the hub)
A
d/8
.
B. d/6
C
d/4
.
D
d/2
.
9. The shear stress at a point in a shaft subjected to a torque is

A directly proportional to the polar moment of inertia and to the distance of the point
. from the axis
directly proportional to the applied torque and inversely proportional to the polar
B.
moment of inertia
C
directly proportional to the applied torque and the polar moment of inertia
.
D
inversely proportional to the applied torque and the polar moment of inertia
.
10. Two concentric helical springs used to provide greater spring force are wound is opposite
direction.
A
True
.
1016
B. False
11. If the centre distance of the mating gears having involute teeth is increased, then the pressure
angle
A
increases
.
B. decreases
C
remains unchanged
.
12. In cylindrical cams, the follower moves

A
in a direction perpendicular to the cam axis
.
C
in any direction irrespective of cam axis
.
D
along the cam axis
.
13. The included angle for the acme thread is 29.

A
True
.
B. False
14. The process extensively used for making bolts and nuts is
A
hot piercing
.
B. extrusion
C
cold peening
.
1017
D
cold heading
.
15. In a transverse fillet welded joint, the size of weld is __________ the throat of weld.
A
0.5 times
.
B. equal to
C
2 times
.
D
double
.
16. When an open coiled helical compression spring is subjected to an axial compressive load,
the maximum shear stress induced in the wire is (where D = Mean diameter of the spring
coil, d = Diameter of the spring wire, K = Wahl's stress factor, and W = Axial compressive
load on the spring)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
17. The product of the diametral pitch and module is equal to one.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
18. The static tooth load should be __________ the dynamic load.
A
equal to
.
1018
B. less than
C
greater than
.
19. Power screws are used to convert rotary motion into translatory motion.
A
True
.
B. False
20. The function of the washer is to

A
fill up the axial gap
.
B. provide bearing area
C
provide cushioning effect
.
D
absorb shocks and vibrations
.
21. In case of pressure vessels having open ends, the fluid pressure induces
A
longitudinal stress
.
B. circumferential stress
C
shear stress
.
D
none of these
.
22. The set screws are used to prevent relative motion between the two parts.
A
Correct
.
1019
B. Incorrect
23. The face angle of a bevel gear is equal to

A
pitch angle - addendum angle
.
B. pitch angle + addendum angle
C
pitch angle - dedendum angle
.
D
pitch angle + dedendum angle
.
24. Two shafts will have equal strength, if

A
diameter of both the shafts is same
.
B. angle of twist of both the shafts is same
C
material of both the shafts is same
.
D
twisting moment of both the shafts is same
.
25. The size of a cam depends upon

A
base circle
.
B. pitch circle
C
prime circle
.
D
pitch curve
.
26. The velocity factor for very accurately cut and ground metallic gears operating at velocities
upto __________ is equal to 6/6 + v.
A
1020
B. 12.5 m/s
C
15 m/s
.
D
20 m/s
.
27. The power transmitted by means of a belt depends upon

A
velocity of the belt
.
B. tension under which the belt is placed on the pulleys
C
arc of contact between the belt and the smaller pulley
.
D
all of the above
.
28. Which of the following coupling is used to connect two shafts which have both lateral and
angular misalignment ?
A
Bushed pin type coupling
.
B. Universal coupling
C
Oldham coupling
.
D
all of these
.
29. In a multiple V-belt drive, when a single belt is damaged, it is preferable to change the
complete set in order to
A
reduce vibration
.
B. reduce slip
1021
C
ensure uniform loading
.
D
ensure proper alignment
.
30. A steel containing 0.8% carbon is known as

A
eutectoid steel
.
B. hyper-eutectoid steel
C
hypo-eutectqid steel
.
D
none of these
.
31. Guest's theory is used for

A
brittle materials
.
C
elastic materials
.
D
plastic materials
.
32. The square threads are usually found on

A
spindles of bench vices
.
B. railway carriage couplings
C
feed mechanism of machine tools
.
1022
D
screw cutting lathes
.
33. According to Clavarino's equation, the thickness of a cylinder is equal to (where d = Inner
diameter of cylinder, p= Internal pressure, and = Poisson's ratio. )
A
.
B.
C
.
D
none of these
.
34. For general industrial machinery, the ratio of the length of journal to its diameter is taken as
A
0.5 to 1
.
B. 1 to2
C
3 to 5
.
D
5 to 10
.
35. The spring mostly used in gramophones is

A
helical spring
.
B. conical spring
C
flat spiral spring
.
1023
D
volute spring
.
36. A screw is said to be over hauling screw, if the

A
friction angle is less than helix angle
.
B. friction angle is more than helix angle
C
friction angle is equal to helix angle
.
D
efficiency of screw is 100%
.
37. Shaft coupling is used in machinery to

A
introduce mechanical flexibility
.
B. introduce protection against over loads
C
reduce the transmission of shock loads
.
D
all of these
.
38. Oldham coupling is used to connect two shafts

A
.
C
which have lateral misalignment
.
D
.
39. The ends of the leaves of a semi-elliptical leaf spring are made triangular in order to
A
1024
B. permit each leaf to act as a overhanging beam
C
have variable bending moment (M) in each leaf
.
D
make M/I constant throughout the length of the leaf
.
40. The face of the tooth is the

A
surface of the top of the tooth
.
B. surface of the tooth above the pitch surface
C
surface of the tooth below the pitch surface
.
D
width of the tooth measured along the pitch circle
.
41. A turn buckle is used to connect two round rods subjected to tensile loading and requiring
subsequent adjustment for tightening or loosening.
A
Yes
.
B. No
42. The plasticity is the property of a material which enables it to

A
regain its original shape after deformation when the external forces are removed
.
B. draw into wires by the application of a tensile force
C
resist fracture due to high impact loads
.
D
retain deformation produced under load permanently
.
43. An open coiled helical compression spring 'A' of mean diameter 50 mm is subjected to an
1025
axial load W. Another spring 'B' of mean diameter 25 mm is similar to spring 'A' in all
respects. The deflection of spring 'B' will be __________ as compared to spring 'A'.
A
one-eighth
.
B. one-fourth
C
one-half
.
D
double
.
44. When the bolt is very yielding as compared to the connected members, then the resultant
load on the bolt will be equal to the
A
initial tension
.
B. external load applied
C
sum of the initial tension and external load applied
.
D
initial tension or external load, whichever is greater
.
45. During hot working of metals,

A
porosity of the metal is largely eliminated
.
B. grain structure of the metal is refined
C
mechanical properties are improved due of refinement of grains
.
D
all of the above
.
46. A saddle key __________ power through frictional resistance only.

A transmits
1026
.
B. does not transmit
47. A rivet is specified by

A
shank diameter
.
B. length of rivet
C
type of head
.
D
length of tail
.
48. In thrust bearings, the load acts

A
along the axis of rotation
.
B. parallel to the axis of rotation
C
perpendicular to the axis of rotation
.
D
in any direction
.
49. Auto frettage is the method of

A
joining thick cylinders
.
B. calculating stresses in thick cylinders
C
prestressing thick cylinders
.
D
increasing the life of thick cylinders
.
1027
50. According to Indian standard specifications, a grey cast iron designated by 'FG 200' means
that the
A
carbon content is 2%
.
B. maximum compressive strength is 200 N/mm2
C
minimum tensile strength is 200 N/mm2
.
D
maximum shear strength is 200 N/mm2
.

1. When a circular beam of diameter d is subjected to a shear force F, the maximum shear stress
induced will be
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
2. In a belt drive, if the pulley diameter is doubled keeping the tension and belt width constant,
then it will be necessary to
A
increase the key length
.
B. increase the key depth
C
increase the key width
.
1028
D
decrease the key length
.

A The solid length of a spring is the product of total number of coils and the diameter of
. the wire
B. The spring index is the ratio of mean diameter of the coil to the diameter of the wire
C
The spring stiffness is the load required per unit deflection of the spring
.
D The pitch of the coil is the axial distance between adjacent coils in the compressed
. state
4. The draw of cotter should not be more than

A
3 mm
.
B. 6 mm
C
8 mm
.
D
12 mm
.
5. The bolts of smaller diameter than M16 are not permitted in making fluid tight joints.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
6. A thin spherical shell of internal diameter d is subjected to an internal pressure p. If t, is the

tensile stress for the shell material, then thickness of shell is equal to
A
.
1029
B.
C
.
D
.
7. A quarter turn belt drive is used when the shafts are arranged at right angles and rotate in one
definite direction.
A
Yes
.
B. No
8. According to Indian standard specifications, a plain carbon steel designated by 40C8

contains carbon
A
0.20 to 0.40%
.
B. 0.35 to 0.45%
C
0.40 to 0.60%
.
D
none of these
.
9. The machine screws are

A
slotted for a screw driver and are generally used with a nut
.
similar to tap bolts except that they are of small size and a variety of shapes of heads
B.
are available
C
used to prevent relative motion between the two parts
.
1030
D
none of the above
.
10. A bolt is designed on the basis of __________ with a large factor of safety.
A
direct tensile stress
.
B. direct compressive stress
C
direct bending stress
.
D
direct shear stress
.
11. Creep in belt is due to

A
material of the belt
.
B. material of the pulley
C
uneven extensions and contractions due to varying tension
.
D
all of the above
.
12. The minimum number of teeth on the pinion which will mesh with any gear without
interference for 20 full depth involute teeth will be
A
12
.
B. 14
C
18
.
D
24
.
1031
13. A bolt of M 24 x 2 means that
A
the pitch of the thread is 24 mm and depth is 2 mm
.
B. cross-sectional area of the threads is 24 mm2
C
the nominal diameter of bolt is 24 mm and pitch is 2 mm
.
D
the effective diameter of bolt is 24 mm and there are 2 threads per cm
.
14. In designing a sleeve coupling, outer diameter of the sleeve is taken as (where d = Diameter
of the shaft)
A
d + 17 mm
.
B. 2 d + 13 mm
C
2 d + 20 mm
.
D
3.5 d
.
15. In order to ensure self locking in a screw jack, it is essential that helix angle is __________
friction angle.
A
larger than
.
B. smaller than
C
equal to
.
16. While designing a screw in a screw jack against buckling failure, the end conditions for the
screw are taken as
A
both the ends fixed
.
1032
B. both the ends hinged
C
.
D
.
17. When a closely coiled helical spring is subjected to a couple about its axis, the stress induced
in the wire material of the spring is
A
bending stress only
.
B. a combination of torsional shear stress and bending
C
direct shear stress only
.
D
a combination of bending stress and direct shear stress
.
18. In a journal bearing, the load on the bearing is __________ to the axis of the journal.
A
parallel
.
B. perpendicular
19. An imaginary circle which by pure rolling action gives the same motion as the actual gear, is
called
A
addendum circle
.
B. dedendum circle
C
pitch circle
.
D
clearance circle
.
1033
20. When the frictional force helps to apply the brake, then the brake is said to be self-energizing
brake.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
21. Multiple threads are used to secure

A
low efficiency
.
B. high efficiency
C
high load lifting capacity
.
D
high mechanical advantage
.
22. The fatigue limit of a material is greatly decreased by poor surface conditions.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
23. The value of Lewis form factor used in design of gears is

A
dependent on number of teeth of a gear
.
B. dependent on system of teeth
C
independent of size of teeth
.
D
all of these
.
24. The maximum bending stress in a curved beam having symmetrical section always occur at
the
A centroidal axis
1034
.
B. neutral axis
C
inside fibre
.
D
outside fibre
.
25. In radial bearings, the load acts __________ to the axis of rotation.
A
parallel
.
B. perpendicular
26. In a marine flange coupling, the pitch circle diameter of bolts is taken as
A
1.2 d
.
B. 1.6 d
C
2d
.
D
2.5 d
.
27. The steel widely used for motor car crankshafts is

A
nickel steel
.
B. chrome steel
C
nickel chrome steel
.
D
high speed steel
.
1035
28. When compared to the rod of the same diameter and material, a wire rope
A
is less flexible
.
B. has a much smaller load carrying capacity
C
does not provide much warning before failure
.
D
provides much greater time for remedial action before failure
.
29. According to Indian standards, total number of fundamental deviations are

A
10
.
B. 15
C
20
.
D
25
.
30. In the calculation of induced shear stress in helical springs, the Wahl's stress factor is used to
take care of
A
combined effect of transverse shear stress and bending stress in the wire
.
B. combined effect of bending stress and curvature of the wire
C
combined effect of transverse shear stress and curvature of wire
.
D
combined effect of torsional shear stress and transverse shear stress in the wire
.
31. In case of thick cylinders, the tangential stress across the thickness of cylinder is
A
.
1036
C
maximum at the inner surface and zero at the outer surface
.
D
.
32. When an open coiled helical compression spring is subjected to an axial load (W), the
compression produced in the spring will be (where n = No. of active turns of the spring,
and G = Modulus of rigidity for the spring material)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
33. The cam follower generally used in automobile engines is

A
knife edge follower
.
C
.
D
roller follower
.
34. A closely coiled helical spring is acted upon by an axial force. The maximum shear stress
developed in the spring is . The half of the length of the spring if cut off and the remaining
spring is acted upon by the same axial force. The maximum shear stress in the spring in new
condition will be
A /2
1037
.
B.
C
2
.
D
4
.
35. The malleable material should be plastic but is not essential to be so strong.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
36. The temperature at which the new grains are formed in the metal is known as
A
lower critical temperature
.
B. upper critical temperature
C
recrystallisation temperature
.
D
none of these
.
37. Deep groove ball bearings are used for

A
heavy thrust load only
.
B. small angular displacement of shafts
C
radial load at high speed
.
D
combined thrust and radial loads at high speed
.
1038
38. The shear modulus of resilience is proportional to
A
shear stress
.
B. (shear stress)2
C
(shear stress)3
.
D
(shear stress)4
.
39. In a sawn nut, a slot is cut about half way through the nut and a small screw is tightened
between the nut and the bolt in order to produce more friction.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
40. When a load W is applied suddenly on a bar of cross-sectional area A, the stress induced in
the bar will be
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
41. In a butt welded joint, the size of weld is __________ the throat of weld.
A
0.5 times
.
B. equal to
C 2 times
1039
.
D
double
.
42. Which of the following key is preferred for the condition when a large amount of impact type
torque is to be transmitted in both direction of rotation?
A
Woodruff key
.
B. Feather key
C
Gib-head key
.
D
Tangent key
.
43. Which of the following cotter joint will be used to connect strap end of a connecting rod ?
A
Spigot and socket cotter joint
.
B. Sleeve and cotter joint
C
Gib and cotter joint
.
D
any one of these
.
44. When the screw in a mechanical screw jack rotates, the load kept on the top of it moves
A
axially upwards
.
B. axially downwards
C
axially upwards or downwards
.
1040
D
none of these
.
45. Which of the following bearing is preferred for oscillating conditions?

A
Double row roller bearing
.
B. Taper roller bearing
C
Angular contact single row ball bearing
.
D
Needle roller bearing
.
46. In helical gears, the distance between similar faces of adjacent teeth along a helix on the
pitch cylinders normal to the teeth, is called
A
normal pitch
.
B. axial pitch
C
diametral pitch
.
D
module
.
47. The longitudinal joint in boilers is used to get the required

A
length of boiler
.
B. diameter of boiler
C
length and diameter of boiler
.
D
efficiency of boiler
.
1041
48. The Lewis equation for gear tooth with involute profile predicts the static load capacity of
cantilever beam of uniform strength.
A
True
.
B. False
49. A basic shaft is one whose

A
.
C
.
D
none of these
.
50. When the effort is in between the fulcrum and load, the lever is said to be of third type.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect

1. Which of the following statement is wrong for a connecting rod ?
A The connecting rod will be equally strong in buckling about X-axis and Y-axis, if Ixx =
. 4 Iyy
B. If Ixx > 4Iyy., the buckling will occur about Y-axis
C
If Ixx < 4Iyy., the buckling will occur about X-axis
.
D
The most suitable section for the connecting rod is T-section
.
1042
A
The cold rolled shafting is stronger than hot rolled shafting
.
B. The hot rolled shafting is stronger than cold rolled shafting
C
The cold rolled and hot rolled shafting are equally strong
.
D
The shafts are not made by rolling process
.
3. The most important dimension in the design of a nut is

A
pitch diameter
.
B. inside diameter
C
outside diameter
.
D
height
.
4. Factor of safety for fatigue loading is the ratio of

A
elastic limit to the working stress
.
B. elastic limit to the yield point
C
endurance limit to the working stress
.
D
Young's modulus to the ultimate tensile strength
.
5. The shafts of larger diameter are usually forged and turned to size in a lathe.
A
Yes
.
1043
B. No
6. When the pulley or other mating piece is required to slide along the shaft, a __________
sunk key is used.
A
rectangular
.
B. square
C
parallel
.
7. In a flange coupling, the bolts are subjected to

A
tensile stress
.
C
shear stress
.
D
none of these
.
8. The radial distance from the top of a tooth to the bottom of a tooth is called clearance
A
True
.
B. False
9. A key made from a cylindrical disc having segmental cross-section, is known as

A
feather key
.
B. gib-head key
C
wood ruff key
.
1044
D
flat saddle key
.
10. The helix angle for double helical gears may be made up to
A
45
.
B. 60
C
75
.
D
90
.
11. The pressure angle of a cam is the angle between the direction of the follower motion and a
normal to the pitch curve.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
12. A fast and loose pulley drive is used when

A
shafts are arranged parallel and rotate in the opposite directions
.
B. shafts are arranged parallel and rotate in the same directions
C
shafts are arranged at right angles and rotate in one definite direction
.
D driven shaft is to be started or stopped whenever desired without interfering with the
. driving shaft
13. Which of the following screw thread is adopted for power transmission in either direction?
A
Acme threads
.
B. Square threads
1045
C
Buttress threads
.
D
Multiple threads
.
14. In the assembly of pulley, key and shaft

A
pulley is made the weakest
.
B. key is made the weakest
C
key is made the stongest
.
D
all the three are designed for equal strength
.
15. According to I.B.R., the thickness of the boiler shell should not be less than
A
4 mm
.
B. 5 mm
C
6 mm
.
D
7 mm
.
16. In a steam engine, the piston rod is usually connected to the crosshead by means of a
A
knuckle joint
.
B. cotter joint
C
oldham coupling
.
1046
D
universal joint
.
17. Lewis equation is applied

A
only to the pinion
.
B. only to the gear
C
to stronger of the pinion or gear
.
D
to weaker of the pinion or gear
.
18. A tap bolt has

A
threads for the nut at one end and head at the other end
.
head at one end and the other end fits into a tapped hole of one of the parts to be
B.
fastened
C
threads at both ends
.
D
pointed threads
.
19. According to I.B.R., when the thickness of the boiler shell (t) is less than 8 mm, then the
diameter of the rivet hole (d) is obtained by
A
equating tearing resistance of the plate to the shearing resistance of the rivets
.
B. equating tearing resistance of the plate to the crushing resistance of the rivets
C
equating shearing resistance to the crushing resistance of the rivets
.
1047
D
none of the above
.
20. A sliding bearing in which although lubricant is present, the working surfaces __________
contact each other at least part of the time, is called boundary lubricated bearing.
A
partially
.
B. fully
21. The fatigue stress concentration factor is defined as

A the ratio of endurance limit with stress concentration to the endurance limit without
. stress concentration
the ratio of endurance limit without stress concentration to the endurance limit with
B.
stress concentration
C
the product of the endurance limits with and without stress concentration
.
D
all of the above
.
22. A compound cylinder with inner radius 50 mm and outer radius 70 mm is made by shrinking
one cylinder on to the other cylinder, The junction radius is 60 mm and the junction pressure
is 1.1 N/mm2. The maximum hoop stress developed in the inner cylinder is
A
3.6 N/mm2 compression
.
B. 3.6 N/mm2 tension
C
7.2 N/mm2 compression
.
D
7.2 N/mm2 tension
.
23. A connecting rod subjected to an axial load may buckle in the plane of motion of the
connecting rod.
A Correct
1048
.
B. Incorrect
24. In a turnbuckle, if one of the rods has left hand threads, then the other rod will have
A
right hand threads
.
B. left hand threads
C
multiple threads
.
D
pointed threads
.
25. When the shaft rotates in anticlockwise direction at high speed in a bearing, it will
A
have contact at the bottom most of the bearing
.
B. move towards right of the bearing making metal to metal contact
C
move towards right of the bearing making no metal to metal contact
.
D
move towards left of the bearing making metal to metal contact
.
26. According to Lame's equation, the thickness of a cylinder is equal to (where d = Inner
diameter of cylinder, p = Internal pressure, and = Poisson's ratio. )
A
.
B.
1049
C
.
D
none of these
.
27. If T is the actual number of teeth on a helical gear and is the helix angle for the teeth, then
formative number of teeth is written as
A
T sec3
.
B. T sec2
C
T/sec3
.
D
T cosec
.
28. The material generally used for air-craft components is

A
mild steel
.
B. high speed steel
C
stainless steel
.
D
aluminium
.
29. The speed of the sprocket reduces as the chain pitch __________ for a given number of
teeth.
A
increases
.
B. decreases
30. In an oil lubricated journal bearing, the coefficient of friction between the journal and the
bearing
A
1050
B. is minimum at zero speed and increases monotonically with increase in speed
C
is maximum at zero speed and decreases monotonically with increase in speed
.
D becomes minimum at an optimum speed and then increases with further increase in
. speed
31. The working of metals above the recrystallisation temperature is known as hot working.
A
True
.
B. False
32. In a band and block brake, the ratio of tensions on the tight and slack sides of band is given
by (where = Coefficient of friction between the blocks and the drum, = Semi-angle of
each block subtending at the centre of drum, and n = Number of blocks)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
33. The ratio of number of teeth to the pitch circle diameter in millimetres is called circular
pitch.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
34. The washer is generally specified by its

A
outer diameter
.
1051
B. hole diameter
C
thickness
.
D
mean diameter
.
35. The taper on key is given on

A
bottom side only
.
B. top side only
C
on both sides
.
D
any side
.
36. The bending moment M and a torque T is applied on a solid circular shaft. If the maximum
bending stress equals to maximum shear stress developed, then M is equal to
A
T/2
.
B. T
C
2T
.
D
4T
.
37. For longitudinal joint in boilers, the type of joint used is

A
butt joint with single cover plate
.
B. butt joint with double cover plate
1052
C
lap joint with one ring overlapping the other
.
D
.
38. A cotter joint is used to transmit

A
axial tensile load only
.
B. axial compressive load only
C
combined axial and twisting loads
.
D
axial tensile or compressive loads
.
39. The maximum efficiency of a square threaded screw is

A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
40. The dynamic tooth load is due to

A
inaccuracies of tooth spacing
.
B. irregularities in tooth profiles
C
deflections of teeth under load
.
1053
D
all of these
.
41. Which of the following statement is correct regarding power screws?

A
The efficiency of a self locking screw cannot be more than 50%
.
B. The efficiency of Acme (trapezoidal) thread is less than that of a square thread
C If the friction angle is less than the helix angle of the screw, then the efficiency will be
. more than 50%
D
(A) and (B) Only
.
42. A hollow shaft will transmit a __________ torque than a solid shaft of the same mass and
same material.
A
smaller
.
B. greater
43. A flange coupling is used to connect two shafts

A
.
C
have lateral misalignment
.
D
.
44. The algebraic difference between the maximum limit and the basic size is called
A
lower deviation
.
B. upper deviation
1054
C
actual deviation
.
D
mean deviation
.
45. When an open coiled helical compression spring is subjected to an axial compressive load,
the stress induced in the wire is
A
tensile stress
.
C
shear stress
.
D
bending stress
.
46. The contact ratio for gears is

A
zero
.
B. less than one
C
greater than one
.
D
none of these
.
47. A feather key is generally

A
loose in shaft and tight in hub
.
B. tight in shaft and loose in hub
C
tight in both shaft and hub
.
1055
D
loose in both shaft and hub
.
48. If the tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is 50%, then the ratio of diameter of rivet to the
pitch is
A
0.20
.
B. 0.30
C
0.50
.
D
0.70
.
49. The ratio of circumferential stress to longitudinal stress in a thin cylinder subjected to an
internal pressure is
A
1/2
.
B. 1
C
2
.
D
4
.
50. A riveted joint is a __________ fastening.

A
permanent
.
B. temporary
1056
14. Engineering Materials
Engineering Materials - Section 1

1. Specify the sequence correctly
A
Grain growth, recrystallisation, stress relief
.
B. Stress relief, grain growth, recrystallisation
C
Stress relief, recrystallisation, grain growth
.
D
Grain growth, stress relief, recrystallisation
.
2. Thermoplastic materials are those materials which

A are formed into shape under heat and pressure and results in a permanently hard
. product
do not become hard with the application of heat and pressure and no chemical change
B.
occurs
C
are flexible and can withstand considerable wear under suitable conditions
.
D
are used as a friction lining for clutches and brakes
.
3. Which of the following material has maximum ductility?

A
Mild steel
.
B. Copper
C
Nickel
.
D
Aluminium
.
1057
4. An eutectoid steel consists of
A
wholly pearlite
.
B. wholly austenite
C
pearlite and ferrite
.
D
pearlite and cementite
.
5. Shock resisting steels should have

A
low wear resistance
.
B. low hardness
C
low tensile strength
.
D
toughness
.
6. Cast iron is a
A
ductile material
.
B. malleable material
C
brittle material
.
D
tough material
.
7. The hardness is the property of a material due to which it

A
can be drawn into wires
.
1058
B. breaks with little permanent distortion
C
can cut another metal
.
D
can be rolled or hammered into thin sheets
.
8. Malleable cast iron is produced

A
by adding magnesium to molten cast iron
.
B. by quick cooling of molten cast iron
C
from white cast iron by annealing process
.
D
none of these
.
9. Smelting is the process of

A
removing the impurities like clay, sand etc. from the iron ore by washing with water
.
expelling moisture, carbon dioxide, sulphur and arsenic from the iron ore by heating
B.
in shallow kilns
C
reducing the ore with carbon in the presence of a flux
.
D
all of the above
.
10. The percentage of carbon in cast iron varies from

A
0.1 to 0.5
.
B. 0.5 to 1
1059
C
1 to 1.7
.
D
1.7 to 4.5
.
11. The ability of a material to absorb energy in the plastic range is called
A
resilience
.
B. creep
C
fatigue strength
.
D
toughness
.
12. Brass is an alloy of

A
copper and zinc
.
B. copper and tin
C
copper, tin and zinc
.
D
none of these
.
13. A material is said to be allotropic, if it has

A
fixed structure at all temperatures
.
B. atoms distributed in random pattern
C
different crystal structures at different temperatures
.
1060
D
.
14. Closed packed hexagonal space lattice is found in

A
zinc, magnesium, cobalt, cadmium, antimony and bismuth
.
B. gamma-iron, aluminium, copper, lead, silver and nickel
C
alpha-iron, tungsten, chromium and molybdenum
.
D
none of the above
.
15. The hardness and tensile strength in austenitic stainless steel can be increased by
A
hardening and cold working
.
B. normalising
C
martempering
.
D
full annealing
.
16. The quenching of steel from the upper critical point results in a fine grained structure.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
17. An alloy steel which is work hardenable and which is used to make the blades of bulldozers,
bucket wheel excavators and other earth moving equipment contain iron, carbon and
A
chromium
.
B. silicon
1061
C
manganese
.
D
magnesium
.
18. Which of the following has a fine gold colour and is used for imitation jewellery?
A
Silicon bronze
.
B. Aluminium bronze
C
Gun metal
.
D
Babbit metal
.
19. When the steel is normalised, its

A
yield point increases
.
B. ductility decreases
C
ultimate tensile strength increases
.
D
all of these
.
20. White cast iron has a high tensile strength and a low compressive strength.
A
Yes
.
B. No
21. Dye penetrant method is generally used to locate

A
core defects
.
1062
B. surface defects
C
superficial defects
.
D
temporary defects
.
22. The charge is fed into the blast furnace through the
A
stack
.
B. throat
C
bosh
.
D
tuyers
.
23. A small percentage of boron is added to steel in order to

A
increase hardenability
.
B. reduce machinability
C
increase wear resistance
.
D
increase endurance strength
.
24. Which of the following process of steel making is in operation at Tata Iron and Steel Works,
Jamshedpur?
A
Bessemer process
.
B. Open hearth process
1063
C
Duplex process
.
D
Electric process
.
25. The unit cells

A contain the smallest number of atoms which when taken together have all the
. properties of the crystals of the particular metal
B. have the same orientation and their similar faces are parallel
C may be defined as the smallest parallelopiped which could be transposed in three

. coordinate directions to build up the space lattice
D
all of the above
.
26. Tungsten when added to steel __________ the critical temperature.

A
does not effect
.
B. lowers
C
raises
.
27. Silicon when added to copper improves

A
machinability
.
B. hardness
C
hardness and strength
.
D
strength and ductility
.
28. The alloying element which increases residual magnetism and coercive magnetic force in
1064
steel for magnets is
A
chromium
.
B. nickel
C
vanadium
.
D
cobalt
.
29. Cast iron is manufactured in

A
blast furnace
.
B. cupola
C
open hearth furnace
.
D
bessemer converter
.
30. The lower critical point for all steels is

A
600C
.
B. 700C
C
723C
.
D
913C
.
31. Haematite iron ore contains iron about

A
30%
.
1065
B. 45%
C
55%
.
D
70%
.
32. The material in which the atoms are arranged regularly in some directions but not in others,
is called
A
amorphous material
.
B. mesomorphous material
C
crystalline material
.
D
none of these
.
33. The steel produced by bessemer or open hearth process is __________ to that produced by
L-D process.
A
superior
.
B. inferior
34. Crystal structure of a material is, generally, examined by

A
naked eye
.
B. optical microscope
C
metallurgical microscope
.
D
X-ray techniques
.
1066
35. Iron-carbon alloys containing 1.7 to 4.3% carbon are known as
A
eutectic cast irons
.
B. hypo-eutectic cast irons
C
hyper-eutectic cast irons
.
D
none of these
.
36. The coke in the charge of blast furnace

A
controls the grade of pig iron
.
B. acts as an iron-bearing mineral
C
supplies heat to reduce ore and melt the iron
.
D
forms a slag by combining with impurities
.
37. Nimonic contains __________ percentage of nickel as that of Inconel.

A
same
.
B. less
C
more
.
38. The heat treatment process used for softening hardened steel is
A
carburising
.
B. normalising
1067
C
annealing
.
D
tempering
.
39. The dieing down of a white flame during the operation of a bessemer converter indicates that
the air is burning out silicon and manganese.
A
Yes
.
B. No
40. The electric process of steel making is especially adopted to

A
alloy and carbon tool steel
.
B. magnet steel
C
high speed tool steel
.
D
all of these
.
41. Iron ore is, usually, found in the form of

A
oxides
.
B. carbonates
C
sulphides
.
D
all of these
.
42. The hardness of steel increases if it contains

A
pearlite
.
1068
B. ferrite
C
cementite
.
D
martensite
.
43. In full annealing, the hypo-eutectoid steel is heated from 30 C to 50 C above the upper
critical temperature and then cooled
A
in still air
.
B. slowly in the furnace
C
suddenly in a suitable cooling medium
.
D
any one of these
.
44. Ferrite and pearlite makes the steel soft and ductile.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
45. The lower critical temperature

A
decreases as the carbon content in steel increases
.
B. increases as the carbon content in steel increases
C
is same for all steels
.
D
depends upon the rate of heating
.
46. Nodular cast iron is produced by adding __________ to the molten cast iron.
A
1069
B. chromium
C
copper
.
D
magnesium
.
47. Free carbon in iron makes the metal

A
soft and gives a coarse grained crystalline structure
.
B. soft and gives a fine grained crystalline structure
C
hard and gives a coarse grained crystalline structure
.
D
hard and gives a fine grained crystalline structure
.
48. The cupola is used to manufacture

A
pig iron
.
B. cast iron
C
wrought iron
.
D
steel
.
49. The type of space lattice found in gamma-iron is

A
face centred cubic space lattice
.
B. body centred cubic space lattice
C close packed hexagonal space lattice
1070
.
D
none of these
.
50. The property of a material due to which it breaks with little permanent distortion, is called
A
brittleness
.
B. ductility
C
malleability
.
D
plasticity
.

1. Which of the following when used in ordinary low carbon steels, makes the metal ductile and
of good bending qualities?
A
Sulphur
.
B. Phosphorus
C
Manganese
.
D
Silicon
.
2. The hardness of steel depends upon the

A
amount of cementite it contains
.
B. amount of carbon it contains
C contents of alloying elements
1071
.
D
method of manufacture of steel
.
3. Cartidge brass can be

A
cold rolled into sheets
.
B. drawn into wires
C
formed into tube
.
D
any one of these
.

A
The product produced by blast furnace is called cast iron.
.
B. The pig iron is the name given to the product produced by cupola.
C
The cast iron has high tensile strength.
.
D
The chilled cast iron has no graphite.
.
5. Blast furnace is used to produce

A
pig iron
.
B. cast iron
C
wrought iron
.
D steel
1072
.
6. In flame hardening, oxy-acetylene flame is used.

A
Yes
.
B. No
7. Which of the following statements are true for annealing of steels?

A
Steels are heated to 500 to 700 C
.
B. Cooling is done slowly and steadily
C
Internal stresses are relieved
.
D
all of these
.
8. The ability of a material to undergo large permanent deformation with the application of a
tensile force, is called ductility.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
9. Which of the following steel making process is being adopted at Rourkela Steel Plant?
A
Bessemer process
.
B. Open-hearth process
C
Electric process
.
1073
D
L-D process
.
10. 18-4-1 high speed steel contains

A
vanadium 4%, chromium 18% and tungsten 1%
.
B. vanadium 1%, chromium 4% and tungsten 18%
C
vanadium 18%, chromium 1% and tungsten 4%
.
D
none of the above
.
11. Which of the following statement is true about brittle fracture?

A
High temperature and low strain rates favour brittle fracture
.
Many metals with hexagonal close packed (H.C.P) crystal structure commonly show
B.
brittle fracture
C
Brittle fracture is always preceded by noise
.
D
Cup and cone formation is characteristic for brittle materials
.
12. Grey cast iron has

A
carbon in the form of free graphite
.
B. high tensile strength
C
low compressive strength
.
D
all of these
.
1074
13. Induction hardening is basically a
A
carburising process
.
B. surface hardening process
C
core-hardening process
.
D
none of these
.
14. When elements like nickel, chromium, copper and molybdenum are added to the molten cast
iron, it produces
A
white cast iron
.
B. nodular cast iron
C
malleable cast iron
.
D
alloy cast iron
.
15. The strength is the ability of a material to resist

A
deformation under stress
.
B. externally applied forces with breakdown or yielding
C
fracture due to high impact loads
.
D
none of these
.
16. The material widely used for making pendulums of clocks is

A
stainless steel
.
1075
B. high speed steel
C
heat resisting steel
.
D
nickel steel
.
17. The stiffness is the ability of a material to resist

A
deformation under stress
.
B. fracture due to high impact loads
C
externally applied forces with breakdown or yielding
.
D
none of the above
.
18. The blade of a power saw is made of

A
boron steel
.
B. high speed steel
C
stainless steel
.
D
malleable cast iron
.
19. In induction hardening __________ is high.

A
current
.
B. voltage
C frequency
1076
.
D
temperature
.
20. The metal suitable for bearings subjected to light loads, is

A
silicon bronze
.
B. white metal
C
monel metal
.
D
phosphor bronze
.
21. The property of a material essential for spring materials is

A
stiffness
.
B. ductility
C
resilience
.
D
plasticity
.
22. A steel with carbon above 0.8% is known as hyper-eutectoid steel.

A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
23. Which of the following material has nearly zero coefficient of expansion?
A
Stainless steel
.
1077
B. High speed steel
C
Invar
.
D
Heat resisting steel
.
24. In normalising process, the hypo-eutectiod steel is heated from 30 C to 50 C above the
upper critical temperature and then cooled in still air.
A
True
.
B. False
25. The alloying element which can replace tungsten in high speed steels is
A
nickel
.
B. vanadium
C
cobalt
.
D
molybdenum
.
26. An aluminium alloy with 11% silicon is used for making engine pistons by die casting
technique.
A
Yes
.
B. No
27. Which of the following is an amorphous material?

A
Mica
.
B. Silver
1078
C
Lead
.
D
Glass
.
28. The machinability of steel is improved by adding

A
nickel
.
B. chromium
C
nickel and chromium
.
D
sulphur, lead and phosphorus
.
29. The carbon in the pig iron varies from

A
0.1 to 0.5%
.
B. 0.5 to 1%
C
1 to 5%
.
D
5 to 10%
.
30. The type of space lattice found in alpha-iron is

A
face centred cubic space lattice
.
B. body centred cubic space lattice
C
close packed hexagonal space lattice
.
1079
D
none of these
.
31. The brown smoke during the operation of a bessemer Converter indicates that the
A
air is burning out silicon and managanese
.
B. silicon and manganese has burnt and carbon has started oxidising
C
the converter must be titled to remove the contents of the converter
.
D
the brown smoke does not occur during the operation of a bessemer converter
.
32. Martensite has needle like structure and is magnetic.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
33. Monel metal is an alloy of

A
nickel and copper
.
B. nickel and chromium
C
nickel, chromium and iron
.
D
copper and chromium
.
34. In induction hardening, the depth of hardening is controlled by controlling the voltage.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
35. The austenite is a solid solution of carbon or iron carbide in gamma-iron.

A
1080
B. Incorrect
36. Which of the following display properties similar to that of steel?

A
Blackheart cast iron
.
B. Whiteheart cast iron
C
both (a) and (b)
.
D
none of these
.
37. Hindalium is an alloy of aluminium and magnesium with a small quantity of chromium.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
38. When a low carbon steel is heated upto upper critical temperature
A
there is no change in grain size
.
B. the average grain size is a minimum
C
the grain size increases very rapidly
.
D
the grain size first increases and then decreases very rapidly
.
39. The steel widely used for motor car crankshafts is

A
nickel steel
.
B. chrome steel
C nickel-chrome steel
1081
.
D
silicon steel
.
40. Combined carbon in iron makes the metal

A
soft and gives coarse grained crystalline structure
.
B. soft and gives a fine grained crystalline structure
C
hard and gives a coarse grained crystalline structure
.
D
hard and gives a fine grained crystalline structure
.
41. Pearlite consists of

A
13% carbon and 87% ferrite
.
B. 13% cementite and 87% ferrite
C
13% ferrite and 87% cementite
.
D
6.67% carbon and 93.33% iron
.
42. Incoloy, Hastelloy and Vitallium are __________ temperature alloys.

A
high
.
B. low
43. Quenching is not necessary when hardening is done by

A
case hardening
.
1082
B. flame hardening
C
nitriding
.
D
any one of these
.
44. The iron ore in the charge of blast furnace acts as an iron bearing mineral.
A
True
.
B. False
45. Beryllium bronze has

A
high yield point
.
B. high fatigue limit
C
both (a) and (b)
.
D
none of these
.
46. The aluminium alloy, mainly used, for anodized utensil manufacture, is
A
duralumin
.
B. Y-alloy
C
magnalium
.
D
hindalium
.
47. The toughness of a material __________ when it is heated.

A
remains same
.
1083
B. decreases
C
increases
.
48. The coordination number of a face centred cubic space lattice is

A
six
.
B. twelve
C
eighteen
.
D
twenty
.
49. Spheroidal grey cast iron has graphite flakes.

A
True
.
B. False
50. Bronze is an alloy of

A
copper and zinc
.
B. copper and tin
C
copper, tin and zinc
.
D
none of these
.

1. Chromium when added to steel __________ the tensile strength.
A does not effect
1084
.
B. decreases
C
increases
.
2. Which of the following is added in low carbon steels to prevent them from becoming
porous?
A
Sulphur
.
B. Phosphorus
C
Manganese
.
D
Silicon
.
3. A steel with carbon __________ is known as hypo-eutectoid steel.

A
0.8%
.
B. below 0.8%
C
above 0.8%
.
4. Free cutting steels

A
contain carbon in free from
.
B. require minimum cutting force
C
is used where rapid machining is the prime requirement
.
D can be cut freely
1085
.
5. The presence of hydrogen in steel causes

A
reduced neutron absorption cross-section
.
B. improved weldability
C
embrittlement
.
D
corrosion resistance
.
6. Tin base white metals are used where the bearings are subjected to
A
large surface wear
.
B. elevated temperatures
C
light load and pressure
.
D
high pressure and load
.
7. The charge of the blast furnace consists of

A
calcined ore (8 parts ), coke (4 parts) and limestone (1 part)
.
B. calcined ore (4 parts), coke (1 part) and limestone (8 parts)
C
calcined ore (1 part), coke (8 part) and limestone (4 parts)
.
D
calcined ore, coke and limestone all in equal parts
.
8. The ability of a material to resist fracture due to high impact loads, is called
A
strength
.
1086
B. stiffness
C
toughness
.
D
brittleness
.
9. The purpose of heat treatment is to

A
relieve the stresses set up in the material after hot or cold working
.
B. modify the structure of the material
C
change grain size
.
D
any one of these
.
10. An alloy of copper, tin and zinc is known as

A
brass
.
B. bronze
C
gun metal
.
D
muntz metal
.
11. Which of the following iron exist between 910 C and 1403 C?
A
-iron
.
B. -iron
C -iron
1087
.
D
-iron
.
12. The material in which the atoms are arranged chaotically, is called
A
amorphous material
.
B. mesomorphous material
C
crystalline material
.
D
none of these
.
13. In basic bessemer process, the furnace is lined with

A
silica bricks
.
B. a mixture of tar and burnt dolomite bricks
C
either (a) or (b)
.
D
none of these
.
14. Polyvinylchloride (PVC) is a __________ material.

A
thermoplastic
.
B. thermosetting
15. In a unit cell of close packed hexagonal space lattice, there are twenty four atoms.
A
Correct
.
1088
B. Incorrect
16. The steel produced by cementation process is known as __________ steel.

A
blister
.
B. crucible
17. Duralumin has better strength than Y-alloy at high temperature.

A
True
.
B. False
18. Normalising of steel is done to

A
refine the grain structure
.
B. remove strains caused by cold working
C
remove dislocations caused in the internal structuure due to hot working
.
D
all of the above
.
19. A steel containing 12 to 14% chromium and 0.12 to 0.35% carbon is called martensitic
stainless steel.
A
True
.
B. False
20. When a steel containing __________ 0.8% carbon is cooled slowly below the lower critical
point, it consists of ferrite and pearlite.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
1089
C
more than
.
21. Shock resistance of steel is increased by adding

A
nickel
.
B. chromium
C
nickel and chromium
.
D
sulphur, lead and phosphorus
.
22. In low carbon steels, __________ raises the yield point and improves the resistance to
atmospheric corrosion.
A
sulphur
.
B. phosphorus
C
manganese
.
D
silicon
.
23. A steel containing 16 to 18% chromium and about 0.12% carbon is called
A
ferritic stainless steel
.
B. austenitic stainless steel
C
martensitic stainless steel
.
D
nickel steel
.
1090
24. The alloy, mainly used for corrosion resistance in stainless steels is
A
silicon
.
B. manganese
C
carbon
.
D
chromium
.
25. The temperature required for full annealing in hyper-eutectoid steel is

A
30 C to 50 C above upper critical temperature
.
B. 30 C to 50 C below upper critical temperature
C
30 C to 50 C above lower critical temperature
.
D
30 C to 50 C below lower critical temperature
.
26. Which of the following metal shrinks most from molten state to solid state?
A
Cast iron
.
B. Cast steel
C
Brass
.
D
Admirality metal
.
27. A steel containing ferrite and pearlite is

A
hard
.
1091
B. soft
C
tough
.
D
hard and tough
.
28. The defect which takes place due to imperfect packing of atoms during crystallisation is
known as
A
line defect
.
B. surface defect
C
point defect
.
D
none of these
.
29. The upper critical point varies according to the carbon content in steel.
A
True
.
B. False
30. A coarse grained steel

A
is less tough and has a greater tendency to distort during heat treatment
.
B. is more ductile and has a less tendency to distort during heat treatment
C
is less tough and has a less tendency to distort during heat treatment
.
D
is more ductile and has a greater tendency to distort during heat treatment
.
31. Duralumin contains

A 3.5 to 4.5% copper, 0.4 to 0.7% magnesium, 0.4 to 0.7% manganese and rest
1092
3.5 to 4.5% copper, 1.2 to 1.7% managanese, 1.8 to 2.3% nickel, 0.6% each of silicon,
B.
magnesium and iron, and rest aluminium
C
4 to 4.5% magnesium, 3 to 4% copper and rest aluminium
.
D
5 to 6% tin, 2 to 3% copper and rest aluminium
.
32. Age hardening is related to

A
duralumin
.
B. brass
C
copper
.
D
silver
.
33. The addition of which of the following improves machining of copper?

A
Sulphur
.
B. Vanadium
C
Tin
.
D
Zinc
.
34. When a medium carbon steel is heated to coarsening temperature,

A
.
1093
C
.
D
the grain size first increases and then decreases very rapidly
.
35. Phosphorus is added in low carbon steels to raise its yield point.
A
True
.
B. False
36. In process annealing, the hypo-eutectoid steel is

A heated from 30 C to 50 C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled in
. still air
heated from 30 C to 50 C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled
B.
C heated from 30 C to 50 C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled
. slowly in the furnace
D
heated below or close to the lower critical temperature and then cooled slowly
.
37. Delta-iron occurs between the temperature range of

A
400C to 600C
.
B. 600C to 900C
C
900C to 1400C
.
D
1400C to 1530C
.
38. According to Indian standard specifications, SG 400/15 means

A
spheroidal graphite cast iron with B.H.N. 400 and minimum tensile strength 15 MPa
.
1094
spheroidal graphite cast iron with minimum tensile strength 400 MPa and 15 percent
B.
elongation
C spheroidal graphite cast iron with minimum compressive strength 400 MPa and 15
. percent reduction in area
D
none of the above
.
39. White cast iron has

A
carbon in the form of carbide
.
B. low tensile strength
C
high compressive strength
.
D
all of these
.
40. Iron-carbon alloys containing carbon __________ 4.3% are known as hyper-eutectic cast
irons.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
more than
.
41. The stiffness is the ability of a material to resist deformation under stress.
A
True
.
B. False
42. The acidic bessemer process is suitable for producing steel from pig iron containing large
quantities of phosphorus.
A Correct
1095
.
B. Incorrect
43. In low carbon steels, presence of small quantities of sulphur improves

A
weldability
.
B. formability
C
machinability
.
D
hardenability
.
44. Cast iron is used in those parts which are subjected to shocks.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
45. The aluminium alloy made by melting aluminium with 2 to 10% magnesium and 1.75%
copper is called
A
duralumin
.
B. Y-alloy
C
magnalium
.
D
hindalium
.
46. Y-alloy contains

A 3.5 to 4.5% copper, 0.4 to 0.7% magnesium, 0.4 to 0.7% manganese and rest
. aluminium
1096
3.5 to 4.5% copper, 1.2 to 1.7% manganese, 1.8 to 2.3% nickel, 0.6% each of silicon,
B.
magnesium and iron, and rest aluminium
C
4 to 4.5% magnesium, 3 to 4% copper and rest aluminium
.
D
5 to 6% tin, 2 to 3% copper and rest aluminium
.
47. The steel scrap added in the charge of cupola controls the grade of cast iron produced.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
48. The main alloying elements high speed steel in order of increasing proportion are
A
vanadium, chromium, tungsten
.
B. tungsten, titanium, vanadium
C
chromium, titanium, vanadium
.
D
tungsten, chromium, titanium
.
49. Which of the following metal is used in making electrical resistance wire for electric
furnaces and heating elements?
A
Babbit metal
.
B. Monel metal
C
Nichrome
.
D
Phosphor bronze
.
1097
50. Which of the following metal is used for nuclear energy?
A
Uranium
.
B. Thorium
C
Niobium
.
D
all of these
.

1. The bond formed by transferring electrons from one atom to another is called
A
ionic bond
.
B. covalent bond
C
metallic bond
.
D
none of these
.
2. Which of the following property is desirable in parts subjected to shock and impact loads?
A
Strength
.
B. Stiffness
C
Brittleness
.
D
Toughness
.
3. German silver contains
1098
A
1% silver
.
B. 2% silver
C
5% silver
.
D
no silver
.
4. Connecting rod is, usually, made from

A
low carbon steel
.
B. high carbon steel
C
medium carbon steel
.
D
high speed steel
.
5. Which of the following inpurity in cast iron makes it hard and brittle?
A
Silicon
.
B. Sulphur
C
Manganese
.
D
Phosphorus
.
6. There are fourteen atoms in a unit cell of

A
body centred cubic space lattice
.
1099
B. face centred cubic space lattice
C
close packed hexagonal space lattice
.
D
none of these
.
7. The maximum internal diameter of a blast furnace is about

A
3m
.
B. 6 m
C
9m
.
D
12 m
.
8. In spheroidising process, the steel is

A
heated below the lower critical temperature and then cooled slowly
.
B. heated upto the lower critical temperature and then cooled in still air
C heated slightly above the lower critical temperature and then cooled slowly to a
. temperature of 600C
D
none of the above
.
9. Pearlite is a combination of 87% ferrite and 13% cementite.

A
Yes
.
B. No
10. The percentage carbon content in wrought iron is about

A
0.02
.
1100
B. 0.1
C
02
.
D
0.4
.
11. The alloying element which reduces the formation of iron sulphide in steel is
A
chromium
.
B. nickel
C
vanadium
.
D
manganese
.
12. For a steel containing 0.8% carbon

A
there is no critical point
.
B. there is only one critical point
C
there are two critical points
.
D
there can be any number of critical points
.
13. In high speed steels, manganese is used to tougher the metal and to increase its
A
yield point
.
B. critical temperature
C melting point
1101
.
D
hardness
.
14. The machinability of aluminium increases when __________ is added to aluminium.

A
copper
.
B. magnesium
C
silicon
.
D
lead and bismuth
.
15. Body centred cubic space lattice is found in

A
zinc, magnesinm, cobalt, cadmium, antimony and bismuth
.
B. gamma-iron, aluminium, copper, lead, silver and nickel
C
alpha-iron, tungsten, chromium and molybdenum
.
D
none of the above
.
16. When a low carbon steel is heated upto lower critical temperature,
A
.
C
.
D the grain size first increases and then decreases very rapidly
1102
.
17. Grey cast iron is __________ than white cast iron.

A
softer
.
B. harder
18. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by adding nickel and chromium.

A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
19. The silicon steel is widely used for

A
connecting rods
.
B. cutting tools
C
generators and transformers in the form of laminated cores
.
D
motor car crankshafts
.
20. Ball bearings are, usually, made from

A
low carbon steel
.
B. high carbon steel
C
medium carbon steel
.
D
chrome steel
.
21. Macro-structure of a material is, generally, examined by

A
naked eye
.
1103
C
metallurgical microscope
.
D
X-ray techniques
.
22. Aluminium has low density and addition of silicon improves its fluidity and therefore, its
castability.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
23. Which of the following property is desirable for materials used in tools and machines?
A
Elasticity
.
B. Plasticity
C
Ductility
.
D
Malleability
.
24. Babbit metal is a

A
lead-base alloy
.
B. copper-base alloy
C
tin-base alloy
.
D
cadmium-base alloy
.
25. The metal suitable for bearings subjected to heavy loads, is

A
1104
B. white metal
C
monel metal
.
D
phosphor bronze
.
26. The compressive strength of cast iron is __________ that of its tensile strength.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
more than
.
27. When a steel containing less than 0.8% carbon is cooled slowly from temperatures above or
within the critical range, it consists of
A
mainly ferrite
.
B. mainly pearlite
C
ferrite and pearlite
.
D
.
28. Eutectoid reaction occurs at

A
600C
.
B. 723C
C
1147C
.
1105
D
1493C
.
29. The addition of copper to aluminium possesses maximum strength after heat treatment and
age-hardening
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
30. Nickel when added to copper improves

A
machinability
.
B. hardness
C
hardness and strength
.
D
strength and ductility
.
31. In the lower part of the blast furnace (zone of fusion), the temperature is
A
400 to 700C
.
B. 800C to 1000C
C
1200C to 1300C
.
D
1500C to 1700C
.
32. Which of the following impurity in cast iron promotes graphite nodule formation and
increases the fluidity of the molten metal?
A
Silicon
.
B. Sulphur
1106
C
Manganese
.
D
Phosphorus
.

A
A steel with 0.8% carbon is wholly pearlite
.
B. The amount of cementite increases with the increase in percentage of carbon in iron
C
A mechanical mixture of 87% cementite and 13% ferrite is called pearlite
.
D
The cementite is identified as round particles in the structure
.
34. Inconel contains

A
65% nickel, 15% chromium and 20% iron
.
B. 68% nickel, 29% copper and 3% other constituents
C
.
D
.
35. In a hardening process, the hypo-eutectoid steel is

A heated from 30 C to 50 C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled in
. still air
heated from 30 C to 50 C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled
B.
1107
C heated from 30 C to 50 C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled
. slowly in the furnace
D
heated below or close to the lower critical temperature and then cooled slowly
.
36. The ratio of the volume occupied by the atoms to the total volume of the unit cell is called
A
coordination number
.
B. atomic packing factor
C
space lattice
.
D
none of these
.
37. Which of the following statement is incorrect about duralumin?

A
It is prone to age hardening
.
B. It can be forged
C
It has good machining properties
.
D
It is lighter than pure aluminium
.
38. The property of a material which enables it to retain the deformation permanently, is called
A
brittleness
.
B. ductility
C
malleability
.
1108
D
plasticity
.
39. Sulphur in cast iron

A
makes the iron soft and easily machinable
.
B. increases hardness and brittleness
C
makes the iron white and hard
.
D
aids fusibility and fluidity
.
40. Cementite consist of

A
13% carbon and 87% ferrite
.
B. 13% cementite and 87% ferrite
C
13% ferrite and 87% cementite
.
D
6.67% carbon and 93.33% iron
.
41. Cast iron is a ductile material.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
42. Manganese is added in low carbon steel to

A
make the steel tougher and harder
.
B. raise the yield point
1109
C
make the steel ductile and of good bending qualities
.
D
all of the above
.
43. Beryllium bronze contains

A
60% copper and 40% beryllium
.
B. 80% copper and 20% beryllium
C
97.75% copper and 2.25% beryllium
.
D
99% copper and 1% beryllium
.
44. The portion of the blast furnace below its widest cross-section is called
A
hearth
.
B. stack
C
bosh
.
D
throat
.
45. Gamma-iron occurs between the temperature range of

A
400C to 600C
.
B. 600C to 900C
C
900C to 1400C
.
1110
D
1400C to 1530C
.
46. When filing or machining cast iron makes our hands black, then it shows that __________ is
present in cast iron.
A
cementite
.
B. free graphite
47. According to Indian standard specifications, a plain carbon steel designated by 40 C8 means
that the carbon content is
A
0.04%
.
B. 0.35 to 0.45%
C
0.4 to 0.6%
.
D
0.6 to 0.8%
.
48. Wrought iron

A
is a ductile material
.
B. can be easily forged or welded
C
cannot stand sudden and excessive shocks
.
D
all of these
.
49. In iron, the presence of carbon in free form is called graphite.

A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
1111
50. In a body centred cubic space lattice, there are nine atoms out of which eight atoms are
located at the corners of the cube and one atom at its centre.
A
Yes
.
B. No

1. Which of the following is a case hardening process?
A
Carburising
.
B. Cyaniding
C
Nitriding
.
D
all of these
.
2. In a crystalline material, atoms are arranged in definite and orderly manner and form.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
3. The austenitic stainless steel contains

A
18% chromium and 8% nickel
.
C
14% chromium and 0.35% carbon
.
D 14% nickel and 0.35% carbon
1112
.
4. The process used for relieving the internal stresses previously set up in the Metal and for
increasing the machinability of steel, is
A
normalising
.
B. full annealing
C
process annealing
.
D
spheroidising
.
5. Steel containing upto 0.15% carbon, is known as

A
mild steel
.
B. dead mild steel
C
medium carbon steel
.
D
high carbon steel
.
6. In a unit cell of a body centred cubic space lattice, there are __________ atoms.
A
six
.
B. nine
C
fourteen
.
D
seventeen
.
7. Cast iron has

A
1113
B. excellent machinability
C
good casting characteristic
.
D
all of these
.
8. The nuts and bolts are made from silicon steel.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
9. Silicon in cast iron

A
makes the iron soft and easily machinable
.
B. increases hardness and brittleness
C
makes the iron white and hard
.
D
aids fusibility and fluidity
.
10. The process which improves the machinability of steels, but lowers the hardness and tensile
strength, is
A
normalising
.
B. full annealing
C
process annealing
.
D
spheroidising
.
11. Which of the following iron exists at 910 C?

A
1114
B. -iron
C
-iron
.
D
-iron
.
12. The iron ore mostly used for the production of pig iron is
A
magnetite
.
B. haematite
C
limonite
.
D
siderite
.
13. A carbon steel having Brinell hardness number 100 should have ultimate tensile strength
closer to
A
100 N/mm2
.
B. 200 N/mm2
C
350 N/mm2
.
D
1000 N/mm2
.
14. The steel widely used for making precision measuring instruments is
A
nickel steel
.
B. nickel-chrome steel
1115
C
high speed steel
.
D
chrome-vanadium steel
.
15. The ductility is the property of a material due to which it

A
can be drawn into wires
.
B. breaks with little permanent distortion
C
.
D
can resist fracture due to high impact loads
.
16. The high speed steel has __________ percentage of tungsten.

A
maximum
.
B. minimum
17. The essential constituent of a hardened steel is

A
pearlite
.
B. austenite
C
martensite
.
D
troostite
.
18. The cutting tools are made from

A
nickel steel
.
1116
B. chrome steel
C
nickel-chrome steel
.
D
high speed steel
.
19. The maximum solubility of carbon in austenite is 1.7% at 1130 C.

A
Yes
.
B. No
20. In a close packed hexagonal space lattice, there are

A nine atoms out of which eight atoms are located at the corners of the cube and one
. atom at its centre
B. twelve atoms, all of which are located at the twelve corners of a hexagonal prism
C fourteen atoms out of which eight atoms are located at the coners of the cube and six
. atoms at the centres of six faces
D
none of the above
.
21. Iron-carbon alloys containing 4.3% carbon are known as hypo-eutectic cast irons.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
22. The approximate height of a blast furnace is

A
10 m
.
B. 20 m
C 30 m
1117
.
D
40 m
.
23. A steel alloy containing 36% nickel is called

A
stainless steel
.
B. high speed steel
C
invar
.
D
heat resisting steel
.
24. The addition of manganese to aluminium improves corrosion resistance.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
25. The temperature point at which the change ends on heating the steel is called
A
lower critical point
.
B. upper critical point
C
point of recalescence
.
D
point of decalescence
.
26. The malleability is the property of a material due to which it can be rolled or hammered into
thin sheets.
A
Agree
.
1118
B. Disagree
27. The process of inducing carbon to __________ carbon steels in order to give it a hard surface
is known as carburising.
A
low
.
B. medium
C
high
.
28. Which of the following solids are malleable and ductile?

A
Ionic solids
.
B. Covalent solids
C
Metallic solids
.
D
none of these
.
29. The delta-iron possesses a body centred cubic space lattice.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
30. Thermosetting plastics are those materials which

A are formed into shape under heat and pressure and results in a permanently hard
. product
do not become hard with the application of heat and pressure and no chemical change
B.
occurs
C
are flexible and can withstand considerable wear under suitable conditions
.
1119
D
are used as a friction lining for clutches and brakes
.
31. Admirality gun metal contains

A
60% copper, 35% zinc and 5% manganese
.
B. 76% copper, 20% silicon and 4% zinc
C
.
D
88% copper, 10% tin and 2% zinc
.
32. The percentage of phosphorus is phosphor bronze is

A
0.1
.
B. 1
C
11.1
.
D
98
.
33. In high speed steels, vanadium adds to the property of red hardness and tungsten and
chromium add to high wear resistance.
A
True
.
B. False
34. For the pipe fitting like elbow, tee, union etc., which of the following is preferred?
A
Pig iron
.
B. Malleable iron
1120
C
Spheroidal graphite cast iron
.
D
High carbon steel
.
35. Chilled cast iron is produced

A
by adding magnesium to molten cast iron
.
B. by quick cooling of molten cast iron
C
from white cast iron by annealing process
.
D
none of these
.
36. Silicon is added in low carbon steels to

A
make the steel tougher and harder
.
B. make the steel of good bending qualities
C
raise the yield point
.
D
all of these
.
37. According to Indian standard specifications, cast iron designated by 'FG 150' means
A
white cast iron with B.H.N. 150
.
B. white cast iron with 150 MPa as minimum compressive strength
C
grey cast iron with B.H.N. 150
.
1121
D
grey cast iron with 150 MPa as minimum tensile strength
.
38. The red flame during the operation of a bessemer converter indicates that the
A
air is burning out silicon and manganese
.
B. silicon and manganese has burned out and carbon has started oxidising
C
converter must be tilted to remove the contents of the converter
.
D
red flame does not occur during the operation of a bessemer converter
.
39. Phosphor bronze has

A
high resistance to corrosion
.
B. good wearing qualities and high elasticity
C
valuable cold working property
.
D
all of these
.
40. In the austempering process of heat treatment, austenite changes into

A
martensite
.
B. troostite
C
sorbite
.
D
bainite
.
41. Which of the following material has maximum malleability?

A
1122
B. Soft steel
C
Wrought iron
.
D
Copper
.
42. Nichrome contains more iron than Inconel.

A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
43. Hardness of steel is increased by adding sulphur, lead and phosphorus.

A
Yes
.
B. No
44. German silver contains

A
70% copper and 30% zinc
.
B. 60% copper and 40% zinc
C
59% copper, 40% zinc and 1% tin
.
D
60.45% copper, 35.2% zinc and 5.35% nickel
.
45. The machine tool guide ways are usually hardened by

A
vacuum hardening
.
B. martempering
C induction hardening
1123
.
D
flame hardening
.
46. Monel metal contains

A
.
B. 68% nickel, 29% copper and 3% other constituents
C
.
D
.
47. A fine grained steel

A
is less tough and has a greater tendency to distort during heat treatment
.
B. is more ductile and has a less tendency to distort during heat treatment
C
is less tough and has a less tendency to distort during heat treatment
.
D
is more ductile and has a greater tendency to distort during heat treatment
.
48. Babbit metal contains

A
50% tin and 50% antimony
.
B. 66% tin, 30% copper and 4% antimony
C
88% tin, 4% copper and 8% antimony
.
D 92% tin, 6% copper and 2% antimony
1124
.
49. A steel with 0.8% carbon is known as

A
eutectoid steel
.
B. hyper-eutectoid steel
C
hypo-eutectiod steel
.
D
none of these
.
50. When a steel containing more than 0.8% carbon is cooled slowly below the lower critical
point, it consists of
A
mainly pearlite
.
B. mainly ferrite
C
ferrite and pearlite
.
D
.

1. In the middle part of the blast furnace (zone of absorption), the temperature is
A
400 to 700C
.
B. 800C to 1000C
C
1200C to 1300C
.
D 1500C to 1700C
1125
.
2. The temperature in the upper part of the blast furnace (zone of reduction) is __________ that
of the middle part.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
more than
.
3. The temperature point at which the change starts on heating the steel is called
A
.
C
point of recalescence
.
D
point of decalescence
.
4. Aluminium bronze has high resistance to corrosion.

A
True
.
B. False
5. Manganese bronze contains more copper than silicon bronze.

A
Yes
.
B. No
6. In a face centred cubic space lattice, there are

A nine atoms out of which eight atoms are located at the corners of the cube and one
. atom at its centre
1126
fourteen atoms out of which eight atoms are located at the corners of the cube and six
B.
atoms at the centres of six faces
seventeen atoms out of which twelve atoms are located at the twelve corners of the
C
hexagonal prism, one atom at the centre of each of the two hexagonal faces and three
.
atoms are symmetrically arranged in the body of the cell
D
none of the above
.
7. The fuel used in a blast furnace is

A
coal
.
B. coke
C
wood
.
D
producer gas
.
8. Face centred cubic space lattice is found in gamma-iron, aluminium, copper, lead, silver and
nickel.
A
True
.
B. False
9. Which of the following is a point imperfection?

A
Vacancy
.
B. Interstitial imperfection
C
Frenkel imperfection
.
1127
D
all of these
.
10. The process in which carbon and nitrogen both are absorbed by the metal surface to get it
hardened is known as
A
carburising
.
B. cyaniding
C
flame hardening
.
D
induction hardening
.
11. The catalysts are used to accelerate the chemical reaction during the process of
ploymerisation of plastics.
A
True
.
B. False
12. Muntz metal (Yellow brass) contains

A
70% copper and 30% zinc
.
B. 60% copper and 40% zinc
C
59% copper, 40% zinc and 1% tin
.
D
60.45% copper, 35.2% zinc and 5.35% nickel
.
13. Which of the following gives the correct order of increasing hot hardness of cutting tool
materials?
A
Diamond, Carbide, High speed steel
.
1128
B. Carbide, Diamond, High speed steel
C
High speed steel, Carbide, Diamond
.
D
High speed steel, Diamond, Carbide
.
14. The slag from the blast furnace

A
is used as a ballast for rail road
.
B. is mixed with tar for road making
C
consists of calcium, aluminium and ferrous silicates
.
D
all of the above
.
15. Which of the following is a mesomorphous material?

A
Mica
.
B. Silver
C
Lead
.
D
Brass
.
16. The casting ability of aluminium increases when __________ is added to aluminium.
A
copper
.
B. magnesium
C silicon
1129
.
D
lead and bismuth
.
17. Manganese bronze has

A
good wearing qualities and high elasticity
.
B. high yield point, high fatigue limit and excellent cold and hot corrosion resistance
C
high resistance to corrosion
.
D
valuable cold working property
.
18. A steel is heated at about 875 C where the structure consists of entirely austenite. It is then
cooled suddenly at a temperature of about 250 C to 525 C. This process of heat treatment is
known as
A
normalising
.
B. annealing
C
austempering
.
D
martempering
.
19. Silicon bronze contains

A
.
B. 88% copper, 10% tin and 2% zinc
C
96% copper, 3% silicon and 1% manganese
.
1130
D
76% copper, 20% silicon and 4% zinc
.
20. In acidic bessemer process, the furnace is lined with

A
silica bricks
.
B. a mixture of tar and burnt dolomite bricks
C
either (a) or (b)
.
D
none of these
.
21. The malleability is the property of a material by virtue of which a material

A
regains its shape and size after the removal of external forces
.
B. retains the deformation produced under load permanently
C
can be drawn into wires with the application of a tensile force
.
D
.

A The spheroidising process is usually applied to high carbon tool steels which are
. difficult to machine
In spheroidising process, the cementite in the granular form is produced in the

B.
structure of steel
C The annealing process causes complete recrystallisation in steels which have been
. severely cold worked and a new grain structure is formed
D
none of the above
.
1131
23. Duplex process of steel making is a combination of
A
basic bessemer and acid open hearth processes
.
B. acid bessemer and basic open hearth processes
C
acid bessemer and acid open hearth processes
.
D
basic bessemer and basic open hearth processes
.
24. In corrosion resistant properties, bronzes are __________ to brasses.

A
superior
.
B. inferior
25. Steel containing 0.8 to 1.5% carbon, is known as

A
mild steel
.
B. dead mild steel
C
medium carbon steel
.
D
high carbon steel
.
26. Brittle materials when subjected to tensile loads, snap off without giving any sensible
elongation.
A
Yes
.
B. No
27. The property of a material necessary for forgings, in stamping images on coins and in
ornamental work, is
A elasticity
1132
.
B. plasticity
C
ductility
.
D
malleability
.
28. The portion of the blast furnace above its widest cross-section is called
A
hearth
.
B. stack
C
bosh
.
D
throat
.
29. The phosphorus and sulphur in steel making can be removed by using basic bessemer
process.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
30. The heat treatment process used for castings is

A
carburising
.
B. normalising
C
annealing
.
D tempering
1133
.
31. Micro-structure of a material is, generally, examined by

A
naked eye
.
C
X-ray techniques
.
D
none of these
.
32. The addition of magnesium to cast iron increases its

A
hardness
.
B. ductility and strength in tension
C
corrosion resistance
.
D
creep strength
.
33. Killed steels

A
have minimum impurity level
.
B. are produced by L-D process
C
have almost zero percentage of phosphorus and sulphur
.
D
are free from oxygen
.
34. The slow cooling of steel from the __________ results in a coarse grained structure.
A
.
1134
35. Which one of the following sets of constituents is expected in equilibrium cooling of a hyper-
eutectoid steel from austenitic state?
A
Ferrite and pearlite
.
B. Cementite and pearlite
C
Ferrite and bainite
.
D
Cementite and martensite
.
36. A steel with 0.8% carbon and 100% pearlite is called

A
eutectoid steel
.
B. hypo-eutectoid steel
C
hyper-eutectoid steel
.
D
none of these
.
37. 18/8 stainless steel consists of

A
.
C
.
D
.
38. Vanadium when added to steel

A
1135
B. decreases tensile strength
C
raises critical temperature
.
D
Sowers critical temperature
.
39. The limestone in the charge of a blast furnace decomposes to give lime and carbon dioxide.
The lime thus obtained
A
controls the grade of pig iron
.
B. acts as an iron-bearing mineral
C
supplies heat to reduce ore and melt the iron
.
D
forms a slag by combining with impurities
.
40. During the operation of a bessemer converter, the white flame indicates that the silicon and
managenese had burnt and carbon has started oxidising.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
15. Theory of machines
Theory of machines - Section 1

1. The ratio of the actual damping coefficient to the critical damping coefficient is called
damping factor.
A
Yes
.
B. No
1136
2. When a body moves with simple harmonic motion, the product of its periodic time and
frequency is equal to
A
zero
.
B. one
C
/2
.
D

.
3. In a vibrating system, if the actual damping coefficient is 40 N/m/s and critical damping
coefficient is 420 N/m/s, then logarithmic decrement is equal to
A
0.2
.
B. 0.4
C
0.6
.
D
0.8
.
4. For high speed engines, the cam follower should move with
A
uniform velocity
.
C
uniform acceleration and retardation
.
D
cycloidal motion
.
5. In a coupling rod of a locomotive, each of the four pairs is a __________ pair.

A sliding
1137
.
B. turning
C
rolling
.
D
screw
.
6. If /n is very high for a body vibrating under steady state vibrations, the phase angle for all
values of damping factors, will tend to approach
A
0
.
B. 90
C
180
.
D
360
.
7. In a circular arc cam with roller follower, the acceleration in any position of the lift will
depend only upon
A
total lift, total angle of lift, minimum radius of cam and cam speed
.
B. radius of circular arc, cam speed, location of centre of circular arc and roller diameter
C
mass of cam follower linkage, spring stiffness and cam speed
.
D
total lift, centre of gravity of the cam and cam speed
.
8. When the relation between the controlling force (Fc) and radius of rotation (r) for a spring
controlled governor is Fc = ar + b, then the governor will be
A
stable
.
1138
B. unstable
C
isochronous
.
D
none of these
.
9. The factor which affects the critical speed of a shaft is

A
diameter of disc
.
B. span of shaft
C
eccentricity
.
D
all of these
.
10. The partial balancing of reciprocating parts in locomotives produces

A
hammer blow
.
B. swaying couple
C
variation in tractive force along the line of stroke
.
D
all of the above
.
11. The pair is known as a higher pair, when the relative motion between the elements of a pair is
A
turning only
.
B. sliding only
C rolling only
1139
.
D
partly turning and partly sliding
.
12. When the connection between the two elements is such that only required kind of relative
motion occurs, it is known as self-closed pair.
A
Right
.
B. Wrong
13. The Whitworth quick return motion mechanism is formed in a slider crank chain when the
A
coupler link is fixed
.
B. longest link is a fixed link
C
slider is a fixed link
.
D
smallest link is a fixed link
.
14. The primary unbalanced force is maximum when the angle of inclination of the crank with
the line of stroke is
A
0 and 90
.
B. 0 and 180
C
90 and 180
.
D
180 and 360
.
15. The acceleration of the particle moving with simple harmonic motion is inversely
proportional to the displacement of the particle from the mean position.
A Yes
1140
.
B. No
16. In vibration isolation system, the transmissibility will be equal to unity, for all values of
damping factor, if /n is
A
equal to one
.
B. equal to 2
C
less than 2
.
D
greater than 2
.
17. The two links OA and OB are connected by a pin joint at O. If the link OA turns with angular
velocity 1 rad/s in the clockwise direction and the link OB turns with angular velocity
2 rad/s in the clockwise direction, then the rubbing velocity at the pin joint O is (where r =
Radius of the pin at O)
A
1.2.r
.
B. ( 1 - 2)r
C
( 1 + 2)r
.
D
( 1 - 2)2r
.
18. If /n = 2, where co is the frequency of excitation and n is the natural frequency of

vibrations, then the transmissibility of vibration will the
A
0.5
.
B. 1
C 1.5
1141
.
D
2
.
19. A disturbing mass m1 attached to the rotating shaft may be balanced by a single
mass m2 attached in the same plane of rotation as that of m1, such that (where r1 and r2 are the
radii of rotation of m1 and m2 respectively)
A
m1r2 = m2r1
.
B. m1r1 = m2r2
C
m1m2 = r1r2
.
D
none of these
.
20. In railway axle boxes, the bearing used is

A
deep groove ball bearing
.
B. double row self-aligning ball bearing
C
double row spherical roller bearing
.
D
cylindrical roller bearing
.
21. When the two elements of a pair have a surface contact when relative motion takes place and
the surface of one element slides over the surface of the other, the pair formed is known as a
A
lower pair
.
B. higher pair
1142
C
self-closed pair
.
D
force-closed pair
.
22. The centre distance between two meshing involute gears is equal to
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
23. The two elements of a pair are said to form a __________ when they permit relative motion
between them.
A
open pair
.
B. kinematic pair
24. When the axes of the shafts, over which the gears are mounted, move relative to a fixed axis,
then the train is known as reverted gear train.
A
Right
.
B. Wrong
25. In under damped vibrating system, the amplitude of vibration

A
decreases linearly with time
.
B. increases linearly with time
C decreases exponentially with time
1143
.
D
increases exponentially with time
.
26. The dynamic friction is the friction experienced by a body, when the body
A
is in motion
.
B. is at rest
C
just begins to slide over the surface of the other body
.
D
none of the above
.
27. The steering of a ship means

A
movement of a complete ship up and down in vertical plane about transverse axis
.
B. turning of a complete ship in a curve towards right or left, while it moves forward
C
rolling of a complete ship side-ways
.
D
none of the above
.
28. The tractive force in a locomotive with two cylinders is given by (where c = Fraction of
reciprocating parts per cylinder, m = Mass of reciprocating parts, = Angular speed of
crank, r = Radius of crank, and = Angle of inclination of crank to the line of stroke)
A
m.2.r cos
.
B. c.m.2.r sin
C
(1 - c)m.2.r(cos - sin )
.
1144
D
m.2.r(cos - sin )
.
29. The radial distance of a tooth from the pitch circle to the bottom of the tooth is called
A
dedendum
.
B. addendum
C
clearance
.
D
working depth
.
30. When the crank is at the inner dead centre, in a reciprocating steam engine, then the velocity
of the piston will be
A
minimum
.
B. zero
C
maximum
.
D
none of these
.
31. The gears are termed as medium velocity gears, if their peripheral velocity is
A
1 - 3 m/s
.
B. 3 - 15 m/s
C
15 - 30 m/s
.
D
30 - 50 m/s
.
1145
32. For a twin cylinder V-engine, the crank positions for primary reverse cranks and secondary
direct cranks are shown in the below figure. The engine is a
A
30 V-engine
.
B. 60 V-engine
C
120 V-engine
.
D
150 V-engine
.
33. The frequency of damped vibrations with viscous damping is __________ the frequency of
undamped vibrations.
A
more than
.
B. less than
C
same as
.
34. Whitworth quick return motion mechanism consists of three turning pairs and one sliding
pair.
A
Right
.
B. Wrong
35. The rotor of a ship rotates in clockwise direction when viewed from stern and the ship takes
a right turn. The effect of gyroscopic couple acting on it will be to raise the stern and lower
1146
the bow.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
36. The sliding pairs, turning pairs and screw pairs form lower pairs.
A
True
.
B. False
37. When a particle moves round the circumference of a circle of radius r with rad/s, then its
maximum acceleration is 2r.
A
Right
.
B. Wrong
38. The static friction

A
bears a constant ratio to the normal reaction between the two surfaces
.
B. is independent of the area of contact, between the two surfaces
C
always acts in a direction, opposite to that in which the body tends to move
.
D
all of the above
.
39. A shaft has an attached disc at the centre of its length. The disc has its centre of gravity
located at a distance of 2 mm from the axis of the shaft. When the shaft is allowed to vibrate
in its natural bow-shaped mode, it has a frequency of vibration of 10 rad/s. When the shaft is
rotated at 300 r.p.m., it will whirl with a radius of
A
2 mm
.
B. 2.22 mm
1147
C
2.50 mm
.
D
3.0 mm
.
40. The swaying couple is maximum or minimum when the angle of inclination of the crank to
the line of stroke () is equal to
A
90 and 180
.
B. 45 and 225
C
180 and 270
.
D
270 and 360
.
41. The pressure angle of a cam is the angle between the direction of the follower motion and a
normal to the
A
pitch circle
.
B. base circle
C
pitch curve
.
D
prime circle
.
42. A pair of friction discs is an example of rolling pair.

A
True
.
B. False
43. In order to balance the reciprocating masses,

A primary forces and couples must be balanced
1148
.
B. secondary forces and couples must be balanced
C
both (a) and (b)
.
D
none of these
.
44. In a screw jack, the effort required to lower the load W is given by
A
P = W tan( - )
.
B. P = W tan( + )
C
P = W tan( - )
.
D
P = W cos( + )
.
45. An automobile steering gear is an example of

A
sliding pair
.
B. rolling pair
C
lower pair
.
D
higher pair
.
46. The frictional torque transmitted in a multi-collared shaft is same as that of a single collared
shaft.
A
Right
.
1149
B. Wrong
47. In order to give the primary balance of the reciprocating parts of a multi-cylinder in-line
engines,
A
the algebraic sum of the primary forces must be equal to zero
.
the algebraic sum of the couples about any point in the plane of the primary forces
B.
must be equal to zero
C
both (a) and (b)
.
D
none of these
.
48. The gear train usually employed in clocks is a

A
simple gear train
.
B. reverted gear train
C
sun and planet gear
.
D
differential gear
.
49. A mass of 1 kg is attached to the end of a spring with a stiffness of 0.7 N/mm. The critical
damping coefficient of this system is
A
1.4 N-s/m
.
B. 18.52 N-s/m
C
52.92 N-s/m
.
1150
D
529.2 N-s/m
.
50. The cam follower generally used in automobile engines is

A
knife edge follower
.
B. fiat faced follower
C
.
D
roller follower
.

1. The maximum or minimum value of the swaying couple is
A
c.m.2.r
.
B. a(1 - c)m.2.r
C
. (1 - c)m.2.r
D
2a(1 - c)m.2.r
.
2. For an involute gear, the ratio of base circle radius and pitch circle radius is equal to
A
sin
.
B. cos
C
sec
.
D cosec
1151
.
3. A chain consisting of four links and four joints is called a kinematic chain.
A
Yes
.
B. No
4. Which of the following is an open pair?

A
Ball and socket joint
.
B. Journal bearing
C
Lead screw and nut
.
D
Cam and follower
.
5. The frictional torque transmitted in a flat pivot bearing with assumption of uniform pressure
is __________ as compared to uniform wear.
A
less
.
B. more
C
same
.
6. A reed type tachometer use the principle of

A
longitudinal vibration
.
B. torsional vibration
C
transverse vibration
.
1152
D
damped free vibration
.
7. The natural frequency of free transverse vibrations due to a point load acting over a simply
supported shaft is equal to (where = Static deflection of a simply supported shaft due to the
point load)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
8. When the sleeve of a Porter governor moves upwards, the governor speed
A
increases
.
B. decreases
C
remains unaffected
.
D
.
9. The retardation of a flat faced follower when it has contact at the apex of the nose of a
circular arc cam, is given by (where OQ = Distance between the centre of circular flank and
centre of nose)
A
2 x OQ
.
B. 2 x OQ sin
C
2 x OQ cos
.
1153
D
2 x OQ tan
.
10. A thin circular disc is rolling with a uniform linear speed, along a straight path on a plane
surface. Which of the following statement is correct in this regard ?
A
All points of the disc have the same velocity
.
B. The centre of the disc has zero acceleration
C
The centre of the disc has centrifugal acceleration
.
D
The point on the disc making contact with the plane surface has zero acceleration
.

A The periodic time of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is the time taken
. by a particle for one complete oscillation.
The periodic time of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is directly
B.
proportional to its angular velocity.
C The velocity of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is zero at the mean
. position.
D The acceleration of the particle moving with simple harmonic motion is maximum at
. the mean position.
12. When the speed of the engine fluctuates continuously above and below the mean speed, the
governor is said to be
A
stable
.
B. unstable
C
isochronous
.
D hunt
1154
.
13. When two pulleys of different diameters are connected by means of an open belt, the angle of
contact at the __________ pulley must be taken into consideration.
A
smaller
.
B. larger
14. The maximum frictional force, which comes into play, when an body just begins to slide over
the surface of the other body, is known as
A
static friction
.
B. dynamic friction
C
limiting friction
.
D
.
15. In a four stroke I.C. engine, the turning moment during the compression stroke is
A
positive throughout
.
B. negative throughout
C
positive during major portion of the stroke
.
D
negative during major portion of the stroke
.
16. A body will begin to move down an inclined plane, if the angle of inclination of the plane is
__________ the angle of friction.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
1155
C
greater than
.
17. The fundamental equation for correct steering is (where and = Angle through which the
axis of the outer wheel and inner wheel turns respectively, c = Distance between the pivots of
the front axles, and d = Wheel base)
A
. sin + sin =
B. cos - sin =
C
. cot - cot =
D
. tan + cot =
18. The height of a Watt's governor is

A
directly proportional to speed
.
B. directly proportional to (speed)2
C
inversely proportional to speed
.
D
inversely proportional to (speed)2
.
19. A rotor supported at A and B carries two masses as shown in the below figure. The rotor is
A
dynamically balanced
1156
B. statically balanced
C
statically and dynamically balanced
.
D
not balanced
.
20. For an isochronous Hartnell governor (where r1 and r2 = Maximum and minimum radius of
rotation of balls respectively, S1 and S2 = Maximum and minimum force exerted on the sleeve
respectively, and M = Mass on the sleeve)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
21. Which of the following is a higher pair?

A
Belt and pulley
.
B. Turning pair
C
Screw pair
.
D
Sliding pair
.
22. When the belt is stationary, it is subjected to some tension known as initial tension. The value
of this tension is equal to the
A
tension in the tight side of the belt
.
1157
B. tension in the slack side of the belt
C
sum of the tensions on the tight side and slack side of the belt
.
D
average tension of the tight side and slack side of the belt
.
23. In a force-closed pair, the two elements of a pair are not held together mechanically.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
24. Maximum fluctuation of energy in a flywheel is equal to (where I = Mass moment of inertia
of the flywheel, E = Maximum fluctuation of energy, CS = Coefficient of fluctuation of
speed, and = Mean angular speed = )

A
I(1 - 2)
.
B. I2CS
C
2ECS
.
D
all of these
.
25. The coriolis component of acceleration acts

A
along the sliding surface
.
B. perpendicular to the sliding surface
C
at 45 to the sliding surface
.
1158
D
parallel to the sliding surface
.
26. The module is the reciprocal of diametral pitch.

A
True
.
B. False
27. If the controlling force line for a spring controlled governor when produced intersects the Y-
axis at the origin, then the governor is said to be
A
stable
.
B. unstable
C
isochronous
.
D
none of these
.
28. In a reciprocating steam engine, when the crank has turned from inner dead centre through an
angle , the angular acceleration of the connecting rod is given by
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
29. If the controlling force line for a spring controlled governor when produced intersects the Y-
axis above the origin, then the governor is said to be unstable.
A
Right
.
1159
B. Wrong
30. The product of the diametral pitch and module is equal to one.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
31. The inversion of a mechanism is

A
changing of a higher pair to a lower pair
.
B. turning its upside down
C
obtained by fixing different links in a kinematic chain
.
D
obtained by reversing the input and output motion
.
32. The coefficient of fluctuation of energy is the ratio of maximum energy to the minimum
energy.
A
True
.
B. False
33. When the nature of contact between the elements of a pair is such that it can only slide
relative to the other, the pair is known as a
A
screw pair
.
B. spherical pair
C
turning pair
.
D
sliding pair
.
1160
34. The velocity of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion, at any instant is given by
(where = Displacement of the particle from mean position)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
35. The velocity of piston in a reciprocating steam engine is given by (where = Angular
velocity of crank, r = Radius of crank pin circle, = Angle turned by crank from inner dead
centre, and n = Ratio of length of connecting rod to the radius of crank)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
36. The primary unbalanced force is maximum __________ in one revolution of the crank.
A
twice
.
B. four times
C
eight times
.
1161
D
sixteen times
.
37. The instantaneous centres which vary with the configuration of mechanism, are called
A
permanent instantaneous centres
.
B. fixed instantaneous centres
C
neither fixed nor permanent instantaneous centres
.
D
none of the above
.
38. The displacement of the reciprocating roller follower, when it has contact with the straight
flanks of the tangent cam, is given by (where r1 = Minimum radius of the cam, r2 = Radius of
the roller follower, and = Angle turned by the cam from the beginning of the follower
displacement)
A
(r1 - r2)(1 - cos)
.
B. (r1 + r2)(1 + cos )
C
. (r1 - r2)
D
. (r1 + r2)
39. In considering friction of a V-thread, the virtual coefficient of friction (1) is given by
A
1 = sin
.
B. 1 = cos
C
.
1162
D
.
40. The wear of bearing is proportional to velocity and pressure.

A
Yes
.
B. No
41. In a shaper mechanism, the coriolis component of acceleration does not exist.
A
True
.
B. False
42. In a gear having involute teeth, the normal to the involute is a tangent to the
A
pitch circle
.
B. base circle
C
addendum circle
.
D
dedendum circle
.
43. A body is said to be under forced vibrations, when

A
there is a reduction in amplitude after every cycle of vibration
.
B. no external force acts on a body, after giving it an initial displacement
C
a body vibrates under the influence of external force
.
D
none of the above
.
44. The natural frequency of free longitudinal vibrations is equal to (where m = Mass of the
1163
body, s = Stiffness of the body, and = Static deflection of the body)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
any one of these
.
45. The radius of a friction circle for a shaft rotating inside a bearing is (where r = Radius of
shaft, and tan = Coefficient of friction between the shaft and bearing)
A
r sin
.
B. r cos
C
r tan
.
D
.
46. The maximum and minimum value of the tractive force is given by
A
c.m x 2.r
.
B. 2 x c.m.2.r
C
2(1 - c)m x 2.r
.
D
2 x c.m x 2.r
.
47. In a turning moment diagram, the variations of energy above and below the mean resisting
torque line is called
A
1164
B. maximum fluctuation of energy
C
coefficient of fluctuation of energy
.
D
none of these
.
48. In a spring controlled governor, when the controlling force __________ as the radius of
rotation increases, it is said to be a stable governor.
A
remains constant
.
B. decreases
C
increases
.
49. The distance between the centre of suspension and centre of percussion is equal to the
equivalent length of a simple pendulum.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
50. When the body is suspended at the point of suspension, its periodic time and frequency will
be __________ as compared to the body suspended at the point of percussion.
A
same
.
B. two times
C
four times
.

1. The working depth of a gear is the radial distance from the
A pitch circle to the bottom of a tooth
1165
.
B. pitch circle to the top of a tooth
C
top of a tooth to the bottom of a tooth
.
D
addendum circle to the clearance circle
.
2. The acceleration of a particle at any instant has two components i.e. radial component and
tangential component. These two components will be
A
parallel to each other
.
B. perpendicular to each other
C
inclined at 45
.
D
opposite to each other
.
3. When the axes of the first and last wheels are co-axial, then the train is known as
A
simple train of wheels
.
B. compound train of wheels
C
reverted gear train
.
D
epicyclic gear train
.
4. The primary unbalanced force is more than the secondary unbalanced force.
A
True
.
1166
B. False
5. The cam and follower is an example of

A
sliding pair
.
B. rolling pair
C
lower pair
.
D
higher pair
.
6. The danger of breakage and vibration is maximum

A
below the critical speed
.
B. near the critical speed
C
above the critical speed
.
D
none of these
.
7. The primary unbalanced force due to inertia of reciprocating parts in a reciprocating engine
is given by (where m= Mass of reciprocating parts, = Angular speed of crank, r = Radius
of crank, = Angle of inclination of crank with the line of stroke, and n = Ratio of the lengm
of connecting rod to radius of crank)
A
m.2.r sin
.
B. m.2.r cos
C
. m.2.r
1167
D
. m.2.r
8. For two governors A and B, the lift of sleeve of governor A is more than that of governor B,
for a given fractional change in speed. It indicates that
A
governor A is more sensitive than governor B
.
B. governor B is more sensitive than governor A
C
both governors A and B are equally sensitive
.
D
none of the above
.
9. The component of the acceleration, parallel to the velocity of the particle, at the given instant
is called
A
radial component
.
B. tangential component
C
coriolis component
.
D
none of these
.
10. In a multiple V-belt drive, if one of the belt is broken, then we should replace
A
the broken belt only
.
B. all the belts
C
the broken belt and the belts on either side of it
.
D none of the above
1168
.
11. The swaying couple is due to the

A
primary unbalanced force
.
B. secondary unbalanced force
C
two cylinders of locomotive
.
D
partial balancing
.
12. The lead screw of a lathe with nut forms a

A
rolling pair
.
B. sliding pair
C
screw pair
.
D
turning pair
.
13. In under damped vibrating system, if x1 and x2 are the successive values of the amplitude on
the same side of the mean position, then the logarithmic decrement is equal to
A
.
B.
log
C
. loge
1169
D
log(x1.x2)
.
14. The angle of the inclined plane at which the body just begins to slide down the plane, is
called helix angle.
A
Right
.
B. Wrong
15. In forced vibrations, the magnitude of damping force at resonance is equal to the impressed
force.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
16. When a slider moves on a fixed link having curved surface, their instantaneous centre lies
A
on their point of contact
.
B. at the centre of curvature
C
at the centre of circle
.
D
at the pin joint
.
17. Scotch yoke mechanism is used to generate

A
sine functions
.
B. square roots
C
logarithms
.
1170
D
inversions
.
18. The unbalanced primary forces in a reciprocating engine are

A
balanced completely
.
B. balanced partially
C
balanced by secondary forces
.
D
not balanced
.
19. The balancing of a rigid rotor can be achieved by appropriately placing balancing masses in
A
a single plane
.
B. two planes
C
three planes
.
D
four planes
.
20. The frictional torque transmitted in a conical pivot bearing with assumption of uniform
pressure is __________ as compared to uniform wear.
A
less
.
B. more
C
same
.
21. The displacement of the D-slide valve is __________ the steam lap by a distance known as
lead of the valve.
A greater than
1171
.
B. less than
22. In the two rotor system as shown in the below figure (I1 < I2), a node of vibration is situated
A
between I1, and I2 but nearer I1
.
B. between I1, and I2 but nearer to I2
C
exactly in the middle of the shaft
.
D
nearer to I1 but outside
.
23. For static balancing of a shaft, the net dynamic force acting on the shaft is equal to zero.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
24. A spring controlled governor is said to be unstable, if the relation between the controlling
force (Fc) and radius of rotation (r) is Fc = ar.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
25. The rotor of a ship rotates in clockwise direction when viewed from stern and the ship takes
a left turn. The effect of gyroscopic couple acting on it will be
A
to raise the bow and stern
.
1172
B. to lower the bow and stern
C
to raise the bow and lower the stern
.
D
to raise the stern and lower the bow
.
26. Most of the engines, generally, do not require balancing of secondary forces and couples.
A
Right
.
B. Wrong
27. The secondary unbalanced force is maximum __________ in one revolution of the crank.
A
two times
.
B. four times
C
eight times
.
D
sixteen times
.
28. A spring controlled governor is found unstable. It can be made stable by

A
increasing the spring stiffness
.
B. decreasing the spring stiffness
C
increasing the ball mass
.
D
decreasing the ball mass
.
29. In order to have a good grip on the pulley, the V-belt should touch the bottom of the groove
in the pulley.
A
1173
B. False
30. In order to double the period of a simple pendulum, the length of the string should be
A
halved
.
B. doubled
C
quadrupled
.
D
none of these
.
31. When a rigid body is suspended vertically and it oscillates with a small amplitude under the
action of the force of gravity, the body is known as
A
simple pendulum
.
B. compound pendulum
C
torsional pendulum
.
D
second's pendulum
.
32. Longitudinal vibrations are said to occur when the particles of a body moves
A
perpendicular to its axis
.
B. parallel to its axis
C
in a circle about its axis
.
D
none of these
.
33. The velocity of the reciprocating roller follower when it has contact with the straight flanks
1174
of the tangent cam, is given by (where = Angular velocity of the cam shaft)
A
(r1 - r2)sin
.
B. (r1 + r2)sin sec2
C
(r1 - r2)cos
.
D
(r1 + r2)cos cosec2
.
34. The sensitiveness of the governor __________ as the speed range decreases.
A
remains unaffected
.
B. decreases
C
increases
.
35. In Meyer's expansion valve, the expansion valve is driven by an eccentric having an angle of
advance from
A
50 - 60
.
B. 60 - 70
C
70 - 80
.
D
80 - 90
.
36. The frictional torque transmitted in a flat pivot bearing, considering uniform wear, is (where
= Coefficient of friction, W = Load over the bearing, and R = Radius of bearing surface)
A
. WR
1175
B.
WR
C
. WR
D
WR
.
37. If the damping factor for a vibrating system is unity, then the system will be
A
over damped
.
B. under damped
C
critically damped
.
D
without vibrations
.
38. In vibration isolation system, if /n < 2, then for all values of damping factor, the trans-
missibility will be (where = Angular speed of the system, n = Natural frequency of
vibration of the system)
A
less than unity
.
B. equal to unity
C
greater than unity
.
D
zero
.
39. When a point at the end of a link moves with constant angular velocity, its acceleration will
have
A
radial component only
.
1176
B. tangential component only
C
coriolis component only
.
D
radial and tangential components both
.
40. The time taken by a particle for one complete oscillationis known as periodic time.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
41. In a cam drive with uniform velocity follower, the sharp corners of the displacement diagram
are rounded off at the beginning and at the end of each stroke. This is done
A
because of difficulty in manufacturing cam profile
.
B. because of loose contact of follower with cam surface
C in order to have acceleration in beginning and retardation at the end of stroke within
. the finite limits
D
because the uniform velocity motion is a partial parabolic motion
.
42. The contact ratio for gears is

A
zero
.
B. less than one
C
greater than one
.
D
infinity
.
43. In a steam engine, the earlier cut-off with a simple slide valve may be obtained by increasing
1177
the angle of advance of the eccentric but reducing the throw of the eccentric and keeping the
steam lap and exhaust lap constant. This method will cause withdrawing or throttling of
steam.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
44. A governor is said to be stable, if the

A
radius of rotation of balls increases as the equilibrium speed decreases
.
B. radius of rotation of balls decreases as the equilibrium speed decreases
C
radius of rotation of balls increases as the equilibrium speed increases
.
D
radius of rotation of balls decreases as the equilibrium speed increases
.
45. In a Proell governor, the balls are attached to the extension of lower links.
A
True
.
B. False

A
The power absorbed in operating the piston valve is less than D-slide valve.
.
B. The wear of the piston valve is less than the wear of the D-slide valve.
C
The D-slide valve is also called outside admission valve.
.
D
all of the above
.
47. A point B on a rigid link AB moves with respect to A with angular velocity rad/s. The radial
component of the acceleration of B with respect to A, is (where vBA = Linear velocity
of B with respect to A)
1178
B.
C
.
D
.
48. Critical damping is a function of

A
mass and stiffness
.
B. mass and damping coefficient
C
mass and natural frequency
.
D
damping coefficient and natural frequency
.
49. The relation between me number of links (l) and the number of binary joints (j) for a
kinematic chain having constrained motion is given by l = l - 2. If the left hand side of this
equation is greater than the right hand side, then the chain is
A
locked chain
.
B. completely constrained chain
C
successfully constrained chain
.
D
incompletely constrained chain
.
50. A Porter governor cannot be isochronous.

A
Agree
.
1179
B. Disagree

1. When the crank is at the outer dead centre, in a reciprocating steam engine, then the
acceleration of the piston will be
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
2. The size of a gear is usually specified by

A
pressure angle
.
B. circular pitch
C
diametral pitch
.
D
pitch circle diameter
.
3. The example of successfully constrained motion is a

A
motion of an I.C. engine valve
.
B. motion of the shaft between a foot-step bearing
C piston reciprocating inside an engine cylinder
1180
.
D
all of the above
.
4. The angle which the normal reaction makes with the resultant reaction is called angle of
friction.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
5. Which one of the following can completely balance several masses revolving in different
planes on a shaft?
A
A single mass in different planes
.
B. Two masses in any two planes
C
A single mass in one of the planes of the revolving masses
.
D
Two equal masses in any two planes
.
6. When a shaking force is transmitted through the springs, damping becomes detrimental when
the ratio of its frequency to the natural frequency is greater than
A
0.25
.
B. 0.5
C
1
.
D
2
.
7. When the nature of contact between the elements of a pair is such that it can turn or revolve
about a fixed axis, the pair is known as a rolling pair.
A
Correct
1181
B. Incorrect
8. Creep in belt drive is due to

A
weak material of the belt
.
B. weak material of the pulley
C uneven extensions and contractions of the belt when it passes from tight side to slack
. side
D
expansion of the belt
.

A
A round bar in a round hole form a turning pair
.
B. A square bar in a square hole form a sliding pair
C
A vertical shaft in a foot step bearing forms a successful constraint
.
D
all of the above
.
10. A watt's governor can work satisfactorily at speeds from

A
60 to 80 r.p.m.
.
B. 80 to 100 r.p.m.
C
100 to 200 r.p.m.
.
D
200 to 300 r.p.m.
.
11. The displacement of a flat-faced follower when it has contact with the flank of a circular arc
cam, is given by (where R = Radius of flank, r1 = Minimum radius of the cam, and = Angle
1182
turned through by the cam)
A
R(1 - cos )
.
B. (R - r1)(1 - cos )
C
R(1 - sin )
.
D
(R - r1)(1 - sin )
.
12. In the below figure, PC is the connecting rod and OC is the crank making an angle with the
line of stroke POand rotates with uniform angular velocity at rad/s. The Klien's
acceleration diagram for determining the acceleration of the piston P is shown by
quadrilateral C Q NO, the acceleration of the piston is zero when the crank OC and
connecting rod PC are at right angles to each other.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
13. The contact ratio is the ratio of

A
length of pair of contact to the circular pitch
.
B. length of arc of contact to the circular pitch
1183
C
length of arc of approach to the circular pitch
.
D
length of arc of recess to the circular pitch
.
14. An exact straight line motion mechanism is a

A
Scott-Russell's mechanism
.
B. Hart's mechanism
C
Peaucellier's mechanism
.
D
all of these
.
15. A body of weight W is required to move up the rough inclined plane whose angle of
inclination with the horizontal is . The effort applied parallel to the plane is given by (where
= tan = Coefficient of friction between the plane and the body)
A
P = W tan
.
B. P = W tan ( + )
C
P = W (sin + cos )
.
D
P = W (cos + sin )
.
16. When the sleeve of a Porter governor moves downwards, the governor speed
A
increases
.
B. decreases
1184
C
remains unaffected
.
D
.
17. When one of the links of a kinematic chain is fixed, the chain is known as a
A
structure
.
B. mechanism
C
inversion
.
D
machine
.
18. The natural frequency of free transverse vibrations of a shaft fixed at both ends and carrying
a uniformly distributed load is 0.571/S , where S is the static deflection of a shaft fixed at
both ends and carrying a uniformly distributed load.
A
True
.
B. False
19. When brakes are applied to all the four wheels of a moving car, the distance travelled by the
car before it is brought to rest, will be
A
maximum
.
B. minimum
C
zero
.
20. In a steam engine, the distance by which the outer edge of the D-slide valve overlaps the
steam port is called
A
lead
.
1185
B. steam lap
C
exhaust lap
.
D
none of these
.
21. The controlling force diagram for a spring controlled governor is a curve passing through the
origin.
A
Yes
.
B. No
22. The lower pairs are __________ pairs.

A
self-closed
.
B. force-closed
23. The arrangement is called bevel gearing, when two __________ are connected by gears.
A
intersecting and coplaner shafts
.
B. non-intersecting and non-coplaner shafts
C
parallel and coplaner shafts
.
D
parallel and non-coplaner shafts
.
24. The static balancing is satisfactory for low speed rotors but with increasing speeds, dynamic
balancing becomes necessary. This is because, the
A
unbalanced couples are caused only at higher speeds
.
B. unbalanced forces are not dangerous at higher speeds
1186
C
effects of unbalances are proportional to the square of the speed
.
D
effects of unbalances are directly proportional to the speed
.
25. The maximum fluctuation of speed is the

A
difference of minimum fluctuation of speed and the mean speed
.
B. difference of the maximum and minimum speeds
C
sum of maximum and minimum speeds
.
D
variations of speed above and below the mean resisting torque line
.
26. The essential condition of placing the two masses, so that the system becomes dynamically
equivalent, is (where l1 and l2 = Distance of two masses from the centre of gravity of the
body, and kG = Radius of gyration of the body)
A
l1 = kG
.
B. l2 = kG
C
l1l2 = kG
.
D
l1l2 = kG2
.
27. A Porter governor is a

A
pendulum type governor
.
B. dead weight governor
1187
C
spring loaded governor
.
D
inertia governor
.
28. The secondary unbalanced force due to inertia of reciprocating parts in a reciprocating
engine is given by (where m = Mass of reciprocating parts, = Angular speed of crank, r =
Radius of crank, = Angle of inclination of crank with the line of stroke, and n = Ratio of
the lengm of connecting rod to radius of crank)
A
m.2.r sin
.
B. m.2.r cos
C
. m.2.r
D
. m.2.r
29. A type-writer constitutes a machine.

A
Yes
.
B. No
30. Due to slip of belt, the velocity ratio of the belt drive increases.
A
Yes
.
B. No
31. A shaft of mass (mc) and stiffness (s) is fixed at one end and carries a mass (m) at the other
end. The natural frequency of its longitudinal vibration is equal to
A
.
1188
B.
C
.
D
.
32. In steady state forced vibrations, the amplitude of vibrations at resonance is __________
damping coefficient.
A
equal to
.
C
.
D
independent of
.
33. A body in motion will be subjected to coriolis acceleration when that body is
A
in plane rotation with variable velocity
.
B. in plane translation with variable velocity
C
in plane motion which is a resultant of plane translation and rotation
.
D
restrained to rotate while sliding over another body
.
34. The rolling of a complete ship side-ways is known as pitching of a ship.

A
True
.
B. False
1189
35. The frictional torque transmitted by a disc or plate clutch is same as that of
A
flat pivot bearing
.
B. flat collar bearing
C
conical pivot bearing
.
D
truncated conical pivot bearing
.
36. The frictional torque transmitted by a cone clutch is same as that of

A
flat pivot bearing
.
B. flat collar bearing
C
conical pivot bearing
.
D
truncated conical pivot bearing
.
37. When two non-intersecting and non-coplaner shafts are connected by gears, the arrangement
is known as helical gearing.
A
Right
.
B. Wrong
38. When the elements of a pair are kept in contact by the action of external forces, the pair is
said to be a
A
lower pair
.
B. higher pair
1190
C
self-closed pair
.
D
force-closed pair
.
39. The centrifugal tension in belts

A
increases power transmitted
.
B. decreases power transmitted
C
have no effect on power transmitted
.
D
increases power transmitted upto a certain speed and then decreases
.
40. In a Hartnell governor, the compression of the spring is __________ the lift of the sleeve.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
41. In vibration isolation system, if /n > 2, then for all values of damping factor, the trans-
missibility (i.e. the ratio of the force transmitted to the force applied) will be less than unity.
A
True
.
B. False
42. Two pulleys of radii r1 and r2 and at distance x apart are connected by means of a cross belt
drive. The length of the belt is
A
.
1191
B.
C
.
D
.
43. The acceleration of the reciprocating roller follower when it has contact with the straight
flanks of the tangent cam, is given by
A
2(r1 - r2)(1 - cos2)
.
B. 2(r1 + r2)(1 + cos2)
C
. 2(r1 + r2)
D
2(r1 - r2)(1 - sin2 )
.
44. For the brake to be self locking, the force P at C shown in the below figure, should
A
be zero
.
B. act in upward direction
1192
C
act in downward direction
.
D
none of these
.
45. In a four bar chain or quadric cycle chain

A
each of the four pairs is a turning pair
.
B. one is a turning pair and three are sliding pairs
C
two are turning pairs and two are sliding pairs
.
D
three are turning pairs and one is a sliding pair
.
46.
A single degree of freedom system is given by , with
usual notations. It represents
A
free vibration with damping
.
B. free vibration without damping
C
forced vibration with damping
.
D
forced vibration without damping
.
47. In a Hartnell governor, the lift of the sleeve is given by (where r1 and r2 = Max. and min.
radii of rotation, x = Length of ball arm of the lever, and y = Length of sleeve arm of the
lever)
A
. (r1 + r2)
1193
B.
(r1 + r2)
C
. (r1 - r2)
D
. (r1 - r2)
48. The maximum efficiency of a screw jack is

A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
49. When a mechanism is required to transmit power or to do some particular type of work, then
it becomes a machine.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
50. The transmissibility, for all values of damping factor, will be less than unity, if /n is
A
equal to 1
.
B. less than 2
C
equal to 2
.
1194
D
greater than 2
.

1. Which of the following is used to control the speed variations of the engine caused by the
fluctuations of the engine turning moment?
A
D-slide valve
.
B. Governor
C
Flywheel
.
D
Meyer's expansion valve
.
2. The ratio of driving tensions for rope drive is same as that of V-belt drive.
A
Yes
.
B. No
3. A Hartnell governor is a
A
dead weight governor
.
B. pendulum type governor
C
spring loaded governor
.
D
inertia governor
.
4. Frequency of vibrations is usually expressed in

A
number of cycles per hour
.
1195
B. number of cycles per minute
C
number of cycles per second
.
D
none of these
.
5. The relation between number of pairs (p) forming a kinematic chain and the number of links
(l) is
A
l = 2p - 2
.
B. l = 2p - 3
C
l = 2p - 4
.
D
l = 2p - 5
.
6. The cam follower generally used in air-craft engines is

A
knife edge follower
.
C
.
D
roller follower
.
7. In a locomotive, the maximum magnitude of the unbalanced force along the perpendicular to
the line of stroke, is known as
A
tractive force
.
B. swaying couple
1196
C
hammer blow
.
D
none of these
.
8. For low and moderate speed engines, the cam follower should move with
A
uniform velocity
.
C
uniform acceleration and retardation
.
D
cycloidal motion
.
9. If /n is very low for a body vibrating under steady state vibrations, the phase angle for all
values of damping factors, will tend to approach
A
0
.
B. 90
C
180
.
D
360
.
10. The factional torque for square thread at the mean radius r while raising load W is given by
A
T = W.r tan( - )
.
B. T = W.r tan( + )
C
T = W.r tan
.
1197
D
T = W.r tan
.
11. A system in dynamic balance implies that

A
the system is critically damped
.
B. there is no critical speed in the system
C
the system is also statically balanced
.
D
there will absolutely no wear of bearings
.
12. The example of completely constrained motion is a

A
motion of a piston in the cylinder of a steam engine
.
B. motion of a square bar in a square hole
C
motion of a shaft with collars at each end in a circular hole
.
D
all of the above
.
13. In involute gears, the pressure angle is

A
dependent on the size of teeth
.
B. dependent on the size of gears
C
always constant
.
D
always variable
.
14. A shaft carrying three rotors will have

A
1198
B. one node
C
two nodes
.
D
three nodes
.
15. The minimum force required to slide a body of weight W on a rough horizontal plane is
A
W sin
.
B. W cos
C
W tan
.
D
W cosec
.
16. In a mechanism, the fixed instantaneous centres are those centres which
A
remain in the same place for all configurations of the mechanism
.
B. vary with the configuration of the mechanism
C
moves as the mechanism moves, but joints are of permanent nature
.
D
none of the above
.
17. Which of the following statements regarding laws governing the friction between dry
surfaces are correct?
A
The friction force is dependent on the materials of the contact surfaces.
.
B. The friction force is directly proportional to the normal force.
1199
C
The friction force is independent of me area of contact.
.
D
all of the above
.
18. The frictional torque transmitted in a conical pivot bearing, considering uniform wear, is
A
. W R cosec
B.
W R cosec
C
. W R cosec
D
W R cosec
.
19. A combination of kinematic pairs, joined in such a way that the relative motion between the
links is completely constrained, is called a
A
structure
.
B. mechanism
C
kinematic chain
.
D
inversion
.
20. A link or element need not to be a rigid body, but it must be a resistant body.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
21. Which of the following statement is correct for gears ?

A The addendum is less than the dedendum
1200
.
B. The pitch circle diameter is the product of module and number of teeth
C
The contact ratio means the number of pairs of teeth in contact
.
D
all of the above
.
22. The minimum number of teeth on the pinion which will mesh with any gear without
interference for 20 full depth involute teeth will be
A
12
.
B. 14
C
18
.
D
24
.
23. In a screw jack, the effort required to lift the load W is given by (where = Helix angle, and
= Angle of friction)
A
P = W tan( - )
.
B. P = W tan( + )
C
P = W tan( - )
.
D
P = W cos( + )
.
24. In order to facilitate starting of locomotive in any position, the cranks of a locomotive with
two cylinders, are placed at
A
45 to each other
.
1201
B. 90 to each other
C
120 to each other
.
D
180 to each other
.
25. The coriolis component of acceleration leads the sliding velocity by

A
45
.
B. 90
C
135
.
D
180
.
26. The length of a simple pendulum which gives the same frequency as the compound
pendulum, is
A
kG + l1
.
B. kG2 + l1
C
.
D
.
27. Which of the following is a spring controlled governor?

A
Hartnell governor
.
B. Hartung governor
1202
C
Wilson-Hartnell governor
.
D
all of these
.
28. The engine of an aeroplane rotates in clockwise direction when seen from the tail end and the
aeroplane takes a turn to the right. The effect of gyroscopic couple on the aeroplane will be
to dip the nose and raise the tail.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
29. At the nodal point in a shaft, the amplitude for torsional vibration will be
A
minimum
.
B. maximum
C
zero
.
D
infinity
.
30. When a body is subjected to transverse vibrations, the stress induced in a body will be
A
shear stress
.
B. bending stress
C
tensile stress
.
D
compressive, stress
.
31. The magnitude of linear velocity of a point B on a link AB relative to point A is (where =
Angular velocity of the link AB)
A
x AB
1203
B. (AB)2
C
2 x AB
.
D
( x AB)2
.
32. A slender shaft supported on two bearings at its ends carries a disc with an
eccentricity e from the axis of rotation. The critical speed of the shaft is Nc. If the disc is
replaced by a second one of same mass but mounted with an eccentricily 2 e, then the critical
speed of the shaft in the second case is
A
Nc/2
.
B. Nc/2
C
Nc
.
D
2 Nc
.
33. The mechanism in which two are turning pairs and two are sliding pairs, is called a
A
double slider crank chain
.
B. elliptical trammel
C
Scotch yoke mechanism
.
D
all of these
.
34. In a multiple V-belt drive, all the belts should stretch at the same rate.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
1204
35. In a reciprocating engine, usually __________ of the reciprocating masses are balanced.
A
one-half
.
B. two-third
C
three-fourth
.
D
whole
.
quadrilateral C Q NO, if N coincides with O, then
A
acceleration and velocity of the piston P is zero
.
B. acceleration and velocity of the piston P is maximum
C
acceleration of the piston P is zero and its velocity is maximum
.
1205
D
acceleration of the piston P is maximum and its velocity is zero
.
37. The velocity of the belt for maximum power is (where m = Mass of the belt in kg per metre
length)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
38. In a band and block brake, the ratio of tensions on tight side and slack side of the band is
(where = Coefficient of friction between the blocks and the drum, = Semi-angle of each
block subtending at the centre of drum, and n = Number of blocks)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
39. When there is a reduction in amplitude over every cycle of vibration, then the body is said to
have
A
free vibration
.
B. forced vibration
1206
C
damped vibration
.
D
under damped vibration
.
40.
In full depth involute system, the smallest number of teeth in a pinion which meshes
with rack without interference is
A
12
.
B. 16
C
25
.
D
32
.
41. In a disc clutch, if there are n1 number of discs on the driving shaft and n2 number of discs on
the driven shaft, then the number of pairs of contact surfaces will be
A
n1 + n2
.
B. n1 + n2 + 1
C
n1 + n2 - 1
.
D
n1 + n2 - 2
.
42. The power of a Porter governor is equal to

A
.
B.
1207
C
.
D
.
43. The effect of swaying couple in a locomotive is resisted by the side pressure between the
flanges of the tyres of the wheel and the inside of the rails.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
44. The Klein's diagram is useful to find

A
displacement of various parts
.
B. velocity of various parts
C
acceleration of various parts
.
D
angular acceleration of various parts
.
45. The equation of motion for a single degree of freedom system with viscous damping
is . The damping ratio of the system is

A
9/8
.
B. 9/82
C
9/16
.
D
9/128
.
46. The ratio of the number of teeth to the pitch circle diameter in millimetres, is called
1208
B. diametral pitch
C
module
.
D
none of these
.
47. The ratio of the pitch circle diameter in millimetres to the number of teeth, is called circular
pitch.
A
Yes
.
B. No
48. The rotating shafts tend to vibrate violently at whirling speeds because
A
the system is unbalanced
.
B. bearing centre line coincides with the axis
C
the shafts are rotating at very high speeds
.
D
resonance is caused due to the heavy mass of the rotor
.
49. Which of the following is an inversion of a double slider crank chain?

A
Oldham's coupling
.
B. Elliptical trammel
C
Scotch yoke mechanism
.
D
all of these
.
50. The unbalanced force due to revolving masses

A
1209
B. varies in direction but constant in magnitude
C
varies in magnitude and direction both
.
D
constant in magnitude and direction both
.

1. The natural frequency of free torsional vibrations of a shaft is equal to (where q = Torsional
stiffness of the shaft, and I = Mass moment of inertia of the disc attached at the end of a
shaft)
A
.
B. 2 qI
C
.
D
.
2. If the rotating mass of a rim type flywheel is distributed on another rim type flywheel whose
mean radius is half the mean radius of the former, then energy stored in the latter at the same
speed will be
A
four times the first one
.
B. same as the first one
C
one fourth of the first one
.
D
one and a half times the first one
.
3. The Grubler's criterion for determining the degrees of freedom (n) of a mechanism having
plane motion is (where l = Number of links, and j = Number of binary joints)
1210
A
n = (l - 1) - j
.
B. n = 2(l - 1) - 2j
C
n = 3(l - 1) - 2j
.
D
n = 4(l - 1) - 3j
.
4. In a Hartnell governor, if a spring of greater stiffness is used, then the governor will be
A
less sensitive
.
B. more sensitive
C
unaffected of sensitivity
.
D
isochronous
.
5. The included angle for the V-belt is usually

A
10 to 20
.
B. 20 to 30
C
30 to 40
.
D
60 to 80
.
6. When two pulleys are connected by means of an open belt drive, then both the pulleys will
rotate is opposite directions.
A
Right
.
1211
B. Wrong
7. A mechanism consisting of four links is called a __________ mechanism.

A
simple
.
B. compound
8. The amplitude of vibration is always __________ the radius of the circle.

A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
9. An involute pinion and gear are in mesh. If both have the same size of addendum, then there
will be an interference between the
A
tip of the gear tooth and flank of pinion
.
B. tip of the pinion and flank of gear
C
flanks of both gear and pinion
.
D
tip of both gear and pinion
.
10. In vibration isolation system, if /n > 1, then the phase difference between the transmitted
force and the disturbing force is
A
0
.
B. 90
C
180
.
1212
D
270
.
11. Which of the following is an inversion of a single slider crank chain?

A
Pendulum pump
.
B. Oscillating cylinder engine
C
Rotary internal combustion engine
.
D
all of these
.
12. A very sensitive governor will cause hunting.

A
True
.
B. False
13. In a radial cam, the follower moves

A
in a direction perpendicular to the cam axis
.
C
in any direction irrespective of the cam axis
.
D
along the cam axis
.
14. The piston slide valve is an inside admission valve.

A
Yes
.
B. No
15. The critical speed of a shaft in revolution per second is __________ as that of natural
1213
frequency of transverse vibration.
A
same
.
B. different
16. Which of the following is a turning pair?

A
Piston and cylinder of a reciprocating steam engine
.
B. Shaft with collars at both ends fitted into a circular hole
C
Lead screw of a lathe with nut
.
D
Ball and a socket joint
.
17. In a simple train of wheels, the velocity ratio __________ the intermediate wheels.
A
depends upon
.
B. is independent of
18. The two elements of a pair are said to form a higher pair, when they
A
have a surface contact when in motion
.
B. have a line or point contact when in motion
C
are kept in contact by the action of external forces, when in motion
.
D
permit relative motion
.
19. The maximum fluctuation of energy is the

A
difference between the maximum and minimum energies
.
1214
B. sum of the maximum and minimum energies
C
variations of energy above and below the mean resisting torque line
.
D
ratio of the mean resisting torque to the workdone per cycle
.
20. The method of obtaining different mechanisms by fixing in turn different links in a kinematic
chain, is known as
A
structure
.
B. machine
C
inversion
.
D
compound mechanism
.
21. In a steam engine, the link constitutes a

A
piston, piston rod and crosshead
.
B. connecting rod with big and small end brasses, caps and bolts
C
crank pin, crankshaft and flywheel
.
D
all of the above
.
22. The secondary unbalanced force is maximum when the angle of inclination of the crank with
the line of stroke is
A
0 and 90
.
B. 180 and 360
1215
C
both (a) and (b)
.
D
none of these
.
23. In a kinematic chain, a quaternary joint is equivalent to

A
one binary joint
.
B. two binary joints
C
three binary joints
.
D
four binary joints
.
24. For dynamic balancing of a shaft

A
the net dynamic force acting on the shaft is equal to zero
.
B. the net couple due to the dynamic forces acting on the shaft is equal to zero
C
both (a) and (b)
.
D
none of the above
.
25. The frictional torque transmitted in a conical pivot bearing, considering uniform pressure, is
(where R = Radius of shaft, and = Semi-angle of the cone)
A
. W R cosec
B.
W R cosec
C
. W R cosec
1216
D
W R cosec
.
26. A railway bridge is an example of a machine.

A
True
.
B. False
27. Scott Russell's mechanism is made up of sliding pair.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
28. Which of the following is an example of a higher pair ?

A
Toothed gearing
.
B. Belt and rope drive
C
Ball and roller bearing
.
D
all of these
.
29. The velocity of a flat-faced follower when it has contact with the flank of a circular arc cam,
is given by
A
R cos
.
B. (R - r1)cos
C
(R - r1)sin
.
1217
D
r1 sin
.
30. Which of the following property of the instantaneous centre is correct ?

A A rigid link rotates instantaneously relative to another link at the instantaneous centre
. for the configuration of the mechanism considered.
The two rigid links have no linear velocity relative to each other at the instantaneous
B.
centre.
The velocity of the instantaneous centre relative to any third rigid link is same whether
C
the instantaneous centre is regarded as a point on the first rigid link or on the second
.
rigid link.
D
all of the above
.
31. Whitworth quick return motion mechanism is an inversion of a double slider crank chain.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
32. The maximum gyroscopic couple acting on the ship tends to shear the holding down bolts.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
33. In a multiple V-belt drive, when a single belt is damaged, it is preferable to change the
complete set to
A
reduce vibration
.
B. reduce slip
C
ensure uniform loading
.
D ensure proper alignment
1218
.
34. A force acting in the opposite direction to the motion of the body is called force of friction.
A
True
.
B. False
35. A shaft has two heavy rotors mounted on it. The transverse natural frequencies, considering
each of the rotor separately, are 100 Hz and 200 Hz respectively. The lowest critical speed is
A
5367 r.p.m.
.
B. 6000 r.p.m.
C
9360 r.p.m.
.
D
12000 r.p.m.
.
36. The acceleration of piston in a reciprocating steam engine is given by (where = Angular
velocity of crank, r = Radius of crank pin circle, = Angle turned by crank from inner dead
centre, and n = Ratio of length of connecting rod to the radius of crank)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
37. Torsional vibrations are said to occur when the particles of a body moves
A perpendicular to its axis
1219
.
B. parallel to its axis
C
in a circle about its axis
.
D
none of these
.
38. A body is said to vibrate with simple harmonic motion if its acceleration is proportional to
the distance from the mean position.
A
Yes
.
B. No
39. For the isochronous Porter governor, the controlling force curve is a straight line passing
through the origin.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
40. The virtual or equivalent eccentric for the Meyer's expansion valve is defined as an eccentric
having such a length and angle of advance that will cause cut-off to take place at the same
position, as is caused by the combined effect of main eccentric and expansion eccentric.
A
Right
.
B. Wrong
41. The uniform pressure theory gives a higher frictional torque than the uniform wear theory.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
42. The centrifugal tension on the belt has no effect on the power transmitted.
A Correct
1220
.
B. Incorrect
43. The train value of a gear train is

A
equal to velocity ratio of a gear train
.
B. reciprocal of velocity ratio of a gear train
C
always greater than unity
.
D
always less than unity
.
quadrilateral C Q NO. The acceleration of the piston P with respect to the crankpin C is
given by
A
2 x NO
.
B. 2 x CO
1221
C
2 x CN
.
D
2 x QN
.
45. The driving and driven shafts connected by a Hooke's joint will have equal speeds, if
A
cos = sin
.
B. sin = tan
C
tan = cos
.
D
cot = cos
.
46. The product of the diametral pitch and circular pitch is equal to
A
1
.
B. 1/
C

.
D
2
.
47. The coriolis component of acceleration is taken into account for

A
slider crank mechanism
.
B. four bar chain mechanism
C
quick return motion mechanism
.
1222
D
all of these
.
48. The flank of the tooth is the surface of the tooth __________ the pitch surface.
A
above
.
B. below
49. The frictional torque transmitted in a flat collar bearing, considering uniform wear, is
(where r1 and r2 = External and internal radii of collar respectively)
A
. W (r1 + r2)
B.
W (r1 + r2)
C
.
D
.
50. The inertia force is equal to the accelerating force in magnitude, but opposite in direction.
A
Right
.
B. Wrong

1. A slider moving on a fixed link having constant radius of curvature will have its
instantaneous centre at the centre of the circle.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
2. According to Kennedy's theorem, if three bodies move relatively to each other, their
1223
instantaneous centres will lie on a
A
straight line
.
B. parabolic curve
C
triangle
.
D
rectangle
.
3. The tangential component of acceleration of the slider with respect to the coincident point on
the link is called coriolis component of acceleration.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
4. The periodic time is given by (where = Angular velocity of the particle in rad/s)
A
/2
.
B. 2/
C
x 2
.
D
/
.
5. When two links are connected by a pin joint, their instantaneous centre lies
A
on their point of contact
.
B. at the centre of curvature
C
at the centre of circle
.
1224
D
at the pin joint
.
6. The direction of linear velocity of any point on a link with respect to another point on the
same link is
A
parallel to the link joining the points
.
B. perpendicular to the link joining the points
C
at 45 to the link joining the points
.
D
none of the above
.
7. In a differential band brake as shown in the below figure, the drum rotates anticlockwise and
the greater tension T1 acts at A and smaller tension T2 at B. Length OA is greater than
length OB. In order to apply the brake, the force P at C should
A
be zero
.
B. act in upward direction
C
act in downward direction
.
D none of the above
1225
.
8. The periodic time of a compound pendulum is __________ when the distance between the
point of suspension and the centre of gravity is equal to the radius of gyration of the body
about its centre of gravity.
A
zero
.
B. minimum
C
maximum
.
9. When the pitching of a ship is upward, the effect of gyroscopic couple acting on it will be
A
to move the ship towards star-board
.
B. to move the ship towards port side
C
to raise the bow and lower the stern
.
D
to raise the stern and lower the bow
.
10. The unbalanced force due to reciprocating masses

A
varies in magnitude but constant in direction
.
B. varies in direction but constant in magnitude
C
varies in magnitude and direction both
.
D
constant in magnitude and direction both
.
11. When the addenda on pinion and wheel is such that the path of approach and path of recess
are half of their maximum possible values, then the length of the path of contact is given by
(where r = Pitch circle radius of pinion, R = Pitch circle radius of wheel, and = Pressure
angle)
1226
B.
C
.
D
.
12. The periodic time of one oscillation for a simple pendulum is

A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
13.
The relation l = (j + 2) apply only to kinematic chains in which lower pairs are used. This
may be used to kinematic chains in which higher pairs are used, but each higher pair may be
taken as equivalent to
A
one lower pair and two additional links
.
B. two lower pairs and one additional link
C
two lower pairs and two additional links
.
D
any one of these
.
14. According to law of gearing, the common normal at the point of contact between a pair of
teeth must always pass through the pitch point.
A
Yes
.
1227
B. No
15. The motion between a pair which takes place in __________ is known as incompletely
constrained motion.
A
one direction only
.
B. more than one direction
16.
The equation of free vibrations of a system is , Its natural frequency is
A
3 Hz
.
B. 3 Hz
C
6 Hz
.
D
6 Hz
.
17. When the primary direct crank of a reciprocating engine makes an angle of with the line of
stroke, then the secondary direct crank will make an angle of __________ with the line of
stroke.
A
/2
.
B.
C
2
.
D
4
.
18. The frequency of oscillation of a compound pendulum is

A
.
1228
B.
C
.
D
.
19. The relation between number of links (l) and number of joints (j) in a kinematic chain is
A
. l= (j + 2)
B.
l= (j + 2)
C
. l= (j + 3)
D
l=j+4
.
20. Two heavy rotating masses are connected by shafts of lengths l1, l2 and l3 and the
corresponding diameters are d1, d2 and d3. This system is reduced to a torsionally equivalent
system having uniform diameter d = d1 of the shaft. The equivalent length of the shaft is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
l1 + l2 + l3
.
21. In a simple train of wheels, if the number of intermediate wheels is odd, the motion of the
1229
follower will be same as that of the driver.
A
Yes
.
B. No
22. Which of the following is a pendulum type governor?

A
Watt governor
.
B. Porter governor
C
Hartnell governor
.
D
none of these
.
23. The angle of inclination of the plane, at which the body begins to move down the plane is
called
A
angle of friction
.
B. angle of repose
C
angle of projection
.
D
none of these
.
24. The critical speed of a shaft with a disc supported in between is equal to the natural
frequency of the system in
A
transverse vibrations
.
B. torsional vibrations
1230
C
longitudinal vibrations
.
D
all of these
.
25. The centre of gravity of a coupler link in a four bar mechanism will experience
A
no acceleration
.
B. only linear acceleration
C
only angular acceleration
.
D
both linear and angular acceleration
.
26. The frictional torque transmitted in a flat pivot bearing, considering uniform pressure, is
(where = Coefficient of friction, W = Load over the bearing, and R = Radius of bearing
surface)
A
. WR
B.
WR
C
. WR
D
WR
.
27. In Meyer's expansion valve, the main valve is driven by an eccentric having an angle of
advance from
A
10 - 15
.
B. 15 - 25
1231
C
25 - 30
.
D
30 - 40
.
28. A kinematic chain is known as a mechanism when

A
none of the links is fixed
.
B. one of the links is fixed
C
two of the links are fixed
.
D
none of these
.
29. When the pitching of a ship is __________ the effect of gyroscopic couple acting on it will
be to move the ship towards port side.
A
upward
.
B. downward
30. There are six gears A, B, C, D, E and F in a compound train. The numbers of teeth in the
gears are 20, 60, 30, 80, 25 and 75 respectively. The ratio of angular speeds of the driven (F)
to the driver (A) of the drive is
A
1/24
.
B. 1/8
C
4/15
.
D
12
.
31. The Klein's diagram is used when

A
crank has uniform angular velocity
1232
B. crank has non-uniform angular velocity
C
crank has uniform angular accleration
.
D
crank has non-uniform angular acceleration
.
32. The minimum periodic time of a compound pendulum is

A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
33. An imaginary circle which by pure rolling action, gives the same motion as the actual gear, is
called
A
addendum circle
.
B. dedendum circle
C
pitch circle
.
D
clearance circle
.

For constant velocity ratio transmission between two gears, the common normal at the
A
point of contact must always pass through a fixed point on the line joining the centres
.
of rotation of gears.
1233
For involute gears, the pressure angle changes with the change in centre distance
B.
between gears.
C The epicyclic gear trains involve rotation of at least one gear axis about some other
. gear axis.
D
all of the above
.
35. A mechanism consisting of more than four links is called a compound mechanism.
A
True
.
B. False
36. The natural frequency of free transverse vibrations is same as that of free longitudinal
vibrations.
A
Right
.
B. Wrong
37. The throw of the eccentric is equal to the valve travel.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
38. The addendum is the radial distance of tooth from the pitch circle to the top of the tooth.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
39. A disc is a spinning with an angular velocity rad/s about the axis of spin. The couple
applied to the disc causing precession will be (where I = Mass moment of inertia of the disc,
and P = Angular velocity of precession of the axis of spin)
A
. I2
1234
B. I2
C
. IP
D
IP
.
40. The height of a Watt's governor (in metres) is equal to (where N = Speed of the arm and ball
about the spindle axis)
A
8.95/N2
.
B. 89.5/N2
C
895/N2
.
D
8950/N2
.
41. V-belts are usually used for

A
long drives
.
B. short drives
C
long and short drives
.
D
none of these
.
42. Sensitiveness of the governor is defined as the ratio of the

A
mean speed to the maximum equilibrium speed
.
B. mean speed to the minimum equilibrium speed
1235
C
difference of the maximum and minimum equilibrium speeds to the mean speed
.
D
sum of the maximum and minimum equilibrium speeds to the mean speed
.
43. The two parallel and coplaner shafts are connected by gears having teeth parallel to the axis
of the shaft. This arrangement is known as
A
spur gearing
.
B. helical gearing
C
bevel gearing
.
D
spiral gearing
.
44. The relative velocity of B with respect to A in a rigid link AB is

A
parallel to AB
.
B. perpendicular to AB
C
along AB
.
D
at 45 to AB
.
45. In a pantograph, all the pairs are

A
turning pairs
.
B. sliding pairs
C
spherical pairs
.
1236
D
self-closed pairs
.
46. The velocity of a body moving with simple harmonic motion is __________ at the mean
position.
A
zero
.
B. minimum
C
maximum
.
47. A rotor which is balanced statically but not dynamically is supported on two bearings L apart
and at high speed of the rotor, reaction on the left bearing is R. The right side of the bearing
is shifted to a new position 2 L apart from the left bearing. At the same rotor speed, dynamic
reaction on the left bearing in the new arrangement will
A
remain same as before
.
B. become equal to 2 R
C
become equal to R/2
.
D
become equal to R/4
.
48. If the pressure angle is __________ , a reciprocating follower will jam in its bearings.
A
too small
.
B. too large
49. The D-slide valve is also known as

A
inside admission valve
.
B. outside admission valve
1237
C
piston slide valve
.
D
none of these
.
50. When the load on the engine increases, it becomes necessary to increase the supply of
working fluid and when the load decreases, less working fluid is required. The supply of the
working fluid to the engine is controlled by a
A
D-slide valve
.
B. governor
C
Meyer's expansion valve
.
D
flywheel
.

A
The primary unbalanced force is less than the secondary unbalanced force.
.
B. The primary unbalanced force is maximum twice in one revolution of the crank.
C The unbalanced force due to reciprocating masses varies in magnitude and direction
. both.
D The magnitude of swaying couple in locomotives is inversely proportional to the

. distance between the two cylinder centre lines
2. The magnitude of velocities of the points on a rigid link is

A directly proportional to the distance from the points to the instantaneous centre and is
. parallel to the line joining the point to the instantaneous centre
B. directly proportional to the distance from the points to the instantaneous centre and is
1238
perpendicular to the line joining the point to the instantaneous centre
C inversely proportional to the distance from the points to the instantaneous centre and
. is parallel to the line joining the point to the instantaneous centre
D inversely proportional to the distance from the points to the instantaneous centre and
. is perpendicular to the line joining the point to the instantaneous centre
3. A pendulum type governor is a Watt governor.

A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
4. In a single slider crank chain

A
each of the four pairs is a turning pair
.
B. one is a turning pair and three are sliding pairs
C
two are turning pairs and two are sliding pairs
.
D
three are turning pairs and one is a sliding pair
.
5. The mechanism consisting of three turning pairs and one sliding pair, is called a
A
single slider crank chain
.
B. Whitworth quick return motion mechanism
C
crank and slotted lever quick return motion mechanism
.
D
all of the above
.
6. A system of masses rotating in different parallel planes is in dynamic balance if the

A
resultance force is equal to zero
.
1239
B. resultant couple is equal to zero
C
resultant force and resultant couple are both equal to zero
.
D resultant force is numerically equal to the resultant couple, but neither of them need
. necessarily be zero
7. The velocity of sliding __________ the distance of the point of contact from the pitch point.
A
is directly proportional to
.
B. is inversely proportional to
C
is equal to cos multiplied by
.
D
does not depend upon
.
8. The radial distance from the top of a tooth to the bottom of a tooth in a meshing gear, is
called
A
dedendum
.
B. addendum
C
clearance
.
D
working depth
.
9. A simple spring-mass vibrating system has a natural frequency of fn. If the spring stiffness is
halved and the mass is doubled, then the natural frequency will become
A
fn/2
.
B. 2 fn
1240
C
4 fn
.
D
8 fn
.
10. The frictional torque transmitted in a truncated conical pivot bearing, considering uniform
pressure, is
A
. W cosec (r1 + r2)
B.
W cosec (r1 + r2)
C
. W cosec
D
. W cosec
11. The axis of precession is __________ to the plane in which the axis of spin is going to rotate.
A
parallel
.
B. perpendicular
12. Bifilar suspension method is used to find the

A
angular acceleration of the body
.
B. moment of inertia of the body
C
periodic time of the body
.
D
frequency of vibration of the body
.
13. The equation of motion for a vibrating system with viscous damping is
1241
If the roots of this equation are real, then the system will be
A
overdamped
.
B. under damped
C
critically damped
.
D
without vibrations
.
14. The motion between a pair when limited to a definite direction, irrespective of the direction
of force applied, is known as
A
completely constrained motion
.
B. incompletely constrained motion
C
successfully constrained motion
.
D
none of these
.
15. The motion of a shaft in a circular hole is an example of

A
completely constrained motion
.
B. incompletely constrained motion
C
successfully constrained motion
.
D
none of these
.
16. A spring controlled governor is said to be unstable when the controlling force
A
increases as the radius of rotation decreases
1242
B. increases as the radius of rotation increases
C
decreases as the radius of rotation increases
.
D
remains constant for all radii of rotation
.
17. The equivalent length of a simple pendulum depends upon the distance between the point of
suspension and the centre of gravity.
A
True
.
B. False
18. Balancing of rotating and reciprocating parts of an engine is necessary when it runs at
A
slow speed
.
B. moderate speed
C
highs peed
.
D
any one of these
.
19. When the nature of contact between the elements of a pair is such that one element can turn
about the other by screw threads, the pair is known as a
A
screw pair
.
B. spherical pair
C
turning pair
.
D
sliding pair
.
1243
20. In a locomotive, the resultant unbalanced force due to the two cylinders along the line of
stroke, is known as
A
tractive force
.
B. swaying couple
C
hammer blow
.
D
none of these
.
21. When no external force acts on a body, after giving it an initial displacement, the body is said
to have free vibrations.
A
True
.
B. False
22. Which of the following is an example of sliding pair?

A
Piston and cylinder of a reciprocating steam engine
.
B. Shaft with collars at both ends fitted into a circular hole
C
Lead screw of a lathe with nut
.
D
Ball and a socket joint
.
23. The coriolis component of acceleration exists whenever apoint moves along a path that has
A
linear displacement
.
B. rotational motion
1244
C
gravitational acceleration
.
D
tangential acceleration
.
24. In a steam engine, the distance by which the inner edge of the D-slide valve overlaps the
steam port is called lead.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
25. A shaft of mass (mc)and stiffness (s) is fixed at one end and carries a mass (m) at the other
end. The natural frequency of its transverse vibration is same as for longitudinal vibration.
A
Yes
.
B. No
26. The ratio of height of Porter governor (when length of arms and links are equal) to the height
of Watt's governor is (where m = Mass of the ball, and M = Mass on the sleeve)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
27. The distance by which the __________ of the D-slide valve overlaps the steam port is called
exhaust lap.
A
inner edge
.
B. outer edge
1245
28. The stress induced in a body will be shear stress, when it is subjected to
A
longitudinal vibrations
.
B. transverse vibrations
C
torsional vibrations
.
D
none of these
.
29. A machine mounted on a single coil spring has a period of free vibration of tp . If the spring is
cut into four equal parts and placed in parallel and the machine is mounted on them, then the
period of free vibration of the new system will become
A
tp/16
.
B. tp/4
C
4 tp
.
D
16 tp
.
30. When a body is subjected to longitudinal vibrations, the stress induced in a body will be
tensile or compressive stress.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
31. If the number of links in a mechanism are equal to l, then the number of possible inversions
are equal to
A
l-2
.
B. l - 1
1246
C
l
.
D
l+1
.
32. Effort of a governor is the

A
mean force exerted at the sleeve for a given percentage change of speed
.
B. workdone at the sleeve for maximum equilibrium speed
C
mean force exerted at the sleeve for maximum equilibrium speed
.
D
none of the above
.
33. The pressure angle for involute gears depends upon the size of teeth.
A
Right
.
B. Wrong
34. The maximum displacement of a body, from its mean position is called amplitude.
A
True
.
B. False
35. In a reciprocating steam engine, when the crank has turned from inner dead centre through an
angle , the angular velocity of the connecting rod is given by
A
.
B.
1247
C
.
D
.
36. The total number of instantaneous centres for a mechanism consisting of n links are
A
n/2
.
B. n
C
n-1
.
D
n(n - 1)/2
.
37. The acceleration of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion, at any instant is given
by
A
x
.
B. 2x
C
2/x
.
D
3/x
.
38. The partial balancing means

A
balancing partially revolving masses
.
B. balancing partially reciprocating masses
C
best balancing of engines
.
1248
D
all of these
.
39. Which of the following statement is correct as regard to the difference between a machine
and a structure?
A The parts of a machine move relative to one another, whereas the members of a
. structure do not move relative to one another
The links of a machine may transmit both power and motion, whereas the members of
B.
a structure transmit forces only
C A machine transforms the available energy into some useful work, whereas in a
. structure no energy is transformed into useful work
D
all of the above
.
40. The coriolis component of acceleration depends upon

A
velocity of slider
.
B. angular velocity of the link
C
both (a) and (b)
.
D
none of these
.
41. A mechanism __________ for transmitting or transforming motion.

A
can be used
.
B. cannot be used
42. The distance moved by the valve from one end to the other end is called valve travel.
A
True
.
B. False
1249
43. The Klein's method of construction for reciprocating engine mechanism
A
is a simplified version of instantaneous centre method
.
B. utilises a quadrilateral similar to the diagram of mechanism for reciprocating engine
C
enables determination of coriolis component
.
D
is based on the acceleration diagram
.
44. A Watt's governor is a spring loaded governor.

A
Yes
.
B. No
45. The velocity of the rubbing surface __________ with the distance from the axis of the
bearing.
A
increases
.
B. decreases
46. The brake commonly used in railway trains is

A
shoe brake
.
B. band brake
C
band and block brake
.
D
internal expanding brake
.
47. The face of the tooth is the

A
1250
B. surface of tooth above the pitch surface
C
width of tooth below the pitch surface
.
D
width of tooth measured along the pitch circle
.
48. A Hartnell governor has its controlling force (Fc) given by Fc = ar + b, where r is the radius
of rotation and a and bare constants. The governor becomes isochronous when
A
a is + ve and b = 0
.
B. a = 0 and b is + ve
C
a is + ve and b is - ve
.
D
a is + ve and b is also + ve
.
49. The acceleration of the particle moving with simple harmonic motion is __________ at the
mean position.
A
zero
.
B. minimum
C
maximum
.
50. In a differential band brake as shown in the below figure, if the length OB is greater than OA,
then the force P at C should act in the downward direction.
1251
A
Yes
.
B. No
16. Workshop Technology
Workshop Technology - Section 1

1. Surface plate is used to check the trueness of flat surfaces.
A
True
.
B. False
2. A zinc diffusion process is called

A
galvanising
.
B. anodising
C
parkerising
.
D
sherardizing
.
1252
3. The accuracy of micrometers, calipers, dial indicators can be checked by a
A
feeler gauge
.
B. slip gauge
C
ring gauge
.
D
plug gauge
.
4. The type of file used for a wood work is

A
single-cut file
.
B. double cut file
C
rasp-cut file
.
D
any one of these
.
5. A taper provided on the pattern for its easy and clean withdrawal from the mould is known as
A
machining allowance
.
B. draft allowance
C
shrinkage allowance
.
D
distortion allowance
.
6. In arc welding, the electric arc is produced between the work and the electrode by
A
voltage
.
1253
B. flow of current
C
contact resistance
.
D
all of these
.
7. In a centrifugal casting method

A
core is made of sand
.
B. core is made of ferrous metal
C
core is made of non-ferrous metal
.
D
no core is used
.
8. The draft or taper allowance on casting is generally

A
1 to 2 mm/m
.
B. 2 to 5 mm/m
C
5 to 10 mm/m
.
D
10 to 15 mm/m
.
9. Which of the following welding process uses non-consumable electrodes?

A
TIG welding
.
B. MIG welding
C Manual arc welding
1254
.
D
Submerged arc welding
.
10. In a bilateral system of tolerance, the tolerance is allowed on

A
.
C
.
D
.
11. In a hot chamber die casting machine

A
ferrous alloys with low melting temperature are casted
.
B. ferrous alloys with high melting temperature are casted
C
non-ferrous alloys with low melting temperature are casted
.
D
non-ferrous alloys with high melting temperature are casted
.
12. The chisel used for cutting key ways is

A
flat chisel
.
B. cape chisel
C
round nose chisel
.
D diamond pointed chisel
1255
.
13. The temperature at which the new grains are formed in the metal is called
A
lower critical temperature
.
B. upper critical temperature
C
eutectic temperature
.
D
recrystallisation temperature
.
14. Thread rolling is restricted to

A
ferrous materials
.
C
hard materials
.
D
none of these
.
15. In sheet metal blanking, shear is provided on punches and dies so that
A
press load is reduced
.
B. good cut edge is obtained
C
warping of sheet is minimised
.
D
cut blanks are straight
.
16. In welding copper alloys with TIG arc welding

A
direct current with straight polarity is used
.
1256
B. direct current with reversed polarity is used
C
alternating current is used
.
D
any one of these
.
17. The algebraic difference between the minimum limit and the basic size is called
A
actual deviation
.
B. upper deviation
C
lower deviation
.
D
fundamental deviation
.
18. The temperature of oxy-hydrogen flame is __________ oxy-acetylene flame.

A
same as
.
B. less than
C
more than
.
19. Which of the following methods can be used for manufacturing 2 metre long seamless
metallic tubes?
A
Drawing
.
B. Extrusion
C
Rolling
.
1257
D
Extrusion and rolling
.
20. A saw which cuts wood during the return stroke of the saw is known as
A
push saw
.
B. pull saw or draw saw
21. The low pressure acetylene is produced at the welding site by the chemical reaction between
water and calcium carbonate.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
22. The fullers are used

A
for finishing flat surfaces
.
B. for necking down a piece of work
C
for punching a hole
.
D
to finish the punched hole
.
23. The cold chisels are made by

A
drawing
.
B. rolling
C
piercing
.
D
forging
.
1258
24. The property of sand due to which it evolves a great amount of steam and other gases is
called
A
collapsibility
.
B. permeability
C
cohesiveness
.
D
adhesiveness
.
25. The centrifugal casting method, is used for casting articles of

A
symmetrical shape about vertical axis
.
B. symmetrical shape about horizontal axis
C
irregular shape
.
D
non-ferrous metal only
.
26. Metal patterns are used for

A
small castings
.
B. large castings
C
complicated castings
.
D
large scale production of castings
.
27. The instrument which has all the features of try-square, bevel protractor, rule and scriber, is
A
outside micrometer
.
1259
B. inside micrometer
C
depth gauge micrometer
.
D
combination set
.
28. When a hole or cavity to be cored is not in line with the parting surface, then a __________
is used.
A
horizontal core
.
B. vertical core
C
drop core
.
D
balanced core
.
29. The bloom is smaller than a billet.

A
True
.
B. False
30. In average work, the tolerance produced by investment casting method is

A
0.05 mm
.
B. +0.2 mm
C
+05 mm
.
D
+1 mm
.
31. The purpose of a riser is to

A
1260
B. act as a reservoir for the molten metal
C
feed the molten metal to the casting in order to compensate for the shrinkage
.
D
deliver the molten metal from pouring basin to gate
.
32. The blank diameter used in thread rolling will be

A
equal to minor diameter of the thread
.
B. equal to pitch diameter of the thread
C
a little larger than the minor diameter of the thread
.
D
a little larger than the pitch diameter of the thread
.
33. The cross-section of a chisel is usually

A
rectangular
.
B. square
C
hexagonal
.
D
octagonal
.
34. A plug gauge is used to check the diameter of shafts and studs.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
35. In back-hand welding, the angle between the welding torch and the work is kept as
A
30-40
.
1261
B. 40-50
C
50-60
.
D
60-70
.
36. The machining allowance provided on patterns depends upon

A
type of casting metal
.
B. size and shape of casting
C
method of casting used
.
D
all of these
.
37. In submerged arc welding, an arc is produced between a

A
carbon electrode and the work
.
B. metal electrode and the work
C
bare metal electrode and the work
.
D
two tungsten electrodes and the work
.
38. In shielded arc welding

A
large electrode is used
.
B. welding rod coated with slag is used
C welding rod coated with fluxing material is used
1262
.
D
none of the above
.
39. In a die casting method, the molten metal is forced into mould under high pressure.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
40. In a centrifugal casting method, the impurities are collected in the centre of the casting.
A
Yes
.
B. No
41. In a hot chamber die casting machine

A
melting pot is separate from the machine
.
B. melting pot is an integral part of the machine
C
melting pot may have any location
.
D
high temperature and pressure is used
.
42. The electrodes used in spot welding have a tip of

A
stainless steel
.
B. aluminium
C
copper
.
D brass
1263
.
43. Blanking and piercing operations can be performed simultaneously in a

A
simple die
.
B. progressive die
C
compound die
.
D
combination die
.
44. A pattern maker's shrinkage rule considers

A
all pattern allowances
.
B. only shrinkage allowance
C
all materials to be cast
.
D
all materials of the pattern
.
45. The tolerance produced by shell moulding process of casting is

A
+0.05 mm
.
B. 0.2 mm
C
+0.5 mm
.
D
1 mm
.
46. Galvanising is a
A
zinc diffusion process
.
1264
B. process of coating zinc by hot dipping
C
process used for making thin phosphate coating on steel
.
D
none of the above
.
47. The ferrous metals require more machining allowance than non-ferrous metals.
A
True
.
B. False
48. In a four high rolling mill, there are four rolls out of which
A
one is working roll and three are backing up rolls
.
B. two are working rolls and two are backing up rolls
C
three are working rolls and one is backing up roll
.
D
all of the four are working rolls
.
49. When a pattern is made in three parts, the bottom part is known as a cope.
A
True
.
B. False
50. In __________ welding, the weld may be made either from left to right or from right to left.
A
fore-hand
.
B. back-hand
C vertical
1265
.

1. In a unilateral system of tolerance, the tolerance is allowed on
A
.
C
.
D
.
2. A two high rolling mill consists of two rolls which rotate

A
at the same speed and in the same direction
.
B. at the same speed but in opposite direction
C
at different speeds and in the same direction
.
D
at different speeds and in the opposite direction
.
3. Carburising flame is used to weld

A
steel, cast iron, copper, aluminium etc
.
B. brass and bronze
C
hard surfacing materials such as stellite
.
1266
D
all of these
.
4. The electrode tip diameter (d) in spot welding should be equal to (where t = Thickness of
plate to be welded)
A
t
.
B. 1.5 t
C
3t
.
D
6t
.
5. For obtaining a cup of diameter 25 mm and height 15 mm by drawing, the size of the round
blank should be approximately
A
42 mm
.
B. 44 mm
C
46 mm
.
D
48 mm
.
6. Cores are used to

A
form internal cavities in the casting
.
B. improve mould surface
C
form a part of a green sand mould
.
1267
D
all of these
.
7. The drawing down is a process of __________ the cross-section of a bar.

A
increasing
.
B. reducing
8. During hot working of metals

A
poor surface finish is produced
.
B. scale is formed on the metal surface
C
close tolerances can not be maintained
.
D
all of these
.
9. When a pattern is made in three parts, the __________ is known as a drag.

A
bottom part
.
B. middle part
C
top part
.
10. Shrinkage allowance is made by adding to external dimensions and subtracting from internal
dimensions.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
11. A jolt machine is used to

A ram the sand harder at the pattern face with decreasing hardness towards the back of
. the mould
1268
B. ram the sand harder at the back of the mould and softer on the pattern face
C
produce uniform sand hardness throughout the mould
.
D
produce uniform packing of sand in the mould
.
12. If the sand is too fine, its permeability will be high.

A
True
.
B. False

A
The mortise gauge has two scribing pins.
.
B. The gouges are chisels with a hollow shaped blade.
C
An auger is a planing tool
.
D
all of these
.
14. In a compound die

A
only one operation is performed at each stroke of the ram
.
B. two or more operations are performed simultaneously at the single stroke of the ram
C two or more cutting operations are performed at one station of the press in every
. stroke of the ram
D both cutting and non-cutting operations are performed at one station of the press in
. every stroke of the ram
15. A file removes the metal during

A
forward stroke
.
1269
B. return stroke
C
both forward and return strokes
.
D
none of these
.
16. In spot welding, the spacing between two spot weld should not be less than
A
d
.
B. 1.5 d
C
3d
.
D
6d
.
17. Aluminium is the best material for making patterns because it is

A
light in weight
.
B. easy to work
C
corrosion resistant
.
D
all of these
.
18. Gagger is used for cleaning the moulding sand.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
19. In sheet metal work, the cutting force on the tool can be reduced by
A
grinding the cutting edges sharp
.
1270
B. increasing the hardness of tool
C
providing shear on tool
.
D
increasing the hardness of die
.
20. In order to get uniform thickness of the plate by rolling process, one provides
A
camber on the rolls
.
B. offset on the rolls
C
hardening of the rolls
.
D
antifriction bearings
.
21. A pouring basin acts as a reservoir for the molten metal.

A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
22. In bending operation, the metal takes the shape of a punch.

A
Yes
.
B. No
23. The cold working of metals is carried out

A
at the recrystallisation temperature
.
B. below the recrystallisation temperature
C above the recrystallisation temperature
1271
.
D
at any temperature
.
24. Lancing is the operation of

A
cutting a sheet of metal in a straight line along the length
.
B. removal of metal to the desired shape from the edge of a plate
C
cutting a sheet of metal through part of its length and then bending the cut portion
.
D
bending a sheet of metal along a curved axis
.
25. Notching is the operation of

A
cutting a sheet of metal in a straight line along the length
.
B. removal of metal to the desired shape from the edge of a plate
C
cutting a sheet of metal through part of its length and then bending the cut portion
.
D
bending a sheet of metal along a curved axis
.
26. The shrinkage allowance for cast iron pattern is

A
10 mm/m
.
B. 16 mm/m
C
20 mm/m
.
D 26 mm/m
1272
.
27. An oxidising flame is obtained when equal volumes of oxygen and acetylene are supplied.
A
True
.
B. False
28. A neutral flame is obtained by supplying

A
equal volumes of oxygen and acetylene
.
B. more volume of oxygen and less volume of acetylene
C
more volume of acetylene and less volume of oxygen
.
D
none of the above
.
29. An oxidising process used for aluminium and magnesium articles is called
A
galvanising
.
B. anodising
C
parkerising
.
D
sheradising
.
30. For welding plates of thickness less than 5 mm, its edges
A
do not require bevelling
.
B. should be bevelled to a single-V or U-groove
C should have a double-V or U-groove on one side
1273
.
D
should have a double-V or U-groove on both sides
.
31. In order to cut mild steel, the cutting angle of chisel should be
A
30
.
B. 45
C
50
.
D
60
.
32. The operation of straightening a curved sheet metal, is known as

A
drawing
.
B. squeezing
C
coining
.
D
planishing
.
33. The correct sequence for preparing a billet for extrusion process is pickling, alkaline
cleaning, phosphate coating and lubricating with reactive soap.
A
Yes
.
B. No
34. Tandem drawing of wires and tubes is necessary because

A
it is not possible to reduce at one stage
.
1274
B. annealing is needed between stages
C
accuracy in dimensions is not possible otherwise
.
D
surface finish improves after every drawing stage
.
35. In a __________ , both cutting and non-cutting operations are performed at one station of the
press in every stroke of the ram.
A
simple die
.
B. progressive die
C
combination die
.
D
compound die
.
36. Cold working requires much higher pressure that hot working.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
37. The operation of bending a sheet of metal along a curved axis, is known as
A
plunging
.
B. notching
C
slitting
.
D
forming
.
38. In a __________ , two or more operations are performed simultaneously at the single stroke
1275
of the ram.
A
simple die
.
B. progressive die
C
combination die
.
D
compound die
.
39. A rip saw

A
is a two man saw
.
B. is used for cutting along the grains of wood
C
has a narrow blade with two wooden handles
.
D
all of the above
.
40. The welding set up is said to have reversed polarity when the work is connected to the
negative terminal and the electrode holder to the positive terminal.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
41. For welding plates of thickness more than 12.5 mm, its edges
A
do not require bevelling
.
B. should be bevelled to a single-V or U-groove
C
should have a double-V or U-groove on one side
.
1276
D
should have a double-V or U-groove on both sides
.
42. In electric resistance welding, voltage required for heating is

A
1 to 5 volts
.
B. 6 to 10 volts
C
11 to 20 volts
.
D
50 to 100 volts
.
43. Most of the oxy-acetylene welding is done with

A
neutral flame
.
B. oxidising flame
C
carburising flame
.
D
all of these
.
44. The cutting edge of a chisel should be

A
hardened
.
B. tempered
C
hardened and tempered
.
D
case hardened
.
45. Scab is a casting defect which occurs as sand patches on the upper surface of a casting.
A
1277
B. False
46. In order to check the clearance between two mating surfaces, a __________ gauge should be
used.
A
ring
.
B. plug
C
feeler
.
47. When the weld is made from left to right, it is known as back-hand welding.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
48. The current in electric resistance welding can be regulated by

A
varying the input supply
.
B. changing the primary turns of the transformer
C
changing the secondary turns of the transformer
.
D
.
49. In a cold chamber die casting machine, only non-ferrous alloys with __________ are casted.
A
low melting temperature
.
B. high melting temperature
50. A mortise gauge is a

A
striking tool
.
1278
B. planing tool
C
boring tool
.
D
marking tool
.

1. The casting method adopted for ornaments and toys of non-ferrous alloys, is
A
permanent mould casting
.
B. slush casting
C
die casting
.
D
centrifugal casting
.
2. In a cold chamber die casting machine

A
melting pot is separate from the machine
.
B. melting pot is an integral part of the machine
C
melting pot may have any location
.
D
low temperature and pressure is used
.
3. Structural sections such as rails, angles, I-beams are made by

A
hot rolling
.
B. hot drawing
1279
C
hot piercing
.
D
hot extrusion
.
4. The minimum size of a billet is 10 cm x 10 cm.

A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
5. In welding magnesium with TIG arc welding, direct current with __________ is used.
A
straight polarity
.
B. reversed polarity
6. Cutting and forming operations can be performed in a single operation in a

A
simple die
.
B. progressive die
C
compound die
.
D
combination die
.
7. The teeth of hacksaw blade are bent

A
towards right
.
B. towards left
C alternately towards right and left and every third or fourth left straight
1280
.
D
may be bent in any direction
.
8. In a cold chamber die casting machine, a measured quantity of molten metal is brought in a
ladle from the melting pot to a chamber and forced into the closed die-section by applying
hydraulic pressure upon the plunger.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
9. For cutting brass, the hacksaw blade should have __________ teeth per 25 mm.
A
14
.
B. 24
C
32
.
D
40
.
10. A casting defect which occurs near the ingates as rough lumps on the surface of a casting is
known as
A
shift
.
B. sand wash
C
swell
.
D
scab
.
11. The cold chisels are made from

A cast iron
1281
.
B. mild steel
C
high speed steel
.
D
cast tool steel
.
12. To prevent the body of the blade from jamming in the saw cut, the teeth of blade are
A
strengthened
.
B. sharpened
C
set
.
D
all of these
.
13. A ring gauge is used to

A
check the diameter of shafts or studs
.
B. test the accuracy of holes
C
check the clearance between two mating surfaces
.
D
all of the above
.
14. A casting defect which results in general enlargement of a casting is known as

A
shift
.
B. sand wash
1282
C
swell
.
D
scab
.
15. Rotary swaging

A
is extensively used for making bolts and rivets
.
is used for reducing the diameters of round bars and tubes by rotating dies which open
B.
and close rapidly on the work
C is used to improve fatigue resistance of the metal by setting up compressive stresses in

. its surface
D consists of pressing the metal inside a chamber to force it out by high pressure through
. an orifice which is shaped to provide the desired form of the finished part
16. The operation of cutting a number of holes evenly spaced in a regular pattern on a sheet of
metal is. called perforating.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
17. The metal is subjected to mechanical working for

A
refining grain size
.
B. reducing original block into desired shape
C
controlling the direction of flow lines
.
D
all of these
.
18. During hot working of metals

A porosity of the metal is largely eliminated
1283
.
B. grain structure of the metal is refined
C
mechanical properties are improved due to refinement of grains
.
D
all of the above
.
19. The electron beam welding can be carried out in

A
open air
.
B. a shielded gas environment
C
vacuum
.
D
a pressurised inert gas chamber
.
20. In tungsten-inert gas arc welding, a __________ electrode is used.

A
consumable
.
B. non-consumable
21. The operation of cutting a cylindrical hole in a sheet of metal by the punch and die is called
A
shearing
.
B. piercing
C
punching
.
D
blanking
.
1284
22. In die casting, machining allowance is
A
small
.
B. large
C
very large
.
D
not provided
.
23. The welding set up is said to have straight polarity, when

A work is connected to the positive terminal and the electrode holder to the negative
. terminal
work is connected to the negative terminal and the electrode holder to the positive
B.
terminal
C
work is connected to the positive terminal and the electrode holder is earthed
.
D
work is connected to the negative terminal and the electrode holder is earthed
.
24. A moving mandrel is used in

A
wiredrawing
.
B. tube drawing
C
metal cutting
.
D
forging
.
25. The most preferred process for casting gas turbine blades is
A
die casting
.
1285
B. shell moulding
C
investment moulding
.
D
sand casting
.
26. The upsetting is a process of

A
increasing the cross-section of a bar
.
B. reducing the cross-section of a bar
C
joining the two surfaces of metal under pressure after heating
.
D
bending of a bar
.
27. If neutral flame is used in oxy-acetylene welding, both oxygen and acetylene cylinders of the
same capacity will be emptied at the same time.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
28. Which of the following material can be used for making patterns ?
A
Aluminium
.
B. Wax
C
Lead
.
D
all of these
.
29. The torch used for oxygen cutting is same as for oxy-acetylene welding.
A
1286
B. No
30. According to Indian standards, the total number of tolerance grades are
A
8
.
B. 12
C
18
.
D
20
.
31. Loam sand is a mixture of

A
30% sand and 70% clay
.
B. 50% sand and 50% clay
C
.
D
.
32. A three high rolling mill consists of three rolls placed one above the other. Which of the
following statement is correct?
A The upper and middle rolls rotate in the same direction whereas the bottom roll rotates
. in opposite direction.
The upper and bottom rolls rotate in the same direction whereas the middle roll rotate
B.
in opposite direction.
C
The bottom and middle roll rotate in the same direction.
.
D
.
1287
33. The oxy-acetylene gas used in gas welding produce a flame temperature of
A
1800C
.
B. 2100C
C
2400C
.
D
3200C
.
34. Metal patterns require __________ draft allowance than wooden patterns.
A
more
.
B. less
35. For gas welding, the presure desired at the welding torch for acetylene is
A
7 to 103 kN/m2
.
B. 70 to 280 kN/m2
C
280 to 560 kN/m2
.
D
560 to 840 kN/m2
.
36. The process extensively used for making bolts and nuts is
A
hot piercing
.
B. extrusion
C
cold peening
.
1288
D
cold heading
.
37. Spot welding is used for welding

A
lap joints in plates having 0.025 mm to 1.25 mm thickness
.
B. lap joints in plates having thickness above 3 mm
C
butt joints in plates having 0.025 mm to 1.25 mm thickness
.
D
butt joints in plates having thickness above 3 mm
.
38. Thermit welding is often used in

A
replacing broken gear teeth
.
B. repairing broken shears
C
joining rails, truck frames and locomotive frames etc.
.
D
all of the above
.
39. The directional solidification in casting can be improved by using

A
chills and chaplets
.
B. chills and padding
C
chaplets and padding
.
D
chills, chaplets and padding
.
40. A sand employed on the faces of the pattern before moulding, is called
A
1289
B. dry sand
C
loam sand
.
D
parting sand
.

A
The angular clearance on dies varies from 0.5 to 1.
.
B. In drawing operation, the metal flows due to plasticity.
C
In press operation, the size of the pierced hole is independent of the size of punch.
.
D
none of the above
.
42. When two metal pieces of different thicknesses are to be welded by projection welding, then
the projections should be made on __________ metal piece.
A
thinner
.
B. thicker
43. In fore-hand welding, the angle between the welding rod and the work is kept as
A
30-40
.
B. 40-50
C
50-60
.
D
60-70
.
44. The minimum size of a bloom is

A
1290
B. 10 cm x 10 cm
C
15 cm x 15 cm
.
D
20 cm x 20 cm
.
45. The binder commonly used in making oil sand, is

A
clay-type binder
.
B. organic-type binder
C
inorganic-type binder
.
D
any one of these
.
46. The material which can be best cut with oxygen cutting process is
A
mild steel
.
B. brass
C
copper
.
D
aluminium
.
47. In fore-hand welding, the weld is made

A
from left to right
.
B. from right to left
C first from left to right and then from right to left
1291
.
D
either from left to right or from right to left
.
48. In spot welding, the distance between the nearest edge of the plate and centre of weld should
be equal to
A
d
.
B. 1.5 d
C
3d
.
D
6d
.
49. Thermit, used in thermit welding, is a mixture of

A
charcoal and iron oxide
.
B. charcoal and aluminium
C
iron oxide and aluminium
.
D
charcoal, iron oxide and aluminium
.
50. The width of slot cut by a hacksaw blade is __________ the width of the blade.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
1292
1. A basic shaft is one whose
A
.
C
.
D
none of these
.
2. A file with 20 teeth in 25 mm is called

A
rough file
.
B. bastard file
C
second cut file
.
D
smooth file
.
3. The flux commonly used in brazing is

A
zinc chloride
.
B. ammonium chloride
C
rosin plus alcohol
.
D
borax
.
4. The increase in hardness due to cold working, is called
1293
A
age-hardening
.
B. work-hardening
C
induction hardening
.
D
flame hardening
.
5. When a pattern is made in three parts, the top part, is known as a

A
drag
.
B. cheek
C
cope
.
D
none of these
.
6. In a __________ , the molten metal is poured and allowed to solidify while the mould is
revolving.
A
die casting method
.
B. slush casting method
C
permanent mould casting method
.
D
centrifugal casting method
.
7. Riddle is used for

A
smoothing and cleaning out depressions in the mould
.
1294
B. cleaning the moulding sand
C
moistening the sand around the edge before removing pattern
.
D
reinforcement of sand in the top part of moulding box
.
8. A hacksaw blade cuts on the

A
forward stroke
.
B. return stroke
C
both forward and return strokes
.
D
cutting depends upon the direction of force
.
9. The oxygen cylinder is usually painted with

A
black colour
.
B. white colour
C
maroon colour
.
D
yellow colour
.
10. Which of the following welding method uses a pool of molten metal?
A
Carbon arc welding
.
B. Submerged arc welding
C TIG arc welding
1295
.
D
MIG arc welding
.
11. In fore-hand welding, the angle between the welding torch and the work is __________ as
compared to back-hand welding.
A
same
.
B. less
C
more
.
12. The advantage of thermit welding is that

A
all parts of the weld section are molten at the same time
.
B. weld cools almost uniformly
C
results in a minimum problem with internal residual stresses
.
D
all of the above
.
13. A gimlet is a __________ tool.

A
boring
.
B. marking
14. Slick is used for repairing and finishing the mould.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
15. The maximum flame temperature occurs

A
1296
B. at the inner cone
C
between the outer and inner cone
.
D
at the torch tip
.
16. During cold working process

A
grain structure is distorted
.
B. strength and hardness of metal increases
C
close dimensional tolerance can be maintained
.
D
all of the above
.
17. When filing soft metals, the file teeth are clogged with minute particles of metal. The file
should be cleaned by
A
washing it with water
.
B. rubbing on wood
C
washing it with dilute acid
.
D
using file card
.
18. In back-hand welding, the angle between the welding rod and the work is __________ as
compared to fore-hand welding.
A
same
.
B. less
1297
C
more
.
19. Lap joints are employed on plates having thickness

A
less than 3 mm
.
B. 5 to 10 mm
C
12.5 mm
.
D
above 25 mm
.
20. A large electrode is used in un-shielded arc welding.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
21. A process used for making thin phosphate coating on steel is called parkerising.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
22. The recrystallisation temperature of steel is

A
400 C
.
B. 600 C
C
800 C
.
D
none of these
.
23. A basic hole is one whose

A
1298
C
.
D
none of these
.
24. Seam welding is best adopted for metal thickness ranging from
A
0.025 to 3 mm
.
B. 3 to 5 mm
C
5 to 8 mm
.
D
8 to 10 mm
.
25. A file with 50 - 60 teeth in 25 mm is called bastard file.

A
True
.
B. False
26. The surface to be machined is marked on the pattern by

A
red colour
.
B. yellow colour
C
black colour
.
D
blue colour
.
27. In electric resistance welding, pressure applied varies from

A
1 to 5 MPa
.
1299
B. 5 to 10 MPa
C
10 to 25 MPa
.
D
25 to 55 MPa
.
28. In order to deliver molten metal from pouring basin to gate, a __________ is used.
A
riser
.
B. sprue
C
core
.
29. V-block is used to

A
check the trueness of flat surfaces
.
B. locate centres of round rods
C
check the surface roughness
.
D
none of these
.
30. A progressive limit gauge has

A
'Go' and 'Not go' member on the same side of the gauge
.
B. separate 'Go' and 'Not go' members
C
'Go' member at one end and 'Not go' member at the other end
.
D none of the above
1300
.
31. Piercing is an operation of cutting

A
a cylindrical hole in a sheet of metal by the punch and the die
.
B. a hole (other than cylindrical) in a sheet of metal by the punch and the die
C
a flat sheet to the desired shape
.
D
a number of holes evenly spaced in a regular pattern on a sheet of metal
.
32. Shift is a casting defect which

A
results in a mismatching of the top and bottom parts of a casting
.
B. results in general enlargement of a casting
C
occurs near the ingates as rough lumps on the surface of a casting
.
D
occurs as sand patches on the upper surface of a casting
.
33. During drawing operation, the states of stress in cup would include
A
compressive stress in the flange
.
B. tensile stress in the wall
C
both (a) and (b)
.
D
none of these
.
34. A diamond pointed chisel is used for cutting

A
flat surfaces
.
1301
B. grooves
C
keyways
.
D
V-shaped grooves
.
35. The length of hacksaw blade is the distance between the outside edges of the holes which fits
over the pins.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
36. The parts of circular cross-section which are symmetrical about the axis of rotation are made
by
A
hot forging
.
B. hot spinning
C
hot extrusion
.
D
hot drawing
.
37. In permanent mould casting method

molten metal is poured in a metallic mould, retained in the mould long enough for the
A
outer skin to solidify and finally mould is turned over to remove molten metal still in
.
molten condition
B. molten metal is poured and allowed to solidify while the mould is revolving
C
molten metal is forced into mould under high pressure
.
1302
D
none of the above
.
38. In electric resistance welding, pressure is applied just after the completion of current.
A
True
.
B. False
39. Scribing block is used to

A
hold the round bars during marking
.
B. check the trueness of flat surfaces
C
locate the centres of round bars
.
D
check the surface roughness
.
40. Neutral flame is usd to weld

A
steel
.
B. cast iron
C
copper
.
D
all of these
.
41. Acetylene gas is stored in cylinders in

A
solid form
.
B. gaseous form
1303
C
liquid form
.
D
any one of these
.
42. Which one of the following material will require the largest size of riser for the same size of
casting?
A
Aluminium
.
B. Cast iron
C
Steel
.
D
Copper
.
43. The consumable electrode is used in

A
carbon arc welding
.
B. submerged arc welding
C
TIG arc welding
.
D
MIG arc welding
.
44. The operation of cutting a sheet of metal in a straight line along the length, is known as
A
plunging
.
B. notching
C
slitting
.
1304
D
forming
.
45. Forming is the operation of removing metal to the desired shape from the edge of a plate.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
46. Cold working of metal increases

A
tensile strength
.
B. yield strength
C
hardness
.
D
all of these
.
47. In welding aluminium with TIG arc welding, alternating current is used.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
48. Linde welding uses

A
neutral flame and right-ward technique
.
B. oxidising flame and left-ward technique
C
neutral flame and left-ward technique
.
D
carburising flame and right-ward technique
.
49. The purpose of a gate is to

A
1305
B. act as a reservoir for the molten metal
C
feed the molten metal to the casting in order to compensate for the shrinkage
.
D
deliver molten metal from pouring basin to gate
.
50. When two pieces of different metals are to be welded by projection welding, then the
projection should be made on the metal piece having __________ conductivity.
A
lower
.
B. higher

1. The vertical welding do not require plate edge preparation upto 16 mm thickness.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
2. The dowels are

A
wooden nails
.
B. box nails
C
wire nails
.
D
none of these
.
3. In arc welding, the temperature of heat produced by the electric arc is of the order of
A
3000 C to 4000 C
.
1306
B. 4000 C to 5000 C
C
5000 C to 6000 C
.
D
6000 C to 7000 C
.
4. Extrusion
A
is extensively used for making bolts and nuts
.
is used for reducing the diameter of round bars and tubes by rotating dies which open
B.
and close rapidly on the work
C is used to improve fatigue resistance of the metal by setting up compressive stresses in

. its surface
D consists of pressing the metal inside a chamber to force it out by high pressure through
. an orifice which is shaped to provide the desired form of the finished part
5. The operation of cutting of a flat sheet to the desired shape is called

A
shearing
.
B. piercing
C
punching
.
D
blanking
.
6. The process of decreasing the cross-section of a bar and increasing its length, is called
A
drawing down
.
B. upsetting
1307
C
spinning
.
D
peening
.
7. A casting defect which occurs due to improper venting of sand is known as

A
cold shuts
.
B. blow holes
C
shift
.
D
swell
.
8. Swab is used for

A
smoothing and cleaning out depressions in the mould
.
B. cleaning the moulding sand
C
moistening the sand around the edge before removing pattern
.
D
reinforcement of sand in the top part of the moulding box
.
9. The temperature of the inner luminous cone of neutral flame is about

A
1000 C
.
B. 1250 C
C
2100 C
.
1308
D
3200 C
.
10. The metal patterns as compared to wooden patterns require less

A
shrinkage allowance
.
B. machining allowance
C
draft allowance
.
D
distortion allowance
.
11.
When the dimension is expressed as , then the basic size is
A
20 mm
.
B. 20.035 mm
C
20.025 mm
.
D
19.975 mm
.
12. In order to produce uniform packing of sand in the moulds, a __________ is used.
A
sand slinger
.
B. squeezing machine
C
jolt machine
.
D
stripper plate machine
.
1309
13. The difference between the upper limit and lower limt of a dimension is called
A
nominal size
.
B. basic size
C
actual size
.
D
tolerance
.
14. Green sand is a mixture of

A
.
B. 50% sand and 50% clay
C
.
D
.
15. The diaphragm moulding machine is used to

A ram the sand harder at the pattern face with decreasing hardness towards the back of
. the mould
B. ram the sand harder at the back of the mould and softer on the pattern face
C
produce uniform packing of sand in the mould
.
D
give uniform sand hardness throughout the mould
.
16. A pattern is used to make the mould cavity for pouring the molten metal for casting.
A
Yes
.
1310
B. No
17. The surface to be left unmachined is marked on the pattern by

A
red colour
.
B. yellow colour
C
black colour
.
D
blue colour
.
18. The two rolls in a two high rolling mills are of __________ size.
A
equal
.
B. different
19. The welding process used in joining mild steel shanks to high speed drills, is
A
spot welding
.
B. seam welding
C
flash butt welding
.
D
upset butt welding
.
20. The mode of deformation of the metal during spinning is

A
bending
.
B. stretching
C rolling and stretching
1311
.
D
bending and stretching
.
21. The process used to improve fatigue resistance of the metal by setting up compressive
stresses in its surface, is known as
A
hot piercing
.
B. extrusion
C
cold peening
.
D
cold heading
.
22. Fin is a casting defect which is due to thin projections of metal not intended as a part of
casting.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
23. The process of increasing the cross-section of a bar at the expense of its length, is called
A
drawing down
.
B. upsetting
C
spinning
.
D
peening
.
24. In TIG arc welding, the welding zone is shielded by an atmosphere of

A
helium gas
.
1312
B. argon gas
C
either (a) or (b)
.
D
none of these
.
25. The metal extrusion process is generally used for producing

A
uniform solid sections
.
B. uniform hollow sections
C
uniform solid and hollow sections
.
D
varying solid and hollow sections
.
26. The operation of giving impressions of figures, letters or designs on sheet metal parts, is
known as embossing.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
27. In a gas welding of mild steel using an oxy-acetylene flame, the total amount of acetylene
consumed is 10 litre. The oxygen consumption from the cylinder is
A
5 litre
.
B. 10 litre
C
15 litre
.
D
20 litre
.
1313
28. The sand used for making cores is
A
green sand
.
B. dry sand
C
loam sand
.
D
oil sand
.
29. Sand wash is a casting defect which

A
results in a mismatching of the top and bottom parts of a casting
.
B. results in general enlargement of the casting
C
occurs near the ingates as rough lumps on the surface of a casting
.
D
occurs as sand patches on the upper surface of a casting
.
30. Cold working distorts grain structure and does not provide an appreciable reduction in size.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
31. Cast iron and steel pipes are produced by

A
slush casting
.
B. investment casting
C
true centrifugal casting
.
1314
D
die casting
.
32. The acetylene cylinder is usually painted with

A
black colour
.
B. white colour
C
maroon colour
.
D
yellow colour
.
33. In order to ram the sand harder at the back of the mould and softer on the pattern face, a
__________ is used.
A
sand slinger
.
B. squeezing machine
C
jolt machine
.
D
stripper plate machine
.
34. The property of sand due to which the sand grains stick together, is called
A
collapsibility
.
B. permeability
C
cohesiveness
.
D
adhesiveness
.
1315
35. The temperature produced by oxy-hydrogen flame is about
A
1800 C
.
B. 2100 C
C
2400 C
.
D
3200 C
.
36. The oxidising flame is similar to neutral flame but the inner cone is less luminous and
shorter.
A
Yes
.
B. No
37. A hacksaw blade is specified by its

A
length
.
B. material
C
width
.
D
number of teeth
.
38. According to Indian standard specifications, 100 H6/g 5 means that.

A
basic size is 100 mm
.
B. actual size is 100 mm
C
difference between the actual size and basic size is 100 mm
.
1316
D
none of the above
.

A The hot chamber die casting machine is used for casting zinc, tin, lead and other low
. melting alloys.
The cold chamber die casting machine is used for casting aluminium, magnesium,
B.
copper base alloys and other high melting alloys.
C The castings produced by centrifugal casting method have open and coarse grained
. structure.
D
all of the above
.
40. The edge of a steel plate cut by oxygen cutting will get hardened when the carbon content is
A
less than 0.1 percent
.
B. less than 0.3 percent
C
more than 0.3 percent
.
D
anywhere between 0.1 to 1 percent
.
41. In blanking operation, the clearance is provided on

A
punch
.
B. die
C
half on the punch and half on the die
.
D
either on punch or die depending upon designer's choice
.
1317
42. In piercing operation, the clearance is provided on
A
punch
.
B. die
C
half on the punch and half on the die
.
D
either on punch or die depending upon designer's choice
.
43. If an aluminium pattern made from a wooden master pattern is to be used for grey iron
castings, then the shrinkage allowance allowed on the wooden pattern should be
A
10 mm/m
.
B. 16 mm/m
C
20 mm/m
.
D
26 mm/m
.
44. For arc welding

A
alternating current with high frequency is used
.
B. alternating current with low frequency is used
C
direct current is used
.
D
any one of these
.
45. When the file is moved to and fro over the work, it is known as
A
cross filing
.
1318
B. draw filing
C
pull and push filing
.
D
none of these
.
46. The hot working of metals is carried out

A
at the recrystallisation temperature
.
B. below the recrystallisation temperature
C
above the recrystallisation temperature
.
D
at any temperature
.
47. In a four high rolling mill, the diameter of backing up rolls is __________ the diameter of
working rolls.
A
equal to
.
B. smaller than
C
larger than
.
48. The welding process used to join the ends of two pipes of uniform cross-section, is
A
spot welding
.
B. seam welding
C
projection welding
.
1319
D
upset butt welding
.
49. When the molten metal is fed in the cavity of a metallic mould by gravity, the method of
casting is known as
A
die casting method
.
B. slush casting method
C
permanent mould casting method
.
D
centrifugal casting method
.
50. Hot piercing is extensively used for making bolts and nuts.
A
Yes
.
B. No

1. When more volume of acetylene and less volume of oxygen is supplied, then a __________
flame is obtained.
A
neutral
.
B. oxidising
C
carburising
.
2. The instrument used to measure external and internal diameter of shafts, thickness of parts
and depth of holes, is
A
outside micrometer
.
1320
B. inside micrometer
C
depth gauge micrometer
.
D
vernier caliper
.
3. The punch and die set up is __________ for punching and piercing operation.
A
similar
.
B. different
4. For smoothing and cleaning out depressions in the mould, a __________ is used.
A
slick
.
B. lifter
C
swab
.
D
gagger
.
5.
When the dimension is expressed as , then the tolerance is
A
0.035 mm
.
B. 0.025 mm
C
0.01 mm
.
D
0.06 mm
.
6. The brass and bronze are welded by __________ flame.

A
neutral
1321
B. oxidising
C
carburising
.
D
all of these
.
7. Projection welding is a
A
continuous spot welding process
.
B. multi-spot welding process
C
arc welding process
.
D
process used for joining round bars
.
8. The adhesiveness is the property of a sand due to which

A
it evolves a great amount of steam and other gases
.
B. the sand grains stick together
C
it cling to the sides of a moulding box
.
D
none of these
.
9. A stripper-plate machine is used to draw the pattern from the mould.

A
Yes
.
B. No
10. The algebraic difference between the maximum limit and the basic size is called
A
actual deviation
.
1322
B. upper deviation
C
lower deviation
.
D
fundamental deviation
.
11. For gas welding, the pressure desired at the welding torch for oxygen is
A
7 to 103 kN/m2
.
B. 70 to 280 kN/m2
C
280 to 560 kN/m2
.
D
560 to 840 kN/m2
.
12. Seam weiding is a

A
continuous spot welding process
.
B. multi-spot welding process
C
arc welding process
.
D
process used for joining round bars
.
13. In a simple die

A
two or more operations are performed simultaneously at the single stroke of the ram
.
two or more cutting operations are performed at one station of the press in every
B.
stroke of the ram
1323
C both cutting and non-cutting operations are performed at one station of the press in
. every stroke of the ram
D
none of the above
.
14. The operation of producing cup shaped parts from flat sheet metal blanks by bending and
plastic flow of metal, is known as
A
drawing
.
B. squeezing
C
coining
.
D
planishing
.
17. Automobile Engineering
Automobile Engineering - Section 1

1. The condition that causes vapour locking in a brake system is
A
overheating of the fluid due to frequent brake application
.
B. overcooling of the brakes during high speed driving
C
keeping the vehicle without use for an extended period
.
D
an excessively high engine speed on a downhill road
.
2. The portion of a crankshaft which rests on cylinder block is called main journal.
A
Yes
.
1324
B. No
3. A baffle plate is fitted inside the oil pan to prevent the oil from splashing when it is subjected
to vibration and other movement during vehicle operation.
A
True
.
B. False
4. The motion of the cam is transferred to the valves through

A
pistons
.
B. rocker arms
C
camshaft pulley
.
D
valve stems
.
5. Which of the following symptom is caused as a result of brake disc run out ?
A
Ineffectiveness of the brakes
.
B. Judder during braking
C
Localized wearing of the brake pads
.
D
Rapid wearing of the brake pads
.
6. If the engine coolant leaks into the engine oil, then engine oil
A
appears milky
.
B. becomes foamy
1325
C
turns black
.
D
none of these
.
7. The function of an alternator in an automobile is to

A
supply electric power
.
B. convert mechanical energy into electrical energy
C
continually recharge the battery
.
D
partly convert engine power into electric power
.
8. A clutch is usually designed to transmit maximum torque which is

A
equal to the maximum engine torque
.
B. 80 per cent of the maximum engine torque
C
150 per cent of the maximum engine torque
.
D
none of these
.
9. What type of bearing is used for main bearings and connecting rod bearings ?
A
Ball bearings
.
B. Plain bearings
C
Needle roller bearing
.
1326
D
Taper roller bearing
.
10. It is necessary to maintain the valve clearances as they

A
reduce the resistance to sliding that occurs between the cam and the tappet
.
B. allow for lengthening of the valves owing to the heat of combustion
C
increase the speed at which the valves move up and down
.
D
make the crankshaft turn smoothly
.
11. Incorrect steering axis inclination (S.A.I.) causes

A
tendency to assume toe-out orientation
.
B. generation of a braking effect at tight corners
C
poor recovery of the steering wheel after making a turn
.
D
the vehicle to pull to the side of lesser inclination
.
12. In a unit type body (frameless body) design, the sheet metal parts are welded together,
forming a frame work to which outer skin is attached.
A
True
.
B. False
13. The torque available at the contact between driving wheels and road is known as
A
brake effort
.
B. tractive effort
1327
C
clutch effort
.
D
none of these
.
14. A traction control system (TCS) in automobiles controls the

A
vibrations on the steering wheel
.
B. engine power during acceleration
C
torque that is transmitted by the tyres to the road surface
.
D
stopping distance in case of emergency
.
15. In radial tyres

A
one ply layer runs diagonally one way and another layer runs diagonally the other way
.
B. all plies run parallel to one another and vertical to tyre bead
C
inner tubes are always used
.
D
none of these
.
16. The oil pump is driven by the

A
camshaft
.
B. alternator shaft
C
crankshaft via drive belt
.
1328
D
crankshaft directly
.
17. In a spark plug, when the temperature of the central electrode exceeds a certain temperature,
any carbon that has adhered will be burnt off, and the temperature at which this burning off
carbon starts is referred to as the self cleaning temperature.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
18. The flywheel and the pressure plate bind the clutch disc between them so that the engine and
the transmission can be engaged.
A
Yes
.
B. No
19. The vehicle ride will be comfortable if

A
unsprung mass is kept minimum
.
B. sprang mass is kept minimum
C
vehicle mass is kept minimum
.
D
all of these
.
20. The main function of intake manifold is that it

A
promotes the mixture of air and fuel
.
B. reduces intake noise
C
cools the intake air to a suitable temperature
.
D distributes intake air equally to the cylinders
1329
.
21. Positive camber is used to compensate for wheels tilting inward due to the weight of the
vehicle.
A
Yes
.
B. No
22. In automobiles G.V.W. refers to

A
gross vehicle width
.
B. gross vehicle weight
C
gross vehicle wheel base
.
D
gross vehicle wheel track
.
23. The firing order for an in-line four cylinder I.C. engine is
A
1-2-3-4
.
B. 1-3-4-2
C
1-2-4-3
.
D
1-3-2-4
.
24. In a ventilated disc brake,

A
a duct directs air towards the caliper for cooling while the vehicle is moving
.
B. caliper is covered with cooling fins
1330
C
disc contains many small holes for optimum cooling performance
.
D disc contains radial vanes between its rubbing surfaces for optimum cooling
. performance
25. The effect of having excess camber is

A
excessive steering alignment torque
.
B. hard steering
C
too much traction
.
D
uneven tyre wear
.
26. If the air-fuel mixture in a spark ignition engine is too rich, then air-fuel ratio is about
A
17:1
.
B. 15:1
C
13:1
.
D
10:1
.
27. The advantage of double-wishbone suspension design is that a large amount of freedom is
available for setting geometry and precise settings can be made for driving comfort and
steerability,
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
28. The co-efficient of rolling resistance for a truck weighing 63 500 N is 0.018. The rolling
resistance to the truck is
A
1.143 N
1331
B. 11.43 N
C
114.3 N
.
D
1143 N
.
29. If the level of tension in the belt is too high, it can result in a loss of power or in bending of
the rotating shaft or crankshaft.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
30. If the air-fuel mixture ignites before the spark takes place at spark plug, the condition is
called
A
detonation
.
B. ignition
C
pre-ignition
.
D
rumble
.
31. The information provided by the oxygen (O2) sensor to the feedback control system is about
the
A
air-fuel ratio
.
B. air temperature
C
air flow speed
.
1332
D
exhaust gas volume
.
32. The diagram which shows the correct crank positions corresponding to the opening and
closing of the valves, is known as
A
indicator diagram
.
B. axial force diagram
C
valve timing diagram
.
D
none of these
.
33. The difference between DOT 3 and DOT 4 brake fluids is

A
DOT 4 fluid has a higher boiling point than DOT 3 fluid
.
B. DOT 4 fluid has a lower boiling point than DOT 3 fluid
C DOT 3 and DOT 4 fluids have the same boiling point, but DOT 4 fluid has a longer
. service life
D
DOT 4 fluid is more resistant to freezing than DOT 3 fluid
.
34. The battery is an electrochemical device, which means battery

A
makes chemicals by mechanical means
.
B. uses chemical action to provide electricity
C
has curved plates instead of flat plates
.
D
does not use an electrolyte
.
1333
35. The operation of removing trapped air from the hydraulic braking system is known as
A
trapping
.
B. tapping
C
bleeding
.
D
cleaning
.
36. The aluminium alloy is used in cylinder blocks because

A
it is lighter and have good heat dissipation characteristics
.
B. material cost is low
C
it does not require any cylinder liners
.
D
the piston is also made of aluminium alloy
.
37. In a fuel injection system, the electronic control module (ECM) calculates the optimum fuel-
injection volume for the engine condition based on the data received from the sensors, and
injects this volume of fuel into the intake manifold at the optimum timing.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
38. The tilting of the front wheels away from the vertical, when viewed from the front of the car,
is called
A
camber
.
B. caster
C toe-in
1334
.
D
toe-out
.
39. The main function of the tread pattern on tyre is that

A the tread grooves pass air between the tyre and road surface, thereby preventing tyre
. from overheating
B. the crests between the tread grooves absorb road noise
C in wet conditions, the tread grooves expel water that is drawn between the tyre and
. road surface
D
the tread pattern protects the tyre's inner carcass from small stones and pieces of glass
.
40. The compression ratio in petrol engine is kept less than in Diesel engine because
A
it makes petrol engines lighter
.
higher or equivalent compression ratio in petrol engines is not possible due to pre-
B.
ignition
C
less compression ratio gives better performance
.
D
it is just customary to have less compression ratio in petrol engines
.
41. The most commonly used supplementary restraint system (SRS) component is
A
seat belt
.
B. brake
C
airbag
.
1335
D
steering
.
42. The natural gas is compressed in a CNG cylinder at a pressure of

A
200 bar
.
B. 220 bar
C
250 bar
.
D
300 bar
.
43. The cetane rating of Diesel fuel is in the order of

A
25
.
B. 45
C
70
.
D
90
.
44. The air gap between the central electrode and ground (or side) electrode of a spark plug is
around
A
0.2 mm
.
B. 0.5 mm
C
1 mm
.
D
1.5 mm
.
1336
45. The cetane number of a Diesel fuel is a measure of
A
volatility
.
B. viscosity
C
ignition quality
.
D
delay peirod
.
46. The valve overlap in four stroke petrol engines is approximately

A
30
.
B. 60
C
90
.
D
120
.
47. The petrol engines are also known as

A
spark ignition (S.I.) engines
.
B. compression ignition (C.I.) engines
C
steam engines
.
D
none of these
.
48. Which of the following indicates a multigrade oil ?

A
SAE 30
.
1337
B. API SF
C
SAE 20 W-50
.
D
API 50
.
49. The coefficient of friction for the clutch facing is approximately

A
0.1
.
B. 0.4
C
0.8
.
D
1.2
.
50. The component that connects the steering rack to the knuckles is
A
tie-rod
.
B. sector gear
C
pivot
.
D
spline
.

1. The painting of automobiles is done to
A
prevent rust from growing on the body
.
B. improve its external appearance
1338
C
retain the characteristics of steel for long
.
D
all of these
.
2. The main task of a battery in automobiles is to

A
supply electricity to the alternator
.
B. act as a reservoir or stabilizer of electricity
C supply electricity to the vehicle's electrical system at all times while the engine is
. running
D supply a large amount of power to turn the starter motor when the engine is being
. started
3. The major purpose of an electronically-controlled automatic transmission is that this type of

transmission
A
eliminates gear clutches
.
B. eliminates the gear shift lever
C
reduces the number of automatic-transmission components
.
D
reduces shift shock and achieves more efficient transmission of engine torque
.
4. The connecting rods are generally made of __________ shaped cross-section.

A
I
.
B. C
1339
C
L
.
D
H
.
5. The anti-knock property of compression ignition engine fuel can be improved by adding
A
tetraethyl lead
.
B. trimethyl pentane
C
amyl nitrate
.
D
hexadecane
.
6. The calorific value of petrol is about

A
36.5 - 38.5 MJ/kg
.
B. 39.4 - 42.5 MJ/kg
C
42.7 - 43.5 MJ/kg
.
D
45.5 - 47 MJ/kg
.
7. The ball joints are used on the tie-rod ends, because they
A
reduce the amount of noise generated
.
B. reduce the amount of sliding resistance
C
can deal with movement of the suspension both vertically and in other directions
.
1340
D
improve the force transmission speed
.
8. The air resistance to a car at 20 kmph is R. The air resistance at 40 kmph will be
A
R
.
B. 2 R
C
4R
.
D
4 R2
.
9. The size of engine cylinder is referred in terms of its

A
diameter and bore
.
B. displacement and efficiency
C
bore and stroke
.
D
bore and length
.
10. The purpose of a cylinder head gasket is to

A prevent the combustion gases from leaking from the joint between the cylinder block
. and the cylinder head
B. prevent engine oil from going into combustion chamber
C
removes impurities from cylinder head lubricating oil
.
D
none of the above
.
11. The function of a first compression ring (top ring) is that it

A
1341
B. creates swirl
C
maintains a seal and prevents the fuel leakage
.
D maintains a seal and prevents escape of burned gases and loss of pressure in the
. combustion chamber
12. The number of exhaust manifolds in a V-6 engine are

A
one
.
B. two
C
four
.
D
eight
.
13. The driveshafts are connected to the differential and wheel hubs through universal joints
because the universal joints
A
absorb the vibrations transferred from the surface of the road
.
compensate for variations in the relative positions of the differential and the wheels
B.
which result from bumpy road surfaces or other similar driving conditions.
C absorb any difference in speed between the left and right wheels when the vehicle is
. turning
D
none of the above
.
14. The function of antilock brake system (ABS) is that is

A
reduces the stopping distance
.
B. minimises the brake fade
1342
C
maintains directional control during braking by preventing the wheels from locking
.
D
prevents nose dives during braking and thereby postpones locking of the wheels
.
15. A worm gear is used as the pinion for the rack and pinion type of steering gearbox, because it
A improves steering comfort when steering wheel is turned to effect small changes in the
. direction of forward motion
B. allows the steering wheel to be turned by a greater amount when steering
C
makes the steering more responsive
.
D
reduces the amount of kick-back for large steering angles
.
16. The braking control type traction control system (TCS) generally operates in the speed range
of
A
less than 20 kmph
.
B. less than 40 kmph
C
less than 60 kmph
.
D
more than 60 kmph
.
17. If the spark plug deposit indicates black coating of soot, it indicates that the engine has been
generally operating on
A
too lean mixture
.
B. stoichiometric mixture
1343
C
most economical mixture
.
D
too rich mixture
.
18. The two rows of cylinders in a 'V' type engine are generally arranged at
A
45
.
B. 60
C
90
.
D
130
.
19. The crescent-shaped cavity on the piston head top surface is called as
A
piston oil hole
.
B. snap ring
C
valve recess
.
D
valve clearance
.
20. The octane rating of petrol commerically available is

A
85-95
.
B. 95-100
C
100-110
.
1344
D
110-125
.
21. The stroke of an engine is the

A
volume of the cylinder
.
B. length of the connecting rod
C
internal diameter of the cylinder
.
D
distance between T.D.C. and B.D.C.
.
22. The function of a second ring is that it is a

A
back up compression ring which will work in place of the top ring when it is broken
.
B. compression ring and aids the top ring in sealing and cooling
C
back up oil control ring which will work in place of the bottom ring when it is broken
.
D
cushion ring which prevents piston slap and knock
.
23. The characteristic that is enhanced by the use of cylinder sleeves is

A
cooling efficiency
.
B. resistance to wear
C
lubrication performance
.
D
none of these
.
24. The differential ensures that each wheel is driven at a speed which corresponds to the
1345
distance it must travel around a corner, and it consequently prevents against excessive tyre
wear.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
25. The rating of C.I. engine fuel (Diesel) is given by

A
octane number
.
B. performance number
C
cetane number
.
D
none of these
.
26. Which part of the automobile tyre is subjected to greatest flexing action ?
A
Bead
.
B. Side wall
C
Shoulder
.
D
Tread
.
27. The temperature at which tyre inflation pressure should be checked is

A
20C
.
B. 25C
C
35C
.
1346
D
ambient temperature
.
28. The calorific value of Diesel is about

A
36.5 MJ/kg
.
B. 38.5 MJ/kg
C
42.5 MJ/kg
.
D
45.5 MJ/kg
.
29. The negative plates of a lead acid battery has

A
lead peroxide (PbO2)
.
B. spongy lead (Pb)
C
lead sulphate (PbSO4)
.
D
sulphuric acid (H2SO4)
.
30. The function of oil-control rings is that it

A
lubricates the cylinder wall by releasing oil from its hole
.
B. keeps the cylinder wall lubricated by holding oil in its channel
C prevents engine oil from going into the combustion chamber and returns excess
. lubricating oil off the cylinder wall through the return holes in the piston to the oil pan
D
maintains a seal and prevents escape of burned gases and oil leakage
.
31. The starter motor is driven by

A
1347
B. gear drive
C
flat belt drive
.
D
V-belt drive
.
32. The correct flow of power through the drive train is

A
engine - driveshafts - clutch - mainshaft - countershaft - final driven gear - wheels
.
B. engine - clutch - mainshaft - countershaft - final driven gear - driveshafts - wheels
C
engine - clutch - countershaft - mainshaft - final driven gear - driveshafts - wheels
.
D
engine - mainshaft - countershaft - clutch - final driven gear - driveshafts - wheels
.
33. The octane number of compressed natural gas (CNG) is

A
90
.
B. 100
C
110
.
D
120
.
34. The compression ratio for Diesel engines usually lies in the range of
A
6-10
.
B. 10-15
C 15-25
1348
.
D
25-40
.
35. In a petrol engine, the high voltage for spark plug is in the order of
A
1000 volts
.
B. 2000 volts
C
11 kilovolts
.
D
22 kilovolts
.
36. The piston compression rings are made of

A
cast iron
.
B. steel
C
aluminium
.
D
bronze
.
37. The aspect ratio (expressed in percentage) of the tyre is defined as the ratio of
A
section width to section height
.
B. section height to section width
C
wheel diameter to section height
.
D wheel diameter to section width
1349
.
38. Two advantages of using helical gears rather than spur gears in a transmission system are
A
strength and cost
.
B. strength and less end thrust
C
noise level and strength
.
D
noise level and economy
.
39. In order to implement gear changes in the gear unit of an automatic transmission, a
__________ is used.
A
synchronizer
.
B. planetary gear
C
magnetic clutch
.
D
hydraulic multi plate clutch
.
40. When the brake pedal free play is less than the specified value, then the
A
brake drags
.
B. brake fades
C
vapour locking occurs in the brake lines
.
D
antilock braking system malfunctions
.
41. The purpose of turning radius gauges is to measure the

A
1350
B. free play of the steering wheel
C
turning radius of the left and right wheels
.
D
difference in the toe angles of the left and right wheels
.
42. The three basic cylinder arrangements for automotive engines are
A
flat, radial, and V
.
B. in a row, in line, and opposed
C
in line, V, and opposed
.
D
V, double row, and opposed
.
43. When the battery is half (50%) charged, the specific gravity of acid in a battery is usually
A
0.74
.
B. 1.00
C
1.12
.
D
1.19
.
44. The specific gravity of Diesel is about

A
0.65
.
B. 0.75
C 0.85
1351
.
D
0.95
.
45. The service brakes employed in cars are generally operated

A
mechanically
.
B. hydraulically
C
pneumatically
.
D
none of these
.
46. The smooth shift mechanism of an automatic transmission reduces the degree of shock at
shifting of gears.
A
Yes
.
B. No
47. The seat belt will move out smoothly when pulled out slowly, but it will lock when pulled
quickly.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
48. In bias ply tyres

A
all plies run parallel to one another
.
B. belts of steel mesh are used in the tyres
C
one ply layer runs diagonally one way and another layer runs diagonally the other way
.
1352
D
all of the above
.
49. The boiling point of Diesel fuel is in the range of

A
70C to 100C
.
B. 100C to 120C
C
120C to 180C
.
D
180C to 360 C
.
50. During braking, the brake shoe is moved outward to force the lining against the
A
wheel piston or cylinder
.
B. anchor pin
C
brake drum
.
D
wheel rim or axle
.

1. The frequency of flashing of light per minute in a direction (side turn) indicator is about
A
9
.
B. 90
C
900
.
D 9000
1353
.
2. Thinner is added to the paint in order to

A
make pigments and resin mix easily
.
B. make paint film hard
C
optimise its viscosity
.
D
none of these
.
3. The ease with which petrol vapourizes is called its

A
oxidation
.
B. octane number
C
volatility
.
D
cetane number
.
4. A four-cylinder engine has a capacity of 2.4 litres. The swept volume of one cylinder is
A
400 cm3
.
B. 600 cm3
C
1200 cm3
.
D
2400 cm3
.
5. An imbalance wheel during vehicle operation

A
makes large noise when its heavy point hits the road surface
.
1354
B. deflects in the vehicle's longitudinal direction
C
bounces vertically or deflects from side to side (as seen from front or rear)
.
D
creates a standing wave
.
6. The main function of the brake fluid is

A
lubrication
.
B. power transmission
C
cooling
.
D
none of these
.
7. The parking brakes employed in vehicles are operated

A
mechanically
.
B. hydraulically
C
pneumatically
.
D
none of these
.
8. The function of a carburettor is to control the amount and ratio of air-fuel mixture.
A
True
.
B. False
9. The component in the radiator of an automobile that increases the boiling point of water is
A
drain plug
.
1355
B. water jacket
C
vacuum valve
.
D
pressure cap
.
10. In vehicles with tilt steering, the steering column is pivoted in

A
upper bracket
.
B. lower bracket
C
tilt bracket
.
D
steering yoke joint
.
11. Tachometer in a vehicle measures

A
speed
.
B. distance
C
engine r.p.m.
.
D
fuel consumption
.
12. One effect of detonation is

A
delay in ignition
.
B. loss of power
C overheating of engine
1356
.
D
overcooling of engine
.
13. The temperature indicating instrument in vehicles indicates the temperature of

A
engine piston
.
B. engine cylinder
C
lubricating oil
.
D
jacket cooling water
.
14. The ignition coil is used to

A
step up current
.
B. step down current
C
step up voltage
.
D
step down voltage
.
15. The process of removing the burnt gases from the engine cylinder by the fresh charge coming
into the engine cylinder from the crank-case, is known as
A
cleaning
.
B. priming
C
scavenging
.
1357
D
detonation
.
16. The self ignition temperature of Diesel as compared to petrol is

A
higher
.
B. lower
C
same
.
D
depends on fuel quality
.
17. With the increase of battery temperature, the specific gravity of electrolyte
A
increases
.
B. decreases
C
reamains the same
.
D
none of these
.
18. The process of supplying the intake air to the engine cylinder at a pressure greater than the
pressure of the surrounding atmosphere is known as
A
supercharging
.
B. auto-ignition
C
scavenging
.
D
detonation
.
1358
19. In aluminium cylinder blocks, the cylinder liners are made of
A
aluminium
.
B. ceramic
C
brass
.
D
cast iron
.
20. The purpose of a balancer shaft is to

A
balance the timing in the movement of the two groups of pistons
.
B. increase inertia force of the rotating crankshaft
C
reduce vibrations caused by the crankshaft rotation
.
D
adjust the timing of the intake and exhaust valve openings
.
21. Free pedal play in car clutches is about

A
15 mm
.
B. 25 mm
C
40mm
.
D
60 mm
.
22. The caster is called positive when the top of the king pin is inclined to the
A
rear of the vehicle
.
1359
B. front of the vehicle
C
left of the vehicle
.
D
right of the vehicle
.
23. The main purpose of an engine's air cleaner is that it

A
controls the engine's air intake volume
.
B. reduces the engine's air intake noise
C
prevents rain water from entering the engine
.
D
prevents dust and other foreign matter from entering the engine
.
24. The device for smoothening out the power impulses from the engine is called
A
clutch
.
B. differential
C
flywheel
.
D
torque converter
.
25. The main function of a master cylinder is to

A
adjust the extent of brake pedal free play
.
B. boost the force applied to brake pedal
C convert brake pedal force into hydraulic pressure
1360
.
D
ensure that all the wheel brakes are supplied with the same amount of fluid pressure
.
26. The exhaust gas from petrol engine contains

A
petrol vapours
.
B. water vapours
C
carbon monoxide
.
D
all of these
.
27. In case of a Diesel car, the pressure at the end of compression is of the order of
A
15 bar
.
B. 25 bar
C
35 bar
.
D
45 bar
.
28. The effect of vapour locking on the brake performance is that the
A
brakes function more effectively
.
B. brakes fail completely
C
brake operation is delayed after depression of the brake pedal
.
D vapour locking has no effect on brake performance
1361
.
29. The connecting rod is attached to the piston by the

A
cap bolt
.
B. piston pin
C
cap roller bearing
.
D
rod cap
.
30. Clutch facings are usually attached to the plate by

A
steel rivets
.
B. brass rivets
C
aluminium screws
.
D
steel screws
.
31. The torque converter uses __________ to transfer torque.

A
air
.
B. automatic transmission fluid (ATF)
C
gears
.
D
steel belt
.
32. In a Diesel engine, the function of a fuel injector is to

A
mix the fuel and air
.
1362
B. ignite the air-fuel mixture
C
provide flame front for ignition
.
D
spray atomized fuel in the cylinder
.
33. The firing order for an opposed four cylinder l.C. engine is
A
1-2-3-4
.
B. 1-3-4-2
C
1-4-3-2
.
D
1-3-24
.
34. The function of positive crankcase ventilation (PCV) system is that it

A
mixes fuel with air
.
B. promotes combustion by creating a swirling movement in the air-fuel mixture
C
returns blow-by gases from the crankcase to the intake system
.
D
feeds blow-by gases to the exhaust manifold
.
35. The two kinds of piston rings are

A
compression and oil-control rings
.
B. compression and sliding seal rings
C oil scrapper and oil-control rings
1363
.
D
pressure and sealing rings
.
36. The maximum torque multiplication ratio in a torque converter is about

A
2.5
.
B. 10
C
25
.
D
40
.
37. The sequence in which the force is transmitted through a brake system when the brake pedal
is depressed is
A
brake pedal - master cylinder - brake lines - vacuum servo mechanism - brake pads
.
B. brake pedal - vacuum servo mechanism - master cylinder - brake lines - brake pads
C
brake pedal - master cylinder - vacuum servo mechanism - brake lines - brake pads
.
D
brake pedal - brake lines - vacuum servo mechanism - master cylinder - brake pads
.
38. The composition of the electrolyte in a fully charged battery is that

A
the electrolyte is pure distilled water
.
B. the electrolyte is pure sulphuric acid
C
the electrolyte is a mixture of 64% distilled water and 36% sulphuric acid by weight
.
1364
D
the electrolyte is a mixture of 90% distilled water and 10% sulphuric acid by weight
.
39. The basic purpose of a four wheel drive (4WD) system is that it
A
delivers improved cornering on dry road surfaces
.
B. eliminates the need of snow tyres, tyre chains, etc.
C ensures effective transmission of engine torque to all four wheels, even on slippery
. road surfaces
D
ensures that effective braking can be performed, even on slippery surfaces
.
40. The heat transfer from coolant to air in the radiator of an automobile engine takes place by
A
radiation only
.
B. convention only
C
convection and radiation
.
D
conduction, convection and radiation
.
41. The purpose of a thermostat in an engine cooling system is to

A
prevent the coolant from boiling
.
B. allow the engine to warm up quickly
C
indicate the coolant temperature
.
D
pressurise the system to raise the boiling point
.
42. The basic characteristics of a brake fluid is

A
1365
B. low viscosity
C
compatibility with rubber and metal parts
.
D
all of these
.
43. The petrol engine works on

A
Otto cycle
.
B. Carnot cycle
C
Diesel cycle
.
D
Rankine cycle
.
44. The gradient resistance to a vehicle having a mass of 980 kg moving on an incline of 10 is
A
1.6694 N
.
B. 16.694 N
C
166.94 N
.
D
1669.4 N
.
45. The reconditioning process used to give cylinder bore surfaces a cross-hatch pattern, is
known as
A
honing
.
B. porous plating
1366
C
boring
.
D
shot peening
.
46. The function of a radiator fan in the cooling system is that

A
it blows air through the radiator when necessary
.
it is turned by wind force as the vehicle moves forward, and its rotation drives the
B.
water pump
C
it cools the engine by blowing air onto the cylinder block
.
D
it draws heat out of the engine compartment
.
47. The main function of an exhaust muffler is the

A
optimisation of exhaust efficiency
.
B. reduction of exhaust noise
C
reduction of nitrogen oxide in the exhaust gases
.
D
reduction of the exhaust gas volume
.
48. The characteristic that is enhanced by the honing of cylinder sleeves inner surface is
A
cooling efficiency
.
B. resistance to wear
C
lubrication performance
.
1367
D
none of these
.
49. Instead of valves, the ports are used in case of

A
four stroke I.C. engines
.
B. two-stroke I.C. engines
C
V-6 engines
.
D
none of these
.
50. The starting system includes

A
a battery, a starter, and an ignition switch
.
B. a battery, a distributor, and an ignition switch
C
a battery, a starter, and a distributor
.
D
a distributor, a starter, and an ignition switch
.

1. The purpose of adding pigment to the paint is that it
A
optimises the viscosity of paint
.
B. makes paint film hard
C
gives colour and filling up effect to the paint
.
D none of the above
1368
.
2. A laminated glass upon cracking

A
bursts into sharp edged fragments
.
B. bursts into granular pieces
C
sandwiched layer traps the fragments
.
D
breaks into the form of crystals
.
3. In a four speed four-stroke Diesel engine, the intake valve

A
opens at T.D.C. and closes at B.D.C.
.
B. opens at 20 before T.D.C. and closes at 35 after B.D.C.
C
opens at 10 after T.D.C. and closes at 20 before B.D.C.
.
D
none of the above
.
4. When the top of the wheel is tilted outward, then it is called

A
positive camber
.
B. negative camber
C
positive caster
.
D
negative caster
.
5. The purpose of transmission in an automobile is

A
to vary the speed of automobile
.
1369
B. to vary the torque at the wheels
C
to vary the power of automobile
.
D
none of these
.
6. A basic difference between the spark ignition engine and the Diesel engine is that the
A
Diesel engine compresses air alone instead of an air-fuel mixture
.
B. air temperature ignites the fuel in the Diesel engine
C fuel is sprayed into the combustion chamber in the Diesel engine as the piston nears
. T.D.C. on the compression stroke
D
all of the above
.
7. The cam shaft in an engine is always mounted

A
parallel to the crankshaft
.
B. perpendicular to the crankshaft
C
inclined to the crankshaft
.
D
none of these
.
8. Caster is a
A
forward tilt of the kingpin
.
B. backward tilt of the kingpin
C either 'a' or 'b'
1370
.
D
none of these
.
9. A front stabilizer bar is used to

A
increase vehicle load-carrying capacity
.
B. provide a softer ride
C
control suspension movement and body roll
.
D
all of the above
.
10. The timing belt is attached to the camshaft pulley and

A
timing belt drive pulley
.
B. distributor
C
radiator fan pulley
.
D
alternator pulley
.
11. When indicated power (I.P.) and frictional power (F.P.) are known, we can calculate
A
brake power
.
B. compression ratio
C
specific air consumption
.
D mean effective pressure
1371
.
12. A battery can be charged by

A
adding distilled water
.
B. adding sulphuric acid
C
applying voltage in the reverse direction to that of charging
.
D
applying a voltage in the same direction to that of charging
.
13. When the front wheels of a vehicle are locked during braking, then
A
stopping distance becomes extremely long
.
B. front tyres skid across the road surface, and the vehicle spins around
C
rear tyres skid across the road surface, and the vehicle spins around
.
D driver loses control over the steering, and the vehicle continues moving in its current
. direction
14. The order in which effort applied to the steering wheel is transferred to the front wheel is
A steering wheel - steering gearbox - steering shaft - tie rod - steering knuckle - front
. wheels
steering wheel - steering shaft - steering gearbox - tie rod - steering kunckle -front
B.
wheels
C steering wheel - steering shaft - steering gearbox - steering knuckle - tie rod - front
. wheels
D steering wheel - tie rod - steering gearbox - steering shaft - steering knuckle - front
. wheels
15. The best fuels for compression ignition engines are

A
1372
B. aromatics
C
branched chain paraffins
.
D
napthalenes
.
16. An oil filter bypass valve opens when the

A
engine is cold
.
B. engine overheats
C
oil filter becomes clogged
.
D
engine runs at high speed
.
17. Damper is also known as

A
shock absorber
.
B. torsion bar
C
spring
.
D
radius rod
.
18. The main characteristics of a maintenance-free (MF) battery is that

A a maintenance-free battery requires little maintenance during normal use and it is
. sufficient to add water instead of an electrolyte containing sulphuric acid
a maintenance-free battery has a relatively short shelf life when compared with
B.
standard batteries
1373
C since it is sealed, the water in a maintenance-free battery is not lost through
. evaporation thus accordingly it is not necessary to top up the cells with water
D
recharging of a maintenance-free battery is neither required nor possible
.
19. The most accurate ignition system of a spark ignition engine is

A
magneto system
.
B. battery system
C
electronic control unit system
.
D
magneto and electronic system
.
20. The main function of a resonator is that it

A
regulates the intake air flow rate
.
B. Reduces the intake air noise.
C
enhances intake efficiency
.
D
regulates the intake air temperature
.
21. For the same maximum pressure and temperature

A
Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle
.
B. Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle
C
both Otto cycle and Diesel cycle are equally efficient
.
1374
D
none of the above
.
22. The fuel pump of a programmed fuel injection (PFI) system operate for two seconds when
the ignition is turned to the start position to
A
enable the pump's fault-diagnosis function to operate
.
B. warm up and lubricate the pump
C
supply a large amount of fuel and thereby create a choke effect
.
D
pressurise the fuel system before the engine is started
.
23. In which of the following conditions, the idle CO percentage should be measured with the
vehicle ?
A
Headlights and other electrical devices are switched off.
.
B. Headlights and other electrical devices are switched on.
C
Headlights and other lights are switched off.
.
D
Headlights are switched on.
.
24. The mechanical efficiency (m) of an I.C. engine is equal to (where I.P. = Indicated
power, B.P. = Brake power and F.P. = Frictional power)
A
I.P/B.P.
.
B. B.P/I.P.
C
B.P/F.P
.
D F.P./B.P.
1375
.
25. The lower cylindrical portion of the piston which improves piston cooling performance is
called
A
piston crown
.
B. connecting rod
C
piston pin boss
.
D
piston skirt
.
26. The most effective method of controlling S.I. engine exhaust emission is by
A
recirculating exhaust
.
B. using catalytic converter
C
using some additives in the fuel
.
D
none of these
.
27. The power actually developed inside the engine cylinder is called as
A
indicated power
.
B. brake power
C
frictional power
.
D
none of these
.
28. When cornering, the differential generates a difference in the speed of the left and right
1376
wheels.
A
True
.
B. False
29. If clearance volume of I.C. engines is increased, the compression ratio will
A
increase
.
B. decrease
C
remain constant
.
D
be doubled
.
30. The basic function of the suspension is to

A
absorb vibration and impact forces from the road surface
.
B. ensure that the steering wheel can deliver a suitable amount of steering force
C
ensure that wheel alignment is not disturbed during driving
.
D
automatically correct the effects of over steering
.
31. Damper in an automobile is used to

A
absorb the energy
.
B. dissipate the energy
C
release the energy
.
1377
D
increase the energy
.
32. The combustion process in a Diesel engine is a

A
.
B. constant pressure process
C
constant temperature process
.
D
adiabatic process
.
33. The damper fluid leakage typically occur from

A
upper damper mounting
.
B. bottom of damper
C
clearance between inner and outer tubes of damper
.
D
coil spring mounting
.
34. The compression ratio of a petrol engine is nearly

A
4:1
.
B. 8:1
C
15:1
.
D
20:1
.
35. The rigid suspension is beneficial when

A
1378
B. it is desired to have more flexibility in design
C
it is desired to improve tyre-to-ground contact characteristics
.
D
large changes in load make it necessary to have a large suspension stroke
.
36. The tyre rotation is generally done at

A
1000 km
.
B. 4000 km
C
6000 km
.
D
10000 km
.
37. The function of a proportioning control valve (PCV) in a brake system is to

A ensure that equal pressure is supplied to the front and rear brakes throughout every
. braking operation
B. reduce the brake fluid pressure when the brakes approach their lockup point
C cause less brake fluid pressure to act on the front brakes than on the rear brakes when
. the fluid pressure exceeds a predetermined level
D cause less brake fluid pressure to act on the rear brakes than on the front brakes when
. the fluid pressure exceeds a predetermined level.
38. An under-inflated tyre will wear the tread most

A
near the centre
.
B. near the edges
C in the lateral direction
1379
.
D
in the cross direction
.
39. The auto ignition in a spark ignition engine means

A
automatic ignition of the charge at the end of compression
.
B. ignition induced by the passage of a spark
C
ignition of the charge before the passage of flame front
.
D
ignition induced to supplement the process of normal combustion
.
40. Two general types of tyres are

A
tube type and tubeless
.
B. solid and tubeless
C
air and pneumatic
.
D
split-rim and drop centre
.
41. The discharged lead-acid battery has on its plates

A
.
B. spongy lead (Pb)
C
.
D sulphuric acid (H2SO4)
1380
.
42. During suction stroke, the inside pressure of cylinder is

A
more than the atmospheric pressure
.
B. less than the atmospheric pressure
C
equal to the atmospheric pressure
.
D
none of these
.
43. The function of an oil control orifice is that it

A
returns cylinder head lubricating oil to the oil pan at high speed
.
B. turns oil into fine mist for spray lubrication
C regulates the pressure of engine oil supplied by the oil pump for the lubrication of
. cylinder head mechanism and other purposes
D
removes impurities from cylinder head lubricating oil
.
44. The advantage of having a tandem master cylinder arrangement in automobiles is that it
A
enhances safety by serving two independent lines in a divided-line brake circuit
.
enhances safety by activating the brakes using vacuum pressure in the event of brake
B.
fluid loss
C supplies equal fluid pressure to each line of a divided-line brake circuit, thereby
. preventing the brakes from dragging on one side
D
boosts the brake fluid pressure to reduce the force required to depress the brake pedal
.
45. In petrol engines, during suction stroke, __________ is drawn in the cylinder
A
1381
B. only fuel
C
only air
.
D
none of these
.
46. The included angle is the sum of the

A
camber and castor
.
B. castor and S.A.I
C
camber and S.A.I.
.
D
camber and toe-in
.
47. Which of the following parameter can be adjusted by modifying the tie-rod attachment
length ?
A
Camber
.
B. Caster
C
Toe
.
D
Steering gear ratio
.
48. The main feature of MacPherson strut suspension is that

A
the vertical size of the suspension can be made more compact
.
B. non-vertical external forces are supported by the suspension arms
1382
C
the unsprung mass in lighter
.
D
the assembly is slightly more complicated in design
.
49. The lubrication oil flow in an engine is in the order as

A
oil strainer - oil pump - relief valve - oil filter - cylinder block - cylinder head - oil pan
.
B. oil pump - oil strainer - relief valve - oil filter - cylinder block - cylinder head - oil pan
C
oil strainer - oil filter - relief valve - oil pump - cylinder block - cylinder head - oil pan
.
D
oil strainer - oil pump - relief valve - oil filter - cylinder head - cylinder block - oil pan
.
50. A three way catalytic converter

A
recirculates exhaust gasses
.
B. burns fuel vapaour gasses
C
reduces N2, H2O, and CO2 emission levels
.
D
removes CO, HC, and NO2 from the exhaust gasses passing through it
.

1. The PCV valve incorporates a spring loaded plunger and opens in proportion to the level of
vacuum pressure in the intake manifold.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
2. The motion of the cam is transferred to the rocker arm, moving it upwards and downwards.
1383
This rocker-arm motion then forces the valve downwards against the force in the valve
spring so that the valve can open.
A
True
.
B. False
3. The fuel pump in the programmed fuel injection (PFI) system is located
A
between the fuel-filler pipe and fuel tank
.
B. in the fuel tank
C
on the distributor mounting in the engine compartment
.
D
on the engine compartment bulkhead
.
4. The camshaft of a four stroke Diesel engine running at 1000 rpm will run at
A
500 rpm
.
B. 1000 rpm
C
2000 rpm
.
D
4000 rpm
.
5. The main merit of a multi-cylinder type cylinder sleeve is

A
smaller engine dimensions
.
B. better cooling efficiency
C
high rigidity
.
1384
D
none of these
.
6. The materials used for cylinder block are

A
cast iron and steel
.
B. cast iron and aluminium alloy
C
steel and aluminium alloy
.
D
brass and steel
.
7. The positive plates of a lead acid battery has

A
.
B. spongy lead (Pb)
C
.
D
sulphuric acid (H2SO4)
.
8. The path taken by intake air is

A
carburettor (or throttle body) - air cleaner - intake manifold - intake ports - cylinders
.
B. air cleaner - carburettor (or throttle body) -intake ports - intake manifold - cylinders
C
air cleaner - intake manifold - carburettor (or throttle body) - intake ports - cylinders
.
D
air cleaner - carburettor (or throttle body) - intake manifold - intake ports - cylinders
.
9. The basic purpose of tyre rotation on automobiles is to

A
1385
B. equalize wear
C
get better ride
.
D
none of these
.
10. Which of the following is not an automobile ?

A
Motor cycle
.
B. Passenger car
C
Aeroplane
.
D
Truck
.
11. In a square type engine

A
geometrical shape is square
.
B. diameter and length of piston are same
C
two cylinders are placed horizontal and two vertical
.
D
stroke length and cylinder bore are same
.
12. The ignition in a spark ignition engine takes place when the piston is
A
exactly at the T.D.C. position on its compression stroke
.
B. approaching the T.D.C. position on its compression stroke
C leaving the T.D.C. position on its compression stroke
1386
.
D
approaching the T.D.C position on its exhaust stroke
.
13. The camshaft is driven by the crankshaft via the timing belt.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
14. The engine oil is stored in __________ when the engine is not running.
A
oil pan
.
B. cylinder head
C
oil pump
.
D
separate oil tank
.
15. The most commonly used power plant in automobiles is

A
gas turbine
.
B. I.C. engine
C
battery
.
D
none of these
.
16. The condition that results in large quantities of CO emission is

A
insufficient air during combustion
.
1387
B. insufficient fuel during combustion
C
low temperature combustion
.
D
high temperature combustion
.
17. In comparison with a radial tyre, one advantage of a bias-ply tyre is

A
longer life
.
B. lower rolling resistance
C
smoother ride at low speeds
.
D
none of these
.
18. The sequence order of events in a four-stroke engine is

A
suction - exhaust - power - compression
.
B. suction - power - compression - exhaust
C
suction - compression - power - exhaust
.
D
exhaust - compression - power - suction
.
19. Which of the following is not a part of the chassis ?

A
Wheels
.
B. Front axle
C Steering system
1388
.
D
Seats
.
20. The capacity of a battery is usually expressed in terms of

A
volts
.
B. amperes
C
weight
.
D
ampere-hours
.
21. Vulcanizing means

A
heating rubber under pressure
.
B. spraying with special paint
C
melting rubber while stirring it
.
D
none of these
.
22. The engine torque increases with the increase in engine speed up to a certain point after
which it starts to fall down.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
23. The instrument used to check specific gravity of acid in a battery is

A
hydrometer
.
1389
B. hygrometer
C
anemometer
.
D
multimeter
.
24. The material generally used for cylinder sleeves is

A
aluminium
.
B. ceremic
C
cast iron
.
D
fibre reinforced plastic
.
25. When turning a corner,

A
the front wheels are toeing out
.
B. the front wheels are turning on different angles
C
the inside front wheels has a greater angle than the outside wheel
.
D
all of the above
.
26. The acid used in automobile battery is

A
hydrochloric acid
.
B. hydrofluoric acid
C nitric acid
1390
.
D
sulphuric acid
.
27. The rolling resistance is because of the friction between the

A
wheel rim and tyre
.
B. tyre and the road surface
C
wheel rim and road surface
.
D
none of these
.
28. The Diesel engine works on

A
Otto cycle
.
B. Carnot cycle
C
Diesel cycle
.
D
Rankine cycle
.
29. When a gear box has four forward speeds and one reverse speed, it is said to be a
A
3-speed gear box
.
B. 4-speed gear box
C
5-speed gear box
.
D 6-speed gear box
1391
.
30. The basic purpose of providing caster angle on wheels is to

A
prevent uneven tyre wear
.
B. maintain directional control
C
bring the road contact of the tyre under the point of load
.
D
compensate for wear in the steering linkage
.
31. When the piston is at T.D.C, the volume above the piston in the combustion chamber is the
A
clearance volume
.
B. cylinder volume
C
exhaust volume
.
D
none of these
.
32. In a hydraulic power steering system, the power steering pump is driven by a
A
belt-driven by camshaft
.
B. chain-driven by crankshaft
C
belt-driven by driveshaft
.
D
belt-driven by crankshaft
.
33. The correct way to rectify an imbalanced wheel is to

A
adjust the tyre pressure
.
1392
B. rotate the tyres
C
adjust the damper spring tension
.
D
attach appropriate weights to the wheel at appropriate positions
.
34. The fuel that detonates easily, is

A
n-heptane
.
B. iso-octane
C
benzene
.
D
alcohol
.
35. When the engine speed increases, the ignition timing must be advanced.
A
Yes
.
B. No
36. The main cause for the change in engine oil viscosity is
A
humidity
.
B. temperature
C
vibration
.
D
contamination
.
37. The problems caused by the wheel imbalance are

A
hard steering and hard ride
.
1393
B. poor acceleration and hard steering
C
steering wheel vibrations and uneven tyre wear
.
D
poor acceleration and reduced fuel efficiency
.
38. The connecting rod lower end is connected to the relevant __________ of crankshaft.
A
big end
.
B. crank arm
C
journal
.
D
small end
.
39. The parking brake generally acts on

A
front wheels
.
B. rear wheels
C
front and rear wheels
.
D
propeller shaft
.
40. The forced-fed lubrication system means that the oil is delivered to the engine by
A
gravity
.
B. the pressure created by the oil pump
C splashing action of the crankshaft
1394
.
D
none of these
.
41. The connecting rod connects the piston and the

A
cylinder head
.
B. cylinder block
C
camshaft
.
D
crankshaft
.
42. Valve overlap is the number of degrees of camshaft rotation during which
A
both valves are closed
.
B. both valves are open
C
both 'a' and 'b'
.
D
none of these
.
43. The engine's idling speed will increase by a slight degree immediately after a cold engine has
been started. It will drop as the engine warms up. And it will eventually reach the standard
level.
A
True
.
B. False
44. The component that is responsible for converting the rotation of the steering wheel into
lateral motion is the
A steering wheel
1395
.
B. steering shaft
C
steering gearbox
.
D
tie rod
.
45. The crankcase dilution means

A
dilution of fuel in the crankcase
.
B. dilution of oil by water in the crankcase
C
dilution of lubrication oil by fuel in the crankcase
.
D
dilution of mixture passing through crankcase in two-stroke engines
.
46. The commonly used antifreeze solution in automobiles is

A
carbon disulphide
.
B. ethylene glycol
C
ammonium chloride
.
D
freon-12
.
47. The indicated power of a four-stroke engine (in watts) is equal to (where P = Mean effective
pressure in N/m2, L = Length of stroke in metres, A = Cross-sectional area of the piston in
m2, and N = Speed of the engine in revolutions per second (r.p.s))
A
P.L.A.N/2
.
1396
B. P.L.A.N
C
2 x P.L.A.N
.
D
P.L.A.N/4
.
48. Engine misfiring is likely to result from

A
spark plug gap too small
.
B. spark plug gap too wide
C
vapour lock in the fuel only
.
D
incorrect fuel air mixture
.
49. The basic part of the engine, to which the other engine parts are attached or assembled is the
A
cylinder head
.
B. crankshaft
C
cylinder block
.
D
oil pan
.
50. Which of the following bulb in a car will have the least wattage ?
A
Head light bulb
.
B. Stop light bulb
C Parking light bulb
1397
.
D
Ignition warning bulb
.

1. If the valve clearances are excessively large, the problem that can arise is
A
overheating of the engine
.
B. incomplete valve closure
C
fouling of spark plug by gasoline
.
D
none of these
.
2. The power source for a brake booster is

A
exhaust manifold pressure
.
B. electricity
C the pressure difference between the atmospheric pressure and the vaccum pressure in
. the intake manifold
D
hydraulic pump
.
3. The Diesel engines are also known as

A
spark ignition (S.I.) engines
.
B. compression ignition (C.I.) engines
1398
C
steam engines
.
D
none of these
.
4. The specific gravity of acid in a fully charged battery is generally

A
1.00
.
B. 1.28
C
1.82
.
D
2.81
.
5. The brake pedal during ABS operation

A
is pushed upward forcefully
.
B. pedal stroke becomes longer
C
transmits slight kickback to the driver's foot
.
D
all of the above
.
6. The gear shift lever requires two separate motions to shift gears, and the first movement
A
moves the synchronizer
.
B. selects the synchronizer
C
meshes the gears
.
1399
D
operates the clutch
.
7. Two speed reverse gear arrangement is generally provided in case of

A
passenger cars
.
B. metadors
C
tractors
.
D
trucks
.
8. Wheel base of a vehicle is the

A
distance between the centres of the front and rear wheels
.
B. distance between the centres of the front tyres
C
distance between the centres of the rear tyres
.
D
extreme length of the vehicle
.
9. Which of the following oil is more viscous ?

A
SAE 30
.
B. SAE 40
C
SAE 70
.
D
SAE 80
.
10. Odometer is an instrument used for measurement of

A
1400
B. fuel consumption
C
engine r.p.m.
.
D
distance
.
11. A heat treated glass generally used in automobiles bursts into __________ upon cracking,
A
sharp edged fragments
.
B. small particles
12. The compression ratio in Diesel engines is less than the petrol engine.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
13. In Diesel engines, the duration between the time of injection and the time of ignition is called
A
spill cut-off
.
B. delay period
C
injection period
.
D
ignition period
.
14. The negative terminal post on the top of a battery is

A
smaller than the positive terminal post
.
B. larger than the positive terminal post
C of the same size as the positive terminal post
1401
.
D
none of these
.
15. In a single dry plate clutch, torsional vibrations are absorbed by

A
coil springs known as torsional springs
.
B. cushion springs
C
central hub
.
D
clutch pedal
.
16. In a four wheel drive (4WD), the number of gear boxes are
A
1
.
B. 2
C
3
.
D
4
.
17. How many cells are used in a 12 volt car battery ?

A
2
.
B. 4
C
6
.
D 8
1402
.
18. In an engine, the temperature of the piston will be more at the

A
crown of the piston
.
B. skirt of the piston
C
piston walls
.
D
piston rings
.
19. An over-inflated tyre will wear the tread most near the
A
edges
.
B. corners
C
centre
.
D
none of these
.
20. Cushioning springs in clutch plate reduces

A
vehicle speed
.
B. torsional vibrations
C
jerky starts
.
D
none of these
.
21. In a four stroke engine for each crankshaft revolution, the camshaft revolves
A
one-half turn
.
1403
B. one turn
C
two turns
.
D
four turns
.
22. If a tyre is designated as 175/65 R14 82 S, then the aspect ratio for the tyre is
A
175
.
B. 65
C
14
.
D
82
.
23. An engine has a clearance volume of 100 cm3 and a swept volume of 800 cm3. The
compression ratio is
A
7:1
.
B. 8:1
C
9:1
.
D
10:1
.
24. Toe-in ensures parallel rolling of the wheel thus stabilizing steering in addition to preventing
both sides slipping and excessive tyre wear.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
1404
25. The valve tappet clearance is measured by
A
screw pitch gauge
.
B. engineering scale
C
feeler gauge
.
D
vernier caliper
.
26. The basic purpose of tyres is to

A
grip the road and provide good traction
.
B. substitute for springs
C
act as brake
.
D
none of these
.
27. The specific gravity of petrol is about

A
0.75
.
B. 0.85
C
0.95
.
D
1.25
.
28. The clutch is located between the transmission and the

A
engine
.
1405
B. rear axle
C
propeller shaft
.
D
differential
.
29. Which one of the following statement correctly describes the construction of a bevel-gear
type differential?
A
The drive shafts are splined to the differential carrier.
.
B. The left side gear and the differential carrier rotate in constant unison.
C The differential carrier houses differential pinion gears and side gears, each pinion
. gear meshes with a different side gear.
D
The differential carrier houses differential pinion gears and side gears
.
30. The brake warning light warns the driver of

A
water in the master cylinder
.
B. air in the hydraulic system
C
failure of the primary or secondary circuit of hydraulic system
.
D
power-brake failure
.
31. Highest useful compression ratio (HUCR) is the highest compression ratio at which the
A
engine can run
.
B. engine gives maximum output
1406
C
engine is most efficient
.
D
fuel can be used in a test engine without knocking
.
32. In Diesel engines, during suction stroke, __________ is drawn in the cylinder.
A
air and fuel
.
B. only fuel
C
only air
.
D
none of these
.
33. The formula for Iso-octane is

A
C8H18
.
B. C7H17
C
C6H18
.
D
C7H18
.
34. The crankshaft of a typical in-line four cylinder engine has __________ balance weights.
A
12
.
B. 4
C
16
.
1407
D
8
.
35. The function of a governor in automobiles is to

A
limit the power
.
B. limit the vehicle speed
C
maintain constant engine speed
.
D
maximise the fuel economy
.
36. A petrol that detonates easily is called

A
high octane petrol
.
B. low octane petrol
C
unleaded petrol
.
D
blended fuel
.
37. In comparison to frame type construction, the frameless structure construction of

automobiles is economical when produced in __________ numbers.
A
small
.
B. large
38. The minimum parking brake force is generally __________ of gross vehicle mass (GVM).
A
5%
.
B. 10%
1408
C
15%
.
D
20%
.
39. Bead wires are made of

A
steel
.
B. copper
C
zinc
.
D
aluminium
.
40. The condition that results in large quantities of HC emission is

A
high temperature combustion
.
B. incomplete combustion
C
low temperature combustion
.
D
high atmospheric temperature combustion
.
41. A petrol engine of a car develops 125 N-m torque at 2700 r.p.m. The car is driven in second
gear having gear ratio of 1.75. The final drive ratio is 4.11. If the overall transmission
efficiency is 90%, then the torque available at the driving wheels is
A
8.091 N-m
.
B. 80.91 N-m
1409
C
809.1 N-m
.
D
8091 N-m
.
42. The advantage of the fuel injection system over the carburetor system is
A
improved fuel efficiency
.
B. improved emission
C
improved power output
.
D
all of these
.
43. The component of the oil filter that prevents the passage of metal particles and sludge is
A
element
.
B. relief valve
C
check valve
.
D
case
.
44. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the construction of a planetary
gear type differential?
A
The six planetary pinions rotate in constant mesh with the internal gears.
.
B. One drive shaft is splined to the central gear and the other to the planetary gear.
C
Each planetary pinion gear meshes with both the central gear and the internal gear.
.
1410
D
The internal gear is fixed to the planetary gear.
.
45. The engine oil viscosity is defined by __________ ratings.

A
automatic transmission fluid (ATF)
.
B. society of automotive engineers (SAE)
C
gross vehicle weight (GVW)
.
D
American petroleum institute (API)
.
46. A maintenance free battery

A
has lead-antimony plate grid
.
B. has lead-calcium plate grid
C
does not contain acid
.
D
does not contain water
.
47. The function of a connecting rod is

A
to turn the flywheel
.
B. to drive the drive plate
C
to drive the fuel pump
.
D
to transmit motion of the piston to the crankshaft
.
48. In a Diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by

A
1411
B. the heat of compression
C
the hot exhaust
.
D
none of these
.
49. The engine oil level should be checked

A
immediately after the ignition switch is turned off
.
B. while the engine is running
C
a few minutes after the ignition switch is turned off
.
D
while the engine is running at high-idle speed
.
50. In a four cylinder in-line engine, the number of firing strokes in one revolution of the crank is
A
1
.
B. 2
C
3
.
D
4
.
51. The advantage of a tubeless tyre over tube type tyre is

A
slow air leakage
.
B. better fuel efficiency
C less chances of running flat
1412
.
D
all of these
.
52. The Diesel engines as compared to petrol engines require

A
bigger flywheel
.
B. smaller flywheel
C
same size of flywheel
.
D
no flywheel
.
53. In a forced feed lubrication system, the device used to guard against excessive oil pressure, is
known as
A
release chamber
.
B. balancer
C
relief valve
.
D
stop valve
.
54. The seat belt tensioners are built in the

A
front seats
.
B. shoulder anchors
C
seat belt retractors
.
1413
D
seat belt buckles
.
55. When the vehicle is at rest, the clutch is in engaged position.

A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
18. Technical Drawing Questions and Answers
Technical Drawing Questions and Answers
1. Traditional Drafting Techniques

1. A half-moon protractor is divided into how many degrees?
A
360
.
B. 180
C
270
.
D
310
.
2. A line drawn with a long section, short dash, and another long section is a ________.
A
hidden feature
.
B. center of a circle
C
center axis of a hidden cylinder
.
D
center of a radius
.
3. Traditional drafters need to be able to create several different line widths because ________.
A different line widths convey different information
1414
.
B. the line width has to do with how dark it appear in the finished drawing
C
they seem to transmit better in a fax machine
.
D
it makes no difference
.
4. Several of the tools used in traditional drafting include the following:
A
Parallel straight edge
.
B. 45 degree triangle
C
Circle template
.
D
All of the above
.
5. A civil engineer working on a bridge design would probably rely on his ________ scale for
checking printed drawings.
A
engineer's
.
B. metric
C
architect's
.
D
none of the above
.
6. In order to convert fractional inches into decimal inches ________.
A
look on a metric conversion chart
.
B. divide the numerator (top number) by the denominator (bottom number)
C
check the engineer's scale
.
D
all of the above
.
An engineer's scale would be used to measure lines on a drawing where the scale factor reads
_______.
1
A /4" = 1'-0"
1415
.
1
B. /8" = 1'-0"
C
1" = 100'
.
D 3
/4" = 1'-0"
.
8. Referring to the fractional inches to decimal inches to millimeter conversion chart on page 55
what is the equivalent mm measurement of 3/16 inch.
A
1.906
.
B. 4.7625
C
5.958
.
D
14.6844
.
9. Some traditional board drafters preferred the drafting machine over the parallel straight edge
because it could be used without the need for________.
A
circle templates
.
B. triangles
C
technical pens
.
D
lettering guides
.
10. The first step in creating a traditional technical drawing is to ________.
A
draw a series of guide lines
.
B. set up the miter line
C
align the paper so that it will be positioned square to the parallel bar
.
D
sharpen the leads in the technical pens
.
1A.Traditional Drafting Techniques - True or False
1416
1. With some imagination, traditional drafters could actually produce a true 3-dimensional
drawing.
A
True
.
B. False
2. The parallel straight edge can be used for aligning the paper as well as drawing horizontal
lines.
A
True
.
B. False
3. Both the drafting machine and the parallel straight edge were used on specially designed
tables to aid the drafter in producing technical drawings.
A
True
.
B. False
4. When using a technical pencil to create a drawing the drafter would usually select a soft lead
to create a very light line.
A
True
.
B. False
5. A line to be drawn perpendicular to a horizontal line can only be drawn with a 45 degree
triangle.
A
True
.
B. False
6. An architect's scale is divided into 10ths of an inch.
A
True
.
B. False
7. A drafter can use the 45 degree triangle to draw a 30 degree line.
A
True
.
B. False
8. Every drafter and engineer continues to utilize both the architect and engineer's scales.
A True
1417
.
B. False
9. Prior to the development of computer aided drafting, drafters relied on drawing boards,
paper, and pencils to create technical drawings.
A
True
.
B. False
10. A 15 degree line can be easily created by arranging both the 45 degree and 30/60 degree
triangles.
A
True
.
B. False
2. Layouts and Lettering
1. When lettering a CAD drawing, for clarity you should limit the number of fonts to:
A
One
.
B. Two
C
Three
.
D
Any number
.
2. The primary unit of measurement for engineering drawings and design in the mechanical
industries is the:
A
Millimeter
.
B. Centimeter
C
Meter
.
D
Kilometer
.
3. These units are based on inch-foot and yard measurements:
A International customary units
1418
.
B. U.S. metric units
C
U.S. customary units
.
D
ISO international units
.
4. This is how axonometric, oblique, and perspective sketches show objects:
A
Orthographically
.
B. Pictorially
C
Obliquely
.
D
Parallel
.
5. This type of projection is when projectors are parallel to each other, but are at an angle other
than 90 degrees to the plane of projection:
A
Oblique projection
.
B. Perpendicular projection
C
Aesthetic projection
.
D
Angular projection
.
6.There are two main types of projection:

A
Parallel and Orthographic
.
B. Station-point and Perspective
C
Parallel and Convergent
.
D
Perspective and Parallel
.
2A.Layouts and Lettering - True or False
1419
1. In orthographic projection objects can be presented at true size or scaled at a proportion of
their true size.
A
True
.
B. False
2. The same general concepts and drafting standards apply to CAD as to drawings created by
hand.
A
True
.
B. False
3. The meaning of each line on a technical drawing is indicated by its width and its particular
line style.
A
True
.
B. False
4. Orthographic projections are a type of parallel projection.
A
True
.
B. False
5. Drawings that use U.S. customary units do not follow ANSI/ASME standards.
A
True
.
B. False
6. The main difference between a CAD drawing and a freehand sketch is in the appearance of
lines.
A
True
.
B. False
7. With regard to lettering, the shapes of letters are not described as part of drawing standards.
A
True
.
B. False
8. Scale is stated as a ratio of the number of drawing units to the number of actual units.
A
True
.
1420
B. False
9. Axonometric, oblique, and perspective sketches show objects pictorially.
A
True
.
B. False
10. Drawing units must be clearly stated on the drawing.
A
True
.
B. False
11. Drawing scale refers only to the reduction of the size of a drawn object relative to the real
object.
A
True
.
B. False
12. Orthographic projections have projectors that are parallel to the plane of projection.
A
True
.
B. False
13. Multiview projection shows one or more necessary views of an object.
A
True
.
B. False
14. Three systems are used to arrange orthographic views: first, second, and third angle
projection.
A
True
.
B. False
3.Orthographic Projection
1. The top, front, and bottom views align in this manner:

A. Horizontally
B. Vertically
C. According to the planar views
D. Parallel to the frontal plane
1421
2. If a plane is parallel to the plane of projection, it appears:
A. True size
B. As a line or edge
C. Foreshortened
D. As an oblique surface
3. This line pattern is composed of three dashes, one long dash on each end with a short dash in
the middle:
A. Object
B. Hidden
C. Center
D. Phantom
4. This is the plane upon which the top view is projected:
A. Horizontal
B. Frontal
C. Profile
D. Base
5. An advantage of this type of view is that each view shows the object all the way through as if
it were transparent:
A
Planar
.
B. Horizontal
C
Auxiliary
.
D
Orthographic
.
6.This type of surface is tipped to all principal planes of projection and does not appear true
size in any standard view:
A
Foreshortened
.
B. Parallel
C
Orthographic
.
1422
D
Oblique
.
3A.Orthographic Projection - True or False
1. Visible lines always take precedence over hidden lines or centerlines.

A
True
.
B. False
2. Any object can be viewed from six mutually perpendicular views.
A
True
.
B. False
3. A total of three principal views are arranged in a standard way.
A
True
.
B. False
4. Height is shown in the left-side, top, right-side, and bottom views.
A
True
.
B. False
5. A plane surface always projects either on edge or as a surface in any view.
A
True
.
B. False
6. If an edge is perpendicular to a plane of projection, it appears as a point.
A
True
.
B. False
7. The depth dimensions in the top and side views do not necessarily correspond.
A
True
.
B. False
8. The profile plane is the plane upon which the side view is projected.
A True
1423
.
B. False
9. The rear, left-side, front, and right-side views align horizontally.
A
True
.
B. False
10. Width is shown in the rear, top, front, and bottom views.
A
True
.
B. False
11. If an angle is in an inclined plane, it may be projected either larger or smaller than the true
angle depending on its position.
A
True
.
B. False
12. Usually screws, bolts, shafts, tubes, and other elongated parts are drawn in a vertical position
in the front view.
A
True
.
B. False
13. A normal surface is perpendicular to a plane of projection.
A
True
.
B. False
14. In orthographic views, dashed lines represent features that would be hidden behind other
surfaces.
A
True
.
B. False
15. Drawings are two-dimensional representations of objects that allow you to record sizes and
shapes precisely.
A
True
.
B. False
1424
16. Any principal view shows three of the four principal dimensions.
A
True
.
B. False
17. A plane surface that is parallel to a plane of projection appears on edge as a straight line.
A
True
.
B. False
18. First-angle projection is primarily used in Europe and Asia.
A
True
.
B. False
4. Sectional Views
1. This type of section is limited by a break line:

A
Removed section
.
B. Revolved section
C
Broken-out section
.
D
Half section
.
2. Drafters should use a ________ in a section view of a mechanical part that includes the
cylindrical view of a threaded hole.
A
Center line
.
B. Hatch line
C
Poly line
.
D
Dimension line
.
3. The section view drawing in which one fourth of an object has been marked for removal is
known as a ________ section.
A
full
.
1425
B. half
C
quarter
.
D
none of the above
.
4. In offset sections, offsets or bends in the cutting plane are all:
A
90 degrees
.
B. 180 degrees
C
Either 90 or 180 degrees
.
D
30, 60, or 90 degrees
.
5. When filling an area with a hatch pattern in AutoCAD the drafter needs to be able to
________.
A
see the entire bounding area to hatch
.
B. set Ortho on
C
turn ISO grid off
.
D
set the layer to Defpoints
.
6. To avoid having to dimension to a hidden feature the drafter can utilize a ________ section.
A
whole
.
B. half
C
broken out
.
D
all of the above
.
7. Objects that are symmetric can be shown effectively using this type of section:
A
Quarter section
.
B. Half section
1426
C
Full section
.
D
Symmetric section
.
8. This type of section is not in direct projection from the view containing the cutting plane:
A
Revolved section
.
B. Removed section
C
Broken-out section
.
D
Full section
.
9. By using a ________ section of a cylindrical mechanical part the drafter should be able to
show only one view of the part.
A
half
.
B. whole
C
revolved
.
D
broken out
.
10. In the section view, the areas that would have been in actual contact with the cutting plane
are shown with:
A
A cutting plane line
.
B. Section lining
C
Visible lines
.
D
Lines and arrows
.
11. These breaks are used to shorten the view of an object:
A
Section breaks
.
B. Aligned breaks
1427
C
Conventional breaks
.
D
Full breaks
.
12. In architectural drawing ________ are often used to illustrate and detail structural
components.
A
Foundation beam detail sections
.
B. Wall sections
C
Building sections
.
D
All of the above
.
13. When only a small section of an interior area needs to be revealed the drafter can use a
________ section.
A
half
.
B. quarter
C
full
.
D
broken out
.
14. In this type of section, one quarter of the object is removed:
A
Revolved section
.
B. Removed section
C
Quarter section
.
D
Half section
.
15. A ________ section allows the drafter to create a Cutting Plane line which is not in a straight
line across the part.
A
Offset
.
1428
B. half
C
whole
.
D
broken out
.
16. The ________ is a standard element of a section view in a technical drawing.
A
Cutting Plane line
.
B. Section lines
C
Material hatch pattern
.
D
All of the above
.
17. When creating a Cutting Plane line with AutoCAD it is customary to use a ________ to
create the line.
A
center line
.
B. polyline
C
dashed line
.
D
hatch line
.
4A.Sectional Views - True or False
1. Hidden lines are typically included in section views.

A
True
.
B. False
2. The Cutting Plane line reveals the type of material that the object is to be made from.
A
True
.
B. False
3. Removed sections should be labeled and arranged in order from right to left.
A True
1429
.
B. False
4. When a cutting plane line would obscure important details, just the ends of the line outside
the view and the arrows can be shown.
A
True
.
B. False
5. The cutting plane is shown in a view adjacent to the sectional view.
A
True
.
B. False
6. The pattern used for hatching a section can be something other than diagonal lines.
A
True
.
B. False
7. In offset sections, the bends in the cutting plane are typically shown in the sectional view.
A
True
.
B. False
8. Omit hidden lines from both halves of a half section whenever possible.
A
True
.
B. False
9. The visible edges of the object behind the cutting plane are not cross-hatched.
A
True
.
B. False
10. Quarter sections expose the interior of one half of the object and the exterior of the other
half.
A
True
.
B. False
11. The visible lines adjacent to a revolved section may be broken out if desired.
A
True
.
1430
B. False
12. When a part is cut fully in half, the resulting view is called a half section.
A
True
.
B. False
13. The ANSI 131 hatch pattern is the AutoCAD default hatch pattern.
A
True
.
B. False
14. The section lines in all hatched areas for an object must be parallel.
A
True
.
B. False
15. One of the outcomes of using section views in a technical drawing is the elimination of
hidden lines.
A
True
.
B. False
16. In AutoCAD the Hatch tool is used to designate what pattern is to be used for a section view.
A
True
.
B. False
17. The angle of revolution should always be less than 45 degrees for an aligned section.
A
True
.
B. False
18. In technical drawing a section view is often used to reveal some or all of an object's internal
features.
A
True
.
B. False
19. Section views are only used for mechanical drawings.
A
True
.
1431
B. False
20. The Cutting Plane line should be displayed at the same line weight as object lines.
A
True
.
B. False
21. When a cutting plane coincides with a centerline, the cutting plane line takes precedence.
A
True
.
B. False
22. If you set the ANSI 131 hatch pattern to an angle of 45 degrees the lines will be placed
vertically.
A
True
.
B. False
23. Ribs, webs, gear teeth, and other similar features are typically not hatched with section
lining, even if the cutting plane slices them.
A
True
.
B. False
24. Section views cannot replace the normal top, front, side, or other standard orthographic
views.
A
True
.
B. False
25. A section-lined area is always completely bounded by a visible outline.
A
True
.
B. False
26. The preferred cutting plane line style is made up of equal dashes ending in arrowheads.
A
True
.
B. False
27. The arrow points on either end of a Cutting Plane line indicate the direction of view.
A True
1432
.
B. False
28. It is not acceptable to use the general-purpose symbol at different angles for different parts.
A
True
.
B. False
5. Multi view Drawing
1. If a designer is developing a plan for a project in which the entire part is made out of "
thick plywood and he only wants to use one view, he should use the ________ view.
A
front
.
B. top
C
right
.
D
back
.
2. In developing a multi-view drawing the drafter can use a ________ line to help locate the top
and right side views.
A
object
.
B. hidden
C
dimension
.
D
miter
.
3. The type of line that projects from an object for the express purpose of locating a dimension
is a ________ line.
A
visible
.
B. hidden
C
extension
.
1433
D
dimension
.
4. Center lines are used to locate or represent the centers of ________.
A
arcs
.
B. circles
C
hidden round features
.
D
all of the above
.
5. Architectural drawings used to construct a house are often plotted with a scale of " = 1'-0".
What scale is this?
A
Quarter
.
B. Half
C
Full
.
D
Double
.
6. In multi-view drawing it is common practice to include three views, the front, the top and the
right side. If no dimensions are required on the right side view the drafter can ________.
A
leave the view as is
.
B. eliminate the view
C
use the left view instead
.
D
none of the above
.
7. The AutoCAD command used to combine two or more primitive shapes into a single
complex 3-dimensional model is ________.
A
add
.
B. union
C attach
1434
.
D
form
.
8. Most architectural drawings produced for field use by building contractors are printed on
architectural "D" size paper which measures ________.
A
24" X 36"
.
B. 18" X 24"
C
11" X 17"
.
D
34" X 22"
.
9. Geometric primitives include shapes such as ________.
A
boxes
.
B. cylinders
C
wedges
.
D
all of the above
.
10. A full scale technical drawing will have a scale factor of ________.
A
1:1
.
B. 1:2
C
2:1
.
D
1:4
.
5A.Multiview Drawing - True or False
1. If technical drawings are used to communicate size and shape descriptions, it is not important
to worry about either the weight of a line or the type of line being used.
A
True
.
1435
B. False
2. The ASME Y14.2M line thickness standard for visible lines is .8mm thick.
A
True
.
B. False
3. A projection plane is an imaginary 2 dimensional plane that needs to be parallel to the
surface of the object.
A
True
.
B. False
4. A "D" size architectural sheet measures 24" X 36".
A
True
.
B. False
5. In a set of architectural drawings the views illustrating the front, back, and side of a house
are called elevations.
A
True
.
B. False
6. A visible line represents the continuous edge of an object being illustrated.
A
True
.
B. False
7. A three dimensional object can be constructed with only the height and width dimensions
given.
A
True
.
B. False
8. Short dashed lines can be used to illustrate a visible feature.
A
True
.
B. False
9. Multi-view drawings are usually comprised of the projected views which illustrate the
height, width, and depth of an object.
A
True
.
1436
B. False
10. The projection of geometric information such as lines, points, and planes is usually referred
to as orthographic projection.
A
True
.
B. False
6. Dimensioning
1. The condition of a part when it contains the least amount of material is referred to as
________.
A
smallest
.
B. LMC
C
MMC
.
D
actual size
.
2. This is used to indicate that a surface is to be machined:
A
Finish mark
.
B. Machining mark
C
Roughness indicator
.
D
Coordinate mark
.
3. The ________ tool on the Dimension tool bar places the length of an arch on a drawing.
4. How can the drafter prevent AutoCAD from placing or stacking another center mark on a
circle when adding a diameter dimension to it?
A
Explode the dimension and then erase the center mark.
.
B. Use the Properties dialog box to turn off the center mark of the dimension.
C
It can't be done.
.
D
Use the trim tool to take away the stacked center mark.
.
1437
5. In this type of dimensioning, allowance must be made for bends:
A
Angular
.
B. Tolerance
C
Datum
.
D
Sheet metal
.
6. One way to evenly space dimensions on a drawing is to use the ________.
A
Dimension Space tool
.
B. Linear tool
C
Continue tool
.
D
Baseline tool
.
7. The ________ tool on the Dimension tool bar will place several dimensions at one time by
using a selection box placed over several part features.
A
Linear
.
B. Continue
C
Baseline
.
D
Quick Dimension
.
8. A circular arc is dimensioned in the view where you see its true shape by giving the value for
its:
A
Diameter
.
B. Arc length
C
Radius
.
D
Chord length
.
1438
9. This is the total amount that the feature on the actual part is allowed to vary from what is
specified by the dimension:
A
Allowance
.
B. Tolerance
C
Specification
.
D
Difference
.
10. The ________ dimension tool will place the length of an angled line.
A
Aligned
.
B. Angle
C
Linear
.
D
Radial
.
11. Placement of dimensions on a drawing is controlled by ________.
A
ANSI
.
B. The design engineer
C
Corporate drafting standards
.
D
All of the above
.
12. Baseline dimensions are referenced from a common geometric feature known as a ________.
A
edge
.
B. corner
C
datum
.
D
point of reference
.
13. Given a situation in which the drafter has crossed extension lines in a drawing what can be
1439
done to clean up the point of crossing?
A
Use the Modify tool to clean up the extension lines.
.
B. Use the Tolerance tool to clean up the extension lines.
C
Use the Break tool to clean up the extension lines.
.
D
Use the stretch tool to clean up the extension lines.
.
14. This is a thin solid line directing attention to a note or dimension and starting with an
arrowhead or dot:
A
Dimension line
.
B. Extension line
C
Leader
.
D
Specification
.
15. The maximum and minimum sizes of a feature are identified by a ________ tolerance.
A
Limits
.
B. GD&T
C
reference
.
D
allowance
.
16. This is a line terminated by arrowheads, indicating the direction and extent of a dimension:
A
Dimension line
.
B. Extension line
C
Arrowhead line
.
D
Centerline
.
17. In U.S. structural and architectural drafting, all dimensions of this length are usually
1440
expressed in feet and inches:
A
One inch or over
.
B. One foot or over
C
One yard or over
.
D
One rod or over
.
6A.Dimensioning - True or False
1. The inch is the commonly used unit for most metric engineering drawings.
A
True
.
B. False
2. Most mechanical drawings will include tolerance information in or near the drawing title
block.
A
True
.
B. False
3. When designing mechanical devices, the designer must consider what the allowable variation
in size between mating parts can be.
A
True
.
B. False
4. Fillet radii can be given in a general note.
A
True
.
B. False
5. An external cylindrical shape is dimensioned where it appears circular.
A
True
.
B. False
6. Where the decimal-inch dimension is used, a zero is not used before the decimal point of
values less than 1.
A True
1441
.
B. False
7. It is always acceptable to dimension to a hidden feature.
A
True
.
B. False
8. When a finished part is measured, it may vary slightly from the exact dimension specified.
A
True
.
B. False
9. Tolerance issues are primarily a concern in manufacturing rather than in the design and
drafting process.
A
True
.
B. False
10. Dimensions are given in the form of distances, angles, and notes only when using metric
units.
A
True
.
B. False
11. The nominal size of a feature is the exact measurement of the feature after the tolerance has
been applied to it.
A
True
.
B. False
12. Drawings are usually made to a scale, which is indicated in the title block.
A
True
.
B. False
13. A set of two mutually perpendicular datum planes is required for coordinate dimensioning.
A
True
.
B. False
14. Although an engineer has placed dimensions in specific locations the drafter has the freedom
1442
to arrange them as he deems necessary.
A
True
.
B. False
15. Typically, all dimension values and notes are lettered horizontally and should read from the
bottom of the sheet.
A
True
.
B. False
16. A heavy straight line should be drawn under all dimension values that are to scale.
A
True
.
B. False
17. By adding dimensions to a technical drawing the drafter is providing information about the
size and location of features of a part.
A
True
.
B. False
18. An extension line is a thin, dark, solid line that extends from a point on the drawing to which
a dimension refers.
19. It is permissible to letter a dimension value over any line on the drawing.
A
True
.
B. False
20. It is more difficult to manufacture a part designed using two decimal places than the same
part using four decimal places.
A
True
.
B. False
21. In a group of parallel dimension lines, the dimension values should be staggered.
A
True
.
B. False
22. When extension lines or centerlines cross visible object lines, gaps should not be left in the
lines.
A
True
1443
B. False
23. The American Society of Mechanical Engineers provides a set of common standards used by
industry for placement of dimensions.
A
True
.
B. False
24. Longer dimension lines are nearest the object outline.
A
True
.
B. False
25. A metric dimension that is a whole number does not show a decimal point or a zero.
A
True
.
B. False
26. Dimension lines should not cross extension lines.
A
True
.
B. False
27. Avoid dimensioning to hidden lines.
A
True
.
B. False
28. The drafter should always try to dimension to the profile view of an object when possible.
A
True
.
B. False
7. Tolerance
1. When lines intersect on a drawing at angles of this many degrees, it is customary not to
dimension the angle:
A
360
.
B. 180
C 90
1444
.
D
45
.
2. This is the term for the range of tightness or looseness resulting from the allowances and
tolerances in mating parts:
A
Limits
.
B. Fit
C
Specifications
.
D
Allowance
.
3. This is the measured size of a finished part:
A
Actual size
.
B. Dimensioned size
C
Production size
.
D
Basic size
.
4. This means that a feature of a finished product contains the maximum amount of material
permitted by the toleranced dimensions for that feature:
A
Maximum material condition
.
B. Machined material condition
C
Maximum machined indication
.
D
Machine mark indication
.
5. This is the theoretically exact size from which limits of size are determined:
A
Actual Size
.
B. Dimensioned size
C Production size
1445
.
D
Basic size
.
6. Acceptable parts must not extend beyond this:
A
Boundary limits
.
B. Hole limits
C
Specification
.
D
Tolerances
.
7. This practice considers an individual part's dimensions and tolerances and that part's relation
to its related parts:
A
Applying allowances
.
B. Geometric dimensioning and tolerancing
C
Creating datum references
.
D
Angular dimensioning tolerances
.
7A.Tolerancing - True or False
1. Defining the datum reference frame is necessary to apply GDT principles.

A
True
.
B. False
2. Specific tolerances are based on the part's function and fit.
A
True
.
B. False
3. Nominal size is used for general identification and is usually expressed in decimals.
A
True
.
B. False
1446
4. Unilateral tolerances have traditionally been given on angles.
A
True
.
B. False
5. Geometric dimensioning and tolerancing can simplify the inspection process.
A
True
.
B. False
6. Geometric tolerances state the maximum allowable variations of a form or its position from
the perfect geometry implied in the drawing.
A
True
.
B. False
7. In reference to geometric tolerancing, the term "geometric" refers to forms such as planes,
cylinders, and squares.
A
True
.
B. False
8. Implied 90 degree angles typically have different general tolerances applied to them than
other angles covered by a general note.
A
True
.
B. False
9. Datum surfaces and features are used as references to control other features.
A
True
.
B. False
10. Allowance is the maximum clearance or minimum interference specified to achieve a fit
between two mating parts.
A
True
.
B. False
11. The ISO has its own system of preferred metric limits and fits.
A
True
.
1447
B. False
12. Increased precision makes parts less expensive to manufacture.
A
True
.
B. False
13. Tolerance is the total amount a specific dimension is permitted to vary.
A
True
.
B. False
14. Large batches of parts may use statistical methods to control quality where a sample of parts
is inspected.
A
True
.
B. False
15. Tolerances of form and position are typically not used to control straightness.
A
True
.
B. False
8. Working Drawings
1. In these drawings it is necessary to show cut surfaces and distinguish between adjacent parts:
A
Auxiliary drawings
.
B. Assembly sections
C
3D assemblies
.
D
Parts lists
.
2. These drawings are given to contractors to perform work or manufacture individual parts:
A
Assembly details
.
B. 3D drawings
C
Working drawings
.
1448
D
Skeleton assemblies
.
3. In working drawings, these show all necessary information not given directly on the drawing
with its dimensions and notes:
A
Document strips
.
B. Portable documents
C
Formatting forms
.
D
Title and record strips
.
4. This should show what changes were made, when, and by whom:
A
Portable document
.
B. Record of revisions
C
Title form
.
D
Revision drawings
.
5. An accurate record of changes made to released drawings is tracked via this:
A
A revision block
.
B. The basic title form
C
Working drawings
.
D
Portable documents
.
6. In an assembly section, these parts should have their section lines left out or shown solid
black:
A
Bolts
.
B. All fasteners
C
Thin parts
.
1449
D
Rivets
.
7. These are groups of components of a larger machine:
A
Subassemblies
.
B. External assemblies
C
Component assemblies
.
D
Major assemblies
.
8A.Working Drawings - True or False
1. Hidden lines are usually included on assembly drawings.

A
True
.
B. False
2. In assembly drawings, views should show how the parts fit together and suggest the function
of the unit.
A
True
.
B. False
3. The U.S. Patent Office has strict requirements for patent drawings.
A
True
.
B. False
4. Working drawings are not legal documents.
A
True
.
B. False
5. Patent drawings must be mechanically correct and constitute complete illustrations of every
feature of the invention claimed.
A
True
.
B. False
6. Assembly drawings are usually not dimensioned.
1450
A
True
.
B. False
7. When multiple detail drawings are shown on one sheet, it is not always necessary to identify
each part.
A
True
.
B. False
8. In working drawings, showing two detailed parts per sheet is typically preferred.
A
True
.
B. False
9. In assembly sections, bolts, nuts, and keys are typically left unsectioned.
A
True
.
B. False
10. Patent applications do not always include line drawings.
A
True
.
B. False
11. In 3D assemblies, the last part added to the assembly becomes the parent part.
A
True
.
B. False
12. To simplify drawings, it is permissible to list rather than draw standard parts.
A
True
.
B. False
13. Detail drawings are also called piece part drawings.
A
True
.
B. False
14. A skeleton assembly can be used to define locations of individual parts in an assembly.
A
True
.
1451
B. False
15. Working drawings are a set of assembly and detail drawings.
A
True
.
B. False
16. Detail drawings contain all of the necessary information to manufacture a part.
A
True
.
B. False
17. With constraint based modeling software, assembly constraints create relationships between
modeled parts.
A
True
.
B. False
9. Axonometric Projection
1. In isometric projection, all distances are approximately this percentage of their true size:
A
120 percent
.
B. 80 percent
C
50 percent
.
D
20 percent
.
2. Angles project true size only when the plane containing the angle and plane of projection are
this:
A
Adjacent
.
B. Aligned
C
Perpendicular
.
D
Parallel
.
3. In this type of projection, each of the axes has different ratios of foreshortening:
1452
A
Isometric
.
B. Dimetric
C
Trimetric
.
D
Parallel
.
4. Lines of an isometric drawing that are not parallel to the isometric axes are called this:
A
Trimetric lines
.
B. Nonisometric lines
C
Multiview lines
.
D
Dimetric lines
.
5. This type of axonometric drawing has equal foreshortening along two axis directions and a
different amount on the third axis:
A
Dimetric
.
B. Multiview
C
Isometric
.
D
Trimetric
.
6.The edges of a cube in isometric projection make angles of this many degrees with each
other:
A
30
.
B. 60
C
90
.
D
120
.
9A.Axonometric Projection - True or False
1453
1. Nonisometric lines are equally foreshortened.
A
True
.
B. False
2. In isometric drawings, hidden lines are typically omitted.
A
True
.
B. False
3. Isometric sectioning is typically not used when drawing open or irregularly shaped objects.
A
True
.
B. False
4. In isometric drawings, an angle may project to appear larger, but never smaller than the true
angle depending on its position.
A
True
.
B. False
5. If a circle lies in a plane that is not parallel to the plane of projection, the circle projects as an
ellipse.
A
True
.
B. False
6. If a circle lies in a plane that is not parallel to the plane of projection, it still projects as a
circle.
A
True
.
B. False
7. Dimetric drawings have different foreshortening along all three axis directions.
A
True
.
B. False
8. Isometric drawings, unlike isometric projections, are drawn using the full length
measurements of the actual drawing and lack foreshortening.
A
True
.
1454
B. False
9. Parallel partial ellipses equally spaced at the symbolic thread pitch can be used to represent
screw threads.
A
True
.
B. False
10. An isometric drawing is about 50% smaller than the isometric projection.
A
True
.
B. False
11.Isometric drawings have equal foreshortening along each of the three axis directions.
A
True
.
B. False
10. Perspective Drawings
1. Two-point perspective is also known as:

A
Two-view perspective
.
B. Regular perspective
C
Parallel perspective
.
D
Angular perspective
.
2. This is the intersection of the ground plane with the picture plane:
A
Vanishing point
.
B. Ground line
C
Station point
.
D
Horizon
.
3. In perspective drawings this is placed between the observer and the object:
A Vanishing point / horizon
1455
.
B. Station point
C
Ground line
.
D
Plane of projection / picture plane
.
4. When positioning this feature of perspective projection, the centerline of the cone of visual
rays should be directed toward the approximate center of the object:
A
Station point
.
B. Vanishing point
C
Horizon
.
D
Ground line
.
5. Perspective drawings are classified according to their number of these features:
A
Station points
.
B. Picture planes
C
Vanishing points
.
D
Ground lines
.
10A.Perspective Drawings - True or False
1. Perspective drawings are classified according to their number of ground lines.

A
True
.
B. False
2. All parallel lines that are not parallel to the picture plane vanish at a point.
A
True
.
B. False
3. All lines in the picture plane are shown in their true lengths.
1456
A
True
.
B. False
4. Lines that are parallel to the picture plane remain parallel to one another and do not converge
to a vanishing point.
A
True
.
B. False
5. Shading pictorial drawings may lead to confusion when describing shapes of objects.
A
True
.
B. False
6. Perspective drawings are the least time-consuming types of pictorials to draw by hand.
A
True
.
B. False
7. The horizon in the perspective view should be drawn at the same level above the ground line
as the height of the station point.
A
True
.
B. False
8. Only vertical lines behind the picture plane are foreshortened.
A
True
.
B. False
9. Parallel lines converge toward a single point on the horizon called the vanishing point.
A
True
.
B. False
10. Most CAD programs produce only wireframe, not solid perspective representations.
A
True
.
B. False
11. The vanishing point is the intersection of the ground plane with the picture plane.
A
1457
B. False
12. Using CAD, you are typically able to select viewing distance, focal point, z-axis
convergence, and arc resolution scale for perspective representations.
A
True
.
B. False
13. The picture plane should never be placed behind the station point.
A
True
.
B. False
14. The position of the observer's eye is called the station point.
A
True
.
B. False
15. The picture plane can be placed either behind the object or in front of the object.
A
True
.
B. False
16. One-point perspective is also known as angular perspective.
A
True
.
B. False
11. Electronic Diagrams
1. On typical electronic diagrams, these items need not be shown unless they are needed for
clarification:
A
Transmission diagrams
.
B. Operating relays
C
Closed relays
.
D
Terminal circles
.
2. Schematic and single-line diagrams should be arranged so that signal or transmission path
from input to output proceeds in this fashion:
1458
A
Right to left and top to bottom
.
B. Right to left and bottom to top
C
Left to right and top to bottom
.
D
Left to right and bottom to top
.
3. Switches and relays should be shown in this position with no operating force or applied
energy:
A
Normal
.
B. Closed
C
Offset
.
D
Application
.
4. These items typically are not used in new designs, but are still common in high-power
amplifiers:
A
Amplifier tubes
.
B. Electron tubes
C
Signal relays
.
D
Switches
.
5. This type of circuit is a semiconductor wafer or chip:
A
Integrated circuit
.
B. Transmission circuit
C
Plotted circuit
.
D
Conducted circuit
.
11A.Electronic Diagrams - True or False
1459
1. On electronic diagrams, you should indicate grouped components by using dashed lines to
enclose them in a box.
A
True
.
B. False
2. On electronic diagrams, it is typically not necessary to identify each separately replaceable
part.
A
True
.
B. False
3. Symbols should conform to an internationally or nationally approved standard.
A
True
.
B. False
4. For clarity, draw sections of multi-element parts separately in a schematic.
A
True
.
B. False
5. CAD component layout programs allow you to create the best possible parts placement.
A
True
.
B. False
6. Connecting lines for conductors are typically drawn horizontally or vertically to minimize
bends and crossovers.
A
True
.
B. False
7. Terminals or leads are frequently identified by colors or symbols, which should be indicated
on the diagram.
A
True
.
B. False
8. Interrupted paths are not an acceptable method of simplifying a diagram.
A
True
.
1460
B. False
9. When arranging symbols, it is typically not necessary to leave blank spaces adjacent to
symbols to allow for reference designations and notes.
A
True
.
B. False
10. Printed circuit boards are widely used and replace hand-wiring methods.
A
True
.
B. False
12. Landform Drawings
1. These maps are used in planning installations of trees, shrubbery, drives, and other garden
features:
A
Landscape maps
.
B. Engineering maps
C
Topographic maps
.
D
Cadastral maps
.
12A.Landform Drawings - True or False
1. A plat is a map of a small area that is plotted from a land survey.

A
True
.
B. False
2. Hydrographic maps convey information concerning bodies of water.
A
True
.
B. False
3. Engineering maps are typically made for special projects as an aid to locations and
construction.
A
True
.
1461
B. False
4. Differential leveling is the process of using a level and a telescope to determine differences
in elevation.
A
True
.
B. False
5. A plat typically shows elevations.
A
True
.
B. False
6. Commonly, elevations are referenced to mean sea level.
A
True
.
B. False
7. Monuments marking surveying points are typically not intended to be permanent.
A
True
.
B. False
8. Hatchures are short, parallel, or slightly divergent lines drawn in the direction of a slope.
A
True
.
B. False
9. A contour interval is the horizontal distance between horizontal planes passing through
successive contours.
A
True
.
B. False
10. Before highway construction begins, it is usually necessary to plan the horizontal and vertical
location and alignments.
A
True
.
B. False
11. An elevation drawing consists of a series of intersecting straight lines of accurately measured
lengths.
A
True
.
1462
B. False
12. Topography is the science or art of map making.
A
True
.
B. False
13. Nautical maps and charts show prominent landmarks used for air navigators.
A
True
.
B. False
14. The bearing of a line is its angle from magnetic south.
A
True
.
B. False
15. On a single contour line, all points have the same elevation.
A
True
.
B. False
13. Welding Representation
1. A projection weld is a type of:

A
Resistance weld
.
B. Arc weld
C
Gas weld
.
D
Fillet weld
.
2. These weld symbols have no arrow-side or other-side significance:
A
Projection or seam weld
.
B. Back or backing weld
C
Surface or groove weld
.
D Flash and upset weld
1463
.
3. A back or backing weld is a type of:
A
Groove weld
.
B. Resistance weld
C
Arc and gas weld
.
D
Upset weld
.
4. Welding drawings are a special type of this kind of drawing:
A
Symbol
.
B. Perspective
C
Assembly
.
D
Isometric
.
5. Which of the following is one of the basic types of welded joints:
A
T-joint
.
B. Rear joint
C
Angle joint
.
D
Groove joint
.
13A.Welding Representation - True or False
1. Welding is often used for large structures that are difficult or impossible to fabricate entirely
in a shop.
A
True
.
B. False
2. Weldments are composed of a number of separate pieces fastened together as a unit.
A True
1464
.
B. False
3. A seam weld is a type of arc and gas weld.
A
True
.
B. False
4. The symbol for the desired weld is attached to the reference line, or shank, of the arrow.
A
True
.
B. False
5. Groove weld size is usually specified on the welding symbol.
A
True
.
B. False
6. In a welding drawing, joints are all shown as they would appear before welding.
A
True
.
B. False
7. A fillet weld is a type of resistance weld.
A
True
.
B. False
8. The usual fillet weld has equal legs.
A
True
.
B. False
9. In a welding symbol, the arrow points to the joint where the weld is to be made.
A
True
.
B. False
10. A groove weld is a type of arc and gas weld.
A
True
.
1465
B. False
11. Type of weld is typically not specified on the welding symbol.
A
True
.
B. False
12. Welding is often more expensive when only one or a few identical parts are required.
A
True
.
B. False
13. A spot weld is a type of resistance weld.
A
True
.
B. False
14. Welding templates can simplify drawing welding symbols by hand.
A
True
.
B. False
14. Isometric Drawings
1. Isometric drawings are often used by ________ to help illustrate complex designs.
A
mechanical engineers
.
B. piping drafters
C
aerospace engineers
.
D
all of the above
.
14A.Isometric Drawings - True or False
1. By using the F-5 key you can switch from ISO Right to ISO Top to ISO Back.
A
True
.
B. False
2. The AutoCAD Center Mark tool can be used in an isometric drawing as you would use it in
any conventional orthographic drawing.
1466
A
True
.
B. False
3. In an isometric drawing all horizontal lines are drawn on a 60 degree angle away from a
given point.
A
True
.
B. False
4. When creating a circle on an isometric flat surface you need to use the circle tool.
A
True
.
B. False
5. The Offset command can be used on vertical lines but not on horizontal lines.
A
True
.
B. False
6. The primary difference between isometric drawings and perspective drawings is that in an
isometric drawing both vertical and horizontal lines remain parallel while in a perspective
drawing both horizontal and vertical lines are in line with an apparent vanishing point.
A
True
.
B. False
7. Most solid modeling CAD programs will produce pictorial drawings of 3-dimensional
objects using either the isometric, perspective, or both views.
A
True
.
B. False
8. The bounding box method for creating an isometric drawing works well in both traditional
board drawing and in AutoCAD.
A
True
.
B. False
9. An isometric drawing is a type of technical drawing used to illustrate a mechanical part in
true 3-dimensional form.
A True
1467
.
B. False
10. When using AutoCAD to create an isometric drawing it is best to set the grid to ISO.
A
True
.
B. False
15. Mechanical Working Drawings
1. The typical parts list should include the ________.

A
part number
.
B. manufacturing material
C
number of parts needed
.
D
all of the above
.
2. A typical set of mechanical working drawings includes ________.
A
exploded assembly
.
B. part details
C
parts list
.
D
all of the above
.
3. The title block used on working drawings should include the ________.
A
sheet number
.
B. line type
C
layer set
.
D
all of the above
.
4. One critical issue drafters need to pay close attention to is the ________.
A size of the sheet
1468
.
B. designer's intent
C
scale factor
.
D
none of the above
.
5. In the mechanical design process the first step is to ________.
A
brainstorm solutions
.
B. prepare rough sketches
C
prepare a budget
.
D
identify the problem
.
6. The text used on a typical detail sheet should be ________.
A
placed horizontally
.
B. in bold text
C
in an architectural text style
.
D
none of the above
.
7. In an exploded assembly drawing it is customary for the drafter to use a ________ line to
illustrate how parts fit together.
A
Phantom
.
B. hidden
C
dashed
.
D
center
.
8. It is customary for the first sheet of a working drawing set to include ________.
A
a parts list
.
1469
B. exploded assembly
C
assembled assembly
.
D
all of the above
.
9. In order to create an accurate assembly drawing the drafter should create the ________
drawings first.
A
Detail
.
B. title block
C
parts list
.
D
isometric
.
10. The thread note for a typical bolt will include the ________.
A
major diameter of the thread
.
B. material
C
center line
.
D
offset distance
.
15A.Mechanical Working Drawings - True or False
1. A detail drawing of a part is intended to provide the necessary information needed to

fabricate that part.
A
True
.
B. False
2. Mechanical designers can expect to make several revisions to a design before it is finalized.
A
True
.
B. False
3. Problem identification has to do with the final stages in the mechanical design process.
1470
A
True
.
B. False
4. The mechanical engineering industry relies on complex mechanical drawings that are often
referred to as working drawings.
A
True
.
B. False
5. Drafters are often expected to follow the drafting standards as set in the ASME Y14.5M-
1994 publication.
A
True
.
B. False
6. Mechanical drafters can revise any drawing at any time without tracking those changes.
A
True
.
B. False
7. Drafters do not need to worry about the number of decimal places used on dimensioning a
technical drawing.
A
True
.
B. False
8. An assembly drawing is intended to illustrate a single mechanical part.
A
True
.
B. False
9. Designers utilize several methods for solving mechanical design problems including
brainstorming ideas.
A
True
.
B. False
10. BOM stands for Bill of Materials.
A
True
.
1471
B. False
16.3D Modeling Basics
1. The Press-Pull tool will ________ the face of a solid model in the direction it faces.
A
taper
.
B. extrude
C
spiral
.
D
none of the above
.
2. The View toolbar will position the view of the 3-D solid toward the ________.
A
front
.
B. left side
C
SE isometric
.
D
all of the above
.
3. The Free Orbit tool is found on the ____ toolbar.
A
rotate
.
B. move
C
modify
.
D
3-D Move
.
4. The default position of the UCS icon is positioned at ________ on the AutoCAD grid.
A
0,0,0
.
B. 10,10,10
C
20,20,20
.
D None of the above
1472
.
5. A cylinder can be created by drawing a rectangular shape then the ________ tool.
A
Revolve
.
B. Sweep
C
Extrude
.
D
none of the above
.
6. The MASSPROP shortcut will provide the following information.
A
mass
.
B. volume
C
bounding box
.
D
all of the above
.
7. The 3-D commands on the Modeling toolbar include ________.
A
box
.
B. sphere
C
extrude
.
D
all of the above
.
8. CAD programs which incorporate parametric modeling utilize a system in which the
dimensions control the ________.
A
size and shape of the model features
.
B. perspective of the model
C
shading used to render the model
.
D
all of the above
.
1473
9. In order to create one solid model from two or more separate solid shapes the drafter will
need to position them and then ________.
A
use Union to join them
.
B. use the Join command
C
use the Add Parts tool
.
D
none of the above
.
10. The Conceptual Visual Style tool is located on the ________ toolbar.
A
Visual Styles
.
B. Modify
C
3-D Modeling
.
D
All of the above
.
16A.3D Modeling Basics - True or False
1. To create a hole through a 3-dimensional box the drafter can place a 3-dimensional cylinder
into the box and subtract it.
A
True
.
B. False
2. A useful method for using the grid is to set it to Display Grid Beyond Limits.
A
True
.
B. False
3. In 2-dimensional drafting we work on the X and Y axis. By adding the Z axis drafters can
develop 3-dimensional models.
A
True
.
B. False
4. The extrude tool will extrude a 2-dimensional shape even if the corners are not closed.
A True
1474
.
B. False
5. The union command only works on 2-dimensional objects.
A
True
.
B. False
6. Drafters using AutoCAD version 2007 and newer will want to use the workspace called 3D
Modeling to create 3D models.
7. UCS stands for Universal CAD Standards.
A
True
.
B. False
8. The 3-dimensional rotate tool is located on the 3-D View tool bar.
A
True
.
B. False
9. Complex 3-dimensional shapes can be made by combining different 3-D shapes with the
union tool.
A
True
.
B. False
10. AutoCAD is typical of parametric modeling programs.
A
True
.
B. False
17. Graphic Language for Design
1. EDM is the acronym for:

A
Enterprise data management
.
B. Engineering drawing management
C
Enterprise drawing manipulation
.
D Engineering data manipulation
1475
.
2. Technical drawings typically serve one of three purposes:
A
Visualization, Communication, or Documentation
.
B. Visualization, Dimensioning, or Documentation
C
Communication, Documentation, or Installation
.
D
Documentation, Installation, or Engineering
.
3. The organized and orderly approach to solving problems is known as the:
A
Engineering process
.
B. Design process
C
Aesthetic process
.
D
Functional process
.
4. This is the range of digital or hard copy documents that specify the physical function
requirements for a product:
A
Product design
.
B. Product definition
C
Drawing definition
.
D
Engineering design
.
5. PDM is the acronym for:
A
Project drawing management
.
B. Product drawing manipulation
C
Product data management
.
D
Project data manipulation
.
1476
6.This is a systematic approach that integrates the design and manufacture of products with
the goal of optimizing the process:
A
Traditional engineering design
.
B. The manufacturing process
C
Concurrent design
.
D
Design for recycling
.
17A.Graphic Language for Design - True or False
1. Personal or cultural expression in design is often referred to as functional design.

A
True
.
B. False
2. Idea or concept sketches are usually not considered to be technical drawings.
A
True
.
B. False
3. Computation and design sketches may be considered to be technical drawings.
A
True
.
B. False
4. Traditionally, design and manufacturing activities have taken place in sequential order.
A
True
.
B. False
5. Enhancing product development is considered aesthetic design.
A
True
.
B. False
6. Technical drawings require use of standards to communicate worldwide.
A
True
.
1477
B. False
7. Before other communication methods developed, people informed themselves through visual
means, including pictures.
A
True
.
B. False
8. Life cycle design means that all aspects of a product are considered simultaneously.
A
True
.
B. False
9. Graphic representation has developed along two distinct lines, engineering and technical.
A
True
.
B. False
10. Traditional, sequential engineering design is a logical approach, but in practice it can often
be wasteful.
A
True
.
B. False
11. Product design often involves preparing analytical and physical models of the product.
A
True
.
B. False
12. In the design process, it is generally never necessary to return to a previous stage and repeat
the process.
A
True
.
B. False
13. Drawings and specifications typically do not control details of maintenance.
A
True
.
B. False
14. Using drawings to represent the design of objects to be built or constructed is a relatively
new concept.
A
True
.
1478
B. False
15. The engineering design process can address society's needs.
A
True
.
B. False
16.The procedure for designing products typically follows a process.
A
True
.
B. False
18. Technical Sketching
1. This type of solid is egg-shaped and can be created by revolving an ellipse around one of its
axes:
A
Ellipsoid
.
B. Torus
C
Cone
.
D
Cylinder
.
18A.Technical Sketching - True or False
1. Perspective pictorials approximate the view produced by the human eye.

A
True
.
B. False
2. It is much easier for a drafter to use a CAD system rather than traditional board drawing
because corrections are much easier to make.
A
True
.
B. False
3. Solids are bounded by the surfaces that contain them.
A
True
.
B. False
1479
4. A point represents a location in space and has no width, height, or depth.
A
True
.
B. False
5. A designer is likely to brainstorm several ideas before deciding on a final plan.
A
True
.
B. False
6. Process piping drafters would likely produce drawings for a water treatment plant.
A
True
.
B. False
7. Points may be represented by simple dots.
A
True
.
B. False
8. An architect does not need to know how many people are going to live in a house before he
begins his design.
A
True
.
B. False
9. Frequently a single view supplemented by notes and dimensions can describe a simple
object.
A
True
.
B. False
10. In cabinet oblique projection, receding lines are drawn at full scale.
A
True
.
B. False
11. As you sketch a solid object, you should maintain at least two different viewpoints.
A
True
.
B. False
1480
12. In a pictorial sketch you can see the width, height, and depth of an object in a single view.
A
True
.
B. False
13. The end of an edge is a vertex.
A
True
.
B. False
14. All professional engineers are good CAD drafters.
A
True
.
B. False
15. An electronics drafter is typically involved in the development of wiring schematics for large
commercial buildings.
A
True
.
B. False
16. Leonardo da Vinci did not rely on technical drawings for his many inventions.
A
True
.
B. False
17. An angle is formed by two intersecting lines.
A
True
.
B. False
18. In cavalier oblique projection, the depth is represented at half scale.
A
True
.
B. False
19. If the faces of a solid are equal regular polygons, it is a regular polyhedron.
A
True
.
B. False
20. In oblique drawing, circles and angles perpendicular to the projection plane are true size and
1481
shape.
A
True
.
B. False
21. A polygon is a planar area that is enclosed by either angular or curved lines.
A
True
.
B. False
22. A sphere has a double-curved exterior that can be formed by revolving a circle around one of
its diameters.
A
True
.
B. False
23. A freehand sketch should show attention to proportion, clarity, and correct line widths.
A
True
.
B. False
24. An edge is formed where two surfaces intersect.
A
True
.
B. False
25. Sketches are usually made to a specific scale.
A
True
.
B. False
26. The most important rule in freehand sketching is to keep the sketch in proportion.
A
True
.
B. False
27. The degree of precision of a given sketch depends on its use.
A
True
.
B. False
28. A set of written specifications is often included in a set of technical drawings.
A
1482
B. False
29. Drafters usually work alone in their cubical without any interaction with other drafters,
designers, architects, or engineers.
A
True
.
B. False
30. Modern computer drafters must have a thorough understanding of industrial drafting
standards.
A
True
.
B. False
19.2D Drawing Representation
1. This is a conical-shaped recess around a hole, often used to receive a tapered screw head:
A
Boss
.
B. Spot face
C
Counter bore
.
D
Countersink
.
19A.2D Drawing Representation - True or False
1. If a plane intersects a contoured surface, no line is drawn to represent the edge.

A
True
.
B. False
2. Right-hand and left-hand parts are mirror images and are made to be interchangeable.
A
True
.
B. False
3. A keyway is a small groove cut around the diameter of a cylinder, often where it changes
diameter.
A
True
.
1483
B. False
4. A plane surface cannot intersect or be tangent to a contoured surface.
A
True
.
B. False
5. Small curves called run outs are used to represent fillets that connect with plane surfaces
tangent to cylinders.
A
True
.
B. False
6. A fillet is a rounded exterior blend between surfaces.
A
True
.
B. False
7. Knurl is a pattern form on a surface to provide for better gripping or more surface area for
attachment.
A
True
.
B. False
8. A counterbore is a cylindrical recess around a hole, usually to receive a bolt head or nut.
A
True
.
B. False
9. Simplified conventional representations that deviate from true orthographic projection may
be used to enhance economy and clarity in a drawing.
A
True
.
B. False
10. A lug is a flattened collar or rim around a cylindrical part to allow for attachment.
A
True
.
B. False
11. When a curved surface intersects a plane surface, an edge is formed.
A True
1484
.
B. False
12. It is not always possible to show all of the drawing views in alignment on a sheet.
A
True
.
B. False
13. A boss is a short raised protrusion above the surface of a part.
A
True
.
B. False
20. Auxiliary Views
1. The lines used to create the auxiliary view should appear as ________ in the finished view.
A
Object lines
.
B. Construction lines
C
Reference lines
.
D
Construction lines
.
20A.Auxiliary Views - True or False
1. The Offset tool is useful in setting up an auxiliary view.

A
True
.
B. False
2. Auxiliary views allow principal faces of features that are parallel to the standard planes of
projection to appear true shape and size.
A
True
.
B. False
3. A ruled surface is one that may be generated by sweeping a generatrix along a path.
A
True
.
B. False
1485
4. A secondary view is always perpendicular to one of the principal views.
A
True
.
B. False
5. Solids bounded by warped surfaces have no group name.
A
True
.
B. False
6. The American Society of Mechanical Engineers provides a set of standards for using
auxiliary views.
A
True
.
B. False
7. From primary auxiliary views, a secondary auxiliary view can be drawn.
A
True
.
B. False
8. Another method used to setup an auxiliary view is to align the UCS with the inclined plane.
A
True
.
B. False
9. The center line of a hidden cylinder feature appearing in the front view should line up with
the center mark in the corresponding circle which appears in the auxiliary view.
A
True
.
B. False
10. A single-curved surface is a developable ruled surface that can be unrolled to coincide with a
cylinder.
A
True
.
B. False
11. An auxiliary view is used on technical drawings to project features on an inclined plane away
from one of the primary views in such a way that features such as holes appear correctly.
A
True
.
1486
B. False
12. An intersection drawing is a flat representation or pattern that, when folded together, creates
a 3D object.
A
True
.
B. False
13. Measurements are always made at right angles to the reference lines or parallel to the
projection lines.
A
True
.
B. False
14. If an auxiliary view is symmetrical, and to save space or time, a half auxiliary view may be
drawn.
A
True
.
B. False
15. A double-curved surface is generated by a curved line and has straight-line elements.
A
True
.
B. False
16. The intersection of a plane and a circular cylinder is called a conic section.
A
True
.
B. False
17. Reference lines are always at right angles to the projection lines between the views.
A
True
.
B. False
18. A primary auxiliary view does not need to be parallel to the associated inclined plane.
A
True
.
B. False
19. A reference plane appears as a line in an adjacent view.
A True
1487
.
B. False
20. A Secondary Auxiliary view is a projection from the first auxiliary view.
A
True
.
B. False
21. Auxiliary views of 3-dimensional parts can be easily created with AutoCAD.
A
True
.
B. False
22. Warped surfaces cannot be unrolled or unfolded to lie flat.
A
True
.
B. False
23. Generally, hidden lines should be omitted in auxiliary views.
A
True
.
B. False
24. Revolution is a method of determining the true length and true size of inclined and oblique
lines and planes.
A
True
.
B. False
25. An auxiliary view is an orthographic view that is not a standard projection.
A
True
.
B. False
26.Any inclined surface can be shown in true shape when the appropriate auxiliary view is
used.
A
True
.
B. False
21. Manufacturing Processes
1488
1. This allows the designer to conceptualize objects more easily without having to make costly
illustrations, models, or prototypes:
A
Computer-aided manufacturing
.
B. Computer-aided design
C
Computer-aided engineering
.
D
Computer-aided prototyping
.
2. This allows the performance of structures to be analyzed and tested efficiently, accurately,
and quickly:
A
Computer-aided manufacturing
.
B. Computer-aided design
C
Computer-aided engineering
.
D
Computer-aided prototyping
.
3. This type of rapid prototyping system uses a laser to fuse powdered metals, plastics, or
ceramics:
A
Fused deposition modeling
.
B. Stereolithography apparatus
C
Solid ground curing
.
D
Selective laser sintering
.
4. This process recognizes the inherent interrelationships between design and manufacturing:
A
Design for manufacture
.
B. Design for manufacture and assembly
C
Design for concurrent engineering
.
D Design for assembly
1489
.
5. Manufacturing may produce these types of products:
A
Discrete or continuous
.
B. Raw material or parts
C
Machinery or manufactured
.
D
Processes or operations
.
6.Approximately this much of the cost of product development and manufacture is
determined at the design stage:
A
40-50%
.
B. 60-75%
C
70-80%
.
D
75-85%
.
21A.Manufacturing Processes - True or False
1. In net-shape manufacturing, the part is made as close to the final specifications as possible to
cut down on the cost of finishing operations.
A
True
.
B. False
2. Laminated object manufacturing produces solid parts from sheets of material such as paper
or vinyl.
A
True
.
B. False
3. Fused deposition modeling systems use molten plastic deposited in layers corresponding to
cross sections on the part.
A
True
.
B. False
1490
4. Cost and availability of raw and processed materials and manufactured components are
major concerns in manufacturing.
A
True
.
B. False
5. Nanotechnology and nanofabrication are terms used to describe extremely large-scale
operations.
A
True
.
B. False
6. Computer-aided manufacturing typically involves all phases of manufacturing.
A
True
.
B. False
7. Direct shell production casting is used in directly creating molds for metal casting.
A
True
.
B. False
8. Solid ground curing systems are the most common rapid prototyping systems.
A
True
.
B. False
9. In the design process for a product, it is not necessary that the designer know the functions
and performance expected of that product.
A
True
.
B. False
10. Manufacturing generally does not add value.
A
True
.
B. False
11. Recycling or proper disposal of a product has become increasingly important to the design
process.
A
True
.
1491
B. False
12. Tests of prototypes should simulate the conditions under which the product is to be used.
A
True
.
B. False
13. Using computer-aided engineering, designs can be optimized and modified.
A
True
.
B. False
14. Manufacturing involves making products from raw materials.
A
True
.
B. False
15. Design for assembly is not an important part of manufacturing because assembly operations
contribute little to product cost.
A
True
.
B. False
16. Concurrent engineering involves all disciplines in the early design stages.
A
True
.
B. False
17. Selective laser sintering apparatus uses laser-hardened resins to form models.
A
True
.
B. False
18. Rapid prototyping costs about the same, but takes less time than traditional prototyping.
A
True
.
B. False
19. Topographic shell fabrication is typically used to mold rapid prototypes of small-scale parts.
A
True
.
1492
B. False
22. Dimensioning Architectural Drawings
1. Architectural dimensioning standards allow for the placement of dimensions inside the floor
plan. These inside dimensions locate interior ________.
A
door openings and walls
.
B. centers of cabinets
C
windows
.
D
all of the above
.
2. When dimensioning architectural drawings architects will utilize both ________ and
________ options.
A
Baseline and continuous
.
B. Baseline and linear
C
Quick dim and linear
.
D
Linear and continuous
.
3. Architectural dimensioning is usually done in ________.
A
Even numbers
.
B. Feet and inches
C
Feet only
.
D
Inches only
.
4. Some of the standard AutoCAD text styles used in architectural drawings includes ________.
A
City Blue print
.
B. Country Blue print
C Stylus BT
1493
.
D
All of the above
.
5. Dimension text is generally placed above the ________ line.
A
Dimension
.
B. extension
C
center
.
D
leader
.
6. The architectural and construction industries use the United States National CAD standard
(NCS) system on many ________ projects.
A
residential
.
B. commercial
C
aerospace
.
D
publicly funded
.
7. There should be a visible gap between the wall and the ________ line.
A
dimension
.
B. extension
C
center
.
D
leader
.
8. Dimensions are used on the elevation plan to describe ________.
A
Finished floor elevations
.
B. Roof overhangs
C
Roof pitch angles
.
1494
D
All of the above
.
9. The second line of dimensions out from the plan generally includes ________.
A
Centers of doors and windows
.
B. The distances between outside walls and interior walls.
C
The measurement from the outside of the brick to the inside of the exterior wall.
.
D
The measurement from one outside corner to the opposite outside corner.
.
10. The dimension text size is determined by what the architect deems necessary in ________.
A
Model space
.
B. Paper space
C
The Finished plot
.
D
The PDF file
.
22A.Dimensioning Architectural Drawings - True or False
1. Tolerances in an architectural drawing are just as close as tolerances used in mechanical

drawings.
A
True
.
B. False
2. Drafters usually begin a set of dimensions from the inside edge of an exterior wall.
A
True
.
B. False
3. The total dimension of the front side should match the total dimension of the back side.
A
True
.
1495
B. False
4. The text style used on an architectural drawing is determined by the drafter.
A
True
.
B. False
. The dimensioning standards used by a typical architectural firm were probably developed by
the architects, designers, and drafters in the firm.
A
True
.
B. False
6. Text and dimensions are aligned on the drawing so they can be easily read from the bottom
and right side of the sheet.
A
True
.
B. False
7. Dimensioning to the edges of doors and windows is the preferred method by most
architectural drafters.
A
True
.
B. False
8. Architectural dimensioning usually relies on tick marks or dots rather than arrow points.
A
True
.
B. False
9. Minor errors in dimensioning on an architectural drawing can result in major construction
problems on the job site.
A
True
.
B. False
10. Architectural drafters are usually expected to place dimensions to the CAD standards
established by the firm.
A
True
.
B. False
23. Threads, Fasteners and springs
1496
1. These include taper pins, straight pins, dowel pins, clevis pins, and cotter pins:
A
Bolts
.
B. General fasteners
C
Machine pins
.
D
Rivets
.
2. The distance a screw thread advances axially in one turn is the:
A
Lead
.
B. Pitch
C
Turn
.
D
Crest
.
3. The standard number of threads per inch for various diameters is the:
A
Series of thread
.
B. Lead
C
Major diameter
.
D
Thread pitch
.
4. This type of fit is high quality and is used for the bulk of interchangeable screw thread work:
A
Class 1
.
B. Class 2
C
Class 3
.
D
Class 4
.
5. This type of thread is a thread on the inside of a member:
A Basic thread
1497
.
B. External thread
C
Internal thread
.
D
Major diameter thread
.
6. This is the smallest diameter of a screw thread:
A
Internal thread diameter
.
B. Minor diameter
C
Major diameter
.
D
External thread diameter
.
7. This is the bottom surface joining the sides of two adjacent threads:
A
Lead
.
B. Pitch
C
Crest
.
D
Root
.
23A.Threads, Fasteners and Springs - True or False
1. ANSI has established three classes of fit.

A
True
.
B. False
2. Keys can be used to prevent movement between shafts and wheels.
A
True
.
B. False
3. Doubled threads are composed of two or more ridges running side by side.
A True
1498
.
B. False
4. A screw thread is a ridge of uniform section in the form of a helix on the external or internal
surface of a cylinder.
A
True
.
B. False
5. The major diameter is the largest diameter of a screw thread.
A
True
.
B. False
6. Pitch is equal to 12 divided by the number of threads per inch.
A
True
.
B. False
7. Springs may be classified as either helical springs or flat springs.
A
True
.
B. False
8. Rivets are not considered permanent fasteners.
A
True
.
B. False
9. A machine pin is a mechanical device designed to store energy when deflected and to return
the equivalent amount of energy when released.
A
True
.
B. False
10. Tap drill depth does not include the cone point of the drill.
A
True
.
B. False
11. Thread length, finish, and proportions are some of the standard characteristics of bolts and
nuts.
A
1499
B. False
12. A torsion spring is a type of helical spring.
A
True
.
B. False
13. An internal thread is a thread on the outside of a member.
A
True
.
B. False
14. The axis of a screw is the longitudinal centerline through the screw.
A
True
.
B. False
15 The root is the top surface joining the two sides of a thread.
A
True
.
B. False
16. The form of a thread is the cross section of the thread cut by a plane containing the axis.
A
True
.
B. False
17. Multiple threads are composed of one ridge, and the lead is equal to the pitch.
A
True
.
B. False
18. A Class 3 fit is exceptionally high quality and recommended only when high cost of
precision is warranted.
A
True
.
B. False
24. Drawing Management
1. Using this as a communication and design review tool can help shorten the process and
eliminate productivity barriers:
1500
A
Development plans
.
B. Portable document files
C
The Internet and e-mail
.
D
Gantt charts
.
2. If designs require changes, they should be documented with:
A
Development plans
.
B. Product proposals
C
Document reviews
.
D
Engineering change orders
.
3. Once a drawing is determined to be complete, the title block is used to document the change
from:
A
A draft to a finished drawing
.
B. A finished to a working drawing
C
An assembly to a finished drawing
.
D
A working drawing to a draft
.
4. Drawings created with commercial software are typically saved as:
A
Rapid prototypes
.
B. Electronic files
C
Draft drawings
.
D
Change orders
.
24A.Drawing Management - True or False
1501
1. To be useful, drawings must be stored electronically in a manner that satisfies the
requirements for a static snapshot of the design at the time of release.
A
True
.
B. False
2. PERT or Gantt charts are used specifically to track time engineering change orders.
A
True
.
B. False
3. Efficient document management is only a minor part of effective concurrent engineering
practices.
A
True
.
B. False
4. It is a good idea to have a single directory in which all employees store work.
A
True
.
B. False
5. Because electronically stored files can easily be altered, they may not be considered
acceptable for documentation.
A
True
.
B. False
6. Design milestones and reviews help ensure that the design process is timely.
A
True
.
B. False
7. Legal standards for how long engineering drawings need to be retained are standardized in
the United States.
A
True
.
B. False
8. It is important to establish a procedure and name files systematically.
A
True
.
1502
B. False
9. Electronic files for the most part have replaced the use of microfilm and microfiche.
A
True
.
B. False
10. After a drawing has been released, an engineering change order is used to document and
approve drawing changes.
A
True
.
B. False
11. Design databases can be used to streamline the design process.
A
True
.
B. False
12. Quality standards in some industries allow for electronic documents to serve as a permanent
record if they are properly controlled.
A
True
.
B. False
13. Individual companies often have their own standards of data management.
A
True
.
B. False
25. Oblique Projection
1. In oblique projection, important shapes should be in this position relative to the viewing
plane:
A
Parallel
.
B. Perpendicular
C
Adjacent
.
D
Rotated
.
2. In a CAD system, you can draw an ellipse by specifying these:
1503
A
The bounding lines
.
B. The midpoint and end points
C
The center and major and minor axes
.
D
The center and radius
.
3. Oblique drawings are dimensioned in a similar fashion as these types of drawings:
A
Orthographic
.
B. Isometric
C
Angular
.
D
Parallel
.
4. In an oblique drawing, equally spaced partial circles may be used to show this:
A
Symbolic thread pitch
.
B. Ellipses
C
Cavalier drawings
.
D
Projection points
.
5. When the receding lines are true length, and the projectors are at 45 degrees to the plane of
projection, the oblique drawing is called this:
A
Cabinet projection
.
B. Cavalier projection
C
Axonometric projection
.
D
Isometric projection
.
6.Oblique sections are useful to show this:
A Foreshortened features
1504
.
B. Oblique lines
C
Interior shapes
.
D
Projected features
.
25A.Oblique Projection - True or False
1. In oblique projections, the projectors are perpendicular to each other but are not parallel to
the plane of projection.
A
True
.
B. False
2. Circles, circular arcs, and other curved surfaces may be drawn using offset measurements.
A
True
.
B. False
3. In general, all types of sections for isometric drawing may be applied to oblique drawing.
A
True
.
B. False
4. In an oblique drawing, when an angle is specified in degrees in a receding plane, you should
convert the angle into circular measurements.
A
True
.
B. False
5. In CAD, oblique drawings are difficult to create because you cannot use snap increments or
draw similarly to drawing on grid paper.
A
True
.
B. False
6. If a complicated pictorial is needed, it may be easier and more accurate to create a 3D model
than an oblique drawing.
A
True
.
1505
B. False
7. If you are sketching an ellipse in an oblique drawing, you can block in the enclosing
rectangle and sketch the ellipse tangent to its sides.
A
True
.
B. False
8. In oblique projections, one of the object's principal faces is parallel to the plane of projection.
A
True
.
B. False
9. When the receding lines are drawn to half size, the drawing is known as a cabinet projection.
A
True
.
B. False
26. Gears and Cams
1. Spur gear design normally begins with selecting this:

A
Rack size
.
B. Tooth size
C
Gear size
.
D
Pitch diameter
.
2. The most common geometric form used in gears today is this:
A
Involute profile
.
B. Convolute profie
C
Base circle
.
D
Spur circle
.
3. This is a curve showing the displacement of the follower as ordinates on a base line that
represents one revolution of the cam:
1506
A
Displacement diagram
.
B. Follower
C
Cam cycle
.
D
Reciprocation chart
.
4. Gear teeth formed on a flat surface are called this:
A
Pinion
.
B. Rack
C
Spur
.
D
Teeth
.
5. These gears transmit power between shafts whose axes intersect at any angle:
A
Worm gears
.
B. Spur gears
C
Bevel gears
.
D
Racks
.
26A.Gears and Cams - True or False
1. Cams are used to produce regular repeating motions.

A
True
.
B. False
2. In working drawings for worm gears, gear teeth are omitted and the gear blank is represented
conventionally.
A
True
.
B. False
1507
3. In working drawings with teeth cut to a standard shape, individual teeth typically are not
shown.
A
True
.
B. False
4. On detail drawings, the worm and gear are usually drawn in the same detail drawing.
A
True
.
B. False
5. When laying out a gear, the number of spaces should be twice the number of teeth.
A
True
.
B. False
6. Working drawings for bevel gears give both the dimensions of the gear blank and the data
necessary for cutting the teeth.
A
True
.
B. False
7. A worm is a screw with a thread shaped like a rack tooth.
A
True
.
B. False
8. The motion of the follower as it rises or falls depends on the shape of the curves in the
displacement diagram.
A
True
.
B. False
9. Teeth are spaced by laying out equal angles.
A
True
.
B. False
10. When the follower movement is in a plane parallel to the cam shaft, an irregular cam must be
employed.
A
True
.
1508
B. False
11. ANSI/AGMA publishes detailed standards for gear design and drawings.
A
True
.
B. False
12. Proportions and shapes of gear teeth are not standardized.
A
True
.
B. False
13. Gears are used to transmit power and rotating or reciprocating motion from one machine part
to another.
14. Bevel gear teeth have the same involute shape as teeth on spur gears but are tapered toward
the cone apex.
A
True
.
B. False
15. Worm wheels are similar to helical gears cut to conform to the shape of the worm.
A
True
.
B. False
27. Structural Drawing
1. This is a common method for connecting steel members of buildings and bridges:
A
Assembly
.
B. Fabricating
C
Riveting
.
D
Welding
.
2. This type of structural steel drawing shows all dimensions necessary for fabrication:
A
Shop drawings
.
B. Design drawings
1509
C
Weldment drawings
.
D
Application drawings
.
3. These are joined together in the field to build a structure:
A
Riveted members
.
B. Main members
C
Steel fabrications
.
D
Assembled fabrications
.
4. These plans, made by the steel fabricator, are assembly drawings for the steel structure:
A
Welding plans
.
B. Assembly plans
C
Construction plans
.
D
Erection plans
.
5. This material is used in masonry construction, most commonly for ornamental facing:
A
Face brick
.
B. Clay tile
C
Natural stone
.
D
Aggregate
.
6. This type of weld is the most common in structural steel fabrication:
A
Fillet weld
.
B. Beam weld
C
Rivet weld
.
1510
D
Structural weld
.
7. In this type of concrete, the steel is pretensioned before the superimposed load is applied:
A
Aggregate
.
B. Prestressed
C
Reinforced
.
D
Preloaded
.
27A.Structural Drawing - True or False
1. Many different types of wood are used as structural timber.

A
True
.
B. False
2. AISC recommends one standard connection for attaching beams.
A
True
.
B. False
3. Shop drawings consist of detail drawings of all parts of the entire structure showing exactly
how the parts are to be made.
A
True
.
B. False
4. Structural steel is available in two standard shapes.
A
True
.
B. False
5. Structural steel shop drawings are usually calculated to the nearest inch.
A
True
.
B. False
6. Due to wood loss in surfacing, the nominal size of structural timber is larger than its dressed
thickness.
1511
A
True
.
B. False
7. Brick and tile are some of the less common forms of building construction.
8. Symbols are seldom used to indicate requirements for finished surfaces on wood.
A
True
.
B. False
9. Riveting is seldom used as a connection method in structural steel.
A
True
.
B. False
10. Most CAD programs have structural shapes symbol libraries available.
A
True
.
B. False
11. A piece mark should be shown wherever a separately handled member appears on the
drawings.
A
True
.
B. False
12. Reinforced concrete has embedded steel reinforcing bars.
A
True
.
B. False
13. The surface of a wood product is finished by milling or planing.
A
True
.
B. False
14. Tolerance stacking has little effect on the fit of steel members.
A
True
.
B. False
15. Traditionally, brick and tile are built into masonry forms, and units are placed one at a time in
1512
a soft mortar.
A
True
.
B. False
28. Piping Drawings
1. This type of pipe is commonly used for water, steam, oil, and gas:
A
Wrought iron or copper
.
B. PVC or steel
C
Steel or wrought iron
.
D
Copper or PVC
.
2. These types of pipes are generally connected with bell and spigot joints or flanged joints:
A
Soil and waste
.
B. Water and gas
C
Water and steam
.
D
Gas and soil
.
3. When dimensioning piping drawings, you give the lengths of all runs of this type:
A
Straight
.
B. Angular
C
Filleted
.
D
Transverse
.
4. In this type of drawing, vertical pipes may be revolved into the horizontal plane:
A
Standard view
.
B. Elevation view
1513
C
Transverse piping
.
D
Developed piping
.
5. This type of drawing shows two lines representing the pipe diameter:
A
Single-line
.
B. Double-line
C
Standard piping
.
D
Centerline piping
.
6. This is used in applications for nonferrous construction:
A
Copper tubing
.
B. Steel pipe
C
PVC pipe
.
D
Iron tubing
.
7. This type of pipe is commonly used for water or gas service, and also as soil pipe:
A
PVC
.
B. Copper
C
Steel
.
D
Cast-iron
.
28A.Piping Drawings - True or False
1. Piping may also be shown in orthographic projection.

A
True
.
B. False
1514
2. PVC joints are made with flared joints or solder joints.
A
True
.
B. False
3. Valves are used to stop or regulate the flow of fluids in a pipeline.
A
True
.
B. False
4. Brass and copper pipe should be joined with fittings of copper-base alloy to avoid corrosion.
A
True
.
B. False
5. A wide variety of plastic pipe, both rigid and flexible, is used in construction.
A
True
.
B. False
6. Plastic pipe is lightweight and corrosion proof, but typically is not resistant to chemicals.
A
True
.
B. False
7. Single-line drawings show the centerline of the pipe.
A
True
.
B. False
8. Axonometric drawings are seldom used in piping drawings.
A
True
.
B. False
9. In a developed piping drawing, horizontal pipes may be revolved into the vertical plane so
the entire installation can be shown on one plane.
A
True
.
B. False
10. Brass and copper pipe is used in plumbing for supply, soil, waste, drain, and vent lines.
A
1515
B. False
11. Joints between pipes, fittings, and valves may be screwed or flanged but not welded or
soldered.
A
True
.
B. False
12. When dimensioning piping drawings, it is not necessary to indicate the size of each pipe.
13. Copper tubing is not suitable for process work, for plumbing, or heating systems.
A
True
.
B. False
14. Copper pipe is brittle, and settling can cause fracture unless the joints are sufficiently
flexible.
A
True
.
B. False
29. Computer Aided Design Basics
1. Using the Relative Polar Coordinate System to add a 3 inch line that is 45 degrees from the
end point of the line created above the drafter would ________.
A
type @3<45 and enter
.
B. type 3 back slash and enter
C
type 3 forward slash and enter
.
D
type 3 and try to use the Dynamic Input readout to find the end point
.
2. A line with a tapering width can be easily created by using the ________ tool.
A
circle
.
B. eclipse
C
line
.
D
polyline
.
1516
3. Understanding the Cartesian coordinate system will help the beginning drafter ________.
A
control the accuracy of the drawing
.
B. produce a visible grid system
C
select a different text style
.
D
choose various line types
.
4. The UCS icon represents the intersection of the ________.
A
X axis
.
B. Y axis
C
Z axis
.
D
All of the above
.
5. When using the direct entry method to create a horizontal line exactly three inches long the
drafter should ________ first.
A
pull the line from away from the starting point very carefully
.
B. insure that Ortho is on
C
enter 3 for the length of the line
.
D
read the coordinate position on the Dynamic Readout
.
6. In order to set drawing limits for a "C" size architectural drawing the drafter should set the
limits to ________.
A
0,0 and 2,9
.
B. 0,0 and 17,11
C
0,0 and 18,24
.
D
0,0 and 34,24
.
1517
7. One quick way to view the entire drawing area is to use the Zoom command by typing
________.
A
type Z enter A enter
.
B. type Z enter E enter
C
type SHOWALL enter
.
D
type ALL enter
.
8. When setting up a mechanical drawing in AutoCAD the drafter should set the units to
________.
A
fractional
.
B. decimal
C
architectural
.
D
metric
.
9. When drawing a line using the relative coordinate system a line is created from ________.
A
0,0
.
B. the ending point of the last line
C
the beginning point of the last line
.
D
none of the above
.
10. If you use the absolute coordinate system to create a line from a starting point of 0, 0 8 units
on the X axis and 5 units on the Y axis you enter ________ for the second point.
A
8,5
.
B. 5,8
C
0,8
.
D 5,0
1518
.
29A.Computer Aided Design Basics - True or False
1. The version of AutoCAD being used can be checked by reading top blue line or title bar
located above the pull down menu bar.
A
True
.
B. False
2. When beginning a new drawing in AutoCAD the default start-up layer will be the Defpoints
layer.
A
True
.
B. False
3. In order to create a straight line in the AutoCAD graphics window the drafter is expected to
pick a starting point and ending point.
A
True
.
B. False
4. One very important tool to learn is the undo tool. It is located on the Standard Tool Bar
A
True
.
B. False
5. The line tool icon is located on the Modify Tool Bar.
A
True
.
B. False
6. It is very important to learn the relationship between line types, colors, and layers.
A
True
.
B. False
7. AutoCAD is often referred to as the international standard by which all other CAD programs
are measured.
A
True
.
B. False
1519
8. UCS stands for User Coordinate System.
A
True
.
B. False
9. The two principle components of a CAD system are the computer and the software used to
create technical drawings.
A
True
.
B. False
10. You cannot use the Offset Tool to enlarge the size of a circle.
A
True
.
B. False
30. Blocks
1. An AutoCAD term that refers to a pre-drawn object which is stored in a drawing file and can
be inserted into any other drawing file as needed is a ________.
A
Block
.
B. brick
C
balloon
.
D
none of the above
.
2. Most architectural firms and mechanical design companies utilize different categories of
blocks. These sets of blocks are usually housed in ________.
A
block vaults
.
B. block libraries
C
block books
.
D
block references
.
3. In some circumstances an entire drawing can be inserted into a different drawing as a block.
When this is used the base point will default to ________.
1520
A
0,0
.
B. 10,10
C
20,20
.
D
30,30
.
4. When creating your own blocks it is important to avoid drawing any portion of the block in
the ________ layer.
A
0
.
B. center line
C
hatch
.
D
hidden line
.
5. Newer versions of AutoCAD utilize the ________ to make block library management very
easy.
A
File / find
.
B. Design Center
C
File / search
.
D
None of the above
.
6. When the drafter types the word BLOCK or selects the Make Block tool from the Draw tool
bar the ________ will appear.
A
grid
.
B. Block Text Box
C
Block Definition Dialog
.
D
None of the above
.
1521
7. When creating a block the drafter needs to pay particular attention to selecting a base point
because it determines the ________.
A
scale
.
B. rotation angle
C
insertion point
.
D
color
.
8. When using versions of AutoCAD prior to Release 2006 it may be necessary to ________ a
block in order to edit it.
A
copy
.
B. explode
C
offset
.
D
none of the above
.
9. Some common blocks used by architectural drafters include ________.
A
door swings
.
B. ceiling fans
C
appliances
.
D
All of the above
.
10. Inserting blocks into a drawing file usually requires exacting placement. The drafter should
insure that ________ is turned on.
A
O Snaps
.
B. Ortho
C
Grid
.
D Dynamic Input
1522
.
30A.Blocks - True or False
1. The drafter can either type the word block or select the Make Block tool in the Draw tool bar
to create a block.
A
True
.
B. False
2. When creating a block consideration should be given to the base point because it directly
relates to the insertion point.
A
True
.
B. False
3. When creating a block the drafter should carefully draw it in the 0 layer.
A
True
.
B. False
4. The Insert Block tool is inside the Modify tool set.
A
True
.
B. False
5. In AutoCAD a block is a symbol or object that can be inserted into a drawing.
A
True
.
B. False
6. When inserting a block into a drawing the drafter can easily change the scale to match a
particular scale factor for the drawing.
A
True
.
B. False
7. Blocks containing tags or labels of data are called Data Blocks.
A
True
.
B. False
8. AutoCAD will allow the drafter to insert an entire drawing as a block.
1523
A
True
.
B. False
9. A group of blocks stored in a drawing file is commonly referred to as a block library.
A
True
.
B. False
10. Exploding a block will allow the drafter to edit a block.
A
True
.
B. False
31. Architectural Working Drawings
1. The building construction industry relies on sets of ________ drawings to construct homes
and commercial buildings.
A
mechanical
.
B. isometric
C
architectural working
.
D
all of the above
.
2. The text height for room names should be set to ________for a drawing that will be plotted
to a scale of " = 1'-0".
A
4"
.
B. 5"
C
6"
.
D
8"
.
3. The architectural drafter usually begins a set of working drawings by creating the ________
plan first.
A
foundation
.
1524
B. floor plan
C
elevations
.
D
building section
.
4. Once the architect has finalized the house plans with the client any changes to the design
requested by the client will require a ________.
A
change order
.
B. modification slip
C
whole new set of drawings
.
D
none of the above
.
5. The foundation contractor will work with the following architectural plans.
A
foundation
.
B. site plan
C
floor plan
.
D
all of the above
.
6. To insure that everyone understands what the electrical symbols represent it is customary to
include a ____ on the electrical sheet.
A
list
.
B. part number
C
electrical legend
.
D
electrical layer
.
7. On a floor plan the dashed line that appears approximately 24" outside the exterior wall
represents the ________.
A sidewalk
1525
.
B. roof overhang
C
plumbing drain lines
.
D
none of the above
.
8. The site plan illustrates ________.
A
the floor plan
.
B. where the house sits on the property
C
the roof plan
.
D
where the garage and driveway are located
.
9. Generally, the units used on an architectural drawing are set to ________.
A
Architectural
.
B. engineering
C
metric
.
D
civil
.
10. Elevation drawings will include information about ________.
A
roof pitch
.
B. siding
C
window style
.
D
all of the above
.
31A.Architectural Working Drawings - True or False
1. Blocks are not an important element of architectural drawings.

A True
1526
.
B. False
2. The floor plan is a bird's eye view of the house.
A
True
.
B. False
3. If the roof pitch for a house is identified as 5/12 the height of the roof rises 2 " for every
14" of horizontal run.
A
True
.
B. False
4. A set of working drawings used to build a house is considered a legal document.
A
True
.
B. False
5. Although the drafter creates the working drawings, the accuracy of the set of drawings is
most often the responsibility of the design architect.
A
True
.
B. False
6. Developing the foundation plan is probably the starting point for creating a set of
architectural plans.
A
True
.
B. False
7. A typical set of architectural working drawings would probably include floor plans,
foundation plans, elevations, section details, and roof framing plans.
A
True
.
B. False
8. The symbols used on electrical plans represent the standard equipment used in homes and
commercial buildings.
A
True
.
1527
B. False
9. AutoCAD's Design Center is used to manage various block libraries used in architectural
drawings.
A
True
.
B. False
10. Elevation views generally include the front, right side, back, and left side views.
A
True
.
B. False
Engineering Mechanics Questions & Answers

1. General Principles
1. Solve the following equation for the two roots of x: x2 16 = 0

A
x = 2i, 2i
.
B. x = 4i, 4i
C
x = 4, 4
.
D
x = 2, 2
.
2.
Using the basic trigonomic functions, determine the length of side AB of the right triangle.
A
h = 7.07
.
B. h = 10
C
h=5
.
1528
D
h = 14.14
.
3.
Determine the angle :

A
= 30
.
B. = 40
C
= 60
.
D
= 50
.
4. Solve the following equation for x, y, and z:
x y + z = 1 x + y + z = 1 x + 2y 2z = 5
A
x = 1, y = 1, z = 1
.
B. x = 5/3, y = 7/6, z = 1/2
C
x = 2/3, y = 2/3, z = 1
.
D
x = 1, y = 1, z=1
.
5.
A
h = 5.77
.
B. h = 11.55
C h=5
1529
.
D
h = 8.66
.
6.
Determine the angles and and the length of side AB of the triangle. Note that there are
two possible answers to this question and we have provided only one of them as an answer.
A
. = 46.7, = 93.3 d = 9.22
B. = 50.0, = 90.0 d = 9.14
C
. = 40.0, = 100.0 d = 9.22
D
. = 48.6, = 91.4, d = 9.33
7.
Determine the length of side AB if right angle ABC is similar to right angle A'B'C':
A
AB = 5.42
.
B. AB = 3
C
AB = 5
.
D
AB = 4
.
1530
8.
Determine the angle :

A
= 30
.
B. = 40
C
= 60
.
D
= 50
.
9. Solve the following equation for the two roots of x: x2 + 5x = 6
A
x = 2, 3
.
B. x = 1, 5
C
x = 1, 6
.
D
x = 0.742, 6.74
.
10.
A
h = 10
.
B. h = 7.07
C
h = 14.14
.
D h=5
1531
.
2. Equilibrium of a Particle
1.
The joint O of a space frame is subjected to four forces. Strut OA lies in the x-y plane and
strut OB lies in the y-zplane. Determine the force acting in each if the three struts required for
equilibrium of the joint. Set = 45.
A
F = 46.4 lb, R = 400 lb, P = 424 lb
.
B. F = 566 lb, R = 424 lb, P = 1000 lb
C
F = 11.3 lb, R = 424 lb, P = 577 lb
.
D
F = 1166 lb, R = 424 lb, P = 1000 lb
.
2.
A "scale" is constructed with a 4-ft-long cord and the 10-lb block D. The cord is fixed to a
pin at A and passes over two small pulleys at B and C. Determine the weight of the
suspended block E if the system is in equilibrium when s = 1.5 ft.
A
W = 8.01 lb
.
1532
B. W = 14.91 lb
C
W = 17.63 lb
.
D
W = 18.33 lb
.
3.
Determine the magnitudes ofthe forces P, R, and F required for equillibrium of point O.
A
R = 238 N, F = 181.0 N, P = 395 N
.
B. R = 1340 N, F = 740 N, P = 538 N
C
R = 419 N, F = 181.0 N, P = 395 N
.
D
R = 409 N, F = 504 N, P = 1099 N
.
4.
Determine the magnitude and direction of the resultant force FAB exerted along link AB by
the tractive apparatus shown. The suspended mass is 10 kg. Neglect the size of the pulley
at A.
A
FAB = 170.0 N, = 75.0
.
1533
B. FAB = 170.0 N, = 15.0
C
FAB = 98.1 N, = 75.0
.
D
FAB = 98.1 N, = 15.0
.
5.
Determine the tension developed in cables OD and OB and the strut OC, required to support
the 500-lb crate. The spring OA has an unstretched length of 0.2 ft and a stiffness of kOA =
350lb/ft. The force in the strut acts along the axis of the strut.
A
Fob = 289 lb, Foc = 175.0 lb, Fod = 131.3 lb
.
B. Fob = 86.2 lb, Foc = 175.0 lb, Fod = 506 lb
C
Fob = 375 lb, Foc = 0, Fod = 375 lb
.
D
Fob = 664 lb, Foc = 175.0 lb, Fod = 244 lb
.
6.
Determine the force F needed to hold the 4-kg lamp in the position shown.
A
F = 39.2 N
.
1534
B. F = 68.0 N
C
F = 34.0 N
.
D
F = 19..62 N
.
7.
The patella P located in the human knee joint is subjected to tendon forces T1 and T2 and a
force F exerted on the patella by the femoral articular A. If the directions of these forces are
estimated from an X-ray as shown, determine the magnitudes of T1 and F when the tendon
force T2 = 6 lb.. The forces are concurrent at point O.
A
T1 = 1.042 lb, F = 5.91 lb
.
B. T1 = 5.64 lb, F = 5.64 lb
C
T1 = 1.203 lb, F = 5.31 lb
.
D
T1 = 4.45 lb, F = 6.82 lb
.
8.
A continuous of total length 4 m is wrapped around the small frictionless pulleys at A, B,
1535
C, and D. If the stiffness of each spring is k = 500 N/m and each spring is stretched 300 mm,
determine the mass m of each block. Neglect the weight of the pulleys and cords. The springs
are unstretched when d = 2 m.
A
m = 153.0 kg
.
B. m = 15.60 kg
C
m = 4.75 kg
.
D
m = 30.5 kg
.
9.
Determine the force in each strut and tell whether it is in tension or compression.
A
Fab = 1.76 lb T, Fac = 5.00 lb T, Fad = 3.53 lb C
.
B. Fab = 11.47 lb T, Fac = 25.0 lb C, Fad = 14.97 lb C
C
Fab = 11.47 lb C, Fac = 25.0 lb T, Fad = 14.97 lb C
.
D
Fab = 1.76 lb C, Fac = 5.00 lb T, Fad = 3.53 lb C
.
1536
10.
The ends of the three cables are attached to ring at A and to the edge of a uniform 150-kg
plate. Determine the tension in each of the cables for equilibrium.
A
Fab = 629 N, Fac = 1030N, Fad = 57.0 N
.
B. Fab = 1116 N, Fac = 1030N, Fad = 429 N
C
Fab = 720 N, Fac = 116.1N, Fad = 830 N
.
D
Fab = 858 N, Fac = 0, Fad = 858 N
.
3. Equilibrium of a Rigid Body
1.
The girl has a mass of 17kg and mass center at Gg, and the tricycle has a mass of 10kg and
mass center at Gt. Determine the normal reactions at each wheel for equilibrium.
A NA = 14.77 N, NB = NC = 6.12 N
1537
.
B. NA = 128.8 N, NB = NC = 68.0 N
C
NA = 144.9 N, NB = NC = 60.0 N
.
D
NA = 13.15 N, NB = NC = 6.93 N
.
2.
The sports car has a mass of 1.5 Mg and mass center at G. If the front two springs each have
a stiffness of kA=58 kN/m and the rear two springs each have a stiffness of kB = 65 kN/m,
determine their compression when the car is parked on the 30 incline. Also, what frictional
force FB must be applied to each of the rear wheels to hold the car in equilibrium?
A
xA = 16.1 mm, xB = 42.2 mm, FB = 6.37 kN
.
B. xA = 65.9 mm, xB = 39.2 mm, FB = 6.37 kN
C
xA = 53.2 mm, xB = 50.5 mm, FB = 3.68 kN
.
D
xA = 76.1 mm, xB = 45.3 mm, FB = 3.68 kN
.
3.
Determine the tension in the supporting cables BC and BD and the components of reaction at
1538
the ball-and-socket joint A of the boom. The boom supports a drum having a weight of 200
lb. at F. Points C and D lie in the xyplane.
A
Ax = 0, Ay = 150 lb, Az = 562 lb, TBC = 300 lb, TBD = 212 lb
.
B. Ax = 0, Ay = 150 lb, Az = 456 lb, TBC = 150 lb, TBD = 212 lb
C
Ax = 0, Ay = 267 lb, Az = 843 lb, TBC = 533 lb, TBD = lb
.
D
Ax = 0, Ay = 150 lb, Az = 500 lb, TBC = 212 lb, TBD = 212 lb
.
4.
The space truss is supported by a ball-and-socket joint at A and short links, two at C and one
at D. Determine the x, y, z components of reaction at A and the force in each link.
A Ax = -1.050 kN, Ay = 1.050 kN, Az = 0.800 kN, Cy = -1.050 kN, Cz = 0.600 kN, Dx =
. 1.050 kN
Ax = -1.400 kN, Ay = 1.400 kN, Az = 0.800 kN, Cy = -1.400 kN, Cz = 0.600 kN, Dx =
B.
1.400 kN
C Ax = -2.49 kN, Ay = 1.867 kN, Az = 0.800 kN, Cy = -2.49 kN, Cz = 0.600 kN, Dx = 2.49
. kN
D Ax = -1.867 kN, Ay = 1.867 kN, Az = 0.800 kN, Cy = -1.867 kN, Cz = 0.600 kN, Dx =
. 1.867 kN
1539
5.
The flying boom B is used with a crane to position construction materials in coves and
underhangs. The horizontal "balance" of the boom is controlled by a 250-kg block D, which
has a center of gravity at G and moves by internal sensing devices along the bottom
flange F of the beam. Determine the position x of the block when the boom is used to lift the
stone S, which has a mass of 60 kg. The boom is uniform and has a mass of 80 kg.
A
x = 2.500 m
.
B. x = 0.340 m
C
x = 1.180 m
.
D
x = 0.600 m
.
6.
There is a ball and socket connection at A. At point B there is a connection that opposes
motion in the x and z directions only. Determine the unknown force components at A and B.
Use a scalar analysis.
A
Ax = 5.5 kN, Ay = -1.0 kN, Az = 2.75 kN, Bx = 3.5 kN, Bz = 1.25 kN, FDC = 2.0 kN
.
B. Ax = 1.5 kN, Ay = -1.0 kN, Az = 0.75 kN, Bx = -3.5 kN, Bz = 1.25 kN, FDC = 2.0 kN
C
Ax = 5.5 kN, Ay = -1.0 kN, Az = 2.75 kN, Bx = 3.5 kN, Bz = -0.75 kN, FDC = 2.0 kN
.
1540
D
Ax = 1.5 kN, Ay = -1.0 kN, Az = 1.25 kN, Bx = -3.5 kN, Bz = 0.75 kN, FDC = 2.0 kN
.
7.
Determine the horizontal and vertical components of reaction at the pin A and the reaction at
the roller support Brequired for equilibrium of the truss.
A
Ax = 0, Ay = 333 lb, NB = 267 lb
.
B. Ax = 462 lb, Ay = 66.7 lb, NB = 533 lb
C
Ax = 267 lb, Ay = 223 lb, NB = 377 lb
.
D
Ax = 154.0 lb, Ay = 333 lb, NB = 308 lb
.
8.
The crane provides a long-reach capacity by using the telescopic boom segment DE. The
entire boom is supported by a pin at A and by the telescopic hydraulic cylinder BC, which
can be considered as a two-force member. The rated load capacity of the crane is measured
by a maximum force developed in the hydraulic cylinder. If this maximum force is developed
when the boom supports a mass m = 6 Mg and its length is l = 40 and = 60, determine the
greatest mass that can be supported when the boom length is extended to l = 50 m and =
45. Neglect the weight of the boom and the size of the pulley at E. Assume the crane does
not overturn. Note: when = 60 BC is vertical; however, when = 45 this is not the case.
A m = 7.50 Mg
1541
.
B. m = 4.80 Mg
C
m = 3.26 Mg
.
D
m = 4.61 Mg
.
9.
A Russell's traction is used for immobilizing femoral fractures C. If the lower leg has a
weight of 8 lb, determine the weight W that must be suspended at D in order for the leg to be
held in the position shown. Also, what is the tension force F in the femur and the distance
which locates the center of gravity G of the lower leg? Neglect the size of the pulley at B.
A
x = 1.44 ft, w = 10.8 lb, F = 12.61 lb
.
B. x = 1.33 ft, w = 15.76 lb, F = 20.0 lb
C
x = 1.56 ft, w = 9.75 lb, F = 12.69 lb
.
D
x = 0.869 ft, w = 6.44 lb, F = 5.03 lb
.
10.
There is a ball and socket connection at A. At B there is a roller that prevents motion in the
z direction. Corner C is tied to D by a rope. The triangle is weightless. Determine the
unknown force components acting at A, B, and C. Use a scalar analysis.
1542
A
Ax = 0, Ay = 0, Az = 267 N, Bz = 150 N, FDC = 283 N
.
B. Ax = 0, Ay = 0, Az = 450 N, Bz = 800 N, FDC = 550 N
C
Ax = 0, Ay = 0, Az = 200 N, Bz = 200 N, FDC = 300 N
.
D
Ax = 0, Ay = 0, Az = 467 N, Bz = 350 N, FDC = 117.1 N
.
11.
If the boom in the previous problem is to remain horizontal when the stone S is removed,
what is x?
A
x = 1.180 m
.
B. x = 2.500 m
C
x = 0.340 m
.
D
x = 0.660 m
.
12.
Compute the horizontal and vertical components of force at pin B. The belt is subjected to a
tension of T=100 N and passes over each of the three pulleys.
A Bx = 0 N, By = 141.4 N
1543
.
B. Bx = -15.89 N, By = 120.7 N
C
Bx = 20.7 N, By = 157.3 N
.
D
Bx = 0, By = 100.0 N
.
13.
The oil rig is supported on the trailer by the pin or axle at A and the frame at B. If the rig has
a weight of 115,000 lb and the center of gravity at G, determine the force F that must de
developed along the hydraulic cylinder CD in order to start lifting the rig (slowly)
off B toward the vertical. Also compute the horizontal and vertical components of reaction at
the pin A.
A
Ax = 343 kip, Ay = -172.5 kip, FCD = 447 kip
.
B. Ax = 205 kip, Ay = -57.5 kip, FCD = 268 kip
C
.
D
.
4. Internal Forces
1.
Determine the internal axial force, shear force, and moment at point F of the frame.
A
AF = 0, VF = 750 lb, MF = 750 lb-ft
.
B. AF = 1500 lb, VF = 0, MF = 4500 lb-ft
1544
C
AF = 0, VF = 1500 lb, MF = 4500 lb-ft
.
D
AF = 750 lb, VF = 0, MF = 750 lb-ft
.
2.
The work platform supports an 80-kg man having a mass center at G. Determine the axial
force, shear force, and bending moment at point E of the telescopic column AB due to the
load of the man only.
A
AE = 785 N C, VE = 0, ME = 785 N-m
.
B. AE = 785 N C, VE = 392 N, ME = 0
C
AE = 785 N T, VE = 392 N, ME = 0
.
D
AE = 785 N T, VE = 0, ME = 785 N-m
.
1545
3.
Determine the internal axial force, shear force, and moment at point E of the oleo strut AB of
the aircraft landing gear.
A
AE = 9.33 kip C, VE = 8.00 kip, ME = 80.0 kip-in.
.
B. AE = 11.11 kip T, VE = 6.67 kip, ME = 66.7 kip-in.
C
AE = 9.33 kip T, VE = 8.00 kip, ME = 80.0 kip-in.
.
D
AE = 11.11 kip C, VE = 6.67 kip, ME = 66.7 kip-in.
.
4.
A force of 500 N acts at the top of the two-member frame. If the members are in smooth
contact with one another at A, B, and C with no fasteners, determine the shear force
developed at a horizontal section through point D of the support. Also, what are the axial
force, shear force and moment at point E?
A
VD = 250 N, AE = 250 N, VE = 333 N, ME = 316 N-m
.
1546
B. VD = 333 N, AE = 333 N, VE = 250 N, ME = 267 N-m
C
VD = 333 N, AE = 333 N, VE = 250 N, ME = 200 N-m
.
D
VD = 250 N, AE = 250 N, VE = 333 N, ME = 267 N-m
.
5.
The axial forces act on the shaft as shown. Determine the internal axial force at
points A and B.
A
AA = 0, AB = 10 lb C
.
B. AA = 0, AB = 10 lb T
C
AA = 10 lb C, AB = 0
.
D
AA = 10 lb T, AB = 0
.
5. Center of Gravity and Centroid
1547
1.
Determine the approximate amount of paint needed to cover the surface of the water storage
tank. Assume that a liter of paint covers 2.5 m2. Also, what is the total inside volume of the
tank.
A
27.6 liters of paint, V = 52.6 m3
.
B. 20.1 liters of paint, V = 50.3 m3
C
.
D
.
2.
Determine the distance to the centroid axis of the beam's cross-sectional area. Neglect
the size of the corner welds at A and B for the calculation.
A
= 75.2 mm
.
1548
B. = 97.5 mm
C
= 85.9 mm
.
D
= 102.5 mm
.
3.
Locate the centroid of the shaded area.

A
= 0.667 m, = 2.40 m
.
B. = 0.500 m, = 2.80 m
C
= 0.800 m, = 2.00 m
.
D
= 0.600 m, = 2.60 m
.
4.
Determine the volume of concrete needed to construct the circular curb.

A
V = 1.083 m3
.
B. V = 1.309 m3
C V = 1.756 m3
1549
.
D
V = 8.67 m3
.
5.
Determine the distance to the centroidal axis of the beam's cross-sectional area.
A
= 112.3 mm
.
B. = 125.0 mm
C
= 100.0 mm
.
D
= 91.7 mm
.
6.
The truss is made from seven members, each having a mass of 6 kg/m. Locate the position (
, ) of the center of mass. Neglect the mass of the gusset plates at the joints.
A
= 2.36 m, = 1.286 m
.
B. = 2.33 m, = 1.333 m
C
= 2.43 m, = 1.308 m
.
D
= 2.79 m, = 1.757 m
.
1550
7.
Locate the center of gravity of the volume generated by revolving the shaded area about
the z axis. The material is homogeneous.
A
= 2.80 ft
.
B. = 2.50 ft
C
= 2.67 ft
.
D
= 3.00 ft
.
8.
Locate the center of gravity of the homogeneous "bell-shaped" volume formed by revolving
the shaded area about the y axis.
A
= 3.33 ft
.
B. = 2.80 ft
1551
C
= 3.20 ft
.
D
= 3.00 ft
.
9.
Locate the centroid of the exparabolic segment of area.

A
= -4a/5, = -b/4
.
B. = -3a/4, = -3b/10
C
= -2a/3, = -b/3
.
D
= -5a/7, = -3b/8
.
6. Kinematics of Particle (KOP)
1.
A race car starting from rest moves along a straight track with an acceleration as shown in
the graph (where for t 10 s, a = 8 m/s2). Determine the time t for the car to reach a speed of
50 m/s.
A
t = 11.25 s
.
B. t = 6.25 s
1552
C
t = 12.5 s
.
D
t = 3.53 s
.
2.
A two-stage missile is fired vertically from rest with an acceleration as shown in the graph.
In 15 s the first stage A burns out and the second stage B ignites. How fast is the rocket
moving and how far has it gone at t = 20 s? How fast is the missile moving and how far has it
gone at t = 20 s?
A
v = 430 m/s, s = 4.30 km
.
B. v = 395 m/s, s = 3.69 km
C
v = 360 m/s, s = 3.60 km
.
D
v = 500 m/s, s = 5.00 km
.
1553
3.
The cylindrical cam C is held fixed while the rod AB and bearings E and F rotate about the
vertical axis of the cam at a constant rate of = 4 rad/s. If the rod is free to slide through the
bearings, determine the magnitudes of the velocity and acceleration of the guide D on the rod
as a function of . The guide follows the groove in the cam, and the groove is defined by the
equations r = 0.25 ft and z = (0.25 cos ) ft.
A
.
B. v = cos ft/s, a = 4.00 sin ft/s2
C
v = sin ft/s, a = 4.00 cos ft/s2
.
D
v = 1.000 ft/s, a = 4.00 ft/s2
.
1554
4.
If the hoist H is moving upward at 6 ft/s, determine the speed at which the motor M must
draw in the supporting cable.
A
VP/H = 6 ft/s
.
B. VP/H = 2 ft/s
C
VP/H = 12 ft/s
.
D
VP/H = 18 ft/s
.
5.
A package is dropped from the plane which is flying with a constant horizontal velocity
of vA = 150 ft/s at a height h = 1500 ft. Determine the radius of curvature of the path of the
package just after it is released from plane at A.
A
2 = 9860 ft
.
B. 2 = 3000 ft
C
2 = 1500 ft
.
1555
D
2 = 8510 ft
.
6.
A passenger in the automobile B observes the motion of the train car <a< i=""
style="margin: 0px; box-sizing: border-box;">. At the instant shown, the train has a speed
of 18 m/s and is reducing its speed at a rate of 1.5 m/s2. The automobile is accelerating at 2
m/s2 and has a speed of 25 m/s. Determine the velocity and acceleration of A with respect
to B. The train is moving along a curve of radius <i.r< i="" style="margin: 0px; box-sizing:
border-box;">= 300 m.</i.r<></a<>
A
vA/B = (25.0i+18.00j) m/s, aA/B = (2.00i-1.500j) m/s2
.
B. vA/B = (25.0i+18.00j) m/s, aA/B = (0.920i-1.500j) m/s2
C
vA/B = (-25.0i-18.00j) m/s, aA/B = (-2.00i+1.500j) m/s2
.
D
vA/B = (-25.0i-18.00j) m/s, aA/B = (-0.920i+1.500j) m/s2
.
1556
7.
The v-s graph for a rocket sled is shown. Determine the acceleration of the sled when s = 100
m and s = 175 m.
A
a100 = 3.75 m/s2, a175 = -1.250 m/s2
.
B. a100 = 11.11 m/s2, a175 = -25.0 m/s2
C
a100 = 0.333 m/s2, a175 = -1.000 m/s2
.
D
a100 = 33.3 m/s2, a175 = -25 m/s2
.
8.
From experimental data, the motion of a jet plane while traveling along a runway is defined
by the v-t graph shown. Find the position s and the acceleration a when t = 40 s.
A
s = 2.80 km, a = 2.00 m/s2
.
B. s = 2.80 km, a = 0
C
s = 2.80 km, a = 2.67 m/s2
.
D
s = 2.80 km, a = 8.37 m/s2
.
1557
9.
The pilot of flighter plane F is following 1.5 km behind the pilot of bomber B. Both planes
are originally traveling at 120 m/s. In an effort to pass the bomber, the pilot in F gives his
plane a constant acceleration of 12 m/s2. Determine the speed at which the pilot in the
bomber sees the pilot of the fighter plane pass at the start of the passing operation the bomber
is decelerating at 3 m/s2. Neglect the effect of any turning.
A
vF/B = 150 m/s
.
B. vF/B = 367 m/s
C
vF/B = 90 m/s
.
D
vF/B = 212 m/s
.
10.
A car, initially at rest, moves along a straight road with constant acceleration such that it
attains a velocity of 60 ft/s when s = 150 ft. Then after being subjected to another constant
acceleration, it attains a final velocity of 100 ft/s when s = 325 ft. Determine the average
velocity and average acceleration of the car for the entire 325-ft displacement.
A
vavg = 80.0 ft/s, aavg = 15.15 ft/s2
.
B. vavg = 45.2 ft/s, aavg = 13.91 ft/s2
C
vavg = 80.0 ft/s, aavg = 12.57 ft/s2
.
D vavg = 55.0 ft/s, aavg = 15.15 ft/s2
1558
.
11.
The motorcyclist attempts to jump over a series of cars and trucks and lands smoothly on the
other ramp, i.e., such that his velocity is tangent to the ramp at B. Determine the launch
speed vA necessary to make the jump.
A
vA = 11.90 m/s
.
B. vA = 11.07 m/s
C
vA = 16.83 m/s
.
D
vA = 15.66 m/s
.
12.
If the end of the cable at A is pulled down with a speed of 2 m/s, determine the speed at
which block B arises.
A
. vB = 4.00 m/s
B. vB = 1.000 m/s
C
. vB = 1.000 m/s
D
. vB = 4.00 m/s
1559
13.
A package is dropped from the plane which is flying with a constant horizontal velocity
of vA = 150 ft/s at a height h = 1500 ft. Determine the radius of curvature of the path of the
package just before it is released from plane at A.
A
A = 9860 ft
.
B. A = 3000 ft
C
A = 1500 ft
.
D
A = 8510 ft
.
14.
For a short time the position of a roller-coaster car along its path is defined by the
equations r = 25 m, = (0.3t) rad, and z = (-8 cos ) m, where t is measured in seconds,
Determine the magnitudes of the car's velocity and acceleration when t = 4s.
A
v = 7.83 m/s, a = 2.27 m/s2
.
B. v = 9.74 m/s, a = 2.51 m/s2
C
v = 7.50 m/s, a = 2.25 m/s2
.
D v = 5.26 m/s, a = 1.989 m/s2
1560
.
15.
The flight path of a jet aircraft as it takes off is defined by the parmetric equations x =
1.25 t2 and y = 0.03 t3, where t is the time after take-off, measured in seconds, and x and y are
given in meters. At t = 40 s (just before it starts to level off), determine at this instant (a) the
horizontal distance it is from the airport, (b) its altitude, (c) its speed and (d) the magnitude
of its acceleration.
A
x = 2.00 km, y = 1.92 km, v = 100.0 m/s, a = 2.50 m/s2
.
B. x = 2.00 km, y = 1.92 km, v = 144.0 m/s, a = 7.20 m/s2
C
x = 2.00 km, y = 1.92 km, v = 175.0 m/s, a = 7.62 m/s2
.
D
x = 2.00 km, y = 1.92 km, v = 32.9 m/s, a = 7.90 m/s2
.
16.
The slotted link is pinned at O, and as a result of rotation it drives the peg P along the
horizontal guide. Compute the magnitude of the velocity and acceleration of P along the
horizontal guide. Compute the magnitudes of the velocity and acceleration of P as a function
of if = (3t) rad, where t is measured in seconds.
A v = 0.500 sec2 m/s, a = 1.000 sec2 tan m/s2
1561
.
B. v = 1.500 sec m/s, a = 9.00 sec tan m/s2
C v = 1.500 sec tan m/s, a = 9.00 sec tan<sup2< sup="" style="margin: 0px; box-
. sizing: border-box;"> m/s2</sup2<>
D
v = 1.500 sec2 m/s, a = 9.00 sec2 tan m/s2
.
17.
A sled is traveling down along a curve which can be approximated by the parabola y = x2.
When point B on the runner is coincident with point A on the curve (xA = 2m, yA = 1 m), the
speed if B is measured as vB = 8 m/s and the increase in speed is dvB/dt = 4 m/s2. Determine
the magnitude of the acceleration of point B at this instant.
A
a = 8.94 m/s2
.
B. a = 12.00 m/s2
C
a = 16.10 m/s2
.
D
a = 8.16 m/s2
.
1562
18.
A ball thrown vertically upward from the top of a building with an initial velocity of vA = 35
ft/s. Determine (a) how high above the top of the building the ball will go before it stops at B,
(b) the time tAB it takes to reach its maximum height, and (c) the total time tAC needed for it to
reach the ground at C from the instant it is released.
A
h = 62.4 ft, tAB = 3.57 s, tAC = 7.14 s
.
B. h = 19.02 ft, tAB = 1.087 s, tAC = 2.17 s
C
h = 19.02 ft, tAB = 1.087 s, tAC = 3.30 s
.
D
h = 62.4 ft, tAB = 3.57 s, tAC = 8.56 s
.
19.
When the motorcyclist is at A he increases his speed along the vertical circular parth at the
rate of v = (0.3t)ft/s2, where t is in seconds. If he starts from rest when he is at A, determine
his velocity and acceleration when he reaches B.
1563
A
v = 51.1 ft/s2, a = 9.83 ft/s2
.
B. v = 51.1 ft/s2, a = 8.18 ft/s2
C
v = 51.1 ft/s2, a = 10.31 ft/s2
.
D
v = 51.1 ft/s2, a = 8.69 ft/s2
.
20.
A ball is thrown downward on the 30 inclined plane so that when it rebounds perpendicular
to the incline it has a velocity of vA = 40 ft/s. Determine the distance R where it strikes the
plane at B.
A
R = 66.3 ft
.
B. R = 99.4 ft
C
R = 172.1 ft
.
D
R = 344 ft
.
1564
21.
A car is traveling along the circular curve of radius r = 300 ft. At the instant shown, its
angular rate of rotation is = 0.4 rad / s, which is increasing at the rate of = 0.2 rad / s2.
Determine the magnitude of the acceleration of the car at this instant.
A
a = 108.0 ft/s2
.
B. a = 60.0 ft/s2
C
a = 48.0 ft/s2
.
D
a = 76.8 ft/s2
.
22.
The mine car is being pulled up to the inclined plane using the motor M and the rope-and-
pulley arragement shown. Determine the speed vp at which a point P on the cable must be
traveling toward the motor to move the the car up the plane with a constant speed of v = 5
m/s.
1565
A
VP = 1.667 m/s
.
B. VP = 2.50 m/s
C
VP = 15.00 m/s
.
D
VP = 10.00 m/s
.
23.
A car travels up a hill with the speed shown in the graph. Compute the total distance the car
moves until it stops at t = 60 s. What is the acceleration at t = 45 s?
A
s = 400 m, a45 = -3.00 m/s2
.
B. s = 450 m, a45 = -0.333 m/s2
C
s = 400 m, a45 = -3.00 m/s2
.
D
s = 450 m, a45 = 0.333 m/s2
.
1566
24.
A car is traveling along the circular curve of radius r = 300 ft. At the instant shown, its
angular rate of rotation is = 0.4 rad / s, which is increasing at the rate of = 0.2 rad / s2.
Determine the magnitude of the velocity of the car at this instant.
A
v = 120.0 ft/s
.
B. v = 0
C
v = 60.0 ft/s
.
D
v = 169.7 ft/s
.
25. A particle is moving along a straight line through a fluid medium such that its speed is
measured as v = (2t) m/s, where t is in seconds. If it is released from rest at s = 0, determine
its positions and acceleration when t = 3 s.
A
s = 9 m, a = 2 m/s2
.
B. s = 2 m, a = 18 m/s2
C
s = 18 m, a = 2 m/s2
.
D
s = 2 m, a = 9 m/s2
.
26. A boat is traveling along a circular path having a radius of 20 m. Determine the magnitude of
the boat's acceleration if at a given instant the boat's speed is v = 5 m/s and the rate of
increase in speed is v = 2 m/s2.
A
a = 2.00 m/s2
.
1567
B. a = 2.36 m/s2
C
a = 1.25 m/s2
.
D
a = 12.50 m/s2
.
27.
As the instant shown, cars A and B are traveling at speeds of 20 mi/h and 45 mi/h,
respectively. If B is acceleration at 1600 mi/h2 while A maintains a constant speed, determine
the magnitudes of the velocity and acceleration of A with respect to B.
A
vA/B = 33.9 mi/h, aA/B = 1600 mi/h2
.
B. vA/B = 60.8 mi/h, aA/B = 1600 mi/h2
C
vA/B = 33.9 mi/h, aA/B = 1426 mi/h2
.
D
vA/B = 60.8 mi/h, aA/B = 1426 mi/h2
.
1568
28.
The block B is suspended from a cable that is attached to the block at E, wraps around three
pulleys, and is tied to the back of a truck. If the truck starts from rest when xD is zero, and
moves forward with a constant acceleration of aD = 2 m/s2, determine the speed of the block
at the instant xD = 3 m.
A
vB = 0.1715 m/s
.
B. vB = 1.155 m/s
C
vB = 0.594 m/s
.
D
vB = 0.515 m/s
.
29. A train travels along a horizontal circular curve that has a radius of 200 m. If the speed of the
train is uniformly increased from 30 km/h to 45 km/h in 5 s, determine the magnitude of the
acceleration at the instant the speed of the train is 40 km/h.
A
a = 0.617 m/s2
.
B. a = 1.037 m/s2
C
a = 1.451 m/s2
.
D
a = 0.833 m/s2
.
1569
30. A fly traveling horizontally at a constant speed enters the open window of a train and leaves
through the opposite window 3 m away 0.75 s later. If the fly travels perpendicular to the
train's motion as seen from an observer on the ground, and the train is traveling at 3 m/s,
determine the speed of the fly as observed by a passenger on the train.
A
vF/T = 2.65 m/s
.
B. vF/T = 5.00 m/s
C
vF/T = 1.000 m/s
.
D
vF/T = 7.00 m/s
.
31.
The boy throws a snowball such that it strikes the wall of the building at the maximum height
of its trajectory. If it takes t = 1.5 s to travel from A to B, determine the velocity vA at which it
was thrown, the angle of release , and the height h.
A
vA = 12.00 ft/s, = 24.4E, h = 21.7 ft
.
B. vA = 49.8 ft/s, = 76.0E, h = 39.7 ft
C
vA = 36.3 ft/s, = 24.4E, h = 18.2 ft
.
D
vA = 48.3 ft/s, = 65.6E, h = 39.7 ft
.
1570
32.
For a short time the missile moves along the parabolic path y = (18 - 2x2) km. If motion along
the ground is measured as x = (4t - 3) km, where t is in seconds, determine the magnitudes of
the missile's velocity and acceleration when t = 1 s.
A
v = 5.66 km/s, a = 4.0 km/s2
.
B. v = 16.49 km/s, a = 64.0 km/s2
C
v = 16.00 km/s, a = 22.6 km/s2
.
D
v = 4.00 km/s, a = 16.03 km/s2
.
33. A small metal particle passes downward through a fluid medium while being subjected to the
attraction of a magnetic field such that its position is observed to be s = (15t3 - 3t) mm,
where t is measured in seconds. Determine (a) the particle's displacement from t = 2 s to t = 4
s, and (b) the velocity and acceleration of the particle when t = 5 s.
A
s = 834 mm, v = 1122 mm/s, a = 450 mm/s2
.
B. s = 114 mm, v = 1122 mm/s, a = 450 mm/s2
C
s = 114 mm, v = 450 mm/s, a = 1122 mm/s2
.
1571
D
s = 834 mm, v = 450 mm/s, a = 1122 mm/s2
.
34. A car is traveling at a speed of 80 ft/s when the brakes are suddenly applied, causing a
constant deceleration of 10 ft/s2. Determine the time required to stop the car and the distance
traveled before stopping.
A
t = 8 s, s = 800 ft
.
B. t = 8 s, s = 320 ft
C
t = 4 s, s = 240 ft
.
D
t = 4 s, s = 40 ft
.
7. KOP: Work and Energy
1.
The elevator E and its freight have a total mass of 400 kg. Hoisting is provided by the
motor M and the 60-kg block C. If the motor has an efficiency of e = 0.6, determine the
power that must be supplied to the motor when the elevator is hoisted upward at a constant
speed of vE = m/s.
A
P = 22.2 kW
.
1572
B. P = 13.34 kW
C
P = 26.2 kW
.
D
P = 30.1 kW
.
2.
A car having a mass of 2 Mg strikes a smooth, rigid sign post with an initial speed of 30
km/h. To stop the car, the front end horizontally deforms 0.2 m. If the car is free to roll
during the collision, determine the average horizontal collision force causing the
deformation.
A
Favg = 4500 kN
.
B. Favg = 9000 kN
C
Favg = 347 kN
.
D
Favg = 694 kN
.
1573
3.
When at A the bicyclist has a speed of vA = ft/s. If he coasts without pedaling from the top of
the hill at A to the shore of B and then leaps off the shore, determine his speed at B and the
distance x where he strikes the water at C. The rider and his bicycle have a total weight of
150 lb. Neglect the size of the bicycle and wind resistance.
A
vB = 35.0 ft/s, x = 41.2 ft
.
B. vB = 35.0 ft/s, x = 36.1 ft
C
vB = 40.1 ft/s, x = 46.5 ft
.
D
vB = 40.1 ft/s, x = 52.0 ft
.
4.
The firing mechanism of a pinball machine consists of a plunger P having a mass of 0.25 kg
and a spring of stiffness k = 300 N/m. When s = 0, the spring is compressed 50 mm. If the
arm is pulled back such that s = 100 mm and released, determine the speed of the 0.3 kg
pinball B just before the plunger strikes the stop, i.e., s = 0. Assume all sufaces of contact to
be smooth. The ball moves in the horizontal plane. Note that the ball slides without rolling.
A
v = 4.47 m/s
.
1574
B. v = 3.30 m/s
C
v = 2.34 m/s
.
D
v = 3.16 m/s
.
5.
The block has a weight of 1.5 lb and slides along the smooth chute AB. It is released from
rest at A, which has coordinates of A(5 ft, 0, 10 ft). Determine the speed at which it slides off
at B, which has coordinates of B(0, 8 ft, 0).
A
vB = 28.7 ft/s
.
B. vB = 25.4 ft/s
C
vB = 26.8 ft/s
.
D
vB = 29.8 ft/s
.
6.
The roller-coaster car has a speed of 15 ft/s when it is at the crest of a vertical parabolic
1575
track. Compute the velocity and the normal force it exerts on the track when it reaches
point B. Neglect friction and the mass of the wheels. The total weight of the car and the
passengers is 350 lb.
A
vB = 114.5 ft/s, NB = 29.1 lb
.
B. vB = 114.5 ft/s, NB = 284 lb
C
vB = 114.5 ft/s, NB = 156.5 lb
.
D
vB = 114.5 ft/s, NB = 440 lb
.
7.
A motor hoists a 50-kg crate at constant speed to a height of h = 6 m in 3 s. If the indicated

power of the motor is 4 kw, determine the motor's efficiency.
A
e = 0.025 (2.5%)
.
B. e = 0.245 (24.5%)
C
e = 0.736 (73.6%)
.
D
e = 0.05 (5.0%)
.
1576
8.
A truck has a weight of 25,000 lb and an engine which transmits a power of 350hp.
Assuming that the wheels do not slip on the ground, determine the angle of the largest
incline the truck can climb at a constant speed of v = 50 ft/s.
A
2 = 8.86E
.
B. 2 = 24.3E
C
2 = 8.75E
.
D
2 = 26.8E
.
9.
The book A having a weight of 1.5 lb slides on the smooth horizontal slot. If the block is
drawn back so that s = 0. Each of the two springs has a stiffness of k = 150 lb/ft and an
unstretched length of 0.5 ft.
1577
A
vA = 106.2 ft/s
.
B. vA = 120.4 ft/s
C
vA = 160.5 ft/s
.
D
vA = 107.7 ft/s
.
10.
The coefficient of friction between the 2-lb block and the surface is = 0.2. The block is
acted upon by a horizontal force of P. Determine the maximum deformation of the outer
spring B at the instant the block comes to rest. Spring B has a stiffness of KB = 20 lb/ft and
the "nested" spring C has a stiffness of kc = 40 lb/ft.
A
xB = 1.154 ft
.
B. xB = 0.790 ft
C
xB = 0.923 ft
.
D
xB = 1.137 ft
.
1578
11.
The car C and its contents have a weight of 600 lb, whereas block B has a weight of 200 lb.
If the car is released from rest, determine its speed when it travels 30 ft down the 20 incline.
A
vC = 3.55 ft/s
.
B. vC = 3.94 ft/s
C
vC = 17.68 ft/s
.
D
vC = 15.94 ft/s
.
12.
The "flying car" is a ride at an amusement park, which consists of a car having wheels that
roll along a track mounted on a drum. Motion of the car is created by applying the car's
brake, thereby gripping the car to the track and allowing it to move with a speed of vt = 3m/s.
If the rider applies the brake when going from B to A and then releases it at the top of the
drum, A, so that the car coasts freely down along the track to B ( = rad), determine the
speed of the car at B and the normal reaction which the drum exerts on the car at B. The rider
and car have a total mass of m = 250 kg and the center of mass of the car and rider moves
along a circular path of radius r = 8 m.
1579
A
vB = 12.88 m/s, NB = 2.45 kN
.
B. vB = 12.88 m/s, NB = 7.64 kN
C
vB = 17.97 m/s, NB = 12.54 kN
.
D
vB = 17.97 m/s, NB = 7.64 kN
.
13.
An electric train car, having a mass of 25 Mg, travels up a 10 incline with a constant speed
of 80 km/h. Determine the power required to overcome the force of gravity.
A
P = 961 kW
.
B. P = 346 kW
C
P = 341 kW
.
D
P = 946 kW
.
1580
14.
A car, assumed to be rigid and having a mass of 800 kg, strikes a barrel-barrier installation
without the driver applying the brakes. From experiments, the magnitude of the force of
resistance Fr, created by deforming the barrels successively, is shown as a function of vehicle
penetration. If the car strikes the barrier traveling at Vc = 70 km/h, determine approximately
the distance s to which the car penetrates the barrier.
A
s = 1.890 m
.
B. s = 4.72 m
C
s = 2.77 m
.
D
s = 2.52 m
.
1581
15.
A car is equipped with a bumper B designed to absorb collisions. The bumper is mounted to
the car using pieces of flexible tubing T. Upon collision with a rigid barrier A, a constant
horizontal force F is developed which causes a car deceleration of 3g = 29.43 m/s2 (the
highest safe deceleration for a passenger without a seatbelt). If the car and passenger have a
total mass of 1.5 Mg and the car is initially coasting with a speed of 1.5 m/s, compute the
magnitude of F needed to stop the car and the deformation x of the bumper tubing.
A
F = 44.1 kN, x = 38.2 mm
.
B. F = 22.1 kN, x = 76.4 mm
C
F = 22.1 kN, x = 38.2 mm
.
D
F = 44.1 kN, x = 76.4 mm
.
8. Planar Kinematics of a Rigid Body (PKRB)
1.
Gear A is in mesh with gear B as shown. If A starts from rest and has a constant angular
acceleration of A = 2 rad/s2, determine the tome needed for B to attain an angular velocity
1582
of B = 50 rad/s.
A
t = 62.5 s
.
B. t = 250.0 s
C
t = 10.00 s
.
D
t = 40.0 s
.
2.
The 2-m-long bar is confined to move in the horizontal and vertical slots A and B. If the
velocity of the slider block at A is 6 m/s, determine the bar's angular velocity and the velocity
of block B at the instant = 60.
A
. AB = 3.46 rad/s , vB = 3.46 m/s 9
B. AB = 3.00 rad/s , vB = 3.00 m/s 9
C
. AB = 3.00 rad/s , vB = 6.00 m/s 9
D
. AB = 6.00 rad/s , vB = 10.39 m/s 9
1583
3.
Determine the angular acceleration of link BC at the instant = 90 if the collar C has an
instantaneous velocity of vc = 4 ft/s and deceleration of ac = 3 ft/s2 as shown.
A
. BC = 36.2 rad/s2
B. BC = 36.2 rad/s2
C
. BC = 27.8 rad/s2
D
. BC = 27.8 rad/s2
1584
4.
During a gust of wind, the blades of the windmill are given an angular acceleration of =
(0.2 ) rad/s2, where is measured in radians. If initially the blades have an angular
velocity of 5 rad/s, determine the speed of point Plocated at the tip of one of the blades just
after the blade has turned two revolutions.
A
vP = 5.60 ft/s
.
B. vP = 19.87 ft/s
C
vP = 14.05 ft/s
.
D
vP = 18.81 ft/s
.
1585
5.
The pulley os pin-connected to block B at A. As cord CF unwinds from the inner hub with
the motion shown, cord DE unwinds from the outer rim. Determine the angular acceleration
of the pulley at the instant shown.
A
= 80.0 rad/s2
.
B. = 160.0 rad/s2
C
= 180.0 rad/s2
.
D
= 53.3 rad/s2
.
6.
The scaffold S is raised hydraulically by moving the roller at A towards the pin at B. If A is
approaching B with a speed of 1.5 ft/s, determine the speed at which the platform is rising as
1586
a function of . Each link is pin-connected at its midpoint and end points and has a length of
4 ft.
A
vS = 2.67 sin2 ft/s
.
B. vS = 1.500 cot ft/s
C
vS = 1.500 tan ft/s
.
D
vS = 2.67 cos ft/s
.
7.
If rod CD has a downward velocity of 6in/s at the instant shown, determine the velocity of
the gear rack A at this instant. The rod is pinned at C to gear B.
A
vA = 6.00 in./s
.
B. vA = 8.00 in./s
C
vA = 4.50 in./s
.
1587
D
vA = 3.38 in./s
.
8.
As the cord unravels from the wheel's inner hub, the wheel is rotating at = 2 rad/s at the
instant shown. Determine the magnitudes of the velocities of point A and B.
A
vA = 10.77 in./s, vB = 10.00 in./s
.
B. vA = 10.00 in./s, vB = 10.00 in./s
C
vA = 10.77 in./s, vB = 14.00 in./s
.
D
vA = 4.00 in./s, vB = 14.00 in./s
.
1588
9.
The rotation of link AB creates an oscillating movement of gear F. If AB has an angular

velocity of AB = 8 rad/s, determine the angular velocity of gear F at the instant shown.
Gear E is a part of arm CD and pinned at D to a fixed point.
A
F = 26.7 rad/s
.
B. F = 16.00 rad/s
C
F = 32.0 rad/s
.
D
F = 27.7 rad/s
.
10.
The mechanism is used to convert the constant circular motion of rod AB into translating
motion of rod CD. Compute the velocity and acceleration of CD for any angle of AB.
1589
A
vCD = 6 sin ft/s, aCD = 24 cos2 ft/s2
.
B. vCD = 1.5 sin ft/s, aCD = 1.5 cos2 ft/s2
C
vCD = 6 sin ft/s, aCD = 0
.
D
vCD = 6 cos ft/s, aCD = 0
.
11.
If the block at C is moving downward at 4 ft/s, determine the angular velocity of bar AB at
the instant shown.
A
. TAB = 2.00 rad/s
B. TAB = 1.155 rad/s
C
TAB = 0
.
D
. TAB = 0.870 rad/s
1590
12.
The sphere starts from rest at = 0 and rotates with an angular acceleration of = (4 )
2
rad/s , where is measured in radians. Determine the magnitudes of the velocity and
acceleration of point P on the sphere at the instant = 6 rad.
A
vP = 96.0 in./s, aP = 1168 in./s2
.
B. vP = 135.8 in./s, aP = 2310 in./s2
C
vP = 83.1 in./s, aP = 1011 in./s2
.
D
vP = 117.6 in./s, aP = 2000 in./s2
.
13.
Due to an engine failure, the missile is rotating at = 3 rad/s, while its mass center G is
moving upward at 200 ft/s. Determine the magnitude of the velocity of its nose B at this
instant.
A
vB = 214 ft/s
.
1591
B. vB = 125.0 ft/s
C
vB = 275 ft/s
.
D
vB = 185.4 ft/s
.
14.
Arm ABCD is printed at B and undergoes reciprocating motion such that = (0.3 sin 4t) rad,
where t is measured in seconds and the argument for the sine is in radiaus. Determine the
largest speed of point A during the motion and the magnitude of the acceleration of
point D at this instant.
A
vAmax = 0.0600 m/s, aD = 1.002 m/s2
.
B. vAmax = 0.300 m/s, aD = 0.960 m/s2
C
vAmax = 0.0600 m/s, aD = 0.916 m/s2
.
D
vAmax = 0.300 m/s, aD = 0.288 m/s2
.
15.
1592
At the instant shown, gear A is rotating with a constant angular velocity of A = 6 rad/s.
Determine the largest angular velocity of gear B and the maximum speed of point C.
A
Bmax = 3.00 rad/s, vCmax = 0.212 m/s
.
B. Bmax = 6.00 rad/s, vCmax = 0.424 m/s
C
.
D
.
16.
The disk rolls without slipping such that it has an angular acceleration of = 4 rad/s2 and
angular velocity of = 2 rad/s at the instant shown. Determine the accelerations of
points A and B on the link and the link's angular acceleration at this instant. Assume
point A lies on the periphery of the disk, 150 mm from C.
A
. aA = (1.200i - 0.600j) m/s2, aB = 1.650i m/s2, "AB = 1.500 rad/s2
B. aA = (1.200i - 0.600j) m/s2, aB = 1.650i m/s2, "AB = 1.500 rad/s2
C
D
1593
17.
Knowing the angular velocity of link CD is CD = 4 rad/s, determine the angular velocities of
links BC and AB at the instant shown.
A
AB = 4.00 rad/s TBC = 1.200 rad/s
.
B. AB = 2.65 rad/s TBC = 1.985 rad/s
C
AB = 4.00 rad/s TBC = 1.200 rad/s
.
D
AB = 1.600 rad/s TBC = 2.29 rad/s
.
18.
The safe is transported on a platform which rests on rollers, each having a radius r. If the
rollers do not slip, determine their angular velocity if the safe moves forward with a
velocity v.
1594
A
= v/(2r)
.
B. = v/r
C
= 3v/r
.
D
= 2v/r
.
19.
The oil pumping unit consists of a walking beam AB, connecting rod BC, and crank CD. If
the crank rotates at a constant rate of 6 rad/s, determine the speed of the rod hanger H at the
instant shown.
A
vH = 17.76 ft/s
.
B. vH = 16.20 ft/s
C
vH = 18.00 ft/s
.
D
vH = 16.42 ft/s
.
1595
20.
Rod CD presses against AB, giving it an angular velocity. If the angular velocity of AB is
maintained at = 5 rad/s, determine the required speed v of CD for any angle of rod AB.
A
vCD = 10 csc2
.
B. vCD = -10 csc2
C
vCD = -10 sin
.
D
vCD = 10 sin
.
21.
Gear C is rotating with a constant angular velocity of c = 3 rad/s. Determine the

acceleration of the piston A and the angular acceleration of rod AB at the instant = 90.
Set rc = 0.2 ft and rd = 0.3 ft.
A
. aA = 5.88 ft/s2 6, "AB = 4.00 rad/s2
B. aA = 5.88 ft/s2 7, "AB = 4.00 rad/s2
C
. aA = 0.245 ft/s2 6, "AB = 0.816 rad/s2
D
. aA = 0.245 ft/s2 7, "AB = 0.816 rad/s2
1596
22.
The automobile with wheels 2.5 ft in diameter is traveling in a straight path at a rate of 60
ft/s. If no slipping occurs, determine the angular velocity of one of the rear wheels and the
velocity of the fastest moving point on the wheel.
A
= 48 rad/s, vmax = 84.9 ft/s
.
B. = 24 rad/s, vmax = 84.9 ft/s
C
= 48 rad/s, vmax = 120.0 ft/s
.
D
= 24 rad/s, vmax = 120.0 ft/s
.
23.
If the rim of the wheel and its hub maintain contact with the three stationary tracks as the
wheel rolls, it is neccessary that slipping occurs at the hub A if no slipping occurs at B. Under
1597
these conditions, what is the speed at A if the wheel has an angular velocity ?
A
vA = (r2-r1)
.
B. vA = r1
C
vA = (r2-r1)
.
D
vA = r1
.
9. PKRB: Work and Energy
1.
A man having a weight of 180 lb sits in a chair of the Ferris wheel, which has a weight of
15,000 lb and a radius of gyration of ko = 37 ft. If a torque of M = 80(103) lb ft is applied
about O, determine the angular velocity of the wheel after it has rotated 180. Neglect the
weight of the chairs and note that the man remains in an upright position as the wheel rotates.
The wheel starts from rest in the position shown.
A
= 0.888 rad/s
.
B. = 0.836 rad/s
C
= 0.874 rad/s
.
D
= 0.849 rad/s
.
1598
2.
The uniform slender rod has a mass of 5 kg. Determine the magnitude of the reaction at the
pin O when the cord at A is cut and = 90
A
O = 42.0 N
.
B. O = 91.1 N
C
O = 122.6 N
.
D
O = 67.4 N
.
3.
The spool of cable, originally at rest, has a mass of 200 kg and a radius of gyration of kG =
325 mm. If the spool rests on two small rollers A and B and a constant horizontal force of P =
400 N is applied to the end of the cable, compute the angular velocity of the spool when 8 m
of cable has been unraveled. Neglect friction and the mass of the rollers and unraveled cable.
1599
A
= 10.00 rad/s
.
B. = 12.31 rad/s
C
= 17.41 rad/s
.
D
= 40.0 rad/s
.
4.
A chain that has a negligible mass is draped over a sprocket which has a mass of 2 kg and a
radius of gyration of kO = 50 mm. If the 4-kg block A is released from rest in the position
shown, s = 1 m, determine the angular velocity which the chain imparts th the sprocket
when s = 2 m.
A
= 44.3 rad/s
.
B. = 39.6 rad/s
C
= 41.8 rad/s
.
1600
D
= 59.1 rad/s
.
5.
The beam having a weight of 150 lb is supported by two cables. If the cable at end B is cut so
that the beam is released from rest when = 30, determine the speed at which end A strikes
the wall. Neglect friction at B. Consider the beam to be a thin rod.
A
vA = 5.87 ft/s
.
B. vA = 7.43 ft/s
C
vA = 10.18 ft/s
.
D
vA = 6.95 ft/s
.
1601
6.
A motor supplies a constant torque or twist of M = 120 lb ft to the drum. If the drum has a
weight of 30 lb and a radius of gyration of k0 = 0.8ft, determine the speed of the 15-lb
carte A after it rises s = 4 ft starting from rest. Neglect the weight of the cord.
A
v = 49.1 ft/s
.
B. v = 29.6 ft/s
C
v = 26.7 ft/s
.
D
v = 44.3 ft/s
.
1602
7.
The small bridge consists of an 1,800-lb uniform deck EF (thin plate), two overhead
beams AB (slender rods), each having a weight of 200 lb, and a 2,400-lb counterweight BC,
which can be considered as a thin plate having the dimensions shown. The weight of the tie
rods AE can be neglected. If the operator lets go of the rope when the bridge is at an at-rest
position, = 45, determine the speed at which the end of the deck E hits the roadway step
at H, = 0. The bridge is pin-connected at A, D, E, and F.
A
vE = 5.91 ft/s
.
B. vE = 8.21 ft/s
C
vE = 6.12 ft/s
.
D
vE = 6.36 ft/s
.
1603
8.
If the 3-lb solid sphere is released from rest when = 30, determine its angular velocity
when = 0, which is the lowest point of the curved path having a radius of 11.5 in. The
sphere does not slip as it rolls.
A
= 15.17 rad/s
.
B. = 18.13 rad/s
C
= 21.5 rad/s
.
D
= 17.15 rad/s
.
9.
1604
An 800-lb tree falls from the vertical position such that it pivots about its cut section at A. If
the tree can be considered as a uniform rod, pin-supported at A, determine the speed of its top
branch <i.b< i="" style="margin: 0px; box-sizing: border-box;">just before it strikes the
ground.</i.b<>
A
vB = 69.5 ft/s
.
B. vB = 80.2 ft/s
C
vB = 139.0 ft/s
.
D
vB = 56.7 ft/s
.
10.
THe 500-g rod AB rests along the smooth inner surface of a hemispherical bowl. If the rod is
released from the position shown, determine its angular velocity at the instant it swings
downward and becomes horizontal.
A
AB = 11.70 rad/s
.
B. AB = 3.04 rad/s
C
AB = 3.90 rad/s
.
D
AB = 3.70 rad/s
.
10. Force Vectors
1605
1.
The cord is attached between two walls. If it is 8 m long, determine the distance x to the
point of attachment at B.
A
x = 7.75 m
.
B. x = 7.68 m
C
x = 6.93 m
.
D
x = 7.94 m
.
2.
Determine the magnitude of the resultant force by adding the rectangular components of the
three forces.
A
R = 29.7 N
.
B. R = 54.2N
C
R = 90.8 N
.
1606
D
R = 24.0 N
.
3.
Express force F as a Cartesian vector; then determine its direction angles.

A
. F = (-2i +j+2k) kN, = 48.2, = 70.5, = 48.2
B. F = (-2i +j+2k) kN, = 131.8, = 70.5, = 48.2
C
. F = (-4i +j+4k) kN, = 48.2, = 70.5, = 48.2
D
. F = (-4i +2j+4k) kN, = 131.8, = 70.5, = 48.2
4.
Determine the magnitude and direction of the resultant force.

A
R = 80.3 lb, = 106.2 CCW
.
B. R = 80.3 lb, = 73.8 CCW
1607
C
R = 72.1 lb, = 63.6 CCW
.
D
R = 72.1 lb, = 116.4 CCW
.
5.
Force F acts on peg A such that one of its components, lying in the x-y plane, has a
magnitude of 50 lb. Express F as a Cartesian vector.
A
F = (43.3 i + 25.0 j + 25.0 k) lb
.
B. F = (43.3 i + 25.0 j + 28.9 k) lb
C
F = (43.3 i - 25.0 j + 25.0 k) lb
.
D
F = (43.3 i - 25.0 j + 28.9 k) lb
.
6.
If F1 = F2 = 30lb, determine the angles and so that the resultant force is directed along
the positive x axis and has a magnitude of FR = 20 lb.
A
. = = 70.5
B. = = 41.4
1608
C
. = = 19.47
D
. = = 18.43
7.
Express the Force F2 in Cartesian vector form.

A
F2 = (155 i + 155 j + 300 k) lb
.
B. F2 = (212 i + 212 j - 519 k) lb
C
F2 = (155 i + 155 j - 300 k) lb
.
D
F2 = (367 i + 367 j - 300 k) lb
.
8.
The antenna tower is supported by three cables. The forces in these cables are as
1609
follows: FB = 520 N, FC = 680 N, and FD = 560 N. Write the resultant of these three forces as
a vector.
A
R = (4i +16j-72k) N
.
B. R = (-120i +40 j-960k) N
C
R = (560i +720j+1440k) N
.
D
R = (80i +320j-1440k) N
.
9.
The cable AO exerts a force on the top of the pole of F = {120i 90j 80k} lb. If the
cable has a length of 34 ft, determine the height z of the pole and the location (x,y) of its
base.
A
x = 16 ft, y = 16 ft, z = 25 ft
.
B. x = 12 ft, y = 9 ft, z = 8 ft
C
x = 20 ft, y = 10 ft, z = 14 ft
.
D
x = 24 ft, y = 18 ft, z = 16 ft
.
10.
The ball joint is subjected to the three forces shown. Find the magnitude of the resultant
1610
force.
A
R = 5.30 kN
.
B. R = 5.74 kN
C
R = 5.03 kN
.
D
R = 6.20 kN
.
11.
Express the force F1 in Cartesian vector form.

A
F1 = (200 i - 200 j + 283 k) lb
.
B. F1 = (200 i + 200 j + 283 k) lb
C
F1 = (-200 i + 200 j + 565 k) lb
.
D
F1 = (-200 i + 200 j + 283 k) lb
.
1611
12.
Determine the projection of the position vector r along the aa axis.

A
raa = 35.3 m
.
B. raa = 6.28 m
C
raa = 5.42 m
.
D
raa = 5.61 m
.
13.
What is the projection of the force F2 along the positive axis?

A
F2y = 170.0 N
.
B. F2y = 80.0 N
C
F2y = 90.0 N
.
D F2y = 120.0 N
1612
.
14.
Determine the magnitude and direction of the position vector r which points from point A to
point B.
A
. r = 12 ft, = 70.5, = 48.2, = 131.8
B. r = 12 ft, = 109.5, = 131.8, = 48.2
C
. r = 12 ft, = 70.5, = 48.2, = 48.2
D
. r = 12 ft, = 109.5, = 131.8, = 131.8
15.
Determine the magnitude of the x and y components of the 700-lb force.

A
Fx = -350 lb, Fy = 606 lb
.
B. Fx = -404 lb, Fy = 571 lb
C
Fx = -606 lb, Fy = 350 lb
.
D
Fx = -571 lb, Fy = 404 lb
.
1613
16.
Determine the magnitude and direction of the resultant force.

A
R = 251 N, = 85.5 CCW
.
B. R = 251 N, = 94.5 CCW
C
R = 421 N, = 67.7 CCW
.
D
R = 421 N, = 112.3 CCW
.
17.
The gusset plate G of a bridge joint is subjected to the two member forces at A and B. If the
force at B is horizontal and the force at A is directed at = 30, determine the magnitude and
direction of the resultant force.
A
. R = 458 N, = 97.5 CCW
B. R = 252 N, = 82.5 CCW
C
. R = 252 N, = 97.5 CCW
D
. R = 458 N, = 82.5 CCW
1614
18.
If = 20 and = 35, determine the magnitudes of F1 and F2 so that the resultant force has
a magnitude of 20 lb and is directed along the positive x axis.
A
F1 = 20.0 lb, F2 = 22.9 lb
.
B. F1 = 25.6 lb, F2 = 26.6 lb
C
F1 = 28.5 lb, F2 = 11.91 lb
.
D
F1 = 14.00 lb, F2 = 8.35 lb
.
19.
Determine the angle between the pole AC and the wire AB.
A
= 131.8
.
B. = 70.5
C
= 109.5
.
D
= 48.2
.
1615
20.
Two forces act on a block. Determine the angle between them.

A
= 135.0
.
B. = 65.1
C
= 45.0
.
D
= 114.9
.
21.
Determine the magnitude of the x and y components of the 2kN force.

A
Fx = -1.414 kN, Fy = -1.414 kN
.
B. Fx = -1.000 kN, Fy = -1.732 kN
C
Fx = -1.732 kN, Fy = -1.000 kN
.
D
Fx = -4.000 kN, Fy = -2.312 kN
.
1616
22.
Cable BC exerts a force of F = 28 N on the top of the flagpole. Determine the projection of
this force along the positive z axis of the pole.
A
F = 24 N
.
B. F = -24 N
C
F = 12 N
.
D
F = 12 N
.
23.
Determine the magnitudes of the resultant force and its direction measured from the
positive x axis.
A
R = 12.49 kN, = 43.9 CW
.
B. R = 13.6 kN, = 21.5 CW
1617
C
R = 14.00 kN, = 60.0 CW
.
D
R = 10.80 kN, = 68.2 CW
.
24.
Determine the design angle ( <90) bretween the two struts so that the 500-lb horizontal
force has a component of 600lb directed from A toward C. That is the component of force
acting along member AB?
A
FAB = 321 lb, = 40.0
.
B. FAB = 383 lb, = 36.9
C
FAB = 171.1 lb, = 20.0
.
D
FAB = 215 lb, = 52.7
.
25.
Determine the magnitude and direction of F so that this force has components of 40 lb
acting from A toward Band 60lb acting from A toward C on the frame.
A
F = 44.7 lb, = 22.9
.
1618
B. F = 80.3 lb, = 46.2
C
F = 62.9 lb, = 37.1
.
D
F = 72.1 lb, = 56.3
.
26.
Express each force in Cartesian vector form.

A
F1 = (2.50 i + 3.54 j + 2.50 k) kN, F2 = -2 j kN
.
B. F1 = (4.33 i + 3.54 j + 4.33 k) kN, F2 = -2 j kN
C
F1 = (2.17 i + 3.75 j + 4.33 k) kN, F2 = -2 j kN
.
D
F1 = (4.33 i + 3.75 j + 2.17 k) kN, F2 = -2 j kN
.
27.
Determine the magnitude and direction angles of F2, so that the resultant of the two forces
acts upward along the z axis of the pole and has a magnitude of 275 N.
1619
A
. F2 = 246 N, = 54.9, = 114.0, = 44.7
B. F2 = 200 N, = 45.0, = -60.0, = 29.0
C
. F2 = 200 N, = 45.0, = 120.0, = 29.0
D
. F2 = 246 N, = 54.9, = 66.0, = 44.7
28.
Determine the design angle for connecting member A to the plate if the resultant force is to
be directed vercially upward. Also, what is the magnitude of the resultant?
A
R = 400 N, = 53.5
.
B. R = 250 N, = 30.0
C
R = 300 N, = 36.9
.
D
R = 640 N, = 38.6
.
11.Force System Resultants
1.
The main beam along the wing of an airplane is swept back at an angle of 25. From load
calculations it is determined that the beam is subjected to couple moments aMx = 25,000 lb
ft and My = 17,000 lb ft. Determine the equivalent couple moments created about
the x' and y' axis.
1620
A
Mx' = 26.0 kip-ft, My' = 29.8 kip-ft
.
B. Mx' = 29.8 kip-ft, My' = -4.84 kip-ft
C
Mx' = 26.0 kip-ft, My' = 15.47 kip-ft
.
D
Mx' = 29.8 kip-ft, My' = 4.84 kip-ft
.
2.
Determine the moment of force F1 about point A on the beam.

A
. M1 = 1600 ft-lb
B. M1 = 100 ft-lb
C
. M1 = 100 ft-lb
D
. M1 = 1600 ft-lb
3.
Determine the magnitude and direction of the moment of the force of the movement if the
force at A about point P.
1621
A
. Mp = 400 Nm
B. Mp = 400 Nm
C
. Mp = 200 Nm
D
. Mp = 200 Nm
4.
Replace the force at A by an equivalent force and couple moment at P.

A
. F = 15 kN @ = 36.9 , Mp = 67.1 kN-m
B. F = 15 kN @ = 36.9 , Mp = 30 kN-m
C
. F = 15 kN @ = 143.1 , Mp = 67.1 kN-m
D
. F = 15 kN @ = 143.1 , Mp = 30 kN-m
5.
Determine the magnitude of the projection of the moment cause by the force about the aa
axis.
A Maa = 80.0 N-m
1622
.
B. Maa = 56.6 N-m
C
Maa = 28.3 N-m
.
D
Maa = 100.0 N-m
.
6.
The bricks on top of the beam and the supports at the bottom create the distributed loading
shown in the second figure. Determine the required intensity w and dimension d of the right
support so that the resultant force and couple moment about point A of the system are both
zero.
A
w = 175.0 N/m, d = 1.5 m
.
B. w = 138.2 N/m, d = 1.9 m
C
w = 125.0 N/m, d = 2.1 m
.
D
w = 154.4 N/m, d = 1.7 m
.
1623
7.
A
. Mp = 1440 Nm
B. Mp = 600 Nm
C
. Mp = 1440 Nm
D
. Mp = 600 Nm
8.
The boys A, B and C stand near the edges of a raft as shown. Determine the location (x, y) of
boy D so that all four boys create a single resultant force acting through the raft's center O.
Provided the raft itself is symmetric, this would keep the raft afloat in a horizontal plane. the
mass of each boy is indicated in the diagram.
A
x = 4.5 m, y = 1.5 m
.
B. x = 3.0 m, y = 3.0 m
C x = 1.5 m, y = 4.5 m
1624
.
D
x = 3.0 m, y = 4.0 m
.
9.
Replace the loading by an equivalent force and couple moment acting at point O.
A
R = 90 kN, M = 473 kN-m CW
.
B. R = 90 kN, M = 338 kN-m CW
C
R = 45 kN, M = 203 kN-m CW
.
D
R = 135 kN, M = 270 kN-m CW
.
10.
Replace the force and couple system by an equivalent single force and couple acting at
point P.
A
. F = (-0.0858i-1.184j) kN, M = 36.6 kN-m
B. F = (-0.0858i-1.184j) kN, M = 21.6 kN-m
1625
C
. F = (-0.0858i-1.184j) kN, M = 13.61 kN-m
D
. F = (-0.0858i-1.184j) kN, M = 35.7 kN-m
11.

A
. M3 = 6930 ft-lb
B. M3 = 6000 ft-lb
C
. M3 = 3000 ft-lb
D
. M3 = 4000 ft-lb
12.
Replace the force at A by an equivalent force and couple moment at P. Express the results on
Cartesian vector form.
A
F = (-50i+20j+30k) N, M = (50i-130j+170k) N-m
.
B. F = (-50i+20j+30k) N, M = (-50i+60j+60k) N-m
C
F = (50i-20j-30k) N, M = (-50i+130j-170k) N-m
.
1626
D
F = (50i-20j-30k) N, M = (50i-60j-60k) N-m
.
13.
Replace the force at A by an equivalent force and couple moment at P. Express the results on
Cartesian vector form.
A
F = (60j-80k) lb, M = (20i+160j+120k) lb-ft
.
B. F = (60j-80k) lb, M = (300j+560k) lb-ft
C
F = (60j-80k) lb, M = 20i lb-ft
.
D
F = (60j-80k) lb, M = (-160i-400j+120k) lb-ft
.
14.
A force and couple act on the pipe assembly. Replace this system by an equivalent single
resultant force. Specify the location of the resultant force along the y axis, measured from A.
1627
The pipe lies in the x-y plane.
A
R = 25k lb, y = -0.9 ft
.
B. R = 25k lb, y = 0.9 ft
C
R = 25k lb, y = 3.9 ft
.
D
R = 25k lb, y = -3.9 ft
.
15.
Determine the couple moment. Use a vector analysis and express the result as a Cartesian
vector.
A
M = (800i-4800j-800k) lb-ft
.
B. M = (4000i-2000j+4000k) lb-ft
C
M = (-4000i+7000j-4000k) lb-ft
.
D
M = (-800i-4800j-800k) lb-ft
.
16.
Replace the loading system acting on the post by an equivalent force and couple system at
point O.
1628
A
. F = (-8i-66j) lb, M = 220 lb-ft
B. F = (-8i-66j) lb, M = 160 lb-ft
C
. F = (4i78j) lb, M = 220 lb-ft
D
. F = (4i78j) lb, M = 100 lb-ft
17.
A
. Mp = 17.86 kNm
B. Mp = 1.072 kNm
C
. Mp = 9.86 kNm
D
. Mp = 14.93 kNm
1629
18.
Determine the moment of the force at A about point P. Use a vector analysis and express the
result in Cartesian vector form.
A
MP = (-6i+6j-4k) N-m
.
B. MP = (24i+8j+9k) N-m
C
MP = (-6i-6j-4k) N-m
.
D
MP = (24i-8j +9k) N-m
.
1630
19.
Determine the magnitude and direction of the couple shown.

A
M = 1200 N-m CW
.
B. M = 400 N-m CCW
C
M = 400 N-m CW
.
D
M = 1200 N-m CCW
.
1631
20.
Determine the magnitude and direction of the moment of the force at A about point P.
A
. Mp = 0.707 kN-m
B. Mp = 5.66 kN-m
C
. Mp = 5.70 kN-m
D
. Mp = 4.50 kN-m
21.
Determine the magnitude and direction of the couple shown.
1632
A
M = 22.6 kN-m CCW
.
B. M = 22.6 kN-m CW
C
M = 21.9 kN-m CCW
.
D
M = 21.9 kN-m CW
.
22.
Three parallel forces act on the rim of the tube. If it is required that the resultant force FR of
the system have a line of action that coincides with the central z axis, determine the
magnitude of FC and its location on the rim. What is the magnitude of the resultant
force FR?
A
Fc = 361 lb, = 56.3, R = 861 lb
.
B. Fc = 500 lb, = 54.0, R = 1000 lb
C
Fc = 500 lb, = 36.0, R = 1000 lb
.
D
Fc = 361 lb, = 36.9, R = 861 lb
.
1633
23.
A force of 50 N is applied to the handle of the door as shown. Determine the projection of the
moment of this force about the hinged axis z. Neglect the size of the doorknob. Suggestion:
Use a scaler analysis.
A
Mz = 15.9 N-m
.
B. Mz = -15.9 N-m
C
Mz = -27.6 N-m
.
D
Mz = 27.6 N-m
.
24.
The wind has blown sand over a platform such that the intensity of load can be approximated
by the function . Simplify this distributed loading to a single concentrated

force and specify the magnitude and location of the force measured from A.
A
R = 1250 N, x = 6.67 m
.
B. R = 2500 N, x = 6.67 m
1634
C
R = 1250 N, x = 8 m
.
D
R = 2500 N, x = 8 m
.
25.
The pole supports a 22-lb traffic light. Using Cartesian vectors, determine the moment of the
weight of the traffic light about the base of the pole at A.
A
MA = 216k lb-ft
.
B. MA = (-132i-229j-216k) lb-ft
C
MA = (-229i+121j) lb-ft
.
D
MA = (-132i+229j) lb-ft
.
26.
Determine the magnitude and direction of the couple moment.

A
M = 3900 lb-ft CW
.
1635
B. M = 3900 lb-ft CCW
C
M = 3120 lb-ft CW
.
D
M = 3120 lb-ft CCW
.
27.
A twist of 4 N-m is applied to the handle of the screwdriver. Resolve this couple moment into
a pair of couple forces F exerted on the handle.
A
P = 20 N
.
B. P = 10 N
C
P = 800 N
.
D
P = 1600 N
.
28.
Replace the force F, having a magnitude of F = 40 lb and acting at B, by an equivalent force

and couple moment at A.
A
F = (32i-24k) lb, M = (-120i+96j-160k) lb-ft
.
B. F = (32i-24k) lb, M = 233k lb-ft
C F = (32i-24k) lb, M = -72k lb-ft
1636
.
D
F = (32i-24k) lb, M = (-120i+160j+40k) lb-ft
.
29.
The resultant force of a wind loading acts perpendicular to the face of the sign as shown.
Replace this force by an equivalent force and couple moment acting at point O.
A
F = -120i lb, M = (-3000j+1800k) lb-ft
.
B. F = -120i lb, M = 3500i lb-ft
C
F = -120i lb, M = -3500j lb-ft
.
D
F = -120i lb, M = 3500k lb-ft
.
30.
1637
Determine the magnitude and direction of the moment of the force at A about point P.
A
. Mp = 143.5 ft-lb
B. Mp = 1191 ft-lb
C
. Mp = 1104 ft-lb
D
. Mp = 1200 ft-lb
31.
A
MP = (160i+240j+40k) N-m
.
B. MP = (380i+160j+400k) N-m
C
MP = (280i+200j+400k) N-m
.
D
MP = (40i+80k) N-m
.
1638
32.
The man at B exerts a force of 140N on the rope attached to the end of beam AC as shown.
Determine the moment of this force about the base of the beam at A.
A
MA = (720i-360k) N-m
.
B. MA = (-720i+360k) N-m
C
MA = (-720i-360k) N-m
.
D
MA = (720i+360k) N-m
.
33.
The three forces acting on the water tank represent the effect of the wind. Replace this
system by a single resultant force and specify its vertical location from point O.
1639
A
R = 600 lb, d = 65.0 ft below O
.
B. R = 600 lb, d = 130.4 ft below O
C
R = 600 lb, d = 65.0 ft above O
.
D
R = 600 lb, d = 130.4 ft above O
.
34.
35.
This structural connection is subjected to the 8,000-lb force. Replace this force by an
equivalent force and couple acting at the center of the bolt group, O.
A
F = (6400i+4800j) lb, M = (-3.20i+7.20j) kip-ft
.
1640
B. F = (-6400i-4800j) lb, M = -400k kip-ft
C
F = (-6400i-4800j) lb, M = (-3.20i-7.20j) kip-ft
.
D
F = (6400i+4800j) lb, M = 400k kip-ft
.
36.
Express the moment of the couple acting on the pipe on Cartesian vector form. What is the
magnitude of the couple moment?
A
Mc = (37.5i-25j) N-m, Mc = 45.1 N-m
.
B. Mc = (25i-37.5j) N-m, Mc = 45.1 N-m
C
Mc =45.1kN-m, Mc = 45.1 N-m
.
D
Mc =-45.1kN-m, Mc = 45.1 N-m
.
37.
Determine the direction (0 180) of the 30-lb force F so that the moment of F about
point A has the maximum magnitude.
A
= 36.9
.
B. = 53.1
C
= 127.0
.
1641
D
= 90.0
.
38.

A
. M2 = 800 ft-lb
B. M2 = 50 ft-lb
C
. M2 = 600 ft-lb
D
. M2 = 37.5 ft-lb
39.
The distributed loadings of soil pressure on the sides and bottom of a spread footing are
shown. Simplify this system to a single resultant force and couple moment acting at A. What
is the resultant force F and the couple moment M?
A
F = (72i + 125j)N, M = 83.5 N-m CCW
.
B. F = (144i + 125j)N, M = 135.7 N-m CCW
C F = (144i + 125j)N, M = 83.5 N-m CCW
1642
.
D
F = (72i + 125j)N, M = 102.1 N-m CCW
.
40.
Replace the two forces acting on the tree branches by an equivalent force and couple moment
acting at point O.
A
R = (60i+198j-36k) N, M = (747i+18j-924k) N-m
.
B. R = (60i+18j-324k) N, M = (747i+18j-924k) N-m
C
R = (60i+198j-36k) N, M = (360i+1260j-414k) N-m
.
D
R = (60i+18j-324k) N, M = (360i+1260j-414k) N-m
.
41.
1643
Determine the magnitude of the projection of the moment cause by the force about the aa
axis.
A
Maa = 16.97 kN-m
.
B. Maa = 12.00 kN-m
C
Maa = 6 kN-m
.
D
Maa = 8.48 kN-m
.
42.
Replace the force and couple system by an equivalent single force and couple acting at
point P.
A
. F = (-8.66i-15.00j) N, M = 50.0 N-m
B. F = (8.66i-15.00j) N, M = 42.0 N-m
C
. F = (8.66i-15.00j) N, M = 50.0 N-m
D
. F = (-8.66i-15.00j) N, M = 42.0 N-m
1644
43.
A twist of 4 N-m is applied to the handle of the screwdriver. Resolve this couple moment into
a pair of couple forces F exerted on the handle.
A
F = 133 N
.
B. F = 120 N
C
F = 60 N
.
D
F = 266 N
.
12. Structural Analysis
1.
Determine the force in each member of the truss and indicate whether the members are in
tension or compression.
A CB = 447 N C, CD = 200 N T, DB = 800 N C, DE = 200 N T,
. BE = 447 N T, BA = 894 N C, AE = 800 N T
CB = 447 N T, CD = 200 N C, DB = 800 N T, DE = 200 N C,

B.
BE = 447 N C, BA = 894 N T, AE = 800 N C
C CB = 894 N T, CD = 800 N C, DB = 800 N T, DE = 800 N C,

. BE = 894 N C, BA = 1789 N T, AE = 800 N C
D CB = 894 N C, CD = 800 N T, DB = 800 N C, DE = 800 N T,

. BE = 894 N T, BA = 1789 N C, AE = 800 N T
1645
2.
The principles of a differential chain block are indicated schematically in the figure.
Determine the magnitude of force P needed to support the 800-N force. Also compute the
distance x where the cable must be attached to bar AB so the bar remains horizontal. All
pulleys have a radius of 60 mm.
A
P = 80 N, x = 240 mm
.
B. P = 80 N, x = 180 mm
C
P = 40 N, x = 180 mm
.
D
P = 40 N, x = 240 mm
.
3.
Determine the magnitude of the forces in pins B and D of the four-member frame.
A
B = 503 lb, D = 225 lb
1646
B. B = 225 lb, D = 503 lb
C
B = 56.3 lb, D = 125.8 lb
.
D
B = 125.8 lb, D = 112.5 lb
.
4.
Determine the force in members FF, FB, and BC of the Fink truss and indicate whether the
members are in tension or compression.
A
BF = 693 lb T, FG = 1800 lb C, BC = 1212 lb T
.
B. BF = 8660 lb C, FG = 3600 lb C, BC = 1212 lb T
C
.
D
.
5.
The floor beams AB and BC are stiffened using the two tie rods CD and AD. Determine the
force along each rod. Assume the three contacting members at B are smooth and the joints
at A, C, and D are pins.
A
T = 480 lb
.
1647
B. T = 520 lb
C
T = 1248 lb
.
D
T = 1152 lb
.
6.
A crane is constructed from two side trusses. If a load of 4 kN is suspended from one of these
trusses as shown, determine the force in members FG, GK, and <KJ. State whether the
members are in tension or compression. Assume the joints are pin-connected.
A
KG = 2.66 kN C, KJ = 4.00 kN C, FG = 5.96 kN T
.
B. KG = 5.66 kN T, KJ = 4.00 kN C, FG = 17.89 kN T
C
KG = 0, KJ = 4.00 kN C, FG = 8.94 kN T
.
D
KG = 1.886 kN C, KJ = 4.00 kN C, FG = 5.96 kN T
.
1648
7.
Determine the force in members GF, CF, CD of the symmetric roof truss and indicate
whether the members are in tension or compression.
A
CD = 1.783 kN C, CF = 0, GF = 1.427 kN T
.
B. CD = 3.48 kN C, CF = 00904 kN T, GF = 1.783 kN T
C
CD = 2.79 kN C, CF = 0.723 kN T, GF = 1.427 kN T
.
D
CD = 2.23 kN C, CF = 0, GF = 1.783 kN T
.
8.
The Warren truss is used to support a staircase. Determine the force in members CE, ED,
and DF, and state whether the members are in tension or compression. Assume all joints are
pinned.
A
ED = 3.60 kN T, DF = 1.70 kN C, CE = 6.22 kN C
.
1649
B. ED = 2.00 kN C, DF = 2.26 kN C, CE = 2.26 kN T
C
ED = 0.800 kN C, DF = 1.131 kN T, CE = 2.83 kN C
.
D
ED = 0.400 kN C, DF = 2.26 kN T, CE = 4.53 kN C
.
9.
Determine the horizontal and vertical components of force at pins A and C of the two-
member frame.
A
Ax = -212 N, Ay = 388 N, Cx = 212 N, Cy = 212 N
.
B. Ax = -300 N, Ay = 300 N, Cx = 300 N, Cy = 300 N
C
Ax = -849 N, Ay = 149 N, Cx = 849 N, Cy = 849 N
.
D
Ax = -1200 N, Ay = 1200 N, Cx = 1200 N, Cy = -600 N
.
1650
10.
A tower used in an electrical substation supports a power line which exerts a horizontal
tension of T = 500 lb on each side truss of the tower as shown. Determine the force in
members BC, CM, and LM of a side truss and indicate whether the members are in tension or
compression.
A
CM = 833 lb T, CB = 3330 lb C, LM = 2670 lb T
.
B. CM = 581 lb T, CB = 2050 lb C, LM = 2000 lb T
C
.
D
.
11.
The Pratt bridge truss is subjected to the loading shown. Determine the force in
members CD, CL and ML, and indicate whether these members are in tension or
compression.
A
CL = 100 kN T, ML = 150 kN T, CD = 150 kN C
.
B. CL = 50 kN C, ML = 112.5 kN C, CD = 112.5 kN T
C
CL = 100 kN C, ML = 150 kN C, CD = 150 kN T
.
D CL = 50 kN T, ML = 112.5 kN T, CD = 112.5 kN C
1651
.
12.
Compute the force in each member of the Warren truss and indicate whether the members are
in tension or compression. All the members are 3 m long.
A
AB = CD = 8.00 kN C, AE = DE = 6.92 kN T, BE = CE = 8.00 kN T, BC = 6.92 kN C
.
B. AB = CD = 4.62 kN C, AE = DE = 2.31 kN T, BE = CE = 4.62 kN T, BC = 2.31 kN C
C
AB = CD = 8.00 kN T, AE = DE = 6.92 kN C, BE = CE = 8.00 kN C, BC = 6.92 kN T
.
D
AB = CD = 4.62 kN T, AE = DE = 2.31 kN C, BE = CE = 4.62 kN C, BC = 2.31 kN T
.
13.
The scissors lift consists of two sets of symmetrically placed cross members (one in front
that is shown and one behind that is not shown) and two hydraulic cylinders (front [labeled
DE] and back [not shown]). The uniform platform has a mass of 60 kg with a center of
gravity at G1. The 85 kg load (center of gravity at G2) is centered front to back. Determine
the force in each of the hydraulic cylinders necessary to maintain equilibrium. These are
rollers at B and D.
A
DE = 1.067 kN C
.
B. DE = 1.139 kN C
1652
C
DE = 0.606 kN C
.
D
DE = 1.207 kN C
.
14.
The jack shown supports a 350-kg automobile engine. Determine the compression in the
hydraulic cylinder C and the magnitude of force that pin B exerts on the horizontal
member BDE.
A
FC = 8.75 kN, FB = 5.43 kN
.
B. FC = 5.15 kN, FB = 5.15 kN
C
FC = 8.58 kN, FB = 5.15 kN
.
D
FC = 5.25 kN, FB = 7.36 kN
.
15.
A sign is subjected to a wind loading that exerts horizontal forces of 300 lb on

joints B and C of one of the side supporting trusses. Determine the force in members BC,
CD, DB, and DE of the truss and state whether the members are in tension or compression.
1653
A
CB = 720 lb C, CD = 780 lb T, DB = 0, DE = 780 lb T
.
B. CB = 720 lb T, CD = 780 lb C, DB = 0, DE = 780 lb C
C
CB = 125 lb T, CD = 325 lb C, DB = 0, DE = 325 lb C
.
D
CB = 125 lb C, CD = 325 lb T, DB = 0, DE = 325 lb T
.
16.
Determine the horizontal and vertical components of force at pin A.

A
Ax = -46.7 lb, Ay = 45.0 lb
.
B. Ax = -53.3 lb, Ay = 40.0 lb
C
Ax = 13.3 lb, Ay = 10.0 lb
.
D
Ax = -106.7 lb, Ay = 80.0 lb
.
17.
The hoist supports the 125-kg engine. Determine the force the load creates in
1654
member DB and in member FB, which contains the hydraulic cylinder H.
A
FB = 5.82 kN C, BD = 7.80 kN T
.
B. FB = 1.939 kN C, BD = 2.60 kN T
C
FB = 1.839 kN C, BD = 2.47 kN T
.
D
FB = 1.839 kN C, BD = 2.60 kN T
.
13. Friction
1.
The boy at D has a mass of 50 kg, a center of mass at G, and stands on a plank at the position
shown. The plank is pin-supported at A and rests on a post at B. Neglecting the weight of the
plank and post, determine the magnitude of force P his friend (?) at E must exert in order to
pull out the post. Take B = 0.3 and C = 0.8.
A
P = 360 N
.
B. P = 264 N
C
P = 229 N
.
D
P = 293 N
.
1655
2.
A uniform beam has a mass of 18 kg and rests on two surfaces at points A and B. Determine
the maximum distance x to which the girl can slowly walk up the beam before it begins to
slip. The girl has a mass of 50 kg and walks up the beam with a constant velocity.
A
x = 0.678 m
.
B. x = 0.508 m
C
x = 1.005 m
.
D
x = 0.712 m
.
3.
Determine the minimum force F needed to push the two 75-kg cylinders up the incline. The
force acts parallel to the plane and the coefficients of friction at the contacting surfaces are
A = 0.3, B = 0.25, C = 0.4. Each cylinder has a radius of 150 mm.
A
F = 919 N
.
B. F = 735 N
C
F = 1.051 kN
.
D
F = 981 N
.
1656
4.
The refrigerator has a weight of 200 lb and a center of gravity at G. Determine the
force P required to move it. Will the refrigerator tip or slip? Take = 0.4.
A
P = 75 lb Slips
.
B. P = 80 lb Tips
C
P = 80 lb Slips
.
D
P = 75 lb Tips
.
5.
A 17-kg ladder has a center of mass at G. If the coefficients of friction at A and B are A =
0.3 and B = 0.2, respectively, determine the smallest horizontal force that the man must
exert of the ladder at point C in order to push the ladder forward.
A
F = 120.2 N
.
B. F = 288 N
C
F = 166.8 N
.
D
F = 204 N
.
14. Moments of Inertia
1657
1.
Determine the radius of gyration ky of the parabolic area.

A
ky = 76.5 mm
.
B. ky = 17.89 mm
C
ky = 78.6 mm
.
D
ky = 28.3 mm
.
2.
Determine the inertia of the parabolic area about the x axis.

A
Ix = 11,430 in.4
.
B. Ix = 32,800 in.4
C
Ix = 13,330 in.4
.
D
Ix = 21,300 in.4
.
1658
3.
The composite cross section for the column consists of two cover plates riveted to two
channels. Determine the radius of gyration k with respect to the centroidal axis. Each
channel has a cross-sectional area of Ac = 11.8 in.2 and moment of inertia (I )c = 349 in.4.
A
k = 7.74 in.
.
B. k = 6.29 in.
C
k = 5.44 in.
.
D
k = 4.25 in.
.
4.
The irregular area has a moment of inertia about the AA axis of 35 (106) mm4. If the total area
is 12.0(103) mm2, determine the moment of inertia if the area about the BB axis. The DD axis
passes through the centroid C of the area.
A
IBB = 5.00(106 ) mm4
.
B. IBB = 17.00(106 ) mm4
C
IBB = 16.80(106 ) mm4
.
D
IBB = 55.4(106 ) mm4
.
1659
15. KOP: Force and Acceleration
1.
Rod OA rotates counterclockwise with a constant angular rate of = 5 rad/s. The double
collar B is pin-connected together such that one collar slides over the rotating rod and the
other slides over the horizontalcurved rod, of which the shape is a limacon described by the
equation r - 1.5(2 - cos ) ft. If both collars weigh 0.75 lb, determine the normal force which
the curved path exerts on one of the collars, and the force that OAexerts on the other collar at
the instant = 90.
A
FOA = 0.873 lb, Fcurve = 1.953 lb
.
B. FOA = 0, Fcurve = 1.953 lb
C
FOA = 1.747 lb, Fcurve = 0
.
D
FOA = 2.87 lb, Fcurve = 6.41 lb
.
2.
The 30-lb crate is being hoisted upward with a constant acceleration of 6 ft/s2. If the uniform
beam AB has a weight of 200 lb, determine the components of reaction at A. Neglect the size
and mass of the pulley at B.
A
Ax = -48.3 lb, Ay = 248.3 lb, MA = 258 lb-ft CCW
.
1660
B. Ax = -48.3 lb, Ay = 248.3 lb, MA = 741 lb-ft CCW
C
Ax = -35.6 lb, Ay = 236 lb, MA = 678 lb-ft CCW
.
D
Ax = -30.0 lb, Ay = 230 lb, MA = 650 lb-ft CCW
.
3.
The 300-kg bar B, originally at rest, is being towed over a series of small rollers. Computer
the force in the cable when t = 5s, if the motor M is drawing in the cable for a short time at a
rate of v = (0.4t2) m/s, where t is in seconds (0 t 6 s). How far does the bar move in 5 s?
Neglect the mass of the cable, pulley P, and the rollers.
A
T = 5.00 kN, s = 0.300 m
.
B. T = 1.200 kN, s = 1.25 m
C
T = 5.00 kN, s = 4.00 m
.
D
T = 1.200 kN, s = 16.67 m
.
1661
4.
A 1.5-lb brick is released from rest A and slides down the inclined roof. If the coefficient of
friction between the roof and the brick is = 0.3, determine the speed at which the brick
strikes the gutter G.
5.
A ball having a mass of 2 kg slides without friction within a vertical circular slot. If it is
released from rest when = 10, determine the force it exerts on the slot when it arrives at
points A and B.
A
NA = 38.6 N, NB = 96.6 N
.
B. NA = 30.9 N, NB = 61.8 N
C
NA = 30.9 N, NB = 81.2 N
.
D
NA = 38.6 N, NB = 77.3 N
.
1662
6.
The 2-kg shaft CA passes through a smooth journal bearing at B. Initially, the springs, which
are coiled loosely around the shaft, are unstretched when no force is applied to the shaft. In
this position s = s = 250 and the shaft is originally at rest. If a horizontal force of F = 5 kN is
applied, determine the speed of the shaft at the instant s = 50 mm, s = 450 mm. The ends of
the springs are attached to the bearing at B and the caps at C and A.
A
v = 31.6 m/s
.
B. v = 14.14 m/s
C
v = 44.7 m/s
.
D
v = 30.0 m/s
.
7.
A boy twirls a 15-lb bucket of water in a vertical circle. If the radius of curvature of the path
is 4 ft, determine the minimum speed the bucket must have when it is overhead at A so no
water spills out.
A v = 11.35 ft/s
1663
.
B. v = 0
C
v = 6.26 ft/s
.
D
v = 2.83 ft/s
.
8.
Determine the acceleration of block A when the system is released. The coefficient of friction
and the weight of each block are indicated in the figure. Neglect the mass of the pulleys and
cords.
A
aA = 7.50 ft/s2 Up the slope
.
B. aA = 7.50 ft/s2 Down the slope
C
aA = 4.28 ft/s2 Up the slope
.
D
aA = 4.28 ft/s2 Down the slope
.
1664
9.
A tobbogan and rider have a total mass of 100 kg and travel down along the (smooth) slope
defined by the equation y = 0.2x2. At the instant x = 8 m, the toboggan's speed is 4 m/s. At
this point, determine the rate of increase in speed and the normal force which the toboggan
exerts on the slope. Neglect the size of the toboggan and rider for the calculation.
A
at = 8.32 m/s2, N = 520 N
.
B. at = 8.32 m/s2, N = 537 N
C
at = 9.36 m/s2, N = 310 N
.
D
at = 9.36 m/s2, N = 293 N
.
10.
A block having a mass of 2 kg is placed on a a spring scale located in an elevator that is

moving downward. If the scale reading, which measures the force in the spring, is 20 N,
determine the acceleration of the elevator. Neglect the mass of the scale.
A
. a = 10.00 m/s2
B. a = 0.1900 m/s2
1665
C
. a = 0.1900 m/s2
D
. a = 10.00 m/s2
11.
The pendulum bob B has a weight of 5 lb and is released from rest in the position shown,
=0. Determine the tension in string BC just after the bob is released, = 0, and also at the
instant the bob reaches point D, = 45.
A
T0 = 0, T45 = 10.61 lb
.
B. T0 = 0.1551 lb, T45 = 10.61 lb
C
T0 = 0, T45 = 7.07 lb
.
D
T0 = 0.1551 lb, T45 = 7.07 lb
.
1666
12.
A truck T has a weight of 8,000 lb and is traveling along a portion of a road defined by the
lemniscate r2 = 0.2(106) cos 2 , where r is measured in feet and is in radians. If the truck
maintains a constant speed of vr = 4 ft/s, determine the magnitude of the resultant frictional
force which must be exerted by all the wheels to maintain the motion when = 0.
A
F = 29.2 lb
.
B. F = 859 lb
C
F = 87.5 lb
.
D
F = 26.7 lb
.
1667
13.
A smooth can C, having a mass of 2 kg, is lifted from a feed at A to a ramp at B by a forked
rotating rod. If the rod maintains a constant angular motion of = 0.5 rad/s, determine the
force which the rod exerts on the can at the instant = 30. Neglect the effects of friction in
the calculation. The ramp from A to B is circular, having a radius of 700 min.
A
F = 19.62 N
.
B. F = 11.33 N
C
F = 10.63 N
.
D
F = 12.03 N
.
14.
The spool, which has a weight of 2lb, slides along the smooth horizontal spiral rod, r = (2 )
ft, where is in radians. If its angular rate of rotation is constant and equals = 4 rad/s,
determine the tangential force P needed to cause the motion and the normal force that the
1668
spool exerts on the rod at the instant = 90.
A
P = 0.499 lb, N = 5.03 lb
.
B. P = 5.50 lb, N = 15.65 lb
C
P = 3.35 lb, N = 2.43 lb
.
D
P = 1.677 lb, N = 4.77 lb
.
15.
Each of the three barges has a mass of 30 Mg, whereas the tugboat has a mass of 12 Mg. As
the barges are being pulled forward with a constant velocity of 4 m/s, the tugboat must
overcome the frictional resistance of the water, which is 2 kN for each barge and 1.5 kN for
the tugboat. If the cable between A and B breaks, determine the acceleration of the tugboat.
A
a = 0.1667 m/s2
.
B. a = 0.1042 m/s2
C
a = 0.0278 m/s2
.
D
a = 0.01961 m/s2
.
1669
A particle having a mass of 1.5 kg, moves along a three-dimensional path defined by the
equations r = 94 + 3t) m, = (t2 + 2) rad, and z = (6 - t3) m, where t is in seconds, and the z-
axis is vertical. Determine the r, , and z components of force which the path exerts on the
particle when t = 2 s.
A
Fr = 0, F2 = 30 N, Fz = -18.00 N
.
B. Fr = -240 N, F2 = 66.0 N, Fz = -3.29 N
C
Fr = 0, F2 = 3 N, Fz = -18.00 N
.
D
Fr = -160.0 N, F2 = 44.0 N, Fz = -12.00 N
.
16. KOP: Impulse and Momentum
1.
A golf ball having a mass of 40 g is struck such that it has an initial velocity of 200 m/s as
shown. Determine the horizontal and vertical components of the impulse given to the ball.
A
Impx = 4.00 N-s, Impy = 6.93 N-s
.
B. Impx = 6.93 N-s, Impy = 4.00 N-s
C
Impx = 6.93 N-s, Impy = 4.39 N-s
.
1670
D
Impx = 4.00 N-s, Impy = 7.32 N-s
.
2.
The drop hammer H has a weight of 900 lb and falls from rest. H has a weight of 900 lb and
falls from rest h = 3 ft onto a forged anvil plate P that has a weight of 500 lb. The plate is
mounted on a set of springs which have a combined stiffness of kT = 500 lb/ft. Determine (a)
the velocity of P and H just after collision and (b) the maximum compression in the springs
caused by the impact. The coefficient of restitution between the hammer and the plate is e =
0.6. Neglect friction along the vertical guide posts A and B.
A
vH2 = 3.97 ft/s, vP2 = 17.87 ft/s, x = 4.15 ft
.
B. vH2 = 8.94 ft/s, vP2 = 8.94 ft/s, x = 2.57 ft
C
vH2 = 5.96 ft/s, vP2 = 14.30 ft/s, x = 3.52 ft
.
D
vH2 = 20.8 ft/s, vP2 = 12.51 ft/s, x = 3.20 ft
.
3.
A basket and its contents weigh 10 lb. A 20-lb monkey grabs the other end of the rope and
very quickly (almost instantaneously) accelerates by pulling hard on the rope until he is
moving with a constant speed of vm/r = 2 ft/s measured relative to the rope. The monkey
then continues climbing at this constant rate relative to the rope for 3 seconds. How fast is
the basket rising at the end of the 3 seconds? Neglect the mass of the pulley and the rope.
1671
A
vbasket = 33.5 ft/s
.
B. vbasket = 32.2 ft/s
C
vbasket = 96.6 ft/s
.
D
vbasket = 97.9 ft/s
.
4.
In cases of emergency, the gas actuator can be used to move a 75-kg block B by exploding a
charge C near a pressurized cylinder of negligible mass. As a result of the explosion, the
cylinder fractures and the released gas forces the front part ofthe cylinder, A, to move B and
the floor is = 0.5, determine the impulse that the actuator must impart to B.
A
Imp = 147.2 N-s
.
B. Imp = 132.2 N-s
C
Imp = 15.00 N-s
.
D
Imp = 162.2 N-s
.
1672
5.
Two coins A and B have the initial velocities shown just before they collide at point O. If
they have weights of WA= 13.2(10-3) lb and WB = 6.6(10-3) lb and the surface upon which they
slide is smooth, determine their speed just after impact. The coefficient of restitution is e =
0.65.
A
vA2 = 1.856 ft/s, vB2 = 3.18 ft/s
.
B. vA2 = 1.871 ft/s, vB2 = 2.76 ft/s
C
vA2 = 1.772 ft/s, vB2 = 2.88 ft/s
.
D
vA2 = 1.755 ft/s, vB2 = 2.92 ft/s
.
6.
The motor M pulls on the cables with a force F that has a magnitude which varies as shown
1673
on the graph. If the 15-kg crate is originally resting on the floor such that the cable tension is
zero when the motor is turned on, determine the speed of the crate when t = 6s.
A
vcrate = 23.2 m/s
.
B. vcrate = 70.0 m/s
C
vcrate = 11.14 m/s
.
D
vcrate = 58.0 m/s
.
7.
A stunt driver in car A travels in free flight off the edge of a ramp at C. At the point of
maximum height he strikes car B. If the direct collision is perfectly plastic (e = 0), determine
the required ramp speed vC at the end of the ramp C, and the approximate distance s where
both cars strike the ground. Each car has a mass of 3.5 Mg. Neglect the size of the cars in the
calculation.
8.
A toboggan and rider, having a total mass of 150 kg, enter horizontally tangent to a 90
circular curve with a velocity VA and the angle of "descent," measured from the horizontal
in a vertical x z plane, at which the toboggan exits at B. Neglect friction in the calculation.
The radius rB equals 57 m.
A
vB = 21.9 m/s, = 20.9
.
1674
B. vB = 23.4 m/s, = 29.0
C
vB = 20.7 m/s, = 8.84
.
D
vB = 20.3 m/s, = 7.37
.
9.
The projectile having a mass of m = 3 kg is fired from a cannon with a muzzle velocity
of vO = 500 m/s. Determine the projectile's angular momentum about point O at the instant it
is at the maximum height of its trajectory.
A
H0 = 15.11(106) kg- m2/s CCW
.
B. H0 = 6.76(106) kg- m2/s CCW
C
H0 = 15.11(106) kg- m2/s CW
.
D
H0 = 6.76(106) kg- m2/s CW
.
1675
10.
The two handcars A and B each have a mass of 80 kg. Both cars are initially at rest. Both cars
start from rest before the man jumps. If the man C has a mass of 70 kg and jumps
from A with a horizontal relative velocity of vC/A = 2 m/s and lands on B, determine the
velocity of each car after the jump. Neglect the effects of rolling resistance.
A
vA = 0.933 m/s vB = 0.498 m/s
.
B. vA = 1.750 m/s vB = 0.933 m/s
C
vA = 0.498 m/s vB = 1.750 m/s
.
D
vA = 1.750 m/s vB = 1.750 m/s
.
1676
11.
Determine the velocities of blocks A and B 2 s after they are released from rest. Neglect the
mass of the pulleys and cables.
A
vA = 21.5 ft/s 8, VB = 21.5 ft/s 9
.
B. vA = 64.4 ft/s 8, VB = 64.4 ft/s 9
C
vA = 64.4 ft/s 8, VB = 32.2 ft/s 9
.
D
vA = 21.5 ft/s 8, VB = 10.73 ft/s 9
.
1677
12.
A 0.6-kg brick is thrown into a 25-kg wagon which is initially at rest. If, upon entering, the
brick has a velocity of 10 m/s as shown, determine the final velocity of the wagon.
A
vwagon = 0.203 m/s
.
B. vwagon = 0.208 m/s
C
vwagon = 0.240 m/s
.
D
vwagon = 0.234 m/s
.
13.
A 30-lb block is initially moving along a smooth horizontal surface with a speed of v1 = 6
ft/s to the left. If it is acted upon by a force F, which varies in the manner shown, determine
1678
the velocity of the block in 15 s. The argument for the cosine is in radians.
A
v2 = 91.4 ft/s 7
.
B. v2 = 79.4 ft/s 6
C
v2 = 91.4 ft/s 6
.
D
v2 = 79.4 ft/s 7
.
14.
A man wearing ice skates throws an 8-kg block with an initial velocity of 2 m/s, measured
relative to himself, in the direction shown. If he is originally at rest and completes the throw
in 1.5 s while keeping his legs rigid, determine the horizontal velocity of the man just after
releasing the block. What is the average vertical reaction of both his skates on the ice during
the throw? The man has a mass of 70 kg. Neglect friction and the motion of his arms.
A
vman = 0.1776 m/s, Navg = 765 N
.
B. vman = 0.1979 m/s, Navg = 771 N
C
vman = 0.1776 m/s, Navg = 771 N
.
D vman = 0.1979 m/s, Navg = 765 N
1679
.
15.
Plates A and B each have a mass of 4 kg and are restricted to move along the frictionless
guides. If the coefficient of restitution between the plates is e = 0.7, determine (a) the speed
of both plates just after collision and (b) the maximum deflection of the spring. Plate A has a
velocity of 4 m/s just before striking B. Plate B is originally at rest.
A
vA2 = 0.857 m/s, vB2 = 4.86 m/s, x = 0.434 m
.
B. vA2 = 0.600 m/s, vB2 = 3.40 m/s, x = 0.304 m
C
vA2 = 0, vB2 = 4.00 m/s, x = 0.358 m
.
D
vA2 = 0.327 m/s, vB2 = 3.67 m/s, x = 0.329 m
.
16.
A girl having a weight of 40 lb slides down the smooth slide onto the surface of a 20-lb
wagon. Determine the speed of the wagon at the instant the girl stops sliding on it. If
someone ties the wagon to the slide at B, determine the horizontal impulse the girl will exert
at C in order to stop her motion. Neglect friction and assume that the girl starts from rest at
the top of the slide, A.
1680
A
vwagon = 20.7 ft/s Imp = 38.6 lb-s
.
B. vwagon = 31.1 ft/s Imp = 38.6 lb-s
C
.
D
.
17.
A hockey puck is traveling to the left with a velocity of v1 = 10 m/s when it is struck by a
hockey stick and given a velocity of v2 = 20 m/s as shown. Determine the magnitude of the
net impulse exerted by the hockey stick on the puck. The puck has a mass of 0.2 kg.
A
Imp = 6.00 N-s
.
B. Imp = 2.00 N-s
C
Imp = 2.78 N-s
.
D
Imp = 5.68 N-s
.
18.
A rifle has a mass of 2.5 kg. If it is loosely gripped and a 1.5-g bullet is fired from it with a
muzzle velocity of 1400 m/s, determine the recoil velocity of the rifle just after firing.
A
vrifle = 0.840 m/s
.
B. vrifle = 0.525 m/s
C
vrifle = 2.33 m/s
.
1681
D
vrifle = 1.400 m/s
.
19.
The two blocks A and B each have a mass of 500 g. The blocks are fixed to the horizontal
rods and their initial velocity is 2 m/s in the direction shown. If a couple moment of M = 0.8
N m is applied about CD of the frame, determine the speed of the block in 4 s. The mass of
the supporting frame is negligible and its free to rotate about CD.
A
v2 = 10.67 m/s
.
B. v2 = 23.3 m/s
C
v2 = 22.3 m/s
.
D
v2 = 12.67 m/s
.
1682
20.
A boy, having a weight of 90 lb, jumps off a wagon with a relative velocity of vb/w = 6 ft/s. If
the angle of jump is 30, determine the horizontal velocity (vw)2 of the wagon just after the
jump. Originally both the wagon and the boy are at rest. Also, compute the total average
impulsive force that all four wheels of the wagon exert on the ground of the boy jumps off
in t = 0.8s. The wagon has a weight of 20 lb.
A
vwagon = 23.4 ft/s Nwheel = 110.0 lb
.
B. vwagon = 23.4 ft/s Nwheel = 120.5 lb
C
.
D
.
17. PKRB: Force and Animation
1683
1.
The slender 200-kg beam is suspended by a cable at its end as shown. If a man pushes on its
other end with a horizontal force of 30 N, determine the initial acceleration of its mass
center G, the beam's angular acceleration, and the tension in the cable AB.
A
aG = 0, = 0.225 rad/s2, T = 1.962 kN
.
B. aG = 0.0750 m/s2, = 0.1125 rad/s2, T = 1.962 kN
C
aG = 0, = 0.1125 rad/s2, T = 1.962 kN
.
D
aG = 0.1500 m/s2, = 0.225 rad/s2, T = 1.962 kN
.
1684
2.
A clown, mounted on stilts, loses his balance and falls backward from the position, where it
is assumed the = 0 when = 07deg;. Paralyzed with fear, he remains rigid as he falls. His
mass including the stilts is 80 kg, the mass center is at G, and the radius of gyration
about G is kG = 1.2 m. Determine the coefficient of friction between his shoes and the ground
at A if it is observed that slipping occurs when = 30.
A
= 0.833
.
B. = 0.468
C
= 0.243
.
D
= 0.400
.
1685
3.
The dragster has a mass of 1.3 Mg and a center of mass at G. If a braking parachute is
attached at C and provides a horizontal braking force FD, determine the maximum
deceleration the dragster can have upon releasing the parachute without tipping the dragster
over backwards (i.e., the normal force under the wheels and assume that the engine is
disengaged so that the wheels are freely rolling.
A
a = 16.35 m/s2
.
B. a = 8.46 m/s2
C
a = 2.75 m/s2
.
D
a = 35.0 m/s2
.
1686
4.
The sports car has a mass of 1.5 Mg and a center of mass at G. Determine the shortest time it
takes for it to reach a speed of 80 km/h, starting from rest, if the engine only drives the rear
wheels, whereas the front wheels are free rolling. The coefficient of friction between the
wheels and road is = 0.2. Neglect the mass of the wheels for the calculation.
A
t = 17.49 s
.
B. t = 18.12 s
C
t = 18.76 s
.
D
t = 22.7 s
.
1687
5.
The disk has a mass of 20 kg and is originally spinning at the end of the massless strut with
an angular velocity of = 60 rad/s. If it is then placed against the wall, for which A = 0.3,
determine the time required for the motion to stop. What is the force in strut BC during this
time?
A
t = 3.11 s, FBC = 193.1 N
.
B. t = 2.65 s, FBC = 227 N
C
t = 5.30 s, FBC = 227 N
.
D
t = 6.21 s, FBC = 193.1 N
.
1688
6.
The 10-kg block rests on the platform for which = 0.4. If at the instant shown link AB has
an angular velocity = 2 rad/s, determine the greatest angular acceleration of the link so that
the block doesn't slip.
A
= 6.35 rad/s2
.
B. = 2.62 rad/s2
C
= 1.016 rad/s2
.
D
= 3.46 rad/s2
.
7.
1689
If the cable CB is horizontal and the beam is at rest in the position shown, determine the
tension in the cable at the instant the towing force F = 1500 N is applied. The coefficient of
friction between the beam and the floor at Ais A = 0.3. For the calculation, assume that the
beam is a uniform slender rod having a mass of 100 kg.
A
TCB = 636 N
.
B. TCB = 1206 N
C
TCB = 1016 N
.
D
TCB = 347 N
.
8.
The 15-lb rod is pinned and has an angular velocity of = 5 rad/s when it is in the horizontal
position shown. Determine the rod's angular acceleration and the pin reactions at this instant.
A
= 16.1 rad/s2, Ax = 17.47 lb, Ay = 3.75 lb
.
B. = 64.4 rad/s2, Ax = 17.47 lb, Ay = 30.0 lb
C
= 16.1 rad/s2, Ax = 17.47 lb, Ay = 15.00 lb
.
D
= 64.4 rad/s2, Ax = 17.47 lb, Ay = 15.00 lb
.
1690
9.
Bar AB has a weight of 10 lb and is fixed to the carriage at A. Determine the internal axial
force Ay, shear force V , and moment MA at A if the carriage is descending the plane with an
acceleration of 4 ft/s2.
A
Ay = 8.92 lb 8, Vx = 0.621 lb 7, MA = 0
.
B. Ay = 9.38 lb 8, Vx = 1.076 lb 7, MA = 1.076 lb-ft
C
. Ay = 8.92 lb 8, Vx = 0.621 lb 7, MA = 0.621 lb-ft
D
Ay = 9.38 lb 8, Vx = 1.076 lb 7, MA = 0
.
1691
10.
A cord wrapped around the inner core of a spool. If the cord is pulled with a constant tension
of 30 lb and the spool is originally at rest, determine the spool's angular Velocity when s = 8
ft of cord have unraveled. Neglect the weight of the cord. The spool and cord have a total
weight of 400 lb and the radius of gyration about the axle A is kA = 1.30 ft.
A
= 6.73 rad/s
.
B. = 3.38 rad/s
C
= 4.78 rad/s
.
D
= 11.43 rad/s
.
1692
11.
If the support at B is suddenly removed, determine the initial reactions at the pin A. The plate
has a weight of 30 lb.
A
Ax = 22.5 lb, Ay = 7.5 lb
.
B. Ax = 0, Ay = 30.0 lb
C
Ax = 11.25 lb, Ay = 18.75 lb
.
D
Ax = 11.25 lb, Ay = 41.3 lb
.
1693
12.
A woman sits in a rigid position on her rocking chair by keeping her feet on the bottom rungs
at B. At the instant shown, she has reached an extreme backward position and has zero
angular velocity. Determine her forward angular acceleration and the frictional force
at A necessary to prevent the rocker from slipping. The woman and the rocker have a
combined weight of 180 lb and a raduis of gyration about G of kG = 2.2 ft.
A
= 1.185 rad/s2, F = 19.87 lb
.
B. = 1.143 rad/s2, F = 19.16 lb
C
= 1.163 rad/s2, F = 19.51 lb
.
D
= 3.16 rad/s2, F = 5301 lb
.
1694
13.
The wheel has a weight of 30 lb, a radius of r = 0.5 ft, and a radius of gyration of kG = 0.23
ft. If the coefficient if friction between the wheel and the plane is = 0.2, determine the
wheel's angular acceleration as it rolls down the incline. Set = 12.
A
= 59.5 rad/s2
.
B. = 8.93 rad/s2
C
= 11.05 rad/s2
.
D
= 63.3 rad/s2
.
18. PKRB: Impulse and Momentum
1.
The uniform rod AB has a weight of 3 lb and is released from rest without rotating from the
position shown. As it falls, the end A strikes a hook S, which provides a permanent
1695
connection. Determine the speed at which the other end B strikes the wall at C.
A
vB4 = 14.74 ft/s
.
B. vB4 = 20.3 ft/s
C
vB4 = 22.0 ft/s
.
D
vB4 = 12.69 ft/s
.
2.
Gear A has a weight of 1.5 lb, a radius of 0.2 ft, and a radius of gyration of ko = 0.13ft. The
coefficient of friction between the gear rack B and the horizontal surface is = 0.3. If the
rack has a weight of 0.8 lb and is initially sliding to the left with a velocity of (vB)2 = 8 ft/s to
the left. Neglect friction between the rack and the gear and assume that the gear exerts only a
horizontal force on the rack.
A
M = 0.01425 lb-ft
.
B. M = 0.00630 lb-ft
C
M = 0.0622 lb-ft
.
D
M = 0.0560 lb-ft
.
1696
3.
The 50-kg cylinder has an angular velocity of 30 rad/s when it is brought into contact with
the horizontal surface at C. If the coefficient of friction is c = 0.2, determine how long it
takes for the cylinder to stop spinning. What force is developed at the pin A during this time?
The axis of the cylinder is connected to two symmetrical links. (Only AB is shown.) For the
computation, neglect the weight of the links.
A
t = 1.529 s, A = 0
.
B. t = 3.06 s, A = 0
C
t = 1.529 s, A = 49.1 N
.
D
t = 3.06 s, A = 49.1 N
.
4.
The uniform pole has a mass of 15 kg and falls from rest when = 90 until it strikes the
edge at A, = 60. If the pole then begins to pivot about this point after contact, determine
1697
the pole's angular velocity just after the impact. Assume that the pole does not slip at B as it
falls until it strikes A.
A
3 = 1.146 rad/s
.
B. 3 = 0.537 rad/s
C
3 = 2.15 rad/s
.
D
3 = 1.528 rad/s
.
5.
The 12-kg disk has an angular velocity of = 20 rad/s. If the brake ABC is applied such that
the magnitude of force P varies with time as shown, determine the time needed to stop
the disk. The coefficient of friction at B is = 0.4.
A
t = 13.00 s
.
B. t = 7.00 s
C
t = 8.92 s
.
D
t = 5.08 s
.
1698
6.
A constant torque or twist of M = 0.4N m is applied to the center gear A. If the system starts
from rest, determine the angular velocity of each of the three (equal) smaller gears in 3 s. The
smaller gears (B) are pinned at their centers, and the mass and centroidal radii of gyration of
the gears are given in the figure.
A
B = 1975 rad/s
.
B. B = 5830 rad/s
C
B = 1520 rad/s
.
D
B = 1022 rad/s
.
1699
7.
The square plate, where a = 0.75 ft, has a weight of 4 lb and is rotating on the smooth surface
with a constant angular velocity of 1 = 10 rad/s. Determine the new angular velocity of the
plate just after its corner strikes the peg P and the plate to rotate about P without rebounding.
A
2 = 6.67 rad/s
.
B. 2 = 2.50 rad/s
C
2 = 10.00 rad/s
.
D
2 = 5.00 rad/s
.
8.
The flywheel A has a mass of 30 kg and a radius of gyration of kc = 95 mm. Disk B has a
mass of 25 kg, is pinned at D, and is coupled to the flywheel using a belt which is subjected
to a tension such that it does not slip at its contacting surfaces. If a motor supplies a counter-
clockwise torque or twist to the flywheel, having a magnitude of M = (12t) N m, where t is
measured in seconds, determine the angular velocity of the disk 3 s after the motor is turned
on. Initially, the flywheel is at rest.
A
= 232 rad/s
.
1700
B. = 77.2 rad/s
C
= 115.9 rad/s
.
D
= 276 rad/s
.
9.
A cord of negligible mass is wrapped around the outer surface of the 50-lb cylinder and its
end is subjected to a constant horizontal force of P = 2 lb. If the cylinder rolls without
slipping at A, determine its angular velocity in 4 s starting from rest. Neglect the thickness of
the cord.
A
= 34.3 rad/s
.
B. = 17.17 rad/s
C
= 8.59 rad/s
.
D
= 11.45 rad/s
.
1701
10.
A horizontal circular platform has a weight of 300 lb and a radius of gyration about the z axis
passing through its center O of kz = 8 ft. The platform is free to rotate about the z axis and is
initially at rest. A man, having a weight of 150 lb, begins to run along the edge in a circular
path of radius 10 ft. If he has a speed of 4 ft/s and maintains this speed relative to the
platform, compute the angular velocity of the platform.
A
= 0.313 rad/s
.
B. = 0.1754 rad/s
C
= 0.225 rad/s
.
D
= 1.429 rad/s
.
A cord of negligible mass is wrapped around the outer surface of the 2-kg disk. If the disk is
released from rest, determine its angular velocity in 3 s.
A
= 183.9 rad/s
.
B. = 735 rad/s
C = 245 rad/s
1702
.
D
= 263 rad/s
.
1703

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MECHANJICAL ENGINEERING MCQS EDITEDP1.................................................................6

Engineering Mechanics - Section 1

. The friction experienced by a body, when in motion, is known as

5. The coefficient of restitution for elastic bodies is one.

B. does not depend

9. A body of weight W is required to move up on rough inclined plane whose angle of

15. The unit of angular acceleration is

B. s = u.t + 1/2 a.t2

46. Work done is said to be zero, when

B. no force acts on a body but some displacement takes place

48. One watt is equal to

Engineering Mechanics - Section 2

2. The loss of kinetic energy during elastic impact is zero.

4. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

B. Newton's second law of motion

6. In ideal machines, mechanical advantage is __________ velocity ratio.

8. The moment of inertia of a square of side a about its diagonal is

10. The maximum efficiency of a lifting machine is

18. The motion of a particle round a fixed axis is

B. different at different points on its line of action

26. The resultant of two forces P and Q acting at an angle is

27. Which of the following are vector quantities?

30. Non-coplaner concurrent forces are those forces which

31. Which of the following statement is correct?

32. The maximum efficiency of a screw jack is

36. Concurrent forces are those forces whose lines of action

B. meet at one point

B. their lines of action are at equal distances

42. A machine having an efficiency less than 50%, is known as

B. Newton's second law of motion

45. The unit of mass moment of inertia in S.I. units is kg-m2.

Engineering Mechanics - Section 3

7. A smooth cylinder lying on a __________ is in neutral equilibrium.

B. their lines of action are at equal distances

13. The range of projectile(R) on an upward inclined plane is

15. In actual machines, mechanical advantage is __________ velocity ratio.

20. When the spring of a watch is wound, it will possess

23. The rate of doing work is known as

25. Moment of inertia of a circular section about its diameter (d) is

28. The unit of work in S.I. units is

29. The static friction

B. is independent of the area of contact, between the two surfaces

30. The maximum height of a projectile on a horizontal plane, is

35. The total energy possessed by a system of moving bodies

B. varies from point to point

39. A couple produces

40. Energy may be defined as the capacity of doing work.

41. For a self locking machine, the efficiency must be

B. less than 50%

43. One joule is equal to

B. power is being transmitted

47. A framed structure, as shown in the below figure, is a

48. The rate of change of displacement of a body is called

Engineering Mechanics - Section 4

B. twice the area of the triangle

5. Frequency of vibrations means the number of cycles per second.

6. The time of flight (t) of a projectile on a horizontal plane is given by

7. The velocity ratio for the third system of pulleys is

11. The velocity ratio for the second system of pulleys is n.

12. The law of motion involved in the recoil of gun is

16. When two elastic bodies collide with each other,

B. does not depend

30. The unit of power in S.I. units is