PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY

Class II Medical Excel 2016-17 Max. Marks 720

NEET Intensive Program Duration 3 Hours
Test 09 Date 29-12-2016
Topics Physics: Mechanical Properties of Solids
Chemistry: Hydrogen
Biology: Transport in plants and Mineral nutrition
Instructions
1. The test paper contains 180 multiple choice questions under four parts: Part I - Physics, Part II - Chemistry,
Part III - Biology. Answer all the questions.
2. Each question carries four marks for correct answer and one negative mark for wrong answer. Multiple markings
for the same question will be treated as wrong answer and will carry one negative mark.
3. For each question there are four options of which one option is correct. Choose the correct option and darken the
appropriate circle in the response sheet.
4. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself.
5. Calculator / Log table is not allowed.
OMR Instructions
1. Complete the particulars on side 1 of the OMR response sheet.
2. Ensure that the student ID is written on both sides of OMR response sheet.
3. Marking of more than one option for the same question will render the answer invalid.

PART I - PHYSICS
1. How much force is required to produce an increase of 0.2% in the length of a brass wire of diameter
0.6 mm? [Youngs modulus for brass = 0.9 1011 N/m2]
(A) nearly 17 N (B) nearly 51 N
(C) nearly 34 N (D) nearly 68 N

2. In a wire stretched by hanging a weight from its end, the elastic potential energy per unit volume in
terms of the longitudinal strain and modulus of elasticity Y is
1 Y Y2
(A) Y 2 (B) (C) 2Y2 (D)
2 2 2
3. The area of cross-section of a steel wire (Y = 2.0 1011 N/m2) is 0.1 cm2. The force required to double
its length will be
(A) 2 1012 N (B) 2 1011 N (C) 2 1010 N (D) 2 106 N
4. A wire suspended vertically from one of its ends is stretched by attaching a weight of 200 N to the lower
end. The weight stretches the wire by 1 mm. Then the elastic energy stored in the wire is
(A) 0.1 J (B) 0.2 J (C) 10 J (D) 20 J
5. An iron bar of length l and having a cross-section A is heated from 0 to 100 C. If this bar is so held that
it is not permitted to expand or bend, the force that is developed, is
(A) inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area of the bar
(B) independent of the length of the bar
(C) inversely proportional to the length of the bar
(D) directly proportional to the length of the bar

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T9 1
 V
6. For a constant hydraulic stress on an object, the fractional change in the objects volume and its
V
bulk modulus (B) are related as
V V 1 V V
(A) B (B) (C) B2 (D) B 2
V V B V V
7. A wire of natural length l, Youngs modulus Y and area of cross-section A is extended by x. Then the
energy stored in the wire is given by
1 YA 2 1 YA 2 1 Yl 2 1 YA 2
(A) x (B) x (C) x (D) x
2 l 3 l 2 A 2 l2

8. The length of an elastic string is l1 metre when the tension is 4 N and l2 metre when the tension is 5N.
The length in metres when the tension is 9N is
(A) 4l1 5l2 (B) 5l2 4l1 (C) 9l2 9l1 (D) l1 + l2
9. Rigidity modulus of steel is n and its youngs modulus is q. A piece of steel of cross sectional area a is
a
stretched into a wire of length L and area . Then
10
(A) q increases and n decreases (B) q and n remain the same
(C) q decreases and n increases (D) both q and n increase
10. A steel wire of 1 m long and 1 mm2 cross section area is hung from rigid end. When weight of 1 kg is
hung from it then change in length will be (given Y = 2 1011 N/m2 and g = 10 ms2)
(A) 0.5 mm (B) 0.25 mm (C) 0.05 mm (D) 5 mm
11. When load of 5 kg is hung on a wire then extension of 3 m takes place, the work done will be
(A) 75 joule (B) 60 joule (C) 50 joule (D) 400 joule

12. The breaking stress of a wire depends upon

(A) length of the wire (B) radius of the wire
(C) material of the wire (D) shape of the cross-section

13. A metallic wire of length L metre extends by l metre when stretched by suspending a weight of Mg to it.
Then the mechanical energy stored in the wire is
Mgl Mgl
(A) Mgl (B) (C) (D) 2 Mgl
2 4
14. One end of a uniform rope of length L and of weight w is attached rigidly to a point in the roof and a
weight w1 is suspended from its lower end. If s is the area of cross-section of the wire, the stress in the
3L
wire at a height from its lower end is
4
w 3w
w1 w1
w1 4 4 w w
(A) (B) (C) (D) 1
S S S S
15. Consider the statements A and B and identify the correct answer given below.
(1) If the volume of a body remains unchanged, when subjected to tensile strain, the value of Poissons
1
ratio is
2
(2) Phosphor bronze has low Youngs modulus and high rigidity modulus

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T9 2
 (A) 1 and 2 are correct (B) 1 and 2 are wrong
(C) 1 is correct 2 is wrong (D) 1 is wrong and 2 is right

16. When a copper metal sphere is heated, then percentage increase is maximum for
(A) area (B) volume (C) length (D) diameter

17. Poissons ratio cannot have the value

(A) 0.1 (B) 0.7 (C) 0.2 (D) 0.5
18. A steel wire of length 20 cm and uniform cross section 1 mm2 is tied rigidly at both the ends. The
temperature of the wire is altered from 40C to 20C. The coefficient of linear expansion for steel is
1.1 105 K1 and the Youngs modulus of steel is 2.0 1011 Nm2. The change in tension of the wire is
(A) 22 N (B) 44 N (C) 16 N (D) 8 N

19. Two wires A and B are made of same material. Their lengths are in the ratio 1 : 2 and their diameters are
in the ratio 2 : 1. If they are pulled by the same force, their increase in length will be in the ratio
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 8 : 1 (C) 1 : 8 (D) 1 : 4

20. Two rods of different materials having coefficients of linear expansion 1 and 2, Youngs modulii
Y1 and Y2 respectively are fixed between two rigid massive walls. The rods are heated such that they
undergo the same increase in temperature. There is no bending of rods. If 1 : 2 = 2 : 3, the thermal
stresses developed in the two rods are equal provided Y1 : Y2 is equal to
(A) 3 : 2 (B) 2 : 3 (C) 1 : 3 (D) 1 : 2
21. The compressibility of water is 4 105 per unit atmospheric pressure. The decrease in the volume of
100 cm3 of water under a pressure of 100 atmosphere will be
(A) 0.025 cm3 (B) 0.004 cm3 (C) 0.4 cm3 (D) 0.04 cm3
22. A wire of length 1 m and radius 4 mm is clamped at the upper end. The lower end is twisted by an angle
of 30. The angle of shear is
(A) 12 (B) 1.2 (C) 0.12 (D) 0.012
23. A steel wire is 1 m long and 1 mm2 in area of cross section. If it requires 200 N to stretch this wire by
1 mm, the force required to stretch the wire of the same material and same diameter from its normal
length 10 m to 10.02 m is
(A) 100 N (B) 200 N (C) 2000 N (D) 400 N

24. Which one of the following quantities does not have the unit of force per unit area?
(A) Stress (B) Strain (C) Youngs modulus (D) Pressure
25. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Hookes law is applicable only within elastic limit.
(B) The adiabatic and isothermal elastic constants of gases are equal.
(C) Youngs modulus is dimensionless.
(D) Stress multiplied by strain is equal to the stored energy.

26. The force required to stretch a steel wire of 1 cm2 cross section to 1.1 times its length would be (Given
Y = 2 1011Nm2)
(A) 2 106 N (B) 2 103 N (C) 2 106 N (D) 2 107 N

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27. For steel, the Youngs modulus and the strain at the breaking point are 2 1011 Nm2 and 0.15
respectively. The stress in Nm2, at the breaking point for steel is
(A) 1.33 1011 (B) 1.33 1012 (C) 7.5 103 (D) 3 1010
28. A wire of length L radius r is rigidly fixed at one end. On stretching the other end of wire with a force of
F, the increase in its length is L. Of another wire of the same material, but of length 2L and radius 2r is
stretched with a force 2F, the increase in its length will be
L
(A) L (B) 2L (C) (D) 4L
2
29. The following four wires are made of same material. Which of these will have the largest extension
when the same tension is applied?
(A) length 50 cm and diameter 0.5 mm (B) length 100 cm and diameter 1 mm
(C) length 200 cm and diameter 2 mm (D) length 300 cm and diameter 3 mm
30. Two wires are made of same material. Their lengths are L and 2L. Their radii are r and 2r. If they are
stretched by the same force, their extensions are e1 and e2. Then the ratio e1 : e2 is
(A) 1 : 8 (B) 8 : 1 (C) 1 : 4 (D) 2 : 1
31. A cylindrical tree has a breaking stress of 105 Nm2. The density of the tree is 2 102 kg m3. The
maximum possible height of the tree is
(A) 150 m (B) 50 m (C) 100 m (D) 25 m
32. On applying a stress of 20 108 Nm2, the length of a perfectly elastic wire is doubled. Its Youngs
modulus is
(A) 40 108 Nm2 (B) 20 108 Nm2
2
8
(C) 10 10 Nm (D) 5 108 Nm2
33. A wire can sustain a weight of 100 kg before it breaks. The wire is cut into two equal parts. Each part
can hold weight upto
(A) 100 kg (B) 200 kg (C) 50 kg (D) 40 kg
34. A rubber cord catapult has cross sectional are 25 mm2. Initial length of rubber cord is 10 cm. It is
stretched by 5 cm and then released to project a stone of mass 5 g. Taking the Youngs modulus for
rubber to be 5 108 Nm2, the velocity of the stone is
(A) 20 ms1 (B) 100 ms1 (C) 250 ms1 (D) 150 ms1
35. Bulk modulus of water is 2 109 Nm2 . The change in pressure required to increase the density of water
by 0.1% is
(A) 2 109 Nm2 (B) 2 108 Nm2 (C) 2 106 Nm 2 (D) 2 104 Nm 2

36. A string of 1 mm diameter breaks if the tension in it exceeds 80 N. The maximum tension that may be
given to a similar string of diameter 2 mm is
(A) 40 N (B) 80 N (C) 320 N (D) 1640 N

37. Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. However wire 1 has cross-sectional
area A and wire 2 has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of wire l increases by x on applying force
F, how much force is needed to stretch wire 2 by the same amount?
(A) F (B) 4F (C) 6F (D) 9F

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T9 4
38. The Youngs Modulus for a given material is 2.4 times that of its modulus of rigidity. Its Poissons ratio
is
(A) 2.4 (B) 1.2 (C) 0.4 (D) 0.2
39. Two wires of length l radius r and length 2l, radius 2r having same Youngs modulus Y are hung with a
weight mg. Net elongation is
3mgl 1mgl 2mgl 2mgl
(A) 2
(B) 2
(C) (D)
2r Y 2r Y 3 rY 3 r 2 Y

40. The load versus elongation graph for four wires of the same materials is shown
in the figure. The thinnest wire is represented by the line
(A) OC
(B) OD
(C) OA
(D) OB
41. When a wire is subjected to a force along its length, its length increases by 0.4% and its radius decreases
by 0.2%. Then the Poissons ratio of the material of the wire is
(A) 0.8 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.2 (D) 0.1
42. The Youngs modulus is numerically equal to the stress that arises in a wire when its length changes
from l to
(A) 1.25 l (B) 1.50 l (C) 1.75 l (D) 2.00 l
43. A metallic rod breaks when strain produced is 0.2%. The Youngs modulus of the material of the rod is
7 109 Nm2. What should be its area of cross-section to support a load of 104 N?
(A) 7.1 108 m2 (B) 7.1 106 m2 (C) 7.1 104 m2 (D) 7.1 102 m2
44. The fractional change in volume per unit increase in pressure in called
(A) Bulk modulus (B) Compressibility
(C) Pressure coefficient (D) Volume coefficient

45. Assertion (A): Stress is the internal force per unit area of a body.
Reason (R): Rubber is more elastic than steel.
(A) Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false

PART II - CHEMISTRY
46. Which is used to determine hardness of water volumetrically?
(A) H2C2O4 (B) Na2S2O3
(C) Sod. citrate (D) Di sodium salt of EDTA

47. Which of the following acts as both reducing and oxidising agents?
(A) H2SO4 (B) H2O2 (C) KOH (D) KMnO4

48. The gas used in the hydrogenation of oils in presence of nickel as a catalyst is
(A) methane (B) ethane (C) ozone (D) hydrogen

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T9 5
49. In solid hydrogen, the intermolecular bonding is
(A) ionic (B) van der Waals (C) metallic (D) covalent

50. Heavy water is qualified as heavy because it is

(A) a heavy liquid (B) an oxide of a heavier isotope of oxygen
(C) an oxide of deuterium (D) denser than water

51. On bubbling CO2 through a solution of barium peroxide in water

(A) O2 is formed (B) H2CO3 is formed
(C) H2O2 is formed (D) H2 is formed

52. Both temporary and permanent hardness are removed on boiling water with
(A) Ca(OH3)2 (B) Na2CO3 (C) CaCO3 (D) CaO

53. The ortho and para hydrogen possess

(A) same physical properties but different chemical properties
(B) different physical properties but same chemical properties
(C) same chemical and physical properties
(D) different physical and chemical properties
54. The metal that does not displace hydrogen from an acid is
(A) Hg (B) Zn (C) Al (D) Ca

55. Point out the incorrect statement.

(A) Hardness of water depends upon its soap consuming power
(B) Temporary hardness is due to bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium
(C) Permanent hardness is due to soluble sulphates, chlorides and nitrates of Ca and Mg
(D) Permanent hardness can be removed by boiling water

56. Pure H2 is obtained by the action of

(A) Al over KOH
(B) NaH ver H2O
(C) electrolysis of warm solution of Ba (OH)2 using Ni electrodes
(D) all of the above
57. The best explanation for not placing hydrogen with the group of alkali metals or halogens is that the
(A) hydrogen can form compounds with all other elements
(B) hydrogen is much lighter element than the alkali metals or the halogens
(C) ionization energy of hydrogen is too high for group of alkali metals but too low for halogen group
(D) none of the above

58. The acidified solution of FeCl3 is reduced by passing

(A) ordinary H2 (B) O2 (C) nascent H (D) H2

59. In periodic table tritium is placed in group

(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV
60. Heavy water was discovered by
(A) Nernst (B) Haber
(C) Urey and Washburn (D) Aston

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T9 6
61. Hydrogen may be prepared by heating a solution of caustic soda with
(A) Mg (B) Zn (C) Fe (D) Ag

62. The exhausted permutit is generally regenerated by percolating through it a solution of

(A) sodium chloride (B) calcium chloride (C) magnesium chloride (D) potassium chloride

63. Hydrogen peroxide for the first time was prepared by

(A) Priestley (B) Thenard (C) Gay-Lussac (D) Bernard
64. Sodium zeolite is
(A) NaAlSi2O6 (B) Na2Al2Si2O3 (C) Na2A12Si2O8 (D) NaAl2Si2O8

65. Hydrogen peroxide is industrially manufactured from

(A) 2-ethyl-anthraquinol (B) anthraquinone (C) naphthalene (D) anthracene

66. Nascent hydrogen consists of

(A) hydrogen atoms with excess energy (B) hydrogen molecules with excess energy
(C) hydrogen ions in excited state (D) solvated protons

67. In Boschs process which gas is utilised for the production of hydrogen gas?
(A) Producer gas (B) Water gas (C) Coal gas (D) none of these
68. The oxidizing property of H2O2 is best explained by assuming that two oxygen atoms in its molecule are
(A) bonded differently (B) bonded similarly
(C) bonded covalently (D) bonded by hydrogen bonds
69. Decomposition of H2O2 is retarded by
(A) acetanilide (B) alcohol (C) H3PO4 (D) all of these
70. Atomic hydrogen is obtained by
(A) electrolysis of heavy water
(B) reaction of water with heavy metals
(C) thermal decomposition of water
(D) passing silent electric discharge through hydrogen at low pressure

71. Acidified KMnO4 is decolourised by

(A) oxygen (B) hydrogen (C) nitric oxide (D) nascent hydrogen

72. The melting points of most of the solid substances increase with an increase of pressure. However, ice
melts at a temperature lower than its usual melting point when the pressure is increased. This is because
(A) ice is less denser than water (B) pressure generates heat
(C) the chemical bonds break under pressure (D) ice is not a true solid

73. Tritium emits

(A) -particles (B) -particles (C) -rays (D) neutrons

74. Ionic hydrides react with water to give

(A) acidic solutions (B) basic solutions (C) hydride ion (D) protons
75. Heavy hydrogen is used
(A) in filling the balloons (B) in studying reaction mechanism
(C) in calculating heat of formation (D) as oxidant

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T9 7
76. Ordinary hydrogen is a mixture of
(A) 75% ortho H2 + 25% para H2 (B) 25% ortho H2 + 75% para H2
(C) 50% ortho H2 + 50% para H2 (D) 99% para H2 + 1% ortho H2
77. When different metals like Zn, Sn, Fe are added to dilute sulphuric acid, same gas, which burns
explosively in air, is evolved. The gas is
(A) O2 (B) N2 (C) Cl2 (D) H2
78. The reaction, H2S + H2O2 S + 2H2O manifests
(A) acidic nature of H2O2 (B) alkaline nature of H2O2
(C) oxidizing nature of H2O2 (D) reducing nature of H2O2
79. Permanent hardness of water can be removed by adding calgon (NaPO3)n . This is an example of
(A) adsorption (B) exchange of ion
(C) precipitation (D) none of these
80. Of the two solvents H2O and D2O, NaCl dissolves
(A) equally in both (B) only in H2O
(C) more in D2O (D) more in H2O
81. H2O2 on treatment with chlorine gives
(A) H2 (B) oxygen
(C) hypochlorous acid (D) ClO2
82. Ozone reacts with H2O2 to give oxygen. One volume of ozone gives
(A) one volume of oxygen (B) half volume of oxygen
(C) 1.5 volume of oxygen (D) two volumes of oxygen
83. Which one of the following is correct for hydrogen
(A) It can form compounds with +1 as well as 1 oxidation states.
(B) It is always collected at cathode.
(C) It has very high ionization energy.
(D) It has same electronegativity as halogens.
84. The term occlusion is used for
(A) hydrogenation of oils (B) adsorption of hydrogen by metals
(C) dehydrogenation of saturated hydrocarbons (D) factories working with hydrogen
85. Which of the following is used to suppress the speed of neutrons in the nuclear reactor?
(A) D2O (B) H2O (C) H2 (D) Hg
86. When zeolite is treated with hard water, sodium ions of zeolite get exchanged with
(A) H , SO24 (B) Ca 2 , Mg 2
2+
(C) H , Ca 2 (D) only Mg

87. The concentration of 10 volume H2O2 is

(A) 30% (B) 3% (C) 1% (D) 10%
88. The mass percent of H2O2 in 30 volume H2O2 is
(A) 4.56 % (B) 9.11 % (C) 11.39 % (D) 13.67 %

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T9 8
In the questions that follow two statements (Assertion and Reason) are given. Statement II (R) is
purported to be the explanation for Statement I (A). Study both the statements carefully and then
mark your answers, according to the codes given below.
Mark your answer as
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) and (R) both are false.
89. Assertion: H2O2 reduces Cl2 to HCl.
Reason: H2O2 is called antichlor
90. Assertion: Calgon is used for removing Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions from hard water.
2+ 2+
Reason: Calgon forms precipitates with Ca and Mg .

PART III - BIOLOGY

91. In the given flow chart, the flow of water is shown from soil to xylem of the root. Identify the tissues
involved in steps A and B.

(A) A Hypodermis; B Protoxylem (B) A Medullary rays; B Phloem

(C) A Endodermis; B Phloem (D) A Endodermis; B Protoxylem
92. Given figure represents demonstration of osmosis by egg membrane osmoscope.

After few days, which of the following would have occurred?

(A) A rise in level X and a drop in level Y
(B) A drop in level X and a drop in level Y
(C) A rise in level X and a rise in level Y
(D) A drop in level X and a rise in level Y

93. In a fully turgid cell

(A) w s p (B) w zero (C) w s p (D) w s p
94. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: It becomes difficult to open and shut the wooden doors and windows during rainy season.
Statement 2: They imbibe water in rainy season and thus their volume is increased.
(A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(B) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
(D) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
95. A professor kept some moist seeds in an airtight jar and started lecturing. At the end of the experiment an
explosion occurred in the jar. What did the professor want to explain
(A) Osmosis (B) Diffusion
(C) Anaerobic respiration (D) Imbibition
2ME1617PCB(NIP)T9 9
 96. The type of diffusion in which substances move across the membrane along their concentration gradient
in the presence of certain carriers or transport proteins is called as
(A) simple diffusion (B) facilitated diffusion
(C) osmosis (D) active transport.
97. Use of excessive fertilizers causes wilting due to
(A) endosmosis (B) exosmosis
(C) imbibition (D) none of these
98. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
a. Hypotonic (i) No net flow of water
b. Hypertonic (ii) Water moves into the cell
c. Isotonic (iii) Water moves out of the cell
(A) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i) (B) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i)
(C) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii) (D) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii)
99. Read the following statements and select the correct option.
(i) Pure water has the highest water potential i.e., zero.
(ii) Process of diffusion does not require any input of energy.
(iii) Water moves from the system containing water at higher water potential to the one having lower
water potential.
(A) Statements (i) and (ii) are correct. (B) Statements (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(C) Statements (i) and (iii) are correct. (D) Statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
100. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
(A) Water potential is the chemical potential of the water
(B) Solute potential is always negative
(C) Pressure potential is zero in a flaccid cell
(D) Water potential equals solute potential in a fully turgid cell
101. Refer the given table and select the option that correctly fills the blanks in it.
Simple Facilitated Active
Property
diffusion transport transport
Highly selective A Yes B
Uphill transport No C Yes
Requires ATP No D Yes

A B C D
(A) No Yes No No
(B) Yes Yes Yes No
(C) No No No Yes
(D) No Yes Yes Yes
102. Movement of particles of matter in the cell due to its own kinetic energy is called
(A) Imbibition (B) Diffusion
(C) Osmosis (D) None of these

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T9 10
103. Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure-7 atm and
diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell B has osmotic pressure 2 atm, turgor pressure 3 atm and diffusion
pressure deficit 5 atm. The result will be
(A) Movement of water from cell B to A (B) No movement of water
(C) Equilibrium between the two (D) Movement of water from cell A to B
104. Which of the following statements does not apply to reverse osmosis?
(A) it is used for water purification.
(B) In this technique, pressure greater than osmotic pressure is applied to the system.
(C) It is a passive process.
(D) It is an active process.
105. Which of the following biological membranes is semipermeable?
(A) Fish and animal bladders (B) Egg membrane
(C) Plasma membrane of cell (D) Both (A) & (B) are correct
106. What shall be the sequence of events during wilting of a plant?
(A) Exosmosis, deplasmolysis, wilting (B) Endosmosis, plasmolysis, wilting
(C) Exosmosis, plasmolysis, wilting (D) Endosmosis, deplasmolysis, wilting
107. The hydrostatic pressure developed inside the cell on the cell wall due to endosmosis is called
(A) osmotic potential (B) diffusion pressure
(C) wall pressure (D) turgor pressure.
108. Glucose is not stored in plant due to
(A) Decrease in osmotic pressure (B) Increase in osmotic pressure
(C) Increase in turgor pressure (D) Decrease in turgor pressure
109. See the following diagram, when the TP of the cell B increases to 18. What
changes would be occur with regard to water movement
(A) No movement of water will occurred
(B) B actively absorb water from neighbour cell
(C) Water diffuses into B from outer cell
(D) Cells A, C, D and E absorb water from B
110. In water logged soil, plants generally are killed because of
(A) Deficiency of minerals (B) Excessive absorption of water
(C) Absence of air in the soil (D) Starvation
111. The given figure shows three different types of pathways of intercellular movement of water in plants.
Identify A, B and C and select the correct option.

A B C
(A) Apoplast Symplast Vacuolar
(B) Symplast Apoplast Vacuolar
(C) Symplast Vacuolar Apoplast
(D) Apoplast Vacuolar Symplast

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T9 11
112. Root pressure is due to
(A) Passive transport (B) Gravitation (C) Active transport (D) None of these
113. Passage cells are thin walled cell found in
(A) Endodermis of roots facilitating rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle
(B) Phloem elements that serve as entry points for substances for transport to other plant parts
(C) Testa of seeds to enable emergence of growing embryonic axis during seed germination
(D) Central region of style through which the pollen tube grows towards the ovary
114. Choose the correct option mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association of fungus with root system which helps
in
A. Absorption of water B. Mineral nutrition C. Translocation D. Gaseous exchange
(A) Only A (B) Only B (C) both A and B (D) both B and C
115. Root hair absorb water from the soil on account of
(A) Turgor pressure (B) Osmotic pressure
(C) Suction pressure (D) Root pressure
116. Guttation is the process of elimination of water from plants through or Guttation occurs from or The
pores in leaves through which water comes out in the form of droplets are called or A specialized
multicellular structure in leaves which excretes water droplets is called as
(A) Stomata (B) Hydathodes (C) Lenticels (D) Wounds
117. Guttation is found mostly in
(A) Herbaceous plant (B) Shrubs (C) Wood plants (D) None of these
118. Leaf photosynthates are transported to other parts of higher plants through
(A) Cambial cells (B) Pith cells (C) Xylem cells (D) Phloem cells
119. The figure indicates the ringing or girdling experiment. Bark having phloem is removed. This
experiment proves that phloem is the path for translocation of food. In this experiment swollen part of
stem has been shown. The possible cause of this swollen is

(A) Injured parts undergo turgidity

(B) A repairing mechanism is taken place
(C) Accumulation of water and mineral just above the ring
(D) Accumulation of food material just above the ring (As downward movement of food is inhibited)
120. Water moves up against gravity and even for a tree of 20 m height, the tip receives water within two
hours. The most important physiological phenomenon which is responsible for the upward movement of
water is
(A) cohesive forces (B) adhesive forces
(C) transpiration pull (D) root pressure
121. Which of the following would be in insignificant amount in xylem sap?
(A) Sugar (B) Nitrates
(C) Phosphates (D) Water

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122. Given figure demonstrates the translocation of organic solutes according to pressure flow hypothesis.

Which out of the following statements is incorrect regarding this?

(A) A continuous high osmotic concentration is maintained in region P, which loads a sieve tube element
by passively transporting solute molecules into it.
(B) R shows the movement of H2O into sieve tube elements from nearby xylem vessels by osmosis.
(C) Translocation of organic solutes takes place from region P with high turgor pressure to region Q with
low turgor pressure.
(D) In region Q, material is either consumed or is converted into insoluble storage forms resulting in
decreased osmotic pressure.
123. Unidirectional flow of water, minerals, some organic nitrogen and hormones occurs through
(A) xylem (B) phloem (C) root (D) vascular tissue.
124. Guard cells help in
(A) Protection against grazing (B) Transpiration
(C) Guttation (D) Fighting against infection
125. Which of the following is used to determine the rate of transpiration in plants
(A) Porometer (B) Potometer (C) Auxanometer (D) Tensiometer
126. In woody trees, the exchange of gases between the outer atmosphere and the internal tissue of the stem
takes place through
(A) Aerenchyma (B) Stomata
(C) Pneumatophores (D) Lenticels
127. Choose the correct combination of labelling of stomata! apparatus of dicot and monocot leaves

(A) A epidermal cells, B = subsidiary cells, C = chloroplast, D = guard cells, E = stomatal aperture
(B) A = epidermal cells, B = guard cells, C = chloroplast, D = subsidiary cells, E = stomatal aperture
(C) A = epidermal cells, B = subsidiary cells, C = chloroplast, D stomatal aperture, E = guard cells
(D) A = subsidiary cells, B = epidermal cells, C = chloroplast, D = stomatal aperture, E = guard cells
128. Stomatal index I is equal to
S S E ES
(A) (B) (C) (D)
E S ES ES E

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129. Match the followings and choose the correct option
Column-I Column-II
a. Leaves (i) Transpiration
b. Seed (ii) Negative osmotic potential
c. Roots (iii) Imbibition
d. Plasmolyzed cell (iv) Absorption
Options:
(A) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(i) (B) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(i),
(C) a-(i), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(ii) (D) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(ii),
130. Stomatal opening and closing involves the role of various ions. In the
given figure, arrows depict the movement of certain ions during
stomatal opening in light. Identify the ions (P Q, R and S) and select the
correct option.
P Q R S

(A) Malate2 K +
Cl H+

(B) +
K H+ Cl Malate2
(C) H+ K+ Cl Malate2
(D) K+ Malate2 H+ Cl
131. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
a. Vein ending (i) Transpiration
b. Necessary evil (ii) Osmosis
c. Semipermeable membrane (iii) Transpiration pull
d. Cohesion (iv) Guttation
e. Stomata closure (v) ABA
(A) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(ii), e-(v) (B) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii), e-(v)
(C) a-(iii), b-(v), c-(i), d-(ii), e-(iv) (D) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv), e-(v)
132. The technique of growing plants in a nutrient solution, in complete absence of soil is called as
(A) aeroponics (B) water culture
(C) hydroponics (D) soil culture
133. The given figure shows a typical setup for hydroponic technique. Choose the option
which gives correct set of words for all the three blanks A. B and C
(A) A - Funnel for adding water and nutrients, B - Aerating tube, C Water
(B) A - Funnel for adding nutrients only, B - Aerating tube, C - Nutrient solution
(C) A - Funnel for adding water only, B - Aerating tube, C - Nutrient solution
(D) A - Funnel for adding water and nutrients, B - Aerating tube, C - Nutrient
solution
134. Which of the following is not a criterion for essentiality of an element?
(A) Requirement of the element is specific
(B) Necessary for normal growth and reproduction
(C) Not replaceable by another element
(D) Indirectly involved in plant metabolism

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T9 14
135. Which of the following ions of heavy metals participate in process of photosynthesis in higher plants?
(A) Pb, Fe, Ni, Co (B) Mg, Zn, Cu, Hg
(C) Mg, Mn, Co, Fe (D) Mg, Cu, Mn, Fe
136. Tracer elements are
(A) Micro elements (B) Macro-elements
(C) Radio isotopes (D) Vitamins
137. Essential elements for plants are
(A) Life cycle incomplete without it (B) Non replaceable
(C) Metabolism (D) All above
138. Which group of element is not essential for a normal plant
(A) Potassium, calcium, magnesium (B) Iron, zinc, manganese, boron
(C) Lead, nickel, iodine, sodium (D) Magnesium, iron, molybdenum
139. About 98 percent of the mass of every living organism is composed of just six elements including
carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and
(A) Phosphorus and sulphur (B) Sulphur and magnesium
(C) Magnesium and sodium (D) Calcium and phosphorus
140. Chlorosis occurs when plants are grown in
(A) Dark
(B) Shade
(C) Strong light
(D) Fe free medium or (due to lack of iron or magnesium)
141. Which element is require for the Germination of pollen grain?
(A) Boron (B) Calcium (C) Chlorine (D) Potassium
142. Which of the following are macronutrients?
(A) Carbon, nitrogen (B) Oxygen, Phosphorus
(C) Potassium, Sulphur (D) All of these
143. Micronutrients are present in plant tissues in concentrations less than ________ of dry matter.
(A) 1 m-mole kg1 (B) 10 m-mole kg1
(C) 0.1 m-mole kg1 (D) 2 m-mole kg1
144. The inorganic essential elements which are obtained from the soil are called as
(A) mineral elements (B) non-mineral elements
(C) non-essential elements (D) both (B) and (C).
145. The plant ash is an indication of
(A) Organic matter of plant (B) Waste product
(C) Mineral salts absorbed by plants (D) None of these
146. Ion uptake is called active because
(A) Ions are active (B) Energy is expended
(C) Ions move freely (D) Ions move passively
147. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
a. Mg2+ (i) Nitrate reductase
b. Zn2+ (ii) RuBisCO, PEPCO
c. Mo (iii) Alcohol dehydrogenase

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T9 15
 (A) a-(ii), b-(iii), (c)-(i) (B) a-(iii), b-(ii), (c)-(i)
(C) a-(i), b-(iii), (c)-(i) (D) a-(ii), b-(i), (c)-(iii)
148. Which one of the following essential elements plays an important role in opening and closing of
stomata?
(A) Mg (B) K (C) Mn (D) P
149. Chlorosis i.e. loss of chlorophyll leading to yellowing in leaves, is caused by the deficiency of
(A) N, K, Mg (B) S, Fe, Zn (C) Mn, Mo, Mg (D) All of these.
150. Necrosis mainly occurs by the deficiency of
(A) Ca, Mg (B) N, S (C) Mn, Mo (D) Fe, Mn.
151. Which of the following is associated with electron transport in photosynthesis ?
(A) Sodium (B) Potassium (C) Iron (D) Cobalt
152. Match the following mineral element with their deficiency symptom and choose the coned option
Column I Column II
A. Calcium 1. Chlorotic veins
B. Potassium 2. Delayed germination of seeds
C. Zinc 3. Necrosis of young leaves
D. Iron 4. Scorched leaf tips
E. Phosphorous 5. Malformed leaves
(A) A 3, B 1, C 5, D 2, E 4 (B) A 1, B 4, C 5, D 3, E 2
(C) A 3, B 4, C 5, D 1, E 2 (D) A 2, B 3, C 4, D 1, E 5
153. Deficiency of which of the following elements delay flowering in plants?
(A) Fe, Mn, Mo (B) N, S, Mo
(C) Ca, Mg, K (D) N, K, S
154. Premature leaf fall is due to deficiency of
(A) sodium (B) potassium (C) zinc (D) phosphorus.
155. Which of the following is not a deficiency symptom of minerals?
(A) Internode shortening (B) Necrosis
(C) Chlorosis (D) Etiolation
156. Deficiency symptoms of an element tend to appear first in young leaves. It indicates that the element is
relatively immobile. Which one of the following elemental deficiency would show such symptoms?
(A) Sulphur (B) Magnesium
(C) Nitrogen (D) Potassium
157. Which one of the following symptoms is not due to manganese toxicity in plants?
(A) Calcium translocation in shoot apex is inhibited.
(B) Deficiency in both Iron and Nitrogen is induced.
(C) Appearance of brown spot surrounded by chlorotic veins.
(D) None of the above.
158. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: Soil serves as a reservoir of essential elements.
Statement 2: Soil develops, over the years, through physical and chemical weathering of rocks.
(A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(B) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but statement 2 is not-the correct explanation of statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
(D) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T9 16
159. Mineral salts are translocated through (i) along with the (ii) stream of water, which is pulled up through
the plant by transpirational pull. Fill up the blanks in the given statement and select the correct option.
(i) (ii)
(A) xylem ascending
(B) xylem descending
(C) phloem ascending
(D) phloem descending
160. With reference to absorption of minerals, the term outer space represents ________ while inner space
represents________.
(A) intercellular space and cell wall; cytoplasm and vacuole
(B) cytoplasm and vacuole; intercellular space and cell wall
(C) intercellular space; vacuole
(D) cytoplasm; vacuole
161. The largest reservoir of nitrogen on earth is
(A) soil (B) air (C) oceans (D) rocks.
162. The limiting factor in nitrification of soil is
(A) Soil nature (pH) (B) Light (C) Temperature (D) Air
163. Which of the following pigments is essential for nitrogen fixation by leguminous plants
(A) Anthocyanin (B) Phycocyanin (C) Phycoerythrin (D) Leghaemoglobin
164. Which one of the following helps in absorption of phosphorus from soil by plants?
(A) Glomus (B) Rhizobium (C) Frankia (D) Anabaena
165. Which of the following is a non-symbiotic nitrogen fixing prokaryote?
(A) Azotobacter (B) Clostridium (C) Beijerinckia (D) All of these
166. A farmer adds Azotobacter culture to soil before sowing maize. Which mineral element will be
replenished by doing so?
(A) N (B) P (C) K (D) S
167. _______ conditions are created by leghaemoglobin in the root nodule of a legume.
(A) Aerobic (B) Anaerobic (C) Acidic (D) Alkaline
168. Nif genes occur in
(A) Rhizobium (B) Aspergillus (C) Penicillium (D) Streptococcus
169. Reaction carried out by N2 fixing microbes include
2NH3 3O2 2NO 2 2H 2H 2O (i)
2NO2 O 2
2NO3 (ii)
Which of the following statements about these equations is not true?
(A) step (i) is carried out by Nitrosomonas or Nitrosococcus.
(B) step (ii) is carried out by Nitrobacter.
(C) both steps (i) and (ii) can be called nitrification.
(D) bacteria carrying out these steps are usually photoautotrophs.
170. With regard to the Biological Nitrogen Fixation by Rhizobium in association with soybean, which one of
the following statement / statements does not hold true?
(A) Nitrogenase may require oxygen for its functioning.
(B) Nitrogenase is M0-Fe protein.
(C) Leg-hemoglobin is a pink coloured pigment.
(D) Nitrogenase helps to convert N2 gas into two molecules of ammonia.

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T9 17
171. The first stable product of fixation of atmospheric nitrogen in leguminous plants is
(A) Glutamate (B) NO2 (C) Ammonia (D) NO3
172. The given figure indicates the development of root nodule in soyabean

Identify A, B, C and D respectively

(A) A - Nitrosomonas bacteria; B - Cortex cell; C - Inner cortex; D - Infection thread
(B) A - Rhizobial bacteria; B - Endodermal cell; C - Inner Endodermis; D - Infection thread
(C) A - Rhizobial bacteria; B - Cortex cell; C - Inner cortex; D - Infection thread
(D) A - Rhizobial bacteria; B - Cortex cell; C - Outer cortex; D - Infection thread

Assertion and Reason

(A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) If both assertion and reason are false.
173. Assertion: Reductive amination involves the transfer of amino group from one amino acid to the keto
group of a keto acid.
Reason: In transamination reaction, ammonia reacts with -ketoglutaric acid and forms glutamic acid.
174. Assertion: Reduction of nitrogen to ammonia by living organisms is called nitrification.
Reason: Example of free-living nitrogen fixing anaerobic microbes areAzotobacter and Beijerinckia.
175. Assertion: Plants absorb calcium from soil in the form of calcium ions (Ca2+).
Reason: Calcium is required by meristematic and differentiating tissues.
176. Assertion: Deficiency symptoms appear when the availability of the essential nutrients falls below the
critical concentration.
Reason: Critical concentration is that limited concentration of the essential element below which growth
of the plant is reduced.
177. Assertion: Mass or bulk flow is the movement of substances in bulk from source to sink as a result of
pressure differences.
Reason: Water, minerals and food are generally moved by mass flow.
178. Assertion: Light is very important factor in transpiration.
Reason: It induces stomatal opening and darkness closing. Therefore, transpiration increases in light
decreases in dark.
179. Assertion: In symport method both molecules cross the membrane in the same direction at the same
time.
Reason: In antiport method both molecules move in opposite direction.
180. Assertion: Capillary water is not readily available to the plants as it lies below the level of roots.
Reason: Gravitational water constitutes the only water available to the plants.

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