DAY 1 l Nature and Scope of Biology DAY 24 DAY 44 DAY 51

DAY 2 l The Living World, Systematics and l Cell Organelles : Structure and l Respiration, Types of Respiration, l Breathing & Exchange of Gases
its types. Function, Cytoskeleton, Cilia Respiratory Quotient, Fermentation l Respiratory System in Humans.
Flagella and Centre. and Glycolysis. DAY 52
DAY 3 l Binomial Nomenclature,
Taxonomical categories and Aids. DAY 25 DAY 45 l Mechanism of Breathing
l Study of Nucleus (Nuclear l Krebs Cycle, PPP ( Pentose Phosphate l Regulation of Breathing
DAY 4 l Biological Classification
Membrane, Chromatin, Nucleolus) Pathway), Electron Transport System, l Exchange of Gases
DAY 5 l Viruses and Viroids and Chromosome Structure, Types Oxidative Phosphorylation, DAY 53
DAY 6 l Monera and Function. Amphibolic Pathways. l Transport of Gases, Respiratory
DAY 7 l Protista DAY 26 DAY 46 Volumes and Disorders of Repiratory
DAY 8 l Fungi l Cell Cycle, and Cell Division-Mitosis l Plant Growth & Development System
DAY 9 l Plantae-Algae and Bryophytes : DAY 27 l Growth, Development DAY 54
Salient Features and Classification. l Meiosis and its Significance. l Plant Hormones l Composition of Blood, Blood Groups,
DAY 10 l Plantae-Pteridophytes, DAY 28 DAY 47 Blood Coagulation and its Process,
Gymnosperms and Angiosperms. l Composition of Living Tissue, l Seed Dormancy Lymph-Composition and Function
Water, Biomolecules, l Photoperiodism DAY 55
DAY 11 l Practice Test on Biological
Carbohydrates: Structure, Function l Vernalisation , Plant Movements Circulatory System, Circulation
Classification and Kingdom Plantae l

and Type l Abscission Circuit, Types of Heart, Human Heart,

DAY 12 l Classification of Animals
DAY 29 DAY 48 Double Circulation
DAY 13 l Phylum- Non-Chordata, Porifera Practice Test on Physiological
l Amino Acids, Proteins and Enzymes. l
DAY 56
and Coelenterata Processes in Plants.
DAY 30 l Cardiac Cycle and its output, ECG,
DAY 14 l Phylum-Radiata & Platyhelminthes l Lipids and Nucleic Acids : Structure, MENTORS VOICE This particular segment Blood Vascular System,
DAY 15 l Phylum-Aschelminthes & Annelida Types and Functions is of considerable importance. Cytology Cardiovascular Diseases
DAY 16 Phylum-Arthropoda & Mollusca serves as the basis for the study of plants as DAY 57
l
DAY 31
well animals. Grip this particular unit with Types of Nitrogenous Waste and their
DAY 17 l Revision of Structure and Function the help of randomised testing as it is the
l

l Characteristic, Features and
Classification of Phylum-Echinodermata
and Hemichordata
DAY 18
lChordata-Classification, Characteristic
Features of Urochordata, Cephalochordata
Vertebrata
DAY 19 Superclass-Pisces
l l
DAY 20
lSuperclass-Tetrapoda-Class-Ambhibia &
Reptilia
DAY 21 Class-Aves & Mammalia
l
DAY 22
Practice Test for All Phylums of Animal
l
Kindgom
MENTORS VOICE The topics related to
classification in general and animal classification
are less described in NCERT and have moderate
importance in AIPMT, however, their importance
of Cell and its Organelles. Cell Cycle
and Biomolecules Comprising it.
DAY 32
l Morphology and Modifications of
Parts of Flowering Plants : Root,
Stem and Leaf
DAY 33
Structure and kinds of
Inflorescence, Flower, Fruit, Seed
Description of Some Important
Families
DAY 34
l Plant Tissues and Plant Tissue
Systems and their Functions
DAY 35
Anatomy of Monocotyledonous and
l
Dicotyledonous Root, Stem, Leaf &
Secondary Growth.
DAY 36 Animal Tissues
l
key to study other connected topics like
histology, anatomy, physiology and genetics.
Direct solo questions from this portion are of
lesser occurrence now-a-days, however,
mixed type questions of cytogenetics are
more frequent. Secondary growth in
anatomy along with the structures and
functions of conducting tissues are of
greater importance as compared to the other
portions of this unit. Try to grip this portion
with the help of flow charts and diagrams.
Photosynthesis of plant physiology is the
most important topic among all the topics of
plant physiology. The key to capture this
chapter along with cellular respiration is to
amalgamate their flow charts with organic
chemistry and repetitive readings of the flow
charts. Morphology of plants is of moderate
importance in most of the PMTs now-a-days.
In regional exams like JIPMER, AMU more
Modes of Elimination, Human
Excretory System, Structure and
Function.
DAY 58
l Urine Function, Regulation of
Excretory System, Role of other
Organs in Excretion and Disorders of
Excretoy System.
DAY 59
l Types of Movement, Structure and
Functions of Various Kinds of
Muscles, Mechanism of Muscle
Contraction.
DAY 60
l Human Skeletal System and its
Functions, Joints, Disorder of
Muscular and Skeletal System.
DAY 61
l Human Nervous System, Neurons and

is elevated in regional PMT's. Inspite of the fact
that these are less described in NCERT, their
importance for application based questions
cannot be neglected, i.e. it is advisable to go
through each and every line of NCERT for revision
questions from this portion are expected. Nerves, Human Neural System.
DAY 37
Structural Organisation, Systems DAY 62
l
However, this portion is also very important
and Functions of Earthworm
l Generation, Conduction and
for the basics understanding of anatomy and
Transmission of Nerve Impulse,
DAY 38 physiology. Among animals tissues most of
Neurotransmitters and Disorders of
Structural Organisation, Systems the direct questions are asked upon
Neural System, Reflex Action
l

purposes. Each of these lines is the summary of a and Functions of Cockroach destination of various type of epithelia.
major description regarding the individuals.Out of Among the connective tissues blood and DAY 63
first 22 days the topics of day 5 to 10 are more DAY 39 Sense Organs : Elementary Idea,
Practice Test on Morphology and bone require special attention. After NEET l

Structure and Functions of Eye and

important as compared to rest these, but topics
form the firm basis for other major sections. So
during these days use random testing to filter out
your weakness repeatedly and it is suggestive not
to move further until you are not confident about
these chapters. As most of the part of first 21
days serves as the basis for gripping the subject,
thus it is advisable not to move on day 23rd topics
until you develop confidence in these topics.
DAY 23
l Cell : The Unit of Life , Cell Theory,
l
Anatomy of Plants and Animals
DAY 40
lTransport in Plants : Plant Water
Relation : Terms and Processes,
Transpiration and Translocation.
DAY 41 Mineral Nutrition
l learning with direct solved examples will be
DAY 42
l Photosynthesis, Light Reactions,
Cyclic and Non-cyclic
Photophosphorylation
2013 the morphology of earthworm and
Ear.
cockroach gained more importance and you
may find direct questions from these two. DAY 64
Flow charts and diagrams both play crucial l Endocrine Glands and Hormones ,
role in revisions of morphologies of plants as Human Endocrine
well as animals. For topics underlined above system-Hypothalamus, Pituitary,
Pineal and Thyroid.
beneficial.
DAY 65
DAY 49 l Endocrine Glands of Parathyroid,
Digestion & Absorption, Alimentary Adrenal, Pancreas, Gonads, Thymus,
l

Structure of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic cell,
DAY 43
i.e. Plant and Animal, Structure and
Functions of Cell Wall, Cell Envelope and
l Biosynthetic Phases :C 3 and C 4
Plasma Membrane. pathways, Photorespiration, CAM
and Factors Affecting
Photosynthesis
Canal, Histology and Digestive Glands
DAY 50
l Process and Physiology of Digestion
l Movements in Alimentary Canal
l Nutritional & Digestive Disorders
Kidney and Other Organs of Body, i.e.
Placenta, Liver, Heart, Skin etc.
DAY 66
l Chemical Nature of Hormone,
l Mechanism of Hormone Action
l Control of Hormone Action
DAY 67
l Revision of Systems and Physiology in
humans.
DAY 68
l Reproduction in Organisms, Asexual
and Sexual Reproduction, Modes of
Asexual Reproduction and Vegetative
Propagation in Plants.
DAY 69
l Sexual Reproduction in Flowering
Plants, Structure and Development of
Male and Female Gametophyte
(Sporogenesis and Gametogenesis)
DAY 70
l Pollination-Types, Agencies and
Adaptation in Flowers, Outbreeding
Devices, Pollen Pistil interaction and
Double Fertilisation.
DAY 71
l Post-fertilisation Events-Development
of Endosperm, Embryo, Seed and
Fruit.
l Special modes of reproduction,
Apomixis parphencarpy
DAY 72
l Male and Female Reproductive
Systems in Humans.
DAY 73
l Gametogenesis, Menstrual Cycle
l Fertilisation
DAY 74
l Cleavage, Implantation, Embryonic
Development, Pregnancy and Placenta
Formation, Parturition, Lactation
DAY 75
l Reproductive Health, Birth Control
Methods, STDs. Infertility and Arts.
DAY 76
l Growth, Regeneration & Ageing
DAY 77
l Practice set of Sexual Reproduction in
Plants and Animals.
MENTORS VOICE Animal anatomy and
physiology is a portion of moderate value but
it has a different role also for medical
aspirant. Chapters of this portion play a vital
role in the studies of Medical College too. So
here, one must take these chapters as the
foundation for its 1st semester in Medical
College. You may find direct as well as
indirect (applied) both type of questions from
this portion. All the topics in this portion have
almost equal importance, however, we must
consider neural and chemical coordination
with certain edge. The last topic of this unit,
i.e. reproduction is very vast in itself. It is
suggestive to capture the reproduction of
plants and animals simultaneously. Use
random testing for topics till Day 56th for
self-analysis and use planned tests in two
section, i.e.
(a) Day 1st to 47th (b) Day 49th to 76th
for proper assessment and to gain
confidence.
DAY 78
l Genetics, Branches of Genetics,
Heredity and Variations,
Pre-Mendelian Concepts of Heredity,
Genetic Terms and Symbols, Gregor
Johann Mendel.
DAY 79
l Mendels Experiment Mono and
Dihybrid Crosses in Inheritance,
Mendel s Laws of Inheritance.
DAY 80
l Mutiple Alleles, Pleiotropy, Polygenic
Inheritance, Gene Interaction
Heterosis, Gene Penetrance,
Expressivity.
DAY 81
l Chromosomes and Genes,
Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance,
Cytoplasmic Inheritance
l Sex-Linked Inheritance
l Linkage Crossing Over
l Linkage Maps
DAY 82
l Determination of Sex, Types of
Variations,
l Mutation, Chromosomal and Gene
DAY 83
l Sex Limited Genes, Sex Influenced
Genes, Genomics, Eugenics, Euthenics,
Intelligence Quotient(IQ), Genetics
DAY 84
l Gene, its Expression & Regulation
l The Search For Genetic Material,
Evidences of DNA as Genetic Material,
Structure of Deoxyribonucleic Acid
(DNA) and Replication-Ribonucleic
Acid (RNA), Genes, DNA Packaging.
DAY 85
l Central Dogma, Transcription and
Translation
DAY 86
l Genetic Code
l Gene Expression
l Regulation of Gene Expression
DAY 87
l Human Genetics, Methods Used to
Study Human Genetics, Sex
Determination in Humans, Blood Group
Inheritance, Human Genetic Disorders,
Human Genome Project.
DAY 88
l Revision test on Genetics and Molecular
Basis of Inheritance.
DAY 89
l Origin of Life and Related Theories
DAY 90
l Organic Evolution, Evidences of
Evolution, Geological Time Scale.
DAY 91
l Theories of Evolution
l Lamarckism
l Neo- Lamarckism
l Darwin and His Work
Neo Darwinism
l
Mutation Theory of Hugo De Vries
l
Modern Synthetic Theory of Evolution
l
DAY 92
l Mechanism of Evolution
Agents of Evolutionary Change
l
Speciation
l
Species Concept
l
DAY 93
l Brief Account of Evolution of Plants and
Animals, Relationship of Man with
Other Primates
DAY 94
l History of Human Evolution, Evolution
of man.
DAY 95
Practice test of Evolution
l l
MENTORS VOICE It is one of the most
important segments of your study from PMTs
point of view. On an average about 20%
questions in any PMT are from this segment.
In genetics the Molecular basis of more
inheritance (including mutations) & genetic
disorders are of more role value as compared
to Mendelian genetics portion. Direct
questions are usually asked from this portion
only. The Mendelian genetics and other
portions like multiple alleles, sex
determinations sex linked inheritance,
crossing over, linkage and cytoplasmic
inheritance, etc., however play a vital role in
developing the foundation regarding genetics.
However, questions from these portions can be
asked as fillers. Evolution is important as its
scope is very vast. It begins from the origin of
earth and reaches up to human evolution.
Most of the previous questions from these
chapters are of generalised type with
involvement of application as well.
Now-a-days direct question from this unit are
mostly discarded, instead in serve direct
applied questions with self approach are given
importance. As mutation and genes serve as
the basis of evolution from both the unit are of
frequent occurrence. Begin this complete
section everyday with randomized check
through random test to analyses your points of
emphasis for your preparation.
DAY 96
l Health & Disease, Agents of Disease,
Common Diseases in Humans,
Communicable Diseases
DAY 97
l Basic Concepts of Immunology
l Immunity
l Antigens
l Antibodies/Immunoglobins
l Immune Response
l Allergy
l Antisera
DAY 98
l Immune System in the Body
l Vaccination and Immunisation
l Organ Transplantation
l Immune Disorders and Deficiency
l Monoclonal Antibodies
DAY 99
l Adolescence of Drug Abuse
DAY 100
l Animal Husbandry
DAY 101
l Microbes in Human Welfare, Household,
Industrial Production of Antibiotics
Enzymes, Chemicals and other Bioactive
Molecules, Fermentation Bioreactors.
DAY 102
l Microbes in Sewage Treatment, Energy
Generation and as Biocontrol Agents and
Biofertilisers.
DAY 103
l Plant Breeding & Disease Control
l Green Revolution
l Steps in The Development of New
Varieties
l Plant Breeding
DAY 104
l Tissue Culture
l Plant Disease
l Breeding For Disease Resistance
l Breeding For Nutritional Quality
DAY 105
Practice test of Human Health and
l
Diseases, Animal Husbandry and Plant
Breeding.
DAY 106
Biotechnology Principles and Processes
l
Traditional ( Old ) Biotechnology
Modern ( New) Biotechnology
l
l Principles of Biotechnology
l Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
l Process of Recombinant DNA
Technology
DAY 107
l Genomic Library l Biochip
l DNA Fingerprinting l Stem Cell
l Cloning
DAY 108
l Applications of Biotechnology in
Agriculture, Transgenic Microbes, Crops,
Plants and Animals.
DAY 109
l Biomedical Technology, Gene
Therapy, Bio-piracy and Patents,
Ethical Issues.
DAY 110
l Practice test of Principles, Processes
and Applications of Biotechnology.
DAY 111
l Organism & Environment, Population
and Ecological adaptations,
Population interactions.
DAY 112
l Population, Attributes and Growth,
Age Distribution and Pyramids.
DAY 113
l Ecosystem, Components of
Ecosystem, Food Chain, Productivity
and Decomposition, Flow of Energy.
DAY 114
l Ecological Pyramids, Development
and Stabilisation, Nutrient Cycles,
Ecological Succession, Ecosystem
Services.
DAY 115
l Concept of Biodiversity, Biodiversity
on Earth and in India, Levels of
Biodiversity and Patterns of
Biodiversity.
DAY 116
l Loss of Biodiversity, Hotspots,
Endangered and Extinction of
Species, Conservation of Biological
Diversity, Red Data Book.
DAY 117
l Environmental Issues, Pollution, Air
and Water Pollution
DAY 118
l Noise Pollution, Soil Pollution,
Thermal Pollution and Radioactive
Pollution.
DAY 119
l Solid Waste Management, Ozone
Layer Depletion, Greenhouse Effect,
Global Warming, Deforestation, Case
Studies Addressing Environmental
Issues.
Reforestation
DAY 120
l Revision test of Ecology and
environment.
MENTORS VOICE This last segment of
your study requires maximum effort as it
contains all the portions of highest
importance and current relevance. Most of
the questions in various examinations are
asked from these chapters and are of
applied type. All of these have connectivity
with your previous portions too, e.g.
biotechnology requires proper touch of
molecular genetics, likewise ecology has
genetics, morphology, anatomy etc., in its
basis.
Try to complete the schedule of last 20
days in 17 days (approx) as some loose
days (days with lesser syllabus) are given
in between. In the last 3 days use
randomized testing of complete syllabus to
filter your weaker portion and utilise these
days to plug your weak points left.
For gaining the confidence after wards use
2 3 simulator papers of full syllabus and
try to complete them approximately 15 min
before the stipulated time, so, that you can
achieve the same under examination
conditions of stress within the stipulated
time.
 Revision The Ultimate Tool
Toppers are in the habit of doing the things differently. Here surely the word differently has the art of
revision or reconciliation of learning in its basis especially for the toppers of entrance examinations.
Revision plays a prominent role in preparation of school, college or other entrance exams. Once syllabus is
covered, revision is a mandatory requirement for better scoring, even, if one had not covered 100% of
syllabus but only 70% or so, still he has to revise what syllabus has been covered.

How to Revise? Special Mantras

In a generalised methodology to be adopted during revision following steps are
followed:
Step 1 Read your notes and seek answers to questions of your own. Try to be as active
in your reading as possible. Your activeness can be in the form of talking to your
self, walking around the room etc., Try to recollect what you have learned
Step 2 When you feel that you have understood and can remember what you have
read. Then close your source of information (copy, book, notes etc.,)
Step 3 Try to recall the contents you were reading so far. You may pen down the same
roughly and quickly on a new waste paper (if you are going for the first revision).
This will help in filtering the remembered and non-remembered portions.
Step 4 Check the new notes with the old content. You may find certain points at which
your memory is washed out. These points only require attention again. Try
to answer a previous question paper i.e. past papers to see your progress once you
revise.
Step 5 You may recheck your memory in random manner after a certain period of time
too. The washed out memory points may increase or decrease. Repeated attention
on these points can kill them then-n-there and boost up your confidence.
Step 6 Repetition of the same procedure for the same content many a times reduces
the quantity of content requiring attention.
How to Revise Biology
Theoretical subjects like biology, medicine and other social sciences require more of
memorisation besides understanding, hence.
l
Try to revise the topic using a diagram or picture concerned so that you remember
the topic well in connection with it.
l
In Zoology, you may face problems in different classes of animal, their
sub-divisions like mammals, reptiles, aves (birds), fishes, amphibians, reptiles,
insects etc. They have differences in organ system, tissues, arrangement,
mechanisms of physiology, metabolisms, so you may need to be clear with these
concepts paying special emphasis. Even vertebrates and non-vertebrates
differences need to be clear. Practice of diagrams helps in memorizing the anatomy
and physiology.
l
In Botany, you come across different classes of plants which have differences in
their life span, seedling or reproduction method etc. The toughest part comes in
biochemistry like photosynthesis, respiration etc. Here it is advisable that try to
understand the complex chemical changes happening by discussion with your
friends. It will be not only amazing but also interesting to know how plants survive.
Then practice the steps in Kreb s cycles ( pathway) and other cycles in their
biochemistry.
l
Revise the scientific and medical terminology along with its meaning as this can
enhance memory of the term. Familiarize with concerned scientists names.
l
In Science many terms are of Greek or other origin. Try to learn with some clues and
image visualization. (EX; In SYNERGY- syn means together & erg means energy).
l
Last but not the least, Practice the diagrams as you may need to draw, label and
explain while answering. The diagrams help to enhance the scores or marks
awarded for the answer.
Remember, revision is not something that starts in the end of academic session
rather it is what you can do on daily basis; in fact you can initiate it right from
the very first day of your learning.
Skills @ Effective Revision
While going for revisions keep following points in mind
It is always better to prepare a revision schedule on daily basis and
after making the schedule, it is must to possess the will to abide by
that.
It is not necessary to revise large number of chapters every day.
Revision must be slow and steady. It must be in the order to get firm
grip on all types of questions asked on that topic.
Many times, we tend to miss out on writing some points when the
teacher speaks. It is best to pen them down when they are still fresh
in the memory.
Revise as many times as possible the entire subjects.
There is a huge difference between revision and repetition i.e.,
revision is not going through all the notes over and over again.
The specialized feature of revision is lessening of time in each and
every attempt i.e., time consumed in revising the same content every
time is less than the previous one. Just imagine a potential aspirant
can revise the complete content of Physics syllabus in about two and
a half hours in his 4th or 5th revision cycle.
Decrease in the time of revision is possible only when you have a
proper analysis of what to revise and what not to revise. Such an
analysis can be done on the basis of what you know and what is
whipped off from your memory after learning. Every time when you
go for only those parts which are whipped off, you find a lesser
content to revise. This, in turn, certainly requires lesser time to
reconcile.
Understand the concept and dont just mug. This is a big mistake
made by many school going students till the mind maturity.
Understanding the concept shows you the actual sweetness of the
subject and makes you perceive even more of the subject with
enthusiasm.
The difference between mugging and understanding is that, mugging
is a memorising aspect while understanding is realsing the facts
about the subject or topic with its related prior knowledge..
Use same notes or books or study material for all the
revisions because the page of the book also strikes in memory during
answering the questions asked.
There is no substitute for hard preparation and excitement and
enthusiasm in revision.
Last but not least you are the best to know your situation, analyze it
thoroughly and work out the best method for your revision. Think for
yourself, you are mature enough to organize your own study plan. Use
your discretion to judge what will work for you and what will not.

4 DECEMBER 2015 Biology SPECTRUM

 The Living World
Life is a unique, complex organisation of molecules, expressing Diversity in the Living World
through chemical reactions which lead to growth, development, The number and types of organisms present on earth
responsiveness, adaptation and reproduction. refer to biodiversity. There are millions of plants and
Characteristics of living beings are as follows: animals in the world and about 1.7 to 1.8 millions
(i) Growth It refers to increase in mass and number of cells. have been described so far. So as to standardise,
Non-living objects also grow but by accumulation of material on facilitate their study and identification, certain
the surface, i.e. accretion. criterias and principles have been set up to classify
(ii) Reproduction It is the production of progeny similar to those of and name them.
parents. Many organisms do not reproduce, e.g. worker bees,
infertile human couples, mules, etc. Hence, reproduction can not Taxonomy
be considered as only defining characteristic of living organisms. It is the study of identification, classification,
(iii) Metabolism It is a process by which all living beings assimilate nomenclature and documentation of organisms.
energy (anabolism) and use it for various processes like growth,
movement, development, etc (catabolism). Systematics
(iv) Cellular organisation Living organisms are made up of cells It means systematic arrangement of organisms.
(unicellular or multicellular).
(v) Responsiveness All organisms respond to external stimuli which Branches of Taxonomy
may be physical, chemical or biological, the property being
Taxonomic Field Basis
called as irritability.
Classical (alpha) taxonomy Morphological traits.
(vi) Homeostasis It is a property exhibited by living beings to -taxonomy Genetics, anatomy, physiology.
maintain a favourable constant internal environment, despite Artificial taxonomy Habit and habitat of organisms.
changes in the external environment. Natural taxonomy Natural similarity among
(vii) Adaptations Living beings show structural, physiological or organisms.
behavioural adaptations to get themselves better suited to Chemotaxonomy Presence or absence of chemicals
environment. in cells or tissues.
Cytotaxonomy Cytological studies.
Numerical or Number of shared characters of
Death : Mortality of Living Beings phenetic taxonomy various organisms.
Phylogenetic or Phylogenetic relationships.
Besides the mentioned characteristics, living organisms show another property omega taxonomy
death. Death may be defined as the termination of all biological functions that Karyotaxonomy Nuclear and chromosomal
sustain a living organism. When living beings die, their bodies decompose and the studies.
elements constituting it are released into the environment to be used up again, i.e. Morphotaxonomy Morphological studies of
recycling. organisms.
It may be Experimental taxonomy Experimental determination of
genetic interrelationships.
n
Clinical death, i.e. stoppage of heart beat and breathing process. New systematics This classification takes into
n
Biological death, i.e. death of cells and tissues. account the cytological,
The loss due to death of an organism is compensated by its virtue of morphological, genetical,
reproduction. anatomical, palynological and
physiological characters.

5
 Process of Taxonomy Taxonomic Hierarchy
n
Characterisation It is the understanding of characters of Arrangement of taxonomic categories in a descending order
organisms. during the classification of an organism is called taxonomic
n
Identification Correct description of an organism. hierarchy. It was first introduced by Linnaeus (1751) and
n
Nomenclature The distinct and proper naming of living organisms hence, it is also known as Linnaean Hierarchy.
is called nomenclature. There are five codes of nomenclature:
n
ICBNInternational Code of Botanical Nomenclature.
n
The term taxon for animal was given by Adolf Meyer (1926).
n
ICZNInternational Code of Zoological Nomenclature.
n
Taxon is used to refer any rank or level or category in an
classification. In addition to obligate categories, there are sub
n
ICBacNInternational Code of Bacteriological Nomenclature.
categories as well, e.g. sub-phylum, sub-class, sub-order etc.
n
ICVNInternational Code of Viral Nomenclature. n
Cohort is taxon used to describe rank between class and order.
n
ICNCPInternational Code of Nomenclature for Cultivated Plants. n
Similarly Tribe is a category between sub-family and genus.

l
The taxonomic Taxonomic Categories
Binomial Nomenclature categories which are
always used in
It is a universally accepted and recognised two word name for hierarchical For Plants For Animals
all organisms. This method of scientific naming was first classification of Kingdom Kingdom
given by Carolus Linnaeus (1735) in his book Systema organisms are called
Naturae and later in Species Plantarum (1753). Division Phylum
obligate or common
categories. Class Class
Rules of Nomenclature l
They are seven in
According to universal rule of binomial nomenclature Order Order
number, i.e.
scientific names are generally in Latin and written in italics. kingdom, phylum or Family Family
The first (genus) and second (species) name starts with division (in plants)
capital and small letter respectively. Name of the author is Genus Genus
class, order, family,
written in abbreviated form at the end of biological name, e.g. genus and species Species Species
Mangifera indica Linn. (in the descending Taxonomic categories showing
order). hierarchical arrangement in ascending order
Trinomial Nomenclature
There are exceptions to Binomial nomenclature, wherein the name Taxonomical Aids
include sub-species also, besides the usual generic and species name. Scientists use certain techniques and procedures to store and
However, the trinomial nomenclature is applicable to animals only, preserve specimens for studies. Some of the taxonomical aids
as botanists do not recognise sub-species level.
are as follows:
Tautonym Occassionally, the genus and species name in binomial Taxonomical Aids
name are same, e.g. Gorilla gorilla. This too, is found in animals only.
Herbarium Store house of collected Manuals and Catalogues
plant specimens that are dried, Provide information for
Types of Nomenclature pressed and preserved on sheets and identification of names
arranged according to universally of species found in an area.
l
The ICBN recognises several kinds or types, depending on accepted classification.
the way in which a type of specimen is selected. These Museums Place for the collection of Monographs Contains
include: preserved plant and animal specimens. information on any one taxon.
Holotype Syntype Keys Botanical Gardens and
Prototype specimen from Any of two or more specimens Used for identification of Zoological Parks Possesses
which description of a new cited by an author when plants and animals based the living collection of plants
species is established. there is no holotype. on their similarities and and animals in conditions
dissimilarities. similar to their natural habitat.
Isotype Specification Paratype
It is the same as in Specimens described
holotype.
Nomenclature
along with the holotype. Botanical garden can have different sections :
Tapiary Shrubs or trees clipped into ornamental shape.
Neotype Lectotype
Bonsai trees Dwarf trees are grown in tray like pot.
New nomenclature type Specimen selected from
when the holotype is original material when Arboretum (dendarium) Variety of woody plants are cultivated for
not available. there is no holotype. scientific, educational and ornamental purposes.
Palmetum Area where bamboos, screw pines and conifers are grown.
l
In cladistics, a branching diagram that shows the
Zoological parks can have different specialised areas such as :
relationship among species with regard to their shared and
derived characters is called cladogram. Exotarium Animals freely kept in their natural habitat like conditions.
l
The term taxon was introduced by ICBN during 1956. Aquarium Area in which living fishes and other water creatures along
with plants are kept.
l
Taxon refers to a group of similar, genetically related
Serpentarium A place where snakes or other reptiles are kept.
individuals having certain characters distinct from those of
other groups. Aviary A place for keeping birds.

6
 MASTER
1. Homeostasis is 9. Match the following column.
(a) tendency to change with change in environment
Column I Column II
(b) tendency to resist internal changes
A. Classical taxonomy 1. Old systematics
(c) disturbance in regulatory controls
B. Numerical taxonomy 2. Shared characters of organisms.
(d) animal extracts used in homeopathy C. Natural taxonomy 3. Evolutionary history of species.
2. All living organisms are linked to one another because D. Chemotaxonomy 4.
5.
Natural similarities amongst organisms.
Presence or absence of chemicals in
[NCERT Exemplar] cells or tissues.
(a) they have common genetic material of the same type
Codes
(b) they share common genetic material but to varying degrees A B C D A B C D
(c) all have common cellular organisation (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 5 4 3 2
(d) All of the above (c) 2 3 4 5 (d) 1 2 4 5
3.Consider the following statements. 10. The correct statement about taxon is
I. Increase in mass and increase in number of I. It is the taxonomic group of any rank.
individuals are twin characteristics of growth. II. It was first introduced by ICBN.
II. Metabolic reactions can also be demonstrated III. Linnaeus is the founder of taxon.
outside the body in isolated cell-free systems. IV. Taxon term was used in Systema Naturae.
III. Response to stimuli is a defining property of living (a) I, II and III (b) I and II (c) III and IV (d) I and III
organisms. 11. New systematics introduced by Sir Julian Huxley is
Which of the statements given above are correct? also called [Kerala CEE 2008]
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) I and III (d) I, II and III (a) phenetics (b) cladistics
(c) biosystematics (d) numerical taxonomy
4. Which of the following is a defining characteristic of
(e) chemotaxonomy
living organisms?
(a) Growth (b) Ability to make sound 12. Binomial nomenclature is
(c) Reproduction (d) Response to external stimuli (a) two names, local and specific of an organism
(b) two words in name of an organism
5. Taxonomy is concerned with
(c) two names related one each to family and class
(a) collection of plants and animals
(d) two phases in life cycle of organism
(b) identification, nomenclature and classification of organisms
(c) classification of plants 13. Systema Naturae was written by [Kerala CEE 2010]
(d) All of the above (a) Ernst Mayr (b) Carolus Linnaeus
(c) RH Whittaker (d) WM Stanley
6.Choose the incorrect statement about types of
(e) MW Beijernick
taxonomy.
I. -taxonomy considers only morphology. 14. Which of the following statements regarding
II. -taxonomy considers genetics, anatomy and universal rules of nomenclature is wrong?
physiology. [Kerala CEE 2010]
III. Omega taxonomy is based on similarities and (a) The first word in a biological name represents the genus
dissimilarities. (b) The first word denoting the genus starts with a capital letter
(a) Only I (b) Only III (c) I and II (d) II and III (c) Both the words in a biological name, when handwritten are
separately underlined
7. The term systematics refers to [NCERT Exemplar] (d) Biological names are generally in Greek and written in italics
(a) identification and study of organ systems (e) The second component in a biological name denotes the
(b) identification and preservation of plants and animals specific epithet
(c) diversity of kinds of organisms and their relationship
(d) study of habitats of organisms and their classification 15. Read the statements given below and identify the
incorrect statement. [KCET 2012]
8.Which of the following statements is/are correct? (a) Scientific names favour multiple naming for the same kind of
I. Natural taxonomy is based on natural similarities an organism
amongst organisms. (b) Scientific names are used all over the world
(c) Scientific names are often descriptive and tell us some
II. Cytotaxonomy is based on chromosomal studies. important character of an organism
III. Karyotaxonomy is based on chemicals in cells or (d) Scientific names indicate relationship between species
tissues. 16. A group of similar, genetically related individuals
IV. Artificial taxonomy is based on habit and habitat of having certain characters distinct from those of other
organisms. groups is
(a) Only I (b) II and III (c) I and IV (d) I, II, III and IV (a) taxon (b) kingdom (c) species (d) family

7
17. The taxonomic category among following is (a) Tigertigris, Species
(a) Species (b) Malvaceae (b) Cuttle fishMollusca, class
(c) Thalamiflorae (d) Dicotyledonae (c) HumansPrimata, family
(d) HouseflyMusca, order
18. As we go from species to kingdom in a taxonomic
hierarchy, the number of common characteristics 25. Match the following and choose the correct option.
[NCERT Exemplar] Column I Column II
(a) will decrease (b) will increase A. Family 1. Tuberosum
(c) remain same (d) may increase or decrease B. Kingdom 2. Polymoniales
19. Genus represents [NCERT Exemplar] C. Order 3. Solanum
(a) an individual plant or animal D. Species 4. Plantae
E. Genus 5. Solanaceae
(b) a collection of animals
(c) group of closely related species of plants or animals Codes
(d) None of the above A B C D E
(a) 4 3 5 2 1
20. The taxonomic unit Phylum in the classification of (b) 5 4 2 1 3
animals is equivalent to which hierarchial level in (c) 4 5 2 1 3
classification of plants. [NCERT Exemplar] (d) 5 3 2 1 4
(a) Class (b) Order (c) Division (d) Family
26. Choose the correct statement regarding taxonomical
21. Which of the following suffixes used for units of aids.
classification in plants indicates a taxonomic category I. Herbariumspecialised collection of animal
of family? [NCERT Exemplar] pictures.
(a) Ales (b) Onae (c) Aceae (d) Ae II. Zoological parksanimals in natural environment.
22. Which one of the following shows, the hierarchial III. Keyscollection of preserved plants.
arrangement of taxonomic categories of plants in IV. Monographsmeans of recording descriptions.
descending order? [Kerala CEE 2014] (a) I, II and IV (b) II and III (c) Only IV (d) II and IV
(a) Kingdom Division Class Order Family Species 27. Which of the following depict the correct function of
Genus
botanical garden?
(b) Kingdom Division Order Class Family Genus
I. One can observe tropical plants there.
Species
(c) Kingdom Division Class Order Family Species
II. They allow ex situ conservation of germplasm.
Genus III. They provide the natural habitat for wildlife.
(d) Kingdom Division Class Order Family Genus IV. They provide a beautiful area for recreation.
Species (a) I, III and IV (b) Only II (c) Only III (d) II and IV
(e) Kingdom Division Family Order Class Genus
Species
28. Taxonomic key is one of the taxonomic tools in the
identification and classification of plants and animals.
23. Select the wrong statements. It is used in the preparation of [NCERT Exemplar]
I. Lower the taxon, more are the characteristics that (a) monographs (b) flora
the members within the taxon share. (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
II. Order is the assemblage of genera which exhibit a 29. Botanical gardens and zoological parks have
few similar characters. (a) collection of endemic living species only
III. Cat and dog are included in the same (b) collection of exotic living species only
familyFelidae. (c) collection of endemic and exotic living species
IV. Binomial nomenclature was introduced by Carolus (d) collection of only local plants and animals
Linnaeus. [Kerala CEE 2011] 30. Which one of the following is not a correct statement?
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV
(a) Herbarium houses dried, pressed and preserved plant
(c) I and IV (d) III and IV
specimens
(e) II and III
(b) Botanical gardens have collection of living plants for reference
24. Which one of the following animals is correctly (c) A museum has collection of photographs of plants and
matched with its particular taxonomic category? animals
[CBSE AIPMT 2011] (d) Key is a taxonomic aid for identification of specimens

Answers
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (e) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (c)

8
1. In biosystematics, the basis of classification is 6. Which organism behaves like plants in the presence of
(a) major morphological characters sunlight and absence of organic food, but in reverse
(b) cytological characters conditions behaves like animal?
(c) evolutionary history considering various parameters from (a) Archaebacteria (b) Euglena
different fields of studies (c) Nostoc (d) Paramecium
(d) None of the above
7. Floral formula of potato is
2. The walking fern is so named because (a) h K(5) C ( 5) A ( 5) G(2) (b) h K 2 + 2 C 4 A 2 + 2 G1
(a) it is dispersed through the agency of walking
(c) h P2 A 3 G1 (d) h K(5) A 3 G1
(b) it propagates vegetatively by its leaf tips
(c) it knows how to walk by itself 8. Statement I Microtubules are found only in animal
(d) its spores are able to walk cells.
3. Which of the following combination of characters is Statement II Microtubules are made up of a protein
true for slime moulds? called myosin.
(a) Parasitic, Plasmodium with true walls, spores dispersed by Choose the correct option.
air currents (a) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(b) Saprophytic, Plasmodium without walls, spores dispersed (b) Statement II is correct and Statement I is incorrect
by water (c) Both Statements are correct
(c) Parasitic, Plasmodium without walls, spores dispersed by (d) Both Statements are incorrect
water
(d) Saprophytic, Plasmodium without walls, spores dispersed 9. Consider the following process.
by air currents I. Breakdown of extracellular materials by releasing
enzymes into the surrounding medium.
4. Which of the following is correctly matched? II. Digestion of material taken up by phagocytosis or
(a) Albumin Globular protein pinocytosis.
(b) Glycoprotein Fibrous protein III. Digestion of parts of the cell by autophagy.
(c) Collagen Plant protein IV. Massive production of membrane glycoproteins,
(d) Glutelins Conjugated protein ribophorins-I and II for the stabilisation of
5. Bilateral symmetry in a certain group of lysosomal investment.
phylumMollusca is lost due to Which of the above is/are functions of lysosomes?
(a) rotation (b) torsion (a) Only I (b) II and IV
(c) reversion and rotation (d) expansion and torsion (c) I, II and III (d) II, III, and IV

38
 AIPMT SCALE UP

10. Which one of the following is the major difference IV. Culturing amniotic cells and study of metaphasic
between mosses and ferns? chromosomes to identify chromosomal
(a) Ferns lack alternation of generation while mosses show the abnormality.
same Codes
(b) Mosses are facultative aerobes while ferns are obligate (a) I, II and IV (b) II and IV
aerobes (c) I, II, III and IV (d) Only IV
(c) Vascular bundles of ferns show xylem vessels while
vascular bundles of mosses lack it
16. In man, the sperms released from the testis take the
following route to reach the ureter.
(d) Sporophytes of ferns live much longer as compared to the
sporophytes of mosses (a) Vasa efferentia, Bidders canal, uriniferous tubules and
nephrostome
11. The figure given here is related with female (b) Vasa efferentia, epididymis, vas deferens and urethra
reproductive system of frog. Identify the parts labelled (c) Vasa efferentia, Bidders canal and nephrostome
as A to D. (d) Vasa efferentia, collecting tubules and Bidders canal
17. What happens when the pacemaker becomes
non-functional?
(a) Only auricles contract rhythmicaly
(b) Only ventricles contract rhythmicaly
A
(c) Cardiac muscles do not undergo co-ordinated rhythmic
C
movement
(d) Auricles and ventricles contract rhythmically
B 18. Match the following and select the correct answer
using the codes given below.
D Column I Column II
(Larva) (Animal)
A. Tornaria 1. Starfish
B. Ephyra 2 Balanoglossus
C. Cercaria 3 Liverfluke
A B C D
D Bipinnaria 4. Aurelia
(a) Ovary Ureter Oviduct Ovisac
Codes
(b) Ovisac Urinogenital duct Bidders canal Ovary A B C D A B C D
(c) Ovary Urinogenital duct Ovisac Oviduct (a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 4 2 1 3
(d) Ovisac Urinogenital duct Bidders canal Oviduct
19. If the flux of a substance across a cell membrane is
12. Norin gene of dwarfness in wheat originated through directly proportional to its concentration gradient, the
spontaneous mutation in transport process is called
(a) Mexico (b) Japan (c) India (d) USSR (a) facilitated diffusion
(b) carrier mediated transport
13. Gossypium hirsutum is
(c) active transport
(a) new world tetraploid (b) old world tetraploid
(d) simple diffusion
(c) new world diploid (d) old world diploid
20. Match the column I with column II and select the
14. Choose the correct statement given below and select correct option from the codes given below.
the appropriate one
I. Bodys first line of defence is skin. Column I Column II
II. Second line of defence is skin and phagocytic cells. A. IAA 1. Herring sperm DNA
III. Third line of defence is immune system. B. ABA 2 Bolting
IV. Lines of body defence are skin, phagocytic cells and
immune system. C. Ethylene 3 Stomatal closure
Codes D GA 4. Weed-free lawns
(a) I, II, and IV (b) I, II and III (c) I, III and IV (d) All of these E. Cytokinins 5. Ripening of fruits
15. Choose the correct statement about amniocentesis and Codes
select the appropriate option in the codes given below. A B C D E
I. Chemical analysis of fluids of pregnant women. (a) 4 3 5 2 1
II. Intrauterine diagnosis. (b) 5 3 4 2 1
III. Withdrawal of allantoic fluid from pregnant (c) 4 1 5 3 2
women. (d) 5 3 2 1 4

39
AIPMT SCALE UP

21. Which place in India is called The Golden Mine of 27. Choose the correct statement given below and select
Liverworts? the appropriate one.
(a) Eastern Himalayas (b) Western Himalayas I. IgD immunoglobulin are present in colostrum/
(c) Western Ghats (d) Eastern Ghats mothers milk.
II. Antigens are found on the cell surface.
22. Match the column I with column II and select the
III. Hormone produced in allergic reaction is
correct option from the codes given below.
glucocorticoid.
Column I Column II IV. During infection T-cells interact with B-cells.
A. Edible delicacies 1. Penicillium, Streptomyces Codes
(a) II and III (b) I, II and IV
B. Experimental genetics 2 Neurospora crassa
(c) I, II, III and IV (d) II, III and IV
C. Source of antibiotics 3 Puccinia, Ustilago
28. Fossil A is older than fossil B. Find the appropriate
D Rust and smut diseases 4. Morels and truffles
reason in the following options.
Codes (a) Fossil B has some vestigial organs functional in A
A B C D A B C D (b) Fossil A was found in deeper sedimentation
(a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 3 1 2 4 (c) Fossil B has homologous organs and analogous organs of A
(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 4 3 2 1 (d) Fossil B was found in deeper sedimentation
23. Which one of the following is an incorrect pair? 29. Inspiration occurs when there is a negative pressure in
(a) Louis Pasteur Coined the term virus the lungs with respect to the atmospheric pressure.
(b) Beijernick Contagium vivum fluidum This negative pressure is achieved when.
(c) Ivanowsky Discovered retroviruses (a) intrapulmonary pressure is less than the atmospheric
(d) Stanley Crystallised TMV pressure
(b) intrapulmonary pressure is greater than the atmospheric
24. With reference to mitochondrial Electron Transport
pressure
Chain, which one of the following statement is correct?
(c) intrapulmonary pressure is equal to the atmospheric
(a) Ubiquinone can carry two electrons and two protons
pressure
simultaneously
(d) intrapulmonary pressure becomes more than the
(b) The electrons that each molecule of NADH contributes to
intra-alveolar pressure
the mitochondrial electron transport chain provide enough
power to create two ATPs 30. Consider the occurrence of polysiphonous pollen
(c) The contribution of FADH 2 provides enough power for the grains and choose the correct family to which it
production of three ATPs belongs.
(d) Cytochrome-a and cytochrome-a3, are parts of an enzyme I. Malvaceae II. Cucurbitaceae
complex known as cytochrome-c oxidase III. Poaceae IV. Cactaceae
25. Consider the following statements about citric acid (a) I, II and IV (b) II, III and IV
cycle. (c) I, II and III (d) I and II
I. The generation of ATP is done at two steps. 31. In Embden Meyerhof pathway, which enzyme is
II. NAD + is reduced to NADH at two steps. involved in the conversion of glyceraldehyde
III. FAD is reduced to FADH2 at one step. 3-phosphate into 1, 3, biphosphoglyceric acid?
IV. Only NAD + is reduced. (a) Phosphoglucomutase
Which of the following statements given above is/are (b) Phosphoglyceromutase
correct? (c) 3-phosphoglyceric-1-kinase
(a) I and II (b) Only III (d) Phosphoglyceric dehydrogenase
(c) I and III (d) I, II and IV 32. Given graph represents the absorption spectra of three
26. Consider the following statements regarding the most photosynthetic pigments, chlorophyll-a, b and
important role of folic acid in promoting growth. It is -carotene. Select the correct statement regarding this.
through ChlorophyII-b
I. Conversion of decarboxylase pyruvic acid into ChlorophyII-a
acetyl Co-A.
II. Synthesis of purines and thymine, essential for
DNA synthesis.
Absorption

-carotene
III. Calcium deposition in bones.
IV. Stimulating the synthesis of bicarbonate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II (b) Only II
(c) III and IV (d) Only III 380 440 500 560 620 680 740

40
 (a) The curve showing the amount of absorption of different Codes
wavelengths of light by a photosynthetic pigment is called A B C D A B C D
as absorption spectrum. (a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 4 3 1 2
(b) Chlorophyll-a and b absorb maximum light in blue and red (c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 4 3 2 1
wavelengths of light 39. Microorganism grown on molasses and sold as
(c) Rate of photosynthesis is maximum in blue and red flavouring substance is
wavelengths of light
(a) Rhizopus (b) Acetobacter
(d) All of the above
(c) Saccharomyces (d) Lactobacillus
33. During winter, a person died during sleep. The room 40. Choose the correct statement about the test tube-baby.
was closed and a container with burnt charcoal was
I. In India, the first test tube baby was born on 3rd
found in the room. What may be the possible reason of
October, 1987 in Calcutta.
his death?
II. Fertilisation occurs inside female genital tract and
(a) Non-availability of oxygen
growth in test tube.
(b) Hb has more affinity to combine with CO
III. Fertilisation takes place outside and gestation
(c) Hb has more affinity to combine with CO 2 inside womb of mother.
(d) Combined effect of both (a) and (b) IV. Both fertilisation and development takes place
34. Point out the correct floral formula of Cruciferae outside the female genital tract.
(a) h K 4 or 5C 4or 5 A G1 Select the appropriate code with correct pair of
(b) % h K 5C 5A ( ) G(5) statements.
(c) h P3+ 3 A 3+ 3 G(3) (a) I and III (b) I, II and III (c) III and IV (d) Only III
(d) h K 2+ 2 C 4 A 4+ 2 G(2) 41. Consider the following statements each with one or
two blanks.
35. Find the correct descending order of percentage
I. Each half of pectoral girdle consists of a ...A... and
proportion of leucocytes in human blood.
...B... .
(a) Neutrophils Basophils Lymphocytes
II. ...C... is a condition of rapid spasms (wild
Acidophils Monocytes
contractions) in muscle due to low Ca2 + in body
(b) Monocytes Neutrophils Lymphocytes
Acidophils Basophils
fluid.
III. Each organised skeletal muscle in our body is made
(c) Neutrophils Lymphocytes Monocytes
Acidophils Basophils of a number of ...D... held together by a common
(d) Lymphocytes Acidophils Basophils collagenous connective tissue layer called ...E... .
Neutrophils Monocytes Which one of the following options correctly fills the
36. Identify the correctly matched pair of column I with blanks in any two of the statements?
column II and select the correct match from the codes (a) Cmuscular dystrophy, Dfascia, Efascicles
given below. (b) Aclavicle, Bscapula, Ctetany
(c) Aillium, Bischium, Dfascicles, Efascia
Column I Column II (d) Cmyasthenia gravis, Dfascicles, Efascia
I. Cowpers gland 1. Homologous with Bartholins
gland of female 42. Match the following and select the correct answer
using the codes given below.
II. Hysterectomy 2 Surgical removal of uterus.
III. Amenorrhoea 3 Non-occurrence of menses Column I Column II
IV. Human ovum 4. Maximum diameter 0.1 mm A. Genotype-phenotype concept 1. Kolreuter
Codes B. Father of polygenic inheritance 2 Cuenot
(a) I, II and III (b) I, III and IV C. Eugenics 3 Johannsen
(c) I, II, III and IV (d) II and III D Lethal gene 4. Galton
37. Prednisolone synthesis from cortexolone involves Codes
(a) oxidation and hydroxylation (b) microbial dehydrogenation A B C D A B C D
(c) microbial hydroxylation (d) Both (b) and (c) (a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 2 3 4 1
38. Match the following and choose the appropriate codes
given below.
43. Consider the examples of cytoplasmic inheritance and
choose the correct one from the codes given below.
Column I Column II I. Sigma particle inheritance.
A. Rennet enzyme purified 1. Alexander Fleming II. Female sterility in maize.
B. DNA fingerprinting 2 Kohler and Milstein III. Kappa particle inheritance.
C. Lysozyme discovery 3 Alec J Jeffreys IV. Plasmid inheritance.
Codes
D Monoclonal antibodies 4. Christian Hansen
(a) I, II, III and IV (b) I, II and III
(c) I, III and IV (d) II, III and IV

41
44. Consider the correct statement regarding human 52. The sequence in evolution of horse was
genome project and select the appropriate one. (a) Merychippus, Eohippus, Mesohippus, Equus
I. The genome contains 3.2 billion nucleotides. (b) Merychippus, Mesohippus, Eohippus, Equus
II. Total number of genes is between 30000-40000. (c) Eohippus, Mesohippus, Equus, Merychippus
III. The sequencing idea was taken from maize plant. (d) Eohippus, Mesohippus, Merychippus, Equus
IV. 99.9% of DNA is similar in all individuals.
53. ................. is characterised by fits of convulsions.
Codes
(a) Neurosis (b) Psychosis
(a) I, II and III (b) I and II (c) I, II and IV (d) All of these
(c) Epilepsy (d) Drunkeness
45. A blue fowl obtained from mating between black and 54. Consider the statement regarding restriction
white fowls is self crossed. The F2 ratio is
endonuclease and choose the correct one.
(a) 1 black : 2 white : 1 blue (b) 2 black : 1 white : 1 blue
I. Used for in vitro DNA synthesis.
(c) 1 black : 2 blue : 1 white (d) None of these
II. It cuts the bacterial DNA itself from which it is
46. Statement I The patient of cholera, vomiting and isolated.
dysentary are given intravenous drip of saline solution. III. Methylation in DNA discriminate between self and
Statement II The saline solution kills the disease non-self to prevent autolysis.
causing microorganism, after vomiting and dysentary. IV. Present in mammalian cells for degeneration of
(a) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect DNA of dead cells.
(b) Statement II is correct and Statement I is incorrect (a) I, II, and IV (b) II and IV
(c) Both Statements are correct (c) I, II, III and IV (d) Only III
(d) Both Statements are incorrect 55. Sex is determined in human beings
47. Gametes are never hybrid. This statement belongs to (a) by ovum
the law of (b) at the time of fertilisation
(a) segregation (b) dominance (c) 40 days after fertilisation
(c) independent assortment (d) random fertilisation (d) seventh to eight week when genitals differentiate in foetus

48. Bicollateral conjoint vascular bundles have 56. Specialised structures that form around the apical
(a) xylem and phloem, which are arranged in a alternate circumference of adjoining cells, sealing off the access
manner on different radii from the outside to the space between the cells are
(b) xylem and phloem are situated at the same radius but has called
two groups of phloem along the two sides of xylem (inside (a) tight junctions (b) desmosomes
and outside) (c) gap junctions (d) zonula adherens
(c) xylem and phloem in same radius but it has only one group 57. Choose the correct statement and select the
of phloem outside the xylem
appropriate one
(d) phloem surrounds the xylem tissues
I. The flavouring of tea leaves is done with the help of
49. The stage following infection by virus when virus Micrococcus candidans.
particles cannot be observed II. Robert Koch cultured the bacteria for the first time.
(a) lysogenic phase (b) maturation phase III. Prusiner was awarded Nobel Prize in 1997 for the
(c) infection phase (d) eclipse phase discovery of B-vaccine.
IV. The penicillin family of antibiotics is used primarily
50. Illegitimate crossing over is another term for
against Gram-negative bacteria.
(a) transition (b) transversion
(a) I and II (b) I, II and III
(c) reciprocal translocation (d) None of these
(c) I, III and IV (d) II and IV
51. Match the column I with column II.
58. Broad spectrum antibiotics are which
Column I Column II (a) works on all bacteria and viruses
A. Birbal Sahni Institute of 1. Hyderabad (b) works on large number of disease causing microorganisms
Palaeobotany but not viruses
B. International Crop Research 2 Mysore (c) is effective only when in large quantities
Institute for Semi-Arid Tropics (d) None of the above
C. Central Food Technology 3 Lucknow 59. Match the following and select the correct answer
Research Institute
using the codes given below.
D Maximum Ground Nut Producer 4. Gujarat
in India Column I Column II
Select the correct answer using the codes given below. A. Lactobacillus vulgaricus 1. Curd
Codes B. Acetobacter aceti 2 Yoghurt
A B C D A B C D C. Streptococcus lactis 3 Acetic acid
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 2 3 4 1 D. Streptococcus fradiae 4. Neomycin
(c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 3 1 4 2

42
 Codes 67. Who regarded classification as a subtopic of
A B C D A B C D systematics dealing with ordering of organisms into
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 1 2 3 4 groups and taxonomy as the study of principles and
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 2 3 1 4
procedures of classification.
60. The new strain of bacteria for alcohol industry (a) Adolf Mayer (b) John Ray
produced through biotechnology belongs to (c) G Simpson (d) Carolus Linnaeus
(a) Bacillus subtilis
68. When the anthers mature before stigma, it is known as
(b) Escherichia coli
(a) Heterostyly (b) Dicliny
(c) Saccharomyces cerevisae
(c) Protandry (d) Protogyny
(d) Pseudomonas putida
69. Consider the occurrence of compound pollen grains
61. Monoclonal antibodies are obtained from and choose the correct one from the codes given below.
(a) one parent for one antigen
I. Juncus
(b) different parents for one gene
II. Cryptostegia
(c) one parent for many antigens
III. Drosera
(d) many parents for many antigens
IV. Calotropis
62. Biotechnological production of antibiotics require (a) I and II (b) I, II and III (c) I and IV (d) I, II and IV
I. isolation of gene for antibiotic production. 70. Consider the correct statement given below and
II. search for antibiotic producing microorganisms. choose the appropriate one.
III. join the gene for antibiotic with plasmid of E.coli.
I. Garden pea has marginal placentation.
IV. Bt genes for goat immunisation.
II. Cucurbita has parietal placentation.
(a) I, II and III
III. Gynobasic style is found in Labiatae.
(b) II, III and IV
IV. Pappus is a modification of calyx.
(c) I, II and IV
Codes
(d) I and II
(a) I, III and IV (b) II and III
63. Choose the correct statement regarding menstrual (c) I and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
cycle and choose the correct option.
71. The food chain in which microorganism breakdown
I. Menstrual cycle is present in all mammals. the energy rich compounds synthesised by producers
II. Menstrual cycle is present in all primates. is
III. Periodicity of menstrual cycle is 28 days.
(a) predator food chain (b) ecosystem
IV. Menstrual phase is also called shedding tears of
(c) parasitic food chain (d) detritus food chain
lost ovum.
Codes 72. The percentage of moisture that is left in the soil at the
(a) I, II and IV time when the plants first wilts permanently.
(b) II, III and IV (a) Wilting deficit
(c) II and III (b) Saturation deficit
(d) All of the above (c) Wilting coefficient
(d) Saturation coefficient
64. Bartholins glands occur in
(a) females and helps in vestibular lubrication 73. Trees at the sea shore do not have annual rings
(b) females and produce oestrogen for regulating secondary because
sexual characters (a) soil is sandy
(c) males and produce alkaline fluid for neutralising urethral (b) soil has too many climatic variations
acidity (c) there are climatic variations
(d) males and form liquid part of spermatic fluid (d) there are no marked climatic variations
65. Estrous cycle is characteristic of 74. A fungus contains cells with two nuclei from different
(a) mammals genomes. The nuclei do not fuse but divide
(b) mammalian females independently and simultaneously as new cells are
(c) human females formed. It belongs to
(d) mammalian females other than primates (a) Phycomycetes (b) Zygomycetes
66. Consider the statement regarding antibiotics and (c) Deuteromycetes (d) Basidiomycetes
choose the correct code given below. 75. If you chew on a piece of bread long enough, it will
I. Term antibiotics was coined by Waksman in 1942. begin to taste sweet because
II. Some persons develop allergy to antibiotics. (a) maltase is breaking down maltose
III. Antibiotics are capable of curing any disease. (b) lipases are forming fatty acids
IV. Antibiotics are produced by microorganism. (c) amylase is breaking down starch to disaccharides
(a) I, II and III (b) I, II and IV (d) disaccharides are forming glucose
(c) I, II, III and IV (d) I and IV

43
76. Match the column I with column II and select the (c) Tectorial membrane Determine patterns of vibration of
correct option from the codes given below. sound waves.
(d) Semicircular canal Equalises the pressure on either sides
Column I Column II of the ear drum
A. Hepatic lobule 1. Base of villi
82. The given diagrammatic representation of reflex action
B. Crypts of leiberkuhn 2 Glissons capsule shows knee jerk reflex. Identify the parts labelled as
C. Sphincter of Oddi 3 Gall bladder A to E and select the correct option.
D Cystic duct 4. Hepato-pancreatic duct E A
Muscle spindle B
Codes (receptor)
A B C D A B C D
C
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 4 3 2 1
Stimulus
77. Read the following four statements I to IV regarding D
left cerebral hemisphere. Response
I. It receives most modalities of sensory information
from the right side of the body.
II. It is usually larger than the right cerebral
hemisphere.
A B C D E
III. It is the dominant cerebral hemisphere in most
individuals. (a) Dorsal root White Gray Afferent Efferent
ganglion matter matter pathway pathway
IV. It is connected to the right cerebral hemisphere by
the corpus callosum. (b) Dorsal root White Gray Efferent Afferent
ganglion matter matter pathway pathway
Select the option that correctly states the true (T) and
false (F) statement. (c) Ventral root Gray White Efferent Afferent
ganglion matter matter pathway pathway
I II III IV
(a) T T F F (d) Ventral root White Gray Efferent Afferent
(b) F T T F ganglion matter matter pathway pathway
(c) T F F T
(d) F F T T
83. A sagittal section is the one that
(a) passes dorsoventrally to the anterioposterior axis of the body
78. Substrate level phosphorylation occurs during which (b) a transverse section passing through the middle of the body
step of Krebs cycle? (c) passes along the length perpendicular to the dorsoventral
(a) Succinyl-Co-A Succinic acid axis of the body
(b) Isocitric acid Oxalosuccinic acid (d) a vertical section passing through the middle line of the body
(c) Oxalosuccinic acid -ketoglutaric acid
84. A horse has a karyotype of 64 chromosomes and a
(d) Malic acid OAA
donkey has a karyotype of 62 chromosomes. The
79. Select the incorrect statement as far as kranz anatomy hybrid offspring of a horse-donkey cross is a Mule
is concerned. which has 63 chromosomes. But that Mule is sterile
(a) Undifferentiated mesophyll occurs in concentric layers because it cannot successfully
around vascular bundles (a) form gametes
(b) Centrifugal chloroplasts are present in bundle sheath cells (b) court with Mule
(c) Large size bundle sheath cells are arranged in a wreath - like (c) complete development of the zygote
manner in one to several layers (d) copulate with Mules, donkeys or horses
(d) Chloroplasts of bundle sheath cells possess well developed
grana lamellae 85. Consider the statement given below and choose the
correct code.
80. Some functions of a nutrient element are given below. I. The leukemia is caused by Sr-90.
I. Important constituent of proteins involved in ETS. II. Chernobyl disaster was caused by nuclear reactor
II. Activator of catalase. accident.
III. Important constituent of cytochrome. III. MIC and chernobyl tragedies occurred at Bhopal in
IV. Essential for chlorophyll synthesis. 1984 and Ukraine 1988 respectively.
The concerned nutrient is IV. PAN is a secondary air pollutant.
(a) Cu (b) Fe (c) Ca (d) Mo Codes
81. Which of the following is a correct match of ears part (a) I, II, III and IV
and its function. (b) I, III and IV
(a) Organ of Corti Increases the efficiency of sound waves (c) I, II and IV
(b) Eustachian tube Maintains body balance and posture (d) II, III and IV

44
86. Match the following products/process to the (a) Osmotic movement of water into sugar loaded sieve tube
microorganism which are involved in them. cells which create a higher hydrostatic pressure into the
source than in the sink
Column I Column II (b) Tension created by differences in pressure potential
between source and sink
A. Bioplastic 1. Beauveria bassiana
(c) Active absorption of source through sieve tube membrane
B. Bioremediation 2 Thiobacillus thiooxidans driven by a specific pump
C. Bioleaching 3 Ralstonia eutropha (d) Transpiration and active transport of sugar from source to
D Biopesticide 4. Pseudomonas putida sink
89. Choose the correct statement and select the
Codes
appropriate one
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 1 2 3 4 I. Pyramid of energy in grassland or pond ecosystem
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 1 4 2 3 is always upright.
II. In pond ecosystem, pyramid of biomass is inverted.
87. Why legume seeds imbibe more water than any other III. The word ecosystem was first coined by EP Odum.
seed, when kept in water? IV. The amount of energy transferred from one trophic
(a) Imbibition capacity of protein is more than that of starch level to another is 10%.
(b) Presence of less hydrophilic colloids in starch containing (a) I, III and IV (b) I, II and IV
grains (c) II, III and IV (d) All of these
(c) Cell membrane of legume seeds is more permeable
(d) Cell membrane of carbohydrate containing seeds is less 90. A dental disease characterised by mottling of teeth is
permeable due to presence of a certain chemical element in
drinking water. Which is that element?
88. Which of the following mechanism can explain the (a) Mercury (b) Chlorine (c) Boron (d) Fluorine
transport of sucrose from source to sink?

Answer with Hints

1. (c) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (a)
2. (b) Walking fern refers to the fern Adiantum caudatum and a few 30. (d) 31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (b)
other species of this genus. The name walking fern derives from the 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (d)
fact that new plantlets grow wherever the arching leaves of the
parent touch the ground creating a walking effect.
38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (a) 41. (b)
3. (d) Myxomycetes are commonly called true slime moulds. These 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (c)
are saprophytic and their vegetative phase is represented by a free 46. (a) 47. (a)
living, mass of protoplasm without walls and produce haploid 48. (b) In bicollateral vascular bundle, xylem and phloem are present on
spores, which are dispersed by air currents, rain and mites. the same radius and one xylem patch is present in between the two
4. (a) phloem patches, e.g Cucurbita.
5. (b) Torsion is a process in larval gastropods where the 49. (d) 50. (c) 51. (c) 52. (d)
visceropalium is rotated anticlockwise through 180 from its initial 53. (c) 54. (d) 55. (b)
position on the head foot complex.
56. (a) Tight junctions or zonula occludens are present at certain places
6. (b) on plasma membrane of two adjacent cells, present between
7. (a) Potato belongs to familySolanaceae which has a floral formula epithelial and brain cells and act as blood-brain barrier.
of h K (5) C(5) A(5) G(2) 57. (a) 58. (b) 59. (d)
8. (d) Microtubules are found in both animal and plant cells and are 60. (d) 61. (a) 62. (a)
formed of the protein tubulin. 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (d)
9. (c) 66. (b) 67. (b) 68. (c)
10. (d) The moss sporophytes are dependent upon the gametophyte 69. (b) 70. (d) 71.(d)
for nutrients and are short lived as compared to sporophyte of ferns
which are free living with their own roots, stems and leaves.
72. (c) 73. (d) 74. (d)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (a) 75. (c) 76. (a) 77. (c)
14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (b) 78. (a) 79. (d) 80. (b)
17. (c) 18. (b) 81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (d)
19. (d) Diffusion is the net movement of substances to the regions of 84. (a) 85. (c) 86. (c)
lower concentration as a result of random spontaneous motion. 87. (a) Legume contains protein, while wheat contains starch.
20. (a) 21. (b) 22. (c) 88. (a) Munchs pressure on Mass flow hypothesis (1930).
23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (b) 89. (b) 90. (d)

45
l
Eukaryotic animal gene fragments are usually cloned in E. coli to
obtain sufficient copies for structural analysis, but to study their
expression they need to be studied in animal cells.
l
Animal cells used for transformation are tissue culture cell lines,
Xenopus oocytes, early embryos or body tissues of individuals.
l
The vectors used in animal cells are derived from viral genome. Some
are capable of replication (replicating vectors) while others are not
(non-replicating vectors).
l
Few vectors in animal cells that remain and replicate in
extrachromosomal state are quickly lost in few days even when
conditions favouring their retention are imposed. Such phenomenon
is called transient transfection.
l
Some animal vectors do remain stable in extrachromosomal state
e.g., those either derived from bovine papilloma virus or those
containing ori from herpes virus Epstein-Barr. Such stable
transfection is due to integration of transfecting DNA into the
genome of animal cells and therefore is known as insertional
transfection.
l
The DNA integration in animal cells is usually by non-homologous
recombination at random locations in the genome.
l
The first animal vector was devised from primate papova virus, simian
virus (SV40), but later vectors have been developed from viruses as
papilloma virus, adenoviruses, Epstein-Barr herpes virus, vaccinia
virus (used for mammals) and baculo viruses (for insects).
l
SV 40 vectors consists of a virus with circular, double stranded
5243 bp chromosome, which encodes 5 proteins, i.e. small T, largeT (for
viral replication), VP1, VP2 and VP3 (form viral capsid). SV 40 genome
is used to develop transducing vectors, plasmid vectors and
transforming vectors.
l
The vectors comprising of regions encoding VP1, VP2 and VP3
replaced by DNA insert is called late region replacement vector, e.g.
SVGT-5. Such vectors are used to infect host cells in conjunction with
another virus, called helper virus. In such cases, only those host cells
that are infected by both vector and helper virus will lyse and produce
virions and cells infected by either of them will not support replication
of virus.
l
The vectors having the origin of replication and genes for VP1, VP2
and VP3 replicate and produce virions in COS cell line cells (i.e. monkey
46
cell line). These vectors do not require helper virus and the early genes
(large T-gene) are replaced by DNA insert. Therefore, are called early
region replacement vectors.
l
Non-replicating vectors as the name suggests do not replicate but
serves as vehicles for transfecting DNAs which may become
integrated into the host DNA, thus are called passive transfecting
vectors.
l
Non-replicating vectors are generally shuttle vectors. The SV 40
segments used in these vectors are generally the transcription
regulatory sequences and polyadenylation sites. The transformants
are selected on the basis of selectable markers present in vector.
l
Bovine papilloma virus vectors have a circular 8kb genome organised
in nucleosomes, that replicates as a stable plasmid in many bovine and
rodent cells. The cells are not killed but viral genome transforms cells
into tumour like cells that form piled up colonies of cells instead of
typical monolayer. This transformation is due to genes (5500 bp) of
virus genome which is also used to produce shuttle vectors.
l
Retrovirus vectors have single stranded RNA genomes, transcribed by
reverse transcriptase in a DNA double strand copy inside host cells
which integrates into host genome forming provirus, causing
permanent transfection of cells.
l
Retroviral vectors has viral sequences for replication, gene expression
and packaging. The DNA inserts in these vectors may either replace or
be located in the non-essential coding region of viral genome. The
vector and recombinant vectors are packaged into virions and used as
transducing phages. The DNA copies of retrovirus genome are used as
shuttle vectors.
l
The recombinant vector constructed in vitro is introduced into E.coli
to either select the recombinant vector or to obtain many copies of
recombinant vector or to express the insert in bacteria.
l
Various approaches have been adopted to introduce recombinant
vector into bacteria.
l
Usually, E. coli cells are generally poorly accessible to DNA molecules
but treatment with calcium chloride makes them permeable to DNA.
E. coli cells are isolated and suspended in 50 mM CaCl2 and incubated
for 12-24 hours to increase the frequency of transformation. The
frequency of transformation with CaCl2 treated cells is 106 107 / g
of plasmid DNA.
l
A marker or reporter gene produces a phenotype which permits an
easy selection or quick identification of cells in which it is present.
Marker genes are either selectable or scorable.
l
Selectable marker governs feature that enables survival of cell under
selective conditions. For example, genes conferring resistance to
antimetabolites, e.g. kanamycin are good selectable markers. When a
population of bacterial cells is plated on a kanamycin containing
medium, only those cells having kanamycin resistance gene survive
and form colonies.
l
Scorable markers produce distinct phenotypes which allow an easy
identification of cells having them from those which do not contain
them. Examples being gus (-galactourinidase produces blue colour in
presence of suitable substrate), lux (luciferase-produces
phosphorescence), ocs (octopine synthase), nos (nopaline synthase -
both producing specific nitrogen compounds called opines).
l
Scorable markers do not allow selective multiplication of cells
containing them like selectable markers but enable their easy
identification.
l
In case of phage vectors, cosmids and phasmids the vectors used for
infecting bacterial cells are packaged into virions. Such infected cells
are plated on a susceptible bacterial lawn where they form plaques.
Plaques will be formed only due to vector infected cells. It may either
have recombinant or unchanged vector.
l
Some vectors contain a gene or sometimes only part of a gene which
complements a function missing in their host cells, e.g. gene lac z in
pUC vectors which complements such lac z E. coli strains in which
lac z is deleted or some vectors and M13 phage vectors. In such
cases, the desired gene or DNA insert is so placed that it disrupts the
function of lac z in vector. E. coli cells containing the recombinant
vector are deficient in -galactosidase and produce white colonies or
plaques on a medium containing X-gal. But, the cell having
unchanged vector will produce active -galactosidase, thus, giving
rise to blue colonies or plaques on the same medium. This is called blue
white screening, that allows easy identification of clones containing
the recombinant vectors.
l
A direct selection of recombinant vector is possible when DNA insert
codes for a gene product, defective in auxotrophic host cells. The cells
are grown in medium lacking the compound needed by auxotrophic
host. Only those cells having recombinant vector will grow and form
colonies.
l
Selection by suppression of non-sense mutation present in the host,
also permits a direct selection for recombinant vector.
l
In some vectors that retain the lysogenic function, the DNA insert
may be placed within the lysis repressor gene Cl -, so that it becomes
Cl . As a result, the cells infected by such recombinant vectors gives
rise to clear plaques, whereas those infected by non-recombinant
vector will yield turbid plaques, thus allowing easy identification and
isolation.
l
Some replacement vectors and cosmids are much shorter than the
minimum genome length required for their packaging within virus
particles. In such vectors, the length of DNA insert can be adjusted so
as to allow the packaging of only recombinant vector. It provides
efficient selection strategy for recombinant vectors.
l
The most efficient and rapid strategy for identification of a clone with
desired insert, uses the colony hybridisation technique. The bacterial
cells subjected to transformation are plated onto a suitable medium
plate called master plate. The colonies of master plate are replica
plated onto a nitrocellulose filter membrane placed on agar medium.
Such cells are lysed and hybridised with radioactive probes. The cells
containing desired DNA sequences are identified by autoradiography.
l
In the absence of specific probes for desired DNA inserts, indirect
approaches such as Hybrid Arrested Translation (HART) and hybrid
selection are used for identification of clones. However, these
approaches are not convenient for screening of a large number of
clones.
l
In the above strategies, the DNA inserts are not required to express in
bacterial cells, rather the mRNA mixture is prepared from a source
where the desired gene expresses ordinarily. The DNA inserts are used
only for hybridisation with mRNAs complementary to them.
Therefore, these approaches are applicable to any DNA sequences that
encode a protein.
l
The product of DNA insert, i.e. protein can be identified by its unique
function, which is not observed in non-transformant host cells. Such
functions may be related to enzyme activities or hormone effects.
l
If the protein lacks a recognizable and measurable function, it can be
detected by using specific antibodies.
l
An automated system called Fluorescence Activated Cell Sorter
(FACS) can be used for very rapid (up to 1000 cells/s) sorting of
transformed animal cells. This is applicable to gene whose products
become arranged on cell surface and are available for binding of
specific antibodies. The antibodies are attached to a fluorescent
molecule and transformed cells are treated with them. Cells are then
passed one by one in a stream between laser and a fluoresence
detector. The fluoresced cells are deflected into a micro culture tray.
l
The DNA for transfection in animal cell is dissolved in phosphate
buffer to which CaCl2 solution is added so as to precipitate the DNA
with insoluble calcium phosphate. This precipitate is added to the cells
to be transfected and taken up by phagocytosis. It results in 20%
transfection of all cells involved.
l
In DEAE-Dextran Mediated Transfection, DEAE-dextran (dimethyl
aminoethyl dextran) which is water soluble and polycationic is added
to the transfection solution containing DNA. DEAE-dextran mediates
uptake of DNA by cells through endocytosis.
l
It is particularly useful for transient transfection, in various molecular
biology studies using COS cell lines.
l
Lipofection is delivery of DNA into cells using liposomes, i.e. small
vesicles prepared from suitable lipid (cationic). Lipofection is the
method of choice for transfection of mammalian cells in vitro and
used to deliver DNA into live animals by direct injection or intravenous
injection.
l
Many animal cells that cannot be efficiently transfected by above
mentioned approaches can be successfully transfected by
electroporation technique. The transfection mixture containing cells
and DNA is exposed to a very high voltage gradient for few
milliseconds which induces transient pores in cell membranes, thus
facilitating entry of DNA into cells.
l
The embryonic stem cells are pluripotent cultured cells derived from
early pre-implantation embryos which can be maintained and
multiplied in vitro to permit various manipulations for gene transfer.
l
ES cell line technology permits the selection of clones having
targetted gene transfers among several clones showing stable
transfection.
l
The transgene integrates at precise site of its allele present in genome
by targetted gene transfer. It is achieved by process of homologous
recombination in which transgene replaces its allele in genome.
47
Lifespan The period from birth to natural death of
an organism is called as lifespan.
Birth
Juvenility (animals) Maturity
or or
Vegetative phase Reproductive
(plants) phase
Death (senescence) Ageing
Lifespan of an organism
Reproduction It is production of younger
individuals by an organism, which are similar to the
parental organism. This offspring grows, matures
and produces new offspring. It is of two types:
Asexual Reproduction
In asexual reproduction, the parents produce
young ones without the mating of gametes. The
offsprings formed by asexual reproduction are
genetically identical to the parent and are referred
to as clones.
Types of Asexual Reproduction
These are of following types :
1. Fission It is the splitting of parental cell into
two or more daughter cells. Fission can be
binary or multiple.
(a) Binary fission In this method an
organism divides and form two
individuals. First the nucleus divides
and form two nuclei, then the cytoplasm
divides and form two daughter cells, e.g.
Amoeba and Paramecium.
50
Note 1. Binary fission of protozoans is more or less similar to mitosis along
with following differences
(a) Formation of multipolar spindles during the process in Amoeba while in
mitosis unipolar spindles are visible.
(b) The nuclear membrane remain intact during binary fission while it
disappears in mitosis.
2. Binary fission can be longitudinal (Paramecium) or oblique (Opalina) type
also.
(b) Multiple fission In this method, an organism divides into
many daughter cells, e.g. Plasmodium.
2. Sporulation During unfavourable conditions, organisms like
Amoeba cover themselves with a three layered hard covering or
cyst. This is called encystation. On return of favourable conditions,
it divides by multiple fission within the cyst and produces many
Amoebae. The cyst burst and spores are liberated to develop into
adults. This is called sporulation.
3. Budding Formation of a daughter individual from a small
outgrowth, the bud, arising on the parent body is called budding,
e.g. Hydra. Normal buds, which are seen as external outgrowths
are infact external buds, while under unfavourable conditions
internal buds are also seen as gemmules in Hydra.
4. Spore formation Spores are propagules which germinate to
produce new individuals. There are several kinds of spores. These
spores are zoospores, aplanospores, conidia.
5. Fragmentation In this, the parent body breaks up into smaller
fragments which on maturation develops into new individuals,
e.g. Spirogyra.
6. Regeneration In this, the lost, removed or injured parts of an
organism are restored by new growth and sometimes each
fragment or part of the organism is capable of regenerating a new
identical individual e.g. Planaria.
7. Vegetative propagation It is a mode of reproduction in which new
plants are formed from vegetative parts of the plant like roots,
stem, etc. It is very common in higher plants, i.e. angiosperms.
 Asexual Reproductive Modes Sexual Reproduction
of Flowering Plants It is the process of formation of new individual through the
Mechanism Examples Characteristics formation and fusion of male and female gametes. The offsprings
are not identical to the parents or to each other hence, it leads to
Vegetative Reproduction on Modified Stems
variation in a population.
Runner Strawberry, New plants arise at nodes along
Oxalis or above ground horizontal Events in Sexual Reproduction
stems. Pre-fertilisation Events These include gametogenesis and gamete transfer.
Rhizome Bermuda grass New plants arise at nodes of Gametogenesis The process of gamete formation is known as
underground horizontal stems. gametogenesis. The gametes are generally of two kinds, male
gamete and female gamete.
Corm Gladiolus New plants arise from axillary
Note-In some lower organisms, both male and female gametes are
buds on short,
morphologically similar called isogametes or homogametes.
carbohydrate-storing, In higher organisms, both male and female gametes are
underground stems. morphologically distinct called heterogametes.
Tuber Potato New shoots arise from axillary SmallMicrogamete/Male gameteSpermatozoa
Heterogametes

SEXUAL REPRODUCTION
buds (tubers are enlarged tips of LargeMacrogamete/Female gameteOva
slender underground rhizomes). Gamete Transfer
In most of the organisms, male gamete is motile and the
Bulb Onion, lily New bulbs arise from axillary female gamete is non-motile. The male gametes are produced
buds on short undergound in large number because most of the male gametes fail
stems. to reach the female gamete. In flowering plant male gametes reaches the
female gamete through the process of pollination.
Other examples of vegetative reproduction are suckers (Mint), bulbils
(Agave) offset (Hyacinth and Pistia) and leaf buds (Bryophyllum). Fertilisation Events
In this stage, the most important event is the fusion of gametes
Parthenogenesis Orange, rose Embryo develops without nuclear (haploid) and formation of diploid zygote. This process is
or cellular fusion (for example, called syngamy or fertilisation. If the process of fertilisation
from an unfertilised haploid egg occur outside the body of organisms it is called external fertilisation,
or by developing adventitiously, e.g. algae, amphibians, fishes, etc. If the syngamy occurs inside
from tissue surrounding the the body of organisms, it is called internal fertilisation, e.g. fungi,
embryo sac). reptiles, birds, higher animals and plants.

Vegetative Jade plant, New plant develops from tissue Post-fertilisation Events These include development of zygote
Propagation African violet or structure (a leaf, for instance) and embryo after fertilisation.
that drops from the parent plant
Zygote Development The zygote is formed in all sexually
or gets separated from it.
reproducing organisms. Further, development of zygote depends
upon the type of life cycle and the environment of organisms.
Tissue Culture Orchid, lily, New plant induced to arise from
Propagation wheat, rice, a parent plant cell that is not Embryogenesis The process of development of embryo from the
corn, tulip irreversibly differentiated. zygote is called embryogenesis. During embryogenesis, zygote
undergoes mitotic cell divisions and cell differentiation.

51
 MASTER
1. Banana is vegetatively propagated by 8. Match the following columns.
(a) tubers (b) rhizomes (c) bulbs (d) suckers
Column I Column II
2. Which one of the following shows isogamy with A. Binary fission 1. Penicillium
non-flagellated gametes? [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
B. Budding 2. Bryophyllum
(a) Sargassum (b) Ectocarpus
(c) Ulothrix (d) Spirogyra C. Zoospore 3. Potato
D. Conidia 4. Algae
3. Which part would be most suitable for raising
E. Tuber 5. Yeast
virus-free plants by micropropagation?
F. Leaf buds 6. Euglena
[CBSE AIPMT 2012]
(a) Bark (b) Vascular tissue Codes
(c) Meristem (d) None of these A B C D E F
4. Which one of the following is correctly matched? (a) 6 3 1 2 5 4
(a) OnionBulb (b) 6 5 4 1 3 2
(b) GingerSucker (c) 5 3 2 4 1 6
(c) ChlamydomonasConidia (d) 4 5 1 2 3 6
(d) YeastZoospores 9.Read the given statements and choose the correct
5. Why asexual reproduction is sometimes option.
disadvantageous? I. During embryogenesis, the zygote undergoes a
(a) It allows animals that do not move around to produce offspring process of growth and development via cell
without finding mates division and cell differentiation.
(b) It allows an animal to produce many offspring quickly II. Every sexually reproducing organism, including
(c) It saves the time and energy of gamete production humans, begins life as a single celled zygote.
(d) It produces genetically uniform population III. Animal laying eggs are called viviparous
6. Select the wrong statement. [NEET 2013] organisms.
(a) Isogametes are similar in structure, function and behaviour. IV. Birds and reptiles are organisms that are classified
(b) Anisogametes differ either in structure, function or behaviour. as oviparous.
(c) In oomycetes, female gamete is smaller and motile, while male (a) I and II (b) I, II and III
gamete is larger and non-motile. (c) I, II and IV (d) Only II
(d) Chlamydomonas exhibits both isogamy and anisogamy and
Fucus shows oogamy. 10.Which of the following statements, support the view
that elaborate sexual reproductive process appeared
7. Study the following figures and select the correct much later in the organic evolution. [NCERT Exemplar]
statements regarding these.
I. Lower groups of organisms have simpler body
design.
II. Asexual reproduction is common in lower groups.
III. Asexual reproduction is common in higher groups
of organisms.
IV. The high incidence of sexual reproduction in
angiosperms and vertebrates.
Choose the correct option.
A B C D (a) I and III (b) I and III
(c) II and IV (d) II and III
I. A shows mode of asexual reproduction in sponges
through internal buds. 11.Which of the following situations correctly describe
II. B shows sexual reproduction through zoospores in the similarity between an angiospermic egg and a
Chlamydomonas. human egg?
III. C shows asexual reproduction through I. Eggs of both are formed only once in a lifetime.
conidiophores in Penicillium. II. Both the angiosperm egg and human egg are
stationary.
IV. D shows external budding in Sycon.
(a) I and II (b) I and III III. Both the angiosperm egg and human egg are
(c) II, III and IV (d) I, III and IV motile and are transported.

52
 IV. Syngamy in both results in the formation of zygote. IV. Fusion of morphologically similar gametes is called
Choose the correct option. isogamy.
(a) II and IV (b) Only IV (a) I and II (b) II and IV
(c) III and IV (d) I and IV (c) III and IV (d) I and IV

12. Given below are few statements related to external 16. Choose the incorrect statement regarding
fertilisation. regeneration.
I. The male and female gametes are formed and (a) Formation of whole body from a small fragment
released simultaneously. (b) Replacement of the lost part.
(c) Growth of a small bud from the body
II. Only a few gametes are released into the medium.
(d) Planaria is a common example
III. Water is the medium in a majority of organisms
exhibiting external fertilisation. 17. Strobilisation in animals refers to
IV. Offspring formed as a result of external fertilisation (a) formation of ring like constructions in organisms
have better chance of survival than those formed (b) formation of buds in organisms
inside the organisms. (c) division of body of organism into fragments
(d) None of the above
Choose the correct statement among them.
(a) III and IV 18. Read the following statements and select the correct
(b) I and III ones.
(c) II and IV I. Conidia are the asexual propagules restricted to
(d) I and IV kingdom Fungi.
13. A few statements with regard to sexual reproduction II. A piece of potato tuber having at least one eye
are given below. [NCERT Exemplar] (or node) is capable of giving rise to a new plant.
I. Sexual reproduction does not always require two III. Ginger propagates vegetatively with the help of its
individuals. underground roots.
II. Sexual reproduction generally involves gametic IV. Fleshy buds which take part in vegetative
fusion. propagation are called bulbils, present in
III. Meiosis never occurs during sexual reproduction. Dioscorea, Agave, etc.
IV. External fertilisation is a rule during sexual (a) II and III (b) I and IV
reproduction. (c) I, II and IV (d) I, II and III
Choose the correct option. 19. There is no natural death in single celled organisms
(a) I and IV (b) I and II like Amoeba and bacteria because [NCERT Exemplar]
(c) II and III (d) II and IV (a) they cannot reproduce sexually
(b) they reproduce by binary fission
14. Choose the correct statement from amongst the
following. [NCERT Exemplar] (c) parental body is distributed among offsprings
(a) Dioecious organisms are seen only in animals. (d) they are microscopic
(b) Dioecious organisms are seen in both plants and animals. 20. Choose the correct characteristic(s) regarding
(c) Dioecious organisms are seen only in plants. internal fertilisation in organisms.
(d) Dioecious organisms are seen in vertebrates only. I. Internal fertilisation is seen in most terrestrial
15. Read the following statements and choose the correct organisms.
statement among the following. II. Female gamete is formed inside the female body
I. Apogamy is the process which involves fusion of where it fuses with motile male gamete.
gametes. III. Higher animals and majority of plants do not show
II. Fusion of two dissimilar gametes is called internal fertilisation.
anisogamy. (a) Only I
III. Fusion of large motile gametes and small (b) II and III
(c) Only II
non-motile gamete is oogamy.
(d) I and II

Answers
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (d)

53
 Reproductive Health
POPULATION EXPLOSION AND
BIRTH CONTROL METHODS
According to WHO, reproductive health refers to
the state of physical, emotional, behavioural and
social fitness for leading a reproductive life.
Strategies to Improve Reproductive
Health
l
Number of programmes have been launched by
Govt. of India under the name Reproductive and
Child Health Care (RCH).
l
Awareness programmes are conducted among
people about reproduction related aspects and
STDs.
l
Providing facilities and support to build up a
healthy reproductive society.
l
Family planning programmes were launched in
1951 so as to stabilise the population.
l
Statutory ban on amniocentesis so as to prevent
female foeticide and introduction of child
immunisation programmes.
Population Explosion and Birth Control
l
The increase in size and growth of human population is called
population explosion.
l
The reasons for high population growth are:
(i) Rapid decline in death rate.
(ii) Decline in Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR).
(iii) Decline in Infant Mortality Rate (IMR).
(iv) Lack of reproductive health knowledge.
(v) Some religious belief against birth control.
Some steps to overcome population explosion
l
Motivate smaller families by using contraceptive methods.
l
Awareness through media, posters/billsHum Do Hamare Do.
l
Raising marriageable age of girls to 18 years and of boys to 21 years.
Birth Control and Contraception
Birth control refers to the regulation of conception by preventive
methods or devices to limit the number of offsprings, while
contraception refers to devices or medications followed so as to prevent
the likelihood of pregnancy.

Methods of Contraception and Birth Control

Methods Basis of Action Note on Uses Relative Disadvantages
Barrier Methods
Condom A thin, strong rubber sheath, prevents the sperm Placed over erect penis just Not as reliable as the pill.
from entering the vagina. before sexual intercourse. Relies on the male. May tear or slip off.
Femidom Female condom, a thin rubber or polyurethane tube Inserted before intercourse and Difficult to insert.
with a closed end, which fits inside vagina and open removed any time later. Can break or leak.
end has two fixable rings, one on each end, to keep Expensive than male condom.
it in place.
Diaphragm/ Cap A flexible rubber dome which fits over the cervix and Inserted before intercourse. Suggestion of doctor is must for proper size
prevents entry of sperm to uterus. Used with a Must be left in place at least 6 selection. It requires training to fit. Occasionally
spermicidal cream or jelly (a spermicide is a hours after the intercourse. causes abdominal pain. It should not be left for
chemical which kills sperms). more than 30 hours as it may cause toxic shock
syndrome. Examination required after every 6
months that cap is of right size.
Spermicide Chemical which kills sperm. Placed in vagina to cover the High failure rate.
lining of vagina and cervix.
Effective for about 1 hour.
Sponge Polyurethane sponge impregnated with spermicide, Fits up to 24 hours before High failure rate.
fits over cervix, disposable. intercourse. Leave in place for at
least 6 hours after intercourse.
Hormonal Methods
Pill Contains the female sex homones i.e. oestrogen and One taken orally each day, Short-term side effects, may include nausea,
progesterone. Prevents development of eggs and during first 3 weeks of cycle. fluid retention and weight gain. Long-term side
ovulation by inhibiting the secretion of FSH. Act on After week 4, menstruation effects not fully understood, but increased risk
cervical mucus to prevent the penetration of sperm. starts and the pill is started of blood clotting may occur in some women.
Prevent the blastocyst implantation. again. Not recommended for older women.

63
 Methods Basis of Action Note on Uses Relative Disadvantages
Minipill Contains progesterone only. Ovulation may occur, but Must be taken within 3 hours May cause headache, nausea, weight gain.
cervical mucus is thickened, preventing entry of after intercourse everyday.
sperms.
IUD (Intra Uterine 1st generation It is placed in cervix, acts as May cause bleeding and discomfort. IUD may
Device) or Coil (non-medicated, e.g. lippes loops, rings). spermicide within the uterus. slip out.
2nd generation
(copper devices, e.g. copper T-220).
3rd generation
(hormonal device, e.g. progestasert).
Natural Methods (NFP stands for natural method for family planning)
Abstinence Avoid sexual intercourse. Restricts emotional development of a
relationship.
Rhythm method Avoid sexual intercourse around the time of High failure rate, even higher if periods are
ovulation (total abstinence for about 7-14 days). irregular.
Requires good knowledge of body and good
record-keeping. Requires a period of
abstinence.
Temperature Note the rise in temperature at ovulation (due to rise As above
method in progesterone) and avoid sexual intercourse at
these times.
Coitus Penis is withdrawn from vagina before ejaculation. High failure rate. Requires much self-discipline.
interruptus Penis may leak some sperm before ejaculation.
(withdrawl)
Lactational Sucking stimulus prevents the generation of normal
amenorrhoea preovulatory LH surge hence, ovulation does not
occur.
Sterilisation (Surgical methods)
Vasectomy Vas deferens are severed and tied. Very difficult to reverse. Need to use alternative
method up to 2 to 3 months after vasectomy.
Tubectomy Both oviducts are severed and tied (now laproscopic Even more difficult to reverse than vasectomy.
method are used.)
Termination (its not a part of contraception)
Morning after pill Contains RU486, an antiprogesterone. Taken within 3 days of sexual For use only in emergencies.
intercourse. Long-term effects not known.
Abortion Up to 24 weeks Premature termination of Risk of infertility and other complications.
(discussed later pregnancy by surgical Emotionally difficult and ethically wrong.
in this chapter as intervention.
MTP)

Best Practice SHOTS

1. Population explosion can be credited to 3. Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive
I. rapid increase in IMR. due to the [NCERT Exemplar]
II. rapid decrease in MMR. (a) suppression of gonadotropins
III. decrease in number of people in reproductive age. (b) hypersecretion of gonadotropins
(c) suppression of gametic transport
IV. increased health facilities.
(d) suppression of fertilisation
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) III and IV (d) II and IV 4. Which of the following is included under barrier
methods of birth control?
2. Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population (a) Vaginal pouch (b) Diaphragm
will [NCERT Exemplar] (c) Cervical cap (d) All of these
(a) cause rapid increase in growth rate
(b) result in decline in growth rate 5. In the periodic abstinence the couple refrains from
(c) not cause significant change in growth rate intercourse
(d) result in an explosive population (a) 12-15 days of menstrual cycle
(b) 10-20 days of menstrual cycle

64
 (c) 10-17 days of menstrual cycle
(d) 5-9 days of menstrual cycle

6. Match the following columns.

Column I Column II
(Methods) (Mode of Action)
A. The pill 1. Prevents sperm reaching cervix
B. Condom 2. Prevents implantation
C. Vasectomy 3. Prevents ovulation
D Copper-T 4. Semen contains no sperm
(a) Tubectomy
Codes (b) Vasectomy
A B C D (c) Ovarian cancer
(a) 3 1 4 2 (d) Uterine cancer
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 1 2 3 9. Cu2 + ions released from copper-releasing Intra Uterine
(d) 3 4 1 2 Devices (IUDs) [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
(a) make uterus unsuitable for implantation
7. Tubectomy is a method of sterilisation in which (b) increase phagocytosis of sperms
[CBSE AIPMT 2014] (c) suppress sperm motility
(a) small part of the Fallopian tube is removed or tied up (d) prevent ovulation
(b) ovaries are removed surgically
(c) small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up 10. One of the legal methods of birth control is [NEET 2013]
(d) uterus is removed surgically (a) abortion by taking an appropriate medicine
(b) by abstaining from coitus from day 10-17 of the menstrual cycle
8. What is the figure given below showing in particular?
(c) by having coitus at the time of day break
[CBSE AIPMT 2012]
(d) by a premature ejaculation during coitus

Answers
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (b)

65
 STDs AND INFERTILITY
Sexually Transmitted Diseases
(STDs) Birth Control Devices of Future
The diseases or infections transmitted through sexual RISUG is an injectable compound that partially blocks the vasa deferentia
intercourse are called sexually transmitted diseases or (tubes that carry sperm), providing effective contraception for up to 10 years
veneral diseases or Reproductive Tract Infection (RTI). per dose. It is effective immediately, has few side effects and has proven to
be reversible in primate studies. This contraceptive has completed phase-I
Some Commonly Prevalent STDs and II clinical trials in India (Guha; 1997). Their research has convinced that
Microbial RISUG is the most promising of the potential male contraceptives.
Disease Major Symptoms and Effects
Agents
Praneem polyherbal formulations containing purified extracts of
Chlamydial Chlamydia Genital discharge, itching and/or Azadirachta indica (neem tree) have shown activity against HIV and
infections trachomatis painful urination; often no
sexually transmitted disease pathogens in studies in vitro. The product also
(bacterium) symptoms in women; PID.
has contraceptive properties.
Gonorrhoea Neisseria Genital discharge; painful
gonorrhoeae urination; sometimes no Buffer Gel is a microbicidal spermicide that provides sufficient buffering
(bacterium) symptoms in women; PID. activity to maintain the mild, protective acidity of the vagina in the presence
Syphilis Treponema Ulcer on genitals in early stages; of semen. Sperms are acid-sensitive, so to assure fertility, semen provides
pallidum spreads throughout body and can a powerful alkalinising action that abolishes the protective acidity of the
(bacterium) be fatal if not treated. vagina for several hours after intercourse. This alkalinising action of semen
Genital herpes Herpes simplex Recurring symptoms; small also enables acid-sensitive STD pathogens to transmit infection. By
virus type-2, blisters on genitals, painful blocking this action of semen. Buffer gel prevents unwanted pregnancy and
occasionally urination, skin inflammation; linked shows promise for prevention of STDs, including HIV/AIDS.
type-1 to cervical cancer, miscarriage,
and birth defects.
Genital warts Papilloma virus Painless growth on genitals; some of
the viruses linked to cancer.
Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)
l
Intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy before full
Trichomoniasis Trichomonas Vaginal irritation, itching and
vaginalis discharge; usually no symptoms in term is called Medical termination of Pregnancy MTP or
(protozoan) men. induced abortion.
Candidiasis Candida albicans Similar to symptoms of l
In India, MTP was legalised in 1971 with some strict
(yeast (fungus) trichomoniasis; frequently condition to avoid its misuse. It is generally carried out to get
infections) acquired non-sexually.
rid of unwanted pregnancies due to rapes, casual
Hepatitis-B Hepatitis-B virus Fatigue, jaundice, cirrhosis, etc.
Chancroid Haemophilus Ulcers over external genitalia.
relationship etc, and also in cases when the continuation of
ducreyi (bacterium) pregnancy is dangerous to either mother or the foetus or
AIDS (Acquired Human immuno Rapid weight loss, fever, fatigue, both. MTP is safe during first trimester, i.e. up to 12 weeks of
Immuno deficiency virus headache, prolonged swelling of pregnancy.
Deficiency the lymph, diarrhoea, pneumonia,
Syndrome) etc.
Amniocentesis
Amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic test in which a small
Myths Regarding AIDS amount of amniotic fluid is removed from sac surrounding the
foetus. It is used to detect foetal infections and chromosomal
AIDS is a fluid transmitted disease with possibility of transmission
through body fluids like blood, semen, etc. As sexual intercourse is the
abnormalities as well as sex determination. Though the primary
best suitable mode of fluid transmission thats why it is misleaded to aim is to ascertain certain genetic disorders, particulary in
be one of the STDs. Other transmission modes include blood mothers with increased risk for genetic disorders, the technique
transfusion, use of same syringes and needles, etc. has been misused for foetal sex determination, leading to
increased female foeticide.
Precautions to Prevent STDs
By following simple principles, STDs can be prevented: Amniotic Fluid : A Boon for Medical Science
(i) Avoid sex with unknown partners/multiple partners. Latest studies have discovered that amniotic fluid can be rich source of
(ii) Use sterilised needles and syringes. multipotent stem cells, i.e. mesenchymal, haematopoietic, neural,
(iii) Always use condoms during coitus. epithelial and endothelial. Muscle, fat, bone, artificial heart valves and
liver cells have been engineered with the help of amniotic stem cells. The
(iv) Education about the sexually transmitted diseases
first amniotic stem cell bank is in Massachusetts, Boston, US.
should be given to the people.

66

Infertility
It is the inability to produce children inspite of
unprotected sexual cohabitation. It is of two types:
l
Primary infertility is found in patients who have
never conceived.
l
Secondary infertility is found in patients who
have previously conceived.
Assisted Reproductive
Technologies (ART)
Certain special techniques can be employed to
assist an infertile couple to have children. These are
called Assisted Reproductive Technologies and can
be of various types
l
In Vitro Fertilisation (IVF) or Test-Tube Baby
Programme This is one of the most commonly
used process. In this method, ova from the female
and sperm from the male are collected and
induced to form zygote under simulated
conditions in the laboratory. The first successful
IVF case was in 1978 when a British woman
delivered a baby called Louise Brown on 28th of
July, in Oldam, England by cesarean section.
l
Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI) It is a
procedure to form an embryo in the laboratory by
directly injecting the sperm into an ovum.
l
Gamete Intra Fallopain Transfer (GIFT) It
involves laproscopically placing mature eggs into
the healthy Fallopian tube along with washed
sperm.
l
Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT) In this
case, the zygotes (with up to 8 blastomeres) are
placed directly into the Fallopian tubes via
laproscopy or transcervical Fallopian tube
catherisation.
l
Intra Uterine Transfer (IUT) It involves the
transfer of an embryo to the uterus when it is with
more than 8-blastomeres.
l
Artificial Insemination (AI) In this method, the
semen collected either from the husband or a
healthy donor is artificially introduced either into
the vagina or into the uterus (IUI or Intra Uterine
Insemination) of the female.
Factors Contributing to
Infertility
Infertility may be caused by defects in both males or
females.
Reasons for Infertility in Males
Cryptorchoridism
Testes are unable to descend in scrotal sac.
Alcoholism
Causes defective spermatogenesis.
Oligospermia
Low sperm count due to infection of seminal vesicle, raised scrotal
temperature, etc.
Erection Dysfunctioning
Male penis unable to erect or erect for shorter period.
Obstruction of Efferent Ducts
Sperm conducting tubes are blocked due to vasectomy or some
disease.
Faulty Spermatogenesis
Due to genetic disorder or drug use, sperm formation process is
interrupted.
Gonadotrophin Deficiency
Low secretion of hormones supporting spermatogenesis (LH and
FSH).
Chromosome Deletion
Male chromosome i.e., Y-chromosome may get deleted due to genetic
disorders.
Reasons for Infertility in Females
Anovulation
No formation of corpus luteum.
Irregular Menstrual
Cycle Menstrual cycle may get disturbed due to polycystic ovary,
endometriosis, stress, etc.
Fertilisation and Implantation Failure
It may be caused due to endometrial damage, drug use, etc.
Gonadotrophin Deficiency
Hormones supporting the process of ovulation are deficent (LH and
FSH).
Ectopic Pregnancy
Embryo implants outside the uterus.
Polycystic Ovary
The presence of multiple cysts in ovary.
Blockage of Fallopian Tube
Fallopian tubes may get blocked due to inflammation (salpingitis),
congenital tubule obstruction, etc.
Vaginal and Cervical Infection
Bacterial, fungal infections like gonorrhoea, chlamydia may cause
infertility.
Chorionic Villus Sampling
It is another prenatal diagnostic test used to determine if a foetus has any genetic
abnormalities. CVS technique provides a mass of rapidly dividing foetal cells.
These rapidly growing cells can be karyotyped immediately. This procedure can be
performed at only 8-10 weeks of pregnancy, i.e. even earlier than amniocentesis.
Thus, facilitating the examination of genetic disorders. Foetoscopy is a technique
which is used by the doctor to have a direct view of the foetus. A needle thin tube
containing a viewing scope chorionic virus sampling and foetoscopy is inserted
through vagina and cervix into uterus to directly view the foetus.
67
 MASTER
1. From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned 7. The term test-tube baby implies that [UP CPMT 2011]
below, identify the one which does not specifically (a) fertilisation of ovum takes place in the uterus but develops in
affect the sex organs [NCERT Exemplar] the test tube
(a) Syphilis (b) AIDS (c) Gonorrhoea (d) Genital warts (b) fertilisation of ovum takes place in the test-tube, but it develops
in test-tube itself
2. In vitro fertilisation does not involve (c) fertilisation of ovum takes place in the test-tube, but it develops
I. ova from the wife/donor female and sperms from in the uterus
the husband/donor male are induced to form (d) fertilisation of ovum takes place in the uterus and embryo
zygote in the uterus. develops in the uterus
II. if the embryo is having 2 blastomeres, it is
transferred into the uterus. 8. Which of the following ART is/are wrongly matched?
I. IUTSemen collected from husband or donor is
III. if the embryo is with more than 8 blastomeres, it is
artificially introduced either into the vagina or into
transferred into the uterus.
the uterus.
(a) I and II (b) Only III (c) Only I (d) Only II
II. GIFTTransfer of embryos with more than
3. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves 8 blastomeres into the Fallopian tube.
transfer of [CBSE AIPMT 2014] III. ICSISperm directly injected into the ovum.
(a) ovum into the Fallopian tube IV. ZIFTTransfer of embryos up to 8 blastomeres into
(b) zygote into the Fallopian tube
the Fallopian tube.
(c) zygote into the uterus
(a) Only II (b) III and IV
(d) embryo with 16 blastomeres into the Fallopian tube (c) I and II (d) Only IV
4. In case of a couple, where a man is having very low 9. Following statements are given regarding MTP.
sperm count, which of the following technique will be Choose the correct options given below.
suitable for fertilisation? [MHT CET 2014]
I. MTPs are generally advised during first trimester.
(a) Intra uterine transfer
II. MTPs are used as a contraceptive method.
(b) Gamete intracytoplasmic Fallopian transfer
(c) Artificial insemination III. MTPs are always surgical.
(d) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection IV. MTPs require the assistance of qualified medical
personnel.
5. Artificial insemination means [NEET 2013] (a) II and III (b) I and III
(a) transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test-tube containing (c) I and IV (d) I and II
ova
(b) transfer of sperms of husband to a test-tube containing ova 10. Match the following columns.
(c) artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the Column I Column II
vagina (STDs) (Causative Agents)
(d) introduction of sperms of healthy donor directly into the ovary A. Genital herpes 1. Haemophilus ducreyi
B. Syphilis 2. Human Immunodeficiency Virus
6. The technique called Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer C. Chancroid 3. Treponema pallidum
(GIFT) is recommended for those females D. AIDS 4. HSV type II
[CBSE AIPMT 2011]
Codes
(a) who cannot produce an ovum
A B C D
(b) who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus
(a) 2 4 1 3
(c) who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilisation (b) 4 3 1 2
(d) whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow passage for the (c) 1 2 3 4
sperms (d) 3 4 1 2

Answers
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (b)

68
1. With the increasing use of DDT, the number of DDT 5. Read the following statements regarding sexuality in
resistant mosquitoes has increased to a great extent. In organisms.
the middle of the present century, their number was I. When both male and female flowers are present on
insignificant, but now they constitute the major portion the same plant, the condition is said to be
of mosquito population in India. monoecious and is present in cucurbits and
coconuts.
The type of selection operating in this situation is
II. When both male and female flowers are present on
(a) Lamarckian selection (b) natural selection
the separate plants, the condition is said to be
(c) disruptive selection (d) artificial selection
dioecious and is present in papaya and date palms.
2. The carpels of Solanum flower are obliquely placed III. In earthworms, both male and female sex organs
because are present in the same individual and therefore,
(a) posterior and anterior carpels turn by 180 self fertilisation occurs in earthworms.
(b) posterior and anterior carpels move to the left IV. Cockroaches are dioecious animals and exhibit
(c) posterior carpels turn to right and anterior to the left sexual dimorphism.
(d) posterior carpels turn to left and anterior to the right Choose the correct statements.
3. When a person dives deep under water and resurface (a) I and III (b) II and IV
rapidly, which one of the following sequences of events (c) I, II and IV (d) I and IV
causes decompression sickness? 6. Match the column I with column II and select the
(a) Increase in pressure N 2 dissolves in blood Rapid fall in correct option from the codes given below.
pressure N 2 bubbles in blood
(b) Increase in pressure Pressure on ear ossicles Loss of Column I Column II
orientation Imbalance A. Funicle 1. Mass of parenchymatous cells.
(c) Fall in pressure Loss of O 2 from blood Deoxygenation B. Hilum 2. Basal part of ovule.
Fatigue
C. Integument 3. One or two protective layers of ovule.
(d) Increased pressure Enhanced blood pressure
Headache Loss of memory D. Chalaza 4. Region where body of ovule fuses.
with funicle.
4. Which one of the following groups represents only E. Nucellus 5. Stalk of ovule.
essential amino acids?
(a) Alanine, glutamine, leucine, valine Codes
(b) Glycine, histidine, isoleucine, serine A B C D E A B C D E
(c) Leucine, lysine, methionine, threonine (a) 1 2 3 4 5 (b) 5 4 3 2 1
(d) Proline, tyrosine, tryptophan, aspartic acid (c) 4 2 1 3 5 (d) 1 3 5 2 4

70
7. In typological concept of classification 13. The character of flower which is represented by floral
(a) phylogeny is taken into consideration formula but not by floral diagram is
(b) all known characters and evidences are taken into (a) aestivation
consideration (b) placentation
(c) Only a few characters are considered (c) position of gynoecium
(d) Only plants are classified (d) adhesion of stamen
8. Which one of the following combinations of structural 14. Read the following statements carefully.
features are expected to be present in a secretory cell? I. In fishes, the heart pumps out deoxygenated blood
(a) Well developed rough endoplasmic reticulum and which is oxygenated by the gills and supplied to the
prominent Golgi bodies body parts from where deoxygenated blood is
(b) Abundant lysosomes and secretory granules returned to the heart.
(c) Enlarged nucleus and well developed rough endoplasmic II. The openings of the right and the left ventricles into
reticulum the pulmonary artery and the aorta respectively are
(d) Well developed smooth endoplasmic reticulum and provided with the mitral valves.
secretory granules III. The nodal musculature has the ability to generate
9. The oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve shifts action potential without any external stimuli, i.e. it
either to right or left according to various factors. Shift is autoexcitable.
to right indicates dissociation of oxygen from IV. The T-wave of ECG represents depolarisation of the
haemoglobin. Which of the following factors will shift ventricles.
the curve to the right? Which of the above two statements are incorrect?
I. Decrease in partial pressure of oxygen. (a) I and III (b) II and IV (c) I and II (d) III and IV
II. Increase in partial pressure of CO2 . 15. Polycythemia is a condition of blood in which the
III. Decrease in hydrogen ion concentration. (a) viscosity of blood is reduced due to deficiency in the blood
IV. Increase in pH. count
V. Increase in body temperature. (b) surface tension of the blood is reduced due to the
Choose the correct option. subnormal concentration of the haemoglobin in the blood
(a) I and II (b) Only II (c) I, II and V (d) II and IV (c) viscosity of the blood is enhanced due to the solidification of
10. Read the given statements and identify the plant the plasma
hormones X, Y and Z. (d) viscosity of the blood is increased due to the presence of
excessive blood cells
I. Hormone Y induces flowering in mango and also
promotes rapid internode/petiole elongation in 16. Match the column I with column II and select the
deep water rice plants and hence helping leaves or answer using the codes given below.
upper part of shoot to remain above water. Column I Column II
II. Hormone X promotes root growth and root hair
A. Action potential 1. Myelinated nerve fibre
formation.
B. Neurosecretion 2. Donnan equilibrium
III. Hormone Z inhibits the seed germination,
C. Resting potential 3. Hypothalamus
increases the tolerance of plant to various stresses,
play important role in seed development, D. Saltatory 4. Depolarisation propagation
and repolarisation
maturation and dormancy.
Choose the correct option. Codes
(a) YABC, XAuxin, ZGA A B C D A B C D
(b) ZGA, XAuxin, YC 2H 4 (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) YAuxin, XC 2H 4 , ZGA (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 4 2 3 1
(d) YC 2H 4 , XC 2H 4 , ZABA 17. Read the following statements regarding
11. Assume a thylakoid which somehow gets punctured so biomagnification?
that the interior of the thylakoid is no longer separated I. Mercury accumulated by an organism cannot be
from the stroma. This damage will have the most direct metabolised.
effect on which of the following processes? II. In the process of biomagnification, concentration of
(a) Splitting of water DDT is increased at successive trophic levels.
(b) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll III. Accumulation of cadmium can cause thinning of
(c) Flow of electrons from photosystem II to photosystem I
eggshell in birds.
IV. DDT accumulation is a major cause of killing of fish
(d) Synthesis of ATP
eating birds.
12. The following taxonomist is called the Darwin of 20th V. Biomagnification occurs only in aquatic food chain.
century.
Choose the incorrect option.
(a) Julian Huxley (b) Carolus Linnaeus
(a) I, III and V (b) III and IV
(c) Whittaker (d) Ernst Mayr (c) III and V (d) I, II and IV

71
18. Cystic fibrosis, a disease develops in people who 23. With reference to fishes, consider the following
inherit two copies of recessive allele. If a man with characteristics.
cystic fibrosis marries a woman without the disease A. Cartilagenous endoskeleton.
and for whom there is no family history of the disease. B. Heterocercal tail.
What is the probability that their child will be carrier? C. Presence of placoid scale.
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.50 D. Absence of operculum.
(c) 0.75 (d) 1.00 Which one of the following fishes has all the above
19. If the sequence of bases in 6 base pair long palindromic characteristics?
sequence on one side of the axis of symmetry is 5 GAA! , (a) Cat fish (b) Dog fish (c) Lung fish (d) Flying fish
the complete sequence of bases of this palindromic 24. Given below are four statements regarding geological
sequence will be time scale giving characteristic of each period/era.
5 5
(a) GAA GAA (b) GAA AAG I. Palaeozoic era is the era of ancient life.
CTT CTT5 CTT TTC 5 II. Ordovician period is the age of vertebrates.
5 5 III. Carboniferous period is the age of amphibians.
(c) GAA AAG (d) GAA TTC
GAA AAG 5 CTT AAG 5 IV. Proterozoic era is the era of early life.
20. The trees growing in desert will Choose the correct pair of statements from options.
(a) II and III (b) I and IV (c) II and IV (d) I and III
(a) show alternate rings of xylem and sclerenchyma
(b) have only conjunctive tissue and phloem formed by the 25. A cross was made between a male and a female. The
activity of cambium progeny consisted of male and female in the ratio of
(c) show distinct annual rings 1 : 2. Which one of the following accounts for the
(d) not show distinct annual rings variation in the sex ratio?
(a) The presence of sex-linked lethal recessive gene in the
21. Dikaryon formation is a characteristic of
parental female.
(a) Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes
(b) Non-disjunction during oogenesis in the female.
(b) Phycomycetes and Basidiomycetes
(c) Appearance of a sudden mutation in the Y-chromosome of
(c) Ascomycetes and Phycomycetes the parental male.
(d) Phycomycetes and Zygomycetes (d) Non-disjunction during spermatogenesis in the male.
22. The given figure represents a single nephron from a 26. The given figure is a pedigree chart of human genetic
mammalian kidney. Identify the labelled parts (A-E) disease. The situation responsible for the sudden
and match them with their appropriate functions (I-IV) reappearance of the genetic disease in generation IV is
given below.
I. The site of ultrafiltration. I.
II. Particularly sensitive to ADH.
III. The main site for the reabsorption of glucose and II.
amino acids.
IV. Largely responsible for the maintenance of blood
pH. III.
C

IV.

D
A V.
E
(a) Congruency (b) Consanguinity
(c) Environmental effect (d) Reverse mutation
27. Match the column I with column II and select the
correct answer.
Column I Column II
B
A. Tryporyza incertulas 1. Stem borer paddy
B. Emmalocera depressella 2. Root borer sugarcane
C. Heliothis armigera 3. Gram pod borer
Select the correct codes. D. Rhizopertha dominica 4. Lesser grain borer
Codes
Codes
(a) I-A, II-E, III-C, IV-D
(b) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D A B C D A B C D
(c) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-E (a) 1 4 3 2 (b) 1 3 2 4
(d) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-E (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 4 3 2 1

72
28. An important difference between the zoospores and 35. Match the column I with column II and select the
aplanospores is that correct option from the codes given below.
(a) Zoospores are uninucleate while aplanospores are
Column I Column II
binucleate
(Sphincter) (Location)
(b) Zoospores are large while aplanospores are smaller
(c) Zoospores are motile while aplanospores are non-motile A. Sphincter of an 1. Opening of hepatopancreatic
(d) None of the above internus ampulla into duodenum.
B. Cardiac sphincter 2. Between duodenum and
29. The advantages arising out of the biconcave nature of posterior stomach.
mammalian red blood cell would include.
C. Sphincter of Oddi 3. Guarding the terminal part of
I. Generation of enormous pressure for the ejection of
alimentary canal.
nucleus to the exterior.
II. Increase in the surface area for an effective D. Ileocaecal 4. Between oesophagus and
sphincter anterior stomach.
exchange of O2 and CO2 .
III. It keeps the cell small and pliable enough for E. Pyloric sphincter 5. Between small intestine and
percolation through capillaries. large intestine.
IV. Enlargement of pores in cell membrane for the
Codes
release of waste products.
A B C D E A B C D E
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) II, III and IV (d) I, II, and IV
(a) 3 2 4 1 5 (b) 2 5 1 4 3
30. The epithelium of air sacs of lungs and the walls of (c) 3 4 1 5 2 (d) 4 3 1 2 5
blood vessels is 36. Consider the following statements regarding corpus
(a) simple cuboidal epithelium luteum and corpus albicans associated with the ovary
(b) simple squamous epithelium in mammals.
(c) stratified squamous epithelium I. Corpus luteum produces hormones for the
(d) simple columnar epithelium ovulation.
31. Which of the following modifications are necessary for II. Corpus luteum produces hormone which is
most eukaryotic RNA processing? essential for the preparation of reproductive tract
I. Addition of modified nucleotide at the 5 terminal. for pregnancy and in many mammals for the
II. Cleavage of long precursor RNA into smaller one. maintenance of pregnancy.
III. Formulation of bases of 3 poly (A) tail. III. Following the degeneration of corpus luteum all
IV. Alteration of incorrect bases through proof reading. that remains is whitish scar-like remnant
Choose the correct pair of options. connective tissue, the corpus albicans.
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) I and IV (d) II and IV IV. Corpus albicans produces hormones for ovulation.
32. Torsion of visceral mass is seen in animals belonging Choose the correct pair of the statements from the
to class options.
(a) Cephalopoda (b) Scaphopoda (a) I and III (b) II and III (c) II and IV (d) III and IV
(c) Amphineura (d) Gastropoda 37. One of the major difficulties in the application of the
biological control of insect pests is
33. Consider the following statements and select the
option stating which ones are true (T) and which ones (a) the practical difficulty of introducing the predator to specific
areas
are false (F).
(b) that the method is less effective as compared with the use of
I. There are many side effects of tubectomy and
insecticides
vasectomy.
(c) that the predator does not always survive when introduced
II. Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent egg formation. in the new environment
III. Contraceptive pills help in birth control by (d) that the predator may develop a preference for other diets
preventing ovulation. and may itself become a pest
IV. Genital warts is a STD caused by herpes virus.
V. In India, there is a rapid decline in infant mortality 38. Read the following statements regarding Single Cell
rate and MMR. Protein (SCP).
I II III IV V I II III IV V I. The biomass is obtained from unicellular
(a) T F T F F (b) F F F T T microorganisms only.
(c) T T T F F (d) F F T F T II. It provides a protein rich supplement.
34. A patient of diabetes mellitus excretes glucose in urine III. SCP can be produced by using bacteria and algae
even when he is kept in a carbohydrate free diet it is but not fungi.
because IV. It helps to minimise environmental pollution.
(a) fats are catabolised in adipose tissue to form glucose V. SCP has to be processed before use.
(b) amino acids are catabolised in kidney to form glucose Choose the incorrect set of statements from the given
(c) amino acids are discharged in blood stream from liver options.
(d) glycogen from muscles is released in blood stream (a) I, III and IV (b) Only III (c) Only IV (d) I and III

73
39. With the reference to the pituitary, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
I. Neurohypophysis secretes vasopressin and
oxytocin.
II. Adenohypophysis stores TSH and STH secreted by
neurohypophysis.
III. Neurohypophysis collects and stores vasopressin
and oxytocin.
IV. Adenohypophysis secretes vasopressin and
oxytocin.
Choose the correct option.
(a) I and II (b) III and IV
(c) Only III (d) Only I
40. Which of the following sequences is correct regarding
regulation of kidney function?
(a) An excess loss of water from body Hypothalamus
osmoreceptors Neurohypophysis ADH Increases
water permeability of DCT and PCT Prevention of diuresis
(b) An excess loss of fluid from body Osmoreceptors
Hypothalamus Neurohypophysis ADH Increases
water permeability of DCT and PCT Prevention of diuresis
(c) An excess loss of fluid from body Osmoreceptors
Hypothalamus Neurohypophysis Aldosterone
Water permeability of DCT and PCT increases Prevention
of diuresis
(d) An excess loss of fluid from body Osmoreceptors
Hypothalamus Aldosterone ADH Increases water
permeability of DCT and PCT Prevention of diuresis
Direction (Q. Nos. 41-60) Read the statements for assertion
and reason carefully and mark the correct option out of the
options given below.
(a) Assertion and Reason, both are true and Reason is the
correct explanation of Assertion
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the
correct explanation of Assertion
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false
41. Assertion (A) Proenzymes and zymogen are both
synonyms.
Reason (R) Both are inactive precursor of enzymes.
42. Assertion (A) An antibody is a protein molecule made
by lymphocytes.
Reason (R) An antibody binds to a specific antigen and
neutralises its odd effects.
43. Assertion (A) Recombinant DNA technology has
become successful due to restriction endonucleases
present in eukaryotic cells.
Reason (R) Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA
molecule to form blunt ends.
44. Assertion (A) Human population shows J-shaped
growth curve.
Reason (R) Famines, wars and epidemics bring down
size of population as in a crash.
45. Assertion (A) Animals that have an exoskeleton, lacks
an endoskeleton.
74
Reason (R) Skeletal cells in the embryonic stage
migrate to either stage and produce exoskeleton or
endoskeleton but never both.
46. Assertion (A) Photorespiration interferes with the
successful functioning of Calvin cycle.
Reason (R) Photorespiration oxidises ribulose-1, 5
bisphosphate which is an acceptor of CO2 in Calvin
cycle.
47. Assertion (A) Compound epithelium play major role in
absorption, secretion and excretion.
Reason (R) Compound epithelium is found in the
stomach linings.
48. Assertion (A) The type of inflorescence in
Sphaeranthus is cyathium.
Reason (R) In the cyathium type of inflorescence, the
flowers are sessile and chlamydous.
49. Assertion (A) Living plant cells do not burst on
keeping in water, while an animal cell like RBCs burst
when kept in water.
Reason (R) The rigidity of cell wall in plant cell
maintain its shape and do not burst.
50. Assertion (A) Active absorption of minerals is inhibited
when the roots are deprived of oxygen.
Reason (R) Active absorption of minerals requires
expenditure of metabolic energy, which comes from
respiration in the presence of oxygen.
51. Assertion (A) Law of independent assortment holds
good for the gene pairs that occur on different pairs of
chromosomes.
Reason (R) It is chromosomes and not the individual
genes which segregate during gamete formation.
52. Assertion (A) Testes originate in the abdomen but later
descend into the scrotum under the influence of
testosterone.
Reason (R) The interstitial (Leydigs) cells of the testes
secrete male sex hormone, testosterone.
53. Assertion (A) The zygote is dormant for sometime in a
fertilised ovule.
Reason (A) The PEN also undergo mitotic divisions to
form a food laden tissue called endosperm.
54. Assertion (A) Asexual reproduction takes place in
protozoans, lower invertebrates and in some plants.
Reason (R) Asexual reproduction is uniparental and
does not introduce variations into the individuals
formed by it.
55. Assertion (A) Absorption of water from the small
intestine helps in maintaining the osmotic balance
with the blood.
Reason (R) More than 90% of the water is absorbed
from the small intestine by osmosis, the process
associated with absorption of electrolytes or salts like
Na+ and K + and digested food to balance the osmotic
concentration with blood.
56. Assertion (A) When blood Ca2 + levels are low,
Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) is released by the
parathyroid glands.
Reason (R) PTH stimulates the dissolution of bone and
the reabsorption of Ca2 + by the kidneys.
57. Assertion (A) Cerebral cortex appears white.
Reason (R) It is because of the myelin sheath, covering
the tracts.
58. Assertion (A) Ozone depletion at the south pole will
threaten worlds fisheries.
Reason (R) Ozone depletion will kill phytoplankton,
the food of fishes.
59. Assertion (A) Microevolution produces group of
parallel special adaptations amongst convergent but
related animal species.
Reason (R) Adaptive radiation or microevolution
produce evolutionary lines that converge in special
adaptations with other distinctly related groups
differing in their matrix of general adaptations.
60. Assertion (A) Somaclonal variations occur in tissue
culture processes.
Reason (R) Variations cannot occur in nature.

Answers with Hint

1. (b) 32. (d) Animals of classGastropoda of phylumMollusca undergo
2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) twisting or torsion of the visceral mass during development, leading
to conversion of symmetrical embryo into an asymmetrical adult.
6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (c)
33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (b)
10. (d) 11. (d) 12. (d)
37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (b)
13. (c) Position of gynoecium can be represented by floral formula but
not by floral diagram. Like if the ovary is inferior it can be represented 41. (d) Proenzyme is inactive precursor of an enzyme, but the term
as G1 and if its superior then represented by G1. zymogen is used for inactive precursor of proteolytic enzyme.
42. (b)
14. (b)
43. (d) Restriction enzymes are present in bacteria and they can cut the
15. (d) Polycythemia is a condition in which there is a net increase in the DNA molecule to form either blunt ends or sticky ends.
total number of RBCs in the body.
44. (d) Human population shows S-shaped growth curve.
16. (b)
45. (d) Many animals have both an endoskeleton and exoskeleton such
17. (c) as chelon turtle or testudo-tortoise.
18. (d) Here, all F1 progeny are heterozygous for the disease, 46. (a)
i.e. carriers for the disease. 47. (d) Compound epithelium performs the function of providing
19. (d) Palindromic sequence is the base sequence in the second half protection against chemical and mechanical stresses.
of a DNA strand. It is the mirror image of the sequence in its first half. 48. (d) Sphaeranthus belongs to familyAsteraceae in which head or
20. (d) The trees growing in desert will not show distinct annual rings capitulum inflorescence is found.
because climatic variations (autumn and spring seasons) are 49. (a) Animal cell is devoid of cell wall.
absent in desert.
50. (a)
21. (a) In some fungi (Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes), an
intervening dikaryotic stage (n + n, i.e. two nuclei per cell) occurs 51. (a) Law of independent assortment states that when two pairs of
between plasmogamy and karyogamy, such a condition is called traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pair of character
dikaryon. is independent of the other pair or character.

22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (a) 52. (b)
26. (d) Reverse mutation is reversion of a gene to its ancestral or wild 53. (b) The zygote divide only after certain amount of endosperm is
type form due of further mutation to the original codon or one coding formed. This is an adaptation to provide assured nutrition to the
for the same amino acid. developing embryo. Therefore, the zygote is dormant for sometime
in a fertilised ovule.
27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (b)
30. (b) Simple squamous epithelium is one celled thick and generally 54. (b) 55. (a) 56. (a)
present in places where diffusion occurr, e.g. alveolar epithelium, 57. (d) The cerebral cortex is referred to as the grey matter due to its
pleural membrane (covering of lungs), walls of blood vessels, etc. greyish appearance.
31. (a) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (c)

75
 Biology through Diagrams on
Anatomy of Respiratory System
Nasal Cavities
External nostrils open into 2 nasal cavities which are separated
from each other by a thin, cartilaginous medium vertical Pharynx
partition called nasal septum. It provides the passage to both air and food.
External Nose It comprises nasopharynx,
These are the paired openings oropharynx and laryngopharynx.
Epiglottis that open into nasal cavities.
Hyoid bone The portion inside nose is called Upper
vestibule which contains mucus Respiratory
Thyrohyoid lining and hair epithelium Trachea
membrane System
Air conducting tube with non-collapsible
Thyrohyoid walls due to the presence of cartilaginous C-shaped,
ligament incomplete rings. Their number is 16-17 in humans.
Larynx It enters into the lungs after their first branching. It helps in
Thyroid
It is the uppermost portion the conduction of air as it is lined by pseudostratified
cartilage
of trachea made up of ciliated columnar epithelium bearing mucous glands.
Cricothyroid cartilages in humans. Its
ligament opening is glottis, which
is covered by cartilaginous
Cricoid epiglottis. It is called as
cartilage voice box and is more
prominent in man
Trachea
(Adams apple). Parietal Pleura
Outer membrane Pleurae
Pleural Cavity Two membranes that covers
Superior Lobe Contain pleural fluid the lungs. The two membranes
Divided by Visceral Pleura encloses a pleural cavity
Right Lung containing pleural fluid.
It has 3 lobes and horizontal fissure Inner membrane
Lower
2 fissures. It is broader, Middle Lobe Respiratory
larger and heavier than Superior Lobe
Divided by System
the left lung. oblique fissure Divided by Left Lung
horizontal fissure Smaller, lighter and
Inferior Lobe
Inferior Lobe narrower than right lung.
Pleural Cardiac Notch Possess two lobes and
Oesophagus Aorta a cardiac notch.
membranes (accommodates
Both oesophagus
and aorta heart)
pass through Mediastinum
thorax Partition between the Capillary Elastic fibres
between two lungs, includes
pleural sacs Right lung Left lung the pleura of both sides.
Contains heart,
Diaphragm oesophagus, etc.
It is a muscular partition Type I alveolar cell
that separates the (for gas exchange)
abdominal and
Left pleural thoracic cavities. Endothelial cell
Right pleural Pericardial cavity of capillary
cavity Facies
cavity Cartialogo articularis Type II alveolar
View of TS of anatomy of lungs cricoidea arytenoidea cell(surfactant
Lamina cell) synthesises
surfactant
Cartilago corniculata Facies
articularis
Larynx

thyroidea Alveolar
Apex Colliculus macrophage
(ingests foreign
Fovea triangularis Arcus material)
Crista arcuata
Cartilago Structure of alveoli
Facies arytenoidea Cricoid cartilage (ventral view)
anterolateralis
Processus
Basis vocalia Branch of
Fovea oblongata Bronchiole pulmonary
Processus artery
muscularis Arytenoid cartilage Trachea Bronchial artery
(the trachea bronchus nerve and vein
into two primary bronchi) Smooth muscle

Cartilage Left primary bronchus

ring (the primary bronchus
Incisura thyroidea superior divides 22 more times
terminating in a cluster Elastic fibres
of alveoli.)
Branch of Capillary Lymphatic
Cartilago thyroidea pulmonary beds vessel
Secondary bronchus vein
Trachea enter into lungs Alveoli
Lig. vocale after their branching into
Rima glottidis (pars
intermembranacea) bronchus. They are further
Conus divided into bronchioles
elasticus (lobular, terminal and Alveolar
Processus vocalis respiratory) which further sac
ends into alveolus.
Cartilago Rima glottidis (pars
corniculata intercartilaginea) Alveoli
Cornu superius Bronchiole Basic functional unit of
cartilaginis lung, approx 300 million
Lig. cricoarytenoideum in number in humans,
thyroideae
posterius specialised air filled
Cri covocal membrance (conus elasticas) sacs which are richly
and vocal ligaments (ligamenta vocalia) supplied with blood Structure of lung lobules
capillaries.
Branching of airways
 Incisura thyroidea superior
Cornu
superius

Tuberculum
thyroideum
superius
Lamina
dextra

Tuberculum
thyroideum Lamina
inferius sinistra

Cornu inferius Angulus

(faces articularis cartilaginis
cricoidea) thyroidea
Thyroid cartilage (cartilago thyridea)

Facies
articularis
Cartialogo Facies articularis
arytenoidea
cricoidea arytenoidea
Lamina
Cartilago
cricoidea
Lamina
Facies
articularis
thyroidea Facies
articularis Arcus
thyroidea
Dorsolateral view
Arcus

Cricoid cartilage (ventral view)

Incisura thyroidea superior

Cartilago thyroidea

Lig. vocale
Rima glottidis (pars
intermembranacea)
Conus elasticus
Processus vocalis
Cartilago Rima glottidis (pars
corniculata intercartilaginea)
Cornu superius
cartilaginis thyroideae
Lig. cricoarytenoideum
posterius
Cri covocal membrance (conus elasticas)
and vocal ligaments (ligamenta vocalia)

Cartilago corniculata
Cartilago corniculata

Cartilago arytenoidea
Apex Apex Colliculus
Facies Fovea triangularis
posterior Crista arcuata
Cartilago arytenoidea
Processus Facies anterolateralis
vocalia Basis Processus vocalia
Facies Basis
articularis Forea oblongate
Processus muscularis
Arytenoid cartilages
 Sanubia

Match the labelled parts given in column I with its

1. The diagram below shows the transverse section of functions in column II.
blood vessels. Column I Column II
A 1. Helps in blood clotting.
B 2. Lobed nucleus, phagocytic, release
heparin, histamine, etc.
C 3. No fibrinogen and clotting materials.
D 4. Transport of O 2 and CO 2.
5. Motile and non-phagocytic, secrete
antibodies.
Codes
Read the following statements carefully with A B C D A B C D
reference to above diagram. (a) 3 5 1 2 (b) 2 3 4 1
I. The inner layer of A is thick with elongated (c) 4 5 2 1 (d) 4 2 5 1
endothelial cells, while B has thin membrane 3. In the diagram given below, identify the unlabelled
with less elongated endothelial cells. components of human circulatory system (A - F) and
II. A is superficial while B is deep-seated. select the correct codes that follows.
III. Blood in A flows with low pressure, while in B, A
blood flows with considerable pressure.
IV. Both A and B have strong outer covering of
C D
connective tissue as well as collagen and elastic
fibres.
Choose the correct set of statements from the codes
that follow. RA LA
Codes RV LV
(a) I and II (b) II and III Heart
(c) III and IV (d) I and IV
E
2. Consider the given diagrams of human blood
F
corpuscles.

Nucleus B
A B
Codes
Nucleus Nucleus Cytoplasm
(a) ALungs, BBody parts, CPulmonary vein, DPulmonary
artery, EDorsal aorta, FVena cava
(b) ALungs, BBody parts, CPulmonary artery, DPulmonary
Cytoplasm
C D
vein, EDorsal aorta, FVena cava
(c) ALungs, BBody parts, CPulmonary artery, DPulmonary
vein, EVena cava, FDorsal aorta

79
 (d) ABody parts, BLungs, CPulmonary artery, DPulmonary 6. Match the following columns.
vein, EVena cava, FDorsal aorta
Column I Column II Column III
4. Consider the figure, showing a blood vascular A. Venous heart with 1. (i) Amphibians
system. two chambers.

ated blo
ygen od
Ox

Respiratory organs Body organs

B. Four chambered 2. (ii) Reptiles
Deoxygenated Deoxygenated
heart with 2 auricles
blood blood and 2 ventricles.

Heart

Read the statements explaining the system C. Arteriovenous heart 3. (iii) Fishes
carefully. with three chambers.
I. It is a type of closed blood vascular system
showing single circulation.
II. The blood passes twice through the heart for a
complete circulation.
III. Such a heart is known as venous heart, e.g. D. Arteriovenous heart 4. (iv) Birds
reptiles. with incomplete four
chambers.
IV. Heart always receives deoxygenated blood.
Choose the correct set of statements from options
given below.
Option
(a) I, III and IV (b) I and IV
(c) II and III (d) II, III and IV Codes
A B C D
5. Consider and identify the correct statements given (a) 4-(iii) 3-(ii) 1-(iv) 2-(i)
below with regard to the labelled part A in the (b) 2-(iii) 1-(iv) 3-(ii) 4-(i)
following diagram. (c) 4-(iii) 1-(iv) 2-(i) 3-(ii)
(d) 1-(iii) 2-(iv) 3-(ii) 4-(i)
7. Consider the diagram given below.
Left common carotid artery
Left subclavian artery
A Brachiocephalic trunk
Arch of artery
Superior vena cava
Left pulmonary
artery
Right pulmonary artery

Left auricle
Right inferior
pulmonary artery
Left atrium
Sulcus terminalis
I. It communicates with left ventricle through
Right atrium
tricuspid valve. Inferior vena cava
II. Pulmonary vein brings blood to it.
III. It is separated from the other auricle through Coronary
sinus
inter-auricular septum. Left
ventricle
IV. A bicuspid valve guards the blood flow through
it.
Choose the correct option.
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and III Right ventricle
(c) III and IV
(d) II, III and IV

80
 Carefully read the statements in relation to the Choose the correct option.
above structure of heart. (a) I and II (b) Only II
I. The left auricle receives a small coronary sinus, (c) III and IV (d) All of these
guarded by valve of Thebasian. 10. Identify the parts labelled A to E in the given
II. Chordae tendinae are attached to ventricular diagram of venous system of human, from the list of
surface of the valves. names mentioned below.
III. AV node is present in the wall of right atrium E
close to the point of entry of vena cava.
IV. The interatrial septum has fossa ovalis that is an
oval, thin area. C

Mark the true and false statements and select the Rt A

correct option.
I II III IV
(a) True False False True
(b) False True False True
(c) False False True True
A
(d) False True False False
D
8. In the given diagram of human heart, identify the
parts A, B, C and D. B

List of names
A
1. Hepatic veins
2. Brachiocephalic vein
B
3. Renal vein
C 4. Post caval
5. Right common iliac vein
D 6. Precaval
Select the correct code. 7. Inferior vena cava
(a) ASinoauricular node, BAtrioventricular node, CBundle of 8. External jugular vein
His, DPurkinje fibre
(b) ASinoauricular node, BAtrioventricular node, CPurkinje Choose the correct code identifying the labels.
fibre, DBundle of His Codes
(c) APurkinje fibre, BAtrioventricular node, CBundle of His, A B C D E
DSinoauricular node (a) 3 1 4 6 5
(b) 2 4 6 8 1
(d) APurkinje fibre, BBundle of His, C-Sino auricular node,
(c) 3 5 6 7 8
DAtrioventricular node
(d) 1 2 8 7 5
9. Consider the diagram of an artery given below. 11. Consider the following diagram.

Precaval
LA
SA node
Inter nodal
pathway
A B C D AV node Bundle of His
LV
Post caval
Read the statements related to the diagram and RV Inter ventricular
septum
mark the correct ones.
Purkinje fibres
I. It shows the formation of an atherosclerotic
plaque.
II. The correct sequence is A C D B. Read the statements carefully and choose the
incorrect statement(s) regarding the figure.
III. It may result in heart attack or stroke.
I. SA node is a bundle of specialised muscles that
IV. It is the disorder of arteries in which cholesterol
are not contractile.
is deposited.

81
 II. AV node is present in inter-ventricular septum 14. Study the given diagram carefully.
close to tricuspid valve.
III. Purkinje fibres ramify from bundle of His.
A
IV. Human heart is myogenic as found in Semilunar
arthropods. valves

Choose the correct option.

(a) I and II (b) II and IV
AV valves 0.1
(c) I, II and IV (d) None of these sec Semilunar
valves
12. In the given figure, depicting cross-section of blood 0.4 0.3
vessels, identify A, B and C representing type of sec sec
vessel respectively.
B
C
AV valves

Smooth
muscle
Choose the correct statements depicting its true
Smooth B
description and characteristics.
Lumen
Lumen muscle
A C I. It shows that cardiac cycle consists of relaxation
phase called systole and contraction phase
Choose the correct option.
called diastole.
(a) AArtery, BCapillary, CVein
(b) AArtery, BVein, CCapillary II. During A, the atria contract due to wave of
(c) AVein, BArtery, CCapillary contraction stimulated by SA node.
(d) ACapillary, BArtery, CVein III. In B, bicuspid and tricuspid valves close
13. Consider the given diagram of an producing first heart sound.
electrocardiogram. IV. During C, semilunar valves open and ventricles
A contract.
Choose the correct set of statements from given
C options.
(a) Only I
(b) II and III
(c) I, III and IV
(d) All of the above
15. Observe the diagrams given below carefully.
Which of the following shows the correct circulation
B of blood through human heart?
Identify the parts and match them with the events Lungs
and average duration in column II. Body
LA Right LV
RA LA
side
Column I Column II Left Left
(i) A 1. Ventricular depolarisation side side
Right side LV RV
(ii) B 2. 0.18 S
(iii) C 3. 0.32 S Body Lungs
4. Ventricular repolarisation (a) (b)

5. 0.08 S
6. Atrial depolarisation Body Bo dy
Right LV Right LV
side side
Codes RV LA Left LA RV Left
A B C side side
(a) 2,6 1,5 3,4
(b) 1,2 3,4 5,6
(c) 3,6 1,5 2,4 Lungs Lungs
(d) 1,2 3,6 4,5 (c) (d)

82
16. Consider the diagram given below showing (b) AV nodeDelays impulse to ensure atria have ejected blood
regulation of heart beat. into ventricles
(c) SA nodeInitiate impulses that stimulate heart muscles to
contract
Brain (d) Purkinje fibresHelps in generating force to eject blood out
of the heart.
Internal carotid artery
Vagus nerve 18. Carefully observe the following diagram.
Carotid body
External carotid artery
Sympathetic Carotid sinus
nerves Left common carotid artery
Right common carotid artery
Superior
vena cava Aortic baroreceptor
SA node
AV node
= Sensory nerve
Heart = Motor nerve

Read the following statements and identify the true

and false statements.
I. The rate of heartbeat is regulated by muscular
and hormonal regulation. Consider the statements given below and choose
II. The cardiac centre lies in medulla oblongata of the ones that are correct with reference to the
the brain. diagram.
III. The impulses received from aorta and carotid I. The figure shows hepatic portal system which
sinuses increase the heart rate while impulse begins and ends in capillaries.
from vena cava decreases the heart rate. II. It is not present in all vertebrates.
IV. Thyroxine hormone indirectly increases heart III. Blood from liver is carried by a pair of hepatic
beat. veins to inferior vena cava.
V. Body temperature has no affect on pacemaker IV. This system carries blood from kidney, liver and
and heart rate. spleen to heart.
Select the correct option from the codes below. Select the correct set of statements from the given
I II III IV V codes.
(a) True True False True False
Codes
(b) False True True False True
(c) False False True True True (a) II and IV
(d) False True False True False (b) I and II
(c) I, II and IV
17. In the figure given below, identify the part (d) I and III
labelled X.
19. The figure below shows the mechanical events of
the cardiac cycle.

Which of the following is the correct sequence of

events?
(a) A B C D E
Choose the correct option, stating the function of (b) B A D E C
X. (c) E A B C D
(a) Bundle of HisConvey the impulse of contraction from AV (d) B A C D E
node to myocardium of ventricles.

83
20. Consider the figure given below, showing 22. Consider the diagram below showing human
electrocardiographic appearances under certain lymphatic system.
cardiac disorders. Cervical lymph nodes
R R R R Right lymphatic
duct Left subclavian vein
A. P P P P P Right
subclavian
Q Q Q Q vein
Axillary lymph
nodes (Armpit)
B.
Thoracic duct Intestine
Lacteals
Mesenteric
C. lymph nodes
Inguinal lymph
nodes

D.

Read the following statements and choose the

incorrect one(s).
Match the above ECGs with their respective I. Lymphatic capillaries are composed of single
disorders given in column II. layer of endothelial cells.
II. Lymphatic vessels are composed of two layers
Column I Column II
of cells and lack valves.
A 1. Complete/third degree heart block
III. Thoracic duct discharges its lymph into left
B 2. Ventricular premature beat subclavian vein.
C 3. Ventricular fibrillation IV. Right lymphatic duct is formed by union of
D 4. Second degree heart block lymphatic vessels of right side of thorax, neck
Codes and head.
A B C D Choose the correct option with incorrect set of
(a) 1 2 3 4
statements from the codes below.
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 1 4 (a) I and II (b) II and III
(d) 3 1 4 2 (c) Only II (d) All of these
21. The diagram given below shows how things get to 23. Observe the following diagram showing electrical
and from the liver. They are labelled as A, B, C, D, E conduction of the heart.
and F. 1
Blood to heart SA node
F
Liver AV node
2

5
E
A
Gall bladder
D Pancreas
Blood to heart

C
3
Which one of the following labellings is the correct
one? 4
(a) A is the hepatic portal vein and E is the hepatic vein
(b) C is the intestine and F is the hepatic portal vein
(c) D is the hepatic portal vein and F is the hepatic vein
(d) B is the pancreatic artery and E is the hepatic artery

84
 Arrange the given steps in sequence with reference 26. The figure shows the double circuit circulation plan
to the above cycle. as seen in mammals.
A. Depolarisation wave spreads upward from the
apex.
B. Electrical activity goes rapidly to AV node via Body
internodal pathway. LV
C. Depolarisation moves rapidly through
ventricular conducting system to heart apex. RA LA Oxygenated
blood loop
D. SA node depolarises.
RV
E. Depolarisation spreads more slowly across Deoxygenated
blood loop
atria. Conduction slows through AV node.
Choose the correct option. Lungs
(a) A B D E C
(b) C D E A B
(c) D B C E A With reference to the above diagram, choose the
(d) D B E C A correct option for pulmonary circulation.
Oxygenated Deoxygenated
24. In the diagram given below, identify the unlabelled (a) Left auricle Lungs Right ventricle
blood blood
components of human hypophysial portal system.
Deoxygenated Oxygenated
(b) Left auricle Lungs Right ventricle
blood blood

Deoxygenated Oxygenated
A
(c) Right ventricle Lungs Left auricle
blood blood

Oxygenated Deoxygenated
D B (d) Right ventricle Lungs Left auricle
blood blood

27. Consider the figure showing arterial system in

humans.
Right carotid artery External carotid
C Right subclavian artery Internal carotid
Vertebral artery
Select the correct code with suitable labelling. Clavicle (bone)
Brachio- Brachial artery
A B C D cephalic artery or Left common carotid artery
Innominate artery Mammillary artery
(a) Hypothalamus Hypophysial Optic chiasma Artery Systemic aorta Left subclavian artery
vein Dorsal aorta
Coronary artery
(b) Pituitary Artery Portal vein Capillary LV Bronchial artery
(c) Hypothalamus Hypophysial Hypophysial vein Artery
portal vein Thoracic aorta
Oesophageal artery
(d) Pituitary Optic Capillary network Vein
chiasma Intercostal arteries (9-pairs)
Diaphragm
25. In the given diagram, which blood vessel represents Phrenic artery
vena cava? Abdominal aorta
Coelic artery
RA Right auricle Anterior mesenteric artery
RV Right ventricle Renal artery
B
RA LA LA Left auricle Posterior mesenteric artery
LV
RV LV Left ventricle
C Left common iliac artery
D A
Internal iliac artery
External iliac artery

(a) C (b) D (c) A (d) B

85
 Choose the correct statement from below with Column I Column II
regard to the figure. (i) A 1. Closes off the lower left chamber before
I. Innominate artery bifurcates into right it pumps oxygen rich blood to body.
subclavian and right common carotid artery. (ii) B 2. Opens to allow blood to pass from
upper left side to lower left side.
II. Internal carotid supplies blood to parts of head
other than brain. (iii) C 3. Prevents the back flow of blood from
ventricle to the atrium.
III. Thoracic aorta gives rise to oesophageal artery,
(iv) D 4. Closes off the lower right chamber.
intercostal artery and bronchial artery.
IV. Phrenic, renal and gonadial arteries are Choose the correct code.
unpaired arising from abdominal aorta. Codes
Choose the correct set of statements from codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2 (b) 1 2 3 4
given below.
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 2 4 1 3
(a) I and III (b) II and IV
(c) II, III and IV (d) None of these 30. In the diagram, the vertical section of the human
heart is given. Certain parts have been indicated by
28. In the given figure of heart, which of the marked
alphabets.
structures (1, 2, 3, 4, 5) carry oxygenated blood?
A
1 B
5

2 K
D
J
E
3 4 I

H F

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 5 G

(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 5
29. Consider the given diagram of human heart and its Choose the option in which these alphabets have
valves. been correctly matched with their respective parts.
(a) AAorta, BPulmonary vein, CPulmonary arteries, DLeft
ventricle, ESemilunar valves, FLeft auricle, GRight
auricle, HSuperior vena cava, IRight ventricle, JTricuspid
valves, KInferior vena cava
(b) AAorta, BPulmonary artery, CPulmonary veins, DLeft
auricle, ETricuspid and mitral valves, FLeft ventricle,
A GRight ventricle, HInferior vena cava, IRight auricle,
C
B JSemilunar valves, KSuperior vena cava
(c) AAorta, BSuperior vena cava, CInferior vena cava,
D DRight ventricle, ETricuspid and mitral valves, FRight
auricle, GLeft auricle, HPulmonary vein, ILeft ventricle,
JSemilunar valves, KPulmonary artery
(d) AAorta, BSuperior vena cava, CInferior vena cava,
DLeft ventricle, ESemilunar valves, FLeft auricle,
Match the labelled parts given in column I with its GRight auricle, HPulmonary artery, IRight ventricle,
functions in column II. JTricuspid valves, KPulmonary vein

Answers
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (b)

86

Amazing facts with proper explanation.
NERVOUS SYSTEM
Human memory and memory of computers have
many similarities, but both of these memories
have dissimilarities too. Do you know?
Memory refers to the ability to retain and recall information
which is stored throughout the cerebral cortex in pathways
known as memory traces. Some components of memories
are stored in the sensory cortices and processed, e.g.
pictures in visual cortex, sounds in auditory cortex, etc.
Processing of different types of memory takes place through
different pathways. Like computer, our memory also has
multiple levels of storage and the memory bank keeps on
constantly changing. We have different types of memory, i.e.,
short term and long term, reflexive and declarative.
Any stimulus that comes to Central Nervous System (CNS)
goes to short term memory, a limited storage area capable
of storing 7-12 pieces of information at a time (similar to RAM
of computer). The memory stored here soon disappears,
unless an effort, i.e. repetition is made to convert it into
permanent form. Another special form of short term memory
is working memory which is processed in prefrontal lobes
and is utilised to keep track of information gathered long
enough to be used in a task. This working memory integrates
the acquired information with stored information before
acting upon, e.g. while crossing a road.
The information stored in short term memory is processed
and converted into long term memory by a process known as
consolidation. It may take seconds to minutes to pass the
information through various intermediate levels of memory.
The amazing part is that at each stage while processing
(consolidation), the information can be located and recalled.
The process of consolidation involves changes in synaptic
connection of circuits involved in learning.
The long term memory is consolidated and stored using
different neuronal pathways, on the basis of which it can be
divided into two.
Reflexive memory includes information acquired slowly
through repetition. It involves amygdala and cerebellum and
does not require conscious effort to recall or create, e.g.
motor skills.
Mukta Gigras
Declarative memory It requires conscious attention to recall
information stored here. These memories deal with knowledge
about ourselves and the surroundings or world that are
described verbally. The creation of declarative memory depends
on use of higher level cognitive skills, i.e. inference, comparison
and evaluation. It involves neuronal pathways in temporal lobes.
Sometimes the information can be transferred from declarative to
reflexive as well.
Computers have many features in common with nervous system.
All computers have input circuits that are comparable to sensory
portion of nervous system while output circuits are comparable
to motor portion of nervous system. The basic components of
computer are analogous to those of human nervous system,
which demonstrates that brain is basically a computer that
continuously collect sensory information and uses it along with
stored information to compute the daily course of bodily activity.
But still, memory is an individual possession processed on the
basis of ones experiences and perception, hence no two
persons will ever process and memorise a given piece of
information or event in the same way. You can experience it while
studying in a group when all of the members learn, memorise
and recall the same set of information in a different manner.
Decreased blood glucose levels and hunger affects
mood swings and focussing abilities. Do you know?
Ans. Everything we eat is digested into simple sugars (glucose),
amino acids and fatty acids, which reach various organs and
tissues via blood stream, where they are utilised for energy.
As the time passes after your last meal, the amount of these
nutrients circulating in the blood stream starts dropping. If the
blood glucose level falls below normal because of prolonged
fasting or excess of insulin, the brain perceives it as a life
threatening situation. Since, the neurons are choosy or picky
about their food, i.e use only glucose for energy, the brain is
critically dependent on glucose to do its job. Under such
conditions, brain send instructions to several organs in your
body to synthesise and release hormones that increase the
amount of glucose in blood stream, i.e. counter regulatory
hormones. It in turn induces the fight or flight response,
triggering anger.
87
 All of these make neurons of brain unable to take up glucose
fast enough to sustain their electrical activity and when
glycogen stores are exhausted (which are converted to
glucose) neuronal function begins to fail. Together these
factors along or due to hunger exhibit confusion, irritability,
slurred speech and anger in an individual, unless the neurons
are provided with glucose promptly. At times, it may cause
permanent damage to neurons and in extreme cases coma or
even death.
Another reason, hunger is related to anger is that both are
controlled by same gene or gene products. When you are
hungry, the brain releases a chemical neuropeptide Y which
acts on a variety of receptors, e.g. Y1 in brain and stimulates
voracious feeding behaviours.
Besides controlling hunger, neuropeptide Y and Y1 receptor
also regulate anger and aggression. Thus, if one remains
hungry for too long or observe too many fasts or adhere to strict
weight loss diets may show changes in impulse aggression
and social behaviour or concentration.
The easiest way to handle hanger (hunger + anger) is to eat
something before you get too hungry and to wisely choose
nutrient rich natural foods that can satisfy your hunger for long,
instead of jumping on junk foods which though initially gives
boost to blood glucose levels but come crashing down fast.
Oscillatory circuits do exist in our nervous system
also. Do you know?
Oscillatory, otherwise known as reverberatory circuits are
caused by positive feedback within the neuronal circuit that
feeds back to re-excite the input of same circuit, and forms the
most important of all circuits in the entire nervous system.
These oscillatory circuits are of several varieties, depending
upon their complexities.
The simplest circuit involves a single neuron and the output
neuron sends a collateral nerve fibre back to its own dendrites
or soma to restimulate itself. Once, the neuron discharges, the
feedback stimuli keep the neuron discharging for a protracted
time thereafter. It is not an very important type of circuit.
In another circuit, a few additional neurons causes a longer
delay between initial discharge and feedback signal, while in a
more complex system both facilitatory and inhibitory fibres
affects the reverberating circuit, i.e. facilitatory signal enhances
the intensity and frequency of reverberation whereas inhibitory
signal depresses or stops the reverberation.
Most reverberating pathways are constituted of many parallel
fibres. In such systems, the total reverberating signal can be
either weak or strong depending on number of parallel nerve
fibres involved in reverberation.
The input stimulus lasts for only 1 millisecond or so, but the
output may last for many milliseconds or even minutes. The
intensity of the output signal increases to a high value early in
reverberation and decreases to a critical point, at which it
suddenly ceases entirely.
88
This sudden cessation of reverberation is caused due to the
fatigue of synaptic junctions in the circuit. Fatigue beyond a
certain critical level, lowers the stimulation of next neuron in
circuit, below threshold level so that the circuit feedback is
suddenly broken.
The duration of the total signal before cessation can also be
controlled by signals from other parts of brain, that facilitate or
inhibit the circuit. Some circuits continuously emit output
signals, even without excitatory input signals.
Input stimulus
Output signal
Facilitated
Normal
Inhibited
Time
Pattern of output signal in a reverberatory circuit
Some people say sleep is a necessary evil. Do you
know this necessary evil is how much essential for
human life?
Sleep or otherwise our rest period can be defined scientifically
as an easily reversible state of inactivity characterised by lack
of interaction with the external environment. Sleep plays a
significant role in development and survival of brain. Sleep
provides an opportunity for our body to repair and rejuvenate
itself, restore functions such as muscle growth, tissue repair,
protein synthesis and release of growth hormone and
substances as IL-1, interferon, serotonin, etc., that enhance
immune response. Besides, it is also essential to maintain
normal levels of cognitive, skills, i.e., speech, memory,
innovative and flexible thinking. Lack of sleep has serious
effects on our brains ability to function, therefore, it is advisable
to sleep for 6-8 hours on regular basis.
Sleep also provides time for brain to clear and clean the junk,
accumulated during our wake hours. While working and as a
result of other activities, the brain cells (neurons) release waste
product adenosine. As long as one is awake adenosine
levels remain high. This accumulation of adenosine leads to the
perception of being tired and leads to sleepiness. Though the
lymphatic system clears this waste from our body but brain
remains disconnected from it, while we are awake.
The Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) remove this build up of
adenosine and restores the depleted energy stores by
replacing new glycogen. This CSF moves twice as fast when one
is sleeping, as neurons shrink to half, making the fluid channels
wider. As a result, you feel more alert when you wake up.
Though the sleep consumes a lot of our time but yet, it is
essential for us to perform better and remain healthy as well.
1 Mark Questions
1. Milk starts to coagulate when Lactic Acid
Bacteria (LAB) is added to warm milk as a starter.
Mention any other two benefits LAB provides.
2. State the economic importance of Spirulina?
3. In a pond there were 200 frogs, 40 more were born
in a year. Calculate the birth rate of the
population.
4. Between amphibians and birds, which will be able
to cope with global warming? Give reason.
5. What does competent refer to in competent cells
used in transformation?
2 Marks Questions
6. Would you like to choose an exonuclease enzyme
while producing a recombinant DNA molecule?
Give reason.
Or
You have developed a GM organism. Which
government organisation will you approach to
obtain clearance for its mass production? Why is
such a body necessary? Give two reasons.
7. How is snow blindness caused in humans?
8. Climax stage is achieved quickly in secondary
succession as compared to primary succession.
Why?
9. How are standing crop and biomass related to
each other?
10. Draw a labelled sketch of a typical biogas plant.
3 Marks Questions
11. An organic farmer relies on natural predation for
controlling pests and diseases. Justify giving
reasons, why this is considered to be a holistic
approach?
12. A vector is engineered with three features which
facilitate its cloning within the host cell. List the
three features and explain each of them.
13. (i) Explain the effect of deletion of the gene for
ADA in an individual.
(ii) How does the gene therapy help in this case?
Or
Plasmid is boon to biotechnology. Justify the
statement quoting the production of human
insulin as an example.
14. It has been recorded that the temperature of the
earths atmosphere has increased by 0.6C.
(i) What has caused this increase?
(ii) Explain its consequences.
15. Give three reasons as to why the prokaryotes are
not given any figures for their diversity by the
ecologists.
16. An individual and a population has certain
characteristics. Name these attributes with
definitions.
17. What is Blue revolution? Name two freshwater
and two marine edible fish.
18. Briefly describe downstream processing.
19. Name any three organic acids and the bacteria
that produce them.
20. Differentiate between diagnostic and therapeutics.
Give one example for each category.
21. Define artificial insemination. What are its
advantage over conventional breeding?
89
 BOARD EXAM SCALE UP
22. What is the wise use concept of Ramsar (i) Explain primary productivity and the factors
convention? Name four type of wetlands included that influence it.
in its mission. (ii) Describe how do oxygen and chemical
composition of detritus control decomposition.
4 Marks Question
25. How is the sixth episode of extinction of species
23. Pradeep was waiting at a bus stop, when many on earth, currently in progress, different from the
passengers along with their kids were also on the five earlier episodes? What is the reason behind
way to school. A bus came and painted the this?
children with black smoke ejected from its exhaust Explain the various causes that have brought
pipe. Pradeep immediately stopped the bus and about this difference.
called the driver out to show him what he had
Or
done. Only a few passengers supported Pradeep
For selection of recombinants, insertional
while rest were restless for being delayed.
inactivation of antibiotic marker has been
(i) What values did Pradeep promote through his
superceded by insertional inactivation of a marker
action?
gene coding for a chromogenic substrate. Give
(ii) We often spot vehicles with Bharat stage IV reasons.
stickers. What does it imply?
26. (i) State the objective of breeding.
(iii) How do catalytic converters reduce vehicular
(ii) List the importance and limitations of
gas emission?
inbreeding. How can the limitations be
5 Marks Questions overcome?
24. In an aquarium, two herbivorous species of fish (iii) Give an example of a new breed each of cattle
are living together and feeding on phytoplankton. and poultry. Or
As per Gausses Principle, one of the species is to (i) Name the category of microbes naturally
be eliminated in due course of time, but both are occurring in sewage and making it less
surviving. How? And what possibly happened to polluted during the treatment.
both the species? (ii) Explain the different steps involved in the
Or secondary treatment of sewage.

Answers of Board Exam Corner (November Issue)

1. If oxygen availability to activated sludge flocs
is reduced the centre of flocs will become
anoxic, which would cause death. Without
oxygen the microbes cannot survive. There
are certain bacteria which can survive in
anoxic conditions like Clostridium tetani.
2. Biofortified crops released by IARI are
(a) Vitamin-A enriched carrots or spinach.
(b) Iron and calcium enriched spinach
(c) Protein enriched beans.
3. All the primary productivity is not available to a
herbivore as a considerable amount is utilised
by the plant during respiration. Also, some
amount of energy is lost as heat, when energy
is transferred from one trophic level to another.
4. The DNA fragments are seen as orange
coloured bands. The separated bands of DNA
are cut out and extracted from the gel piece.
This step is called elution.
5. Catalytic converters helps in reducing
emission of poisonous gases like NO 2 and
CO. They have expensive metals like Platinum,
palladium and rhodium as catalysts.
6. When large habitats are broken up into small
fragments due to the various human activities,
mammals and birds requiring large territories
and certain animals with migratory habitats
are badly affected, leading to their population
decline.
7. Lichen is considered as a good example of
obligate mutualism due to the mutualistic
relationship between the fungi and algae or
cyanobacteria. The alga prepares food, while
fungus helps in the absorption of nutrients and
also provide protection.
or
Gauses competitive exclusion principle is
behind the biological control method of
managing pests. It states that the two closely
related species competiting for the same
resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and the
competitively inferior one will be eliminated
eventually.
8. The ecological pyramid assumes a simple
food chain and does not accomodate food
webs. Therefore, it does not take into account
the fact that species may belong to two or
more trophic levels at a time. Saprophytes
play a vital role in ecosystem. Inspite of this,
they are not given any place in ecological
pyramid.
9. Hot spots are the regions with high endemism.
This is because the endemic species are
mostly rare, found only at one location in the
world. This property of endemic species
makes it crucial to conserve them, hence hot
spots are chosen to be the areas with high
endemism.
10. Spirulina can be grown easily on materials like
waste water from potato processing plants,
straw, molasses, animal manure and even
sewage to produce large quantities of
biomass. It serves as a food rich in protein,
minerals, fats, carbohydrate and vitamins.
11. The molecules which are functional in living
system or can interact with their components
are known as bioactive molecules. A number
of them are obtained from microbes.
A few important organic acids are as follows
(a) Acetic acid It is prepared from
fermented Acetobacter acetii. It is used
in the preparation of vinegar. It is also
used in pharmaceuticals, colouring
agent and insecticides.
(b) Citric acid The fermentation activity of
Aspergillus niger on sugary syrups
produces citric acid. Citric acid is used
in medicines, dyeing, inks, flavouring
and preservation of food and candies.
(c) Lactic acid It is the first acid to be
produced by industrial or fermentation
done by Streptococcus, a bacteria and
fungi Rhizopus. Lactic acid is used in
fruit juices, pickles, puring of meat and
fish products.
12. The three main steps involved in the PCR
technique are

90
 (a) Denaturation The double-stranded
DNA is denatured by using high
temperature of 95C for 15 seconds.
Now, each separated single-strand acts
as a template for DNA synthesis.
(b) Annealing Two sets of oligonucleotide
primers are used to anneal (hybridise).
This step is carried out at a slightly lower
temperature (40 60C) using Mg 2+
and dNTPs (deoxynucleoside
triphosphates) depending on the length
and sequence of the primers.
(c) Extension The thermostable enzyme
Taq DNA polymerase is used in this
reaction, which can tolerate high
temperature of the reaction that extends
the primers by adding nucleotides
complementary to the template.
13. (i) dsRNA gain entry into eukaryotic cell by
(a) Infection by virus having RNA
genome.
(b) Mobile genetic elements
(transposons) that replicate via an
RNA intermediate.
(ii) Parasitic infection can be prevented by
using RNA interference (RNAi) process,
which is checked by silencing of specific
mRNA due to the complementary
dsRNA. dsRNA binds and prevents
translation of the mRNA (silencing). or
Effect of temperature or water scarcity and the
adaptations of animals are:
(a) Animals living in arid areas reduce water
loss to minimum. For example,
kangaroo rat feeds on dry seeds and
seldom drink water.
(b) The requirement of water is often
compensated by food and metabolic
water. Water loss is prevented by
burrowing into the soil to hide and
escape from the above ground heat,
concentration of urine and solid faeces.
Camel stops producing urine when
water is not available and can remain
without water for many days.
(c) Animals protect themselves from
excessive cold by deposition of fat, fur
etc. Bears undergo hibernation during
winters.
14. (i) The ecological term for phenomenon
responsible for increase in
concentration of DDT at different trophic
levels is called biomagnification.
(ii) The high concentration of DDT interferes
with calcium metabolism in birds and
causes thinning of egg shells and their
premature breaking, ultimately causing
decline in bird population.
15. Protoplast culture is an important technique of
tissue culture and this technique results in the
production of somatic hybrid plants. In this
case, scientists have even isolated single
cells from the plants and after digesting their
cell walls, they have been able to isolate
naked protoplasts (surrounded by plasma
membranes). Isolated protoplasts from the
two different varieties of plants, each having a
desirable character - can be fused to get
hybrid protoplasts, which can be further
grown to form a new plant.
16. Baculovirus heliothis (a group of virus) are
known to infect the larval stages of many
harmful insects, beetles, wasps and ants. A
number of baculovirus, which are used as
biopesticides belongs to the genus
Nucleopolyhedro virus. These biological
weapons are not only effective as potential
biological control of harmful insects, but are
also harmless to non-target organisms
(plants, birds, mammals, non-target insects
etc). They are important in organic farming
because of their specific action on harmful
insects without causing any damage to
beneficial insects as well as to the environ-
ment. Baculoviruses are helpful in Integrated
Pest Management (IPM) Programme, in which
beneficial insects are conserved.
17. El Nino is an abnormal warming of surface
ocean waters in the Eastern Pacific Ocean.
During El Nino, there is movement of warm
water to East, which causes bleaching and
death of coral reefs. It changes the route of
migration of birds, fishes and whales thereby
increasing the risk for them. It is also known to
be responsible for sudden changes in rainfall
pattern and drought. All this makes El Nino a
factor for biodiversity loss. It also leads to
melting of the polar ice caps resulting in the
rise of the sea level and submergence of the
coastal areas.
18. Cryopreservation is based on the ability of
certain small molecules to enter cells and
prevent dehydration and formation of
intracellular ice crystals, which can cause cell
death and destruction of cell organelles,
during the freezing process. In general, the
cells taken from room temperature are
preserved at low temperatures, approxi-
mately 196C ( 130F) in a controlled- rate
freezer. The frozen cell suspension is then
transferred into a liquid-nitrogen freezer
maintained at extremely cold temperatures
with the nitrogen in either the vapour or the
liquid phase. Cryopreservation based on
freeze-drying does not require the use of
liquid nitrogen freezers.
An important application of cryopreservation
is in the freezing and storage of haemato-
poietic stem cells, which are found in the
bone marrow and peripheral blood vessels.
19. There are various following methods of solid
waste disposal:
Open burning involves burning of municipal
waste in open dumps to reduce volume but
the unburnt piled waste serves as breeding
ground for rats and flies.
Sanitary landfills are areas, where wastes
are dumped in a depression or trench after
compaction and covered with dirt. These have
been adopted as an alternative to open
burning dumps. Seepage of chemicals from
these landfills can pollute underground water
resources.
Rag-pickers and kabadiwallas collect and
separate, out wastes into reusable or
recyclable categories.
Natural breakdown involves dumping
biodegradable materials into deep pits for
natural degradation.
Recycling of e-wastes can be done in
specifically built facilities or can be done
manually to recover important metals.
Recycling is the only way for managing
e-waste, if it is done in an eco-friendly way.
Incineration is a method of e-waste disposal.
Mostly developed countries export their
e-wastes to developing countries for
incineration.
20. Transgenic animals are important in the
following fields
(a) They are being used in basic science
research to elucidate the role of genes
in the development of diseases like
cancer, cystic fibrosis, rheumatoid
arthritis and Alzheimers.
(b) They are valuable tools in the drug
development process itself.
(c) Milk producing transgenics can produce
medicines or human proteins (insulin,
growth hormone, etc.) in large quantities.
(d) Transgenics can be a source of
transplant organs as well.
21. Introduction of genetically engineered
lymphocytes into a ADA deficient patient is
not a permanent cure because these cells are
not immortal and the patient requires periodic
infusion of such genetically engineered
lymphocytes. A possible permanent cure can
be isolating the gene producing Adenosine
Deaminase (ADA) from bone marrow cells
and introducing it into the cells at early
embryonic stages.
22. The three important characteristics of a
population are as follows
(a) Population density of a species is the
number of individuals of a species per
unit area or volume.
PD = N/S
where, PD = Population density,
N = Number of individuals in a region,
S = Number of unit area in a region.
(b) Birth rate It is expressed as the number
of births per 1,000 individuals of a
population per year.
(c) Death rate It is expressed as the
number of deaths per 1,000 individuals
of a population per year.
23. (i) Such plants hava a gene or allele that
gives them resistance to the particular
fungal disease or they would have
undergone mutation of the allele and
become resistant to the fungal attack.
(ii) The seeds from the unaffected plants
can be collected and grown in the field
for one or two generations, selection
can also be practised by growing all
plants under conditions favourable for
disease and select those plants which
are resistant.
(iii) Yes, meristem culture is a method which
can be used to recover disease free
plants from diseased ones.
(iv) Sharing his knowledge and ideas for the
benefit of the society, his willingness to
help someone in distress and concern
for the fellow citizens are shown by the
expert.
91
1 Mark Questions
1. In the whiptail lizards, only females are born
generation after generation. There are no males.
How is this possible?
2. How does colostrum provide protection against
diseases to new born babies?
3. How does HIV differ from bacteriophage?
4. Which Mendels law of inheritance is universally
acceptable without any exception? State the law.
5. Name the source of smack and its effect on nervous
system.
2 Marks Questions
6. Why does a doctor administer tetanus antitoxin and
not a tetanus vaccine to a child injured in a
roadside accident with a bleeding wound. Explain.
7. In a nucleus, the number of RNA nucleotide
triphosphates is 10 times more than the number of
DNA nucleoside triphosphates, still only DNA
nucleotides are added during the DNA replication
and not the RNA nucleotides. Why?
Or
Why do some women use Saheli pills? What do
they contain?
8. Why does the zygote begin to divide only after the
division of primary endosperm cell?
9. What are the characteristic features of a true
breeding line?
10. Convergent evolution leads to analogous
structures. Explain with the help of an example?
3 Marks Questions
11. In a series of experiments with Streptococcus and
mice, F Griffith concluded that R-strain bacteria
has been transformed. Explain.
92
12. In a maternity clinic, for some reasons the authorities
are not able to hand over the two newborns to their
respective real parents. Name and describe the
technique that you would suggest to sort out the matter.
13. Corpus luteum in pregnancy has a long life. However,
if fertilisation does not take place it remains active only
for 10-12 days. Why?
14. Differentiate between the two cells enclosed in a
mature male gametophyte of an angiosperm.
15. Discovery of lobe fins is considered very significant by
evolutionary biologists. Explain.
Or
In one family, each of the four children has a different
blood group. Their mother is group A and the father is
group B. Explain this pattern of inheritance with the
help of a cross along with genotypes.
16. (i) Name the causative organisms for the following
disease.
(a) Elephantiasis
(b) Ringworm
(c) Amoebiasis
(ii) How can public hygiene help control such
diseases?
17. (i) Write the characteristic features of anther, pollen
and stigma of wind pollinated flowers.
(ii) What are pollen/nectar robbers?
18. Spermatogenesis in human males is a hormone
regulated process. Justify.
19. Enlist the periods in Palaeozoic era and name the
plant group that appeared in each of them.
20. (i) How does sexual reproduction enable organisms
like algae and fungi to survive during
unfavourable conditions?
(ii) Is Marchantia monoecious or dioecious? Why?
21. (i) In which part of the human female reproductive
system do the following events take place?
(a) Release of 1st polar body.
 (b) Release of 2nd polar body.
(c) Fertilisation
(d) Implantation
(ii) From where do signal for parturition originate and
what does maternal pituitary release for
stimulating uterine contractions during child
birth?
22. Differentiate between monosomy and trisomy. Give
an example of each from human genetics.
4 Marks Question
23. Like begets like is a popular proverb. It means that
offsprings resemble their parents. This was taught in
a biology class to Rohan. But on hearing this, he
asked his teacher that his mother is though very fair
looking and father is darker in complexion. Then,
why his skin colour is intermediate, i.e. neither very
fair nor dark. His teacher in reply, explained him
about the inheritance of skin colour in humans.
(i) What is the phenomenon of inheritance of skin
colour in humans?
(ii) Why is Rohan not born with very fair skin colour?
(iii) What values are shown by Rohan?
5 Marks Questions
24. (i) Mention the contributions of the following
scientists in detail:
(a) Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin
Answers of Board Exam Corner (November Issue)
1. Chara is a plant having both male and
female flowers present on same individual
thus, it is known as monoecious.
2. Repetitive sequences are stretches of DNA
sequences, which are repeated,
sometimes upto 100-1000 times. They
have no direct coding functions and donot
code for proteins.
3. Lysergic Acid Diethylamide (LSD), a
8.
psychedelic drug is given to patients
suffering from depression or insomnia.
4. Nucleosome is made up of five types of
proteins, i.e.H 2 A, H 2B, H 3 and H 4 occurring
in pairsand H1 .
9.
5. Secondary infertility is a situation when a
couple had children or achieved pregnancy
previously but unable to conceive the next
time.
10.
6. The farther the genes on a chromosome,
the more frequently they will cross over. By
comparison, genes that are close together
on a chromosome are less likely to be
separated. The analysis of how often the
traits appear together helps to establish
linkage map, which shows the relative
position of genes on chromosomes.
11.
7. Menopause is the phase in human female
when ovulation and menstruation stop. It
occurs between 45-50 years of age. It
occurs due to the reduced levels of
oestrogen and progesterone in the body
(b) Erwin Chargaff
(ii) Draw a double stranded dinucleotide chain with
all the four nitrogen bases. Label the polarity and
the components of the dinucleotide.
Or
Incompatibility is a natural barrier in the fusion of
gametes. Justify the statement. Also write down
various ways by which a plant avoid self pollination.
25. Explain the different ways of diagnosis and
treatment of cancer.
Or
(i) Explain taking one example of vertebrate anatomy
that evolution of life has occurred on earth.
(ii) Nature selects for fitness. Explain with suitable
examples.
26. Give a schematic representation of oogenesis in
humans. Mention the number of chromosomes at
each stage. Correlate the life phases of the
individual with the stages of the process.
Or
Let Y be the genotype symbol for dominant yellow
seed colour, symbol y for recessive green seed
colour, symbol R for dominant round shape of seed
and symbol r for recessive wrinkled seed shape in
garden pea. Using these symbols, explain Mendels
law of independent assortment.
which leads to non-development of (b) The spores are light in weight, thus keep
follicles. or floating in the air, which helps in their
Mendel could not find out linkage because dispersal.
all of his experimental characters of pea (c) The spores are covered with a thick
were not linked. They were present far apart
layer which enable them to survive in
from each other and situated on different unfavourable conditions.
chromosomes. Also he considered a single 12. Nature select an organism which have an
character at a time. advantage to the particular given
Theory of spontaneous generation states environment. Members of the ancestral
that life originated from decaying and salamendar population that colonised the
cave differed in their abilities. In caves, the
rotting matter like straw, mud, etc. Louis
eyes are of no use. So, in that condition
Pasteur rejected this theory and
demonstrated that life came from pre blind salamander were selected over the
existing life. salamander having eyes.
13. The differences between secondary and
Phenomenon in which more than one
codon encodes a single amino acid is Graafian follide are
called degeneracy of genetic code, e.g. Secondary
UCU, UCC, UCA all three codes for serine. Graafian Follicle
Follicle
Cleistogamous flowers are the bisexual (i) It is also known It is also known as the
flowers that donot open at all. as antral follicle mature follicle, consists of
Cross pollination cannot occur in which consists an oocyte., surrounded
cleistogamous flowers, because they of an oocyte by a large number of
remain in bud form throughout their life and surrounded by follicle cells in multiple
the anthers and stigmas are not exposed to follicle cells, layers consisting the
outer environment, hence form seed via self called granulosa.
pollination. granulosa cells.
There are some benefits for the organisms (ii) In this, a fluid In this the antrum is
which reproduces through spore formation filled cavity, the spacious, filled with liquid
such as antrum in its folliculi. It divides the
(a) Reproduction through spores is a initial stage of granulosa into corona
simple as well as faster mode of formation is radiata and peripheral
reproduction. present. granulosa.
93
 (iii) It is not The granulosa is Mean (ii) Gametogenesis (formation of male and
surrounded by surrounded by thecal Conserved females gametes) is associated with

Stabilising
selection
thecal cells. cells of stromal origin. reduction in chromosome number thus,
Eliminated
the gamete formed contains half
14. Tetanus also known as lock jaw is an chromosome set of the parental cell. So,
A
infection characterised by muscle spasm. It gametogenesis is interlinked with
Mean
is caused by Clostridium tetani bacterial Conserved
meiosis because in meiosis, reduction
infection. If a person is infected with some by selection of chromosome number from diploid set
deadly microbes to which quick immune Eliminated (2n) to haploid set (n) takes place. Also
response is required as in tetanus, we need meiosis occurs only in germ cells.
to directly inject the preformed antibodies B 21. (i) Differential reproduction The
or antitoxin, i.e. a preparation containing phenomenon in which all organisms
antibodies to the toxin. who reach reproductive stage
Or reproduce with varying degree of
Regulation of lac operon by the repressor is
success, some produce more offsprings
referred to as negative regulation. But, Lac
C and some produce only few and other
operon is under the control of positive
produce none depending upon their
regulation as well, by CAP (Catabolic 18. The differences between chemical and degree of fitness.
Activator Protein). natural methods of Birth control are as Reproductive isolation is the biological
It exerts a positive control in lac operon follows: phenomenon in which the individual
because in its absence, RNA polymerase is Chemical Methods of Natural Methods
unable to recognise the promoter gene and belonging to same species reproduce
Birth Control of Birth Control
switch off the lac operon. among themselves, to maintain the
In this chemicals are used It works on the species integrity.
15. In majority of aquatic organisms, e.g. to kill spermatozoa. principle of avoiding (ii) The rate of reproduction among the
algae, fish and in amphibians, the process the chances of different individuals in a population
of fertilisation takes place outside the body sperm to meet varies. Some produce more offsprings
of the organisms, i.e. in water. This type of ovum. and some produce only few offsprings.
gametic fusion is called external
Spermicides like creams, It has various This is differential reproduction. So, the
fertilisation.
foams, jellies which methods like reproductively fit individual produces
To enhance the chances of fertilisation the
contain lactic acid, citric periodic more offsprings than other. They are
organisms exhibiting external fertilisation
acid, zinc etc are used abstinence, coitus thus, selected by nature to survive and
discharge a large number of gametes in
interruptus or evolve into new species.
water, so as to ensure chances of syngamy.
withdrawal and
e.g. bony fishes, frogs, etc. lactational
22. (i)(a) From the pedigree analysis, it is
16. (i) Both the genotypic and phenotypic ratio amenorrhoea. observed that in all the generations, only
of the above mentioned cross is 1:1. the males are affected with the disease.
In this, chemicals are No such chemicals The parents of the affected individuals
(ii) This type of cross is called test cross. introduced into the vagina are introduced into
(iii) This is a method devised by Mendel to are not affected which implies that they
before coitus. the vagina before
determine the genotype of an organism. are carriers and the gene is recessive.
coitus.
In this cross, the organism with an (b) Possible genotype of 2: Xd X
unknown dominant genotype is crossed Possible genotype of 5: Xd Y
19. (i) Bacteriophage does not have repetitive
with recessive parent instead of self (ii) Thalassemia is categorised as Mendelian
sequences such as VNTR in its genome
crossing. Thus, the result can be disorder because these are caused due
as its genome is very small and have all
interpreted as, if the progeny is tall, then to the alteration or mutation in single
the coding sequences. Therefore, DNA
the dominant plant is homozygous and gene and follow the Mendel's principles
fingerprinting is not done for
if the progenies are in 1:1 ratio, then the of inheritance.
bacteriophages.
dominant plant is heterozygous. It occurs due to either mutation or
(ii) Tandem repeats provides many copies
deletion resulting in reduced rate of
17. (i) Comparing structural similarities is of the sequence for fingerprinting and
synthesis of one of the globin chains of
called comparative anatomy. The more variability in nitrogen base sequence in
haemoglobin.
closely the organisms are related, there them ranging from single nudeotide to
is more similarity between their very large sequences, which are unique 23. (i) Such awareness programmes are
homologous structures. Most examples for each individual. Being necessary to understand the problems
of homologus structures revolve around individual-specific, this proves to be faced by the family and nation due to
the limbs of species being compared. useful in the process of DNA the increasing population and benefits
For example, the flipper of whale, wing fingerprinting. of having a small family.
of a bat, leg of a cat and human arm are (ii) The role of government in controlling
20. (i) Higher organisms have resorted to
quite similar in structures. Thus, such population explosion are as follows:
sexual reproduction to
structures suggest common ancestry (a) Creating public awareness
(a) get over the unfavourable
i.e. homology which lead to divergent through mass media.
condition.
evolution on the basis of adaptation to (b) Education at all level
(b) introduce variation to enable
different needs and habitats. (c) Family planning
better adaptive capacity,
(ii) This represents stabilising selection. (d) Increasing marriageable age
biological tolerance and
This type of selection favours average (18 for girls and 21 for boys)
competitive edge.
sized individuals, while eliminating small (iii) In India, these programmes called
(c) restore high gene pool in a
sized individuals. It reduces variation family planning were initiated in 1951.
population.
and hence, do not promote evolutionary (iv) Rohit and his friends show
(d) restore vigour and vitality of the
changes. It maintains the mean value understanding and vision of problems
race, and
from generation to generation. If we posed by population explosion, team
(e) get proper parental care during
draw a graphical curve of population, it work and motivational capacity.
vulnerable stage.
is bell-shaped.

94
1. Proteins are transported around the cell in
membranous vesicles. These vesicles
I. form when a section of membrane protrudes
and buds off.
II. gave a layer of coat protein around the inside
of vesicle.
III. use their protein coat to find their target
membrane.
IV. uncoat after reaching their target cells.
Choose the correct set of statements.
(a) I, III and IV
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I and II
(d) All of the above
2. Phototropism refers to how plants respond to
sunlight by bending towards the light. This is
due to
(a) cell division on the side of stem closer to light source
(b) cell division on the side of stem away from light source
(c) cell differentiation on the side of stem away from light
source
(d) cell elongation on the side of stem away from light source
3. RFLP and RAPD markers are commonly used in
plant breeding and diversity analysis. Which of the
following combination of statements about these
molecular markers are correct?
I. RFLP is co-dominant
II. RAPD is co-dominant
III. Only RAPD can detect heterozygote
IV. Only RFLP can detect heterozygote
V. RAPD cannot detect allelic variation
(a) I, II and IV (b) II, III and V
(c) I, IV and V (d) All of these
4. Isotopes are used in studies of metabolic pathways
because
(a) their half life allows a researcher to time an experiment
(b) they are more reactive
(c) the cell does not recognise the extra protons in the nucleus,
hence easy to use
(d) their location or quantity can be experimentally determined
5. Which of the following best defines an oncogene?
(a) An oncogene is a dominantly expressed mutation which
gives a cell the growth or survival advantage
(b) An oncogene codes for a mutated form of a protein that
forms part of a signal transduction pathway
(c) An oncogene codes for a protein which prevents the cell
from undergoing apoptosis
(d) An oncogene codes for a cell cycle control protein
6. Consider the following statements and choose the
correct ones with reference to transmission of nerve
impulse.
I. The frequency of impulses and the number of
activated sensory neurons encode differences
in stimuli intensity.
II. Larger diameter axons conduct nerve impulses
faster than smaller diameter ones.
III. Continuous conduction is faster than saltatory
conduction.
IV. The diameter of an axon and the presence or
absence of a myelin sheath are most important
factors that determine the speed of nerve
impulse propagation.
V. Action potentials are localised whereas graded
potentials are propagated.
(a) III, IV and V
(b) I, II and IV
(c) II and IV
(d) I and III
95
7. A certain purified DNA sample was cut with two (d) encourage the coevolution of predator and prey
restriction endonucleases E1 and E2. The results adaptations
obtained from agarose gel electrophoresis are
9. Identify the mismatched pair.
Sample cut with E1 only - give two bands of size
35 kb and 15 kb. Metabolite Function
(a) Rutin Visual pollinator attractant
Sample cut with E2 only - give rise to two bands of
size 40 kb and 10 kb. (b) Rotenone Insect feeding deterrent
(c) DIMBOA Olfactory pollinator attractant
Sample cut simultaneously with E1 and E2 - Three
bands of size 35 kb, 10 kb and 5 kb are obtained. (d) Brassilexin Antifungal toxin
From the above given data, it can be deduced that 10. Which of the following statements are correct with
given DNA sample has reference to regulation of kidney functions?
(a) 2 sites for E1 and one site for E2
I. During summer, when body looses lot of water
(b) one site for E1 and two sites for E2
by evaporation, the release of ADH is
(c) one site each for E1 and E2 suppressed.
(d) three sites for E1 and one site for E2
II. An increase in glomerular blood flow
8. The effect of keystone predator within a community stimulates formation of angiotensin-II.
may be to III. When someone drinks a lot of water, ADH
(a) competitively exclude other predators from the community release is suppressed.
(b) maintain species diversity by preying on the prey species IV. Exposure to cold temperature stimulates ADH
that is the dominant competitor release.
(c) increase the relative abundance of most competitive prey (a) I and II (b) Only III
species (c) Only IV (d) Only I

Bio-Gauge
Quizzer (No.14)

Winner of Bio-Gauge Biology Spectrum

Quizzer (No. 13) (November Issue) Arihant Media Promoters
C/o Arihant Prakashan
Prachi Singh (Lucknow)
Kalindi, T.P. Nagar, Meerut (UP) - 250002

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