EST Superbook PW (Jma, Pece) - Review

To the woman who continually electrifies
my once boring life
To my students who compelled me how to learn

for the sake of teaching
To my baby who always regenerates my strength

whenever Im heavily attenuated
And to Him that gave us Maxwell, Hertz, Faraday,

Marconi, Tesla, Gauss, Fessenden, etc
To Him is the kingdom, the power, and the glory forever
He that walketh with wise men shall be wise

Proverbs 13:20
Self-Sufficient Guide to
Electronic Communications
Engineering
by
Jason M. Ampoloquio
copyright 2005
All rights reserved.
No part of this book may be reproduced in any form or by any means,

electronic, or mechanical including photocopying, recording,
mimeographing, or by any information and retrieval system, without the
written permission from the copyright holder.
ISBN 971-92592-7-2
Printed in the Philippines
Important Legal Information: Warning and Disclaimer
This review book presents the fundamentals of Communications Engineering

using modified concepts, principles, and examples from common textbook
and reference materials in the field of Communications Engineering. While
the author/compiler believes that the concepts and data in this book are
accurate, correct and meticulously prepared, the materials in this book is
intended solely as a quick reference aid, and is not represented to be an
appropriate or safe solution to pass the ECE licensure exam. For this reason,
the author makes no warranties, express or implied, that the concepts,
examples, and data contained in this book are free from errors. I would,
however, appreciate readers bringing to my attention any errors that may
appear in the printed version of this book for reasons beyond my control.
These errors and any other comments can be

communicated to me by e-mail
addressed to: jm.ampoloquio@insurance.gov.ph
The Author
Jason M. Ampoloquio, PECE
PECE consultant Beta Electric Corporation
Senior System Analyst, Department of Finance (Insurance Commission)
Mobile/Web Application Developer
Faculty Member University of Santo Tomas
President, Powerful Review Center
MSECE Major in DSP-De La Salle University (units earned)
BSECE-Central Colleges of the Philippines
HR Reyes Scholar
Coach, IECEP Quizzers
Champion: 1. ECE Quiz Show (1999)
2. 1st Brain Encounter (1998)
3. Physics Quiz Show (1996)
4. Mathematics Wizard (1996)
5. Inter Engineering Quiz Show (1995)
Battle of the Brain School Representative (RPN-9)
Quizzer-19th and 20th IECEP Quiz Show
Author:
1. Electronics Engineering SUPERBook
2. EST Refresher
3. Mathematics Refresher
4. GEAS Refresher
5. Electronics Refresher
EST Review Director
Former Faculty: TUP-M, CCP
Resource Speaker, Various Topics in Communications
In-house reviewer, Various Colleges and Universities
Sought after reviewer in Communications Engineering
f e
Although it is a relatively easy process to select a book from a catalog or shelf
in a bookstore, the actual effort involved in its preparation and publication
can be quite complex and can extend over a significant period of time (for
this book I personally experienced almost 2 years of hundreds of revision, an
average of eight hrs every night for searching, researching, reading,
comparing, computing, analyzing, and typing3 hrs of which is allocated for
drawings and illustrations). As a beginner, I realized that the creation of a
written work is a team effort requiring the cooperation and assistance of many
persons. Thus, I would be remiss if I did not thank those who made this book
possible.
First & foremost, to God for His indescribable gift.
To my parents Jayme Ampoloquio and Teresita Ampoloquio, to my sisters and

brothers namely Elizabeth, Ma. Teresa, Dennis, and Emmanuel, to whom I owe
one of my deepest appreciations.
To all the people who in invaluable ways help to mold my character as a

teacher and a reviewer namely Dean Cynthia Llanes & Carlos Llanes, and
Leonardo Samaniego.
To my fellows, Engrs. Anthony Lopos, Gerard Ang, Rufino Orpia, Reginaldo

Marinay, Dennis Paus.
And to the following: Vic Buenconsejo (Colegio de San Agustin Bacolod) and
Dean Christopher Taclobos (UNO-R Bacolod) for their continuous trust in my
potentials and warmth accommodation during my stay in their respective
places.
To Engr. Reynante Abuyan: Thank you for lending me your awesome printer
and editing the first few chapters of this superb guidebook.
To all ECE reviewees: Thank you for your patronage and trust! And may all
your dreams be electric!
To Engrs. Randel Espina of Ateneo de Davao, Neil Abalajon of TUP-Visayas,

Marlon Lagulos of Univ. of Southeastern Philippines, Carlos Sison of PLM, Nieves
Elarco of SLPC, Dean Jose Magleo of Collegio de Dagupan, Evelyn Raguindin
of Adamson University, Dean Roman Palo of Holy Angel University, Engr Oliver
Mariano of Bulacan State University, and to those people whom I cannot
individually write their names. I sincerely thank you all
jma/pece
f e
F
or as much as many have tried to create a good ECE guide book, it seems
good to me also, having had a fine understanding to finally craft a review
book intended not to compete to those which are existing but in my own
little way and with Gods help, to properly guide ECE students on their quest to
the elusive licensure examination.
T
he Self-sufficient Guide to Electronic Communications Engineering (ECE)
that I preferred to call SUPERBook, is a comprehensive and meticulous
compilation of modified concepts in every aspect of communications
engineering discipline. The SUPERBook is carefully scrutinized to cover
important details that are imperative to board exam preparation but also
taken into account minute pieces of information commonly neglected by
reviewees that lead to occasionally guessing the board exam questions.
S
ince it is also a proven fact that 50% of learning process comes from
visual aids and illustration, and past ECE board questions require the
knowledge of block diagram to be answered correctly, the
author/compiler painstakingly prepared lavish illustration that will scintillate
the interest of readers.
A
lso the SUPERBook flagships is its minefield of 250+ scrupulously
solved and 2100+ multiple choice practice problems aimed to help ECE
reviewees to keep abreast to the recent trend of ECE board
examination.
T
he answer to even-numbered questions are intentionally withheld by the
author/compiler but will be discuss to EXPERTS reviewees during
review, refresher and coaching program for the reason that the author is
anticipating ECE school teachers and co-reviewers will use some of the
question as a safe and quick exam references since the answers are withheld
and encourage readers to test their knowledge in the field of communications
engineering.
A
nd finally, the author/compiler firmly believed that knowledge is
cumulative. It is not based on each persons re-inventing that is known,
but rather accumulating what has been learned from the past,
synthesizing new ideas from old formulas and principles, and creating
completely new insights, I hope elements of all three can be found in these
pages, and I want to acknowledge the contribution of all those works
(textbooks, journals, manuals, magazine, and website tutorials) has added to
my understanding of the various topics of this lavish guidebook.
Read it till it Hertz
Happy reading c,)

Jason M. Ampoloquio, PECE
Contents
Title page
Dedication
Acknowledgments
Preface
CHAPTER 1: Introduction to Electronic Communication 1-xx

Section 1. Basic Principles of Communications Engineering 1-1
Section 2. Amplitude Modulation 1-38
Section 3. Angle Modulation 1-68
Section 4. Noise Analysis and dB Calculations 1-94
Section 5. Transmitters and Receivers 1-125
CHAPTER 2: Acoustics & Broadcasting 2-xx

Section 6. Acoustics Fundamentals 2-1
Section 7. Television Fundamentals 2-28
Section 8. AM, FM AND TV Broadcasting Standards 2-69
Section 9. Microphones & Loudspeakers 2-89
CHAPTER 3: Wire Communications 3-xx

Section 10. Transmission Lines and Waveguides 3-1
Section 11. Fiber Optics Communications 3-50
Section 12. Telephone Networks and System 3-106
Section 13. Facsimile Transmission 3-159
CHAPTER 4: Computer Communications 4-xx

Section 14. Pulse Modulation 4-1
Section 15. Digital Communications 4-19
Section 16. Data Communications 4-55
CHAPTER 5: Wireless Communications 5-xx

Section 17. Antenna Fundamentals 5-1
Section 18. Radio-Wave Propagation 5-42
Section 19. Microwave Engineering 5-62
Section 20. Satellite Communications 5-86
Section 21. Cellular Communication System 5-113
CHAPTER 6: Navigational Aids 6-xx

Section 22. Navigation System 6-1
Section 23. Radar Fundamentals 6-29
CHAPTER 7: Miscellaneous Topics 7-xx

Section 24. Laws & Ethics 7-1
Section 25. Basic Signals & System 7-41
PRC Examinees Guide 8-xx

Answers to Odd-Numbered Questions 9-xx
Study Tips
Major References
Authors Page
Section 1
Basic Principles of
Communications m 2Pc m 2Pc
PLSB = PUSB =
4 4
Engineering
Section 2
Amplitude
Modulation
Section 3 m 2Pc
Angle Modulation PLSB = PUSB = 0
4
Section 4
Noise Analysis and
dB Calculations
Section 5
Transmitters & m 2Pc
PLSB = PUSB = 0
Receivers 4
Introduction to
Electronics
Communication
Loading ECE SUPERBook

Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-1
Section Basic Principles of Read it

till it
1 Communications Engineering Hertz!
DEFINITION. Electronic Communication is the transmission, reception, and

processing of information between two or more locations using electronic
circuits.
DEFINITION. Allocation: Entry in the Table of Frequency Allocations of a

given frequency band for the purpose of its use by one or more terrestrial or
space radio communication services or the radio astronomy service under
specified conditions.
DEFINITION. Allotment: Entry of a designated frequency channel in the

agreed plan, adopted by the ITU, for use by one or more nations for a
terrestrial or space radio communication services in one or more identified
countries or geographic areas and under specified conditions.
DEFINITION. Assignment: Authorization given by a nation for a radio

station to use a radio-frequency channel under specified conditions.
HISTORICAL PERSPECTIVE
1820 Hans Christian Oersted discovered the relation between electricity and
magnetism, later known as electromagnetism.
1821 Andre Marie Ampere already observed momentarily the phenomenon

we now call electromagnetic induction and hypothesized the existence
of magnetic field around a current-carrying conductor.
1822 Michael Faraday discovered electromagnetic induction, the reverse of

Oersted discovery.
1830 An American, Joseph Henry, demonstrated telecommand by sending

an electronic current over one mile of wire to activate an
electromagnet which caused a bell to strike, thus wire telegraphy was
born.
Samuel F.B. Morse, successfully exploited Henrys invention

commercially.
1866 James Clerk Maxwell put together the principles of Oersted, Faraday
and hypothesized the existence of electromagnetic waves.

1-2 BASIC PRINCIPLES OF COMMUNICATIONS Engineering
1886 German physicist, Heinrich Hertz performed an experiment on spark

gap transmission verifying Maxwell statement. Hertz experimentally
showed the existence of such waves which he called radio waves that
paved the way for wireless communication.
1896 An Italian, Guglielmo Marconi developed the first wireless telegraph

and successfully sent a message over a distance of few kilometers
using a spark gap transmitter.
1900 Reginald Aubrey Fessenden, invented AM and successfully transmits a

few words using spark gap transmitter.
1936 Major Edwin Armstrong developed the first successful FM radio

system.
A. .NOMENCLATURE OF RADIO FREQUENCY BAND.
Based on ITU-R Recommendations V.431-6
Adjectival
Frequency Range Metric Subdivision
Designation
0.03 to 0.3 Hz Gigametric ELF
0.3 to 3 Hz Hectomegametric ELF
3 to 30 Hz Decamegametric ELF
30 to 300 Hz Megametric ELF
300 to 3400 Hz Hectokilometric ULF (Voice)
3 to 30 kHz Myriametric VLF
30 to 300 kHz kilometric LF
300 to 3000 kHz Hectometric MF
3 to 30 MHz Decametric HF
30 to 300 MHz metric VHF
300 to 3000 MHz decimetric UHF
3 to 30 GHz centimetric SHF
30 to 300 GHz millimetric EHF
300 to 3000 GHz decimillimetric EHF
3 to 30 THz centimillimetric EHF
30 to 300 THz Micrometric EHF
300 to 3000 THz Decimicrometric EHF
B. .ELEMENTS OF BASIC COMMUNICATIONS SYSTEM.
1. Transmitter
A collection of electronic components and circuits designed to convert
the information or intelligence into a signal suitable for transmission
over a given communication medium.
2. Channel
The medium by which the electronic/electromagnetic signal is sent
from one place to another.
2 General Categories
i. Wire Medium
The signal is confined within the proximity of the channel or
medium.
a.k.a. Bounded or Guided medium
ii. Wireless Medium
The signal is not subjected to limits, boundaries, or channel
restrictions.
a.k.a. Unbounded or Unguided Medium
Noise
Noise is a random, undesirable electrical energy that enters the
communications system and interferes with the transmitted message.
3. Receiver
The receiver is another collection of electronic components and circuits
that accept the transmitted message from the channel and convert it
back into a form understandable by humans.

Read it till it Hertzjma
Noise SPECTRUM
White Noise - White noise is defined as a noise that has equal amount
of energy per frequency.
This means that if you could measure the amount of white noise energy between
100 Hz and 200 Hz it would equal the amount of energy between 1000 Hz and
1100 Hz.
Pink Noise - Pink noise is noise that has an equal amount of energy
per octave.
This means that pink noise would have equal power in the frequency range from
40 to 60 Hz as in the band from 4000 to 6000 Hz.
Brown noise - Brown noise is similar to pink noise, but with a power
density decrease of 6 dB per octave with increasing frequency (density
proportional to 1/f2) over a frequency range which does not include
DC.
Blue Noise - Blue noise is noise that is the opposite of pink noise in
that it doubles the amount of energy each time you go up 1 octave.
Purple noise - Purple noise's power density increases 6 dB per octave

with increasing frequency (density proportional to f2) over a finite
frequency range.
It is also known as differentiated white noise or violet noise.
Orange noise - Orange noise is quasi-stationary noise with a finite

power spectrum with a finite number of small bands of zero energy
dispersed throughout a continuous spectrum.
Black Noise - Noise that has a frequency spectrum of predominately

zero power level over all frequencies except for a few narrow bands or
spikes.
C. .MODULATION.
Modulation is the process of varying a carrier signal, typically a sinusoidal

signal, in order to use that signal to convey information. The three key
parameters of a sinusoid are its amplitude, its phase and its frequency, all
of which can be modified in accordance with an information signal to
obtain the modulated signal.
Three General Subdivisions
1. Analog modulation
Amplitude modulation (AM)

Double-sideband Full Carrier (A3E)
Single-sideband Full Carrier (H3E)
Single-sideband Suppressed Carrier (J3E)
Single-sideband Reduced Carrier (R3E)
Vestigial-sideband Modulation (C3F)
Angle Modulation
Frequency modulation (FM)
Phase modulation (PM)
2. Digital Modulation
Amplitude Shift Keying (ASK)

On Off Keying
Frequency Shift Keying (FSK)

Audio FSK (AFSK)
Continuous Phase FSK (CP-FSK)
i. Minimum-shift keying (MSK)
ii. Gaussian minimum-shift keying (GMSK)
iii. Very minimum-shift keying (VMSK)
Phase Shift Keying (PSK)

Quadrature Amplitude Modulation (QAM)
Trellis Code Modulation (TCM)
3. Hybrid Modulation (combined analog digital techniques)
Pulse modulation
Pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM)
Pulse-code modulation (PCM)
i. Differential PCM (DPCM)
ii. Delta Modulation (DM)
iii. Adaptive DM (ADM)
iv. Continuously Variable Slope Delta (CVSD)
v. Sigma-Delta Modulation ()

Pulse Frequency Modulation (PFM)

Pulse Time Modulation (PTM)
i. Pulse-width modulation (PWM)
ii. Pulse-position modulation (PPM)
D. .WAVEFORM REPRESENTATION.
1. Time Domain Representation
A standard oscilloscope is
used to display the amplitude
versus time representation of
the input signal.
i. Frequency (f)
The number of times a particular phenomenon occurs in a given
period of time expressed in Hertz.
ii. Wavelength ()
Wavelength is the distance between two points of similar cycles of
a periodic wave or the distance traveled by an electromagnetic
wave during the time of one cycle typically expressed in meters.
iii. Period (T)

The time required for one complete cycle of a repetitive system, or
simply the reciprocal of frequency.
Relation between Wavelength, Frequency, and Period
c c 1
= f= T=
f f
where:
= wavelength in meters
c = speed of light
= 3 x 108 m/s
f = frequency in Hertz
T = period in sec
ECE Board Exam: APRIL 2005

Determine the wavelength of radio waves propagated using a frequency of 30
MHz.
Solution:
Wavelength :
c 3 x 108
= =
f 30 x 106
= 10 m
2. Frequency Domain Representation
A spectrum analyzer is
used to display the
amplitude versus
frequency representation
of the input signal.
The time and frequency domain representation of three sine waves
A
A
t
f

DOPPLER EFFECT
A perceived change in the frequency of a wave as the distance between
the source and the observer changes.
Doppler Frequency of Sound Waves

fo = Observed frequency in Hz
o o = Velocity of observer in m/s
fo = fs
s s = Velocity of source in m/s
fs = Source frequency in Hz
The top sign apply if the source and/or object are moving toward each
other and the bottom sign apply if they move away from each other.
Sample Problem:
An ambulance travels down a highway at a speed of 75.0 mi/h with its siren
emitting a sound with a frequency of 400 Hz. What frequency is heard
(a) by someone standing still when the ambulance approaches?
(b) by a passenger in a car traveling at 55 mi/h in the opposite direction as
it approaches the ambulance?
(c) by a passenger in a car traveling at 55 mi/h in the opposite direction as
it moves away from the ambulance? 75 mi/h = 33.5 m/s, 55 mi/h =
24.6 m/s.
Solution:
(a) 345 m s , s = 33.5 m s, o = 0 (observer is not moving)

+ o 345 + 0
fo = fs = 400 = 443 Hz
s 345 33.5
(b) 345 m s , s = 33.5 m s , o = 24.6 m s

+ o 345 + 24.6
fo = fs = 400 = 475 Hz
s 345 33.5
(c) 345 m s , s = 33.5 m s , o = 24.6 m s

o 345 24.6
fo = fs = 400 = 339 Hz
+ s 345 + 33.5
Doppler Frequency of Electromagnetic Waves
c r
fo = fs
c r
c = Speed of light
= 3 x 10 8 m / s
r = Velocity of source relative to observer in m/s
The top sign apply if the source and/or object are moving toward each
other and the bottom sign apply if they move away from each other.
Sample Problem:
A LEO communications satellite is orbiting the earth at 27,000 kph
(7,500 m/s). Calculate the frequency received by a mobile station antenna
due to Doppler shift 450 km below if the satellite is operating at 1.28 GHz.
Also compute the Doppler shift. (Assume the satellite is moving away from
the subscriber)
Solution:
c r
fo = fs 27,000 kph
c + r
c 7500 m
s
= 1.28 GHz
c + 7500 m
s
450 km
= 1.279968 GHz
For the Doppler Shift :

fD = fs fo = 1.28 GHz 1.279968 GHz
= 31.99 kHz
E. .ENGINEERING DEFINITIONS OF BANDWIDTH.
1. Absolute bandwidth
Absolute bandwidth is the difference between the upper and lower
frequency limits (f2-f1), where the spectrum is zero outside the interval
f1<f<f2 along the positive frequency axis.

2. -3dB bandwidth (Half-power BW)

-3dB bandwidth is f2-f1, where for frequencies inside the f1<f<f2 the
magnitude spectra fall no lower than 0.707 times the maximum value
magnitude, and the maximum value occurs at a frequency inside the
band.
3. Null-to-null bandwidth (zero-crossing BW)

Null-to-null bandwidth is f2-f1, where f2 is the first null in the envelope
of the magnitude spectrum above f0 and, for bandpass system, f1 is
the first null in the enveloped below f0, where f0 is the frequency
where the magnitude spectrum is maximum.
4. Bounded spectrum bandwidth

Bounded spectrum bandwidth is f2-f1 such that outside the band
f1<f<f2, the power spectrum density (PSD) must be at least a certain
amount, say 50 dB, below the maximum value of the PSD.
5. Power bandwidth
Power bandwidth is f2-f1, where f1<f<f2 defines the frequency band in
which 99% of the total power resides.
2 LEGAL DEFINITIONS OF BANDWIDTH
FCC bandwidth
FCC bandwidth is an authorized bandwidth parameter assigned by
the FCC to specify the spectrum allowed in communication
systems.
ITU Necessary Bandwidth

Necessary bandwidth for a given class of emission is defined as
the width of the frequency band that is just sufficient to ensure
the transmission of information at the rate and with the quality
required under specified conditions.
ITU Necessary Bandwidth
Between 0.001 and 999 Hz shall be expressed in hertz H

Between 1.00 and 999 kHz shall be expressed in kilohertz K
Between 1.00 and 999 MHz shall be expressed in megahertz M
Between 1.00 and 999 GHz shall be expressed in gigahertz G
Example:
What is the necessary bandwidth designation for 180.5 kHz?
A. 181K B. 180K5
C. 181K5 D. 180.5K
Answer. A
.HInt. The necessary bandwidth shall be expressed by 3 numerals and one

letter. The letter occupies the position of the decimal point and represents
the unit of bandwidth.
The ITU divides the world into three regions, with each region having
its own allocations although there is much commonality between the
regions.
Philippines frequency allocations belong to Region 3 of the ITU Radio

Regulations.
F. .ITU EMISSION DESIGNATION.
According to ITU (Article 4; Radio Regulations, Geneva, 1982 revised

1985), emission shall be designated according to their necessary
bandwidth and their classification.
DEFINITION. Classification of the signal is given by three alphanumeric

symbols.
FIRST SYMBOL
Type of Modulation of the Main Carrier
(1.1) Emission of unmodulated carrier N
(1.2) Emission in which the main carrier is AMPLITUDE MODULATED
(1.2.1) Double Sideband A
(1.2.2) Independent Sideband B
(1.2.3) Vestigial Sideband C
(1.2.4) Single Sideband, full carrier H
(1.2.5) Single Sideband, reduced or variable-level carrier R
(1.2.6) Single Sideband, suppressed carrier J

(1.3) Emission in which the main carrier is ANGLE-MODULATED

(1.3.1) Frequency Modulation F
(1.3.2) Phase Modulation G
(1.4) Emission in which the main carrier is amplitude and D
angle-modulated either simultaneously or in a
pre-established sequence.
(1.5) Emission of PULSES
(1.5.1) Sequence of unmodulated pulses P
(1.5.2) A sequence of pulse
(1.5.2.1) PAM K
(1.5.2.2) PDM/PWM L
(1.5.2.3) PPM M
(1.5.2.4) in which the carrier is angle-modulated
during the period of the pulse. Q
(1.5.2.5) which is a combination of the foregoing or

is produced by other means V
SECOND SYMBOL
Nature of Signal(s) Modulating the Main
(2.1) No modulating signal 0

(2.2) A single channel containing quantized or digital information 1
WITHOUT the use of a modulating subcarrier
(2.3) A single channel containing quantized or digital information 2
WITH the use of a modulating subcarrier
(2.4) A single channel containing analog information 3
(2.5) Two or more channels containing quantized or digital information 7
(2.6) Two or more channels containing analog information 8
(2.7) Composite system with one or more channels containing 9
quantized or digital information, together with one or more
channels containing analog information
(2.8) Case not otherwise covered X
THIRD SYMBOL
Type of Information(s) to be transmitted
(3.1) No information transmitted N

(3.2) Telegraphy (manual) A
(3.3) Telegraphy (automatic) B
(3.4) Facsimile C
(3.5) Data transmission, Telemetry, Telecommand D
(3.6) Telephony (including sound broadcasting) E
(3.7) Television (video) F
(3.8) Combination of the above W
(3.9) Case not otherwise covered X
Two or more optional symbols can be added to the basic

characteristics described above for a more complete description of an
emission (Appendix 6, Radio Regulation, ITU; Geneva, 1982).
T N T D N
FOURTH SYMBOL Details of Signal(s)

FIFTH SYMBOL Nature of Multiplexing
FOURTH SYMBOL
Details of Signal(s)
(4.1) Two-condition code with elements of differing numbers A

and/or conditions
(4.2) Two-condition code with elements of the same number and B
duration without error correction
(4.3) Two-condition code with elements of the same number and C
duration with error correction
(4.4) Four-condition code in which each condition represents a D
signal element (of one or more bits)
(4.5) Multi-condition code in which each condition represents a E
signal element (of one or more bits)
(4.6) Multi-condition code in which each condition or combinations F
of conditions represent a character.
(4.7) Sound broadcasting quality (monophonic) G
(4.8) Sound broadcasting quality (stereophonic or quadraphonic) H
(4.9) Sound of commercial quality J
(4.10) Sound commercial quality with the use of frequency inversion K
or band splitting
(4.11) Sound commercial quality with separate frequency-modulated L
signals to control the levels of demodulated signal
(4.12) Monochrome M
(4.13) Color N
(4.14) Combination of the above W
(4.15) Cases not otherwise covered X

FIFTH SYMBOL
Nature of Multiplexing
(5.1) None N
(5.2) Code Division Multiplex C
(5.3) Frequency Division Multiplex F
(5.4) Time Division Multiplex T
(5.5) Combination of frequency division multiplex and W
time division multiplex
(5.6) Other types of multiplexing X
G. .FCC EMISSION DESIGNATION.
FIRST SYMBOL
Type of Modulation of the Main Carrier
(1.1) Amplitude A
(1.2) Frequency or Phase F
(1.3) Pulse P
SECOND SYMBOL
Type of Transmission
(2.1) Absence of any modulation intended to carry information 0
(2.2) Telegraphy without the use of a modulating audio frequency 1
(2.3) Telegraphy by the on-off keying of a modulating audio frequency, 2
or by the on-off keying of the modulated emission (special case:
an unkeyed modulated emission)
(2.4) Telephony (including sound broadcasting) 3
(2.5) Facsimile (with modulation of main carrier directly or by a 4
Frequency-modulated subcarrier)
(2.6) Television (visual only) 5
(2.7) Four-frequency duplex telegraphy 6
(2.8) Multichannel voice-frequency telegraphy 7
(2.9) Cases not otherwise covered 9
THIRD SYMBOL
Supplementary Characteristics
(3.1) Double sideband
(3.2) Single sideband
(3.2.1) Reduced carrier A
(3.2.2) Full carrier H
(3.2.3) Suppressed carrier J
(3.3) Two independent sideband B
(3.4) Vestigial sideband C
(3.5) Pulse
(3.5.1) Amplitude modulated D
(3.5.2) Width (or duration) modulated E
(3.5.3) Phase (or position) modulated F
(3.5.4) Code modulated G
(3.6) Digital modulations Y
H. .FORMER DESIGNATION.
1. Amplitude Modulated (AM)
A0 No modulation
A1 Telegraphy; on-off ; no other modulation
A2 Telegraphy; on-off ; amplitude-modulated tone
A3 Telephony; DSBFC
A3A Telephony; SSBRC
A3J Telephony; SSBSC
A3H Telephony; SSBFC
A3B Telephony; ISB
A3Y Digital voice modulation
A4 Facsimile
A5C Television with vestigial sideband
A9B Telephony or telegraphy with ISB
A9Y Nonvoice digital modulation
2. Frequency or PhaseModulated (FM/PM)
F1 Telegraphy; FSK
F2 Telegraphy; on-off ; frequency-modulated tone
F3 Telephony; FM or PM
F3Y Digital voice modulation
F9Y Nonvoice digital modulation
F4 Facsimile
F5 Television
F6 Telegraphy; four-frequency duplex
3. PulseModulated
P0 RADAR
P1D Telegraphy; ASK
P2D Telegraphy; pulse-carrier tone-modulated
P2E Telegraphy; pulse-width tone-modulated
P2F Telegraphy; phase or position tone-modulated
P3D Telephony; amplitude-modulated pulses
P3E Telephony; pulse-width modulated
P3F Telephony; pulse phase or position-modulated

I. .TRANSMISSION MODES.
1. Simplex
Transmissions can occur only in one direction. Sometimes called one-
way-only, receive-only, or transmit-only.
2. Half-Duplex
Transmissions can occur in both directions, but not at the same time.
Sometimes called two-way-alternate, either-way, or over-and-out
systems.
3. Full Duplex
Transmissions can occur in both directions at the same time.
Sometimes called two-way-simultaneous, duplex, or both-way line.
4. Full/Full Duplex
Possible to transmit and receive simultaneously, but not necessary
between the same two locations (i.e. one station can transmit to a
second station and receive from a third station at the same time).
J. .CIRCUIT ARRANGEMENTS.
1. Two-Wire Transmission
Two-wire circuits are those that

carry information signals in both
directions over the same physical
link or path. Typically, such a circuit
is provisioned through the use of a
single twisted pair, copper wire
connection.
2. Four-Wire Transmission
Four-wire circuits are those that

carry information signals in both
directions over separate physical
links or paths, and in support of
simultaneous, two way
transmission.
K. .MULTIPLEXING TECHNIQUE.
Multiplexing is a technique used in communications and input/output

operations for transmitting a number of separate signals simultaneously
over a single channel or line.
1. Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM)
A unique band of frequencies within the wideband frequency spectrum

of the medium is allotted to each communication channel on a
continuous time basis.
2. Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)

Each communication channel is allotted a fixed time slot within a
sampling frame, occupying essentially the entire wideband frequency
spectrum for the allocated time.

Statistical Time Division Multiplexing (STDM)

Statistical Time Division Multiplexing (STDM) is much improved over
TDM, as the MUXs are intelligent. STDMs can allocate bandwidth, in
the form of time slots, in consideration of the transmission
requirements of individual devices serving specific applications.
3. Wavelength Division Multiplexing (WDM)
WDM resembles FDM in that the idea is to send information signals

that occupy the same frequency band of frequencies through the same
fiber at the same time without them interfering with each other.
L. .TRANSMISSION FACILITIES.
In terms of bandwidth, and in contemporary digital context, transmission

facilities can be categorized as narrowband, wideband or broadband.
1. Narrowband
A single channel (64 Kbps) or some number of 64 Kbps channels (N
64 Kbps), but less than wideband.
2. Wideband
Wideband is multi-channel capacity that is between 1.544 Mbps and
45 Mbps according to U.S. standards (2.048 Mbps-34 Mbps according
to European/international standards.)
3. Broadband
Broadband is multi-channel capacity which is 45 Mbps according to
U.S. standards and 34 Mbps according to European/international
standards.
M. .TRANSMISSION IMPAIRMENTS.
Signals travel through transmission media, which are not perfect. The
imperfection causes signal impairment. This means that the signal at the
beginning of the medium is not the same as the signal at the end of the
medium. What is sent is not what is received. Three causes of impairment
are attenuation, distortion, and noise.
1. Attenuation
A type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses strength due to
the resistance and length of the transmission medium.
A
TRANSMISSION MEDIUM
2. Distortion
The alteration of information in which the original proportions are
changed, resulting from a defect in communication system.
CHANNEL
SOURCE RECEIVER

3. Noise
A type of transmission impairment in which an outside source such as
crosstalk corrupts a signal.
SOURCE RECEIVER
N. .CLASSIFICATION OF COMMUNICATIONS.
1. Distress
A mobile station in distress is in need of immediate assistance.
Communication Distress Signal
--- or SOS sent as one character

Radiotelegraph
with no spacing between letters.
MAYDAY (from the French maider),

Radiotelephone usually transmitted three or more
times to attract attention.
2. Urgency
Radio messages with an urgency classification refer to a situation that
requires immediate attention and might conceivably become distress
in nature.
Radiotelegraph XXX
Radiotelephone PAN PAN
3. Safety
Radio communications with a safety classification refer to
meteorological information, particularly about storms, hurricanes, etc.
Radiotelegraph TTT
Radiotelephone SECURITY
O. .MESSAGE PRIORITIES.
1. Distress calls, messages, and traffic

2. Communications preceded by the urgency signal
3. Communications preceded by the safety signal
4. Communications relative to radio direction finding
5. Message relative to navigation of aircraft
6. Message relative to navigation, movements, and needs of ships
and official weather-observation messages
P. .OPERATIONAL WORDS.
Code Meaning
Roger I received your message.
I have completed transmitting and await

Over
your reply.
Go ahead Same as over.
I have completed my communication and

Out
do not expect to transmit again.
I have no further traffic. (Sometimes

Clear
used in place of Out)
Wait for another call or further
Stand by
instructions.
I am changing from one part of the
message to another. (Also used to
Break request the received operator to indicate
if he has received the portion of the
message transmitted thus far.)
Copy Respond to Break

Q. .INTERNATIONAL PHONETIC ALPHABET.
A Alpha J Juliet S Sierra

B Bravo K Kilo T Tango
C Charlie L Lima U Uniform
D Delta M Mike V Victor
E Echo N November W Whiskey
F Foxtrot O Oscar X X-ray
G Golf P Papa Y Yankee
H Hotel Q Quebec Z Zulu
I India R Romeo ---
I H
1. A 5-frame TDM multiplexer has a total frame period of 625 s. If the timeslot
per channel is 5.208 sec, determine the number of channels per frame and
the total number of digital channels.
A. 60, 12 B. 120, 24
C. 12, 60 D. 24, 120
2. If the measured wavelength is 6 m, calculate the frequency in MHz.

A. 25 MHz B. 10 MHz
C. 50 MHz D. 100 MHz
3. If several musical instruments are playing the same note, you should be able to
distinguish one instrument from another because of which of the following
characteristics of sound?
A. Frequency B. Intensity
C. Overtones D. Quality
4. A large volume of light radiating in a given direction is referred to as a

A. pencil B. beam
C. ray D. shaft
5. What are the primary colors of light?

A. Red, blue, and green B. Red, violet, and indigo
C. Blue, green, and violet D. Red, blue, and yellow
6. ____ noise is noise that has an equal amount of energy per octave.
A. Pink B. Yellow
C. White D. Blue
7. _______ is multi-channel capacity that is between 1.544 Mbps and 45 Mbps

according to U.S. standards (2.048 Mbps-34 Mbps according to
European/international standards.)
A. Wideband B. Baseband
C. Narrowband D. Broadband
8. Based on ITU-R Recommendations V.431-6, the adjectival designation of 30 to

300 kHz is _____.
A. ELF B. LF
C. ULF D. VLF

9. The world's first operational packet switching network, and the progenitor of
the global Internet.
A. DECNET B. ARPANET
C. ISDN D. NMT
10. ______ would have equal power in the frequency range from 40 to 60 Hz as in
the band from 4000 to 6000 Hz.
A. pink noise B. blue noise
C. white noise D. green noise
11. He hypothesized the existence of magnetic field around a current-carrying

conductor.
A. Michael Faraday B. Nikola Tesla
C. Andre Marie Ampere D. Karl Gauss
12. In FCC former designation, F3Y means ______.

A. Telegraphy; four-frequency duplex
B. Digital voice modulation
C. Telegraphy; FSK
D. Telephony; amplitude-modulated pulses
13. Based on ITU-R Recommendations V.431-6, the metric subdivision of 0.030 to

0.300 Hz is _____.
A. Decamegametric B. Gigametric
C. Myriametric D. Hectomegametric
14. ______ would have equal power in the frequency range from 40 to 60 Hz as in
the band from 4000 to 4020 Hz.
15. What is the wavelength for a color in the middle of the visible light band if the
visible light frequency range is from 0.39 PHz (red) to 0.79 PHz (violet)?
A. 5000 nm B. 50 nm
C. 5 D. 500 nm
16. The person who sent the first radio signal across the Atlantic ocean was:
A. Marconi B. Bell
C. Maxwell D. Hertz
17. What percentage of the VHF band does a 6-MHz TV signal occupy?
A. 2.2% B. 8.8%
C. 4.4% D. 1.1%
18. How many AM stations can be accommodated in a 0.15 MHz BW if the allocated
BW per station is 10 KHz?
A. 100 B. 50
C. 150 D. 15
19. How many international commercial AM broadcast channels (assume BW=10

KHz) can fit into the bandwidth occupied by a commercial FM broadcast channel
(assume BW=200 KHz)?
A. 20 B. 200
C. 10 D. 5
20. Determine the BW of sonic frequency range if the infrasonic frequency ends at
20 Hz while ultrasonic frequency begins at 20, 000 Hz.
A. 4 kHz C. 10 kHz
B. 8 kHz D. 19.98 kHz
21. What percentage of the audio passband does a high fidelity CD quality music
occupy?
A. 66.67% B. 43.25%
C. 74.82% D. 50%
22. A standard TV channel occupies 6 MHz of BW. If a standard commercial FM

broadcast channels is 200 KHz wide, how many of this channel can fit into the
bandwidth occupied by a commercial TV station?
A. 200 B. 30
C. 20 D. 300
23. In FCC former designation, A4 means ______.

A. Telegraphy; on-off ; amplitude-modulated tone
B. Facsimile
C. Nonvoice digital modulation
D. Digital voice modulation
24. Based on ITU-R Recommendations V.431-6, the adjectival designation of 0.003

to 0.030 GHz is _____.
A. VHF B. MF
C. SHF D. EHF
25. In AT&T FDM hierarchy the group BW is 48 KHz, determine the number of voice
channel that a supergroup can handled if it needs 5 groups to form a
supergroup.
A. 12 B. 300
B. 60 D. 600
26. Another name for amplitude shift keying

A. variable angle modulation B. minimum shift keying
C. continuous wave modulation D. beat frequency modulation
27. AM radio's main limitation is its susceptibility to

A. ignition noise B. Rayleigh fading
C. transit time noise D. atmospheric interference
28. A quasi-stationary noise with a finite power spectrum with a finite number of
small bands of zero energy dispersed throughout a continuous spectrum
A. white noise B. orange noise
C. violet noise D. blue noise
29. ______ is an arrangement of conductors designed to radiate (transmit) an

electromagnetic field in response to an applied alternating voltage and the
associated alternating electric current
A. transmission lines B. antenna
C. counterpoise D. stub

30. The transmission of radio waves was first done by:

A. Marconi B. Bell
C. Maxwell D. Hertz
31. A complete communication system must include:

A. a transmitter and receiver
B. a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel
C. a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum analyzer
D. a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a channel
32. In FCC former designation, P0 means ______.

A. Telephony; pulse-width modulated
B. Telephony; amplitude-modulated pulses
C. Digital voice modulation
D. RADAR
33. Radians per second is equal to:

A. 2f B. f/2
C. 2 D. 2/
34. The bandwidth required for a modulated carrier depends on:

A. the carrier frequency
B. the signal-to-noise ratio
C. the signal-plus-noise to noise ratio
D. the baseband frequency range
35. When two or more signals share a common channel, it is called:

A. sub-channeling B. signal switching
C. SINAD D. Multiplexing
36. The wavelength of a radio signal is:

A. equal to f /c
B. equal to c /2f
C. the distance a wave travels in one period
D. how far the signal can travel without distortion
37. In FCC former designation, A9B means ______.

A. Facsimile
B. Television with vestigial sideband
C. Telephony or telegraphy with ISB
D. Telephony; SSBRC
38. Distortion is caused by:

A. creation of harmonics of baseband frequencies
B. baseband frequencies "mixing" with each other
C. shift in phase relationships between baseband frequencies
D. all of the above
39. The power density of "flicker" noise is:

A. the same at all frequencies B. greater at high frequencies
C. greater at low frequencies D. the same as "white" noise
40. So called "1/f" noise is also called:

A. random noise B. pink noise
C. white noise D. partition noise
41. The part, or parts, of a sinusoidal carrier that can be modulated are:
A. its amplitude
B. its amplitude and frequency
C. its amplitude, frequency, and direction
D. its amplitude, frequency, and phase angle
42. In FCC former designation, F5 means ______.

A. Telephony; SSBFC B. Facsimile
C. Television D. Telephony; FM or PM
43. It is also known as differentiated white noise or violet noise

A. pink noise B. green noise
C. blue noise D. purple noise
44. In 1820, he discovered the relation between electricity and magnetism, later
known as electromagnetism.
A. Michael Faraday B. Hans Christian Oersted
C. Karl Gauss D. Nikolai Tesla
45. In 1886, a German physicist performed an experiment on spark gap

transmission verifying Maxwell statement experimentally showed the existence
of such waves which he called radio waves that paved the way for wireless
communication.
A. Guglielmo Marconi B. Dr. Hidetsugi Yagi
C. Heinrich Hertz D. Isaac Asimov
46. A transmission technique where each communication channel is allotted an

epoch or time slot within a sampling frame, occupying essentially the entire
wideband frequency spectrum for the allocated time.
A. Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)
B. Wavelength Division Multiplexing (WDM)
C. Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM)
D. Statistical Time Division Multiplexing (STDM)
47. He developed the first wireless telegraph and successfully sent a message over
a distance of few kilometers using a spark gap transmitter.
A. James Clerk Maxwell B. Edwin Arsmtrong
C. Guglielmo Marconi D. Heinrich Hertz

0.300 THz is _____.
A. micrometric B. kilometric
C. millimetric D. decimicrometric
49. In FCC former designation, F6 means ______.

A. Telephony; FM or PM
B. Television
C. Telegraphy; four-frequency duplex
D. Telegraphy; FSK

50. The theory of radio waves was originated by:

A. Marconi B. Bell
C. Maxwell D. Hertz

30.0 kHz is _____.
A. Hectomegametric B. Hectokilometric
C. Myriametric D. Decamegametric
52. Defined as the noise that has equal amount of energy per frequency.
A. Pink Noise B. Transit-time noise
C. Blue Noise D. White Noise
53. In FCC former designation, P3D means ______.

A. Telegraphy; pulse-width tone-modulated
C. Telegraphy; phase or position tone-modulated
D. Telephony; pulse-width modulated
54. Radio waves travel at what speed?

A. Speed of the Earth's rotation
B. Speed of light
C. Speed of the Earth's orbit around the sun
D. Speed of sound
55. Which of the following types of energy cannot be seen, heard, or felt?
A. Heat waves B. Sound waves
C. Light waves D. Radio waves
56. The operational word I have completed transmitting and await your reply
means
A. Break B. Over
C. Roger D. Copy
57. Hectomegametric occupies the frequency band of ______.

A. 0.3 to 3 Hz B. 0.030 to 0.300 kHz
C. 300 to 3000 MHz D. 30 to 300 kHz
58. In FCC former designation, P2E means ______.

A. Telegraphy; pulse-carrier tone-modulated
C. Telegraphy; pulse-width tone-modulated
59. A sound wave that moves back and forth in the direction of propagation is an
example of which of the following types of wave motion?
A. Longitudinal B. Composite
C. Concentric D. Transverse
60. What wave propagation principle accounts for the apparent increase in
frequency as a train whistle approaches and the apparent decrease in
frequency as it moves away?
A. Reflection B. Diffraction
C. Refraction D. Doppler effect
61. What is the urgency signal in radiotelegraphy?

A. MAYDAY B. XXX
C. SOS D. PANPAN
62. What are the three audible frequency ranges?

A. Infrasonic, sonic, and ultrasonic
B. Infrasonic, subsonic, and ultrasonic
C. Infrasonic, subsonic, and supersonic
D. Subsonic, sonic, and supersonic
63. The operational word I have completed my communication and do not expect
to transmit again means
A. Over B. Copy
C. Out D. Roger
64. Noise that is the opposite of pink noise in that it doubles the amount of energy
each time you go up 1 octave.
A. Yellow B. White
C. Blue D. Magenta
65. The number of times a particular phenomenon occurs in a given period of time
expressed in Hertz.
A. Period B. Crest
C. Frequency D. Wavelength
66. ______ is the distance between two points of similar cycles of a periodic wave
or the distance traveled by an electromagnetic wave during the time of one
cycle typically expressed in meters.
A. Peak-to-peak value B. Crest
C. Wavelength D. Period
67. ______ is f2-f1, where for frequencies inside the f1<f<f2 the magnitude spectra
fall no lower than 0.707 times the maximum value magnitude, and the
maximum value occurs at a frequency inside the band.
A. -3dB bandwidth B. FCC bandwidth
C. zero-crossing BW D. Bounded spectrum bandwidth
68. What is the distress signal in radiotelephony?

A. PANPAN B. XXX
C. TTT D. MAYDAY
69. In FCC former designation, A3A means ______.

A. Telephony; FM or PM B. Telephony; SSBRC
C. Telephony; SSBSC D. Telephony; DSBFC
70. Radio signals are made up of

A. Electrons and protons B. Electric and magnetic fields
C. Voltages and currents D. Noise and data
71. Electromagnetic waves produced primarily by heat are called

A. Microwaves B. Shortwaves
C. X-rays D. Infrared rays

72. Noise whose power density increases 3 dB per octave with increasing frequency
over a finite frequency range.
73. In FCC former designation, P3F means ______.

A. Telephony; amplitude-modulated pulses
B. Telephony; pulse phase or position-modulated
74. Another name for signals in the HF range is

A. Shortwaves B. Microwaves
C. Millimeter waves D. RF waves
75. A micron is
A. One-millionth of a foot B. One-thousandth of a meter
C. One ten-thousandth of an inch D. One-millionth of a meter
76. Radio-frequency waves cannot be seen for which of the following reasons?
A. Because the human eye detects only magnetic energy
B. Because radio-frequency waves are below the sensitivity range of the
human eye
C. Because radio-frequency waves are above the sensitivity range of the
human eye
D. Because radio-frequency energy is low powered
77. In FCC former designation, A3J means ______.

A. Telephony; SSBSC B. Telephony; SSBRC
C. Telephony; SSBFC D. Telephony; DSBFC
78. In FCC former designation, P2D means ______.

B. Telephony; pulse-width modulated
C. Telephony; amplitude-modulated pulses
D. Telegraphy; pulse-width tone-modulated
79. ______ is the difference between the upper and lower frequency limits (f2-f1),
where the spectrum is zero outside the interval f1<f<f2 along the positive
frequency axis.
A. half-power BW B. zero-crossing BW
C. -3dB bandwidth D. Absolute bandwidth
80. In FCC former designation, P2F means ______.

A. Telephony; amplitude-modulated pulses
B. Telegraphy; pulse-carrier tone-modulated
81. The process of transmitting two or more information signals simultaneously

over the same channel is called
A. Mixing B. Telemetry
C. Modulation D. Multiplexing
82. Recovering information from a carrier is known as

A. Modulation B. Detection
C. Demultiplexing D. Carrier recovery
83. In FCC former designation, P3E means ______.

A. Telephony; pulse-width modulated
B. Telegraphy; phase or position tone-modulated
C. Telephony; amplitude-modulated pulses
84. ______ is a technique used in communications and input/output operations for

transmitting a number of separate signals simultaneously over a single channel
or line.
A. Accessing B. Polling
C. Multiplexing D. Contention
85. Centimetric wave occupies the frequency band of ______.

A. 0.3 to 3 GHz B. 0.030 to 0.300 MHz
C. 3 to 30 GHz D. 30 to 300 MHz
86. A unique band of frequencies within the wideband frequency spectrum of the
medium is allotted to each communication channel on a continuous time basis.
A. Time Division Duplexing (TDD)
B. Frequency Division Duplexing (FDD)
D. Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)
87. In FCC former designation, A3H means ______.

A. Telephony; DSBFC B. Telegraphy; SSBSC
C. Telegraphy; FSK D. Telephony; SSBFC
88. _____ can allocate bandwidth, in the form of time slots, in consideration of the
transmission requirements of individual devices serving specific applications.
A. Statistical Time Division Multiplexing (STDM)
B. Passive Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)
D. Wavelength Division Multiplexing (WDM)
89. A single channel (64 Kbps) or some number of 64 Kbps channels.

90. _______ is multi-channel capacity which is 45 Mbps according to U.S.

standards and 34 Mbps according to European/international standards.
91. What is the distress signal in radiotelegraphy?

A. SOS B. PANPAN
C. MAYDAY D. XXX

92. Based on ITU-R Recommendations V.431-6, the adjectival designation of 30 to

300 Hz is _____.
A. ULF B. VLF
C. ELF D. LF
93. The operational word I am changing from one part of the message to another
means
A. Roger B. Copy
C. Break D. Over
94. Noise whose power density increases 6 dB per octave with increasing frequency
over a finite frequency range.
A. pink noise B. green noise
C. blue noise D. purple noise
95. ______ for a given class of emission is defined as the width of the frequency
band that is just sufficient to ensure the transmission of information at the rate
and with the quality required under specified conditions.
A. -3dB bandwidth B. Necessary Bandwidth
C. Absolute bandwidth D. half-power BW
96. In FCC former designation, A3 means ______.

B. Telephony; DSBFC
C. Telephony; ISB
D. Telephony; SSBRC
97. In 1822, he discovered electromagnetic induction, the reverse of Oersted

discovery.
A. Michael Faraday B. Joseph Henry
C. James Clerk Maxwell D. Wilhelm Weber
98. In 1866, put together the principles of Oersted and Faraday and hypothesized
the existence of electromagnetic waves.
A. Guglielmo Marconi B. Arthur Clarke
C. Heinrich Hertz D. James Clerk Maxwell
99. decimillimetric occupies the frequency band of ______.

A. 30 to 300 kHz B. 300 to 3000 GHz
C. 0.3 to 3 GHz D. 0.030 to 0.300 THz
100. What is the urgency signal in radiotelephony?

A. PANPAN B. XXX
C. MAYDAY D. SECURITY
101. In a time-domain plot, the horizontal axis is a measure of ________.

A. signal amplitude B. frequency
C. phase D. time
102. If the bandwidth of a signal is 5 kHz and the lowest frequency is 52 kHz,
what is the highest frequency?
A. 57 KHz B. 47 KHz
C. 10 KHz D. 5 KHz
103. Electronic communications was discovered in which century?

A. 16th century B. 19th century
th
C. 18 century D. 20th century
104. One-way communications is called

A. Half duplex B. Full duplex
C. Monocomm D. Simplex
105. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses

strength due to the different propagation speeds of each frequency that makes
up the signal.
A. Attenuation B. Distortion
C. Noise D. Decibel
106. Television broadcasting occurs in which ranges?

A. HF B. EHF
C. VHF D. SHF
107. The frequency range of infrared rays is approximately

A. 30 to 300 GHz B. 4000 to 8000
C. 1000 to 10,000 A D. 0.7 to 100 m
108. Given two sine waves A and B, if the frequency of A is twice that of B, then
the period of B is ________ that of A.
A. one-half B. twice
C. the same as D. indeterminate from
109. _________ can impair a signal.

A. Attenuation B. Noise
C. Distortion D. All of the above
110. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses

strength due to the resistance of the transmission medium.
C. Noise D. Decibel
111. The communications medium causes the signal to be

A. Amplified B. Modulated
C. Attenuated D. Interfered with
112. Which of the following is not a source of noise?

A. Another communications signal
B. Atmospheric effects
C. Manufactured electrical systems
D. Thermal agitation in electronic components
113. When propagation speed is multiplied by propagation time, we get the

________.
A. throughput
B. wavelength of the signal
C. distortion factor
D. distance a signal or bit has traveled

114. The _________ product defines the number of bits that can fill the link.
A. bandwidth-period B. frequency-amplitude
C. bandwidth-delay D. delay-amplitude
115. Baseband transmission of a digital signal is possible only if we have a ____

channel.
A. low-pass B. low rate
C. bandpass D. high rate
116. In the United States, the electromagnetic spectrum is regulated and

managed by
A. Business and industry B. ITU
C. FCC D. The United Nations
117. For a given bandwidth signal, more channel space is available for signals in
the range of
A. VHF B. UHF
C. SHF D. EHF
118. Frequency and period are ______.

A. inverse of each other B. proportional to each other
C. the same D. B and C
119. A _________ sine wave is not useful in data communications; we need to

send a _______ signal.
A. composite; single-frequency
B. single-frequency; composite
C. single-frequency; double-frequency
D. complex, composite
120. ________is the rate of change with respect to time.

A. Amplitude B. Frequency
C. Time D. Voltage
121. Calculate the energy related to the frequency occupied by VLF.

A. 124 eV to 1.24 eV B. 1.24 peV to 12.4 peV
C. 12.4 peV to 124 peV D. 124 meV to 1.24 eV
122. Communication is the process of

A. Keeping in touch B. Broadcasting
C. Exchanging information D. Entertainment by electronics
123. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which an outside source

such as crosstalk corrupts a signal.
C. Noise D. Decibel
124. As frequency increases, the period ________.

A. decreases B. increases
C. remains the same D. doubles
125. The approximate wavelength of red light is

A. 1000 m B. 7000
C. 3500 A D. 4000 A
126. Which of the following is not used for communications?

A. X-rays B. Millimeter waves
C. Infrared D. Microwaves
127. A sine wave in the ______ domain can be represented by one single spike in
the _____ domain.
A. time; frequency B. frequency; time
C. time; phase D. phase; time
128. Receiving electromagnetic emissions from stars is called

A. Astrology B. Optical astronomy
C. Radio astronomy D. Space surveillance
129. A person communications hobby for individuals is

A. Ham radio B. Electronic bulletin board
C. CB radio D. Cellular radio
130. For a ______ channel, the Nyquist bit rate formula defines the theoretical
maximum bit rate.
A. noisy B. noiseless
C. bandpass D. low-pass
131. If the available channel is a ____ channel, we cannot send a digital signal
directly to the channel.
A. low-pass B. bandpass
C. low rate D. high rate
132. The original electrical information signal to be transmitted is called the

A. Modulating signal B. Carrier
C. Baseband signal D. Source signal
133. The process of modifying a high-frequency carrier with the information to be

transmitted is called
A. Multiplexing B. Telemetry
C. Modulation D. Detection
134. A periodic signal completes one cycle in 0.001 s. What is the frequency?
A. 1 MHz B. 1 kHz
C. 100 Hz D. 1 Hz
135. In a frequency-domain plot, the horizontal axis measures the ________.

A. peak amplitude B. frequency
C. phase D. slope
136. The _____ of a composite signal is the difference between the highest and
the lowest frequencies contained in that signal.
A. frequency B. period
C. bandwidth D. amplitude

137. _______ describes the position of the waveform relative to time 0.

A. Frequency B. Phase
C. Amplitude D. Voltage
138. Calculate the energy related to the frequency occupied by ELF.

A. 124 feV to 1.24 peV B. 1.24 peV to 12.4 peV
C. 12.4 peV to 124 peV D. 124 peV to 1.24 neV
139. Simultaneous two-way communications is called

A. Half duplex B. Full duplex
C. Bicomm D. Simplex
140. Continuous voice or video signals are referred to as being

A. Baseband B. Analog
C. Digital D. Continuous waves
141. Transmission of graphical information over the telephone network is

accomplished by
A. Television B. CATV
C. Videotext D. Facsimile
142. A sine wave is ________.

A. periodic and continuous B. aperiodic and continuous
C. periodic and discrete D. aperiodic and discrete
143. If the maximum amplitude of a sine wave is 2 V, the minimum amplitude is

________ V.
A. 2 B. 1
C. -2 D. between -2 and 2
144. Measuring physical conditions at some remote location and transmitting this
data for analysis is the process of
A. Telemetry B. Instrumentation
C. Modulation D. Multiplexing
145. Radar is bases upon

A. Microwaves
B. A water medium
C. The directional nature of radio signals
D. Reflected radio signals
146. A frequency of 27 MHz has a wavelength of approximately

A. 11 m B. 27 m
C. 30 m D. 81 m
147. The voice frequency range is

A. 30 to 300 Hz B. 300 to 3000 Hz
C. 20 Hz to 20 kHz D. 0 Hz to 15 kHz
148. A signal occupies the spectrum space from 1.115 to 1.122 GHz. The
bandwidth is
A. 0.007 MHz B. 7 MHz
C. 237 MHz D. 700 MHz
149. A signal is measured at two different points. The power is P1 at the first point
and P2 at the second point. The dB is 0. This means ________.
A. P2 is zero B. P2 equals P1
C. P2 is much larger than P1 D. P2 is much smaller than P1
150. For a ______ channel, we need to use the Shannon capacity to find the
maximum bit rate.
--End of Text--

1-38 AMPLITUDE MODULATION
Section Amplitude
= Read it
till it
2 Modulation Hertz!
DEFINITION. Modulation is the process of impressing or imparting a low-

frequency source information (voice, audio, video, or data) onto a high-
frequency bandpass signal with a carrier frequency fc by the introduction of
amplitude, frequency or phase perturbation.
DEFINITION. Demodulation is the reverse process where the received

signals are transformed back to their original form.
DEFINITION. Amplitude Modulation is an analog modulation scheme in

which the amplitude of a relatively high-frequency carrier signal is varied in
accordance with the instantaneous amplitude of an information signal.
A. .THE AM WAVEFORM.
1. Instantaneous Amplitude of the Modulated Wave
AM ( t ) = ( Vc + em ) sin c t
The modulating signal is more often an arbitrary waveform, such as

audio signal. However, an analysis of sine wave modulation is very
useful, since Fourier analysis often allows complex signals to be
express as a series of sinusoids.
Hence,
AM (t) = ( Vc + Vm sin mt ) sin c t
By applying little trigonometry,
mVc mVc
AM (t) = Vc sin c t cos ( c + m ) t + cos ( c m ) t
2 2
where :
AM (t) = AM modulated wave
Vc = peak amplitude of the carrier in V
em = instantaneous amplitude of the modulating signal in V
c = angular frequency of the carrier wave in rad/s
m = angular frequency of the modulating signal in rad/s
m = modulation index
First, note that the amplitude of the carrier after modulation is the
same as it was before modulation
(In short, AM is a bit of a misnomer).
Second, the amplitude of the upper and lower side frequencies is a

function of both the carrier amplitude and the modulation index.
Third, the carrier component is a +sine function, the upper side

frequency a cosine function, and the lower side frequency a +cosine
function or the carrier is 90 out of phase with both the upper and lower
side frequencies, and the upper and lower side frequency are 180 out of
phase with each other.

2. Coefficient of Modulation (m)

A term used to describe the amount of amplitude changed
(modulation) present in an AM waveform.
Mathematically,
where :
V Vm = peak amplitude of the
m= m
Vc modulating signal in V
Vc = peak amplitude of the
carrier signal in V
In terms of AM Envelope,
Vmax Vmin Vmax = Vc + Vm

m=
Vmax + Vmin Vmin = Vc Vm

An AM signal has the following characteristics: carrier frequency = 150 MHz;
modulating frequency = 3 MHz; peak carrier voltage = 40 volts; and peak
modulating voltage is 30 volts. Calculate the peak voltage of the lower sideband
frequency.
Solution: 40
mV c V 30 15 15
VSB = m= m = = 0 .75
2 Vc 40
0 .75 (40 )
= = 15 V
2 fc-fm fc fc+fm
Sample Problem:
Calculate the modulation index for a standard AM transmission, if the
maximum peak voltage of the modulated wave is 150 V and the modulating
signal voltage is 50 V peak.
Solution:
Vm
m= Vc = Vmax Vm
Vc
50
=
150 50
= 0 .5
Several Cases of m:
a. Undermodulation (m<1, Vm<Vc)
b. 100% Modulation (m=1, Vm=Vc)
c. Overmodulation (m>1, Vm>Vc)

OVERMODULATION creates side frequencies (harmonics) further from the

carrier known as SPLATTER, BUCKSHOT, or SPURIOUS EMISSIONS which
create interference to other radio services and since spectrum space is
tightly controlled by law, overmodulation is illegal.
Sample Problem:
A modulating signal consists of a symmetrical triangular wave having zero dc
component and peak-to-peak voltage of 11 V. Calculate the value of
modulation index if it used to amplitude modulate a carrier of peak voltage
10 V.
Solution:
For Emax;
Vm 11
Emax = Vc + = 10 +
2 2
= 15.5 V
For Emin;
Vm 11
Emin = Vc = 10
2 2
= 4.5 V
For m;
Emax Emin 15.5 4.5
m= =
Emax + Emin 15.5 + 4.5
= 0.55
Answer : 0.55
B. .SIMULTANEOUS MODULATION.
mT = m12 + m22 + m32 + mn2
where :
m T = total modulation index
m1 , m2 ...mn = modulation indices due to several modulating signals

An AM transmitter is modulated by two sine waves at 1.5 kHz and 2.5 kHz, with
modulation of 20 percent and 80 percent respectively. Calculate the effective
modulation index.
Solution:
mT = m12 + m22 = 0 .22 + 0 .82 = 0 .824
Sample Problem:
Calculate the modulating voltage of an audio signal necessary to provide
100% modulation of a 100-V carrier that is simultaneously modulated by 2
audio waves with m1 and m2 equal to 75% and 45% respectively.
Solution:
For m3 at 100 % mod ulation;
m3 = ( )
m2T m12 + m22 = (
12 0.752 + 0.452 )
= 48 .5 %
For Modulating Voltage;
Vm3 = m3 x Vc = 0.485 x 100 V
= 48 .5 V
Answer : Vm = 48 .5 V

C. .SPECTRUM OF CONVENTIONAL AM SIGNAL.
1. Frequency Spectrum
2. Voltage Spectrum
3. Power Spectrum
D. .CONVENTIONAL AM SYSTEM (DSBFC).
1. AM Bandwidth
BW = 2fm
2. Side Frequency (Sideband)
fSB = fc fm
Parameter General Solution

m2
Transmit Power PT = Pc 1 +
2
m2Pc
Sideband Power PUSB = PLSB =
4
m2
Transmit Voltage VT = Vc 1 +
2
m2
Transmit Current I T = Ic 1 +
2
where:
BW = AM bandwidth
fm = Modulating frequency in Hz
Vc = Unmodulated carrier in V
VT = Modulated carrier in V
Pc = Unmodulated carrier power in W
PT = Modulated power in W
m = modulation index

ECE Board Exam: NOV 2004

What will be the total sideband power of an AM transmitting station whose carrier
power is 1200 W and a modulation of 95%?
Solution:
m2Pc
PT = Pcarrier + PSB where PSB =
2
0.95 2 (1200 )
PSB = = 541 .5 Watts
2

Calculate the power in one sideband of an AM signal whose carrier power is 50
watts. The unmodulated current is 2 A while the modulated current is 2.4 A.
Solution:
2 2 .4 2
m2 I
I T = Ic 1 + m= 2 T 1 =
2 1 = 0.938
2 Ic 2

m2Pc 0 .938 2 (50 )
Pusb = Plsb = = = 11 watts
4 4
Sample Problem:
Calculate the total power and the power in each side frequency for a
standard AM transmission that is sinusoidally modulated to a depth of 80% if
the unmodulated carrier power is 50 kW.
Solution:
For PT ;
m2 0 . 82
PT = Pc 1 + = 50kW 1 +
2 2

= 66 kW
For Each Side Frequency Power ;
m2Pc (0 .82 )50 kW
Pside = =
4 4
= 8 kW each
Answer : PT = 66 kW , Pside = 8 kW
Sample Problem:
Calculate the amplitude and resulting side frequency if a carrier wave of
frequency 10 MHz with a peak value of 10 V is amplitude modulated by a 5
kHz sine wave of amplitude 6 V.
Solution:
For m;
Vm 6
m= =
Vc 10
= 0.6
For Side Frequency;
fside = fc fm = 10 MHz 0.005 MHz
= 10.005 MHz and 9.995 MHz
For amplitude;
mVc 0.6 (10 )
VSB = = = 3V
2 2
Answer : VSB = 3 V, fside = 10.005 MHz and 9.995 MHz
Sample Problem:
The output voltage of an AM transmitter is 40 V when sinusoidally
modulated to a depth of 100%. Calculate the voltage at each side frequency
when the modulation depth is reduced to 50%.
Solution:
For Vc ;
VT 40
Vc = =
2
m 12
1+ 1+
2 2
= 32 .65 V
For Each Side Frequency Voltage ;
Vside =
mVc
=
(0.5)32 .65 V
2 2
= 8 .16 V each
Answer : Vc = 32 .65 V, Vside = 8 .16 V

The maximum bandwidth of an AM wave is twice of the maximum

modulating frequency.
The total power in an AM signal increases with modulation, reaching a

value of 50% greater than that of the unmodulated carrier at 100%
modulation.
The extra power with modulation goes into the sidebands; the carrier
power does not change with modulation.
The useful power, that is, the power that carries the information, is
rather small reaching a maximum of one-third of the total signal power
at 100% modulation.
E. .SUPPRESSED-CARRIER AM SYSTEM.
1. Double-Sideband Suppressed-Carrier (DSB-SC)
General Solution of Double Sideband Suppressed Carrier

(DSB-SC)
mVc mVc
(t) = cos 2 (fc + fm )t + cos 2(fc fm )t
2 2
m2Pc
Transmit Power PT =
2
m2Pc
Sideband Power PUSB = PLSB =
4
mVc
Transmit Voltage VT =
2
mIc
Transmit Current IT =
2

A DSB-SC system must suppress the carrier by 50 dB from its original value of 10
W. To what value must the carrier be reduced?
Solution:
Poriginal Porig
SdB = 10 log Pred = S dB
Preduced
10 10
10
Pred = 50 dB
= 0.1 x10 3 W = 100 W
10 10
2. Single-Sideband Full-Carrier (SSB-FC)
General Solution of Single Sideband Full Carrier (SSB-FC)
mVc
(t) = Vc sin2fc t + cos 2(fc fm )t
2

m2Pc
Transmit Power PT = Pc +
4
m2Pc
Sideband Power PUSB or PLSB =
4
m2
Transmit Voltage VT = Vc 1 +
4
m2
Transmit Current I T = Ic 1 +
4

Assuming 100% modulation H3E system, what would be the transmitted
power in the remaining sideband of an AM signal if the carrier power is 1000
watts?
Solution:
For H3E (SSBFC )
m2PC 12 (1000)
PSB = = = 250 watts
4 4
3. Single-Sideband Suppressed-Carrier
General Solution of Single Sideband Suppressed

Carrier (SSB-SC)
mVc
(t) = cos 2(fc fm )t
2
m2Pc
Transmit Power PT =
4
m2Pc
Sideband Power PUSB or PLSB =
4
mVc
Transmit Voltage VT =
2
mI c
Transmit Current IT =
2
4. Single-Sideband Reduced-Carrier (For 90% Suppression)
Transmit Power Sideband Power
m2Pc m2Pc
PT = 0.1Pc + PUSB = PLSB =
4 4
F. .PERCENTAGE POWER SAVING.
PCAM Ptx
%PS = x100%
PCAM
where :
PCAM = Conventional or Standard AM
Ptx = Transmitted AM system


Determine the power saving in percent when the carrier is suppressed in an AM
signal modulated to 80%.
Solution:
For Conventional AM;
m2 2
PT = Pc 1 + = Pc 1 + 0 .8
2 2

= 1 .32 Pc
For Suppressed Carrier system ;
m2Pc 0 .82 Pc
Ptx = =
2 2
= 0 .32 Pc
Perce ntage Power Saved
P Ptx
% = CAM x 100 %
PCAM
1 .32Pc 0 .32Pc
= x 100 % = 75 .75 %
1 .32Pc
Sample Problem:
Calculate the percentage power saving for J3E system at 90% modulation.
Solution:
For Conventional AM;
m2 2
PT = Pc 1 + = Pc 1 + 0 .9
2 2

= 1 .405 Pc
For J3E system ;
m2 0 .92
PJ3E = Pc x = Pc x
4 4
= 0 .2025 Pc
Perce ntage Power Saved
P Ptx
% = CAM x 100 %
PCAM
1 .405Pc 0 .2025 Pc
= x 100 % = 85 .6 %
1 .405Pc
Comparison between Different Systems (Applicable when m=1)
Total LSB or Percentage

Carrier
System Sideband USB Power
Power
Power Power Saving
DSB-FC 66.67% 33.33% 16.67%

0%
(A3E) of PT of PT of PT
0% 100% 50%
DSB-SC 66.67%
of PT of PT of PT
SSB-FC 80% 20% 20%

16.67%
(H3E) of PT of PT of PT
SSB-SC 0% 100% 100%

83.33%
(J3E) of PT of PT of PT
The standard AM broadcast band starts at 535 kHz and ends at 1605
kHz.
Carrier assignments start at 540 kHz and continue in a succession of

10-kilohertz increments until the upper limit of the broadcast band is
reached (1610 kHz). This adds up to a total of 107 carrier
assignments, or CHANNELS, over the entire broadcast band.
Since interference between such closely spaced stations would be

nearly impossible to prevent, the FCC (U.S.) avoids assigning adjacent
channels to stations in the same area.

I H
1. The standard AM broadcast band ______.
A. starts at 88 kHz and ends at 108 kHz
B. starts at 535 kHz and ends at 1605 kHz
C. starts at 535 MHz and ends at 1605 MHz
D. starts at 88 MHz and ends at 108 MHz
2. Two sinusoidal signals, V1 and V2, are fed into an ideal balanced mixer. V1 is a
20-MHz signal; V2 is a 5-MHz signal. What frequencies would you expect at the
output of the mixer?
A. 5 MHz and 15 MHz B. 20 MHz and 100 MHz
C. 15 MHz and 25 MHz D. 5 MHz and 25 MHz
3. An AM transmitter generates 100 watts with 0% modulation. How much power

will it generate with 20% modulation?
A. 50.12 watts B. 310.1 watts
C. 102 watts D. 256 watts
4. If the carrier power is 1000 watts, what is the power in the USB at 70.7%
modulation?
A. 333.33 watts B. 125 watts
C. 666.67 watts D. 70.7 watts
5. A carrier is modulated by three audio tones. If the modulation indexes for the
tones are 0.3, 0.4, and 0.5, then what is the total modulation index?
A. 0.636 B. 1.2
C. 0.707 D. 0.9
6. You look at an AM signal with an oscilloscope and see that the maximum Vpp is
100 volts and the minimum Vpp is 25 volts. What is the modulation index?
A. 0.25 B. 1.25
C. 0.6 D. 0.75
7. A SSB transmitter is connected to a 50-ohm antenna. If the peak output

voltage of the transmitter is 20 volts, what is the PEP?
A. 6 watts B. 4 watts
8. The total power in an AM signal increases with modulation, reaching a value of

_____ greater than that of the unmodulated carrier at _____.
A. 80%, 80% B. 32%, 80% modulation
C. 50%, 75% D. 64%, 80% modulation

_____ greater than that of the modulated wave at _____.
A. 13%, 50% B. 22%, 75% modulation
C. 50%, 50% D. 33%, 90% modulation
10. An AM transmitter supplies a 10 kW of carrier power to a 50 ohms load. It

operates at a carrier frequency of 1.2 MHz and is 85% modulated by a 3 MHz
sine wave. Calculate the rms voltage of the signal. APRIL 2004
A. 547 V B. 825 V
C. 327 V D. 707.1 V
11. For H3E transmitter, the useful power, that is, the power that carries the
information, is rather small reaching a maximum of _____.
A. one-third of the total signal power at 100% modulation
B. one-fifth of the total signal power at 100% modulation
C. one-fourth of the total signal power at 100% modulation
D. one-tent of the total signal power at 100% modulation
12. For A3E transmitter, the useful power, that is, the power that carries the
information in one of the sideband, is rather small reaching a maximum of
_____.
D. one-sixth of the total signal power at 100% modulation
13. The power amplifier of an AM transmitter draws 100 watts from the power
supply with no modulation. Assuming high-level modulation, how much power
does the modulation amplifier deliver for 100% modulation?
14. If the final RF amplifier of an AM transmitter is powered by 100 volts DC, what
is the maximum collector voltage at 100% modulation?
A. 400 volts B. 50 volts
C. 200 volts D. 100 volts
15. Determine the power saving in percent when the carrier is suppressed in an AM
signal modulated to 80%. NOV 2003
A. 75.76% B. 82.82%
C. 33.33% D. 16.67%
16. The most commonly used filter in SSB generation.

A. Mechanical B. RC
C. LC D. Low pass
17. Which of the following is not a technique of generating an SSB signal?

A. phase shift method B. filter method
C. weaver method D. Armstrong method

18. An emission technique where the total current will be twice as much when the
modulation index is doubled.
A. R3E B. H3E
C. A3E D. J3E
19. What is the maximum modulating signal frequency that can be used with an
H3E system with 20-kHz bandwidth?
A. 10 kHz B. 20 kHz
C. 5 kHz D. 40 kHz
20. An AM broadcast transmitter is tested by feeding the RF output into a 50

(dummy) load. Tone modulation is applied. The carrier frequency is 850 kHz
and the FCC licensed power output is 5 kW. The sinusoidal tone is set for 90%
modulation. What is the average power that is being dissipated in the dummy
load?
A. 7.25 kW B. 7025 W
C. 72.k5 W D. 725 W
21. How many percent of the total transmitted power is present in the sideband in
an A3E system?
A. 16.67% B. 80%
C. 50% D. 33.33%
22. An intelligence signal is amplified by a 70% efficient amplifier before being

combined with a 10-kW carrier to generate the AM signal. If it is desired to
operate at 100% modulation, what is the dc input power to the final
intelligence amplifier?
A. 7.14 kW B. 5.14 kW
C. 4.14 kW D. 6.14 kW
23. A transistor RF power amplifier operating class C is designed to produce 40 W

output with a supply voltage of 60 V. If the efficiency is 70%, what is the
average collector current? NOV 2003
A. 666.67 mA B. 952.4 mA
C. 476.2 mA D. 238.1 mA
24. At 80% modulation H3E, what is the percentage power saving?

A. 66.67% B. 33.33%
C. 12.12% D. 16.67%
25. An AM transmitter has a 1-kW carrier and is modulated by three different sine
waves having equal amplitudes. If the total modulation index is 80%, calculate
the individual values of m in % and the total transmitted power.
A. 56.2%, 1.32 kW B. 46.2%, 1.72 kW
C. 46.2%, 1.32 kW D. 56.2%, 1.72 kW
26. The total bandwidth needed for an AM signal at 55.25 MHz with 0.5 MHz video
modulation is ______.
A. 0.5 MHz B. 1 MHz
C. 101.5 MHz D. 10 MHz
27. A transmitter radiates 9 kW with the carrier unmodulated and 2.08 kW when
the carrier is sinusoidally modulated and then suppressed. The modulation
index is ______.
A. 0.6 B. 0.8
C. 0.68 D. 0.58
28. The "envelope" of an AM signal is due to:

A. the baseband signal B. the carrier signal
C. the amplitude signal D. none of the above
29. The equation for full-carrier AM is:

A. v(t) = (Ec + Em) x sin(ct)
B. v(t) = (Ec + Em) x sin(mt) + sin(ct)
C. v(t) = (Ec - Em) x sin(mt) x sin(ct)
D. v(t) = (Ec + Em sin(mt)) x sin(ct)
30. An SSB transmitter has an average power ranging from 750-1000 W. What is
the PEP?
A. 9 kW B. 6 kW
C. 3 kW D. 5 Kw
31. Calculate the average power of an SSB signal with 2-tone modulation if the
peak voltage is 25 V, and assume that the load is 50, resistive.
A. 1.56 to 2.08 W B. 1.32 to 2.8 W
C. 1.12 to 2.08 W D. 1.66 to 2.58 W
32. Determine the percentage power saving if the carrier and the USB is
suppressed in an AM system modulated at 85%.
A. 82.23% B. 66.67%
C. 86.73% D. 89.71%
33. When a broadcast AM transmitter is 80% modulated, its antenna current is 15

A. What will be the new output current and the percentage increase when the
modulation depth is increased by 95%?
A. 15.78 A, 17% B. 13.1 A, 20.46%
C. 13.1 A, 17% D. 15.78 A, 20.46%
34. In amplitude modulated wave equation, the carrier is _______ with both the
upper and lower side frequencies, and the upper and lower side frequencies are
_______ with each other.
A. 90 out of phase, 180 out of phase
B. 180 out of phase, 90 out of phase
C. 90 out of phase, 270 out of phase
D. 270 out of phase, 90 out of phase
35. A term used to describe the amount of amplitude changed present in an AM

waveform.
A. Deviation B. Coefficient of Modulation
C. Shift D. Drift

36. Calculate the modulation index for a standard AM transmission, if the maximum
peak voltage of the modulated wave is 150 V and the modulating signal voltage
is 50 V peak.
A. 25% B. 75%
C. 50% D. 100%
37. What is the value of modulation index and the relation between modulating
signal amplitude and carrier amplitude if the transmitted AM wave is
undermodulated.
A. m=1, Vm=Vc B. m>1, Vm>Vc
C. m<1, Vm<Vc D. m= infinite, Vm=Vc=0
38. At 75% modulation, what percentage of the total transmitted power is in the
sideband?
A. 21.95% B. 33.33%
C. 16.67% D. 12.67%
39. Calculate the suppressed carrier voltage of a DSBSC system if the transmitted
voltage is 75 V at 89% modulation.
A. 63.476 V B. 119.18 V
C. 68.52 V D. 146.31 V
40. Calculate the modulated current of a SSBSC transmitter if the carrier current is
6.5 A at 75% modulation.
A. 2.44 A B. 6.94 A
C. 7.36 A D. 3.45 A
41. Calculate the power in one sideband of an AM signal whose carrier power is 50
watts. The unmodulated current is 2 A while the modulated current is 2.4 A.
APRIL 2004
A. 22.1 W B. 31.4 W
C. 50 W D. 25 W
42. How many percent of the total transmitted power is present in the carrier in an
H3E system?
A. 0% B. 66.67%
C. 25% D. 16.67%
43. A 200 W carrier is modulated to a depth of 75%. The power of the modulated
wave is
A. 56.25 W B. 228.125 W
C. 256.25 W D. 200 W
44. A SSBFC broadcast radio transmitter radiates 10 kW when the modulation

percentage is 65%. The carrier power is ______.
A. 8.26 kW B. 12.11 kW
C. 2.11 kW D. 9.04 kW
45. At 100% modulation J3E, what percentage of the total transmitted power is in
sideband?
A. 100% B. 0%
C. 80% D. 50%
46. The antenna current of an SSBFC AM transmitter is 8 A when only the carrier is
sent. It is increases to 8.5 A when the carrier is sinusoidal modulated. The
percentage modulation is _____.
A. 77.7% B. 71.8%
C. 66.7% D. 50.7%
47. _______ is the process of impressing or imparting a low-frequency source

information (voice, audio, video, or data) onto a high-frequency bandpass
signal with a carrier frequency fc by the introduction of amplitude, frequency or
phase perturbation.
A. Mixing B. Modulation
C. Heterodyning D. Multiplexing
48. _______is an analog modulation scheme in which the amplitude of a relatively

high-frequency carrier signal is varied in accordance with the instantaneous
amplitude of an information signal.
A. Pulse Modulation B. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation
C. Angle Modulation D. Amplitude Modulation
49. Fourier analysis often allows complex signals to be express as a series of

_______.
A. sinusoids B. pulse
C. ellipse D. rectified signals
50. Mathematical process that allows complex signals to be express as a series of

sinusoids.
A. Bessel Function B. Taylor Series
C. Fourier analysis D. Heaviside Expansion
51. An AM transmitter uses a high level modulation. The RF power amplifier runs
from 12 volt source, putting out a carrier power of 85 watts, with an efficiency
of 85%, what load impedance is required in order for it to deliver the rated
power? APRIL 2004
A. 2.16 B. 0.13
C. 1.69 D. 0.85
52. At 50% modulation DSBSC, what is the percentage power saving?

A. 75.75% B. 88.88%
C. 66.67% D. 87.87%
53. At 100% modulation H3E, what percentage of the total transmitted power is in
the carrier?
A. 66.67% B. 20%
C. 33.33% D. 80%
54. A 500 W carrier is simultaneously modulated by two audio waves with

modulation percentage of 55% and 65% respectively. Calculate the total
sideband power if an additional audio wave modulates the carrier at 25%.
A. 196.875 Watts B. 15.625 Watts
C. 696.875 Watts D. 98.43 Watts

55. At 80% modulation J3E, what is the percentage power saving?

A. 66.67% B. 87.87%
C. 75.75% D. 16.67%
56. A radio transmitter, SSB-FC AM radiates 50 kW of carrier power. The radiated

power at 85% modulation will be _____.
A. 68.1 kW B. 9.03 kW
C. 59.03 kW D. 18.1 kW
signal amplitude and carrier amplitude at 100% modulation.
58. What is the carrier power in one sideband of an AM signal whose carrier power
is 300 W, with 80% modulation? NOV 2004
A. 300 W B. 96 W
C. 150 W D. 48 W
59. Overmodulation in AM creates side frequencies further from the carrier known
as ________.
A. splatter B. image frequencies
C. nyquist frequency D. jitter
60. Another name for splatter

A. buckshot B. jitter
C. noise D. hits
61. Calculate the modulating voltage of an audio signal necessary to provide 100%
modulation of a 100-V carrier that is simultaneously modulated by 2 audio
waves with m1 and m2 equal to 75% and 45% respectively.
A. 24.25 V B. 32.8 V
C. 50.3 V D. 48.5 V
62. A DSB-SC system must suppress the carrier by 50 dB from its original value of
10 W. To what value must the carrier be reduced? NOV 2004
A. 1 mW B. 10 mW
C. 0.1 mW D. 0.01 mW
_____ greater than that of the unmodulated carrier at 100% modulation.
A. 25% B. 75%
C. 50% D. 100%
64. For a standard AM transmission, the maximum peak-to-peak voltage is 150 V

and the minimum peak-to-peak voltage is 50 V. Calculate the modulation
index.
A. 75% B. 50%
C. 25% D. 100%
65. An AM transmitter uses high-level modulation. The RF power amplifier draws 12

A from a 22 V supply, putting out a carrier power of 140 watts. What
impedance would be seen at the modulation transformer secondary? NOV
2003
A. 2.16 B. 0.183
C. 1.83 D. 1.56
66. At 100% modulation, what percentage of the total transmitted power is in each
sideband?
A. 50% B. 66.67%
C. 16.67% D. 33.33%
67. A standard AM transmission, sinusoidally modulated to a depth of 30%,

produces side frequencies of 4.928 and 4.914 MHz. The amplitude of each side
frequency is 75 V. Determine the amplitude and frequency of the carrier.
A. 500V, 4.907 MHz B. 50V, 4.907 MHz
C. 50V, 4.90 MHz D. 500V, 4.90 MHz
68. The output power of an AM transmitter is 1 kW when sinusoidally modulated to

a depth of 100%. Calculate the power at each side frequency when the
modulation depth is reduced to 50%.
A. 83.33 W B. 750 W
C. 41.67 W D. 20.83 W
69. An audio system requires a frequency response from 50 Hz to 15 kHz for high
fidelity. If this signal were transmitted using AM, what bandwidth would it
require?
A. 15 kHz B. 25 kHz
C. 8 kHz D. 30 kHz
70. An AM transmission of 3 kW is 100% modulated. If it is transmitter as an SSB

signal, what would be the power transmitted? NOV 2004
A. 2000 W B. 500 W
C. 1500 W D. 250 W
signal amplitude and carrier amplitude if the transmitted AM wave is
overmodulated.
72. With low-level AM:

A. the RF amplifiers must be Class A
B. the RF amplifiers must be Class B
C. the RF amplifiers must be linear
D. the RF amplifiers must be low-power
73. The maximum bandwidth of an AM wave is _____ of the maximum modulating

frequency.
A. 3x B. equal to
C. half D. twice

74. An AM signal has the following characteristics: carrier frequency = 150 MHz;
modulating frequency = 3 MHz; peak carrier voltage = 40 volts; and peak
modulating voltage is 30 volts. Calculate the peak voltage of the lower
sideband frequency. APRIL 2004
A. 7.5 V B. 5 V
C. 10 V D. 15 V
75. The amplitude of the upper and lower side frequencies is a function of both the
_______.
A. carrier frequency and the modulation frequency
B. carrier amplitude and the modulation index
C. modulated wave amplitude and the modulation index
D. sideband amplitude and the modulation frequency
76. An AM transmitter is modulated by two sine waves at 1.5 kHz and 2.5 kHz, with
modulation of 20 percent and 80 percent respectively. Calculate the effective
modulation index. APRIL 2004
A. 82% B. 85%
C. 80% D. 78%
77. In amplitude modulated wave equation, the carrier component is a _______

function, the upper side frequency a _______ function, and the lower side
frequency a _______ function.
A. -sine, +cosine, +sine B. -sine, cosine, -sine
C. +sine, cosine, +cosine D. +sine, +cosine, -cosine
78. For conventional AM, the useful power, that is, the power that carries the
information, is rather small reaching a maximum of _____.
D. one-tent of the total signal power at 100% modulation
79. The values of Vmax and Vmin as read from an AM wave on an oscilloscope is
2.6 and 0.29 respectively. Determine the percentage modulation. NOV 2002
A. 69.2& B. 39.95&
C. 79.9% D. 34.6&
80. If Va sin(at) amplitude modulates the carrier Vc sin(ct), it will produce the
frequencies:
A. c + a and c a B. (c + a)/2 and (c a)/2
C. c + a and 2c + 2a D. (c x a)/2 and (c x a)/2
81. At 100% modulation, the total sideband power is:

A. equal to the carrier power B. twice the carrier power
C. half the carrier power D. 1.414 x carrier power
82. What will be the total sideband power of an AM transmitting station whose
carrier power is 1200 W and a modulation of 95%? NOV 2004
A. 1200 W B. 541.5 W
C. 270.75 W D. 483.5 W
83. The outline of the peaks of a carrier has the shape of the modulating signal and
is called the
A. Carrier variation B. Envelope
C. Waveshape D. Trace
84. The new signals produced by modulation are called

A. Spurious emissions B. Harmonics
C. Sidebands D. Intermodulation products
85. What is the minimum AM signal needed to transmit information?

A. Both sidebands B. Carrier plus sidebands
C. Carrier only D. One sideband
86. During 100% modulation, what percentage of the average output power is in
the sidebands?
A. 66.67% B. 33.33%
C. 22.22% D. 88.88%
87. An AM transmitter at 27 MHz develops 10 W of carrier power into a 50- load.

It is modulated by a 2-kHz sine wave between 20 and 90% modulation.
Determine the maximum and minimum waveform voltage of the AM signal at
20% and 90% modulation.
A. Vmin(20%)=25.3 V, Vmax(20%)= 37.9 V, Vmin(90%)=3.14 V, Vmax(90%)= 60.1 V
B. Vmin(20%)=33.3 V, Vmax(20%)= 22.1 V, Vmin(90%)=3.14 V, Vmax(90%)= 60.1 V
C. Vmin(20%)=25.3 V, Vmax(20%)= 22.1 V, Vmin(90%)=4.45 V, Vmax(90%)= 12.1 V
D. Vmin(20%)=33.3 V, Vmax(20%)= 37.9 V, Vmin(90%)=4.45 V, Vmax(90%)= 12.1 V
88. The inputs to a balanced modulator are 1 MHz and a carrier of 1.5 MHz. The
outputs are
A. 500 kHz B. 2.5 MHz
C. 1.5 MHz D. 500 kHz and 2.5 MHz
89. A widely used balanced modulator is called the

A. Diode bridge circuit B. Full-wave bridge rectifier
C. Lattice modulator D. Balanced bridge modulator
90. A SSB signal is generated around a 200-kHz carrier. Before filtering, the upper
and lower SB are separated by 200 Hz. Calculate the filter Q required to obtain
40-dB suppression.
A. Q=2.5 B. Q=25
C. Q=250 D. Q=2500
91. Amplitude modulation is the same as

A. Linear mixing B. Analog multiplication
C. Signal summation D. Multiplexing
92. The principal circuit in the popular 1496/1596 IC balanced modulator is a

A. Differential amplifier B. Rectifier
C. Bridge D. Constant current source
93. The most commonly used filter in SSB generators uses

A. LC networks B. Mechanical resonators
C. Crystals D. RC networks and op amps

94. An unmodulated carrier is 300 Vp-p. Calculate %m when its maximum p-p value
reaches 400, 500, and 600 V.
A. %m1=44.4%, %m2=83.3%, %m3=100%
B. %m1=22.2%, %m2=33.3%, %m3=100%
C. %m1=16.67%, %m2=83.3%, %m3=100%
D. %m1=33.3%, %m2=66.7%, %m3=100%
95. A balanced modulator used to demodulate a SSB signal is called a(n)

A. Transponder B. Product detector
C. Converter D. Modulator
96. Frequency translation is carried out by a circuit called a

A. Translator B. Converter
C. Balanced modulator D. Local oscillator
97. A 100-V carrier is modulated by a 1-kHz sine wave. Determine the side
frequency amplitudes when m=0.75.
A. Vsf=37.5 V B. Vsf=86.5 V
C. Vsf=46.5 V D. Vsf=57.5 V
98. The component used to produce AM at very high frequencies is a

A. Varactor B. Thermistor
C. Cavity resonator D. PIN diode
99. An intelligence signal is amplified by a 70% efficient amplifier before being

combined with a 10 kW carrier to generate the AM signal. If it is desired to
operate at 100% modulation, what is the dc input power to the final
intelligence amplifier?
A. Pin/dc=34.66 kW B. Pin/dc=5.75 kW
C. Pin/dc=7.14 kW D. Pin/dc=3.26 Kw
100. The ac rms antenna current of an AM transmitter is 6.2 A when unmodulated

and rises to 6.7 A when modulated. Calculate %m.
A. m=11.9% B. m=33.9%
C. m=57.9% D. m=78.9%
101. The inputs to a mixer are fo and fm. In down conversion, which of the
following mixer output signals is selected?
A. fo B. fm
C. fo-fm D. fo+fm
102. Calculate the required Q for a 1MHz carrier, 80 dB suppression, 200 Hz

frequency separation.
A. Q=12 5000 B. Q=1 250 000
C. Q=1 250 D. Q=125 000
103. In a diode modulator, the negative half of the AM wave is supplied by a(n)
A. Tuned circuit B. Transformer
C. Capacitor D. Inductor
104. Amplitude modulators that vary the carrier amplitude with the modulating
signal by passing it through an attenuator work on the principle of
A. Rectification B. Resonance
C. Variable resistance D. Absorption
105. An AM transmission of 1000 W is fully modulated. Calculate the power

transmitted if it is transmitted as a SSB signal.
A. PSSB=167 W B. PSSB=826 W
C. PSSB=369 W D. PSSB=478 W
106. That circuit that recovers the original modulating information from an AM
signal is known as a
A. Modulator B. Demodulator
C. Mixer D. Crystal set
107. In the phasing method of SSB generation, one sideband is canceled out due
to
A. Phase shift B. Sharp selectivity
C. Carrier suppression D. Phase inversion
108. A SSB transmission drives 121 Vp into a 50- antenna. Calculate the PEP.
A. PEP=642 W B. PEP=31.7 W
C. PEP=146 W D. PEP=35.6 W
109. The desired output from a mixer is usually selected with a

A. Phase-shift circuit B. Crystal filter
C. Resonant circuit D. Transformer
110. A 1-MHz, 40 Vp carrier is modulated by a 5-kHz intelligence signal such that

m=0.7. This AM signal is fed to a 50- antenna. Calculate the power of each
spectral component fed to the antenna.
A. Pc=35 W, Pusb= Plsb=34.96 W
B. Pc=16 W, Pusb= Plsb=1.96 W
C. Pc=87 W, Pusb= Plsb=1.44 W
D. Pc=11 W, Pusb= Plsb=4.22 W
111. The most commonly used amplitude demodulator is the

A. Diode mixer B. Balanced modulator
C. Envelope detector D. Crystal filter
112. Calculate the filters required Q to convert DSB to SSB, given that the two
sidebands are separated by 200 Hz. The suppressed carrier (40 dB) is 2.0 MHz.
A. Q=12,241 B. Q=44,670
C. Q=36,250 D. Q=6,610
113. Amplitude modulation can be produce by

A. Having a carrier vary a resistance
B. Having the modulating signal vary a capacitance
C. Varying the carrier frequency
D. Varying the gain of an amplifier

114. A circuit that generates the upper and lower sidebands but no carrier is called
a(n)
A. Amplitude modulator B. Diode detector
C. Class C amplifier D. Balanced modulator
115. In a diode ring modulator, the diode act like

A. Variable resistors B. Switches
C. Rectifiers D. Variable capacitors
116. The output of a balanced modulator is

A. AM B. FM
C. SSB D. DSB
117. An AM transmitter at 27 MHz develops 10 W of carrier power into a 50-

load. It is modulated by a 2-kHz sine wave between 20 and 90% modulation.
Determine the sideband signal voltage and power at 20% and 90% modulation.
A. Vsb(20%)=1.24 V, Psb(20%)=0.21 W, Vsb(90%)=22.06 V, Psb(90%)=64.025 W
B. Vsb(20%)=4.24 V, Psb(20%)=0.14 W, Vsb(90%)=10.06 V, Psb(90%)=64.025 W
C. Vsb(20%)=2.24 V, Psb(20%)=0.1 W, Vsb(90%)=10.06 V, Psb(90%)=2.025 W
D. Vsb(20%)=4.24 V, Psb(20%)=0.61 W, Vsb(90%)=22.06 V, Psb(90%)=2.025 W
118. If m is greater than 1, what happens?

A. Normal operation
B. Carrier drops to zero
C. Carrier frequency shifts
D. Information signal is distorted
119. Distortion of the modulating signal produces harmonics which cause an

increase in the signal
A. Carrier power B. Bandwidth
C. Sideband power D. Envelope voltage
120. The process of translating a signal, with or without modulation, to a higher or

lower frequency for processing is called
A. Frequency multiplication B. Frequency division
C. Frequency shift D. Frequency conversion
121. An AM transmitter at 27 MHz develops 10 W of carrier power into a 50-

load. It is modulated by a 2-kHz sine wave between 20 and 90% modulation.
Determine the load current at 20% and 90% modulation.
A. Iload(20%)=0.924 A, Iload(90%)=0.33 A
B. Iload(20%)=0.451 A, Iload(90%)=0.53 A
C. Iload(20%)=0.612 A, Iload(90%)=0.33 A
D. Iload(20%)=0.924 A, Iload(90%)=0.53 A
122. The equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal is a

A. Series resonant circuit B. Parallel resonant circuit
C. Neither A nor B D. Both A and B
123. Amplitude modulation generated at a very low voltage or power amplitude is

known as
A. High-level modulation B. Low-level modulation
C. Collector modulation D. Minimum modulation
124. A modulator circuit performs what mathematical operation on its two inputs?
A. Addition B. Multiplication
C. Division D. Square root
125. The ratio of the peak modulating signal voltage to the peak carrier voltage is
referred to as
A. The voltage ratio B. Decibels
C. The modulation index D. The mix factor
126. Calculate the power advantage gained by suppressing the carrier at 100%
modulation.
A. 7.78 dB B. 6 dB
C. 4.78 dB D. 3 dB
127. Calculate the S/N improvement by suppressing the carrier and one of the
sideband at 100%.
A. 7.78 dB B. 6 dB
C. 4.78 dB D. 3 dB
128. An SSB transmitter has an average power ranging from 750-1000 W. What is
the PEP?
A. 3 kW B. 5 kW
C. 6 kW D. 9 kW
129. Calculate the average power of an SSB signal with 2-tone modulation if the
peak voltage is 25 V, and assume that the load is 50, resistive.
A. 1.32 to 2.8 W B. 1.66 to 2.58 W
C. 1.56 to 2.08 W D. 1.12 to 2.08 W
130. At 80% modulation J3E, what is the percentage power saving?

A. 16.67% B. 66.67%
C. 75.75% D. 87.87%

1-68 ANGLE MODULATION
Section Angle Read it

till it
3 Modulation Hertz!
DEFINITION. Angle Modulation is an analog modulation scheme in which

the angle of a relatively high-frequency carrier signal is varied in accordance
with the instantaneous amplitude of an information signal.
DEFINITION. Frequency Deviation is the amount of frequency shifts that

occurs when it is acted on by a modulating signal.
DEFINITION. Phase Deviation is the amount of phase shifts that occurs

when it is acted on by a modulating signal.
A. .ANGLE MODULATION.
1. Direct Frequency Modulation

An angle modulation scheme in which the frequency of a constant-
amplitude carrier is varied in proportion to the amplitude of the
modulating signal at a rate equal to the frequency of the modulating
signal.
f
FM ( t ) = Vc cos c t + sin mt
fm
2. Direct Phase Modulation

An angle modulation scheme in which the phase of a constant-
amplitude carrier is varied in proportion to the amplitude of the
modulating signal at a rate equal to the frequency of the modulating
signal.
PM ( t ) = Vc cos ( c t + sin mt )
where:
f = Frequency deviation in Hz
= Phase deviation in rad
c = Carrier radian frequency in rad
s
m = Modulating signal radian frequency in rad
s
B. .GENERAL SOLUTION FOR ANGLE MODULATION.
Direct FM Generation
INPUT OUTPUT
SIGNAL SIGNAL
Type of
Angle-Modulated Wave Equation
Modulation
FM (t) = Vc cos C t + Km (t)

FM
FM (t) = Vc cos C t + KVm cos(mt)
Direct PM Generation
OUTPUT
SIGNAL
INPUT
SIGNAL

Type of
Angle-Modulated Wave Equation
Modulation

PM (t) = Vc cos C t + K PM m (t)dt

PM
K V
PM (t) = Vc cos C t + PM m sin(mt)
m
C. .COMPARISON BETWEEN FM & PM.
Frequency Modulation Phase Modulation
1. Maximum Frequency Deviation
FM
The maximum frequency deviation occurs during the maximum
positive and negative peaks of the modulating signal.
PM
The maximum frequency deviation occurs during the zero crossing of the
modulating signal.
2. Modulator Output
FM
For FM modulator, changes would occur in the output frequency in
respect to changes in the amplitude of the input voltage.
PM
For PM modulator, changes would occur in the phase of the output
frequency in respect to changes in the amplitude of the input voltage.
3. Instantaneous Frequency Deviation
FM
The instantaneous frequency deviation is directly proportional to
the amplitude of the modulation signal and inversely proportional
to its frequency.
Vm
f
fm
PM
The instantaneous frequency deviation is proportional to the first derivative or
slope of the modulating signal.
d
f m (t)
dt
4. Instantaneous Phase Deviation
FM
The instantaneous phase deviation is proportional to the integral
of the modulating signal voltage.

m (t)dt
PM
The instantaneous phase deviation is directly proportional to the amplitude
of the modulation signal and unaffected by its frequency.
Vm
5. Modulation Index
FM
The modulation index is proportional to the amplitude of the
modulating signal and inversely proportional to the frequency of
the modulating signal.
Vm
mFM
fm

PM
The modulation index is proportional to the amplitude of the modulating
signal, independent of its frequency.
mPM Vm
The amount of frequency shift is proportional to the amplitude of the

modulating signal. (FM)
This simply means that if a 10-volt signal causes a frequency shift of 20 kHz,
then a 20-volt signal will cause a frequency shift of 40 kHz.
The amount of phase shift is proportional to the amplitude of the

modulating signal. (PM)
If a 10-volt signal causes a phase shift of 20, then a 20-volt signal causes a
phase shift of 40.
The rate of frequency shift is proportional to the frequency of the

modulating signal. (FM)
This implies that if the carrier is modulated with a 1-kHz tone, then the
carrier is changing frequency 1,000 times each second.
The rate of phase shift is proportional to the frequency of the

modulating signal. (PM)
If the carrier were modulated with a 1-kHz tone, the carrier would advance
and retard in phase 1,000 times each second.
D. .ANGLE MODULATION PARAMETERS.
1. Frequency Deviation ()
Frequency deviation is the amount of frequency shifts that occurs
when it is acted on by a modulating signal.
where :
= peak frequency deviation in Hz
= k FM x Vm
k FM = frequency deviation sensitivit y in Hz
V
Vm = peak value of modulating signal in V
2. Phase Deviation ()
Phase deviation is the amount of phase shifts that occurs when it is
acted on by a modulating signal.
where:
= peak phase deviation in rad
= k PM x Vm
k PM = phase deviation sensitivity in rad
V
Vm = peak value of modulating signal in V

A phase modulator has kp = 2 rad/V. What RMS voltage of a sine wave would
cause a peak phase deviation of 30 degrees?
Solution:

30 x 180 Vm
= k PM x Vm Vm = = rad
= 0.262 V Vrms = = 0.185 V
k PM 2 2
V
3. Modulation Index (m)
FM PM

mFM = mPM = max
fm
Sample Problem:
An FM modulator has a frequency deviation sensitivity of 5 kHz/V and
modulating signal m(t) = 2 cos(4000)t . Calculate the peak frequency
deviation and modulation index.
Solution:
5 kHz 10 kHz
= k FM x Em = x 2V mFM = =
V fm 4 kHz
= 10 kHz 2
=5

Sample Problem:
A PM modulator has a phase deviation sensitivity of 2.5 rad/V and
modulating signal m(t) = 2 cos(4000)t . Calculate the peak phase deviation
and modulation index.
Solution:
2 .5 rad mPM = max = 5 rad
= k PM x Em = x 2V
V
=5
= 5 rad
4. Percent Modulation (%M)

With angle modulation, percent modulation is simply the ratio of actual
frequency deviation to the maximum frequency deviation allowed by
law stated in percent form.
actual
% mod ulation = x 100%
max

What is the frequency swing of an FM broadcast transmitter when modulated
80%?
Solution:
actual
%M = x100 % actual = %M x max = 0 .8 x 75 kHz = 60 kHz
max
5. Carrier Swing (CS)

Carrier swing is the difference between the maximum positive and
negative deviation of the carrier in Hz.
CS = 2
Sample Problem:
Calculate the frequency deviation and % modulation under FCC standards
for a given modulating signal that produces 100 kHz carrier swing.
Solution:
For frequency deviation;
CS 100 kHz
= = = 50 kHz
2 2
For % modulation;
actual 50 kHz
%M = x 100 % = x 100 %
max 75 kHz
= 67%
6. Deviation Ratio (DR)

The worst case (maximum) modulation index and is equal to the
maximum peak frequency deviation divided by the maximum
modulating signal frequency.
max
DR =
fm(max)
7. Bandwidth Requirements (BW)
FM System Bandwidth Formula
Narrowband FM
BW = 2fm
(m<0.25)
Wideband FM (m>100) BW = 2
Carsons Rule
BW = 2( + fm )
(Approximate formula)
Using Bessel Table
BW = 2(n x fm )
(Exact formula)
where:
fm = modulating signal frequency in Hz
= peak frequency deviation in Hz
n = number of significant sidebands


A system uses a deviation of 100 kHz and a modulating frequency of 15 kHz.
What is the approximate bandwidth?
Solution:
BW = 2( + fm ) = 2(100 + 15) = 230 kHz
Sample Problem:
Calculate the deviation ratio and approximate bandwidth for the worst-case
modulation index for an FM broadcast-band transmitter (FCC standard).
Solution:
max 75 kHz BW = 2( + fm ) = 2(75 + 15) = 180 kHz
DR = = =5
fm(max) 15 kHz
8. Lock Range & Capture Range
Lock Range
f
Capture Range
i. Capture Range (CR)

Capture or acquire range is the range of frequencies over which
the VCO can lock onto a new signal.
ii. Lock Range (LR)

Lock or track range is the span of frequencies over which the PLL
can remain locked and track a signal.

A phase-locked loop has a VCO with a free running frequency of 10 MHz. As the
frequency of the reference input is gradually raised from zero, the loop locks at 8
MHz and comes out of lock again at 14 MHz. Determine the lock range.
Solution:
R lock = 2(fol fvco ) = 2(14 MHz 10 MHz ) = 8 MHz

A phase-locked loop has a VCO with a free running frequency of 14 MHz. As the
frequency of the reference input is gradually raised from zero, the loop locks at
12 MHz and comes out of lock again at 18 MHz. Calculate the capture range.
Solution:
R cap = 2(fvco fl ) = 2(14 MHz 12 MHz ) = 4 MHz
Sample Problem:
Calculate the range of frequencies will the PLL be able to capture and
subsequently maintain lock if it used a VCO with a free-running frequency of
100 kHz, PLL has a 10% capture range and 20% lock range.
Solution:
R cap = fc C = 100 kHz 10%(100 kHz) = 90 to 110 kHz
R lock = fL L = 100 kHz 2 0%(100 kHz) = 8 0 to 120 kHz
Sample Problem:
The capture range of a PLL and filter is 12%, while the lock range is 18%
and the VCO has a center frequency of 20 MHz. Calculate the PLL operation
with an 18.5 MHz input?
Solution:
20 18.5
f = fC = x100% = 7.5%
20
= 20 MHz 7.5%(20 MHz)
= 18.5 to 21.5 MHz

E. .STEREOPHONIC FM.
With stereophonic transmission, the information signal is spatially divided

into two 50-Hz to 15-kHz audio channels (left and right channel).
For Your Information

The word stereo is a Greek word for three-dimensional.
F. .PRE-EMPHASIS & DE-EMPHASIS.
1. Pre-emphasis
The process of boosting or amplifying the high-frequency components
of the modulating signal prior to performing modulation for the reason
of uneven signal-to-noise ratio at high frequencies.
2. De-emphasis
The reverse process that is doned in the receiver to compensate for
the uneven amplification in the transmitter to restore the original level
of the modulating signal.
Pre-emphasis & De-emphasis Time Constant ()
In terms of R and C In terms of L and R

L
= 75s = RC = 75s =
R
Sample Problem:
Calculate the approximate break frequency for FM broadcast band pre-
emphasis circuit. (FCC standards)
Solution:
1 1 L
fb = = Time Cons tan t = 75 s = RC or
2RC 2 RL R
1
= = 2.12 kHz FCC standards
2(75 s)
The original FM broadcast band in the USA in the early-1940s was

on 42-50 MHz with 200 kHz channel spacing.
This band was abandoned after World War II and is now allocated to a
seldom-used two-way communications service.
Throughout the world, 88-108 MHz (or some portion thereof) is

used as a broadcast band, with one very notable exception: Japan,
which uses its own unique 76-90 MHz band with 100 kHz channel spacing.
G. .GENERATION OF FM & PM.
1. Direct Method
Varactor Diode Modulator

A practical direct FM generator that uses a varactor (voltage
variable capacitor, a.k.a. varicap) diode to deviate the frequency
of a crystal oscillator.
FM Reactance Modulator
The variation in the reactance of a junction FET will cause the
frequency of oscillation or resonant frequency to vary in
accordance with the instantaneous amplitude of the modulating
signal thereby directly producing FM.
Linear integrated-circuits VCO modulator

LIC VCO can generate direct FM output waveform when the input
modulating signal is applied directly to the input of the voltage-
controlled oscillator where it deviates the carrier frequency.

2. Indirect Method
Armstrong Method
A relatively low-frequency subcarrier is phase shifted 90 and fed
to a balanced modulator, where it is mixed with the input
modulating signal. The output from the balanced modulator is a
DSBSC wave that is combined with the original carrier in a
combining network to produce a low-index, phase modulated
waveform.
H. .ANGLE MODULATION VERSUS AM.
1. Advantages of Angle Modulation
Noise Immunity
Probably the most significant advantage of angle modulation over
AM is noise immunity.
Noise Performance
With the use of limiters, FM & PM demodulators can actually
reduce the noise level and improve the signal-to-noise ratio during
demodulation process since most noise results in unwanted
amplitude variations in the modulated wave.
Capture Effect
A phenomenon that allows a receiver to differentiate between two
signals received with the same frequency. The receiver will
capture the stronger signal and eliminate the weaker signal. With
AM, if two signals are received with same frequency, both will be
demodulated and produce audio signals that could be heard
simultaneously.
Power Utilization & Efficiency

With AM most of the transmitted power (almost 67%) is contained
in the carrier while with angle modulation the power remains
constant regardless if modulation is present.
2. Disadvantages of Angle Modulation
Bandwidth
FM and PM require much more bandwidth than AM (approximately
20 times that of AM).
200 kHz for FM/PM while only 10 kHz for AM.
Circuit Complexity
FM and PM modulators, transmitters, demodulators, and receivers
are more complex to design and build than their AM counterparts.
I H
1. In PM, if the carrier were modulated with a 5-kHz tone,
A. the carrier would advance and retard in phase 5,000 times each second
B. the carrier would advance and retard in phase 5,000 times each minute
C. the carrier would advance and retard in phase 5,000 times each
millisecond
D. the carrier would advance and retard in phase 5,000 times each kilosecond
2. Calculate the range of frequencies will the PLL be able to capture and
subsequently maintain lock if it used a VCO with a free-running frequency of
100 kHz, PLL has a 20% capture range and 40% lock range.
A. Capture Range = 80 to 110 kHz, Lock Range = 60 to 120 kHz
B. Capture Range = 80 to 120 kHz, Lock Range = 60 to 140 kHz
C. Capture Range = 90 to 120 kHz, Lock Range = 80 to 140 kHz
D. Capture Range = 60 to 140 kHz, Lock Range = 90 to 120 kHz
3. Determine the phase error necessary to produce a VCO frequency shift of 10

kHz for an open loop gain of 40 kHz/rad.
A. 0.125 rad B. 0.25 rad
C. 0.5 rad D. 25 rad
4. Determine the worst case output signal-to-noise ratio for a broadcast FM that
has a maximum intelligence frequency of 10 kHz. The input signal-to-noise
ratio is 2.
A. 5 B. 15
C. 10 D. 20
5. Determine the peak frequency deviation and modulation index for an FM

modulator with a deviation sensitivity of 5 kHz/V and a modulating signal of
2cos(4000t).
A. 1 kHz, 50 B. 1 kHz, 5
C. 10 kHz, 5 D. 10 kHz, 50
6. NBFM stands for:

A. National Broadcast FM B. Non-Broadcast FM
C. Near Band FM D. Narrowband FM
7. When FM reception deteriorates abruptly due to noise, it is called:

A. the capture effect B. the threshold effect
C. the noise effect D. the limit effect

8. If an FM transmitter employs one doubler, one tripler, and one quadrupler,

what is the carrier frequency swing when the oscillator frequency is 5 kHz.
A. 60 kHz B. 120 kHz
C. 180 kHz D. 240 kHz
9. In PM system,
A. the instantaneous phase deviation is directly proportional to the phase of
the modulation signal and unaffected by its frequency
B. the instantaneous phase deviation is directly proportional to the amplitude
of the modulation signal and unaffected by its phase
C. the instantaneous phase deviation is directly proportional to the of the
frequency modulation signal and unaffected by its amplitude
D. the instantaneous phase deviation is directly proportional to the amplitude
of the modulation signal and unaffected by its frequency
10. The amount of frequency deviation from the carrier center frequency in an FM
transmitter is proportional to what characteristic of the modulating signal?
A. Shape B. Phase
C. Amplitude D. Frequency
11. If the amplitude of the modulating signal decreases, the carrier deviation
A. Goes to zero B. Decreases
C. Remains constant D. Increases
12. Maximum frequency deviation of a PM signal occurs at

A. Peak negative amplitude B. Peak positive amplitude
C. Zero crossing points D. Peak positive/negative amplitudes
13. In PM, carrier frequency deviation is not proportional to:

A. Carrier amplitude and frequency B. Modulating signal amplitude
C. Modulating signal frequency D. Modulator phase shift
14. To compensate for increases in carrier frequency deviation with an increase in

modulating signal frequency, what circuit is used between the modulating
signal and the phase modulator?
A. Low-pass filter B. High-pass filter
C. Bandpass filter D. Phase shifter
15. De-emphasis circuit is use _____.

A. prior to modulation
B. after modulation
C. for de-emphasing high frequency component
D. for de-emphasing low frequency component
16. Direct Frequency Modulation is an angle modulation scheme in which the

_______ of a constant-amplitude carrier is varied in proportion to the _______
of the modulating signal at a rate equal to the frequency of the _______.
A. frequency, amplitude, modulating signal
B. amplitude, frequency, carrier signal
C. amplitude, frequency, modulating signal
D. frequency, amplitude, carrier signal
17. 60% modulation is equivalent to _____ carrier swing of an FM broadcast

transmitter.
C. 90 kHz D. 100 kHz
18. In FM, ff the carrier is modulated with a 1-kHz tone,

A. then the carrier is changing frequency 500 times each second
B. then the carrier is changing frequency 1,000 times each minute
C. then the carrier is changing frequency 60,000 times each minute
D. then the carrier is changing frequency 2,000 times each second
19. Calculate the approximate bandwidth for an FM system with a 60 kHz deviation
and 12 kHz modulating frequency.
A. 144 kHz B. 134 kHz
C. 124 kHz D. 184 kHz
20. In PM system,
A. the instantaneous phase deviation is proportional to the first derivative or
slope of the modulating signal
B. the instantaneous frequency deviation is proportional to the first derivative
or slope of the modulating signal
C. the instantaneous frequency deviation is proportional to the second
derivative or slope of the modulating signal
D. the instantaneous phase deviation is proportional to the second derivative
or slope of the modulating signal
21. Determine the peak phase deviation for a PM modulator with a deviation
sensitivity of 2.5 rad/V and a modulating signal of 2cos(4000t).
A. 25 rad B. 15 rad
C. 0. 5 rad D. 5 rad
22. Lock range is also known as

A. Acquire range B. Track range
C. Capture range D. Hold-in range
23. The process of boosting or amplifying the high-frequency components of the

modulating signal prior to performing modulation for the reason of uneven
signal-to-noise ratio at high frequencies.
A. De-emphasis B. Frequency Boosting
C. Mixing D. Pre-emphasis
24. The reverse process that is doned in the receiver to compensate for the uneven
amplification in the transmitter to restore the original level of the modulating
signal.
A. Post-emphasis B. Frequency Masking
C. Heterodyning D. Squelching
25. If a 2-volt instantaneous value of modulating signal amplitude causes a 10-kHz

deviation in carrier frequency, what is the deviation sensitivity of the
modulator?
A. 1 kHz/volt B. 10 kHz/volt
C. 5 kHz/volt D. 20 kHz/volt

26. If a 2-kHz audio tone causes a frequency deviation of 4 kHz, what is the
modulation index?
A. 1 B. 6
C. 2 D. 8
27. In FM system,
A. the instantaneous phase deviation is proportional to the integral of the
modulating signal voltage
B. the instantaneous phase deviation is proportional to the derivative of the
C. the instantaneous frequency deviation is proportional to the derivative of
the modulating signal voltage
D. the instantaneous frequency deviation is proportional to the integral of the
28. In PM, a frequency shift occurs while what characteristic of the modulating
signal is changing?
A. Shape B. Phase
C. Amplitude D. Frequency
29. What will be the deviation caused by a 3-kHz tone if the modulation index is 3?
A. 4.5 kHz B. 9 kHz
C. 0 kHz D. 6 kHz
30. If the deviation sensitivity of an FM modulator is 2 kHz/V, what will be the

modulation index caused by a 1-volt, 1-kHz audio signal?
A. 0.2 B. 1
C. 0.5 D. 2
31. At a modulation index of 2, how much power is in the carrier of a 1000-watt FM

transmitter?
C. 48.4 watts D. 484 watts
32. At a modulation index of 2, how much power is in the first pair of sidebands of
a 1000-watt FM transmitter?
33. ______ is the span of frequencies over which the PLL can remain locked and
track a signal.
A. Acquire range B. Track range
C. Capture range D. Tune-in range
34. At a modulation index of 2, how much power is in the fifth pair of sidebands of
a 1000-watt FM transmitter?
A. 100 mW B. 400 mW
C. 200 mW D. 800 mW
35. Using Carson's rule, what is the approximate bandwidth of an FM signal with a
modulation index of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz signal?
A. 15 kHz B. 10 kHz
C. 30 kHz D. 45 kHz
36. Determine the deviation ratio and bandwidth for the worst case modulation
index for an FM broadcast-band transmitter.
A. 75, 240 kHz B. 15, 200 kHz
C. 5, 240 kHz D. 5, 1500 kHz
37. For PM modulator,

A. changes would occur in the phase of the output frequency in respect to
changes in the amplitude of the input voltage
B. changes would occur in the phase of the input frequency in respect to
changes in the amplitude of the input voltage
C. changes would occur in the phase of the output frequency in respect to
changes in the amplitude of the output voltage
D. changes would occur in the phase of the input frequency in respect to
changes in the amplitude of the output voltage
38. If a frequency modulator produces 5 kHz of frequency deviation for a 10-V

modulating signal, determine how much frequency deviation is produced for a 2
V modulating signal.
C. 0.5 kHz D. 1 kHz
39. Capture range is also known as

A. Lock range B. Tune-in range
C. Acquire range D. Track range
40. Determine the voltage at the output of a phase comparator with a transfer
function of 0.5 V/rad and a phase error of 0.75 rad.
A. 0.75V B. 3.73V
C. 0.373V D. 0.73V
41. Determine the percent modulation for a TV broadcast station with a maximum
deviation of 50 kHz when the modulating signal produces 40 kHz at the
antenna.
A. 70% B. 80%
C. 60% D. 90%
42. For FM modulator,

A. changes would occur in the input frequency in respect to changes in the
amplitude of the output voltage
B. changes would occur in the output frequency in respect to changes in the
amplitude of the input voltage
C. changes would occur in the input frequency in respect to changes in the
amplitude of the input voltage
D. changes would occur in the output frequency in respect to changes in the
amplitude of the output voltage
43. The transmitter technique adopted to reduce the noise effect in FM system.
A. pre-emphasis B. antinoise
C. noise masking D. noise killing
44. De-emphasis the receiver in the effect attenuates modulating signal

components and the noise in what frequency range?
A. low B. intermediate
C. DC D. high
45. Determine the modulation index of a standard FM broadcast having a

hypothetical maximum carrier frequency deviation of + 12 kHz and a maximum
modulating frequency of 4 kHz. April 2003
A. 6 B. 5
C. 3/2 D. 3
46. In FM the carrier deviation is determined by ______.

A. modulating frequency B. modulating phase
C. modulating voltage D. all of the above
47. A frequency doubler has an FM signal input at 13 MHz with a deviation of 5

kHz. The output frequency of the carrier will be ______.
A. 260 kHz B. 260 MHz
C. 26 kHz D. 26 MHz
48. In phase modulation, the modulation index is proportional to ______.

A. signal strength B. carrier frequency
C. carrier voltage D. modulating frequency
49. Determine the change in frequency for a VCO with a transfer function of 4
kHz/V and a dc input voltage change of 1.2Vp.
A. 4.8 kHz B. 0.333 kHz
C. 3.33 kHz D. 0.48 kHz
50. In PM system,
A. the modulation index is proportional to the amplitude and frequency of the
modulating signal, independent of its phase
B. the modulation index is proportional to the amplitude of the modulating
signal, independent of its frequency
C. the modulation index is proportional to the phase and frequency of the
modulating signal, independent of its amplitude
D. the modulation index is proportional to the phase deviation of the
modulating signal, independent of its phase
51. What is the modulation index of an FM transmitter whose frequency deviation is

50 kHz, while its actual frequency is 10 kHz? April 1999
A. 100 B. 5
C. 0.5 D. 3
52. A FM wave has bandwidth of 160 kHz and modulation index of 7.5, the
frequency deviation will be ______.
A. 115 kHz B. 75 MHz
C. 70.5 kHz D. 115 MHz
53. For an FM modulator with a peak frequency deviation of 10 kHz, a modulating-

signal frequency of 110 kHz, and a 500 kHz carrier, determine the approximate
bandwidth using Carsons rule.
A. 40 kHz B. 0.40 kHz
C. 4 kHz D. 420 kHz
54. In frequency modulation for a given frequency deviation, the modulation varies
______.
A. inversely as the modulating frequency
B. directly as the modulating frequency
C. independent of modulating frequency
D. all of the above
55. Determine the carrier swing for an FM modulator with a deviation sensitivity of
4 kHz/V and a modulating signal of 10sin(22000t).
A. 40 kHz B. 75 kHz
C. 80 kHz D. 20 kHz
56. ______ is the range of frequencies over which the VCO can lock onto a new
signal.
A. Track range B. Hold-in range
C. Capture range D. Lock range
57. In a FM signal, the power______.

A. increases as modulation index increases
B. reduces as modulation index increases
C. remains constant even when modulation index varies
D. none of the above
58. In FM system, the maximum frequency deviation occurs during the _____.
A. maximum positive of the modulating signal
B. maximum negative peaks of the modulating signal
C. maximum positive and negative peaks of the modulating signal
D. zero crossing of the modulating signal
59. The carrier swing necessary to provide 80% modulation in the FM broadcasting
band is ______. April 2003 & March 1996
A. 120 kHz B. 200 kHz
C. 150 kHz D. 180 kHz
60. The frequency signal in phase modulated signal is proportional to ______.

A. only amplitude of the modulating signal
B. only frequency of modulating signal
C. amplitude as well as frequency of the modulating signal
61. Calculate the approximate break frequency for FM broadcast band pre-
emphasis circuit.
A. 0.212 kHz B. 2.12 kHz
C. 21.2 kHz D. 212 kHz
62. In FM, the frequency deviation is ______.

A. proportional to modulating frequency
B. proportional to amplitude of modulating signal
C. constant
D. directly proportional to amplitude and inversely proportional to modulating
frequency

63. For an FM broadcast station, the maximum deviation produced by audio

modulation is 45 KHz. The percent modulation is ______.
A. 100 B. 10
C. 60 D. 45
64. The frequency of the stereo subcarrier signal in FM broadcasting is______.

A. 19 kHz B. 50 kHz
C. 38 kHz D. 67 kHz
65. A particular circuit that rids FM of noise.

A. discriminator B. limiter
C. detector D. phase shifter
66. What approximate frequency deviation will produce a 150 kHz of available
bandwidth for a 10 kHz modulating signal?
A. 75 kHz B. 55 kHz
C. 65 kHz D. 85 kHz
67. The FM modulation index:

A. increases with both deviation and modulation frequency
B. increases with deviation and decreases with modulation frequency
C. decreases with deviation and increases with modulation frequency
D. is equal to twice the deviation
68. One way to derive FM from PM is:

A. integrate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator
B. integrate the signal out of the PM oscillator
C. differentiate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator
D. differentiate the signal out of the PM oscillator
69. The bandwidth of an FM signal is considered to be limited because:

A. there can only be a finite number of sidebands
B. it is equal to the frequency deviation
C. it is band-limited at the receiver
D. the power in the outer sidebands is negligible
70. In FM system,
A. the modulation index is proportional to the frequency deviation of the
modulating signal and inversely proportional to the amplitude and
frequency of the modulating signal
B. the modulation index is proportional to the phase deviation of the
modulating signal and inversely proportional to the amplitude and phase of
the modulating signal
C. the modulation index is proportional to the amplitude of the modulating
signal and inversely proportional to the frequency of the modulating signal
D. the modulation index is proportional to the frequency of the modulating
signal and inversely proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal
71. Mathematically, the calculation of FM bandwidth requires the use of:

A. fractals B. Bessel functions
C. Taylor series D. ordinary trigonometry and algebra
72. FM bandwidth can be approximated by:

A. Armstrong's Rule B. Bessel's Rule
C. Carson's Rule D. none of the above
73. Calculate the carrier swing necessary to provide 80% modulation using the FCC
standards in the FM broadcast band.
A. 140 kHz B. 110 kHz
C. 120 kHz D. 130 kHz
74. An FM receiver switching suddenly between two stations on nearby frequencies

is called:
A. the capture effect B. the threshold effect
C. the "two-station" effect D. none of the above
75. In PM system, the maximum frequency deviation occurs during the _____.
A. maximum positive of the modulating signal
B. maximum negative peaks of the modulating signal
C. maximum positive and negative peaks of the modulating signal
D. zero crossing of the modulating signal
76. Pre-emphasis is used to:

A. increase the signal to noise ratio for higher audio frequencies
B. increase the signal to noise ratio for lower audio frequencies
C. increase the signal to noise ratio for all audio frequencies
D. allow stereo audio to be carried by FM stations
77. A pre-emphasis of 75 s refers to:

A. the time it takes for the circuit to work
B. the "dead time" before de-emphasis occurs
C. the time delay between the L and R channels
D. the time-constant of the filter circuits used
78. FM stereo:
A. uses DSBSC AM modulation
B. is implemented using an SCA signal
C. has a higher S/N than mono FM
D. is not compatible with mono FM
79. An SCA signal:

A. can use amplitude modulation B. can use FM modulation
C. is monaural D. all of the above
80. The modulation index of an FM signal can be determined readily:

A. using measurements at points where J0 equals one
B. using measurements at points where J0 equals zero
C. using measurements at points where the deviation equals zero
D. only by using Bessel functions
81. The standard FM broadcast band ______.

A. starts at 88 kHz and ends at 108 kHz
B. starts at 535 kHz and ends at 1605 kHz
C. starts at 535 MHz and ends at 1605 MHz
D. starts at 88 MHz and ends at 108 MHz

82. ______ is the amount of frequency shifts that occurs when it is acted on by a
modulating signal.
A. frequency drift B. carrier swing
C. frequency deviation D. carrier tolerance
83. Phase deviation is the amount of phase shifts that occurs when it is acted on by a
_______.
A. noise B. temperature variation
C. carrier signal D. modulating signal
84. Direct Phase Modulation is an angle modulation scheme in which the _______
of a constant-amplitude carrier is varied in proportion to the _______ of the
modulating signal at a rate equal to the frequency of the _______ signal.
A. phase, amplitude, carrier B. amplitude, phase, carrier
C. phase, amplitude, modulating D. amplitude, phase, modulating
85. In FM system,
A. the instantaneous frequency deviation is inversely proportional to the
amplitude of the modulation signal and inversely proportional to its
frequency
B. the instantaneous frequency deviation is directly proportional to the
frequency of the modulation signal and inversely proportional to its
amplitude
C. the instantaneous frequency deviation is directly proportional to the
amplitude of the modulation signal and inversely proportional to its
frequency
D. the instantaneous frequency deviation is directly proportional to the
frequency of the modulation signal and directly proportional to its
amplitude
86. If a 10-volt signal causes a frequency shift of 20 kHz, then a 20-volt signal will
cause a frequency shift of how many kHz?
A. 5 B. 20
C. 200 D. 40
87. If a 5-volt signal causes a phase shift of 40, then a 20-volt signal causes a
phase shift of how many degrees?
A. 2.5 B. 5
C. 160 D. 80
88. ______ is the difference between the maximum positive and negative deviation
of the carrier in Hz.
A. Carrier Range B. Carrier swing
C. Frequency deviation D. Dynamic range
89. The ratio of actual frequency deviation to the maximum frequency deviation
allowed by law stated in percent form.
A. deviation ratio B. efficiency
C. percent modulation D. percent deviation
90. The worst case modulation index and is equal to the maximum peak frequency
deviation divided by the maximum modulating signal frequency.
A. Deviation factor B. Carrier deviation
C. Deviation Ratio D. Frequency index
91. An FM signal, 2000sin(2x108t+2sinx104t), is applied to a 50- antenna.

Determine the carrier frequency and transmitted power.
A. fc=100 MHz, Pt=40 kW B. fc=110 MHz, Pt=50 kW
C. fc=150 MHz, Pt=60 kW D. fc=180 MHz, Pt=70 kW
92. Decreasing the input frequency to a locked PLL will cause the VCO output to
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain constant
D. Jump to the free-running frequency
93. An FM signal, 2000sin(2x108t+2sinx104t), is applied to a 50- antenna.

Determine the modulation index, modulating frequency and BW.
A. mfm=0.2, fm=2 kHz, BW=28 kHz
B. mfm=2, fm=1 kHz, BW=25 kHz
C. mfm=1.2, fm=1 kHz, BW=25 kHz
D. mfm=2, fm=5 kHz, BW=30 kHz
94. The range of frequencies over which a PLL will track input signal variations is
known as
A. Circuit bandwidth B. Capture range
C. Band of acceptance D. Lock range
95. An FM receiver provides 100 dB of voltage gain prior to the limiter. Calculate
the receivers sensitivity if the limiters quieting voltage is 300mV.
A. Sensitivity=3 V B. Sensitivity=4 V
C. Sensitivity=5 V D. Sensitivity=6 V
96. Which of the following frequency demodulators requires an input limiter?

A. Foster-Seeley discriminator B. Pulse-averaging discriminator
C. Quadrature detector D. PLL
97. If an FM transmitter employs one doubler, one tripler, and one quadrupler,
what is the carrier frequency swing when the oscillator frequency swing is 2
kHz?
A. CS=22 kHz B. CS=33 kHz
C. CS=48 kHz D. CS=66 kHz
98. Over a narrow range of frequencies, the PLL acts like a

A. Low-pass filter B. Bandpass filter
C. Tunable oscillator D. Frequency modulator
99. A certain FM receiver provides a voltage gain of 200,000 (106 dB) prior to its
limiter. The limiters quieting voltage gain is 200 mV. Determine the receivers
sensitivity.
A. Vsensitivity=0.1 V B. Vsensitivity=1 V
C. Vsensitivity=10 V D. Vsensitivity=100 V

100. A PLL is set up such that its VCO free-runs at 10-MHz. The VCO does not
change frequency until the input is within 50 kHz of 10 MHz. After that
condition, the VCO follows the input to +200 kHz of 10 MHz before the VCO
starts to free-run again. Determine the lock range and capture range of the
PLL.
A. fcap=50 kHz, flock=200 kHz B. fcap=150 kHz, flock=400 kHz
C. fcap=100 kHz, flock=400 kHz D. fcap=250 kHz, flock=500 kHz
101. Both FM and PM are types of what kind of modulation?

A. Amplitude B. Phase
C. Angle D. Duty cycle
102. The local FM stereo rock station is at 96.5 MHz. Calculate the local oscillator
frequency and the image frequency for a 10.7 MHz IF receiver.
A. LO= 105.7 MHz, IMAGE=127.9 MHz
B. LO= 107.2 MHz, IMAGE=117.9 MHz
C. LO= 105.2 MHz, IMAGE=117.9 MHz
D. LO= 107.2 MHz, IMAGE=127.9 MHz
103. Which discriminator averages pulses in a low-pass filter?

A. Ratio detector B. PLL
C. Quadrature detector D. Foster-Seeley discriminator
104. Which frequency demodulator is considered the best overall?

A. Radio detector B. PLL
C. Quadrature D. Pulse-averaging discriminator
105. In a pulse-averaging discriminator, the pulses are produced by a(n)

A. Astable multivibrator B. One shot multivibrator
C. Zero-crossing detector D. Low-pass filter
106. Determine the worst-case output S/N for a narrowband FM receiver with
max=10 kHz and a maximum intelligence frequency of 3 kHz. The input S/N is
3:1.
A. S/N=5 B. S/N=10
C. S/N=20 D. S/N=30
107. What is the frequency swing of an FM broadcast transmitter when modulated

60%?
A. +15 kHz B. +25 kHz
C. +35 kHz D. +45 kHz
108. An FM transmitter delivers, to a 75- antenna, a signal of

( )
= 1000 sin 109 t + 4 sin104 t . Calculate the modulation index, deviation, and BW.
A. m=2, =5.37 kHz, BW=8 kHz
B. m=4, =6.37 kHz, BW=16 kHz
C. m=6, =6.37 kHz, BW=24 kHz
D. m=8, =4.37 kHz, BW=32 kHz
109. An FM demodulator that uses a differential amplifier and tuned circuits to

convert frequency variations into voltage variations is the
A. Quadrature detector B. Foster-Seeley discriminator
C. Differential peak detector D. Pulse-locked loop
110. Determine the permissible range in maximum modulation index for

commercial FM that has 30 Hz to 15 kHz modulating frequencies.
A. m=5 to 2500 B. m=5 to 500
C. m=2.5 to 250 D. m=25 to 2500
111. Determine the worst case output S/N for a broadcast FM program that has a
maximum intelligence frequency of 5 kHz. The input S/N is 2.
A. S/N=10 B. S/N=20
C. S/N=30 D. S/N=40
112. The band of frequencies over which a PLL will acquire or recognize an input
signal is called the
A. Capture range B. Circuit bandwidth
C. Band of acceptance D. Lock range
113. Which oscillators are preferred for carrier generators because of their good
frequency stability?
A. LC B. RC
C. LR D. Crystal
114. Calculate the amount of frequency deviation caused by a limited noise spike
that still causes undesired phase shift of 35 when the intelligence frequency
(fi) is 5 kHz.
A. 1.05 kHz B. 2.05 kHz
C. 3.05 kHz D. 4.05 kHz
115. In a broadcast FM system, the input S/N=4. Calculate the worst-case S/N at
the output of the receivers internal noise effect is negligible.
A. S/N=16.8:1 B. S/N=17.8:1
C. S/N=18.8:1 D. S/N=19.8:1

1-94 NOISE ANALYSIS and dB calculations
Section Noise Analysis Read it

till it
4 and dB Calculations Hertz!
DEFINITION. Noise: Any undesirable energy that falls within the

passband of wanted signal.
DEFINITION. Interference: Is a form of external noise and happens when

information signal from source produce frequencies that fall outside their
allocated bandwidth and interfere with information signal from another source.
DEFINITION. Distortion: The alteration of information in which the original

proportions are changed, resulting from a defect in communication system.
NOISE ANALYSIS
A. .2 GENERAL CLASSIFICATIONS.
1. Correlated Noise
Correlated noise is noise that is correlated to the signal and cannot be
present in a circuit unless there is an input signal present.
2. Uncorrelated Noise
Noise that is present regardless of whether there is a signal present or
not.
B. .TYPES OF CORRELATED NOISE.
1. Harmonic distortion
Results when unwanted harmonics of a signal are produced through
non-linear amplification (mixing).
higher
%THD = X100%
fun
where:
%THD = %Total Harmonic Distortion
higher = Quadratic sum of the r.m.s. harmonics
= 22 + 23 + ... n2
fun = rms voltage of the fundamental frequency
Sample Problem:
Calculate the total harmonic distortion if the %2nd order and %3rd order are
2.5% and 1.25 % respectively and fundamental amplitude of 8 V.
Solution:
2 3
%2 nd Order = X100 %3 rd Order = X100
f f
2 3
2 .5 % = x 100 1 . 25 % = x 100
8 8
2 = 0 .2 V 3 = 0 .1 V
0.2 2 + 0.1 2
%THD = X100
8
= 2.795%
Answer : 2.795%
2. Intermodulation distortion
Results when unwanted sum and difference frequencies are generated
when two or more signals are amplified in a non-linear device.

C. .TYPES OF UNCORRELATED NOISE.
1. External
Noise that is generated outside the device or circuit.
i. Atmospheric noise - A naturally occurring electrical disturbance

that originate within the Earths atmosphere.
ii. Extra-terrestrial noise - Noise that consists of electrical signals

that originate from outside Earths atmosphere.
a. Solar noise - Noise generated directly from the suns activity.
b. Cosmic noise - Noise that originate from nearby stars, and

galaxies.
iii. Man-made noise - Noise generated by mankind.
iv. Impulse noise - Consist of sudden burst of irregularly shaped

pulses that generally last between a few microseconds and a
fraction of a millisecond.
2. Internal
Electrical interference generated within a device or circuit.
i. Shot noise - Shot noise is a random fluctuation that accompanies

any direct current crossing a potential barrier caused by the
random arrival of carrier at the output element of electronic
devices.
ii. Partition noise - Partition noise occurs wherever current has to

divide between two or more electrodes and results from the
random fluctuation in the division.
iii. Flicker noise - Flicker Noise is associated with crystal surface

defects in semiconductor and also found in vacuum tubes. Flicker
noise is almost exactly 1/f for low frequency. It is often referred
to as pink noise because most of the power is concentrated at the
lower end of the frequency spectrum.
iv. Burst noise - Burst noise is another low frequency noise that
seems to be associated with heavy-metal ion contamination. Burst
noise produce popping sound if amplified in an audio system,
hence the name popcorn noise or 1/f2.
v. Transit-time noise - Transit time noise occurs when the time taken
by charge carrier to cross a junction is comparable to the period of
the signal.
vi. Thermal noise - Thermal noise is associated with the rapid and
random movement of electrons within a conductor due to thermal
agitation.
Thermal noise is known in several names such as
Brownian noise after its discoverer Robert Brown.
Johnson noise after the man who related Brownian particle

movement to electron movement.
White noise because thermal noise is equally distributed throughout

the frequency spectrum, which is analogous to white light, which
contains all visible frequencies.
Gaussian noise because thermal noise exhibit a Gaussian

distribution.
NOISE CALCULATIONS
A. .NOISE POWER & SPECTRUM DENSITY.
PN = kTB SN = kT
where:
PN = noise power in W
SN = noise spectrum density in W/Hz
k = Boltzmann's constant (1.38 x 10-23 J/K)
B = bandwidth in Hertz
T = ambient temperature in K

Sample Problem:
Calculate the spectrum density and thermal noise power for a certain
communication system with an IF bandwidth of 10.7 MHz.
Solution:
For Spectrum Density For Noise Power
SN = kT = (1.38 x 10 23 ) x 290 PN = kTB = SN x B
= 4 x 10 21 W = (4 x 10 21) x 10.7 MHz
Hz
= 4.28 x 1014 W
Answer: SN = 4 x 1021 W , PN = 4.28 x 10 14 W

Hz
B. .NOISE VOLTAGE ANALYSIS.
VN = 4kTBnR L
where:
VN = noise voltage in V
RL = load resistor in
C. .ADDITION OF NOISE DUE TO SEVERAL SOURCES.
2 2 2 2
Vn(total) = Vn(1) + Vn(2) + Vn(3) + ...Vn(N)
where:
Vn(total) = total noise voltage in V

An amplifier operating over a 5 MHz bandwidth has a 100 ohms input resistance.
It is operating at 27 degrees Celsius, has a voltage gain of 200 and an input
signal of 6 Vrms. Calculate the output rms noise.
Solution:
Vn(input) = 4KTBNR t
= 4(1.38 x10 23 )(27 + 273)(5 x10 6 )(100)

= 2.88 Vrms
Vn(output) = A x Vn(input) = 200 x 2.88 V = 5.76 Vrms
Vn(output)rms = 5.76 Vrms

The resistor R1 and R2 are connected in series at 300 oK and 400 oK
temperatures respectively. If R1 is 200 and R2 is 300, find the power
produced at the load (RL = 500) over a bandwidth of 100 kHz.
Solution:
Vn(total) = Vn(1)2 + Vn(2)2 = 4kB{T1R 1 + T2R 2 }
= 4(1.38 x 10 23 )(100 x 103 ){(300 x 200) + (400 x 300)} = 996.8 nV

2
996.8 nV
Vn(rms)2
=
2
Pn(load) = = 0.496 fW
2R L 2(500)
D. .CASCADED AMPLIFIER.

1. Equivalent Noise Resistance (Req)
R2 R3 RN
R eq = R1 + + +
A12 A12 A22 A12 A22 AN
2
1
Sample Problem:
The first stage of a two-stage amplifier has a voltage gain of 10, a 600-
input resistor, a 1600- equivalent noise resistance and a 27k output
resistor. For the 2nd stage, these values are 25, 81k, 10k and 1M,
respectively. Calculate the equivalent input-noise resistance.
Solution:
For R 1
R1 = R IN1 + R eq1 = 600 + 1600
= 2.2 k
For R 2
R OUT1 x R IN2 27 x 81
R2 = + R eq2 = + 10
R OUT1 + R IN2 27 + 81
= 30.2 k
For R 3
R3 = 1 M
For R eq
R2 R3
R eq = R1 + +
A12 A12 A22
30.2 k 1 M
= 2.2 k + +
102 102 x 252
= 2518
Answer : 2.518 k
2. Equivalent Noise Temperature (Teq)
Te2 Te3 TeN

Teq = Te1 + + +
A12 A12 A 22 A12 A22 A 2N1
E. .NOISE IN REACTIVE CIRCUITS.
1. Noise Voltage (VN)
VN = 4KTBNR D
Q
RD = = Q0L = Q2r
0 C
where:
R D = dynamic resistance in
Q = quality factor
0 = angular frequency in rad
C = capacitance in Farad
L = coil inductance in Henry
r = coil resistance in

Sample Problem:
A parallel tuned circuit at the input of a radio receiver is tuned to resonate at
125 MHz by a capacitance 23.5 pF. The Q-factor of the circuit is 40 and with
a channel bandwidth of the receiver limited to 10 kHz by the audio sections.
Determine the effective noise voltage of this radio receiver tuned circuit.
Solution:
For the Dynamic Impedance
Q 40
RD = =
0C 2 (125 x 106 ) (23.5 x 1012 )
= 2.17 k
For Noise Voltage
VN = 4kTBRD
= 4 (1.38 x 1023 ) (17 + 273) (10 x 103 ) (2.17 x 103 )

= 0.589 V
Answer : 0.589 V
F. .SHOT NOISE CURRENT.

w h e re :
I N = s h o t n o is e c u rre n t in A
q = c h a rg e o f s in g le e le c tro n
IN = 2qI 0B
= 1 .6 x 1 0 - 1 9 C
I 0 = d c b ia s c u rre n t in A
B n = n o is e b a n d w id th in H z

A diode noise generator is required to produce 10 V of noise in a receiver
with an input impedance of 75 , resistive, and a noise power bandwidth of
200 kHz. What must the current through the diode be?
Solution:
For Noise Current For Diode Current
V 10 V IN = 2qI0B
IN = N =
R 75
= 0.133 A IN2 (0.133 A)2
I0 = =
2qB 2 (1.6 x 1019 C) (200 x 103 )
= 276 mA
G. .SIGNAL-to-NOISE POWER RATIO.
1. Ideal case
S S
=
N out N in
2. Practical case
S ApSin
N = A N + N

out p in int ernal
Small Signal-to-Noise Ratio
NOISE SIGNAL + NOISE

SIGNAL
Large Signal-to-Noise Ratio
SIGNAL NOISE SIGNAL + NOISE

H. .NOISE FACTOR & NOISE FIGURE.
1. Noise Factor (F)

Figure of merit used to indicate how much the signal-to-noise ratio
deteriorates as a signal passes trough a circuit or series of circuit.
( NS )IN
F= S
( N ) OUT
2. Noise Figure (NF)
Noise factor expressed in dB
NF = 10 logF

A transistor has a measured S/N power of 100 at its input and 20 at its output.
Determine the noise figure of the transistor.
Solution:
()
S
N in 100
NFdB = 10 log
()
S
N ou
= 10 log
20
7 dB
For Cascaded Network
FRIISS Formula Total S/N Ratio
F2 1 F3 1 Fn 1 S S
FT = F1 + + + ... N = N 10 logn
A1 A1 A 2 A1 A 2 ...A n 1 T 1
3. Equivalent Noise Temperature (Teq)

The absolute temperature of a resistor that, connected to the input of
a noiseless amplifier of the same gain, would produce the same noise
at the output of a real amplifier.
Teq = Ta (F 1) F = Noise Factor

Ta = Ambient Temperature in K

A 3-stage amplifier is to have an overall noise temperature no greater than
70 degrees K. The overall gain of the amplifier is to be at least 45 dB. The
amplifier is to be built by adding a low-noise first stage to an existing
amplifier with existing characteristics as follows: Stage 2 has 20 dB power
gain; 3 dB noise figure. Stage 3 has 15 dB power gain and 6 dB noise
figure. Calculate the maximum noise figure (in dB) that the first stage can
have.
Solution:
A1 = A T (A2 + A3 ) = 45 (20 + 15)

= 10 dB
Teq 70
FT = 1 + =1+ = 1.24
Ta 290
F 1 F3 1
F1 = FT 2 +
A1 A1 A2
2 1 4 1
= 1.24 +
10 10 x100
NF1 = 10 log F1 = 0.56 dB
Answer :0.56 dB

4. Equivalent Noise Resistance (Req)
F = Noise Factor
R eq = R a (F 1)
R a = Antenna Resistance in
5. Relation between Equivalent Noise Temperature & Equivalent Noise

Resistance
Teq R eq
=
Ta Ra
NOISE LEVEL CALCULATIONS
A. .DECIBEL & NEPER.
1. Decibel (dB)
A unit of measure (abbreviated dB) originally used to compare sound
intensities and subsequently electrical or electronic power outputs;
now also used to compare voltages. An increase of 10 dB is equivalent
to a 10-fold increase in intensity or power, and a 20-fold increase in
voltage.
2. Neper (Np)
A transmission unit used in Northern European countries originally
used to express the attenuation of current along a transmission line,
using natural logarithm.
P I
dB = 10 log 1 Np = ln 1
P2 I2
Relation between decibel & Neper
1Neper = 8.686 dB 1 dB = 0.115 Neper

B. .NOISE MEASUREMENT LEVEL & UNITS.
1. Relative Level Point (RLP)

i. For two-wire switching systems, the sending end terminals of a
long distance have been long considered to be at a point of zero
relative level.
ii. For four-wire switching, these are theoretical points; the CCITT
adopted a relative level of -3.5 dBr (0dBr) for the sending end of a
four-wire circuit. In American system, -2 dBr (0 dBr) is widely
used).
2. Transmission Level Point (TLP)

The American term for relative level point.
3. 0 dBr
Any point in a circuit with the same relative level as the sending
terminal is a point of zero relative level 0 dBr.
4. 0 TLP
Zero transmission level point (0 TLP) is the point at which the test
tone level should be 0 dBm.
Relation between 0 TLP and 0 dBr
0 TLP = 0 dBr
5. dBm
dBm is the dB in reference to 1 mW.
6. dBm0
An absolute unit of power in dBm measured at or referred to a point of
0 TLP.
Relation between dBm0 and dBm
dBm0 = dBm 0 TLP ( 0 dBr )

Sample Problem:
Calculate the strength of a signal in dBmO if it has an absolute power level
of -27 dBm at -24 dBm TLP.
Solution:
Note that 0 dBr = 0 TLP
dBm 0 = dBm dBr

= dBm TLP
= 27 dBm ( 24 dBm TLP )
= 3 dBm 0
Answer : 3 dBm 0
7. dBrn
dBrn is the unit of measurement of noise power used in the Western
Electric 144-type handset with a sensitivity of -90 dBm at 1000 Hz.
8. dBrn0
dBrn0 relates noise power reading in dBrn to 0 TLP to establish a
common reference point throughout the system.
Relation between dBrn0 and dBrn
dBrn0 = dBrn 0 TLP ( 0 dBr )
9. dBa
Subsequent to the 144 handset, the Western Electric developed the
F1A handset that is 5 dB less sensitive (-85 dBm at 1000 Hz) to the
older handset (144-type). The noise measurement unit was the dBa.
10. dBa0
dBa0 relates noise power reading in dBa to 0 TLP to establish a
Relation between dBa0 and dBa
dBa0 = dBa 0 TLP ( 0 dBr )

11. dBrnC
A third more sensitive handset unit was developed by Western Electric
(500-type) giving rise to the C-message line weighting curve and its
companion unit, the dBrnC.
12. dBrnC0
dBrnC0 relates noise power reading in dBrnC to 0 TLP to establish a
Relation between dBrnC0 and dBrnC
dBrnC0 = dBrnC 0 TLP ( 0 dBr )

When measuring a voice channel at a -4 dB test point level, the meter reads -76
dBm. Calculate the reading in dBrnCO.
Solution:
dBrnC 0 = dBrnC 0 TLP dBrnC = dBm + 90
= dBm + 90 0 TLP
= 76 + 90 (4)
= 18 dBrnC 0
Sample Problem:
A 1 kHz tone has a level of 70 dBrnC at a point that is 9 dB TLP. What
would be the maximum C-message weighted noise level at the 0 TLP for a
signal-to-noise ratio of 30 dB?
Solution:
dBrnC 0 = dBrnC 0 TLP
= 70 ( 9 )
= 79 signal level in dBrnC0
S
= SdBrnC 0 NdBrnC 0
N dB
30 dB = 79 NdBrnC 0
N = 49 dBrnC 0
Answer : 49 dBrnC 0

13. dBmp
The CCITT weighting unit for commercial circuit which is nominally
identical to the American F1A weighting unit.
14. dBm0p
dBmp0p relates noise power reading in dBmp to 0 TLP to establish a
Relation between dBmp and dBmp0p
dBm0p = dBmp 0 TLP ( 0 dBr )
Sample Problem:
A -42 dBmp of noise at a -5 dBr point would be reported as ____ dBm0p.
Solution:
dBm 0p = dBmp 0 TLP (0 dBr )
= 42 ( 5)
= 35
Answer : 35 dBm 0p
15. pWp
The unit of noise power measured with the CCITT recommended
psophometer. The reference tone is -90 dBm (1 picowatt) at 800 Hz.
16. pWp0
pWp0 relates noise power reading in pWp to 0 TLP to establish a
Relation between pWp and pWp0
pWp0 = 10 logpWp 0 TLP ( 0 dBr )

C. .NORTH AMERICAN STANDARD.
Weighting Reference Reference Noise

Handset
Curve Frequency Level Unit
144 type 144-Line
1000 Hz -90 dBm dBrn
Handset Weighting
F1A type F1A-Line

1000 Hz -85 dBm dBa
Handset Weighting
500 type C-message -90 dBm

1000 Hz dBrnC
Handset Weighting (retained)
D. .EUROPEAN STANDARD (CCITT).
Weighting Reference Reference

Noise Unit
Curve Frequency Level
Psophometric
800 Hz -90 dBm dBmp & pWp
Weighting
dBrn correspond to dB above reference noise.
dBa correspond to dB adjusted.
dBrnC correspond to dB above reference noise using C-message line

weighting.
dBmp correspond to dB psophometrically weighted.
pWp correspond to picowatts psophometrically weighted.
A 3000 Hz of white noise (not weighted) is attenuated by 8 dB when

measured by 144 weighting network, 3 dB using F1A weighting, 2 dB
using C-message weighting, and 2.5 dB for psophometric weighting.

E. .NOISE LEVEL COMPUTATIONS.
1. Pure Test Tone
Handset Type General Solution
144 Handset dBrn = dBm + 90

F1A Handset dBa = dBm + 85
500 type Handset dBrnC = dBm + 90
Relation between dBrnC & dBa
dBrnC = dBa + 5
Sample Problem:
A 1 kHz test tone is inserted at a local loop with an amplitude of +4 dBm
and is transmitted towards the central office. In this direction the loop has a
level of +10 dB TLP, because the signal will be attenuated as it moves
towards the central office (about 5 dB). Express the level of the tone in
dBrnCO.
Solution:
dBrnC = dBm + 90 dBrnC0 = dBrnC 0 TLP
= 4 + 90 = 94 10 dB
= 94 = 84
And since the signal will be attenuated on its way to the C.O.
dBrnC 0 = 84 5 dB
= 79
Answer : 79 dBrnC 0
2. 3 kHz White Noise (Random Noise)
Handset Type General Solution
144 Handset dBrn = dBm + 90
F1A Handset dBa = dBm + 82
500 type Handset dBrnC = dBm + 88
Relation between dBrnC & dBa
dBrnC = dBa + 6
F. .VOLUME UNIT COMPUTATIONS.
The VU or volume unit is a unit used to measure the power level (volume)
of program channels (broadcast) and certain types of speech or music.
Approximate Talker Power in dBm
Pt(dBm) = VU 1.4

Calculate the approximate talker power in dBm for a complex signal with VU
meter readout of 5 VU.
Solution:
Pt(dBm) = 5 1.4 = 3.6 dBm

I H
1. A deep space communications system dish antenna receives a signal from a
space satellite with -100 dBm of power. The special pre-amplifer boosts this by
50 dB, and another pre-amplifier boosts it an additional 40 dB. Further
amplifier stages add 20, 25, and 10 dB to the signal. What is the signal level,
in mW, after the last stage?
A. 28.525 W B. 8.12 W
C. 31.6 W D. 60.8 W
2. Calculate the input S/N for an amplifier with an equivalent noise resistance of
300, equivalent shot noise current of 5 A if the amplifier is fed from a 150,
10 V rms sinusoidal source over a bandwidth of 10 MHz.
A. 5.71 dB B. 3.568 dB
C. 9.68 dB D. 1.4 dB
3. 0 dBrn is equal to how many dBm at 1000 Hz?

A. 0dBm B. -90 dBm
C. -88 dBm D. -85 dBm
4. The resistor R1 and R2 are connected in series at 300oK and 400oK temperatures
respectively. If R1 is 200 and R2 is 300, find the power produced at the load
(RL = 500) over a bandwidth of 100 kHz. APRIL 2003
A. 0.496 fW B. 5.78 pW
C. 0.15 fW D. 52.48 pW
5. A series of noise measurement was conducted using a voltmeter. If the noise

registered 20 mV six times; -17 mV two times; -35 mV five times; 25 mV three
times and 10 mV four times; determine the rms noise value.
A. 27.82 mVrms B. 48.69 mVrms
C. 16.12 mVrms D. 23.85 mVrms
6. Relates noise power reading (dBrnc) to 0 TLP to establish a common reference

point throughout the system.
A. 0 dBr B. dBrnC0
C. 0 TLP D. 0 dBm
7. An amplifier has an impedance of 50. Using a matched-impedance diode

noise generator, it is found that the DUT (device under test) has doubled noise
output power when the diode has a dc current of 14 mA. Determine the noise
figure for the DUT.
A. 8.25 dB B. 11.46 dB
C. 6.82 dB D. 10.12 dB
8. Determine the noise figure for a non-ideal amplifier with the following
parameters:
Input S/N=80 dB; Power gain=60 dB;
Input Noise=2x10-18 W Internal Noise=6x10-12 W
A. 1.85 dB B. 6 dB
C. 4.65 dB D. 2.5 dB
9. Calculate the total noise voltage at the input and the input S/N ratio in dB for
an amplifier with an equivalent noise resistance of 300, and the equivalent
shot noise current is 5 A. The amplifier is fed from a 150, 10 V rms
sinusoidal source and the noise BW is 10 MHz.
A. VN=12.34V, S/N=1.4 dB B. VN=12.34V, S/N=26.4 dB
C. VN=8.51V, S/N=26.4 dB D. VN=8.51V, S/N=1.4 dB
10. What is the noise unit in C-message weighting curve?

A. dBrn B. dBmp
C. dBrnC D. dBa
11. What is the effect on the signal-to-noise ratio of a system (in dB) if the
bandwidth is doubled, considering all other parameters to remain unchanged
except the normal thermal noise only. The S/N will be____. APRIL 2003
A. S/N ratio is decreased by 1/16 B. S/N ratio is decreased by
C. S/N ratio is decreased by 1/8 D. S/N ratio is decreased by
12. Calculate the approximate talker power in dBm for a complex signal with VU
meter readout of 5 VU.
A. 6.4 dBm B. 3.6 dBm
C. 8.6 dBm D. 1.4 dBm
13. The absolute temperature of a resistor that, connected to the input of a

noiseless amplifier of the same gain, would produce the same noise at the
output of a real amplifier.
A. Ambient noise temperature B. Equivalent noise temperature
C. Room temperature D. Curie temperature
14. Calculate the output signal-to-noise ratio in dB for three identical links, given
that the S/N ratio for any one links is 60 dB.
A. 21.83 dB B. 43.21 dB
C. 55.23 dB D. 18.79 dB
15. Calculate the diodes equivalent voltage if the forward bias current is 1mA over
a 100 kHz bandwidth. (Assume the dynamic resistance of the diode equal to
26mV/Idc)
A. 10.851 Vrms B. 4.25 Vrms
C. 23.56 Vrms D. 0.147 Vrms
16. Calculate the strength of a signal in dBmO if it has an absolute power level of -
27 dBm at -24 dBm TLP.
A. 3dBm0 B. -3dBm0
C. -51 dBm0 D. -24 dBm0

17. Calculate the overall noise figure referred to the input for a mixer stage that
has a noise figure of 20 dB, and this is preceded by an amplifier that has a
noise figure of 9 dB and an available power gain of 15 dB.
A. 9.45 dB B. 10.44 dB
C. 11.78 dB D. 12.56 dB
18. Calculate the noise factor of an attenuator pad that has an insertion loss of 6
dB.
A. 6 B. 8
C. 4 D. 2
19. A diode generator is required to produce 12 microV of noise in a receiver with

an input impedance of 75 ohms and a noise power bandwidth of 200 kHz.
Determine the current through the diode in milliamperes. APRIL 2004
A. 39.8 mA B. 0.398 mA
C. 3.98 mA D. 398 mA
20. Noise that consists of electrical signals that originate from outside Earths
atmosphere.
A. static B. Extra terrestrial noise
C. Pink noise D. Shot noise
21. A 20,000 ohms resistor is at room temperature (290 deg K). Calculate the
threshold noise voltage for a bandwidth of 100 kHz. NOV 2002
A. 56.58 V B. 5658 V
C. 565.8 V D. 5.658 V
22. Calculate the overall noise temperature of the receiving system for a receiver
that has a noise figure of 12 dB, and it is fed by an LNA that has a gain of 50
dB and a noise temperature of 90 K.
A. 90 K B. 76.12 K
C. 122 K D. 43.89 K
23. Consist of sudden burst of irregularly shaped pulses that generally last between
a few microseconds and a fraction of a millisecond.
A. static B. Popcorn noise
C. Impulse noise D. Shot noise
24. A tone measures 80 dBrnC at the output of a four wire central office. What will
it be at a local loop that is 8 dB TLP?
A. 70 dBrnC B. 72 dBrnC
C. 74 dBnrnC D. 18 dBrnC
25. In measurement of noise temperature, an avalanche diode source is used, the

ENR being 14 dB. The measured Y factor is 9 dB. Calculate the equivalent
noise temperature of the amplifier under test.
A. 670 K B. 706 K
C. 760 K D. 607 K
26. Zero transmission level point is the point at which the test tone level should be
0 dBm.
A. 0 dBm B. 0 TLP
C. pWp D. dBmO
27. A single tuned circuit has a Q-factor of 70 and is resonant at 3 MHz with a 470
pF tuning capacitor. Calculate the equivalent noise BW for the circuit.
A. 657.69 Hz B. 67.32 kHz
C. 145.12 kHz D. 538.19 kHz
28. An amplifier with an overall gain of 20 dB is impressed with a signal whose

power level is 1 watt. Calculate the power output in dBm. APRIL 2003
A. 50 dBm B. 62.61 dBm
C. 31.45 dBm D. 45.67 dBm
29. What is the reference level and frequency in F1A-line weighting curve?
A. -85 dBm and 1000 Hz B. -88 dBm and 3000 Hz
C. -85 dBm and 800 Hz D. -90 dBm and 1000 Hz
30. Two resistors rated 5 ohms and 10 ohms are connected in series and are
at 27 degrees Celsius. Calculate their combined thermal noise voltage for a
10 kHz bandwidth. NOV 2003
A. 50 V B. 5 V
C. 0.005 V D. 0.05 V
31. A unit of measure originally used to compare sound intensities and

subsequently electrical or electronic power outputs; now also used to compare
voltages.
A. SPL B. dB
C. Log D. Neper
32. Three telephone circuits, each having an S/N ratio of 44 dB, are connected in
tandem if a fourth circuit is added that has an S/N ratio of 34 dB. Determine
the overall S/N ratio.
A. 32.86 dB B. 41 dB
C. 46.84 dB D. 50 dB
33. The ENR for an avalanche diode is 13 dB. Given that the cold temperature is
equal to room temperature, determine the hot temperature of the source.
A. 612.3 K B. 63,769.3 K
C. 6,076.3 K D. 16,348.3 K
34. A random fluctuation that accompanies any direct current crossing a potential
barrier caused by the random arrival of carrier at the output element of
electronic devices.
A. Shot noise B. Impulse noise
C. Transit-time noise D. Popcorn noise
35. A tone introduced at a -3.5 dBr point with an absolute power level of -18.5
dBm may be referred to as _____ dBm0 signal.
A. -21 B. 75
C. -15 D. 81.5
36. A 3000 Hz white noise is attenuated how many dB when measured by a noise
measurement set using an F1A weighting.
A. 1.5 dB B. 3 dB
C. 5 dB D. 8 dB

37. A three stage amplifier system has a 3-dB bandwidth of 200 kHz, determined
by an LC tuned circuit at its input, and operates at 22C. The first stage has a
power gain if 14 dB and a noise figure of 3 dB. The second and third stages
are identical, with power gains of 20 dB and noise figure of 8 dB. The output
load is 300. The input noise is generated by a 10-k resistor. Calculate the
overall noise figure of the system.
A. 7.29 dB B. 3.45 dB
C. 6.36 dB D. 7.41 dB
38. In measuring noise in a voice channel at -46 dB transmission point level, the
meter reads -70 dBm (F1A weighted), convert the reading into pWp.
A. 100 pWp B. 57 pWP
C. 85 pWP D. 79 pWp
39. An attenuator has a loss of 26 dB. If a power of 3 W is applied to the

attenuator, find the output power. April 2003
A. 12.82 mW B. 17.61 mW
C. 7.54 mW D. 6.28 mW
40. A transmission unit used in Northern European countries originally used to

express the attenuation of current along a transmission line, using natural
logarithm.
A. SPL B. dB
C. Log D. Neper
41. You are measuring a voice channel at a -4 dB transmission point level, the
meter reads -73 dBm (pure test tone) convert the reading into dBrnCO.
A. 16 dBrnCO B. 13 dBrnCO
C. 8 dBrnCO D. 21 dbrnCO
42. Noise, which is characterized by a uniform distribution of energy over the

frequency spectrum and a normal distribution of levels.
A. Pink noise B. Shot noise
C. Gaussian noise D. Mixer noise
43. In a microwave communications system, determine the noise power in dBm for
an equivalent noise bandwidth of 10 MHz. APRIL 2003
A. -121.4 dBm B. -169.28 dBm
C. 117.89 dBm D. -103.98 dBm
44. What is the equivalent signal in dBm for 4 different signals +10 dBm each?
A. 40 dBm B. 4 dBm
C. 16 dBm D. 14 dBm
45. The alteration of information in which the original proportions are changed,
resulting from a defect in communication system.
A. Interference B. Distortion
C. Attenuation D. Noise
46. Determine the shot noise for a diode with a forward bias of 1.40 mA over an 80
kHz bandwidth. (q=1.6x10 raised to minus 19 C). APRIL 2003
A. 0.06 A B. 0.006 A
C. 0.6 A D. 6 A
47. Calculate the strength of a signal in dBa when it is equal to -74 dBrnC.
A. -69 dBa B. 11 dBa
C. -79 dBa D. 16 dBa
48. Results when unwanted harmonics of a signal are produced through non-linear
amplification (mixing).
A. Amplitude distortion B. Pink Noise
C. White noise D. Intermodulation distortion
49. Two resistors, 20k and 50k are at ambient temperature. Calculate for a
bandwidth equal to 100 kHz, the thermal voltage for the two resistors
connected in parallel. Nov 1997
A. 55.12 V B. 15.29 V
C. 4.78 V D. 13.12 V
50. A 10dBmO signal introduce at the 0dBr point (0 TLP) has an absolute value of
signal level of ____?
A. -80 dBm B. -10 dBm
C. -70 dBm D. 0 dBm
51. An absolute unit of power in dBm referred to the 0 TLP.

A. dBm B. dBW0
C. dBm0 D. dBmC
52. A satellite receiving system include a dish antenna with a Teq equal to 35 K is
connected via a coupling network with a Teq of 40 K to a microwave receiver
with a Teq of 52 K referred to its input. What is the noise power to the receivers
input over a 1-MHz frequency range and also determine the receivers noise
figure.
A. 1.75 fW, 0.716 dB B. 17.5 fW, 0.76 dB
C. 0.75 fW, 0.16 dB D. 1.75 fW, 0.16 dB
53. Figure of merit used to indicate how much the signal-to-noise ratio deteriorates
as a signal passes trough a circuit or series of circuit.
A. Noise voltage B. Signal-to-noise ratio
C. Noise factor D. Carrier-to-noise ratio
54. Express the ratio in decibels of power ratio 50 is to 10 Watts. NOV 2002
A. 5.66 dB B. 6.99 dB
C. 3.87 dB D. 8.13 dB
55. Given a noise factor of 10, what is the noise figure in dB? APRIL 2003
A. 10 dB B. 15 dB
C. 16 dB D. 21 dB
56. The equivalent noise resistance for an amplifier is 300, and the equivalent
shot noise current is 5 A. the amplifier is fed from a 150, 10Vrms
sinusoidal signal source. If the noise bandwidth is 10 MHz, calculate the input
S/N ratio in dB.
A. 1.4 dB B. 3.78 dB
C. 4.2 dB D. 10.5 dB

57. 25 dBrnC in C-message weighting is equal to ____ dBa in F1A-line weighting.

A. 25 B. 60
C. 20 D. 65
58. A naturally occurring electrical disturbance that originate within the Earths
atmosphere.
A. Static B. Gaussian Noise
C. Transit-time noise D. Amplitude distortion
59. Calculate the output S/N ratio in dB for three links, the first two of which have
S/N ratios of 45 dB and the third has 40 dB.
A. 31.4 dB B. 37.87 dB
C. 40.2 dB D. 50.5 dB
60. Is another type of low-frequency noise observed in bipolar transistor that

appears as a series of burst at two or more levels. When present in an audio
system, the noise produces popping sounds, and for this reason is also known
as popcorn noise.
A. Impulse noise B. Pink noise
C. Burst noise D. Mixer noise
61. An RF stage uses a single amplifier with 1000 gain that adds 50 V noise, on a
received input signal of 20V+2V noise. Calculate the output signal-to-noise
ratio.
A. 21.4 dB B. 19.8 dB
C. 14.3 dB D. 15.7 dB
62. The signal power of the input to an amplifier is 100 microW and the noise
power is 1 microW. At the output, the signal power is 1W and the noise power
is 40 mW. What is the amplifier noise figure? APRIL 2003
A. 87.5 dB B. 31.67 dB
C. 6.02 dB D. 16.13 dB
63. What is the signal strength of a -18 dBm 1000 Hz tone in dBa?
A. 67 B. 64
C. 72 D. 70
64. An amplifier with 20 dB gain is connected to another with 10 dB gain by means

of a transmission line with a loss of 4 dB; if a signal with a power level of -14
dBm were applied to the system, calculate the power output. APRIL 2003
A. 15 dBm B. 14 dBm
C. 10 dBm D. 12 dBm
65. Results when unwanted sum and difference frequencies are generated when
two or more signals are amplified in a non-linear device.
A. Transit-time noise B. Amplitude distortion
C. Gaussion Noise D. Intermodulation distortion
66. A -50 dBmp of noise at a -7 dBr point would be reported as ____ dBm0p.
A. -57 B. -43
C. -47 D. 47
67. Three amplifiers are cascaded together. Determine the total noise figure in dB
if the noise figure of each amplifier is equal to 3 dB and the amplifiers gain is
10 dB each. NOV 2002
A. 3.24 dB B. 30.24 dB
C. 0.324 dB D. 13.24 dB
68. An amplifier operating over a 4 MHz bandwidth has 100- input resistance. It
has a voltage gain of 46 dB, and has an input signal of 5Vrms Determine the
rms output signal-to-noise ratio in dB.
A. 5.78 dB B. 3.55 dB
C. 2.89 dB D. 4.12 dB
69. Is a form of external noise and happens when information signal from source
produce frequencies that fall outside their allocated bandwidth and interfere
with information signal from another source.
A. Interference B. Distortion
C. Attenuation D. Noise
70. Noise that is present regardless of whether there is a signal present or not.
A. Amplitude distortion B. Correlated Noise
C. Harmonic distortion D. Uncorrelated Noise
71. Three amplifiers are cascaded together. Determine the total noise figure in dB if
the noise figure of each amplifier is equal to 3dB and the amplifiers gain is 10
dB each. NOV 2002
A. 0.24 dB B. 2.24 dB
C. 3.24 dB D. 1.24 dB
72. When measuring a voice channel at a -4 dB test point level, the meter reads -
76 dBm. Calculate the reading in dBrnCO. APRIL 2004
A. 14 dBrnCO B. 18 dBrnCO
C. 16 dBrnCO D. 20 dBrnCO
73. Noise that occurs wherever current has to divide between two or more
electrodes and results from the random fluctuation in the division.
A. Shot noise B. Impulse noise
C. Transit-time noise D. Partition noise
74. A transistor has a measured S/N power of 100 at its input and 20 at its output.
Determine the noise figure of the transistor. NOV 2004
A. 9.98 dB B. 3.18 dB
C. 6.98 dB D. 4.49 dB
75. Any point in a circuit with the same relative level as the sending terminal is a
point of zero relative level abbreviated as.
A. 0 dBr B. 0 dBm
C. 0 pWp D. dBrnCO
76. A parallel LC tank circuit is made up of an inductor of 3 mH and a winding

resistance of 2. The capacitor is 0.47F. Determine the maximum impedance
and BW.
A. Zmax=5.12 k, BW=579 Hz B. Zmax=6.27 k, BW=618 Hz
C. Zmax=3.19 k, BW=106 Hz D. Zmax=7.73 k, BW=316 Hz

77. The noise produce by a resistor is to be amplified by a noiseless amplifier

having a voltage gain of 75 and a BW of 100 kHz. A sensitive meter at the
output reads 240 Vrms. Assuming operation at 37 C, calculate the resistors
resistance. If the BW were cut to 25 kHz, determine the expected output
meter reading.
A. R=5.257 k, readout= 381 V B. R=5.984 k, readout= 120 V
C. R=5.914 k, readout= 815 V D. R=5.679 k, readout= 187 V
78. Determine the noise current and equivalent noise voltage for a diode with
forward bias of 1 mA over a 1-MHz bandwidth.
A. In=56.3 nA, Vn=0.718 V B. In=89.2 nA, Vn=0.648 V
C. In=17.9 nA, Vn=0.465 V D. In=47.9 nA, Vn=0.482 V
79. Calculate the S/N ratio for a receiver output of 4V signal and 0.48V noise both
as a ratio and in decibel form.
A. 24.58, 64.52 dB B. 33.72, 97.15 dB
C. 89.34, 56.23 dB D. 69.44, 18.42 dB
80. An amplifier with NF=6 dB has Si/Ni of 25 dB. Calculate the So/No in dB and as
a ratio.
A. 13 dB, 66.82 B. 16 dB, 93.24
C. 19 dB, 79.4 D. 11 dB, 61.57
81. A single stage amplifier has a 200-kHz BW and a voltage gain of 100 at room
temperature. Assume that the external noise is negligible and that a 1-mV
signal is applied to the amplifiers input. Calculate the output noise voltage if
the amplifier has a 5-dB NF and the input noise is generated by a 2-k resistor.
A. 813 V B. 458 V
C. 945 V D. 678 V
82. Calculate the noise voltage of a 1-k resistor at 17 C over a 1-MHz BW.
Repeat for the series and parallel combination of three 1-k resistors.
A. 4 V, 6.93 V, 2.31 V
B. 5 V, 1.55 V, 5.53 V
C. 2 V, 5.78 V, 5.52 V
D. 8 V, 3.31 V, 1.16 V
83. Calculate the noise voltage for a 1-k resistor at 17 C tuned by an LC circuit
with a BW of 1 MHz.
A. 50.1 V B. 15.01 V
C. 535.01 V D. 5.01 V
84. A three-stage amplifier has an input stage with noise ratio NR=5 and power
gain equal to 50. Stages 2 and 3 have NR=10, and Ap=1000. Calculate the NF
for the overall system.
A. 4.71 dB B. 8.33 dB
C. 14.79 dB D. 32.84 dB
85. Calculate the noise power at the input of a microwave receiver with an
equivalent noise temperature of 45 K. It is fed from an antenna with a 35 K
equivalent noise temperature and operates over a 5-MHz BW.
A. Pn=97.33x10-15 W B. Pn=5.52x10-15 W
-15
C. Pn=6.38x10 W D. Pn=25.3x10-15 W
86. Generally referred to as the primary cause of atmospheric noise

A. Lightning B. Thunderstorm
C. El Nio phenomenon D. Rain effect
87. Absence of one of the following components in a parametric amplifier renders

this circuit a low-noise amplifier
A. Capacitance B. More circuit stages
C. Modulation D. Resistance
88. What is the major cause of atmospheric or static noise?

A. Meteor showers B. Airplanes
C. Thunderstorm D. Sunspots
89. Where is the noise generated that primarily determines the signal-to-noise ratio
in a VHF (150 MHz) marine-band receiver?
A. In the atmosphere B. In the receiver front end
C. In the receiver rear end D. In the ionosphere
90. Extra-terrestrial noise is observable at frequencies from

A. 8 to 1.43 GHz B. Above 2 GHz
C. 5 to 8 GHz D. 0 to 20 kHz
91. Noise from random acoustic or electric noise that has equal per cycle over a
specified total frequency band.
A. White noise B. Gaussian noise
C. Thermal noise D. All of these
92. Referred to as the stage in the radio contributes most of the noise
A. IF amplifier B. Mixer
C. Supply stage D. Speaker
93. Industrial noise frequency is between

A. 200 to 3000 MHz B. 0 to 10 MHz
C. 15 to 160 MHz D. 20 GHz
94. At what power level does a 1 kHz tone cause zero interference (144 weighted)?
A. -90 dBm B. 90 dBm
C. 90 dB D. -90 dB
95. Background noise is the same as the following except

A. White noise B. Thermal noise
C. Impulse noise D. Gaussian noise
96. Noise reduction system used for film sound in movie

A. dBa B. dBm
C. dolby D. dBx
97. A receiver connected to an antenna whose resistance is 50 ohms has an

equivalent noise resistance of 30 ohms. What is the receivers noise
temperature?
A. 464 K B. 174 K
C. 293 K D. 754 K

98. What is the reference frequency of CCITT psophometric noise measurement?

A. 1500 Hz B. 1000 Hz
C. 3400 Hz D. 800 Hz
99. Atmospheric noise is less severe at frequencies above

A. 1 GHz B. 10 GHz
C. 30 MHz D. 20 KHz
100. NIF stands for

A. noise interference figure B. Noise improvement factor
C. Non-intrinsic figure D. narrow intermediate frequency
101. Which does not affect noise in a channel?

A. Bandwidth B. Temperature
C. Quantizing level D. None of these
102. What does the noise weighting curve show?

A. Power levels of noise founding carrier systems
B. The interfering effect of other frequencies in a voice channel compared
with a reference frequency of one kilohertz
C. Noise signals measured with a 144 handset
D. Interfering effects of signals compared with a 3-kHz tone
103. The most common of noise measurement in white noise voltage testing
A. dBm B. dBW
C. dBrn D. NPR
104. The random and unpredictable electric signals from natural causes, both
internal and external to the system is known as
A. attenuation B. noise
C. distortion D. interference
105. The ratio of the level of the modulated output with no modulation standard
test modulation to the level demodulated output with no modulation applied
both measured with the same bandwidth
A. Residual noise level B. Reference audio output
C. Audio frequency response D. None of these
106. A figure of merit to measure the performance of a radiation detector

A. Safety factor B. Quality factor
C. Ripple factor D. Noise equivalent power
107. Considered as the main source of an internal noise

A. Temperature change B. Thermal agitation
C. Flicker D. Device imperfection
108. Unit of noise power of psophometer

A. dBm B. dBmO
C. pWp D. dBa
Section
Transmitters Read it
till it
5 and Receivers Hertz!
DEFINITION. Selection is the ability of the receiver to select a particular

frequency of a station from all other station frequencies appearing at the
antenna of the receiver.
DEFINITION. Reception occurs when a transmitted electromagnetic wave

passes through the receiver antenna and induces a voltage in the antenna.
DEFINITION. Detection is the action of separating the low (audio) frequency

intelligence from the high (radio) frequency carrier. A detector circuit is used to
accomplish this action.
DEFINITION. Reproduction is the action of converting the electrical signals

to sound waves, which can then be interpreted by your ear as speech, music,
and the like.
A. .AM MODULATOR CIRCUITS.
1. High-Level Modulation
The FCC defines high-level modulation in the Code of Federal
Regulations as "modulation produced in the plate circuit of the last
radio stage of the system."
Plate Modulator
The plate modulator is a high-level modulator. The modulator tube
must be capable of varying the plate-supply voltage of the final
power amplifier.
Collector-Injection Modulator
A collector-injection modulator is a transistorized version of the
plate modulator.
2. Low-Level Modulation
The FCC defines low-level modulation in the Code of Federal
Regulations as "modulation produced in an earlier stage than the
final."
Control-Grid Modulator
A control-grid modulator is a low-level modulator that is used
where a minimum of a.f. modulator power is desired. It is less
efficient than a plate modulator and produces more distortion.

1-126 BASIC Transmitters AND Receivers
Base-Injection Modulator
A base-injection modulator is used to produce low-level
modulation in equipment operating at very low power levels. It is
often used in small portable equipment and test equipment.
Cathode Modulator
The cathode modulator is a low-level modulator employed where
the audio power is limited and the inherent distortion of the grid
modulator cannot be tolerated.
Emitter-Injection Modulator
The emitter-injection modulator is an extremely low-level
modulator that is useful in portable equipment.
B. .BLOCK DIAGRAM OF LOW-LEVEL AM DSBFC TRANSMITTER.
AM Transmitter Functional Blocks
Information Source
Generally an acoustical transducer, such as microphone, a
magnetic tape, a CD, or a phonograph record.
Pre-amp Stage
Typically a sensitive, class A linear voltage amplifier with a high
input impedance whose function is to raise the amplitude of the
source signal to a usable level while producing non-linear
distortion.
Driver Stage
A linear amplifier that simply amplifies the information signal to an
adequate level to sufficiently drive the modulator.
Power Amplifier/Modulator Stage

A transistor operating in class C is likely to be used in the power
amplifier, with collector modulation accomplished by means of a
push-pull Class AB audio amplifier.
Transmitter Efficiency ()
When no
modulation is When modulation is applied
applied
When m=1
General Solution
P (50% increased)
= c
Ps Psb Psb 0.5Pc
= = =
Pmod Pmod Pmod
where:
= conversion efficieny
Pc = unmodulated carrier power in W
Ps = dc input power to the collector in W
Psb = sideband power due to modulation in W
Pmod = average(audio) power supplied by the modulator in W

A transistor RF power amplifier operating class C is designed to produce 40
W output with a supply voltage of 60 V. If the efficiency is 70%, what is the
average collector current?
Solution:
Pc P 40 Ps 57.14
= Ps = c = = 57.14 W Ic = = = 0.952 A
Ps 0.7 Vs 60

The power amplifier of an AM transmitter has an output carrier power of 25
W and an efficiency of 70% and is collector-modulated. How much audio
power will have to be supplied to this stage for 100% modulation?
Solution:
Psb
= ; when m = 1; PT = 1.5Pc and Psb = 0.5Pc = 0 .5 x 25 = 12 .5 W
Pmod
Psb 12.5
Pmod = Paudio = = = 17.85 W
0.7

RF Carrier Oscillator Stage

Generates a high frequency signal that will be modulated by a
low-frequency information in order for it to carry the information.
Stability of Crystal Oscillator
fout = fc + kfc (T To )
where:
fc = center frequency in MHz
k = temperature coefficient in Hz per MHz per degree C
= Hz/MHz/ C ppm

A portable radio transmitter has to operate at temperature from -5C to
35C. If its signal is derived from a crystal oscillator with a temperature
coefficient of +1ppm/C and it transmits at exactly 146 MHz at 20C, find the
transmitting frequency at the lower extreme of the operating temperature
range.
Solution:
fout = fc + kfc (T To )
= 146 MHz + 106 x 146 MHz (5 20)
= 145.99635 MHz
Buffer Amplifier Stage

A low gain, high input impedance linear amplifier used to isolate
the oscillator from the high power amplifier and provides
frequency stability.
Intermediate and Power Amplifier Stage

Either class A or class B push-pull amplifier required for low-level
transmitters to maintain symmetry in the AM envelope.
Sample Problem:
A quartz watch is guaranteed accurate to 125 seconds per year. Assuming a
year has 8760 hrs, calculate the accuracy of the crystal oscillator in the
watch in parts per million.
Solution:
125 sec
a= x (1x106 ) = 4 ppm
3600 sec
8760 hrsx
1 hr
C. .RADIO RECEIVER.
Collection of electronic devices that transform the transmitted message
back into a form understandable by human.
1. Two Basic Types Of Radio Receiver
i. Tuned Radio Frequency (TRF) Receiver

Probably the simplest designed radio receiver available.
Disadvantage of TRF Receiver

a. Inconsistent bandwidth that varies with center frequency
when tuned over a wide range of input frequencies.
b. Instability due to large number of RF amplifiers all tuned the

same center frequency.
c. Non-uniform gain over a very wide frequency range.
TRF Selectivity
where:
f fr = resonant frequency in Hz
Q= r
BW 1
=
2 LC

Sample Problem:
A TRF receiver is to be designed with a single tuned circuit using a 10H
inductor. Calculate the capacitance range of the variable capacitor required
to cover the entire AM band (535-1605 kHz) and also calculate the BW of
this receiver at 540 kHz and 1600 kHz (assume Q=110).
Solution:
At 535 kHz At 1605 kHz
1 1 1 1
fr = C = fr = C =
2 LC L (2 fr )2 2 LC L (2 fr )2
1 1
C = C =
10 H(2 x 535 kHz )2 10 H(2 x1605 kHz )2
= 8 .85 nF = 983 pF
At 535 kHz At 1605 kHz

fr 1605 kHz
fr 535 kHz BW = =
BW = = Q 110
Q 110
= 14 .6 kHz
= 4 . 86 kHz
ii. Super-heterodyne Receiver

Invented by Major Edward Armstrong that downconverts the
incoming RF signal to IF before processing and before the
extraction of the information signal.
2. Receiver Components
i. Antenna
Collect very weak signal radiated by a broadcast station.
ii. RF Section
The RF amplifier amplifies the modulated RF signal received by the
antenna. This section determines the sensitivity of the receiver.
Image Frequency
Any frequency other than the selected radio frequency carrier
that, if allowed to enter a receiver will produce a cross-product
frequency that is equal to the I.F.
High-Side Injection Low-Side Injection
IM = LO + IF IM = LO IF
IM = RF + 2IF IM = RF 2IF
Image Frequency Rejection Ratio (IMRR)
fimage fRF
IFRR = (1 + Q22 ) =
fRF fimage

An AM receiver is tuned to broadcast station at 600 kHz. Calculate the image
rejection in dB, assuming that the input filter consists of one tuned circuit
with a Q of 60.
Solution: fimage fRF

fimage = fRF + 2IF = 600 kHz + 2(455 kHz) =
fRF fimage
= 1,510 kHz
1510 600
=
600 1510
= 2.12
IFRR = 20 log 1 + Q22
= 20 log 1 + (602 x2.122 )

= 42.1 dB


A receiver has two uncoupled tune circuit before the mixer, each with a Q of
75. The signal frequency is 100.1 MHz. The IF is 10.7 MHz. The local
oscillator uses high-side injection. Calculate the image rejection ratio in dB.
Solution: fimage fRF

fimage = fRF + 2IF = 100.1 MHz + 2(10.7 MHz) =
fRF fimage
= 121.5 MHz
121.5 100.1
=
100.1 121.5
= 0.39
IFRR T = IFRR1 x IFRR2 Qp = Qs

IFRR T(dB) = IFRR1(dB) + IFRR2(dB)
= 20 log 1 + Qp2p2 + 20 log 1 + Qs2s2

= 220 log 1 + (752 x0.392 ) = 58.65 dB

Double Spotting
Double Spotting occurs when a receiver picks up the same station
at two nearby points on the receiver dial caused by poor front-end
selectivity or inadequate image-frequency rejection.
iii. Mixer/Converter Section

The mixer/converter section down-converts the incoming RF signal
to a fixed IF signal.
iv. IF Section
The IF section provides most of the receiver gain and selectivity.
Gain
k=kc
k=1.5kc
k=3kc
1
kc = k o = 1.5k c BW = k fo
Qp Q s
where:
Qp = Q of primary circuit
Q s = Q of secondary circuit
k c = critical coupling factor
k o = optimum coupling factor
fo = resonant frequency in Hz
BW = bandwidth in Hz

An IF transformer of a radio receiver operates at 455 kHz. The primary
circuit has a Q of 50 and the secondary has a Q of 40. Find the bandwidth
using the optimum coupling factor.
Solution:
1 1
kc = = = 0.0224 k o = 1.5 k c = 1.5 x 0.0224 = 0.0336
QpQd 50 x 40
BW = k o x fo = 0.0336 x 455 kHz = 15.288 kHz
Some Popular IF
System IF
AM Broadcast 455 kHz
AM Broadcast
262.5 kHz
(automobiles)
FM Broadcast 10.7 MHz
FM Two-way radios 21.4 MHz
Picture IF 41.25 MHz
Sound IF 45.75 MHz
Radar RX/TX 30 or 60 MHz
Satellite RX 70 MHz
v. Detector Section
The purpose of the detector section is to extract or demodulate
the original source information from the IF signal.
viii. Audio Section

Compose of several cascaded audio amplifier that amplifies the
demodulated information to a level that will drive the speaker.

D. .DEMODULATOR CIRCUITS.
1. AM Demodulators
i. Diode or Envelope Detectors

The simplest and most widely used amplitude demodulator is the
diode detector and since it recovers the envelope of the AM signal
which is the modulating signal, the circuit is sometimes referred to
as an envelope detector.
ii. Product Detectors (Balance Diode Mixer)

The AM signal and local oscillator are coupled into the diode, which
is a nonlinear device and the nonlinear mixing produce sum and
difference frequencies and the output tank circuit is tuned to the
difference (IF) frequency.
2. FM Demodulator
i. Slope Detector
The simplest form of tuned-circuit frequency discriminator which is
basically composed of a tuned-circuit and a peak detector that
converts the amplitude variations to an output voltage that varies
at a rate equal to that of the input frequency changes and whose
amplitude is proportional to the magnitude of the frequency
changes.
ii. Foster-Seeley Discriminator

Foster-Seeley Discriminator (a.k.a. phase-shift discriminator) is a
tuned-circuit frequency discriminator whose operation is very
similar to that of the balanced slope detector.
iii. Ratio Detector

A ratio detector is relatively immune to amplitude variations in its
input signal which is the basic disadvantage of slope detector and
Foster-Seeley discriminator.
iv. Phase Lock Loop

Essentially, a PLL is a closed-loop feedback control system in
which the input frequency of the feedback signal voltage is the
parameter of interest rather than simply a voltage.
PLL IC is consists of a phase comparator (mixer), a LPF, a low-gain amplifier

and a VCO.
v. Quadrature FM Demodulator
Sometimes called as coincidence detector which extracts the
original information signal from the composite IF waveform by
multiplying two quadrature (90 out-of-phase) signals
A quadrature detector uses a 90 phase shifter, a single tuned circuit, and a

product detector to demodulate FM signals.
vi. Pulse-Averaging Discriminator

The FM signal is applied to a zero-crossing detector or
clipper/limiter which generates a binary voltage level change each
time the FM signal varies from minus to plus, or plus to minus.
The result is a rectangular wave containing all the frequency
variations of the original signal but without amplitude variations
which is then applied to a one-shot multivibrator whose output is
then fed to a simple RC low-pass filter.
E. .BASIC RECEIVER CHARACTERISTICS.
1. Sensitivity
The minimum RF signal level that can be detected at the input to the
receiver and still produced usable demodulated information.
The ability of a receiver to reproduce weak signals is a function of the sensitivity of

a receiver and expressed in V.
2. Selectivity
The measure of the ability of a receiver to accept a given band of
frequencies and reject all others.
Selectivity is the degree of distinction made by the receiver between the desired
signal and unwanted signals.

When measuring the selectivity of a receiver, you discover that a signal level
of 450 microV on an adjacent channel is required to give the same output as
1 microV signal on the channel to which the receiver is tuned. Calculate the
adjacent channel selectivity in dB.
Solution:
Vadj 450 V
SdB = 20 log = 20 log = 53.06 dB
Vr 1 V

3. Shape Factor (SF)

The ratio of the -60dB bandwidth to the -3dB(-6dB) bandwidth of a
tuned circuit or filter.
BW60dB
SF =
BW 3dB
4. Fidelity
The fidelity of a receiver is its ability to accurately reproduce, in its
output, the signal that appears at its input.
Ability of a communication system to produce an exact replica of the original

source information.
5. Dynamic Range (DR)

The input power range over which the receiver is useful.
V(max_ input )
DR dB = 20 log
sensitivity (volts)
P(max_ input )
DR dB = 10 log
threshold( watts )

A receiver has a sensitivity of 0.6 microV and a blocking dynamic range of
60 dB. What is the strongest signal that can be present along with a 0.6
microV signal without blocking taking place?
Solution:
Vinput DR 60
DR dB = 20 log Vinput = Vsensitivity 10 20 = 0.6 V 10 20 = 600 V
Vsensitivity
Sample Problem:
A receiver has a dynamic range of 85 dB. It has 1.5 nW sensitivity
(threshold). Determine the maximum allowable input signal.
Solution:
P(max_ input)
DR dB = 10 log
threshold(watts)
P(max_ input)
85 dB = 10 log
1.5 x 10 9 W
P(max_ input) = 0.474 W

st
The 1 radio transmitter was the Spark-Gap oscillators coupled to long-wire antennas.
MOPA or Master Oscillator Power Amplifier consists of Hartley oscillator capacitively

coupled to a neutralized triode amplifier inductively coupled to a tunable Marconi
antenna.
F. .RECEIVER CONTROL CIRCUITS.
1. Automatic Gain/Volume Control (AGC/AVC)

The function of an automatic gain control, also referred to as an
automatic volume control, is to limit unwanted variations in the output
of the receiver caused by variations in strength of the received signal
input.
Reverse AGC
When we use an AGC voltage to cause degeneration by driving the
amplifiers toward cutoff, it is referred to as reverse AGC.

Forward AGC
For forward AGC the amplifier is driven toward the saturation
region of its characteristic curve.
2. Automatic Frequency Control (AFC)

A type of circuit that sense the difference between the actual oscillator
frequency and the frequency that is desired and produces a control
voltage proportional to the difference.
3. Squelch Circuit
The sensitivity of a receiver is maximum when no signal is being
received. This condition occurs, for example, when a receiver is being
tuned between stations. The purpose of a squelch circuit is to quiet a
receiver in the absence of a received signal.
4. Blanking Circuit
In essence, a blanking circuit detects the occurrence of a high-
amplitude, short duration noise spike, then mutes the receiver by
shutting off a portion of the receiver for the duration of the pulse.
5. S-meter
The S-meter is designed to indicate signal strength for comparison and
to aid in tuning the receiver and sometimes in adjusting the antenna.
I H
1. The oscillator of a CB transmitter is guaranteed accurate to +0.005%. What is
the maximum frequency at which it could actually transmit if it is set to
transmit on channel 20, with a nominal carrier frequency of 27.205 MHz.
A. 27.2064 MHz B. 38.6128 MHz
C. 24.1289 MHz D. 14.8123 MHz
2. For a "frequency multiplier" to work, it requires:

A. a nonlinear circuit
B. a linear amplifier
C. a signal containing harmonics
D. an input signal that is an integer multiple of the desired frequency
3. The power amplifier of an AM transmitter has an output carrier power of 25 W

and an efficiency of 70% and is collector-modulated. How much audio power
will have to be supplied to this stage for 100% modulation? APRILL 2003
A. 54.12 W B. 17.9 W
C. 33.81 W D. 23.6 W
4. Determine the overall bandwidth for three single-tuned amplifiers each with a
BW of 10 kHz.
A. 10 kHz B. 5.098 kHz
C. 30 kHz D. 2.08 kHz
5. If a superhetordyne receiver is tuned to a desired signal at 1000 kHz and its

conversion or local oscillator is operating at 1300 kHz, what would be the
frequency of the incoming signal that would possibly cause image reception?
A. 1673 kHz B. 1600 kHz
C. 1812 kHz D. 1340 kHz
6. The Colpitts VFO uses:

A. a tapped inductor B. a two-capacitor divider
C. an RC time constant D. a piezoelectric crystal
7. A receiver has a sensitivity of 0.5V and a blocking dynamic range of 80 dB.

What is the strongest signal that can be present along with a 0.5V signal
without blocking taking place?
A. 15 mV B. 75 mV
C. 5 mV D. 35 mV

8. A "frequency synthesizer" is:

A. a VCO phase-locked to a reference frequency
B. a VFO with selectable crystals to change frequency
C. a fixed-frequency RF generator
D. same as a mixer
9. A common AM detector is the:

A. PLL B. envelope detector
C. ratio detector D. Foster Seeley discriminator
10. A tuned circuit tunes the AM radio broadcast band or from 540 to 1700 kHz. If
its bandwidth is 10 kHz at 535, what is it at 1605 kHz?
A. 17.32 kHz B. 51.46 kHz
C. 31.56 kHz D. 917.32 kHz
11. The two basic specifications for a receiver are:

A. the sensitivity and the selectivity
B. the number of converters and the number of IFs
C. the spurious response and the tracking
D. the signal and the noise
12. An FM detector produces a peak-to-peak voltage of 1.5 V from an FM signal

that is modulated to 15 kHz deviation by a sinewave. What is the detector
sensitivity?
A. 61.2 V/Hz B. 34.1 V/Hz
C. 136.12 V/Hz D. 50 V/Hz
13. An oscillator has a frequency of 100 MHz at 20C, and a temperature coefficient
of +10 ppm per degree Celsius. What will be the shift in frequency at 70C?
What percentage is that?
A. 50 kHz, 0.5% B. 25 kHz, 0.05%
C. 25 kHz, 0.5 % D. 50 kHz, 0.05%
14. In a diode modulator, the negative half of the AM wave is supplied by a(n)
A. Capacitor B. Inductor
C. Transformer D. Tuned circuit
15. A receiver has a sensitivity of 0.6 microV and a blocking dynamic range of 60
dB. What is the strongest signal that can be present along with a 0.6 microV
signal without blocking taking place? NOV 2004
A. 0.06 V B. 0.6 V
C. 600 V D. 60 V
16. If a varactor has a capacitance of 90 pF at zero volts, what will be the

capacitance at 4 volts?
A. 53.12 pF B. 30 pF
C. 12.6 pF D. 581 pF
17. The two inputs to a mixer are the signal to be translated and a signal from a(n)
A. Filter B. Local Oscillator
C. Modulator D. Antenna
18. A PLL FM detector uses a VCO with a deviation sensivity of 85 kHz/V. If it

receives an FM signal with a deviation of 65 kHz and sinewave modulation,
what is the rms output voltage from the detector?
A. 7.18 V B. 0.54 V
C. 1.82 V D. 0.192 V
19. Amplitude modulation can be produce by

A. Varying the carrier frequency
B. Varying the gain of an amplifier
C. Having the modulating signal vary a capacitance
D. Having a carrier vary a resistance
20. Determine the quality factor necessary for a single sideband filter with a 1-MHz
carrier frequency, 80 dB unwanted suppression and 200-Hz frequency
separation.
A. 15,000 B. 125,000
C. 12,000 D. 25,000
21. The Hartley oscillator uses:

A. a tapped inductor B. a two-capacitor divider
C. an RC time constant D. a piezoelectric crystal
22. What value of transformer coupling would a double-tuned 10-MHz IF amplifier

with optimal coupling need to get a bandwidth of 100 kHz?
A. 0.001 B. 0.01
C. 1 D. 0.1
23. The function of a limiter is:

A. to remove amplitude variations B. to limit spurious responses
C. to limit dynamic range D. to limit noise response
24. Suppose a SSB receiver requires an injected frequency of 1.5 MHz. What would
be the acceptable frequency range of the BFO if the maximum acceptable
baseband shift is 100 hertz?
A. 1.499 MHz + 100 Hz B. 1.5 MHz + 1000 Hz
C. 1.5 MHz + 100 Hz D. 1.4999 MHz + 100 Hz
25. A receiver has a sensitivity of 0.3 V. The same receiver can handle a signal
level of 75 mV without overloading. What is its AGC range in dB?
A. 108 dB B. 125 dB
C. 51 dB D. 83 dB
26. If two signals, Va = sin(at) and Vb = sin(bt), are fed to a mixer, the output:
A. will contain 1 = a + b and 2 = a b
B. will contain 1 = a / b and 2 = b / a
C. will contain = (a + b ) / 2
D. will contain 1 = a x b and 2 = b x a

27. When measuring the selectivity of a receiver, you discover that a signal level of
450 microV on an adjacent channel is required to give the same output as 1
microV signal on the channel to which the receiver is tuned. Calculate the
adjacent channel selectivity in dB. NOV 2003
A. 16.87 dB B. 74.95 dB
C. 26.5 dB D. 53 dB
28. A receivers IF filter has a shape factor of 2.5 and a bandwidth of 6 kHz at the -
3 dB point. What is its bandwidth at -60 dB point?
A. 23 kHz B. 48 kHz
C. 15 kHz D. 62 kHz
29. In a balanced mixer, the output:

A. contains equal (balanced) amounts of all input frequencies
B. contains the input frequencies
C. does not contain the input frequencies
D. is a linear mixture of the input signals
30. When measuring the selectivity of a receiver, you discover that a signal level of
500 V on an adjacent channel is required to give the same output as a 1 V
signal on the adjacent channel to which the receiver is tuned. What is the
adjacent channel selectivity in dB?
A. 43 dB B. 54 dB
C. 38 dB D. 23 dB
31. Basically, selectivity measures:

A. the range of frequencies that the receiver can select
B. with two signals close in frequency, the ability to receive one and reject
the other
C. how well adjacent frequencies are separated by the demodulator
D. how well the adjacent frequencies are separated in the mixer
32. The conditions for sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier are called:
A. the loop-gain criteria B. the Hartley criteria
C. the Bode criteria D. the Barkhausen criteria
33. A radio transmitter has to operate at a temperature of 34 degrees Celsius. If

its signal is derived from a crystal oscillator with a temperature coefficient of
plus 1ppm per degree Centigrade, and it transmits at exactly 150 MHz at 20
degrees Centigrade, find the transmitting frequency. APRIL 2004
A. 149.9967 MHz B. 150.0021 MHz
C. 150.9971 MHz D. 149.0589 MHz
34. In an AM transmitter with 100% modulation, the voltage of the final RF stage
will be:
A. approximately half the DC supply voltage
B. approximately twice the DC supply voltage
C. approximately four times the DC supply voltage
D. approximately 1.414 times the DC supply voltage
35. An FM broadcast-band receiver tunes to 88-108 MHz. Calculate the range of

local oscillator frequencies assuming the receiver uses high-side injection.
A. 96.7 to 119.7 MHz B. 95.7 to 115.7 MHz
C. 98.7 to 118.7 MHz D. 99.7 to 119.7 MHz
36. The Clapp oscillator is:

A. a modified Hartley oscillator
B. a modified Colpitts oscillator
C. a type of crystal-controlled oscillator
D. only built with FETs
37. The transformer of a double-tuned IF amplifier has a Q of 25 for both primary

and secondary. What value of kc do you need to achieve optimal coupling?
A. 0.06 B. 6
C. 0.6 D. 0.006
38. A crystal oscillator is accurate within 0.0005%. How far off frequency could its
output be at 30MHz?
A. 250 Hz B. 120 Hz
C. 200 Hz D. 150 Hz
39. Suppose you have an FM modulator that puts out 1 MHz carrier with a 100-
hertz deviation. If frequency multiplication is used to increase the deviation to
400 hertz, what will be the new carrier frequency?
A. 2 MHz B. 6 MHz
C. 4 MHz D. 8 MHz
40. When comparing values for shape factor:

A. a value of 1.414 dB is ideal B. a value of 0.707 is ideal
C. a value of 1.0 is ideal D. there is no ideal value
41. The main function of the AGC is to:

A. keep the gain of the receiver constant
B. keep the gain of the IF amplifiers constant
C. keep the input to the detector at a constant amplitude
D. to automatically track the frequency of the RF signal
42. An IF filter has a 60 dB bandwidth of 25 kHz and a 3 dB bandwidth of 20

kHz. What is the shape factor value?
A. 0.8 B. 1.25
C. 0.5 D. 0.125
43. In high-level AM, the power in the sidebands comes from:

A. the modulating amplifier B. the RF amplifier
C. the driver stage D. the carrier
44. Basically, sensitivity measures:

A. the weakest signal that can be usefully received
B. the highest-frequency signal that can be usefully received
C. the dynamic range of the audio amplifier
D. the ability of the receiver to attenuate noise signals

45. A collector-modulated class C amplifier has a carrier output power of 120 W

and an efficiency of 85%. Calculate the transistor power dissipation with 100%
modulation. APRIL 2003
A. 11.76 W B. 31.76 W
C. 41.76 W D. 21.76 W
46. Frequency translation is done with a circuit called a

A. Mixer B. Multiplier
C. Filter D. Summer
47. For a non-ideal amplifier with the following parameters:

Input signal = 2 x 10-10W,
Input noise = 2 attoWatts,
Power gain = 60 dB,
Internal noise = 6 pW
Determine the noise figure.
A. 4 dB B. 3 dB
C. 6 dB D. 2 dB
48. For a 10-MHz crystal with a temperature coefficient of +10 Hz/MHz/C,

determine the frequency of operation if the temperature decreases by 5C.
A. 9.95 MHz B. 9.9995 MHz
C. 9.995 MHz D. 9.5 MHz
49. An AM transmitter uses high-level modulation. The RF power amplifier draws 12

A from a 22 V supply, putting out a carrier power of 140 watts. What
impedance would be seen at the modulation transformer secondary? NOV
2003
A. 2.16 B. 0.183
C. 1.83 D. 1.56
50. Using high-side injection for a 1-MHz IF, what is the frequency of the local
oscillator when the receiver is tuned to 5 MHz?
A. 4 MHz B. 5 MHz
C. 6 MHz D. 3 MHz
51. Suppressing the audio when no signal is present is called:

A. AGC B. squelch
C. AFC D. limiting
52. Determine the voltage at the output of a phase comparator with a transfer
function of 0.5 V/rad and a phase error of 0.75 rad.
A. 0.75 V B. 3.73 V
C. 0.373 V D. 0.73 V
53. The power amplifier of an AM transmitter draws 100 watts from the power
supply with no modulation. Assuming high-level modulation, how much power
does the modulation amplifier deliver for 100% modulation?
54. Determine the phase error necessary to produce a VCO frequency shift of 10
kHz for an open loop gain of 40 kHz/rad.
A. 25 rad B. 0.125 rad
C. 0.25 rad D. 0.5 rad
55. Suppose the bandwidth of a tuned circuit is 10 kHz at 1 MHz. Approximately

what bandwidth would you expect it to have at 4 MHz?
A. 5 kHz B. 10 kHz
C. 40 kHz D. 20 kHz
56. Determine the change in frequency for a VCO with a transfer function of 4
kHz/V and a dc input voltage change of 1.2Vp.
A. 4.8 kHz B. 0.48 kHz
C. 3.33 kHz D. 0.333 kHz
57. Suppose a receiver uses a 5-MHz IF frequency. Assuming high-side injection,

what would be the image frequency if the receiver was tuned to 50 MHz?
A. 60 MHz B. 40 MHz
C. 55 MHz D. 45 MHz
58. Determine the hold-in range for a PLL with an open loop gain of 25. kHz/rad
A. 9.271 kHz B. 39.271 kHz
C. 9.1 kHz D. 3.271 kHz
59. A receiver has a sensitivity of 0.6 microV and a blocking dynamic range of 60
dB. What is the strongest signal that can be present along with a 0.6 microV
signal without blocking taking place? APRIL 2003
A. 0.06 V B. 0.6 V
C. 600 V D. 60 V
60. Mixing for frequency conversion is the same as

A. Linear summing B. Filtering
C. AM D. Rectification
61. One input to a conventional AM modulator is a 500 kHz carrier with an

amplitude of 20 Vp. The second input is a 10 kHz modulating signal that is
sufficient to cause an change in the output wave of +7.5 Vp. Determine the
peak amplitude of the USF and LSF voltages.
A. 3.75Vp B. 2.75Vp
C. 1.75Vp D. 4.75Vp
62. Suppose you have generated a USB SSB signal with a nominal carrier
frequency of 10 MHz. What is the minimum frequency the SSB signal can be
mixed with so that the output signal has a nominal carrier frequency of 50
MHz?
A. 20 MHz B. 10 MHz
C. 40 MHz D. 60 MHz
63. Determine the improvement in the noise figure for a receiver with an RF
bandwidth equal to 200 kHz and an IF bandwidth equal to 10 kHz.
A. 0.13 dB B. 1.3 dB
C. 3 dB D. 13 dB

64. If the final RF amplifier of an AM transmitter is powered by 100 volts DC, what
is the maximum collector voltage at 100% modulation?
A. 400 volts B. 50 volts
C. 200 volts D. 100 volts
65. Suppose the output of a balanced modulator has a center frequency of 10 MHz.
The audio modulation frequency range is 1 kHz to 10 kHz. To pass the USB,
what should be the center frequency of an ideal crystal filter?
A. 9.95 MHz B. 10.005 MHz
C. 9.995 MHz D. 10.05 MHz
66. For an AM commercial broadcast band receiver with an input filter Q-factor of
54, determine the bandwidth at the low and high end of the spectrum.
A. 1 kHz, 29.630 kHz B. 10 kHz, 29.630 kHz
C. 1 kHz, 2.630 kHz D. 10 kHz, 2.630 kHz
67. For an AM broadcast-band superheterodyne receiver with an RF of 600 kHz and

high-side injection, calculate the IFRR for a preselector Q of 100.
A. 46.52 dB B. 2.5 dB
C. 23.25 dB D. 3.2 dB
68. For a 20 MHz crystal with a temperature coefficient of -8 Hz/MHz/C, determine

the frequency of operation if the temperature increases by 20C.
A. 19.8 MHz B. 19.68 MHz
C. 19.78 MHz D. 19.9968 MHz
69. Image frequencies occur when two signals:

A. are transmitted on the same frequency
B. enter the mixer, with one being a reflected signal equal to the IF frequency
C. enter the mixer, one below and one above the local oscillator by a
difference equal to the IF
D. enter the mixer, and the difference between the two signals is equal to
twice the IF
70. An FM detector that is not sensitive to amplitude variations is:

A. Foster-Seeley detector B. a quadrature detector
C. a PLL detector D. coherent detector
71. The local oscillator and mixer are combined in one device because:
A. it gives a greater reduction of spurious responses
B. it increases sensitivity
C. it increases selectivity
D. it is cheaper
72. An image must be rejected:

A. prior to mixing B. prior to IF amplification
C. prior to detection D. images cannot be rejected
73. For an AM receiver with a -80 dBm RF input signal level and the following gains
and losses, determine the audio signal level
Gains: RF = 33 dB, IF = 47 dB, Audio amp = 25 dB
Losses: Preselector = 3 dB, Mixer loss = 6 dB, detector loss = 8 dB
A. 8 dBm B. 0.8 dBm
C. 80 dBm D. 18 dBm
74. For a citizen band receiver using high-side injection with an RF carrier of 27
MHz, determine the preselector Q required to achieve an IFRR of 40.32 dB.
A. 540 B. 120
C. 353 D. 84
75. The typical squelch circuit ______.

A. cuts off an audio amplifier when the carrier is absent
B. cuts off an IF amplifier when the AGC is minimum
C. cuts off an IF amplifier when the AGC is maximum
D. eliminates the RF interference when the signal is weak
76. When a super heterodyne receive with an IF of 450 kHz is tuned to a signal at
1200 kHz, the image frequency will be ______.
A. 1650 kHz B. 900 kHz
C. 2100 kHz D. 750 kHz
77. Which of the following circuit cannot be used to demodulate SSB?

A. BFO B. Phase discriminator
C. Product detector D. Balanced modulator
78. A phase-locked loop has a VCO with a free-running frequency of 12 MHz. As

the frequency of the reference input is gradually raised from zero, the loop
locks at 10 MHz and comes out of lock again at 16 MHz. Find the capture
range and lock range. NOV 2003 & NOV 2004
A. CR=12 MHz, LR=16 MHz B. CR=8 MHz, LR=12 MHz
C. CR=4 MHz, LR=8 MHz D. CR=6 MHz, LR=10 MHz
79. A quartz watch is guaranteed accurate to 15 seconds per month. Assuming a

month has 30 days, calculate the accuracy of the crystal oscillator in the watch
in parts per million.
A. 3.56 ppm B. 12.71 ppm
C. 5.79 ppm D. 61.40 ppm
80. Image frequency rejection mainly depends upon ______.

A. detector B. IF
C. mixer D. RF
81. A crystal oscillator is accurate within 0.0005%. How far off frequency its
output be at 27MHz?
A. 125 Hz B. 115 Hz
C. 155 Hz D. 135 Hz
82. Which would be best for DSBSC:

A. carrier detection B. coherent detection
C. envelope detection D. ratio detection
83. With mixing:

A. the carrier frequency can be raised
B. the carrier frequency can be lowered
C. the carrier frequency can be changed to any required value
D. the deviation is altered

84. A phase-locked loop has a VCO with a free running frequency of 16 MHz. As
the frequency of the reference input is gradually raised from zero, the loop
locks at 12 MHz and comes out of lock again at 20 MHz. Find the capture
range and lock range.
A. 8 MHz, 8 MHz B. 4 MHz, 8 MHz
C. 2 MHz, 4 MHz D. 8 MHz, 4 MHz
85. A quartz watch is guaranteed accurate to 125 seconds per year. Assuming a
month has 30 days, calculate the accuracy of the crystal oscillator in the watch
in ppm.
A. 8.12 ppm B. 3.23 ppm
C. 1.24 ppm D. 4.02 ppm
86. A tuned circuit tunes the AM radio broadcast band (540 to 1700 kHz). If its
bandwidth is 10 kHz at 540 kHz, what is it at 1700 kHz?
A. 17.7 kHz B. 1700 kHz
C. 10.5 kHz D. 21.7 kHz
87. A receiver has a sensitivity of 0.5 V and a blocking dynamic range of 70 dB.
What is the strongest signal that can be present along with a 0.5 V signal
without blocking taking place?
A. 1.58 mV B. 15.8 mV
C. 158 mV D. 0.158 mV
88. Image frequency problems would be reduced by:

A. having an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor
B. having a wideband RF amplifier after the mixer
C. having a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer
D. inserting a low-pass filter before the mixer stage
89. A SSB transmitter is connected to a 50-ohm antenna. If the peak output

voltage of the transmitter is 20 volts, what is the PEP?
90. The 10 MHz crystal oscillator in a PLL frequency synthesizer has been calibrated
to a reference standard known to be accurate to 5 ppm. The oscillator is
guaranteed to drift no more 10 ppm per month. Suppose this oscillator is used
in a simple single-loop PLL to generate a frequency of 45 MHz. What are the
maximum and minimum values that the output frequency could have after one
year?
A. 10.0025 MHz, 9.99875 MHz B. 9.0025 MHz, 10.99875 MHz
C. 10.25 MHz, 9.75 MHz D. 9.25 MHz, 10.75 MHz
Section 6
Acoustics
Fundamentals w/
Basic Illumination
Section 7
Television
Fundamentals
Section 8
AM, FM and TV
Broadcasting
Standards
Section 9
Microphones and
Loudspeakers
Acoustics &
Broadcasting

Section Acoustics Read it

till it
6 Fundamentals Hertz!
DEFINITION. Acoustics is defined as the generation, transmission, and

reception of energy in the form of vibrational waves in matter.
DEFINITION. Sound is a physical wave, or a mechanical vibration, or simply

a series of pressure variation, in an elastic medium.
A. .MAIN SUB-DISCIPLINE OF ACOUSTICS.
Aeroacoustics -- is the study of aerodynamic sound, generated when

a fluid flow interacts with a solid surface or with another flow. It has
particular application to aeronautics, examples being the study of
sound made by jets and the physics of shock waves (sonic booms).
Architectural acoustics -- is the study of how sound and buildings

interact including the behavior of sound in concert halls and
auditoriums but also in office buildings, factories and homes.
Bioacoustics -- is the study of the use of sound by animals such as

whales, dolphins and bats.
Biomedical acoustics -- is the study of the use of sound in medicine,

for example the use of ultrasound for diagnostic and therapeutic
purposes.
Loudspeaker acoustics -- is an engineering discipline behind the

design of the loudspeaker.
Psychoacoustics -- is the study of how people react to sound,

hearing, perception, and localization.
Psychological Acoustics -- is the study of the mechanical, electrical

and biochemical function of hearing in living organisms.
Physical acoustics -- is the study of the detailed interaction of sound

with materials and fluids and includes, for example, sonoluminescence
(the emission of light by bubbles in a liquid excited by sound) and
thermoacoustics (the interaction of sound and heat).
Vibration acoustics -- Structural Acoustics and Vibration is the study

of how sound and mechanical structures interact; for example, the
transmission of sound through walls and the radiation of sound from
vehicle panels.
2-2 ACOUSTICS FUNDAMENTALS
Wolffian Acoustics -- is the study of salient features of pediatric

ultrasound insofar as it reviews technologic factors, technique, and the
normal anatomy used to evaluate the pediatric tract for abnormality.
Musical acoustics -- is the study of the physics of musical

instruments.
Underwater acoustics -- is the study of the propagation of sound in

the oceans. Closely associated with sonar research and development.
Acoustic engineering -- is the study of how sound is generated and

measured by loudspeakers, microphones, sonar projectors,
hydrophones, ultrasonic transducers, sensors.
B. .THEORY OF SOUND WAVES.
Sound is an alteration in pressure, stress, particle displacement, or particle

velocity that is propagated in an elastic medium.
General Subdivision
i. Infrasonic -- below 20 Hz
ii. Sonic -- 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
iii. Ultrasonic -- above 20,000 Hz
1. Velocity of Propagation
Sound travels at different velocities depending upon the medium.
Since sound travels not only in air but also through parts of the
structure it is of interest to know the velocities in other media.
i. In a gas medium
PO
s=
O
where :
PO = is the steady pressure of the gas in N/m 2
O = is the steady or average density of the gas in kg/m 3
= ratio of the specific heat of constant pressure to that
of the constant volume
ii. In normal dry air
s = 331.45 + 0.607TC for TC 20C

TK
s = 331.45 for TC > 20C
273
Sample Problem:
Determine the speed of sound in air at STP.
(Used = 1.4 for air, = 1.29 kg/m3, = 1 atm = 1.013 x 105 Pa)
Solution:
N
1.41.013 x 105 2
P0 m
s= = kg
= 332 m
s
0 1.29 3
m
Sample Problem:
A camera focuses using ultrasound. If it focuses precisely at 20 C, how far
off (%) will it be at 0 C?
Solution:
s = 331.45 + 0.607(0o )
= 331.45 m for 0 degrees
s = 331.45 + 0.607(20o )
= 343.59 m for 20 degrees
343.59 331.45
%miss = %100
343.59
= 3.53%
Answer : 3.53%
B. .CLASSES OF SPEECH.
1. Voiced Sounds
Voiced Sounds are produced when our vocal chords vibrate as a result
of our lungs generating sufficient pressure to open our vocal folds. For
most person, the vibration frequency of their folds is within 50 to 400
Hz range and is referred to as the pitch frequency component of voice.

2. Unvoiced Sounds
Unvoiced Sounds refer to the period of time when our vocal folds are
normally open, allowing air to pass from our lungs freely into the rest
of our vocal tract. Examples of unvoiced sounds include s, f, and sh,
generated by constricting the vocal tract by slightly closing our lips.
3. Plosive Sound
Plosive Sound results from the complete closure of our vocal tract,
resulting in air pressure becoming extremely high behind the closure.
C. .ATTRIBUTES OF SOUND.
1. Pitch
Pitch (music), highness or lowness of a musical tone as determined by
the rapidity of the vibrations producing it.
The qualitative perception of pitch is closely related to the measurable frequency

of a periodic pressure oscillation associated with sound waves.
2. Timbre
Timbre is a more elusive qualitative attribute of sound.
Timber is a quality of a sound that distinguishes it from others of the same pitch or
volume. Timbre can be considered the texture or color of a sound.
Quantitatively, it is related to waves with different shapes.
3. Loudness
Loudness is the human impression of the strength of a sound. The
loudness of a noise does not necessarily correlate with its sound level.
Loudness level of any sound, in phons, is the decibel level of an equally loud 1
kHz tone, heard binaurally by an ontologically normal listener.
Phon = 40 + 10 log2 Sone
A 10dB sound level increase is perceived to be about "twice as loud" in

many cases. The sone is a unit of comparative loudness with
0.5 sone = 30 phons,
1 sone = 40 phons
2 sones = 50 phons
4 sones = 60 phons
The sone "10dB rule" is inappropriate at very low and high sound levels where
human subjective perception does not follow it.
4. Duration
This is probably the quality that is simplest to relate to a measurable
quantity: the duration of a sound is the time interval between its
beginning and end points.
Summary
Sound
Measurable Quantity
Quality
Pitch frequency of sound waves
Timbre pressure oscillation waveform
loudness amplitude of pressure oscillation
duration time interval
Sample Problem:
Two public address speaker systems are being compared, and one is
perceived to be 64 times louder than the other. What will be the difference
in sound intensity levels between the two when measured by a dB-meter?
Solution:
Remember: A 10dB sound level increase is perceived to be about "twice as loud"
ln 64
64 = 2 = = 6
ln 2
The intensities differs by 6 factors of 10,
SIL = x (10 dB rule) = 6 x 10 = 60 dB
Sample Problem:
Given the following data:
SIL Loudness Loudness

(dB) (sone) Level (phon)
60 3.2 55
60 5.4 62
60 5.9 63
60 4.7 60
Compute for
a. Total Loudness (L)
b. Total Loudness Level (L )
Solution:
L = 3.2 + 5.4 + 5.9 + 4.7 L = 40 + 10 log2 19.2

= 19.2 sones = 82.63 phons

D. .FREQUENCY PARAMETERS.
1. Harmonics
Harmonics is defined as the integral multiples of the fundamental.
Nth Harmonics = nxfF fF = fundamenta l frequency in Hz
2. Overtone
Musical term for harmonics.
N th Overtone = (n + 1)xfF
3. Octave
Frequency interval of 2.
N th Octave = 2 n xfF
4. Decade
Frequency interval of 10.
Nth Decade = 10n xfF
Sample Problem:
A flute with all of the holes closed can be considered as a tube with both
ends open. It has a fundamental frequency of 261.6 Hz (which is middle C).
Calculate the 3rd harmonics, 3rd overtones, 3rd octaves, and 3rd decades of
this fundamental generated.
Solution:
3rd Harmonics = 3 x (261.6 Hz) 784.8 Hz
3rd Overtones = (3 + 1) x (261.6 Hz) 1.0464 kHz
3rd Octaves = 23 x (261.6 Hz) 2.0928 kHz
3rd Decades = 103 x (261.6 Hz) 261.6 kHz
E. .SOUND FIELDS.
1. Near Field
The area where the direct sound dominates and the sound pressure
may vary significantly with just small changes in position.
2. Far Field
The area beyond the near field. This is made up of two sections;
i. Free field
Free field where the direct sound still dominates and the sound
pressure level decreases 6 dB for each doubling of distance.
ii. Reverberant Field

Reverberant field where the reflected sound adds to the direct
sound and the decrease per doubling of distance will be less than
6 dB.
F. .LEVELS OF SOUND.
1. Sound Power (W) and Sound Power Level (PWL)

Sound power is the amount of energy emitted by a sound source per
unit time.
Sound Power Level (PWL) is often quoted on machinery to indicate the total
sound energy radiated per second. It is quoted in decibels with respect to the
reference power level.
i. General Solution
W = Acoustic power in W
W
PWL dB = 10 log W0 = Reference acoustic power
W0
= 10 12 Watts

In dB
PWL dB = 10 log W + 120 dB
ii. For Multiple Sources but different PWL
WT
PWL T = 10 log WT = W1 + W2 + W3 + WN
W0
iii. For Multiple Sources having the Same PWL
PWL T = PWL + 10 logn Since : WT = nWN
Sample Problem:
Determine the total PWL of 3 motors with a radiated acoustic power of 25
mW, 40 mW, and 85 mW respectively.
Solution: 85 mW
40 mW
25 mW
WT
WT = W1 + W2 + W3 + Wn PWL T = 10 log
W0
= 25 mW + 40 mW + 85 mW
150 mW
= 150 mW = 10 log
1012 W
= 111.76 dB
2. Sound Intensity (I) and Sound Intensity Level (SIL)

Sound intensity in a specified direction at a point in a sound field is
defined as the average rate of flow of sound energy through a unit
area normal to this direction at the point considered.
Sound Intensity Level is the ratio between a given intensity and reference
intensity.
i. General Solution
I W
SIL dB = 10 log I0 = 10 12
I0 m2
In dB
SIL dB = 10 logI + 120 dB
ii. For Multiple Sources but different SIL
IT
SIL T = 10 log I T = I1 + I2 + I3 + IN
I0
ii. For Multiple Sources having the Same SIL
SIL T = SIL + 10 logn Since : IT = nIN

Sample Problem:
You are at a party and talking with a group of people. They all produce
sound levels of the same magnitude at your position. The combined level
when all four talks at once is 70 dB.
a. What is the sound level from one person?
b. What is the sound intensity from one person?
c. If two additional people joined the conversation with an individual level
of 68 dB each, compute for the new combined intensity level.
Solution:
I
a.) SIL T = SIL + 10 log n b.) SIL = 10 log
I0
70 = SIL + 10 log 4
I
SIL = 64 dB 64 = 10 log
12 W
10
m2
W
I = 2.51
m2
c.) IT = I(4 people) + I(2 people)
W W
= 10 + 12.59
m2 m2
W
= 22.59 SIL T = 73.54 dB
m2
3. Sound Pressure (P) and Sound Pressure Level (SPL)

Sound Pressure is the root mean square of the instantaneous sound
pressures in a stated frequency band during a specified time intervals,
unless another time-averaging process is indicated.
i. General Solution
P0 = reference pressure
= 20 Pa
P
SPL dB = 20 log = 0 .0002 bar
P0
lb
= 2 .089
ft 2
In dB
SPL dB = 20 logP + k
ii. For Multiple Sources But Different SPL
PT
SIL T = 20 log PT = P12 + P22 + P32 + PN2
P0
iii. For Multiple Sources Having The Same SPL
SPL T = SPL + 10 logn Since : PT = P n
Sample Problem:
Calculate the effective SPL for a telephone ring, an operating vacuum
cleaner, and an air conditioner with an individual SPL of 82 dB, 76 dB, and
80 dB respectively relative to 20 Pa.
Solution:
Telephone Ring Vacuum Cleaner Air conditioner
P P P3
SPL1 = 20 log 1 SPL2 = 20 log 2 SPL 3 = 20 log
P0 P0 P0
P1 P2 P3
82 = 20 log 76 = 20 log 80 = 20 log
20 Pa 20 Pa 20 Pa
P1 = 251 .78 mPa P2 = 126 .2 mPa P3 = 200 mPa
PT P12 + P22 + P32

SPL T = 20 log = 20 log
P0 P0
(1 x 103 ) 251.782 + 126.22 + 2002

= 20 log = 84.75 dBSPL
20 Pa
Sample Problem: APRIL 2004

If the RMS sound pressure is 5 lb/ft2, what is the sound pressure level?
Solution:
P 5
SPL = 20 log = 20 log = 7.58 dB
Po 2.089

To calculate Sound Pressure Level (SPL) in dB for several units of sound

pressure just add the following constant to their corresponding dB value.
Given Unit To dB
Atmosphere
20log P + 194.1
(Standard)
Atmosphere
20log P + 193.8
(Technical)
lb/in2 20log P + 170.8
Torr 20log P + 136.5

millimeter of
20log P + 136.5
Mercury
Pascal 20log P + 94
Microbar 20log P + 74
4. Relationship between Sound Intensity (I) and Sound Pressure (P)

As most measurements of sound are in terms of sound pressure (P), it
is useful to know the relationship between sound intensity and sound
pressure:
i. General Solution
where :
P 2 I = is the sound intensity in W/m 2

I= P = is the sound pressure in Pa
c
= is the density of the medium in kg/m 3
c = is the speed of sound in m/s
ii. For dry air at 17C (=1.2kg/m3 , c=341.7m/s)
P2
I=
410 rayls

The dB scale for SPL and SIL are equal thus the dB value of the two can be used
interchangeably but always keep in mind that the actual intensity and actual
pressure corresponding to a particular dB level are completely different in
magnitude and units.
Sample Problem:
What is the intensity of sound whose RMS pressure is 81.2 x10-3N/m2?
Solution:
P2
I= c = 331,45 + 0.607(25C)
c
(81.2 mPa)2 W
= = 15.85 x 106 2
1.2 x 346.625 m
15.85 x 106
SIL = 10 log = 72 dBSIL
1012
5. Relationship between Sound Intensity (I) and Sound Power (W)
i. General Solution
where:
WQ W = sound power in W
I=
4 r 2 Q = Directivity factor
r = distance from the source in m
In dB
PWL dB = SIL dB + 20 logrm QdB + 11

ii. For Airborne Sound
where :
W Q = 1
I=
4 r 2 PWL = 10 log W
SIL = 10 log I
In dB
PWL dB = SIL dB + 20 log rm + 11

The sound power level of a certain jet plane flying at a height of 1 km is
160 dB. Find the maximum sound pressure level on the ground directly
below the flight path assuming that the aircraft radiates sound equally in all
directions.
Solution:
1 km
PWL dB = SIL dB + 20 log rm + 11 since SIL dB = SPL dB
SPL dB = PWL dB 20 log rm 11 = 160 20 log 1000 11

= 89 dB
iii. For Ground-originating Sound
where :
W Q =2
I=
2 r 2 PWL = 10 log W
SIL = 10 log I
In dB
PWL dB = SIL dB + 20 logrm + 8
Sample Problem:
A car horn outdoors produces a sound intensity level of 90 dB at 10 m
away. At this distance, what is the sound power in watt?
Solution:
SIL = 90 dB
10 m
PWL dB = SIL dB + 20 log rm + 8 since SILdB = SIL dB
PWL dB = SPL dB + 20 log rm + 8 = 90 20 log 10 + 8

= 118 dBPWL W = 0.63 W

iv. For enclose space with reverberant field
a. General Solution
I T = ID + IR
b. For sound source with directional characteristics

(Small enclosure)
Q 4
SPL dB = PWL dB + 10 log 2
+ +K
4 r R
c. For sound source with no directivity

(Large space)
SPL dB = PWL dB 20 logr 10 logR 5 + K
where :
S W
R = room constant I T = total sound intensity in
m2
1
WQ
S = Room surface area ID = direct sound intensity
4 r 2
= absorption coefficien t 4W
IR = R
reverberan t sound intensity
K = 0 . 2 dB metric
= 10.5 dB English
G. .FUNDAMENTALS OF ROOM ACOUSTICS.
Room acoustics is concerned with the behavior of sound within an enclosed

space with a view to obtaining the optimum effects on the occupants.
Reverberation Time (RT60)

Reverberation time is the time required for the mean square sound
pressure of a given frequency in an enclosure, initially in a steady state, to
decay after the source is stopped, to 60 dB or one-millionth of its initial
value.
1. Stephen and Bate Equation

The Stephen and Bate equation is used for computing the ideal
reverberation time in second.
2. Sabine Equation
The equation governing the decay of uniformly diffuse sound in a live
room for an average absorption less than or equal to 0.2
Metric System
V
RT60 = 0.161 where:
A
V = Room volume
A = room total absorption A = S
English system S = room total surface area
= ave. room absorption coefficient
V
RT60 = 0.049
A
Past Board Problem:

A church has an interval volume of 90.05 ft3 (2,550 m3). When it contains
2,000 customary sabins of absorption (186 metric sabins), what will be its
reverberation time in seconds.
Solution:
0.16V 0.049V
RT60 = RT60 =
A A
0.16(2,550) 0.049(90.05)
= = 2.19 s = = 2.19 s
186 2000 x103
3. Norris-Eyring Equation
The equation governing the decay of uniformly diffuse sound in a live
room for an average absorption greater than 0.2
Norris-Eyring Equation is based on the mean free path between reflections.
Metric System
V
RT60 = 0.161 where:
S ln(1 )
V = Room volume
A = room total absorption A = S
English system S = room total surface area
= ave. room absorption coefficient
V
RT60 = 0.049
S ln(1 )

Relation between Sabine & Norris-Eyring Equation
RT60 (Sabine)
RT60 (Norris Eyring) =
ln(1 )
Sample Problem:
Calculate the Norris-Eyring reverberation time of uniformly diffuse sound in
a live room if the average absorption is 0.8 and the Sabine reverberation
time is 1.75 s.
Solution:
RT60(Sabine) 1.75
RT60(Norris Eyring) = = = 1.087 s
ln(1 ) ln(1 0.8)
H. .NOISE ANNOYANCE.
1. Noisiness
Defined as the subjective impression of the unwantedness of a sound
or annoyance.
2. Noy
A subjective unit of noisiness. A sound of 2 noys is twice as noisy as a
sound of 1 noy and half as noisy as a sound of 4 noys.
Human listeners can detect the difference between two sound

sources that are placed as little as three degrees apart, about the
width of a person at 10 meters.
The primary advantage of having two ears is the ability to identify

the direction of the sound.
I. .NOISE-INDUCED HEARING LOSS.
1. 2 Main Types of Deafness
i. Nerve deafness
Caused by damage or degeneration of hair cells in organ of Corti
in the cochlea (inner ear). Such hearing loss is typically uneven,
and there is greater loss of higher frequencies than lower
frequencies.
This is the type of hearing loss normally found with aging and once
degeneration has occurred it usually cannot be remedied.
ii. Conduction deafness
Caused by some problem in the outer or middle ear that affects
transmission of sound waves to the inner ear. Conduction
deafness is more even across frequencies and doesn't result in
complete hearing loss. Conduction deafness is only partial hearing
loss because sound waves can be transmitted to inner ear by
conduction through bones of the skull.
J. .TYPES OF HEARING LOSS.
1. Presbycusis
Hearing loss due to normal aging process. Typically this is greater for
men than women.
2. Sociocusis
Hearing loss due to non-occupational noise sources e.g. household
noises, TV, road traffic, etc. (criteria for occupational/ non-occupation
fuzzy).
3. Nosocusis
Hearing loss due to a pathological condition.
K. .OCCUPATIONAL HEARING LOSS.
1. Temporary Hearing Loss

After exposure to continuous noise of sufficient intensity, some
temporary hearing loss which is usually recovered a few hours or days
after exposure. This hearing loss is usually measured 2 minutes after
the end of exposure and is termed the temporary threshold shift at 2
minutes (TTS2)
2. Permanent Hearing Loss

Repeated exposure to noise of sufficient intensity produces a
permanent threshold shift (PTS). This is the same thing as noise
induced permanent threshold shift (NIPTS). PTS is usually noticed at

around 4-KHz and with further exposure, gradually hearing loss

spreads over wider frequency range.
L. .ILLUMINATION BASIC.
Important Terminology
1. Luminous Intensity
Luminous intensity is the amount of luminous flux per unit solid angle
in a given direction.
2. The luminous efficacy

The luminous efficacy of a light source is the measure of light-
producing efficiency of the source. It is the ratio of the total luminous
flux output to the total input power of the source expressed in
lumens/watt.
3. Incandescence
Emission of radiation due to the temperature of the source.
4. Luminescence
Emission of radiation due to causes other than temperature of the
source.
5. The lumen
The amount of luminous energy (flux) emanating from one square foot
(meter) of surface on the sphere is one lumen.
Unit of light quantity. 1 Lumen = 1.5 mW
6. Fluorescence
Luminescence stimulated by radiation, not continuing more than about
10-8 s after the stimulating radiation is cut-off.
Unit Conversion
Parameter Multiply By To obtain
ft-candle 10.764 Lux
Illumination
Lux 0.0929 ft-candle
ft-lambert 0.00221 candlela/in2
Luminance
candela/in2 452 ft-lambert
Intensity Candlepower 1 Candela

A 500 candle power that is located 12 feet from a surface provides how
many lux?
Solution:
Luminous flux in Lumen 500 candle power
Illu min ation = =
Area (12 ft)2
candle power 1 Candela 10.764 lux
= 3.47 x x
ft2 candle power foot candle
= 37.375 lux

I H
1. You are at a party and talking with a group of people. They all produce sound
levels of the same magnitude at your position. The combined level when all
four talks at once is 76 dB. If another group of people join the conversation
with an individual level of 68 dB each and produce a total level of 82.12 dB
together with the 1st group, determine how many people join the conversation.
A. 15 B. 5
C. 30 D. 20
2. Assume the speed of sound is 1,130 ft/s. What frequency has a wavelength of
1 foot, 1.5 inches?
A. 500 Hz B. 1000 Hz
C. 1500 Hz D. 2000 Hz
3. During a fireworks show a rocket explodes. To a listener who is 640 m away,

the sound has an intensity of 0.10 mW/m2. What is the intensity for a listener
who is 160 m away?
A. 5.6 mW/ m2 B. 6.6 mW/ m2
2
C. 1.6 mW/ m D. 3.6 mW/ m2
4. At room temperature, what is the velocity of sound in meters/seconds?

A. 348.03 cm/s B. 341.8 m/s
C. 980 cm/s D. 980 m/s
5. The sound power level of a jet plane flying at a height of 1 km is 160 dB (ref 10
exponent -12 W). What is the maximum sound pressure level on the ground
directly below the plane assuming that the aircraft radiates sound equally in all
directions? APRIL 1997
A. 59.1 dB B. 69.1 dB
C. 79.1 dB D. 89.1 dB
6. Calculate the velocity of sound in ft/sec. If the temperature is 149 degrees

Celsius?
A. 1357.03 ft/sec B. 1920.435 ft/sec
C. 1530.03 ft/sec D. 1320 ft/sec
7. A periodic wave passes an observer, who records that there is a time of 0.5 s
between crests.
A. the frequency is 0.5 Hz B. the speed is 0.5 m/s
C. the wavelength is 0.5 m D. the period is 0.5 s
8. A method of expressing the amplitude of a complex non-periodic signals such

as speech. NOV 1997
A. Frequency B. Pitch
C. Wavelength D. Volume
9. For a harmonic wave of a certain type in a given medium, doubling the

frequency has the effect of
A. halving the speed B. halving the wavelength
C. doubling the amplitude D. doubling the period
10. Quite generally, doubling the amplitude of the wave

A. doubles the frequency B. halves the period
C. quadruples the energy D. doubles the speed
11. A dB-meter is placed in front of an audio system reads 62 dB. The volume is
turned up and the meter now reads 72 dB. Evidently, the sound got
A. twice as loud B. half as loud
C. 20x louder D. 10x louder
12. A sound that has an intensity level of 100 dB is how many times more intense
than a sound of 20 dB?
A. 5 B. 8
C. 1000 D. 108
13. ______ is the transmission of sound from one room to an adjacent room
through common wall, floors or ceilings. APRIL 1997
A. Reflection B. Flanking transmission
C. Refraction D. Reverberation
14. A sound-level meter is placed in front of a loudspeaker of a 60-W audio system

reads 70 dB. All else being equal, when placed in front of a 120-W system, the
meter will read
A. 120 dB B. 140 dB
C. 63 dB D. 73 dB
15. ______ is the average rate of transmission of sound energy in a given direction
through a cross sectional area of 1square meter at right angle to the direction.
NOV 1996
A. Pressure variation B. Loudness
C. Sound pressure D. Sound intensity
16. If one stereo system sound 16x louder than another, the difference in their
sound levels is about
A. 40 dB B. 30 dB
C. 16 dB D. 160 dB
17. A speaker cabinet has an internal volume of 84,950 square cm. It has a port
area on the baffle of 3,230 square cm and a baffle thickness of 19 mm. What is
the Helmholtz resonance in hertz of this speaker enclosure? MARCH 1996
A. 245 Hz B. 250 Hz
C. 260 Hz D. 265 Hz

18. A person standing at one side of a playing field on a cold winter night emits a
brief yell. The short acoustical wavetrains returns 1 s later as an echo having
bounced off a distant dormitory. Approximately how far away is the building.
A. 100 meters B. 165 meters
C. 500 meters D. 332 meters
19. Two audio systems at a demonstration are blasting away, with one putting out
10x the acoustic power of the other. What is the difference in their sound
levels?
A. 10 dB B. 5 dB
C. 13 dB D. 16 dB
20. The sound energy per unit area at right angles to the propagation direction per
unit time. APRIL 1997
A. Sound stress B. Loudness
C. Coherence D. Sound intensity
21. A small but noisy printer produces an acoustic intensity of 560 W/m2 at a
point 5 m away. Approximately what value will a dB-meter read 20 m from the
printer?
A. 85 dB B. 65 dB
C. 75 dB D. 95 dB
22. Calculate the effective SPL for a washing machine, a radio receiver, and a
blender with an SPL of 76 dB, 84 dB, and 92 dB respectively relative to 2x10-5
N/m2.
A. 63 dBSPL B. 93 dBSPL
C. 83 dBSPL D. 73 dBSPL
23. The midrange frequency range of sound is from MARCH 1996

A. 16 to 64 Hz B. 256 to 2048 Hz
C. 2048 to 4096 Hz D. 512 to 2048 Hz
24. What is the combined SPL produce by 2 guitars and 4 violins with an individual
SIL of 82 dB and 80 dB each?
A. 77.35 dBSPL B. 88.56 dBSPL
C. 84.64 dBSPL D. 37.71 dBSPL
25. One violin playing produces a sound level of 68 dB at your ears. If a second
violin plays, producing the same sound level at your ear, what is the sound
level from both violins playing?
A. 75 dB B. 71 dB
C. 77 dB D. 79 dB
26. Two sound sources produce intensity levels of 50 dB and 60 dB, respectively, at
a point. When functioning simultaneously, what is the total SIL?
A. 60.4 dB B. 110 dB
C. 50.4 dB D. 70 dB
27. An instrument for recording waveform of audio frequency. APRIL 1997

A. Audioscope B. Radioscope
C. Phonoscope D. Oscilloscope
28. The speed of a wave on a stretched string ______ when the tension in it is
doubled
A. doubles B. increases by a factor of 2
C. decreases by a factor of 2 D. increases by a factor of 1.414
29. What is the increase in sound pressure level in dB, if the pressure is double?
A. 2 dB B. 3 dB
C. 6 dB D. 4 dB
30. If the RMS sound pressure is 355 lb/ft2, what is the sound pressure level?
A. 10 dB B. 45 dB
C. 108 dB D. 88 dB
31. One hundred twenty bars of pressure variation is equal to _____.

A. 120 dBSPL B. 41.58 dBSPL
C. 57.58 dBSPL D. 115.56 dBSPL
32. Calculate the brightness of a light source that causes 100 lumens on a 1 sq-ft
surface with a diffuse reflectance of 60%.
A. 6 footlamberts B. 60 footlamberts
C. 12 footlamberts D. 120 footlamberts
33. The reverberation time of a 184.2 cubic meters broadcast studio is 0.84 s. Find
the absorption effect of the materials used in metric sabines.
A. 35.3 B. 379.8
C. 109.6 D. 10.96
34. Lowest frequency produced by a musical instrument. APRIL 1997

A. Midrange B. Fundamental
C. Harmonic D. Period
35. A 40-W, 430 mA fluorescent tube produces 3200 lumens. What is the
illumination on the floor of a 10-ft2 room assuming 40% overall efficiency and
uniform illumination?
A. 17.7 lux B. 37.7 lux
C. 137.7 lux D. 13.7 lux
36. Tendency of sound energy to spread. APRIL 1997

A. Refraction B. Rarefaction
C. Diffraction D. Reflection
37. What is the increase in sound pressure level in dB, if the intensity is doubled?
A. 2 dB B. 3 dB
C. 6 dB D. 4 dB
38. If the distance between the listener and the source of the sound is decreased to
the original amount, the intensity is reduced to _____.
A. 2 times as great B. 4 times as great
C. 3 times as great D. 5 times as great

39. If the distance between the listener and the source of the sound is doubled, the
intensity is reduced to _____.
A. B. 1/8
C. 1/16 D.
40. A car horn outdoors produces a sound intensity level of 90 dB at 10 ft away. At

this distance, what is the sound power in watt? MARCH 1996
A. 0.012 W B. 1.2 W
C. 0.12 W D. 12 W
41. What is the sound pressure level of a sound having an RMS pressure of 200
N/m2?
A. 140 dB B. 170 dB
C. 150 dB D. 160 dB
42. ______ used to measure speech volume. APRIL 1997

A. Speech meter B. Volume meter
C. Volume unit meter D. Audio frequency meter
43. What is the intensity of sound whose RMS pressure is 200 N/m2?
A. 96.8 W/m2 B. 95.8 W/m2
C. 97.8 W/m2 D. 94.8 W/m2
44. Sound intensity level is _______. APRIL 1997

A. 10 log I/ref/I B. 30 log I/ref
C. 10 log I/Iref D. 20 log I/ref
45. Determine the total PWL of 3 motors with a radiated acoustic power of 22 mW,
43 mW, and 79 mW respectively and calculate the SPL 15 m from an observer.
A. 116.7 dBPWL, 83.87 dBSPL B. 83.87 dBPWL, 116.7 dBSPL
C. 56.53 dBPWL, 111.6 dBSPL D. 111.6 dBPWL, 56.53 dBSPL
46. A sound intensity that could cause painful sensation in the human ear. APRIL
1999
A. Sensation intensity B. Hearing threshold
C. Threshold of pain D. Threshold of sense
47. What is the individual PWL of 7 air-conditioned with a total PWL of 116 dB?
A. 127. 55 dB B. 107. 55 dB
C. 97. 55 dB D. 117. 55 dB
48. The sound power level of a certain jet plane flying at a height of 1 km is 160
dB. Find the maximum intensity of sound on the ground directly below the
flight path assuming that the aircraft radiates sound equally in all directions.
A. 8128.3 W/m2 B. 8.1283 W/m2
C. 794.32 W/m2 D. 81.283 W/m2
49. Sound intensity is given as. NOV 1997

A. df/dP B. dP/dA
C. dE/dP D. dA/dP
50. What is the sound power from a motor car whose SPL at a distance of 7.5 m is
87 dB assuming that it radiates sound uniformly?
A. 0.15 W B. 0.18 W
C. 0.21 W D. 0.24 W
51. Designates the sensation of low or high in the sense of the base and treble.
NOV 1997
A. Pitch B. SPL
C. Frequency D. Intensity
52. A car horn outdoors produces a sound intensity level of 90 dB at 10 m away. At

this distance, what is the sound power in watt?
A. 0.56 x 10-6 B. 0.315
C. 1.26 D. 0.63
53. A church has an interval volume of 90.05 ft3 (2,550 m3). When it contains
2,000 customary sabins of absorption (186 metric sabins), what will be its
reverberation time in seconds.
A. 3.0 B. 2.5
C. 2.0 D. 2.2
54. Calculate the total loudness level of sound sources with a combined loudness of
22.5 sones.
A. 53.52 phons B. 84.92 phons
C. 48.39 phons D. 99.5 phons
55. Noise reduction system used for film sound in movie. NOV 1996
A. dolby B. dBm
C. dBa D. dBx

2-28 Television fundamentals
Section Television Read it

till it
DEFINITION. Television is a system for transmitting images and sound by

converting them into electrical or radio waves which are converted back into
images and sound by a receiver.
DEFINITION. Broadcasting means to send out in all directions.
DEFINITION. Motion Picture is a series of real or fictional events recorded by

a camera and projected onto a screen as a sequence of moving pictures,
usually with an accompanying soundtrack.
1878 William Crookes in England invented the Crookes tube, which produce
cathode rays.
1884 Paul Nipkow in Germany built a mechanical scanning device, the

Nipkow disc, a rotating disc with a spiral pattern of holes in it.
1897 Karl Ferdinand Braun, also in Germany, modified the Crookes tube to
produce the ancestor of the modern TV receiver picture tube.
1900 The Russian scientist Constantin Perskyi is credited with coining the
word "television".
1906 Boris Rosing in Russia began experimenting with the Nipkow disc and
cathode-ray tube, eventually succeeding in transmitting some crude
TV pictures.
1923 Vladimir Zworykin in the USA invented the first electronic camera
tube, the ICONOSCOPE.
1926 John Logie Baird demonstrated a workable TV system (30 lines/frame,

5 frames/s) using mechanical scanning by Nipkow disc.
1928 Baird demonstrated color TV.
1929 The BBC began regular broadcasting using Bairds system (405
lines/frame, 25 frames/s).
1975 Sony introduced their videocassette tape recorder system, BETAMAX,

for domestic viewers.
1979 Matshusita in Japan developed a pocket-sized flat-screen TV set, using

a liquid crystal display (LCD).
1989 Japanese begin broadcasting high-definition television (HDTV).
A. .PICTURE REPRODUCTION.
The picture is divided into the

elementary areas of black and
white. When each picture element
is transmitted to the right side of
the figure and reproduced in the
original position with its shade of
black or white, the image is
duplicated.
B. .PICTURE QUALITIES.
1. Brightness
The overall or average intensity, which determines the background
level in the reproduced picture.
2. Contrast
The difference in intensity between black-and-white parts of the
reproduced picture.
3. Detail
The quality of detail, which is also called resolution or definition,
depends on the number of picture elements that can be reproduced.
4. Color Level or Saturation

The color information superimposed on a monochrome picture that
depends on the amplitude of the 3.58 MHz chrominance signal.
5. Hue
The color of an object that depends on the phase angle of the 3.58
MHz chrominance signal.
6. Aspect Ratio
The ratio of width to height of the picture frame.
WIDTH
a=
HEIGHT

Sample Problem:
Calculate the number of active pixel in a line in an NTSC TV system if 42
lines out of every 525 are blanked out to leave time for the vertical retraces.
Solution:
# of pixel = a x no. of active lines
4
= x (525 42)
3
= 644 pixels
C. .TABLE OF PICTURE QUALITIES.
Quality Picture Signal
Range between Amplitude of ac

Contrast
black and white video signal
Background DC bias on picture
Brightness
illumination tube
Frequency response
Resolution Sharpness of detail
of video signal
Intensity or level Amplitude of 3.58-
Color saturation
of color MHz chroma signal
Phase angle of 3.58-
Hue Tint of color
MHz chroma signal
The standard television image has an aspect ratio of 4:3.
High-Definition TV (HDTV) has an aspect ratio of 16:9.
A motion picture has an aspect ratio of 25:9.
Charge Coupled Device (CCDs) used for scientific applications often

have an aspect ratio of 1:1.
D. .PHOTO-ELECTRIC EFFECT IN CAMERA TUBES.
The liberation of an electric charge by electromagnetic radiation incident

on a substance; includes photoemission, photoconduction and photovoltaic
effect.
1. Photoconduction
In photoconduction, the conductance or resistance is change; more
light decreases the resistance.
2. Photoemission
In photoemission, electron are emitted when light strikes the surface;
more light produce more electrons

The image orthicon operates by photoemission, while the vidicon and
plumbicon depend on photoconduction to produce the required camera
signal.
E. .TYPES OF CAMERA TUBES.
1. Image Orthicon -- Consist of three main sections: the image section,

scanning section, and the electron multiplier.
2. Vidicon -- The vidicon consists of a glass envelope with an optically

flat faceplate at the end to receive the light input. In this basic camera
tube, the photosensitive target, or image plate, is made of antimony
trisulfide.
3. Plumbicon -- This name is a trademark of N.V. Philips. The camera

tube is similar to the basic vidicon, but the image plate of plumbicon is
made of lead oxide (Pbo).
4. Saticon -- This name is a trademark of Hitachi Ltd. The image plate is

made of selenium, arsenic and tellurium.
5. Silicon Dioxide Vidicon -- A silicon semiconductor junction is used

for the target material in the silicon vidicon.
6. Chalnicon -- This name is a trademark of Toshiba Electric Co. Ltd.

The target is a complex multi-layer arrangement consisting of tin
oxide, cadmium selenide, and arsenic trisulfide
7. Newvicon -- This name is a trademark of Matsushita Electric. The

target is made of an amorphous zinc-selenium layer backed by
antimony trisulfide.

F. .SUMMARY OF CAMERA TUBES.
Life
Type Size Image Plate Notes
(Hrs)
Length:
1,500
Image 15-20 in High quality,
Photocathode to
Orthicon Diameter: high sensitivity
6,000
3-4 in
Length: Simple
5,000
5-8 in Selenium construction,
Vidicon to
Diameter: Photoconductor used for film
20,000
0.6-1.6 in pickup
Simple
Length:
construction, 2,000
8 in PbO
Plumbicon low lag, to
Diameter: Photoconductor
sensitivity low 3,000
1.2 in
for red light
Silicon Length: Low lag,
2,000
Diode 6 in Silicon diode sensitive to red
to
Array Diameter: array and infrared
3,000
Vidicon 1 in light
G. .STANDARD SCANNING PATTERN.
1. Horizontal Scanning - The linear rise of current in the horizontal

deflection coils deflects the beam across the screen with continuous,
uniform motion for the trace from left to right.
2. Vertical Scanning - The sawtooth current in the vertical deflection coils

moves the electron beam from top to bottom of the raster.
H. .DIRECTION FOR TRACE & RETRACE.
HORIZONTAL VERTICAL
INTERLACE SCANNING
When an image is scanned line by line from top to bottom, the top of the
image on the screen will begin to fade by the time the electron beam
reaches the bottom of the screen. With interlaced scanning, odd-numbered
lines are scanned first, and the remaining even-numbered lines are
scanned next. A full image is still produced 30 times a second, but the
electron beam travels from the top of the screen to the bottom of the
screen twice for every time a full image is produced.
Concept of Progressive Scanning
The horizontal scanning lines are interlace in the

television system in order to provide two views of
the images for each picture frame. All the odd lines
are scanned, omitting the even lines. Then the
even lines are scanned to complete the whole frame
without losing any picture information.
Concept of Interlace Scanning
The horizontal scanning lines are interlace in the

are scanned, omitting the even lines. Then the
television system in order to provide two views of
even lines are scanned to complete the whole frame
the images for each picture frame. All the odd lines
without losing any picture information. *
*Read first the odd lines and then the even lines.

I. .PICTURE DEFINITION.
Hp
Width of Line =
N
Hp NH
Aspect Ratio a= =
Vp NV
Number of Horizontal NV = N NS
Visible Lines
(# of Pixels in the NV = 0.7(N NS )
Vertical Direction)
If Kell factor is considered
Number of Vertical NH = a x NV
Visible Lines
(# of Pixels in the NH = BWvideo x 2TH
Horizontal Direction)
NH
NL =
Total Number of Pixel 0.835
per Horizontal Line NL = NH
NP = NL xNV
Total Number of Pixel
in a Frame NP = NH xNV
NL xfH
BWvideo =
2
NV
BWvideo =
Video Bandwidth 80
BWvideo = 0.35NH xfH
where:
N = Total number of scanlines period per frame period (525 for NTSC )
NS = Number of scanlines suppressed during retraced ( 40 to 42 )
= width of each scan line
Vp = Vertical dimension of the viewing area of the CRT
Hp = Horizontal dimension of the viewing area of the CRT
a = Aspect ratio ( 4/3 )
N V = Vertical resolution in lines/details or pixels
NH = Horizontal resolution in lines/details or pixels
TH = Horizontal Tra ce period (53 to 53.5 sec )
fH = 15, 750 Hz
Sample Problem:
Find the picture height and width in terms of number of pixels also find the
total number of pixels and the highest video bandwidth (assuming NTSC
system).
Solution:
For number of active lines For total number of pixels
NV = N NS NH 647
NL = =
= 525 40 0.835 0.835
= 485 lines = 775 pixels
For number of active pixels For the video bandwidth

NH = a x NV BWV = 0.35 x fH x NL
4 = 0.35 x 15,750 Hz x 775 pixels
= x 485
3 = 4.27 MHz
= 647 lines

Time to Scan a 53.5 s 1

t= t=
Pixel NH BWv
Time to Scan N
tN = N x t
Pixels in a Line
ECE Board Exam: April 2003

Calculate the amount of time to scan 20 pixels.
Solution:
NH = BW x 2T = 4MHz x 2(53.5 s) = 428 pixels
tN = (# of pixels) x (time to scan a pixel)
53 .5s
= (20 pixels) x
428 pixels
= 2.5s
J. .DETAILS OF HORIZONTAL BLANKING.
Period Time(s)
Total Line (H) 63.5
H blanking 9.5 to 11.5 (10.5 typical)
H sync pulse 4.75 + 0.5
Front Porch 1.27
Back Porch 3.81
Visible Line time 52 to 54
K. .DETAILS OF VERTICAL BLANKING.
PERIOD TIME
Total Field (V) 16.7 ms
V blanking 0.05 to 0.08 V
V sync pulse 0.5H= 31.76 s
Total of six V sync pulses 3H= 190.5 s
Each Equalizing pulse 0.04H= 2.54 s
Each Serration pulse 0.04H= 2.54 s
Visible Field time 0.92 to 0.95 V
L. .COMPOSITE VIDEO SIGNAL.

Signal IRE Level Carrier Level

Tip Of Sync -40 100 %
Blanking Level 0 75% + 2.5%
Black Level 7.5 67.5%
White Level 100 12.5% + 2.5%
Luminance Level to IRE Unit Conversion
where :
IRE = 7.5 + A x (A max A min )
A = Luminance of a video signal
Sample Problem:
Find the equivalent IRE units of a video signal which has 80% of the
maximum luminance level.
Solution:
IRE = 7.5 + 80% (100 7.5)
= 81.5 IRE units
M. .TELEVISION CHANNEL ALLOCATION.
Frequency
Channel Number
Band (MHz)
1 48-54
Low Band
2-4 54-72
VHF
5-6 76-88
High Band
7-13 174-210
VHF
14-83 UHF 470-884
N. .SPECTRUM OF STANDARD TV BROADCAST CHANNEL.
1. Monochrome TV
2. Color TV
Sample Problem:
Calculate the picture carrier, exact color subcarrier, and sound carrier of the
ff channels: a. Ch 2 b. Ch 6
Solution:
Channel 2 (54 to 60 MHz) Channel 6 (82 to 88 MHz)
P = 54 + 1.25 = 55.25 MHz P = 82 + 1.25 = 83.25 MHz
C = P + 3.579545 = 58.829545 MHz C = P + 3.579545 = 86.829545 MHz
S = 60 0.25 = 57.75 MHz S = 88 0.25 = 87.75 MHz

The tolerance for picture carrier frequency is +1000 Hz.
The sound carrier frequency must be 4.5 MHz + 1000 Hz above the
picture carrier frequency.
The chroma subcarrier frequency is 3.579545 MHz + 0 Hz.
The exact carrier frequencies for different stations on the same channel
are offset by +10 kHz or -10 kHz.
O. .FREQUENCY INVERSION OF I.F. OUTPUT.
IF Signal Frequencies
Frequency
Parameter
(MHz)
Picture IF 45.75
1st Chrominance IF 42.17
st
1 Sound IF 41.25
2 nd
Chrominance IF 3.58
2nd Sound IF 4.50
P. .RECEIVER TROUBLES.
Troubles Caused
Since the sound is normal, the trouble of no
No raster, with normal
brightness is usually the result of no anode
sound
voltage from the high voltage supply.
This trouble is in the signal circuits, before
No picture and no sound,
the sound take-off point, because both the
with normal raster
picture and sounds are affected.
No picture, with normal The most probable section with trouble is the
raster and normal sound video amplifier section.
No sound, with normal The trouble must be in the sound circuits,
raster and normal after the sound take-off points, because only
picture the sound is affected.
Only a horizontal line on The trouble must be in the vertical deflection
the screen oscillator and the vertical output stage.
This trouble means the raster and the signal
No raster and no sound
circuits are not operating.
Ghosting (Double-image distortion)

Noise in TV receiver that is cause by two signals arriving at the receiver at
two different times.
Sample Problem:
Determine the difference in path lengths between the direct and multipath
signal which produces a TV ghost displaced by 2 centimeters from the direct
image on a 19-inch screen.
Solution:
For the picture width
W 4 3
a= = ; H = W; Diagonal = H2 + W2
H 3 4
2
3 9 25 2
192 = W + W2 = W2 + W2 = W
4 16 16
4 4
W = D = (19) = 15.2 inches (38.6 cm)
5 5
For the 2cm delay
Ghost displacement 2 cm
td = x visible trace = x 53 sec
Width 38.6 cm
= 2.7 sec
For the path length difference
d = Vp x t d = (3 x 108 m / s) x 2.75 sec = 825 meters

Q. .Y, I, Q MATRIX WEIGHTINGS.
Color Video Signals
Luminance
The luminance signal contains all information required to construct
a black and white picture from the signal.
In-Phase/ Quadrature Chrominance

Chrominance is a combination of both hue and saturation.
Y = 0.30R + 0.59G + 0.11B

I = 0.60R 0.28G 0.32B
Q = 0.21R 0.52G + 0.31B
Primary Color Signals
R= 0.62Q + 0.95I + Y
G = 0.64Q 0.28I + Y
B = 1.73Q 1.11I + Y
where:
Y = Luminance signal R = Red signal
I = In-phase signal G = Green signal
Q = Quadrature signal B = Blue signal
Sample Problem:
An RGB video signal has normalized value of R=0.2, G=0.4, B=0.8. Find the
value of Y, I, Q, and C.
Solution:
Luminance signal
Y = 0.30R + 0.59G + 0.11B
= (0.30 x 0.2) + (0.59 x 0.4) + (0.11 x 0.8)
= 0.384
In-phase signal
I = 0.60R 0.28G 0.32B
= (0.60 x 0.2) (0.28 x 0.4) (0.32 x 0.8)
= 0.248
Quadrature signal
Q = 0.21R 0.52G + 0.31B
= (0.21 x 0.2) (0.52 x 0.4) + (0.31 x 0.8)
= 0.082
Note that the components (negative) of -0.28G and -0.32B total -0.60,
which equals the positive value of 0.60R.
These values are chosen to make the amplitude of the I-video signal become
zero (0) for white.
Note that the components (posititive) of 0.21G and 0.31B total 0.52,
to equal the negative component of -0.52G.
These values are chosen to make the amplitude of the Q-video signal become
zero (0) for white.
Both the I and Q signals are zero for white, since there is no
chrominance information in white.

R. .LUMINANCE & IRE UNIT OF COLOR VIDEO SIGNAL.
Green
Red
Blue
Wh Yel Cyn Grn Mg Rd Bl Blk
Sample Problem:
Calculate the luminance signal and the IRE equivalent unit for saturated
green and yellow.
Solution:
For saturated green;
Y = 0.3R + 0.59G + 0.11B
= (0.3 x 0) + (0.59 x 1) + (0.11 x 0)
= 0.59 59% of max lu min ance
IRE = 0% lu min ance + 59% of max luminance

= 7.5 + 0.59(100 7.5)
= 62.075
For saturated yellow;

Y = 0.3R + 0.59G + 0.11B
= (0.3 x 1) + (0.59 x 1) + (0.11 x 0)
= 0.89 89% of max lu min ance
IRE = 0% lu min ance + 89% of max luminance

= 7.5 + 0.89(100 7.5)
= 89.825
Summary of Different IRE units
IRE
Color Luminance Equivalent
Unit
White 100% 100
Yellow 89% 89.825
Cyan 70% 72.25
Green 59% 62.075
Magenta 41% 45.425
Red 30% 35.25
Blue 11% 17.675
Black 0% 7.5
S. .CHROMINANCE OF COLOR VIDEO SIGNAL.
Chrominance Magnitude & Phase
Q
CMAGNITUDE = I2 + Q2 CPHASE = 33 tan1
I

Sample Problem:
Calculate the chrominance signal for saturated red vector.
Solution:
In-phase signal Quadrature signal

I = 0.60R 0.28G 0.32B Q = 0.21R 0.52G + 0.31B
= (0.60 x 1) (0.28 x 0) (0.32 x 0) = (0.21 x1) (0.52 x 0) + (0.31 x 0)
= 0.6 = 0.21
Saturated Red Magnitude Saturated Red Phase

Q
CMAGNITUDE = 2
I +Q 2 CPHASE = 33 tan1
I
0.21
= 0.62 + 0.212 = 33 tan1

0.6
= 0.635 = 13.7
Summary of Chrominance Information
In-Phase Chrominance
Color Q Signal
Signal Vector Notation
White -0 -0 0
Black -0 -0 0
Yellow -0.31 -0.32 0.4577
Blue -0.31 -0.32 0.45257
Green -0.52 -0.28 0.59151
Magenta -0.52 -0.28 0.59331
Cyan -0.21 -0.6 0.64193.7
Red -0.21 -0.6 0.6413.7
T. .NTSC COLOR DECODER FOR TELEVISION BROADCASTING.
U. .TELEVISION BROADCAST STANDARDS.
Parameters FCC Standard European Standard
Channel Width 6 MHz 7 or 8 MHz
Video BW 4.2 MHz 5, 5.5 and 6 MHz
Aural Deviation + 25 kHz + 50 kHz

525/frame, 625/frame, 2:1
Scanning Lines
2:1 Interlaced Interlaced
15,750 Hz for
Horizontal Scan Monochrome
15,625 Hz + 0.1%
Frequency 15,734.264 +
0.044 Hz for Color
60 Hz for
Vertical Scan Monochrome 50 Hz
Frequency
59.94 Hz for Color
Reference 75 + 25% of peak 75 + 2.5% of peak
Blanking Level carrier level carrier level
Reference Black 7.5 + from blanking
3 to 6.5%
Level to ref white level
Reference 12.5 + of peak
10-12.5%
White Level carrier
Transmission
Negative Negative
Polarity

V. .COMPARISON OF SOME TV BROADCAST STANDARDS.
Spain,
North & Italy,
South England,
Parameter France USSR
America, Germany,
Japan CCIR
System
Lines/Frame 525 625 625 625
Lines/second 15,750 Hz 15,625 Hz 15,625 Hz 15,625 Hz
Frames/second 30 25 25 25
Channel BW
6 7 8 8
(MHz)
Video BW (MHz) 4.2 5 6 6
Polarity of AM
video Negative Negative Positive Negative
modulation
Type of Aural
FM FM AM FM
carrier
Color system NTSC PAL SECAM SECAM

Color subcarrier
frequency 3.58 4.43 4.43 4.43
(MHz)
1. National Television Standards Committee (NTSC)
Advantages
a. Higher Frame Rate - Use of 30 frames per second (really
29.97) reduces visible flicker.
b. Atomic Color Edits - With NTSC it is possible to edit at any 4

field boundary point without disturbing the color signal.
c. Less inherent picture noise - Almost all pieces of video

equipment achieve better signal to noise characteristics in
their NTSC/525 form than in their PAL/625.
Disadvantages
a. Lower Number of Scan Lines - Reduced clarity on large screen
TVs, line structure more visible.
b. Smaller Luminance Signal Bandwidth - Due to the placing of

the color sub-carrier at 3.58MHz, picture defects such as
cross-color, and dot interference become more pronounced.
c. Susceptibility to Hue Fluctuation - Variations in the color

subcarrier phase cause shifts in the displayed color, requiring
that the TV receivers be equipped with a Hue adjustment to
compensate.
d. Lower Gamma Ratio - The gamma value for NTSC/525 is set

at 2.2 as opposed to the slightly higher 2.8 defined for
PAL/625. This means that PAL/625 can produce pictures of
greater contrast.
2. Phase Alternate/Alternation by Line (PAL)
Advantages
a. Greater Number of Scan Lines - more picture detail.
b. Wider Luminance Signal Bandwidth - The placing of the color

Sub-Carrier at 4.43MHz allows a larger bandwidth of
monochrome information to be reproduced than with
NTSC/525.
c. Stable Hues - Due to reversal of sub-carrier phase on

alternate lines, any phase error will be corrected by an equal
and opposite error on the next line, correcting the original
error.
d. Higher Gamma Ratio - The gamma value for PAL/625 is set at

2.8 as opposed to the lower 2.2 figure of NTSC/525. This
permits a higher level of contrast than on NTSC/525 signals.
Disadvantages
a. More Flicker - Due to the lower frame rate, flicker is more
noticeable on PAL/625 transmissions; particularly so for
people used to viewing NTSC/525 signals.
b. Lower Signal to Noise Ratio - The higher bandwidth

requirements cause PAL/625 equipment to have slightly worse
signal to noise performance than it's equivalent NTSC/525
version.
c. Loss of Color Editing Accuracy - Due to the alternation of the

phase of the color signal, the phase and the color signal only
reach a common point once every 8 fields/4 frames. This
means that edits can only be performed to an accuracy of +/-
4 frames (8 fields).

3. Sequential Couleur Avec Memoire (SECAM)

Sequential Color with Memory
Advantages
a. Stable Hues and Constant Saturation - SECAM shares with PAL
the ability to render images with the correct hue, and goes a
step further in ensuring consistent saturation of color as well.
b. Higher Number of Scan Lines - SECAM shares with PAL/625,

the higher number of scan lines than NTSC/525.
Disadvantages
a. Greater Flicker Same with PAL/625
b. Patterning Effects - The FM subcarrier causes patterning

effects even on non-colored objects.
c. Lower monochrome Bandwidth - Due to one of the two color

sub-carriers being at 4.25MHz (in the French Version), a lower
bandwidth of monochrome signal can be carried.
NTSC
The oldest existing standard, developed in the USA. First used in 1954.
Consists of 525 horizontal lines of display and 60 vertical lines.
Sometimes irreverently referred to as "Never Twice the Same Color."
Only one type exists, known as NTSC-M.
PAL
PAL was developed by German engineer Walter Bruch and the German
electronic corporation Telefunken. Walter Bruch patented his invention
1963 and the first commercial application of the PAL system was in
August 1967. Also a 625/50-line display and variant of NTSC.
Proponents call it "Perfection At Last." Due to the cost of the enormous
circuit complexity, critics often refer to it as "Pay A Lot".
SECAM
SECAM was developed in France. First used in 1967. A 625-line vertical,
50-line horizontal display.
Sometimes referred to by wags as "Something Essentially Contrary to
the American Method" or SEcond Colour Always Magenta!"
W. .DIGITAL TELEVISION (DTV).
Since 1987, the FCC has been encouraging the development of High-
definition television (HDTV) system to replace the NTSC system. In May of
1993, the proponents of these four competing system joined forces to
develop a single digital television (DTV) system that used the best ideas of
the four competing system.
1. Comparison of Different Definition Standard
i. Video Specification
Format HD HD SD SD SD
Aspect Ratio 16:9 16:9 4:3 16:9 4:3

Active Scan
1080 720 480 480 480
lines/frame
Pixel/line 1920 1280 704 704 640
24p, 24p, 24p,
24p, 24p,
Frame rates 30p, 30p, 30p,
30p, 30p,
(Hz) 30i, 30i, 30i,
30i 60p
60p 60p 60p
HD = High definition, SD = Standard definition
p = progressive scan, i = interlace scan

ii. Audio Specification
Method DOLBY AC-3

Audio BW 20 kHz
Sampling Frequency 48 kHz
Dynamic Range 100 dB
Number of Surround channel 5.1
Compressed data rate 384 kbps
iii. Data Transport System
Type Packet
TDM technique MPEG-2
Packet size 188 bytes
Packet header size 4 bytes
X. .HIGH-DEFINITION PARAMETERS.
Diagonal Dimension Minimum Viewing

of Viewing Area Distance
H
1 X=
D = H2 1 + 2
a 2 tan
2
where:
D = diagonal dimension of the viewing area
a = aspect ratio
X = distance from screen to observer/viewer
= angle subtended by the horizontal dimension H
Sample Problem:
Find the minimum viewing distance a viewer should sit from the tube to
eliminate seeing any scan lines and the viewing angle subtended by the
screen for HDTV system, assuming the projector screen with diagonal
dimension of 1.55 m with 1125 vertical lines (90 suppressed).
Solution:
2
16
2 2 + 1.552
aD 9
H= = = 1.35 m
1 + a2 16
2
1+
9
16
NH = aNV = a(N Ns ) = x(1125 90) = 1840 pixels
9
1 min ute 1
= NH x = 1840 x = 30.7
60 60
H 1.35 m
X= = = 2.45 m
30.7
2 tan 2 tan
2 2
Y. .VIDEO STANDARDS.
1. JPEG
JPEG (Joint Photographic Experts Group) was developed jointly by the
ISO and ITU-T. JPEG is a compression standard that is used for editing
of still images, as well as color facsimile, desktop publishing, graphic
arts, and medical imaging. JPEG is not appropriate for video
transmission, as the compression rate is in the range of only 20:1-
30:1. JPEG transmission in support of videoconferencing requires
bandwidth in the range of 10 to 240 Mbps.
2. MPEG
MPEG (Motion Picture Experts Group) standards are several and still in
final development stages. MPEG standards provide very high
compression levels and excellent presentation quality. MPEG is a joint
technical committee of the International Standards Organization (ISO)
and the IEC (International Electrotechnical Commission).

MPEG 1
Standardized in 1992, provides VHS (videotape) quality at 1.544
Mbps and is compatible with single-speed CD-ROM technology. In
fact, it was designed to put movies on compact disc. MPEG 1
integrates synchronous and isochronous audio with video, and
allows the random access required by interactive multimedia
applications.
MPEG 2
(1994) is the proposed standard for digital video at 4 to 100 Mbps
over transmission facilities capable of such support (fiber optics,
hybrid fiber/coax and satellite). MPEG 2 already has found
application in Direct Broadcast Satellite (DBS) services, also
known as Direct Satellite Systems (DSS).
MPEG 3
Designed for HDTV application, was folded into MPEG-2 in 1992.
MPEG-4
A low bit-rate version intended for application in videophones and
other small-screen devices. It is still under development.
I H
1. Calculate the equivalent IRE unit of a video signal with a luminance of 72%.
A. 4.1 IRE units B. 53.8 IRE units
C. 74.1 IRE units D. 66.4 IRE units
2. Calculate the increase in horizontal resolution possible if the video modulating

signal bandwidth was increased to 4.5 MHz.
A. 582 lines B. 525 lines
C. 338 lines D. 482 lines
3. Determine the possible increase in vertical details if the video frequency

bandwidth were allowed up to 5 MHz. (assume 70% Kell factor)
A. 408 pixels B. 420 pixels
C. 442 pixels D. 480 pixels
4. Calculate the decrease in horizontal details if the video signal bandwidth were
reduced from 4 to 3.5 MHz.
A. 458 to 322 pixels B. 458 to 375 pixels
C. 428 to 375 pixels D. 428 to 322 pixels
5. Calculate the vertical resolution if the video signal bandwidth were reduced
from 4 to 3.5 MHz assuming that the horizontal resolution was not to change.
6. Given a 635-s vertical retrace time, the number of complete horizontal

lines scanned during vertical flyback is
A. 10 B. 20
C. 30 D. 63
7. One-half line spacing between the start positions for scanning even and
odd fields produces
A. linear scanning B. exact interlacing
C. fishtailing D. line pairing
8. Calculate the minimum recorder wavelength for an audio cassette recorder with
a tape speed of 1,875 ips, 12 kHz top recording frequency.
A. 0.364 mil B. 0.567 mil
C. 0.156 mil D. 0.87 mil
9. What is the exact picture carrier frequency for channel 2 offset by -10 kHz?
A. 55.24 MHz B. 55.34 MHz
C. 51.25 MHz D. 55.75 MHz

10. The number of scanning lines is ______ per second.

A. 60 B. 525
C. 15,750 D. 15,650
11. Calculate the sound and picture carrier frequency for channel 10 after
frequency translation to the IF.
A. P=45.75 MHz, S=41.25 MHz B. P=45.25 MHz, S=41.75 MHz
C. P=41.75 MHz, S=45.25 MHz D. P=41.25 MHz, S=45.75 MHz
12. 10.5 s of retrace is equal to how many % of H?

A. 6.5% B. 13.5%
C. 16.5% D. 12.5%
13. Color mixture is close to blue.

A. Y B. G-Y
C. R-Y D. B-Y
14. The I color video signal has a bandwidth of ____ MHz.

A. 1.3 B. 4.5
C. 4.2 D. 3.58
15. Calculate the percentage of time occupied by vertical blanking.

A. 0.8% B. 8%
C. 28% D. 18%
16. What is the horizontal resolution in lines of a monochrome receiver which has a
2.8 MHz video bandwidth? April 2003 & Nov 2004
17. Calculate the total number of picture elements (pixels) in an NTSC frame if the
video BW is 4.2 MHz. (Assume 0.7 Kell factor, 4/3 aspect ratio, and 10 s
retrace time)
A. 151,761 pixels B. 211,161 pixels
C. 181,661 pixels D. 192,416 pixels
18. A ghost is displaced 1 inch on a 13-inch diagonal TV screen. Determine the

time between signal receptions, and the difference in path lengths.
A. 3.53 km B. 1.53 km
C. 2.53 km D. 0.53 km
19. Weak emission from one cathode in a tricolor picture tube causes _____,
_____, and _____ in the raster and picture.
A. a stronger picture, a long warm up time, color balance
B. a weak picture, a long warm up time, and color imbalance
C. a stronger picture, a short warm up time, and color imbalance
D. a weak picture, a short warm up time, and color balance
20. Degaussing means _____ the picture tube with 60-Hz alternating current
from the power line.
A. de-energizing B. magnetizing
C. energizing D. demagnetizing
21. _____ correction signals can be inserted in series with the V and H coils of
the deflection yoke, to straighten the edges of the raster.
A. Gamma B. Pincushion
C. Comb D. Contrast
22. The PAL system in Europe uses a 625 lines/frame and 25frames/sec. Assuming
a video bandwidth of 5 MHz, determine the number of distinguishable picture
element, assuming 84% of each horizontal line and 90% percent of the 625
lines are visible.
A. 143,400 B. 122,400
C. 330,400 D. 302,400
23. Calculate the minimum viewing distance for an HDTV system assume that a
projector screen with a diagonal dimension of 1.4 m and an aspect ratio of 16:9
is used with 1125 vertical lines (90 suppressed).
A. 2.7 m B. 2.23 m
C. 3.61 m D. 1.8 m
24. The hue 180 out of phase with red is

A. yellow B. green
C. blue D. cyan
25. Greater p-p amplitude of the 3.58-MHz chrominance signal indicates more
A. saturation B. yellow
C. white D. hue
26. Which of the following statements is true?

A. Negative transmission means that the carrier amplitude decreases for
white
B. Vestigial sideband transmission means that both upper and lower
sidebands are transmitted for all modulating frequencies
C. Vestigial sideband transmission means that the modulated picture
carrier signal has only the upper envelope
D. Negative transmission means that the carrier amplitude decreases for
black
27. With a 2-MHz video signal modulating the picture carrier signal for channel
4, which of the following frequencies are transmitted?
A. 67.25-MHz carrier frequency with 65.25-MHz upper side frequencies
B. 66-MHz carrier frequency and 68-MHz upper side frequency
C. 67.25-MHz carrier frequency and 69.25-MHz upper side frequency
D. 71.75-MHZ carrier frequency with 69- and 73-MHz side frequency
28. With a 0.5-MHz video signal modulating the picture carrier,

A. no side frequencies are transmitted
B. both upper and lower side frequencies are transmitted
C. only the upper side frequency is transmitted
D. only the lower side frequency is transmitted

29. Compared to a monochrome CRT, the accelerating voltage on a color CRT is:
A. about the same
B. much higher
C. much lower
D. color CRTs use magnetic acceleration
30. The horizontal lines scanned during vertical retraces are the ______ lines.
A. horizontal flyback B. vertical sync
C. vertical flyback D. horizontal blanking
31. Interfaced scanning eliminates _____ because of the ____ blanking rate,
while maintaining the _____ rate for complete picture frames.
A. flicker, 60-Hz vertical, 30-Hz
B. flicker, 30-Hz vertical, 15,750-Hz
C. ghost, 60-Hz vertical, 15,750-Hz
D. ghost, 15,750-Hz vertical, 30-Hz
32. The equalizing pulses and the serrations in the vertical pulse occur at half-
line intervals with the frequency of _____ Hz.
A. 30 B. 60
C. 31,500 D. 15,750
33. Determine the ghost width on a TV screen 15 in wide when a reflected wave
results from an object mi behind a receiver.
A. 151 in B. 15.1 in
C. 1.51 in D. 0.151 in
34. Calculate the ghost width for a 17-in wide TV screen when a reflected wave
results from an object 3/8 mi behind a receiver.
A. 12.8 in B. 128 in
C. 0.128 in D. 1.28 in
35. A horizontal resolution of 300 lines corresponds to ____ pixels of picture

information.
A. 210 B. 150
C. 400 D. 200
36. Horizontal resolution of 240 lines corresponds to a video-frequency

response of ___.
A. 3 MHz B. 4.2 MHz
C. 16 MHz D. 24 MHz
37. In the CED system, the disk capacitance varies with the
A. disk size B. wavelength of the scanning light
C. speed of rotation D. pit depth
38. The part that rotates to meter out the tape at constant speed is the
A. control head B. entrance guide
C. capstan D. erase head
39. The modulated picture carrier wave includes the composite video signal as
the
A. upper envelope without the lower envelope
B. lower sideband without the upper sideband
C. average carrier level
D. symmetric envelope of amplitude variations
40. Calculate the horizontal resolution possible if the video modulating signal
bandwidth is 5 MHz.
41. Calculate the magnitude chrominance for color yellow.

A. 0.45 B. 0.69
C. 0.65 D. 0.21
42. Calculate the exact horizontal frequency if the sound carrier of 4.5 MHz is made
to be the 286th harmonics of the horizontal line frequency.
A. 15,735.27 Hz B. 15,610.27 Hz
C. 15,750 Hz D. 15,625 Hz
43. The average voltage value of the 3.58-MHz modulated chrominance signal
is
A. the saturation of the color B. zero for most colors
C. the brightness of the color D. close to black for yellow
44. The second IF value for color in receivers, for any station, is
A. 0.5 MHz B. 1.3 MHz
C. 4.5 MHz D. 3.58 MHz
45. If the 3.58-MHz C amplifier in the receiver does not operate, the result will
be
A. no color B. too much blue
C. too much yellow D. no red
46. _____ is done in the camera to compensate for the nonlinear drive
characteristics of the picture tube.
A. Error correction B. Beam correction
C. Gamma correction D. Contrast correction
47. Light flux for cameras usually is measured in _____.

A. Tesla B. footcandles
C. luminous intensity D. lux
48. Typical horizontal resolution in television receivers is _____ lines,

corresponding to ____ video-frequency response.
A. 331, 3.58-MHz B. 428, 4.25-MHz
C. 312, 2.50-MHz D. 250, 3.125-MHz

49. A _____ is a special camera tube with a test pattern printed on the image
plate.
A. plumbicon B. iconoscope
C. monoscope D. vidicon
50. What is the exact vertical frequency if there are 262.5 lines per field?
A. 50 Hz B. 49.94 Hz
C. 60 Hz D. 59.94 Hz
51. Calculate the exact color subcarrier frequency if this value is made to be the
455th harmonic of half of the horizontal frequency.
A. 3.58 MHz B. 4.2 MHz
C. 3.579545 MHz D. 4.5 MHz
52. The ______ is the current that flows in the target circuit when the camera
lens is capped for no light input.
A. flash current B. leakage current
C. dark current D. reverse current
53. _____ is an exponential value that specifies how white light values are
expanded or compressed, and this affects the contrast ratio.
A. Alpha B. Gamma
C. Beta D. Sigma
54. Which of the following camera tubes uses lead oxide (PbO) for the
photoconductive target plate?
A. plumbicon B. vidicon
C. image orthicon D. saticon
55. What is the exact frequency separation between sound carrier and color
subcarrier?
A. 0.92 MHz B. 0.920455 MHz
C. 0.920945 MHz D. 0.920495 MHz
56. Ability of monochrome receiver to use Y signal for picture in black and
white.
A. monotonacity B. adaptability
C. compatibility D. selectivity
57. The complementary color for blue, red and green are ____, ____, and
____ respectively.
A. cyan, yellow, magenta B. magenta, yellow, cyan
C. cyan, magenta, yellow D. yellow, cyan, magenta
58. Determine the total number of details for an NTSC frame if 42 lines are blanked
out because of vertical flyback. Used 0.7 Kell factor, 4.2 MHz video bandwidth.
A. 161, 751 B. 121, 221
C. 151, 761 D. 131, 231
59. Converting hue and saturation in the C signal to R, G, and B primary color
video signals for the tricolor picture tube.
A. compandoring B. decoding
C. multiplexing D. encoding
60. Converting the R, G, and B primary color video signals to hue and
saturation in the C signal.
A. pre-emphasis B. decoding
C. encoding D. degaussing
61. How many flyback lines are produced during vertical retrace for each field and
each frame when the retrace time is 0.03V?
A. 8 and 16 B. 16 and 18
C. 18 and 16 D. 16 and 8
62. The hue of color sync phase is

A. red B. blue
C. yellow-green D. cyan
63. Which signal has color information for 1.3-MHz bandwidth?

A. R-Y B. Y
C. I D. B-Y
64. Calculate the maximum number of vertical details that can be reproduced with
483 visible scanning lines with a 70% utilization factor.
A. 303 B. 438
C. 348 D. 338
65. Determine the number of horizontal details for a 4 MHz video bandwidth.
A. 416 picture elements B. 446 picture elements
C. 426 picture elements D. 486 picture elements
66. The color with the most luminance is

A. yellow B. blue
C. green D. red
67. Pictures frames are repeated at the rate of ____ per second.
A. 60 B. 50
C. 30 D. 25
68. The number if scanning lines is ______ per frame.

A. 262.5 B. 625
C. 15,750 D. 525
69. In all standard television broadcast channels, the difference between the
picture and sound carrier frequencies is
A. 0.25 MHz B. 1.25 MHz
C. 4.5 MHz D. 6 MHz

70. The beat frequency between the 3.58-MHz color subcarrier and the 4.5-
MHz sound signal is
A. 3.58 MHz B. 4.8 MHz
C. 4.5 MHz D. 0.92 MHz
71. Which control varies the phase angle of the demodulated color video
signal?
A. picture B. drive
C. tint D. color level
72. Which of the following stages must be on during horizontal flyback time?
A. R Y vido amplifier B. Chroma BPA
C. Burst separator D. Y video amplifier
73. Picture tubes have two black conductive coating made of ______.
A. Tellurium B. Phospor
C. Aquadag D. Arsenic
74. The _____ of the picture tube is the total angle that the beam can be
deflected without touching the sides of the envelope.
A. deflection angle B. critical angle
C. optical angle D. envelope angle
75. _____ adjustments cause the three electron beams to excite the correct
colors on the screen.
A. Comb B. Color
C. Convergence D. Gamma
76. Picture tubes with an anode voltage of _____ can emit x-rays.
A. 20 to 30 GV B. 200 to 300 MV
C. 20 to 30 kV D. 200 to 300 kV
77. What are the lower and upper side frequencies for 200-kHz color video
modulation in the 3.58-MHz bandpass amplifier?
A. 3.28 and 6.78 MHz B. 3.38 and 3.78 MHz
C. 3.28 and 5.48 MHz D. 3.38 and 6.28 MHz
78. The number of lines scanned per frame in the raster on the picture tube
screen is
A. 10 B. 262
C. 20 D. 525
79. In the frame for which interlaced scanning is used, alternate lines are
skipped during vertical scanning frequency because
A. the frame has a 4:3 aspect ratio
B. the vertical scanning frequency is doubled from 30 to 60 Hz
C. the horizontal scanning is slower than vertical scanning
D. the trace is slower than the retrace
80. If the horizontal flyback is 10 percent, this time equals

A. 10 s B. 56 s
C. 6.4 s D. 83 s
81. Which of the following frequencies is wrong?

A. 15,750 Hz for horizontal sync and scanning
B. 31,500 for the vertical scanning frequency
C. 31,500 for equalizing pulses and serrations in the vertical sync pulse
D. 60 Hz for vertical sync and scanning
82. How much time elapses between the start of one horizontal sync pulse and
the next?
A. 8% of V B. V
C. H D. 16.5% of H
83. For a 4-MHz video signal, the number of horizontal details in a line is ____.
A. 525 B. 331
C. 426 D. 645
84. Assume a facsimile reproduction with specifications of 200 lines per frame,
progressive scanning, and 5 frames per second. Calculate the video
frequency corresponding to 100 total black-and-white elements in a line.
A. 52 kHz B. 5.2 kHz
C. 0.52 kHz D. 520 kHz
85. The circuit that combines C signal and Y luminance signal.

A. color stacker B. Colorplexer
C. Combiner D. comb filter
86. Retraces are not visible because of _____ pulses.

A. sync B. blanking
C. black D. serration
87. Black on the picture tube screen results from _____ beam current.
A. negative B. maximum
C. zero D. positive
88. Determine the total number of picture elements possible for the entire image if
the video bandwidth is 4 MHz and 70% utilization factor is used.
A. 104,000 B. 144,000
C. 184,000 D. 124,000
89. Assume a facsimile reproduction with specifications of 200 lines/frame,

progressive scanning, and 5 frame/sec. Calculate the visible trace time for one
line with 4% blanking.
A. 9.6 s B. 960 s
C. 0.96 s D. 90 s

90. The modulation used for the chroma signal in a standard NTSC color TV
receiver is:
A. SSB B. vestigial sideband AM
C. suppressed-carrier AM D. FM
91. Determine the maximum luminance level for magenta.

A. 87% B. 48%
C. 41% D. 34%
92. A 3.125 MHz of video signal bandwidth is equal to how many horizontal
resolutions?
93. Picture tubes use ______ focusing.

A. electromagnetic B. electrostatic
C. electroacoustic D. magnetostatic
94. The color with the least luminance

A. red B. blue
C. cyan D. magenta
95. If the phase chrominance for color yellow is 167, what is the phase
chrominance for color blue?
A. 3.47 B. 34.7
C. 37 D. 347
96. What is the horizontal scanning time for 125 pixels?

A. 10.5 s B. 15.625 s
C. 63.5 s D. 0.125 s
97. Calculate the video frequency response corresponding to the horizontal

resolution of 320 lines.
A. 4.75 MHz B. 4 MHz
C. 4.5 MHz D. 4.2 MHz
98. Consider a video signal that has a resolution of 640x480 pixels, with a frame
rate 0f 30 Hz using progressive scanning. The luma signal is sampled using 8
bits/sample. The two chroma channels also use 8 bits/sample, but the color
resolution is that is used for luma. Find the approximate bit rate for this
signal, neglecting synchronization, error correction, and compression.
A. 110.6 Mbps B. 1.6 Mbps
C. 10.6 Mbps D. 11.6 Mbps
99. Luminance is measured in:

A. foot-candles B. lumens
C. IRE units D. NTSC units
100. The maximum luminance level is called:

A. max white B. peak white
C. blanking D. whiter than white
101.What proportion of the maximum transmitter power is used to transmit a black

setup level?
A. 73.4% B. 22.2%
C. 61.1% D. 45.6%
102. The _____ is deflected horizontally and vertically to fill the screen area.
A. permanent magnet B. yoke
C. electron beam D. raster
103. What is the hue of a color 90 leading sync burst phase?

A. blue B. cyan
C. orange D. yellow
104. How much time passes between one vertical pulse in an odd field and the
next in an even field?
A. V B. H
C. 8% of V D. 8% of H
105. The back porch is ____ longer than the front porch
A. 3x B. 4x
C. 2x D. 8x
106. Which of the following camera tubes has minimum lag?

A. plumbicon B. saticon
C. vidicon D. iconoscope
107.Calculate the total percentage of the signal time occupied by vertical,

horizontal, and active video respectively.
A. 21%, 42%, 88% B. 8%, 15.7%, 77.6%
C. 12.75%, 100%, 77.6% D. 16%, 21%, 88%
108.A certain receiver has a vertical retrace time of 0.025V, where V is the time for
one field. How many horizontal lines does this represent?
A. 2.1 B. 3.3
C. 6.6 D. 4.2
109. _____ deflection is used for picture tubes.

A. Static B. Magnetic
C. Electrostatic D. Magnetostatic
110.Suppose that the aspect ratio of a TV system were change from 4:3 to 2:1,
with the horizontal resolution keeping the same ratio to vertical resolution as at
present. Assume the number of scan lines remains at present. How many
details would have to be shown on a horizontal line?
A. 428 B. 338
C. 674 D. 525

111.Under ideal conditions, the eye can resolve two details subtending 0.5 minutes
of arc. Suppose a monitor screen 30 cm wide is located 1.5 m from a viewer.
What video bandwidth would be required to separate horizontal details in the
center of the screen by 0.5 minutes of arc assuming NTSC video?
A. 4.5 MHz B. 1.5 MHz
C. 5.1 MHz D. 12.9 MHz
112. The blanking level corresponds to a luminance of:

A. white B. black
C. whiter than white D. blacker than black
113. The sync pulse level corresponds to a luminance of:

A. white B. black
C. whiter than white D. blacker than black
114. In a color TV receiver, Y I Q refers to:

A. luminance signal, in-phase color component, quadrature phase color
component
B. composite color signal, in-phase color component, quadrature phase color
component
C. composite video signal, in-phase video component, quadrature video color
component
D. a method of demodulating stereo sound
115. The modulation used for the video signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver
is:
116. The horizontal output transformer is also called:

A. the isolation transformer B. the video transformer
C. the flyback transformer D. the yoke
117. ____ convergence adjustments are made by permanent magnets.

A. Static B. Active
C. Dynamic D. Moving
118. Deflection in CRTs used in TV receivers is done:

A. magnetically for both vertical and horizontal
B. electrostatically for both vertical and horizontal
C. electrostatically for vertical and magnetically for horizontal
D. magnetically for vertical and electrostatically for horizontal
119. The number of fields is _____ per frame.

A. 2 B. 30
C. 60 D. 525
120. The vertical field-scanning frequency is ______

A. 525 Hz B. 15,750 Hz
C. 60 Hz D. 30 Hz
121. Video signal amplitude determines the picture quality called _____
A. contrast B. resolution
C. color saturation D. brightness
122. Scanning in the receiver is timed correctly by _____ pulses.

A. retrace B. serration
C. sync D. blanking
123. The modulation used for the audio signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver
is:
124. The amount of color saturation in the picture depends on the amount of
_____ signal.
A. blanking B. chrominance
C. luminance D. contrast
125. _____ convergence adjustments vary the correction current in the coils of
the convergence yoke.
A. Passive B. Static
C. Dynamic D. Fixed
126. Camera signal output without sync is called

A. black burst B. generator lock video
C. noncomposite video D. composite video
127. A low-contrast picture in which white seems flat and lacking in detail
suggests.
A. excessive gamma B. high gain in the preamplifier
C. insufficient scanning width D. low beam current
128. The part of the visible spectrum where camera pickup tubes have the
greatest output is
A. infrared B. yellow-green
C. blue D. red
129. The horizontal line-scanning frequency is _____

A. 30 Hz B. 60 Hz
C. 525 Hz D. 15,750 Hz
130. The number of scanning lines is _____ per field.

A. 30 B. 262.5
C. 525 D. 15,625
131. The gamma of the picture tube is

A. 1.0 B. 1.4
C. 0.4545 D. 2.2

132. A typical value of vidicon dark current is

A. 8 mA B. About 200 A
C. 800 mA D. 0.2 A
133. A permanent-magnet ring on the neck of the tube is used for _____.
A. scanning B. centering
C. deflecting D. focusing
134. Picture tubes with an anode voltage of 20 to 30 kV can emit _____.

A. cosmic-rays B. UV-rays
C. X-rays D. gamma rays
135. The gamma of 2.2 for the picture tube that means that the ____ values
are stretched.
A. green B. black
C. yellow D. white
136. A picture tube with deflection angle of 110 needs a yoke with a ____
angle.
A. 10 B. 220
C. 110 D. 55
137. Color mixture close to green.

A. R-Y B. G-Y
C. B-Y D. Y-R
138. The Q video signal has a bandwidth of _____ MHz.

A. 4.2 B. 0.5
C. 1.3 D. 4.5
139. The linear rise on the sawtooth waveform is the_____; the sharp drop in
amplitude is for the ____.
A. Trace part, retrace B. Flyback part, retrace
C. Retrace part, blanking D. Trace part, blanking
140. The frequency of the sawtooth waveform for horizontal deflection is ____.
A. 30 Hz B. 15,750 Hz
C. 31,500 Hz D. 60 Hz
Section
Broadcasting Read it
till it
8 Standards Hertz!
DEFINITION. Medium Frequency Broadcast Station: An AM Broadcast station

licensed for aural or sound transmission intended for direct reception by the general
public and operated on a channel in the MF band.
DEFINITION. Operating Frequency is the carrier frequency at any particular

time.
DEFINITION. Authorized Frequency is the carrier frequency authorized by the

authority.
DEFINITION. Authority: The National Telecommunications Commission (NTC).
A. .AMPLITUDE MODULATION STANDARDS.
Philippine Technical FCC Technical

Parameter
Standards Standards
Occupied Spectrum 535-1,605 kHz 540-1,700 kHz
Allocated BW 1070 kHz 1160 kHz
BW per Station 9 kHz 10 kHz
Number of Station 118 station 116 station

Spacing between
36 kHz 30 kHz
Station
Carrier Frequency + 20 Hz of the + 20 Hz of the
Tolerance assigned frequency assigned frequency
Guardband + 500 Hz + 500 Hz
Intermediate
455 kHz 455 kHz
Frequency
Modulation
AM AM
Scheme
Type of Emission A3E A3E
Receiver
Superheterodyne Superheterodyne
Characteristic
Audio Frequency
50-15,000 Hz 50-15,000 Hz
Response

2-70 BROADCASTING standards
B. .FREQUENCY ALLOCATION FOR AM BROADCAST STATIONS.
Channel Frequency
Number (kHz)
1 531
2 540
3 549
4 558
. .
. .
. .
131 1701
C. .SERVICE AREAS.
1. Primary Service Area

The term primary service area of a broadcast station means the area
in w/c the groundwave field of 1mV/m (60 dBu) is not subject to
objectionable interference or objectionable fading.
2. Secondary Service Area

The term secondary service area of a broadcast station means the
area served by the skywave and not subject to objectionable
interference. The signal is subject to intermittent in intensity.
3. Intermittent Service Area

The term intermittent service area of a broadcast station means the
area receiving service from the groundwave but beyond the primary
service area and subject to some interference and fading.
D. .AM BROADCASTING RATIO.
1. Audio-Frequency Signal-to-Interference Ratio

The ratio (in dB) between the values of the voltage of the wanted
signal and the voltage of the interference, measured under specified
conditions, at the audio-frequency output of the receiver.
2. Radio-Frequency Wanted-to-Interference Signal Ratio

The ratio (in dB) between the values of the radio-frequency voltage of
the wanted signal and the interfering signal, measured at the input of the
receiver under specified conditions.
3. Audio-Frequency Protection Ratio

The agreed minimum value of the audio frequency signal-to-
interference ratio considered necessary to achieve a subjectively
defined reception quality.
4. Radio-Frequency Protection Ratio

The value of the radio frequency wanted-to-interference signal ratio
that enables, under specified conditions, the audio-frequency
protection ratio to be obtained at the output of the receiver.
AM broadcast station shall not operate more than 5% and not lower
than 10% of its authorized operating power.
The carrier shift at any percentage of modulation shall not exceed 5%.
AM transmitter must be capable of maintaining the operating

frequency within the limits of +10 Hz of the assigned frequency.
E. .BROADCAST AUXILIARY SERVICES.
1. Studio-to-Transmitter Link (STL)
Band Operating Frequency Maximum Power

A 300 to 315 MHz 15 W
B 734 to 752 MHz 15 W
C 942 to 952 MHz 15 W
2. Remote Pick-up Broadcast Station

A 315 to 325 MHz 35 W
B 450 to 451 MHz 35 W
C 455 to 456 MHz 35 W

3. Communications, Coordination and Control Link
A 4 to 12 MHz 100 W (SBS)

B 25.67 to 26.1 MHz 160 W (ERP)
162.235 to 162.615 MHz

C 160 W (ERP)
166.25 MHz,170.15 MHz
432.5 to 433 MHz 200 W
D
437.5 to 438 MHz (for repeater)
4. Maximum Power Allocation
Area Maximum Power
Metro Manila 50 kW
All other areas 10 kW
C ---
D 10 W authorized
F. .IMPORTANT TERMINOLOGY.
1. Operating Frequency
The carrier frequency at any particular time.
2. Authorized Frequency
The carrier frequency authorized by the Authority.
4. Operating Power
Operating Power is the transmitter output power.
5. Maximum Rated Carrier Power

Maximum Rated Carrier Power is the maximum power at which the
transmitter can be operated satisfactorily and is determined by the
design of the transmitter.
6. Authorized Operating Power

Authorized Operating Power is the power authorized by the
Authority.
7. Modulator Stage
Modulator Stage means the last audio amplifier stage of the
modulating wave which modulates a radio-frequency stage.
8. Modulated Stage
Modulated Stage means the radio frequency stage to which the
modulator is coupled and in which the continuous carrier wave is
modulated in accordance with the system of modulation and the
characteristics of the modulating wave.
9. Daytime
The term Daytime refers to the period of time between 2200
Universal Time Coordinates (UTC) to 1000 Universal Time Coordinates
(UTC) or 6:00 AM to 6:00 PM local standard time.
10. Nighttime
The term Nighttime refers to the period of time between 1000
Universal Time Coordinates (UTC) to 2200 Universal Time Coordinates
(UTC) or 6:00 PM to 6:00 AM local standard time.
11. Experimental Period

The term Experimental Period means that time between 12 midnight
to 5:00 AM local standard time or 1600 to 2100 Universal Time
Coordinates (UTC)
12. Spurious Emission

The emission on any frequency outside of the assigned channel or
authorized band of frequencies and tolerances allowed by these
regulations. Emission outside of the assigned channel, as a result of
the modulating process, is not considered spurious, unless it is due to
overmodulation.
13. Authority
The National Telecommunications Commission.

I H
A. .FM BROADCAST STANDARDS.

Parameter
Standards Standards
Occupied Spectrum 88-108 MHz 88-108 MHz
Allocated BW 20 MHz 20 MHz

In 200 kHz
In 200 kHz increment increment from
from 88.1 MHz (FM 88.3 MHz
BW per Station
channel 201) to 107.9 (FM channel 2) to
MHz (FM channel 300) 107.5 MHz
(FM channel 98)
Spacing between
800 kHz 800 kHz
Station
Carrier Frequency + 2000 Hz of the + 2000 Hz of the
Tolerance assigned frequency assigned frequency
Maximum Frequency
+ 75 kHz + 75 kHz
Deviation
Guardband + 25 kHz + 25 kHz
75 sec with break 75 sec with break
Pre-emphasis frequency of frequency of
2122 Hz 2122 Hz
Intermediate
10.7 MHz 10.7 MHz
Frequency
Receiver
Superheterodyne Superheterodyne
Characteristic
Audio Frequency
50-15,000 Hz 50-15,000 Hz
Response
FM 2-way Analog TV
Parameter
(Mobile Radio) (Aural Portion)
Maximum Frequency
+ 5 kHz + 25 kHz
Deviation
Intermediate
21.4 MHz 45.75 MHz
Frequency
1 for f= 5 kHz 1.67 for f= 25 kHz
Modulation Index
and fm=5 kHz and fm=15 kHz
1. Center Frequency of nth Broadcast Station
FMn(MHz ) = FM1(MHz ) + 0.2 ( n 1 )
2. Frequency Allocation for FM Broadcast Stations
Channel Frequency
Number (MHz)
201 88.1
202 88.3
203 88.5
204 88.7
. .
. .
. .
300 107.9
3. Table of Assignments
The frequency assignments for the cities of Manila, Laoag, Legaspi,
Cebu, Davao, and Zamboanga shall be
Channel Frequency Channel Frequency

Number (MHz) Number (MHz)
202 88.3 254 98.7
206 89.1 258 99.5
210 89.9 262 100.3
214 90.7 266 101.1
218 91.5 270 101.9
222 92.3 274 102.7
226 93.1 278 103.5
230 93.9 282 104.3
234 94.7 286 105.1
238 95.5 290 105.9
242 96.3 294 106.7
246 97.1 298 107.5
250 97.9

4. Class of FM Broadcast Stations
Authorized
Class Service ERP AHAAT
Power
25 kW authorized
A Commercial 125 kW 2000 ft
10 kW minimum
10 kW authorized
B Commercial 30 kW 500 ft
1 kW minimum
Non-commercial
C community --- 1 kW ---
station
Educational
D 10 W authorized --- ---
Station
AHAAT=Antenna Height above Average Terrain
FM broadcast station are not authorized to operate in the same city or

in nearby cities with a frequency separation of 800 kHz.
A commercial broadcast entity may establish only one primary FM

radio station within the geographical boundary of any province.
FM transmitter shall operate satisfactorily in the operating power range

with frequency swing of +75 kHz, which is defined as 100%
modulation. The carrier shift at any percentage of modulation shall not
exceed 5%.
B. .BROADCAST AUXILIARY SERVICES.
1. Studio-to-Transmitter Link (STL)
Operating
Band Maximum Power
Frequency
A 300 to 315 MHz 15 W
B 734 to 752 MHz 15 W
C 942 to 952 MHz 15 W

2. Remote Pick-up Broadcast Station
Operating
Band Maximum Power
Frequency
A 315 to 325 MHz 35 W
B 450 to 451 MHz 35 W
C 455 to 456 MHz 35 W
3. Communications, Coordination and Control Link

A 4 to 12 MHz 100 W (SBS)
B 25.67 to 26.1 MHz 160 W (ERP)
162.235 to 162.615 MHz
C 166.25 MHz 160 W (ERP)
170.15 MHz
432.5 to 433 MHz 200 W (for
D
437.5 to 438 MHz repeater)
C. .IMPORTANT TERMINOLOGY.
1. Frequency Swing
The instantaneous departure of the frequency of the emitted wave
from the center frequency resulting from modulation.
2. Antenna Height Above Average Terrain (AHAAT)

The height of the radiation center of the antenna above the terrain 3
to 16 kilometers from the antenna.
3. Antenna Field Gain

The ratio of the effective free space field intensity produced at 1.6-km
in the horizontal plane expressed in mV/m for 1 KW antenna input
power to 137.6 mV/m.
4. Antenna Power Gain

The square of the ratio of rms free space field strength produce at 1.6-
km in the horizontal plane expressed in mV/m for 1 KW antenna input
power to 137.6 mV/m.

5. Effective Radiated Power (ERP)

The product of the transmitter power multiplied by
(a) the antenna power gain
ERP = PT x GT
(b) the antenna field gain squared
ERP = PT x GF2

Determine the effective radiated power of 20 kW TV broadcast transmitter
whose antenna has a field gain of 2.
Solution:
ERP = PT x G F 2 = (20 x 10 3 W) x 2 2 = 80 kW
I H
A. .TV BROADCAST STANDARDS.

Parameter
Standards Standards
Occupied
54-890 MHz 54-890 MHz
Spectrum
BW per Channel 6 MHz 6 MHz
1.25 MHz + 1 kHz 1.25 MHz + 1 kHz
Visual Carrier above the lower above the lower
Frequency boundary of the boundary of the
channel channel
4.5 MHz + 1 kHz 4.5 MHz + 1 kHz
Aural Carrier
above the visual above the visual
Frequency
carrier frequency carrier frequency
Chrominance
3.579545 MHz 3.579545 MHz
Subcarrier
+ 10 Hz + 10 Hz
Frequency
Visual AM with negative AM with negative
Modulation transmission transmission
FM using a 75sec FM using a 75sec
Aural Modulation
pre-emphasis pre-emphasis
Baseband Video
4 MHz 4.2 MHz
BW
Baseband Aural
50-15,000 Hz 50-15,000 Hz
BW

1. Characteristics of the NTSC Video Frequency
Philippine Technical
Parameter
Standards
Number of lines/frame 525
Field frequency (field/sec) 59.94 Hz
Interlace 2:1
Frame frequency
29.97 Hz
(picture/sec)
Horizontal frequency
15,734.264 Hz
(lines/sec)
Tolerance (lines/sec) +0.044
Scanning sequence left-to-right
Scanning sequence top-to-bottom

Approximate gamma of
0.45
picture signal
Nominal Video BW 4.2 MHz
Chrominance sub-carrier 3.579545 MHz
Tolerance +10 Hz
2. Details of Line-Synchronizing Signals
Parameter %H sec
Line Period (H) 100 63.556

Line Blanking
16.5 to 18 10.5 to 11.4
interval
Front Porch 2 1.27
Synchronizing
6.6 to 8 4.2 to 5.1
pulse
3. Details of Synchronizing Signals
Parameter Duration
Field Period (V) 16.683 msec
Field Blanking Period 0.07 to 0.08V

st
Duration of 1
3H
equalizing pulse
Duration of
3H
synchronizing pulse
Synchronizing
4.2 to 5.1
pulse
4. Radio Frequency Characteristics
Philippine Technical
Parameter
Standards
Nominal RF Bandwidth 6 MHz
Sound carrier-to-Visual
+4.5 MHz
carrier separation
Nearest edge of channel
1.25 MHz
relative to visual-carrier
Nominal width of main
4.2 MHz
sideband
Nominal width of vestigial
0.75 MHz
sideband
Type of polarity of visual
A5C, negative
modulation
Synchronizing levels as a %
100%
of peak carrier
Blanking level as a % of
72.5 to 77.5%
peak carrier
Difference between black
level and blanking level as a 2.875 to 6.75%
% of peak carrier
Peak-white level as a % of
10 to 15%
peak carrier
F3 + 25 kHz,
Type of sound modulation
75 sec pre-emphasis

5. Maximum Power Allocation
Maximum Visual ERP

Channel
in dB above 1-kW
2 to 6 20 dBk (100 kW)
7 to 13 25 dBk (316 kW)

21 to 32
37 dBk (5000 kW)
62 to 69
In Metro-Manila and Metro-Cebu, the maximum effective radiated powers of 350

KW for channels 2 to 6 and 1,000 KW for channel 7 to 13 are allowed.
Antenna towers represent hazard to aircraft. As a result they must be

painted with equal width stripes of aviation orange (TT-P-59) and
white (TT-P-102), each stripe approximately one-seventh the height of
the tower.
To mark the tower at night, towers up to 150 ft in height must have

two steady burning 116 or 125 W (32.5-candela) lamps in an aviation
red light globe at the top of the tower.
For towers higher than 150 ft the top beacon light consists of two 620
or 700 W PS-40 Flashing Code beacon lamps (2000 candelas) with
aviation red filters. Midway between flashing and top beacons, steady
burning red beacon light are installed.
6. Protection from Interference
Channel Duration
2 to 6 48 dBu
7 to 13 55 dBu
21 to 32 65 dBu
62 to 69 70 dBu
B. .IMPORTANT TERMINOLOGY.
1. Aspect Ratio
The ratio of picture width to picture height as transmitted.
2. Aural Transmitter
The radio equipment for the transmission of the aural signal only.
3. Aural Center Frequency

The frequency of the emitted wave without modulation.
4. Blanking Level
The level of the signal during the blanking interval, except the interval
between scanning synchronizing pulse and the chrominance subcarrier
synchronizing burst.
5. Chrominance
The colorimetric difference between any color having a specific
chromacity.
6. Chrominance Subcarrier
The carrier which is modulated by the chrominance information.
7. Field
Scanning through the picture area once in the chosen scanning
pattern.
8. Frame
Scanning all of the picture area once, in the line interlaced scanning
pattern of two to one, a frame consists of two fields.
9. Luminance
Luminous flux emitted, reflected, or transmitted per unit solid angle
per unit projected area of the source.
10. Monochrome Transmission

The transmission of TV signal which can be reproduced in gradations
of single color only.
11. Color Transmission

The transmission of color TV signal which can be reproduced with
different hue, saturation, and luminance.
12. Negative Transmission

Where a decrease in initial light intensity causes an increase in the
transmitted power.
13. Reference Black Level

The level corresponding to specified maximum excursion of the
luminance signal in the black direction.

14. Reference White Level

The level corresponding to specified maximum excursion of the
luminance signal in the white direction.
15. Scanning
The process of analyzing successively, according to a predetermined
method, the light values of picture elements constituting the total
picture area.
16. Visual Carrier Frequency

The frequency of the carrier which is modulated by the picture
information.
17. Visual Transmitter

The radio equipment for the transmission of the visual signal only.
I H
1. One of the following is a possible cause of an abrupt frequency variation in a
self exited transmitter oscillator circuits resulting to poor frequency stability to
hold a constant frequency oscillation. NOV 1998
A. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator
B. Heating and expansion of oscillator coil
C. DC and RF heating of resistors which change in values
D. Loose connections in the oscillator, amplifier, or antenna circuits
2. It is an average power of a radio transmitter supplied to the antenna

transmission line taken during a long sufficient interval of time and compared
with the lowest frequency encountered in the modulation, taken under the
normal operating conditions. NOV 1998
A. Rated power B. Mean power
C. Carrier power D. Peak envelope power
3. Determine the effective radiated power of 20 kW TV broadcast transmitter

whose antenna has a field gain of 2. NOV 1998
A. 40,000 watts B. 80 kW
C. 40 kW D. 8,000 watts
4. Refers to one of the front end circuit of a VHF TV superheterodyne receiver

which is usually a separate circuit coupled to the mixer. NOV 1998
A. Local oscillator B. AGC
C. RF amplifier D. Antenna feed
5. The actual vertical resolution of broadcast TV with reference to the number of

horizontal lines. NOV 1999
6. How many visible horizontal lines are left due to vertical retrace interval? NOV
1999
7. One of the following is the referred to as the number of scanning lines per
frame for NTSC standard. NOV 1999

8. When does broadcast station conduct an equipment test? NOV 1999

A. At any time B. During night time
C. During day time D. During experimental period
9. One of the following is a high powered RF ac basic transmitter that has two or
more stages, the oscillator stage which determines the frequency of operation
and RF amplifier stage or stages that develop the high power output. The
purpose of which is to develop a good frequency stability. NOV 1998
A. Hartley B. Alexanderson
C. MOPA D. Goldsmith
10. One of the following is a possible cause for a slow drift of frequency in a self-
excited transmitter oscillator circuits resulting to poor frequency stability. NOV
1998
A. heating of capacitor in the oscillator
B. loose shielding
C. faulty capacitor, resistor, tubes or resistors
D. poor soldered connections
11. The final amplifier of either FM or AM transmitter operates as

NOV 1998
A. class C B. class A
C. class B D. class D
12. TV channels 2, 4 and 5 are known as ________. APRIL 1997

A. mid band UHF B. high band VHF
C. low band UHF D. low band VHF
13. The allowable deviation ratio of commercial FM broadcast. APRIL 1997

A. 15 B. 5
C. 25 D. 75
14. ______ is the time duration for one horizontal trace. APRIL 1997
A. 62 s B. 48 s
C. 52 s D. 50 s
15. An antenna that can only receive a television signal. APRIL 1997
A. TVRO B. Reference antenna
C. Isotropic antenna D. Yagi antenna
16. Referred to as an average power of a radio transmitter supplied to the antenna

transmission line taken during one radio frequency cycle under no modulation.
APRIL 1998
A. Rated power B. Carrier power
C. Peak envelope power D. Mean power
17. With which emission type is the capture-effect more pronounced? APRIL 1998
A. CW B. FM
C. SSB D. AM
18. How can intermodulation interference between two transmitters in close

proximity reduced or eliminated? APRIL 1998
A. Through installing a band-pass filter in the antenna feed line
B. Through installing a terminated circular or ferrite isolator in the feed line of
the transmitter and duplexer
C. By using a class C final amplifier with high driving power
D. By installing a low-pass filter in the antenna feed line
19. What is emission F3F? APRIL 1998

A. Facsimile B. Television
C. Modulated CW D. RTTY
20. Referred to an oscillator signal leak through from a properly neutralized

amplifier such as a master oscillator power amplifier. APRIL 1998
A. stray signal B. carrier
C. back wave D. loss wave
21. Which frequency band is the standard AM radio broadcast? APRIL 1998
A. UHF B. MF
C. HF D. VHF
22. The maximum power suggested by KBP on 919-1312 AM broadcast station in

Metro Manila is. NOV 1996
A. 20 kW B. 5 kW
C. 10 kW D. 15 kW
23. What is the maximum color TV bandwidth? NOV 1996

A. 1.6 MHz B. 1.3 MHz
C. 0.5 MHz D. 1.0 MHz
24. Which of the following filters block FM radio band for TV channels (2 to 13)?
NOV 1996
A. Low-pass filter B. High-pass filter
C. Band reject filter D. Band-pass filter
25. The lowest resistance grounding on earth. NOV 1996

A. Sand B. Limestone
C. Surface loam soil D. Clay
26. The method of generating FM used by broadcast station is.

NOV 1996
A. direct B. insertion
C. indirect D. all of these
27. The frequency spectrum of the stereophonic FM signal. NOV 1996

A. 67 kHz B. 19 to 38 kHz
C. 59.5 to 74.5 kHz D. 30 to 53 kHz
28. After the IF stages have been aligned, the next stage to align in FM receiver is.
NOV 1996
A. local oscillator B. Mixer stage
C. limiter stage D. RF amplifier

29. Type of modulation used in TV broadcast visual transmitter. NOV 1996

A. Vestigial sideband B. DSBFC
C. SSBFC D. Pulse modulation
30. The father of color television

A. J.L. Baird B. Paul Nipkow
C. Vladimir Zworykin D. Alexander Bain
Section Microphones and Read it

till it
9 Loudspeakers Hertz!
DEFINITION. Microphone is an energy converter that changes sound energy

into electrical energy. A diaphragm in the microphone moves in and out in
accordance with the compression and rarefaction of the atmosphere caused by
sound waves. The diaphragm is connected to a device that causes current flow
in proportion to the instantaneous pressure delivered to it.
DEFINITION. Loudspeaker is device that converts an electrical signal into sound.
A. .ELECTRO-ACOUSTIC TRANSDUCERS.
1. Electromagnetic transducer
The electromagnetic transducer consists of a permanent magnet, soft
magnetic pole-shoe, an anchor and a spring.
2. Electrodynamic transducer
The electrodynamic transducer has a fixed air gap. Inside the air gap,
there is a magnetic field in which a conductor is moving.
3. Electrostatic transducer
The electrostatic transducer is essentially a capacitor consisting of one
fixed and one moving electrode.
4. Piezoelectric transducer
The piezoelectric transducer makes use of the ability of certain
materials to produce unbalanced charge distribution on their surface
when they are deformed. In the inverse effect, deformation appears
when electrical field is applied.
B. .MICROPHONE BASIC.
Microphone is an energy converter that changes sound energy into

electrical energy. A diaphragm in the microphone moves in and out in
accordance with the compression and rarefaction of the atmosphere
caused by sound waves. The diaphragm is connected to a device that
causes current flow in proportion to the instantaneous pressure delivered
to it. Many devices can perform this function.

2-90 Microphones and loudspeakers
1. Characteristics
Frequency Response - The range of frequencies over which the

microphone will normally pick up the sound.
Sensitivity - Ability to pick-up high and low level signals.
Directivity - Range pick-up

i. Omni-directional
ii. Bi-directional
iii. Unidirectional
2. General Classification
According to Power:
i. Generator - one which does not require external power
source.
ii. Modifier - requires an external power source.
According to manner of Coupling:

i. Pressure type - conversion depends on the sound pressure
acting on the microphone.
ii. Contact type - conversion depends on the transmitted

vibration.
iii. Velocity type - conversion depends on the velocity of sound

wave on the metallic ribbon.
According to Element used:
i. Carbon Microphone - Sound waves striking the diaphragm

vary the pressure on the button which varies the pressure on
the pile of carbon granules. The changing pressure deforms
the granules, causing the contact area between each pair of
adjacent granules to change, and this causes the electrical
resistance of the mass of granules to change (lose contact).
Since the voltage across a conductor is proportional to its
resistance, the voltage across the capsule varies according to
the sound pressure.
ii. Crystal Microphone - The crystal microphone uses the

piezoelectric effect of Rochelle salt, quartz, or other crystalline
materials. This means that when mechanical stress is placed
upon the material, a voltage electromagnetic force (EMF) is
generated.
iii. Dynamic Microphone - A coil of fine wire is mounted on the

back of the diaphragm and located in the magnetic field of a
permanent magnet. When sound waves strike the diaphragm,
the coil moves back and forth cutting the magnetic lines of
force. This induces a voltage into the coil that is an electrical
reproduction of the sound waves
iv. Magnetic Microphone - the magnetic or moving armature

microphone consists of a coil wound on an armature that is
mechanically connected to the diaphragm with a driver rod.
The coil is located between the pole pieces of the permanent
magnet. Any vibration of the diaphragm vibrates the armature
at the same rate.
v. Electret Microphone - An electret microphone is a relatively

new type of condenser microphone invented at Bell
laboratories in 1962 by Gerhard Sessler and Jim West, and
often simply called an electret microphone.
vi. Ribbon Microphone - In ribbon microphones a thin, usually

corrugated metal ribbon is suspended in a magnetic field:
vibration of the ribbon in the magnetic field generates a
changing current. Basic ribbon microphones detect sound in a
bidirectional (also called a figure-of-eight) pattern because the
ribbon, which is open to sound both front and back, responds
to the pressure gradient rather than the sound pressure.
C. .LOUDSPEAKERS.
Loudspeaker is a device that converts electrical signal into sound.
Loudspeaker types
Woofers
A woofer is a loudspeaker capable of reproducing the bass
frequencies. The frequency range varies widely according to
design and hence while some woofers can cover the audio band
from 50 Hz to 3 kHz, yet others may only work up to 1 kHz.
Mid-ranges
A mid-range loudspeaker, also known as a squawker is designed
to cover the middle of the audio spectrum, typically from about
200 Hz to about 4-5 kHz.
Tweeters
A tweeter is a loudspeaker capable of reproducing the higher end
of the audio spectrum, usually from about 1 kHz to 20 or 35 kHz.

Full-ranges
A full-range speaker is designed to have as wide a frequency
response as possible. There exist full-range drivers with pure
titanium diaphragm which are capable of reproducing a frequency
range from 50 Hz to 20 kHz. Typically 2" to 5" in diameter.
Subwoofers
A subwoofer driver is a woofer optimised for the lowest range of
the audio spectrum. A typical subwoofer only reproduces sounds
below 120 Hz (although some subwoofers allow a choice of the
cross-over frequency).
1. Loudspeakers are basically comprised of two things:

i. One or more drivers to push and pull the air in the room.
ii. An enclosure (fancy word for "box") to make the driver sound and
look good.
2. Broad Categories
i. Dynamic
a. Moving Coil - A moving coil loudspeaker uses a coil of wire
suspended in a stationary magnetic field (complements of a
permanent magnet).
b. Ribbon - Ribbon loudspeakers use the same basic principle

where you put current into a wire (or sheet of metal in this
case...) and it creates a magnetic field.
ii. Electrostatic
Operates on the principles of electrostatic attraction.
3. Enclosure Design
i. Dipole Radiator (no enclosure) a.k.a. Double radiator

As the diaphragm moves "outwards" (i.e. towards the
listener), the resulting air pressure at the "front" of the
diaphragm is positive while the pressure at the back of the
diaphragm is of equal magnitude but opposite polarity.
ii. Infinite Baffle

This is called an "infinite baffle because the diaphragm is
essentially mounted on a wall of infinite dimensions.
iii. Finite Baffle

A finite baffle causes the energy from the rear of the driver to
reach the listener with a given delay time determined by the
dimensions of the baffle.
iv. Folded Baffle

A folded baffle is essentially a large flat baffle that has been
"folded" into a tube which is open on one end (the back) and
sealed by the driver at the other end as is shown below.
v. Sealed Cabinet (a.k.a. Acoustic Suspension)

The acoustic suspension eliminates the resonance of an open-
back cabinet by sealing it up, thus turning the tube into a box.
Now the air sealed inside the enclosure acts as a spring which
pushes back against the rear of the diaphragm.
vi. Ported Cabinet (a.k.a. Bass Reflex)

A bass reflex can be achieved by simply cutting a hole in
sealed cabinet enclosure.
The word woofer in loudspeaker comes from woofs which are

infrasonic frequencies below 20 Hz.
The word tweeter in loudspeaker comes from tweets which are

frequencies from 15, 000 Hz to 20, 000 Hz and extend beyond
ultrasonic range.

Sample Problem:
A loudspeaker is driven by a voltage of 0.7 V (RMS). The resulting pressure
(measured under standard conditions at a distance of 1 meter) is 0.3 Pa.
Calculate the voltage sensitivity of the loudspeaker.
Solution:
First, we calculate the sound pressure level for 0.7 Volts:

0 .3
20 log = 83.5
20 x 10 6

The SPL rise for 2.83 volts is

2 .83
20 log = 12 .1
0 .7
Hence Voltage Sensitivity is

83.5 + 12.1 = 95.6 dB/2.83V @1m
Sample Problem:
A loud speaker with a sensitivity of 85dB/2.83V@1m is driven by 1.5V
(RMS). What is the resulting SPL at
a. 1 meter b. 5 meters
Solution:
a. 1.5
SPL = 20 log = 5.5dB
2.83
hence SPL=85-5.5dB=79.5dB at 1meter
b. 1
SPL = 20 log = 14dB
5
hence SPL=79.5-14dB=65.5dB at 5 meters
Section 10
Transmission
Lines and
Waveguides
Section 11
Fiber Optics
Communications
Section 12
Telephone Networks
and System
Section 13
Facsimile
Transmission
Wire
Communications

Section
Transmission Read it
till it
10 Lines and Waveguides Hertz!
DEFINITION. Transmission Lines: Metallic conductor system that is used to

guide or transfer electrical energy from one point to another.
DEFINITION. Characteristic Impedance: Impedance seen looking at an

infinitely long transmission lines or the impedance seen into a finite length of
line that is terminated in a purely resistive load equal to the characteristic
impedance of the line.
DEFINITION. Velocity Factor is defined as the ratio of the actual velocity of

propagation through a given medium to the velocity of propagation through
free space.
A. .2 BROAD CATEGORIES.
1. Balance
Impedance to ground from each of the two wires is equal and this
ensures that the current in both wires are equal in magnitudes but
opposite in sign or travel in opposite directions.
2. Unbalance
One wire is at ground potential, while the other is at signal potential.
B. .PARALLEL-CONDUCTOR TRANSMISSION LINES.
1. Two-Wire Open Line

The line consists of two wires that are generally spaced from 2 to 6
inches apart by insulating spacers. This type of line is most often used
for power lines, rural telephone lines, and telegraph lines.

3-2 TRANSMISSION LINES and waveguides
2. Two-Wire Ribbon (Twin Lead)

This type of transmission line is commonly used to connect a television
receiving antenna to a home television set. This line is essentially the
same as the two-wire open line except that uniform spacing is assured
by embedding the two wires in a low-loss dielectric, usually
polyethylene.
3. Twisted Pair
As the name implies, the line consists of two insulated wires twisted
together to form a flexible line without the use of spacers. It is not
used for transmitting high frequency because of the high dielectric
losses that occur in the rubber insulation.
4. Shielded Pair
Consists of parallel conductors separated from each other and
surrounded by a solid dielectric. The conductors are contained within a
braided copper tubing that acts as an electrical shield. The assembly is
covered with a rubber or flexible composition coating that protects the
line from moisture and mechanical damage.
Electrocution of the Human Body

Contrary to popular belief, it is the current - not the voltage - level which is
responsible for effects. According to Ohm's Law, of course, a certain
voltage is required to cause the necessary currents to flow. Values show
varies depending on the body.
Onset Current
Effect
Level (mA)
1 Threshold of sensation
8 Mild sensation
10 Painful
13 Cannot let go
21 Muscular paralysis
20 Severe shock
38 Breathing labored
42 Breathing upset
70 Extreme breathing difficulties
90 Ventricular fibrillation
100 Death
C. .CONCENTRIC or COAXIAL TRANSMISSION LINES.
1. Rigid (Air) Coaxial Line

The rigid coaxial line consists of a central, insulated wire (inner
conductor) mounted inside a tubular outer conductor. The spacers are
made of Pyrex, polystyrene, or some other material that has good
insulating characteristics and low dielectric losses at high frequencies.
2. Solid Flexible Coaxial Line

Solid flexible coaxial lines are made with an inner conductor that
consists of flexible wire insulated from the outer conductor by a solid,
continuous insulating material. The outer conductor is made of metal
braid, which gives the line flexibility.
D. .TRANSMISSION LINE LOSSES.
1. Copper Losses
One type of copper loss is I2R loss. In RF lines the resistance of the
conductors is never equal to zero. Whenever current flows through
one of these conductors, some energy is dissipated in the form of
heat. This heat loss is a POWER LOSS.
Another type of copper loss is due to SKIN EFFECT where currents tend to flow
near the surface of the conductor. A special type of wire called Litzendraht wire
(Litz wire) is often used to reduce skin effect.
2. Dielectric Losses
Result from the heating effect on the dielectric material between the
conductors.
3. Radiation and Induction Losses

Radiation and induction losses are similar in that both are caused by
the fields surrounding the conductors. Induction losses occur when the
electromagnetic field about a conductor cuts through any nearby
metallic object and a current is induced in that object. As a result,
power is dissipated in the object and is lost.

4. Coupling Loss
Occurs whenever a connection is made to or from a transmission line
or when two separate pieces of transmission lines are connected
together.
E. .TRANSMISSION LINE EQUIVALENT CIRCUIT.
Distributed Parameters
Series Resistance (R)

The transmission line has electrical resistance along its length. This resistance
is usually expressed in ohms per unit length and is shown as existing
continuously from one end of the line to the other.
Series Inductance (L)

When current flows through a wire, magnetic lines of force are set up
around the wire. The energy produced by the magnetic lines of force
collapsing back into the wire tends to keep the current flowing in the same
direction. This represents a certain amount of inductance, which is expressed
in nanohenrys per unit length.
Shunt Conductance (G)

Since any dielectric, even air, is not a perfect insulator, a small current known
as leakage current flows between the two wires. In effect, the insulator acts
as a resistor, permitting current to pass between the two wires. This property
is called conductance (G) and is the opposite of resistance which is
expressed in Siemens per unit length.
Shunt Capacitance (C)

Capacitance also exists between the transmission line wires. Notice that the
two parallel wires act as plates of a capacitor and that the air between them
acts as a dielectric. The capacitance between the wires is usually expressed in
picofarads per unit length.
F. .PRIMARY LINE CONSTANTS.
They are constant in the sense that they do not vary with voltage and
current; however, they are frequency dependent to some extent.
2-wire line Coaxial line

S
d d D
Series Inductance Series Capacitance

Types
(Henry/meter) (Farad/meter)

2S C
2-Wire L ln 2S
d ln
d
2
D C
Coaxial L ln D
2 d ln
d
where :
= Permeability of medium in H/m
= Permittivity of medium in F /m
S = center to center spacingbetween conductors in m
d = diameter of conductor in m
For Coaxial line
D = Diameter of outer conductor in m
d = diameter of inner conductor in m

G. .SECONDARY LINE CONSTANTS.
1. Characteristic Impedance (Zo)

Impedance seen looking at an infinitely long transmission lines or the
impedance seen into a finite length of line that is terminated in a
purely resistive load equal to the characteristic impedance of the line.
In terms of Primary Line Constant
where:
Z = series impedance
Z
ZO = = R + j L
Y
Y = shunt admittance
= G + j C
At Low Frequency At High Frequency
R L
ZO = ZO =
G C
In terms of Physical Dimensions
2-Wire Line Coaxial
S 138 D
Z o = 276 log10 Zo = log10
r r d
Sample Problem:
The primary line constant for a coaxial cable at a frequency of 10 MHz were
determine approximately as follows; L = 234 nH/m, C = 93.5 pF/m, R =
0.568 /m, G = 0. Determine the characteristic impedance.
Solution:
Since f = 10 MHz
L 234 x 10 9
ZO = =
C 93.5 x 10 12
= 50
2. Propagation Constant ()
Used to determine the reduction in voltage or current with distance as
a TEM propagates down a transmission lines.
In terms of Propagation Constant
Series Impedance (Z) &

= ZY
Shunt Admittance (Y)
Attenuation Coefficient () &

= + j
Phase Shift Constant ()
Attenuation Coefficient ()
R = attenuation coefficient in Neper/m

=
2Z 0 R = series resistance in /m
1. Phase Shift Coefficient ()
1. General Solution
2 = Phase shift coefficient in rad/m

=
= Signal wavelength in m
2. In Free space (Homogenous)
In terms of Phase Shift Coefficient

Velocity of light (c) =
c
Permeability () &
=
Permittivity ()

3. In other medium (Non-Homogenous)
In terms of Phase Shift Coefficient
Velocity of Propagation
=
(Vp) Vp
Inductance (L) &

Capacitance (C)
= LC
Sample Problem:
A signal will undergo a phase shift of how many rad/m when propagating on
a 25-m coaxial cable with a velocity of 0.66c and operating at 5 MHz. Also
compute for the total phase delay in degrees.
Solution:
Phase shift coefficient;
2(5 x 106 ) rad
= = = 0.16
Vp 0.66(3 x 108 ) m
Total phase delay in degrees;
rad 180
A = 0.16 x x 25 m = 229.18 delay
m
H. .TRANSMISSION LINE PARAMETERS.
1. Velocity Factor (F)

Defined as the ratio of the actual velocity of propagation through a
given medium to the velocity of propagation through free space.
In terms of Velocity Factor
Light velocity and Vp

F=
velocity of propagation c
Relative permittivity 1
F=
(dielectric constant) r
1
Refractive Index F=
n

Calculate the velocity factor of a coaxial cable used as a transmission line, with
the characteristic impedance of 50 ohms, capacitance is 40 pF/m, and inductance
equal to 50 H/m.
Solution:
Vp 1 1
F= = Vp =
c c LC LC
1
= ;
c (50 H)(40 pF)
= 0.0745
2. Electrical Length
The length of a transmission line relative to the length of the wave
propagating down the line.
360L L
A = A rad =

where :
A = electrical length in deg
A rad = electrical length in rad
L = physical length in m
= operating wavelength in m
Sample Problem:
What length of standard RG-8/U coaxial cable would required to obtain a 45
phase shift at 300 MHz?
Solution:
360 360 360
A = xA = xA = = x A = 45
Vp 0.66c 0.66(3 x 108 )
f 300 x 106
45 0.66(3 x 108 )
A= x = 0.0825 m
360 300 x 106

3. Reflection
A transmission line phenomena wherein a portion of the incident
energy is delivered back to the source due to impedance mismatched.
4. Reflection Coefficient ()
A vector quantity representing the ratio of reflected voltage to incident
voltage or reflected current to incident current.
In terms of Reflection Coefficient
Reflected & Incident Vref I

= = ref
Signal Vinc Iinc
Reflected Power & Pref
=
Incident Power Pinc
Load Impedance & ZL Z 0

=
Characteristic Impedance ZL + Z 0
Sample Problem:
Calculate the magnitude of reflection because of the mismatch between a
75 line and (50-j25) load.
Solution:
ZL ZO (50 j25) 75 25 j25
= = =
ZL + ZO (50 j25) + 75 125 j25
= 0.154 j0.231 = 0.277 123 = 0.277
5. Standing Waves
An interference pattern that exists (because of impedance
mismatched) when two sets of traveling waves going on opposite
direction meets.
Standing Wave Ratio (SWR)

A scalar quantity that represent the degree of impedance mismatch or
defines as the ratio of the maximum voltage to the minimum voltage
or the maximum current to the minimum current on a TL.
In terms of Standing Wave Ratio
Reflected & Incident Vinc + Vref Iinc + Iref

SWR = =
Signal Vinc Vref Iinc Iref
Transmission line voltage Vmax Imax

SWR = =
measurement Vmin Imin
Load Impedance
& ZL Z0
SWR = SWR =
Characteristic Z0 ZL Z 0 > ZL
ZL > Z 0
Impedance
Pref
1+
Incident and Reflected Pinc
SWR =
Power Pref
1
Pinc
Relationship between SWR and
1+ SWR 1
SWR = =
1 SWR + 1
Sample Problem:
Calculate the SWR & reflection coefficient of the line if the forward power is
250 W, and the reverse power is 45 W.
Solution:
Pref Pref 45
2 = = = = 0.424
Pinc Pinc 250
1 + 1 + 0.424
SWR = = = 2.47
1 1 0.424

6. Return Loss (RL)

The ratio of the power in the reflected wave to that in the incident
wave.
1
RL = RL dB = 20 log
2
7. Transmission Loss (TL)
In terms of Transmission Loss
SWR 1
2
Standing Wave TL dB = 10 log 1
Ratio
SWR + 1
Reflection
TL dB = 10 log(1 2 )
Coefficient
Sample Problem:
A coaxial TL with a Z0 of 50- is connected to the 50- output of a signal
generator, and also to a 20- load impedance. Calculate the mismatch loss.
Solution:
2
Z ZO
Mismatch(dB) = 10 log(1 2 ) = 10 log1 L
ZL + ZO
20 50
2
= 10 log1 = 0.88 dB
20 + 50

8. Voltage and Current Transmission Coefficient (V and C)
Voltage Transmission Coefficient (V)

The ratio of the transmitted wave voltage to the incident wave
voltage.
Vref
V = 1 + V = 1 +
Vinc
S
O Incident L
U O
Reflected Transmitted
R A
C D
E
Current Transmission Coefficient (C)

The ratio of the transmitted wave current to the incident wave current.
Iref
C = 1 + C = 1
Iinc
Sample Problem:
A 10 V positive going pulse is sent down a 50 m of lossless 50 cable with a
velocity factor of 0.8. The cable is terminated with a 150 resistor.
Calculate the voltage and current transmission coefficient and the amount of
transmitted voltage to the load.
Solution:
ZL ZO 150 50 1
= = =
ZL + ZO 150 + 50 2
1 3 1 1
V = 1 + = 1 + 2
= C = 1 = 1 =
2 2 2
3
Vtransmitted = V x Vinc = (10) = 15 V
2
One may be puzzled to note that the transmitted voltage can be greater than the
incident voltage; however, this is not of concern since the transmitted current will be less
than the incident current. In fact, what is important is that the transmitted power is
always less than (or equal to) the incident power irrespective of whether is positive or
negative.
9. Transmitted Power (PT)

The portion of the incident power consumed by the load or radiated by
an antenna.
PT = Pinc Pref PT = Pinc (1 2 )

Sample Problem:
A generator sends a 75 mW down a 50 line. The generator is matched to
the line, but the load is not. If the coefficient of reflection is 0.6, how much
power is reflected and how much is dissipate in the load?
Solution:
Pabs = Pinc Pref = Pinc 2Pinc = Pinc (1 2 )
= 75 x 103(1 0.62 ) = 48 mW
Pref = Pinc Pabs = 75 mW 48 mW = 27 mW
10. Input Impedance (Zin)

The impedance seen at the input of a lossless transmission line.
ZL + jZ 0 tan A
Zin = Z 0
Z 0 + jZL tan A
Sample Problem:
Calculate the effective inductance seen at the input of an open circuit TL of
length 0.12 m at 3 GHz. Assume Z0=75, velocity factor of 0.65
Solution:
ZL + jZO tan A 2f
Zin = ZO ZL = (open ckt); =
ZO + jZL tan A Vp
2(3 x 109 )
= jZO cot A = j(75) cot 8
x 0.12 = j51.77
0.65(3 x 10 )
from Z = R jX XL = 51.77 = 2fL
XL 51.77
L = = = 2.75 nH
2f 2(3 x 109 )
I. .TRANSMISSION LINE WAVE PROPAGATION.
1. Infinite Transmission Line Condition
If the transmission is uniform and infinite, the wave in the +z

(forward) direction will continue indefinitely and never return in the
z (reverse) direction.
2. Matched Impedance Condition (ZO=RLOAD)
If the uniform transmission line is truncated and connected instead to

a lumped resistive load RL = ZO, the entire +z wave(forward traveling
wave) is dissipated in the load, which has the same effect as if an
infinite line of characteristic impedance ZO were attached at the same
point. This matched impedance condition is a unique situation in which
all the power of the +z wave is delivered to the load just as if it were
an infinite transmission line, with no reflected waves generated in the
-z direction.
3. Short-Circuit Load Condition (ZLOAD=0)

For a shorted-load condition once the surge energy reaches the
shorted end, the total voltage was compelled to be zero while the
current can have any value, as determined by other constraints on the
system.

4. Open-Circuit Load Condition (ZLOAD=)

For an open load condition, the incoming surge of energy cannot
simply disappear, because there is nothing capable of dissipating the
energy at this point. What happen is that the energy reflects from the
open end of the line back to the load.
For open-load TL
The reflected voltage is the same (in phase) as the incident voltage
and the total voltage at the destination end of the line is twice the
incident voltage.
But the incident current and reflected current is equal in magnitude

but opposite in directions (out of phase) and the total current is zero.
For shorted-load TL
The reflected current is the same (in phase) as the incident current
and the total current at the destination end of the line is twice the
incident current.
But the incident voltage and reflected voltage is equal in magnitude

but opposite in directions and the total voltage is zero.
J. .COMPARISON BETWEEN MATCHED, OPEN, & SHORTED TL.
Matched Short-Circuit Open-Circuit

Parameter
Condition Condition Condition
Load
Zload = Z 0 Zload = 0 Zload =
Impedance
Vload
Vref = 0 Vref = Vinc Vref = Vinc =
Reflected 2
Signal Iload
Iref = 0 Iref = Iinc = Iref = Iinc
2
Vload = Vinc + Vref
Vload = IL Z 0 Vload = 0 (min)
Load = 2Vinc (max)
Signal VL Iload = Iinc + Iref
Iload = Iload = 0 (min)
Z0 = 2Iinc (max)
Voltage = 1180 = 1 0
Reflection =0
Coefficient = 1.0 = +1.0
Current = 10 = 1180
Reflection =0
Coefficient = 1.0 = 1.0
Standing
Wave SWR = 1 SWR = SWR =
Ratio
Return
RL = RL = 1 RL = 1
Loss
Input
Zin = Z 0 Z in = jZ o tan(A ) Zin = jZ o cot(A)
Impedance
5. Mismatched Impedance Condition (ZOZLOAD)

For mismatched impedance conditions waves can exist traveling
independently in either direction on a linear transmission line. If a
wave in the z (from the load to the source) direction is formed by a
complete or partial reflection of the +z wave by some discontinuity
such as a lumped load of RLOAD, the two waves are by definition
coherent and an interference pattern will exist.
i. Voltage And Current Phasor At Any Point On The Line
V(z) = V + e j z + Vo e + j z
o
I(z) = Io+ e j z + I o e + j z

ii. Voltage & Current Relation
V0+ V0
I0+ = I0 =
Z0 Z0
iii. Distance of the 1st Voltage Minimum from the Load
+
dmin = = ( + )
2 4
When =0, which occurs when ZL is purely real and greater than Z0, dmin=/4
and a voltage maximum exists right at the load.
When =-, which occurs when ZL is purely real and less than Z0, dmin=0 and a
voltage minimum exists right at the load.
Sample Problem:
Calculate the voltage reflection coefficient, SWR, and determine the position
of the first voltage minimum from the load which has an impedance of (15-
j20). (Use Z0=50)
Solution:
ZL Z0 (15 j20) 50 35 j20
= = =
ZL Z0 (15 j20) + 50 65 j20
8.06 150.26
= = 0.593 133.16
13.6 17.1
= 0.593e j0.74 = 0.74
1 + 1 + 0.593
SWR = = = 3.914
1 1 0.593

dmin = ( + ) = (0.74 + ) = 0.065
4 4
K. .TRANSMISSION LINE MATCHING.
1. Quarter-Wave Transformer Matching

A short piece (quarter wavelength) of wire inserted between the load
and the transmission line.
Disadvantages of using QWTs

A TL must be placed between the load and the feedline.
A special characteristic impedance for the QWT is required, which
depends both on the load resistance and the characteristic
impedance of the feedline.
QWTs work perfectly only for one load at one frequency.
One Section
Z 0 ' = impedance of the transformer in

Z 0 ' = Z 0 ZL Z 0 = impedance of the line in
ZL = impedance of the load in
Two Sections
Z1 = 4 Z 03 xZL Z2 = 4 Z 0 xZL 3
2. Stub Matching
i. Single Stub Tuning

Transmission line stubs is simply a piece of additional transmission
line that is placed across the primary line to remove the reactive
component of the load.

The transform load impedance at the stub position z=-d is
ZL + jZ 0 tan d
Z(z = d) = Z 0
Z 0 + jZL tan d
The distance d is chosen so that G=Y0, this condition leads to the solutions

R [
XL L (Z0 RL )2 + XL2
Z0
]
d= tan1 t t=
2 RL Z0
ii. Length Of Stub To Be Used
a. For Short-Circuit Stub
Y
LS = tan1 0
2 B
b. For Open-Circuit Stub
B
LS = tan1
2 Y0
Sample Problem:
Determine the relative position of the stub needed to match the load with an
impedance of 35-j47.5 to a TL with a characteristic impedance of 50
using a shunt, short-circuited single-stub tuner.
Solution:
XL
RL
Z0
{
(Z0 RL )2 + XL2 } 47.5
35
50
{ }
(50 35)2 + 47.52 0.388
t = = =
RL Z0 35 50 5.945
1
tan1(0.388) = 0.0589
1
d= tan1 t = 2
2 1 tan1(5.945) = 0.2235
2
L. .MISCELLANEOUS TRANSMISSION LINE.
1. Microstrip
A miniaturized version of stripline best suited to circuit integration of
semiconductor devices.
Parameter Equation
T
Inductance L=
L
L
Capacitance C=
T
T T
Z o = 120 when << 1
Characteristic L L
Impedance 200 6T
Zo = log
r + 1.41 0.8L + w
Z0 = characteristic impedance,
r = dielectric constant
T = dielectric thickness
L = width of the conducting copper trace
w = thickness of conducting copper trace
Sample Problem:
What is the value of Zo for a single 0.1-in wide, 0.005-in thick track plus
groundplane microstrip line? Assume that the PC board is 0.075-in thick and
that the dielectric constant of the board is 2.
Solution:
200 6T
Zo = log
r + 1.41 0.8L + w
200 6(0.075)
= log
2 + 1.41 0.8(0.1) + 0.005
= 78.4

For Multi-track Microstrip
276 x
Z0 = log
r L + w
Sample Problem:
A microstrip line is formed using a 0.095-in thick PC board (r=1.8) with a
bottom groundplane and a double 0.15-in wide, 0.008-in thick track on the
top separated 0.2-in. What is the characteristic impedance?
Solution:
276 x 276 0.2
Zo = log = log = 123.3
r L + w 1.8 0.15 + 0.008
2. Stripline
Consists of a printed conductor between two ground planes, typically
formed from copper-clad polyethylene sheets.

138 2T
Zo = log
r w
L(0.8 + )
t
Z0 = characteristic impedance,
r = dielectric constant
T = dielectric thickness
L = width of the conducting copper trace
w = thickness of conducting copper trace
t = distance between copper trace and the ground plane
Sample Problem:
A stripline is formed using multilayer board (r=2). The center track is 0.15-
in wide and 0.005-in thick, and the PC board first layer thickness is 0.05-in
thick, with an overall board thickness of twice the single layer. What is the
characteristic impedance?
Solution:

138 2T 138 2(2 x 0.05)
Zo = log = log 17
r L 0.8 + w 2 0.15 0.8 + 0.005
t 0.05
3. Balanced 4-wire
2
1
Z0 =
138 2D
log10 2 1 + D2

r d D1


4. Balanced, near ground
2
1
276 2D D
Z0 = log10 1+
r d 2h

5. Wires in parallel, near ground
2
1
69 4h 2h
Z0 = log10 1+
r d D

6. Balance 2-wire near ground
1
276 2D D2

Z0 = log10 1 +
r d 4h1h2

7. Single wire, near ground
138 4h
Z0 = log10
r d
8. Single wire between grounded parallel planes (ground return)
138 4h
Z0 = log10
r d
9. Balanced line between grounded parallel planes
D
276 4h tanh 2h

Z0 = log10
r d


10. Balanced line between grounded parallel planes
276 2h
Z0 = log10
r d
M. .TRANSMISSION LINE SUMMARY.

N. .WAVEGUIDE THEORY.
Waveguides are hollow metal pipes that guide electromagnetic waves.
1. Waveguide Dimension
Widest dimension of a
waveguide is called the "a"
dimension and determines
the range of operating
frequencies.
The narrowest dimension

determines the power-
handling capability of the
waveguide and is called the
"b" dimension.
2. Types of Electromagnetic (EM) Wave Propagation
Transverse Electromagnetic (TEM)

The electric and magnetic field components are transverse to the
direction of propagation.
Transverse Electric (TE)

All electric field components are transverse to the direction of
propagation.

Transverse Magnetic (TM)

All magnetic field components are transverse to the direction of
propagation.
3. Boundary Conditions
For an electric field to exist at the surface of a conductor it must

be perpendicular to the conductor.
An electric field CANNOT exist parallel to a perfect conductor.
For a varying magnetic field to exist, it must form closed loops in

parallel with the conductors and be perpendicular to the electric
field.
The magnetic field CANNOT exist normal to a perfectly conducting plate.
4. Dominant Modes & Cut-off frequency
For TE10 mode

General Solution (dominant) in
rectangular waveguide
2 2
1 m n c
fc = a + b fc =
2 2a
2
c =
2 2
m n c = 2a
a + b

where:

m = # of 2
variations of field in the "a" dimension

n = # of 2
variations of field in the "b" dimension

A rectangular waveguide has a width of 1.2 in and a height of 0.7 in. The
waveguide will pass all signals above ____ GHz.
Solution:
c 3 x 108
fc = = = 4.92 GHz
2a 2(1.2 in x 0.0254 m )
1 in

A rectangular waveguide has a width of 0.6 inch. Calculate the waveguide cut-off
frequency.
Solution:
c 3 x 108
fc = = = 9.84 GHz
2a 2(0.6 x 0.0254 m )
1 in
Sample Problem:
Determine the high pass cut-off of a rectangular waveguide which has a
broad dimension wall of 1.5 inches.
Solution:
0.0254 m c 3 x 108
c = 2a = 21.5 in x fc = =
1 in 2a 2(0.0762)
= 0.0762 m = 3.94 GHz

5. Field patterns for the TE10 mode in rectangular wave guide
6. Waveguide Velocities
Relation between Group and Phase velocity
G
G P = c2 = sin2
P
where :
c = speed of light
= angle of incidence
Group velocity (G)

The velocity of propagation of a wave along a waveguide is less
than its velocity through free space (speed of light). This lower
velocity is caused by the zigzag path taken by the wavefront.
The forward-progress velocity of the wavefront in a waveguide is called

group velocity and is somewhat slower than the speed of light.
In terms of Equation
2

Waveguide Dimension G = c 1
2a
2
f
Critical Frequency G = c 1 c
f
Phase Velocity (P)

Phase velocity is the rate at which the wave appears to move
along the wall of the guide, based on the way the phase angle
varies along the walls.
c
P =
Waveguide 2
Dimension
1
2a
c
P =
2
Cut-off Frequency f
1 c
f
Sample Problem:
Determine the group and phase velocities within a rectangular waveguide
with an internal dimension of 1.52 x 0.9 in and is fed by a 12 GHz carrier
using a coaxial probe.
Solution:
2 2
0.025
G = c 1 = c 1 = 283.84 x 106 m
2a 2 x 0 .03861 s

2
c
GP = c2 P = = 317.08 x 106 m
283.84 x 106 s
7. Impedance and Guide Wavelength
i. Waveguide Impedance (Zo)
120
Zo =
Waveguide 2
Dimension
1
2a
120
Zo =
2
Cut-off Frequency f
1 c
f


Calculate the characteristic impedance of a waveguide with a cut-off
frequency of 3.75 GHz, at a frequency of 5 GHz?
Solution:
120 120
Zo = = = 570
2 2
f 3.75
1 c 1
f 5
ii. Guide Wavelength (g)
P
Phase Velocity g =
f
o
g =
Waveguide 2
Dimension
1
2a
o
g =
2
Cut-off Frequency f
1 c
f
Sample Problem:
A 5.6 GHz microwave signal is propagated in a waveguide. Assuming that
the internal angle of incidence to the waveguide surfaces is 42. Calculate
the wavelength of the signal in the waveguide.
Solution:
Compute first the phase velocity;
c 3 x 108
Vp = = = 4.5 x 108 m
sin sin 42 s
then for the guide wavelength
Vp 4.5 x 108
g = = = 0.08 m
f 5.6 x 109
O. .CIRCULAR WAVEGUIDES.
1. TE (Transverse Electric) Mode

The lower cutoff frequency (or wavelength)
for a particular TE mode in circular
waveguide is determined by the following
equation:
2r where :
c, mn =
k mn r = waveguide radius
m km1 km2 km3

0 3.832 7.016 10.174
1 1.841 5.331 8.536
2 3.054 6.706 9.970
2. TM (Transverse Magnetic) Mode

The lower cutoff frequency (or wavelength) for a particular TM mode in
circular waveguide is determined by the following equation:
2 r
c,mn =
k 'mn
m km1 km2 kpm3

0 2.405 5.520 8.654
1 3.832 7.016 10.174
2 5.135 8.417 11.620

P. .MICROWAVE TUBES & SEMICONDUCTOR DEVICES.
1. Microwave Tubes
i. Magnetron
A combination of diode vacuum tube with built in cavity
resonators and an extremely powerful permanent magnet.
Invented by Randall and Boot
ii. Klystron
A microwave vacuum tube using two cavity resonators to produce
velocity modulation.
Invented by the Varian brother before WWII
Velocity modulation is the speeding and slowing down of the electron

beam.
Reflex Klystron - single cavity Klystron
iii. Traveling Wave Tube

It was invented by Rudolf Kompfner and developed into a viable
device by J.R. Pierce and L.M. Field at Bell Lab.
iv. Cross Field Tubes

A cross-field microwave tube is a device that converts dc electric
power into microwave power using an electronic energy-
conversion process similar to that of magnetron oscillator.
2. Microwave Semiconductor Devices
i. Point Contact diode

The oldest microwave semiconductor device, also called as CAT
whisker.
Application: microwave mixer & detectors
ii. Schottky barrier (Hot-carrier) diode

Application: microwave mixer & detectors
iii. Varactor (Voltage Variable Capacitor)

The application of reverse bias controlled the thickness of the
depletion region which in turn makes the diode a variable
capacitor.
Application: harmonic generators (frequency multipliers), parametric

amplification & electronic tuning.
iv. Step Recovery diode

Design to store charged in the depletion region when it is
conducting in the forward bias direction and produce a sharp step
or snap pulse when reverse biased.
Application: harmonic generators (frequency multipliers), mixer
v. PIN (Positive Intrinsic Negative) diode

Proposed by R.N. Hall in 1952 and was first recognized by Uhlir in
1958.
Application: microwave switches, modulators & protectors
vi. IMPATT (Impact Avalanche and Transit Time) diode

The electron and hole velocity increases so high that these
carriers form additional holes and electrons by knocking them out
of the crystal structure, so called impact ionization.
Application: microwave power generation or amplification
vii. Backward diode (Tunnel rectifier)

Application: video detection circuit & low level mixing
viii. MASER
(Microwave Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation)
Developed by Charles Townes in 1954 and provided extremely
low noise amplification of microwave signals by a quantum
mechanical process.
Application: LNA(low-noise amplifier)
ix. RIMPATT (Read Impact Avalanche and Transit Time) diode

Used at very high frequency microwave oscillator and now
commonly known as double-drift IMPATT.
x. TRAPATT (Trapped Plasma Avalanche Triggered Transit) diode

Same operation with IMPATT but the drift velocity is much less
than in an IMPATT diode.
Application: narrowband microwave high power generation or

amplification

xi. Gunn diode

Exhibit negative resistance characteristic and has a threshold of
3.3kV/cm for oscillation to take place.
Gun Effect is a bulk property of semiconductor that occurs in

N-type materials only, so it is associated rather than holes.
The term diode is a misnomer for Gunn device since there is

no junction, nor rectification involved.
Application: microwave power generation or amplification, Police Radar,

CW Doppler Radar
xii. SAW (Surface Acoustic Wave) device

SAW resonator employs thin lines etched on a metallic surface
electrodeposited on a piezoelectric substrate, which is commonly
quartz.
Application: narrowband bandpass filter

I H
1. What is the impedance of two sections of quarter-wave transformer (connected
in series) needed in order to match a line 54 to a load of 300
A. 28.9 , 958.4 B. 82.9 , 195.4
C. 8.9 , 15.4 D. 182.9 , 295.4
2. A pattern of voltage and current variations along a transmission line not

terminated in its characteristic impedance is called
A. A magnetic field B. Radio waves
C. An electric field D. Standing waves
3. A transmitter is required to deliver 100 W to an antenna through 45 m of

coaxial cable with a loss of 4 dB/100m. What must be the output power of the
transmitter, assuming the line is matched?
A. 34.51 W B. 345 W
C. 1.51 W D. 151 W
4. A shorted quarter-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a(n)

C. Series resonant circuit D. Parallel resonant circuit
5. A TDR display shows a discontinuity 1.4 s from the start. If the line has a
velocity factor of 0.8 how far is the fault from the reflectometer?
A. 16.8 m B. 168 m
C. 32.5 m D. 325 m
6. Two adjacent minima on a slotted line are 23 cm apart. Find the frequency,
assuming a velocity factor of 95%.
A. 620 MHz B. 230 MHz
C. 452 MHz D. 134 MHz
7. The forward power in a transmission line is 150 W, and the reverse power is 20
W. Calculate the SWR on the line.
A. 0.55 B. -1.6
C. 2.15 D. 0.15
8. A ratio expressing the percentage of incident voltage reflected on a

transmission line is known as the
A. Line efficiency B. Standing-wave ratio
C. Velocity factor D. Reflection coefficient

9. A transmission line of unknown impedance is terminated with two different

resistances, and the SWR is measured each time. With a 75 termination, the
SWR measures 1.5. With a 300 termination, it measures 2.67. What is the
impedance of the line
A. 1.12 B. 32
C. 50 D. 112
10. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in a short-
circuit:
A. would reflect as a positive pulse
B. would reflect as a negative pulse
C. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse
D. would not reflect at all
11. A 10 V positive going pulse is sent down a 50 m of lossless 50 cable with a

velocity factor of 0.8. The cable is terminated with a 150 resistor. Calculate
the length of time it will take the reflected pulse to return to the start and the
amplitude of the reflected pulse.
A. 381 ns, 7.5 V B. 587 ns, 6 V
C. 417 ns, 5 V D. 256 ns, 12 V
12. A shorted half-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a(n)
C. Series resonant circuit D. Parallel resonant circuit
13. A transmitter delivers 50 W into a 600 lossless line that is terminated with an
antenna that has an impedance of 275 , resistive. How much power actually
reaches the antenna?
A. 43.1 W B. 10.71 W
C. 22.42 W D. 38.43 W
14. A balanced load can be connected to an unbalanced cable:

A. directly B. by using a filter
C. by using a "balun" D. cannot be connected
15. A properly matched transmission line has a loss of 1.5 dB/m. If 10 W is

supplied to one end of the line, how many watts reach the load, 27 m away?
A. 9.8 W B. 6.1 W
C. 7.8 W D. 9.1 W
16. A receiver requires 0.5 V of signal for satisfactory reception. How strong must
the signal be at the antenna if the receiver is connected to the antenna by 25
m of matched line having an attenuation of 6 dB/100m?
A. 0.814 V B. 0.671 V
C. 0.594 V D. 0.36 V
17. Calculate the impedance looking into a 50 line 1 m long, terminated in a load
impedance of 100 , if the line has velocity factor of 0.8 and operates at a
frequency of 30 MHz.
A. 10 j50 B. 40 - j30
C. 30 j60 D. 20 j40
18. A positive voltage-pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in an open-

circuit:
19. A coaxial cable has a capacitance of 90 pF/m and a characteristic impedance of

50 . Find the inductance of a 1 m length.
A. 225 nH/m B. 22.5 nH/m
C. 2.25 nH/m D. 225 pH/m
20. Find the characteristic impedance of a coaxial cable using a polyethylene

dielectric with an inner conductor 2 mm in diameter and on outer conductor 8
mm in diameter.
A. 548 B. 5.48
C. 5480 D. 54.8
21. As frequency increases, the resistance of a wire:

A. increases B. decreases
C. stays the same D. changes periodically
22. What is the minimum impedance of a 2-wire parallel line?

A. 128 B. 83
C. 130 D. 89
23. The attenuation coefficient of a line is 0.0006 N/m. Determine the attenuation
coefficient in dB/m
A. 0.0521 dB/m B. 0.521 dB/m
C. 0.00521 dB/m D. 5.21 dB/m
24. When analyzing a transmission line, its inductance and capacitance are
considered to be:
A. lumped B. distributed
C. equal reactances D. ideal elements
25. The primary line constant for a coaxial cable at a frequency of 10 MHz were
determine approximately as;
L = 234 nH/m, C = 93.5 pF/m, R = 0.568 /m, G = 0
Calculate the attenuation coefficient in dB/m.
A. 0.00568 dB/m B. 0.493 dB/m
C. 0.568 dB/m D. 0.0493 dB/m
26. When the load impedance matches the line impedance, the value of standing
wave ratio and reflection coefficient is _____, _____ respectively.
A. 1, 0 B. , 1
C. -1, D. 0, -1
27. On a Smith Chart, you "normalize" the impedance by:

A. assuming it to be zero B. dividing it by 2
C. multiplying it by 2 D. dividing it by Z0

28. What is the effective capacitance of a shorted TL 3/7 long at 25 MHz (assume
Zo=54)?
A. 52.1 pF B. 245 pF
C. 0.79 pF D. 4.5 pF
29. The velocity factor of a cable depends mostly on:

A. the wire resistance B. the dielectric constant
C. the inductance per foot D. dimension of the line
30. What is the characteristic impedance of a 3.6-cm parallel-strip line, which has a
spacing 0.8 cm?
A. 346.2 B. 145
C. 84 D. 103
31. In ferrite, what does YIG mean?

A. Yttrium-Immense-Garnet B. Yttrium-Iron-Garnet
C. Yttrium-Iron-Gold D. Yttrium-Immense-Gold
32. Calculate the characteristic impedance of a uniform transmission line which has
the following constants R=12 /m, G=1.4 S/m, L=1.5 H/m, and C=1.4 nF/m
at 7 kHz.
A. 33-j2.5 B. 18.5-j34
C. 0.63-j16.7 D. 27-j48.3
33. For a shorted load TL, the value of reflection coefficient and standing wave ratio
is _____, _____ respectively.
A. -1, B. 0, -1
C. , 1 D. -1, 0
34. A transmitter supplies 50 W to a load through a line with an SWR of 2:1. Find
the power absorbed by the load.
A. 34.51 W B. 25 W
C. 44.4 W D. 38.5 W
35. Determine the magnitude of the reflected voltage if a 10 V signal is applied to a

50 coaxial transmission line terminated in a 200 load.
A. 8V B. 6V
C. 7.5V D. 12V
36. If a finite length of TL is terminated in a load impedance equal to the

characteristic impedance of the line this will appear as
A. Open line B. Quarter wavelength line
C. Shorted line D. Infinite line
37. RG-59U, a common type of transmission line for microwave applications, has
an open circuit impedance of 15025 and a short circuit impedance of
37.525 . What is the characteristic impedance of the line?
A. 55-35 B. 35-15
C. 95-55 D. 75-5
38. The impedance "looking into" a matched line:

A. is infinite B. is zero
C. is the characteristic impedance D. 50 ohms
39. Find the impedance on a 50 transmission line at a distance of /8 from a 400

load.
A. 130-51 B. 350-81
C. 950-83 D. 50-76
40. What is the effective inductance of an open-circuited stub 4/9 long at 42 MHz
(assume Zo=50 )?
A. 76.34 nH B. 130 nH
C. 520 nH D. 89.3 nH
41. The effect of frequency on the resistance of a wire is called:

A. I2R loss B. the Ohmic effect
C. the skin effect D. the flywheel effect
42. The characteristic impedance of a cable depends on:

A. the resistance per foot of the wire used
B. the resistance per foot and the inductance per foot
C. the resistance per foot and the capacitance per foot
D. the inductance per foot and the capacitance per foot
43. The optimum value for SWR is:

A. zero B. one
C. as large as possible D. there is no optimum value
44. Calculate the line wavelength in feet for a 1.8 GHz signal propagating in a
medium with an index of refraction equal to 1.68
A. 0.325 ft B. 0.919 ft
C. 0.546 ft D. 0.422 ft
45. Calculate the velocity factor for a transmission line with a series inductance of
280 nH/m and a shunt capacitance of 82.5 pF/m
A. 1.24 B. 1.42
C. 0.693 D. 0.936
46. The ideal return loss value is ___

A. Infinity B. +1
C. 0 D. -1
47. A non-optimum value for SWR will cause:

A. standing waves B. loss of power to load
C. higher voltage peaks on cable D. all of the above
48. Calculate the capacitance of a line with a dielectric constant of 2.21 and a
series inductance of 321 nH/m
A. 7.5 pF B. 76.5 pF
C. 57.6 pF D. 67.5 pF
49. Calculate the characteristic impedance of a line with a shunt capacitance of 95

pF/m and having a dielectric medium with a 1.55 index of refraction
A. 72.38 B. 54.38
C. 64.8 D. 74

50. ____ determines the variation of current or voltage with distance along a TL
A. Distributed parameters B. Reflection coefficient
C. Propagation coefficient D. Characteristic impedance
51. Determine the amount of distributed resistance of a 15-m coaxial cable with a
total capacitance of 1.4025 nF, total inductance of 3.51 H and total
attenuation of 0.7395 dB
A. 0.569 /m B. 5.69 /m
C. 569 /m D. 56.9 /m
52. For best matching, the load on a cable should be:

A. lower than Z0 B. higher than Z0
C. equal to Z0 D. 50 ohms
53. Calculate the amount of phase shift coefficient in rad/m for a line with a
velocity factor of 0.85 and operating at 12 MHz.
A. 0.296 rad/m B. 29.6 rad/m
C. 296 rad/m D. 2.96 rad/m
54. Calculate the operating frequency that will produce a phase shift of 0.05 rad/m
in a coaxial cable with a Zo of 55 and a C=92.5 pF/m
A. 43.7 MHz B. 5.43 MHz
C. 81.2 MHz D. 1.56 MHz
55. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated with its
characteristic impedance:
56. The ideal reflection coefficient value is ___

A. +1 B. Infinity
C. 0 D. -1
57. What is the equivalent capacitance for a 50 shot-circuited line 3/8 in length
at 500 MHz?
A. 56 pF B. 90.2 pF
C. 6.4 pF D. 23.5 pF
58. Calculate the impedance of a quarter-wave transformer necessary to match a

TL with a Zo of 75 to a load of 125 .
A. 100 B. 48.4
C. 193.36 D. 96.82
59. Find the characteristic impedance of the waveguide if the cut-off frequency is
3.75 GHz and will operate at 5GHz.
A. 50 B. 570
C. 5.7 D. 57
60. As frequency increases, the loss in a cable's dielectric:

A. increases B. decreases
C. stays the same D. there is no loss in a dielectric
61. Calculate the guide wavelength for the waveguide whose cut-off is 3.75 GHz
and operates at 5 GHz.
A. 98 cm B. 908 cm
C. 9.08 cm D. 90.8 cm
62. A signal with a level of 20 dBm enters the main waveguide of a directional
coupler. The coupler has an insertion loss of 1 dB, coupling of 20 dB, and
directivity of 40 dB. Find the strength of the signal emerging from each guide.
A. 19 dBm (main guide), 0 dBm (secondary guide)
B. 19 dB (main guide), 0 dB (secondary guide)
C. 0 dBm (main guide), 19 dBm (secondary guide)
D. 0 dB (main guide), 19 dB (secondary guide)
63. For an open load TL, the value of return loss and reflection coefficient is
_____, _____ respectively.
A. -1, B. 1, 1
C. -1, 1 D. , -1
64. A Smith Chart is used to calculate:

A. transmission line impedances
B. propagation velocity
C. optimum length of a transmission line
D. transmission line losses
65. A GUNN device has a thickness of 7 m. At what frequency will it oscillate in

the transit-time mode?
A. 1.3 GHz B. 1.43 GHz
C. 14.3 GHz D. 143 GHz
66. What is the RL in dB for a 50 transmission line connected to a 100 load?

A. 5.65 dB B. 4.6 dB
C. 8.13 dB D. 9.5 dB
67. A microstrip line is formed using a 0.095-in thick PC board (r=1.8) with a
bottom groundplane and a single 0.15-in wide, 0.008-in thick track on the top.
What is the characteristic impedance?
A. 112.14 B. 72.4
C. 85.34 D. 66.8
68. Two series-connected /4 sections are used to match a 400- load to a 100-
line. The first /4 section has an impedance of 141.4- , calculate the
impedance of the second /4 section.
A. 438 B. 8333
C. 283 D. 338
69. Calculate the group and phase velocities for an angle of incidence of 33
A. 1.6x108 m/s, 5.51x108 m/s B. 2.8x108 m/s, 3.2x108 m/s
C. 5.51x108 m/s , 1.6x108 m/s D. 3.2x108 m/s , 2.8x108 m/s
70. A rectangular waveguide has dimensions of 3cm x 5cm. Calculate the TE10
mode cut-off frequency.
A. 0.3 GHz B. 3 GHz
C. 13 GHz D. 33 GHz

71. A waveguide with a 4.5 GHz cut-off frequency is excited with a 6.7 GHz signal.
Find the wavelength in free space, and the wavelength in the waveguide.
A. 0.716 m, 0.224 m B. 0.136 m, 0.448 m
C. 0.448 m, 0.136 m D. 0.224 m, 0.716 m
72. Calculate the spacing of a 300- folded dipole when inch tubing is used in its
construction.
A. 2.5 inches B. 4.5 inches
C. 7.5 inches D. 8.5 inches
73. A 50- short circuited line is 0.1 in length, at a frequency of 500 MHz.
Calculate the equivalent inductance.
A. 24.5 nH B. 0.245 nH
C. 245 nH D. 2.45 nH
74. A rectangular waveguide has a broad dimension wall of 0.9-in and is fed by a
10-GHz carrier from a coaxial cable. Determine the guide wavelength, phase,
and group velocities.
A. 2.264 cm, 2.264x108 m/s, 3.975x108 m/s
B. 2.264 cm, 3.975x108 m/s, 2.264x108 m/s
C. 3.975 cm, 3.975x108 m/s, 2.264x108 m/s
D. 3.975 cm, 2.264x108 m/s, 3.975x108 m/s
75. At very high frequencies, transmission lines are used as

A. Antennas B. Resistors
C. Insulators D. Tuned circuits
76. An ideal directional coupler has a directivity of 25 dB and an isolation of 40 dB.

What is its coupling value?
A. 5 dB B. 15 dB
C. 40 dB D. 65 dB
77. While we're on the subject of Smith charts, what is the impedance of the point
at the dead center line?
A. 0 - j50 B. 50 j0
C. 0 j0 D. 0 j
78. What is the impedance seen at the input when the transmission line is open?
A. jZ o tan( A) B. jZ o cot( A)
C. 0 D.
79. On a Smith chart, what does a point in the bottom half of the chart represent?
A. A capacitive impedance B. Power saturation
C. Resistive impedance D. An inductive impedance
80. What is the power of a 2 Vpk-pk sine wave across a 50 ohm load?
A. +19.0 dBm B. +10.0 dBm
C. -10.0 dBm D. -20.0 dBm
81. What are the minimum and maximum combined VSWR limits at an interface
characterized by a 1.25:1 VSWR and a 2.00:1 VSWR?
A. 3.75:1 (min), 1.25:1 (max) B. 1.60:1 (min), 2.50:1 (max)
C. 0.75:1 (min), 3.25:1 (max) D. 1.75:1 (min), 2.25:1 (max)
at the far left edge of the center horizontal line?
A. 50 ohm match
B. Infinite ohms (open circuit)
C. Zero ohms (short circuit)
D. pure inductive reactance
at the far right edge of the center horizontal line?
A. 0 - j50 B. 50 j0
C. 0 j0 D. 0 j
84. What is the impedance of free space?

A. 75 B. 120
C. 377 D. 50
85. What happens to the noise figure of a receiver when a 10 dB attenuator is

added at the input?
A. Noise figure increases by 10 dB
B. Noise figure doesn't change
C. Noise figure decreases by 10 dB
D. All of the above
at the top edge of the center vertical line?
A. pure inductive reactance B. open circuit
C. short circuit D. pure capacitive reactance
87. What is the impedance seen at the input when the transmission line is shorted?
A. jZ o tan( A) B. jZ o cot( A)
C. 0 D.
88. The rate at which the wave appears to move along the wall of the guide, based
on the way the phase angle varies along the walls.
A. Velocity of propagation B. Phase velocity
C. Wave velocity D. Group velocity
89. The forward-progress velocity of the wavefront in a waveguide is called as

______.
A. Velocity of propagation B. Phase velocity
C. Wave velocity D. Group velocity
at the bottom edge of the center vertical line?
A. 0 - j50 B. 50 j0
C. 0 j0 D. 0 j
91. A standing wave ratio is a measure of

A. power out compared to noise out
B. the amount of power received
C. power radiated from the surface
D. power out compared to reflected power back

92. What do you call the phenomenon in digital circuits that describe the duration
of time digital signal passes a circuit?
A. Elapsed time B. Travel delay
C. Propagation delay D. Transmission time
93. An SWR reading which has a short circuit termination.

A. One B. Infinity
C. Zero D. Unstable
94. In an open wire transmission line, what is the normal separation between its
two (2) conductors?
A. 2.5 to 5 feet B. 2 to 3 meters
C. 2 to 6 cm D. 0.001 to 0.01 cm
95. Which of the following term is used to describe the attenuation and phase shift
per unit length of a transmission line?
A. Propagation constant B. Degree of shift
C. Phase shift D. Line constant
96. If voltage change is equal to twice its original what is the corresponding change
in dB?
A. 10 dB B. 3 dB
C. 6 dB D. 9 dB
97. Energy that has neither been radiated into space nor completely transmitted
A. Modulated waves B. Captured waves
C. Standing waves D. Incident waves
98. To a couple a coaxial line, it is better to use a

A. balun B. slotted line
C. directional coupler D. quarter-wave transformer
99. What is the main reason why coaxial cable is not used in microwave signal
transmission?
A. Number of repeaters B. High attenuation
C. Wide bandwidth D. Low impedance
100. In wire communications, non-resonant transmission lines are referred to as

A. Lose lines B. Flat lines
C. Non-reactive lines D. Reactive lines
101. An electronic equipment used in radio communications to measure standing

wave ratio
A. Oscilloscope B. Reflectometer
C. Wave meter D. Radio meter
102. How does a shorted half-wave line act a certain operating frequency?
A. Series resonant circuit B. Capacitor
C. Inductor D. Parallel resonant circuit
103. Referred as the dielectric constant of a transmission line material

A. Inductance and capacitance
B. Propagation velocity
C. Characteristic impedance
D. Velocity factor
104. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not depend upon its
A. Conductor diameter B. Length
C. Conductor radius D. Conductor spacing
105. What is the input impedance equivalent of an open ended transmission line
which is longer than a quarter wavelength?
A. Equivalent to reactive circuit B. As pure inductor
C. As resistive equivalent D. Open equivalent
106. In the study of transmission cable, twin lead is also referred to as a

A. Double cable B. Open pair
C. Ribbon cable D. Twisted pair
107. The greater the diameter of a wire, the _____ is the resistance.
A. unstable B. lesser
C. stable D. higher
108. Which determines the velocity factor in transmission line?

A. The termination impedance B. Dielectrics in the line
C. The line length D. The center conductor resistivity
109. Technical study which deals with production, transport and delivery of a
quality signal from source to destination
A. Communication System Engineering
B. Telephony Engineering
C. Telegraphic Engineering
D. Transmission System Engineering
110. The outer conductor of a coaxial transmission line is always grounded at the
A. input and output B. output only
C. point of high SWR D. input only
111. What is the meaning of the term velocity factor of a transmission line?
A. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line multiplied by the velocity
of light in vacuum
B. The index of shielding for coaxial cable
C. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating
impedance
D. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line divided by the velocity of
the light in a vacuum
112. If the terminating impedance is exactly equal to the characteristic impedance

of the transmission line the return loss is
A. Infinite B. One
C. Zero D. None of these

113. Best reason for pressurizing waveguides with dry air

A. To reduce the possibility of internal arcing
B. To maintain temperature of the waveguide
C. To increase the speed of propagation
D. To maintain propagation
114. Referred to as a cause of crosstalk

A. Nonlinear envelope delay
B. Improper level setting
C. Electric coupling between transmission media
D. Mechanical coupling between transmission media
115. What is the term for the ratio of actual velocity at which a signal travels
through a line to the speed of light in a vacuum?
A. Velocity factor
B. Characteristic impedance
C. Standing wave ratio
D. Surge impedance
116. What is the main purpose of a communications system?

A. To have a frequency assignment
B. For modulation
C. To provide an acceptable replica of the information at the destination
D. None of these
117. In a transmission line, if the maximum current to minimum current ratio is

2:1 what is the ratio of the maximum voltage?
A. 1:2 B. 2:1
C. 4:1 D. 1:4
118. A single conductor running from the transmitter to the antenna

A. Twin-lead B. Microstrip
C. Single line wire D. RG-8/U
119. Transmission line must be matched to the load to

A. transfer maximum power to the load
B. reduce the load current
C. transfer maximum current to the load
D. transfer maximum voltage to the load
120. When electromagnetic waves are propagated through a waveguide, they

A. travel through the dielectric without touching the walls
B. travel along four walls of the waveguide
C. travel along the broader walls of the guide
D. are reflected from the walls but do not travel along them
121. Which of the following determine the characteristic of a transmission line?

A. Physical dimensions B. Capacitance
C. Length D. Inductance
122. The standing wave ratio is equal to ____ if the load is properly matched with
the transmission line.
A. 50 B. 1
C. 0 D. 2
123. Characteristic impedance of a transmission line is the impedance measured

at the ______when its length is infinite.
A. output B. shorted end of the line
C. midsection D. input
124. When a transmission line uses ground return, it is called a/an _______line.
A. balanced B. unbalanced
C. ungrounded D. grounded
125. Transmission lines when connected to antenna have

A. resistive load whose resistance is greater than the characteristic
impedance of the line
B. resistive load whose resistance is less than characteristic impedance
C. resistive load at the resonant frequency
D. capacitive load
126. Termination means

A. a result of cutting both ends of a conductor
B. looking back impedance of a line with no load
C. load connected to the output end of a transmission line
D. a result of disconnecting a line from a transmitter
127. Transmission lines are either balanced or unbalanced will respect to

A. positive terminal B. input
C. ground D. negative terminal
128. What is the velocity factor for non-foam dielectric 50 or 75 ohms flexible
coaxial cable such as RG 8, 11, 58, and 59?
A. 0.66 B. 0.10
C. 2.70 D. 0.30
129. Propagation mode of microwave in a waveguide is known as

A. TM B. SW
C. TEM D. TE
130. A transmission line consisting of two conductors that have equal resistance
per unit length
A. Balanced line B. Open-wire line
C. Unbalanced line D. Coaxial line

3-50 FIBER OPTICS COMMUNICATIONS
Section Fiber Optics Read it

till it
11 Communications Hertz!
DEFINITION. Optics: Branch of physical science dealing with the propagation and
behavior of light.
DEFINITION. Fiber Optics: The technology of transferring information, for

example, in communications or computer technology, through a number of thin
flexible glass or plastic tubes (optical fibers) using modulated light waves.
DEFINITION. Optical Fibers: In the simplest form, they are cylindrical dielectric
waveguides made up of central cylinder of glass (core) with one index of refraction,
surrounded by an annulus (clad) with a slightly different index of refraction.
1850 John Tyndall, a British physicist, demonstrated that light can be

guided along a curved stream of water using Total Internal Reflection.
1880 Alexander Graham Bell experimented with an apparatus he called

photophone.
1930 John L. Baird and C. W. Hansell were granted patent for scanning and
transmitting television images through uncoated fiber cables.
1951 A.C.S. van Heel, H.H. Hopkins and N.S. Kapany experimented with light
transmission through bundles of fiber that led to the development of
the flexible fiberscope.
1956 N.S. Kapany coined the term fiber optics.
1958 Charles Townes and Arthur Schawlow wrote a technical paper about
LASER and MASER.
1960 Theodore Maiman, built the first optical maser.
1967 K.C. Kao and G.A. Bockham proposed a cladded fiber cables.
1988 ANSI published the SONET standards.

A. .BENEFITS OF FIBER-BASED SYSTEM.
1. Tremendous Bandwidth - An optical fiber can easily support 100 Mbps

while advanced systems are carrying beyond 1 Gbps.
2. No Interference - The light pulses travel entirely within the fiber

causing no harmful interference, known as electromagnetic
interference (EMI) and radio-frequency interference (RFI) in nearby
wire cables or adjacent optical fiber.
3. Noise Immunity - The optical fiber system is also immune to nearby

signals and EMI/RFI, regardless of interference magnitude
4. No Electrical Hazard - There is complete electrical isolation between

ends of the link. This eliminates ground loops which affects
performance, as well as the danger of shock at one end if there is a
misconnection or failure at the other end.
5. Secure Communication - Since the light energy stays entirely within

the fiber, the only way to intercept the signal is to tap physically into
the line since there is no radiated energy field to intercept. Taps are
difficult to accomplish physically, and a tap in the line causes a loss in
signal power that can easily be detected.
6. Safe to use in Dangerous Environment - Since there is no electrical

energy present; fiber optics can be used wherever, even there is a
danger of explosion from sparks.
7. Lightweight - The weight and bulk of fiber optical cable is much less
than the equivalent wire cables for the same effective bandwidth and
number of users.
Disadvantages:
1. Cost - The cost of the fiber is a little greater than that of basic
copper wire in some configurations.
2. Complex deployment & repairs - It is difficult to splice optical

fibers to make them longer or to repair breaks.
3. Complex connectors - Connectors for fibers are more complex to

attach to the cable and require precise physical alignment.
4. Complex network - Switching, routing and distribution of fiber

optic signals are difficult.
5. Complicated test equipments - Fiber-based system needs special

test equipment.

B. .NATURE OF LIGHT.
1. Wave Nature of Light

Light is an electromagnetic wave having a very high oscillation
frequency and a very short wavelength.
In fiber optics and any other field of expertise concerning light signals, it is
more pronounced to express it in wavelength rather than frequency.
Relation between micron, nanometer and Angstrom
Multiply
Unit Value To Obtain
by
103 m nanometer
micron 10-6 m
104 m Angstrom
-3
10 m micron
nanometer 10-9 m
10 m Angstrom
10-4 m micron
Angstrom 10-10 m
10-1 m nanometer

a. 20 Angstrom is equal to how many microns?
b. 100 Angstrom is equal to how many microns?
Solution:
10 4 micron
a. 20 Angstrom x = 0.002 micron
1 Angstrom
10 4 micron
b. 100 Angstrom x = 0.01 micron
1 Angstrom
i. General Subdivision
a. Infrared
Band of light wavelengths that are too long to be seen by the
human eye. (770 nm to 100,000 nm)
b. Visible Light
Band of light wavelengths to which the human eye respond.
(390 nm to 770 nm)
c. Ultraviolet
Band of light wavelengths that are too short to be seen by the
human eye. (10 nm to 390 nm)
ii. Wavelength, Frequency, & Amplitude
a. Wavelength
The wavelength of a monochromatic wave is the distance
between two consecutive wave peaks.
b. Frequency
Corresponds to the number of wavelengths that pass by a
certain point in space in a given amount of time.
c. Amplitude
The amplitude of an electromagnetic wave corresponds to the
maximum strength of the electric and magnetic fields and to
the number of photons in the light.
iii. Wave Properties of Light
a. Reflection
Phenomenon of wave motion, in which a wave is returned
after impinging on a surface. When energy, such as light,
traveling from one medium encounters a different medium,
part of the energy usually passes on while part is reflected.
Rayleigh Criterion - States that if the cosine of the angle of incidence is

greater than the ratio of the signal wavelength with respect to eight times of
the irregularities height will result to specular reflection.

b. Refraction
The change in direction that occurs when a wave of energy
such as light passes from one medium to another of a
different density, for example, from air to water.
Less Less Less

dense dense dense
More More More

dense dense dense
If n1=n2, then 1=2 and Vp1=Vp2

-------------------------------------
If n1<n2, then 1>2 and Vp1>Vp2
-------------------------------------
If n1>n2, then 1<2 and Vp1<Vp2
Lightning speed information
Olaf Roemer, a Danish astronomer, made the first rough estimate of

the speed of light in 1676 by measuring the length of time an eclipse
occurred on one of Jupiters moon
In 1849, the French physicist A.H. Fizeau developed the first non-
astronomical method of measuring the speed of light with the use of
an apparatus.
Jean Bernard Leon Foucault, French physicist, improved Fizeaus

method of measuring the speed of light by substituting a rotating
mirror for the toothed wheel
The precise measurement of the speed of light was done by A.A.

Michelson, an American physicist using the same method as
Foucaults. His calculated value of c is 2.997025 x 108 m/s.
The designation c for the speed of light originates from the Latin word
celeritas, which means velocity.
The Scottish physicist, James Clerk Maxwell formulated equations

combining the theories of electricity and magnetism and later proved
that electromagnetic waves such as light travel at a speed of 3x108
m/s.
c. Diffraction
The bending or spreading out of waves as they pass around
the edge of an obstacle or through a narrow aperture.
d. Absorption
The reduction in the intensity of radiated energy within a
medium caused by converting some or all of the energy into
another form.
e. Dispersion
The separation of visible light or other electromagnetic waves
into different wavelengths.

2. Particle Nature of Light

Light behaves as though it were made up of very small particles called
photons.
Energy of a Single Photon in Joules (J) & electron-Volt (eV)
1.241
E(J) = hf E(eV) =

where:
h = Planck's constant
= 6.625 x 10-34 Js
f = Frequency in Hz
= wavelength in m
Sample Problem:
Find the number of photons incident on a detector in 1 s if the optic power is
1W and the wavelength is 0.8m.
Solution:
Energy of a single photon
hc
EP = hf =

(6.625 x 10 34 Js)(3 x 10 8 m/s )
=
0.8 m
= 2.48 x 10 19 J
Compu ting for Total Energy
E = Power x time
= 1 W x 1 s
= 10 6 J
The number of photon required is
E 10 6 J
=
EP 2.48 x 10 19 J
= 4.03 x 1012 photons
Answer : 4.03 x 1012 photons

3. Ray Theory of Light

A number of phenomena are adequately explained by considering light
as narrow rays and this area of optical science concerns the
application of laws of reflection and refraction of light in the design of
lenses.
In a vacuum, ray travel at a velocity of 3x108 m/s.

Rays travel in a straight path unless deflected by some change in
the medium.
When ray is reflected, the angle of incidence is equal to the angle
of refraction (Specular Reflections)
If any power crosses the boundary (refraction occurs), the
transmitted ray directions is given by Snells Law or Fresnel Law.
C. .LENSES.
Lens, in optical systems, glass or other transparent substance so shaped

that it will refract the light from any object and form a real or virtual image
of the object.
1. Ray Paths through a Thin Lens.
Rays traveling through the center of the lens are undeviated. Ray1
Incident rays traveling parallel to the lens axis pass trough the
focal point after emerging from the lens. Ray2
An incident ray traveling parallel to a central ray in the focal plane
after transmission through the lens. Ray3
An incident ray passing trough the focal point travels parallel to
the lens axis after it merges from the lens. Ray4
2. Object Position
The position of the objects and focused image are related by the thin
lens equation.

o im
1 1 1 di
+ = M=
do di f do
where:
do = Object distance
di = Image distance
M = Magnification factor
Sample Problem:
Find the object and image distance for a lens with a magnification factor
equal to 4 and the focal length is 20 mm.
Solution:
If M is equal to 4 Comp uting for di
d 1 1 1
M= i = 4 + =
do di 4di 20
di = 4do 5 1
=
4di 20
Answer : di = 25 mm , do = 6.25 mm
3. Beam Focusing
i. Spot Size (wo)
The distance at which the beam intensity has dropped to 1/e2 of
its peak value.
where :
f
w0 = wo = spot size in mm
w
w = collimated spot size
ii. Beam Diffraction ()

For longer distances, diffraction theory shows that the beam
diverges at a constant full angle.
2 where :
=
w = divergence angle in rad
Sample Problem:
Consider a Gaussian beam whose spot size is 1 mm when collimated. The
wavelength is 0.82 m. Compute the divergence angle. Also compute for
the spot size at 10 km.
Solution:
The divergence angle is At 10 km, the spot size is

2 2(0.82 x 106 ) fL (0.82 x 106 )(10 km)
= = wo = =
w (103 ) w (103 )
= 0.522 x 103 rad 0.03D = 2.6 meters

D. .OPTICAL CONFIMENT IN A FIBER.
1. Critical Angle (c)

Defined as the minimum angle of incidence at which a light ray may
strike the interface of two media and results in an angle of refraction
of 90 or greater.
n2
C = sin1
n1
2. Snells Law
This important law, named after Dutch mathematician Willebrord
Snell, states that the product of the refractive index and the sine of
the angle of incidence of a ray in one medium is equal to the product
of the refractive index and the sine of the angle of refraction in a
successive medium.
where:
n1 = index of the 1st medium
n1 sin 1 = n2 sin 2 n2 = index of the 2nd medium
1 = angle of incidence in degrees
2 = angle of refraction in degrees
Other Relation General Solution
In terms of v2 sin 2
=
propagation velocity v1 sin 1
In terms of F2 sin 2
=
velocity factor F1 sin 1
In terms of dielectric k 1 sin2 2

=
constant k 2 sin2 1
3. Index of Refraction (n)

The refractive index of a substance measures how the substance
affects light traveling through it. It is equal to the speed of light in a
vacuum divided by the speed of light in that substance.
Substance Refractive Index

Vacuum 1.0000
Air 1.0003
Ice 1.309
Water 1.33
Ethyl Alcohol 1.36
Magnesium Fluoride 1.38
Glass (fused quarts) 1.46
Glass (crown) 1.52
Sodium Chloride (salt) 1.54
Diamond 2.42
Sample Problem:
What striking angle in the fiber surface is needed to produce a minimum
angle of incidence (critical angle) between the core-clad boundary that will
effectively confine the light signals within the fiber if n1=1.55 and n2=1.45?
Solution:
Computing for the Critical angle Computing for the striking angle
n2 n
C = sin1 sin0 = 1 sin1 1 = 90 c
n2 n0
1.45 1.55
= sin1 0 = sin1 sin(90 69.3)
1.55 1
= 69.3 = 33.21

Sample Problem:
Calculate the resulting deviation from the normal line for a light signal that
travels from air-to-glass-to-diamond if the striking angle is 38.
Solution:
From air - to - glass : n1 = air, n2 = glass
n 1
2 = sin1 1 sin 1 = sin1 (sin 38) = 24.94
n2 1.46
From glass - to - diamond : n1 = glass, n2 = diamond
n 1.46
'2 = sin1 1 sin 1 = sin1 sin(24.94) = 14.74
n2 2.42
4. Index Profile
A graphical representation of the value of the refractive index across
the fiber.
5. Numerical Aperture (NA)

The figure of merit used to describe the light gathering or light-
collecting ability of an optical fiber.
NA = n12 n22
where :
n1 = index of the 1st medium
n2 = index of the 2nd medium
6. Acceptance Angle or Acceptance Cone Half Angle (max)

The maximum angle in which the external light rays may strike the
air/fiber interface and still propagate down the fiber.
MAX = sin1 ( NA ) = sin1 n12 n22
7. Fractional Index Change ()

The normalized difference between the index of the core and cladding.
General Approximate
Solution Solution
n12 n22 n1 n2
=
2n12 n1
E. .OPTICAL FIBER WAVEGUIDES.
FIBER TYPES
SINGLE MODE MULTI MODE
STEP INDEX GRADED INDEX

1. Single-Mode Step-Index Fiber
i. Maximum Radius for Single Mode propagation (V=2.405)
General Alternate
Solution Solution
0.383 0.383
rmax = rmax =
NA n1 2
Sample Problem:
Calculate the maximum core radius to support single mode operation for a
fiber with a NA of 0.15 and =0.82m.
Solution:
0 .383 0 .383 (0 .82 m)
rmax = = = 2 .1m
NA 0 .15
2. Multi-Mode Step-Index Fiber
i. Typical Step-Index Fiber Characteristics
Construction n1 n2 NA
All-Plastic 1.49 1.41 0.48 29.0 0.0540
PCS 1.46 1.40 0.41 24.2 0.0410
SCS 1.48 1.46 0.24 13.9 0.0135
ii. Normalized Frequency (V-parameter)
General Alternate
Solution Solution
d d
V= NA V= n1 2

iii. Number of Modes (M)
1 2
#M V
2
Sample Problem:
Compute the number of modes for a fiber whose core diameter is 50 m.
Assume that n1=1.48, n2=1.46, and =0.82m.
Solution:
d (50 )
V = NA = x 1 .48 2 1 .46 2 = 46 .45
0 .82
Number of modes
1 1
# M V 2 (46 .45)2 1,079 modes
2 2
3. Multi-Mode Graded-Index Fiber (GRIN)

The graded-index core fiber has a core material whose refractive index
varies with distance from the fiber.
F. .FIBER LOSSES.
1. Absorption
Absorption is caused by three different mechanisms:
a. Absorption by atomic defects in the glass composition.
b. Extrinsic absorption by impurity atoms in the glass material.

c. Intrinsic absorption by the basic constituent atoms of the fiber

material.
Material Absorption
Are those due to the molecules of the basic fiber material either
glass or plastic that can be overcome only by changing the fiber
material.
Ultraviolet absorption
Caused by valence electrons in the silica material from which
fibers are manufactured.
Infrared absorption
Result of photons of light that are absorbed by the atoms of the
glass core molecule.
Ion resonance absorption

Caused by OH- ions in the material that has been trapped in the
glass during manufacturing process which can be minimized by
drying the glass in chlorine gas to leach out the water vapor
Hydrogen Effects
The hydrogen either can interact with the glass to produce
hydroxyl ions and their losses or it can infiltrate the fiber and
produce its own loss. The solution is to eliminate the hydrogen-
producing source or to add coating to the fiber that is
impermeable to hydrogen.
2. Scattering Losses
Occurs when a wave interacts with a particle in a way that removes
energy in the directional propagating wave and transfer it to other
directions.
i. Linear Scattering
Primarily characterized by having no change in frequency in the
scattered wave
Rayleigh Scattering
Results from light interacting with the inhomogeneities
(submicroscopic irregularities) in the medium that are much
smaller than the wavelength of the light.
0.887
L=
4
where :
= signal wavelength in m
Sample Problem:
Calculate the Rayleigh scattering loss in dB for a 50/125 step-index fiber
operating at 1200 nm. Also compute for the attenuation in neper.
Solution:
The Rayle igh Loss is The attenuation is
0 .887 1 Neper
L dB = 10 log = L dB x
4 8.686 dB
0 .887 1 Neper
= 10 log = 3.68 dB x
8.686 dB
1 .2 4
= 0.423 Neper
= 3 .68 dB
Mie Scattering
Occurs at inhomogeneities that are comparable in size to a
wavelength and can be reduce by carefully controlling the
quality and cleanliness of the manufacturing process.
ii. Non-Linear Scattering

High values of electric field within the fiber lead to the presence of
non-linear scattering interactions that causes significant power to
be scattered in the forward, backward, or sideways directions.
Brillouin Scattering
Modeled as a modulation of the light by the thermal energy in
the material mainly in the backward directions.
PB = (17.6 x 10 3 )(a2 )( 2 )()()
where :
a = core radius in m
= signal attenuation
= line frequency in THz

Sample Problem:
Consider an 8/125 single-mode fiber operating at 1300 nm with a loss of 0.8
dB/km. The line width of the source is 0.013 nm. Calculate the Brillouin
scattering threshold.
Solution:
c 3 x 10 8
= 2
( ) = (0 .013 x 10 9 )
(1300 x 10 9 )2
= 2 .31 x 10 9 Hz
Brillouin Scattering
PB = (17 .6 x 10 3 )( a2 )( 2 )( )( )
= (17 .6 x 10 3 )( 42 )(1 .32 )(0 .8)(2 .31)
= 0 .879 Watts
Raman Scattering
The non-linear interaction produces a high-frequency phonon
and a scattered photon predominately in the forward
directions.
PR = (23.6 x 102 )(a2 )(2 )()
Sample Problem:
Consider an 8/125 single-mode fiber operating at 1300 nm with a loss of 0.8
dB/km. The line width of the source is 0.013 nm. Calculate the ratio of the
Brillouin scattering threshold to the Raman scattering threshold.
Solution:
PR = (23 .6 x 10 2 )( a2 )( 2 )( ) Ratio of threshold power
2 2 2 PB 0.879
= (23 .6 x 10 )( 4 )(1 .3 )(0 .8)
=
= 5 .105 Watts PR 5.105
= 0.172
= 17.2%
3. Macrobending
Refers to a large-scale bending, such as that which occurs intentionally
when wrapping the fiber on a spool or pulling it around a corner.
4. Microbending
Occurs when a fiber is sheathed within a protective cable. The
stresses set up in the cabling process cause small axial distortions to
appear randomly along the fiber.
Developed during deployment of the fiber, or can be due to local

mechanical stresses placed on the fiber often referred to as cabling or
packaging losses.
Critical Radius of Curvature
3n2 0.24n2
rCRITICAL = =
4 ( NA )
3
NA 3
Sample Problem:
Calculate the critical radius of curvature for a multimode 50/125 fiber with
an NA of 0.2, n2 of 1.48 and operating at 850 nm.
Solution:
0.24n2
rCRITICAL =
NA3
=
(
0.24(1.48) 850 x 109 )
0.23
= 37.74 m

5. Connector Losses
Lateral misalignment
Lateral misalignment loss is simply due to the non-overlap of the
transmitting and receiving fiber cores
Angular misalignment
Coupling Loss (LdB)
n
L = 10 log 1 o
NA
where:
= misalignment angle in radians
n0 = refractive index of the material
filling the groove
Sample Problem:
Calculate the coupling loss for a fiber facility with a misalignment angle of
2.4 and 0.24 NA.
Solution:
n
L = 10 log 1 o
NA

(1) 2.4D x D
180
= 10 log 1
x 0 . 24

= 0.248 dB
Gap between ends
Non flat ends (Imperfect finish)
G. .PULSE SPREADING IN FIBER.
Dispersion
The spreading (in time-domain) of light pulses as it propagates down the
fiber end.
1. Material Dispersion (DM)

Pulse at different wavelengths has different velocities.
t MAT
= DM x
A km
DM = Dispersive coefficient in ps /nm km

= 3dB wavelength (line or spectral width) in nm

Sample Problem:
For the step-index fiber 12.5 km long is to be used with a 0.8m light source
with a spectral width of 1.5 nm. What value of material dispersion might be
expected assuming DM = 0.15ns/nm-km.
Solution:
tMAT For 12.5 km length
= DM x
A 0.225 ns
0.15 ns tMAT = x 12.5 km
= x 1.5nm km
nm km
= 2.81 ns
0.225 ns
=
km
2. Waveguide Dispersion (Chromatic dispersion)

Pulses at different wavelengths (but propagating in the same mode)
must travel at slightly different angles.
t WAVE
= DW x
A km
DW = Peak Waveguide Dispersive coefficient in ps /nm km

6.6ps
=
nm km
= 3dB wavelength (line or spectral width) in nm
Sample Problem:
A 12.5-km single-mode fiber is used with a 1.3m light source which has a
spectrum width of 6 nm. Find the total expected waveguide dispersion.
Solution:
t WAVE For 12.5 km length
= DM x
A 39.6 ps
6.6 ps t WAVE = x 12.5 km
= x 6nm km
nm km
= 495 ps
39.6 ps
=
km
3. Modal Dispersion (Modal Delay Spreading)

A pulse at a single wavelength splits power into modes that travel
at different axial velocities because of the path differences.
Ln1 Ln
t MODAL = 1
c 1 c
Sample Problem:
Consider a 50/125 step-index fiber with n1=1.47 and =1.5%. Calculate
the group delay (modal dispersion) for this fiber at an operating wavelength
of 850 nm.
Solution:
tMODAL
Ln1

(12.5 km)(1.47)(0.015) 918.75 ns
c 3 x 105 km / s

4. Total Dispersion
At any wavelength the total dispersion is the root mean square
combination of material, modal and waveguide dispersion.
t TOTAL = t MAT 2 + tMODAL2 + t WAVE2
:FACTS TO REMEMBER:.
Modal dispersion is only present for multi-mode fiber.
Sample Problem:
A single-mode fiber operating at 1.3 m is found to have a total material
dispersion of 2.81 ns and a total waveguide dispersion of 0.495 ns.
Determine the receive pulse width approximate bit rate for the fiber if the
transmitted pulse has a width of 1.5 ns.
Solution:
Computing t TOTAL
t TOTAL = tMAT 2 + tMODAL 2 + t WAVE2
= 2.812 + 02 + 0.4952
= 2.85 ns
Max Bit Rate

1 1
fB 175.44 Mbps
2t TOTAL 2(2.85 ns )
H. .RECEIVER RISE TIME & BANDWIDTH.
1. Rise Time (t)

The rise time is the time for the detector output (e.g. current) to
change from 10 to 90% of its final value when the optic input power
variation is a step.

2 2 2 The fiber rise time is equal to
t s = t tx + t f + t rx
the total dispersion within the
fiber.
where:
ts = system rise time in ns
t tx = source rise time in ns
trx = receiver rise time in ns
t f = fiber rise time in ns
= rise time owing to material, modal, and waveguide
dispersion
2. Maximum Data Rate (fb)
1 1
UPRZ fb = fb
2t s 2 t
1 1
UPNRZ fb = fb
ts t
3. Bandwidth (BW)
0.35
Electrical BWe =
t
BWo = 2 x BWe
Optical
1
BWo =
2 t
4. Bandwidth-Distance product
1
BW xA = xA km
2 t

Sample Problem:
A fiber optic system uses a detector with a rise time of 1.5 ns and a source
with a rise time of 4ns. If an RZ code is used with a data rate of 100 Mbps
over a distance of 20 km, calculate the maximum acceptable dispersion for
the fiber and the equivalent BW-Distance product.
Solution:
1 1 1 1
fb = = ts = = = 5 ns
2 t 2t s 2fb 2(100 x 106 bps)
Fiber rise time;
ts = t tx + t f + trx t f = t s (t tx + trx ) = 52 (1.52 + 42 ) = 2.6 ns

Dispersion per unit length;
t t 2.6 ns ns
= s = = 0.13
A A 20 km km
BW - Distance product
1 1
BW x A = xA = x 20 km = 3.846 GHz km
2 t 2(2.6 ns)
I. .REFLECTION AT A PLANE BOUNDARY.
1. Reflection Coefficient ()
The ratio of the reflected electric field to the incident electric field.
n1 n2 n1 = core index
=
n1 + n2 n 2 = cladding index
2. Reflectance (R)
The ratio of the reflected beam intensity to the incident beam
intensity.
Uncoated fiber
2
n n2
R= 1
n1 + n2
Sample Problem:
Calculate the reflectance for an air to glass interface assuming the refractive
index of glass is 1.5
Solution:
2 2
n n2 1.5 1
R = 1 = = 0.04
n
1 + n2 1.5 + 1
Coated fiber
2
n1n3 n22 n1 = 1st medium index
R=
2 n 2 = coating material index
n1n3 + n22
n 3 = 2nd medium index
Sample Problem:
Determine the refractive index of a coating layer place between fibers whose
index is 1.5 and 1.57 respectively, to produce a zero reflectance.
Solution:
R =
[n n
1 3 n22 ]
2
= 0 n2 = n1n3 = 1.5 x 1.57 = 1.534
[n n
1 3 + n22 ]
2
3. Brewster Angle (B)

Named after British physicist David Brewster, the reflectance of the
component vibrating parallel to the plane of incidence is zero. At this
angle of incidence, the reflected ray would be perpendicular to the
refracted ray, and the tangent of this angle of incidence is equal to the
refractive index of the second medium if the first medium is air.
n
B = tan1 2
n1

Sample Problem:
Find the Brewster angle for the air-to-glass and glass-to-air interface.
Solution:
air - to - glass(n1 = air, n2 = glass)
n 1.5
B = tan1 2 = tan1 = 56.3
n
1 1
glass - to - air (n1 = glass, n2 = air)
n 1
B = tan1 2 = tan1 = 33.7
n1 1.5
J. .DIODE LIGHT SOURCES.
1. Light-emitting semiconductors
Wavelength Bandgap
Material
Range (m) Energy (eV)
GaAs 0.9 1.4
AlGaAs 0.8-0.9 1.4-1.55
InGaAs 1.0-1.3 0.95-1.24
InGaAsP 0.9-1.7 0.73-1.35
2. Typical characteristics of diode light sources
Laser Single-Mode
Property LED
Diode Laser Diode
Spectral Width (nm) 20-100 1-5 0.2
Rise time (ns) 2-250 0.1-1 0.05-1
BW 300 2000 6000
Coupling Efficiency Very low Moderate High
Lifetime (hours) 105 104-105 104-105
K. .DIODE LIGHT DETECTORS.
1. Typical Characteristics of diode light Detectors
Rise Time Wavelength Responsitivity

Material Structure
(ns) (nm) (A/W)
Silicon PIN 0.5 300-1100 0.5
Germanium PIN 0.1 500-1800 0.7
InGaAS PIN 0.3 900-1700 0.6
Silicon APD 0.5 400-1000 75
Germanium APD 1 1000-1600 35
InGaAs APD 0.25 1000-1700 12
2. Quantum Efficiency ()
where :
e
= e = # of emitted electrons
p
p = # of incident photons
3. Responsivity (R)
The ratio of the output current of the detector to its optic input
current.
I q
R= R=
P E
where:
q = charge of an electron
= 1.6 x 10-19 C
E = energy of incident photon
= hx f
Sample Problem:
Compute the responsivity of a detector having a quantum efficiency of 1% at
0.8 m.
Solution:
q c
R = E = h x f = hx
E f
q (1.6 x 10 19 )(0.8 x 10 6 )
= = 0.01 = 0.0064 A W
hc (6.625 x 10 34 )(3 x 10 8 )

4. Radiance (R)
where:
P r = radiance in mW /st cm2
r=
A = solid angle in steradians
A = aperture area of light source in cm2
5. Irradiance (ir)
where:
P
ir = ir = irradiance in W /cm2
A
A = aperture area of light source in cm2
L. .CONSTRUCTIONS OF OPTICAL FIBERS.
1. Double Crucible
Molten core-glass is placed in the inner vessel and molten cladding-
glass occupies the outer vessel and later forms a glass-cladded core.
2. Rod in Tube
In the rod-in-tube procedure a rod of core-glass is placed inside of a
tube of cladding-glass where the end of this combination is heated,
softening the glass so that a thin fiber can be pulled from it.
3. Doped Deposited Silica (DDS)

The most extensively used fiber fabrication process involve building up
a fiber perform by vapor deposition of the glass constituents.
4. External Deposition
External deposition by hydrolysis is referred to as external chemical
vapor deposition (external VCD).
5. Axial Deposition
The deposition occurs on the end of the rotating bait, which is
withdrawn as the perform builds up.
6. Internal Deposition
In this process the chemical vapors are deposited on the inside of a
glass tube that is rotating in a glass lathe where a traveling oxy-
hydrogen torch moves along the tube, fusing the deposited material to
form a transparent glassy film.
M. .LASER FUNDAMENTALS.
LASER is an acronym for Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of

Radiation and was first predicted by Albert Einstein near the beginning of
the 20th century, the first working laser was not demonstrated until 1960
when Theodore Maiman did so using a ruby.
1. Laser Characteristics
Coherent
The property of laser light wherein corresponding points on the
wavefront are in phase.
Collimated
Property of laser light wherein light rays travel parallel with each
other.
Monochromatic
Laser emits light signal with single color, frequency or wavelength.
2. Laser Types
Gas
Gas lasers use a mixture of helium and neon enclosed in a glass
tube.
Solid-state optically pumped

Liquid lasers use organic dyes enclosed in a glass tube for an
active medium. A powerful pulse of light excites the organic dye.
Liquid dye
Solid lasers use a solid cylindrical crystal, such as ruby, for the
active medium. The ruby is excited by a tungsten lamp tied to an
ac power supply.
Semiconductor
Semiconductor lasers are made from semiconductor p-n junctions
and are commonly called injection laser diodes or ILDs. The
excitation mechanism is a dc power supply that controls the
amount of current to the active medium.

LASER SAFETY
CLASS DESCRIPTION
Class 1 Low power / non-hazardous

Low power / minor controls necessary
Emit less than 1 mW visible CW radiation.
Class 2 Not considered hazardous for momentary (<0.25 sec)
Class 2a unintentional exposure.
Class 2a lasers are those class 2 lasers not intended to be
viewed, i.e. supermarket scanners.
Medium power / direct viewing hazard / little diffuse
reflection hazard.
Class 3a is visible lasers with 1-5 mW power output,
Class 3a
invisible lasers, and those having 1-5 times the Accessible
Class 3b
Emission Limit (AEL) of class 1 lasers.
Class 3b is all other class 3 lasers at all wavelengths which
have a power output less than 500 mW.
High power / eye and skin hazard / potential diffuse reflection
Class 4
hazard or fire hazard
N. .FIBER-BASED TECHNOLOGY.
1. SONET/SDH Transmission Hierarchy

SONET/SDH is a set of international standards for broadband
communications over single-mode fiber optic transmission systems,
allowing manufacturers to build equipment to support full
interconnectivity and interoperability.
Comparison between SONET & SDH
Optical Equivalent
SONET SDH Signal Level
Carrier DS-0
STS-n STM-n (Mbps)
(OC-n) (64 kbps)
OC-1 STS-1 51.84 672
OC-2 STS-2 103.68 1,344
OC-3 STS-3 STM-1 155.52 2,016
OC-4 STS-4 STM-3 207.36 2,688
OC-9 STS-9 STM-3 466.56 6,048
OC-12 STS-12 STM-4 622.08 8,064
OC-18 STS-18 STM-6 933.12 12,096
OC-24 STS-24 STM-8 1,244.16 16,128
OC-36 STS-36 STM-12 1,866.24 24,192
OC-48 STS-48 STM-16 2,488.32 32,256
OC-96 STS-96 STM-32 4,976 64,512
OC-256 STS-256 STM-64 13,219.20 171,360
2. SONET Terms
Optical Carrier (OC) is the definition of the SONET optical signal.

The defined OC levels begin at OC-1 (51.84 Mbps) and culminate
in OC-255 (13.2192 Gbps).
Synchronous Transport Signal (STS) is the electrical equivalent of

the SONET optical signal; it is known as Synchronous Transport
Module (STM) in SDH. The signal begins as electrical and is
converted to optical for transmission over the SONET fiber
facilities.
Each STS-1 frame is transmitted each 125 s, yielding raw bandwidth

of 51.84 Mbps. The STS frame includes five elements, Synchronous
Payload Envelope, Section Overhead, Line Overhead Path Overhead, and
Payload.

Synchronous Payload Envelope (SPE) is the envelope that carries

the user payload data. It is analogous to the payload envelope of
a X.25 packet. The SPE consists of 783 octets (87 columns and 9
rows of data octets).
Payload is the actual data content of the SONET frame and rides
within the SPE. Total usable payload at the OC-1 level consists of
up to 49.54 Mbps, into which a T3 frame fits quite nicely. The
balance of the 51.84 Mbps is consumed by Transport Overhead
and Path Overhead.
Multiplexing is on the basis of direct time division multiplexing.

Either full SONET speeds or lesser asynchronous and synchronous
data streams can be multiplexed into the STS-N payload, which is
then converted into an OC-N payload.
3. SONET Network Elements and Overheads
i. Network Elements
Terminal Multiplexer
The PTE, an entry level path terminating terminal multiplexer,
acts as a concentrator of DS1 signals and tributaries.
Regenerator
These are optical amplifier that boosts the signal level in the
fiber due to significant distance between multiplexers.
Add/Drop Multiplexer
Provides interfaces between the different network signals and
SONET signals.
ii. Overheads
Path Overhead (POH) contained within the SPE, comprises 9

octets for the relay of OAM&P information in support of end-
to-end network management.
Transport Overhead (TOH) consists of Section Overhead and

Line Overhead.
Section Overhead (SOH) of 9 octets is dedicated to the

transport of status, messages, and alarm indications for
the maintenance of SONET links.
Line Overhead (LOH) of eighteen (18) bytes controls the

reliable transport of payload data between network
elements.
4. Virtual Containers and Tributaries
Virtual Containers (Virtual Paths)

Virtual Containers are simply end-to-end communications paths,
routes or circuits, which carry traffic from one end point to
another. The path is not fixed or dedicated, neither is it dedicated
to a particular conversation or user. A virtual path consists of
many virtual tributaries.
Virtual Tributaries
Virtual Tributaries carry one form of signal, such as a DS-1, DS-2
or DS-3 signal within a byte-interleaved frame. Virtual tributaries
can be mapped into a single virtual path. A virtual tributary may
be channelized (e.g., a 48-channel T-1 for voice) or unchannelized
(e.g, a clear channel DS-1 for full motion video).
Summary for various VTs
VT Type Bit Rate VT Size

VT 1.5 1.728 Mbps 9 rows, 3 columns
VT 2 2.304 Mbps 9 rows, 4 columns

Virtual Channels (Tributary Units)

Virtual Channels exist within virtual tributaries. For example, a
virtual tributary might carry a T1 frame. Within that tributary,
there might exist 24 channels with each channel carrying a single
voice or data communication in multiple time slots.
O. .MEASUREMENT OF LIGHT.
SI Photometry Units
Quantity Symbol SI unit Abbr. Notes

also called
lumen
Luminous flux F lm luminous
(cdsr)
power
units are
Luminous
Qv lumen-second lms sometimes
energy
called Talbots
Luminous candela
Iv cd ---
intensity (lm/sr)
candela/square also called

Luminance Lv cd/m2
metre luminosity
Used for light
lux
Illuminance Ev lx incident on a
(lm/m2)
surface
Used for light
Luminous lux
Mv lx emitted from a
emittance (lm/m2)
surface
ratio of
Luminous
lumens / watt lm/W luminous flux
efficacy
to radiant flux
SI Radiometry Units
Quantity Symbol SI unit Abbr. Notes
Radiant
Q joule J energy
energy
Radiant watt per power per unit

I Wsr1
intensity steradian solid angle
watt per power incident

Irradiance E Wm2
square metre on a surface
radiant energy
per unit time,
Radiant flux e watt W
also called
radiant power
power per unit
watt per
solid angle per
Radiance L steradian per Wsr1m2
unit projected
square metre
source area.
Radiant
emittance / watt per power emitted
M Wm2
Radiant square metre from a surface
exitance
watt per
steradian per
L metre3 or Wsr1m3 commonly
Spectral
or watt per or measured in
radiance
L steradian per Wsr1m2Hz1 Wsr1m2nm1
square metre
per Hertz
watt per
E metre3 or Wm3 commonly
Spectral
or watt per or measured in
irradiance
E square metre Wm2Hz1 Wm2nm1
per hertz

I H
1. A fiber has a NA = 0.2588. A light source us coupled to it which emits
75% of its light into a 60o full-cone angle , 50% into a 30o cone, and 25%
into a 15o cone. What is the coupling efficiency when this source and fiber
are connected?
A. 25% B. 75%
C. 50% D. 85%
2. Find the number of photons incident on a detector in 1 s if the optic power

is 1 W and the wavelength is 0.8 m.
A. 42.0 x 10 12 photons B. 2.12 x 10 12 photons
C. 4.03 x 10 12 photons D. 54.10 x 10 12 photons
3. Medium 1 is made of silicon and medium 2 is made of glass. Their

refractive indexes are 3.4 and 1.4, respectively. For an angle of refraction
of 30 degrees, determine the angle of incidence. April 2003
A. 11.88 degrees B. 10.68 degrees
C. 10.17 degrees D. 11.53 degrees
4. In multimode graded-index fibers, what is the relation between the index of

refraction of the glass at the center of the fiber core with respect to the index
of refraction of the cladding glass?
A. Lower B. Higher
C. Approximately equal D. Either A or B
5. How many photons are arriving per second at a receiver if the power is 1
nW at wavelength of 1.3 m?
A. 0.654 x 109 photons/sec B. 6.54 x 109 photons/sec
C. 65.4 x 109 photons/sec D. 654 x 109 photons/sec
6. For a multimode graded-index fiber, the numerical aperture is at its maximum

value at which of the following locations?
A. At the fiber axis
B. At the core-cladding interface
C. Half way between the fiber center and the core-cladding interface
D. One-fourth of the way between the fiber center and the core- cladding
interface
7. A SI fiber has n1 =1.5, n2 =1.49, and core diameter 50 m. Consider the

guided ray traveling at the steepest angle with respect to the fiber axis.
How many reflections are there per meter for this ray?
A. 321 reflections/meter B. 232 reflections/meter
C. 2321 reflections/meter D. 12321 reflections/meter
8. A step-index multimode fiber and a graded-index multimode fiber have the

same core and cladding sizes and the same refractive index difference. Which
fiber type, if either, will accept light more easily and have more propagating
modes?
A. Step-index fiber
B. Graded-index fiber
C. Neither; they will behave approximately the same
D. Both A and B
9. The multimode graded-index fiber that has the best bend performance and will
show the least amount of optical degradation if mishandled is what size?
A. 50/125 m B. 62.5/125 m
C. 85/125 m D. 100/140 m
10. What are the two basic types of single mode step-index fibers?
A. Low NA and high NA B. Solid core and air core
C. Enriched clad and depressed D. Matched clad and depressed clad
11. How many voice channels can be modulated onto a light carrier at a
wavelength 1.06 m? Assume a system BW equal to 1% of the carrier
frequency.
A. 5 x 108 channels B. 8 x 108 channels
C. 4 x 108 channels D. 7 x 108 channels
12. The use of plastic-clad silica and all plastic fibers has what primary drawback?
A. Higher NA B. Higher cost
C. Higher bandwidth D. Limited optical performance
13. Calculate the midband frequency of color blue.

A. 42.5 x 1015 Hz B. 6.33 x 1014 Hz
12
C. 58.33 x 10 Hz D. 16.8 x 1019 Hz
14. Increased extrinsic absorption at 950 nm, 1,250 nm, and 1,383 nm is caused
by what impurity in glass optical fibers?
A. Phosphorus B. Germanium
C. Titanium D. Water
15. The power incident on a detector of light is 100 nW. (a) Determine the
number of photons per second incident on the detector if the wavelength is
1550 nm.
A. 7.8 x 1016 photons/sec B. 7.8 x 1012 photons/sec
C. 7.8 x 1011 photons/sec D. 7.8 x 1013 photons/sec

16. Which type of scattering loss is proportional to the reciprocal of the fourth
power of the wavelength of the light?
A. Mie B. Raman
C. Rayleigh D. Brillouin
17. For a multi-mode step-index fiber with glass core (n1 = 1.55) and a fused
quartz cladding (n2 = 1.46), determine the critical angles. April 2003
18. What is the definition of a bound ray?

A. A ray that cannot move
B. A ray that travels in the air
C. A ray that is refracted out of the fiber
D. A ray that propagates through the fiber by total internal reflection
19. The fiber NA relates to which of the following characteristics?

A. Physical size of the fiber
B. Tensile strength of the fiber
C. Maximum angle within the fiber acceptance cone
D. Speed of light within the fiber
20. A skew ray is which of the following types of rays?

A. An unbound ray
B. A meridional ray
C. An unbalanced ray
D. A ray that propagates without passing through the center axis of the fiber
21. Electromagnetic wave behavior is used to describe the propagation of light

along the fiber in what theory?
A. Mode theory B. Particle theory
C. Maxwell theory D. Rayleigh's theory
22. Calculate the maximum data rate for the 45 km fiber system which has a
pulse spreading constant of 100 ns when it is used with a transmitter
having a rise time of 50 ns and a receiver having a rise time of 75 ns, if
the line code is RZ.
A. 0.7 MHz B. 83.1 MHz
C. 3.7 MHz D. 7.4 MHz
23. A radius of curvature is larger than the fiber diameter in which of the following
types of fiber bends?
A. Macrobends B. Microbends
C. Gentle bends D. Serpentine bends
24. A fiber optic cable has a loss of 16 dB/Km. What would be its attenuation
if the cable is 2000 ft long? April 2003
A. 97.6 dB B. 26 dB
C. 2.6 dB D. 9.76 dB
25. Calculate the velocity of light in a medium which has a relative permittivity
of 2.5
A. 1.89 x 10 8 m/s B. 5.67 x 10 8 m/s
7
C. 3.43 x 10 m/s D. 2.85 x 10 6 m/s
26. Only in multimode fibers does which of the following types of dispersion occur?
A. Modal B. Material
C. Waveguide D. Chromatic
27. When different colors of light travel through the fiber at different speeds, which
of the following types of dispersion occurs?
A. Modal B. Intramodal
C. Intermodal D. Modal delay spreading
28. A single-mode fiber has a numerical aperture of 0.15. What is the

maximum core diameter it could have for use with infrared light with a
wavelength of 820 nm?
A. 2.1 m B. 21 m
C. 4.2 m D. 42.1 m
29. Another name for intramodal dispersion

A. Modal B. Chromatic
C. Intermodal D. Rayleigh
30. In a step-index fiber, the refractive index profile of the fiber core has which of
the following characteristics?
A. It is uniform over the fiber core
B. It linearly decreases from a maximum at the fiber center to a minimum at
the core-cladding boundary
C. It is parabolic with a maximum index of refraction at the center and a
minimum index of refraction at the core-cladding boundary
D. It linearly increases from a minimum at the fiber center to a maximum at
the core cladding boundary
31. Calculate the Rayleigh scattering loss in dB for a 50/125 step-index fiber
operating at 1200 nm.
A. 5.27 dB B. 3.68 dB
C. 2.65 dB D. 3.68 dB
32. In a graded-index fiber, the refractive index profile of the fiber core is best
described by which of the following statements?
A. It is uniform over the fiber core
B. It linearly decreases from a maximum at the fiber center to a minimum at
the core-cladding boundary
C. It is parabolic with a maximum index of refraction at the center and a
minimum index of refraction at the core-cladding boundary
D. It linearly increases from a minimum at the fiber center to a maximum at
the core cladding boundary
33. Which of the following multimode fiber core sizes is NOT a standard commercial
fiber size?
A. 25 m B. 50 m
C. 85 m D. 100 m
34. Elements other than silicon and oxygen are added to glass material by the fiber
manufacturer to change its index of refraction. What are these elements called?
A. Spices B. Dopants
C. Additives D. Impurities
35. Calculate the numerical aperture of an optical fiber with a fractional

difference of 0.0258 and a 2.4 relative permittivity at the core
A. 1.351 B. 0.351
C. 2.351 D. -0.569
36. Compared to multimode step-index fibers, do multimode graded-index fibers

have lower, higher, or approximately equal bandwidths?
A. Lower B. Higher
C. Approximately equal D. Either A or B
37. To operate properly, a fiber optic receiver requires -34 dBm power. The
system losses total 31 dBm from the light source to the receiver. How
much power does the light source emit (in mW)?
A. 0.05 mW B. 0.005 mW
C. 0.5 mW D. 5 mW
38. A T3 system has a 10-9 BER. Compute the number of errors per minute.
A. 2.7 errors/min B. 8.16 errors/min
C. 4.3 errors/min D. 7.5 errors/min
39. To describe the nature of light, which of the following ways can be used?
A. Particles of energy only
B. Electromagnetic wave only
C. Electromagnetic wave and particles of energy
D. Element
40. An optic fiber is made of glass with a surface index of 1.55 and is clad with
another glass with a refractive index of 1.51. Launching takes place on
air. Determine the numerical aperture of the fiber. April 2003
A. 0.35 B. 0.214
C. 0.0465 D. 0.0305
41. Of the following advantages, which one does NOT apply to fiber optics?
A. Improved environmental protection
B. Improved signal security
C. Increased bandwidth
D. Established standards
42. Calculate the travel time of an axial ray in a 10-km multimode step index
fiber with a NA of 0.248 and 1.28% fractional refractive index change.
A. 15.67 sec B. 1.67 sec
C. 5.7 sec D. 51.67 sec
43. Of the following factors, which ones are advantages of fiber optic systems?
A. Electrical isolation and immunity to noise
B. Immunity to noise and low bandwidth
C. Signal security and high price
D. Electrical isolation and low bandwidth
44. Light exhibits what kind of wave motion?

A. Transverse B. Turbulent
C. Longitudinal D. Aperiodic
45. Which of the following factors is a description of transverse wave motion?

A. The wave magnitude varies perpendicular to the direction of wave motion
B. The wave magnitude varies linearly to the direction of wave motion
C. The wave magnitude varies parallel to the direction of propagation
D. The wave motion is not predictable
46. What does a transparent substance do to light rays that fall on it?
A. Refracts them B. Transmits them
C. Reflects them D. Absorbs them
47. Compute the responsivity of a silicon APD operating at 0.82 m and having
a 0.8 quantum efficiency if its gain is 100. How much optical power is
needed by this detector to produce 20 nA?
A. 3.8 A/W, 5.3 nW B. 53 A/W, 0.38 nW
C. 5.3 A/W, 3.8 nW D. 0.38 A/W, 53 nW
48. What does a translucent substance do to light rays that fall on it?
A. Reflects and absorbs them B. Refracts and absorbs them
C. Transmits and diffuses them D. Transmits and reflects them
49. An erbium-doped fiber amplifier has a noise figure of 6 and a gain of 100.
The input signal has a 30-dB signal-to-noise ratio and a signal power of 10
W. Compute the signal power (in dBm) and a signal-to-noise ratio (in
dB) at the amplifiers output.
A. 0 dBm, 22.2 dB B. 22.2 dBm, 2.2 dB
C. 22.2 dBm, 0 dB D. 20 dBm, 2.22 dB
50. What does an opaque substance do when light rays fall on it?
A. Refracts them B. Reflects or absorbs them
C. Transmits them only D. Transmits and diffuses them
51. A single-mode fiber is made with core diameter of 10 micrometers and is

coupled to a light source with a wavelength of 1.2 micrometers. Its core
glass has a refractive index of 1.55. Determine the cladding index
required for producing single-mode propagation. (V cut off = 2.405) April
2003
A. 1.504 B. 1.17
C. 1.43 D. 1.547

52. Calculate the Brewster angle for a parallel-polarized wave incident from air
onto paraffin with a relative permittivity of 2.
A. 32.5 B. 44.4
C. 54.7 D. 87.5
53. Fibers are single mode at a particular wavelength only when V < 2.405. Under
what condition, if any, will the fiber cease to be single mode?
A. When the wavelength of the light is greater than the cutoff wavelength
B. When the wavelength of the light is less than the cutoff wavelength
C. When the core fiber diameter is extremely small
D. Both B and C
54. In making a preform, layers of glass powder are deposited on the inside or
outside of a glass rod or tube. What is this glass powder called?
A. Soot B. Smoke
C. Preform D. Afterburn
55. Calculate the pulse spreading per unit length of a 15-km fiber with an axial
propagation time of 53.18sec and a critical angle meridional propagation
time of 54.25sec
A. 1.33 ns/km B. 733 ns/km
C. 7.33 ns/km D. 71.33 ns/km
56. The process used in drawing the fiber is best described by which of the
following statements?
A. The preform is melted and the molten glass is molded, using special fiber
molds
B. The preform is softened and the glass is pulled into a thin glass filament
C. The preform is softened and the glass is rolled into a thin glass filament
D. The preform is melted and the fiber is formed by blowing the molten glass
through a small hole
57. To protect the fiber from contaminants in the drawing process, what substance
is added over the fiber?
A. Water B. Coating
C. Preform D. Cladding
58. Find the output current of a photodetector whose quantum efficiency is

0.9. The wavelength is 1.3 m and the incident power level is -37 dBm.
A. 18.8 nA B. 1.88 nA
C. 0.188 nA D. 188 nA
59. A 45 km length of fiber must not lengthen pulses by more than 100 ns.
Find the maximum permissible value for the pulse-spreading constant.
A. 1.11 ns/km B. 222 ns/km
C. 11.22 ns/km D. 2.22 ns/km
60. The spreading of a light pulse as it travels along the fiber is caused by what
mechanism?
A. Diffraction B. Attenuation
C. Absorption D. Dispersion
61. A fiber optic system uses a detector with a rise time of 3 ns and a source
with a rise time of 2 ns. If an RZ code is used with a data rate of 100
Mbps over a distance of 25 km, calculate the maximum acceptable
dispersion for the fiber and the equivalent BW-Distance product.
A. 38.6 ns/km, 361 GHz-km
B. 0.1386 ns/km, 3.61 GHz-km
C. 0.16 ns/km, 31 GHz-km
D. 13.86 ns/km, 361 GHz-km
62. A single-mode fiber operating at 1.3 m is found to have a total material

dispersion of 2.2 ns and a total waveguide dispersion of 1.95 ns.
Determined the approximate maximum bit rate for the fiber if the
transmitted pulse has a width of 0.5 ns.
A. 45 Mbps B. 13.2 Mbps
C. 170.1 Mbps D. 74 Mbps
63. A photodiode has a responsivity of 0.4 A/W. What optical power is

required to produce a current of 500 nA.
A. 1.25 W B. 12.5 W
C. 125 W D. 0.125 W
64. Medium 1 is made of silicon and medium 2 is made of glass. Their

refractive indexes are 3.2 and 1.2, respectively. For an angle of refraction
of 31 degrees, determine the angle of incidence. April 2003
65. A cable contains 144 single-mode fiber, each operating at 2.3 Gbps. How
many digitized voice messages can be transmitted simultaneously along
this cable?
A. 5175 million B. 51.75 million
C. 5.175 million D. 517.5 million
66. Calculate the pulse spreading per unit length of a 15-km fiber with a NA of
0.2482 and 1.55 core index of refraction.
A. 0.62 ps/km B. 624 ps/km
C. 66.24 ns/km D. 6.24 ps/km
67. To operate properly, a fiber optic receiver requires -34 dBm power. The
system losses total 31 dB from the light source to the receiver. How much
power does the light source emit?
A. 0.05 mW B. 5 mW
C. 50 mW D. 0.5 mW
68. A silica multimode step-index fiber has core and cladding refractive indices
of 1.46 and 1.459, respectively. Compute the RZ rate-length product of
this fiber at if the source emits at 1550 nm and has a line width of 120
nm.
A. 922 Mbps B. 9.2 Mbps

69. Find the total number of propagating modes in a SI fiber having a

normalized frequency of 4.5 when the wavelength is 800 nm.
A. 10 B. 14
C. 5 D. 18
70. Fiber optic systems use what two types of optical sources?
A. PIN diodes and LEDs B. Laser diodes and APDs
C. LEDs and APDs D. LEDs and laser diodes
71. The optical source performs which of the following functions?

A. Converts the optical signal to an electrical signal
B. Launches the optical signal into the fiber
C. Amplifies the electrical signal
D. Amplifies the optical signal
72. Given the pulse-spreading constant equal to 10 ns/m and the cable length
equal to 100 meters, determine the maximum bit rate in Mbps for UPNRZ
transmission. April 2003
A. 500 Mbps B. 1000 Mbps
73. Find the Brewster angle for the air-to-glass and glass-to-air interface.
A. 5.3, 3.7 B. 56, 3.7
C. 56.3, 33.7 D. 5.3, 33.7
74. An optic fiber is made of glass with a refractive index of 1.55 and is clad
with another glass with a refractive index of 1.51. Launching takes place
from air. What numerical aperture and acceptance angle does the fiber
have? April 2003
A. 0.35, 20.5 B. 0.512, 10.6
C. 0.532, 10.6 D. 0.352, 25.6
75. Calculate the pulse spreading per unit length of a 15-km fiber with a core
index of 1.55 and 1.53 cladding index of refraction.
A. 66.7 ns/km B. 654 ns/km
C. 7.54 ns/km D. 6.54 ns/km
76. Calculate the pulse spreading per unit length of a 15-km fiber with a
fractional index change of 0.0129 and 1.55 core index of refraction.
A. 667 ns/km B. 6.67 ns/km
C. 76.67 ns/km D. 66.67 ns/km
77. Find the energy, in electron-volts, in one photon at a wavelength of 1m.

A. 19.9 eV B. 1.24 eV
C. 12.4 eV D. 1.99 eV
78. What are the three parts of a fiber optic link?

A. Optical fiber, optical connectors, optical splices
B. Optical fiber, optical connectors, receiver
C. Transmitter, optical fiber, optical connectors
D. Transmitter, optical fiber, receiver
79. A parallel polarized ray is incident at an angle of 85O when traveling from a
medium of index 1.48 into a medium having index 1.465. The wavelength
is 1300 nm. Compute the reflection coefficient.
A. 55.48 B. 34.39
C. 91.2 D. 74.9
80. The fiber optic transmitter has which of the following functions?
A. Amplifies the output electrical signal
B. Converts the input optical signal to an electrical signal
C. Converts the electrical input signal to an optical signal
81. What fiber mechanisms weaken and distort the optical signal launched into the
fiber?
A. Dispersion, radiation, and absorption
B. Scattering, radiation, and absorption
C. Scattering, reflection, and refraction
D. Scattering, absorption, and dispersion
82. A collimated Gaussian beam has a spot size of 1 mm and wavelength of

0.8 m. Compute the focused spot size when focused by a lens whose
focal length is 20 mm.
A. 1.44 m B. 16.71 m
C. 5.09 m D. 8.54 m
83. Consider a fiber whose core index is 1.5 and whose cladding index is
1.485. The core radius 100 m. At what bending radius does a ray
traveling along the fiber axis strike the cladding at the critical angle in the
bend?
A. 1000 cm B. 1 cm
C. 100 cm D. 10 cm
84. The fiber optic receiver performs which of the following functions?
A. Amplifies the electrical signal
B. Converts the electrical signal back into an optical signal
C. Converts the optical signal back into an electrical signal
85. Consider a SI fiber with n1=1.5 and n2=1.485 at 0.82m. If the core
radius is 50 m, how many modes can propagate?
A. 3286 modes B. 328 modes
C. 386 modes D. 326 modes
86. What are the two parts of a fiber optic receiver?

A. Optical detector and PIN diode
B. Fiber and optical detector
C. Optical detector and signal conditioning circuits
D. Fiber and case
87. What are the two types of optical detectors?

A. Laser diodes and PIN diodes B. APDs and laser diodes
C. PIN diodes and APDs D. LEDs and APDs

88. How many current is produced by a photodetector whose responsivity is

0.5 A/W if the incident optical power level -43 dBm?
A. 38 nA B. 46 nA
C. 25 nA D. 13 nA
89. Extremely high losses occurred in early fibers because of which of the following
conditions?
A. Holes in the fiber sides
B. Impurities in the fiber material
C. Cracks in the fibers
D. Core areas too small in the fibers
90. The fiber has zero dispersion at a wavelength of 1310 nm and has a zero-
dispersion slope of 0.05 ps/(nm2-km). Calculate the total dispersion of 50
km fiber when it is used with a source having a linewidth of 2 nm at a
wavelength of 1550 nm.
A. 9.49 ps B. 18.98 ps
C. 8.44 ps D. 949 ps
91. What was the first light source developed that could be easily coupled into a
fiber?
A. Lamp B. YAG laser
C. PIN diode D. LED
92. What multimode fiber properties help reduce connection losses?

A. Smaller core size and higher NA B. Smaller core size and lower NA
C. Larger core size and higher NA D. Larger core size and lower NA
93. Light waves that strike a surface but are neither transmitted nor absorbed?
A. Diffused B. Refracted
C. Reflected D. Diffracted
94. A uniform collimated beam is focused by a lens whose focal length is 20

mm and whose diameter is 10 mm. The wavelength is 0.8 m. Compute
the focused spot size.
A. 1.6 m B. 9.1 m
C. 5.3 m D. 3.9 m
95. What is the name of the law that states "The angle of incidence is equal to the
angle of reflection"?
A. Snell's Law B. Murphy's Law
C. Huygens Law D. Law of Reflection
96. A receiver has a 10-cm focal length, a 1-cm photodetector diameter, and
air between the lens and photodetector. Compute the receivers NA.
A. 0.55 B. 0.05
C. 0.005 D. 0.523
97. A light wave is incident on a surface. The reflected power is the greatest in
which of the following incidences?
A. 30 B. 45
C. Perpendicular D. Almost parallel
98. A light wave passes from one medium into another medium with a different
velocity. As the wave enters the second medium, the change of direction is
known by which of the following terms?
A. Reflection B. Refraction
C. Absorption D. Diffusion
99. A certain fiber has a core diameter of 50 m and is used at a medium light
wavelength of 0.80 m and NA=0.35. Calculate the number of modes it
will support.
A. 1260 B. 2500
C. 2,361 D. 5345
100. If a light wave passes from a less dense medium to a more dense medium,
how does the angle of refraction compare to the angle of incidence?
A. Greater than the angle of incidence only
B. Equal to the angle of incidence only
C. Greater than or equal to the angle of incidence
D. Less than the angle of incidence
101. What another word is for diffused?

A. Absorbed B. Scattered
C. Refracted D. Attenuated
102. Calculate the travel time of a critical angle meridional ray in a 10-km
multimode step index fiber with a NA of 0.248, n2=1.53 and 1.28%
fractional refractive index change.
A. 52.34 sec B. 5.34 sec
C. 0.534 sec D. 2.4 sec
103. When light falls on a piece of black paper, what happens to most of the light?
A. It is absorbed B. It is reflected
C. It is scattered D. It is refracted
104. Light is transmitted along an optical fiber by what two methods?

A. Ray theory and mode theory B. Ray theory and photon theory
C. Ray theory and quantum theory D. Mode theory and photon theory
105. Compute the rise time of a photodetector if its 3-dB bandwidth is 500
MHz.
A. 70 ps B. 7 ps
C. 700 ps D. 0.7 ps
106. How does the speed of light in the fiber compare to the speed of light in the
air?
A. It is slower in the fiber
B. It is faster in the fiber
C. It is the same in both the fiber and the air
D. Both A and B

107. Compute the pulse spread for a 10-km length fiber when the light source
emits at 1320 nm and has a 2-nm spectral width. The fiber has zero
dispersion wavelength at 1300 nm and the dispersion is 1.86 ps/nm-km.
A. 0.32 ps B. 3.2 ps
C. 37.2 ps D. 372 ps
108. Calculate the reflectance for an air to glass interface assuming the
refractive index of glass is 1.5
A. 0.4 B. 0.004
C. 4 D. 0.04
109. The relationship between the incident rays and the refracted rays at a
boundary between mediums with different indexes of refraction describes what
law?
A. Bragg's Law B. Snell's Law
C. Lenzs Law D. Law of Reflection
110. Total internal reflection occurs at which of the following angles?

A. Obtuse angle B. Fresnel angle
C. Right angle D. Critical angle of incidence
111. What are the three basic parts of an optical fiber?

A. Core, cladding, and coating B. Inside, middle, and outside
C. Fiber, kevlar, and jacket D. Hole, shell, and coating
112. A fiber is rated having a bandwidth-distance product of 500 MHz-km.

Find the dispersion in ns/km, and find the rise time of a pulse in a 5 km
length if this cable
A. 10 ns/km, 5 ns B. 1 ns/km, 0.5 ns
C. 10 ns/km, 0.5 ns D. 1 ns/km, 5 ns
113. The cladding performs all except which of the following functions?
A. Reduces the loss of light from the core
B. Reduces the scattering loss at the surface of the core
C. Protects the fiber core from absorbing surface contaminants
D. Reduces mechanical strength
114. Calculate the bandwidth and figure of merit of a fiber optic system (50
km) with a total dispersion of 949 ps.
A. 52.68 MHz, 2.63 GHz-km B. 526.8 MHz, 2.63 GHz-km
C. 526.8 MHz, 26.3 GHz-km D. 52.68 MHz, 26.3 GHz-km
115. What are the two basic types of fibers?

A. Small and large B. Glass and plastic
C. Opaque and diffuse D. Single mode and multimode
116. Compute the energy of a photon at 1.3 m.

A. 15x10-19J B. 3.2x10-19J
C. 1.5x10-19J D. 32x10-19J
117. The lowest signal loss and the highest bandwidth are characteristic of which of
the following types of fibers?
A. Air core B. Multimode
C. Single mode D. Plastic core
118. Compared to single mode fibers, multimode fibers have which of the following
advantages?
A. Ease of making connections only
B. Ease of launching light into them only
C. Ease of both making connections and launching light into them
D. Lower dispersion
119. System performance is affected most by which of the following fiber

properties?
A. NA and delta B. Core diameter and NA
C. Attenuation and dispersion D. Core diameter and cladding
120. There are 1010 photons per second incident on a photo detector at
wavelength 0.8 m. Compute the power incident on the detector. If this
detector converts light to current at a rate of 0.65 mA/mW, what current is
produced?
A. 2.48 x10-19W, 1.6 nA B. 2.48 x10-9W, 1.6 nA
C. 2.48 x10-19W, 1.6 pA D. 2.48 x10-9W, 1.6 pA
121. The loss of optical power as light travels along a fiber is called
A. attenuation B. absorption
C. scattering D. dispersion
122. Determine the refractive index of a coating layer place between fibers
whose indices are 1.5 and 1.57 respectively, to produce a zero reflectance.
A. 1.534 B. 1.34
C. 1.435 D. 1.4
123. Attenuation is specified in what units?

A. dB B. dB/km
C. m D. m/km
124. Glass optical fibers have low loss between the infrared and ultraviolet
absorptive regions. The approximate wavelength of operation for glass optical
fibers is in which of the following ranges?
A. 1 nm to 700 nm B. 700 nm to 1600 nm
C. 1600 nm to 9000 nm D. 9 m to 20 m
125. An optical fiber has a loss of 0.35 dB/km. If an LED with a power output
of 25 W is connected to one end of a 20 km length of this fiber. How
much power reaches the detector at the other end?
A. -0.23 dBm B. -23 dBm
C. -2.3 dBm D. -230 dBm

126. Optical networks are based on the emergence of the ______ layer in ______
networks.
A. optical; integrated B. optical; transport
C. transport; optical D. optical; high-capacity
127. DWDM increases the capacity of ____ fiber by first assigning incoming ____ to
specific frequencies within a designated frequency band and then ____ the
resulting signals out onto one fiber.
A. optical fiber; wavelengths; combining
B. group; signals; multiplexing
C. embedded; optical signals; multiplexing
D. dense; wavelengths; multiplexing
128. DWDM enables different formats, such as ______, to be transmitted over the
optical layer.
A. SONET and SDH B. IP and ATM
C. ATM and SONET D. all of the above
129. _____ (DWDM) is a _______ transmission technique.

A. Direct wavelength directing medium; telecommunications
B. Dense wavelength division multiplexing; fiber-optic
C. Direct wave division multiplexing; fiber-optic
130. 1550-nm technology has experienced a significant increase in value since it

was deployed in
A. 1996 B. 1992
C. 1991 D. 1995
131. Which feature is expected to accelerate the growth of optical Ethernet in the
WAN?
A. fiber-channel compatibility B. 10.000Gbps speeds
C. improved optical fiber D. SONET OC192 speeds
132. In current networking practices, optical Ethernet products are required to

span distances greater than what?
C. 2 kilometers D. 50 kilometers
133. When was the Fast Ethernet over fiber optics first standardized?
A. in 1994, as part of the first Fast Ethernet standards
B. in 2000, six years after Fast Ethernet over copper
C. in 1990, as part of the 10BASET specification
D. in 1998, six years after Fast Ethernet over copper
134.______ occurs as light travels down single-mode fibers, and when the core of
the fiber is asymmetric, the light traveling along one side moves slower or
faster than the light traveling along the other side.
A. Slope mismatch dispersion
B. Chromatic dispersion
C. Polarization mode dispersion
D. Rayleigh dispersion
135. The one aspect of SONET that has allowed it to survive during a time of
tremendous changes in network capacity needs is its
A. versatility B. fiber capacity
C. scalability D. functionality
136. One of the great revenue-producing aspects of optical networks is the ability
to resell ____ rather than _____.
A. bandwidth; fiber B. fiber; bandwidth
C. single fiber; double fiber D. wavelength; bandwidth
137. Future DWDM terminals will have the capacity to transmit ____ volumes of an
encyclopedia in one second.
A. 90 B. 250
C. 1500 D. 90000
138. _____ is based on the principal that different-colored pulses of light travel at
different speeds.
A. Polarization mode dispersion
B. Rayleigh dispersion
C. Chromatic dispersion
D. Ultraviolet absorption
139. The types of media that can transmit information in the telecommunications
world are the following
A. copper wire, coaxial cable, fiber, and wireless
B. hybrid fiber/coax and copper wire
C. copper wire, coaxial cable, fiber, and hybrid fiber/coax
D. wireless and copper wire
140. The _____ is a particular set of standards that allows the interworking of
products from different vendors. It usually embodies a fiber-optic ring that will
permit transmission in both directions.
A. LAN B. WAN
C. SONET D. CCS
141. Two digital signals whose transitions occur at almost the same rate are
A. synchronous B. asynchronous
C. plesiochronous D. all of the above
142. SONET systems are _____ technology.

A. fiber-optic B. twisted-pair, copper-based
C. wireless D. satellite-based
143. SONET's base signal (STS1) operates at a bit rate of

A. 64 kbps B. 1.544 Mbps
C. 51.84 Mbps D. 155.52 Mbps
144. The largest possible optical Ethernet can span what distance?
A. 10 kilometers B. global
C. 100 kilometers D. 1000 kilometers

145. Traditional DWDM is capable of multiplexing how many 1550-nm transmitters

onto a single fiber?
A. 12 B. 2
C. 8 D. 4
146. Line overhead contains _______ bytes of information.

A. 18 B. 9
C. 27 D. 90
147. ITU's H.320 standard defines the protocols for transporting voice, data and
video over
A. PSTN B. the public Internet
C. ISDN networks D. SONET
148. _______ occurs in single-mode fibers because dispersion varies with

wavelength. This can result in a significant buildup of dispersion, especially at
the extremes of a band of wavelength channels.
A. Polarization mode dispersion
B. Slope mismatch dispersion
C. Rayleigh dispersion
D. Chromatic dispersion
149.Controlling the ______ at which light waves are transmitted makes it possible
to control how efficiently they reach their destination.
A. the wavelength above which a single-mode fiber supports only one mode
or ray of light
B. the inherent curvature along a specific length of optical fiber
C. the reduction of signal strength over the length of the light-carrying
medium
D. the time distortion of an optical signal that results from the time of flight
differences of different components of that signal
150. Which of these statements is NOT true for SONET?

A. uses frequency division multiplexing (FDM)
B. it is a synchronous optical network
C. common SONET interface ATM is STS-3c/STM at 155 Mbps
D. supports both ATM and BISDN
151. ______ is the degradation of optical signals over distance.

A. Capacity B. Distortion
C. Dispersion D. Polarization
152. Which of following are not basic SONET network elements?

A. switch interface B. digital loop carrier
C. add/drop multiplexer D. service control point
153. A physics principle that became the theoretical foundation of optical fiber
communications holds that ______ in a ______ medium can carry more
information over longer distances.
A. electrical signals; glass B. light; coaxial
C. light; silica D. electrical signal: glass
154. To overcome the problem of requiring a large amount of bandwidth for

uncompressed analog video, operators should
A. install fiber deeper
B. use 1550-nm technology
C. use dense wave division multiplexing
D. increase the number of modes
155. What determines how many fibers a multimedia backbone can run?
A. wavelength B. frequency
C. spectral efficiency D. spatial multiplexing
156. What are the three primary steps in the optical fiber manufacturing process?
A. laydown, compilation, and draw
B. laydown, consolidation, and draw
C. assembly, consolidation, and pull
D. assembly, compilation, and pull
157. Attenuation is which of the following?

A. the reduction of signal strength over the length of the light-carrying
medium
B. the wavelength above which a single-mode fiber supports only one mode
or ray of light
C. the inherent curvature along a specific length of optical fiber
D. smearing an optical signal that results from the many discrete wavelength
components traveling at different rates
158.Which of these is NOT an application for fiber channel?

A. Multimedia B. backbones
C. video conferencing D. all of these
159. What is the term for a switched fiber channel network?

A. Packet B. Cell
C. Fabric D. Frame
160. Which of these is not an advantage of fiber cables?

A. easy to interconnect fiber segments
B. secure - difficult to tap
C. has a larger usable bandwidth
D. freedom from electromagnetic interference

3-106 Telephone networks and system
Section Telephone Networks Read it

till it
12 and System Hertz!
DEFINITION. Telephone: An electronic apparatus containing a transmitter

and a receiver that is connected to a telecommunication system, enabling the
user to speak to and hear other with similar equipment.
DEFINITION. Network: A system of two or more communications devices

link by wires, cables, or a telecommunication system in order to exchange
information.
DEFINITION. Telecommunication: The science and technology of

transmitting information electronically by means of wire or radio signals with
integrated encoding and decoding equipment.
DEFINITION. ISDN: Integrated Services Digital Network is a multi-use

network in which wholly digital transmission is provided between customer
locations, with digital telephones and data terminals being used.
1860 JOHANN PHILIPP REIS (Germany) build Das Telephon, the 1st
telephone to be publicly demonstrated.
1871 ANTONIO MEUCCI (Italy) files a caveat for a telephone that he claims
to have built in 1849 though it is not demonstrated and ever patented.
1876 ALEXANDER GRAHAM BELL (Scotland) files a patent for the telephone.
Hours later ELISON GRAY files a caveat for the same invention.
1889 ALMOND STROWGER files a patent for the first automatic telephone
exchange later called STROWGER SWITCH.
WILLIAM GRAY is granted the 1st patent for a coin-operated

telephone.
1896 The 1st dial telephone goes into use in Milwaukee.
1946 AT&T inaugurates the 1st commercial mobile radio telephone service.
1981 NORDIC MOBILE TELEPHONE (NMT) system becomes the 1st

international cellular mobile telephone system serving Finland,
Denmark, Norway and Sweden.
A. .HIERARCHY OF CLASS OFFICES.
INTERMEDIATE
END TOLL SWITCHING TOLL END
TELEPHONE TELEPHONE
OFFICE OFFICE OFFICE(S) OFFICE OFFICE
TOLL TOLL
LOCAL INTER-TOLL INTER-TOLL LOCAL
CONNECTING CONNECTING
LOOP TRUNKS TRUNKS LOOP
TRUNKS TRUNKS
1. Class 5 (End Office)

Class 5 offices are the local exchange offices, or central offices,
serving end users through local loop connections. There exist
approximately 19,000 Class 5 offices in the United States.
2. Class 4 (Tandem Office)

Class 4 offices were tandem toll centers, which served to interconnect
Class 5 offices not directly connected. As the lowest class of toll
center, these also served as the first point of entry to the long
distance, or toll, network. Approximately 1,500 tandem toll centers
existed in North America prior to AT&Ts divestiture of the BOCs.
3. Class 3 (Primary Center)

Class 3 offices, or primary toll centers, were higher-order toll centers,
generally serving to connect Class 4 offices for intrastate toll calling.
Class 4 offices typically served to interconnect independent telephone
companies and BOCs. Approximately 200 such offices existed prior to
divestiture.
4. Class 2 (Sectional Center)

Class 2 offices were known as sectional toll centers, which served to
interconnect primary toll centers, largely for interstate calling within a
geographic region such as the Northeast or the Southwest. There were
approximately 67 sectional toll centers in the AT&T network prior to
divestiture.
5. Class 1 (Regional Center)

Class 1 offices, or regional toll centers, served to interconnect
sectional toll centers in support of interregional calling. There were 10
regional toll centers in place in the United States prior to divestiture;
seven currently exist, with another two in Canada.

B. .SWITCHING SYSTEM.
1. Manual (Cordboard) Switching System
These switching system

involved operators who
manually established the
desired connection at the
request of the transmitting
party. A unique physical
and electrical connection
was established, on a plug
and jack basis, for the
duration of the call.
2. Step-By-Step Switching (SxS) System

SxS switches consist of large number of line finders to which groups of
individual subscribers are assigned for dial tone. The transmitting
party dials a series of numbers, originally with a rotary telephone
terminal which causes the making and breaking of an electrical circuit.
3. Crossbar Switching(Xbar) System

In a XBar switch, a request
for dial tone is recognized by
a marker, which directs a
sender to store the dialed
digits. A translator is then
directed to route the call,
reserving a path through a
switching matrix. Once the
call is connected, these
various components are
available to serve other calls.
4. Electronic Switching System (ESS)

ESS switches reflect the marriage of computer technology and
telephony. Voice conversations are digitized and switched over high-
speed digital circuits, with all processes accomplished through
programmed logic. ECC switches are microprocessor controlled, with
the total processing power of such a switch often rivaling that of a
general purpose, mainframe computer.
C. .COMPONENTS OF TELEPHONE SET.
1. Transmitter
Made up of a flat round diaphragm that converts speech signal into
electrical signal.
Carbon Transmitter
The carbon transmitter is constructed by placing carbon granules
between metal plates called electrodes.
Electret Transmitter
The electret transmitter is composed of a thin disk of metal-coated
plastic and a thicker, hollow metal disk.
Transmitting Objective Loudness Rating (TOLR)

TOLR is a measure, in dB, of the efficiency with which a telephone set converts
acoustic pressure at the set transmitter to an electrical output voltage.
2. Receiver
The receiver of a telephone set is made from a flat ring of magnetic
material with a short cuff of the same material attached to the rings
outer rim.
Receive Objective Loudness Rating (ROLR)

ROLR is a measure, in dB, of the efficiency with which a telephone set converts
electrical source voltage to an acoustic pressure output at the receiver.

3. Ringer/Alerter
The alerter in a telephone is usually called the ringer, because for
most of the telephones history, a bell was used to indicate a call. The
alerter responds only to a special frequency of electricity that is sent
by the exchange in response to the request for that telephone
number.
4. Dial Technique
Rotary Dial
In a rotary dial, the numerals one to nine, followed by zero, are
placed in a circle behind round holes in a movable plate. The user
places a finger in the whole corresponding to the desired digit and
rotates the movable plate clockwise until the users finger hits the
finger stop.
Push-button dial
Push button dialing results in the generation of a unique
combination of frequencies or tones when a button is pushed.
Push-button telephones usually have a switch on the base that the
customer can set to determine whether the telephone will send
pulses or tones.
5. Hybrid
Converts the four-wire interface into a two-wire interface, which
enables the telephone to operate via a 2-wire connection to the
telephone company.
6. Switch-Hook
The switch-hook is place in an open position by pressure from the
handset. Thus, when handset is lifted, the switch hook closes,
enabling current to flow through the telephone and local loop and
signaling the telephone company switch.
7. Sidetone Generator
The sidetone represents a design of the hybrid within the telephone
that enables a portion of speech to bleed over the earpiece or
receiver. The purpose of the sidetone is to enable a person hear
themselves talk so they have a better ability to adjust the tones of
their conversation.
D. .TELEPHONE SIGNALING.
1. In-Band Signaling
In-band signaling and control functions take place over the same
physical path as the conversation, and occupy the same frequency
band. As the impact of simultaneous conversation and signaling is
most unpleasant, it is seldom used in contemporary networks, with the
exception of analog local loops.
2. Out-Of-Band Signaling
Out-of-band signaling and control, in the simplest analog application,
takes place over frequencies separate from those that carry the
information. Out-of-band signaling and control is the standard
approach in digital networks and, most certainly, in the internal carrier
networks. Ex. 3700 Hz, 3825 Hz
3. Inter-Office Signaling
a. DC Signaling (Wet & Dry Signaling)

Signaling information is indicated by the presence (wet) and
absence (dry) of a battery and ground condition on the line at the
called end of the trunk.
b. Loop Reverse-Battery Signaling

Loop signaling is accomplished by reversing the polarity of the
battery on the line to indicated supervisory conditions.
c. E and M Signaling
Employs two leads to connect the signaling equipment to the
trunk circuit where the M lead transMit battery or ground signal to
the distant end of the circuit while incoming signals are recEived
on the E lead as either a ground or open condition.
d. A and B Bit Signaling

Supervisory and address information may be assigned to specific
bits in the pulse stream. These bit positions are derived by time
sharing the least significant speech bit during one frame out of
six, obtaining a 1.33 kbps signaling bit stream.
e. Single Frequency Signaling

Single Frequency in-band signaling on analog trunks uses a tone
frequency of 2600 Hz transmitted at -8dBm0 during pulsing, and -
20dBm0 for continuous tone.
f. Multi Frequency Signaling

Multi Frequency signaling is often applied on trunk circuits where
digit information is sent by combination of two of five audio
frequencies: 700, 900, 1100, 1300, and 1500 Hz.

4. Subscriber Loop Signaling
a. Dial Pulse signaling

Consists of series of from one to ten pulses representing the
corresponding numerical digits 1 to 9 and 0.
Dialed Digit Generated Pulse Duration

1 1 pulse 100 ms
2 2 pulses 200 ms
3 3 pulses 300 ms
0 10 pulses 1 sec
b. Dual Tone Multi-Frequency (DTMF) signaling

DTMF represent numerical digit by one pulse of a specific
frequency combination.
An average of 50 to 250
msec for every dialed digit.
-------------------------
Another 50 to 250 msec for
the interdigit interval.
Sample Problem:
Calculate the time saved in dialing 640-8267 using DTMF system over PD
system.
Solution:
DTMF system
tDTMF 7(0.25 sec) + 6(0.25sec) = 3.25 s
PD system
tPD 6(0.1 sec) + 4(0.1 sec) + 10(0.1 sec) + 8(0.1 sec)
2(0.1 sec) + 6(0.1 sec) + 7(0.1 sec) + 6(0.5 sec) = 7.3 sec
t = tPD tDTMF 4.05 s
Summary of Subscriber loop signaling
Signal From To Function
Informs central office that user

Off-Hook User C.O.
wants to place a call
Informs central office that user
On-Hook User C.O.
terminates the connection
Informs user that central office is
Dial tone C.O. User
ready to accept dialing
Informs user that destination
Busy signal C.O. User
phone is already in use
Ringback Informs user that the destination
C.O. User
Tone phone is ringing
Ringing Special voltage sent by C.O. to
C.O. User
voltage cause a phones bell to ring
Informs central office of call
Touch-tone User C.O.
destination
A combination of the on-hook and
off-hook signalsthe user quickly
Flash User C.O. depresses the switch-hook and
release it; often used to pick up a
waiting call
Call waiting Informs user that another call is
C.O. User
Tone waiting on the line

Frequency parameter
Frequency (Hz)
Signaling Cadence
350 440 480 620
Dial tone x x Continuous
0.5 sec ON
Busy tone x X
0.5 sec OFF
2 sec ON
Ringing tone x x
4 sec OFF
Call-waiting Single 500
x
tone ms pulse
Summary of Telephone standards
Item Standards
Line open circuit, min dc
On hook (idle status)
resistance 30k
Line closed circuit, max dc
Off hook (busy status)
resistance 200
Battery voltage -48 V
Operating current 20 to 80 mA, 40 mA typical
Subscriber-loop resistance 0 to 1300, 3600 (max)
Loop loss 8 dB typical, 17 dB max
Ringing voltage 90 Vrms, 20 Hz (typical)
Pulse dialing
Pulsing rate 10 pulses/sec +10%
Duty cycle 58 to 64% break
Touch tone dialing
Tone level -6 to -4 dBm
Maximum level +2 dBm
Frequency tolerance +1.5%
Pulse width 50 ms
Time between digits 50 ms minimum
E. .CENTREX & PABX.
1. Centrex
As a concept, Centrex (central exchange), is something of a step back
in time, providing PBX-like features through special software loaded
into the Central Office Exchange. Generally speaking, each Centrex
station is generally connected to the central exchange via an individual
twisted pair local loop.
2. Private Automatic Branch Exchanges (PABXs/PBXs)

Clearly, a better approach would involve effectively moving a partition
of the central office exchange to the customer premise. In this fashion,
a Private Automatic Branch of the Exchange (PABX) would yield
significant benefit to Telco and the user organization.
F. .TELEPHONE LOSSES.
1. Net Loss
The net loss of a transmission channel is the ratio of the signal power
at the input and the output of the channel.
Net Loss is measured at:

American and Canadian Plant 1004 Hz
European (CCITT) 1020 (formerly 800) Hz
2. Insertion Loss
The ratio of the power delivered from a source to a load, to the power
delivered from the same source to the same load through a
transducer.

3. Transducer Loss
The ratio of the maximum power available from a source to the power
delivered by that source to a load through a transducer.
4. Return Loss
A measure of the match between the two impedance on either side of
a junction point.
5. Echo Return Loss

The weighted power-average return loss at the reflection point
covering the band of approximately 500-2500 Hz.
6. Singing Return Loss

The same as Echo Return Loss, but over a considerably narrow band
near an edge of the voice band, e.g., 200-500 Hz or 2500-3200 Hz.
G. .CROSSTALK, SINGING, & ECHO.
1. Crosstalk
Unwanted interference or other signal picked up by one channel of an
electronic communications system from other channel.
Near-End Crosstalk
Measured on a channel at a receiving point near the sending point
of the interfering channel.
Far-End Crosstalk
Measured on a channel at a receiving point near the receiving
point of the interfering channel.
2. Singing
Singing is the result of sustained oscillations due to positive feedback
in telephone amplifiers or amplifying circuits.
3. Telephone Echo
Talker Echo
A signal returned to the talker after making one or more round
trips between the talker and a distant reflection point.
Listener Echo
A signal first returned down the talker at a distant reflection point
and then reflected again toward the listener.
H. .PROPAGATION TIME & VIA NET LOSS (VNL).
CCITT recommends the following limitations on mean, one-way

propagation time when echo source exist.
0 to 150 ms acceptable.
150 to 400 ms, acceptable, provided that care is exercised on
connection when the mean, one-way propagation time exceeds
about 300 ms.
Above 400 ms, unacceptable.
1. For Analog Network:
Delay (ms) = 12 + [0.004 x d(km) ]
2. For Digital Network:
Delay (ms) = 3 + [0.004 x d(km) ]

Sample Problem:
Calculate the one-way propagation delay for an analog network and digital
network which spans 5 km and 8 km respectively.
Solution:
For Analog Network
{ }
D = 12 + 0.004 x d(km) = 12 + (0.004 x 5) = 12.02 ms
For Digital Network
{ }
D = 3 + 0.004 x d(km) = 3 + (0.004 x 8) = 3.032 ms
Via Net Loss A concept or method of transmission planning that

permits a relatively close approach t an overall zero transmission loss
in the telephone network and maintains singing and echo within
specified limits.
L
VNL (dB ) = 0.2 + 0.4 dB VNL ( dB ) = 0.2 t + 0.4 dB
vp

L = one - way length of the trunk

d = velocity of propagatio n
t = one way propagatio n time delay in ms
ECE Board Exam APRIL 2003

A telephone signal takes 11.8 ms to reach its destination. Calculate the via
net loss required for an acceptable amount of echo?
Solution:
VNL(dB) = 0.2t + 0.4 dB = 0.2(11.8) + 0.4 = 2.76
I. .SUBSCRIBER LOOP DESIGN.
1. Two Basic Consideration
i. Resistance Limit
0.1095 R dc = loop resistance in / mi

R dc =
d2 d = diameter of the conductor in inches
Table of dc resistance per unit length of Subscriber cable
/1000 ft of /km of
Gauge /mi of loop
loop loop
26 83.5 440 268
24 51.9 274 168.5
22 32.4 171 106
19 16.1 85 53
Sample Problem:
If we want a 10-mi loop and allow 100/mi of loop. What diameter of
copper wire would we need?
Solution:
0.1095 0.1095
100 = d= = 0.033 in
d2 100
ii. Attenuation Limit

The maximum attenuation for a loop is limited to 6 dB.
Table of Loss per unit length of Subscriber cable

Loss
Gauge
dB/1000 ft dB/mi dB/km
26 0.51 2.69 1.61
24 0.41 2.16 1.27
22 0.32 1.69 1.01
19 0.21 1.11 0.46

Sample Problem:
Calculate the maximum loop length permissible for transmission design
consideration if we use a cable gauge of 19.
Solution:
max 6 dB
L max = = = 28.57 kft = 5.4 mi = 13.04 km
19 0.21 dB
1000 ft
Loading - a method of extending subscriber loop length by simply

inserting loading coil into the loop at fixed intervals.
Code Spacing Code Spacing

Letter (ft) Letter (ft)
A 700 E 5575
B 3000* F 2787
C 929 H 6000*
D 4500* Y 2130
*most used
2. Standard Approach to Subscriber Loop Design
Unigauge Design
Unigauge is a concept developed by BELL-CORE of North America.
This is done by reducing the gauge (diameter) of wire pairs as
much as possible while retaining specific resistance and
transmission limits.
Resistance Design
Resistance design is a method of designing subscriber loops based
on establishing a common maximum resistance limit for a switch.
This valued is set at 1300 primarily to control transmission loss.
Long Route Design

The long route design procedure uses several zones corresponding
to ranges of resistance in excess of 1300. LRD provides for a
specific combination of electronic range extenders and/or fixed-
gain devices to meet the supervision and loss criteria.
J. .MULTIPLEXING.
Multiplexing is a technique used in communications and input/output

operations for transmitting a number of separate signals simultaneously
over a single channel or line.
1. Time Division Multiplexing

Each communication channel is allotted a fixed time slot within a
sampling frame, occupying essentially the entire wideband frequency
i. T-Carrier System
Data Line
Voice Overhead
System Rate Rate Line Code
Channel (Mbps)
(Mbps) (Mbps)
T1 24 1.536 0.008 1.544 BPRZ
T2 96 6.144 0.168 6.312 B6ZS RZ
T3 672 43.008 1.728 44.736 B3ZS RZ
T4 4032 258.048 16.128 274.176 Polar NRZ
T5 8064 516.096 44.064 560.160 Polar NRZ
*BnZS denotes binary n-zero substitution
T5 = 2T4 = 12T3 = 84T2 = 336T1

ii. E-Carrier System
Voice Signaling Line Rate

System Total
Channel Channel (Mbps)
E1 30 2 32 2.048
E2 120 8 128 8.192
E3 480 32 512 32.768
E4 1920 128 2,048 131.072
E5 7680 512 8,192 524.288
E5 = 4E4 = 16E3 = 64E2 = 256E1
2. Frequency Division Multiplexing

A unique band of frequencies within the wideband frequency spectrum
of the medium is allotted to each communication channel on a
continuous time basis.
FDM Process
FDM Demultiplexing Process

i. AT&T FDM Hierarchy
Hierarchy JG MG SG G VB
Group --- --- --- --- 12
Supergroup --- --- --- 5 60
Mastergroup --- --- 10 50 600
Jumbogroup --- 6 60 300 3600
Superjumbogroup 3 18 180 900 10,800
Summary of BW and Occupied Spectrum
Parameter Group SG MG
2520 kHz (U600)
Bandwidth 48 kHz 240 kHz
2728 kHz (L600)
564-3084 kHz
Occupied (U600)
60-108 kHz 312-552 kHz
spectrum 60-2788 kHz
(L600)
ii. CCITTs FDM Hierarchy
Hierarchy MG SG G VB
Group --- --- --- 12
Supergroup --- --- 5 60
Mastergroup --- 5 25 300
Supermastergroup 3 15 75 900

K. .INTEGRATED SERVICE DIGITAL NETWORK.
1. HDSL
HDSL uses two twisted pair
(one transmit and one Data
receive) to support 1.544
Mbps at a full duplex at a
distance of up to 12,000 ft Voice
ISDN
from the RT. It uses a 2B1Q
line code if ISDN or
suppressed carrier version of
Video
QAM called carrierless
amplitude-phase (CAP)
2. SDSL
SDSL is a one pair version of HDSL. It provides full duplex to support
768 kbps in each direction using a hybrid or echo canceller to separate
data transmitted from data received.
3. ADSL
ADSL uses one twisted pair to support 6 Mbps sent downstream to the
customer and 640 kbps sent upstream over a distance of up to 12,000
ft. The ADSL spectrum is above 25 kHz. The band below 4 kHz is
used for a voice frequency POTS signal. Two variations of ADSL called
G.DMT and G.Lite.
G.DMT uses discrete multitone modulation with up to 256 carriers and up to 15

bits of data, 32,768 QAM, modulated on each carrier. G.DMT uses a splitter so
that the telephone handset will not short out the data signal and vice-versa.
4. VDSL
VDSL uses one pair of wires to support 25 Mbps downstream for
distances up to 3,000 ft from the RT or 51 Mbps downstream for
distances up to 1,000 ft.
5. ISDN Connections & Interface Units

Terminal Equipment (TE)

TE is the term for a functional device that connects a customer
site to ISDN services. Examples include computers, telephones,
facsimile machines, and videoconferencing units. TE1 has a built-
in ISDN interface, while TE2 devices do not have native ISDN
compatibility.
TE1 - Supports standard ISDN interfaces and therefore required no protocol

translation.
TE2 - This are classified as non-ISDN compatible, physical interface is used like
RS 232C and host computer with X.25.
Terminal Adapters (TAs)

TAs are interface adapters for connecting one or more TE2 (non-
ISDN) devices to an ISDN network. TAs acts as ISDN DCE, serving
a function equivalent to protocol or interface converters.
Network Termination type 2 (NT2s)

NT2s are intelligent devices responsible for the users side of the
connection to the network, performing such functions as
multiplexing, switching or ISDN concentration. A NT2 device would
likely be in the form of a PABX, LAN router or switching hub.
Used to terminate several S-point connections, provide local switching

function and 2-wire to 4-wire conversion & vice-versa.
Network Termination type 1 (NT1s)

NT1s physically connect the customer site to the carrier side of the
connection, performing such functions as signal conversion and
maintenance of the local loops electrical characteristics.
In a PRI environment, these functions are similar to those provided by Data

Service Units (DSUs) and Channel Service Units (CSUs).
In a BRI environment, these devices are TE1 devices.
Line Termination (LT)

LT provides physical interface function between C.O. and local loop
lines.
Exchange Termination (ET)

ET routes data to an outgoing channel or C.O. users.
Reference Points
R reference points - provides interface between a non-ISDN

device (TE2) to terminal adapters (TA).

S reference points - provides interface between an ISDN

compatible device (TE1) to network termination 2 (NT2), provide
the 2B+D data rate at 192 kbps.
T reference points - separate the network providers equipment

from the user equipment. Interface between NT2 and NT1.
U reference points - refer to interface between common carrier

subscriber loop and the C.O. switch, media interface between NT1
and C.O.
V reference points - media interface between LT and ET.
6. Data Rates
Symmetric
Upstream Downstream Maximum

System
Rate Rate Distance (ft)
High Bit Rate 1.544 Mbps 1.544 Mbps 12,000
HDSL 2.048 Mbps 2.048 Mbps 12,000

Single Line 1.544 to 1.544 to
10,000
(SDSL) 2.048 Mbps 2.048Mbps
ISDN (IDSL) 128 kbps 128 kbps 18,000
Asymmetric
Upstream Downstream Maximum

System
Rate (kbps) Rate Distance (ft)
Carrierless 64 kbps 1.544Mbps 8,000
Amplitude Phase
640 kbps 6.312Mbps 12,000
(CAP ADSL)
Discrete 176 kbps 1.544Mbps 18,000
Multitone 224-260
6.312Mbps 12,000
(DMT ADSL) kbps
Rate Adaptive 128 kbps 600 kbps to 18,000 to
(RADSL) to 1 Mbps 7Mbps 25,000
12.96Mbps 4,500
Very High Bit 1.6 to 2.3
25.82Mbps 3,000
Rate (VDSL) Mbps
51.84Mbps 1,000
Primary Rate Interface (PRI)

i. American standard
23B+D = 1.544 Mbps (similar to T1 line speed)
ii. European standard
30B+D = 2.048 Mbps (similar to E1 line speed)
Basic Rate Interface (BRI)

2B+D = 192 kbps
Data rate = 144 kbps
Bearer (2B) channel = 128 kbps using circuit switching
Signaling (D) channel = 16 kbps using packet switching
Overhead = 48 kbps
L. .TRAFFIC ENGINEERING.
1. Terminology
Concentration: The function associated with a switching network

having fewer outlets than inlet terminals.
Coordinate switch: a rectangular array of cross-points in which

one side of the crosspoint is multiplied in rows and the other side
in columns.
Crosspoint: A two-state switching device containing one or more

elements that a low transmission impedance in one state and a
very high one in the other.
Full availability: Property of a switch or switching network capable

of providing a path from every inlet terminal to every outlet
terminal.
Internal blocking: The inability to interconnect an idle inlet to an

inlet outlet because all possible paths between them are already in
use.
Number of crosspoint required = N (N - 1)/2
Busy hour: The continuous one-hour period that, on consecutive

days in the busy part of the year, contains the maximum average
traffic intensity.
Call: A discrete engagement or occupation of a traffic path.

Calling rate: The average number of calls placed during the busy
hour.
Occupancy: The traffic intensity per traffic path. One hundred

percent occupancy implies all paths busy.
Traffic Concentration: The average ratio of the traffic quantity

during the busy hour to the traffic quantity during the day.
Traffic intensity: The average number of calls present on a group

of traffic paths over a period of time.
Traffic path: A channel, time slot, frequency band, line, trunk,

switch, or circuit over which individual communications pass in
sequence.
Traffic quantity: The aggregate engagement time or occupancy

time of one or more traffic paths.
Call Intensity: For many traffic-carrying elements, the number of

calls making up the total traffic load is immaterial; the load
represented by two calls or ten minutes duration has the same
impact as one call of twenty minutes duration.
2. Traffic Unit
Erlang
The international dimensionless unit of traffic intensity. One
erlang is the traffic intensity represented by an average of one
circuit busy out of a group of circuits over some period of time.
Traffic Unit (TU)

1 TU is the average intensity in one or more traffic paths carrying
an aggregate traffic of 1 call-hour in 1 hour (the busy hour unless
otherwise specified).
Equated Busy-Hour Call (EBHC)

1 EBHC is the average intensity in one or more traffic paths
occupied in the busy-hour by one 2-min call or an aggregate
duration of 2 min.
A European unit of traffic intensity equal to 1/30 of an erlang.
Call-Hour
The quantity represented by one or more calls having an
aggregate duration of 1 hour.
Century or Hundred call-second per hour (CCS)

A unit of traffic intensity equal to 1/36 of an erlang.
Call-minute (Cm)
1 Cm is the quantity represented by one or more calls having an
aggregate duration of 1 minute.
Call-second (Cs)
1 Cs is the quantity represented by one or more calls having an
aggregate duration of 1 second.
Relation between different traffic units
1Erlang = 1 TU = 1 Ch = 60 Cm = 3600 Cs = 36 CCS = 30 EBHC
1 Erlang is equivalent to traffic intensity that keeps:

1 circuit busy 100% of the time, or
4 circuits busy 25% of the time, etc.
While 26 Erlangs is equivalent to traffic intensity that keeps:

26 circuits busy 100% of the time, or
104 circuits busy 25% of the time, etc.
1 ccs is volume of traffic equal to:

One circuit busy for 100 seconds, or
2 circuit busy for 50 seconds, or
50 circuits busy for 2 seconds, or
100 circuits busy for 1 second, etc.
The term ccs is unfortunately in common usage when traffic intensity,

not traffic volume is describe. Strictly speaking ccs/hr should be used for traffic
intensity and ccs for traffic volume.
3. Calling Rate (C)

The number of times a route or traffic path is used per unit period, or,
more properly defined, the call intensity per traffic path during the
busy hour
Average number of calls initiated per unit time (e.g. attempts per hour). a.k.a.
Arrival Rate

For n receive calls from a terminal in time t:
n
C=
t
For n receive calls from m terminals in time t:

a. Group Calling Rate
n
C group =
t
b. Per terminal Calling rate
n
C=
mx t
4. Holding time (T)

The duration of occupancy of a traffic path by a call. Sometimes used
to mean the average duration of occupancy of one or more paths by
calls.
5. Departure Rate ()
1
= T = mean holding time per call
T
6. Traffic Volume (usually in ccs)
where :
V = nx T V = volume of calls in time t
n = # of calls in time period t
T = mean holding time per call
7. Traffic Intensity (A)

Traffic intensity or traffic flow is a total traffic volume divided by the
duration of time.
i. For a single terminal

The traffic in Erlang is the average occupancy of the terminal while
the traffic intensity or traffic flow is just the percentage of time the
terminal is busy.
ii. For a group of circuits or terminal

a. The average number of circuits simultaneously busy within a
group.
b. The expected number of call arrivals per unit holding time
c. The number of circuits required to completely carry the offered

traffic if each circuit were operating at 100% occupancy.
n
A= xT A = C xT
t
C V
A= A=
t
where:
A = Traffic intensity in Erlang n = # of calls in time period t
T = mean holding time per call t = time period of observations
C = calling rate = departure rate
V = volume of calls
Sample Problem:
Suppose that the average holding time is 2.5 min per call and the calling
rate in the BH for a particular day is 237. Determine the traffic flow (A) in
call-minutes (Cm) and call-hours (Ch).
Solution:
A = CxT 1 Ch
A = 592 .5 Cm x
= 237 x 2.5 min 60 Cm
= 592.5 Cm = 9.87 Ch

Sample Problem:
Call established at 2 am between a central computer and a data terminal.
Assuming a continuous connection and data transferred at 34 kbit/s what is
the traffic if the call is terminated at 2:45 am?
Solution:
A = Cx T
1 hr
= 1 call x 45 min x
60 min
= 0.75 Erlang
Sample Problem:
A group of 20 subscribers generate 50 calls with an average holding time of
3 minutes, what is the average traffic per subscriber?
Solution:
1hr 2.5 Erlangs
A total = 50 calls x 3 min x A sub =
60 min 20 subscriber
= 2 .5 Erlangs 0.125 Erlang
=
subscriber
8. Offered Traffic (TO)

Offered traffic is the traffic intensity that would occur if all traffic
submitted to a group of circuits could be processed.
The volume of traffic offered to a switch.
9. Carrier Traffic (TC)

Carried traffic is the traffic intensity actually handled by the group of
circuits.
The volume of traffic actually carried by a switch.
10. Lost Traffic (TL)

Blocked traffic is that portion of traffic that cannot be processed by the
group of circuits.
The difference between the offered and carried traffic.

Relation between TO, TC, and TL
TO = TC + TL TL = T O x P (B ) TC = TO x (1 P(B))
Where P = Blocking Probability or Call Congestion
11. Circuit Utilization ()

The proportion of time a circuit is busy, or average proportion of time
each circuit in a group is busy. a.k.a. Circuit efficiency
TC where:
=
#N #N = no. of trunk circuits
Sample Problem:
Calculate the trunk efficiency for a group of 26 trunks that offers 10 Erlangs
of traffic and a blocking probability of 0.2%.
Solution:
TC
= TC = TO x(1 P(B))
#N
10(1 0.002)
=
26
= 0.384 38.4%
12. Grade of Service(GOS) or Blocking Probability(P(B))

A measure of probability that, during a specified period of peak traffic,
a call offered to a group of trunks of circuits will fail to find an idle
circuit at the first attempt. Usually applied to the busy hour of traffic.
TL TL
GoS = P(B) = =
TO TL + TC

Sample Problem:
If we know that there are 354 seizures (lines connected for service) and 6
blocked calls (lost calls) during the BH, what is the grade of service?
Solution:
# of lost calls
GOS =
# of offered calls
6
=
354 + 6
= 0.017
13. Illustration of Basic Relation between Offered Traffic, Carried Traffic,

Grade of Service and Trunk Utilization
Dedicated Service
Erlang
Offered Traffic 0.1 x150 = 15 Erlang
source
Grade of Service (GoS) Nonblocking (0%)
Carried Traffic TC (1 GoS) = 15(1 0) = 15 Erlang
15 Erlang
Trunk Utilization x100% = 10%
150 Trunks
150 ter min al
Terminal/Trunk ratio = 1 (Expensive)
150 trunks
Traffic-engineered Service
Erlang
Offered Traffic 0.1 x150 = 15 Erlang
source
Grade of Service (GoS) 1% blocking (Erlang B condition)
Carried Traffic TC (1 GoS) = 15(1 0.01) = 14.85 Erlang
14.85 Erlang
Trunk Utilization x100% = 61.875%
24 Trunks
150 ter min al
Terminal/Trunk ratio = 6.25 (Economical)
24 trunks
M. .BLOCKING PROBABILITY.
SCENARIO

1. Lost Calls Cleared (Blocked Calls Cleared)

The LCC concept, which is used primarily in Europe or those countries
accepting European practice, assumes that the user will hang up and
wait some time interval before reattempting if the user hears the
congestion signal on the first attempt. Such calls, it is assumed,
disappear from the system.
The assumption that calls not immediately satisfied at the first attempt are cleared
from the system and do not reappear during the period under consideration.
Used in the Erlang B Loss-probability equation.
Lost Calls Cleared

Call Behavior:
1st call arrived and is

served.
-----------------------
2nd call arrives but
server already busy
-----------------------
2nd call is CLEARED.
-----------------------
3rd call arrived and is
served.
-----------------------
4th call arrived and is
served.
An where :
GOS = PB = n n! A = traffic intensity in Erlang
Ax
x=0
x!
n = # of trunks
Sample Problem:
Suppose we use 5 trunks, and the route offered 1.66 Erlangs of traffic.
Calculate the grade of service required to implement this configuration.
Solution:
1.665

5!
GoS = x 100%
1.660 1.661 1.662 1.663 1.664 1.665
+ + + + +
0! 1! 2! 3! 4! 5!
= 2%
2. Lost Calls Delayed (Blocked Calls Wait)

The LCD concept assumes that the user is automatically put in queue
(a waiting line or pool). For example, this is done when the operator is
dialed. It is also done on most modern computer-controlled switching
systems, generally referred to under the blanket term stored program
control (SPC).
The assumption that calls not immediately satisfied at the first attempt are held in
the system until satisfied. Used in the Erlang C delay-probability equation.
Lost Calls Delayed

Call Behavior:

served.
-----------------------
server already busy
-----------------------
2nd call WAITS until
server is free
-----------------------
2nd call served.
-----------------------
3rd call arrives, waits
and is served.
-----------------------
4th call arrives, waits
and is served.

where :
z
PC = n 1 An n
Ax

z=
+z n! n A
x=0
x!
3. Lost Calls Held (Blocked Calls Held)

The LCH concept, which is the principal traffic formula used in North
America, assumes that the telephone user will immediately reattempt
the call on receipt of a congestion signal and will continue to redial.
This concept further assumes that such lost calls extend the average
holding time theoretically, and in this case the average holding time is
zero, and all the time is waiting time.
The assumption that calls not immediately satisfied at the first attempt are held in
the system until served or abandoned. Used in the Poisson loss-probability
equation.
Lost Calls Held

Call Behavior:

served.
-----------------------
server already busy
-----------------------
2nd call is HELD until
server is free
-----------------------
2nd call served.
-----------------------
3rd call arrives and is
served.
-----------------------
4th call arrives and is
served.
Poisson (Molina) Formula

Ax
PP = e A x!
x =n
N. .CHOICE OF FORMULA.
O. .CONGESTION.
1. Time Congestion
Proportion of time a system is congested (all servers busy).
Probability of blocking from point of view of servers.
2. Call Congestion
Probability that an arriving call is blocked.
Probability of blocking from point of view of calls.

Sample Problem:
On a particular traffic relation the calling rate is 461 (calls in a 1-hr period)
and the average call duration is 1.5 minutes during the busy hour. What is
the traffic intensity in Erlangs? In ccs?
Solution:
calls 1 hr
461 x 1 .5 min x = 11 .525 Erlangs
hr 60 min
36 ccs
11 .525 Erlangs x = 414 .9 ccs
1 Erlang
Sample Problem:
Company X has 10 employees, each placing an average of 20 minutes of
long-distance calls per day. The average call lasts 5 minutes. It has been
determined that 20% of the calls are made during the busy hour. A total of
4 external phone lines are used to place the pool of calls. Calculate the
traffic intensity in Erlang, during the busy hour.
Solution:
Each employee places on average
20 min calls
= 4
5 min day
For 10 employees, a total of
calls calls
4 x 10 = 40
day day
The traffic during the busy hour is
calls calls
20% x 40 =8
day hr
calls 1 Erlang
8 x 5 min x = 0.6667 Erlangs
hr 60 min
Sample Problem:
Suppose 100 data terminals are to be connected to a computer by way of
leased circuits:
1st plan: The terminals are clustered into four groups that use separate
groups of shared circuits.
2nd plan: Traffic from all terminals is concentrated into one group of
circuits.
Determine the cluster traffic in both cases assuming each terminal is active
10% of the time.
Solution:
a. For the 1st plan;
# of terminal for each cluster
100 ter min als ter min als
= 25
4 groups group
The total traffic for each cluster is
25 x 10% = 2.5 Erlangs
b. For the 2nd plan;

# of terminal for each cluster
100 ter min als ter min als
= 100
1 group group
The total traffic for the cluster is
100 x 10% = 10 Erlangs

I H
1. If there are 2800 maximum calls arriving per hour to a trunk circuits without
blocking, calculate the offered traffic for an average calling time of 1.76
minutes and compute the GoS for 2812 simultaneous calls.
A. 82.13 Erlangs, 0.43% B. 74.18 Erlangs, 0.22%
C. 143.66 Erlangs, 0.22% D. 88.88 Erlangs, 0.34%
2. If a group of user made 30 calls in one hour, and each call had an average call
duration of 5 minutes, this is equivalent to how many Erlangs of traffic?
A. 1.5 Erlang B. 8.5 Erlang
C. 12.5 Erlang D. 2.5 Erlang
3. The range of DC current that flows through a telephone is:

A. 20 A to 80 A B. 200 A to 800 A
C. 2 mA to 8 mA D. 20 mA to 80 mA
4. Calculate the blocking probability for a group of 6 trunks that is designed to

carry 3 Erlangs of traffic intensity using the Erlang B formula.
A. 3.33% B. 2.22%
C. 6.33% D. 5.22%
5. What frequencies are used in pressing 5?

A. 770 Hz, 1336 Hz B. 852 Hz, 1336 Hz
C. 770 Hz, 1209 Hz D. 852 Hz, 1633 Hz
6. The separation of control functions from signal switching is known as:

A. step-by-step switching control B. crossbar control
C. common control D. ESS
7. Find the holding time if 300 calls registered 13.5 erlang traffic?
A. 27 s B. 261 s
C. 162 s D. 22.23 s
8. "Bit-stuffing" is more formally called:

A. compensation B. rectification
C. justification D. frame alignment
9. If we wish to have a 10-mile long subscriber loop with a total resistance of

1300 ohms, find the diameter of the copper conductor to be used.
A. 0.0812 in B. 0.029 in
C. 0.0632 in D. 0.03256 in
10. For a certain telephone, the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook.
If the loop current is 40 mA, what is the DC resistance of the local loop?
A. 1300 ohms B. 1500 ohms
C. 1000 ohms D. 2300 ohms
11. For a certain telephone, the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook.
If the loop current is 40 mA, what is the DC resistance of the telephone?
A. 48 0hms B. 200 ohms
12. The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook is:

A. 48 volts DC B. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC
C. 90 volts DC D. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC
13. If a telephone voice signal has a level of 0 dBm, what is its level in dBrn?
A. -90 dBrn B. -85 dBrn
C. 90 dBrn D. 85 dBrn
14. In DS-1, bits are "robbed" in order to:

A. provide synchronization B. carry signaling
C. cancel echoes D. check for errors
15. A telephone test-tone has a level of 80 dBrn at a point where the level is +5dB
TLP. If C-weighting produces a 10-dB loss, what would the signal level be in
dBrnc0?
A. 80 dBrnC TLP B. 65 dBrnC TLP
C. 60 dBrnC TLP D. 75 dBrnC TLP
16. What is the approximate data rate for a system using 8 bits per sample and
running at 8000 samples per second?
A. 56 kbps B. 128 kbps
C. 64 kbps D. 384 kbps
17. If bits were "stolen" from every DS-1 frame, what would the useable data-rate
be for each channel in the frame?
18. POTS stands for:

A. Private Office Telephone System B. Primary Office Telephone Service
C. Primary Operational Test System D. Plain Old Telephone Service
19. Calculate the traffic flow in call-minute and call-hour if 100 calls are generated
in 1 hour of 3 minutes average duration.
A. 260 call-minute, 4 call-hour B. 600 call-minute, 10 call-hour
C. 300 call-minute, 5 call-hour D. 480 call-minute, 8 call-hour
20. DC current flows through a telephone:

A. when it is on hook
B. when it is off hook
C. as long as it is attached to a local loop
D. only when it is ringing

21. Calculate the dB of VNL required for a channel with a 3 ms delay.

A. 1 dB B. 1.4 dB
C. 0.4 dB D. 0.8 dB
22. Determine the actual traffic carried by a group of trunks with an offered traffic
of 20 Erlangs and 0.98785 blocking probability.
23. Signal loss is designed into a telephone system to:

A. eliminate reflections B. prevent oscillation
C. improve signal-to-noise ratio D. reduce power consumption
24. Calculate the blocking probability for a group of 4 trunks that offers 10 Erlangs
of traffic and a trunk efficiency of 88%.
A. 0.8666 B. 0.64666
C. 0.9666 D. 0.466
25. Call blocking:

A. cannot occur in the public telephone network
B. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure
C. occurs only on long-distance cables
D. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded
26. A single GSM carrier supports 8 (TDM) speech channels. If the traffic volume is
129.6 ccs. How many 3 minute calls does this represent?
A. 172 calls B. 7.2 calls
C. 72 calls D. 720 calls
27. The typical voltage needed to "ring" a telephone is:

A. 48 volts DC B. 48 volts, 20 Hz AC
C. 90 volts DC D. 90 volts, 20 Hz AC
28. VNL stands for:

A. voltage net loss B. volume net loss
C. via net loss D. voice noise level
29. If we know that there are 512 seizures (lines connected for service) and 24
blocked calls (lost calls) during the BH, what is the grade of service?
A. 0.017 B. 0.032
C. 0.045 D. 0.067
30. SLIC stands for:

A. Single-Line Interface Circuit B. Standard Line Interface Card
C. Subscriber Line Interface Card D. Standard Local Interface Circuit
31. On a particular traffic relation the calling rate is 461 and the average call
duration is 1.5 min during the BH. What is the traffic intensity in CCS?
A. 345.75 CCS B. 414.9 CCS
C. 1,152.5 CCS D. 691.5 CCS
32. The reference noise level for telephony is:

A. 1 mW B. 0 dBm
C. 1 pW D. 0 dBr
33. In loading cable 26B66 means _____.

A. 26 gauge every 2000 ft with 66 pH inductors
B. 26 gauge every 4000 ft with 66 nH inductors
C. 26 gauge every 3000 ft with 66 mH inductors
D. 26 gauge every 6000 ft with 66 H inductors
34. The BRI requires _____ kbps of digital transmission capacity without overhead.
A. 64 B. 144
C. 128 D. 192
35. PSTN stands for:

A. Public Switched Telephone Network
B. Private Switched Telephone Network
C. Primary Service Telephone Network
D. Primary Service Telephone Numbers
36. 0.005 of GoS means_____.

A. 1 call in 20 would be lost because of insufficient equipment
B. 2 call in 400 would be lost because of insufficient equipment
C. 5 call in 100 would be lost because of insufficient equipment
D. 10 call in 20000 would be lost because of insufficient equipment
37. How many connections are needed to connect 50 subscribers directly?

A. 2125 B. 2450
C. 1225 D. 2521
38. A T-1 multiplexer has _____ channels.

A. 12 B. 24
C. 96 D. 32
39. In ISDN, the _____ is a 16 kbps or 64 kbps digital channel used to carry
signaling information.
A. D-channel B. A-channel
C. B-channel D. C-channel
40. The number of voice channels in a basic FDM group is:

A. 6 B. 12
C. 24 D. 60
41. Calculate the blocking probability for a group of 4 trunks that offers 10 Erlangs
of traffic and a trunk efficiency of 2.6%.
A. 0.8966 B. 0.966
C. 0.98966 D. 0.866
42. Local loops terminate at:

A. a tandem office B. a toll station
C. a central office D. an interexchange office
43. Determine the actual traffic carried by a group of trunks with an offered traffic
of 10 Erlangs and 0.64666 blocking probability.

44. A particular exchange has been dimensioned to handle 1000 calls during the
busy hour. On a certain day during the BH 1100 calls are offered. What is the
resulting grade of service?
A. 1 B. 10
C. 0.01 D. 0.1
45. Loading coils were used to:

A. increase the speed of the local loop for digital data
B. reduce the attenuation of voice signals
C. reduce crosstalk
D. provide C-type conditioning to a local loop
46. The PRI in ISDN consist of 23 or 30B-for user data and a single _____ kbps D-
channel for signaling.
A. 16 B. 32
C. 64 D. 48
47. How long does it take to dial 1234560 in sec using pulse dialing?
A. 1.5 sec B. 3.4 sec
C. 4.8 sec D. 6.1 sec
48. ADSL stands for:

A. All-Digital Subscriber Line
B. Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line
C. Allocated Digital Service Line
D. Access to Data Services Line
49. _____ refers to the percentage of time a circuit or facility is in use.

A. reliability B. traffic
C. occupancy D. availability
50. What is the mean holding time if the traffic carried is 4.56 Erlang. The number
of calls received is 200 in a given EBHC?
A. 273.6 sec B. 41.04 sec
C. 14.08 sec D. 82.08 sec
51. The 23 B+D Channel used in North American and Japan uses total transmission
capacity of _____ Mbps with overhead.
A. 2.048 B. 1.920
C. 1.536 D. 1.544
52. A group of trunks offered 10 Erlangs of traffic, and 0.002 GoS. Calculate the
trunk efficiency assuming 20 trunks.
A. 49.9% B. 89.9%
C. 29.9% D. 69.9%
53. In loading cable 19H88 means _____.

A. 19 gauge every 3000 ft with 88 H inductors
B. 19 gauge every 6000 ft with 88 mH inductors
C. 19 gauge every 2000 ft with 88 nH inductors
D. 19 gauge every 4000 ft with 88 pH inductors
54. A group of 20 subscribers generate 50 calls with an average holding time of 3

minutes, what is the average traffic per subscriber?
A. 0.125 Erlang/subscriber B. 12.5 Erlang/subscriber
C. 0.0125 Erlang/subscriber D. 1.25 Erlang/subscriber
55. If there are 3000 calls arriving per hour to a trunk circuits with an average
calling time of 1.76 minutes, calculate the traffic intensity.
A. 48 Erlangs B. 88 Erlangs
C. 68 Erlangs D. 78 Erlangs
56. Traffic _____ is the sum of the holding times of the traffic carried by a pool of
resources over a given period of time.
A. capacity B. volume
C. transit D. intensity
57. Calculate the actual data rate of T3 facilities.

A. 45.078 Mbps B. 44.736 Mbps
C. 1.728 Mbps D. 44.008 Mbps
58. A switching machine is set to accept pulsed at a rate of 10 pulses/sec with a 60

% break, find the make interval of the switch,.
A. 0.4 s B. 0.6s
C. 40 ms D. 60 ms
59. The BRI in ISDN consist of _____ B-channel (S) and D-channel.
A. 1 B. 23
C. 2 D. 30
60. A data transmission facility is encapsulating 4096 bytes of data to form a single
packet. Assuming the system is using T1 line, how many packets are
transmitted per second ignoring overhead?
A. 57.12 packets B. 47.12 packets
C. 67.12 packets D. 77.12 packets
61. A switch could support a maximum of 9800 seizures during the busy hour.
Calculate the number of block calls during the BH if the GoS is 0.245%.
A. 48 calls will be block B. 12 calls will be block
C. 24 calls will be block D. 96 calls will be block
62. On a particular traffic relation, the calling rate is 825. If the traffic intensity is
990 CCS during the BH, what is the average call duration?
A. 2 minutes B. 12 minutes
C. 6 minutes D. 8 minutes
63. A telephone signal takes 2 ms to reach its destination. Calculate the VNL
required for an acceptable amount of echo.
A. 0.2 dB B. 0.8 dB
C. 0.6 dB D. 0.4 dB

64. The ff. information was recorded in a 5 trunk network from 9:00-10: am
Trunk 1 48 minutes
2 56 min and 28 sec
3 18 min
4 25 min and 24 sec
5 42 min
Find the traffic carried by the network in Erlang.
65. In ISDN, the _____ is a 64 kbps digital channel that can carry a user data or
digitized voice.
A. A-channel B. C-channel
C. B-channel D. D-channel
66. A duration of traffic occupancy from a call, sometimes referred to as an

average duration of occupancy of one or more path from calls.
A. traffic B. average call
C. Busy hour D. holding time
67. Out of the total capacity required by the BRI _____ kbps is used for overhead.
A. 48 B. 144
C. 64 D. 16
68. Find the maximum length of the subscriber loop with the ff. specs.
Allowable loss of 6dB using a #24 cable and resistance limit of 1200 ohms
a. 7.19 kft B. 13.73 kft
c. 14.63 kft D. 11.76 kft
69. One Erlang is equal to _____.

A. 360 CCS B. 3.6 CCS
C. 100 CCS D. 36 CCS
70. What is the line rate of T1 and E1 respectively?

A. 2.048 Mbps and 1.544 Mbps B. 384 Mbps and 2.048 Mbps
C. 1.544 Mbps and 2.048 Mbps D. 1.455 Mbps and 2.408 Mbps
71. ____ is the type of telephone switch having vertical and horizontal paths, and
electromagnetically operated means for interconnecting any one of the vertical
paths with any of the horizontal paths
A. cross bar B. step by step
C. strowger D. Hybrid
72. What is a leased line?

A. A piece of wire used in local area network in one building
B. A piece of wire connecting a telephone set to a PABX
C. A temporary connection of one computer to a mainframe via a modern and
a telephone line
D. A permanent circuit for a private use within a communication network
73. Which of the following devices increases the battery voltage on a loop and
extends its signaling range?
A. VF repeater B. VF amplifier
C. Loop extender D. BORSCHT
74. One Erlang of traffic is equal to _____ call seconds

A. 60 B. 1800
C. 360 D. 3600
75. The 23 B+D Channel used in North American and Japan uses total transmission
capacity of ____ Mbps with overhead
A. 1.536 B. 1.544
C. 2.048 D. 1.920
76. Blocked calls delayed condition specified delay probability

A. Erlang B B. Erlang C
C. Erlang D D. Poisson
77. A (an) ___ call attempt is one that cannot be further advanced towards its
destination due to an equipment shortage or failure in the network.
A. lost B. abandoned
C. barred D. terminated
78. In TDM, multiple signals share a channel by transmitting in different

A. intervals B. frequency bands
C. sampling rates D. amplitudes
79. ____ is a telephone service which enable to user to dial directly telephones
outside the users local area without the aid of the operator
A. ISDN B. DDD
C. DID D. Bypass
80. The point between the network termination equipment and the terminal
equipment is known as the _____ reference point.
A. R B. U
C. L D. S
81. Terminal equipment which are non-ISDN compatible can be attached to an

ISDN network by using a special
A. modem B. Front end processor
C. Terminal adapter D. bridge
82. Terminal equipment which are ISDN compatible are generally referred to as
A. TE1 B. IBP
C. Smart terminals D. Dumb terminals
83. The basic switching element in a PAM multiplexer is a (an)

A. ADC B. MOSFET
C. DAC D. Bandpass filter
84. In PCM, analog signals are transmitted as

A. supergroups B. pulses
C. binary codes D. packets
85. The time period which all channels are sampled once is called
A. slot B. domain
C. cycle D. frame

86. ____ is a voice operated device that inserts a high loss in the opposite direction
of transmission of the talking party.
A. hybrid B. 2 wire circuit
C. VNL D. Echo suppressor
87. _____ is a signal returned to the talker after making one or more round trips
between the talker and the listener
A. singing B. jitter
C. echo D. crosstalk
88. The BRI in ISDN consist of ____ B-channel (S) and D-channel.
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
89. An even faster class of ISDN interface standards presently being developed is
called
A. narrowband ISDN B. broadband ISDN
C. ATM D. Frame relay
90. Current ISDN standards requires ____ twisted pairs for the PRI transmission
A. 3 B. 6
C. 1 D. 2
91. Traffic ____ is the sum of the holding times of the traffic carried by a pool of
resources over a given period of time
A. volume B. transit
C. intensity D. capacity
92. _____ is a service in which a telephone or PBX location is directly connected to

a central office in a distant city via a private line, instead of being connected
directly to the central office in that location
A. bypass service B. remote switching unit
C. foreign exchange D. diversion
93. A signaling method with set combinations of two specific voice-band

frequencies, one of which is selected from a group of 4 lower frequencies and
the other from a group of either 3 or 4 relatively high frequencies
A. Out of Band B. Channel Associated
C. In Band D. DTMF
94. PABX means

A. private all purpose broadcasting exchange
B. public access bi-directional exchange
C. private automatic branch exchange
D. public automatic branch exchange
95. In ISDN, the ___ is a 64 kbps digital channel that can carry a user data or
digitized voice
A. A-channel B. C-channel
C. B-channel D. D-channel
96. ISDN is defined as the network that provides an end to end ___ to support a
wide range of services including non-voice services
A. transparency B. switching
C. connectivity D. interfacing
97. The international body which issues recommendations for standards relating to
telecommunications is the
A. IEEE B. ETSI
C. CCIR D. CCITT
98. The multiplexer and demultiplexer are kept in step with one another by a (an)
A. clock B. header
C. sync pulse D. sequencer
99. A ___ is a local automatic telephone office serving extensions is a business

complex and providing access to the public network
A. concentrator B. FEX
C. PAX D. PABX
100. A T-1 multiplexer has ____ channels

A. 24 B. 32
C. 64 D. 1024
101. The standard word size in a PCM audio system is ___ bits
A. 16 B. 8
C. 32 D. 64
102. The primary benefit of multiplexing is

A. redundancy B. economy
C. speed D. error detection
103. What is an echo?

A. a signal of the same amplitude but 180 degrees out of phase from the
original signal and mixed with the original signal at the transmitter to
produce a more negligible output signal
B. a wave which has been reflected or otherwise returned with sufficient
magnitude and delay for it to perceptible in some manner as a wave
distinct from that directly transmitted
C. the signal having a higher frequency than the original and transmitted back
to earth by a passive satellite
D. reflected signal
104. What is a communication link?

A. it is a channel or circuit intended to connect other channels or circuits
B. it is a piece of wire that is connect to the ground terminals of all
communications equipments in one establishment
C. it is a cable connecting a transmitter to the antenna
D. it refers to a radio link
105. The ISDN network equipment which are installed in the customer premises is
called the ___ equipment
A. terminal B. DTE
C. Adapter D. Server

106. A voice grade channel is suitable for transmission of

A. signals with a frequency from 300 to 3400 Hz
B. VHF signals
C. UHF signals
D. VHF and UHF signals
107. What is trunk?

A. the base of the communications tower
B. a line connecting the telephone set to a PABX
C. a telephone line connecting two central offices
D. refers to the body of the tree
108. What is a four-wire circuit?

A. is a circuit with three output terminals and one input terminal
B. is used between serving central offices for long distance connections, with
one being pair being used for each direction of transmission
C. is an oscillator that produces simultaneously four different frequencies
D. a circuit consisting of four transmission lines
109. For every button pressed on the touch tone telephone, how many signals are
transmitted to the CO?
A. Two VHF signals
B. Two audio frequency tones
C. One VHF signal and one audio frequency tone
D. Three audible tones
110. The physical connection between the telephone set at the switching
equipment is called the
A. trunk line B. link
C. subscriber loop D. leased line
111. The transmission of information from multiple sources occurring in the same
facility but not the same time
A. FDM B. TDM
C. WDM D. CDM
112. The BRI requires ___ kbps of digital transmission capacity without overhead
A. 64 B. 144
C. 128 D. 192
113. What is an Erlang?

A. it is equal to the number of simultaneous calls originated during a specific
hourly period
B. it is a unit of magnetic field intensity measured around a conductor
C. it is the number of erroneous bits received per unit of time
D. it is unit of electrical energy radiated in space
114. The PRI in ISDN consist of 23 or 30B-for user data and a single ___ kbps
D-channel for signaling
A. 16 B. 23
C. 32 D. 64
115. What is the traffic model about block calls cleared condition specified
blocking probability?
A. Erlang B B. Erlang C
C. Erlang D D. Poisson
116. A touch tone telephone generates how many different tones

A. 10 audio frequency tones
B. 8 audible tone frequencies
C. 4 VHF signals
D. 16 audio frequency tones
117. ______ is the operation of the switch selector in searching terminals until an-
idle one is found
A. hunting B. insulation effective
C. elective D. loop
118. What is a concentration?

A. A system that improves the signal to noise ratio by compressing the
volume range of a signal
B. A switching system that lets a large number of transmission lines or a
narrower bandwidth
C. A device that varies the characteristics of a carrier signal in the accordance
with the waveform of a modulating signal which contains useful
information
D. An equipment in the central office
119. Which of the following wire is used to transmit the signal?

A. black B. green
C. yellow D. red
120. A device converts a 2 wire circuit to a 4 wire circuit

A. RS 232 interference B. Hybrid circuit
C. Balun D. Stub
121. A passive ____ is an electronic device which reduce signal strength by a

specified amount in dB
A. splitter B. filter
C. himmer D. attenuator
122. What is a multi drop line?

A. A line or circuit interconnecting several stations
B. A piece of wire with a thick insulating material that serves to protect the
conductive material form damage in the event the wire is dropped
C. A line designed to withstand high pressure
D. A bus line
123. _______ is a trunk between two central offices in the same switching center
complex.
A. intraoffice B. foreign exchange
C. intertoll D. ileline
124. AWG #26 has a typical loss of

A. 0.21 dB/1000 ft B. 0.32 dB/1000 ft
C. 0.51 dB/1000 ft D. 0.41 dB/1000 ft
125. Which the following is commonly used in wire for subscribers loop design?
A. AWG #18 B. AWG #30
C. AWG #33 D. AWG #19
126. What is singing?

A. An undesired self sustained oscillation in a system, generally caused by
excessive positive feedback
B. The result of the intermodulating two or more signals of different
frequencies to produce a tone having a frequency higher than that of the
highest frequency
C. the result of intermodulating two or more signals of different frequencies to
produce a tone having a frequency equal to the sum of the frequencies of
the signals intermodulated
D. The art of entertainment that can make one rich
127. _______ is the uninterrupted of 60 minutes for which the average intensity
of traffic is at the maximum
A. maximum access time B. busy hour
C. maximum occupancy D. peak traffic
128. _______ is the probability of the call being blocked during the busy hour
because of insufficient equipment or trunks
A. contention B. grade of service
C. Poisson distribution D. Lockout
129. Presently, this is the standard frequency bandwidth for voice transmission
A. 300 to 3400 Hz B. 0 to 4000 Hz
C. 100 to 3400 Hz D. 300 to 3000 Hz
130. The resistance limit for No. 2 Crossbar Exchange (US) is

A. 2000 ohms B. 1250 ohms
131. What is the standard voice channel spacing?

A. 44 MHz B. 4 kHz
C. 40 kHz D. 40 MHz
132. Which of the following responds to the request of a subscriber by sending a

dial tone?
A. line finder B. connector
C. first selector D. line equipment
133. Combination of modulator, channel and detector

A. transceiver B. transponder
C. Discrete channel D. T/R channel
134. It is a advantage of side tone

A. transmission efficiency is increased
B. assures the customer that the telephone is working
C. speaker increases his voice resulting in a strengthen signal
D. no dissipation of energy in the balance network
135. What is a two-wire circuit?

A. A circuit usually in the subscribers loop, between the telephone set and the
local control office
B. A circuit having two terminals, both terminals having the same
instantaneous voltage
C. A circuit with one input terminal, one output terminal and a common
ground
D. A circuit consisting of two transmission lines
136. What is the local loop of a telephone system?

A. it is a group of wires connecting a telephone set to a modem
B. it is a four wire circuit connecting a facsimile machine into a computer
C. it is a two-wire or four-wire communication circuit between the customers
premise and the central office
D. it is a single piece of wire connecting the subscribers telephone set into
another set in an adjacent room
137. The corresponding frequency for the digit 7 in the touch tone telephone is
A. 770 and 1477 Hz B. 852 and 1209 Hz
C. 852 and 1336 Hz D. 770 and 1336 Hz
138. The D-channel messages in an ISDN network are ____ switched

A. circuit B. time
C. packet D. virtual
139. The standard audio sampling rate in a PCM telephone system is ____ kHz
A. 2 B. 4
C. 8 D. 16
140. When human voice and music are transmitted, the type of communications
employed is known as
A. radio telegraphy B. radio telephony
C. audio frequency D. wired radio
141. When one channel picks up the signal carried by another channel
A. echo B. party line
C. crosstalk D. cross link
142. The circuit connecting a subscriber station with the line terminating
equipment in a central office is called
A. local loop B. tie line
C. trunk D. subscriber drop
143. ______ refers to the percentage of time a circuit or facility is in use

A. availability B. traffic
C. reliability D. occupancy
144. In an ISDN network, the _____ blank provides only OSI layer functions
including the electrical and physical termination of the network on the customer
premises
A. NT2 B. TE1
C. NT1 D. TE2

145. ADSL increases existing twisted-pair access capacity by

A. threefold B. twofold
C. fiftyfold D. thirtyfold
146. The 1948 theorem which is the basis for understanding the relationship of
channel capacity, bandwidth, signal-to-noise ratio is known as
A. Reeve's Law B. Shannon's Law
C. Nyquist Law D. Hartley Law
147. What appears to be the practical limit for analog modems over the standard
telephone network?
A. 19.2 kbps B. 24 kbps
C. 33 kbps D. 28.8 kbps
148. Digital subscriber line (DSL) refers to

A. a connection created by a modem pair enabling high-speed
communications
B. a specific length of wire
C. a specific gauge of wire used in modem communications
D. a modem enabling high-speed communications
149. ______ and HDSL are essentially equivalent technologies.

A. SONET B. ATM
C. T1/ E1 D. ETHERNET
150. What is the source of limitation on the bandwidth of the public switched
network?
A. local loop B. subscriber line
C. telset D. the core network
151. The practical upper limit of length of ADSL is

A. 18,000 ft B. 6,000 ft
C. 12,000 ft D. 36,000 ft
152. T1 and _____ refer to the same multiplexing system.

A. DS-1 B. STM-1
C. OC-1 D. STS-1
153. The correct order of fax call phases is which of the following?
A. call setup, pre-image handshake, line testing sequence, image
transmission
B. call setup, line testing sequence, pre-image handshake, image
transmission
C. line testing sequence, call setup, pre-image handshake, image
transmission
D. pre-image handshake, line testing sequence, call setup, image
transmission
154. A gigahertz-based coax line is capable of delivering how many times more
bandwidth than copper?
A. 2 B. 50
C. 1,000 D. 10,000
155. What is the bandwidth of the telephone system?

A. 535 - 1605 kHz B. 340 - 15,000 Hz
C. 300 - 3400 Hz D. 88 - 108 Hz
156. Which of these is specified by C-conditioning?

A. signal to noise ratio B. harmonic distortion
C. gain/attenuation distortion D. phase hits
157. Long distance trunk lines operate as _______ lines.

A. simplex B. half duplex
C. full duplex D. full/full duplex
158. Pulse spreading is a result of

A. relative delay distortion B. phase impulse hits
C. phase jitter D. amplitude jitter
159. Which measurement compares signal strength to noise level?

A. impulse hits B. attenuation/gain distortion
C. signal to noise ratio D. amplitude jitter
160. Which telephone line impairment is a change in signal amplitude for a short
time duration?
A. white noise B. interference
C. harmonic distortion D. gain hit
161. Line conditioning is performed on

A. dial up lines B. leased lines
C. private lines D. both B and C
162. Envelope delay distortions a measure of

A. relative time delay across the bandwidth
B. amplitude variations across the bandwidth
C. phase variations in signals across the bandwidth
D. signal attenuation across the bandwidth
163. D-conditioning defines specifications of

A. propagation delay variations B. interference limits
C. signal to noise ratio D. amplitude variations
164. What is done to a telephone line to tighten gain/attenuation parameters?

A. it is replaced with fiber cable
B. it is switched to a different line
C. it is conditioned
D. it is replaced with new copper lines
165. Time division multiplexing

A. divides packets into audio cells to be placed on the telephone lines
B. assigns channels to different frequencies in the transmission band width
C. assigns time slots to each channel's packet sections
D. uses asynchronous data transmission only

166. What is a disadvantage of time division multiplexing (TDM)?

A. slower transmission rates B. large packet sizes
C. small bandwidth D. more overhead
167. What is the purpose of using alternate mark inversion and return to zero
encoding of data?
A. faster digital data transmission
B. assist in clock recovery
C. more efficient transmission of analog data
D. reduced susceptibility to noise
168. How many channels are used to make up a group level channel in frequency
division multiplexing?
A. 600 B. 60
C. 300 D. 12
169. ISDN is
A. a transport type protocol that uses the plain old telephone system
B. a data link protocol that uses HDLC as a basis
C. an integrated syntax network
D. digital interface system
170. The U.S. primary rate interface (PRI) data rate is

A. 1. 544 Mbps B. 2.048 Mbps
171. Which ISDN block is responsible for converting non-ISDN format?

A. TE 2 B. TE 1
C. TA D. NT 1
172. Which type of media is least susceptible to electrical interference?

A. microwave B. unshielded twisted pair cable
C. shielded twisted pair cable D. fiber optics
173. What is the composition of a ISDN BRI (basic rate interface)?

A. B + 2D B. 2B + D
C. 23B + D D. 30B + D
174. What TELCO parameter limits the type of modem that can be used with a
given data rate?
A. bandwidth B. attenuation
C. line impedance D. noise
175. Which of these is NOT a currently used method of multiplexing data channels
onto a single transmission medium?
A. time division multiplexing
B. code division multiplexing
C. wave division multiplexing
D. encrypted division multiplexing
Section Facsimile Read it

till it
13 Transmission Hertz!
DEFINITION. Facsimile - A form of communication system that copies,

sends, and receives documents by way of telephone lines. Also called faxing,
this method of communication allows people to share exact copies of important
papers by duplicating and sending them on one end, and then receiving and
reproducing them on the other.
From Latin facere to do, make + simile , similar.
DEFINITION. Scanning - A process of directing a light-sensitive device over

a surface in order to convert an image into digital or electronic form for further
storage, retrieval, and transmission.
1843 Scottish physicist Alexander Bain patented the first facsimile device.
The device generated electrical impulses by passing a metal rod over a
page that contained raised metal letters.
1902 German physicist Arthur Korn transmitted photographs from one

device to another over telephone lines, but the basis for modern fax
machines did not appear until 1925.
1925 French inventor Edouard Beeline introduced the Belinograph. Beelines

facsimile machine used a powerful light beam and a photoelectric cell
to convert the light, or the absence of light, on an image into electrical
impulses.
1966 Xerox Corporation began manufacturing a small facsimile machine that

could be connected to any telephone line.

3-160 FACSIMILE TRANSMISSION
A. .SCANNING MECHANISM.
FLYING SPOT SCANNING

A finely focused spot of light from
the illuminating source is directed
at each pixel in turn, and a single
broad-angle photocell is used to
sense the level of the reflected
light from it.
FLYING SENSOR SCANNING

The document is completely
floodlit and a single photocell is
optically focused on the desired
pixel.
ELECTRONIC SCANNING
The document is floodlit and the
entire image is optically focused
on a photosensitive surface or
photocell array. Scanning is
controlled electronically and the
source and sensor remain fixed in
position.
B. .FACSIMILE RECEIVER.
1. Synchronization
It is necessary for the receiver scanner and the transmitter scanner to
run at exactly the same speed. If the receiver runs at slightly faster
speed than the transmitter, then each scan line will overlap into the
following scan line and delay its start, causing the image to skew
diagonally to the right.
2. Phasing
If the receiver and transmitter are in synchronism, but the receiver
starts a new line either too early or too late, the image will wrap
around.
C. .INDEX OF COOPERATION.
The width to height ratio of the document reproduced at the receiver must
be the same as that of the originating document if distortion is to be
avoided. The IOC is a number derived from width-to-height ratio for
proper image reproduction.
1. IEEE Standard
IOC General Solution
In terms of Source IOC ( IEEE ) = S x W

width & Scan density
In terms of width-to- W
IOC ( IEEE ) = n x
height ratio L

2. CCITT Standard
CCITT developed a slightly different definition of IOC, which is directly
applicable to DRUM scanners.
Parameters General Solution
D
IOC IOC ( CCITT ) =
P
Drum
W = D
Circumference
1
Scan Density S=
P
3. Relationship between IEEE and CCITT IOC
IOC ( IEEE )
IOC ( CCITT ) =

where:
IOC = index of cooperation
S = scan density or resolution in lines mm
W = widthof the source document or scan stroke length in mm
L = document length in mm
n = total number of lines in document height
D = drum diameter in mm
P = scanning pitch in mm line
Sample Problem:
Calculate the index of cooperation for a facsimile machine with a drum
diameter of 70.4 mm and the scanning pitch of 0.2 mm per scan.
Solution:
For CCITT Standard: For IEEE Standard:
IOC(CCITT ) =
D IOC(IEEE) = IOC(CCITT ) x
P = 352 x
70.4
= = 352 = 1106
0.2
Sample Problem:
Calculate the drum diameter in mm and scan density of a fax transmission
with an IOC (IEEE) equal to 900 received by a drum scanner that uses 8-in
wide paper.
Solution:
For the drum diameter: For the scan density:
W 8 in IOC(IEEE) 900
D= = S= =
W 8 in
2.54 cm 10 mm lines 1 in 1 cm
= 2.546 in x x = 112.5 x x
1 in 1cm in 2.54 cm 10 mm
= 64.67 mm lines
= 4.42
mm
Sample Problem:
Find the IEEE and CCITT IOC for a facsimile drum scanner with an FCC
specification of 18.85 in for line length and 96 lines/in scan density.
Solution:
For IEEE Standard: For CCITT Standard:
IOC(IEEE) = S xW IOC(IEEE)
IOC(CCITT ) =
lines
= 96 x18.85 in
in 1809.6
= = 576
= 1809.6

D. .IMAGE DISTORTION DUE TO IOC INCOMPATIBILITY.
Receiver IOC equal to

transmitter IOC
Receiver IOC greater

than to transmitter IOC
Receiver IOC less than to

transmitter IOC
E. .ANALOG FAX TRANSMISSION.
Parameters General Solution
Pixel density for

NPX = W x S
flat-bed scanner
Pixel density for drum D

NPX =
scanner P
rpm
Line Scan rate RS =
60
Pixel rate R PX = NPX x R S
R PX
Output frequency f=
2
n
Transmission time td =
R PX
Sample Problem:
A certain drum scanner has a pitch of 0.26 mm/line and a diameter of 68.4
mm. The drum rotates at 120 rpm and scans a total of 1075 lines for a
standard document page. Find the # of pixel in a scan line, the scan and
pixel rate, output frequency of the transmission channel and the length of
time required transmitting a page.
Solution:
For the number of pixel in a scan line; For the pixel rate;
D 68.4 RPX = NPX x R S = 826.5 x 2
NPX = =
P 0.26
pixels
pixels = 1653
= 826.5 sec
line
For the scan rate; For the output frequency;

rpm 120 RPX 1653
RS = = fMAX = =
60 60 2 2
lines = 826.5 Hz
=2
sec
For the transmission time
n 1075
td = =
60RS 60 x 2
= 8.96 min

F. .CCITT FACSIMILE STANDARDS.
Group Standards
Use analog transmission by FM where
WHITE is 1300 Hz and BLACK is 2100 Hz.
North American equipment uses 1500 Hz for
Group 1 WHITE and 2300 Hz for BLACK.
G1 Or GI
The scanning resolution is 96 lines/inch
The average transmission speed is 6

minute/page for an A4 paper.
Use analog transmission by using FM or
vestigial sideband AM. The vestigial
sideband plus part of the upper sideband is
Group 2 transmitted
G2 Or GII The resolution is 96 lines/inch
The transmission speed is 3 minutes or less

for an A4 page.
Use digital transmission by PCM with black

and white only or up to 32 shades of gray.
Either PSK or QAM is used to achieve
Group 3 transmission speeds up to 9600 baud.
G3 Or GIII
The resolution is 200 lines/inch
The transmission speed is less than 1

minute per page with 15 to 30 seconds
being typical.
Use digital transmission at 56 kbps.
Group 4
The resolution is up to 400 lines/inch
G4 Or GIV
The speed of transmission is less than 5
seconds per page.
G. .EIA FACSIMILE STANDARDS.
Parameter Standards
Frequency 300 Hz
Index of
576
Cooperation
1500 Hz for Black
Modulation
2300 Hz for White
Alternating black and white modulated
Start Signal
at a rate of 300 Hz for a period of 5s.
25 second transmission (95% of each
Phasing Signal
line in BLACK, then 5% of WHITE)
Alternating black and white interrupted
Stop Signal at a rate of 450 Hz for 5 s, then black
transmission for a period of 10 s.
Scan Spot Size 0.26 mm x 0.0104 mm
H. .ITU CODING STANDARDS.
CCITT DOCUMENTS SCANNED AT 200 x 100 pixel/ square inch

Time for
Documents G-II G-III G-IV G-IV
(9.6 kbps)
Circuit Diagram 256K 15K 5.4K 4.5 sec
Dense Text 256K 54K 35K 29.17 sec
Graph 256K 23K 8.3K 6.92 sec
Handwriting and Simple

256K 26K 10K 8.33 sec
Graphics

I H
1. Calculate the pixel rate of a drum scanner that rotates at 120 rpm if the pixel
scan density is 826.5 pixels/line.
A. 1653 pixels/sec B. 3615 pixels/sec
C. 5163 pixels/sec D. 6351 pixels/sec
2. Determine the document transmission time of a 1075 scan lines if the line scan
rate is 2 lines/sec
A. 6.98 minutes B. 9.68 minutes
C. 98.6 minutes D. 8.96 minutes
3. Calculate the index of cooperation for a facsimile machine with a drum

diameter of 3.15 in and the scanning pitch of 0.2 mm per scan.
A. IOC(CCITT)=400, IOC(IEEE)=1257
B. IOC(CCITT)=600, IOC(IEEE)=1527
C. IOC(CCITT)=200, IOC(IEEE)=1275
D. IOC(CCITT)=800, IOC(IEEE)=1572
4. Calculate the drum diameter in mm and scan density of a fax transmission with
an IOC (IEEE) equal to 1024 received by a drum scanner that uses 8-in wide
paper.
A. 64.88 mm, 182 lines/in B. 46.88 mm, 182 lines/in
C. 46.88 mm, 128 lines/in D. 64.88 mm, 128 lines/in
5. Find the IEEE and CCITT IOC for a facsimile drum scanner with an FCC
specification of 14 in for line length and 115 lines/in scan density.
A. 1610, 521.5 B. 1610, 512.5
C. 1160, 512.5 D. 1160, 521.5
Section 14
Pulse Modulation
Section 15
Digital
Communications
Section 16
Data Communications
Computer
Communications

Section Pulse Read it

till it
14 Modulation Hertz!
DEFINITION. Pulse Amplitude Modulation (PAM) is a method of converting

information wherein the amplitude of a constant width, constant position pulse
is varied in accordance to the instantaneous amplitude of the modulating
signal.
DEFINITION. Pulse Width/Duration Modulation (PWM/PDM) is a process

where the pulse width of a fixed amplitude pulse varies proportionally to the
amplitude of the analog signal.
DEFINITION. Pulse Position Modulation (PPM) is a form of pulse modulation

where the position of a constant width pulse within a prescribed timeslot is
varied according to the amplitude of the modulating signal.
DEFINITION. Pulse Code Modulation (PCM) is essentially analog-to-digital

conversion of a special type where the information contained in the
instantaneous samples of an analog signal is represented by digital words in a
serial bit stream.
A. .PULSE MODULATION.
1. Pulse Amplitude Modulation (PAM)

Designation: (K3E/P3D)

4-2 PULSE MODULATION
2. Pulse Time Modulation (PTM)

PTM is a class of signaling technique that encodes the sample values
of an analog signal onto the time axis of a digital signal.
PTM is analogous to angle modulation (FM/PM).
i. Pulse Width/Duration Modulation (PWM/PDM)

PWM/PDM is a process where the pulse width of a fixed amplitude
pulse varies proportionally to the amplitude of the analog signal.
Designation: (L3E/P3E)
ii. Pulse Position Modulation (PPM)

PPM is a form of pulse modulation where the position of a constant
width pulse within a prescribed timeslot is varied according to the
amplitude of the modulating signal.
Designation: (M3E/P3F)
3. Pulse Frequency Modulation

PFM is a form of pulse modulation where the pulse period and pulse
duration are both made proportional to the modulating signal
amplitude while keeping the duty cycle of the pulse train constant.
4. Pulse Code Modulation (PCM)

PCM is essentially analog-to-digital conversion of a special type where
the information contained in the instantaneous samples of an analog
signal is represented by digital words in a serial bit stream.
Vm
t
PULSE CODE MODULATION

B. .BLOCK DIAGRAM OF PCM.
1. Band Limiting
The anti-alias or bandpass filter limits the frequency of the input
analog signal to the standard voice frequency band of 0 to 4 kHz. The
purpose is to eliminate any unwanted signal that will result to aliasing
or fold-over distortion at the receiver.
2. Sampling
The act of periodically holding a value (sample) of the continually
changing analog input signals.
3 Types of Sampling
i. Ideal Sampling
ii. Natural sampling (Gating)

The natural sampling method retains the natural shape of the
sample analog waveform.
iii. Flat-top sampling (Instantaneous sampling)

The most common method used for sampling voice signals in PCM
where the sample-and-hold circuit convert those samples to a
series of constant-amplitude PAM levels
Flat-top sampling alters the frequency spectrum and introduces an error

called aperture error.

3. Quantization
The process of assigning discrete level to a time-varying quantity in
multiples of some fixed unit, at a specified instant or specified
repetition rate.
4. Encoding
The process of converting the quantized discrete-signal (PAM samples)
to parallel PCM codes.
C. .NYQUIST SAMPLING THEOREM.
States that for a sample to be reproduced accurately at the receiver, the

sampling frequency must be at least twice of the highest modulating
signal.
where :
fs 2fm
fm = highest modulating frequency

For a sample rate of 30 kHz in a PCM system, determine the maximum
analog input frequency.
Solution:
fs 30 kHz
fs = 2fm fm = = = 15 kHz
2 2
D. .PCM PARAMETERS.
1. Number of Levels or Code words (M)
where:
M=2 n M = # of levels, symbols or code words
n = # of PCM bits used (sign bit excluded)
= # of bits per sample
2. Bandwidth (Data rate)
where :
BWPCM = fb = nfs fs = sampling rate in Hz
fb = bit rate in bps
3. Dynamic Range (DR)
In terms of ADC/DAC In terms of # of Bits

Decoded Voltage (excluding the sign bit)
Vmax
DR = DR = 2n 1
Vmin
In dB
DR dB = 20 logDR


What is the dynamic range in dB of an 8-bit linear sign-magnitude PCM spectrum
whose maximum decode voltage at the receiver is 1.27 Vp?
Solution:
DR dB = 20 log(2n 1) n = 7 (sign bit excluded)
= 20 log(27 1) = 42.076 dB
4. Resolution (Vmin ) or Quantization Step (in Volts)
Vm a x
R e so lu tio n =
2n

Determine the resolution for an 8-bit linear sign-magnitude PCM for a maximum
decode voltage of 2.55 Vp?
Solution:
Vmax 2.55
Resolution = = = 0.0199 0.02 V
2n 27
5. Scale Factor (SF)
1 100
SF = %SF =
2n 2n
Sample Problem:
An audio signal with a bandwidth of 3.2 kHz and is converted to PCM signal by
sampling at 8 kilosamples/sec and by using a uniform quantizer with a scale
factor of 1.5625% and a Vmax of 3V. Determine the number of levels and the
resolution of this quantizer.
Solution:
100
% SF = ;M = 2 n
2n 3
Resolution = = 46 .875 mV
100 64
M = = 64 levels
1 . 5625
6. Coding Efficiency ()
where :
min
= x100% min = Min # of bits (including the sign bit)
max
max = Actual # of bits (including the sign bit)
7. Maximum Quantization errors (Qe)
Vmin Resolution
Qe = Qe =
2 2
8. Recovered Signal-to-Quantization Noise ratio (SQNR)

i. Ideal SQNR
- Only quantization error is present
a. In unitless
S 3 2 S 3 2n
= M (2 )
N 2 N 2
b. In dB
S Most
N = 6.02n + 1.76 Used
dB

Sample Problem:
Determine the signal-to-noise ratio in dB, if an audio signal with a bandwidth
of 3.2 kHz is converted to PCM signal by sampling at 8 kilosamples/sec and
with a data rate of 64 kbps.
Solution:
fb
fb = n x fs n =
64 kbps
fs S
=
N 2
2( )
3 2n
=
2
2 {
3 (2 x8)
}
= 98,304
n = = 8 bits
8 kHz
S S
= 10 log = 10 log(98,304)
N dB N
= 49.925 dB
Alternate solution: (directly in dB)
S
= 6.02n + 1.76 dB = 6.02(8) + 1.76 dB = 49.92 dB
N dB
ii. Peak SQNR

- Peak Signal-to-Average Quantization Noise Ratio
a. In unitless
General Solution Approximate Solution

In terms of M In terms of n
S 3M2
=
N 1 + 4(M2 + 1)Pe S S
3M2 3(22n )
N N
b. In dB
For Non-Linear PCM For Linear PCM
S S
= 6.02n + N = 6.02n + 4.76
N dB dB
= 4.76 20 log ln(1 + ) (For -law companding)

= 4.76 20 log 1 + ln A (For A-law companding)
Sample Problem:
An audio signal with a passband of 3,200 Hz is converted to PCM signal by
sampling at 8 kilosamples/sec and by using a uniform quantizer with 64
steps. Determine the peak SQNR if the probability of error is 10-6.
Solution:
S 3M2 3 x 642
= = = 12,089.87
N 1 + 4(M2 + 1)Pe 1 + 4(642 + 1)106
S S
= 10 log = 10 log(12,089.87) = 40.82 dB
N
dB N

S ln 64
= 6.02n + 4.76 dB = 6.02 + 4.76 dB = 40.88 dB
N
dB ln 2
PCM was invented by Alec Reeves and the only digitally encoded
modulation technique that is used for digital transmission.
The term PCM is somewhat a misnomer as it is not really a

modulation form, but rather a form of source coding.
The sampling process was introduced by Carson.
Sampling theorem is frequently called as Shannon, Whittaker,

Kotelnikov, or Nyquist sampling theorem.
Resolution in ADC/DAC jargon is term LEAST SIGNIFICANT BIT

(LSB) which means distance between adjacent quantization levels.
The information to be process is called digital data, not digit data

but analog-to-digital conversion is generally called: digitize and
digitization, rather than digitalize and digitalization?
The compression parameter =255 and A=87.6 curves lies very

close to one another, which means that similar and compatible
quality is achieved.

iii. Average SQNR

- Average Signal-to-Average Quantization Noise Ratio
a. In unitless
General Solution Approximate Solution

In terms of M In terms of n
S M2
=
N 1 + 4(M2 + 1)Pe S S
M2 22n
N N
b. In dB
For Non-Linear PCM For Linear PCM
S S
= 6.02n + N = 6.02n
N dB dB
Sample Problem:
An audio signal with a passband of 3,200 Hz is converted to PCM signal by
sampling at 8 kilosamples/sec and by using a uniform quantizer with 64
steps. Determine the number of PCM bits needed and the average SQNR if
the probability of error is 10-6.
Solution:
ln 64
M = 2n = 64 n = = 6 bits
ln 2
S M2 642
= = = 4,029.95
N 1 + 4(M2 + 1)Pe 1 + 4(642 + 1)106
S S
= 10 log = 10 log(4,029.95) = 36.05 dB
N
dB N
S
= 6.02n = 6.02(6 ) = 36.12 dB
N dB
E. .CODING METHOD.
a. Level-at-a-time coding
This type of coding compares the PAM signal to a ramp waveform
while a binary counter is being advanced at a uniform rate. When the
ramp waveform equals or exceeds the PAM sample, the counter
contains the PCM code.
b. Digit-at-a-time coding
This type of coding determines each digit of the PCM code
sequentially. Digit-at-a-time coding is analogous to a balance where
known reference weights are used to determine an unknown weight.
c. Word-at-a-time coding
Word-at-a-time coders are flash encoders and are more complex;
however, they are more suitable for high-speed applications.
F. .COMPANDING.
1. Analog Companding
Analog compression was implemented in the PCM transmitter prior to
the sample-and-hold circuit. While analog expansion was implemented
with diodes that were placed just after the receiver low-pass filter.
i. -Law Companding
in
out = Vmax ln 1 + ln (1 + )
Vmax
Sample Problem:
What proportion of the maximum output voltage is produced if a positive
input signal is applied to a -law compressor with its voltage three-fourth
the maximum value?
Solution:
in
out = Vo(max) ln1 + ln(1 + )

V
in(max)
255 x0.75 Vin(max)

= Vo(max) ln1 + ln(1 + 255 )
Vin(max)

= 0.948 Vo(max)

ii. A-Law Companding
in 1
out = Vmax A in (1 + ln A) 0
Vmax Vmax A
1 in
out = Vmax 1 + ln A in (1 + ln A ) 1
Vmax A Vmax
2. Digital Companding
With digital companding, the compression was perform after the input
sample has been converted to a linear PCM code and expansion at the
receive end prior to PCM decoding.
G. .DELTA MODULATION PCM.
Delta modulation uses a single-bit PCM code to achieve digital

transmission of analog signals. With delta modulation, only a single bit is
transmitted, which simply indicates whether the sample is larger or smaller
than the previous sample.
Trade-off of DM
i. Slope overload
Occurs when the input signal changes rapidly and has a large
slope (rate of signal amplitude change per unit time) than the DAC
can maintain.
ii. Granular Noise

Signal variations present in the reconstructed signal if the original
analog input signal has a relatively constant amplitude.
Granular noise in DM is analogous to quantization noise in conventional

PCM.
H. .ADAPTIVE DELTA MODULATION PCM.
ADM is a delta modulation system where the step size of the DAC is
automatically varied depending on the amplitude characteristics of the
analog input signal.
a.k.a. Continuous Variable Sloped Delta Modulation (CVSD)

I H
1. An analog-to-digital converter has an accuracy of 98%. What is the possible
range of values it will determine when the analog signal value is 4 V?
A. 3.92-4.08 V B. 2.92-5.08 V
C. 1.92-3.08 V D. 2.92-3.08 V
2. In delta modulation, "granular noise" is produced when:

A. the signal changes too rapidly B. the signal does not change
C. the bit rate is too high D. the sample is too large
3. The bit rate for each channel in DS-1 is:

A. 1.544 Mb/s B. 64 kb/s
C. 56 kb/s D. 8 kb/s
4. Determine the number of quantization step for a 14-bit conversion.

A. 28 B. 14
C. 256 D. 16,384
5. Calculate the dynamic range for an ADC that accept a signal that ranges from 0
to 3 V and convert it to digital format with a quantization error of less than 1
mV.
A. 49.5 dB B. 69.5 dB
C. 79.5 dB D. 59.5 dB
6. What is the maximum allowed information signal frequency that will be

accepted by an ADC with a Nyquist sampling rate of 16 kHz without producing
aliasing distortion?
A. 16 kHz B. 32 kHz
C. 8 kHz D. 24 kHz
7. Framing bits in DS-1 are used to:

A. detect errors
B. carry signaling
C. synchronize the transmitter and receiver
D. correct burst error
8. The number of samples per second in DS-1 is:

A. 8 K B. 56 K
C. 64 K D. 1.544 x 106

9. A voice communication system with a bandwidth of 3300 Hz is to be digitized to

a 10-bit resolution, how many bits are generated per second?
10. Two clocks operate nominally at 1 MHz and are initially identical, but one clock
differs from the other by 0.01% over time. After how many bits do the clocks
differ by a full bit period?
A. 10,000 bits B. 100,000 bits
C. 1,000 bits D. 100 bits
11. So-called "stolen" bits in DS-1 are used to:

A. detect errors
B. carry signaling
C. synchronize the transmitter and receiver
D. correct burst error
12. What is companded output voltage of a compander circuit when the input is 0.5
V, for Vmax=1 V and =100?
A. 0.95 V B. 0.25 V
C. 0.85 V D. 0.15 V
13. Calculate the maximum dynamic range for a linear PCM systems using 12-bit
quantizing.
A. 84 dB B. 74 dB
C. 94 dB D. 64 dB
14. Determine the dynamic range for a 10-bit sign-magnitude PCM code.
ECE Board Exam Nov. 2002
A. 74 dB B. 64 dB
C. 44 dB D. 54 dB
15. The dynamic range of a system is the ratio of:

A. the strongest transmittable signal to the weakest discernible signal
B. the maximum rate of conversion to the minimum rate of conversion
C. the maximum bits per sample to the minimum bits per sample
16. An attempt is made to transmit a baseband frequency of 28 kHz using a digital

audio system with a sampling frequency of 44.1 kHz. This will result to an alias
audio signal of _____.
A. 16.1 kHz B. 32.2 kHz
C. 8.05 kHz D. 4.025 kHz
17. In North America, companding uses:

A. the Logarithmic Law B. the A Law
C. the Law D. the Law
18. Natural Sampling does not use:

A. a sample-and-hold circuit B. true binary numbers
C. a fixed sample rate D. an analog-to-digital converter
19. Which is true about aliasing and foldover distortion?

A. They are two types of sampling error
B. You can have one or the other, but not both
C. Aliasing is a technique to prevent foldover distortion
D. They are the same thing
20. Calculate the number of levels used in compact disc (CD) audio system.
A. 65,536 B. 16,384
C. 4096 D. 32,768
21. Companding is used to:

A. compress the range of base-band frequencies
B. reduce dynamic range at higher bit-rates
C. preserve dynamic range while keeping bit-rate low
D. maximize the useable bandwidth in digital transmission
22. 16-bit quantizing of linear PCM signal result to a dynamic range of _____.
A. 83.45 dB B. 88.2 dB
C. 91.73 dB D. 98.08 dB
23. What is the minimum data rate needed to transmit audio signal with a sampling
rate of 40 kHz and 14 bits per sample?
24. Quantizing noise (quantization noise):

A. decreases as the sample rate increases
B. decreases as the sample rate decreases
C. decreases as the bits per sample increases
D. decreases as the bits per sample decreases
25. In Europe, companding uses:

A. the Logarithmic Law B. the A Law
C. the Law D. the Law
26. Calculate the raw data rate of CDs before error correction if the coding is linear
PCM using 44.1 kHz sampling frequency, 16 bits per sample and two stereo
channels.
A. 0.705 Mbps B. 2.81 Mbps
C. 1.41 Mbps D. 2.049 Mbps
27. Suppose an input signal to a -law compressor has a positive voltage and an
amplitude 25% of the maximum possible. Calculate the output voltage as a
percentage of the maximum input.
A. 91.8% B. 75.2%
C. 78.5% D. 83.1%
28. The number of bits per sample in DS-1 is:

A. 1 B. 2
C. 4 D. 8

29. Compared to PCM, adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice:

A. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality
B. with a lower bit rate but the same quality
C. only over shorter distances
D. only if the voice is band-limited
30. The number of framing bits in DS-1 is:

A. 1 B. 2
C. 4 D. 8
31. Calculate the number of quantization levels and bit rate if a composite video
signal with a baseband frequency of 4 MHz is transmitted by linear PCM, using
8-bits per sample and a sampling frequency of 10 MHz?
A. 128, 40 Mbps B. 256, 40 Mbps
C. 256, 80 Mbps D. 128, 80 Mbps
32. Two digital clocks differ by 0.3%. After 5 s this is equal to how many bit
difference if the clock and bit rate is 100 kHz?
A. 1667 bits B. 1278 bits
C. 834 bits D. 239 bits
33. Foldover distortion is caused by:

A. noise B. too many samples per second
C. too few samples per second D. all of the above
34. The immediate result of sampling is:

A. a sample alias B. PAM
C. PCM D. PDM
35. A typical codec in a telephone system sends and receives:

A. 4-bit numbers B. 8-bit numbers
C. 12-bit numbers D. 16-bit numbers
36. In DS-1, bits are transmitted over a T-1 cable at:

A. 1.544 Mb/s B. 64 kb/s
C. 56 kb/s D. 8 kb/s
37. The Shannon-Hartley theorem is:

A. I = ktB B. C = 2B log2M
C. C = B log2(1 + S/N) D. SR = 2fmax
38. Hartley's Law is:

39. The Shannon Limit is given by:

40. The Nyquist rate can be expressed as:

Section Digital Read it

till it
DEFINITION. Information: Information is defined as knowledge or

intelligence communicated or received.
DEFINITION. Data: Information, for example, numbers, text, images, and

sounds, in a form that is suitable for storage in or processing by a computer.
DEFINITION. Digital Transmission is the transmittal of digital pulses

between two or more points in a communications system.
DEFINITION. Digital Radio is the transmittal of digitally modulated analog

carrier between two or more points in a communications system.
A. .INFORMATION THEORY.
1. Information Measure
The information sent from a digital source when the ith message is
transmitter is given by
1 where :
Ii = logb = logb Pi
Pi Pi = probability of the ith message
2. Average Information (Entropy)

In general, the information content will vary from message to
message because the probability of transmitting the nth message will
not be equal. Consequently, we need an average information measure
for the source, considering all the possible message we can send.
N
H= PI
i=0
i i

If the symbols have the same probability of occurrence (P1= P2= P3= Pn)
then the entropy is maximum ( H = logb N ).

4-20 DIGITAL communications
3. Relative Entropy
The ratio of the entropy of a source to the maximum value the entropy
could take for the same source symbol.
H Hmax = logb N
HR =
Hmax N = total number of symbols
4. Redundancy
r = 1 HR
5. Rate of Information
N
H
R =
T
T = tP
i =1
i i
Sample Problem:
A telephone touch-tone keypad has the digits 0 to 9, plus the * and # keys.
Assume the probability of sending * or # is 0.005 and the probability of
sending 0 to 9 is 0.099 each. If the keys are pressed at a rate of 2 keys/s,
compute the entropy and data rate for this source.
Solution:
1 1
I0 = I1 = I2 = " I9 = log2 I = I# = log2
0.099 0.005
= 3.34 bits = 7.64 bits
m
H= PI
i
i i = P0I0 + P1I1 + P2I2 " P#I#
Since : P0I0 = P1I1 = P2I2 " P9I9 and PI = P#I#

= 10{0.099(3.34)} + 2{0.005(7.64)}
= 3.38 bits / key
H bits keys
R = = H x r = 3.38 x2
T key sec
= 6.76 bps
Sample Problem:
From the given table
Time required
Probability of
Symbol to transmit
Occurrence P(xi)
the symbol xi
x1 0.21 10 s
x2 0.14 15 s
x3 0.09 20 s
x4 0.11 30 s
x5 0.15 25 s
x6 0.18 15 s
x7 0.12 25 s
Determine the following:

a. Entropy (H)
b. Relative Entropy (HR)
c. Rate of information
Solution:
A. Entropy (H)
m
1 1 1
H= PI
i
i i = 0.21 log2 + 0.14 log2
0.21
+ 0.09 log2
0.14

0.09
1 1 1
+ 0.11 log2 + 0.15 log2 + 0.18 log2
0.11 0.15 0.18
1 bits
+ 0.12 log2 = 2.76
0 .12 symbol
B. Relative entropy (HR)
Hmax = log2 N max entropy
bits
= log2 7 = 2.81
symbol
H 2.76
HR = = = 0.98
Hmax 2.81
C. Rate of information
7
T = P t
i=1
x x = 0.21(10) + 0.14(15) + 0.09(20) + 0.11(30)
+ 0.15(25) + 0.18(15) + 0.12(25) = 18.75 sec
H 2.76 bits
R = = = 147 kbps
T 18.75 sec

6. Other parameters
Parameter Equation
Code Word Length A = log b M

N
Average Code Word
Length
L = P A
i =1
i i
L min
Coding Efficiency = x 100 %
L
Coding Redundancy =1
1
In the equation Ii = logb
Pi
If b = 2; the unit of information is bits
If b = 10; the unit of information is dit/Hartley/decit
If b = e; the unit of information is nats/Hepits
1 Hartley = 3.32 bits and 1 nat = 1.443 bits
Sample Problem:
Calculate the coding efficiency in representing the 26 letters of the alphabet
using a binary and decimal system.
Solution:
4.7
A = log2 26 = 4.7 bits 5 bits must be used = x 100% = 94%
5
1.415
A = log10 26 = 1.415 dits 2 dits must be used = x 100% = 71%
2
This proves the fact that binary coding is more efficient than decimal coding.
D. .CHANNEL CLASSIFICATIONS.
1. Lossless Channels
A channel described by a channel matrix with only one non-zero
element in each column.
2. Deterministic Channel
Describe by a channel matrix with only one non-zero element on each
row.
3. Noiseless Channel
A channel which is both lossless and deterministic.
E. .CHANNEL CAPACITY.
The maximum rate at which information can be transmitted through a

channel.
1. For Lossless Channels
C = log 2 N
The lossless channel capacity is equal to source entropy, and no source

information is loss in transmission.
2. For Deterministic Channel
C 2 = log 2 M
The deterministic channel capacity is equal to destination entropy. Each member

of the source set is uniquely associated with one, and only one, member of the
destination alphabet.

3. For Noiseless Channel
C 3 = log 2 M = log 2 N
4. For Additive White Gaussian Noise Channel (AWGN)
1 s
C4 = log 2 1 +
2 N
Note: The units of the previous equation are on per sample basis. Since there are
2BW (Nyquist Sampling Theorem) samples per unit time, the capacity per unit
time can be written as
C = 2BWC 4
5. Shannon Limit For Information Capacity
S
C = 2BWC 4 = BW log2 1 +
N
6. Shannon-Hartley Theorem
C = 2 BWC 2 = 2BW log 2 M
where:
C = channel capacity in bps
N = is the number of input symbols
M = is the number of output symbols
BW = channel bandwidth in Hz

A binary digital signal is to be transmitted at 10 kbits/s, what is the absolute
minimum bandwidth is required to pass the fastest information change
undistorted?
Solution:
From deterministic channel capacity;
C = 2BW log2 M M = 2 for binary signaling
C 10,000
BW = = = 5 kHz
2 2

What is the bandwidth needed to support a capacity of 20,000 bits/s (using
Shannons theory), when the ratio of power to noise is 200? Also compute the
information density.
Solution:
S C
C = BW log2 1 + BW =
N S
log2 1 +
N
20,000
BW = = 2615.54 Hz
log2 (1 + 200 )
C S 20,000 bps bps

= = log2 1 + = = 7.65
BW N 2,615.54 Hz Hz

What is the channel capacity for a signal power of 200 W, noise power of 10
W and a bandwidth of 2 kHz of a digital system? Also calculate the spectrum
efficiency.
Solution:
S 200
C = BW log2 1 + = 2 x 103 log2 1 + = 8.779 kbps
N 10
C S 8.779 kbps bps

= = log2 1 + = = 4.4
BW N 2 kHz Hz

Sample Problem:
Consider a digital source that converts an analog signal to digital form. If an
input analog signal is sampled at 1.25x the Nyquist rate and each sample is
quantized into one of 256 equally likely levels.
a. What is the information rate of this source?
b. Calculate the min bit error rate of this source if transmitted over an
AWGN channel with a BW=10 kHz and 20 dB S/N ratio.
c. Find the S/N in dB require for error free transmission if the BW=10
kHz
d. Find the BW required for error free transmission if the S/N is 20 dB
Assume that the successive samples are statistically independent.
Solution:
a. Information rate
bits
H = log2 256 = 8 ; Nyquist Rate = 2fm(max) = 2(4kHz) = 8 kHz
sample
kilosample s
Actual Rate = 1.25 x R NYQUIST = 1.25(8kHz) = 10 kHz = 10
sec
bits 3 samples
Information Rate = H x R actual = 8 10 x 10 = 80 kbps
sample sec
b. Minimum BER
Channel limitation due to noise :
S
C = BW log2 1 + = 10 kHz log2 (1 + 100 ) = 66 .88 kbps
N
BER = R info C = 80 kbps 66 .88 kbps = 13 .12 kbps
It cannot be transmitted without errors
c. S/N required for error free transmission

Channel capacity Info Rate
S
C R info 80 kbps 10 kHz log2 1 +
N
S
255 or 24.1 dB
N
d. BW required for error free transmission

Channel capacity Info Rate
C R info 80 kbps BW log2 (1 + 101 )
BW 12 .02 kHz
This means to provide an error free transmission the bandwidth must be at least 12.02
kHz or the S/N ratio must be greater than 24.1 dB.
F. .DIGITAL SIGNAL LINE ENCODING FORMAT.
Line encoding is the method used for converting a binary information

sequence into a digital signal in a digital communications system.
1. Types of Signaling
i. Unipolar signaling
Binary 1 is represented by a high level and binary 0 by a zero
level.
ii. Polar signaling

Binary 1s and 0s are represented by equal positive and negative
levels.
iii. Bipolar (pseudoternary) signaling

Binary 1s are represented by alternately positive or negative
values. The binary 0 is represented by a zero level
iv. Manchester signaling (Split-phase encoding)

Each binary 1 is represented by a positive half-bit period pulse
followed by a negative half-bit period pulse. Similarly, a binary 0
is represented by a negative half-bit period pulse followed by a
positive half-bit period pulse.

G. .DEFINITION OF DIGITAL ENCODING FORMAT.
1. Non-Return to Zero (NRZ)

i. Non-Return to Zero-Level (NRZ-L)
Where L denotes positive logical level assignment.
1 = High level
0 = Low level
ii. Non-Return to Zero-Level (NRZ-M)

Where M denotes inversion on mark
1 = Transition at beginning of interval
0 = No transition
iii. Non-Return to Zero-Level (NRZ-S)

Where S denotes inversion on space using negative logic
1 = No change
2. Return To Zero (RZ)

1 = Transition from High to Low in middle of interval
0 = low level
3. Biphase
i. Biphase-Level (Manchester)
1 = Transition from High to Low in middle of interval
0 = Transition from Low to High in middle of interval
ii. Biphase-Mark
Always a transition at beginning of interval
1 = Transition in middle of interval
0 = No transition in middle of interval
iii. Biphase-Space
Always a transition at beginning of interval
4. Differential Manchester
5. Delay Modulation (Miller)

0 = No transition if followed by 1
Transition at end of interval if followed by 0
6. Bipolar-AMI (Alternate Mark Inversion)

1 = Pulse in first half of bit level, alternating polarity
pulse to pulse
0 = No pulse
The term bipolar has two different conflicting definitions:

In the space communication industry, polar NRZ is sometimes
called bipolar NRZ, or simply bipolar.
In the telephone industry, the term bipolar denotes pseudoternary
signaling, as in the T1 bipolar RZ signaling.
So many names
Polar NRZ is also called NRZ-L.
Bipolar NRZ is called NRZ-M.
Negative Logic Bipolar NRZ is called NRZ-S.
Bipolar RZ is also called BPRZ, RZ-AMI, BPRZ-AMI, AMI or simply
bipolar.
Manchester NRZ is also called Manchester code, or Biphase-L, for
biphase with normal logic level.
Biphase-M is used for encoding SMPTE time-code data for
recording on videotapes.
BW and Efficiency of Popular Line Codes

Spectral
Code
Signaling Bandwidth Efficiency
Type
(bps/Hz)
fb
NRZ 2
2
UNIPOLAR
RZ fb 1
fb
NRZ 2
2
POLAR RZ fb 1
Manchester fb 1
fb
BIPOLAR AMI 2
2
H. .SIGNAL ELEMENT VS. DATA ELEMENT.
One data element per one One data element per two
signal element signal element
Two data element per one Four data element per

signal element three signal element
Relation between Bit Rate and Baud Rate
where :
# of data element
n=
fb = n x fB # of signal element
fb = bit rate in bps
fB = Baud rate in Baud
Sample Problem:
A signal is carrying data in which 4 data element is encoded as one signal
element. If the bit rate is 100 kbps, what is the average value of the baud
rate?
Solution:
fb 100 kbps
fB = = = 25 kBaud
n 4
I. .DIGITAL MODULATION.
DIGITAL MODULATION
AMPLITUDE SHIFT FREQUENCY SHIFT

PHASE SHIFT KEYING
KEYING KEYING
(PSK)
(ASK) (FSK)
QUADRATURE AMPLITUDE MODULATION

(QAM)
1. Amplitude Shift Keying (ASK)

Digital Amplitude Modulation is simply a double-sideband, full-carrier
amplitude modulation where the input modulating signal is a binary
waveform.
a.k.a. Continuous-wave modulation, On-Off keying (OOK)
Implementation of binary ASK

2. Frequency Shift Keying (FSK)

Frequency Shift Keying is a form of constant-amplitude angle
modulation similar to conventional frequency modulation except that
the modulating signal is a binary signal that varies between two
discrete voltage levels.
Implementation of binary FSK
i. Bandwidth Consideration
BW = 2 (fb + f )
ii. FSK Receiver

Noncoherent FSK demodulator
Coherent FSK demodulator
Minimum Shift Keying (MSK)

With MSK, the mark and space frequencies are selected such that they
are separated from the center frequency by an odd exact multiple of
one-half of the bit rate.
fb where :
fm fs = f = n x
2 n = positive odd integer
Sample Problem:
Calculate the frequency shift (deviation) between mark and space for GSM
cellular radio system that uses Gaussian MSK (GMSK) with a transmission
rate of 270.833 kbps.
Solution:
GMSK is a special case of FSK where n=1
270.833 kbps
fm fs = = 135.4165 kHz
2

2. Phase Shift Keying (PSK)

Phase Shift Keying is a form of angle-modulated, constant-amplitude
digital modulation similar to conventional phase modulation except
that with PSK the input signal is a binary digital signal and limited
number of output phase are possible.
a. Binary Phase Shift Keying (BPSK)

With BPSK, two output phases are possible for a single carrier
frequency.
Implementation of binary PSK
Phasor and Constellation Diagram

Truth Table & Minimum Nyquist Bandwidth
Binary Output
Input Phase
Logic 0 180 fN = fb
Logic 1 0
Sample Problem:
Determine the minimum Nyquist bandwidth and the Baud rate for a BPSK
modulator with a carrier frequency of 70 MHz and an input bit rate of 10
Mbps.
Solution:
Nyquist BW Baud Rate
fN = fb = 10 MHz fB = 10 MBaud
M-ary Encoding
M-ary is a term derived from the word binary. M is simply a digit that
represents the number of conditions or combinations possible for a given
number of binary variables.
N M
1 2
N = log 2 M 2 4
3 8
4 16
5 32
where :
N = # of bits per symbol
M = # of output conditions or symbols possible w/ N bits

Sample Problem:
How many bits are needed to address 256 different level combinations?.
Solution:
log10 256
N = log2M = log2 256 = = 8 bits
log10 2
b. Quarternary Phase Shift Keying (QPSK)

QPSK is a form of angle-modulated, constant-amplitude digital
modulation where four output phases are possible (M=4)
Implementation of Quarternary PSK

Binary Input QPSK

Q I Output
fb
0 0 -135 fN =
2
0 1 -45
1 0 +135
1 1 +45
Sample Problem:
Calculate the minimum double-sided Nyquist BW and the Baud for a QPSK
modulator with an input data rate equal to 40 Mbps and a carrier frequency
of 110 MHz.
Solution:
Nyquist BW (QPSK) Baud R ate
fb 40 Mbps fb 40 Mbps
fN = = Baud = =
2 2 2 2
= 20 MHz = 20 MBaud
c. Eight Phase Shift Keying (8-PSK)

8-PSK is another form of angle-modulated, constant-amplitude
digital modulation where eight output phases are possible (M=8)

Binary Input 8-PSK

Q I C Output
0 0 0 -112.5
0 0 1 -157.5 fb
fN =
0 1 0 -67.5 3
0 1 1 -22.5
1 0 0 +112.5
1 0 1 +157.5
1 1 0 +67.5
1 1 1 +22.5
Sample Problem:
Calculate the minimum double-sided Nyquist BW and the Baud for a 8-PSK
modulator with an input data rate equal to 25 Mbps and a carrier frequency
of 45 MHz.
Solution:
Nyquist BW (8 - PSK) Baud Rate
f 25 Mbps fb 25 Mbps
fN = b = fB = =
3 3 3 3
= 8.33 MHz = 8.33 MBaud
d. Sixteen Phase Shift Keying (16-PSK)

16-PSK is another form of angle-modulated, constant-amplitude
digital modulation where sixteen output phases are possible.
(N=4 & M=16)
VCcos t VCcos t
0100 0011 0100 0011
0101 0010 0101 0010
0110 0001 0110 0001
0111
- 0000 0111
- 0000
VCsin VCsin t VCsin VCsin t
t t
1000 1111 1000 1111
1001 1110 1001 1110

1010 1101 1010 1101
1011 1100 1011 1100
-VCcos t -VCcos t
Bit Code Phase Bit Code Phase
0 0 0 0 11.25 1 0 0 0 191.25
0 0 0 1 33.75 1 0 0 1 213.75
0 0 1 0 56.25 1 0 1 0 236.25
0 0 1 1 78.75 1 0 1 1 258.75
0 1 0 0 101.25 1 1 0 0 281.25
0 1 0 1 123.75 1 1 0 1 303.75
0 1 1 0 146.25 1 1 1 0 326.25
0 1 1 1 168.75 1 1 1 1 348.75
fb
fN =
3
3. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation (QAM)

QAM is a form of digital modulation where the digital information is
contained in both the amplitude and phase of the transmitted carrier.

a. Eight Quadrature Modulation(8-QAM)

8-QAM is an M-ary encoding technique where M=8. 2 amplitudes
and 4 phase are used to give 8 different symbols.
b. Sixteen Quadrature Modulation(16-QAM)

8-QAM is an M-ary encoding technique where M=16.
3 amplitudes and 12 phases are used to give 16 different symbols.


J. .SPECTRAL EFFICIENCY OF DIGITAL SYSTEMS.
Spectral Efficiency (Bandwidth efficiency) or information density is an

indication of how a certain modulation scheme is efficiently utilizing its
bandwidth.
In terms of Channel C
capacity & Bandwidth
=
BW
In terms of Signal to S
= log 1 +
Noise ratio N
In terms of Bit Rate fb f
and Nyquist BW = = b
(Baud Rate) fB BW
Sample Problem:
Determine the bandwidth efficiency for the following modulation scheme
a. BPSK, fb=15 Mbps
b. QPSK, fb=20 Mbps
c. 8-PSK, fb=28 Mbps
d. 8-QAM, fb=30 Mbps
e. 16-PSK, fb=40 Mbps
f. 16-QAM, fb=42 Mbps
Solution:
a. BPSK b. QPSK
f 15 Mbps bps fb 2(20 Mbps) bps
= b = =1 = = =2
BW 15MHz Hz BW 20MHz Hz
c. 8PSK d. 8QAM
f 3(28 Mbps) bps fb 3(30 Mbps) bps
= b = =3 = = =3
e. 16PSK f.16QAM
f 4(40 Mbps) bps fb 4(42 Mbps) bps
= b = =4 = = =4

Summary of Various Digital Modulation System

# of Bits Minimum Spectral
System Encoded Nyquist BW Efficiency
per Symbol (Baud Rate) (bps/Hz)
BPSK 1 fb 1
QPSK 2 fb/2 2
8-PSK 3 fb/3 3
8-QUAM 3 fb/3 3
16-PSK 4 fb/4 4
16-QUAM 4 fb/4 4
32-QUAM 5 fb/5 5
64-QUAM 6 fb/6 6
K. .ERROR PROBABILITIES FOR DIGITAL COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS.
1. Coherent Systems with Additive White Gaussian Noise (AWGN)

channels
Eb
Pe = Q 2
No
2. Non-Coherent Systems with Additive White Gaussian Noise (AWGN)

channels
E
b

2N
Pe = 0.5e 0
where :
Eb = Energy per bit in J
bps
N 0 = Noise density in W
Hz
Sample Problem:
Calculate the probability of error for a non-coherent FSK system if the
carrier power is 10-13 W, bit rate of 30 kbps, BW of 60 kHz and noise power
of 10-14 W.
Solution:
Po 1013 W attoJoules N 10 14 W Watt
Eb = = = 3.3 NO = = = 166.67 x 10-21
fb 30 kbps bit BW 60 kHz Hz
E 3.3 x 10 18
b 0.5
N 166.67 x 10 21
Pe = 0.5e O = 0.5e = 2.51 x 105
This probability of error means that 25 bits will be expected to be corrupted (in error) for
every 1 million bits transmitted.
L. .ERROR DETECTIONS.
1. Redundancy
Redundancy involves transmitting each character twice. If the same
character is not received twice in succession, a transmission error has
occurred.
2. Echoplex
Echoplex involves the receiving device echoing the received data back
to the transmitting device. The transmitting operator can view the
data, as received and echoed, making corrections as appropriate.
3. Exact-count encoding
The number of 1s in each character is the same and therefore a simple
count of number of 1s received in each character can determine if a
transmission error has occurred.
4. Parity Checking
Parity checking is by far the most commonly used method for error
detection and correction, as it is used in asynchronous devices such as
PCs. Parity involves the transmitting terminals appending one or more
parity bits to the data set in order to create odd parity or even parity.
Dimensions of parity checking

i. Vertical Redundancy Checking (VRC)
VRC entails the appending of a parity bit at the end of each
transmitted character or value to create an odd or even total
mathematical bit value.
ii. Longitudinal Redundancy Checking (LRC) or Block Checking

Character (BCC)
LRC adds another level of reliability, as data is viewed in a block
or data set, as though the receiving device were viewing data set
in a matrix format. LRC/BCC adds a significant measure of
reliability. Also known as checksum, the LRC is sent as an extra
character at the end of each data block.
5. Cyclic Redundancy Checking (CRC)

CRC validates transmission of a set of data, formatted in a block or
frame, through the use of a unique mathematical polynomial known to
both transmitter and receiver. The result of that calculation is
appended to the block or frame or text as either a 16- or 32-bit value.

i. CRC Encoding Procedures
1. Multiply i(x) by xn - k (puts zeros in (n k) low order positions).

2. Divide x n - k by g(x).
xn k i(x) = g(x) q(x) = r(x)
3. Add remainder r(x) to xn k i(x)
(puts check bits in the (n k) low order positions).
b(x) = xn k i(x) + r(x)
n = number of bits in a codeword

k = information bits
q(x) = Quotient
r(x) = Remainder
g(x) = Generator polynomial
i(x) = Information polynomial
b(x) = Transmitted information
ii. Standard CRC Polynomial Codes
Name Used In
CRC-8 ATM header error check
CRC-10 ATM CRC
CRC-16 Bisync
CCITT-16 HDLC, XMODEM, V.41
CCITT-32 IEEE 802, V.32
M. .ERROR CORRECTIONS.
1. Symbol substitution
With symbol substitution, if a character is received in error, rather
than revert to a high level of error correction or display the incorrect
character.
2. Retransmission (ARQ)
Retransmission, as the name implies, is resending a message when it
is received in error and the receive terminal automatically calls for
retransmission of the entire message.
3. Forward Error Correction (FEC)

FEC involves the addition of redundant information embedded in the
data set in order that the receiving device can detect errors and
correct for them without requiring a retransmission. The most
commonly employed technique is Hamming code.
Hamming Distance
The number of bit position in which two codeword differs is called
Hamming distance.
2n m + n + 1 n = Number of Hamming bits

m = Number of bits in the data character

How many Hamming bits would be added to a data block containing 128
bits?
Solution:
Number of Hamming bits
2n m + n + 1
For n = 6
26 = 64 ; m + n + 1 = 128 + 6 + 1 ; 64 < 135
For n = 7
27 = 128 ; m + n + 1 = 128 + 7 + 1;128 < 136
For n = 8
28 = 256 ; m + n + 1 = 128 + 8 + 1 ;256 > 138 (satisfied)
Answer : Hamming bits = 8

Sample Problem:
Calculate the Hamming distance to detect and correct 3 single-bit errors that
occurred during transmission. Also compute for the number of Hamming
bits for a 23 bit data string.
Solution:
Required Hamming distance for error detection
Hd = d + 1 = 3 + 1
=4
Required Hamming distance for error correction
Hd = 2d + 1 = (2 x 3 ) + 1
=7
Number of Hamming bits
2n m + n + 1
For n = 4
24 = 16 ; m + n + 1 = 23 + 4 + 1 ; 16 < 28
For n = 5
25 = 32 ; m + n + 1 = 23 + 5 + 1 ; 32 > 29
n=5
Answer : Hamming bits = 5
To detect d single-bit errors, you need a Hamming distance of d+1

code because with such a code there is no way that d single bit errors
can change a valid codeword into another valid codeword.
Similarly, to correct d single-bit errors, you need a distance 2d+1 code

because that way the legal codeword are so far apart that even with d
changes. The original codeword is still closer than any other codeword.
Hamming codes can only correct single bit errors. However there is a
trick that can be used to permit Hamming codes to correct burst
errors.
I H
1. If a symbol is selected from a group of 200 xs and 50 ys. Find the probability
if a) any of the x is transmitted b) any of the y is transmitted.
A. P(x)=0.7, P(y)=0.3 B. P(x)=0.8, P(y)=0.2
C. P(x)=0.3, P(y)=0.7 D. P(x)=0.2, P(y)=0.8
2. A TV picture frame contains 211,000 elements and each element may take on 8
possible equiprobable brightness levels. Find the info content of each element
and for the whole frame.
A. 7 bits/element, 833 kbits/frame
B. 6 bits/element, 433 kbits/frame
C. 5 bits/element, 333 kbits/frame
D. 3 bits/element, 633 kbits/frame
3. Calculate the maximum data rate without error for a telephone system with a
bandwidth of 3.2 kHz and a signal-to-noise ratio if 30 dB, also compute the
number of corrupted bits per second if 64 level encoding will be used.
A. 31.895 kbps, 3.2 kbits will be corrupted per second
B. 38.4 kbps, 6.505 kbits will be corrupted per second
C. 31.895 kbps, 6.505 kbits will be corrupted per second
D. 38.4 kbps, 3.2 kbits will be corrupted per second
4. Calculate the Baud and the bit rate for a 64-level modulator that transmit
symbols 12,000 times per second
A. 12 kBaud, 72 kbps B. 12 kBaud, 62 kbps
C. 6 kBaud, 64 kbps D. 6 kBaud, 72 kbps
5. Determine the channel data rate for the North American digital cellular system
that transmit 24.3 kBaud using DQPSK.
A. 72.9 kbps B. 97.2 kbps
C. 12.15 kbps D. 48.6 kbps
6. For a BPSK modulation with a carrier frequency of 80 MHz and an input bit rate
of 10 Mbps, determine the minimum Nyquist BW. NOV 2002
A. 1 MHz B. 5 MHz
C. 10 MHz D. 2.5 MHz
7. Calculate the bandwidth needed to transmit a DS-1 signal in a channel with a

signal-to-noise of 20 dB, and also compute for the spectral efficiency.
A. 231.89 kHz, 231.89 bps/Hz B. 1.544 kHz, 6.65 bps/Hz
C. 231.89 kHz, 6.65 bps/Hz D. 1.544 MHz, 231.89 bps/Hz

8. Calculate the spectral efficiency of an Audio FSK (FSK) that transmits 1200
kbps using an FM signal modulated by tones of 1200 Hz and 2200 Hz, with a 5
kHz frequency deviation.
A. 1.37 bps/Hz B. 12.45 bps/Hz
C. 0.083 bps/Hz D. 8.3 bps/Hz
9. A telephone modem uses QAM modulation with four possible phase angles and
2 amplitude levels. Calculate the maximum data rate that could be sent using
this modem in a voice telephone channel. (assume 3.2 kHz bandwidth)
A. 51.2 kbps B. 19.2 kbps
C. 25.6 kbps D. 12.8 kbps
10. 5 Hamming bits are required for a data block containing ____ bits.
A. 26 B. 31
C. 21 D. 28
11. Calculate the expected number of error bits for a digital transmission that has
an error probability of 10-6 and is 109 bits long.
A. 100 bits B. 1000 bits
C. 10 bits D. 1 bits
12. 7 error bits out of 5.7 million total bits is equal to ____ error probability.
A. 6.81 x 10-6 B. 9.56 x 10-6
-6
C. 4.74 x 10 D. 1.23 x 10-6
13. Determine the number of bits required and the coding efficiency in encoding a
system of 50 equiprobable events with a binary code.
A. 4 bits, 74 % B. 6 bits, 94 %
C. 5 bits, 84 % D. 2 bits, 87.8 %
14. What is the channel capacity for a signal power of 200 W, noise power of 10 W
and a bandwidth of 2 kHz of a digital system? April 2003
A. 8.779 kbps B. 9.128 kbps
C. 4.751 kbps D. 6.143 kbps
15. Calculate the coding efficiency and redundancy of a discrete system with 105
equiprobable symbols.
A. 93.9%, 6.1% B. 98.9%, 1.1%
C. 95.9%, 4.1% D. 97.9%, 2.1%
16. 5.54 nats of information is equal to how many bits and Hartley respectively
A. 4 bits, 4.4 Hartley B. 6 bits, 1.4 Hartley
C. 2 bits, 2 Hartley D. 8 bits, 2.4 Hartley
17. 1 dit is ____ bits

A. 0.332 B. 33.2
C. 3.32 D. 1.44
18. A unipolar NRZ line code is converted to a multiple level signal for transmission
over a channel. The number of possible values in the multilevel signal is 32,
and the signal consists of rectangular pulses that have a pulse width of
0.3472ms. What is the equivalent bit rate for the multilevel signal?
A. 28.8 kbps B. 56 kbps
19. For quarternary phase shift keying (QPSK) modulation, data with a carrier
frequency of 70 MHz, and an input bit rate of 10 Mbps, determine the minimum
Nyquist BW. ECE Board Nov 2002
A. 1 MHz B. 5 MHz
C. 10 MHz D. 2.5 MHz
20. What is the information density of AMI?

A. 2 bps/Hz B. 3 bps/Hz
C. 1 bps/Hz D. 4 bps/Hz
21. Calculate the approximate bit rate of a communication system with a minimum
Nyquist bandwidth of 5 kHz and using Manchester encoding technique.
C. 10 kbps D. 2.5 kbps
22. How many bits are needed to address 256 different level combinations?
A. 5 bits B. 8 bits
C. 6 bits D. 7 bits
23. An asynchronous communications system uses ASCII at 9600 bps with eight
bits, one start bit, one stop bit and no parity bit. Express the data rate in
words per minute. (Assume a word has 5 characters or letters and one space)
April 2003
A. 96 wpm B. 960 wpm
C. 9600 wpm D. 96000 wpm
24. Calculate the phase separation of two adjacent bits constellation in a 16 PSK
system?
A. 11.25 B. 5.625
C. 22.5 D. 45
25. 45 maximum phase shift of two adjacent bits combination is possible in ____
system.
A. BPSK B. QPSK
C. 16 PSK D. 8-PSK
26. 300 Baud is equivalent to what effective bit rate if bits are represented by a
single voltage that can have one of 16 distinct values?
A. 4.8kbps B. 1.2 kbps
27. A BER tester sends bits at 2000 Baud for 10s. There are a total of 50 errors.
What is the BER?
A. 2.5x10-3 B. 25x10-3
C. 12.5x10-3 D. 21.5x10-3

28. Using 200 bit/frame at 200 Baud and 10 s of transmission time, what is the
percentage of error-free frames when there are 500 errors spread evenly
through the 10-s period?
A. 50% (1 every 2 frames are corrupted)
B. 0% (all frames are corrupted)
C. 25% (1 every 4l frames are corrupted)
D. 10% (1 every 10 frames are corrupted)
29. Consider a system that sends data in frames of 100 bits, including preamble,
message, and CRC bits, and each frame takes 0.5 s. Calculate the BER,
percentage of frames with error when 1000 frames are sent.
A. 25x10-3, 25% B. 2.5x10-3, 25%
C. 2.5x10-3, 50% D. 2.5x10-3, 50%
30. What are the percentage error-free frames when there are 500 errors that
occurs at the average rate of 100 errors/sec for the first 5 sec?
A. 40% (1st 4 frames has errors, while the next 6 has none)
B. 20% (1st 2 frames has errors, while the next 8 has none)
C. 50% (1st 5 frames has errors, while the next 5 has none)
D. 80% (1st 8 frames has errors, while the next 2 has none)
31. Calculate the number of Hamming bits required for a 16-bit data string
A. 5 B. 3
C. 4 D. 2
32. What is the information content for binary 0 in a certain binary transmission
system if the probability of binary 1 being transmitted is 0.6
A. 1.32 binits B. 3.2 binits
C. 2.13 binits D. 13.2 binits
33. Calculate the Hamming distance to detect and correct 2 single-bit errors that
occurred during transmission.
A. 4, 7 B. 5, 7
C. 3, 5 D. 2, 4
34. For a ______ channel, we need to use the Shannon capacity to find the
maximum bit rate.
35. What you see in an eye pattern is the effect of:

A. too many bits high B. too many bits low
C. intermodulation distortion D. intersymbol interference
36. For QAM, the two dimensions of its symbol space are:
A. amplitude and frequency B. amplitude and phase angle
C. frequency and phase angle D. I-bits and Q-bits
37. The specs of the old Bell type 103 modem were:
A. 300 bps, full-duplex, FSK B. 600 bps, full-duplex, FSK
C. 1200 bps, full-duplex, FSK D. 1200 bps, half-duplex, FSK
38. High-frequency radioteletype systems commonly use:

A. FSK B. AFSK
C. PSK D. QAM
39. The _________ product defines the number of bits that can fill the link.
A. bandwidth-period B. frequency-amplitude
C. bandwidth-delay D. delay-amplitude
40. Block coding can help in _______ at the receiver.

A. Synchronization B. Error detection
C. Attenuation D. A and B
41. In _______ transmission, bits are transmitted simultaneously, each across its
own wire.
A. Parallel B. Asynchronous serial
C. Synchronous serial D. A and B
42. Unipolar, bipolar, and polar encoding are types of _______ encoding.
A. Block B. Line
C. NRZ D. Manchester
43. How many points will be on the constellation diagram of a QAM system using 8
phase angles and 2 amplitude levels?
A. 8 B. 32
C. 16 D. 10
44. _______ encoding has a transition at the middle of each bit.

A. RZ B. Manchester
C. Differential Manchester D. All the above
45. Which encoding technique attempts to solve the loss of synchronization due to
long strings of 0s?
A. NRZ B. BnZS
C. AMI D. Manchester
46. Suppose a synchronous frame has 16 bits of non-data in the front and a 16-bit
BCC at the end. The frame carries 1024 bytes of actual data. Calculate the
efficiency of the communication system.
A. 80% B. 67.5%
C. 85.12% D. 97.0%
47. Baseband transmission of a digital signal is possible only if we have a ____

channel.
A. low-pass B. low rate
C. bandpass D. high rate
48. Suppose an asynchronous frame holds 8 bits of data, a parity bit, and two stop
bits (it could happen). Calculate the efficiency of the communication system.
A. 33.3% B. 83.4%
C. 66.7% D. 16.67%

49. One factor in the accuracy of a reconstructed PCM signal is the _______.
A. Number of bits used for quantization
B. Signal bandwidth
C. Carrier frequency
D. Baud rate
50. In asynchronous transmission, the gap time between bytes is _______.

A. Fixed B. A function of the data rate
C. Variable D. Zero
51. How many different characters could be encoded using a six-bit code?
A. 64 B. 32
C. 56 D. 6
52. FSK stands for:

A. Full-Shift Keying B. Frequency-Shift Keying
C. Full-Signal Keying D. Frequency-Step Keying
53. The ITU is under the auspices of:

A. CCITT B. the U.N.
C. IEEE D. ANSI
54. PCM is an example of _______ conversion.

A. Analog-to-analog B. Analog-to-digital
C. Digital-to-digital D. Digital-to-analog
55. If the frequency spectrum of a signal has a bandwidth of 500 Hz with the
highest frequency at 600 Hz, what should be the sampling rate, according to
the Nyquist theorem?
A. 500 samples/s B. 1000 samples/s
C. 200 samples/s D. 1200 samples/s
56. High-speed modems equalize the line to compensate for:

A. noise and interference
B. uneven phase and frequency response
C. low SNR
D. inconsistent bit rates at either end of channel
57. The bits sent to allow equalization are called:

A. Gaussian bits B. random bits
C. a training sequence D. a random sequence
58. PSK stands for:

A. Pulse-Signal Keying B. Pulse-Shift Keying
C. Phase-Signal Keying D. Phase-Shift Keying
59. In the equation C = 2Blog2M, M is the:

A. margin of noise
B. modulation index
C. number of possible states per symbol
D. maximum number of symbols per second
60. An "eye pattern" shows a good channel when:

A. the eye is maximally open
B. the eye is maximally closed
C. the eye is half open
D. the eye alternately opens and closes
61. Which coding scheme requires DC continuity:

A. AMI B. Manchester
C. unipolar NRZ D. bipolar RZ
62. A T-1 cable uses:

A. Manchester coding B. bipolar RZ AMI coding
C. NRZ coding D. pulse-width coding
63. An Ethernet running at 10 Mbits / second uses:

A. Manchester encoding B. Three-Level encoding
C. NRZ encoding D. AMI encoding
64. Instead of a single bit, a QPSK symbol contains:

A. a byte B. 4 bits
C. a dibit D. a Q-bit
65. If the available channel is a ____ channel, we cannot send a digital signal
directly to the channel.
A. low-pass B. bandpass
C. low rate D. high rate
66. In the equation I = ktB, I is measured in:

A. amperes B. amperes per second
C. bits D. bits per second
67. If an asynchronous frame is used to send ASCII characters in the form of bytes
(8 bits), what is the shortest time it could take to send 1000 characters if each
bit in a frame is 1 msec long?
A. 5 seconds B. 0.1 second
C. 10 seconds D. 1 second
68. The _____ of a composite signal is the difference between the highest and the
lowest frequencies contained in that signal.
A. frequency B. period
C. bandwidth D. amplitude
69. For a ______ channel, the Nyquist bit rate formula defines the theoretical
maximum bit rate.
70. To reduce the need for linearity, /4 DQPSK uses:

A. angles of 0, 90, 180, and 270 degrees
B. angles of 45, 135, 225, and 315 degrees
C. angles of /4, 2/4, 3/4, and 4/4
D. double phase-shift angles

71. For QAM, a "constellation diagram" shows:

A. location of symbols in "symbol space"
B. separation of symbols in "symbol space"
C. effects of noise on symbols
D. all of the above
72. ITU is an abbreviation for:

A. International Telephony Unit
B. International Telephony Union
C. International Telecommunications Union
D. International Telecommunications Units
73. QAM stands for:

A. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation
B. Quadrature Amplitude Masking
C. Quadrature Amplitude Marking
D. Quadrature Alternate Modulation
74. Calculate the bits per second capacity of a system sending 1000 symbols per
second with 16 possible states per symbol.
A. 500 B. 4000
C. 250 D. 16000
75. _______ encoding has a transition at the beginning of each 0 bit.

A. Differential Manchester B. RZ
C. Manchester D. AMI
76. How many symbols are produced by a QPSK modem?

A. 16 B. 4
C. 8 D. 2
77. Which modem is used to handle 9600 bps data rates?

A. FSK B. QPSK
C. BPSK D. QAM
78. An 8-PSK system has an incoming data stream at 2400 bps. What is the
symbol rate of the transmitter?
A. 2400 sps B. 600 sps
C. 800 sps D. 1200 sps
79. How many different symbols are available from an 8-PSK transmitter?
A. 3 B. 4
C. 8 D. 16
80. How many bits are needed to address all the different symbols available in a
64-QAM transmitter?
A. 4 B. 5
C. 32 D. 64
Section Data Read it

till it
DEFINITION. Data: Information, for example, numbers, text, images, and

sounds, in a form that is suitable for storage in or processing by a computer.
DEFINITION. Data Communication is the process of transferring digital

information between two or more points.
DEFINITION. Compression: The encoding of data so that it requires less disk

space for storage and transmission.
DEFINITION. Encryption: The science of converting computer data and

messages to something incomprehensible by means of a key, so that it can be
reconverted only by an authorized recipient holding the matching key.
A. .STANDARDS ORGANIZATIONS.
1. International Telecommunications Union (ITU)

A voluntary, non-treaty organization founded in 1946. ITU issues
standards on vast number of subjects, ranging from nuts and bolts
(literally) to telephone pole coatings.
Three Main Sector

i. Radiocommunications Sector (ITU-R)
ii. Telecommunications Standardization Sector (ITU-TSS)
iii. Development Sector (ITU-D)
2. American National Standards Institute (ANSI)

Founded in 1918, coordinates and harmonizes private sector standards
development. ANSI also serves as the U.S. representative to the
International Standards Organization (ISO), the originator of the Open
Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model.
3. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)

IEEE a worldwide professional association dealing with SONET only
peripherally. The IEEE has significant responsibility for the
development of LAN standards, including FDDI, which have great
impact on SONET.

4-56 DATA COMMUNICATIONS
4. International Standards Organization (ISO)

An organization comprised of the national standards organizations
(ANSI) of the various nations. The ISO heavily influences international
standards set by the ITU-T, and is best known for its involvement in
the OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) model.
5. Exchange Carriers Standards Association (ECSA)

Formed in 1984, represents the interests of U.S. IXCs. The ECSA T1
committee addresses issues of functionality and characteristics of
interconnection and interoperability.
6. Electronic Industries Association (EIA)

EIA was founded in 1924 as the Radio Manufacturers Association. The
EIA is responsible for developing the RS series of standards for data
and telecommunications.
B. .NETWORK STANDARDS .
1. De facto (Latin for from the fact)

De facto standards are those that have just happened, without any
formal plan.
2. De jure (Latin for by law)

De jure standards, in contrast, are formal, legal standards adopted by
some authorized standardization body.
C. .DATA TRANSMISSION.
1. Serial Transmission
Bits are transmitted one after another. This type of transmission is
often called serial-by-bit.
2. Parallel Transmission
Bits are transmitted all at once. This type of transmission is called
parallel-by-bit or serial-by-character.
D. .DATA COMMUNICATIONS CIRCUITS.
1. Data Terminal Equipment (DTE)

The data equivalent of CPE (Customer Premise Equipment) in the
voice world, DTE is the computer transmit and receive equipment,
including a wide variety of dumb terminals, or terminals without
embedded intelligence in the form of programmed logic.
2. Data Communications Equipment (DCE)

DCE is the equipment that interfaces the DTE to the network, in the
process resolving any issues of incompatibility between those
domains. Incompatibility issues can include digital versus analog,
voltage level, transmission speed and bit density.
E. .DATA COMMUNICATIONS CODES.
1. Morse Code
Morse code is one of the first character code developed. Morse code
was design with telegraph operator in mind. The character use the
most frequently needs the fewest dots and dashes for transmission.
2. Baudot Code
Baudot code addressed the shortcomings of Morse code by using 5 bits
to represent information subsequently known as International
Telegraph Alphabet (ITA) #2.

3. American (National) Standard Code for Information Interchange

(ANSCII or ASCII)
ASCII employs a 7-bit coding scheme, supporting 128 (27) characters,
which is quite satisfactory for most alphabets, punctuations,
characters, and so on. CCITT recommendation is International
Telegraph Alphabet (ITA) #5.
4. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code (EBCDIC)

EBCDIC, developed by IBM in 1962, involves an 8-bit coding scheme,
yielding 28 (256) possible combinations and, thereby, significantly
increasing the range of expression.
5. Unicode (Universal Code)

UNICODE is an attempt to standardize longer and more complex
coding schemes used to accommodate more complex languages such
as Japanese and Chinese. UNICODE supports 65,536 (216) characters,
thereby accommodating the most complex alphabets; in fact, multiple
alphabets can be satisfied simultaneously.
F. .TRANSMISSION METHODS.
1. Asynchronous
Asynchronous or character-framed transmission is a start-stop method
of transmission in which each computer value (letter, number, or
control character) is preceded by a start bit, succeeded by a stop bit,
which advises the receiving terminal that the transmission of that set
of information is ended.
2. Synchronous
Synchronous or message-framed transmission is used for high-speed
data communications applications where a relatively large set of data
is framed or blocked, with one or more synchronization bits or bit
patterns being used to synchronize the receiving terminal on the rate
of transmission.
3. Isochronous
Isochronous (Isoc) data is synchronous data transmitted without a
clocking source. Bits are sent continuously, with no start-stop bits for
timing. Rather, timing is recovered from transitions in the data
stream, with a whole number of bit-length intervals between
characters.
4. Pleisiochronous
Pleisiochronous communications involves careful synchronization of
transmission systems of varying levels of bandwidth through the use
of highly accurate clocking devices. The preferred approach involves a
master clocking source such as a cesium clock.
Asynchronous comes from Latin and Greek, it translates as not

together with time.
Synchronous comes from Latin and Greek origins, synchronous

translates as together with time.
Isochronous comes from the Greek word isochronos, meaning all bits
are of equal importance and are anticipated to occur at regular
intervals of time.
Pleisiochronous comes from the Greek word pleion, meaning more.

G. .SYNCHRONIZATION.
Synchronization is required at a number of different levels in digital

communications systems, these being classified as follows:
1. Network synchronization - required so that station sharing a network

can transmit and receive in an orderly fashion.
2. Frame synchronization - required to keep track of the individual

channels in a time-division multiplexed system.
3. Codeword and node synchronization - required to keep tracks of block

of bits in a bit stream, where each block form a codewords, usually
designed for the purpose of error control.
4. Symbol synchronization - required in order that symbols, which maybe

hidden in a noisy waveform, are sampled at the optimum time
5. Carrier synchronization - required in order to demodulate a carrier

modulated wave in the most efficient manner.
H. .DIGITAL INTERFACE STANDARDS.
1. Serial Interface
i. RS 232-C
RS 232-C (EIA Recommended Standard) defines exactly how ones
and zeroes are to be electronically transmitted, including voltage
levels needed as well as the other electronic signals necessary for
computer communication.
Electrical Specifications of RS 232
Function Data Pins Control Pins

Enable Disable
Logic 1 Logic 0
ON OFF
Driver -5 to -15 V +5 to +15 V +5 to +15 V -5 to -15 V
Terminator -3 to -25 V +3 to +25 V +3 to +25 V -3 to -25 V
Terminal Load Capacitance = 2500 pF

Terminal Impedance = 3 k
Maximum bit rate = 20 kbps
Nominal maximum length = 50 ft
RS-232 Pin Function Summary

Pins 9,10,11, & 18 Unassigned
Pins 1 & 7 Grounds
Pins 2, 3, 14, & 16 Data
Pins 15, 17, & 24 Timing
Remaining pins are used for control and handshaking signals.
ii. RS 449
The RS-449 interface uses a 37-pin connector that provides more
functions, faster data transmission, and greater distance
capabilities but never embraced by the industry.
iii. RS-530
The RS-530 interface standard is intended to operate at data rates
from 20 kbps to 2 Mbps using the same 25-pin DB-25 connector
used by the RS-232.
iv. RS 422-A (Similar to X.27)

Describes a method of balance transmission that can be used for
the RS 449 Category I signals. The transmission rate can reach
10 Mbps at approximately 15 m, and 90 kbps is the maximum bit
rate that can be transmitted at 1200 m.
v. RS 423-A (Similar to X.26)

Describes a method of unbalance transmission that can be used
for the RS 449 Category I signals. The unbalanced interface cable
will operate at a maximum line speed of 100 kbps and a span
distance of 90 m.
V.24 is known in the U.S. as RS 232, which defines only the functional
characteristic of the interface while its electrical characteristic is
defined in V.28 standards.
V.10 defines unbalance high-speed electrical interface specifications

similar to RS-423.
V.11 defines balance high-speed electrical interface specifications

similar to RS-422.

2. Parallel Interface
i. Centronics Parallel Interface
The Centronics parallel interface became the de facto standard and,
today, is the most common interface used for interfacing personal
computers to printers and other peripheral devices.
ii. IEEE 488 Bus

The IEEE 488 bus uses eight bidirectional data lines connected in
parallel to interface up to 15 remote devices. The interface was
designed for a maximum distance between adjacent devices of less
than 7 ft, and the maximum length of the entire bus is about 65 ft.
I. .DATA FORMAT.
Data formats let the receiving device logically determine what is to be

done with the data and how to go about doing it. Data formats include
code type, message length, and transmission validation techniques. A data
format generally involves a header, text, and a trailer
1. Header
A communications header precedes the data to be transmitted,
establishing the fact that the transmission link exists both physically
and logically. It also provides for synchronization between the devices
and the link, and enables the receiving device to route the data
correctly.
2. Text
The text portion of the data set is the information to be
communicated. It may contain a fixed or a variable amount of
information organized into packets, blocks, frames, or cells.
3. Trailer
The trailer, tail or trace portion of the data set contains information
relative to the analysis of the message, including message tracking
and diagnostics. Trailing the text, the trailer information may contain
the originating ID, the data block number, and total number of blocks
being transmitted, and identification of system processing points
involved in the transmission.
J. .NETWORK PROTOCOLS.
Protocol
Protocol is a set of rules governing the orderly exchange of data within the
network.
1. Binary Synchronous Protocol (Bisync or BSC)

Bisync was developed by IBM in 1966 as a byte-oriented protocol that
frames the data (512 characters) with control codes which apply to the
entire set of data.
2. Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC)

SDLC, developed in the mid-1970s, is at the heart of IBMs System
Network Architecture (SNA). SDLC is a bit-oriented protocol that uses
bit strings to represent characters. SDLC uses CRC error correction
techniques, in this specific case known as Frame Check Sequence
(FCS).
3. High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC)

HDLC was developed by the International Standards Organization
(ISO) as a superset of IBMs SDLC and the United States National
Bureau of Standards (NBS) ADCCP protocols. A version of HDLC is the
Link Access Protocol-Balanced (LAP-B), which is used in ITU-TS X.25
packet switched networks.

K. .NETWORK ARCHITECTURE.
1. Open System Interconnect (OSI) Layer
i. Physical Layer
The lowest layer of the OSI Reference Model is the physical layer.
This layer is responsible for the mechanical, electrical, functional,
and procedural mechanism required for the transmission of data.
Ex. RS-232C
Unit of information: BITS
The physical layer is responsible for movements of individual bits from one
hop (node) to the next.
ii. Data-Link Layer

The data link layer is responsible for the manner in which a device
gains access to the medium specified in the physical layer.
Ex. HDLC
Unit of information: FRAMES
The data link layer is responsible for moving frames from one hop (node) to
the next.
iii. Network Layer

The network layer is responsible for the physical routing of data.
To accomplish this task, the network layer performs addressing,
routing, switching, sequencing of data packets, and flow control.
Ex. Internet Protocol (IP)
Unit of information: PACKETS
The network layer is responsible for the delivery of individual packets from
the source host to the destination host.
iv. Transport Layer

The transport layer is responsible for ensuring that the transfer of
information occurs correctly once a route is establish through a
network.
Ex. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
Unit of information: SEGMENTS
The transport layer is responsible for the delivery of a message from one
process to another.
v. Session Layer
The session layer represents the first of three upper layers of the
OSI model. This layer is responsible for establishing and
terminating data streams between network nodes.
The session layer is responsible for dialog control and synchronization.
vi. Presentation Layer

The presentation layer is responsible for the isolating the
application layers data format from the lower layers in the OSI
model. The presentation layer provides data transformation,
formatting, and syntax conversion.
The presentation layer is responsible for translation, compression, and

encryption.
vii. Application Layer

The application layer provides support services for user and
application tasks. File transfer, interpretation of graphic formats
and documents, and document processing are supported at this
level.
Ex. X.400 e-mail messaging, Telnet, FTP
The application layer is responsible for providing services to the user.
2. IBMs System Network Architecture (SNA)

IBMs SNA is a method for unifying network operations. SNA describes
a network in terms of a physical network and logical network. The
physical network consists of a collection of nodes: host node, front-
end communication node, concentration node and terminal node.
i. Host node - The host node is the central processor.
ii. Front-end Node - The front-end node is concerned with data

transmission functions.
iii. Concentration Node - The concentration nodes supervises the

behavior of terminals and other peripherals.
iv. Terminal Node - The terminal node is concerned with the input and
output information through terminal devices.
3. DECNETs DNA
A DECNET is just a collection of computer (nodes) whose functions
include running user programs, performing packet switching or both.
The architecture of DECNET is called Digital Network Architecture
Comparison of Different Architecture Control Levels
L. .DATA SWITCHING.
1. Circuit Switching
In the classic sense, circuit switching provides continuous and
exclusive access between physical circuits for the duration of the
conversation.
2. Packet Switching
First deployed in 1971, packet switching involves the transmission of
data in packets of fixed length across a shared network. Each packet is
individually addressed, in order that the packet switches can route
each packet over the most appropriate and available circuit.
3. Frame Switching (Frame Relay)

A relative newcomer, frame relay was first offered commercially in
1992 by Wiltel (U.S.). Unlike packet switching, frame relay supports
the transmission of virtually any computer data stream in its native
form--frames are variable in length (up to 4,096 bytes).
4. Cell Switching (Asynchronous Transfer Mode)

Clearly, cell switching is fundamental to the future of communications.
Data is organized into cells of fixed length (53 octets), shipped across
very high speed facilities and switched through very high speed,
specialized switches.
Attribute X.25 Frame Relay
Facilities Analog Assumed Digital Assumed
Payload 128B/256B Fixed < 4,096B Variable
Speed Access < 56 Kbps-DS1 < 56 Kbps-DS1, DS3
Link Layer Protocol LAP-B LAP-D/LAP-F
Latency High Moderate
Orientation Connection-Oriented Connection-Oriented
Error Control Network User
Primary Application Interactive Data LAN-to-LAN
5. Photonic Switching
Still in development, photonic switching are yet another dimension in
the evolution of switch technology. Capable of supporting circuit-
packet- frame- and cell switching, photonic switches will eliminate the
requirement for optoelectric conversion when connected to a fiber
optic transmission system.
M. .LOCAL AREA NETWORKING.
1. LANs defined
A LAN is a form of local (limited-distance), shared packet network for
computer communications. LANs interconnect computers and
peripherals over a common medium in order that users might share
access to host computers, databases, files, applications, and
peripherals.
2. LAN Transmission Method
Unicast - a single packet is sent from the single source to a

specific destination on a network.
A singlecast address is the simple implementation in which one host

communicates with another host (or multiple hosts). In this case, a
destination and source address is used.
Multicast - consists of a single data packet that is copied and sent

to a specific subset of nodes on the network.
A multicast address is usually 6 bytes in length. It differs from the singlecast

address because only particular hosts understand and receive the multicast
address as if the frame were addressed to them with singlecast address.

Broadcast - transmission consists of a single data packet that is

copied and sent to all nodes on the networks.
The broadcast address can be used to perform isolated broadcast on

networks in which multiple subnets are implemented. This type of address is
frequently used when the upper layer protocol is TCP/IP.
3. LAN Access Method
Controlled Access
a. X-on/X-off - the oldest media access control protocols, dating

back to the days of the teletype.
b. Polling - the process of sending signal to a terminal to

transmit or asking it to receive it uses roll call polling with
scheme or sequence.
c. Token Passing - a channel accessing arrangement that is best

suited for ring topology with either a baseband or broadband
network. It uses a token and the token circulate in the
network.
Token is an electrical signal that circulates around the ring

network from one station to another. If the station has the
token, it can send a message.
Contention - opposite of controlled access.
a. Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection

(CSMA/CD) - A channel accessing method, a node monitors
the line to determine if the line is busy. If the station has a
message to transmit but the line is busy, it waits for an idle
condition before it transmits its message.
Collision is the situation when two nodes transmit

simultaneously using one link.
Backoff Time is the ceasing time before the station attempts

to transmit again.
Comparison of Different Access Methods
Access
Advantages Disadvantages
Method
Polling Guaranteed access Inefficient use of network
Fast in low traffic Slow in high traffic
Contention No access guarantee
Inexpensive
No priority mechanism
Token Fast in high traffic Slow in low traffic

Passing Guaranteed access
More expensive
Time-critical
4. LAN Shared Medium
i. Coaxial Cable
ThickNet, or thick Ethernet (10Base5)

Also known as, uses traditional thick coax, often referred to as
goldenrod, undoubtedly referring to its high cost and high
value.
Twinax, or twinaxial cable

Similar to ThinNet coax, but with two conductors, rather than
one. Twinax is used in older IBM midrange systems such as
Systems 34, 36, and 38, as well as the younger IBM AS/400
and RS/400.

ThinNet, or thin Ethernet (10Base2)

Uses coax of thinner gauge. The thinner cable is less costly to
acquire and deploy, although its performance is less in terms
of transmission distance.
ii. Twisted Pair (UTP/STP)
UTP
10Base-T, or twisted-pair Ethernet

Uses Cat 3, 4, or 5 UTP, 10Base-T actually is a wire hub that
serves as a multiport repeater, as well as a central point of
interconnection.
CDDI, or Cable Distributed Data Interface

Also is known as TPDDI (Twisted-pair Distributed Data
Interface). CDDI employs Cat 5 UTP as an inexpensive means
of connecting workstations and peripherals to FDDI fiber optic
backbone LANs.
iii. Fiber Optic Cable

FDDI
The FDDI standard is actually a set of standards as
established by the American National Standards Institute.
FDDI is a token-based ring access method that allows station
to access a cable plant that operates at 100 Mbps.
5. Summary of Baseband standards.
10Base5
Information Category Specifications

Transmission Speed 10 Mbps
Access Method CSMA/CD
Cable Type 50-ohm Thicknet coaxial
Max. Segment Length 500 m (1640 ft)
Max. Total Network Length 2500 m (8200 ft)
Max. Length between nodes 2.5 m
Max. # Segments 5, only 3 populated
Max. # of nodes/segment 100
Max. # of nodes in a network 300
Topology Bus
Connector Type Vampire Tap Transceiver
IEEE specifications 802.3
Interference High resistant
Advantages Long distances
Expensive, difficult to install &
Disadvantages
troubleshoot

10Base2

50-ohm Thinnet coaxial-RG
Cable Type
58A/U
Max. Total Network Length 925 m (3035 ft)
Max. Length between nodes 0.5 m
Max. # Segments 5, only 3 populated
Topology Bus
Connector Type BNC
Interference High resistant
Advantages Simple to install, inexpensive
Disadvantages Difficult to troubleshoot
10BaseT

Cable Type UTP
Max. Total Network Length N.A.
Max. Length between nodes 2.5 m (8 ft)
Max. # of connected Segments 1024
Topology Star
Connector Type RJ-45
Interference Low resistant
Very inexpensive, simple to
Advantages
connect and easy
Disadvantages Difficult to troubleshoot
100-Base T LAN

Cable Type UTP Category 3-5
Topology Star
Connector Type RJ-45
Fast, simple to connect and easy
Advantages
troubleshoot
Disadvantages Limited distance, expensive
100-Base F LAN

Cable Type Optical Fiber
Max. Length between nodes N.A.
Topology Star
Connector Type Specialized
Interference Immune to EMI
Advantages Fast and long distances
Very expensive and difficult to
Disadvantages
install

Token Ring LAN

Transmission Speed 4 or 16 Mbps
Access Method Token Passing
Cable Type IBM cable, Type 1 STP/Cat 3 UTP
Max. Segment Length 45 m with UTP, 101 m with STP
Max. # of connected Segments 33 hubs
Max. # of nodes/segment Depends on the hub
72 node with UTP, 260 nodes
Max. # of nodes in a network
with STP
Topology Star-wired ring
Connector Type RJ-45/ IBM Type A
Advantages Fast and reliable
More expensive than Ethernet
Disadvantages solutions, difficult to
troubleshoot
Token Ring LAN (FDDI)

Access Method Token Passing
Max. Segment Length N.A.
Max. Total Network Length 100 km
Max. Length between nodes N.A.
Max. # of connected Segments N.A.
Max. # of nodes/segment N.A.
Topology Ring
Cable Type Fiber optic
Connector Type Specialized
No IEEE specification ANSI
IEEE specifications
X3T9.5
Interference Resistant to EMI
Very fast and reliable, long
Advantages
distances, high secure
More expensive and difficult to
Disadvantages
install
6. IEEE 802 Standards
i. 802.1: Architecture and Internetworking (High-Level Interface).

Defines architecture layers and rules for interconnection of
disparate LAN protocols. Includes data formatting, network
management and internetworking.
ii. 802.2: Defines equivalent of Logical Link Control services,

including protocol for data transfer.
iii. 802.3: Defines CSMA/CD Access Method and Physical Layer

specifications.
iv. 802.4: Token-Passing Bus Access Method and Physical Layer

specifications.
v. 802.5: Token-Passing Ring Access Method and Physical Layer

specifications.
vi. 802.6: Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) Access Method and

Physical Layer specifications. DQDB (Distributed Queue Dual Bus)
is defined.
vii. 802.7: Broadband Technical Advisory Group. Standards for

definition of a broadband cable plant design. Established
guidelines for LAN construction within a physical facility such as a
building.
viii. 802.8: Fiber Optic Technical Advisory Group. Established to assess

impact of fiber optics and to recommend standards. Note that this
standard is distinct from that of ANSIs FDDI.
ix. 802.9: Integrated Voice and Data Networks (Isochronous Traffic)
x. 802.10: Internetwork Security.
xi. 802.11: Wireless LAN.
xii. 802.12: High-Speed LANs, Demand Priority Access (e.g., 100VG-

AnyLAN).
xiii. 802.15: A communications specification that was approved in early

2002 by the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers
Standards Association (IEEE-SA) for wireless personal area
networks (WPANs).
The initial version, 802.15.1, was adapted from the Bluetooth specification
and is fully compatible with Bluetooth 1.1.
xiv. 802.16: Broadband Wireless Metropolitan Area Network (WMAN).

Operating Logical Modulation Bit

802.11xx Accessing
Frequency Topology Scheme Rate
802.11a
5.725 to 54
(Wireless Ethernet OFDM* CSMA/CA
5.850 GHz Mbps
ATM)
802.11b
Complementary
(Wireless 2.400 to 11
Ethernet Code Keying CSMA/CA
Fidelity or 2.4835 GHz Mbps
(CCK)
Wi-FI)
802.11g
11 to
(Short 2.400 to
Ethernet OFDM CSMA/CA 54
distance 2.4835 GHz
Mbps
WLAN)
*Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing
802.11x refers to a group of evolving wireless local area network

(WLAN) standards that are under development as elements of the IEEE
802.11 family of specifications, but that have not yet been formally
approved or deployed. As of August 2004, these incomplete standards
included the following:
802.11e -- Adds Quality of Service (QoS) features to existing

802.11 family specifications
802.11f -- Adds Access Point Interoperability to existing 802.11
family specifications
802.11i -- A standard for wireless local area networks (WLANs)
that provides improved encryption for networks that use the
popular 802.11a, 802.11b (which includes Wi-Fi, and 802.11g
standards. The 802.11i standard requires new encryption key
protocols, known as Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) and
Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
802.11h -- Resolves interference issues with existing 802.11 family
specifications
802.11j -- Japanese regulatory extensions to 802.11 family
specifications
802.11k -- Radio resource measurement for 802.11 specifications
so that a wireless network can be used more efficiently
802.11m -- Enhanced maintenance features, improvements, and
amendments to existing 802.11 family specifications
802.11n -- Next generation of 802.11 family specifications, with
throughput in excess of 100 Mbps
N. .NETWORK TOPOLOGY.
1. Bus
Bus topologies are multipoint electrical circuits, which can be
implemented using coax, UTP, or STP. Bus networks employ a
decentralized method of media access control known as CSMA (Carrier
Sense Multiple Access) that allows the attached devices to make
independent decisions relative to media access and initiation of
transmission.
2. Star
Star network consist of a central node, hub, or switch, to which all
other devices are attached directly, generally via UTP or STP.
3. Ring
Rings generally are coax or fiber (FDDI) in nature, operating at raw
transmission rates of 4, 16, 20 or 100+ Mbps. Information travels
around the ring in only one direction, with each attached station or
node serving as a repeater. Token-Passing Ring, IBM Token Ring, and
FDDI all are based on ring topologies.

O. .NETWORKING DEVICES.
1. Bridges
Bridges are relatively simple devices that are used to connect LANs of
the same architecture (Ethernet-to-Ethernet). Bridges operate at the
bottom two layers of the OSI model, providing Physical Layer and Data
Link Layer connectivity.
2. Hubs and Switches

Hubs can be either active or passive. Passive hubs act simply as cable-
connecting devices, while active hubs also serve as signal repeaters.
3. Routers
Routers are highly intelligent devices that support connectivity
between both like and disparate LANs.
4. Gateways
Gateways are at the top of the LAN food chain. Gateway routers
perform all of the functions of bridges and routers, including protocol
conversion at all seven layers of the OSI Reference Model.
P. .INTERNETWORKING.
1. Network Domains
The Internet is divided logically into domains. Under the terms of IPv4
(Internet Protocol version 4), these are identified as a 32-bit portion of
the total address. Addresses follow a standard convention, which is
similar to user@organization.domain
Domain types include the following:

.com = commercial organizations
.edu = educational institutions
.gov = government agencies
.mil = military
.net = network access providers
2. World Wide Web (the Web)

The Web is a multiplatform web that supports multimedia
communications on the basis of a Graphic User Interface (GUI). The
GUI provides hypertext, which allows the user to click on a highlighted
text word and search related files, across Web servers, through hot
links.

The WorldWide Web (WWW), also known as the Web, was developed by Mr. Tim
Berners-Lee at CERN, the European Laboratory for Particle Physics in Geneva,
Switzerland.
3. Home Page
Home Page is multimedia informational document that may contain
graphics, animated graphics, video clips, and audio clips, as well as
text.
4. Universal Resource Locators (URLs)

URLs are unique WWW Addresses assigned to each Web site and to
each Home Page.
5. Search Mechanisms and Browsers
i. Archie - A corruption of archive, Archie is a FTP search mechanism

first deployed in 1991. Archie allows one to search for a file (exact
name unknown) on a file server (name unknown) somewhere on
the Net. Archie servers contain directory listings of all such files,
updated on a monthly basis through a process of file server
polling.
ii. Gopher - Developed at the University of Minnesota, where the

Golden Gopher is the school mascot, Gopher is a user interface
that provides easy access to server resources in educational
institutions.
iii. Veronica - Veronica (Very Easy Rodent-Oriented Net-wide Index to

Computerized Archives) is an Archie variation that supports an
index of Gopherspace titles on which a search can be performed.
The selected resources are then delivered to the user in the form
of a Gopher menu
iv. Jughead -Jughead (Jonzys Universal Gopher Hierarchy Excavation

and Display) is quite similar in operation to Veronica, although it
limits the search to a specific organization. Jughead also delivers a
custom menu of available resources located on the basis of the
keyword search.

v. Mosaic - Mosaic is a browser developed at the National Center for

Supercomputing (NCSA) at the University of Illinois Urbana-
Champaign campus. Mosaic provides a consistent user interface
supporting Macintosh, Microsoft Windows, and UNIX X-Windows.
vi. Netscape Navigator - Developed by Netscape Communications,

Netscape Navigator was built by a team led by Marc Andersen,
creator of the original Mosaic. It features simultaneous image
loading and continuous document streaming speed performance.
vii. Internet Explorer - Developed by Microsoft Corporation whose

basic toolbar and features is similar to netscape navigator.
Q. .TCP/IP PROTOCOL SUITE.
1. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

TCP was developed to provide a reliable connection-oriented service
that supports end-to-end transmission reliability.
2. User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

The UDP was developed to provide an unreliable, connectionless
transport service.
3. Internet Protocol (IP)

IP handles software computer addresses.
4. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

The FTP is a mechanism for moving data files between hosts via a
TCP/IP network.
5. Telnet
Telnet is designed to enable client to access a remote computer as
though the client were a terminal directly connected to the remote
computer
6. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

The SMTP provides the data transportation mechanism for electronic
messages to be routed over a TCP/IP network.
7. Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

The HTTP represents a relatively recent addition to the TCP/IP family.
HTTP is the protocol used by the Web browsers to communicate with
Web servers and vice verse.
8. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
The SMTP provides the mechanism to transport status messages and
statistical information about the operation and utilization of TCP/IP
devices.
9. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

ICMP handles errors and sends error messages for TCP/IP
10. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

ARP relates IP addresses with hardware or MAC addresses.
11. Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

RIP find the quickest route between two computers.
12. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

OSPF is a descendant of RIP that increases its speed and reliability
Tabulated below are the most common port numbers of different TCP/IP
family applications.
Application Port Number

FTP 21
Telnet 23
SMTP 25
TFTP 69
HTTP(WWW) 80
POP3 110
NetBIOS Name (UDP) 137
NetBIOS Datagram (UDP) 138
NetBIOS Session (TCP) 139
SNMP 161
13. Point-To-Point Protocol (PPP)

PPP provides for dial up networked connections to networks. PPP is
commonly used by ISP to allow customers to connect to their services.

14. Border(Exterior) Gateway Protocol (BGP/EGP)

BGP/EGP handles how data is passed between networks.
15. Post Office Protocol Version 3 (POP3)

POP3 setup ways for client to connect to servers and collect email.
16. Domain Name Service (DNS)
The DNS provides a very important service by enabling near-English
names (such as ftp.xyz.com to indicate an FTP server operated by the
XYZ commercial firm) to be translated into unique IP address that
represents the physical address of the interface of the FTP server on a
network
17. Real Time Protocol (RTP)

The RTP represents a special type of protocol developed to support
applications requiring the real-time delivery of data such as audio and
video.
R. .TCP/IP ENCAPSULATION.
S. .IP ADDRESSING.
1. IP address
A 32 bit number that identify Internet hosts. These numbers are place
in the IP packet header and are used to route packets to their
destination.
i. Prefix-based addressing
A basic concept of IP addressing is that initial prefixes of the IP
address can be used for generalized routing decision. For
example, the 1st 16 bits of an address might identify a company
and the remaining bits identify a particular host on that network.
ii. Per-interface assignment

IP addresses are assigned on a per-interface basis, so a host
might posses several IP addresses if it has several interfaces. This
is an important consequence of prefix-based addressing because
an IP address doesnt really refer to a host, it refer to an interface
port.
iii. Multiple addresses

If a host is know by multiple addresses, every service on this host
can be referred to by multiple names.
2. Types of IP address
i. Class A
ii. Class B
iii. Class C
iv. Class D

v. CLASS E
3. Summary of IP Address Classes
Application Class A Class B Class C Class D
First few bits 0 10 110 1110

Number of Network
7 14 21 28**
bits
Number of Host bits 24 16 8 n.a.
Initial Byte 0-127* 128-191 192-223 224-247
Number of Class 126 16,384 2,097,152 n.a.
Number of Host 16,777,214 65,532 254 n.a.

*0 and 127 are reserved. ** Class Ds are multicast addresses.
T. .COMMON INTERNET APPLICATIONS.
1. E-mail
E-mail clearly is the most popular application. More than one billion
e-mail messages of over one trillion bytes (1TB) transverse the
Internet each month. It is estimated that over 400 million people used
e-mail by the year 2004.
2. File Transfer
File transfer is accomplished through the File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
Through any of over 8,000 FTP servers, any of the thousands of Net
servers and their resident file resources be accessed and transferred in
ASCII or binary code from the server to the users computer
3. Bulletin Board Systems

Bulletin Board Systems (BBSs) are specific to a region or area of
topical interest. Each supports numbers of subcategories. Network
News, or Usenet News, formed in 1979, is a collection of over 6,000
special-interest Bulletin Boards (BBSs).
4. Library Catalogs
Library catalogs for over 300 libraries are available through the
Internet. Such catalogs include the U.S. Library of Congress, the
Research Libraries Information Network and many major colleges and
universities.
5. Realtime Applications
Realtime applications include collaborative design and development,
interactive role-playing, interactive remote education, chat lines
(realtime BBSs), voice and video conferencing, network games,
gambling, and radio and video broadcasting (cybercasts).
6. Online Banking
Online banking has received a good deal of interest as a result of the
failed acquisition talks between Microsoft and Intuit. While security
issues abound, there is little doubt that this application has great
promise.
U. .MODEM STANDARDS.
1. Bell Modems
TX No. of Modulatio
Standard Baud Rate Bit Rate
Mode Wire n
Bell 103 FDX 300 baud 300 bps 2-wire FSK
Bell 202 HDX 1200 baud 1200 bps 2-wire FSK
Bell 212 FDX 600 baud 1200 bps 2-wire 4-PSK
Bell 201 HDX/FDX 1200 baud 2400 bps 2/4wire 4-PSK
Bell 208 FDX 1600 baud 4800 bps 4-wire 8-PSK
Bell 209 FDX 2400 baud 9600 bps 4-wire 16-QAM
2. ITU-T Modems
TX Baud No. of
Standard Bit Rate Modulation
Mode Rate Wire
1200 to 4-DPSK/16-
V.22 bis FDX 600 baud 2-wire
2400 bps QAM
V.32 FDX 2400 baud 9600 bps 2-wire 32-QAM (trellis)
V.32bis FDX 2400 baud 14400 bps 4-wire 64-QAM
V.32terbo FDX 2400 baud 19200 bps 4-wire 256-QAM

128-QAM
V.33 FDX 2400 baud 14400 bps 4-wire
(trellis)
V.34 FDX 2400 baud 28800 bps 4-wire 4096-QAM

I H
1. When conversing with an individual whose primary language is different from
yours, you many need to repeat your words and speak slower. Repeating your
words can be compared to _____ and the need to speak slowly can be
compared to the _____ functions of the transport layer.
A. Flow Control and Reliability
B. Flow Control and Transport
C. Reliability and Flow Control
D. Transport and Acknowledgement
2. When you mail an unregistered package through the standard mail system you
make an assumption that the person to which it is addressed receives it. This is
analogous to which protocol?
A. IPX B. IP
C. TCP D. UDP
3. Which layer of the OSI model provides connectivity and path selection between
two end systems where routing occurs?
A. Physical Layer B. Data Link Layer
C. Network Layer D. Transport Layer
4. A file transfer protocol that works over phone lines and is known for its high
accuracy and slower speed?
A. Veronica B. HTTP
C. Kerberos D. Kermit
5. In telecommunications, what does ICE age mean?

A. Information Communication Engineering age
B. Informal Communication Engineering age
C. Informal Communication Entertainment age
D. Information Communication Entertainment age
6. A text and graphics formatting software that uses a coding to indicate how a
received part of a document should be presented by a viewing application such
as an internet web browser?
A. HTML B. SMTP
C. WWW D. FTP
7. How is Forward Error Correction implemented?

A. By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a
predefined algorithm
B. By transmitting blocks of 3 data characters from the sending station to the
receiving station, which the receiving station acknowledges
C. By transmitting a special FEC algorithm which the receiving station uses for
data validation
D. By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct
transmission errors
8. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for reliable network communication
between end nodes and provides mechanisms for the establishment,
maintenance, and termination of virtual circuits, transport fault detection and
recovery, and information flow control?
A. Network Layer B. Transport Layer
C. Data Link Layer D. Physical Layer
9. Which of the following best describes the function of the presentation layer?
A. Responsible for reliable network communication between end nodes
B. Provides connectivity and path selection between two end systems
C. Concerned with data structures and negotiation data transfer syntax.
D. Manages data exchange between layer entities
10. What is the maximum segment length of a 10Base2 network in an Ethernet

network?
11. Which of the following UTP cables types is rated for 100 Mbps transmission?
A. CAT 3 B. CAT 4
C. CAT 2 D. CAT 5
12. What is a dial-up networking multilink configuration?

A. A dial-up networking connection that links your computer to two or more
servers simultaneously using a single adapter
B. Dial-up networking connection that uses more than physical link to
increase bandwidth
C. A dial-up networking connection that allows your computer to acts as a link
between two servers
D. A dial-up networking connection that allows your computer to acts as a link
between a server and a network station.
13. What is the principal difference between asynchronous and synchronous

transmission?
A. The clocking is derived from the data in synchronous transmission
B. The clocking is mixed with the data in synchronous transmission
C. The bandwidth required is difficult
D. The pulse are difficult
14. Which of the following described the very early standard that defines binary
digits as space/mark line conditions and voltage levels?
A. V.1 B. V.2
C. V.4 D. V.5

15. The SMTP uses _____ protocol to deliver network management information.
A. OSPF B. UDP
C. TCP D. RIP
16. USB stands for

A. Universal System Bus B. Universal System Bios
C. Universal Serial Bus D. Universal Standard Bus
17. What functions are the data link layer concerned with?
A. Physical addressing, network topology, and media access.
B. Synchronizes cooperating applications, and establishes agreement on
procedures for error recovery and control of data integrity.
C. Manages data exchange between presentation layer entities
D. Provides mechanisms for the establishment, maintenance, and termination
of virtual circuits, transport fault detection, recovery, and information flow
control.
18. Some protocols are considered to be technically non-routable. Which of the

following statement best describes the most common reason why a protocol
would be considered non-routable?
A. It defines Physical layer network addresses for internal routing
B. It uses advance transport layer service to move across the internet and
avoid the routing overhead required by the more primitive networking
protocols.
C. It does not contain the appropriate datalink information required by the
routers
D. It does not specify the network addressees required by routers
19. Which of the following OSI layers is responsible for identifying communications
partners?
A. Application B. Network
C. Presentation D. Session
20. Which of the following statement describes a star topology?

A. Requires more cabling than a bus topology
B. More difficult to troubleshoot than ring topology
C. Less reliable than ring topology
D. All network computers get equal network access through the use of
CSMA/CD
21. What network access method should be implemented to provide centralize

control of network transmission?
A. Token ring B. CSMA/CD
C. Demand priority D. CSMA/CA
22. Which of these hardware devices can be used to boost broadband signal
strength on a cable run?
A. Multiplexer B. Amplifier
C. Repeater D. TDR
23. In a peer to peer network, which of the following may acts as both a client and
a server?
A. A dedicated server B. A peer computer
C. A dedicated workstation D. A standalone computer
24. What type of protocol is used in the selective calling system for Bells System?
A. Synchronous Data Protocol B. Asynchronous Link Protocol
C. Asynchronous Data Protocol D. Synchronous Link Protocol
25. Ethernet is baseband system using CSMA/CD operating at

A. 40 Mbps B. 30 Mbps
C. 10 Mbps D. 20 Mbps
26. In a _______ connection, more than two devices can share a single link.
A. Secondary B. Multipoint
C. Point-to-point D. Primary
27. A port address in TCP/IP is ______ bits long.

A. 16 B. 32
C. 48 D. 64
28. The ____ created a model called the Open Systems Interconnection, which
allows diverse systems to communicate.
A. ISO B. ETSI
C. IEEE D. ANSI
29. The seven-layer _____ model provides guidelines for the development of
universally compatible networking protocols.
A. ANSI B. ISO
C. IEEE D. OSI
30. The physical, data link, and network layers are the ______ support layers.
A. user B. network
C. session D. remote
31. The session, presentation, and application layers are the ____ support layers.
A. user B. network
C. session D. remote
32. A ________ is a set of rules that governs data communication.

A. forum B. protocol
C. standard D. timing
33. The _______ layer changes bits into electromagnetic signals.

A. Data link B. Transport
C. Physical D. Network
34. The physical layer is concerned with the transmission of _______ over the
physical medium.
A. Bits B. Protocols
C. Packets D. Frames
35. Mail services are available to network users through the _______ layer.
A. Application B. Transport
C. Physical D. Data link

36. As the data packet moves from the lower to the upper layers, headers are
_______.
A. Rearranged B. Modified
C. Subtracted D. Added
37. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ________

transmission.
A. Simplex B. Half-duplex
C. Duplex D. Full-duplex
38. In a network with 25 computers, which topology would require the most
extensive cabling?
A. Bus B. Star
C. Mesh D. Ring
39. Which topology requires a central controller or hub?

A. Bus B. Star
C. Mesh D. Ring
40. The _______ is the physical path over which a message travels.
A. Sink B. Protocol
C. Medium D. Signal
41. Which organization has authority over interstate and international commerce in
the communications field?
A. IEEE B. FCC
C. ISO D. ITU-T
42. The information to be communicated in a data communications system is the

_______.
A. Transmission B. Medium
C. Protocol D. Message
43. Frequency of failure and network recovery time after a failure are measures of
the _______ of a network.
A. Security B. Feasibility
C. Reliability D. Performance
44. In _______ transmission, the channel capacity is shared by both

communicating devices at all times.
A. Simplex B. Half-simplex
C. Half-duplex D. Full-duplex
45. An unauthorized user is a network _______ issue.

A. Security B. Reliability
C. Performance D. Integrity
46. Which topology requires a multipoint connection?

A. Ring B. Bus
C. Star D. Mesh
47. A _______ connection provides a dedicated link between two devices.

A. Primary B. Secondary
C. Point-to-point D. Multipoint
48. A cable break in a _______ topology stops all transmission.

A. Bus B. Star
C. Primary D. Mesh
49. In the original ARPANET, _______ were directly connected together.

A. routers B. networks
C. host computers D. IMPs
50. This was the first network.

A. ANSNET B. NSFNET
C. ARPANET D. CSNET
51. _______ are special-interest groups that quickly test, evaluate, and
standardize new technologies.
A. Regulatory agencies B. Forums
C. Standards organizations D. ITU
52. Which agency developed standards for physical connection interfaces and
electronic signaling specifications?
A. ITU-T B. ISO
C. EIA D. ANSI
53. In a ______ connection, two and only two devices are connected by a
dedicated link.
A. point-to-point B. multipoint
C. internet D. ethernet
54. In a ________ connection, three or more devices share a link.

A. point-to-point B. multipoint
C. internet D. ethernet
55. ______ refers to the physical or logical arrangement of a network.

A. Data flow B. Segment
C. Mode of operation D. Topology
56. A _______ is a data communication system within a building, plant, or campus,

or between nearby buildings.
A. LAN B. MAN
C. WAN D. WPAN
57. A ______ is a data communication system spanning states, countries, or the

whole world.
A. LAN B. MAN
C. WAN D. WPAN
58. ________ is a collection of many separate networks.

A. a LAN B. A WAN
C. An internet D. An intranet
59. When data are transmitted from device A to device B, the header from A's layer
4 is read by B's _______ layer.
A. Data link B. Network
C. Session D. Transport

60. Which layer functions as a liaison between user support layers and network
support layers?
A. Transport layer B. Application layer
C. Physical layer D. Network layer
61. What is the main function of the transport layer?

A. Node-to-node delivery
B. Process-to-process delivery
C. Updating and maintenance of routing tables
D. Synchronization
62. The Internet model consists of _______ layers.

A. 4 B. 5
C. 6 D. 7
63. The process-to-process delivery of the entire message is the responsibility of

the _______ layer.
A. Application B. Network
C. Transport D. Physical
64. The _______ layer is the layer closest to the transmission medium.
A. Network B. Physical
C. Transport D. Data link
65. Why was the OSI model developed?

A. The rate of data transfer was increasing exponentially
B. Standards were needed to allow any two systems to communicate
C. Manufacturers disliked the TCP/IP protocol suite
D. None of the above
66. The _______ model shows how the network functions of a computer ought to
be organized.
A. Kennelly-Heaviside B. ANSI
C. ISO D. OSI
67. The OSI model consists of _______ layers.

A. 4 B. 5
C. 6 D. 7
68. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from the lower to the upper layers,
headers are _______.
A. rearranged B. modified
C. removed D. added
69. In the OSI model, when data is transmitted from device A to device B, the
header from A's layer 5 is read by B's _______ layer.
A. transport B. physical
C. presentation D. session
70. In the OSI model, encryption and decryption are functions of the ________
layer.
A. transport B. session
C. application D. presentation
71. When a host on network A sends a message to a host on network B, which

address does the router look at?
A. port B. physical
C. logical D. MAC
72. To deliver a message to the correct application program running on a host, the
_______ address must be consulted.
A. port B. physical
C. IP D. TCP
73. IPv6 has _______ -bit addresses.

A. 32 B. 64
C. 128 D. 256
74. The ______ layer is responsible for moving frames from one hop (node) to the
next.
A. physical B. data link
C. network D. transport
75. The ______ layer adds a header to the packet coming from the upper layer
that includes the logical addresses of the sender and receiver.
76. The_________ layer is responsible for the delivery of a message from one
process to another.
77. The Internetworking Protocol (IP) is a ________ protocol.

A. reliable B. connection-oriented
C. both A and B D. none of the above
78. _______ is a process-to-process protocol that adds only port addresses,

checksum error control, and length information to the data from the upper
layer.
A. TCP B. IP
C. UDP D. RIP
79. __________ provides full transport layer services to applications.

A. TCP B. UDP
C. ARP D. IP
80. The ________ address, also known as the link address, is the address of a
node as defined by its LAN or WAN.
A. logical B. port
C. physical D. hole
81. Ethernet uses a ______ physical address that is imprinted on the network
interface card (NIC).
A. 32-bit B. 6-byte
C. 64-bit D. 32-byte

82. As the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers, headers are
_______.
A. Rearranged B. Modified
C. Subtracted D. Added
83. The _______ layer lies between the network layer and the application layer.
A. Application B. Transport
C. Physical D. Data link
84. Layer 2 lies between the physical layer and the _______ layer.
A. Data link B. Network
C. Session D. Transport
85. _______ is the protocol suite for the current Internet.

A. DOS B. BIOS
C. TCP/IP D. UNIX
86. _______ refers to the structure or format of the data, meaning the order in
which they are presented.
A. Syntax B. Semantics
C. Timing D. Flowchart
87. ________ defines how a particular pattern to be interpreted, and what action is
to be taken based on that interpretation.
88. _______ refers to two characteristics: when data should be sent and how fast
it can be sent.
89. The _______ layer coordinates the functions required to transmit a bit stream
over a physical medium.
A. network B. transport
C. data link D. physical
90. The unit of information at the network layer.

A. frames B. packet
C. bits D. segment
91. Bit synchronization is a topic associated with which of the following layers?
A. Session B. Transport
C. Data Link D. Physical
92. A mesh network-________.

A. consist of a bus and drop cables connecting all devices in a network
B. Has a point-to point connections between every device in the network
C. Is relatively easy to install and reconfigure
D. Is difficult to troubleshoot
93. Which is true of asynchronous bit systems?

A. They use continuous signals to transmit bits
B. They use intermittent signals to transmit bits
C. They are commonly used for mainframe-to mainframe communications
D. They require an external clocking device
94. Which method is associated with media access?

A. asynchronous connection B. dialog control
C. message switching D. polling
95. A method that senses the cable prior to transmission, detects collision, and
initiates retransmission is ______.
A. Contention B. Polling
C. CSMA/CD D. Flow control
96. Data at the Data Link layer is called a ______

A. packet B. datagram
C. frame D. token
97. The layer that establishes and maintains the link for transmitting data frames is
___.
A. Session B. Network
C. Data Link-MAC D. Data Link-LLC
98. A message that indicates the reception of a frame is called a(n) ______.
A. Handshake B. Datagram
C. Reply D. Acknowledgement
99. A method that relies upon transmitting and receiving devices to maintain their
own internal clock is_______.
A. synchronous B. bisynchronous
C. Isochronous D. asynchronous
100. The switching technique that connects the sender and the receiver by a
single path for the duration of a conversation called _______.
A. Virtual pocket switching B. Datagram packet switching
C. Circuit switching D. Message switching
101. Which is a benefit of full duplex dialog?

A. Both ends can transmit at the same time
B. Requires only one channel for both transmission and reception
C. Requires inexpensive hardware
D. Permits broad area coverage
102. When several small computers provide the necessary processing task , the
model is called _______.
A. Central computing B. Distributive processing
C. Centralized processing D. Distributed computing

103. When two or more computers accomplish the same processing task, the
model is called _______.
A. Collaborative computing B. Distributed processing
C. Central processing D. Multitasking
104. A network that spans the earth is called ______.

A. An enterprise network B. A wide area network
C. A metropolitan area network D. A global network
105. All networks require the following three elements: network services, a
transmission media, and _____.
A. Wires and connectors B. Communications software
C. Protocols D. Network operating systems
106. With respect to network computing, clients _____.

A. Can request and provide services
B. Are only allowed to request services from others
C. Are the network users
D. Are allowed only to provide services
107. A network, which places restrictions upon a station that may make requests
or service the network, is called _____.
A. Server-centric B. User-server
C. Peer-to-peer D. Restricted network
108. Protocols are ______.

A. A complete set of rules and standards that enable different devices to hold
conversations
B. Computer programs that enable users to access networks in an orderly
fashion
C. Rules that describe the hardware configuration of a network
D. Rules required to help entities communicate or understand each other
109. The networking device that extends the maximum distance of a network by
connecting separate network segments is called a ______.
A. Modem B. Codec
C. Router D. Bridge
110. A modem is a _____.

A. Device that converts computer digital signals to an analog signals to use
with telephone lines
B. Device that can receive and transmit electromagnetic signals across the
transmission media
C. Device that converts analog signals into digital signals
D. Connectivity device between computers
111. A device that combines two or more signals on a single transmission medium
is called a _____.
A. Multiplexer B. Bridge
C. Router D. Codec
112. The device that connects two or more logically separate networks is a _____.
A. Brouter B. Router
C. Bridge D. Repeater
113. The device that prepares electric pulse signals for transmission on WAN
transmission media is called _____.
A. Modem B. CSU/DSU
C. Codec D. Bridge
114. Which recommendation specifies how messages are stored and forwarded
between disparate devices on a computer internetwork?
A. RS-232 B. X.500
C. X.400 D. ASN.1
115. With what layer is the IEEE 802.2 standard associated?

A. Physical B. Data link
C. Network D. Session
116. Which IEEE 802.3 standard is referred to as Thin Ethernet?

A. 10Base5 B. 10BaseT
C. 10Base2 D. 10BaseF
117. Which IEEE standard was created to satisfy the LAN needs of industrial
automation?
A. IEEE 802.4 B. IEEE 802.5
C. IEEE 802.6 D. IEEE 802.7
118. Which specification is based upon the IBM Token-Ring specification?

A. IEEE 802.4 B. IEEE 802.5
C. IEEE 802.6 D. IEEE 802.7
119. Which of the following methods is addressed by SDLC?

A. Route selection B. Network layer translation
C. Token passing D. Flow control
120. What is the maximum number of nodes per segment on a 10BaseT network?
A. 3 B. 1
C. 5 D. 1024
121. The initial MPEG standard (MPEG1) was targeted at

A. cellcast-quality video and audio
B. VHSquality video and audio
C. DVD-quality video and audio
D. broadcast-quality video and audio
122. The basic connection unit in an ATM network is known as the

A. virtual public connection B. private connection
C. virtual channel connection D. virtual path connection

123. In ATM networks all information is formatted into fixed-length cells consisting
of _____ bytes.
A. 48 B. 53
C. 64 D. 144
124. Which method is better suited to handle bursty traffic?

A. circuit switching B. IP
C. TCP D. ATM
125. _______ is the transmission of computer files from a single site to many
sites around the country or around the world.
A. File delivery B. FTP
C. Store-and-forward D. SMTP
126. ________ applications involve storing or saving a large file and forwarding or
delivering that file to the intended audience for use at a later time or date.
A. Hold-and-Forward B. Real-time
C. Store-and-forward D. Satellite-based
127. The ______ standard was developed to help minimize congestion when
streaming bandwidth-intensive content over local-area networks (LANs) to the
desktop.
A. Application B. IP multicast
C. Satellite D. LAN
128. _________ applications involve the distribution of time-sensitive content,

such as video and/or audio programs and interactive services, to the end user.
A. Real-time B. IPbased
C. Satellite-based D. Store-and-forward
129. Analog signals can be ________ by combining them with a carrier frequency.
A. transported B. carried
C. mixed D. multiplexed
130. _____ is a high-performance switching and multiplexing technology that

utilizes fixed-length packets to carry different types of traffic.
A. ATM B. ADSL
C. SONET D. SDH
131. Which feature expanded the maximum span of an Ethernet beyond 3 km?
A. Cat-5 unshielded twisted pairs
B. bridge ports supporting full-duplex transmission
C. 100-megabit (fast-Ethernet) transmission
D. high-power lasers
132. The combination of VDSL and _____ delivers the Internet services of today in
an architecture that is capable of supporting tomorrow's applications.
A. ATM B. X.25
C. Frame Relay D. IP
133. Which error detection method uses a quasi-"division" algorithm to generate

the error character?
A. hamming code
B. parity
C. cyclic redundancy check (CRC)
D. longitudinal redundancy check (LRC)
134. How many Hamming bits are inserted into a 100 bit message?
A. 6 B. 7
C. 8 D. 100
135. To correct a character with a bad parity bit, the receiver will
A. invert the parity bit
B. ignore the bad character
C. request that the bad character (and possibly, the rest of the message) be
retransmitted
D. invert the bit that is bad
136. Which topology experiences contention for access to the network?

A. ethernet B. bus
C. ring D. star
137. At which OSI level is a standard description of a modem and its specifications
found?
A. physical B. application
C. data link D. network
138. In which OSI model level would be found specifications for virtual routing
throughout a network?
A. application B. network
C. datalink D. session
139. Which of the following encoding types uses the first half of the bit time to
hold the complement of the data and the second half to provide for a clock
transition?
A. non-return to zero mark inverted (NRZ-AMI)
B. Bipolar AMI
C. Manchester
D. return to zero mark inverted (RZ-AMI)
140. How many consecutive ones is recognized by SDLC as an abort sequence?

A. 5 B. 6
C. 7 - 14 D. greater than 14
141. In the SDLC address field the address specifies

A. secondary station only
B. primary and secondary stations
C. destination and source stations
D. send and receive stations

142. An SDLC information control field is recognized by

A. a one in the most significant bit
B. a SYN sequence
C. a zero in the least significant bit
D. a DC3 character
143. The size of a payload for an ATM cell is

A. 53 bytes long
B. 48 bytes long
C. dependent on the upper level protocol transported
D. variable
144. A business housed entirely in a single building would use a ______ type
network to interconnect its computers and terminals.
A. MAN B. LAN
C. WAN D. WMAN
145. Which data link protocol is the basis for the Ethernet data link protocol?
A. POP3 B. BISYNC
C. HDLC D. SDLC
146. How long is an untappable Ethernet segment?

A. 1000 m B. 2500 m
C. 1500 m D. 10 m
147. Ethernet sends and receives data at a rate of

A. 2500 Kbps B. 10 Mbps
C. 256 Kbps D. 1500 bps
148. Which service is NOT included on an ISDN line?

A. teleconferencing B. video
C. voice D. all of these
149. Which term refers to the process of converting a frame or packet into ATM
cells?
A. reassembly B. adaption
C. segmentation D. mapping
150. Which of these responsibilities does NOT apply to the ATM cell (data link)
level?
A. flow control B. cell multiplexing
C. segmentation and reassembly D. header generation
151. Which specification standard incorporates the Ethernet standard?

A. EIA's RS232C B. CCITT's X.25
C. IBM's Token Ring D. IEEE's 802.3
152. Which type of error detection is used with SDLC/HDLC?

A. Hamming code B. parity
C. checksum D. CRC
153. SDLC is a(n) _______ data link protocol

A. bit oriented, frame format
B. character oriented, packet format
C. bit oriented, message format
D. character oriented, block format
154. How many consecutive HDLC frames can be sent without an acknowledgment
or response?
A. 128 B. 7
C. 56 D. 1544
155. Which type of infrared connection is used for workstations that are relatively
close to each other?
A. direct connection B. line of sight
C. room roaming D. frequency hopping
156. Which method is utilized by wireless networks to overcome voice priority in

channel use?
A. frequency hopping B. direct sequencing
C. channel sealing D. code division multiplexing
157. What is the limitation for parity as an error detection method?

A. a bad parity bit does not guarantee that there is something wrong in the
character received
B. different parity errors occur if you are using an even or odd parity system
C. only reliable if a single error occurs in a character
D. none of these apply
158. Which of the following error methods is used for error correction?
A. Checksum B. LRC
C. Parity D. CRC
159. How many bit errors within a single transmission can be corrected by using
the Hamming code for error correction?
A. 2 B. 1 per character
C. 1 D. as many errors as are present
160. Which of these services is provided by TELNET?

A. remote database access
B. dial up access to Internet
C. file transfer
D. all of these services are provided by TELNET
161. Which OSI level is the TCP part of TCP/IP closely related to?
A. presentation B. transport
C. application D. network
162. What does the acronym TCP/IP stand for?

A. top core protocol / international protocol
B. telephone communications policy / internet procedure
C. traffic communications protocol / information protocol
D. transport control protocol / internet protocol

163. What is the purpose of Internet Relay Chat (IRC)?

A. interactive "real time" access to other users
B. video teleconferencing
C. e-mail transfers
D. web page browsing
164. Which of these can NOT be used to access the Internet?

A. on-line service
B. actuated line program grid (ALPG)
C. Internet service provider (ISP)
D. serial line interface protocol (SLIP)
165. URL addresses identify all except the following

A. e-mail server
B. physical location of user
C. user's network
D. ISP server
166. What is the unit designation for the area managed by a single cellular phone
central office?
A. spot beam B. cluster
C. cell D. sector
167. What type of station is connected to both transmission paths of a FDDI

network?
A. back up station B. dual attached station
C. mirrored station D. single attached station
168. What is the basic topology of the FDDI network?

A. tree B. star
C. bus D. ring
169. Who controls the Internet?

A. Microsoft
B. International Telecommunications Union
C. government
D. no one
170. Which of these is NOT a problem with using symmetric private key
cryptography?
A. brute force attack can be used to uncover key
B. transporting key between users
C. decrypting long messages takes too much time
D. loss or theft of key nullifies security
171. Firewalls are used for

A. creating Intranets
B. preventing access by an outside user
C. limiting access to certain URLs
D. all of these
172. The digital URL identifies

A. networks and host nodes B. faulty servers
C. location of ISP D. type of protocol used
Section 17
Antenna
Fundamentals
Section 18
Radio-wave
Propagation
Section 19
Microwave
Engineering
Section 20
Satellite
Communications
Section 21
Cellular
Communication
System
Wireless
Communications

Section Antenna Read it

till it
DEFINITION. Antenna is basically a transducer that converts electrical

alternating current oscillations at an RF frequency to an electromagnetic wave
of the same frequency.
DEFINITION. Radiation Resistance is a resistance that, if replaced the

antenna, would dissipate exactly the same amount of power the antenna
radiates.
DEFINITION. Effective Isotropic Radiated Power (EIRP) is defined as

equivalents transmit power that an isotropic antenna would have to radiate to
achieve the same power density in the chosen direction at a given point as
another antenna.
A. .ANTENNA RECIPROCITY.
States that antenna characteristic are essentially the same regardless of

whether an antenna is transmitting or receiving electromagnetic energy
B. .ANTENNA FUNDAMENTALS.
A complete antenna system consists of three parts:
1. Coupling Device - The coupling device (coupling coil) connects the

transmitter to the feeder
2. Feeder - The feeder is a transmission line that carries energy to the
antenna.
3. Antenna - The antenna radiates this energy into space.

5-2 ANTENNA FUNDAMENTALS
C. .CURRENT AND VOLTAGE DISTRIBUTION ON AN ANTENNA.
The principles of radiation of electromagnetic energy are based on two

laws:
A moving electric field creates a

magnetic (H) field.
A moving magnetic field creates

an electric (E) field.
D. .ANTENNA PARAMETERS.
1. Radiation Pattern
A polar diagram or graph representing
field strengths or power densities at
various angular positions relative to an
antenna.
2. Antenna Polarization
Polarization refers to the orientation of
the electric field vector in space.
3. Near Field and Far Field

Region
i. Near Field
The term near field refers to the field pattern that is close to the
antenna.
A D2
FN = =
2 8
ii. Far Field

The term far field refers to the field pattern that is at great
distance from the antenna where power that reach this region
continues to radiate outward and is never returned to the
antenna.
2D2
FF =

That region of the field of an antenna where the angular field distribution is
essentially independent of the distance from a specified point in the antenna
region.

Near field is sometimes called the induction field or Fresnel field.
Far field is sometimes called the radiation field or Fraunhofer field.
4. Radiation Resistance
Radiation Resistance is a resistance that, if replaced the antenna,
would dissipate exactly the same amount of power the antenna
radiates.
Antenna Efficiency ()
Prad R rad
= x 100% = x 100%
Pin R rad + R loss
Sample Problem:
Calculate the efficiency of a dipole antenna that has a radiation resistance of
67 and a loss resistance of 5, measured at the feed point.
Solution:
R rad 67
= x 100 % = x 100 % = 93 .05 %
R rad + R loss 67 + 5

5. Antenna Gain
Directive Gain
The ratio of the power density radiated in a particular direction to
the power density radiated to the same point by a reference
antenna.
Pd(dir)
D=
Pd(iso)
Power Gain
The ratio between the amounts of energy propagated in these
directions compared to the energy that would be propagated if the
antenna were not directional is known as its gain.
G = Dx
Sample Problem:
Calculate the gain of a certain antenna relative to a dipole antenna with a
gain of 5.3 dB with respect to an isotropic radiator. Also compute for the
power gain if the antenna has an efficiency of 95%.
Solution:
D dBd = D dBi 2.14 dB G = Dx
= 5.3 2.14 3.16
= 0.95 x log 1( )
= 3.16 dBd 10
= 1.97 = 2.94 dB
6. Effective Isotropic Radiated Power (EIRP)

EIRP is defined as equivalents transmit power that an isotropic
antenna would have to radiate to achieve the same power density in
the chosen direction at a given point as another antenna.
EIRP = Ptx Gtx EIRPdB = Ptx(dB) + Gtx(dB)

Effective Radiated Power (ERP)
ERPdB = EIRP(dB) 2.14 dB
7. Captured Area & Captured Power
i. Captured Area (Effective Area)
G 2
AC =
4
ii. Captured Power (Received Power)
2

Pr = Pd x A c Pr = Pt Gtx Grx
4
In dB
Pr(dB) = EIRPdB FSL dB + Grx(dB)
Sample Problem:
Calculate the captured power 10 km away from a half-wave dipole
transmitter with 10 W transmit power for the following antenna at 150 MHz;
a. Hertzian dipole
b. Half-wave dipole
Solution:
a. For Hertzian dipole (Elementary doublet)
Pt G tx 2 G rx 10 (1 . 64 ) 2 2 (1 . 5 )
Pr = 2
x = 2
x = 6.23 nW
4 d 4 4 (10 ,000 ) 4
b. For Half-wave dipole (Hertz antenna)
Pt G tx 2 G rx 10 (1 . 64 ) 2 2 (1 . 64 )
Pr = x = x = 6.81 nW
4 d2 4 4 (10 ,000 )2 4

Summary for various antennas
Unitless Effective
Antenna Types
Gain Area
2
Isotropic 1
4
Elementary 1.52
1.5
Doublet or Loop 4
1.642
Half-Wave Dipole 1.64
4
1.152
Turnstile 1.15
4
Horn with mouth 10A
0.81A
area A 2
Parabola with face 7A

0.56A
area A 2
8. Front-to-Back Ratio
The ratio of the energy radiated in the principal direction compared to
the energy radiated in the opposite direction for a given antenna.
9. Antenna Beamwidth
The angular separation between the two half-power points on the
major lobe of an antennas plane radiation pattern.
E. .ANTENNA FEED MECHANISM.
1. Center fed antenna

If energy is applied at the geometrical center of an antenna, the
antenna is said to be center-fed.
2. Voltage-fed antenna
If energy is applied to the point of high voltage along the antenna
length, the antenna is voltage-fed.
3. Current-fed antenna
If energy is applied to the point of high circulating current along the
antenna length, the antenna is said to be current-fed.
F. .ANTENNA GROUNDING SYSTEM.
The ground screen and the counterpoise are used to reduce losses caused
by the ground in the immediate vicinity of the antenna.
1. Counterpoise
Counterpoise consists of a structure made of wire erected at short
distance above the ground and insulated from the ground.
2. Earth Mat (Groundscreen)

A network of up to 120 buried wires 15 to 30 cm below the ground
under the antenna. Each radial wire has a length which should be at
least /4, and preferably /2.
The ground screen is buried below the surface of the earth. The
counterpoise is installed above the ground.
G. .ANTENNA LOADING.
Antenna loading is the method used to change the electrical length of an

antenna. This keeps the antenna in resonance with the applied frequency.
It is accomplished by inserting a variable inductor or capacitor in series
with the antenna.
1. Inserting an inductor in series with a short antenna compensate its

capacitive reactance thus effectively increasing its electrical length and
bandwidth, while the resonant frequency decreases.
2. Inserting a capacitor in series with a long antenna compensate its

inductive reactance thus effectively decreasing its electrical length and
bandwidth, while the resonant frequency increases.
3 General Types
a. Top loading - the loading component is attached at the top of the

antenna structure.
b. Center loading - the loading component is placed along the

antenna structure, approximately half-way between the feedpoint
and the end.
c.Base loading - the loading component is located at the bottom of the

antenna structure.

H. .BASIC ANTENNAS.
1. Elementary Doublet
The elementary doublet is an electrically short dipole and is often
referred to simply as Hertzian dipole.
Field strength at a distance

where:
= induce field strength in V m
60 I e I = antenna current in A
=
d e = effective antenna length

10
d = distance from the antenna in m
2. Half-Wave Dipole
The half-wave dipole is a resonant antenna, the total length of which
is nominally /2 at the carrier frequency.
Voltage, Current & Impedance Distribution of Half-wave dipole
Voltage is maximum at the

ends.
-----------------------------------------------
Current is maximum at the
feedpoint.
-----------------------------------------------
Impedance is maximum at
the ends.
If the dipole is not driven at the centre then the feed point resistance will be higher. If the
feed point is distance x from one end of a half wave (/2) dipole, the resistance will be
described by the following equation.
where:
75 R x = Radiation resistance in
Rx =
2 x = signal wavelength in m
sin
x = distance from one end of the dipole m
Sample Problem:
Calculate the radiation resistance of a half-wave dipole antenna if the
feedpoint is 0.25 m from one end at 300 MHz.
Solution:
75 75
Rx = = = 150
2 x 2 0 .2 5
sin sin
1
Sample Problem:
Calculate the radiation resistance of a half-wave dipole antenna 0.1 m from
one end at 300 MHz.
Solution:
75 75
Rx = = = 785 . 4
2 x 2 0 .1
sin
sin

1
3. Quarter-Wave (Marconi or Long-wire) antenna

The quarter wavelength vertical antenna is basically a half-wave dipole
placed vertically, with the other half of the dipole being the ground
(image).
Considering the
Antenna Types Exact Formula
End Effect (F=0.95)
Quarter-Wave Dipole 246F 234
L ft = L ft =
(Marconi or Long wire) fMHz fMHz
Half-Wave Dipole 492 F 468
L ft = L ft =
(Hertz antenna) fMHz fMHz
where: F=velocity factor


What is the actual length in feet of one-half wavelength of a coax with
velocity factor of 0.63 at 28 MHz?
Solution:
492F 492(0.63)
L ft = = = 11.07 ft
f MHz 28

What is the actual length in feet of one-quarter wavelength of a coax with
velocity factor of 0.695 at 42 MHz?
Solution:
246F 246(0.695)
L ft = = = 4.07 ft
f MHz 42
I. .ANTENNA ELEMENT.
1. Driven element
A driven element obtains its power directly from the transmitter or, as
a receiving antenna; it delivers the received energy directly to the
receiver.
2. Parasitic element
A parasitic element is located near the driven element from which it
gets its power. It is placed close enough to the driven element to
permit coupling.
When it operates to reinforce energy coming from the driver

toward itself, the parasitic element is referred to as a director.
If a parasitic element is placed so it causes maximum energy

radiation in a direction away from itself and toward the driven
element, that parasitic element is called a reflector.
Note:
If all of the elements in an array are driven, the array is referred to as a
Driven Array (sometimes as a connected array).
If one or more elements are parasitic, the entire system usually is

considered to be a Parasitic Array.
J. .SPECIAL PURPOSE ANTENNA.
1. Folded Dipole antenna

The folded dipole is essentially a single antenna made up of two
elements. One element is fed directly (driven element), whereas the
other is conductively (parasitic element) coupled at the ends.
2. Yagi-Uda antenna
A Yagi antenna is a linear array consisting of a dipole and two or more
parasitic elements.
For your information

Yagi-Uda antenna was
invented by Hidetsugi
Yagi and Shintaro Uda
0.55 hence the name Yagi-
0.45
0.5 Uda
Antenna Considering the End

Exact Formula
Element Effect (F=0.95)
Director 0.45 0.451
Driven element 0.5 0.475
Reflector 0.55 0.49875 0.5

Sample Problem:
A Yagi-Uda antenna is designed to receive signals centered at 174 MHz.
Calculate the length of the driven element, reflector, and director.
Solution:
a. For the driven element
3 x 10 8
Length = = 0 .5 = 0 . 86 m
2 174 x 10 6
Considering End effect

Length = 0.5 5%(0.5) = 0.475
= 0.86 (0.05 x 0.86) = 0.817 m
b. For the reflector

3 x 108
Length = 0.55 = 0.55 = 0.948 m
174 x 106

Length = 0.475 + 5%(0.475) = 0.49875 0.5
= 0.817 + (0.05 x 0.817) = 0.8599 m
c. For the director

3 x 108
Length = 0.45 = 0.45 = 0.776 m
174 x 106

Length = 0.475 5%(0.475 ) = 0.451
= 0.817 (0.05 x 0.817) = 0.776 m
3. Turnstile antenna
The turnstile antenna is formed

by placing two dipoles at right
angles to each other, 90 out of
phase. The radiation pattern is
the sum of the radiation patterns
from the two dipoles, which
produces a nearly omnidirectional
pattern.
4. Loop antenna
A closed-circuit antenna, that is, one in which a conductor is formed
into one or more turns so its end are close together.
Parameter Equation
Induced Voltage = 2 fBAN
Induced Voltage
max = Q
(Tuned Loop Antenna)
B = magnetic flux density in Teslas

A = loop area in m2
N = number of turns in the loop
Q = qualitiy factor
5. Helical antenna
A circularly polarized antenna that is wound into a helix.
Two Principal Modes
1. In the normal (broadside) mode or, the dimensions of the helix

are small compared with the wavelength. The far field radiation
pattern is similar to an electrically short dipole or monopole.
These antennas tend to be inefficient radiators and are typically used for
mobile communications where reduced size is a critical factor.

2. In the axial (endfire) mode, the antenna produces true circular

polarization.
These antennas are best suited for space communication, where the orientation
of the sender and receiver cannot be easily controlled, or where the polarization
of the signal may change.
i. Gain of a helical antenna
N = # of turns, 3 to 20 turns
15NS(D)2
G= S = pitch or spacing
3
D = helix diameter
ii. 3dB Beamwidth ()
52
=
D NS
Sample Problem:
Calculate the gain and beamwidth of a helical antenna if the optimum
diameter is 80 mm, pitch of 62.5 mm, with eight turns and will operate at
1.2 GHz.
Solution:
15 NS ( D ) 2 15 ( 8 )( 0 . 0625 )( x 0 . 08 ) 2
G = 10 log = 10 log = 14 . 8 dB
3 0 . 25 3
52 52 ( 0 . 25 ) 0 . 25
= = = 36 . 6
D NS x 0 . 08 8 x 0 . 0625
K. .MULTI-ELEMENT ARRAYS.
1. Multi-element arrays frequently are classified according to their

directivity.
i. Bidirectional array
A bidirectional array radiates in opposite directions along the line
of maximum radiation.
ii. Unidirectional array

A Unidirectional array radiates in only one general direction.
Arrays can be described with respect to their radiation patterns
and the types of elements of which they are made.
2. In Terms of Direction of Radiation
i. Collinear array
The collinear array antenna usually uses two or more wire half-
wave dipoles mounted end-to-end. The pattern radiated by the
collinear array is similar to that produced by a single dipole. The
addition of two or more radiator, however, tends to intensify the
pattern.
ii. Broadside array

A broadside array designates an array in which the direction of
maximum radiation is perpendicular to the plane containing these
elements. In actual practice, this term is confined to those arrays
in which the elements themselves are parallel, with respect to
each other.

iii. End-fire array

An end-fire array is one in which the principal direction of
radiation is along the plane of the array and perpendicular to the
elements. Radiation is from the end of the array, which is the
reason this arrangement is referred to as an end-fire array.
iv. Log-Periodic antenna

The log-periodic antenna derives its name from the fact that the
feedpoint impedance is a periodic function of the operating
frequency.
L1 L 2 L 3 d1 d2 d3
= = = = = = = =
L2 L 3 L 4 d2 d3 d4
L
= 2 tan1 1
2d1
= design constant (typically between 0.7 to 0.9)

= design angle in degrees
L1 ,L2 = element length from shortest to longest
d1 , d2 = spacing between elements from the apex
L. .PARABOLIC REFLECTOR ANTENNA.
A form of a dish antenna with a reflecting

surface that is a geometric paraboloid.
Parabolic reflectors resemble the shape of a

plate or dish; therefore, they are sometimes
called parabolic dish antennas or simply dish
antennas.
Parameter Equation
f
Aperture Number
D
Angular Aperture 2
Relation between f
Angular aperture and = 0.25 cot
Aperture number D 2
Effective Area A eff = x A face

Beamwidth = 70
D
Beamwidth between
o = 2 = 140
nulls D
Gain of a Parabolic Reflector antenna
d2
Areaeffective(parabolic ) x 2
G= = 4 = D
2
Areaeffective(isotropic )
4
where:
= aperture or illumination efficiency
= 0.5 to 0.75 (0.55 typical)
D = mouth or face diameter in m

When =55% When =60%

2 2
D D
G = 5.4 G = 6

GdB = 42.22 + 20 log ( fMHz x Dm ) GdB = 52.6 + 20log ( fMHz x Dft )
GdB = 17.78 + 20 log ( fGHz x Dm ) GdB = 7.5 + 20 log ( fGHz x D ft )
Sample Problem:
Calculate the directive gain and beamwidth between nulls for a paraboloidal
reflector antenna with a mouth diameter of 2.4m and the illumination
efficiency is 0.55 operating at 6 GHz.
Solution:
Directive Gain (D)
4 4 D 2 4 x 2 .4 2
D = xA eff = x = x 0 . 55
2
2 4 0 . 05 2 4

= 12 ,507
D dB 10 log D = 10 log 12 ,507 = 41 dB
Beamwidth between nulls

0.05
o = 2 = 140 = 140 = 2.92
D 2.4
Sample Problem:
To minimize interference, a 500-MHz dish needs to have a 1 beamdwith.
What diameter dish is required, in wavelength and meters?
Solution:
70 70 70 3 x 10 8
= D = = = 70 = 70 = 42 m
D 1 500 x 10 6
M. .HORN ANTENNA.
Horn radiator is a tapered termination of a length of waveguide that

provides the impedance transformation between waveguide and free space
impedance.
dE
dH
7.5dEdH
Gain G=
2
70
H-plane Beamwidth H =
dH
56
E-plane Beamwidth E =
dE
Sample Problem:
Calculate the gain, beamwidth in the E and H plane of a pyramidal horn
antenna that has an aperture of 60 mm in the E-plane, 80 mm in the H-
plane and operating at 6 GHz.
Solution:
7 . 5 dE dH
7 . 5 x 0 . 06 x 0 . 08
G = = = 14 . 4 11 . 58 dB
2 0 . 05 2
56 56 x 0 .05 70 70 x 0 .05
E = = = 46 .67 H = = = 43 .75
dE 0 .06 dH 0 .08

N. .SUMMARY OF VARIOUS ANTENNAS.
Half-wave dipole antenna
Antenna Radiation Pattern Parameter Typical Values
Gain 2.14 dB
.Elevation Pattern.
Bandwidth 10% (1.1:1)
Frequency 10 Hz to 8 GHz
Limit (due to size)
.Azimuth Pattern. Linear

Polarization
(vertical as shown)
Half-Power
80 x 360
Beamwidth
Vertical Whip antenna
Gain 2 to 6 dB
.Elevation Pattern.
Frequency
None
Limit

Polarization
(vertical as shown)
Half-Power
45 x 360
Beamwidth
Linear Dipole Array antenna
Dependent on the
Gain
.Elevation Pattern. number of elements
Bandwidth Narrow
Frequency
10 MHz to 10 GHz
Limit

Polarization
(vertical as shown)
Half-Power
Related to gain
Beamwidth
Yagi-Uda antenna
Gain 5 to 15 dB
.Elevation Pattern.
Frequency
50 MHz to 2 GHz
Limit
.Azimuth Pattern. Linear (horizontal

Polarization
as shown)
Half-Power
50 x 50
Beamwidth

Log-Periodic antenna
.Elevation Pattern. Gain 6 to 8 dB
Bandwidth 163% (10:1)
Frequency
3 MHz to 18 GHz
Limit

Polarization
as shown)
Half-Power
60 x 80
Beamwidth
Circular Loop
Gain -2 to 2 dB
.Elevation Pattern.
Frequency
50 MHz to 1 GHz
Limit

Polarization
as shown)
Half-Power
80 x 360
eamwidth
Square Loop
Gain 1 to 3 dB
.Elevation Pattern.
Frequency
50 MHz to 1 GHz
Limit

Polarization
as shown)
Half-Power
100 x 360
Beamwidth
Alford Loop
Gain -1 dB
.Elevation Pattern.
Bandwidth 67% (2:1)
Frequency
100 MHz to 2 GHz
Limit

Polarization
as shown)
Half-Power
80 x 360
Beamwidth

Axial Mode Helical antenna
Gain 10 dB

Frequency 100 MHz to 3
Limit GHz
Circular (Left-
Polarization
hand as shown )
Half-Power
50 x 10
Beamwidth
Normal Mode Helical antenna
Gain 0 dB
.Elevation Pattern.
Frequency
100 MHz to 3 GHz
Limit
.Azimuth Pattern.
Circular (with an
Polarization ideal pitch-to-
diameter ratio)
Half-Power
60 x 360
Beamwidth
Horn antenna
Gain 5 to 20 dB
.Elevation Pattern.
120% (4:1) --ridged

Bandwidth 67% (2:1) non-
ridged
Frequency
50 MHz to 40 GHz
Limit

Polarization
(vertical as shown)
Half-Power
40 x 40
Beamwidth
Horn antenna (with Polarizer)
Gain 5 to 10 dB
.Elevation Pattern.
Bandwidth 60% (2:1)
Frequency
2 to 18 GHz
Limit
.Azimuth Pattern. Circular (depends on

Polarization
polarizer)
Half-Power
40 x 40
Beamwidth

Discone antenna
.Elevation Pattern.
Gain 0 to 4 dB

Frequency
30 MHz to 3 GHz
Limit

Polarization
(vertical as shown)
Half-Power
20 to 80 x360
Beamwidth
Parabolic antenna
Gain 10 to 60 dB

Frequency 400 MHz to +13
Limit GHz
Polarization Polarization of feed
Half-Power
1 to 10
Beamwidth
V-antenna
Gain 2 to 7 dB
Bandwidth Broadband
Frequency
3 to 500 MHz
Limit
Linear (vertical
Polarization
as shown)
Half-Power
60 x 60
Beamwidth
Rhombic antenna
Gain 3 dB
Bandwidth Broadband
Frequency
3 to 500 MHz
Limit
Linear (vertical
Polarization
as shown)
Half-Power
60 x 60
Beamwidth
Biconical antenna
Gain 0 to 4 dB
.Elevation Pattern.
Frequency
500 MHz to 40 GHz
Limit

Polarization
(vertical as shown)
Half-Power
20 to 100 x360
Beamwidth
Corner Reflector antenna
Gain 10 dB above feed
Bandwidth Narrow
Dependent upon feed Frequency
1 GHz to 40 GHz
emitter Limit
Polarization Feed dependent
Half-Power
40 x variable
Beamwidth

Biconical antenna (with Polarizer)
Gain -3 to 1 dB
.Elevation Pattern.
Frequency
2 GHz to 18 GHz
Limit
.Azimuth Pattern.
Circular
Polarization (Direction depends
on polarization)
Half-Power
20 to 100 x360
Beamwidth
Guide Fed Slot antenna
Gain 0 dB
.Elevation Pattern.
Bandwidth Narrow
Frequency
2 GHz to 40 GHz
Limit

Polarization
(vertical as shown)
45 x50
Half-Power
(elevation)
Beamwidth
80 (azimuth)
Cavity Backed Circuit Fed Slot and Microstrip Patch antenna
Gain 6 dB
.Elevation and.
.Azimuth Pattern.
Bandwidth Narrow
Frequency
50 MHz to 18 GHz
Limit
Linear
Polarization
(vertical as shown)
Half-Power
80 x 80
Beamwidth
O. .RADIATION PATTERN OF VARIOUS DIPOLE ANTENNA.
Notice the development of lobes as the antenna length increases
0.5 0.75
1.0 1.25

1.5 1.75
2.0 2.25
2.5 2.75
3.0
I H
1. What aperture number correspond to an angular aperture of 55
A. 0.35 B. 0.72
C. 0.66 D. 0.48
2. What are the theoretical element lengths and overall boom length for a three-
element Yagi designed for 220 MHz operation with element spacing of 0.18?
A. driver=0.682 m, director=0.648 m, reflector=0.716, boom=0.49 m
B. driver=0.648 m, director=0.682 m, reflector=0.49, boom=0.716 m
C. driver=0.716 m, director=0.49 m, reflector=0.648, boom=0.682 m
D. driver=0.49 m, director=0.648 m, reflector=0.682, boom=0.49 m
3. Calculate the antenna power gain for a beamwidth of 10 degrees. APRIL 2005
A. 20 dB B. 2.6 dB
C. 26 dB D. 2.0 dB
4. A helix antenna has its pitch halved while everything else remains unchanged.
What is the change in gain, in dB? In beamwidth? In axis length?
A. G=-3dB, =0.5x, L=0.5 B. G=3dB, =1.4x, L=1.5
C. G=-3dB, =1.4x, L=1.5 D. G=-3dB, =1.4x, L=0.5
5. Calculate the gain and beamwidth of a parabolic antenna that has a diameter of
3 m, and an efficiency of 60%.
A. 40 dB, 1.75 B. 45 dB, 4.91
C. 32 dB, 3.33 D. 38 dB, 6.12
6. In high frequency radio transmission, the lower the radio frequency the
_________of the antenna.
A. smaller the diameter B. shorter the length
C. bigger the diameter D. longer the length
7. Determine from the following an advantage of using a trap antenna.

A. Has high gain
B. Can be used for multiband operation
C. Minimizes harmonic radiation
D. It has directivity in the high-frequency bands
8. Type of antenna which is normally used for satellite tracking services.

A. Omni B. Yagi
C. Helical D. Dipole

9. Find the approximate width of a pyramidal horn antenna that will operate at
10,000 MHz intended to have a beamwidth of 10. April 2000
A. 14 cm B. 34 cm
C. 24 cm D. 44 cm
10. Calculate the approximate physical length for a half wave dipole operating on a
frequency of 7.25 MHz.
A. 13.66 ft B. 73.86 ft
C. 64.55 ft D. 33.81 ft
11. An antenna with a length of 6 cm radiates a 12-cm wavelength signal.

Calculate the near field distance.
A. 2 cm B. 6 cm
C. 12 cm D. 16 cm
12. An increase in the effective power radiated by an antenna in a certain desired

direction at the expense of power radiated in other directions.
A. Antenna efficiency B. Antenna gain
C. Antenna total ratio D. Antenna back lobe ratio
13. Two wires that are bent 90 degrees apart.

A. Dipole B. Log-periodic
C. Hertz D. Rhombic
14. Gain of Hertz antenna.

A. 1.64 B. 1.5
C. 1.76 D. 4.24
15. A TVRO installation for use with a C-band satellite (downlink frequency at 4
GHz), has a diameter of about 3.5 meters and an efficiency of 60%. Calculate
its beamwidth. NOV 2003
A. 5.05 B. 11.7
C. 1.5 D. 3.2
16. Electric circuit designed specifically to radiate the energy applied to it in the
form of electromagnetic waves, normally used to transmit and receive radio
waves.
A. Bandwidth B. Antenna
C. Wavelength D. Radiator
17. What is the reason why 5/8 whip vertical antenna is a advantage than quarter
wave vertical whip antenna?
A. Can handle high power signal B. Flexible
C. More gain D. Less than interference
18. Which of the following antenna where its beamwidth is determine by the
dimensions of its horn, lens or reflector?
A. Long wire antenna B. Aperture antenna
C. Whip antenna D. Aperiodic antenna
19. What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater with 450 W
transmitting power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 6 dB duplexer loss, 7 dB
circulator loss, and feedline antenna gain of 25 dB? APRIL 2004
A. 3980 W B. 2839.31 W
C. 3141.98 W D. 1139.8 W
20. What is meant by the term radiation resistance for an antenna?

A. An equivalent resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power
as that radiated from an antenna
B. The resistance in the trap coils to received signal
C. Losses in the antenna elements and feed line
D. The specific impedance of the antenna
21. Where does the maximum current and minimum voltage values on a resonant
Hertz dipole exist?
A. Ends of the antenna B. Near the center of the antenna
C. Near the end of the antenna D. Center of the antenna
22. In a VHF mobile radio system, the base station transmits 100 W at 160 MHz
frequency using half-wave dipole antenna 20 meters above ground. Calculate
the field strength at a receiving antenna at a height of 4 meters and a distance
of 30 km. (Gain of antenna is 1.64) Nov 2004
A. 161.58 V/m B. 15.45 V/m
C. 41.78 V/m D. 34.13 V/m
23. Radiation pattern of a discone.

A. Bidirectional B. Figure eight
C. Omnidirectional D. Unidirectional
24. Which is properly terminated antenna?

A. Rhombic B. Dipole
C. Marconi D. Hertz
25. A 400 feet antenna is to be operated at 6200 kHz. What is the wavelength at
this frequency? NOV 2004
A. 52.16 m B. 41.58 m
C. 48.39 m D. 33.56 m
26. Which of the following antenna feedline can easily be buried underground for a
distance without adverse effects?
A. Twisted pair B. Twin lead
C. Coaxial cable D. Waveguide
27. Top loading is used in an antenna in order to increase its

A. Beamwidth B. Bandwidth
C. Input capacitance D. Effective height
28. Unity gain antenna.

A. Dummy B. Half-wave dipole
C. Isotropic D. Rhombic

29. In order to fully utilize the _____ a quarter-wave vertical antenna should
require an excellent ground system.
A. troposcatter effect B. ground effect
C. mirror image principle D. reflected wave
30. A microwave communications uses plane reflectors as passive repeaters. The

diameter of the parabolic antenna is 18 ft while the effective area is 310 ft2.
Determine the reflector coupling factor. APRIL 2005
A. 0.76 B. 0.92
C. 0.906 D. 0.706
31. One of the following is a type of radio antenna used in a transmission and
reception of microwave signals.
A. whip antenna B. horn antenna
C. l-type antenna D. Discone antenna
32. What is the phase separation of two antennas 3/8 wavelength apart? NOV
2004
A. 135 degrees B. 185 degrees
C. 165 degrees D. 195 degrees
33. The antenna property of interchangeability for transmitting and receiving

electromagnetic energy under the same radio frequency is referred to as
A. back-to-back B. reciprocity
C. maximum energy D. re-transmission
34. What is the term for the ratio of the radiation resistance of an antenna to the
total resistance of the system?
A. Antenna efficiency B. Beamwidth
C. Radiation conversion loss D. Effective radiated power
35. ______ is a device that detects both vertically and horizontally polarized
signals simultaneously.
A. Light transducer B. Orthomode transducer
C. Optoisolator D. Crystal
36. What is the effective height of a broadcast antenna if the voltage induced in the
antenna is 2.7 volts and the measured field intensity received in the antenna
site is 27 mV/m? APRIL 2005
A. 29.7 meters B. 72.9 meters
37. An antenna which is not resonant at a particular frequency and so can be used
over a wide band of frequencies is called
A. boresight B. aperiodic
C. top-loaded D. cassegrain
38. A helical antenna has the following dimensions: pitch is 1/3 wavelength,
diameter is wavelength and turns is 27. What is the gain in dB? NOV 2004
A. 10.34 dB B. 16.8 dB
C. 19.2 dB D. 13.5 dB
39. What is the usual electrical length of a driven element in a HF beam antenna?
A. wavelength B. wavelength
C. wavelength D. 1 wavelength
40. What is an antenna element that is not directly connected to the feed line, but
which affects the radiation pattern and feed-point impedance of the antenna?
A. Balun B. Driven element
C. Parasitic element D. Radiator
41. What is the purpose of the two yagi beam antenna on a VHF TV receiver?
A. For receiving low and high band stations
B. To increase selectively
C. To increase selectively on both hands
D. Used to receive VHF and UHF stations
42. A 500 kHz antenna radiates 500 W of power. The same antenna produces field
strength equal to 1.5 mV/m. If the power delivered by the antenna is increases
to 1kW, what would be the expected field intensity? NOV 2003
A. 1.66 mV/m B. 2.12 mV/m *
C. 8.45 mV/m D. 5.58 mV/m
43. What is a parasitic element of an antenna?

A. An element that receives its excitation from mutual coupling rather than
from a transmission line
B. An element polarized 90 degrees apposite the driven element
C. An element dependent on the antenna structure for support
D. A transmission line that radiates radio frequency energy
44. Determine the approximate length of a simple whip quarter wave antenna at
UHF frequency of 450.25 MHz. April 2000
A. 3.47 ft B. 13.69 ft
C. 1.89 ft D. 0.55 ft
45. What is the electric field strength 10 km away in the direction of maximum
radiation from a half-wave dipole that is fed, by means of lossless, matched
line, by a 15 W transmitter?
A. 27.1 mV/m B. 271 mV/m
C. 0.271 mV/m D. 2.71 mV/m
46. Calculate the power density 25 km away from a 90% efficient half-wave dipole
if the transmit power is 125 W.
A. 23.5 nW B. 318.5 nW
C. 51.7 nW D. 931.35 nW
47. A dipole antenna requires to be feed with 20 kW of power to produce a given

signal strength to a particular distant point. If the addition of reflector makes
the same field strength available with an input power of 11 kW. What is the
gain in dB obtained by the use of the reflector? (Gain referred to this particular
dipole) Nov 1996
A. 2.6 dB B. 4.12 dB
C. 1.6 dB D. 1.76 dB

48. Calculate the operating frequency for a helical antenna that consists of 10 turns
with a spacing of 10 cm and a diameter of 12.7 cm.
A. 0.75 MHz B. 750 MHz
C. 7.5 MHz D. 75 MHz
49. A type of antenna that has physical length equivalent to one half wavelength of
the radio frequency being used.
A. Yagi B. Hertz
C. Rhombic D. Marconi
50. Calculate the gain, with respect to an isotropic antenna, of a half-wave dipole
with an efficiency of 90% that is placed one-quarter wavelength from a plane
reflector that reflects 100% of the signal striking it.
A. 12.46 dBi B. 4.8 dBi
C. 7.68 dBi D. 8.39 dBi
51. Due to the presence of parallel LC networks in the trap antenna, one of the
following is a disadvantage of using this kind of antenna.
A. Reduce power B. Radiate harmonics
C. Allow entry of interference D. Reduced beamwidth
52. How can the approximate beamwidth of a rotatable beam antenna be

determined?
A. Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from
the front and near of the antenna
B. Note the two points where the signal strength of the antenna is down 3 dB
from the maximum signal point and compute the angular difference
C. Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from
the front and side of the antenna
D. Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and measure
the angle between the lines
53. What is the approximate length of a half-wave dipole antenna radiating at 6450
kHz? Nov 2000
A. 72.5 ft B. 136.6 ft
C. 13.73 ft D. 112.47 ft
54. What is the length of a simple quarter wave antenna using a VHF frequency of
150.55 MHz? April 2000
A. 5.82 ft B. 1.55 ft
C. 4.97 ft D. 3.52 ft
55. What happens to gain and beamwidth if the number of turns is doubled when
the pitch is halved?
A. 0.5x B. unchanged
C. 4x D. 2x
56. This is flexible vertical rod antenna commonly used on mobiles.

A. Hertz B. Whip
C. Ground plane D. Marconi
57. Calculate the distance from the apex of the 1st and 2nd dipole element of a log-
periodic antenna to cover the low VHF TV band, from 54-88 MHz. Use =30,
=0.7 and L1=1.5 m
A. 2.8 m, 4 m respectively B. 4 m, 2.8 m respectively
C. 4.8 m, 2 m respectively D. 2 m, 8 m respectively
58. When testing transmitter to prevent interfering with other stations, which type
of antenna must be used?
A. Dipole B. Hertzian antenna
C. Void antenna D. Dummy antenna
59. In consists of a number of dipoles of equal size, equally spaced along a straight
line with all dipoles fed in the same phase from the source.
A. Broadside array B. Log-periodic antenna
C. Yagi antenna D. End-fire array
60. A Yagi antenna has a gain of 10dBi and a front-to-back ratio of 15 dB. It is
located from a transmitter with an ERP of 100 kW at a frequency of 10 MHz.
The antenna is connected to a receiver via a matched feedline with a loss of 2
dB. Calculate the signal power supplied to the receiver if the antenna is pointed
directly away from the transmitting antenna.
A. 82.8 W B. 8.28 W
C. 828 W D. 0.828 W
61. Radio wave concentration in the direction of the signal emitted by a directional
antenna.
A. Major lobe radiation B. Back lobe radiation
C. Transmitted signal D. Side lobe radiation
62. Referred as an effect of parasitic elements in an antenna system.

A. Makes the antenna isotropic
B. Makes the antenna omnidirectional
C. Increase its directivity
D. Decrease its directivity
63. A dish designed for operation at 150 MHz is operated at twice that frequency.
By what factors do gain and beamwidth change?
A. G=2x, =2.5 B. G=2x, =0.5
C. G=4x, =1.5 D. G=4x, =0.5
64. What is the gain of four identically polarized antennas stacked one above the
other and fed in phase?
A. 10 dB the gain of one antenna
B. 4 dB over the gain of one antenna
C. 3 dB over gain of one antenna
D. 6 dB over the gain of one antenna
65. What do you mean by the outward flow of an energy from any source in the
form radio waves.
A. Encoding B. Radiation
C. Emission D. Tracking

66. What is the driven element of an antenna?

A. Always the forward most element
B. The element fed by the transmission line
C. Always the rearmost element
D. The element connected to the rotator
67. Theoretical gain of a hertzian dipole.

A. 1.76 dB B. 2.14 dB
C. 0 dB D. 1 dB
68. Best description of a collinear and broadside antenna radiation pattern.

A. Unidirectional B. Perfect circle
C. Omnidirectional D. Bidirectional
69. To minimize interference, a 500-MHz dish needs to have a 1 beamdwith. What

diameter dish is required, in wavelength and meters?
A. 50 B. 70
C. 60 D. 80
70. One of the following refers to the usage of a small loop antenna in radio
communications.
A. For mobile communications
B. For spread spectrum communications
C. For direction finding purposes
D. For satellite use
71. Determine the dB gain of a receiving of antenna which delivers a microvolt

signal to a transmission line over that of an antenna that delivers a 2 microvolt
signal under identical circumstances.
A. 3 dB B. 6 dB
C. 8 dB D. 10 dB
72. How can the antenna efficiency of an HF grounded vertical antenna be made
comparable to that of a half-wave antenna?
A. By shortening the vertical
B. By length the vertical
C. By installing a good ground radial system
D. By isolating the coax shield from ground
73. A horizontal antenna is

A. perpendicularly polarized B. horizontally polarized
C. centrally polarized D. vertically polarized
74. A parabolic dish has a diameter of 10. What is the gain, in dB? What is the
beamwidth? If the dish is built for operation at 200 MHz, what would be the
actual diameter
A. G=27.8 dB, =0.7, D=15 m B. G=27.8 dB, =7, D=1.5 m
C. G=27.8 dB, =7, D=15 m D. G=2.8 dB, =7, D=15 m
75. The capture area of a antenna is directly proportion to the

A. Power density of the signal
B. gain of the antenna
C. distance between transmitter and receiver
D. frequency of the received signal
76. What property of an antenna which is a reason for its efficiency in receiving and
transmitting the intended electromagnetic energy and is physically identical to
its physical configuration?
A. Resonance B. Direction
C. Orientation D. Polarization
77. What is the effective area of a Hertzian dipole operating at 30 MHz.

A. 16.4 m2 B. 11.9 m2
C. 17.38 m2 D. 27.18 m2
78. Known as the technique for adding a series inductor at or near the center of an
antenna element in order to cancel the capacitive reactance of an antenna
A. Center loading B. Reflector
C. Loading coil D. Dipole
79. A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of

A. maneuverability B. good front-to-back
C. circular polarization D. broad bandwidth
80. In a VHF mobile radio system, the base station transmits 100 W at 150 MHz,
and the antenna is 20 m above ground. The transmitting antenna is a half-
wave dipole. Calculate the field strength at a receiving antenna of height 2m at
a distance of 40 km.
A. 1.1 V/m B. 101 V/m
C. 0.11 V/m D. 11 V/m
81. What is the estimated medium wind loading in the Philippines for antenna
tower design?
A. 160 kph B. 180 kph
C. 200 kph D. 240 kph
82. The standard reference antenna for the directive gain is

A. infinitesimal dipole B. elementary doublet
C. half-wave dipole D. isotropic antenna
83. One of the following is referred to as a way of increasing the electrical length of
an antenna.
A. By adding a capacitor in series B. By adding an inductor in parallel
C. By adding an inductor in series D. By adding a resistor in parallel
84. Find the power received by a Hertz antenna if the 150 MHz transmitter output
power is 50 kW. The transmitter is 100 km distant and also uses a Hertz
antenna.
A. 574.3 nW B. 340.6 nW
C. 810.9 nW D. 22.16 nW
85. Determine the dB gain of a receiving antenna which delivers a microvolt signal
to a transmission line over that of an antenna that delivers a 2 microvolt signal
under identical circumstances. Nov 1998
A. -5 dB B. -8 dB
C. -6 dB D. -3 dB

86. What makes an antenna physically long but electrically short?

A. Adding C in series B. Adding L in series
C. Top loading D. All of these
87. What is the front-to-back ratio for an antenna with a forward gain of +20 dB
and a backward gain of +15 dB?
A. -5 dB B. 0 dB
C. 5 dB D. 10 dB
88. A type of a grounded antenna is a/an _______ antenna.

A. Parabolic B. Marconi
C. Hertz D. Isotropic
89. What is the term for an antenna element which is supplied power from a
transmitter through a transmission line?
A. Parasitic element B. Director element
C. Driven element D. Reflector element
90. In the propagation of radio signal through an aerial, at what angle does
magnetic field are positioned with reference to the direction of the propagation?
A. 180 B. 90
C. 0 D. 45
91. Determine the gain of a certain antenna that will produce an effective area 199
m2 at 30 MHz?
A. 38.47 dB B. 26.37 dB
C. 13.98 dB D. 71.16 dB
92. Calculate the open-circuit voltage induce in a half-wavelength dipole when 10

W at 150 MHz is radiated from another half-wavelength dipole 50 km distant.
The antennas are positioned for optimum transmission and reception.
A. 282 V B. 2.82 V
C. 0.282 V D. 28.2 V
93. How do you compare the length of the reflector element of a parasitic beam
antenna with that of its driven element?
A. Reflector element is 15% shorter B. Reflector element is 2% shorter
C. Reflector element is half shorter D. Reflector element is 5% longer
94. What do you call the LC networks inserted in an antenna element to provide
multiband operation?
A. Loading coil B. Reflector
C. Traps D. Director
95. Where does the voltage node of a half-wave antenna exist?

A. At feed point B. Near the center
C. At the end D. Near the feed point
96. The minimum number of turns a helix antenna must have

A. 3 B. 4
C. 5 D. 6
97. Which of the following type of radio communication antenna does not deliver an
omni-directional radiation pattern?
A. Whip B. Discone
C. Yagi D. vertical dipole
98. A helical antenna has 20 turns of diameter /4, pitch of /4. What are the gain
and beamwidth? If the frequency of operation is 250 MHz, what are the actual
dimensions of turn diameter, pitch, and length of the helix axis?
A. G=16.6 dB, =2.6, D=0.3 m. S=0.5 m, L=6 m
B. G=16.6 dB, =29.6, D=0.3 m. S=0.3 m, L=6 m
C. G=16.6 dB, =29.6, D=0.5 m. S=0.3 m, L=5 m
D. G=166 dB, =2.6, D=0.3 m. S=0.3 m, L=6 m
99. Two half-wave dipoles are separated by 50 km. They are aligned for optimum
reception. The transmitter feeds its antenna with 10 W at 144 MHz. Calculate
the received power.
A. 296 pW B. 38 pW
C. 26 pW D. 96 pW
100. Antenna impedance is similar to ______ in fiber optics

A. numerical aperture B. refractive index
C. critical angle D. acceptance angel
101. A directional variation of the dipole with parasitic elements added with
functionality similar to adding a reflector and lenses (directors) to focus a
filament lightbulb
A. Loop antenna B. Patch antenna
C. Yagi-uda antenna D. Beverage antenna
102. Two wires pointed in opposite directions arranged either horizontally or

vertically, with one end of each wire connected to the radio and the other end
hanging free in space
A. quad antenna B. helical antenna
C. loop antenna D. dipole
103. An array of square loops that vary in size

A. log-periodic antenna B. patch antenna
C. broadside antenna D. quad antenna
104. A form of directional long-wire antenna which uses a resistive termination at

one end and feed from the other
A. Hertz antenna B. Beverage antenna
C. Helical antenna D. Phased array antenna
105. Antenna that is used by submarines when submerged

A. synthetic aperture antenna B. phased array antenna
C. Beverage antenna D. trailing wire antenna

5-42 Radio-wave propagation
Section Radio-Wave Read it

till it
18 Propagation Hertz!
DEFINITION. Free-Space Path Loss is often defined as the loss incurred by

an electromagnetic wave as it propagates in a straight line through a vacuum
with no absorption or reflection of energy from nearby objects.
DEFINITION. Power Density is the rate at which the energy passes through
a given surface area in free space.
A. .ELECTRO-MAGNETIC WAVES.
1. Transverse Electro-Magnetic Waves (TEM)
Quantities of interest:
The period, which is the time (T) in which one complete vibratory
cycle of events occurs,
The frequency of vibration (f), which is the number of cycles
taking place in one second, and
The wavelength, which is the distance the disturbance travels
during one period of vibration
2. Characteristic Impedance
i. Free-space
0
= = = 120 377
0
ii. Non-magnetic medium
377 120
= =
r k
where:
r = relative permittivity
k = dielectric constant
Relation r = k
Sample Problem:
Find the characteristic impedance of polyethylene, which has a dielectric
constant of 2.3.
Solution:
120
= = 248 . 6
2 .3
2. Relation between Electric & Magnetic Field Strength
where:
= 120
= magnetic field strength in A
m
B. .FREE SPACE PROPAGATION PARAMETERS.
1. Power Density
Rate at which the energy passes through a given surface area in free
space.
i. For isotropic source (omnidirectional source)
Ptx where:
Pd =
4 d2 d = distance from the source in m

ii. For anisotropic source (directional source)
Ptx Gtx where :

Pd =
4 d2 G tx = gain of the TX antenna source
iii. Relation between power densities and distances
2
d
Pd2 = Pd1 x 1
d2

Calculate the power density 25 km away from a 90% efficient half-wave dipole if
the transmit power is 125 W.
Solution:
Ptx G tx
Pd = G tx = G = 0 .9 x 1 .64 = 1 .476
4 d2
125 x 1 .476
=
4 (25,000 )2
nW
= 23 .49
m2
Sample Problem:
At 20 km in free-space from a point source, the power density is 200W/m2.
What is the power density 25 km away from this source?
Solution:
2 2
d 20 W
Pd2 = Pd1 x 1
= 200 x 10 6 = 128
d2 25 m2
2. Electric Field Intensity

The intensity of the electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic
wave propagating in free space.
In terms of Power Pd
density and impedance =

In terms of Power
Pd
density and Magnetic =
field Intensity
In terms of output 30Ptx 30Ptx Gtx

power and distance = =
d d
For VHF Propagation (Line-Of-Sight)
where:
4 htxhrx
= o 2 30Ptx Gtx
d o =
1m
ECE Board Exam: Nov 2003

Determine the electric field strength 10 km away from a half-wave dipole
transmitter with an input power of 100 W?
Solution:
For Anisotropic antenna
30PtxGtx 30(100)(1.64) mV
= = =7
d 10 x 103 m m

In a VHF mobile radio system, the base station transmits 100 W at 160 MHz
frequency using half-wave dipole antenna 20 meters above ground. Calculate the
field strength at a receiving antenna at a height of 4 meters and a distance of 30
km. (Gain of antenna is 1.64)
Solution:
4 htxhrx c 30Ptx G tx V
= o 2 = = 1 .875 m , o = = 70 .143 m
, G tx = 1 .64
d f 1m
4 x 20 x 4
= 70 .143 2

1 .875 x (30,000 )
nV
= 41 .786 m

Free-Space Path Loss

FSL is often defined as the loss incurred by an electromagnetic wave as it
propagates in a straight line through a vacuum with no absorption or
reflection of energy from nearby objects.
Sample Problem:
Calculate the power delivered to the receiver, assuming free-space
propagation for a transmitter that has a power output of 12W at a carrier
frequency of 0.28 GHz. It is connected by 10m of a transmission line having
a loss of 3dB/100m to an antenna with a gain of 12dBi. The receiving
antenna is 20 km away and has a gain of 8dBi. There is negligible loss in
the receiver feedline, but the receiver is mismatched; the antenna and line
are designed for a 50 impedance, but the receiver input is 75.
Solution:
Prx(dB ) = Ptx(dB ) + G tx(dB ) + G rx(dB ) (FSL dB + L tl + L mismatch )
Computing all the losses;
FSL = 92 .4 + 20 log( 0 .28 x 20) = 107 .36 dB;
3dB
L tl = xA = x 10 m = 0 .3 dB;
A 100 m
Z ZO
2
Lm = 10 log(1 2 ) = 10 log 1 L

ZL + Z O

75 50
2
= 10 log 1 = 0 .18 dB

75 + 50
Prx(dB ) = 10 .8 + 12 + 8 (107 .36 + 0 .3 + 0 .18) = 77 .04 dB
C. .POLARIZATION.
The physical orientation of electric field vector in space.
1. Linear
The electric field vectors are oriented in the same direction in space.
i. Vertical Polarization
The electric field progress in the direction of propagation in the
vertical plane.
The vertical or y-component of electric field vector is not equal to zero while
the horizontal or x-component is equal to zero.
y 0, x = 0
ii. Horizontal Polarization

The electric field progress in the direction of propagation in the
horizontal plane.
The horizontal or x-component of electric field vector is not equal to zero

while the vertical or y-component is equal to zero.
x 0, y = 0
2. Circular
The electric field vector rotates in circular fashion as it progress in the
The horizontal or x-component of electric field vector is equal to the vertical or y-

component but 90 out-of-phase forcing the electric field to rotate in the direction
of propagation.
x = y = 0
i. Right-Handed Circular Polarization

The electric field vector rotates in a clockwise manner as it
recedes in the direction of propagation.
ii. Left-Handed Circular Polarization

The electric field vector rotates in a counter-clockwise manner as
it recedes in the direction of propagation.
3. Elliptical
A variation of circular polarization where the electric field rotates in
elliptical fashion in the direction of propagation.

The horizontal or x-component of electric field vector is not equal to the vertical or
y-component but 90 out-of-phase forcing the electric field to rotate in the
x y 0
i. Right-Handed Elliptical Polarization

The electric field vector elliptically rotates in a clockwise manner
as it recedes in the direction of propagation.
ii. Left-Handed Elliptical Polarization

The electric field vector elliptically rotates in a counter-clockwise
manner as it recedes in the direction of propagation.
4. Random
The electric field radiation has no definite pattern or orientation.
D. .EFFECTS OF THE ENVIRONMENT.
1. Attenuation
Reduction in power density w/ distance.
In terms of their
In terms of Power
relative distance from
Densities
the source
1 d2
= 10 log = 20 log
2 d1
2. Absorption
The reduction in the intensity of radiated energy within a medium
caused by converting some or all of the energy into another form.
Some of the energy of the electromagnetic waves is transferred to the atoms and
molecules of the atmosphere thereby causing some radio waves to be absorbed.
3. Interference
Phenomena that occurs when two radio waves that left one source and
traveled different path arrive at a point.
E. .OPTICAL PROPERTIES OF RADIO WAVES.
1. Reflection
Phenomenon of wave motion, in which a wave is returned after
impinging on a surface. When wave energy traveling from one medium
encounters a different medium, part of the energy usually passes on
while part is reflected.
Bouncing of radio waves as it hit a reflective surface.
2 General Types of Reflection
i. Specular Reflection (Mirror-like)

Reflection phenomenon where the wave hits a smooth surface
and obeys the law of reflection.
inc = ref
ii. Diffuse
The reflected signal are scattered in different direction after it
hits a rough surface.
Rayleigh Criterion
A wave impinging on a semi-rough surface satisfy the Rayleigh
criterion the reflected wave will be reflected as if the wave
phenomenon is specular reflection.
where:
cos inc >
8h h = irregularities height in m
2. Refraction
The change in direction that occurs when a wave of energy such as
light passes from one medium to another of a different density, for
example, from air to water.
Bending of electromagnetic waves as it passes through from one medium to

another w/ different density.
3. Diffraction
Modulation or redistribution of energy w/in a wavefront when it passes
near the edge of an opaque object.
The bending or spreading out of waves as they pass around the edge of an
obstacle or through a narrow aperture.

Huygens Principles
States that every point on a given spherical wavefront can be
considered as a secondary point source of emw from w/c other
secondary wave (wavelets) are reradiated.
1690 The wave theory of light was propounded by Huygens.

1801 Interference of light was discovered by British physicist Thomas
Young
1815 Refraction of light was explained by French physicist Augustin
Fresnel
F. .TERRESTRIAL PROPAGATION OF EMW.
1. Ground-Wave (Surface Wave) Propagation

The ground wave or surface wave reaches the receiving site by
traveling along the surface of the ground. A surface wave can follow
the contours of the Earth because of the process of diffraction.
i. Field strength at a distance

where:
ht = transmitter height in m
120 ht I
= I = antenna current in A
d
d = distance in m
ii. Induced Antenna Voltage
Va = x hr hr = receiver height in m
Advantages of ground-wave propagation

1. Given enough transmit power; ground waves can be used to
communicate between any two locations in the world.
2. Ground waves are relatively unaffected by changing
atmospheric conditions.
Disadvantages of ground-wave propagation

1. Ground waves require a relatively high transmission power.
2. Ground waves are limited to VLF,LF, and MF that requires
large antennas
3. Ground losses vary considerably with surface materials.
Sample Problem:
A 125-m antenna, transmitting at 1.5 MHz has an antenna current of 8A.
What field strength and voltage is received by a receiving antenna 40 km
away, with a height of 2 m?
Solution:
120 ht I 120 (125 )(8) mV
= = = 47 .12
d 200 (40 x 10 3 m) m
mV
Va = x hr = 47.12 x 2 m = 94.24 mV
m
2. Space-Wave (Trophosperic Wave) Propagation

The space wave follows two distinct paths from the transmitting
antenna to the receiving antennaone through the air directly to the
receiving antenna, the other reflected from the ground to the receiving
antenna.

Parameter In miles In km
Radio d = 2ht(ft) d = 4 ht(ft)

Horizon
Radio Range D = 2ht(ft) + 2hr(ft) D = 4 ht(ft) + 4 hr(ft)

Equation

A microwave transmitting antenna is 600 feet high. The receive antenna is 240
feet high. The maximum transmission distance is ______.
Solution:
D= 2ht + 2hr = 2(600 ) + 2(240 ) = 56 .55 mi
3. Sky-Wave Propagation (Ionospheric Wave Propagation)

EMW are beam to the upper portion of the Earths atmosphere.
i. Refraction in the ionosphere

The amount of refraction that occurs depends on three main
factors:
a. the density of ionization of the layer,
b. the frequency of the radio wave, and
c. the angle at which the wave enters the layer
ii. Skip Distance

The skip distance is the distance from the transmitter to the point
where the sky wave is first returned to Earth. The size of the skip
distance depends on the frequency of the wave, the angle of
incidence, and the degree of ionization present.
iii. Skip Zone

Skip zone is a zone of silence between the point where the ground
wave becomes too weak for reception and the point where the sky
wave is first returned to Earth.
iv. Ionospheric Layers
a. D layer
The D layer ranges from about 30 to 55 miles. Ionization in
the D layer is low because it is the lowest region of the
ionosphere. This layer has the ability to refract signals of low
frequencies. High frequencies pass right through it and are
attenuated.
b. E Region or E-layer
The E layer limits are from about 55 to 90 miles.
This layer is also known as the Kennelly- Heaviside layer,
because these two men were the first to propose its
existence.
The rate of ionic recombination in this layer is rather rapid
after sunset and the layer is almost gone by midnight.
This layer has the ability to refract signals as high as 20
megahertz.
c. F layer
The F layer exists from about 90 to 240 miles. During the
daylight hours, the F layer separates into two layers, the
F1 and F2 layers.
The ionization level in these layers is quite high and varies
widely during the day. The F layers are responsible for
high-frequency, long distance transmission.
1902 Oliver Heaviside discovered the existence of an ionized layer of air in the
upper atmosphere which was verified by Kennelly and was later known
as Kennelly- Heaviside.
1924 Appleton made his study of Kennelly-Heaviside layer.
v. Variations In The Ionosphere
a. Regular Variations
The regular variations that affect the extent of ionization in
the ionosphere can be divided into four main classes:
Daily
Daily variations in the ionosphere are a result of the 24-
hour rotation of the Earth about its axis.
Seasonal
Seasonal variations are the result of the Earth revolving
around the sun; the relative position of the sun moves
from one hemisphere to the other with changes in
seasons.

11-year sunspot cycle

Sunspots are responsible for variations in the ionization
level of the ionosphere. This cycle has both a minimum
and maximum level of sunspot activity that occurs
approximately every 11 years.
27-day sunspot cycle

As the sun rotates on its own axis, these sunspots are
visible at 27-day intervals, the approximate period
required for the sun to make one complete rotation. The
27-day sunspot cycle causes variations in the ionization
density of the layers on a day-to-day basis.
b. Irregular Variations
Irregular variations are irregular and unpredictable; they can
drastically affect communications capabilities without any
warning.
Sporadic E
Irregular cloud-like patches of unusually high ionization,
called sporadic E, often form at heights near the normal E
layer.
Sudden Ionospheric Disturbances

SIDs are caused by gigantic emission of hydrogen from
the sun. These disturbances may occur without warning
and may prevail for any length of time, from a few
minutes to several hours.
Ionospheric Storms
Scientists believe that ionospheric storms result from
particle radiation from the sun. Particles radiated from a
solar eruption have a slower velocity than ultraviolet light
waves produced by the eruption.
vi. Frequency Parameters
a. Index of Refraction
81N
n= 1 N = electron density per m3
f2
b. Critical frequency
Highest frequency at a given ionization density that will be
returned down to earth when beam vertically upward.
fc = 9 Nmax
Radio waves transmitted at frequencies higher than the critical

frequency of a given layer will pass through the layer and be lost in
space.
Radio waves of frequencies lower than the critical frequency will also be
refracted back to Earth unless they are absorbed or have been refracted
from a lower layer.
c. Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF)

Highest frequency that will be returned down to the earth at a
given distance when beam at an specific angle other than the
normal.
fc
MUF = MUF = fc sec inc
cos inc
d. Optimum Working Frequency (OWF)
OWF = 85%MUF
Sample Problem:
The critical frequency at a particular time is 11.6MHz. What is the OWF for a
transmitting station if the required angle of incidence for propagation to a
desired destination is 70?
Solution:
fc 11.6 MHz
MUF = fc sec = = = 33.92 MHz
cos cos 70
OWF = 0.85 x MUF = 28.83 MHz

G. .SCATTER PROPAGATION.
1. Ground-Scatter
The signals are reflected from the ionosphere obliquely to a ground
region, scattered from the ground, and propagated again by
ionospheric reflection to the receiver.
If the TX and RX are collocated, the process is referred to as backscatter.
2. Tropospheric-Scatter
When a radio wave passing through the troposphere meets a
turbulence, it makes an abrupt change in velocity. This causes a small
amount of the energy to be scattered in a forward direction and
returned to Earth at distances beyond the horizon. This phenomenon
is repeated as the radio wave meets other turbulences in its path. The
total received signal is an accumulation of the energy received from
each of the turbulences.
This scattering mode of propagation enables vhf and uhf signals to be transmitted
far beyond the normal line-of-sight.
3. Ionospheric-Scatter
Same principles with Troposcatter, except that the scattering medium
is the E region of the ionosphere, with some help of the D and F
layers.
4. Meteor-Burst Scatter
A type of propagation of VHF and UHF waves utilizes the phenomenon
of scattering of a radio signal from the ionization trails caused by
meteors entering the earths atmosphere.
5. Auroral Scatter
Ionization associated with auroral disturbances gives radio reflections
at HF and VHF.
6. Equatorial F Scatter
Based from the fact that the ionosphere over the equatorial region is
higher, thicker, and denser than elsewhere because of its more
constant exposure to the solar radiation, the equatorial belt has high
nighttime MUF possibilities.
I H
1. The dielectric strength of air is about 3 MV/m. What is the maximum power
density of an electromagnetic wave in air?
A. 0.45 GW/m2 B. 167 GW/m2
2
C. 884.4 GW/m D. 23.9 GW/m2
2. A transmitter has a power output of 150 W at a carrier frequency of 325 MHz.

It is connected to an antenna with a gain of 12 dBi. The receiving antenna is
10 km away and has a gain of 5 dBi. Calculate the power delivered to the
receiver.
A. 815 nW B. 327 nW
C. 409 nW D. 134 nW
3. Radio-frequency waves cannot be seen for which of the following reasons?

A. Because radio-frequency energy is low powered
B. Because radio-frequency waves are below the sensitivity range of the
human eye
C. Because the human eye detects only magnetic energy
D. Because radio-frequency waves are above the sensitivity range of the
human eye
4. Which of the following statements about a wave is the law of reflection?

A. The angle of incidence is equal to the refracted wave
B. The angle of incidence is not equal to the refracted wave
C. The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection
D. The angle of incidence is not equal to the angle of reflection
5. If a wave passes first through a dense medium and then through a less dense
medium, which of the following angle-of-refraction conditions exists?
A. The angle of refraction is greater than the angle of incidence
B. The wave will pass through in a straight line
C. The angle of refraction is equal to the angle of incidence
D. The angle of refraction is less than the angle of incidence
6. What is the distance to the radio horizon for an antenna that is 40 ft above the
top of a 4000 ft mountain peak?
A. 89.88 mi B. 32 mi
C. 72 mi D. 45.22 mi
7. A radio signal travels ______ yards per microseconds. APRIL 2003

A. 618 B. 123.6
C. 273 D. 328

8. The antenna for a television station is located at the top of a 1,500-ft

transmission tower. Compute the LOS coverage for the TV station if the
receiving antenna is 20 ft above ground.
A. 71.1 mi B. 91.1 mi
C. 61.1 mi D. 81.1 mi
9. An ionospheric disturbance caused by solar activity resulting in severe

attenuation or loss of radio signals, also known as Mogul-Delinger fadeout is
known as ______ disturbance. APRIL 2003
A. traveling ionospheric B. sudden ionospheric (SID)
C. sporadic E D. magnetic STORM
10. After the radiation field leaves an antenna, what is the relationship between the
E and H fields with respect to (a) phase and (b) physical displacement in
space?
A. (a) Out of phase (b) 90 degrees
B. (a) Out of phase (b) 180 degrees
C. (a) In phase (b) 90 degrees
D. (a) In phase (b) 180 degrees
11. At a certain time, the MUF for transmission at an angle of incidence of 75 is 18

MHz. What is the critical frequency?
A. 43.91 MHz B. 4.66 MHz
C. 6.77 MHz D. 0.45 MHz
12. Electrically charged particles that affect the propagation of radio waves are
found in what atmospheric layer?
A. Ionosphere B. Stratosphere
C. Troposphere D. Chronosphere
13. Long range, surface-wave communications are best achieved when the signal is
transmitted over seawater with (a) what polarization at (b) what relative
frequency?
A. (a) Vertical (b) High B. (a) Horizontal (b) High
C. (a) Vertical (b) Low D. (a) Horizontal (b) Low
14. Energy radiated from an antenna is considered horizontally polarized under

which of the following conditions?
A. If the induction field is in the horizontal plane
B. If the electric field is in the horizontal plane
C. If the wavefront is in the horizontal plane
D. If the magnetic field is in the horizontal plane
15. Determine the radio horizon for a transmit antenna that is 100 ft high and a
receiving antenna that is 50 ft high
A. 21.3 mi B. 33.2 mi
C. 24.14 mi D. 32 mi
16. A space wave (a) is primarily a result of refraction in what atmospheric layer
and (b) extends approximately what distance beyond the horizon?
A. (a) Troposphere (b) One-tenth farther
B. (a) Troposphere (b) One-third farther
C. (a) Ionosphere (b) One-third farther
D. (a) Ionosphere (b) One-tenth farther
17. The signal of a space wave is sometimes significantly reduced at the receiving
site because of which of the following interactions?
A. Ground-wave diffraction B. Ground-wave reflections
C. Space-wave refraction D. Space-wave reflections
18. For long-range communications in the HF band, which of the following types of
waves is most satisfactory?
A. Space wave B. Reflected ground wave
C. Sky wave D. Surface wave
19. Ionization in the atmosphere is produced chiefly by which of the following types
of radiation?
A. Alpha radiation B. Cosmic radiation
C. Infrared radiation D. Ultraviolet radiation
20. A 10-MHz wave entering the ionosphere at an angle greater than its critical
angle will pass through the ionosphere and be lost in space unless which of the
following actions is taken?
A. The ground wave is reinforced
B. The frequency of the wave is increased
C. The frequency of the wave is decreased
D. The ground wave is canceled
21. The polarity of a radio wave is determined by the orientation of (a) what
moving field with respect to (b) what reference?
A. (a) Electric (b) antenna B. (a) Magnetic (b) earth
C. (a) Electric (b) earth D. (a) Magnetic (b) antenna
22. Radio communications can be diffracted to exceptionally long distances through

the use of (a) what frequency band at (b) what relative power level?
A. (a) Very high frequency (b) High power
B. (a) Very low frequency (b) High power
C. (a) Very high frequency (b) Low power
D. (a) Very low frequency (b) Low power
23. Which of the following ionospheric variation causes densities to vary with the
position of the earth in its orbit around the sun?
A. Seasonal variation B. 11-year sunspot cycle
C. Daily variation D. 27-day sunspot cycle
24. A sudden and intense burst of ultraviolet light is especially disruptive to

communications in which of the following frequency bands?
A. MF B. VLF
C. HF D. LF
25. The most consistent communications can be expected at which of the following
frequencies?
A. Critical frequency B. Maximum working frequency
C. Maximum usable frequency D. Optimum working frequency
26. If the optimum working frequency for a communications link is 4,250 kHz, what
is the approximate maximum usable frequency?
A. 5,500 kHz B. 5,000 kHz
C. 4,500 kHz D. 6,000 kHz
27. Under certain conditions, such as ducting, line-of-sight radio waves often
propagate for distances far beyond their normal ranges because of which of the
following factors?
A. Ionospheric storms B. Temperature inversions
C. Low cloud masses D. Frequency fluctuations
28. The distance between the transmitter and the nearest point at which refracted
waves return to earth is referred to as the ______.
A. skip distance B. return distance
C. reception distance D. ground-wave distance
29. For a radio wave entering the atmosphere of the earth at a given angle, the
highest frequency at which refraction will occur is known by which of the
following terms?
A. Usable frequency B. Critical frequency
C. Maximum usable frequency D. Optimum working frequency
30. If the critical frequency is 10 MHz, what is the OWF at an angle if incidence of
60?
A. 17 MHz B. 19 MHz
C. 25 MHz D. 20 MHz
31. When ground-wave coverage is LESS than the distance between the
transmitter and the nearest point at which the refracted waves return to earth,
which of the following reception possibilities should you expect?
A. Strong ground wave B. A zone of silence
C. No sky-wave D. Weak ground wave
32. If the signal strength of an incoming signal is reduced for a prolonged period,
what type of fading is most likely involved?
A. Absorption B. Multipath
C. Selective D. Polarization
33. Radio waves that arrive at a receiving site along different paths can cause
signal fading if these waves have different
A. velocities B. amplitudes
C. phase relationships D. modulation percentages
34. Which of the following descriptions of tropospheric scatter signal reception is

NOT true?
A. Receiver signal strength decreases as the turbulence height is increased
B. The level of reception depends on the number of turbulences causing
scatter
C. The energy received is the portion of the wave reradiated by the
turbulence
D. Increased communications distance enables more turbulence to act on the
signal, thereby raising the received signal level
35. The technique of reducing multipath fading by using several receiving antennas
at different locations is known as what type of diversity?
A. Space B. Receiver
C. Frequency D. Modulation
36. Which of the following ionospheric variation causes densities to vary with the
axial rotation of the sun?
A. Daily variation B. 11-year sunspot cycle
C. 27-day sunspot cycle D. Seasonal variation
37. The tropospheric scatter signal is often characterized by very rapid fading
caused by which of the following factors?
A. Extreme path lengths B. Turbulence in the atmosphere
C. Multipath propagation D. Angle of the transmitted beam
38. The critical frequency at a particular time is 11.6MHz. What is the MUF for a
transmitting station if the required angle of incidence for propagation to a
desired destination is 70?
A. 3390 MHz B. 33.9 MHz
C. 339MHz D. 3.39 MHz
39. The greatest amount of absorption takes place in the ionosphere under which
of the following conditions?
A. When sky wave intensity is greatest
B. When the density of the ionized layer is greatest
C. When collision of particles is least
D. When precipitation is greatest
40. The"attenuation of free space" is due to:

A. losses in the characteristic impedance of free space
B. losses due to absorption in the upper atmosphere
C. the decrease in energy per square meter due to expansion of the
wavefront
D. the decrease in energy per square meter due to absorption of the
wavefront
41. Ground waves are most effective:

A. below about 2 MHz
B. above about 20 MHz
C. at microwave frequencies
D. when using horizontally polarized waves
42. Radio waves would most strongly reflect off:

A. a flat insulating surface of the right size
B. a flat dielectric surface of the right size
C. a flat metallic surface of the right size
D. a flat body of water
43. Which polarization can be reasonably well received by a circularly polarized

antenna:
A. vertical B. horizontal
C. circular D. all of the above
44. The number of circular polarization modes (directions) is:

A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. many

5-62 MICROWAVE ENGINEERING
Section Microwave Read it

till it
19 Engineering Hertz!
DEFINITION. Microwaves: A type of electromagnetic wave whose

wavelength ranges from 1.0 mm to 30 cm, used in radar, to carry radio
transmissions, and in cooking or heating devices.
DEFINITION. Microwave Link: A widely employed broadband transmission

medium commonly used to transport the analog FDM or digital PCM.
DEFINITION. Line Of Sight: Straight path, unobstructed by the horizon,

between a transmitting and receiving antenna.
A. .ADVANTAGES OF MICROWAVE SYSTEMS.
1. The gain of an antenna is proportional to its electrical size. Therefore,

one can construct high-gain antennas at microwave frequencies that
are physically small.
2. A 1% bandwidth provides more frequency range at microwave

frequencies than that of HF.
3. Microwave signals travel predominantly by LOS. Plus they dont reflect

off the ionosphere like RF signals.
4. At microwave frequencies, the electromagnetic properties of many

materials are changing with frequency. This is due to molecular,
atomic, and nuclear resonance. This behavior is useful for remote
sensing and other applications.
5. There is much less background noise at microwave frequencies than at

RF.
6. Microwave systems do not require a right-of-way acquisition between

stations.
7. Fewer repeaters are necessary for amplification.
8. Underground facilities are minimized.
9. Increased reliability and less maintenance.

B. .LINE OF SIGHT MICROWAVE SYSTEMS.
1. Microwave Frequency Bands
Band Frequency
Region
Designation (GHz)
L 1-2
Microwave Region
(30 cm to 8 mm)
S 2-4
C 4-8
X 8-12
Ku 12-18
K 18-27
Ka 27-40
U 40-60
Millimeter
Region
V 60-80
Wave
W 80-110
Mm 110-300
2. Procedures of Microwave (Radio Link) Engineering
i. Selection of sites (radio equipment plus tower locations) that are

in line-of-sight of each other.
ii. Selection of an operating frequency band.
iii. Development of path profiles to determine radio tower heights.
iv. Path calculations
v. Making a path survey
vi. Establishment of a frequency plan and necessary operational
parameters.
vii. Equipment configuration to achieve the fade margins set in step 4
most economically.
viii. Installation.
ix. Beam alignment (Boresighting), equipment lineup, checkout, and
acceptance by a customer.

Origin of Names
Band Meaning Band Meaning
L Long wave Ku Kurz-under
S Short wave K Kurz
C Compromise Ka Kurz-above
X Cross V Very

3. Types Of Path
i. Line of Sight
The straight path (LOS) between a transmitting and receiving
antenna unobstructed by the horizon.
ii. Grazing Path

The microwave beam barely touches the obstruction (zero
clearance).
iii. Obstructed Path

The microwave beam is hindered by an obstruction.
4. The K-Curve
A numerical figure that considers the non-ideal condition of the
atmosphere resulting to atmospheric refraction that causes the ray
beam to be bent toward the earth or away from the earth.
Effective earth radius re

k = =
True earth radius ro
k<1
k=
k>1
K-curve Conditions
i. Sub-standard condition
Under this condition, the microwave
beam is bent away from the earth, it
k <1 is as if we expanded the earth
curvature (bulge) or raised it up
toward the beam above its true
value.
ii. Standard condition
Under this condition, the fictitious

4 earth radius appears to the
k= microwave beams to be longer than
3
the true earth radius.
iii. Super-standard condition
This condition results in an effective

4
k> flattening of the equivalent earths
3 curvature.
iv. Infinity Condition (Flat Earth Condition)
This condition results to zero

curvature (as if the earth is flat) and
k= the microwave beam follows the
curvature of the earth.
5. Earth Bulge (eb)

The number of feet or meters an obstacle is raised higher in elevation
(into the path) owing to earth curvature or earth bulge.
d1(mi)d2(mi) d1(km)d2(km)
eb(ft) = eb(m) =
1.5 12.75
Sample Problem:
Calculate the earth bulge 2 mi, 10 mi, 22 mi away from a transmitter for a
25 mi terrestrial microwave link.
Solution:
For 2 miles;
d1d2 2(25 2)
eb = = = 30.67 feet
1.5 1.5
For 10 miles;
d1d2 10(25 10)
eb = = = 100 feet
1.5 1.5
For 22 miles;
d1d2 22(25 22)
eb = = = 44 feet
1.5 1.5

If we consider atmospheric refraction that may cause the ray beam to be bent
toward or away from the earth we must include the k-factor to the earth bulge
equation.

Effective Earth Bulge Equation (Earth Curvature)
eb(ft) = eb(m) =
1.5k 12.75k
Sample Problem:
Calculate the effective height of a 100 ft obstruction situated 10 mi from the
receiving end of a 25 mi radio link for the following values of k;
a. 4/3 b. c. 5/2
Solution:
He = Hactual + Effective Earth Bulge
When k=4/3
10(25 10)
He = 100 + = 175 feet
4
1.5
3
When k=
10(25 10)
He = 100 + = 300 feet
1
1.5
2
When k=5/2
10(25 10)
He = 100 + = 140 feet
5
1.5
2
6. Effective Earth Radius
where:
ro NS = Surface refractivity
re(km) =
1 0.04665 e(0.005577NS ) ro = true earth radius
= 6370 km
7. Sea Level Refractivity
where:
NS = N0 x e 0.1057hS N0 = Sea level refractivity
hs = height of potential site in km
Sample Problem:
Determine the surface refractivity for a potential microwave site 250 m
above sea level with a sea level refractivity of 312 and also calculate the
effective earth radius.
Solution:
For the surface refractivity
250
0.1057 x
NS = Noe 0.1057ht = 312 x e 1000 = 303.86
For the effective earth radius

ro 6370 km
re = =
0.005577NS
1 - 0.04665e 1 0.04665e 0.005577(3 03.86)
= 8,539 km
8. Antenna Height
hTX(ft) = hTX(m) =
2 17
9. Radio Range (Standard condition, K=4/3)
D(mi) = 2hT(ft) + 2hR(ft) D(km) 4 hT(m) + 4 hR(m)

Sample Problem:
Calculate the maximum range for a microwave link for which the antenna heights
are 100 and 60 ft.
Solution:
D = 2hT + 2hR = 2(100) + 2(60) = 25.1 mi
10. Approximate relation between Path length and frequency

As a general rule, the lower the frequency, the farther the microwave
link. Thus, a general estimate can be made as to the approximate
range of frequencies which may be used for specific distance:
Frequency Approximate Path Length

8 GHz 30 miles maximum
10.5 GHz 25 miles maximum
B. .FRESNEL CLEARANCE.
It derives from electromagnetic wave theory that a wavefront has

expanding properties as it travels through space. This factor must be
added to the obstacle height to obtain an effective obstacle height.
Fresnel Zone Radius

The amount of additional clearance that must be allowed to avoid
problems with the Fresnel phenomenon is expressed in Fresnel zones.
i. 1st Fresnel Zone Radius
F1(ft) = 72.1 F1(m) = 17.3
f(GHz)D(mi) f(GHz)D(km)
60% of the 1st Fresnel Zone Radius (0.6F1)

A situation when there is no net change in attenuation or no gain, no
loss condition occurs when 60% of the first Fresnel radius clears a
path obstruction in microwave systems.
ii. Higher Fresnel Zone Radius
Fn = F1 n n = nth Fresnel zone
Sample Problem:
Solve for the total height extended in feet for an obstacle situated 27-mi
away fro a 35-mi microwave system assuming if the tree growth exists, add
40 ft for the trees and 10 ft for additional growth (use 6 GHz and 0.6F1).
Solution:
H = Earth Curvature + Fresnel Clearance + Vegetation
27(35 27) 27(35 27)
H= + 0.672.1 + 50
4 6 x 35
1.5 x
3
= 108 + 43.87ft + 50
202 ft

A French physicist, Augustin Fresnel, defined the propagation of a radio

wave as a three-dimensional elliptical path between the transmitter and
receiver.
Fresnel divided the path into several zones based on the phase and
speed of the propagating waves.
As frequency decreases, the size of the Fresnel Zone increases.
As the length of the path increases, the size of the Fresnel Zone also
increases.
A Fresnel Zones radius is greatest at the midpoint of the path.

Therefore, the midpoint requires the most clearance of any point in the
path.
Sample Problem:
Calculate the 5th Fresnel zone radius to clear a 35 mi radio link operating at
12 GHz if the 1st Fresnel zone radius is 61.57 ft.
Solution:
nd1(mi)d2(mi) 5(17.5 x 17.5)

Fn = 72.1 = 72.1 = 137.67 ft
f(GHz)D(mi) 12 x 35
Alternate Solution;
Fn = F1(ft) n = 61.57 5 = 137.67ft
C. .MICROWAVE LINK CALCULATIONS.
Path Profile
A Path Profile is a graphical representation of the path traveled by the
radio waves between the two ends of a link. The path profile determines
the location and height of the antenna at each end of the link, and it
insures that the link is free of obstructions, such as hills, and not subject
to propagation losses from radio phenomena, such as multipath
reflections.
Power Level Diagram
1. Transmit Parameters
i. Transmitter Power
In dBW In dBm
P PT
PT(dBW) = 10 log T PT(dBm) = 10 log
1W 1mW
ii. Transmitter Transmission Line Loss (dB)
(dB)
L T (dB) = x total length + L M
length
iii. Transmitter Antenna Gain
2 2
D D
General Solution GT = GT = 6

Metric GT(dB) = 17.8 + 20 log fGHz + 20 logDm
system
In dB
English GT(dB) = 7.5 + 20 log fGHz + 20 logDft
system

iv. Effective Isotropic Radiated Power (EIRP)
a. In Watts
System General Solution
Ideal EIRP = PT x GT
PT x GT
Practical EIRP =
LT
b. In dB
System General Solution
Ideal EIRP(dBW) = PT(dB) + GT(dB)
Practical EIRP(dBW) = PT(dB) + GT(dB) L T(dB)
2. Path Parameters
i. Free Space Loss

The loss incurred by an electromagnetic wave as it propagates in a
straight line through vacuum with no absorption or reflection of
energy from nearby objects.
System In dB
Metric FSL (dB) = 92.4 + 20 log fGHz + 20 logDkm
English FSL (dB) = 96.6 + 20 log fGHz + 20 logDmi
ii. Miscellaneous Noise
Atmospheric Noise
Na = 65.5 + En 20 log fMHz
iii. Isotropic Receive Level (IRL)
IRL (dBW) = EIRPdBW FSL dB

3. Receive Parameters
i. Receiver Antenna Gain (dB)

Typically the same with TX antenna gain otherwise specified.
ii. Receiver Transmission Line Loss (dB)

Typically the same with TX line losses otherwise specified.
iii. Net Path Loss (NPL)
General NPL (dB) = Total Losses Total Gains

Solution
In dB ( ) (
NPL (dB) = L TX(dB) + FSL dB + LRX(dB) GTX(dB) + GRX(dB) )
iv. Receive Signal Level (RSL)
In term of RSL (dBW) = PO(dBW) NPL dB

Output
Power and
Net Path Loss RSL (dBm) = PO(dBm) NPL dB
In terms of
fade margin RSL (dBW) = FMdB + ITdB
and
Improvement RSL (dBm) = FMdB + ITdBm
threshold
v. Noise Threshold
N(dBW) = 10 log(kTB) + NFdB

In dBW
N(dBW) = 204 + 10 logB + NFdB
kTB
N(dBm) = 10 log + NFdB
1mW
In dBm
N(dBm) = 174 + 10 logB + NFdB

vi. FM Improvement Threshold (IT)

The point where capture effects takes place and the output
signal-to-noise ratio suddenly jumps to 30 dB.
System In dB
In dB IT(dBW) = NdBW + 10 dB
In dBm IT(dBm) = NdBm + 10 dB
vii. Carrier-to-Noise Ratio

The ratio of the minimum wideband carrier power at the input to a
receiver that will provide a usable baseband output to the
wideband noise power present at the input of a receiver, the noise
introduce within the receiver, and the noise sensitivity of the
baseband detector.

C AM: C/N = S/N
= RSL dBm NdB
N (dB) FM: S/N about 30 dB larger
than C/N ("FM IT")
viii. Fade Margin (dB)

A fudge factor included in the system gain equation that
considers the non-ideal and less predictable characteristics of
radio-wave propagation, such as multipath propagation and
terrain sensitivity.
Rayleigh Table
Propagation Required Fade

Reliability (%) Margin (dB)
90 8
99 18
99.9 28
99.99 38
99.999 48
99.9999 58
In terms of RSL and IT
In dB FM(dB) = RSL dBW ITdBW

In dBm FM(dBm) = RSL dBm ITdBm
In terms of Propagation Parameters
FMdB = 30 log dkm + 10 log ( 6abfGHz ) 10 log (1 R ) 70
where:
Surface
Description
Factor (a)
For very smooth terrain, over
4.0
water, desert
For average terrain with some
1.0
roughness
For mountainous, very rough,
0.25
or very dry terrain
Climate
Description
Factor (b)
0.5 For hot, humid coastal areas
For normal, interior
0.25
temperature
For mountainous or very dry
0.125
but not reflective terrain

Sample Problem:
An FM LOS microwave link operates at 6.15 GHz. The required receiver IF
bandwidth is 20 MHz. The transmitter output power is 30dBm. The receiver
front ends first active stage is a mixer with a noise figure of 9 dB. The path
length is 21 mi; the antennas at each end have a 35-dB gain and the
transmission line losses at each end are 3 dB. If the FM Improvement
threshold is used as the unfaded reference, what is the reliability of the radio
link?
Solution:
1. EIRP
EIRP = Pt(dBm) L tx(dB) + Gtx(dB)
= 30 dBm - 3 dB + 35 dB
= 62 dBm
2. FSL
FSL = 96.6 + 20log(fGHz xDmi )
= 96.6 + 20log(6.15x21)
= 138.82 dB
3. IRL
IRL dBm = EIRPdBm - FSL dB
= 62 dBm - 138.82 dB
= -76.82 dBm
4. RSL
RSL dBm = IRL dBm + Grx(dB) L rx(dB)
= 76.82 dBm + 35dB 3 dB
= 44.82 dBm
5. Noise Threshold
NdBm = 174 + 10log(BW) + NF
= 174 + 10log(20x106 ) + 9 dB
= 91.99 dBm
6. FMIT
FM ITdBm = NdBm + 10 dB
= 81.99 dBm
7. Carrier-to-Noise Ratio
C
= RSL dBm NdBm
N dB
= 44.82 dBm - (-91.99 dBm)
= 47.17 dB
8. Fade Margin
FMdB = RSL dBm FM ITdBm
= 44.82 dBm - (-81.99 dBm)
= 37.17 dB
9. Reliability (By interpolation)
Reliability = 99.982%
D. .MICROWAVE SYSTEM PERFORMANCE.
1. System Gain
The difference between the nominal output power of a transmitter and
the minimum input power required by a receiver.
GS(dB) = P0(dBW) Threshold(dBW) GS(dB) = P0(dBm) Threshold(dBm)
2. System Reliability
The percentage of time a system or link meets performance
requirements.
Reliability
R = (1 Outage) x 100%
For Multi-hop link
R s = R1 xR 2 xR 3 xR n
where:
Outage = is the amount of time that the
requirements will not be meet
R1 ,R2 Rn = individual reliability
Reliability vs. Outage time table

Outage Outage Time
Reliability
Time Per Month Per Day
(%) Per Yr.
(%) (avg.) (avg.)
0 100 8760 hr 720 hr 24 hr
50 50 4380 hr 360 hr 12 hr
80 20 1752 hr 144 hr 4.8 hr
90 10 876 hr 72 hr 2.4 hr
95 5 438 hr 36 hr 1.2 hr
98 2 175 hr 14 hr 29 min
99 1 88 h 7 hr 14 min
99.9 0.1 8.8 hr 43 min 1.4 min
99.99 0.01 53 min 4.3 min 88.6 s
99.999 0.001 5.3 min 26 s 0.86 s

Availability
MTBF
A= x 100%
MTBF + MTTR
Unavailability
MTTR
U= x 100% U = (1 A) x 100%
MTBF + MTTR
Sample Problem:
What fade margin is required for a microwave LOS link with a time availability
requirements of 99.997%?
Solution:
From Rayleigh table
Propagation Required Fade
Reliability (%) Margin (dB)
99.99 38
99.997 ?
99.999 48
By interpolation method;
FM 38 0.99997 0.9999
= FM = 45.77 dB
48 38 0.99999 0.99997
E. .DIVERSITY TECHNIQUE.
Diversity suggests that there is more than one transmission path or

method of transmission available between a transmitter and a receiver.
1. Frequency Diversity
Frequency diversity is simply modulating two different RF carrier
frequencies with same IF intelligence, then transmitting both RF
signals to a given destination.
2. Space Diversity
With space diversity, the output of a transmitter is fed to two or more
antennas that are physically separated by an appreciable number of
wavelengths.
where:
3 R e R e = fictitious earth radius in km
S=
L L = path length in km
3. Polarization Diversity
A single RF carrier is propagated with two different electromagnetic
polarizations.

I H
1. To provide a reliable 1 GHz cellular phone service in the ground floor dining
room of a 52-story (160 m) building in the center of a metropolis, a passive
link via coaxial cable was installed between the top of the building and the
dining room. Without the link, signals via multipath reflections were unreliable.
The top of the building antenna is a /2 dipole. The dining room antenna is a
/4 stub (probe) projecting down from the ceiling. The handheld cell phone
with /4 antenna projecting up has equivalent effective area. If the dining
room cellular phone is 10m from the ceiling antenna and the top of the building
antenna is 1.2-km LOS from the cell tower antenna, which has a gain of 10dB
and the cable loss is 2dB/100m. What is the total path loss in dB?
A. -154 dB B. -134 dB
C. -174 dB D. -114 dB
2. When drawing a path profile, we calculated the appropriate k-factor as 0.85.

How will such a k-factor impact tower height compared to a k-factor of 1.0?
A. It will decrease by 7.5% B. It will increase by 15%
C. It will increase by 7.5% D. It will decrease by 15%
3. What is the effective earth radius if Ns = 301?

A. 8393 km B. 7270 km
C. 6370 km D. 8493 km
4. The effects of fading due to multipath reception are often reduced using:
A. diversity B. low power
C. high-gain antennas D. repeater
5. Repeaters are used in a microwave system:

A. always
B. when distance exceeds line-of-sight
C. above 10 GHz
D. below 10 GHz
6. Calculate the maximum range for a microwave link for which the antenna
heights are 100 and 60 ft.
A. 23.5 mi B. 44.5 mi
C. 25.1 mi D. 21.8 mi
7. What reliability is equal to an average outage time of 88.6 seconds per day?
A. 99.99% B. 96.97%
C. 90.91% D. 98.19%
8. What is the system reliability of a microwave network consisting of three hops

with the following individual reliability? April 1992
Hop 1: 99.99% Hop 2: 99.95% Hop 3: 99.8%
A. 96.52% B. 97.52%
C. 99.52% D. 98.52%
9. A certain radio station is transmitting at 0 dBW. The transmission line losses at

the transmitting and receiving ends are both 2 dB, total propagation path loss
of 138 dB, and the receiver noise threshold is -124 dBW. What should be the
combined gain of the transmitting and receiving antenna to obtain a C/N ratio
of 10 dB at the receiver front end? April 1989
A. 18 dB B. 48 dB
C. 28 dB D. 38 dB
10. Satisfactory performance of an analog microwave system is defined as:

A. a carrier-to-noise ratio that exceeds a given value
B. an ERP level that exceeds a given value
C. an energy-per-hertz level that exceeds a given value
D. a power density that exceeds a given value
11. A point-to-point communication system consists of a transmitter operating at

400 MHz with an RF output of 90 W. It is fed to a 6 dBi antenna through a 150
ft coaxial cable which has an attenuation of 1.7 dB per 100 ft. The receiving
stations, located several miles away, has an antenna system consisting of a 9
dB gain antenna, with a 100-ft coaxial cable with an attenuation of 1.5 dB per
100 ft. If the path loss between the transmitter and the receiving stations is
124 dB, determine the signal level in dB at the receiver.
A. -95.6 dBm B. -63.5 dBm
C. -148.1 dBm D. -88.2 dBm
12. Fading is caused by:

A. multipath reception B. attenuation due to weather
C. ducting D. all of the above
13. MMDS stands for:

A. Multichannel Microwave Distribution System
B. Multipoint Microwave Distribution System
C. Multichannel Multipoint Distribution System
D. Multiple Microwave Distribution Systems
14. For a system gain of 112 dB, a total NF of 6.5 dB, an input noise power of -104
dBm, and a minimum output S/N of the FM demodulator of 32 dB, determine
the minimum received carrier power and the minimum transmit power.
A. -55.2 dBm, 33.5 dBm B. 29.5 dBm, -82.5 dBm
C. -33.5 dBm, 55.2 dBm D. -82.5 dBm, 29.5 dBm
15. An advantage of digital techniques over analog in a microwave system is:

A. less bandwidth is required
B. accumulation of noise is reduced
C. it requires less power
D. lower cost

16. 90% reliability is equivalent to how many hours per year that a certain
microwave system will not meet the desired propagation requirements.
A. 876 hrs/yr B. 568 hrs/yr
C. 347 hrs/yr D. 239 hrs/yr
17. A frequency diversity microwave system operates at an RF=8 GHz. The IF is a

low-index frequency-modulated subcarrier. The baseband signal is a single
mastergroup FDM system (BW=2520 kHz). The antennas are 2.4-m parabolic
dishes. The feeder lengths are 12 0m at one station and 80 m at the other
station with a feeder loss of 6.5-dB/100m and a total 3 dB branching loss for
each station. The reliability objective is 99.995%. The system propagates over
an average terrain that has a very dry climate. The distance between stations
is 40 km. The minimum C/N ratio at the receiver input is 28 dB. Determine
the system gain and the minimum transmit power.
A. 93. 52 dB, 14.2 mW B. 93. 52 dB, 41.2 mW
C. 39. 52 dB, 41.2 mW D. 39. 52 dB, 14.2 mW
18. A microwave receiver receives 60 dBm of signal. The noise power is 100
dBm. What is the carrier-to-noise power ratio?
A. 160 dB B. 40 dB
C. -160 dB D. -40 dB
19. A typical microwave system uses a transmitted power of about:

20. Consider a receiver with an FM IT of 114 dBW, a free space attenuation of 140
dB, an antenna gain of 20 dB each, and 2 dB transmission line losses. What
would the transmitter output have to provide a 114 dBW input level to the
receiver?
A. 3.5 W B. 0.1 W
C. 5.3 W D. 8.2 W
21. _____ fading is a partial isolation of the transmitting and receiving antennas
because of intrusion of the earths surface or atmospheric layers into the
propagation path.
A. voltage B. current
C. Rayleigh D. power
22. What Fade Margin is required for 99.95 % single hop propagation reliability?
A. 25 dB B. 33 dB
C. 18 dB D. 45 dB
23. LMDS stands for:

A. Local Microwave Distribution System
B. Local Multipoint Distribution System
C. Local Multichannel Distribution System
D. Low-power Microwave Distribution System
24. Calculate the half-power beamdwidth of a parabolic reflector with a gain 44 dB.
A. 1 B. 23
C. 15 D. 21
25. Calculate the required clearance for an obstacle located 10 km from the
transmitting end of a 40-km line of sight radio link operating at frequency of 6
GHz.
A. 11.6 m B. 22.8 m
C. 5.5 m D. 8.14 m
26. A transmitter has a power output of 10W at a carrier frequency of 250 MHz. It
is connected by 10 m of a transmission line having a loss of 3 dB/100m to an
antenna with a gain of 6 dBi. The receiving antenna is 20 km away and has a
gain of 4 dBi. There is negligible loss in the receiver feedline, but the receiver
is mismatched; the antenna and line are designed for a 50- impedance, but
the receiver input is 75-. Calculate the power delivered to the receiver,
assuming free-space propagation.
A. 204 nW B. 2040 nW
C. 2.04 nW D. 20.4 nW
27. A 10 hops LOS microwave system has a system time availability equal to
99.85%. What would the per hop time availability be?
A. 99.85% B. 90.95%
C. 99.985% D. 97.85%
28. The use of redundant system to reduce the effects of multipath fading is
_____.
A. combining B. diversity
C. modulation D. multiplexing
29. In digital microwave systems, additional repeaters increase the:

A. reliability B. noise level
C. jitter D. security
30. The microwave signal path should clear obstacles by at least

A. 60% of the Faraday zone
B. 60% of the Fresnel zone
C. 60% of the height of the antenna tower
D. 60% of the highest obstacle height
31. What is the availability of a system where the MTBF is 40,000 and the MTTR is
10 hr?
A. 98.5% B. 99.975%
C. 99.918% D. 95.95%
32. The extra strength needed in order to assure that enough signal reaches the
receiving antenna and must be made available to compensate for fades;
computed as the difference between the received signal strength and the
threshold level
A. RSL B. Noise Figure
C. Threshold Level D. Fade Margin
33. A microwave path over which radio waves barely touches the obstruction is
called _____.
A. Grazing Path B. Obstructed Path
C. Line of Sight D. Crooked Path

34. Calculate the system propagation reliability given the following individual link
availability: Link 0-1 = 99.85% Link 1-2 = 99.99%
Link 2-3 = 99.9% Link 3-4= 99.95%
A. 99% B. 99.45%
C. 99.95% D. 99.845%
35. A line-of-sight microwave link operating at 4 GHz has a separation of 40 km

between antennas. An obstacle in the path is located midway between the two
antennas. By how much must the beam clear the obstacle?
A. 12.4 meters B. 14.4 meters
C. 16.4 meters D. 18.4 meters
36. What fade margin is required for a microwave LOS link with a time availability
requirements of 99.997%?
A. 42.5 dB B. 45.77 dB
C. 43.5 dB D. 46 dB
37. In analog microwave systems, additional repeaters increase the:

A. reliability B. noise level
C. jitter D. security
38. Consider a space-diversity microwave radio operating at an RF carrier

frequency of 1.8 GHz. Each station has a 2.4-m diameter parabolic antenna
that is fed by 100-m of air filled coaxial cable, which has a branching loss of 2
dB/100 m and a feeder loss 5.4 dB/100m. The terrain is smooth and the area
has a humid climate. The distance station is 40 km and a reliability objective of
99.99% is desired. Calculate the system gain.
A. 113.35 dB B. 77.45 dB
C. 105 dB D. 145 dB
39. Calculate the value of k-factor that will, as if effectively give an earth bulge of
200 ft for a 25 mi radio link system.
A. 1.33 B. 0.521
C. 0.75 D. 0.92
40. A transmitter has a power output of 150 W at a carrier frequency of 32 MHz. It

is connected to an antenna with a gain of 12 dBi. The receiving antenna is 10
km away and has a gain of 5 dBi. Calculate the power delivered to the
receiver, assuming free-space propagation.
A. 4.04 nW B. 404 nW
C. 40.4 nW D. 44 nW
41. Determine the power delivered to the receiver in dBm of a transmitter located
40-km away with an output power of 2 W using a 20 dBi antenna, assuming
the receive antenna gain is 25 dBi at 6 GHz.
A. -37 dBm B. -153 dBm
C. -62 dBm D. -85 dBm
42. A situation when there is no net change in attenuation or no gain, no loss

occurs when _____% of the first fresnel radius clears a path obstruction in
microwave systems.
A. 60 B. 85
C. 45 D. 75
43. Calculate the noise temperature of the antenna/feedline system, referenced to

the receiver input of a microwave system if the antenna sees a sky
temperature of 120 K, and the antenna feedline loss of 2 dB.
A. 94 K B. 182 K
C. 271 K D. 144 K
44. A component of a microwave station that samples signal traveling in one

direction down to the transmission line.
A. Attenuator B. Combiner
C. Directional coupler D. Modulator
45. Calculate the thermal noise power in dBm, referred to the receiver input of a
microwave antenna/feedline system with a combined noise temperature of 182
K connected to a receiver with a NF of 2 dB and 20 MHz of bandwidth.
A. -80 dBm B. -120 dBm
C. -100 dBm D. -150 dBm
46. How far from the transmitter could a signal be received if the transmitting and
receiving antennas were 40m and 20m, respectively, above level terrain?
A. 44.5 km B. 87.6 km
C. 32.7 km D. 15.8 km
47. If the line-of-sight distance for an optical beam is 12 km, what would it be,
approximately, for a microwave beam?
A. 15 km B. 16 km
C. 12 km D. 8 km
48. Satisfactory performance of a digital microwave system requires a:

A. low level of transmitted power
B. high level of ERP
C. good energy per bit per transmitted Watt ratio
D. good energy per bit per noise density ratio
49. A transmitter and receiver operating at 1 GHz are separated by 10 km. How
many dBm of power gets to the receiver if the transmitter puts out 1 Watt, and
both the sending and receiving antennas have a gain of 20 dBi?
A. -22.4 dBm B. 32.4 dBm
C. -42.4 dBm D. 42.4 dBm
50. A microwave system has a feed-line loss of 2 dB and sees a sky temperature of
150 K. Calculate the noise temperature of the antenna/feed-line system
referenced to the receiver input.
A. 201 K B. 300 K
C. 178 K D. 290 K

5-86 SATELLITE COMMUNICATIONS
Section Satellite Read it

till it
DEFINITION. Satellite: (Telecommunications) An object put into orbit

around Earth or any other planet in order to relay communications signals or
transmit scientific data.
DEFINITION. Angle of Elevation is the angle subtended by the direction of

travel of an electromagnetic wave radiated from an earth station antenna
pointing directly toward a satellite and the horizontal plane.
DEFINITION. Apogee: Point in a satellite orbit located farthest from Earth.
DEFINITION. Perigee: Point in a satellite orbit located closest to Earth.
1945 Arthur C. Clarke proposes a station in geosynchronous orbit to relay

communications and broadcast television. (Coined the term satellite)
1957 Russia launched Sputnik I that becomes the 1st active satellite.
Sputnik I transmit telemetry information for 21 days.
1958 Explorer I was launched. The 1st American satellite, which also
transmits telemetry informations for nearly five months.
1958 NASA launched Score. Score was the 1st artificial satellite used for
relaying terrestrial communications that rebroadcast President
Eisenhowers 1958 Christmas message. (1ST communications satellite)
1960 Echo I was launched. Echo is consisted of an aluminized plastic

balloon 30 m (100 ft) in diameter. (1st passive reflector satellite)
Courier 1B- (1st active repeater satellite)
1962 AT&T launched Telstar I, the 1st satellite capable to transmit and
receive simultaneously but eventually destroyed by the new
discovered Van Allen radiation belts. (1st duplex satellite)
1963 Synchronous communication launched Syncom I, The first attempt to

place a satellite in geostationary orbit but unfortunately was lost
during orbit injection. (Considered as the 1st geo-stationary satellite)
1965 Intelsat or Early Bird was launched and was the first commercial
telecommunications satellite which used 2 transponder, 25 MHz
bandwidth which could simultaneously carry 1 TV signal and 480 voice

channels. (1st satellite for commercial service)
1997 Aguila II, launched in China becomes the first Filipino satellite.
A. .GENERAL TYPES OF SATELLITES.
1. Astronomical satellites -- are satellites used for observation of

distant planets, galaxies, and other outer space objects.
2. Communications satellites -- are artificial satellites stationed in

space for the purposes of telecommunications using radio at
microwave frequencies. Most communications satellites use
geosynchronous orbits or near-geostationary orbits, although some
recent systems use low Earth-orbiting satellites.
3. Weather satellites -- are satellites that primarily are used to monitor

the weather and/or climate of the Earth.
4. Navigation satellites -- are satellites which use radio time signals

transmitted to enable mobile receivers on the ground to determine
their exact location accurately on the order of a few metres in real
time.
5. Reconnaissance satellites -- are Earth observation satellite or

communications satellite deployed for military or intelligence
applications.
6. Earth observation satellites -- are satellites specifically designed to

observe Earth from orbit, similar to reconnaissance satellites but
intended for non-military uses such as environmental monitoring,
meteorology, map making etc.
7. Solar power satellites -- are proposed satellites built in high Earth

orbit that use microwave power transmission to beam solar power to
very large antenna on Earth where it can be used in place of
conventional power sources.
8. Biosatellites -- are satellites designed to carry living organisms,

generally for scientific experimentation.
9. Miniaturized satellites -- are satellites of unusually low weights and

small sizes. New classifications are used to categorize these satellites:
minisatellite (500200 kg), microsatellite (below 200 kg),
nanosatellite (below 10 kg).

B. .KEPLERs LAW.
The laws concerning the motions of planets formulated by German

astronomer Johannes Kepler early in the 17th century.
1. First Law
The orbit of a planet around the sun is an ellipse.
2. Second Law (Law of Areas)

A straight line from the planet to the center of the sun sweeps out
equal areas in equal time intervals as it goes around the orbit; the
planet moves faster when closer to the sun and slower when distant.
\
Sun
Aphelion
Perihelion
A1=A2 if t1=t2
3. Third Law (Law of Periods or Harmonic Law)

The square of the period (in years) for one revolution about the sun
equals the cube of the mean distance from the sun's center, measured
in astronomical units.
The square of the periodic time of orbit is proportional to the cube of the mean
distance between the primary and the satellite.
Satellite
Astronomy
Communication
P2 2
=k = A xP 3
MD3
MD = mean distance
P = orbital period
A = constant

Calculate the approximate height of a GEO satellite
using Keplers Third law (A=42241.0979; P = 0.9972)
Solution: h
2 2
= AP 3= 42241 .0979 x 0.9972 3 = 42, 162 .21 km
hkm = R earth = 42, 162 .21 6378 = 35, 784 .21 km
Rearth
E
C. .SATELLITE ORBITAL PATTERNS.
1. Polar Orbit
Satellite rotates in a path that takes it over the North and South poles
in an orbit perpendicular to the equatorial plane.
2. Equatorial Orbit
Satellite rotates in an orbit directly above the equator, usually in a
circular path.
3. Inclined Orbit
Virtually all orbit except those that travel directly above the equator or
directly over the North and South poles.

D. .SATELLITE ELEVATION CATEGORY.
Comparison between Different Elevation Categories
Operating
Typical Orbital
Orbit Frequency Availability
Height (mi) Period
(GHz)
LEO 100 - 300 1.0 2.5 1.5 hrs. 0.25 hrs.
6,000 to
MEO 1.22 1.66 612 hrs. 24 hrs.
12,000
19,000 to
GEO 2 - 18 24 hrs. 24 hrs.
25,000
E. .GEOSTATIONARY ORBIT.
Parameter Value
19,322 nmi,
Altitude 22, 300 smi,
36,000 km
Period 23 hr, 56 min, 4.091 s
Orbit Inclination 0
Velocity 6879 mi/h
Coverage 42.5% of earths surface

3 for global coverage
Number of satellites
(120 apart)
Subsatellite point On the equator
Above 81 north and
Area of no coverage
south latitude
F. .EARTH STATION DESIGN PARAMETERS.
1. Antenna Look Angles
Angle of Elevation (AOE)

The angle subtended by the direction of travel of an
electromagnetic wave radiated from an earth station antenna
pointing directly toward a satellite and the horizontal plane.
1 R
= tan1
tan ( R + h ) sin

Azimuth Angle
The horizontal pointing angle of an earth station antenna generally
referred to true north.
tan
Az = cos 1
tan
2. Slant Distance
The Line-of-Sight (LOS) distance between an earth station antenna
and the satellite
( R + h)
2
d = R sin + R 2 cos2
Where:
= Angle of elevation in degrees
= cos 1 cos cos
= Latitude of Earth station antenna
= Difference in longitude between an Earth station antenna
and the sub-satellite point
h = Satellite HEIGHT in km
R = Earth's radius = 6378km
Az = Azimuth angle in degrees
Sample Problem:
Calculate the elevation angle, azimuth and slant range between the TVRO
site (38.8N latitude, 77W longitude) and Hughes Galaxy satellite that is in
a geo-stationary orbit at 134W longitude above the equator.
Solution:
Elevation Angle
1 R
= tan1
tan (R + h ) sin
= cos 1 [cos( ) cos( )]
= cos 1 [cos(38.8 ) cos(134 77 )]
= 64.9
1 6400 km
= tan1
tan(64 .9 ) (6400 + 36,000 ) sin(64 . 9 )
= 16.8
Azimuth Angle
tan 1 tan(38.8 )
Az = cos 1 = cos
tan tan(64.9 )
= 247 .9
Slant Distance
d = R sin + (R + h)2 R 2 cos2

= 6400 sin(16.8 ) + (6400 + 36,000 )2 64002 cos2 (16.8)
= 40, 105 .2 km
Answer : = 16.8, Az = 247 .9, d = 40, 105 .2 km
3. Orbital Height (Vertical Height)

The average distance of a satellite above the surface of the earth.
General Solution Alternate Solution
gR 2 T 2 (4 x 105 ) T 2 2
h= 3 R h= 3 R h = 21.64 T 3 R
4 2 4 2

4. Orbital Period
The period of time that it takes a satellite to rotate around the earth.
General Solution Alternate Solution

3
(h + R) (h + R)3
T = 2 T = 2
gR 2 4 x 105
5. Orbital Velocity
The apparent velocity of a satellite as it rotates around the earth.
Alternate Solution
General Solution
km/s m/s
2 (h + R) 4 x 105 4 x 1011
= = =
T (h + R) (h + R)
T = orbital period in sec = orbital velocity

g = acceleration due to gravity h = satellite Height in km
R = earth's radius
= 9.81 m = 0.00981 km 2
s2 s = 6378 km
gR2 = gravitational constant
3
= 4 x 105 km
s2
Sample Problem:
Determine the orbital period and orbital velocity of a satellite located 15,000
km above the surface of the earth.
Solution:
Orbital Period
T = 2
(R + h)3 = 2
(6400 + 15,000 )3
gR 2 4 x 105
1 hr
= 31, 100 .72 sec x
3600 s
= 8 .64 hrs
Orbital Velocity
4 x 1011
=
(6400 + 15,000 )
= 4,323 .38 m
s
6. Propagation Time (One-way)

The amount of time it takes a signal to reach the satellite after it
leaves the earth station antenna or vice-versa.
Slant distance d
Ptime = =
Speed of light c
7. Propagation Delay (Two-way)

The amount of time that elapsed after the signal reaches the receiving
earth stations after it was transmitted by an earth station.
Ptime = Propagation time in sec

Pdelay = 2xPtime d = Slant distance in m
c = Speed of light
= 3 x 108 m
s
Reminder
In some books propagation delay is the same as round-trip propagation time.
8. Free Space Loss
FSL = Free Space Loss in dB

FSL = 92 .4 + 20 log( f x d) f = Frequency in GHz
d = Distance in km

Sample Problem:
Calculate the propagation time, propagation delay, and FSL for a geo-
stationary satellite located directly above an earth station antenna with an
operating frequency of 12 GHz.
Solution:
Propaga tion time Propagation delay
d 36 ,000 km Pdelay = 2 x Ptime
Ptime = =
c 3 x 105 km = 2(120 ms )
s
= 120 ms = 240 ms
Free Space Loss

FSL = 92.4 + 20 log(f x d)
= 92.4 + 20 log(12 x 36,000)
= 205.1 dB

The average distance of an earth station from a geostationary satellite is between
36,000 to 42,000 km
The average propagation time for a geostationary satellite is between
120 ms to 140 ms
The average round-trip propagation delay for a geostationary satellite is between
240 ms to 280 ms
The approximate free space loss (at 6 GHz) for a geostationary satellite is between
199.1 dB to 200.4 dB
This means that your solution must be between these specified limits!
G. .SATELLITE FOOTPRINTS.
Footprint or footprint map is the geographical representation of a satellite antennas

radiation pattern.
Footprint Summary
Beam Coverage Area
Spot Beam
10% of earths surface Domestic coverage
Zonal Beam
Hemispheric
20% of earths surface Regional coverage
Beam
42% of earths surface
Global Beam Earth coverage
(using 17 beamwidth)
H. .EARTH STATION SYSTEM PARAMETERS.
1. Bit Energy
The amount of energy carried by a single bit of information.
Expressed in General Solution Alternate Solution
Pt
Joule/bps Eb = P t xTb Eb =
fb
dBJ or Eb = P t(dBW) +10 log Tb Eb = P t(dBW) 10 log fb

dBW/bps

In satellite communications system, for a total transmit power of 500 watts,
determine the energy per bit for a transmission rate of 50 Mbps expressed in
dBW.
Solution:
dBW
Eb =Pt(dBW)10logfb = 10log(500) 10log(50x106 ) = 40
bps

2. Noise Density
Noise density is the noise power normalized or present in a 1-Hz
bandwidth.
Expressed in General Solution Alternate Solution
N
Watts/Hz No = No = kTe
BW
dBW/Hz No = NdBW 10 logBW No = 228.6 + 10 log Te
dBm/Hz No = NdBm 10 logBW No = 198.6 + 10 log Te

For an equivalent noise bandwidth of 10 MHz in a satellite system and noise
power of 0.0280 pW, determine the noise density in dBW.
Solution:
No = NdB 10logBW = 10log(0.02 80x10-12 ) - 10log(10x1 06 )
dBW
= -205.53
Hz
3. Carrier-to-Noise Density Ratio

The ratio between the average wideband carrier power to noise
density.
Expressed in General Solution
C C
unitless =
No kTe
C
dB = C dBW No(dBW)
No
System Carrier-to-Noise Density Ratio
1 1 1
= +
C C C

No S No UL No DL
Sample Problem:
For a satellite communication channel, the uplink C/No ratio is 80 dB/Hz. And
the downlink value is 90 dB/Hz. Calculate the overall C/No ratio in dB/Hz
Solution:
C 1 1

N = = = 90.9x106
o S 1 1 1 1
+ +
C C (108 )UL (109 )DL

N N
o UL o DL
= 10log(90.9 x106 ) = 79.586 dB/Hz
4. Energy Per Bit-to-Noise Density Ratio
Expressed In General Solution

C
Eb fb Eb C BW
Unitless = = x
No N No N fb
BW
Eb C BW
dB = +
No dB N dB fb dB

A coherent binary phase shift keyed BPSK transmitter operates at a bit rate
of 20 Mbps with a carrier-to-noise ratio C/N of 8.8 dB. Find the Eb/No.
Solution:
For BPSK system fb = BWNyquist
Eb C BW 20 MHz
= + = 8.8 dB + 10log = 8.8 dB
N
o dB N dB fb dB 20 Mbps

5. Gain-to-Equivalent Noise Temperature Ratio

A figure of merit used to represent the quality of a satellite or an earth
station receiver.
i. Usual Approach
Expressed
General Solution
in
G A r + ALNA
unitless =
Te Te
G
dB = A r(dB) + ALNA(dB) Te(dBK )
Te
ii. Considering the antenna noise temperature
Expressed
General Solution
in
G A r + ALNA
unitless =
T Ta + Te
G
dB = A r(dB) + ALNA(dB) 10 log(Ta + Te )
Te
A LNA = Low Noise Amplifier (LNA) gain

A r = receiving antenna gain
A = loss in feedline & antenna
Ta = effective noise temperature of antenna & feedline
= 290(A 1) + Tsky
A
Sample Problem:
A receiving antenna with a G/T of 25 dB is used to receive signals from a satellite
38,000 km away. The satellite has a 100-watt transmitter and an antenna with a
gain of 30 dBi. The signal has a bandwidth of 1 MHz at a frequency of 12 GHz.
Calculate the C/N at the receiver.
Solution:
EIRP = 10logPtx + Gtx(dB) = 50 dBi FSLdB = 92.4 + 20 log{12 x 38,000} = 205.6 dB
C G
= RSLdB NdB = EIRPdBW FSLdB + + 228.6 dB 10 log BW
N dB T dB
= 50 205.6 + 25 + 228.6 10 log(1 x 106 ) = 38 dB
Sample Problem:
Calculate the G/T of a receiving antenna with a gain of 38 dB and looks at
the sky with a noise temperature of 15 K if the loss between the antenna
and the LNA input, due to feedhorn, is 0.5 dB, and the LNA has a noise
temperature of 38 K.
Solution:
290(A 1) + Tsky 0.5
G = 38 dBi - 0.5 dB = 37.5 dBi Ta = A = log1
A 10
290(1.12 1) + 15
= = 50 K
1.12
G
= Ar(dB) + ALNA(dB) 10log(Ta + Te )
Te
= 37.5 + 0 - 10log(50 + 38) = 18.16 dB
I. .SATELLITE ACCESSING TECHNIQUES.
1. Frequency Division Multiple Access (FDMA)

A method of multiple earth stations accessing technique where a given
RF bandwidth (typically 500 MHz) is divided into smaller frequency
bands (36 MHz) called subdivisions.
i. Single Channel Per Carrier (SCPC)

Each subdivision carries only one 4-kHz voice band channel.
ii. Multiple Channel Per Carrier (MCPC)

Several voice band channels are frequency-division multiplexed
together to form a wider subdivision.

Fixed-assignment multiple access (FAMA)

The assignment of capacity is distributed in a fixed manner
among multiple stations.
Demand-assignment multiple access (DAMA)

Capacity assignment is changed as needed to respond optimally
to demand changes among the multiple stations.
2. Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA)

Each earth station is allotted a fixed time slot(called EPOCH) within a
TDMA frame, occupying essentially the entire wideband frequency
3. Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA)

Referred to as Spread Spectrum Multiple Access; transmission can
spread throughout the entire allocated bandwidth. Each earth stations
transmission is encoded with a unique binary word called CHIP code.
CDMA Techniques (Spread Spectrum)

Direct Sequence (DSSS)
DS spread spectrum is produced when a bipolar data-modulated
signal is linearly multiplied by the spreading signal in a special
balanced modulator called spreading correlator.
Frequency Hopping (FHSS)

A form of CDMA where a digital code is used to continually change
the frequency of the carrier.
Hybrid DS/FH
Combination of direct sequence and frequency hopping.
J. .COMPARISON BETWEEN NAVSTAR GPS AND RUSSIAN GLONASS.
Parameter NAVSTAR/GPS GLONASS

Planned
21 + 3 21 + 3
Constellation
Number of orbit 6 3
Orbital Altitude 10,898 nmi 10,313 nmi
Orbital Period 12 hrs 11 hrs 15 min
Orbital Inclination 55 64.8
Access Method CDMA FDMA
C/A Code 1,023 bits 511 bits
C/A Code BW 2 MHz 1 MHz
Bit Rate 50 bps 50 bps

Personal Communication Service (PCS) Satellite System Summary
Parameter IRIDIUM ICO GLOBALSTAR
Owner(s) Motorola ICO Global Qualcomm
Orbit LEO MEO LEO
Altitude 485 6,450 880
No. of satellites 66 10 48
No. of orbit planes 6 2 6

Inclination of
86.4 45 52
planes
No. of VF channels 1,110 4,500 2,400
Access technique TDMA TDMA CDMA
Timeline of 1st Orbital Launches by Nationality
Year
Country First Satellite
Launched
Soviet Union 1957 Sputnik 1"
United States 1958 Explorer 1
Canada 1962 Alouette 1
France 1965 Astrix
Japan 1970 Osumi
China 1970 Dong Fang Hong I
United Kingdom 1971 Prospero X-3
European Union 1979 Ariane 1
India 1980 Rohini
Israel 1988 Ofeq 1
Pakistan 1990 Badr-1 1

I H
1. It is often claimed that the KU-band (12 GHz) is better than the C-band (4
GHz) for TVRO reception because a parabolic antenna of a given diameter has
higher gain at the higher frequency. Though the gain is undoubtedly higher,
what is the difference in path loss to find out if there is really a net
improvement in the signal strength obtain for a given receiving antenna?
A. 10.542 dB B. 9.542 dB
C. 6.542 dB D. 8. 542 dB
2. Consider a bent pipe satellite system where the uplink C/NO= 105 dB and the
downlink C/NO= 95 dB. What is the system C/NO?
A. 94.586 dB B. 85.935 dB
C. 81.478 dB D. 98.153 dB
3. Calculate the required C/No for a digital satellite link if the desired Eb/No ratio is
9.6 dB and the bit rate is equal to that of T1 carrier.
A. 61.5 dB B. 51.5 dB
C. 71.5 dB D. 81.5 dB
4. A satellite receiver has a G/T ratio of -7 dB/K, and the receiver feeder loss are
1 dB. The earth station transmits an EIRP of 50 dBW, and the transmission
path loss amount to 205 dB. Calculate the C/No at the receiver.
A. 83.8 dB B. 65.6 dB
C. 38.5 dB D. 56.5 dB
5. Calculate the EIRP of a satellite with a TWTA output power of 10 W, the

satellite antenna gain is 40 dB, and the transmit feeder loss are 1 dB.
A. 49 dB B. 79 dB
C. 59 dB D. 69 dB
6. A satellite is put into final geosynchronous orbit from its transfer orbit by firing
the _____?
A. Jet Thruster B. Orbit stabilizer
C. Apogee Kick Motor D. Booster Rocket
7. What balance the gravitational pull of the earth to allow the satellite to stay on
its orbit?
A. Satellite self power B. Atmospheric condition
C. Wind velocity D. Centripetal force

8. Calculate the Doppler frequency shift for a satellite with a relative velocity of
5000 km/s as receive by an earth station antenna operating at 6 GHz.
A. 5.5 GHz B. 3.5 GHz
C. 6.1 GHz D. 8.1 GHz
9. Determine the EIRP of a satellite used for downlink transmission required to

produce a C/N ratio of 26 dB at the earth station. The bandwidth is 36 MHz,
the transmission path loss is 203 dB, and the earth station receiver feeder loss
is 2 dB.
A. 55.96 dB B. 88.96 dB
C. 66.96 dB D. 77.96 dB
10. For the downlink of a digital satellite circuit, the transmission path loss is 207
dB and the G/T at the receiver is -5 dB/K. Calculate the satellite EIRP required
to maintain a transmission rate of 65 Mbps at a Eb/No of 9 dB.
A. 70.53 dB B. 66.38 dB
C. 88.25 dB D. 83.57 dB
11. Calculate the propagation delay for a satellite and an earth station if the angle
of elevation is 30.
A. 260 ms B. 75 ms
C. 130 ms D. 520 ms
12. Calculate the signal strength in dBm and the time it will take for a signal that
emanates from an interstellar space probe Voyager 1 with a transmit power 10
W, 45 dBi antenna gain to reach the earth when it passed the orbit of Pluto.
(Assume Plutos location equal to 3.7x109 miles when the probes passed by
and the Earth station antenna gain is 55 dBi operating at 1.8 GHz).
A. 1.13 hrs -83.1 dBm B. 5.53 hrs -83.1 dBm
C. 5.53 hrs -93.1 dBm D. 1.13 hrs -93.1 dBm
13. In a transoceanic satellite conversation, how much is the typical delay before a
reply is heard?
A. 200 ms B. 900 ms
C. 600 ms D. 50 ms
14. Under a circular satellite orbit, how high is a certain satellite located above the
surface of the earth if the total satellite height is 9,869 miles?
A. 3,960 miles B. 6,000 miles
C. 4,984.50 miles D. 3,000 miles
15. At what apogee in an elliptical orbit must a geosynchronous satellite be initially

stationed before it is finally fired into its final geostationary orbit?
A. 22,300 miles B. 10,500 miles
C. 50,000 miles D. 30,000 miles
16. A positional tolerance of 0.1 on a geostationary orbit is equivalent to an arc

distance of?
A. 200 km B. 74 km
C. 240 km D. 300 km
17. Telephone communications takes place between two earth stations via a
satellite that is 38,000 km from each earth station. Suppose Tamyboy, at
station 1, asks a question and Jason, at station 2, answer immediately, as soon
as he hears the question. How much time elapses between the end of
Tamyboys question and the beginning of Jasons reply, as hear by Tamyboy?
A. 253.33 ms B. 87.88 ms
C. 158.45 ms D. 224.12 ms
18. A satellite receiving system has a figure of merit of -8dB/K. The satellite
antenna is a paraboloidal reflector type with an illumination efficiency of 70%
and a -3dB beamwidth of 18. Calculate the total noise temperature at the
receiver input.
A. 435.6 K B. 659.2 K
C. 345.6 K D. 235.6 K
19. Calculate the C/No at the earth receiving station, from a satellite transmitting
an EIRP of 49.5 dBW on a frequency of 12 GHz. The earth station antenna
angle of elevation is 7 and the receiving figure of merit is 40.7 dB
A. 11.2 dB B. 151.2 dB
C. 112.5 dB D. 100.3 dB
20. Determine the signal strength at the satellite if an earth station is transmitting
7 W of power using a parabolic antenna with a gain of 45 dBi, operating at 4
GHz, the path length is 40,000 km and the satellite receiver gain is 40 dBi.
A. -79 dBm B. -73 dBm
C. -70 dBm D. -77 dBm
21. Calculate the orbital velocity of a satellite located 500 km above the earths
surface.
A. 3.6 km/s B. 5.6 km/s
C. 7.6 km/s D. 9.6 km/s
22. Determine from the following the basic technique used to stabilize a satellite.
A. Hub B. Solar panel orientation
C. Spin D. Gravity forward motion balance
23. How many satellites does the GPS system consist?

A. 60 satellites B. 3 satellites
C. 12 satellites D. 24 satellites
24. What is the equivalent noise temperature for a receiving installation that has a
G/T of 30 dB. If its antenna gain is 45 dB and the antenna noise temperature
is 22 K.
A. 9.62 K B. 29.62 K
C. 39.62 K D. 19.62 K
25. Find the noise temperature of an antenna on a satellite if it looks at the earth
(giving it a sky noise temperature of 290 K) and is coupled to the reference
plane by a waveguide with loss of 0.3 dB.
A. 290 K B. 310 K
C. 210 K D. 300 K

26. The IRL from a satellite is -155 dBW; the earth station receiving system has an
antenna gain of 47 dB, an antenna feed loss of 0.1 dB, a waveguide loss of 1.5
dB, a directional coupler insertion loss of 0.2 dB, and a bandpass filter loss of
0.3 dB; the system noise temperature is 117 K. What is the C/NO?
A. 93.51 dB B. 95.9 dB
C. 857.88 dB D. 97.82 dB
27. Sputnik 1 is the first active satellite which transmits _____ information.
A. data B. weather
C. telemetry D. celestial
28. Also known as the Law of Areas

A. 1st Law of Kepler B. 4th Law of Kepler
C. 3rd Law of Kepler D. 2nd Law of Kepler
29. Calculate the power density in W/m2 as received from a 10-W satellite source
that is 22,000 mi away from earth.
A. 8.77x10-16 W/m2 B. 3.33x10-16 W/m2
-16 2
C. 1.48x10 W/m D. 6.35x10-16 W/m2
30. In this type of satellite transponder, a single mixer converts all channels within
the 500-Mhz bandwidth simultaneously to their downlink frequency.
A. Broadband transponder B. Double-conversion
C. Channelized transponder D. Regenerative transponder
31. The two factors that keep a satellite in orbits are?

A. Centrifugal force created by earths rotation and satellite centrifugal force
B. Gravitational pull of the earth and satellite velocity
C. Satellite velocity and centrifugal force
D. Gravitational pull of the earth and centripetal force of the revolving
satellite
32. Calculate the average distance of the moon from the earth if the moon has an
orbital period of approximately 28 days.
A. 34x106 m B. 84x106 m
C. 384x106 m D. 38x106 m
33. In satellite communication what does TTC means?

A. Telemetry, Tracking, and Control
B. Telecommand, Telemetry, and Control
C. Telecommand, Tracking, and Communication
D. Telemetry, Telecommand, and Communication
34. An amateur radio hobbyist is communicating using the moon as a reflector.

Calculate the amount of time it will take the signal from the hobbyist
transmitter to reach the moon surface and be returned and receiver back here
on earth. Also calculate the total path loss at 1 GHz.
A. 2.56 seconds, 48.2 dB B. 2.56 seconds, 408.2 dB
C. 5.88 seconds, 408.2 dB D. 5.88 seconds, 48.2 dB
35. Satellite bandwidths are typically ____ wide and are divided into ____
segments, each _____ wide.
A. 500-MHz, 12, 24-MHz B. 500-MHz, 36, 12-MHz
C. 500-MHz, 24, 70-MHz D. 500-MHz, 12, 36-MHz
36. Calculate the orbital velocity of satellite located 10,000 km above the surface
of the earth.
A. 4,931.16 m/s B. 4,656.34 m/s
C. 4,578.9 m/s D. 4,456.56 m/s
37. The FDMA technique wherein voice band channels are assigned on as needed
basis.
A. CDMA B. DAMA
C. PAMA D. SSMA
38. Calculate the received signal strength at the satellite if the earth station uplink
transmitter operates at 6 GHz with a transmitter power of 10 kW and an
antenna gain of 50 dBi. The geostationary satellite receiver is using a parabolic
antenna with a gain of 40 dBi, the elevation angle to the satellite as viewed
from the earth station is 45.
A. -29.5 dBm B. -39.5 dBm
C. -59.5 dBm D. -49.5 dBm
39. A form of CDMA where a digital code is used to continually change the
frequency of the carrier.
A. Store and Forward B. SPADE
C. Spread Spectrum D. Frequency Hopping
40. The satellite frequency re-use method which sends different information signals
using vertical or horizontal electromagnetic polarization.
A. Dual polarization B. Spread spectrum
C. Multiple coverage areas D. Spatial polarization
41. The line that connects the apogee and the perigee.
A. line of apsides B. line of nodes
C. line of gee D. line of shoot
42. Calculate the EIRP in dBm of an earth terminal with an antenna with a gain of
30 dB, transmitter output of 200 W, and transmission line losses of 2.3 dB.
A. 20.5 dBm B. 36.67 dBm
C. 80.7 dBm D. 56.89 dBm
43. What is the isotropic receive level (IRL) at an earth terminal antenna where the
free -space loss to the associated satellite is 196.4 dB and other link losses are
2.6 dB? The satellite EIRP is + 34 dBW.
A. -163.4 dBW B. -110.6 dBW
C. -143.2 dBW D. -165 dBW
44. What is the receiving system noise temperature (Tsys) if the antenna noise
temperature is 300 K and the receiver noise temperature is 100 K?
A. 200 K B. 200 K
C. 316.22 K D. 400 K
45. Calculate No of a receiving system with a noise temperature of 100 K.

A. -123.3 dBW B. -208.6 dBW
C. -39.3 dBW D. -210.2 dBW

46. Determine C/No at an earth terminal of a satellite downlink where the RSL is -
139 dBW and the system noise temperature is 400 K.
A. 34.4 dB B. 12.45 dB
C. 63.58 dB D. 56.3 dB
47. Referred to as a function and/or a design of a double conversion satellite.

A. Has individual LNA, HPA, mixer and band pass filter for each channel
B. Demodulate its up-link signal to recover its baseband signals and use them
to remodulate a downlink transmitter
C. Equipped with a single mixer that converts all satellite channels within the
bandwidth simultaneously to their downlink frequency
D. Equipped with two mixers
48. How does spatial isolation technique in satellite communications avoid

interference?
A. Use of different polarity antennas
B. Use of low gain antennas
C. Employment of highly directional spot-beam antennas
D. Use of different types of antennas
49. An area on earth covered by a satellite radio beam.

A. Footprint B. Bandwidth
C. Identity D. Beamwidth
50. Which type of satellite transponder improves the S/N ratio which demodulates
the uplink signal to recover the baseband signals and use them to remodulate
the downlink transmitter?
A. Regenerative B. Baseband
C. Double conversion D. Broadband
51. What spatial separation is needed for 72 satellites to be parked in a

geosynchronous orbit?
A. 7 B. 4
C. 6 D. 5
52. What is the typical IF of satellite receivers?

A. 70 MHz B. 455 MHz
C. 30 MHz D. 10.7 MHz
53. Calculate the transmission path loss at vertical incidence between a

geostationary satellite and a ground station operating at a frequency of 4 GHz,
allowing 0.04 dB for atmospheric attenuation and 0.1 dB for rain attenuation.
A. 155.2 dB B. 212.5 dB
C. 160.8 dB D. 195.7 dB
54. One of the following devices in satellite transponder serves as output of the
receive antenna: A. mixer; B. low noise amplifier; C. power amplifier; and D.
local oscillator.
A. A B. B
C. C D. D
55. In a re-use frequency technique of increasing satellite channel capacity of

corresponding transponders, how do you control the antenna used to prevent
interference?
A. Different polarity B. Low gain antenna
C. High directional antenna D. Different type antenna
56. Refers to a mobile earth station in the mobile-satellite service located on board
ship.
A. Mobile satellite station B. Ship earth station
C. Mobile satellite D. Ship station
57. A technique in satellite communications which uses a highly directional spot-

beam antenna to prevent interference from frequency sharing.
A. Directional technique B. Beaming technique
C. Spatial isolation technique D. Frequency re-use technique
58. How do you determine the satellite location in latitude and longitude
measurements?
A. Designate a point on earth directly below the satellite
B. Designate south or North Pole as reference
C. Designate any reference point on the surface of the earth
D. Designate any reference point on the earth along the equator
59. A point in the satellite orbit known to be the closest location to the surface of
the earth.
A. Zenith B. Azimuth
C. Perigee D. Apogee
60. Which satellite transponder has the most number of mixers?

A. Broadband B. Regenerative
C. Double-conversion D. Channelized
61. The height of the geosynchronous orbit above the equator is about:
A. 3,578 km B. 35,780 km
C. 357,800 km D. depends on satellite velocity
62. The high and low points of a satellite's orbit are called, respectively,:
A. apogee and perigee B. perigee and apogee
C. uplink and downlink D. downlink and uplink
63. The area on the earth that is "covered" by a satellite is called its:
A. earth station B. downlink
C. footprint D. plate
64. The velocity required to stay in orbit:

A. is constant
B. is zero (freefall)
C. is lower close to the earth than far from the earth
D. is higher close to the earth than far from the earth

65. An antenna is aimed by adjusting the two "look angles" called:

A. azimuth and elevation B. azimuth and declination
C. declination and elevation D. apogee and perigee
66. The power per transponder of a typical Ku-band satellite is in the range:
A. 5 to 25 watts B. 50 to 250 watts
C. 500 to 2500 watts D. depends on its orbit
67. The power level for an earth station to transmit to a satellite is on the order of:
68. The "payload" on a communications satellite consists of:

A. transponders B. batteries
C. solar cells D. all of the above
69. "Station-keeping" refers to:

A. antenna maintenance B. power-level adjustments
C. orbital adjustments D. antenna alignment
70. DBS stands for:

A. decibels of signal B. down-beam signal
C. direct-broadcast system D. direct-broadcast satellite
71. LNA stands for:

A. low-noise amplifier B. low north angle
C. low-noise amplitude D. low-noise array
72. A reduction in TWT power for linearity is called:

A. backdown B. backoff
C. power-down D. EIRP drop
73. TVRO stands for

A. television receive only B. television repeater only
C. television remote origin D. television random origin
74. VSAT stands for:

A. video satellite
B. video signal antenna terminal
C. very small antenna terminal
D. very small aperture terminal
75. What is the first Japanese and Canadian satellite?

A. Alouette 1, Explorer 1 B. Astrix, Explorer 1
C. Osumi, Astrix D. Osumi, Alouette 1
Section Cellular Read it

till it
21 Communication System Hertz
DEFINITION. Cell: A cell is the basic geographic unit of cellular system.
DEFINITION. Cellular Communications: A cellular communications system

uses a large number of low-power wireless transmitters to create a complex
and interconnected network of cells.
DEFINITION. Frequency reuse is the process in which the same set of

frequencies can be allocated to more than one cell, provided the cells are at a
certain distance apart.
A. .MODERN CELLULAR SYSTEM.
B. .ANALOG CELLULAR.
Analog cellular was the first approach in wireless telephony, given its
widespread implementation in the early years. Analog standards include
AMPS, N-AMPS, TACS and NMT.
1. AMPS (Advanced Mobile Phone System)

Developed by Motorola and AT&T and is used in the United States. It is
an analog technology operating on 50 MHz in the 800 MHz band and
supports 666 channels split into 30-kHz voice channels, one each for
forward and reverse communications.
2. N-AMPS (Narrowband AMPS)

NAMPS is also developed by Motorola, enhances the performance of an
analog AMPS system. System capacity is improved by splitting the 30-
kHz channels into three 10-kHz channels, thereby tripling AMPS
capacity.
5-114 Cellular communication system
3. TACS (Total Access Communications System)

TACS supports up to 1,000 channels, compared with the 666
supported by AMPS.
4. NMT (Nordic Mobile Telephone)

Developed and placed into service in the early 1980s in Scandinavian
countries including, Denmark, Finland, Norway, and Sweden.
NMT 450 - Operates in the 450 MHz range, which yields excellent
signal propagation.
NMT 900 - Operates in the 900 MHz range, and is appropriate for
more densely populated areas.
C. .DIGITAL CELLULAR.
Current digital standards include JDC, USDC, TDMA, CDMA, and GSM, with
GSM clearly being the dominant. Most digital standards, including GSM,
are based on TDMA and TDD.
1. JDC (Japanese Digital Cellular)

It has not found acceptance outside Japan, with the exception of a few
Asian countries under Japanese economic influence.
2. USDC (United States Digital Cellular)

Developed as a standard by the TIA (Telecommunications Industry
Association) subcommittee TR 45.3 operating in the 800 MHz band.
a.k.a. D-AMPS, Interim Standard 54 or IS-54
3. GSM (Global System for Mobile Communications)

GSM operates in the 800 MHz and 900 MHz frequency ranges and is
ISDN-compatible.
4. DECT (Digitally Enhanced Cordless Telephone)

DECT is the European standard for a Digital Cordless Electronic
Telephone. It is designed for use as an in-office wireless phone,
where a single cell is sufficient, as a wireless link between a computer
and a nearby printer, or as a link to an email system.
5. TDMA (Time Division Multiple Access)

The North American digital cellular standard for personal
communication service operating in the 1900 MHz band similar to
European GSM. a.k.a. Interim Standard 136 or IS-136
6. CDMA (Code Division Multiple Access)

CDMA is a direct-sequence spread-spectrum system developed in the
United States by Qualcomm and known as IS-95, or by its tradename,
CDMAoneTM. a.k.a. Interim Standard 95 or IS-95
D. .COMPARISON OF FAMOUS CELLULAR STANDARDS.
1. Analog Cellular
Parameter AMPS NMT-450 TACS
Frequency Base Station (MHz) 824-849 453-458 890-915

Spectrum
Mobile Station (MHz) 869-894 463-468 935-960
Spacing between
45 10 45
TX & RX (MHz)
Channels Spacing 30 kHz 25 kHz 25 kHz
20 to 25
Bandwidth 4 to 5 MHz 25 MHz
MHz
Number of channels 666/832 180/200 1000
Control Channel 21x2 21x2 ---

Audio signal FM FM FM
Modulation (kHz) Dev=+12 Dev=+5 Dev=+9.5
Technique Control signal FSK FSK FSK
(kHz) Dev=+8 Dev=+3.5 Dev=+6.4
Accessing Technique FDMA FDMA FDMA
Duplex Method FDD FDD FDD
Radius 2-20 km 1.8-40 km 2-20 km
Data Transmission 10 kbps 1.2 kbps 8 kbps
AMPS Forward and Reverse Communications

AMPS FDMA Architecture
Digital-AMPS TDMA-FDMA Architecture

GSM TDMA-FDMA
Detailsdetailsdetails
Year
System
Introduced
NMT 1981
AMPS 1983
ETACS (Europe) 1985
JTACS (Japan) 1988
GSM 1990
TDMA (IS-136) 1991
NAMPS 1992
NTACS 1993
CDMA (IS-95) 1993

5-118
IS-95 Forward Transmission (CDMA-FDMA)

Cellular communication system
IS-95 Reverse Transmission (CDMA-FDMA)

2. Digital Cellular
D-AMPS
Parameter GSM CDMA DECT
(TDMA)
Uplink
824-849 890-915 824-849 1897-1913
Frequency (MHz)
Spectrum Downlink
869-894 935-960 869-849 1897-1913
(MHz)
Duplex Distance 45 MHz 45 MHz 45 MHz ---
Channels BW 30 kHz 200 kHz 1.23 MHz 1.728 MHz
Bandwidth 25 MHz 25 MHz 25 MHz ---
24 slot
Number of channels 832 125 19-20
channels
Control Channel 21x2 --- --- ---
/4 BPSK or
Modulation GMSK GFSK
DQPSK QPSK
Accessing Technique TDMA TDMA CDMA TDMA/TDD
Radius 32 km 32 km 13 mi 500 m
2.2 mW 3.7 mW 10 nW to
Mobile Output Power 250 mW
to 6 W to 20 W 1W
280.833 1.2288
Data Transmission 48.6 kbps 1.152 Mbps
kbps Mbps
E. .BASIC CELLULAR CONCEPTS.
A cellular mobile communications system uses a large number of low-

power wireless transmitters to create an interconnected complex network
of cells.
1. Cell
A cell is the basic geographic unit of cellular system.
i. Macrocell
Cover a relatively large area. One (1) macrocell might support 12
channels and only 12 simultaneous conversations. In a 7-cell
reuse pattern (which is typical) with each cell covering a radius of
about 11 miles, no improvement is realized; only 12 conversations
can be supported.
ii. Microcell
Cover a smaller area. If a macrocell were divided into microcells,
in a 7-cell reuse pattern, a reuse factor of 128 is realized. The
same 12 channels could support 1,536 simultaneous
conversations.
iii. Picocell
Picocells are quite small, covering only a few blocks of an urban
area or, perhaps, a tunnel, walkway, or parking garage. In a 7-cell
reuse pattern, with each cell covering a radius of approximately
1/2 mile, the reuse factor climbs to 514. The same 12 channels
could theoretically support up to 6,168 simultaneous
conversations.
Required Number of Cells for a given area (N)
where:
A
N= A = total area to be covered
3.464r 2
r = cell radius

A province in the Philippines has an area of 2000 sq. kms. It has to be covered
by cellular mobile telephone service using cells with a radius of 2 kms. Assuming
hexagonal cells, find the number of cellsites needed.
Solution:
rcell
A 2000
N= =
3.464r 2 3.464 x 22
= 145 cells
2. Cluster
Cluster is a group of cells. No channels are reused within a cluster.

3. Frequency Reuse
Frequency reuse is the process in which the same set of frequencies
can be allocated to more than one cell, provided the cells are at a
certain distance apart. When the same channel is to be reused in two
cells, the two cells are called co-channel cells. The distance D is the
separation of the two co-channel cells.
i. Radio Channel Available
where:
R = nC C = number of cells in a cluster
n = number of full-duplex channels in a cell
ii. Total Number of Full-Duplex Channels
where:
F = mR
m = number of clusters
Sample Problem:
Calculate the theoretical number of full duplex channels available in a cluster
and the total capacity for a cellular system where there are 20 clusters, each
consisting of 10 cells with 16 channels each cell.
Solution:
R = nC F = mR
channels cells channels
= 16 x10 = 20 clusters x160
cell cluster cluster
= 160 full - duplex channels = 3200 full - duplex
4. Cellular Interference
i. Co-channel interference
Two cells using the same set of frequencies are called co-channel
cells and the interference between them is called co-channel
interference.
Co-channel Reuse ratio
d
Q = 3n Q=
r
where:
n = number of cells in a cluster
d = distance to the nearest co-channel cell
r = radius of cell
ii. Adjacent channel interference

Occurs when transmission from adjacent channels interfere with
each other.
Sample Problem:
Determine the co-channel reuse ratio for a cluster with 25 cells.
Solution:
Q= 3n = 3 x 25 = 8.66
5. Handoff
Handoff occurs when the mobile telephone network automatically
transfers a call from radio channel to radio channel as mobile crosses
adjacent cells.
2 Types of Handover
Break Before Make hard handover
Make Before Break soft handover

How often will hand-offs occur when vehicle travels through a CMTS at 100 kph
speed if the distance between cellsites is 10 kms?
Solution:
d d 10 km 3600 s
= t= = = 0.1hr x = 360 s
t 100 km 1 hr
hr

6. Antenna separation
The antenna separation for cellular systems is determined by the
formula
where:
h
= 11 h = antenna height
d
d = spacing between 2 antennas
F. .CELLULAR SYSTEM COMPONENTS.
1. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN)

The PSTN is made of local networks, the exchange area networks, and
the long-haul network that interconnect telephones and other
communication devices on a worldwide basis.
2. Mobile Telephone Switching Office (MTSO)

The MTSO is the central office fro mobile switching. It houses the
mobile switching center (MSC), field monitoring and relay station for
switching calls fro cell sites to wireline central offices (PSTN)
3. Cell Site
The term cell site is used to refer to the physical location of radio
equipment that provides coverage within a cell. Cell sites includes
power sources, interface equipment, RF transmitter, receivers, and
antenna system
4. Mobile Subscriber Unit (MSU)

The mobiles subscriber unit consists of a control unit and a transceiver
that transmits and receives radio transmissions to and from a cell site.
Three type of MSU

i. The mobile telephone (typical transmit power is 4 watts)
ii. The portable (typical transmit power is 0.6 watts)
iii. The Transportable (typical transmit power is 1.6 watts)
G. .ACCESSING TECHNIQUE.
1. Frequency Division Multiple Access (FDMA)

A method of multiple mobile stations accessing technique where a
given RF bandwidth is divided into smaller frequency bands.
2. Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA)

Each mobile station is allotted a fixed time slot (called epoch) within a
TDMA frame, occupying essentially the entire wideband frequency
3. Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA)

Referred to as Spread Spectrum Multiple Access; transmission can
spread throughout the entire allocated bandwidth. Each mobile
stations transmission is encoded with a unique binary word called
CHIP code.

Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
Frequency-hopping systems are the simpler of the two systems

available.
A frequency generator is used that generates a carrier that

changes frequency many times a second according to a
programmed sequence of channels known as pseudo-random (PN)
noise sequence.
It is called this because if the sequence is not known, the

frequencies appear to hop about unpredictably.
Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DHSS)
Direct-sequence systems inject pseudo-random noise (PN) into

the bit stream that has a much higher rate than the actual data to
be communicated.
The data to be transmitted is combined with the PN.

The PN bits are inverted when real data is represented by a
one and leave the bit stream unchanged when a data zero is
transmitted.
The extra bits transmitted this way are called chips.
Most direct-sequence systems use a chipping rate of at least
ten times the bit rate.
H. .GSM NETWORK.
1. Network Switching System (NSS)

The switching system is responsible for performing call processing and
subscriber-related functions.
i. Home Location Register (HLR)

The HLR is a database used for storage and management of
subscriptions. The HLR is considered the most important
database, as it stores permanent data about subscribers, including
a subscribers service profile, location information, and activity
status.
ii. Mobile-service Switching Center (MSC)

The MSC performs the telephony switching functions of the
system. It control calls to and from other telephone and data
system. It also performs such functions as toll ticketing, network
interfacing, and CCS.
iii. Visitor Location Register (VLR)

The VLR is a database that contains temporary information about
subscribers that is needed by the MSC in order to service visiting
subscribers. The VLR is always integrated with the MSC. When a
mobile station roams into a new MSC area, the VLR connected to
the MSC will request data about the mobile station for the HLR.
iv. Authentication Center (AuC)

The AuC provides authentication and encryption parameters that
verify the users identity and ensure the confidentiality of each
call. The AuC protects network operators from different types of
fraud found in todays cellular world.
v. Equipment Identity Register (EIR)

The EIR is a database that contains information about the identity
of mobile equipment that prevent calls form stolen, unauthorized,
or defective mobile stations. The AuC and EIR are implemented
as stand-alone nodes or as a combined AuC/EIR node.

2. Base Station System (BSS)

All radio related functions are performed in the BSS, which consists of
Base Station Controllers (BSC) and the Base Transceiver Stations
(BTS).
i. Base Station Controllers (BSC)

The BSC provides all the control functions and physical links
between the MSC and BTS. It is a high capacity switch that
provides functions such as handover, cell configuration data, and
control of RF power levels in the BTS
ii. Base Transceiver Stations (BTS)

The BTS handles the radio interface to the mobile stations. The
BTS is the radio equipment (transceivers and antennas) needed to
service each cells in the network.
3. Operation & Maintenance Center (O&MC)

The O&MC is connected to all equipment in the switching system and
to the BSC. The implementation of O&MC is called the operation and
support system (OSS). The purpose of OSS is to offer the customer
cost-effective support for centralized, regional and local operational
and maintenance activities that are required for a GSM network.
I. .GSM DIGITAL LOGICAL CHANNELS.
1. Broadcast Channels
i. Frequency Correction Channel (FCCH)
Used to tell the mobile that this is the BCCH carrier and to enable
the mobile synchronize to the frequency being broadcast by the
BTS.
ii. Synchronization Channel (SCH)

Used for sending BSIC and give TDMA frame number to the
mobile.
ii. Broadcast Control Channel (BCCH)

Used for sending information to the mobile like CGI, LAI.
2. Common Control Channels

i. Paging Channel (PCH)
Used for paging the mobile subscriber, reason could be an
incoming call or an incoming short message
ii. Random Access Channel (RACH)

Used for responding to the paging, location updating or to make
call access by asking for a signaling channel.
iii. Access Grant Channel (RACH)

Used to allocate SDCCH to the mobile.
3. Dedicated Control Channels

i. Stand-alone Dedicated Control Channel (SDCCH)
Used for allocating voice channel (TCH) to the mobile and location
updating and sending short text message to idle mobile.
ii. Slow-Associated Control Channel (SACCH)

Used for sending information to the mobile like CGI, LAI, BCCH of
the neighboring cells, signal strength, bit error measurement of
the serving cell and for sending short text message to busy
mobile.
iii. Fast-Associated Control Channel (FACCH)

Used for handover
J. .GSM NUMBERING PLAN.
1. Mobile Station ISDN number (MSISDN)

The mobile number used in a GSM PLMN.
Ex: 0917-1234567
2. International Mobile Subscribers Identity (IMSI)

The subscriber number used over radio path for all signaling in the
GSM PLMN. This number is stored in SIM, HLR and VLR.
3. Temporary Mobile Subscribers Identity (TMSI)

Used for the subscriber confidentiality. Each time a mobile request for
location updating or call setup, MSC/VLR allocates to the IMSI a new
TMSI, so the TMSI is used on the signaling path, protecting the IMSI
identity.
4. Location Area Identity (LAI)

Used to uniquely identify each location area in the GSM PLMN.
5. Cell Global Identity (CGI)

Used for cell identification within the GSM network.
6. Base Station Identity Code (BSIC)

Used to distinguish co-channel frequency used in the neighboring cell.

K. .COMPARISON OF GSM 900, 1800(DCS), & 1900(PCS).
GSM 1800 GSM 1900

Parameter GSM 900
(DCS) (PCS)
Uplink 890-915 MHz 1710-1785 MHz 1850-1910 MHz
Downlink 935-960 MHz 1805-1880 MHz 1930-1990 MHz
Bandwidth 25 MHz 75 MHz 60 MHz
BW/channel 200 kHz 200 kHz 200 kHz

No. of
125 375 300
channels
Duplex
45 MHz 95 MHz 80 MHz
Distance
Bit Rate 270.833 kbps 270.833 kbps 270.833 kbps
Modulation
GMSK GMSK GMSK
Technique
Accessing
TDMA TDMA TDMA
Technique
L. .GSM SUBCRIBER SERVICES.
1. Advice of charge (AoC)

The AoC service provides the mobile subscribers with an estimate of
the cal charges. There are two types of AoC information: one that
provides the subscriber with an estimate of the bill and one that can
be used for immediate charging purposes.
2. Barring of incoming calls

This function allows the subscriber to prevent incoming calls. The
following two conditions for incoming call barring exist: baring of all
incoming calls and barring of incoming calls when roaming outside the
home PLMN.
3. Barring of outgoing calls

This service makes it possible for a mobile subscriber to prevent all
outgoing calls.
4. Call Forwarding
This service gives the subscriber the ability to forward incoming calls
to another number of the called mobile unit is not reachable, if it is
busy, if there is no reply, or if call forwarding is allowed
unconditionally.
5. Call Hold
This service enables the subscriber to interrupt an ongoing call and
then subsequently re-establish the call. The call hold service is only
applicable to normal telephony.
6. Calling Line Identification Presentation/Restriction

These services supply the called party with the integrated service
digital network number of the calling party. The restriction service
enables the calling party to restrict the presentation. The restriction
overrides the presentation.
7. Call Waiting
This service enables the mobile subscribers to be notified of an
incoming call during a conversation. The subscriber can answer,
reject, or ignore the incoming call. Call waiting is applicable to all
GSM telecommunications services using circuit-switched connection.
8. Cell Broadcast
A variation of the short message service is the cell broadcast facility.
A message of maximum of 93 characters can be broadcast to all
mobile subscribers in a certain geographic area.
9. Close User Groups (CUGs)

CUGs are generally comparable to a PBX. They are group of
subscriber who are capable of only calling themselves and certain
numbers.
10. Dual Tone Multi-Frequency (DTMF)

DTMF is a tone signaling used for various control purposes via the
telephone network, such as remote control of an answering machine.
GSM supports full-originating DTMF.
11. Facsimile Group III

GSM supports CCITT Group 3 facsimile.
12. Fax Mail

With this service, the subscriber can receive fax messages at any fax
machine. The messages are stored in a service center from which
they can be retrieved by the subscriber via a personal security code to
the desired fax number.
13. Multiparty service

The multiparty service enables a mobile subscriber to establish a
multiparty conversation-that is, a simultaneous conversation between
three and six subscribers.
14. Short Message Service

A message consisting of maximum of 160 alphanumeric characters can
be sent to or form a mobile station.

15. Voice Mail

This service is actually an answering machine within the network,
which is controlled by the subscribers. Calls can be forwarded to the
subscribers voice-mail box and the subscriber checks for messages
via a personal security code.
M. .CELLULAR TRAFFIC ENGINEERING.
1. Blocking Probability
i. Erlang B Loss-probability equation.
An where:
GOS = PB = n n! A = traffic in Erlang
Ax
x=0

x!
n = number of trunks/channels
Sample Problem:
Calculate the blocking probability for 5-channel cell with an offered traffic of
1.66 erlangs.
Solution:
1.665
P(B ) = 5! x100%
1.660 1.661 1.662 1.663 1.66 4 1.665
+ + + + +
0! 1! 2! 3! 4! 5!
= 2%
Sample Problem:
From the following data, determine the offered traffic of a cell.
Maximum calls per hour in one cell = 3000
Average calling time = 1.76 minutes
Blocking probability = 2%
Solution:
n 3000 1hr
A= xT = x 1.76minx = 88 Erlangs
t 1hr 60min
2. Peak and Average Traffic
where:
A = NT N = # of subscribers
T = peak or average holding time
Sample Problem:
A particular cellular telephone system consisting of 120 cells and catering
20,000 subscribers is using a 12-cell repeating pattern. If each subscriber
on this network uses his/her phone on average 45 minutes per day, and also
on average 20 of those minutes are used during the peak hour, calculate the
peak and average traffic for one cell, assuming callers are evenly distributed
over the system.
Solution:
For the entire system:
20 min 1hr 1 day
Apeak = 20,000 x A ave = 20,000 x 45min x x
60 min 60 min 24 hr
= 6666.67 Erlang = 625 Erlang
For only one cell:

6666.67 625
Apeak = A ave =
120 cell 120 cell
= 55.55 Erlangs = 5.21 Erlangs
Sample Problem:
Assuming the average duration of each call be 1.76 minutes and from Erlang
B tables for 2% blocking
# of channels Offered Traffic
600 587.2
666 ?
700 688.2
How many customers can be served with 666 voice channels if all the
channels are used in a single cell?
Solution:
A
By interpolation A = NT N =
T
666 600 653.86 E 60min
A 666 = x(688.2 587.2 ) + 587.2 N= x
700 600 1.76 min 1E
= 653.86 Erlangs = 22,291 calls

N. .3G GLOBALLY.
O. .MIGRATION TO 3G.
1. International Mobile Telecommunication or IMT-2000 Radio Standards
i. IMT-SC or Single Carrier (UWC-136): EDGE

GSM evolution (TDMA); 200 KHz channels; sometimes called
2.75G.
ii. IMT-FT or FDMA/TDMA

Digital European Cordless Telephone (DECT) legacy.
iii. IMT-MC or Multi Carrier CDMA: CDMA2000

Evolution of IS-95 CDMA, i.e. cdmaOne
iv. IMT-DS or Direct Spread CDMA: W-CDMA

New from 3GPP; UTRAN FDD
v. IMT-TC or Time Code CDMA

New from 3GPP; UTRAN TDD
New from China; TD-SCDMA
2. Data Evolution
Summary of Data Evolution
Parameter 1G 2G 2.5G 2.75G 3G

NMT GSM
GPRS
System AMPS TDMA EDGE UMTS
WAP
TACS CDMA
9.6 115 Up to 2
Data Rate --- 384 kbps
kbps kbps Mbps
Analog Digital Packet Intermediate

Service Multimedia
Voice Voice Data Multimedia

i. General Packet Radio Service

GPRS is a new nonvoice service that is being added to existing
IS-136 TDMA networks in the United States and GSM works in the
United States and Europe. It provides for the transmission of IP
packets over existing cellular networks, bringing the Internet to
the mobile phone.
GPRS Time Slots Allocation

Type 2+1 - two time slots for download, one for upload
Type 3+1 - three time slots for download, one for upload
Type 4+1 - four time slots for download, one for upload
GPRS phones classification

Class A - capable of simultaneous voice and data transmission
Class B - automatic switching (according to phone settings)
between voice and data
Class C - hand-operated switching between voice and data
ii. Enhance Data rate for Global Evolution (EDGE)

EDGE takes the cellular community one step closer to UMTS. It
provides higher data rates than GPRS and introduces a new
modulation scheme called 8-PSK.
3. 2G Multimedia Message Service (MMS) Architecture

4. 2.5G (GPRS) Architecture
5. 3G (IMT-2000) Architecture

6. 3rd Generation CDMA Standards
Technology W-CDMA (FDD) TD-SCDMA cdma2000 (1xRTT)
Wideband Code Time Division-

Division Multiple Synchronous Code 1x Radio Telephone
Description
Access Frequency Division Multiple Technology
Division Duplex Access
Korea, Japan, China; other
Korea first; USA and
Geography Europe, USA, other countries deploying
Japan later
Asian countries W-CDMA (TDD)
Introduction 2001 2004 or later 2001
Frequency 1920-1980 MHz 1900-1920 MHz

IS-95 bands plus
range 2110-2170 MHz 2010-2015 MHz
Multiple access
CDMA TDMA/CDMA CDMA
technology
Symbol
3.84 Mcps 1.28 Mcps 1.2288 Mcps
rate/chip rate
Channel
5 MHz 1.6 MHz 1.23-1.25 MHz
spacing
QPSK initially, 8PSK
QPSK downlink QPSK
later
Modulation
QPSK initially, 8PSK
HPSK uplink HPSK
later
Primary High mobility data High mobility data High mobility data
service and voice and voice and voice
Up to 384 kbps
Maximum data Up to 384 kbps (up
(phase one); Up to 307.2 kbps
rate to 2 Mbps indoor)
2 Mbps (phase two)
Packet switched or Packet switched or Packet switched or

Switching
circuit switched circuit switched circuit switched
7. 3G IP Multimedia Service (IMS) Architecture
8. Comparison of 3G and 4G
Parameter 3G 4G
Frequency 1.8-2.5 GHz 2-8 GHz
Bandwidth 5-20 MHz 5-20 MHz

Up to 2 Mbps
Data rate Up to 20 Mbps
(384 kbps deployed)
Access
W-CDMA MC-CDMA or OFDM
Technique
Forward Error Convolutional rate Concatenated coding
Correction 1/2, 1/3 scheme
Switching Circuit/Packet Packet
Mobile top
200 kph 200 kph
speeds

P. .VARIOUS WIRELESS COMMUNICATIONS SPECIFICATIONS.
1. Analog Cordless Telephones
CT0 CT1/CT1+
Standard
Cordless Telephone 0 Cordless Telephone 1
2/48 (U.K.)
26/41 (France)
Mobile Frequency 30/39 (Australia) CT1: 914/960
Range (MHz) 31/40 (The Netherlands/Spain) CT1+: 885/932
46/49 (China, Taiwan, U.S.A.)

48/74 (China)
Multiple Access
FDMA FDMA
Method
Duplex Method FDD FDD
Number of CT1: 40
10, 12, 15, 20 or 25
Channels CT1+: 80
Channel Spacing 1.7, 20, 25 or 40 kHz 25 kHz
Modulation FM FM
2. Digital Cordless Telephones
Digital Enhanced
Cordless Personal Handy
Cordless
Standard Telephone 2 Phone System
Telephone
(CT2) (PHS)
(DECT)
Mobile Frequency
864-868 MHz 1880-1900 MHz 1895-1918 MHz
Range
Multiple Access
TDMA/FDM TDMA/FDM TDMA/FDM
Method
Duplex Method TDD TDD TDD
Number of
40 10 300
Channels
Users Per Channel 1 12 4
Channel Spacing 100 kHz 1.728 MHz 300 kHz
Modulation GFSK GFSK /4 DQPSK
Channel Bit Rate 72 kb/s 1.152 Mb/s 384 kb/s


3. Data Rates Supported by Cellular Standards

Wireless LAN/ Wireless PAN/ Wireless MAN
Technology
Technology Date Rates Typical Range
Application
Wireless Personal
Bluetooth Area Network 0.723 Mbps 10 m
(WPAN)
Wireless Personal
802.15.4 Zigbee 0.250 Mbps 10 m to 100 m
Area Network (PAN)
802.11a Wireless Local Area

54 Mbps 300
(Wireless ATM) Network (WLAN)
Wireless Local Area

802.11b (WiFi) 11 Mbps 100 m
Network (WLAN)
Broadband Wireless
802.16a (WiMax) Metropolitan Area 70 Mbps <3 km range
Network (WMAN)
Wireless Mobile Standard
Peak Data
Cellular Typical
Standard Rate Connection Modulation
Family Data Rate
(kbps)
9.6 kbps Circuit
CSD 9.6 kbps GMSK
14.4 kbps Switched
28.8 kbps Circuit
HS-CSD 28.8 kbps GMSK
43 kbps Switched
GSM
115 kbps Packet
GPRS 50 kbps GMSK
171 kbps Switched
384 kbps Packet
EDGE 115 kbps 8-PSK
513 kbps Switched
384 kbps Packet
FDD 144 kbps QPSK
2 Mbps Switched
UMTS
384 kbps Packet
TDD 144 kbps QPSK
2 Mbps Switched
Circuit
IS-95A 14.4 kbps 14.4 kbps QPSK
Switched
CDMAOne
64 kbps Packet
IS-95B 56 kbps QPSK
115 kbps Switched
144 kbps Packet
CDMA2000 IX 130 kbps QPSK
307 kbps Switched
Circuit
TDMA CSD 9.6 kbps 9.6 kbps DQ/4PSK
Switched
Packet
PDC i-mode 9.5 kbps 9.6 kbps DQ/4PSK
Switched
CSD -- Circuit-Switched Data FDD -- Frequency-Division Duplexing

HS-CSD --High Speed CSD TDD -- Time-Division Duplexing
PDC -- Personal Digital Cellular IS -- Interim Standard
GPRS -- General Packet Radio Service
GMSK --Gaussian Minimum Shift Keying
EDGE -- Enhanced Data rate for Global Evolution
UMTS -- Universal Mobile Telecommunication System
DQ/4PSK-- Differential Quadrature /4 Phase Shift Keying
Q. .BLUETOOTH SPECIFICATIONS.
Bluetooth is a universal radio interface in the 2.4 GHz frequency band that
enables electronic devices to connect and communicate wirelessly via
short-range (10-100 m), ad-hoc networks.
The Bluetooth specifications are developed and licensed by the Bluetooth

Special Interest Group.
Key Features:
Peak data rate : 1 Mbps
Low power : peak TX power < 20 dBm
Low cost : target is $5-10 per piece
Ability to simultaneously handle both voice and data
Line of sight not required
History:
9 Invented in 1994 by L. M. Ericsson, Sweden

9 Named after Harald Blaatand Bluetooth, king of Denmark 940-
981 A.D.
9 Bluetooth SIG founded by Ericsson, IBM, Intel, Nokia and Toshiba
in Feb 1998
Technical Features:
Connection Type: FHSS & TDD (1600 hops/sec)

Spectrum: 2.4 GHz ISM Band (79 channels)
Modulation: GFSK
Supported Stations: 8 devices
Transmission Power: 1 mW 100 mW
Data Rate: 1 Mbps
Range: 30 ft
Module size: 9x9 mm

Range
Class Maximum Power
(Approximate)
Class 1 100 mW 20 dBm ~100 meters
Class 2 2.5 mW 4 dBm ~10 meters
Class 3 1 mW 0 dBm ~1 meter
Typical Bluetooth Scenario:
Point to Point Link

9 Master - slave relationship
9 Bluetooth devices can function as masters or slaves
Piconet
9 It is the network formed by a Master and one or more slaves

(max 7)
9 Each piconet is defined by a different hopping channel to
which users synchronize.
9 Each piconet has max capacity of 1 Mbps.
A group of overlapping piconets is called a SCATTERNET

9 Users in a piconet share a 1 Mbps channel individual

throughput decreases drastically as more units are added
9 The aggregate and individual throughput of users in a
scatternet is much greater than when each user participates
on the same piconet
9 Collisions do occur when 2 piconets use the same 1 MHz hop
channel simultaneously. As the number of piconets increases,
the performance degrades gracefully
Time-Division Duplex Scheme:
Channel is divided into consecutive slots (each 625 s)

One packet can be transmitted per slot
Subsequent slots are alternatively used for transmitting and
receiving
9 Strict alternation of slots between the master and the slaves
9 Master can send packets to a slave only in EVEN slots
9 Slave can send packets to the master only in the ODD slots
Connection Modes:
Active Mode: Device actively participates on the piconet channel
Power Saving modes
Sniff Mode: Slave device listens to the piconet at a reduced rate .

Least power efficient.
Hold Mode: The ACL link to the slave is put on hold. SCO links are
still supported. Frees capacity for inquiry, paging, participation in
another piconet.
Park Mode: The slave gives up its active member address. But
remains synchronized (beacon channel). Listens to broadcasts.
Most power efficient.

I H
1. The dimension of the chip-sized SIM card.
A. 15 x 20 mm B. 20 x 30 mm
C. 10 x 20 mm D. 15 x 25 mm
2. In the third generation of cellular phones, _______ uses W-CDMA.

A. IMT-TC B. IMT-MC
C. IMT-DS D. IMT-SC
3. A transmission method that uses only one channel for transmitting and
receiving, separating them by different time slots. No guard band is used. This
increases spectral efficiency by eliminating the buffer band, but also increases
flexibility in asynchronous applications.
A. TDM B. TDD
C. FDM D. FDD
4. A secret number issued to a cellular phone that is used in conjunction with a

subscriber's shared secret data information for authentication
A. MIN B. A-key
C. IMSI D. Cipher key
5. _______ is a first-generation cellular phone system.

A. GSM B. D-AMPS
C. IS 136 D. AMPS
6. A type of advanced smart antenna technology that continually monitors a

received signal and dynamically adapts signal patterns to optimize wireless
system performance
A. Phased array antennas B. Helical antenna
C. Adaptive array antennas D. Parabolic antenna
7. Technique employed by wireless infrastructure systems that lowers the power

of a signal in a cell site whenever the site detects that the user's phone is close
to the source of the signal
A. Adaptive power control B. Pre-emphasis
C. Level down D. Power attenuation
8. In wireless technology, _____ refers to transporting voice and data traffic from
a cell site to the switch
A. Backbone B. Backhaul
C. Routing D. Switching
9. A Bluetooth "piconet" has:

A. 2 nodes B. 2 to 4 nodes
C. 2 to 8 nodes D. 2 to 16 nodes
10. A protocol designed for advanced wireless devices allowing the easy
transmission of data signals, particularly Internet content, to micro-browsers
built into the device's software
A. Bisync B. Wireless Application Protocol
C. TCP D. SMTP
11. In the third generation of cellular phones, ________ uses CDMA2000.

A. IMT-TC B. IMT-MC
C. IMT-DS D. IMT-SC
12. The monitoring, manipulating and troubleshooting of computer equipment

through a wireless network
A. Wireless ethernet B. Wireless IT
C. WiFi D. Radio sounding
13. The part of the wireless system's infrastructure that controls one or multiple
cell sites' radio signals, thus reducing the load on the switch
A. Home Location Register B. Visitor Location Register
C. Base station controller D. Base Transceiver Station
14. _______ is a second-generation cellular phone system.

A. NMT B. TDMA
C. AMPS D. IS 54
15. An uncompleted call made from a wireless phone

A. Dropped call B. Attempt
C. Blocked calls D. Seizures
16. The code name for a new wireless technology being developed by Ericsson Inc.,
Intel Corp., Nokia Corp. and Toshiba
A. WiMax B. Zigbee
C. Bluetooth D. WiFi
17. Refers to planned developments in mobile communications. Increased

bandwidth, from 128 Kbps while moving at high speeds to 2Mbps for fixed
stations, will enable multimedia applications and advanced roaming features.
A. 4G B. 2.75G
C. 3G D. 2.5G
18. Facility offered by a few handsets enabling calls to be made by using voice
commands rather than pressing the numbers. The memory can be programmed
to store and identify names spoken into the handset and call numbers
associated with them.
A. Automatic Dialing B. Abbreviated Dialing
C. Voice Calling D. Voice Recognition
19. Air interface standard, which will enable Third Generation mobile phones to
carry new mobile multimedia services.
A. WCDMA B. TDMA
C. UMTS D. TDD
20. A framework from the ITU for third-generation (3G) wireless phone standards
throughout the world that deliver high-speed multimedia data as well as voice.
A. GSM 1900 B. TACS
C. IMT-2000 D. IS-136
21. The total bit rate of GSM RF channels.

A. 250.833 kbps B. 290.833 kbps
C. 270.833 kbps D. 210.833 kbps
22. A measure of the number of subscribers who leave or switch to another

carrier's service
A. Offered traffic B. Churn
C. Carried traffic D. Population
23. A wireless phone programmed with stolen or duplicated electronic serial and
mobile identification numbers
A. RAID B. Backup
C. Clone D. Party line
24. An automobile travels at 60kph. Find the time between fades if the car uses a
PCS phone at 1900 MHz.
A. 4.7 ms B. 2.35 ms
C. 9.14 ms D. 1.12 ms
25. A metropolitan area of 1000 km2 is to be covered by cells with a radius of 2-

km. How many cell sites would be required, assuming hexagonal cells?
A. 70 B. 73
C. 76 D. 78
26. A designation of the American National Standards Institute--usually followed by

a number--that refers to an accepted industry protocol
A. IMSI B. Access Code
C. Protocol Stack D. IS (Interim Standard)
27. Synonymous with smart card

A. Flash card B. Network interface card
C. Prepaid card D. SIM
28. Also known as 802.11b

A. Wireless ATM B. Bluetooth
C. Wi-Fi D. Zigbee
29. A cellular radio transmitter has a power output of 3-W at 800 MHz. It uses an
antenna with a gain of 12 dBi. The receiver is 5-km away, with an antenna
gain of 12 dBi. Calculate the received signal strength in dBm, ignoring any
losses in transmission lines.
A. -14.7 dBm B. -24.7 dBm
C. -45.7 dBm D. -84.7 dBm
30. A cell site has 57 voice channels. Assume a blocking probability of 2%. From
the Erlang B table, the offered load A=46.8 Erlangs. Assume the average
talking time per call is 100 sec; calculate the number of calls per busy hour and
the number of calls per radio.
A. 1658 calls/b-h, 92.5 calls/radio B. 1586 calls/b-h, 25.9 calls/radio
C. 1865 calls/b-h, 95.2 calls/radio D. 1685 calls/b-h, 29.5 calls/radio
31. The basic range of a Bluetooth device is:

A. 10 cm to 1 meter B. 10 cm to 10 meters
C. 10 cm to 100 meters D. within 10 feet
32. IRDA stands for:

A. Infrared Data Association B. Infrared Digital Association
C. Infrared Restricted Data Area D. Infrared Roaming Data Area
33. The ERP of a typical handheld AMPS cell phone is:

A. less than 600 W B. less than 600 mW
C. between 1 and 2 watts D. 4 watts
34. The combination of the mobile cell phone and the cell site radio equipment is
called the:
A. BSC B. MTSO
C. RF interface D. air interface
35. One way to increase the capacity of a cell phone system is:
A. increase the number of cells B. decrease the number of cells
C. increase the ERP D. decrease the ERP
36. The frequency band designated for PCS in North America is:
A. 800 MHz B. 900 MHz
C. 1.9 GHz D. 12 GHz
37. In CDMA:
A. all frequencies are used in all cells
B. each cell uses half the available frequencies
C. each cell is assigned a frequency by the base
D. the frequency is selected by the mobile phone
38. Bluetooth uses:

A. CDMA B. frequency hopping
C. QPSK D. direct sequence
39. An improvement in signal gain can be obtained by raising the height of the
base station antenna. On the assumptions that the received radio signals is -
110 dBm and the height of the base station antenna is 100 ft, how much higher
must the base station antenna be raised to obtain an increase from -110 to -
100 dBm in the received signal?
A. 116 ft B. 216 ft
C. 416 ft D. 316 ft
40. Calculate the wavelength of Bluetooth signal.

A. 2.4 m B. 1.25 m
C. 0.125 m D. 0.24 m

41. A cellular system uses 12-cell repeating pattern. There are 120 cells in the
system and 20,000 subscribers. Each subscriber uses the phone on average 30
minutes per day, but on average 10 of those minutes are used during peak
hour. Calculate the average and peak traffic in erlangs for the whole system.
A. 416 E & 3333 E B. 41.6 E & 33.33 E
C. 4.16 E & 3.333 E D. 41.6 E & 3.333 E
42. The __________ cellular phone system will provide universal personal
communication.
A. first-generation B. second-generation
C. third-generation D. fourth-generation
43. In a ______ handoff, a mobile station only communicates with one base
station.
A. medium B. soft
C. hard D. make before break
44. From the following data, determine the average holding time of a cell.
Maximum calls per hour in one cell = 28000
Blocking probability = 2%
Offered traffic A = 821 erlangs.
A. 1.76 minutes B. 0.176 minutes
C. 176 minutes D. 17.6 minutes
45. Calculate the number of full duplex channels required in each cell for a cellular
system 12 clusters, 15 cells per cluster, and a total capacity of 3960 full duplex
channel.
A. 22 B. 88
C. 44 D. 11
46. A cooperation of standards organizations that develops the technical

specifications for IMT-2000, or 3G.
A. ITU B. TIA
C. UMTS D. 3GPP
47. The number of channel of GSM 1800.

A. 300 B. 150
C. 125 D. 375
48. Calculate the co-channel reuse ratio for a cluster when the distance to the
center of the nearest co-channel cell is 4 km and the cell radius is 1.2 km.
A. 1.33 B. 4.33
C. 3.33 D. 2.33
49. GSM is using a modulation technique which is a variant of FSK called GMSK
using a frequency deviation of _____.
A. 167.708 kHz B. 67.708 kHz
C. 16.708 kHz D. 617.708 kHz
50. IMSI contain the following number code.

A. MIC+MNC+MSIN B. MCC+MNC+MSIN
C. CC+MNC+MSIN D. MCC+MIC+MSIN
51. The duplex distance of GSM 1800.

A. 20 MHz B. 80 MHz
C. 60 MHz D. 95 MHz
52. Two or more connected piconets forms a:

A. micronet B. multinet
C. TDD net D. scatternet
53. The range of an IRDA system is:

A. 1 meter B. 10 meters
C. 1 foot D. 10 feet
54. The International Telecommunication Union's name for the new third
generation global standard for mobile telecommunications
A. UMTS B. IMT-2000
C. 3GPP D. HSDPA
55. ________ is a second-generation cellular phone system based on CDMA and

Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS).
A. GPRS B. IS-95
C. EDGE D. IMT-MC
56. In a ______ handoff, a mobile station can communicate with two base stations
at the same time.
A. medium B. break before make
C. hard D. make before break
57. In AMPS, each band is divided into ______ channels.

A. 666 B. 800
C. 900 D. 1000
58. Wi-Fi is capable of transmitting data normally at distances up to about

A. 300 feet at a data rate of 11 megabits per second
B. 3000 feet at a data rate of 11 megabits per second
C. 300 feet at a data rate of 54 megabits per second
D. 3000 feet at a data rate of 54 megabits per second
59. A CDMA mobile measures the signal strength from the base as -100dBm. What
should the mobile transmitter power be set to?
A. 320 mW B. 43 mW
C. 250 mW D. 54 mW
60. Calculate the maximum and minimum hopping rate for the Bluetooth system.
A. 600 & 30 Hz B. 1600 & 320 Hz
C. 160 & 4320 Hz D. 100 & 20 Hz
61. The technical organs of the United Nations specialized agency for
telecommunications. They functions trough international committees of
telephone administration and private operating agencies.
A. CEPT B. ETSI
C. CCITT D. ANSI

62. _______ is an analog cellular phone system using FDMA.

A. AMPS B. D-AMPS
C. GSM D. IS 136
63. Used to uniquely identify each location area in the GSM PLMN. When the
system receives an incoming call it knows in which location area it should page
the mobile and does not page the entire network.
A. CGI B. BSIC
C. IMSI D. LAI
64. Used for cell identification within the GSM network.

A. CGI B. MCC
C. PLMN D. TMSI
65. The number of channel of GSM 1900.

A. 125 B. 375
C. 300 D. 150
66. Channel used for sending signal strength & bit error rate measurement of the
serving cell and signal strength of the BCCHs of the neighboring cells and used
for sending short text message to busy mobile.
A. SDCCH B. RACH
C. SACCH D. PCH
67. D-AMPS uses ______ to divide each 25-MHz band into channels.
A. FDMA B. TDMA
C. CDMA D. Both A and B
68. IS-95 uses the _______ satellite system for synchronization.

A. Teledesic B. Iridium
C. Globalstar D. GPS
69. Bluetooth is operating on what frequency band.

A. 2.4 GHz B. 1.4 GHz
C. 5.4 GHz D. 3.4 GHz
70. The bandwidth of GSM 1800.

A. 75 MHz B. 25 MHz
C. 60 MHz D. 80 MHz
71. In the Bluetooth technology, the SIG is the core pioneer of this technology,
what does SIG mean?
A. Special Information Guide B. Super Intelligent Group
C. Super Interest Group D. Special Interest Group
72. The downlink frequency of GSM 1900.

A. 1910-1990 MHz B. 1930-1990 MHz
C. 1910-1970 MHz D. 1905-1980 MHz
73. When the signal from the mobile cellular unit drops below a certain level, what
action occurs?
A. the MSTO increases power level
B. the units is handed off to a closer cell
C. the cell site switches antennas
D. the call is terminated
74. What is the bandwidth of a cellular CDMA system?

A. 1.23 GHz B. 1.23 KHz
C. 1.23 MHz D. 1.23 THz
75. Cellular mobile system was first operated in _____.

A. 1983 B. 1985
C. 1979 D. 1981
76. TACS is a cellular system with ____ channels.

A. 832 B. 1000
C. 666 D. 200
77. CDMA technology was invented by:

A. AT&T B. Lucent
C. Bell Labs D. Qualcomm
78. Suppose we are designing picocells for an indoor cellular system in an

underground mall. If we assume people using the system are walking at a
speed of 5m/s or less, what is the smallest cell radius we could have if we
wanted to have handoffs occur no more than once every 45 seconds?
A. 115 m B. 1.125 m
C. 11.25 m D. 112.5 m
79. AMPS has a frequency reuse factor of _______.

A. 1 B. 3
C. 5 D. 7
80. GSM allows a reuse factor of _______.

A. 1 B. 3
C. 5 D. 7
81. The duplex distance of GSM 900.

A. 80 MHz B. 75 MHz
C. 45 MHz D. 25 MHz
82. The Bluetooth original core SIG is composed of these companies except ____.
A. Ericsson B. Sony
C. Nokia D. Toshiba
83. A cellular system is designed to operate reliably with traffic of 2000 E. If each
customer on average uses the phone for 3 minutes during the busiest hour,
how many customers can be accommodated, assuming an even distribution of
customers?
A. 30,000 B. 20,000
C. 40,000 D. 50,000

84. The bandwidth of GSM 1900.

A. 60 MHz B. 25 MHz
C. 75 MHz D. 80 MHz
85. The "forward" PCS channel is:

A. from the base to the mobile B. from the mobile to the base
C. from mobile to mobile D. same as the uplink
86. In an IS-95 system, the frequency-reuse factor is normally _____.

A. 1 B. 3
C. 5 D. 7
87. In the third generation of cellular phones, ______ uses a combination of W-

CDMA and TDMA.
A. IMT-TC B. IMT-MC
C. IMT-DS D. IMT-SC
88. In GSM, voice channels are called:

A. traffic channels B. voice channels
C. bearer channels D. talking channels
89. A vehicle travels through a cellular system at 100 kph. Approximately how
often will handoffs occur if the cell radius is 500 meters?
A. 36 s B. 4.8 s
C. 9.6 s D. 8.3 s
90. AMPS operates in the ISM _____ band.

A. 800-MHz B. 900-MHz
C. 1800-MHz D. 2484-MHz
91. A handshaking procedure where the cell site sends a control message on the
forward voice channel confirming the channel.
A. CMAC B. SAT
C. SID D. ESN
92. CDMA uses a set of PN sequences that are:

A. common B. unique
C. rotating D. orthogonal
93. BSS stands for:

A. Basic Service Set B. Basic Service System
C. Bluetooth Service System D. none of the above
94. The downlink frequency of GSM 1800.

A. 1810-1880 MHz B. 1710-1770 MHz
C. 1710-1785 MHz D. 1805-1880 MHz
95. The analog cellular standards which allows voice messages to travel through 30
kHz voice channels.
A. NAMPS B. DAMPS
C. AMPS D. NMT
96. A means of increasing the capacity of a cellular system by subdividing cells

onto two or more smaller cells.
A. cell splitting B. channel splitting
C. cell allocation D. channel allocation
97. The uplink frequency of GSM 900.

A. 890-920 MHz B. 890-900 MHz
C. 890-915 MHz D. 890-935 MHz
98. Bluetooth is operating in an unlicensed ISM band, what does ISM stand for?
A. Industrial Scientific Medicine B. Infinite Scientific Mechanism
C. Integrated System Modulation D. Indefinite Social Market
99. Channel that enable the mobile synchronize to the frequency being broadcast
by the BTS.
A. FCCH B. RACH
C. PCH D. SCH
100. ______ is a digital version of AMPS.

A. GSM B. IS 54
C. D-AMPS D. IS-95
101. _______ is a second-generation cellular phone system used in Europe.

A. IS 54 B. IS-95
C. GSM D. IS 136
102. AMPS uses ______ to divide each 25-MHz band into channels.
A. TDMA B. CDMA
C. FDMA D. SSMA
103. In the third generation of cellular phones, _______ uses TDMA.

A. IMT-TC B. IMT-MC
C. IMT-DS D. IMT-SC
104. The SID is used by a cell phone to:

A. identify the type of system (analog or digital)
B. recognize an AMPS system
C. set its transmitted power level
D. recognize that it is "roaming"
105. In an AMPS system, voice is sent using:

A. AM B. FM
C. FSK D. CDMA
106. In an AMPS system, control-channel signals are sent using:

A. AM B. FM
C. FSK D. CDMA
107. An industrial specification for wireless personal area networks

A. GPRS B. WAP
C. WiFi D. Bluetooth

108. The name Bluetooth was born from the 10th century king of ______.
A. Finland B. Sweden
C. Denmark D. France
109. What is the approximate range and power output of class I Bluetooth device?
A. 100 m, 20 dBm B. 10 m, 4 dBm
C. 10 cm, 0 dBm D. 100 mm, 5 dBm
110. What is the approximate range and power output of class II Bluetooth
device?
A. 100 m, 20 dBm B. 10 m, 4 dBm
C. 10 cm, 0 dBm D. 100 mm, 5 dBm
111. Bluetooth is also known as

A. IEEE 802.12.1 B. IEEE 802.15x
C. IEEE 802.11b D. IEEE 802.15.1
112. What is the approximate range and power output of class III Bluetooth
device?
A. 100 m, 20 dBm B. 10 m, 4 dBm
C. 10 cm, 0 dBm D. 100 mm, 5 dBm
113. Bluetooth specification allows connecting 2 or more piconets together to form

a
A. nanonet B. scatternet
C. femtonet D. broadnet
114. In order to avoid interfering with other protocols which use the 2.45 GHz
band, the Bluetooth protocol divides the band into
A. 49 channels (each 1 MHz wide) and changes channels up to 1600 times
per second
B. 59 channels (each 5 MHz wide) and changes channels up to 1600 times
per second
C. 79 channels (each 1 MHz wide) and changes channels up to 1600 times
per second
D. 89 channels (each 10 MHz wide) and changes channels up to 600 times
per second
115. Bluetooth function as _______, whereas Wi-Fi is _______

A. wireless Ethernet, wireless USB
B. wireless network, wireless computer
C. wireless USB, wireless Ethernet
D. wireless computer, wireless network
116. What makes the wireless channel more unpredictable than the wireline
channel?
A. Doppler spread B. Multipath
C. Shadow fading D. All of the above
117. Rayleigh fading occurs when there is

A. a LOS component present B. no LOS component present
C. Intercell interference D. Multipath fading
118. Spread spectrum systems employ a form of diversity called _____, where the
signal is spread over a much larger bandwidth than is needed
A. Radio diversity B. Spatial diversity
C. Frequency diversity D. Bandwidth diversity
119. The use of equalizers adds to the complexity and costs of the ______
systems, because equalization requires significant amounts of signal-processing
power.
A. OFDM B. CDMA
C. TDMA D. FDMA
120. With ______, fast and accurate power-control loops must be used so that the
signal from one user does not drown out the signals from other users, and each
cell must be tightly synchronized.
A. CDMA B. TDMA
C. OFDM D. FDMA
121. How many conversations per channel can TDMA digital cellular carry at once?
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 10
122. Larger cells are more useful in

A. rural areas
B. mountainous areas
C. densely populated urban areas
D. lightly populated urban areas
123. Interference effects in cellular systems are a result of

A. the power of the transmitters
B. the distance between areas
C. the height of the antennas
D. the ratio of the distance between areas to the transmitter power of the
areas
124. Which is one method of securing cellular transmissions?

A. frequency hopping B. packet coding
C. cell identification D. cell jamming
125. Which of these measures provides security to mobile phone transmissions by

varying the transmitted frequency?
A. direct sequencing B. frequency division multiplexing
C. frequency hopping D. code division multiplexing

Section 22
Navigation System
Section 23
RADAR
Fundamentals
RADAR RCS
Navigational
Aids

Section
Navigation Read it
till it
22 System Hertz!
DEFINITION. Navigation: Art and science of maneuvering safely and

efficiently from one point to another. The word navigation (Latin navis, boat;
agire, guide) traditionally meant the art or science of conducting ships and
other watercraft from one place to another.
DEFINITION. Bearing: The Angular distance of any terrestrial object from

an observer, or from another object measured clockwise from a reference
north pointing through 360 on the arc of the horizon.
DEFINITION. Course: The angular distance of a ships intended line of

movement measured clockwise from a reference north point through 360 on
the arc of the horizon.
A. .MAJOR NAVIGATION AGENCIES.
1. Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Washington, D.C.

Operates navigational aids and air traffic control systems for both civil
and military aircraft in the US and its possessions.
2. Federal Communications Commission (FCC), Washington, D.C.

The agency that licenses transmitters and operators in the United
States and aboard US registered ships and aircraft.
3. International Air Transport Association (IATA). Montreal, Canada

The international association representing scheduled airlines.
4. International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), Montreal, Canada

A United Nations agency that allocates standards and recommended
practices, including navigational aids, for all civil aviation.
5. International Telecommunication Union (ITU), Geneva, Switzerland

An agency of the United Nations that allocates frequencies for best use
of the radio spectrum.

6-2 NAVIGATION system
B. .METHODS OF NAVIGATION.
METHODS PRINCIPLES OF OPERATION
When no landmarks or aids to navigation are visible,

navigators may use the Sun, the Moon, or other
celestial bodies to fix the crafts position. In celestial
CELESTIAL navigation, navigators measure the altitude of a
NAVIGATION celestial body to derive a circle of position. Altitude
of a celestial body refers to its angle, in degrees,
above the horizon. From every point on the circle of
position, the altitude of the celestial body is the
same.
Coastal piloting means navigating within sight of

NAVIGATION BY land. In coastal piloting, navigators determine their
COASTAL position more accurately by taking compass
PILOTING bearings angular measurements of the line of sight
between the craft and nearby landmarks or aids to
navigation.
Dead Reckoning, basic method of navigation in

NAVIGATION BY which the position of a ship or aircraft is determined
DEAD by calculation from a previous position of the craft,
RECKONING the direction of travel from the previous position, the
speed of the craft, and the time traveled.
Modern navigators rarely rely exclusively on their

own measurements and calculations. They often
use position calculations derived by high-tech
ELECTRONIC electronic navigational instruments. These
NAVIGATION instruments usually can determine positions faster
and more accurately than humans. They function in
nearly all weather conditions, day or night, and
have a range far beyond that of the human senses
alone.
C. .RADIO FREQUENCIES USED IN ELECTRONIC NAVIGATION.
SYSTEM FREQUENCY BAND

1. Omega 10 to 13 kHz
2. VLF 16 to 24 kHz
3. Decca 70 to 130 kHz
4. Loran-C/D 100 kHz
5. LFR 200 to 300 kHz
6. ADF/NDB 200 to 1,600 kHz
7. Loran A 2 MHz
8. Marker Beacon 75 MHz
9. ILS Localizer 108 to 112 MHz
10. VOR 108 to 118 MHz
11. ILS Glide Slope 329 to 335 MHz
12. DME 960 to 1215 MHz
13. TACAN 960 to 1215 MHz
14. ATCRBS 1030 to 1090 MHz
15. GPS 1227 to 1575 MHz
16. Altimeter 4200 MHz
17. MLS 5 GHz
18. Weather Radar 5, 9 GHz
19. Doppler Radar 10 to 20 GHz
D. .MAJOR ELECTRONIC NAVIGATION SYSTEM.
1. Automatic Direction Finding/Radio Direction Finding (ADF/RDF)

The oldest navigational system employing a combined rotating loop
and sense antenna.
ADF Basic Operation

The ground station transmits an amplitude modulated signal in an
omnidirectional pattern. The receiver at the aircraft receives the
transmitted signal in a combined loop and sense antenna whose
output is then calculated to give relative station bearing
The relative station bearing output from the ADF receiver drives
the bearing pointers in Radio Magnetic Indicator (RMI) and EHSIs
(Electronic Horizontal Station Indicator) of the Electronic Flight
Instrument System (EFIS)
The pointer position with respect to the fixed lubber line is the
relative bearing while the position with respect to the North of the
compass is the magnetic bearing.
Direction Finding Errors

i. Coastline refraction (Land effect)
Radio waves crossing from a land to a water area, at any angle
rather than 90 will refract, or bend towards the coastline.

ii. Non-opposite minimums (Antenna effect)

This is a form of loop unbalance due to stray signal pickup through
earphone cords or power lines or improper shielding or grounding
of the loop.
iii. Reradiation
Signals striking the loop may also strike nearby metal objects,
inducing current in them that produce reradiated signals and also
pickup by the loop.
iv. Great Circle error

Errors produce because of earths curvature.
v. Polarization Error (Night effect)

During nighttime hours the sky wave refracts from the ionosphere
and is receivable for long distance. When the sky wave amplitude
approaches the ground wave amplitude, the null of a loop antenna
will no longer be reliable.
Are you familiar with the Main antenna Switch mode?
Main transmitter--In this position, the main antenna is connected

to the main receiver and to the main transmitter through a break-
in relay.
Emergency transmitter--The main antenna is connected to the

emergency receiver and to the emergency transmitter through a
break-in relay.
AA--The main antenna is connected to the auto-alarm receiver,

and power is connected to the AA equipment. All transmitters are
disabled by interconnecting circuits.
DF (Direction Finder)--The main antenna is open-circuited, or an

auxiliary antenna is connected to the main receiver, depending on
the antenna conditions when the DF is calibrated. The
transmitters are disabled.
AA-DF--The main antenna or an auxiliary antenna is connected to

the auto alarm, as when the DF was calibrated. Power is applied
to the AA equipment.
HF--The main antenna is connected to the HF transmitter.

2. VHF Omnidirectional Range (VOR)

Navigation system that provides omnidirectional bearing, establishes
the airways for airplane, and provides station identification.
VOR Basic Operation

The VOR beacon is a ground station that transmits signals in all
directions (omnidirectional radials). The transmitted radials all
contain different information, which makes it possible to separate
the radial from each other.
The VOR beacon transmits the fist radial in the direction magnetic
north of the station we call it the zero degrees radial.
The VOR beacon transmits on its carrier frequency two modulated

signals, a 30-Hz reference signal and a 30-Hz variable signal. The
radial is measured from the difference in phase between the
reference and variable signal.
The 30-Hz reference-phase signal always has the same phase

whatever the aircraft position is with respect to the station.
The 30-Hz amplitude modulated variable-phase signal is

generated by a goniometer, a mechanically rotatable variable RF
transformer device.
The phase of the variable signal varies with the aircrafts position.
VOR Deviation
VOR magnetic bearing sine and cosine signals are combined with
selected course information. The difference between these two
parameters is the VOR deviation.
For a difference of 5 left the receiver output is standardized at

75A which causes a VOR deviation bar deflection of one dot.
For a difference of 20, the receiver output is 300A produces a

four dot deflection.
FOR ADF/RDF:
Relative Bearing = Pointer Position w.r.t. the fixed Lubberline (Aircraft
Heading)
Magnetic Bearing = Pointer position w.r.t. the North of the compass
card
FOR VOR:
Radial = Phase of Reference Signal Phase of Variable Signal
VOR Magnetic Bearing = Received Radial + 180
VOR Deviation = Selected Course VOR MB

VOR Summary
Parameter Description
Guidance information Omnidirectional bearing
Operating Frequency 108 to 118 (117.95) MHz
200 mi for high- flying aircraft
(Enroute VOR)
Service Area
25 mi for low-flying aircraft
(Terminal VOR)
RF output 25 to 200 W
No of channels 20 or 40
Spacing between adjacent
100 kHz
channels
Cardioid pattern rotates at a 30
Antenna pattern
Hz rate
Accuracy + 1.4, + 3 with site error
3. Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)

Distance Measuring Equipment is an interrogator-transponder two-way
distance ranging system. It became an ICAO standard in 1959. The
airborne equipment (interrogator) generates a pulsed signal that is
recognized by the ground equipment (transponder).
DME Summary
Guidance information Slant distance and Time-to-Station
Operating Frequency 960 to 1215 MHz
1kW pulses of 3.5s duration, 30
Interrogator RF output
times per second
No of channels 126

1 MHz
channels
Ground Transponder
100 aircraft simultaneously
interrogation capacity
Time Delay 50 s
63 MHz above or below the
Transponder reply
interrogating channel
Accuracy + 0.2 mi
4. Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN)

TACAN is a NATO military system that adds a bearing function to DME,
on the same frequencies, allowing greater portability of the ground
station than with ICAOs VOR/DME, particularly on aircraft carriers.
5. Collocated VOR/TACAN station (VORTAC)

In NATO countries having a common air traffic control system for the
civil and the military, the ICAO Rho-theta system is implemented.
Rho-theta system is a generic term for navigation system that derives
position by measurement of distance and bearing from a single
collocated VOR/DME or VOR/TACAN station.
6. Instrument Landing System (ILS)

An ILS normally consists of two or three marker beacons, a localizer,
and a glide slope to provide both vertical and horizontal guidance
information.
i. Localizer Basic Operation

The localizer signal comes from a transmitter located at the
end of the runway that operates in the frequency range from
108 to 111.95 MHz.
The localizer transmits two beams, one on the right side of

the runway center line amplitude modulated by a 150-Hz
audio signal and one on the left side of the runway center line
amplitude modulated by a 90-Hz audio signal.
When the airplane position is on the left of the on-course

path, the strength of the 90-Hz audio signal predominates and
localizer deviation indicators are deflected to the right and a
yellow visual lamp indicator are on, indicating that the runway
centerline is to the right.
While when the airplane position is on the right side of the on-
course path, the strength of the 150-Hz audio signal
predominates and localizer deviation indicators are deflected
to the left and a blue visual lamp indicator are on, indicating
that the runway centerline is to the left.

ILS Summary
Guidance information Azimuth (horizontal or lateral)
Operating Frequency 108 to 112 MHz band
RF power 25 W
1000 feet beyond the approach
Location
end of the runway.
40; where each is paired with one
No of channels
of 40 Glideslope channel
50 kHz
channel
Left-Hand Pattern Amplitude-modulated by 90 Hz
Right-Hand Pattern Amplitude-modulated by 150 Hz
Accuracy + 0.1
+ 35 from the centerline of the
Lateral threshold
runway
ii. Glide-Slope Basic Operation

The glide-slope signal comes from a transmitter at the
beginning of the runway that operates in the UHF band with a
frequency range of 328.6-MHz to 335.4-MHz.
The glide-slope receiving circuits are tune automatically

whenever a localizer frequency is tuned or selected.
Two antenna patterns are produced: one above the normal

2.5 ascent angle to the runways surface at an audio
modulated tone of 90-Hz and one below the normal 2.5
ascent angle to the runways surface at an audio modulated
tone of 150-Hz.
If the airplane is located above the 2.5 glide-path, the 90-Hz

audio signal modulates the glide slope carrier forcing the
glide-slope pointer to deflect downward and turn-on the
yellow visual indicator lamp, indicating that the airplane is
above the glide-path and the pilot must maneuver the
airplane below to obtain the desired glide-path.
While if the airplane is located below the 2.5 glide-path, the

150-Hz audio signal modulates the glide-slope carrier forcing
the glide-slope pointer to deflect upward and turn-on the blue
visual indicator lamp, indicating that the airplane is below the
glide-path and the pilot must maneuver the airplane above to
obtain the desired glide-path.
Glideslope Summary
PARAMETER DESCRIPTION
Guidance information Vertical
Operating Frequency 328.6 to 335.4 MHz band
RF power 7W
Approach end of the runway and
Location
up to 500 ft to the side
40; where each is paired with one
No of channels
of 40 Localizer channel
50 kHz
channel
Pattern above the Glideslope Amplitude-modulated by 90 Hz
Pattern below the Glideslope Amplitude-modulated by 150 Hz
Accuracy + 0.1
Vertical threshold + 3 above the horizontal
iii. Marker Beacons

The marker beacon system gives information about the distance
to the runway.
Marker Beacons
Three marker beacon are strategically positioned at fixed
distance from the runway having the same carrier frequency
of 75-MHz.
If the airplane is 7.2-km away from the runway center line,
the pilot will hear a Morse-coded sound of 2 dashes/sec and
the Blue (Purple in other books) light indicator will turn on.
If the airplane is 1.05-km away from the runway center line,
the pilot will hear an alternating Morse-coded sound of dots
and dashes and the Amber (Orange in other books) light
indicator will turn on.
And finally, if the airplane is 75-m away from the runway
center line, the pilot will hear a continuous dots and the White
light indicator will turn on, an indication that the airplane is
very near the runway threshold.

Marker Beacon Summary
Visual Aural
Modulating Typical
Marker (Light ) (Sound)
Frequency Location
Indicator Indicator
Blue
Outer 400 Hz 7200 m 2 dashes/sec
(Purple)
Alternating
Amber
Middle 1300 Hz 1050 m dots and
(Orange)
dashes
Continuous
Inner 3000 Hz 75 m White
dots
ICAO Categories for Minimum Approach Ceiling and Forward Visibility.
Category Description
I 200 ft ceiling and mile visibility

II 100 ft ceiling and mile visibility
III-A 50 ft ceiling and 700 ft visibility
III-B 35 ft ceiling and 150 ft visibility
III-C 0 ceiling and 0 visibility
7. Microwave Landing System (MLS)

The MLS is the ICAO-approved replacement for the current ILS. The
system is based on time-reference scanning beams, reference to the
runway, which enables the airborne unit to determine precise azimuth
and elevation angle.
60 either side of the runway
Azimuth (lateral) scan
centerline
Elevation (vertical) scan 0 to 30
Scanning rate 50s/degree
No of channels 200
8. Air Traffic Control Radar Beacon System (ATCRBS)

In 1958 IFF (Identification Friend or Foe) became an ICAO standard
known as SSR (Secondary Surveillance Radar) or ATCRBS.
IFF, Range, Bearing, and
Guidance information
Altitude information
Ground Interrogator 1030 MHz
Airborne Transponder 1090 MHz

1 MHz
channels
Power output 500 W
Available Pulse code 4096
Interrogator Pulse 400 pulses pair/s
Reply Pulse 14 pulses lasting 21s
E. .HYPERBOLIC NAVIGATION SYSTEM.
1. Decca
This system has been developed in the United Kingdom starting 1939.
It is a continuous-wave hyperbolic system operating in the 70 to 130
kHz.
Position information is obtained by measuring the relative phase differences of the

received signals.
A typical chain comprises four stations, 1 Master and 3 Slaves.
2. Omega
The Omega system (8-station only) is a worldwide VLF navigation
system used for marine and enroute air navigation. The system 8 CW
transmitting stations sequentially transmit long, but precisely timed,
pulses at four frequencies: 10.2 kHz, 11.3 kHz, 13.6 kHz, and 11.05
kHz.
Position information is obtained by measuring the relative phase differences of the

received signals.
A typical chain comprises two stations, 1 Master and 1 Slave station

3. Loran-C
Loran-C is a long-range hyperbolic radio navigation system that
possesses an inherent high degree of accuracy at ranges of 800 to
1000 nautical miles.
Position information is obtained by measuring the relative time differences of the

received signals.
A typical chain comprises three stations, 1 Master and 2 Slaves station.
F. .SATELLITE NAVIGATION SYSTEM.
1. TRANSIT
Transit is a satellite navigation system consisting of four or more
satellites in approximately 600-nmi polar orbit.
2. Navigation System using Time And Ranging/Global Positioning System

(NAVSTAR/GPS)
Global Positioning System

(GPS), space-based radio-
navigation system, consisting of
24 satellites and ground
support. GPS provides users
with accurate information about
their position and velocity, as
well as the time, anywhere in
the world and in all weather
conditions.

Three satellites are needed to determine latitude and longitude,
while a fourth satellite is necessary to determine altitude.
GPS Services
a. Standard Positioning Service (SPS)
The SPS is a positioning and timing service that is available to all
GPS users on a continuous, worldwide basis with no direct charge.
SPS provides a horizontal position that is accurate to about 100
m.
b. Primary Positioning Service (PPS)

The PPS is a highly accurate military positioning, velocity, and
timing service that is available on a continuous, worldwide basis to
users authorized by the DoD.
Accuracy SPS PPS

Horizontal 100 m 22 m
Vertical 156 m 27.7 m
3-D 185 m 35.4 m
Time transfer 340 ns 200 ns
3. Global Orbiting Navigation Satellite System (GLONASS)

Satellite navigation system developed by Russia similar to Navstar
GPS.
GLONASS Services
a. Civil Service
The specified positioning accuracies are 100-m in the horizontal
plane and 150-m in the vertical plane. Civil velocity accuracy is
specified at 0.15 m/sec. The time dissemination capability is
within 5 msec of UTC.
b. Military Service
Military service yields accuracies comparable to the GPS PPS.

Comparison between GPS and GLONASS
Parameter NAVSTAR/GPS GLONASS

Planned Constellation 21 + 3 21 + 3
Number of orbit 6 3
Orbital Altitude 10,898 nmi 10,313 nmi
Orbital Period 12 hrs 11 hrs 15 min
Orbital Inclination 55 64.8
Access Method CDMA FDMA
C/A Code 1,023 bits 511 bits
C/A Code BW 2 MHz 1 MHz
Bit Rate 50 bps 50 bps
P code is a long precision code with 10.23-MHz chip rate used by the
military.
C/A code stands for Course/Acquisition code for public used.
G. .CARDINAL DIRECTIONS OF THE EARTH.
Lines of Latitude
The parallel lines of latitude
are horizontal, running from
east to west. The equator is
the imaginary line from which
latitude is measured; it is
equidistant from the poles,
dividing the globe into the
northern and southern
hemispheres.
Meridians of Longitude
Lines running from top to
bottom (north to south) on a
map, chart, or globe. A
longitude coordinate indicates
distance from the prime
meridian.
H. .AXIS AND DIRECTIONS.
1. True North Axis (Geographic Axis)

Axis around which Earth rotates, also called the North Pole.
i. True North Directions

Courses and bearings reckoned from TRUE north.
2. Magnetic North Axis

The fluid motion of the earths outer core generates magnetism such
that its magnetic field within the earth creates a magnetic axis which
is an angle away from the geographic or true axis.
ii. Magnetic North Directions

Courses and bearings reckoned from MAGNETIC north.
3. Compass North Axis

Any magnetic substance for instance, the steel in a ship can induce
magnetism. The axis of reference of compass direction is called
compass meridian, the magnetic field of which is the sum total of the
ships magnetism and all other magnetism on board.
iii. Compass North Directions

Courses and bearings reckoned from COMPASS north.

The north magnetic pole is situated in the vicinity of Ellef Ringnes

Island in northern Canada, about 1300 km (about 800 mi) from the
North Pole. This point lies at approximately latitude 74 north,
longitude 101 westabout 1,600 km (about 1,000 mi) from true
north.
The south magnetic pole is located just off of the coast of Wilkes
Land, Antarctica. It is 2550 km (1600 miles) from the geographic
South Pole.
In 1730, English mathematician John Hadley and American inventor

Thomas Godfrey independently invent the sextant, an optical
instrument used for the measurement of angular distance between any
two objects.
I. .COMPASS ERRORS.
1. Variation
An error of the
compass indicated by
the angle between the
meridian of true north
and the meridian of
magnetic north.
2. Deviation
An error of the
compass indicated by
the angle between the
meridian of magnetic
north and the meridian
of the compass north.
J. .COURSES & BEARINGS.
1. Course (Heading)
Course is the angular distance of a ships direction of movement on
the surface of the earth, measured clockwise from three reference
points of the earth true north, magnetic north and compass north
through the 360 system of the compass.
2. Bearing
Bearing is the angular distance of an object from an observer, or from
another object, measured clockwise from the same three points of
references true, magnetic and compass north through the 360
system of the compass, giving rise to the three bearings in one
direction.
i. Relative Bearing
Relative Bearing is the angular distance of an object measured
clockwise through 360 from the ships bow (intended line of
movement).
ii. True Bearing

True Bearing is the angular distance of an object from an
measured clockwise from the true north.
Conversion from TB to RB and vice versa
TB = H + RB
RB = TB H
H = TB RB

iii. 4-Points Bearing

4-points bearing are eye approximations of relative bearings
measured clockwise or anti-clockwise from the ships bow, stern
or beams.
Sample Problem:
Find the compass course to steer in order to make a true course of 270.
Variation is 15 W and the deviation is 12 E.
Solution:
True course 270
Variation 15 W
Magnetic course 255
Deviation 12 E
Compass course 267
I H
1. What is the frequency range of the ground-based Very High Frequency
Omnidirectional Range (VOR) stations used for aircraft navigation?
A. 108.00 kHz to 117.95 kHz B. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz
C. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz D. 329.15 kHz to 335.00 kHz
2. What is the main underlying operating principle of the Very High

Frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) aircraft navigational system?
A. A definite amount of time is required to send and receive a radio signal
B. The difference between the peak values of two DC voltages may be
used to determine an aircraft's altitude above a selected VOR station
C. A phase difference between two AC voltages may be used to
determine an aircraft's azimuth position in relation to a selected VOR
station
D. A phase difference between two AC voltages may be used to
determine an aircraft's distance from a selected VOR station
3. Choose the only correct statement about the effective range of a Very High
Frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) station used for aircraft
navigation.
A. Its reception range is based on both the aircraft's altitude and the
aircraft's line-of-sight to the VOR station
B. Its reception range is not a function of the aircraft's altitude
C. Its reception range is not a function of the aircraft's longitude and
latitude position in relation to the VOR station's position
D. Its reception range is greatly affected by atmospheric effects and
propagation anomalies
4. What is the name of the mechanically rotatable variable RF transformer

device of a Very High Frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) station that
is used to generate the amplitude modulated variable phase signal used in
aircraft navigation?
A. A ghandimeter B. A gondolameter
C. A goniometer D. A gorgonzolameter
5. Are courses and bearings reckoned from magnetic north?

A. Magnetic directions B. Compass directions
C. Deviation D. Variation

6. What is the frequency range of the localizer beam system used by aircraft
to find the centerline of a runway during an Instrument Landing System
(ILS) approach to an airport?
A. 108.10 kHz to 111.95 kHz B. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz
C. 329.15 kHz to 335.00 kHz D. 108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz
7. An error of the compass indicated by the angle between the meridian of

true north and the meridian of magnetic north.
A. Variation B. Compass error
C. PPI error D. Deviation
8. Courses and bearings reckoned from compass north.

A. Magnetic directions B. PPI direction
C. Compass directions D. Gyrocompass error
9. The angular distance of any object measured clockwise from the ships
bow through 360 on the arc of the horizon.
A. Course bearing B. Four point bearing
C. Compass bearing D. Relative bearing
10. Are eye approximations of relative bearings measured clockwise or anti-

clockwise from the ships bow, stern or beams.
A. Relative bearing B. Four point bearing
C. Course bearing D. Compass bearing
11. What is the frequency range of the Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)
used to indicate an aircraft's slant range distance to a selected ground-
based navigation station?
A. 962 MHz to 1213 MHz B. 108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz
C. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz D. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz
12. A device use for determining magnetic directions by using a magnetic

needle that is free to turn around to align itself with the magnetic meridian
of the earth then point to magnetic north.
A. PPI B. GCA
C. Magnetic compass D. Gyrocompass
13. Choose the only correct statement about the glideslope beam system used
by aircraft to maintain the proper ascent angle to the surface of a runway
during an Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach to an airport.
A. Two antenna patterns are produced; one to the left of the runway's
centerline at an audio modulated tone of 90 Hz and one to the right of
the runway's centerline at an audio modulated tone of 150 Hz
B. Two antenna patterns are produced; one to the left of the runway's
centerline at an audio modulated tone of 150 Hz and one to the right
of the runway's centerline at an audio modulated tone of 90 Hz
C. Two antenna patterns are produced; one above the normal 2.5 degree
ascent angle to the runway's surface at an audio modulated tone of
150 Hz and one below the normal 2.5 degree ascent angle to the
runway's surface at an audio modulated tone of 90 Hz
D. Two antenna patterns are produced; one above the normal 2.5 degree
ascent angle to the runway's surface at an audio modulated tone of 90
Hz and one below the normal 2.5 degree ascent angle to the runway's
surface at an audio modulated tone of 150 Hz
14. The angular distance of a ships intended line of movement measured

clockwise from a reference north point through 360 on the arc of the
horizon.
A. Directions B. Bearing
C. Axis D. Course
15. An error of the compass indicated by the angle between the meridian of
magnetic north and the meridian of the compass north.
A. Variation B. Deviation
C. Magnetic directions D. Compass error
16. M.V. Princess Lorena is proceeding on course 060 C. Deviation for the
ships compass heading is 9 E Variation for the place is 19 W. What is
the true course?
A. 050 T B. 28 T
C. 5 T D. 10 T
17. What is the distance to a selected Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)

station if an aircraft receives the ground station's reply 175 microseconds
after it transmits its airborne interrogation signal? Use the standard 50
microsecond DME reply delay.
A. 20.2 nautical miles B. 11.6 statute miles
C. 14.2 nautical miles D. 10.1 statute miles
18. What is the frequency range of the marker beacon system used to indicate
an aircraft's position during an Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach
to an airport's runway?
A. The outer, middle, and inner marker beacons' UHF frequencies are
unique for each ILS equipped airport to provide unambiguous
frequency protected reception areas in the 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz
range
B. The outer marker beacon's carrier frequency is 400 MHz, the middle
marker beacon's carrier frequency is 1300 MHz, and the inner marker
beacon's carrier frequency is 3000 MHz
C. The outer, the middle, and the inner marker beacon's carrier
frequencies are all 75 MHz but the marker beacons are 95% tone-
modulated at 400 Hz (outer), 1300 Hz (middle), and 3000 Hz (inner)
D. The outer marker beacon's carrier frequency is 3000 kHz, the middle
marker beacon's carrier frequency is 1300 kHz, and the inner marker
beacon's carrier frequency is 400 kHz

19. What is the main underlying operating principle of an aircraft's Distance

Measuring Equipment (DME)?
A. A measurable amount of time is required to send and receive a radio
signal through the earth's atmosphere
B. The difference between the peak values of two DC voltages may be
used to determine an aircraft's distance to another aircraft
C. A measurable frequency compression of an AC signal may be used to
determine an aircraft's altitude above the earth
D. A phase inversion between two AC voltages may be used to determine
an aircraft's distance to the exit ramp of an airport's runway
20. A type of radar that provides the aircraft ID and altitude to the A TC
ground controller.
A. PSR B. SSR
C. LADAR D. IFF
21. A(n) _______ is a transmitter receiver (transponder) that replies to an

interrogating aircraft signal and identifies itself.
A. radar beacon B. ILS
C. VOR D. Localizer
22. What type of information is derived from an aircraft's mode C transponder

transmission operating in the Air Traffic Control Radar Beacon System
(ATCRBS)?
A. Range, aircraft weight, and fuel aboard information
B. Range, aircraft weight, and altitude information
C. Range, fuel aboard, and altitude information
D. Range, bearing, and altitude information
23. What type of encoding is used in an aircraft's mode C transponder

transmission to a ground station of the Air Traffic Control Radar Beacon
System (ATCRBS)?
A. Differential phase shift keying
B. Pulse position modulation
C. Doppler effect compressional encryption
D. Amplitude modulation at 95%
24. At a certain location, the magnetic variation is 11o 16' W. The ships
compass has a deviation of 0.50oE. What must the compass leading be if
the ship wishes to steer due E?
A. 100o 46 B. 10146'
C. 99046' D. 102o46'
25. What type of encryption is used in the P6 informational pulse of an

aircraft's mode S transponder transmission to a ground station of the Air
Traffic Control Radar Beacon System (ATCRBS)?
A. Differential phase shift keying
B. Pulse position modulation
C. Doppler effect compressional encryption
D. Amplitude modulation at 95%
26. What is the frequency range of an aircraft's radio altimeter?

C. 4250 MHz to 4350 MHz D. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz
27. What type of transmission is radiated from an aircraft's radio altimeter

antenna?
A. An amplitude modulated continuous wave
B. A pulse position modulated UHF signal
C. A differential phase shift keyed UHF signal
D. A frequency modulated continuous wave
28. What is the frequency range of an aircraft's Automatic Direction Finding

(ADF) equipment?
C. 190 kHz to 1750 kHz D. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz
29. Choose the only correct statement about an aircraft's Automatic Direction
Finding (ADF) equipment.
A. An aircraft's ADF transmission exhibits primarily a line-of-sight range
to the ground-based target station and will not follow the curvature of
the earth
B. Only a single omnidirectional sense antenna is required to receive an
NDB transmission and process the signal to calculate the aircraft's
bearing to the selected ground station
C. All frequencies in the ADF's operating range except the commercial
standard broadcast stations (550 kHz to 1660 kHz) can be utilized as a
navigational Non Directional Beacon (NDB) signal
D. An aircraft's ADF antennas can receive transmissions that are over the
earth's horizon (sometimes several hundred miles away) since these
signals will follow the curvature of the earth
30. A ships gyrocompass is not working. Find the compass course of 327 T.
Variation is 7 E and deviation is 9 W.
A. 20 C B. 329 C
C. 320 C D. 30 C
31. What is the cause of quadrantal error when using an aircraft's Automatic
Direction Finding (ADF) equipment?
A. Quadrantal error is caused by the altitude of an aircraft in relation to
the curvature of the earth
B. Quadrantal error is caused by the geographic position of an aircraft in
relation to the North, South, East, or West quadrant of the earth
C. Quadrantal error is caused by the presence of the aircraft in the
electromagnetic field of the NDB transmission
D. Quadrantal error is caused when the aircraft's ADF transmission is not
attenuated sufficiently and is then received at an elevated power level

32. What is meant by the term, "night effect", when using an aircraft's
Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment?
A. Night effect refers to the fact that all Non Directional Beacon (NDB)
transmitters are turned-off at dusk and turned-on at dawn
B. Night effect refers to the fact that Non Directional Beacon (NDB)
transmissions can bounce-off the earth's ionosphere at night and be
received at almost any direction
C. Night effect refers to the fact that an aircraft's ADF transmissions will
be slowed at night due to the increased density of the earth's
atmosphere after sunset
D. Night effect refers to the fact that an aircraft's ADF antennas usually
collect dew moisture after sunset which decreases their effective
reception distance from an NDB transmitter
33. An aircraft has a magnetic heading of 150 degrees and a relative bearing
to a NDB station of 8O degrees. Determine the magnetic bearing of the
station in degrees.
A. 180o B. 210
C. 230o D. 120
34. A navigational error which is caused by reflection of obstruction close to

the location of navigational aid having a normal concern on directional
bearing.
A. Propagation error B. Site error
C. Polarization error D. Instrument error
35. What is the nominal glide path angle in an ILS?

A. 5 o B. 1 o
C. 3 o D. 30 o
36. What is the frequency range of the glideslope beam system used by
aircraft to maintain the proper ascent angle to the surface of a runway
during an Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach to an airport?
A. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz B. 329.15 kHz to 335.00 kHz
C. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz D. 108.10 kHz to 117.95 kHz
37. Choose the only correct statement about the localizer beam system used
by aircraft to find the centerline of a runway during an Instrument Landing
System (ILS) approach to an airport.
A. If the ratio of the 90 Hz audio signal strength to the 150 Hz audio
signal strength of the antenna patterns is equal; the aircraft is on the
proper 2.5 degree approach glidepath
B. If the strength of the 90 Hz audio signal is greater than the strength of
the 150 Hz audio signal of the antenna patterns; the aircraft is to the
left of the centerline of the runway
C. If the strength of the 150 Hz audio signal is greater than the strength
of the 90 Hz audio signal of the antenna patterns; the aircraft is to the
left of the centerline of the runway
D. If the strength of the 150 Hz audio signal is greater than the strength
of the 90 Hz audio signal of the antenna patterns; the aircraft is above
the proper 2.5 degree approach glidepath
38. If the aircraft is flying off-path in the glide slope pattern, which modulation
signal is prevailing or has the higher strength?
A. 75 Hz B. 75 MHz
C. 150 Hz D. 90 Hz
39. What is the slant range distance of an aircraft's Distance Measuring

Equipment (DME)?
A. It is the distance between two aircraft of different altitudes
B. It is the distance between two ground-based navigation stations
having differences in their elevations above mean sea level
C. It is the line-of-sight distance between an aircraft and a selected
ground-based navigation station
D. It is the radius-of-the-earth distance between two ground-based
navigation stations having the same elevations above mean sea level
40. The Angular distance of any terrestrial object from an observer, or from
another object measured clockwise from a reference north pointing
through 360 on the arc of the horizon.
A. Course B. Four point bearing
C. Relative bearing D. Bearing
41. What are the transmission and the reception frequencies of an aircraft's
mode C transponder operating in the Air Traffic Control Radar Beacon
System (ATCRBS)?
A. Transmit at 1090 MHz and receive at 1030 MHz
B. Transmit at 1030 kHz and receive at 1090 kHz
C. Transmit at 1090 kHz and receive at 1030 kHz
D. Transmit at 1030 MHz and receive at 1090 MHz
42. The compass error is 16 W and deviation 8 E. If M.V. Princess Alma is

steering on course 245 C, what is the true course by which she is
proceeding?
A. 24 T B. 253 T
C. 229 T D. 261 T
43. The use of telecommunication for automatic indicating and recording

measurement at the distance from measuring instrument.
A. Telemetry B. Telecomand
C. Tracking D. Monitoring
44. Choose the only correct statement about the localizer beam system used
by aircraft to find the centerline of a runway during an Instrument Landing
System (ILS) approach to an airport.
A. The localizer beam system operates within the assigned frequency
range of 108.10 GHz to 111.95 GHz

B. The localizer beam system produces two amplitude modulated

antenna patterns; one pattern above and one pattern below the
normal 2.5 degree approach glidepath of the aircraft
C. The localizer beam system's frequencies are automatically tuned-in
when the proper glideslope frequency is selected on the aircraft's
Navigation and Communication (NAV/COMM) transceiver
D. The localizer beam system produces two amplitude modulated
antenna patterns; one pattern with an audio frequency of 90 Hz and
one pattern with an audio frequency of 150 Hz
45. Is a device, which, when activated by electricity, aligns itself with the
geographic meridian and cause its needle to point to true north.
A. PPI B. Gyrocompass
C. Compass north D. Magnetic compass
46. A PPI cathode-ray tube as used in radar set

A. is used to check the percentage of modulation
B. indicates only the range of the target
C. is used for receiver alignment
D. indicates both the range and azimuth of a target
47. Courses and bearings reckoned from a certain reference north point.
A. Deviation B. Directions
C. Variation D. Compass bearing
48. The sum or difference of variation and deviation indicated by the angle
between the meridians of true north and compass north.
A. Compass error B. Variation error
C. Magnetic error D. Deviation error
49. The amplitude modulated variable phase signal and the frequency
modulated reference phase signal of a Very High Frequency
Omnidirectional Range (VOR) station used for aircraft navigation are
synchronized so that both signals are in phase with each other at:
A. 180 degrees South, true bearing position of the VOR station
B. 360 degrees North, magnetic bearing position of the VOR station
C. 180 degrees South, magnetic bearing position of the VOR station
D. 0 degrees North, true bearing position of the VOR station
50. Find the compass course to steer in order to follow the course 250 T if
variation is 15W and deviation is 7 W.
A. 257 C B. 22 C
C. 272 C D. 275 C
51. TACAN is a distance indication

A. instrument-landing glide paths B. bearing and weather information
C. speed and height indication D. bearing and distance indication
52. Which of the following is a navigational equipment which utilizes a ground radar
system to determine the position of a plane during its approach?
A. DME B. ODR
C. GCA D. Sonar
53. What is the operating frequency of ILS Glideslope?

A. 1030 to 1090 MHz B. 70 to 130 kHz
C. 329 to 335 MHz D. 1227 to 1575 MHz
54. Refers to an effect of selective fading

A. A fading effect caused by large changes in the height of the ionosphere, as
experienced at the receiving station
B. A fading effect caused by small changes is beam heading at the receiving
and transmitting stations
C. A fading effect caused by phase differences between radio wave
components of the same transmission, as experienced at the receiving
station
D. A fading effect caused by phase differences between radio wave
components of the same transmission, as experienced at the transmitting
station
55. Which band in the radio spectrum does the radio navigational system Omega
transmit?
A. UHF B. VLF
C. VHF D. HF
56. Term used to describe a process of approaching a desired point by directing the
vehicle towards the point
A. ILS B. ILS reference point
C. Homing D. Heading
57. What is the operating frequency of ILS Localizer?

A. 329 to 335 MHz B. 108 to 112 MHz
C. 70 to 130 kHz D. 960 to 1215 MHz
58. An aircraft deviation measured by an ILS localizer

A. Ground speed B. Altitude
C. Vertical D. Horizontal
59. Refers to the vertical deviation of an airplane upon takeoff from the horizontal
plane of the runway
A. Distance of airplane from the runway
B. A horizontal deviation of an airplane from its optimum path of descent
along the axis of the runway
C. Angle of landing base from horizontal plane it the runway
D. Foremast
60. What navigational system technique uses an antenna directivity to reduce an

undesired multipath signals?
A. Pulse transmission B. Space diversity
C. Frequency diversity D. Loran-C

61. What is being measured in radar theory to complete the determination of a

distance to a target or object, after a high radio frequency signal is transmitted
to a target?
A. Transmission time from source to target
B. Transmission time from target to source
C. Echo time off the object to the source
D. Complete signal transmission from source and back
62. LORAN is a navigational system used primarily for

A. blind landing
B. obtaining your fixed location over large distances
C. automatic collision warning
D. approach control
63. What is the frequency used by Global Positioning System?

A. 70 to 130 kHz B. 960 to 1215 MHz
C. 1227 to 1575 MHz D. 1030 to 1090 MHz
64. Frequencies most affected by knife-edge refraction

A. VHF and UHF B. VLF
C. HF D. 100 kHz to 3 MHz
65. RADAR means

A. Radio Distance and Ranging B. Radio Delay and Ranging
C. Radio Detection and Ranging D. Radio and detection and Rating
66. What do you call a circuit that controls the magnetron output?
A. Converter B. Modulator
C. Inverter D. Impeller
67. How do you account the effect of selective fading on the transmitted signal
terms of its bandwidth?
A. Equally affirmative to both narrow and wide bandwidth
B. More affirmative at wider bandwidth
C. More affirmative at narrow bandwidth
D. Dependent on receiver bandwidth
68. Which of the following systems is not used in radio detection and ranging?
A. Frequency shift B. Pulse radar
C. Amplitude modulation D. Frequency modulation
69. Referred to as the cycle time difference between the master and the slave
signals to reach the receiver in the operation of loran navigational equipment
A. Cycle time B. Station delay
C. Echo delay D. Time delay
70. In radio navigation, one of the following deviations of an airplane is determined

by an ILS localizer
A. Curvature of path B. Horizontal
C. Vertical D. Slope
Section Radar Read it

till it
DEFINITION. Radio - Relating to electromagnetic waves or electromagnetic

phenomena with frequencies between 10 kHz and 300,000 MHz
DEFINITION. Detection - The act of noticing or discovering the existence of

something, or the state of having been detected.
DEFINITION. Ranging - The distance between something, especially a gun

or a tracking device and the object it is aimed at
DEFINITION. RADAR - The use of reflected radio waves to determine the

presence, location, and speed of distant objects. The system has military, law-
enforcement, and navigational applications. Examples of its uses include the
locating of enemy aircraft or ships and the monitoring of vehicle speeds.
A. .BASIC RADAR CONCEPTS.
The electronics principle on which radar operates is very similar to the

principle of sound-wave reflection. The radio-frequency (rf) energy is
transmitted to and reflects from the reflecting object. A small portion of
the energy is reflected and returns to the radar set. This returned energy
is called an ECHO, just as it is in sound terminology. Radar sets use the
echo to determine the direction and distance of the reflecting object.

6-30 RADAR FUNDAMENTALS
B. .RADAR REFERENCE COORDINATES.
The locations of an object with respect to the antenna are described by

three coordinates:
1. Range
The line from the radar set directly to the object is referred to as the
line of sight (LOS). The length of this line is called range.
2. Elevation Angle
The angle between the horizontal plane and the LOS is the elevation
angle.
3. True bearing or Azimuth angle

The angle measured clockwise from true north in the horizontal plane
is called the azimuth angle.
C. .RADAR RANGE EQUATION .
1. RADAR Range
In terms of received echo
To obtain RANGE General Solution
ct
In any units R=
2
t (s)
In nautical miles R (nmi) =
12.36
In yards R = 164 t
where:
t = time elapsed
c = speed of light
Sample Problem:
Calculate the range of a steady target that produced an echo and is received
by the radar equipment once every 385s.
Solution:
ct 162,000(385 x 10 6 )
R = = = 31.185 mi
2 2
Alternate solution
385
R(nmi) = = 31.15 nmi
12.36
Electromagnetic energy travels through air at approximately the speed of

light, which is 186,000 statute miles per second.
The Navy uses nautical miles to calculate distances; 186,000 statute miles is
approximately 162,000 nautical miles.
While the distance of the statute mile is approximately 5,280 feet, the
distance for a nautical mile is approximately 6,080 feet.
2. Minimum Range
cPW
In any units R min =
2
PW(s)
In nautical miles R min =
12.36
In yards R min = 164 x ( PW + R T )
PW = pulse width
R T = Recovery Time

Sample Problem:
Calculate the minimum range in yards for a radar system that transmit
pulses for 38 s and a recovery time of 0.1 s.
Solution:
c(PW + tr ) 186,000 (38 s + 0.1 s)
Rmin = =
2 2
smi 5280 ft yard
= 3.54 x x 6,230.4 yards
s smi 3 ft
Alternate Solution
R min = 164(38 + 0.1) = 6,248.4 yards
3. Maximum Unambiguous Range
c x PRT
In any units R max =
2
PRT(s)
In nautical miles R max =
12.36
In yards R max = 164 x PRT

where:
PRT = Pulse Repetition Time or Period
1
PRT =
PRF
Sample Problem:
Calculate the maximum unambiguous range for radar facilities with a PRF of
1000 pulses per second.
Solution:
c x PRT 1 1
Rmax = PRT = = = 1x10 3 s
2 PRF 1000
=
162,000
2
(
x 1x10 3 s )
= 81 nmi
In terms of RADAR parameter
Pt 2 Gt2 (RCS)
R max = 4
(4 )3 Pr(min)
Rmax = maximum RADAR range

Pt = peak pulse power, W
Gt = gain of RADAR antenna
RCS = RADAR cross section, m2
Pr(min) = min receive power
Sample Problem:
A radar facility operates at 10 GHz with a peak pulse power of 450 kW, and
40dBi antenna gain. If the target RCS is 20 m2 and the minimum receivable
power is 1 pW, determine the maximum range.
Solution:
Pt 2Gt2 (RCS) (450 x 103 )(0.03)2(104 )2(20)
R max = 4 = 4 = 142.14 km
3
(4) Pr(min) (4)3(1 x 1012 )

RADAR Cross Section The RADAR cross section of a target is the

(fictional) area intercepting that amount of power which, when scattered
equally in all directions, produces an echo at the RADAR equal to that from
the target.
Typical Target Dimensions & RCS
4 A 2 D2 wh2
2 4
Considering the effect of noise
P D 4 (RCS)
R max(km) = 48 4 2t
BW(F 1)
R max(km) = maximum RADAR range, km

D = antenna diameter, m
BW = noise bandwidth, Hz
F = noise factor
Sample Problem:
Calculate the peak transmitted pulse power of a low power, short-range
radar with an overall NF of 5 dB, 500 kHz IF bandwidth, 10 GHz operating
frequency, 1.2 m antenna diameter if the target is a sphere with a radius of
2.5 m located 12 km away.
Solution:

P D 4 (RCS )
R max( km ) = 48 4 2t
BW (F 1)

4 4
R max( km ) PtD 4 (RCS ) 12 1

= 2
= =
48 BW (F 1) 48 256
2BW (F 1) (0 .03 )2 (500 x 10 3 )(3 .16 1)
pt = 4
= = 0 .373 W
256 D (RCS ) 2
4 (2 .5)
256 (1 .2)
4

RADAR Beacon Range Equation

The presence of a beacon on a target increases enormously the
distance over which a target may be tracked.
RANGE General Solution
A oTPtT A oB
Interrogation link R max(int) =
2N(FB 1)
A oBPtB A oT
Reply link R max(rep) =
2N(FT 1)

All symbols have their previous defined meanings, except that the subscript T is now
used for quantities pertaining to the Transmitter of the main radar, and B is used for
the beacon functions

Sample Problem:
To communicate from earth to Voyager 2, ground station used 100-kW
transmitters, 70-m antenna operating at 8 GHz frequency, 1.5 noise factor
and 5-kHz bandwidth. The dish antenna on Voyager 2 has a 3.66-m
diameter, 13 dB noise figure, and the actual transmitted power is just 22 W.
Determine the interrogation link range of the Earth tracking stations. Also
compute for the reply link range of Voyager 2 beacon and maximum active
tracking range of the system.
Solution:
Capture area for the earth tracking station;
0.65DT 2 0.65(70)2
A oT = kA T = = = 2,501 .5 m2
4 4
Capture area for the Voyager 2 beacon;
0.65DB2 0.65(3.66)2
A oB = kAB = = = 6.84 m2
4 4
Noise Power;
{ }
N = kTB = (1.38 x 10-23 )(290)(5 x 103 ) = 20.01 x 10 18 W
Noise Fact or of the Voyager 2 beacon;
FB = 101.3 = 20
Interrogat or link tracking range;
A oTPtT A oB (2,501 .5)(100 x 103 )(6.84)

R max(int) = =
2
N(FB 1) (0.037)2 (20.01 x 10 18 )(20 1)
= 5.67 x 1013 m = 56.7 billion km
Re ply link range
A oBPtB A oT (6.84)(22)(2,501 .5)
R max(rep) = =
2N(FT 1) (0.037)2 (20.01 x 10 18 )(1.5 1)
= 5.24 x 1012 m = 5.24 billion km
Since the Voyager 2 reply link (5.24 billion km) is lesser than the earth station tracking
range (56.7 billion km), the MAXIMUM ACTIVE TRACKING RANGE IS 5.24 billion km.
4. Duty Cycle (DC)

The duty cycle is a ratio of the time on to the time off of the
transmitter
In terms of General Solution
Pulse Width & Pulse

DC = PW x PRF
Repetition Frequency
Pulse Width & Pulse PW

DC =
Repetition Time PRT
Pave
Average & Peak Power DC =
Ppk
where:
Ppk = Peak Power in, W
PW = Pulse Width
PRF = Pulse Repetition Frequency or Rate(PRR),Hz
Sample Problem:
Calculate the duty cycle and pulse width of a pulse magnetron with an
average power of 1.2 kW and a peak power of 18.5 kW if one pulse is
generated every 10 ms.
Solution:
1 .2
DC = x 100% = 6.5%
18.5
PW
DC = PW = DC x PRT = 0.065 x (10 ms) = 0.65 ms
PRT

5. RADAR Receive Power
Pt G t 2 2
Pr = x RCS
(4 )3 R 4
Sample Problem:
A radar transmitter has a power of 20 kW and operates at a frequency of 10
GHz. Its signal reflects from a rectangular target 25 km away with a
dimension of 3.5x3.5-m. The gain of the antenna is 30 dBi. Calculate the
received signal power.
Solution:
Pt 2Gt2 (20 x 103 )(0.03)2(1000)2 4(3.5 x 3.5)2
Pr = x RCS = x = 48.65 nW
(4)3R 4 (4)3(25,000)4 0.032
D. .RADAR ANTENNA HORIZON.
where:
d (nm i) = 1.25 h t d = RADAR antenna horizon, nmi
h T = Antenna height, ft
Sample Problem:
What is the service range of a radar antenna mounted 85 ft above the
platform of a battleship if the platform is 25 ft above sea level.
Solution:
d(nmi) = 1.25 ht = 1.25 (85 + 25) = 13.1 nmi
E. .RADAR HITS PER SCAN.
Hits Pulses per revolution

=
Scan 360
Sample Problem:
Calculate the number of pulses for each degree of azimuth for a radar
antenna that rotates at 20 rpm with a PRF of 200 pulses/s.
Solution:
Hits Pulses per revolution 60s
= Re volution = = 3s
Scan 360 20 rpm
No. of pulses 200 pulses 600 pulses
= x3s =
revolution s revolution
Hits 600
= = 1.67 pulses / deg
Scan 360

F. .RADAR TARGET RESOLUTION.
The target resolution of radar is its ability to distinguish between targets

that are very close together in either range or bearing.
1. Range Resolution
Range resolution is the ability of a radar system to distinguish
between two or more targets on the same bearing but at different
ranges.
2. Bearing Resolution
Bearing, or azimuth, resolution is the ability of a radar system to
separate objects at the same range but at different bearings.
G. .EFFECTS OF ATMOSPHERIC CONDITIONS TO RADAR RANGE.
1. Atmospheric Refraction
The path followed by electromagnetic energy in the atmosphere,
whether direct or reflected, usually is slightly curved; and the speed is
affected by temperature, atmospheric pressure, and the amount of
water vapor present in the atmosphere, which all affect the refractive
index.
2. Ducting
The temperature and moisture content of the atmosphere normally
decrease uniformly with an increase in altitude. However, under
certain conditions the temperature may first increase with height and
then begin to decrease. Such a situation is called a temperature
inversion that produces atmospheric ducts.
H. .RADAR SYSTEM & COMPONENTS.
1. Synchronizer (Timer)
The synchronizer ensures that all circuits connected with the radar
system operate in a definite timed relationship.
2. Transmitter
The transmitter generates powerful pulses of electromagnetic energy
at precise intervals.
3. Duplexer
A duplexer is essentially an electronic switch that permits a radar
system to use a single antenna to both transmit and receive.
4. Antenna System
The antenna system routes the pulse from the transmitter, radiates it
in a directional beam, picks up the returning echo, and passes it to the
receiver with a minimum of loss.
5. Receiver
The receiver accepts the weak echo signals from the antenna system,
amplifies them, detects the pulse envelope, amplifies the pulses, and
then routes them to the indicator.
6. Indicator
The indicator uses the received signals routed from the radar receiver
to produce a visual indication of target information.
I. .RADAR SCANNING MECHANISM.
Scanning is the systematic movement of a radar beam in a definite pattern

while searching for or tracking a target.
1. Mechanical Scanning
The most common type of mechanical scanning is the rotation of the
antenna through 360 degrees to obtain azimuth coverage.
i. Conical Scan
A conical scan can be generated by nutation of the waveguide. In
this process the axis of the waveguide itself is moved through a
small conical pattern.
2. Electronic Scanning
Electronic scanning can accomplish lobe motion more rapidly than, and
without the inherent maintenance disadvantages of, the mechanical
systems.

i. Monopulse (Simultaneous) Lobing

All range, bearing, and elevation-angle information of a target is
obtained from a single pulse
D. .DOPPLER EFFECT.
A perceived change in the frequency of a wave as the distance between

the source and the observer changes.
1. Doppler Frequency of Sound Waves

o o = Velocity of observer in m/s
fo = fs
s s = Velocity of source in m/s
The top sign apply if the source and/or object are moving toward each other
and the bottom sign apply if they move away from each other.
Sample Problem:
An ambulance travels down a highway at a speed of 75.0 mi/h with its siren
emitting a sound with a frequency of 400 Hz. What frequency is heard
(a) by someone standing still when the ambulance approaches?
(b) by a passenger in a car traveling at 55 mi/h in the opposite direction as
it approaches the ambulance?
(c) by a passenger in a car traveling at 55 mi/h in the opposite direction as
it moves away from the ambulance? 75 mi/h = 33.5 m/s, 55 mi/h =
24.6 m/s.
Solution:
(a) 345 m s , s = 33.5 m s, o = 0 (observer is not moving)
+ o 345 + 0
fo = fs = 400 = 443 Hz
s 345 33.5
(b) 345 m s , s = 33.5 m s , o = 24.6 m s

+ o 345 + 24.6
fo = fs = 400 = 475 Hz
s 345 33.5
(c) 345 m s , s = 33.5 m s , o = 24.6 m s

o 345 24.6
fo = fs = 400 = 339 Hz
+ s 345 + 33.5
2. Doppler Frequency of Electromagnetic Waves
c r
fo = fs
c r
c = Speed of light
= 3 x 10 8 m / s
r = Velocity of source relative to observer in m/s
3. Doppler Frequency (RADAR)
fo = observed frequency in Hz
2 r
fo = r = relative velocity in m/s

= RADAR signal wavelength in m
Sample Problem:
Find the Doppler shift caused by a vehicle moving toward a radar at 60 mph,
if the radar operates at 10 GHz.
Solution:
mi 1.609 km 1000 m 1 hr
260 x x
2r h 1 mi 1 km 3600 s
fo = = = 1.78 kHz
0.03
4. RADAR Blind Speed
n = any integer
n PRF n
b = = PRF = pulse repetition rate in Hz
2 2 PRT
PRT = pulse repetition time in s

Sample Problem:
Calculate the 3rd blindspeed for an MTI RADAR that operates at 6 GHz, with
a pulse repetition rate of 1000 Hz.
Solution:
nPRF 3(0.05)1000
b = = = 75 m s 270 kph
2 2
J. .MILITARY CLASSIFICATION OF RADAR SYSTEMS.
Function Installation Vehicle
Search Ground Or Land Based
Track Airborne
Height Finder Shipboard
Radar Equipment Indicator
1ST Symbol Installation
(1.1) Piloted Aircraft A

(1.2) Underwater mobile, submarine B
(1.3) Pilotless carrier D
(1.4) Fixed ground F
(1.5) General ground use G
(1.6) Amphibious K
(1.7) Ground, mobile M
(1.8) Portable P
(1.9) SWater S
(1.10) Ground, transportable T
(1.11) General utility U
(1.12) Ground, vehicular V
(1.13) Water surface and under water combination W
(1.14) Piloted and pilotless airborne vehicle combination Z
2ND Symbol Type of Equipment
(2.1) Invisible light, heat radiation No modulating signal A

(2.2) Carrier C
(2.3) Telegraph or Teletype G
(2.4) Interphone and public address I
(2.5) Electromechanical or Inertial wire covered J
(2.6) Telemetering K
(2.7) Countermeasures L
(2.8) Meteorological M
(2.9) Sound in air N
(2.10) Radar P
(2.11) Sonar and underwater sound Q
(2.12) Radio R
(2.13) Special types, magnetic, etc., or combinations of types S
(2.14) Telephone (wire) T
(2.15) Visual and visible light V
(2.16) Armament (peculiar to armament, not otherwise covered) W
(2.17) Facsimile or television X
(2.18) Data processing Y
3RD Symbol Purpose
(3.1) Bombing B
(3.2) Communications (receiving and transmitting Telegraphy (manual)
C
(3.3) Direction finder reconnaissance and/or surveillance D
(3.4) Ejection and/or release E
(3.5) Fire control, or search- light directing G
(3.6) Recording and/or reproducing (graphic meteorological and
sound) H
(3.7) Computing K
(3.8) Maintenance and/or test assemblies (including tools) M
(3.9) Navigational aids (including altimeters, beacons, compasses,
racons, depth sounding, approach and landing) N
(3.10) Special, or combination of purposes Q
(3.11) Receiving, passive detecting R
(3.12) Detecting and/or range and bearing, search S
(3.13) Transmitting T
(3.14) Automatic flight or remote control W
(3.15) Identification and recognition X
(3.16) Surveillance (search detect, and multiple target tracking) and
control (both fire control and air control) Y
(3.17) Facsimile or television Z

Sample Problem:
AN/FPS-35 is categories as what type of radar?
A. Airborne Countermeasure Radar
B. Ship Bombing Radar
C. Fixed Search Radar
D. Ship Navigation Radar
Solution:
K. .COMMON RADAR TYPES.
1. Search RADAR
SEARCH RADAR is designed to continuously scan a volume of space to
provide initial detection of all targets. Search radar is almost always
used to detect and determine the position of new targets for later use
by TRACK RADAR.
a. Surface-Search Radar
A surface-search radar system has two primary functions:
The detection and determination of accurate ranges and
bearings of surface objects and low-flying aircraft and
The maintenance of a 360- degree search pattern for all
objects within line-of-sight distance from the radar antenna.
Shipboard surface-search radar has the following design

specifications
1. Transmitter frequency 5,450-5,825 MHz
2. Pulse width .25 or 1.3 microseconds
3. Pulse-repetition rate between 625 and 650 pulses per second
4. Peak power between 190 and 285 kW
5. Vertical beam width between 12 and 16 degrees
6. Horizontal beam width 1.5 degrees
b. Air-Search Radar
Air-search radar systems initially detect and determine the
position, course, and speed of air targets in a relatively large area.
The maximum range of air-search radar can exceed 300 miles,
and the bearing coverage is a complete 360-degree circle
c. Height-Finding Search Radar

The primary function of a height-finding radar (sometimes
referred to as a three-coordinate or 3D radar) is that of computing
accurate ranges, bearings, and altitudes of aircraft targets
detected by air- search radars.
2. Track RADAR
Track radar provides continuous range, bearing, and elevation data on
one or more targets.
a. Carrier-Controlled Approach (CCA) and

Ground-Controlled Approach (GCA)
Both systems guide aircraft to safe landing under conditions
approaching zero visibility. By means of radar, aircraft are
detected and observed during the final approach and landing
sequence.
b. Airborne RADAR
Airborne radar is designed especially to meet the strict space and
weight limitations that are necessary for all airborne equipment.
Even so, airborne radar sets develop the same peak power as
shipboard and shore-based sets.
L. .COMMON RADAR DISPLAY.
1. A scope
The A-scope display presents only the range to the target and the
relative strength of the echo. Such a display is normally used in
weapons control radar systems. The bearing and elevation angles are
presented as dial or digital readouts that correspond to the actual
physical position of the antenna.
2. Range-Height Indicator (RHI)

The range-height indicator (RHI) scope is used with height-finding
search radars to obtain altitude information. The RHI is a two-
dimensional presentation indicating target range and altitude.
3. Plan Position Indicator (PPI)

The PPI scope is by far the most used radar display. The PPI uses a
radial sweep pivoting about the center of the presentation. This results
in a map-like picture of the area covered by the radar beam.

I H
1. Calculate the PW, and duty cycle of a radar with a peak power of 20 kW, PRR of
900 Hz, and the average power is 18 W.
A. 10 s, 0.9% B. 100 s, 9%
C. 0.1 s, 0.09% D. 1 s, 0.09%
2. What is the received power for a radar with a 1-kW transmit power, 80 dBi of
antenna gain, for the 1-m rectangular plate at 1 GHz at a range of 1,000 km?
A. 6350 nW B. 0.635 nW
C. 63.5 nW D. 635 nW
3. Calculate the peak power of certain radar with an average power of 20 kW,
pulse width of 20 s and a PRF of 103 pulses/s
A. 1 mW B. 1 MW
C. 1 GW D. 1 kW
4. If a radar system has a pulse width of 5 microseconds, the range resolution is

A. 120 yards B. 620 yards
C. 820 yards D. 420 yards
5. With a CW transmit frequency of 5 GHz, calculate the Doppler frequency seen

by a stationary radar when the target radial velocity is 100 kph.
A. 729 Hz B. 297 Hz
C. 279 Hz D. 927 Hz
6. Determine the maximum allowable pulse repetition time for unambiguous

reception for a radar to have a maximum range of 60 km
A. 100 s B. 800 s
C. 400 s D. 600 s
7. A deep space RADAR facility is operating at 2.5 GHz with a peak pulse power of
25 MW, 64 m antenna diameter, 1.1 noise factor. If the receiver BW is only 5
kHz and the target cross section is 1m2, calculate the maximum range.
A. 700,000 meters B. 132,700 meters
C. 132,700,000 meters D. 132,000 meters
8. A small airplane can fool a radar system into thinking it is much bigger by
adding a radar reflector that increases the RCS. How large a flat plate should a
jet fighter (RCS=6) add to its side so that it looks like a large jet (RCS=40) at
1 GHz?
A. 0.7x0.7 m B. 5.7x5.7 m
C. 4.7x4.7 m D. 2.7x2.7 m
9. An L-band radar operating at 1.25 GHz uses a peak pulse power of 3 MW, and
must have a range of 100 nmi for objects whose RCS is 1 m2. If the minimum
receivable power of the receiver is 200 fW, what is the smallest diameter the
antenna reflector could have, assuming it to be a full paraboloid with k=0.65?
A. 4.92 m B. 3.84 m
C. 2.56 m D. 1.42 m
10. A Doppler radar at 15 GHz has a return signal with a frequency of 50 kHz
higher than the transmitted signal. What is the component of the target
velocity along a line joining the radar and the target assuming that the radar
installation is stationary.
a. 347 m/s B. 839 m/s
c. 125 m/s D. 500 m/s
11. What is the distance in nmi to a target if it takes 123 s for a radar pulse to
travel from the radar antenna to the target, back to the antenna, and be
displayed on the PPI scope?
A. 100 mi B. 0.1 mi
C. 10 mi D. 1000 mi
12. Calculate (a) the maximum unambiguous range, (b) duty cycle, (c) average
power for a radar transmitter with a peak pulse power of 400 kW, PRF of 1500
Hz, and a PW of 0.8 s.
A. 10 km, 0.12%, 48 W B. 100 km, 0.2%, 48 W
C. 10 km, 0.2%, 40 W D. 100 km, 0.12%, 480 W
13. An 8-GHz police radar measures a Doppler frequency of 1788 Hz, from a car
approaching the stationary police station vehicle, in an 80 kph speed limit zone.
By how many kph the car is overspeeding?
A. 160 kph B. 40 kph
C. 80 kph D. 120 kph
14. Calculate the lowest blindspeed of an MTI radar that operates at 10 GHz with a
PRF of 3000 Hz.
A. 162 kph B. 365 kph
C. 812 kph D. 55 kph
15. A radar transmitter has a power of 10 kW and operates at a frequency of 9.5

GHz. Its signal reflects from a target 15 km away with a radar cross section of
10.2 m2. The gain of the antenna is 20 dBi. Calculate the received signal
power.
A. 10.1 fW B. 1.1 fW
C. 1.1 nW D. 10.1 pW
16. A radar transmitter uses a magnetron to generate pulses with a power level of
1 MW. The pulses have a duration of 2s and the pulse repetition period 2 ms.
If the magnetron has an efficiency of 60%, calculate the average power
dissipated in the magnetron
A. 8320 W B. 3590 W
C. 670 W D. 1729 W

17. A radar has a pulse duration of 50 s and a pulse repetition time of 5 ms.
Calculate the maximum and minimum useful range
A. 812 km, 8.12 km B. 750 km, 7.5 km
C. 578 km, 57.8 km D. 136 km, 13.6 km
18. What is the minimum receivable power for a radar with a noise figure of 12 dB
and 2.5 MHz operating bandwidth?
A. 1.59 x 10-13 W B. 1.59 x 10-10 W
C. 1.59 x 10-12 W D. 1.59 x 10-11 W
19. The AN/FPS-16 guided-missile tracking radar operates at 5 GHz, with a 1 MW

peak power output. If the antenna diameter is 3.66 m, and the receiver has a
bandwidth of 1.6 MHz and an 11 dB noise figure, what is its maximum
detection range for a 1-m2 target?
A. 123.4 km B. 456.7 km
C. 345.6 km D. 678.9 km
20. Calculate the duty cycle if the pulse width is 20 s a PRR of 500 pulses per
second.
A. 0.1% B. 10%
C. 0.01% D. 1%
21. 32.8 mi is the maximum unambiguous range for a radar system with a PRT
equal to _____s.
A. 400 B. 800
C. 200 D. 100
22. Calculate the minimum receivable signal in RADAR receiver which has an IF
bandwidth of 1.5 MHz and a 9-dB noise figure.
A. 183.5 fW B. 41.7 fW
C. 0.269 fW D. 238.4 fW
23. What is the Doppler shift for a 500-MHz signal when the target is moving 45
toward the radar at 250 m/s.
A. 849 Hz B. 589 Hz
C. 123 Hz D. 234 Hz
24. What is the Doppler shift when the police radar unit operating at 2 GHz is
aimed at a car traveling at 20 m/s at a curved part of the road where there is a
30 angle of return in the road?
A. 965 Hz B. 96.5 Hz
C. 23.1 Hz D. 231 Hz
Section 24
Laws & Ethics
Section 25
Basic Signals &
System
Miscellaneous
Topics

Section Laws Read it

till it
24 And Ethics Hertz!
DEFINITION. Law: Body of official rules and regulations, generally found in

constitutions, legislation, judicial opinions, and the like, that is used to govern a
society and to control the behavior of its members.
DEFINITION. Professional Electronics Engineer - a person who is qualified

to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed Professional
Electronics Engineer under this Act and to affix to his/her name the letters
"PECE".
DEFINITION. Electronics Engineer - a person who is qualified to hold

himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed Electronics Engineer under
this Act and to affix to his/her name the letters "ECE".
DEFINITION. Electronics Technician - a person who is qualified to hold

himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed Electronics Technician under
this Act and to affix to his/her name the letters "ECT".
DEFINITION. Electronics and Communications Engineer - a person who is

qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly-registered/licensed Electronics
and Communications Engineer under Republic Act No. 5734.
LAW STRUCTURE
I. .LAWS.
A. Telecoms
1. Republic Acts
1.1. Republic Act No. 3846

An act providing for the regulation of radio stations and
radio communications in the Philippine islands, and for other
purposes
Date of Approval: November 11, 1963

The Electronics and Communications Act of the Philippines
Date of Approval: June 21, 1969

7-2 LAWS AND ETHICS

An act providing for the installation, operation, and
maintenance of public telephones in each and every
municipality in the Philippines, appropriating funds therefore
and for other purposes
Date of Approval: July 24, 1989

An act to promote and govern the development of Philippine
telecommunications and the delivery of public
telecommunications services
1.5 Republic Act No. 9292

An act providing for a more responsive and comprehensive
regulation for the registration, licensing and practice of
professional electronics engineers, electronics engineers and
electronics technicians, repealing republic act no. 5734,
otherwise known as the "electronics and communications
engineering act of the Philippines", and for other purposes
Date of Approval: April 17, 2004
II. .EXECUTIVE ORDERS.
A. Telecoms
1. Executive Order No. 59 (E.O. 59)

Prescribing the policy guidelines for compulsory interconnection of
authorized public telecommunications carrier in order to create a
universally accessible and fully integrated nationwide
telecommunications network and thereby encourage greater
private sector in telecommunications
Date of Approval: Feb 24, 1993

Policy to improve the provision of Local Exchange Carrier service

Reorganizing the ministry of transportation and communications
defining its powers and functions and for other purposes
Date of Approval: Jan 30, 1987

Vesting the jurisdiction, control, and regulation over the Philippine
Communications Satellite Corporation with the National
Telecommunications Commission

Providing for the national policy on the operation and use of
international satellite communications in the country
Date of Approval: March 17, 1998

Providing for the creation of a National Council for the promotion
of Electronic commerce in the country

Amending Executive Order No. 190 dated July 1994 approving and
adopting the National Information Technology Plan 2000 and
establishing the National Information Technology Council.
B. Broadcast
B.1. General Broadcast Law

Requiring all radio stations with musical format programs
to broadcast a minimum of four Original Pilipino Musical
compositions in every clock-hour and for other purposes
B.2. Related Cable Laws

Regulating the operation of Cable Antenna Television
(CATV) systems in the Philippines, and for other purposes

Prescribing policy guidelines to govern the operations of
Cable Television in the Philippines
Date of Approval: September 9, 1997
III. .PRESIDENTIAL OR ADMINISTRATIVE ISSUANCES.
A. Presidential Decree No. 36

Creating the mass media council and prescribing rules and regulations
on the opening and operation of mass media
B. Presidential Decree No. 55

Penalizing unauthorized telephone installation

7-4 LAWS AND ETHICS
C. Presidential Decree No. 576-A

Regulating the ownership and operation of radio and television
stations and for other purposes
D. Presidential Decree No. 1986

Creating the Movie and Television Review and Classification Board
Date of Approval: October 5, 1985
E. Presidential Decree No. 1987

An act creating the Video Regulatory Board
IV. .DEPARTMENT ORDERS.
1. Department Order No. 4

Rules and regulations governing radio training schools in the
Philippines
Date of Approval: January 3, 1972

Rules and regulations governing commercial radio operators
Date of Approval: September 22 1948

Rules and regulations governing land mobile radio service and its
operation

General rules and regulations governing the construction, installation,
establishment or operation of radio stations and the possession or
ownership, construction or manufacture, purchase, sale and transfer of
transmitter or transceivers in the Philippines

Rules and regulations governing the low power ship radiotelephone
service in the Philippines

Rules and regulations requiring the service of duly registered
electronics and communications engineer in the planning and
designing, installation or construction governing commercial radio
operators
Date of Approval: December 28, 1972

Rules and regulations governing the amateur radio service in the
Philippines as amended
Date of Approval: February 16, 1971

Rules and regulations governing land radio stations and radio
communications in the Philippines

Rules and regulations governing the citizens radio service
V. .IMPORTANT TERMINOLOGIES.
1. Telecommunications
Any process which enables a telecommunications entity to relay and
receive voice, data, electronic messages, written or printed matter,
fixed or moving pictures, words, music or visible or audible signals or
any control signals of any design and for any purpose by wire, radio or
other electromagnetic, spectral, optical or technological means.
2. Public telecommunications entity

Any person, firm, partnership or corporation, government or private,
engaged in the provision of telecommunications services to the public
for compensation.
3. Broadcasting
An undertaking the object of which is to transmit over-the-air
commercial radio or television messages for reception of a broad
audience in a geographic area.
4. Franchise
A privilege conferred upon a telecommunications entity by Congress,
authorizing that entity to engage in a certain type of
telecommunications service.
5. Local exchange operator

An entity providing transmission and switching of telecommunications
services, primarily but not limited to voice-to-voice service, in a
geographic area anywhere in the Philippines.
6. Inter-exchange carrier
An entity, sometimes referred to as carrier's carrier or national
backbone network operator, authorized to install, own and operate
facilities which connect local exchanges within the Philippines and to
engage in the business of inter-exchange national long distance
services.

7-6 LAWS AND ETHICS
7. International carrier
An entity primarily engaged in the business of providing transmission
and switching of any telecommunications service between the
Philippines and any other point of the world to which it has an existing
correspondent or prospective interconnection agreements.
8. Value-added service provider (VAS)

An entity which relying on the transmission, switching and local
distribution facilities of the local exchange and inter-exchange
operators, and overseas carriers, offers enhanced services beyond
those ordinarily provided for by such carriers.
9. Public toll calling station

A non-exclusive facility at which the public may, by the payment of
appropriate fees, place as well as receive telephone calls and/or
telegrams or other messages.
10. Mobile radio telephone system

A wide area mobile, radio telephone system with its own switch, base
stations and transmission facilities capable of providing high capacity
mobile telecommunications by utilizing radio frequencies.
11. Interconnection
The linkage, by wire, radio, satellite or other means, of two or more
existing telecommunications carriers or operators with one another for
the purpose of allowing or enabling the subscribers of one carrier or
operator to access or reach the subscribers of the other carriers or
operators.
REPUBLIC ACT 9292

H. No. 5224
S. No. 2683
REPUBLIC OF THE PHILIPPINES

CONGRESS OF THE PHILIPPINES
METRO MANILA
TWELFTH CONGRESS
THIRD REGULAR SESSION
Begun and held in Metro Manila, on Monday, the twenty-eight day of July, two
thousand three.
[REPUBLIC ACT NO. 9292]
AN ACT PROVIDING FOR A MORE RESPONSIVE AND COMPREHENSIVE

REGULATION FOR THE REGISTRATION, LICENSING AND PRACTICE OF
PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEERS, ELECTRONICS ENGINEERS AND
ELECTRONICS TECHNICIANS, REPEALING REPUBLIC ACT NO. 5734,
OTHERWISE KNOWN AS THE "ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATIONS
ENGINEERING ACT OF THE PHILIPPINES", AND FOR OTHER PURPOSES.
Be it enacted by the Senate and the House of Representatives of the

Philippines in Congress assembled:
ARTICLE I
GENERAL PROVISIONS
SECTION 1. Title. - This Act shall be known as the "Electronics Engineering

Law of 2004".
SEC. 2. Statement of Policy. - The State recognizes the importance of

electronics engineering in nation-building and development. The State shall
therefore develop and nurture competent, virtuous, productive and well-
rounded Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and
Electronics Technicians whose standards of practice and service shall be
excellent, qualitative, world-class and globally competitive through inviolable,
honest, effective and credible licensure examinations and through regulatory
measures, programs and activities that foster their integrity, continuing
professional education, development and growth.
SEC. 3. Definition and Interpretation of Terms. - As used in this Act, the

following terms shall mean:

7-8 LAWS AND ETHICS
(a) Electronics - the science dealing with the development and

application of devices and systems involving the flow of electrons
or other carriers of electric charge, in a vacuum, in gaseous
media, in plasma, in semiconductors, in solid-state and/or in
similar devices, including, but not limited to, applications involving
optical, electromagnetic and other energy forms when transduced
or converted into electronic signals.
(b) Professional Electronics Engineer - a person who is qualified to

hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed Professional
Electronics Engineer under this Act and to affix to his/her name
the letters "PECE".
(c) Electronics Engineer - a person who is qualified to hold

himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed Electronics
Engineer under this Act and to affix to his/her name the letters
"ECE".
(d) Electronics Technician - a person who is qualified to hold

himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed Electronics
Technician under this Act and to affix to his/her name the letters
"ECT".
(e) Electronics and Communications Engineer - a person who is

qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly-registered/licensed
Electronics and Communications Engineer under Republic Act No.
5734.
(f) Computer any of a variety of electronic devices that is capable

of accepting data, programs and/or instructions, executing the
programs and/or instructions to process the data and presenting
the results.
(g) Information and Communications Technology - the acquisition,

production, transformation, storage and transmission/reception of
data and information by electronic means in forms such as vocal,
pictorial, textual, numeric or the like; also refers to the theoretical
and practical applications and processes utilizing such data and
information.
(h) Communications - the process of sending and/or receiving

information, data, signals and/or messages between two (2) or
more points by radio, cable, optical wave guides or other devices
and wired or wireless medium
(i) Telecommunications - any transmission, emission or reception of

voice, data, electronic messages, text, written or printed matter,
fixed or moving pictures or images, words, music or visible or
audible signals or sounds, or any information, intelligence and/or
control signals of any design/format and for any purpose, by wire,
radio, spectral, visual/optical/light, or other electronic,

electromagnetic and technological means.
(j) Broadcast, Broadcasting - an undertaking the object of which is to

transmit audio, video, text, images or other signals or messages
for reception of a broad audience in a geographical area via wired
or wireless means.
(k) Industrial Plant - includes all manufacturing establishments and

other business endeavors where electronic or electronically-
controlled machinery or equipment are installed and/or are being
used, sold, maintained, assembled, manufactured or operated.
(l) Commercial Establishment - shall include but not be limited to

office buildings, hotels, motels, hospitals, condominiums, stores,
apartments, supermarkets, schools, studios, stadia, parking areas,
memorial chapels/parks, watercraft and aircraft used for business
or profit, and any other building/s or area/s for business purposes,
where electronic or electronically-controlled machinery or
equipment are installed and/or are being used, sold, maintained,
assembled, manufactured or operated.
(m) Consulting Services - as used in this Act, shall include services

requiring adequate technical expertise, experience and
professional capability in undertaking advisory and review, pre-
investment or feasibility studies, design, planning, construction,
supervision, management and related services, and other
technical studies or special studies in the field of electronics
engineering.
(n) Accredited Professional Organization - the integrated and

accredited national organization of Professional Electronics
Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians.
SEC. 4. Categories of Practice. - The following shall be the engineering and

technician categories covered by this Act:
(a) Professional Electronics Engineer (PECE)
(b) Electronics Engineer (ECE)
(c) Electronics Technician (ECT)
SEC. 5. Nature and Scope of Practice of Electronics Engineering and Electronics

Technician Professions.
(a) The scope and nature of practice of the Electronics Engineer shall
embrace and consist of any work or activity relating to the
application of engineering sciences and/or principles to the
investigation, analysis, synthesis, planning, design, specification,

7-10 LAWS AND ETHICS
research and development, provision, procurement, marketing

and sales, manufacture and production, construction and
installation, tests/measurements/control, operation, repair,
servicing, technical support and maintenance of electronic
components, devices, products, apparatus, instruments,
equipment, systems, networks, operations and processes in the
fields of electronics, including communications and/or
telecommunications, information and communication technology
(ICT), computers and their networking and
hardware/firmware/software development and applications,
broadcast/broadcasting, cable and wireless television, consumer
and industrial electronics, electro-optics/photonics/opto-
electronics, electro-magnetics, avionics, aerospace, navigational
and military applications, medical electronics, robotics,
cybernetics, biometrics and all other related and convergent
fields; it also includes the administration, management,
supervision and regulatory aspects of such works and activities;
similarly included are those teaching and training activities which
develop the ability to use electronic engineering fundamentals and
related advanced knowledge in electronics engineering, including
lecturing and teaching of technical and professional subjects
given in the electronics engineering and electronics technician
curriculum and licensure examinations.
(b) The scope and nature of practice of the Professional Electronics

Engineer shall embrace and consist of all of the above plus the
sole authority to provide consulting services as defined in this Act
and to sign and seal electronics plans, drawings, permit
applications, specifications, reports and other technical documents
prepared by himself/herself and/or under his direct supervision.
(c) The scope and nature of practice of the Electronics Technician

profession shall embrace and consist of any non-engineering work
or activity relating to the installation, construction, operation,
control, tests and measurements, diagnosis, repair and
maintenance, manufacture and production, sales and marketing of
any electronic component/s, device/s, products, apparatus,
instruments, equipment, system/s, network/s, operations and
processes located on land, watercraft, aircraft, industrial plants or
commercial establishments, including the teaching and training of
technical and professional subjects given in the electronics
technician curriculum and licensure examinations.
ARTICLE II
PROFESSIONAL REGULATORY BOARD OF
ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
SEC. 6. Composition of the Board. - There is hereby created a Professional

Regulatory Board of Electronics Engineering, hereinafter referred to as the
Board, under the administrative control and supervision of the Professional
Regulation Commission, hereinafter referred to as the Commission, composed
of a chairman and two (2) members who shall be appointed by the President of
the Philippines from the three (3) recommendees per position chosen and
ranked by the Commission, which recommendees shall in turn be chosen from
the five (5) nominees for each position submitted by the accredited
professional organization, in accordance with rules and regulations presently in
existence or that may be promulgated for such purpose.
SEC. 7. Powers and Functions of the Board. - The Board is vested with the
authority to:
(a) Administer/Implement the provisions of this Act;
(b) Administer oaths in connection with the administration of this Act;
(c) Adopt an official seal of the Board;
(d) Issue, suspend or revoke Certificates of Registration and

accordingly the Professional Identification Cards of Professional
Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers or Electronics
Technicians, or otherwise suspend the holder thereof from the
practice of his/her profession, for any justifiable cause and after
due process;
(e) Maintain a roster of Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics

Engineers and Electronics Technicians;
(f) Issue, suspend and/or cancel special permits to foreign

Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers or
Electronics Technicians in accordance with the provisions of this
Act;
(g) Prescribe, amend or revise the requirements for licensing of

Professional Electronics Engineers, and prepare, adopt and issue
the syllabi of the subjects for the licensure examination for
Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians, and prepare the
questions therefore, in strict conformance with the scope of the
syllabi;
(h) Adopt a program for the full computerization of the licensure

examination;

(i) Grant registration without examination, subject to review and

approval by the Commission, in accordance with the provisions of
this Act;
(j) Study, examine and recommend, in coordination with the

Commission on Higher Education (CHED) and the Technical
Education and Skills Development Authority (TESDA), and in
consultation with other concerned government entities and the
accredited professional organization, the essential requirements as
to curricula and facilities of schools, colleges or universities,
seeking permission to open courses or programs or already
offering courses or programs in electronics engineering,
electronics technician and related courses or programs and to
see to it that these requirements, including employment of
qualified faculty members, are properly complied with: Provided,
That within three (3) years after the effectivity of this Act, the
Board shall, in coordination with CHED, TESDA, and in
consultation with other concerned government entities and the
accredited professional organization, review and define/re-define
the curricula for electronics engineering, electronics technician
and/or allied courses or programs for the purpose of re-aligning,
revising and/or consolidating the same and/or otherwise defining
the minimum requirements by means of which graduates of
related or allied courses or programs can qualify to take the
Electronics Engineer and Electronics Technician licensure
examinations;
(k) Inspect educational institutions and based on their findings

thereon, recommend to CHED and/or the TESDA and/or other
government entities concerned with the granting of school permits
or authorization, the opening, improvement/upgrading or closure
of colleges or schools and universities offering electronics
engineering and electronics technician courses or programs;
(l) Adopt and administer a Code of Ethics and a Code of Technical

Standards of Practice for Professional Electronics Engineers,
Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians in the
Philippines;
(m) Promulgate rules and regulations on the scope of practice of

Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and
Electronics Technicians;
(n) Promulgate a program for continuing professional education

and/or development of Professional Electronics Engineers,
Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians;
(o) Prescribe the minimum manning and manpower requirements for

Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and
Electronics Technicians in industrial plants and commercial
establishments for purposes of ensuring compliance with the

provisions of this Act and all other ordinances, laws, rules and
regulations that may be enacted hereinafter;
(p) Formulate, prescribe and adopt such rules and regulations for
electronics installations in industrial plants, commercial
establishments and other buildings or structures covered by the
National Building Code of the Philippines, in coordination with the
Department of Public Works and Highways (DPWH), other
concerned agencies, representatives of industry and the
Accredited Professional Organization;
(q) Study the conditions affecting the Professional Electronics

Engineering, Electronics Engineering and Electronics Technician
professions in the Philippines, and whenever necessary, exercise
the powers conferred by this and other Acts, and adopt such
measures as may be deemed proper for the enhancement and
advancement of the professions and/or the maintenance of high
professional, ethical and technical standards, and for this purpose,
the Board may personally or through subordinate employees of
the Commission or member/s of the Accredited Professional
Organization, duly authorized by the Board and approved by the
Commission, conduct ocular inspection or visit industrial plants
and commercial establishments where Professional Electronics
Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians are
employed for the purpose of determining compliance with the
provisions of law relative thereto, in accordance with established
policies promulgated by the Commission;
(r) Hear and decide violations of this Act, its implementing rules and
regulations, the Code of Ethics and the Code of Technical
Standards of Practice for the profession, and for this purpose,
issue subpoena ad testificandum and/or subpoena duces tecum to
secure attendance of witnesses and the production of documents
in connection with the charges presented to and/or any
investigation pending before the Board;
(s) Delegate the hearing or investigation of administrative cases filed

before it to authorized officers of the Commission, except in cases
where the issue involved strictly concerns the practice of the
Professional Electronics Engineering, Electronics Engineering and
Electronics Technician Professions, in which case the hearing shall
be presided over by at least one (1) member of the Board assisted
by a Legal or Hearing Officer of the Commission;
(t) Promulgate resolutions, orders and/or decisions on such

administrative cases: Provided, That such resolutions, orders
and/or decisions shall be subject to appeal within fifteen (15) days
from receipt thereof with the Commission, which may affirm or
reverse the same, dismiss the case, deny the appeal or remand

the case to the Board for further action or proceeding: Provided,

further, That if after fifteen (15) days from the receipt of such
decision no appeal is taken there from to the Commission, the
same shall become final and immediately enforceable;
(u) Submit an annual action plan and corresponding report at the

beginning and close of each fiscal year on the activities,
proceedings and accomplishments of the Board for the year,
incorporating therein any recommendation to the Commission;
and
(v) Discharge such other powers and functions as the Board and the
Commission may deem necessary for the practice of the
profession and the upgrading, enhancement, development and
growth of the Professional Electronics Engineer, Electronics
Engineer and Electronics Technician professions in the Philippines.
Except those in administrative cases, all resolutions embodying
rules and regulations and other policies and measures issued
and/or promulgated by the Board shall be subject to the review
and approval by the Commission.
SEC. 8. Qualifications of Board Members. - The chairman and members of the

Board must possess the following qualifications at the time of their
appointment:
(a) Be a citizen and a resident of the Philippines for at least five (5)
consecutive years prior to his/her appointment;
(b) Be of good moral character and integrity;
(c) Be a holder of a valid Certificate of Registration and a valid

Professional Identification Card as a Professional Electronics
Engineer, duly qualified to practice as a Professional Electronics
Engineer in the Philippines;
(d) Be a member of good standing of the Accredited Professional

Organization;
(e) Be in active practice of the electronics engineering profession for

at least ten (10) years prior to his appointment, either in self-
practice, or employment in government service and/or in the
private sector;
(f) Must not have any pecuniary interest, directly or indirectly, in any
school, academy, college, university or institution conferring an
academic degree and/or certification/accreditation necessary for
admission to the practice of Electronics Engineering and/or
Electronics Technician or where review classes in preparation for
the licensure examination are being offered or conducted nor shall
he/she be a member of the faculty or of the administration thereof

prior to taking his/her oath of office; and
(g) Must not have been convicted of an offense involving moral

turpitude.
SEC. 9. Term of Office. - The members of the Board shall hold office for a term
of three (3) years from date of appointment or until their successors shall have
been appointed and qualified and may be re-appointed once for another term.
Any vacancy occurring within the term of a member shall be filled for the
unexpired portion of the term only: Provided, That the member appointed to
serve the unexpired term may be re-appointed more than once for as long as
his/her continuous tenure shall not exceed six (6) years. Each member of the
Board shall take the proper oath prior to the assumption of office.
SEC. 10. Compensation and Allowances of the Board. - The Chairman and
members of the Board shall receive compensation and allowances comparable
to that being received by the Chairman and members of existing regulatory
boards under the Commission as provided for in the General Appropriations
Act.
SEC. 11. Removal of Board Members. - The President of the Philippines, upon
recommendation of the Commission, may suspend or remove any member of
the Board for neglect of duty, incompetence, manipulation or rigging of the
licensure examination results, disclosure of secret information or the
examination questions prior to the conduct of the said examination, or
tampering of the grades therein, for unprofessional or unethical conduct, or for
any final judgment or conviction of any criminal offense by the Courts, after
having given the member concerned an opportunity to be heard and/or to
defend himself/herself in a proper administrative investigation.
SEC. 12. Custodian of Board Records, Secretariat and Support Services. -All
records of the Board, including applications for examination, administrative
cases involving Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and
Electronics Technicians shall be kept by the Commission.
The Commission shall designate the Secretary of the Board and shall
provide the secretariat and other support services to implement the provisions
of this Act.

ARTICLE III
EXAMINATION, REGISTRATION AND LICENSURE
SEC. 13. Licensure Examination. - Except as otherwise specifically provided in

this Act, all applicants seeking to be registered and licensed as Electronics
Engineers and Electronics Technicians, shall undergo the required
examinations to be given by the Board in such places and dates as the
Commission may designate in accordance with the provisions of Republic Act
No. 8981.
SEC. 14. Qualifications for Examinations. - In order to be allowed to take the

examination for Electronics Engineer or Electronics Technician, an applicant
must, at the time of the filing of his/her application, establish to the
satisfaction of the Board that:
(a) He/She is a citizen of the Philippines or of a foreign country

qualified to take the examination as provided for in Section 33 of
this Act;
(b) He/She is of good moral character and had not been convicted by
a court of law of a criminal offense involving moral turpitude;
(c) For the Electronics Engineering examinations, he/she is a holder of

a degree of Bachelor of Science in Electronics and
Communications Engineering or Electronics Engineering, or
subject to compliance with minimum requirements to be
prescribed by the Board, such equivalent and/or related
engineering course or program from any school, institute, college,
or university recognized by the Government or the State where it
is established, after completing a resident collegiate course
equivalent to that of a full baccalaureate degree;
(d) For the Electronics Technician examinations:
(1) is a graduate of an Associate, Technician, Trade or Vocational

course in electronics or, subject to the evaluation of the
Board, such equivalent and/or related formal or non-formal
course or program from any school, college, university or
training institution recognized by the Government or the State
where it is established, after completing a resident course or
program of not less than two (2) years, or
(2) has completed at least the minimum third-year equivalent of a

Bachelor of Science program in Electronics and
Communications Engineering or Electronics Engineering
according to CHED guidelines, or, subject to the evaluation of
the Board such equivalent and/or related engineering course
or program from any school, institute, college or university
recognized by the Government or State where it is
established;
SEC. 15. Scope of Examination for Electronics Engineers and Electronics

Technicians. - The examination for Electronics Engineers shall consist of
written tests which shall cover subjects prescribed by the Board but including
at least the following: Mathematics, Applied Sciences, Engineering Economics,
Laws and Ethics, Electronics, Communications, Computers, and Information
and Communications Technology.
The examinations for Electronics Technician shall consist of written

and/or practical tests covering subjects to be prescribed by the Board and shall
cover subjects specific to the practice of Electronics Technicians.
As urgent and important need arises so as to conform to technological

and modern changes, the Board may re-cluster, rearrange, modify, add to or
exclude any subject and prescribe the number of final examination/s per year
after approval by the Commission. The PRC Board resolution thereon shall be
officially published in the Official Gazette or major daily newspapers of general
circulation and also circularized and disseminated to all colleges.
SEC. 16. Ratings. - To pass the licensure examination, a candidate for

Electronics Engineer or Electronics Technician must obtain a passing rating of
seventy percent (70%) in each subject given during the examination:
Provided, however, That a candidate who obtains a passing rating in the
majority of the subjects but obtains a rating in the other subject/s below
seventy percent (70%) but not lower than sixty percent (60%), shall be
allowed to take one removal examination on the subject/s where he/she failed
to obtain the passing rating: Provided, finally, That should the examinee fail to
obtain a passing rating in the removal examination, he/she shall be considered
as having failed the entire licensure examination.
SEC. 17. Release of the Results of Examination. - The Board and the
Commission shall correct and rate the licensure examination papers and shall
release the examination results within fifteen (15) days after the said
examination.
SEC. 18. Qualifications and Schedule of Registration for Professional Electronics

Engineer. - For application for registration as a Professional Electronics
Engineer, the following shall be required:
(a) Valid Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification

Card as Electronics Engineer;
(b) Valid/current membership identification card from the Accredited

Professional Organization;
(c) Certified experience record of active self-practice and/or

employment either in government service or in the private sector,
in the format to be prescribed by the Board, indicating the
inclusive dates, companies worked for, description of specific
responsibilities, relevant accomplishments and name, position of
immediate supervisors for a period of at least seven (7) years

(inclusive and/or aggregate), at least two (2) years of which are in

responsible charge of significant engineering work, from the date
applicant took his/her oath as an Electronics and Communications
Engineer or Electronics Engineer;
(d) Three (3) certifications signed by three (3) Professional Electronics

Engineers attesting that the experience record submitted by the
applicant is factual.
Applications for registration as Professional Electronics Engineer may be

submitted anytime to the Commission. The Board shall then schedule an en
banc oral interview of the applicant for the purpose of verifying, authenticating
and assessing the submittals and establishing the competency of the applicant
according to rules, regulations and competency standards to be formulated by
the Board: Provided, That those who have been registered and licensed as
Electronics and Communications Engineers under Republic Act No. 5734 for at
least seven (7) years upon the effectivity of this Act need only to submit items
(a), (b), and (c) above: Provided, further, That those who have been
registered and licensed as Electronics and Communications Engineers under
Republic Act No. 5734 for less than seven (7) years after the effectivity of this
Act shall submit shall submit their certified experience records and
certifications from three (3) Professional Electronics Engineers as in items (c)
and (d) above, and submit to an en banc oral interview of the Board for
competency assessment, upon passing of which he can be registered as a
Professional Electronics Engineer.
SEC. 19. Issuance of the Certificate of Registration and Professional

Identification Card. - A Certificate of Registration shall be issued to examinees
who pass the Electronics Engineer and Electronics Technician licensure
examination, to Electronics Engineers who are registered as Professional
Electronics Engineers and to Electronics Technicians who are registered without
examination, subject to payment of fees prescribed by the Commission. The
Certificate of Registration shall bear the signature of the Chairperson and
Members of the Board, stamped with the official seal of the Commission and
the Board, indicating that the person named therein is entitled to practice the
profession with all the privileges appurtenant thereto, subject to compliance
with all applicable requirements. The said certificate shall remain in full force
and effect until withdrawn, suspended or revoked in accordance with this Act.
A Professional Identification Card bearing the registration number, date of

registration, duly signed by the Chairperson of the Commission, shall likewise
be issued to every registrant who has paid the prescribed fee. This
identification card will serve as evidence that the holder thereof is duly
registered with the Commission.
SEC. 20. Registration without Examination for Electronics Technicians. - Within

five (5) years after the effectivity of this Act, the Board shall issue Certificates
of Registration and Professional Identification Cards without examination to
applicants for registration as Electronics Technicians who shall present
evidence or other proof satisfactory to the Board that:
(a) He/She is a graduate of at least a two-year Associate, Technician,

Trade or Vocational course in Electronics as certified by the
TESDA, or that he/she has completed at least the minimum third-
year equivalent of a Bachelor's Degree of Science in Electronics
and Communications Engineering or Electronics Engineering
according to CHED guidelines, or, subject to the evaluation of the
Board, an equivalent and/or related formal or non-formal course
or program from any school, institute, college, university or
training institution recognized by the Government or the State
where it is established, and
(b) He/She has rendered at least seven (7) years (inclusive or

aggregate) of active self-practice and/or employment either in the
Government or private sector, indicating therein his/her specific
duties and responsibilities, relevant accomplishments, the
complete names and addresses of clients and companies or
persons worked for, as well as the names and positions of
immediate superiors.
The above submittals shall be accompanied by a certification from at

least three (3) registered Professional Electronics Engineers vouching
for the integrity, technical capability and good moral character of the
applicant.
SEC. 21. Non-issuance of a Certificate of Registration and/or Professional

Identification Card for Certain Grounds. - The Board and/or the Commission
shall not register and shall not issue a Certificate of Registration and
Professional Identification Card to any person convicted by a court of
competent jurisdiction of any crime involving moral turpitude, to any person of
immoral or dishonorable conduct and to any person of unsound mind,
furnishing the party concerned a written statement containing the reasons for
such action, which statement shall be incorporated in the records of the Board.
SEC. 22. Professional Oath. - All successful examinees and all those who have
qualified for registration without examination shall be required to take a
professional oath before any member of the Board or any person authorized by
the Commission before he/she can be registered and issued a Certificate of
Registration and Professional Identification Card, and as a prerequisite to
practicing as a Professional Electronics Engineer, Electronics Engineer or
Electronics Technician.
SEC. 23. Revocation and Suspension of Certificate of Registration, Professional

Identification Card and Cancellation of Special Permits. - The Board shall,
upon proper notice and hearing, revoke or suspend the validity of a Certificate
of Registration and accordingly the Professional Identification Card, or cancel a
Special Permit granted under Section 26 herein, for any of the causes
mentioned in the preceding sections, or for unprofessional or unethical
conduct, malpractice, incompetence or any violation of this Act and its
implementing rules and regulations, the Code of Ethics and the Code of

Technical Standards of Practice, or where fraud, deceit, or false statement was

found to have been employed in obtaining said Certificate of Registration,
Professional Identification Card or Special Permit.
SEC. 24. Reinstatement, Re-issuance or Replacement of Certificate of

Registration and Professional Identification Card. - The Board may, two (2)
years after the revocation of a Certificate of Registration and Professional
Identification Card, upon application and for reasons deemed proper and
sufficient, reinstate the validity of a revoked Certificate of Registration and
Professional Identification Card, subject to compliance with the applicable
requirements of the Commission, and the Board: Provided, That he/she did not
commit any illegal practice of the profession or any violation of this Act, its
rules, codes and policies during the time that his/her Certificate of Registration
and Professional Identification Card was revoked.
A new Certificate of Registration or Professional Identification Card to

replace lost, destroyed, or mutilated certificate or registration card may be
issued, subject to the rules promulgated by the Board and the Commission,
upon payment of the required fees.
SEC. 25. Roster of Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and

Electronics Technicians. - The Board shall prepare and maintain a roster of
the names, residence and/or office address of all registered Professional
Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians, which
shall be updated annually in cooperation with the Accredited Professional
Organization, indicating therein the status of the Certificate of Registration,
Professional Identification Card and membership in the Accredited Professional
Organization of the professional, whether valid, inactive due to death or other
reasons, delinquent, suspended or revoked. The said roster shall be
conspicuously posted within the premises of the Commission and the
information therefrom made available to the public upon inquiry or request.
SEC. 26. Exemptions from Examination and Registration. - No examination and

registration shall be required for foreign Professional Electronics Engineers,
Electronics Engineers or Electronics Technicians who are temporarily employed
by the Philippine Government or by private firms in the Philippines in the
following cases:
(a) Where no qualified equivalent Filipino professional is available for

the specific item of work to be rendered, as attested to by the
Accredited Professional Organization;
(b) Where the conditions of the scope and funding for the work or
project are such that it stipulates the temporary employment of a
foreign professional;
(c) As defined in the General Agreement on Trade in Services, the

ASEAN and APEC Engineer Registry programs and other similar
international treaties, agreements and/or covenants to which the
Philippine Government is a signatory and has ratified: Provided,

however, That:
(1) The said foreign professional is legally qualified to practice

his/her profession in his/her own country in which the
requirements for licensing and registration are not lower than
those specified in this Act;
(2) The work to be performed by said foreign professional shall be

limited only to the particular work or project for which he/she
was specifically contracted;
(3) Prior to commencing the work, the foreign professional shall

secure a Special Permit from the Board, which shall be subject
to the approval of the Commission; Provided, That no working
visa and/or permit shall be issued by concerned government
agencies unless such Special Permit has been granted first;
(4) The same foreign professional shall not engage in private

practice on his/her own account;
(5) For every foreign professional contracted for the work or

project, at least two (2) corresponding Filipino professionals
who are registered under this Act shall be employed as
counterparts by the Philippine Government or the private firm
utilizing the services of such foreign professional for at least
the same duration of time as the foreigner's tenure of work;
and
(6) The Special Permit herein granted shall be valid only for a
period of not more than six (6) months and renewable every
six (6) months thereafter subject to the discretion of the
Board and the approval of the Commission: Provided, That
said permit shall cease to be valid if the foreigner terminates
his/her employment in the work or project for which said
permit was originally granted and thereafter engages in an
occupation that requires another Special Permit or registration
under this Act.

ARTICLE IV
PRACTICE OF PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING, ELECTRONICS
ENGINEERING AND ELECTRONICS TECHNICIAN
SEC. 27. Practice of the Profession. - No person shall offer himself/herself in

the Philippines as, or use the title "Professional Electronics Engineer",
"Electronics Engineer" or "Electronics Technician", as defined in this Act, or use
any word, letter figure, or sign whatsoever, tending to convey the impression
that he/she is a Professional Electronics Engineer, Electronics Engineer or
Electronics Technician, or advertise that he/she is qualified to perform the
work of a Professional Electronics Engineer, Electronics Engineer or Electronics
Technician, without holding a valid Certificate of Registration and a valid
Professional Identification Card in accordance with this Act, except as provided
under Section 26 hereof.
SEC. 28. Prohibitions and Limitations on the Practice of Electronics Engineering

and Electronics Technician Profession. - Unless otherwise prescribed by any
supervening law, the practice of electronics engineering and electronics
technician shall be a professional service, admission to which must be
determined on the basis of the individual's personal qualifications. Hence, no
firm, company, partnership, association or corporation may be registered or
licensed as such for the practice of electronics engineering and electronics
technician. However, persons properly registered and licensed as Professional
Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers or Electronics Technicians may,
among themselves or with any other allied professionals, form a partnership or
association or corporation and collectively render services as such: Provided,
That individual members of such partnerships or associations or corporations
shall be responsible for their own respective acts.
SEC. 29. Seal of the Professional Electronics Engineers. - All licensed

Professional Electronics Engineers shall obtain and use a seal of a design
prescribed by the Board bearing the registrants name, registration number
and title. Plans, drawings, permit applications, specifications, reports and other
technical documents prepared by and/or executed under the supervision of,
and issued by the Professional Electronics Engineer shall be stamped on every
sheet/page with said seal, indicating therein his/her current Professional Tax
Receipt (PTR) number, date/place of payment and current membership
number in the Accredited Professional Organization, when filed with
government authorities or when used professionally.
SEC. 30. Code of Ethics and Code of Technical Standards of Practice. - The
Board shall adopt a Code of Ethics and the Code of Technical Standards of
Practice for Electronics Engineers and Technicians, which shall be promulgated
by the Accredited Professional Organization.
ARTICLE V
SUNDRY PROVISIONS
SEC. 31. Continuing Professional Education (CPE) and/or Development

Programs. All registered Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics
Engineers, and Electronics Technicians, shall comply with pertinent rules and
regulations already prescribed by and/or as may be prescribed and
promulgated by the Commission and/or the Board, the Accredited Professional
Organization and other government agencies, pursuant to this Act and other
relevant laws, international treaties, agreements and/or covenants to which
the Philippines is a signatory and has ratified, with respect to continuing
professional education and/or development and/or other similar/related
programs.
SEC. 32. Integrated and Accredited Professional Organization. - There shall be

one (1) integrated and Accredited Professional Organization of Professional
Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians in the
country, which shall be registered with the Securities and Exchange
Commission as a non-stock, non-profit corporation and recognized by the
Board, the Commission and all government agencies as the one and only
integrated and accredited national organization for the said professionals.
Every Professional Electronics Engineer, Electronics Engineer and Electronics
Technician, upon registration with the Commission as such, shall ipso facto
become a member of this Accredited Professional Organization. Those who
have been previously registered by the Board but are not members of this
Accredited Professional Organization at the time of effectivity of this Act, shall
be allowed to register as members of this organization within three (3) years
after the effectivity of this Act. Membership in this Accredited Professional
Organization shall not be a bar to membership in other associations of the
electronics engineering and electronics technician professions.
The Accredited Professional Organization shall implement the

continuing professional education, accredit other organizations or entities to
provide continuing professional education, and/or development program
promulgated by the Board and/or the Commission, compliance with which shall
be one of the requisites for the maintenance of membership in good standing
of the professional in the Accredited Professional Organization. All members of
good standing of this Accredited Professional Organization shall be issued an
annual membership card indicating the membership number and validity
period of the membership, which shall be affixed to all plans, specifications and
any document signed by the member in the course of practice of his/her
profession. Failure to maintain membership in good standing in the Accredited
Professional Organization shall be a cause for listing of the individual as
delinquent in the roster of professionals.
SEC. 33. Foreign Reciprocity. - No foreigner shall be admitted for registration

as Professional Electronics Engineer, Electronics Engineer or Electronics
Technician with or without examination under this Act unless he/she proves in
the manner as provided by the Board that, by specific provisions of law, the
country, state or province of which he/she is a citizen, subject or national, or in

accordance with international treaties, agreements and/or covenants to which

their country, state or province is a signatory, admits Filipino citizens to
practice as Professional Electronics Engineer, Electronics Engineer or
Electronics Technician after an examination or registration process on terms of
strict and absolute equality with the citizens, subjects or nationals of said
country, including the unconditional recognition of professional licenses issued
by the Board and/or the Commission and prerequisite degrees/diplomas issued
by institutions of learning duly recognized by the government of the
Philippines.
Sec. 34. Positions in Government Requiring the Services of Registered and

Licensed Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and
Electronics Technicians. - Within three (3) years from the effectivity of this Act,
all existing and proposed positions in the local and national government,
whether career, permanent, temporary or contractual and primarily requiring
the services of Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers or
Electronics Technicians shall accordingly be filled only by registered and
licensed Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers or Electronics
Technicians.
ARTICLE VI
PENAL PROVISION AND ASSISTANCE OF
LAW ENFORCEMENT AGENCIES
SEC. 35. Penal Provision. - The following shall be punished by a fine of not less
than One hundred thousand pesos (P100,000.00) nor more than One million
pesos (P1,000,000.00), or by imprisonment of not less than six (6) months nor
more than six (6) years, or both, in the discretion of the court:
(a) Any person who shall give any false or fraudulent statement to the
Board to obtain a Certificate of Registration and/or Professional
Identification Card as Professional Electronics Engineer, Electronics
Engineer or Electronics Technician;
(b) Any person who shall present or use as his/her own a Certificate
of Registration, Professional Identification Card, membership
identification card in the Accredited Professional Organization
and/or seal issued to another and any person who allows the use
of his/her Certificate of Registration, Professional Identification
Card, membership card in the Accredited Professional Organization
and/or seal;
(c) Any person who shall present or use a revoked or suspended

Certificate of Registration as Professional Electronics Engineer,
Electronics Engineer or Electronics Technician;
(d) Any person who shall assume, use, or advertise as Professional

Electronics Engineer, Electronics Engineer or Electronics
Technician, or append to his/her name, any letter/s or words
tending to convey the impression that he/she is a registered

Professional Electronics Engineer, Electronics Engineer or
Electronics Technician, when in fact he/she is not duly registered
with the Board as such;
(e) Any Professional Electronics Engineer, or any person on his/her

behalf, who shall stamp or seal any document with his/her seal as
such after his/her Certificate of Registration, Professional
Identification Card and membership card in the Accredited
Professional Organization has been revoked or suspended or after
he/she has been suspended from practice or removed from the
roster of Professional Electronics Engineer, Electronics Engineers
or Electronics Technicians;
(f) Any Professional Electronics Engineer who shall sign his/her name,
affix his/her seal, or use any other method of signature on plans,
technical descriptions or other documents prepared by or under
the supervision of another Professional Electronics Engineer,
unless the same is prepared in such manner as to clearly indicate
the part of such work actually performed by the former;
(g) Any person, except the Professional Electronics Engineer or

Electronics Engineer in-charge, who shall sign for any electronics
engineering work, or any function of electronics engineering
practice, not actually performed by him/her;
(h) Any person holding a Certificate of Registration and Professional

Identification Card as Professional Electronics Engineer, Electronics
Engineer or Electronics Technician who shall be involved in illegal
wire-tapping, cloning, hacking, cracking, piracy and/or other
forms of unauthorized and malicious electronic eavesdropping
and/or the use of any electronic devices in violation of the privacy
of another or in disregard of the privilege of private
communications and/or safety to life, physical and/or intellectual
property of others, or who shall maintain an unlicensed and/or
unregistered communications system or device; and
(i) Any person who shall violate any provision of this Act or any rules,
regulations, the Code of Ethics and the Code of Technical
Standards of Practice promulgated under this Act.
SEC. 36. Assistance of Law Enforcement and Other Government Agencies.

Any law enforcement agency shall, upon call or request of the Board and/or
the Commission, render assistance in enforcing this Act including the Code of
Ethics, Code of Technical Standards of Practice and the implementing rules and
regulations and measures promulgated hereunder, by prosecuting violators
thereof in accordance with law and the Rules of Court.
Any department, instrumentality, office, bureau, institution or agency

of the government including local governments, upon call or request from the

Board and/or the Commission, shall render such assistance as it may require,
cooperate and coordinate with it in carrying out, enforcing or implementing
this Act, the codes, policies, measures, programs or activities of the Board
and/or the Commission that it may undertake pursuant to the provisions of
this Act.
ARTICLE VII
TRANSITORY PROVISIONS
SEC. 37. Transitory Provision - Upon effectivity of this Act, the incumbent
Board of Electronics and Communications Engineering shall complete all
pending/unfinished works within a six (6)-month period, after which it shall
cease to exist. The President of the Philippines shall before then appoint the
Chairman and members of the first Board of Electronics Engineering in
accordance with Sections 6 and 8 herein, who shall formulate and thereafter
promulgate the rules and regulations for the implementation of this Act.
SEC. 38. Vested Rights: Electronics and Communications Engineers when this
Law is Passed. - Electronics and Communications Engineers holding a valid
Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Card at the time of
effectivity of this Act shall be automatically registered and recognized as
Electronics Engineers and shall be issued a new Certificate of Registration and
Professional Identification Card as Electronics Engineers with the same license
number as their original Electronics and Communications Engineer Certificate
of Registration, subject to the payment of prescribed fees and other
requirements of the Board and/or Commission.
ARTICLE VIII
FINAL PROVISION
SEC. 39. Implementing Rules and Regulations. - Subject to the approval of the
Commission, the Board, in coordination with the accredited professional
organization, shall adopt and promulgate such rules, regulations, resolutions,
the Code of Ethics and the Code of Technical Standards of Practice for
Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics
Technicians to carry out the provisions of this Act, which shall be published in
the Official Gazette or a newspaper of general circulation and shall be effective
fifteen (15) days after publication therein.
SEC. 40. Appropriations. - The Chairperson of the Professional Regulation

Commission shall include in the Commission's program the implementation of
this Act, the funding of which shall be included in the annual General
Appropriations Act.
SEC. 41. Separability Clause. - If any provisions of this Act or any portion
hereof is declared unconstitutional by any competent court, the other
provisions hereof shall not be affected thereby.
SEC. 42. Repealing Clause. - Republic Act No. 5734 is hereby repealed. All
other laws, executive orders, rules and regulations or parts thereof in conflict
with the provisions of this Act are hereby repealed or amended accordingly.
SEC. 43. Effectivity. - This Act shall take effect fifteen (15) days following its
full publication in the Official Gazette or any newspaper of general circulation.
Approved.
FRANKLIN M. DRILLON JOSE DE VENECIA, JR.

President of the Senate Speaker of the House of Representatives
This act which is a consolidation of House Bill No. 5224 and Senate Bill
No. 2683 was finally passed by the House of Representatives and the Senate
on February 2, 2004.
OSCAR G. YABES ROBERTO P. NAZARENO

Secretary of the Senate Secretary General House of Representatives
Approved: April 17, 2004
GLORIA MACAPAGAL-ARROYO
President of the Philippines
Pledge of an Electronics & Communications Engineer
I am an Electronics and Communications Engineer. In my profession,

I take deep pride, but without vainglory; to it I owe solemn obligations that I
am eager to fulfill.
As an Electronics and Communications Engineer, I will participate in

none but honest and legal enterprises. To him who has engaged my services,
as employer or client, I will give the utmost of performance and fidelity.
When needed, my skill and knowledge shall be given without

reservation for the public good. From my special capacity springs the
obligation to use it well in the service of humanity; and I accept the challenge
that implies.
Zealous of the high repute of my calling, I will strive to protect the

interests and the good name of any engineer that I know to be deserving; but
will not shrink, should duty dictate, from disclosing the truth regarding anyone
who, by unscrupulous act, has shown himself unworthy of the profession.

As others before me have vitalized and turned to practical account the

principles of science and revelations of technology and have rendered usable to
mankind natures vast resources of matter and energy so do I dictate myself to
the analysis, synthesis and dissemination of engineering knowledge and
practice, and especially to the instruction of younger members of any
profession in all arts and traditions.
To my colleagues I pledge in the same full measure I ask of them,

integrity and fair dealing, tolerance and respect, and devotion to the standards
and dignity of our profession, with the consciousness always, that our special
expertise carries with it the obligation to serve humanity with complete
dedication.
Engineering Code of Ethics
A. Fundamental Principles
Engineers uphold and advance the integrity, honor, and dignity of the
engineering profession by:
Using their knowledge and skill for the enhancement of human welfare
Being honest and impartial, and servicing with fidelity to the public,
their employers, and clients
Striving to increase the competence and prestige of the engineering
profession
Supporting the professional and technical societies of their disciplines
B. Fundamental Canons
1. The engineer shall hold paramount safeguarding life, health and
property and promoting the public welfare in the performance of their
professional duties.
The engineer shall recognize that the lives, safety, health, welfare
of the general public are dependent upon engineering judgments,
decisions and practices incorporated into structures, machines,
products, processes and devices.
The engineer shall approve and seal only those design documents
which in his considered opinion do not endanger the life, health,
property and the public welfare in conformity with accepted
engineering standards.
The engineer shall not permit the use of his own, firms or
associates name in business ventures with any person or firm
which upon investigation he believes is engaging in fraudulent or
dishonest business or professional practices.
The engineer having knowledge of any alleged violation of the

Code of Ethics shall be forthright and can did in cooperating with
the Council in furnishing such information or assistance as may be

required.
2. The engineer shall perform services only in areas of his competence.
The engineer shall undertake to perform engineering only when

qualified by education or experience in the areas of professional
engineering involved.
The engineer may accept an assignment requiring education or

experience outside his areas will be performed by a Professional
Engineer or otherwise qualified associates, consultants, or
employees. He may then sign and seal the documents for the
total project. The engineer shall not affix his seal to any such
document not prepared under his supervisory control and review.
3. The engineer shall issue professional statements only in an objective

and truthful manner.
The engineer shall be completely objective and truthful in all

professional reports, statements, or testimony, and shall include
all relevant and pertinent information.
The engineer shall publicly express a professional opinion on

technical subjects only when it is founded on technical subjects
only when it is founded on adequate knowledge of the facts and
competence in the subject matter.
The engineer when acting as a representative of an individual or

organization shall issue no statements, criticisms, or arguments
on engineering matters unless he has prefaced those comments
by explicitly identifying on whose behalf he is speaking. When the
engineer is acting as a consultant his expression or professional
opinion shall be prefaced by identifying his status as a consultant,
without necessarily naming the client. The engineer shall reveal
any personal interest he may have in the matter.
4. The engineer shall act in the professional matters for each employer or
client as faithful agent or trustee, avoiding conflicts or interest.
The engineer shall disclose all known or potential conflicts of

interest to his employer and/or client by promptly informing them
of any business association, interest, or other circumstances which
could influence his judgment or the quality of services.
The engineer shall not accept compensation, financial or

otherwise, from more than one party for services on the same
project, unless the circumstances are fully disclosed and agreed to
by all interested parties.

The engineer shall not solicit or accept financial or other valuable

consideration, directly or indirectly, from suppliers, contractors,
their agents, or other parties in connection with his work for
employees or clients.
The engineer in public service as a member, advisor or employee

of governmental body shall not participate in decisions on work
which involves professional services solicited or provided by him
or his organization.
The engineer shall not solicit or accept a professional contract

from a governmental body on which a principal or officer of his
organization serves as a member, except upon public disclosure of
all pertinent facts and circumstances and consent of the
appropriate public authority.
The engineer shall not reveal proprietary information obtained in a

professional capacity without the prior consent of the client or
employer, except as authorized or required by law.
5. The engineer shall avoid improper solicitation of professional

employment.
The engineer shall not offer, give, solicit, or receive, either directly
or indirectly, any commission, gift or other valuable consideration
in order to secure work.
The engineer shall not falsify or permit misrepresentation of his

own, or associates academic or professional qualification. He
shall not misrepresent his degree of responsibility in prior
assignments. Brochures or other presentations incident to the
solicitation of employment shall not misrepresent pertinent facts
concerning employers, employees, associates, joint ventures, or
past accomplishments.
The engineer shall not submit any proposal for purpose of

obtaining professional work in which he falsifies or misrepresents
his capability of carrying out that proposal.
Electronics and Communications Engineering Code

of Ethics and Professional Conduct
A. Foreword
Honestly, Justice, and Courtesy form a moral philosophy which, associated
with mutual interest among men, constitutes the foundation of ethics. The
engineer should recognize such a standard, not in passive observance, but
as dynamic principles guiding his conduct and way of life. It is duty to
practice his profession according to this Code of Ethics and Conduct.
The keystone of professional conduct is integrity. Hence, it behooves the

engineer to discharge his duties with fidelity to the public, his employers
and clients, and with fairness and impartiality to all. It is his duty to
interest himself in public welfare, and to be ready to apply his special
knowledge for the benefit of mankind. He should uphold the honor and
dignity of his profession and avoid association with any enterprise of
questionable character. In his dealing with fellow engineers he should be
fair and tolerant.
B. Relations with the State (Section 1)
1. Each and every engineer shall recognize and respect the supreme
authority of the state as expressed through its laws and implemented
by its agencies.
2. He shall recognize that the well-being of the public and the interests of
the state are above the well being and interest of any individual.
3. In the interest of justice, he shall aid the state, if and when the
technology is needed for the prevention and/or prosecution of unjust,
criminal, or unlawful acts.
4. In the interest of good government, he shall in every way possible
extend cooperation to the state in the accomplishment of its goals and
objectives.
5. In the interest of social efficiency, he shall extend assistance,
guidance, and training to all subordinates under his jurisdiction in
order to increase their skill and ability, knowledge, and experience for
the purpose of eventually increasing their responsibilities.
6. In the interest of the national economy and well-being, he shall always
strive in the execution of his work for optimum efficiency, economy,
and safety.
7. In the interest of national security, the state shall be given primary
consideration in all his inventions and/or devices in electronics and
communications useful for national security and defense.
8. In the event of any national emergency, he shall offer his technology,
skill, ability, and experience to the services of the state, even if it will
involve personal sacrifices.

C. Relations with the Public (Section 2)
1. He shall interest himself in public welfare and be ready to apply his

special knowledge for the benefit of mankind.
2. He shall guard against conditions that are dangerous or threatening to
life, limb, or property on work for which he is responsible, or if he is
not responsible, he shall promptly call such conditions to the attention
of those responsible so that the conditions can immediately and
effectively be corrected.
3. He shall have due regard for the safety of life and health of the public
who may be affected by the work for which he is responsible.
4. He shall endeavor to extend public knowledge of electronics and
communications engineering and he shall strive to win or maintain the
public confidence by discouraging the spread of untrue, unfair, and
exaggerated statements regarding this engineering.
5. As a witness before a court, commission, and/or tribunal, he shall
express an opinion only when it is founded on adequate knowledge
and honest conviction.
6. He shall not issue on matters connected with public policy,
statements, criticisms, or arguments which are inspired of paid for by
private interests, unless he identifies on whose behalf he is making the
statements.
7. He shall refrain from expressing any public opinion on an engineering
subject unless he is fully familiar and knowledgeable with all the facts
relating to the subject.
8. His integrity shall be unquestionable and he shall discharge his duties
and responsibilities with fidelity to the public, his employers and
clients, and with fairness and impartiality to all.
D. Relations with Clients, Employer, and Labor (Section 3)
1. He shall act in professional matters as a faithful agent or trustee, and

treat as confidential all matters and information concerning the
business affairs, technical processes, etc. of his clients and/or
employers.
2. He shall inform his client or employer of any financial interest on
inventions, devices, equipment, or any other thing, before undertaking
any engagement in which he may be called upon to decide on the use
thereof.
3. He shall not accept any other compensation, financial or otherwise,
except from one interested party for a particular service or other
services related therewith without the consent of all parties concerned.
4. He shall exercise fairness and justice when dealing with contracts
between his clients or employers and the contractors.
5. He shall not accept any commissions or allowances, directly or
indirectly, from contractors, suppliers, and all other connection with
work for which he is responsible.
6. He shall not be financially interested in the bid or bids of contractors,
suppliers, and other interested parties participating in a competitive
work or job on which he has been employed as engineer without full

knowledge and consent of his clients or employers.
7. He shall promptly inform his clients or employers of any business in
which he has any interest, business connection or affiliation which may
compete with or affect the business of his clients or employers.
8. He shall not allow any decision in connection with work for which he
has been employed or which he may be called upon to perform, to be
affected by interests in any business.
9. He will present clearly the consequences to be expected from deviation
proposed if his engineering or his judgment is overruled by non-
technical authority in case where he is responsible for the technical
adequacy or engineering work.
10. He shall undertake only those engineering assignments for which he is
qualified. He shall engage or advise his employer or client to engage
in specialists and shall cooperate with them whenever his employers
or clients interests are served best by such an arrangement.
E. Relations with Engineers (Section 3)
1. He shall individually or collectively with others in the profession

protect the profession from misunderstanding and/or
misinterpretations.
2. He shall not directly or indirectly injure the professional reputation,
prospects, advancement, and/or practice of other engineers.
However, if he has proof or personal knowledge that an engineer has
been unethical and/or illegal in his practice, he shall inform in writing
the proper authorities for appropriate action.
3. He shall uphold the principle of appropriate and adequate
compensation for those engaged in the engineering profession,
including those in the subordinate capacities, in the interest of public
service and maintenance of the standards of the profession.
4. He shall not try to supplant another engineer in particular employment
after becoming aware that definite steps have been taken toward the
others employment.
5. He shall not compete, by underbidding through reduction in his normal
fess on the basis of charges for work, after having been informed of
the charges submitted by another engineer.
6. He shall be fair and tolerant in his dealings with fellow engineers and
give credit to those whom credit is properly due.
7. He shall uphold the honor and dignity of his profession and avoid
association in responsibility for work with engineers who do not
conform to ethical practices.
8. He will exercise due restraint in criticizing another engineers work in
public, recognizing the fact, that the engineering societies and the
engineering press provide the proper forum for technical discussion
and criticism.

F. Relation to the Profession (Section 5)
1. He shall cooperate in extending the effectiveness of the engineering

profession and endeavor to be well-informed of the latest development
in the profession by sharing or exchanging information and experience
with other engineers, other professionals and students; and by
contributing to engineering publications and schools and by
participating in the activities of engineering societies.
2. He shall cooperate in upholding the integrity, dignity, and honor of the
profession by avoiding all conducts and practices that will discrediting
and injurious to the profession.
3. He shall dignified and modest in explaining or discussing his work
and/or merit and shall refrain from self-laudatory advertising or
propaganda.
I H
1. Which of the following is designated as the international distress, safety and
calling frequency for radio telephony for station of the maritime mobile service
when using frequencies in the authorized bands between 156 and 174 MHz?
A. 168. 5 MHz B. 165.8 MHz
C. 158.6 MHz D. 156.8 MHz
2. This is a terminal where riser cable pairs are terminated to serve a portion or
an entire floor of a building.
A. Floor terminal distribution area B. Floor distribution terminal
C. Riser terminal D. Raceway terminal
3. Referred to as the device which diverts high transient voltage to the ground
and away from the equipment thus protected.
A. Arrester B. Alarm
C. Anchor D. Alpeth
4. The executive branch of government in charge of policy making in the

telecommunication.
A. Bureau of Telecommunications
B. Department of Transportation and Communications
C. Telecommunications Control Bureau
D. National Telecommunications Communication
5. A government regulation in telecommunication which provide policy to improve

the provision of local exchange carrier service.
A. E.O 546 B. E.O. 59
C. Act. 3846 D. E.O.109
6. What is the maximum number of lines for any building other than a one or two
story residential building to be required a service entrance facility under ECE
building code?
A. Not required B. Five lines
C. Three lines D. Two lines
7. The maximum power suggested by KBP on 919-1312 AM broadcast station in
Metro Manila is
A. 10 kW B. 5 kW
C. 15 kW D. 20 kW
8. The potential difference between any exposed structure to ground in any

electrical installation should not exceed ____ volts RMS.
A. 45 B. 30
C. 10 D. 0

9. When is Electronics and Communications Engineer supervision required under

DO 88?
A. Standard AM broadcast with a carrier power of 5 kilowatts
B. TV RF power booster with effective radiated power of 2 kilowatts
C. TV translator with an RF carrier power of 0.5 watt
D. FM broadcast station with a carrier power of 1000 watts
10. Which of the following penalty is provide under the existing telecommunication
law, should an international carrier unable to comply with its obligation to
provide local exchange un-served and under-served areas within three years
from grant of authority?
A. Given two years to comply
B. Given one year to comply
C. Financial penalty in accordance with existing schedules
D. Cancellation of its authority
11. A law that specifically requires the services of a duly registered Electronics and
Communications Engineer in the designing, installation and construction,
operation and maintenance of radio stations.
A. Act. 3846 B. Dept. Order 88
C. D.O. 1000 D. R.A. 5734
12. What is the basic qualification of an applicant for public carrier network before
a Certificate of Public Convenience or a Provisional Authority is issued?
A. Radio station license B. Franchise
C. Business permit D. SEC document
13. Who issues an authority to install, operate, and maintain a cable television
system or render a television service with a specified area in the country?
A. National Telecommunications Communication
B. Congress of the Philippines
C. Board of communications
D. Department or Transportation and Communications
14. An entity providing transmitting and switching of telecommunications services,

primarily but not limited to voice, in a geographic area anywhere in the country
A. Local exchange operator B. Public toil calling operator
C. Value-added service operator D. Franchisee
15. When could cable TV operator lease or sub-lease its capacity?

A. If lessor can pay higher cost
B. If he can generate capacity for lease
C. If he has capacity
D. If lessor is within the franchise area
16. An entity, relying on the transmission, switching and local distribution facilities
of local exchange and inter-exchange operators, and overseas carriers, offers
enhanced services beyond those ordinarily provided by such carriers.
A. Local exchange carrier B. Value-added service provider
C. Inter-exchange carrier D. International carrier
17. Professional Regulation Commission was created under

A. RA 223 B. PD 223
C. PD 323 D. PD 232
18. What is the main principle used by ITU in determining the distribution of the
orbit/spectrum resources?
A. Efficient use and equitable access
B. Depending on geographical boundary of a nation
C. Equal distribution
D. Depending on national sovereignty
19. When is coordination with the telephone company needed when an

underground service entrance will be used as the most feasible and economical
way?
A. Expense of telephone company
B. Expense of subscriber
C. Decision of depth of conduit at interconnection point
D. Length of a cable to be used by subscriber
20. An order signed by former President F. Ramos last March 1998 providing the
policy in the operation and use of international satellite communications in the
Philippines.
A. E.O. 3846 B. E.O. 467
C. E.O. 456 D. E.O. 59
21. Which body in the present ITU structure took the place of CCITT?
A. ITU-T B. ITU-D
C. ITU-R D. RAG
22. One of the major components required under the global maritime distress and
safety system.
A. Provision of Morse code
B. Provision of radio personnel
C. Provision of radiotelegraph operator
D. Provision of facsimile
23. Which conference in the ITU structure does the Telecommunication

Development Bureau report?
A. WTSC B. WRC
C. RRB D. WTDC
24. One of the following is not a major components required on board ship under
the global maritime distress and safety system.
A. Radio operator telegraphy onboard
B. Shore base facilities
C. Radio personnel onboard
D. On board radio facilities
25. Which of the following shall be complied by an international ship pursuant to

the global maritime distress and safety system implemented last 1999?
A. A facsimile B. A Morse code
C. A radio personnel D. A radio telegraph operator

26. Referred to as linkage by wire, radio, satellite or other means, of two or more
telecommunications carrier or operators with one another for the purpose of
allowing or enabling the subscriber of one carrier or operator to access or reach
the subscriber of the other carrier or operator.
A. Outside plant sharing B. Interconnection
C. Toll patching D. Gateway
27. NTC cannot grant one of the following, an authority to operate a cable
television system within the same franchise area covered by any provisional
Authority or Certificate previously granted by the Commission.
A. New entrant has more financial support
B. Prior operator has not complied sufficiently with term and condition of the
authorization
C. Current service is grossly inadequate
D. Issuance to new entrant will not cause ruinous competition
28. The institutionalization of the Continuing Professional Education (CPE) program

of the various regulated professions under the supervision of the Professional
Regulation Communication.
A. E.O. No. 626 B. P.D. 381
C. E.O. No. 266 D. E.O. No. 662
29. Judgment on the case against an ECE shall become final and executory after
A. 10 days B. 30 days
C. 60 days D. 15 days
30. The basic law providing for the regulation of radio station, communication in
the Philippines and other purposes.
A. Act. No. 3846 B. D.O. No. 5
C. D.O. No. 11 D. D.O. No. 88
31. Which one is not the basic electrical protection measure in the Philippine
Electronic Codes?
A. Shielding
B. Grounding and bonding
C. Undergrounding
D. Voltage/current limiting and interrupting
32. Designated year for the full implementation of the Global Maritime Distress and
Safely System.
A. 1999 B. 1992
C. 1996 D. 1998
33. Which part of the housing system in ECE code is a circular opening through the
floor structure to allow the passage of a cable and wire?
A. Insert B. Slot
C. Sleeve D. Raceway
34. The latest government regulation in the telecommunication which provides

policy for the provision of local exchange carrier service.
A. E.O. 59 B. Act. 3948
C. E.O. 109 D. E.O. 546
35. Any governmental office responsible in discharging the obligations undertaken

in the convention of the ITU and the regulation.
A. Administration B. Telecommunication office
C. Country D. The Union
36. A privilege conferred upon a telecommunications entity by Congress,

authorizing an entity to engage in a certain type of telecommunications service.
A. Provisional Authority
B. Franchise
C. Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity
D. Authority to operate
37. Where does the secretary general in the organizational structure of present ITU
report?
A. WRC B. Council
C. TDAB D. WTSC
38. Who is the principal administrator of Republic Act 7925?

A. Congress B. NTC
C. DOTC D. BOC
39. An act which was passed by Congress providing for the installation, operation
and maintenance of a public telephone in each and every municipality in the
country.
A. R.A. No. 7925 B. R.A. No. 6849
C. R.A. No. 3846 D. R.A. No. 3396
40. Under NTC Memorandum Circular, what is the fine of any person, corporation
or entity who will illegally purchase, sale, lease and/or retail of mobile phone
acquired from (per unit/violation) any illegal source.
A. PHP 5,000.00 B. PHP 25,000.00
C. PHP 15,000.00 D. PHP 35,000.00
41. Under NTC Memorandum Circular, what is the fine of any person, corporation
or entity who will purchase, sale, lease and/or retail of mobile phones without
NTC type (per unit/violation) approval/type acceptance labels/stickers.
A. PHP 500.00 B. PHP 25,000.00
C. PHP 5,000.00 D. PHP 50,000.00
42. Under NTC Memorandum order what is the fine of any person, corporation or
entity that will illegally import mobile phone, parts and accessories thereof (per
unit).
A. PHP 5,000.00 B. PHP 25,000.00
C. PHP 7,500.00 D. PHP 75,000.00
43. According to NTC M.C. 07-08-2004 the following are the fees and charges for
each repair shop for Filing Fee, Permit Fee, and Inspection Fee respectively.
A. PHP 180, PHP 1200.00/year, PHP 720.00/year
B. PHP 720, PHP 180.00/year, PHP 1200.00/year
C. PHP 720, PHP 1200.00/year, PHP 180.00/year
D. PHP 1200, PHP 180.00/year, PHP 720.00/year

44. Under the administrative sanction of NTC M.C. 07-08-2004 what is the fine for
an MPSC (Mobile Phone Service Center) operating without valid NTC Permit.
A. PHP 5,000.00 B. PHP 25,000.00
C. PHP 7,500.00 D. PHP 75,000.00
45. Under the administrative sanction of NTC M.C. 07-08-2004 what is the fine for
an unauthorized servicing of 5 mobile phones?
A. PHP 5,000.00 B. PHP 25,000.00
C. PHP 7,500.00 D. PHP 75,000.00
46. As per NTC M.C. 07-08-2004 an MPSC (Mobile Phone Service Center) shall
properly identify its business and location by posting conspicuously at the
entrance of its premises a signboard of at least ______ dimension which shall
indicate clearly its business name, the type of services it offers, its full business
address and the MPSC permit number.
A. 50cm x 150cm B. 100cm x 50cm
C. 50cm x 100cm D. 150cm x 100cm
47. Under section 1 of the proposed NTC memorandum circular on the rules and
regulation on the allocation and assignment of 3G radio frequency band, what
is the radio frequency band allocated for Band A and B to be used by 3G
networks
A. Band A : 1920 1935MHz/2110 2125MHz,
Band B : 1935 1950MHz/2125 2140MHz
B. Band A : 2010 2025MHz,
Band B : 1935 1950MHz/2125 2140MHz
C. Band A : 1950 1965MHz/2140 2155MHz,
Band B : 1885 1900MHz/1965 1980MHz
D. Band A : 1920 1935MHz/2110 2125MHz,
Band B : 1950 1965MHz/2140 2155MHz
is the radio frequency band allocated for Band C and D to be used by 3G
networks
A. Band C : 1920 1935MHz/2110 2125MHz,
Band D : 1935 1950MHz/2125 2140MHz
B. Band C : 1950 1965MHz/2140 2155MHz,
Band D : 1885 1900MHz/1965 1980MHz
C. Band C : 2010 2025MHz,
Band D : 1935 1950MHz/2125 2140MHz
D. Band C : 1920 1935MHz/2110 2125MHz,
Band D : 1950 1965MHz/2140 2155MHz
is the SUF (spectrum user fee) for the allocated 3G radio frequency band.
A. PHP 100T for each band B. PHP 10M for each band
C. PHP 100M for each band D. PHP 10B for each band
50. Under article VI entitled Penal Provision and Assistance of Law Enforcement
Agencies of the new ECE law, a fine of not less than ______ nor more than
______, or by imprisonment of not less than six (6) months nor more than six
(6) years, or both, in the discretion of the court shall be imposed to those who
will violate all those listed under section 35 of RA 9292.
A. PHP 10,000, PHP100,000 B. PHP 10,000, PHP 1,000,000
C. PHP 100,000, PHP 1,000,000 D. PHP 1,000,000, PHP 5,000,000

Section Basic Signals Read it

till it
25 and System Hertz
DEFINITION. Signal any quantity that conveys information.
DEFINITION. System is the abstraction of a process or objects that puts

signal into some form of relationship.
DEFINITION. Input signal: Exist independently of the system and its not
affected by the system.
A. .CLASSIFICATION OF SIGNALS.
1. In terms of Source/s
Scalar Signal
A signal generated by a single source.
Vector Signal
A signal generated by a multiple source sources, often called
multi-channel signal.
A color video signal is an example of vector signal composed of three signals

representing the three primary colors: red, green, and blue:
R(x, y, t)

( x, y, t ) = G(x, y, t)
B(x, y, t)
2. In terms of Independent Variable/s
One-dimensional 1-D
A 1-D signal is a function of a single independent variable.
The speech signal is an example of a 1-D signal where the independent

variable is time.
Two-dimensional 2-D
A 2-D signal is a function of a two independent variable.
An image signal, such as a photograph, is an example of a 2-D signal where

the two independent variables are two spatial variables.

7-42 Basic signals and system
Multi-dimensional M-D
A M-D signal is a function of more than one independent variable.
The black and white video signal can be considered an example of a 3-D
signal where the three independent variables are two spatial variables and
time.
3. In terms of certainty by which the signal can be uniquely described
Deterministic signal
A signal that can be uniquely determined by a well defined process
such as mathematical expression or rule is called deterministic
signal.
A good example of deterministic signal is the output of a sinusoidal oscillator.
Random signal
A signal that is generated in random fashion and cannot be
predicted ahead of time is called random signal.
Noise can be considered as an example of random signal.
4. Time-dependent signals
Continuous-time signals
A continuous-time signal is defined at every instant of time.
A continuous-time signal with continuous amplitude is usually called an

analog signal.
Discrete-time signals
A discrete-time signal is defined at discrete instant of time, and
hence, it is a sequence of numbers.
A discrete-time signal with discrete-valued amplitudes represented by a finite

number of digits is referred to as a digital signal.
B. .CLASSIFICATION OF DISCRETE-TIME SEQUENCE.
1. Classification Based on Length

The discrete-time signal may be a finite or infinite length sequence.
i. For finite length sequence

A finite length sequence is defined for a finite interval N1nN2,
where -<N1 and N2N1. The length or duration (N) of the finite
length sequence is N=N2-N2+1
ii. For Infinite length sequence

Right-sided Sequence
Has zero-valued samples for n<N1, x[n]=0
Right-sided Sequence
Has zero-valued samples for n>N2, x[n]=0
2. Classification Based on Symmetry
i. Conjugate Symmetric
A sequence is said to be conjugate-symmetric if x[n]=x*[-n]
A real conjugate-symmetric sequence is called an odd sequence.

ii. Conjugate Anti-Symmetric

A sequence is said to be conjugate-antisymmetric if x[n]=-x*[-n]
A real conjugate-antisymmetric sequence is called an even sequence.
3. Classification Based on Periodicity

A sequence x[n] satisfying x[n]=x[n+kN] for all n is called periodic
sequence.
4. Classification Based on Boundary

A sequence is said to be bounded if each of its samples is of
magnitude less than or equal to a finite positive number.
5. Other Classification
i. Summable Sequence
A sequence x[n] is said to be absolutely summable if

x[n] = x[n] <
n =
ii. Square-Summable Sequence

A sequence x[n] is said to be square-summable if
x[n] 2
x[n] = <
n =
iii. Energy and Power Signal
N
1

2 2
E x[n] P lim
N x[n]
n = N 2N + 1 n= N
C. .BASIC SEQUENCE.
1. Unit Sample Sequence

The simplest and one of the most useful sequence, often called
discrete-time impulse or unit impulse, denoted by [n], is defined by
1, for n = 0
[n] =
0, for n 0
2. Unit Step Sequence

It is denoted by [n] and is defined by
1, for n 0
[n] =
0, for n < 0

The unit sample and unit-step sequence are related

[n] = [k]
k =
[n] = [n] [n 1]
3. Ramp Sequence
It is denoted by r [n] and is defined by
n, for n 0
r[n] =
0, for n < 0
4. Sinusoidal Sequence
x[n] = A cos(0 + )
5. Exponential Sequence
where :
n
x[n] = A A = A e j
= e j( + j0 )
D. .BASIC OPERATION ON SEQUENCE.
1. Modulation
The product of two sequence x[n] and h[n] of length N yields a
sequence of y[n], also of length N, as given by
y[n] = x[n] h[n]

2. Addition
The addition of two sequences x[n] and h[n] of length N yields a
sequence of y[n], also of length N, as given by
y[n] = x[n] + h[n]
3. Scalar Multiplication
The multiplication of a sequence x[n] by a scalar A result in a
sequence y[n] of length N, as given by
y[n] = A x[n]
In the case of analog signals, this operation, is usually called amplification if the
magnitude of the multiplying constant, called gain, is greater than 1.
If the magnitude of the multiplying constant is greater less than 1, the operation is
called attenuation.
4. Delay Operation
The delay of a sequence x[n] of infinite length by a positive integer M
results in a sequence y[n] of infinite length given by
y[n] = x[n M]
5. Time-Reversal Operation
A time-reversal operation generates an output y[n], also of length N
but reverse in time, as given by
y[n] = x[n]
E. .CLASSIFICATION OF SYSTEM.
A system is the abstraction of a process or object that puts a number of

signals into some relationship.
Input Signal
Exist independently of the system and are not affected by the system.

Output Signal
Bears information generated by the system, often in response to input
signals.
Basic Classification:
1. Linearity
System for which the superposition principle applies is called linear
system.
2. Time-Invariant
A system that responds to a delayed input signal with a
correspondingly delayed output signal is called time-invariant system.
Linear Time-Invariant System

System that is both linear and time-invariant is called a/an LTI
system.
3. Static or Memoryless
A system is said to be static system if its output at any instant n
depends only on the input sample at the same time.
4. Dynamic or System with Memory

If the output of a system at time n is completely determined by the
input samples in the interval from n-N to N (N0), the system is said
to have memory of duration N.
5. Causality
A system is said to be causal (non-anticipative) if the output of the
system at any time n depends only on the present and past input but
does not depend on future inputs.
6. Stability
A system is said to be stable if and only if, for every bounded input,
the output is also bounded.
7. Passivity
A discrete-time system is said to be passive if, for every finite energy
input sequence x[n], the output sequence y[n] has, at most, the same
energy.
PRC Examinees Guide

(Rev. March 15, 2004)
The data and instructions presented here are subject to changes depending upon PRC
discretion.
A. .WHAT TO DO AFTER FILING APPLICATION?.
1. Secure a copy of the Program of Examination from the Application

Division or Customer Service Center. (This is FREE)
2. Your school/building assignment will be posted two or three days
before the first day of the examination.
3. Visit your school/building assignment for environment and transport
familiarization.
B. .WHAT TO BRING IN EXAMINATION DAYS?.
1. Notice of Admission
2. Application Stub
3. PRC Official Receipt
4. Two or more pencils (No.2)
5. Ballpens with BLACK INK ONLY
6. One (1) piece Metered-Stamp Window Envelope
7. One (1) piece Long Brown Envelope
8. One (1) piece Long Transparent (non-colored) Plastic Envelope (to
keep above items).
C. .WHAT TO WEAR ON EXAMINATION DAYS?.
1. MALE school uniform/white polo shirt or T-shirt (tucked-in)

2. FEMALE - school uniform/white blouse or T-shirt
D. .GENERAL INSTRUCTION TO EXAMINEES?.
1. Report to the Test Center before 6:30 a.m. on the first day of
examination to verify your room and seat numbers.
2. Late examinees will not be admitted.
3. Attend to your personal needs before the start of examination in every
subject. No examinee will be allowed to go out of the examination
room while the examination is in progress.
4. Always put your answer sheet on top of the armchair while taking the
examination.

8-2 prc examinees guide
5. Stop answering the test questions at the end of the time allotted for
the subject. Arrange your test papers as follows:
(a) Notice of Admission
(b) Answer Sheet
(c) Test Questionnaire
6. Do not leave the room until.
(a) your answer sheet and test question set are received by the room
watchers
(b) you have signed, indicated the time and set (A or B) on the
Examinees Record of Attendance, and
(c) the lower portion of your Notice of Admission (Certification on the
Receipt of Test Papers) is signed by the Room Watchers and
returned to you.
E. .HANDLING OF EXAMINEE IDENTIFICATION SHEET/ANSWER SHEETS.
1. Check if the Serial Number of Examinee Identification Sheet/ Answer

Sheet are the same for all the sheets. If there is any discrepancy,
return the set to your Room Watchers for replacement. The Serial
Number is NOT the examination number. It has nothing to do with
your examination.
2. Check if there are defects or unnecessary marks on your Examinee
Identification Sheet/Answer Sheets.
3. Check if the number of Answer Sheets correspond to the number of
examination subjects.
4. Do not fold or mutilate, take extra care and keep clean your Examinee
Identification Sheet/Answer Sheets.
5. Before detaching an answer sheet, check of the brown envelope is
yours and the set inside belongs to you.
F. .HOW TO MARK YOUR EXAMINEE IDENTIFICATION SHEET.
1. Use standard No.2 pencil only

2. Do not use too much pressure
3. Mark like this not like these 9
4. Mark the mark dark and straight
5. Strictly no erasures allowed

G. .HANDLNG OF TEST QUESTION SETS.
1. Indicate your seat number at the right top corner of page 1

2. Check if the number of pages of Test Question Set is complete and no
misprint. If there is any problem, return the set to your Room
Watchers for replacement.
3. Mark A or B on the answer sheet to indicate the set of Test Question
assigned to you.
4. You can use your Test Question Set as your Scratch.
5. Keep the Test Question Set stapled until the end of examination.
H. .PROHIBITED ACTS INSIDE THE EXAMINATION ROOM.
1. Accepting or receiving anything, including food from any person while

the examination is in progress.
2. Giving money, food, or any favor and other consideration to the Room
Watchers and other examination personnel.
3. Loitering, talking, or discussing your answer inside the room or along
the corridor while the examination is in progress.
4. Putting any of the following markings on your answer sheets: name,
seat number, unnecessary words or phrases, strokes, dots or any
other marks not called for in the test questions.
5. Taking out of the examination room test questions used or pages
thereof, copying, an/or divulging or making known the nature or
content of any examination question or answer to any individual or
entity.
6. Copying or referring to any solution, answer or work of another
examinee or allowing anyone to copy or refer to your work, helping or
asking help from any person or communication with anyone by means
of words, signs, gestures, codes and other similar acts which may
enable you to exchange, impart or acquire relevant information.
7. Bringing inside the examination rooms the following: books, notes,
review materials and other printed materials containing principles or
excerpt thereof, coded data/information/formula which are relevant to
or connected with the examination subject, PROGRAMMABLE
CALCULATORS, CELLULAR PHONES, beeper, portable personal
computers or other similar gadgets/devices. The act shall be ground
for the cancellation of your examinations (PRC Resolution No. 463
dated November 27, 1996)
MAINTAIN DISCIPLINE AT ALL TIMES, ANY MISCONDUCT OR

IRREGULARITY ON YOUR PART OR ANY VIOLATION OF THE EXAMINATION
RULES AND REGULATIONS AND ISNTRUCTIONS WILL BE SUFFICIENT
CAUSE FOR THE CANCELLATION OF YOUR EXAMINATION PAPERS AND
YOUR DEBARMENT FROM TAKING ANY FUTURE LICENSURE EXAMINATION.

8-4 prc examinees guide
PENALTIES FOR MULTIPLE MARKINGS & PLACING OF NAME IN THE SPACE

PROVIDED FOR THE SUBJECT OF THE EXAMINATION
Resolution No. 2003-154
1. Placing of Name Cancellation of the examination papers &

suspension from taking the licensure examination for one (1) year.
2. Multiple Markings Cancellation of the examination papers &
suspension from taking the licensure examination for two (2) years.
CORRECTION, RATING AND RELEASE OF TEST RESULTS ARE FULLY

COMPUTERIZED
1. Answer Sheets (with no names) are read by Optical Mark Reader

(OMR).
2. Answers are matched with the Answer Key and rated by computers.
3. Test Results are FINAL when released via e-mail to leading
newspapers.
4. THERE IS NO RE-CHECKING OF TEST PAPERS.
LIST OF NON-PROGRAMMABLE CALCULATORS ALLOWED TO BE USED

Examinees shall be allowed to bring in and use ONLY any of the following
calculators that were identified as non-programmable (PRC Memorandum
Circular No. 2004-06 dated March 4, 2004)
CASIO STANDARD/DESK TOP SCIENTIFIC CALCULATORS

CASIO 530 CASIO FX82C CASIO JS-40LA CASIO MS-100TE
CASIO 20V CASIO FX82LP CASIO JS-140 CASIO MS 120TE
CASIO 470LA CASIO FX85B CASIO JS-SC CASIO MS 170LA
CASIO D-20M CASIO FX85SA CASIO LC-401B CASIO MS-270LA
CASIO D-60M CASIO FX220 CASIO LC-1000T CASIO MS-470LA
CASIO D-100V CASIO FX250HC CASIO LC-403LD CASIO MS-10V
CASIO D-208H CASIO FX350D CASIO M-7LB CASIO MS-10TE
CASIO D-120TE CASIO FX350W CASIO MJ-100 CASIO MS-80TE
CASIO DM-1600 CASIO FX570W CASIO MS 115 CASIO MS-8T
CASIO DS-208H CASIO HC100 CASIO MS 373 CASIO MS-20/V
CASIO DS-881 CASIO HL821 CASIO MS-350 CASIO MS-1002
CASIO DF100 CASIO HL-122L CASIO MS-470 CASIO 0-40M
CASIO DN 858A CASIO J-120TE CASIO MS-240T CASIO SL-320V
CASIO DS1800S CASIO JS-10LA CASIO MS-808V CASIOSL-305TE
CASIO EL310-A CASIO JS-20LA CASIO MS-812V CASIO ELECT. D-20M
Fx65 Fx82MS Fx300W Fx580D Fx350HA

Fx75 Fx82SX Fx451M Fx825X Fx350HB
Fx82 Fx82TL Fx500A Fx911W Fx531GH
Fx95 Fx82 Super Fx506G Fx991H Fx531LH
Fx260 Fx95MS Fx506M Fx991S Fx570AD
Fx401 Fx100D Fx509D Fx991W Fx570MS
Fx580 Fx100S Fx509G Fx992S Fx991MS
Fx824 Fx100W Fx520G Fx992s Fx992VB
Fx901 Fx115D Fx546D Fx100MS Fx350TLG
Fx991N Fx115S Fx546L Fx115MS
Fx85S Fx115W Fx570S Fx300SA
Fx82LB Fx122s Fx570W Fx350TL
SHARP
EL-233S EL-376S EL-509D EL-520VA EL-556G
EL-240S EL-378S EL-509G EL-531GH EL-771C
EL-242M EL-501V EL509R EL-531RH EL-2125
EL-250S EL-501V (BK) EL-509V EL-531VH EL-6053
EL-310A EL-506 EL-510R EL-531VH (BK) EL-6750
EL-310A-GR EL-506R EL-520G EL-531VH (BL) EL-6810
EL-327S EL-506V EL-520V EL-546L EL-6850
EL-331A EL-506V (BK) EL-520V (BK) EL-546VA
CITIZEN OLYMPIA CANON AURORA

CITIZEN TL-780 OLYMPIA HL 88L CANON F-604 AURORA DT 393
CITIZEN SLD-742N OLYMPIA HL 110 CANON F-720 AURORA DT 394
CITIZEN STL-795 OLYMPIA SD-81H CANON LC 210HI AURORA EB 964
CITIZEN SDC-8560 OLYMPIA SD-100H CANON LS-39H AURORA HL 125
CITIZEN SDC-8610 OLYMPIA SD-100V CANON LS-154H AURORA MS 270LA
CITIZEN SDC8620A OLYMPIA SD-100HW CANON LS-566H AURORA SC 120
CITIZEN SDC-8610A OLYMPIA SD-805M CANON LS 120H AURORA 2512
OLYMPIA SD-828 CANON LS 82Z
OLYMPIA SD-835 CANON LS-120V
OTHER BRANDS
CEBAR CD402 KARCE-833 PORPO YH-105 TAKSUN TS-217
DAL 506X KARCE KC 250 PORPO YH-106 TAKSUN TS-128B
LIFELONG KARCE 539 TIME BIRD SJC-122
TL 30XS TEXAS TI 30 TAKSUN TS-128
Calculators whose brand and identifying mark do not appear in the list above
provided shall be prohibited in the examinations.

49. C. Telegraphy;
four-frequency duplex
51. C. Myriametric
Note: The answers to even-numbered 53. B. Telephony; amplitude-
questions are intentionally withheld but modulated pulses
will be personally discuss by the author to 55. D. Radio waves
ECE reviewees during review, refresher 57. A. 0.3 to 3 Hz
and coaching program for the reason that 59. A. Longitudinal
the author is anticipating ECE school 61. B. XXX
teachers and co-reviewers will use some 63. C. Out
of the question as a safe and quick exam 65. C. Frequency
references since the answers are withheld 67. A. -3dB bandwidth
and encourage readers to test their 69. B. Telephony; SSBRC
knowledge in the field of communications 71. D. Infrared rays
engineering. 73. B. Telephony; pulse
phase or
position-modulated
75. D. One-millionth of a
meter
77. A. Telephony; SSBSC
SECTION 1 79. D. Absolute bandwidth
Basic Principles of 81. D. Multiplexing
Communications Engineering 83. A. Telephony; pulse-
width modulated
1. D. 24, 120 85. C. 3 to 30 GHz
3. D. Quality 87. D. Telephony; SSBFC
5. A. Red, blue, and green 89. C. Narrowband
7. A. Wideband 91. A. SOS
9. B. ARPANET 93. C. Break
11. C. Andrei Marie Ampere 95. B. Necessary Bandwidth
13. B. Gigametric 97. A. Michael Faraday
15. D. 500 nm 99. B. 300 to 3000 GHz
17. A. 2.2% 101. D. time
19. A. 20 103. B. 19th century
21. C. 74.82% 105. B. Distortion
23. B. Facsimile 107. D. 0.7 to 100 m
25. B. 60 109. D. All of the above
27. D. atmospheric 111. C. Attenuated
interference 113. D. distance a signal or bit
29. B. antenna has traveled
31. B. a transmitter, a 115. A. low-pass
receiver, and a channel 117. D. EHF
33. A. 2f 119. B. single-frequency;
35. D. Multiplexing composite
37. C. Telephony or 121. C. 12.4 peV to 124 peV
telegraphy with ISB 123. C. Noise
39. C. greater at low 125. B. 7000
frequencies 127. A. time; frequency
41. D. its amplitude, 129. A. Ham radio
frequency, and phase 131. B. bandpass
angle 133. C. Modulation
43. D. purple noise 135. B. frequency
45. C. Heinrich Hertz 137. B. Phase
47. C. Guglielmo Marconi 139. B. Full duplex

9-2 Answers to odd-numbered questions
141. D. Facsimile 77. C. +sine, cosine, +cosine

143. C. -2 79. C. 79.9%
145. D. Reflected radio signals 81. C. half the carrier power
147. B. 300 to 3000 Hz 83. B. Envelope
149. B. P2 equals P1 85. D. One sideband
87. A. Vmin(20%)=25.3 V,
Vmax(20%)= 37.9 V,
Vmin(90%)=3.14 V, Vmax(90%)=
SECTION 2 60.1 V
Amplitude Modulation 89. C. Lattice modulator
91. B. Analog multiplication
1. B. starts at 535 kHz and 93. C. Crystals
ends at 1605 kHz 95. B. Product detector
3. C. 102 watts 97. A. Vsf=37.5 V
5. C. 0.707 99. C. Pin/dc=7.14 kW
7. B. 4 watts 101. C. fo-fm
9. A. 13%, 50% 103. A. Tuned circuit
11. B. one-fifth of the total 105. A. PSSB=167 W
signal power at 100% 107. D. Phase inversion
modulation 109. C. Resonant circuit
13. B. 50 watts 111. C. Envelope detector
15. A. 75.76% 113. D. Varying the gain of an
17. D. Armstrong method amplifier
19. B. 20 kHz 115. B. Switches
21. D. 33.33% 117. C. Vsb(20%)=2.24 V,
23. B. 952.4 mA Psb(20%)=0.1 W,
25. C. 46.2%, 1.32 kW Vsb(90%)=10.06 V,
27. C. 0.68 Psb(90%)=2.025 W
29. D. v(t) = (Ec + Em 119. B. Bandwidth
sin(mt)) x sin(ct) 121. B. Iload(20%)=0.451 A,
31. A. 1.56 to 2.08 W Iload(90%)=0.53 A
33. D. 15.78 A, 20.46% 123. B. Low-level modulation
35. B. Coefficient of Modulation 125. C. The modulation index
37. C. m<1, Vm<Vc 127. A. 7.78 dB
39. B. 119.18 V 129. C. 1.56 to 2.08 W
41. A. 22.1 W
43. C. 256.25 W
45. A. 100%
47. B. Modulation SECTION 3
49. A. sinusoids Angle Modulation
51. D. 0.85
53. D. 80% 1. A. the carrier would
55. B. 87.87% advance and retard in
57. A. m=1, Vm=Vc phase 5,000 times each
59. A. splatter second
61. D. 48.5 V 3. B. 0.25 rad
63. C. 50% 5. C. 10 kHz, 5
65. C. 1.83 7. B. the threshold effect
67. A. 500V, 4.907 MHz 9. D. the instantaneous
69. D. 30 kHz phase deviation is
71. B. m>1, Vm>Vc directly proportional to
73. D. twice the amplitude of the
75. B. carrier amplitude and modulation signal and
the modulation index unaffected by its
frequency 79. D. all of the above

11. B. Decreases 81. D. starts at 88 MHz and
13. A. Carrier amplitude and ends at 108 MHz
frequency 83. D. modulating signal
15. C. for de-emphasing high 85. C. the instantaneous
frequency component frequency deviation is
17. C. 90 kHz directly proportional to
19. A. 144 kHz the amplitude of the
21. D. 5 rad modulation signal and
23. D. Pre-emphasis inversely proportional to
25. C. 5 kHz/volt its frequency
27. A. the instantaneous 87. C. 160
phase deviation is 89. C. percent modulation
proportional to the 91. A. fc=100 MHz, Pt=40 kW
integral of the 93. D. mfm=2, fm=5 kHz,
modulating signal BW=30 kHz
voltage 95. A. Sensitivity=3 V
29. B. 9 kHz 97. C. 48 kHz
31. C. 48.4 watts 99. B. Vsensitivity = 1 V
33. B. Track range 101. C. Angle
35. C. 30 kHz 103. C. Quadrature detector
37. A. changes would occur in 105. B. One shot multivibrator
the phase of the output 107. D. + 45 kHz
frequency in respect to 109. A. Quadrature detector
changes in the 111. C. S/N=30
amplitude of the input 113. D. Crystal
voltage 115. D. S/N=19.8:1
39. C. Acquire range
41. B. 80%
43. A. pre-emphasis
45. D. 3 SECTION 4
47. D. 26 MHz Noise Analysis and dB
49. A. 4.8 kHz Calculations
51. B. 5
53. A. 40 kHz 1. C. 31.6 W
55. C. 80 kHz 3. B. -90 dBm
57. C. remains constant even 5. D. 23.85 mVrms
when modulation index 7. B. 11.46 dB
varies 9. D. VN=8.51V, S/N=1.4 dB
59. A. 120 kHz 11. D. S/N ratio is decreased
61. B. 2.12 kHz by
63. C. 60 13. B. Equivalent noise
65. B. limiter temperature
67. B. increases with deviation 15. D. 0.147 Vrms
and decreases with 17. B. 10.44 dB
modulation frequency 19. D. 398 mA
69. D. the power in the outer 21. D. 5.658 V
sidebands is negligible 23. C. Impulse noise
71. B. Bessel functions 25. C. 760 K
73. C. 120 kHz 27. B. 67.32 kHz
75. D. zero crossing of the 29. A. -85 dBm and 1000 Hz
modulating signal 31. B. dB
77. D. the time-constant of the 33. C. 6,076.3 K
filter circuits used 35. C. -15
37. B. 3.45 dB 19. B. Varying the gain of an

39. C. 7.54 mW amplifier
41. D. 21 dbrnCO 21. A. a tapped inductor
43. D. -103.98 dBm 23. A. to remove amplitude
45. B. Distortion variations
47. C. -79 dBa 25. A. 108 dB
49. C. 4.78 V 27. D. 53 dB
51. C. dBm0 29. C. does not contain the
53. C. Noise factor input frequencies
55. A. 10 dB 31. B. with two signals close in
57. C. 20 frequency, the ability to
59. B. 37.87 dB receive one and reject
61. B. 19.8 dB the other
63. A. 67 33. B. 150.0021 MHz
65. D. Intermodulation 35. C. 98.7 to 118.7 MHz
distortion 37. A. 0.06
67. A. 3.24 dB 39. C. 4 MHz
69. A. Interference 41. C. keep the input to the
71. C. 3.24 dB detector at a constant
73. D. Partition noise amplitude
75. A. 0 dBr 43. A. the modulating
77. B. R=5.984 k, amplifier
readout= 120 V 45. B. 31.76 W
79. D. 69.44, 18.42 47. C. 6 dB
81. B. 458 V 49. C. 1.83
83. D. 5.01 V 51. B. squelch
85. B. Pn=5.52x10-15 W 53. B. 50 watts
87. D. Resistance 55. D. 20 kHz
89. B. In the receiver front end 57. A. 60 MHz
91. D. All of these 59. C. 600 V
93. C. 15 to 160 MHz 61. A. 3.75Vp
95. C. Impulse noise 63. D. 13 dB
97. B. 174 K 65. B. 10.005 MHz
99. C. 30 MHz 67. A. 46.52 dB
101. C. Quantizing level 69. C. enter the mixer, one
103. D. NPR below and one above
105. A. Residual noise level the local oscillator by a
107. B. Thermal agitation difference equal to the
IF
71. D. it is cheaper
73. A. 8 dBm
SECTION 5 75. A. cuts off an audio
Transmitters and Receivers amplifier when the
carrier is absent
1. A. 27.2064 MHz 77. B. Phase discriminator
3. B. 17.9 W 79. C. 5.79 ppm
5. B. 1600 kHz 81. D. 135 Hz
7. C. 5 mV 83. C. the carrier frequency
9. B. envelope detector can be changed to any
11. A. the sensitivity and the required value
selectivity 85. D. 4.02 ppm
13. D. 50 kHz, 0.05% 87. A. 1.58 mV
15. C. 600 V 89. B. 4 watts
17. B. Local Oscillator
color imbalance
21. B. Pincushion
23. B. 2.23 m
Section 6 25. A. saturation
Acoustics Fundamentals 27. C. 67.25-MHz carrier
frequency and 69.25-
1. D. 20 MHz upper side
3. C. 1.6 mW/ m2 frequency
5. D. 89.1 dB 29. B. much higher
7. D. the period is 0.5 s 31. A. flicker, 60-Hz vertical,
9. B. halving the wavelength 30-Hz
11. A. twice as loud 33. C. 1.51 in
13. B. Flanking transmission 35. C. 400
15. D. Sound intensity 37. D. pit depth
17. A. 245 Hz 39. D. symmetric envelope of
19. A. 10 dB amplitude variations
21. C. 75 dB 41. A. 0.45
23. B. 256 to 2048 Hz 43. C. the brightness of the
25. B. 71 dB color
27. C. Phonoscope 45. A. no color
29. C. 6 dB 47. B. footcandles
31. D. 115.56 dBSPL
49. C. monoscope
33. A. 35.3
51. C. 3.579545 MHz
35. C. 137.7 lux
53. B. Gamma
37. B. 3 dB
55. B. 0.920455 MHz
39. D.
41. A. 140 dB
57. D. yellow, cyan, magenta
43. C. 97.8 W/m2 59. B. decoding
45. D. 111.6 dBPWL, 61. A. 8 and 16
56.53 dBSPL 63. C. I
47. B. 107. 55 dB 65. C. 426 picture elements
49. B. dP/dA 67. C. 30
51. A. Pitch 69. C. 4.5 MHz
53. D. 2.2 71. C. tint
55. A. dolby 73. C. Aquadag
75. C. Convergence
77. B. 3.38 and 3.78 MHz
79. B. the vertical scanning
Section 7 frequency is doubled
Television Fundamentals from 30 to 60 Hz
81. B. 31,500 for the vertical
1. C. 74.1 IRE units scanning frequency
3. B. 420 pixels 83. C. 426
5. A. 307 lines 85. B. Colorplexer
7. B. exact interlacing 87. C. zero
9. A. 55.24 MHz 89. B. 960 s
11. A. P=45.75 MHz, 91. C. 41%
S=41.25 MHz 93. B. electrostatic
13. D. B-Y 95. D. 347
15. B. 8% 97. B. 4 MHz
17. A. 151,761 pixels 99. C. IRE units
19. B. a weak picture, a long 101. D. 45.6%
warm up time, and
103. A. blue
105. A. 3x
107. B. 8%, 15.7%, 77.6%
109. B. Magnetic Section 10
111. D. 12.9 MHz Transmission Lines and
113. D. blacker than black Waveguides
115. B. vestigial sideband AM
117. A. Static 1. B. 82.9 , 195.4
119. A. 2 3. D. 151 W
121. A. contrast 5. B. 168 m
123. D. FM 7. C. 2.15
125. D. Fixed 9. D. 112
127. D. low beam current 11. C. 417 ns, 5 V
129. D. 15,750 Hz 13. A. 43.1 W
131. D. 2.2 15. D. 9.1 W
133. B. centering 17. B. 40 - j30
135. D. white 19. A. 225 nH/m
137. B. G-Y 21. A. increases
139. A. Trace part, retrace 23. C. 0.00521 dB/m
25. D. 0.0493 dB/m
27. D. dividing it by Z0
29. B. the dielectric constant
Section 8 31. B. Yttrium-Iron-Garnet
AM, FM, and TV Broadcasting 33. A. -1,
Standards 35. B. 6V
37. D. 75-5
39. D. 50-76
1. D. Loose connections in
the oscillator, 41. C. the skin effect
amplifier, or antenna 43. B. one
circuits 45. C. 0.693
3. B. 80 kW 47. D. all of the above
5. C. 525 lines 49. B. 54.38
7. D. 525 lines 51. A. 0.569 /m
53. A. 0.296 rad/m
9. C. MOPA
55. D. would not reflect at all
11. A. class C
57. C. 6.4 pF
13. B. 5
59. B. 570
15. A. TVRO
61. C. 9.08 cm
17. B. FM 63. B. 1, 1
19. B. Television 65. C. 14.3 GHz
21. B. MF 67. B. 72.4
23. B. 1.3 MHz 69. A. 1.6x108 m/s,
25. C. Surface loam soil 5.51x108 m/s
27. D. 30 to 53 kHz 71. C. 0.448 m, 0.136 m
29. A. Vestigial sideband 73. A. 24.5 nH
75. D. Tuned circuits
77. B. 50 j0
79. A. A capacitive impedance
81. B. 1.60:1 (min),
2.50:1 (max)
83. D. 0 j
85. A. Noise figure increases
by 10 dB
87. A. jZ o tan( A) 27. B. Intramodal

29. B. Chromatic
89. D. Group velocity
31. B. 3.68 dB
91. D. power out compared to
33. A. 25 m
reflected power back
35. B. 0.351
93. B. Infinity 37. C. 0.5 mW
95. A. Propagation constant 39. C. Electromagnetic wave
97. C. Standing waves and particles of energy
99. B. High attenuation 41. D. Established standards
101. B. Reflectometer 43. A. Electrical isolation and
103. D. Velocity factor immunity to noise
105. B. As pure inductor 45. A. The wave magnitude
107. B. lesser varies perpendicular to
109. D. Transmission System the direction of wave
Engineering motion
111. D. The velocity of the wave on 47. B. 53 A/W, 0.38 nW
the transmission line 49. A. 0 dBm, 22.2 dB
divided by the velocity of 51. D. 1.547
the light in a vacuum 53. B. When the wavelength of
113. A. To reduce the possibility of the light is less than the
internal arcing cutoff wavelength
115. A. Velocity factor 55. D. 71.33 ns/km
117. B. 2:1 57. B. Coating
119. A. transfer maximum power to 59. D. 2.22 ns/km
61. B. 0.1386 ns/km, 3.61
the load
GHz-km
121. A. Physical dimensions
63. A. 1.25 W
123. D. input
65. C. 5.175 million
125. C. resistive load at the 67. D. 0.5 mW
resonant frequency 69. A. 10
127. C. ground 71. B. Launches the optical
129. D. TE signal into the fiber
73. C. 56.3, 33.7
75. A. 66.7 ns/km
77. B. 1.24 eV
Section 11 79. D. 74.9
Fiber Optics Communications 81. D. Scattering, absorption,
and dispersion
1. C. 50% 83. B. 1 cm
3. A. 11.88 degrees 85. A. 3286 modes
5. B. 6.54 x 109 87. C. PIN diodes and APDs
photons/sec 89. B. Impurities in the fiber
7. C. 2321 reflections/meter material
9. B. 62.5/125 m 91. D. LED
11. D. 7 x 108 channels 93. C. Reflected
13. B. 6.33 x 1014 Hz 95. D. Law of Reflection
15. C. 7.8 x 1011 photons/sec 97. D. Almost parallel
17. B. 70.38 degrees 99. C. 2,361
19. C. Maximum angle within 101. B. Scattered
the fiber acceptance 103. A. It is absorbed
cone 105. C. 700 ps
21. A. Mode theory 107. C. 37.2 ps
23. A. Macrobends 109. B. Snell's Law
25. A. 1.89 x 10 8 m/s 111. A. Core, cladding, and

coating 21. A. 1 dB
113. D. Reduces mechanical 23. B. prevent oscillation
strength 25. D. occurs when the central
115. D. Single mode and office capacity is
multimode exceeded
117. C. Single mode 27. D. 90 volts, 20 Hz AC
119. B. Core diameter and NA 29. C. 0.045
121. A. attenuation 31. B. 414.9 CCS
123. B. dB/km 33. C. 26 gauge every 3000 ft
125. B. -23 dBm with 66 mH inductors
127. C. embedded; optical signals; 35. A. Public Switched
multiplexing Telephone Network
129. B. Dense wavelength division 37. C. 1225
multiplexing; fiber-optic 39. A. D-channel
131. D. SONET 41. C. 0.98966
133. A. in 1994, as part of the first 43. A. 3.533 Erlang
Fast Ethernet standards 45. B. reduce the attenuation
135. C. scalability of voice signals
137. D. 90000 47. D. 6.1 sec
139. A. copper wire, coaxial cable, 49. C. occupancy
fiber, and wireless 51. D. 1.544
141. C. plesiochronous 53. B. 19 gauge every 6000 ft
143. C. 51.84 Mbps with 88 mH inductors
145. C. 8 55. B. 88 Erlangs
147. C. ISDN networks 57. D. 44.008 Mbps
149. D. the time distortion of an 59. C. 2
optical signal that results 61. C. 24 calls will be block
from the time of flight 63. B. 0.8 dB
differences of different 65. C. B-channel
components of that signal 67. A. 48
151. C. Dispersion 69. D. 36 CCS
153. C. light; silica 71. B. cross bar
155. D. spatial multiplexing 73. C. Loop extender
157. A. the reduction of signal 75. B. 1.544
strength over the length of 77. A. lost
the light-carrying medium 79. B. DDD
159. C. Fabric 81. C. Terminal adapter
83. B. MOSFET
85. D. frame
87. C. echo
Section 12
89. B. broadband ISDN
Telephone Networks and System
91. C. intensity
93. D. DTMF
1. A. 82.13 Erlangs, 0.43%
3. D. 20 mA to 80 mA 95. C. B-channel
5. A. 770 Hz, 1336 Hz 97. D. CCITT
7. C. 162 s 99. D. PABX
9. B. 0.029 in 101. B. 8
11. B. 200 ohms 103. B. a wave which has been
13. C. 90 dBrn reflected or otherwise
15. B. 65 dBrnC TLP returned with sufficient
17. D. 56 kbps magnitude and delay for it
19. C. 300 call-minute, 5 call- to perceptible in some
hour manner as a wave distinct
from that directly

transmitted Section 13
105. A. terminal Facsimile Transmission
107. C. a telephone line
connecting two central 1. A. 1653 pixels/sec
offices 3. A. IOC(CCITT)=400,
109. B. Two audio frequency IOC(IEEE)=1257
tones 5. A. 1610, 521.5
111. B. TDM
113. A. it is equal to the
number of simultaneous
calls originated during a
specific hourly period
115. A. Erlang B
117. A. hunting
Section 14
119. B. green
Pulse Modulation
121. D. attenuator
1. A. 3.92-4.08 V
123. C. intertoll
3. B. 64 kb/s
125. D. AWG #19
5. B. 69.5 dB
127. B. busy hour 7. C. synchronize the
129. A. 300 to 3400 Hz transmitter and receiver
131. B. 4 kHz 9. A. 66 kbps
133. C. first selector
135. A. A circuit usually in the 11. B. carry signaling
subscribers loop, between 13. B. 74 dB
the telephone set and the 15. A. the strongest
local control office transmittable signal to
137. B. 852 and 1209 Hz the weakest discernible
139. C. 8 signal
141. C. crosstalk 17. D. the Law
143. D. occupancy 19. D. They are the same
145. C. fiftyfold thing
147. C. 33 kbps 21. C. preserve dynamic range
149. C. T1/ E1 while keeping bit-rate
151. A. 18,000 ft low
153. A. call setup, pre-image 23. A. 560 kbps
handshake, line testing 25. B. the A Law
sequence, image 27. B. 75.2%
transmission 29. B. with a lower bit rate but
155. C. 300 - 3400 Hz the same quality
157. C. full duplex 31. C. 256, 80 Mbps
159. B. attenuation/gain distortion 33. C. too few samples per
161. D. both B and C second
163. C. signal to noise ratio 35. B. 8-bit numbers
165. C. assigns time slots to each 37. B. C = 2B log2M
channel's packet sections 39. C. C = B log2(1 + S/N)
167. B. assist in clock recovery
169. B. a data link protocol that
uses HDLC as a basis
171. C. TA
173. B. 2B + D
175. D. encrypted division
multiplexing

Section 15 Section 16
Digital Communications Data Communications
1. B. P(x)=0.8, P(y)=0.2 1. C. Reliability and Flow

3. C. 31.895 kbps, Control
6.505 kbits will be 3. C. Network Layer
corrupted per second 5. D. Information
5. D. 48.6 kbps Communication
7. C. 231.89 kHz, Entertainment age
6.65 bps/Hz 7. D. By transmitting extra
9. B. 19.2 kbps data that may be used
11. B. 1000 bits to detect and correct
13. B. 6 bits, 94 % transmission errors
15. C. 95.9%, 4.1% 9. C. Concerned with data
17. C. 3.32 structures and
19. B. 5 MHz negotiation data transfer
syntax.
21. C. 10 kbps
11. D. CAT 5
23. C. 9600 wpm
13. A. The clocking is derived
25. D. 8-PSK
from the data in
27. A. 2.5x10-3
synchronous transmission
29. B. 2.5x10-3, 25%
15. B. UDP
31. A. 5
17. A. Physical addressing,
33. C. 3, 5
network topology, and
35. D. intersymbol interference
media access.
37. A. 300 bps, full-duplex, FSK
19. A. Application
39. C. bandwidth-delay
21. C. Demand priority
41. A. Parallel
23. B. A peer computer
43. C. 16
25. C. 10 Mbps
45. B. BnZS
27. A. 16
47. A. low-pass
29. D. OSI
49. A. Number of bits used for
31. A. user
quantization
33. C. Physical
51. A. 64
35. A. Application
53. B. the U.N.
37. A. Simplex
55. D. 1200 samples/s
39. B. Star
57. C. a training sequence
41. B. FCC
59. C. number of possible
43. C. Reliability
states per symbol
45. A. Security
61. C. unipolar NRZ 47. C. Point-to-point
63. A. Manchester encoding 49. D. IMPs
65. B. bandpass 51. B. Forums
67. C. 10 seconds 53. A. point-to-point
69. B. noiseless 55. D. Topology
71. D. all of the above 57. C. WAN
73. A. Quadrature Amplitude 59. D. Transport
Modulation 61. B. Process-to-process
75. A. Differential Manchester delivery
77. D. QAM 63. C. Transport
79. C. 8 65. B. Standards were needed
to allow any two systems to
communicate
67. D. 7 155. B. line of sight

69. D. session 157. C. only reliable if a single
71. C. logical error occurs in a character
73. C. 128 159. C. 1
75. C. network 161. B. transport
77. D. none of the above 163. A. interactive "real time"
79. A. TCP access to other users
81. B. 6-byte 165. B. physical location of user
83. B. Transport 167. B. dual attached station
85. C. TCP/IP 169. D. no one
87. B. Semantics 171. D. all of these
89. D. physical
91. C. Data Link
93. B. They use intermittent
signals to transmit bits
95. C. CSMA/CD
97. C. Data Link-MAC
99. A. synchronous Section 17
101. A. Both ends can transmit Antenna Fundamentals
at the same time
103. C. Central processing 1. D. 0.48
105. C. Protocols 3. C. 26 dB
107. B. User-server 5. A. 40 dB, 1.75
109. D. Bridge
7. B. Can be used for
111. A. Multiplexer
multiband operation
113. B. CSU/DSU
9. C. 24 cm
115. B. Data link
11. B. 6 cm
117. D. IEEE 802.7
13. A. Dipole
119. D. Flow control
15. C. 1.5
121. B. VHSquality video and
17. C. More gain
audio
19. B. 2839.31 W
123. A. 48
21. D. Center of the antenna
125. A. File delivery
23. C. Omnidirectional
127. B. IP multicast
25. C. 48.39 m
129. D. multiplexed 27. D. Effective height
131. B. bridge ports supporting full- 29. C. mirror image principle
duplex transmission 31. B. horn antenna
133. C. cyclic redundancy check 33. B. reciprocity
(CRC) 35. B. Orthomode transducer
135. C. request that the bad 37. B. aperiodic
character (and possibly, the 39. B. wavelength
rest of the message) be 41. A. For receiving low and
retransmitted high band stations
137. A. physical 43. A. An element that
139. C. Manchester receives its excitation
141. A. secondary station only from mutual coupling
143. B. 48 bytes long rather than from a
145. C. HDLC transmission line
147. B. 10 Mbps 45. D. 2.71 mV/m
149. C. segmentation 47. A. 2.6 dB
151. D. IEEE's 802.3 49. B. Hertz
153. A. bit oriented, frame format 51. B. Radiate harmonics
53. A. 72.5 ft

55. B. unchanged 23. A. Seasonal variation

57. A. 2.8 m, 4 m 25. D. Optimum working
respectively frequency
59. A. Broadside array 27. B. Temperature
61. A. Major lobe radiation inversions
63. D. G=4x, =0.5 29. C. Maximum usable
65. B. Radiation frequency
67. A. 1.76 dB 31. A. Strong ground wave
69. B. 70 33. C. phase relationships
71. B. 6 dB 35. A. Space
73. B. horizontally polarized 37. B. Turbulence in the
75. B. gain of the antenna atmosphere
77. B. 11.9 m2 39. B. When the density of
79. C. circular polarization the ionized layer is
81. C. 200 kph greatest
83. C. By adding an inductor in 41. A. below about 2 MHz
series 43. D. All of the above
85. C. -6 dB
87. C. 5 dB
89. C. Driven element
Section 19
91. C. 13.98 dB
Microwave Engineering
93. D. Reflector element is 5%
longer
95. A. At feed point 1. B. -134 dB
97. C. Yagi 3. D. 8493 km
5. B. when distance exceeds
99. A. 296 pW
line-of-sight
101. C. Yagi-uda antenna
7. A. 99.99%
103. D. quad antenna
9. C. 28 dB
105. D. trailing wire antenna
11. B. -63.5 dBm
13. C. Multichannel Multipoint
Distribution System
15. B. accumulation of noise is
Section 18
reduced
Radio-Wave Propagation 17. A. 93. 52 dB, 14.2 mW
19. A. 2 watts
1. D. 23.9 GW/m2 21. D. power
3. B. Because radio- 23. B. Local Multipoint
frequency waves are Distribution System
below the sensitivity 25. A. 11.6 m
range of the human eye 27. C. 99.985%
5. A. The angle of refraction 29. C. jitter
is greater than the angle of 31. B. 99.975%
incidence 33. A. Grazing Path
7. D. 328 35. C. 16.4 meters
9. B. sudden ionospheric 37. B. noise level
(SID) 39. B. 0.521
11. B. 4.66 MHz 41. C. -62 dBm
13. C. (a) Vertical (b) Low 43. B. 182 K
15. C. 24.14 mi 45. C. -100 dBm
17. D. Space-wave 47. B. 16 km
reflections 49. C. -42.4 dBm
19. D. Ultraviolet radiation
21. C. (a) Electric (b) earth
Section 20 Section 21
Satellite Communications Cellular Communications System
1. B. 9.542 dB 1. D. 15 x 25 mm
3. C. 71.5 dB 3. B. TDD
5. A. 49 dB 5. D. AMPS
7. D. Centripetal force 7. A. Adaptive power control
9. D. 77.96 dB 9. C. 2 to 8 nodes
11. A. 260 ms 11. B. IMT-MC
13. C. 600 ms 13. C. Base station controller
15. A. 22,300 miles 15. C. Blocked calls
17. A. 253.33 ms 17. C. 3G
19. C. 112.5 dB 19. A. WCDMA
21. C. 7.6 km/s 21. C. 270.833 kbps
23. D. 24 satellites 23. C. Clone
25. A. 290 K 25. B. 73
27. C. telemetry 27. D. SIM
29. D. 6.35x10-16 W/m2 29. C. -45.7 dBm
31. D. Gravitational pull of 31. B. 10 cm to 10 meters
the earth and centripetal 33. B. less than 600 mW
force of the revolving 35. A. increase the number of
satellite cells
33. A. Telemetry, Tracking, 37. A. all frequencies are used
and Control in all cells
35. D. 500-MHz, 12, 36-MHz 39. B. 216 ft
37. B. DAMA 41. A. 416 E & 3333 E
39. D. Frequency Hopping 43. C. hard
41. A. line of apsides 45. A. 1.76 minutes
43. D. -165 dBW 47. D. 3GPP
45. B. -208.6 dBW 49. B. 67.708 kHz
47. D. Equipped with two 51. D. 95 MHz
mixers 53. A. 1 meter
49. A. Footprint 55. B. IS-95
51. D. 5 57. A. 666
53. D. 195.7 dB 59. C. 250 mW
55. C. High directional 61. C. CCITT
antenna 63. D. LAI
57. D. Frequency re-use 65. C. 300
technique 67. D. Both A and B
59. C. Perigee 69. A. 2.4 GHz
61. B. 35,780 km 71. D. Special Interest Group
63. C. footprint 73. B. the units is handed off
65. A. azimuth and elevation to a closer cell
67. C. 103 watts 75. D. 1981
69. C. orbital adjustments 77. D. Qualcomm
71. A. low-noise amplifier 79. D. 7
73. A. television receive only 81. D. 25 MHz
75. D. Osumi, Alouette 1 83. C. 40,000
85. A. from the base to the
mobile
87. A. IMT-TC
89. A. 36 s
91. B. SAT

93. A. Basic Service Set 17. B. 11.6 statute miles

95. C. AMPS 19 A. A measurable amount
97. C. 890-915 MHz of time is required to send
99. A. FCCH and receive a radio signal
101. C. GSM through the earth's
103. D. IMT-SC atmosphere.
105. B. FM 21. A. radar beacon
107. D. Bluetooth 23. B. Pulse position
109. A. 100 m, 20 dBm modulation
111. D. IEEE 802.15.1 25. A. Differential phase shift
113. B. scatternet keying
115. C. wireless USB, wireless 27. D. A frequency
Ethernet modulated continuous
117. C. Intercell interference wave
119. A. OFDM 29. D. An aircraft's ADF
121. C. 3 antennas can receive
123. D. the ratio of the distance transmissions that are over
between areas to the the earth's horizon
transmitter power of the (sometimes several
areas hundred miles away) since
125. C. frequency hopping these signals will follow the
curvature of the earth
31. C. Quadrantal error is
caused by the presence of
the aircraft in the
electromagnetic field of the
Section 22 NDB transmission
Navigation System 33. C. 230o
35. C. 3o
37. B. If the strength of the
1. B. 108.00 MHz to
90 Hz audio signal is
117.95 MHz
greater than the strength
3. A. Its reception range is
of the 150 Hz audio signal
based on both the aircraft's
of the antenna patterns;
altitude and the aircraft's
the aircraft is to the left of
line-of-sight to the VOR
the centerline of the
station
runway.
5. A. Magnetic directions
39. C. It is the line-of-sight
7. A. Variation
distance between an
9. D. Relative bearing aircraft and a selected
11. A. 962 MHz to 1213 MHz ground-based navigation
13 D. Two antenna patterns station.
are produced; one above 41. A. Transmit at 1090 MHz
the normal 2.5 degree and receive at 1030 MHz
ascent angle to the 43. A. Telemetry
runway's surface at an
45. B. Gyrocompass
audio modulated tone of 90
47. B. Directions
Hz and one below the
49. A. 180 degrees South,
normal 2.5 degree ascent
true bearing position of the
angle to the runway's
VOR station
surface at an audio
modulated tone of 150 Hz. 51. D. bearing and distance
15. B. Deviation indication
53. C. 329 to 335 MHz
55. B. VLF broadcast with a carrier

57. B. 108 to 112 MHz power of 5 kilowatts
59. B. A horizontal deviation of an 10. D. Cancellation of its
airplane from its optimum authority
path of descent along the 11. B. Dept. Order 88
axis of the runway 12. B. Radio station license
61. C. Echo time off the object to 13. A. National
the source Telecommunications
63. C. 1227 to 1575 MHz Communication
65. C. Radio Detection and 14. A. Local exchange
Ranging operator
67. B. More affirmative at wider 15. C. If he has capacity
bandwidth 16. B. Value-added service
69. D. Time delay provider
17. B. PD 223
18. A. Efficient use and
equitable access
Section 23 19. C. Decision of depth of
Radar Fundamentals conduit at interconnection
point
1. D. 1 s, 0.09% 20. B. E.O. 467
3. B. 1 MW 21. A. ITU-T
5. D. 927 Hz 22. C. Provision of
7. C. 132,700,000 meters radiotelegraph operator
9. B. 3.84 m 23. D. WTDC
11. C. 10 mi 24. A. Radio operator
13. B. 40 kph telegraphy onboard
15. A. 10.1 fW 25. D. A radio telegraph
17. B. 750 km, 7.5 km operator
19. C. 345.6 km 26. B. Interconnection
21. A. 400 27. A. New entrant has more
23. B. 589 Hz financial support
28. C. E.O. No. 266
29. B. 30 days
30. A. Act. No. 3846
31. C. Undergrounding
32. A. 1999
33. C. Sleeve
Section 24 34. C. E.O. 109
Laws and Ethics 35. A. Administration
36. B. Franchise
1. D. 156.8 MHz
37. B. Council
2. C. Riser terminal
38. B. NTC
3. A. Arrester
39. B. R.A. No. 6849
4. B. Department of
40. A. PHP 5,000.00
Transportation and
41. C. PHP 5,000.00
Communications
42. A. PHP 5,000.00
5. D. E.O.109
43. A. PHP 180,
6. C. Three lines
PHP 1200.00/year,
7. D. 20 kW
PHP 720.00/year
8. A. 45
44. A. PHP 5,000.00
9. A. Standard AM
45. B. PHP 25,000.00

46. C. 50cm x 10
47. A. Band A : 1920 1935MHz/
2110 2125MHz,
Band B : 1935 1950MHz/
2125 2140MHz
48. B. Band C : 1950 1965MHz/
2140 2155MHz,
Band D : 1885 1900MHz/
1965 1980MHz
49. C. PHP 100M for each band
50. C. PHP 100,000,
PHP 1,000,000
--- End of Text ---

MEMORY ENHANCEMENT
& EXAMINATION TIPS
Be careful for nothing; but in every thing by prayer and supplication

with thanksgiving let your requests be made known unto God.
Phi 4:6
I. .MEMORY PREFERENCES.
Each person will have his or her own set of ways of remembering any one
thing. Each person will also find it easier to remember something difficult
by using a different combination of strategies. Some people are
outstanding at remembering things they hear aloud - so it makes sense for
them to say out loud what they need to remember. Other people find they
remember what they read if they sing it to themselves. Others remember
things by associating them with places or people. This may feel unusual -
but use what works for you. For complex and important things, you
increase you chances of remembering them if you:
1. use the strategies that work best for you

2. use more than one strategy
3. make a conscious effort to commit the information to memory
4. do this on at least three occasions.
II. .USEFUL MEMORY STRATEGIES.
1. Putting the information to music. Try singing it.

2. Using color. Color code information, or use different highlighter pens
for different purposes.
3. Make visual aid materials that you always see everyday.
4. Walking to new places as you try to remember something.
5. Linking the information to other things that are relevant to you.
6. Working with the information: write it out, say it, draw it, color it in,
discuss it, argue against it, summarize it, and organize it into the best
order.
7. Numbering the different aspects.
8. Organizing the information into a smaller number of pieces, each with
its own heading, name or label.
9. Finding out something else about it.
10. Remembering things in groups of three or five items.
11. Using several of these approaches for the same item.
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10-2 M EM ORY ENHANCEM ENT and EXAM INATION TIPS
III. .IMPROVING YOUR MEMORY.
Anyone can improve their memory by following a 3 step process:

1. Paying attention
2. Applying constructivist methods
3. Making information easy to remember
A. Paying attention
Take an active role in learning.
Memorization is sometimes needed but is not enough.
Review information and quiz yourself for true understanding.
B. Constructivism
Constructivism deals with correlating new information with old
information.
Thus, one constructs new understanding by fitting new
information with prior understanding or experiences.
Rather than memorizing random facts, try to relate them to prior
knowledge.
Think about new information and draw comparisons to other
things you know.
Think about similar information learned earlier.
Draw analogies between old information and new information.
This allows you to see the big picture and not get swamped with
new information.
C. Make Information Memorable

Repetition, Repetition, Repetition, Repetition, Repetition,
Repetition, Repetition
Read it, Write it, Say it, Explain it, Draw it, Ask questions about
it.....
Break down words by prefix or suffix. (Hydro relates to water)
Use memory tricks:
Mnemonics for lists:
Examples:
1. ARMIDAS is for Antenna, RF amplifier, Mixer, IF amplifier,
Detector, Audio, Speaker
2. PAA is for Phosphorous, Antimony, and Arsenic
3. BAG is for Boron, Aluminum, and Gallium
Make silly rhymes or sayings to remember lists.

Use silly analogies to remember examples.
Humor is a powerful memory trigger; the dumber the better.
IV. .HOW WE LEARN BEST.
We can improve the conditions for learning by being aware of some of the
ways the brain works. Although we do not need to know a great deal about
the brain, understanding some basics can help us to make the most of our
minds. Some of the optimal conditions for learning are common sense and
good for our general health. For example, the brain works well when:
it is rested - sleep affects our performance
it is hydrated-drinking water helps the electrical connections of the
brain
it is unstressed- when it is stressed, it can focus only on 'escape', not
on such matters as reading journals and writing assignments
it enjoys itself-it is important to look for any angle that can stimulate
our interest in what we are learning
it has seen something several times -little and often works better than
trying to understand something in one sitting
Taking Better Notes

Go to review class. Note services are no substitute. Someone else's
notes can contain fundamental errors, even with professional note
takers. The physical act of writing helps some students remember
information.
It's not "uncool" to sit up front. At the very least you'll hear
everything clearly. Some rooms are big and some reviewers are very
soft spoken.
Prime your mind before going to review class. Review the material
from the textbook. This lets you become a little familiar with terms
and images that may be covered in review class.
Also spend a little time trying to fit the upcoming material into the
context of similar information you are already familiar with. This
forces you to think about the upcoming material and see it in more
familiar terms. It's hard to take accurate notes on a topic that you
know absolutely nothing about.
V. .READING TIPS.
A. Reading for any subject
Be selective. You are not expected to read books from cover to

cover.
Change strategy. You need to develop skills in changing from one
kind of reading to another, depending on how useful the
information is for your purposes.
Use the index pages at the end of a book. Find the exact pages for
what you need.
Read from paper. Avoid reading for long periods from computer
screens if using the internet: print out an electronic copy in a font
that suits you.
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Set targets. It is easy to lose focus when reading. Set yourself

targets to complete a reading task, with clear objectives for what
you want to achieve.
Focus. Jot down a list of questions before you read and as you go
along. This will improve your attention - and save you from getting
side-tracked.
B. Reading for different purposes

For all subjects, you will need to know how to change quickly from one
kind of reading to another.
Browsing: looking over a text to see how it feels, whether it

appears to be the right kind of book, what it contains that might
be of use, getting a general feel of the contents. You often take in
more information when browsing than you may think at the time.
Checking: looking in the contents or index to see whether the
book contains specific information that you know you want - or
which looks useful.
Focusing in: allowing yourself to read more closely when you spot
something that looks more useful. It is also important to notice
when the text is less useful, and to return to browsing.
Fact-finding: looking for specific facts and data.
Background. This is additional reading which gives you a sense of
the bigger picture. Select texts that are general and which you
find inviting or easy to read. Read these selectively and at your
own pace. This is best undertaken in vacations if possible.
C. Reading for understanding

The main purpose of reading is to understand - not to get through text
at speed for the sake of it. Comprehension is increased if:
You are clear about what you are looking for.

You discuss your reading with others. Each person is likely to
make sense of different aspects, and you can pool your ideas.
You read something that gives you a general overview first. For
complex ideas, choose the easiest book first and work up to more
complex texts.
You keep active. Set yourself targets and jot down questions to
answer. If the book is yours, underline key points, use highlighter
pens selectively, write summaries in the margin. This prevents
you from drifting off or simply reading the same text over and
over without taking it in.
Read in short bursts of up to twenty minutes, then take a few
minutes break before starting again.
Make notes of key points as you go along. This can create natural
breaks every few minutes in your reading that can help maintain
attention.
Change reading speed. Often, reading faster can help memory of
what you are reading, so it makes more sense. Browse quickly
and focus in more slowly only where needed.
VI. .MULTIPLE CHOICE EXAM PREPARATIONS.
Studying for a multiple choice exam requires a special method of

preparation distinctly different from an essay exam. Multiple choice exams
ask a student to recognize a correct answer among a set of options that
include 3 or 4 wrong answers (called distractors ), rather than asking the
student to produce a correct answer entirely from his/her own mind.
To prepare for a multiple choice exam, consider the following steps:
1. For Studying Tips
Find a quiet, well lit place to study. It seems obvious, but

sometimes you have to hide from distractions. (i.e. friends in the
dorm) Tell others you are working and ask them to leave you
alone for a while. You can meet later to relax and have fun.
Work at a desk or table. DO NOT lie down on a couch or bed to
study. Take a break if you need it.
Find the best time of day to study. Some students are most
awake in the morning, others think best late at night. Learn the
most optimal time of day for you to concentrate and study.
Set up a study schedule that includes a few hours each day. Stick
to it.
Bribe yourself. Promise yourself that you'll do something fun IF
you study for a period of time.
Take frequent short breaks if you need it. Studies show people
can concentrate for about 30 minutes before they lose focus.
When you get to the point where your mind starts to wander, get
up and take a walk. Get a drink and come back.
Sometimes working with others can help you illustrate which
material is understood and which isn't. If you can answer
questions and explain concepts to others, odds are you know the
information well. Otherwise you'll realize what need to study
some more.
Be cautious about studying with others. Sometimes certain
members will actually provide a distracting force. Carefully choose
with whom you will work.
Cycle between working alone and working with others. Work
alone to master concepts and information. Work with others to
test your true understanding.
4. General Rules for taking Exams
A. Preparing for the exam

Multiple choice exams tend to focus on details, and you
cannot retain many details effectively in short-term memory.
If you learn a little bit each day and allow plenty of time for
repeated reviews, you will build a much more reliable long-
term memory.
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Pay particular attention to fundamental terms and concepts

that describe important events or features, or that tie related
ideas and observations together. These are the items that
most commonly appear on multiple choice exams.
If your textbook highlights new vocabulary or key definitions,
be sure that you understand them. Sometimes new words and
concepts are collected at the end of a chapter. Check to be
sure that you have not left any out by mistake.
Do not simply memorize the book's definitions. Most
instructors will rephrase things in their own words as they
write exam questions, so you must be sure that you really
know what the definitions mean.
Practice on sample questions, if you have access to a study
guide or old exams.
Spaced practice is better than massed practice.
B. Taking the Test

Arrive early so you don't feel rushed trying to find a seat, it's
an unnecessary distraction.
Scan the entire test first. Are all the pages there? Is there an
answer sheet? Then you can budget your time as you go.
Don't guess too soon! You must select not only a correct
answer, but the best answer. It is therefore important that
you read all of the options and not stop when you come upon
one that seems likely.
You must select not only a technically correct answer, but the
most completely correct answer. Since "all of the above" and
"none of the above" are very inclusive statements, these
options, when used, tend to be correct more often than would
be predicted by chance alone.
Be wary of the extra-long or "jargony option." These are
frequently used as decoys.
Use your knowledge of common prefixes, suffixes, and word
roots to make intelligent guesses about terminology that you
don't know. Knowledge of the prefix "micro," for instance,
would clue you that microwatts refer to a very low unit of
power.
Utilize information and insights that you've acquired in
working through the entire test to go back and answer earlier
items that you weren't sure of.
If you are not certain of an answer, guess... but do so
methodically. Eliminate ome choices you know are incorrect,
then relate each alternative back to the stem of the question
to see if it fits. Narrow down the choice to one or two
alternatives and then compare them and identify how they
differ. Finally, make an informed guess.
If you have absolutely no idea what the answer is, can't use
any of the above techniques, and there is no scoring penalty
for guessing, choose option C or B. Studies indicate that these
are correct slightly more often than would be predicted by

chance alone.
When you get "all the above," "none of the above," or "a,b,
not c" type questions, treat each alternative as a true-false
question and relate it back to the question stem.
Think the answer is wrong? Maybe you should change it?
Studies indicate that when students change their answers
they usually change them to the wrong answer. Therefore, if
you were fairly certain you were correct the first time, leave
the answer as it is.
Finally, the best way to insure selection of the correct option
is to know the right answer. A word to the test-wise is
sufficient.
Some of the worst problems occur when students enter a time
warp and forget to check the clock, or when they spend too
much time on one or two difficult items. To prevent this from
happening, one trick you can use is to scribble the desired
"finish time" time for each section right on the test booklet.
That way, you'll be prompted to check the clock after
completing each part of the exam.
Try taking a few breaks during the exam by stopping for a
moment, shutting your eyes, and taking some deep breaths.
Periodically clearing your head in this way can help you stay
fresh during the exam session. Remember, you get no points
for being the first person to finish the exam, so don't feel like
you have to race through all the items -- even two or three
30-second breaks can be very helpful.
Don't speed through the items with the idea of going back to
change answers you are unsure of. If you take time to think
through each question, your initial answer will usually be the
correct one. Although there are always exceptions to this rule,
the best approach in most cases is to carefully answer each
question the first time you go through the exam, and change
only those answers that are clearly mistakes.
Most importantly: Remain Calm! Panicking only leads to
mistakes. If you studied well the answer is in your head
somewhere. It may take a little concentration to retrieve the
required information.
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Major References:
1. R. Blake, Electronic Communication Systems, 2nd ed., Delmar,
Singapore, 2002
2. A. Carlson, Communications System, McGraw-Hill, 1975
3. L. W. Couch, Digital and Analog Communication System, 6th ed.,
Prentice Hall, Upper Saddle River, 2001
4. R.L. Freeman, Telecommunication Transmission Handbook, 3rd ed.,
Wiley & Sons, Canada, 1991
5. R.L. Freeman, Fundamentals of Telecommunications, 3rd ed., Wiley &
Sons, Canada, 1999
6. L.E. Frenzel, Communications Electronics, 2nd ed., McGraw-Hill,
Singapore, 1994
7. B. Grob, Basic Television and Video Systems, 5th ed., McGraw Hill,
Singapore, 1984
8. W.H. Hayt, Jr., Engineering Electromagnetics, 5th ed., McGraw-Hill,
New York, 1988
9. W.C.Y. Lee, Mobile Communications Engineering, 2nd ed., McGraw Hill,
New York, 1997
10. G. Kennedy, Electronic Communications System, 3rd ed., McGraw-Hill,
New York, 1984
11. L.E. Kinsler, A.R. Frey, Fundamentals of Acoustics, 3rd ed., Wiley &
Sons, Canada, 1982
12. J. Kraus, D. Fleisch, Electromagnetics with Applications, McGraw Hill,
New York, 1999
13. G.M. Miller, Modern Electronic Communication, 4th ed., Prentice Hall,
New Jersey, 1992
14. S.K. Mitra, Digital Signal Processing, A Computer-Based Approach
McGraw Hill, Singapore, 1998
15. J.C. Palais, Fiber Optic Communications, 3rd ed., Prentice Hall, New
Jersey, 1992
16. E. Pasahow, Electronics Pocket Reference, 3rd ed., McGraw-Hill,
Singapore, 2000
17. J.G. Proakis, D.G. Manoakis, Digital Signal Processing, 3rd ed., Prentice
Hall, Singapore, 2000
18. D. Roddy & J. Coolen, Electronic Communications, 4th ed., Prentice
19. A.S. Tanenbaum, Computer Networks, 3rd ed., Prentice Hall, New
Jersey, 1996
20. R. Shrader, Electronic Communication, McGraw-Hill, New York,1995
21. W. Schweber, Electronic Communication Systems, 2nd ed., Prentice
22. W. Stallings, Wireless Communications and Networks, Prentice Hall,
Upper Saddle River, N.J., 2002
23. W. Tomasi, Electronic Communications System, Fundamental to
Advanced, Prentice Hall, Upper Saddle River, 2001
24. A. S. Tanembaum, Computer Networks, 3rd ed., Prentice Hall,
Singapore, 1997
25. P. Young, Electronic Communications Techniques, Prentice Hall, New
Jersey, 1999

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To the woman who continually electrifies

my once boring life

To my students who compelled me how to learn

To my baby who always regenerates my strength

And to Him that gave us Maxwell, Hertz, Faraday,

To Him is the kingdom, the power, and the glory forever

He that walketh with wise men shall be wise

All rights reserved.

No part of this book may be reproduced in any form or by any means,

Printed in the Philippines

Important Legal Information: Warning and Disclaimer

This review book presents the fundamentals of Communications Engineering

These errors and any other comments can be

First & foremost, to God for His indescribable gift.

To my parents Jayme Ampoloquio and Teresita Ampoloquio, to my sisters and

To all the people who in invaluable ways help to mold my character as a

To my fellows, Engrs. Anthony Lopos, Gerard Ang, Rufino Orpia, Reginaldo

To Engrs. Randel Espina of Ateneo de Davao, Neil Abalajon of TUP-Visayas,

Read it till it Hertz

Happy reading c,)

CHAPTER 1: Introduction to Electronic Communication 1-xx

CHAPTER 2: Acoustics & Broadcasting 2-xx

CHAPTER 3: Wire Communications 3-xx

CHAPTER 4: Computer Communications 4-xx

CHAPTER 5: Wireless Communications 5-xx

CHAPTER 6: Navigational Aids 6-xx

CHAPTER 7: Miscellaneous Topics 7-xx

PRC Examinees Guide 8-xx

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Section Basic Principles of Read it

DEFINITION. Electronic Communication is the transmission, reception, and

DEFINITION. Allocation: Entry in the Table of Frequency Allocations of a

DEFINITION. Allotment: Entry of a designated frequency channel in the

DEFINITION. Assignment: Authorization given by a nation for a radio

1821 Andre Marie Ampere already observed momentarily the phenomenon

1822 Michael Faraday discovered electromagnetic induction, the reverse of

1830 An American, Joseph Henry, demonstrated telecommand by sending

Samuel F.B. Morse, successfully exploited Henrys invention

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1886 German physicist, Heinrich Hertz performed an experiment on spark

1896 An Italian, Guglielmo Marconi developed the first wireless telegraph

1900 Reginald Aubrey Fessenden, invented AM and successfully transmits a

1936 Major Edwin Armstrong developed the first successful FM radio

A. .NOMENCLATURE OF RADIO FREQUENCY BAND.

Based on ITU-R Recommendations V.431-6

B. .ELEMENTS OF BASIC COMMUNICATIONS SYSTEM.

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Read it till it Hertzjma

Purple noise - Purple noise's power density increases 6 dB per octave

It is also known as differentiated white noise or violet noise.

Orange noise - Orange noise is quasi-stationary noise with a finite

Black Noise - Noise that has a frequency spectrum of predominately

Modulation is the process of varying a carrier signal, typically a sinusoidal

Three General Subdivisions

Amplitude modulation (AM)

Amplitude Shift Keying (ASK)

Frequency Shift Keying (FSK)

Phase Shift Keying (PSK)

3. Hybrid Modulation (combined analog digital techniques)

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Pulse Frequency Modulation (PFM)

1. Time Domain Representation

iii. Period (T)