Vision IAS OT5 Xaam - in PDF

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TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES (P) OPEN TEST 2016 5 (2139)

C
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200
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1 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

1. India has been divided into a number of 4. Which of the following best defines
Landslide Vulnerability Zones. Which of the Investment in an economy?
following regions of India are classified (a) change in saving
under Very high vulnerability zones? (b) change in capital stock
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(c) change in government expenditure
(b) Rain shadow areas in Western Ghats
(d) change in consumer expenditure
(c) Ladakh region
(d) Deccan Plateau
5. With reference to the Round Table
2. "Budget 2016-17 has introduced a new Conferences, 1930-32, consider the
classification system for the Centre's following statements:
spending in Centrally Sponsored Schemes 1. The provisions for the Round Table
(CSS) into three categories: Core of the conferences were made in the Simon
Core, Core, and Optional Schemes. Which Commission report.
of the schemes forms part of the 'Core of the 2. Indian National Congress did not attend
Core'?
the first and second round table
1. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
conferences.
Employment Guarentee Act (MNREGA)
3. The discussions at the Round Table
2. National Social Assistance Programme
(NSAP) Conference formed the basis of
3. Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Government of India Act, 1935.
Mission Which of the statements given above is/are
4. Swachch Bharat Abhiyan correct?
5. National River Conservation Plan (a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code (b) 2 and 3 only
given below. (c) 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 5 only
(d) 3, 4 and 5 only 6. The Centre recently approved the culling of
wild animals such as nilgai and wild boar in
3. A 'Democracy' is a form of government in Bihar and rhesus monkey in Himachal
which: Pradesh by declaring them 'vermin'.
1. rulers are elected by the people. Declaring a wild animal 'vermin' is
2. elections are conducted in free and fair associated with which among the following
manner where those currently in power legislations?
have a fair chance of losing. 1. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
3. each adult citizen must have one vote
2. Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act,
and each vote must have one value.
1960
4. government rules within limits set by
3. Biological Diversity Act, 2002
constitutional law and citizens' rights.
Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below. given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
7. The latitudinal and longitudinal extent of 10. Consider the following:
India are roughly about 30 degrees but the 1. Skewflation : High inflation and low
distance measured from North to South is
growth
much more than distance measured from
East to West. Why? 2. Stagflation : Price rise of small
(a) Distance between two longitudes group of commodities
increases towards the poles whereas the over a sustained period
distance between two latitudes decreases
of time
towards the pole.
(b) Distance between two longitudes 3. Reflation : deliberately brought by
increases towards the poles whereas the the government to
distance between two latitudes remains increase demand to
almost the same everywhere. foster growth.
(c) Distance between two longitudes
decreases towards the poles whereas the
distance between two latitudes remains Which of the pairs given above is/are
almost the same everywhere. correctly matched?
(d) While latitudes vary from 0 to 90 degree (a) 1 and 3 only
North and South, longitudes vary from 0
(b) 2 only
to 180 degree East and West.
(c) 3 only
8. With reference to various schools of art, (d) None
consider the following statements:
1. Sarnath School is characterised by plain 11. Which of the following National Parks is
halo behind Buddha.
unique in being the only Mixed Heritage site
2. Mathura school is characterised by the
themes from Buddhism, Jainism and of India as declared by UNESCO?
Brahminism. (a) Khangchendzonga National Park
3. In Gandhara school more stress is given (b) Nandadevi National Park
to the inner beauty and facial emotions
(c) Kaziranga National Park
rather than bodily features.
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) Sundarbans National Park
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only 12. Consider the following statements:
(b) 2 only
1. Prohibition of discrimination on ground
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 of religion is a fundamental right under
the right to freedom of religion.
9. Consider the following statements about 2. Abolition of untouchability and
United Nations Security Council (UNSC): prohibition of its practice is fundamental
1. It is charged with the maintenance of right under rights against exploitation.
international peace and security.
3. Right to free and compulsory education
2. It consists of four permanent, veto-
wielding members and ten non- to all children between 6 to 14 years is a
permanent members. fundamental right under Cultural and
3. It is the only UN organ with the power Educational rights.
to make decisions that member states are
Which of the statements given above is/are
obligated to implement.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
13. Which of the following pair is/are correctly 16. Permanent Settlement system was
matched? introduced in Bengal due to which of the
Spacecraft Purpose
following reasons?
1. Juno : Orbiting Jupiter and 1. It would incentivise investment in
studying its
agriculture by the landlords.
composition
2. It did not require large administrative
2. Rosetta : Mapping and
investigating the machinery.
Mercury 3. It would create a powerful loyal class of
3. New Horizons : Exploring the local population.
Kuiper Belt
Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

given below. (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
14. The Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups 17. Why Jhelum forms meanders in its youth
"Asurs", "Birhor" and "Korwas" are found in stage, a feature associated with the mature
which of the following states? stage of the rivers?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(a) Due to low gradient of flow in its youth
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Jharkhand stage reducing its kinetic energy.
(d) Odisha (b) Due to large number of pebble rocks
present in its path significantly reducing its
15. Niti Aayog has recently designated nodal speed.
ministries to fulfill India's commitment to
(c) Due to local base level provided by the
implement Sustainable Development Goals
(SDG). In this regard, consider the following erstwhile larger lake.
pairs: (d) Due to large number of dams constructed
SDG Nodal Ministry reducing the volume of water.
1. Zero Hunger : Rural Development
2. Sustainable : Environment and 18. Which among the following do NOT include
cities and Forest and Climate subsidies in calculation of national income?
communities Change
1. GDP at market price
3. Decent work : Commerce and
and economic Industry 2. GVA at basic price
growth 3. GVA at factor cost
Which of the pairs given above is/are given below.
correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None (d) 1, 2 and 3
19. Which of the following is/are advantages of 22. Consider the following statements about
biopesticides? "The Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of

1. Prevents soil erosion Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and
2. Protects water quality Services) Bill, 2016":
3. Promotes biodiversity 1. It aims to provide for targeted delivery
Select the correct answer using the code of subsidies by assigning 12 digit unique
given below. identity numbers.
(a) 1 only 2. The bill empowers the UID authority to
(b) 1 and 2 only collect demographic information like
(c) 2 and 3 only race, religion and caste of an individual.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. The bill allows biometric information of
an individual will not be revealed in any

20. The scheme of composition of a legislative
case including cases of national security.
council in the state legislature as laid down
in the Constitution can be modified by:
correct?
(a) President
(a) 1 only
(b) Governor
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) State Legislature
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Parliament
(d) 1, 2 and 3
21. Consider the following pairs:

23. Why is GDP NOT considered as an
Type of Soil Characteristic
appropriate indicator of welfare?
1. Alluvial Soil : Self ploughing in 1. It takes non-monetary transactions into
nature account.
2. Red and : Cut as bricks for use 2. It does not take externalities into
Yellow Soil in construction. account.
3. Arid Soils : Kankar layer 3. Growth in GDP may be concentrated in
formation the hands of few individuals.
Which of the pairs given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correctly matched? given below.
(c) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

24. Which among the following are parts of 27. In 2015, Physics Nobel prize was Awarded
triratnas of jainism? For Work On Neutrinos Metamorphosis i.e.

Neutrinos change their identities while
1. Right teaching
travelling in space. What is the significance
2. Right faith of this discovery?
3. Right action (a) Neutrinos are massless and it validates
Standard Model of particle physics.
4. Right knowledge
(b) Neutrinos have mass and it validates
5. Right monastic order Standard Model of particle physics.
Select the correct answer using the code (c) Neutrinos have mass and it violates
below. Standard Model of particle physics.

(d) Neutrinos are massless and it violates
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Standard Model of particle physics.
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only 28. Tamil Nadu coast remains dry during the
Southwest Monsoon Season. Which of the
(d) 3, 4 and 5 only
following factors are responsible for it?
1. It is situated parallel to the Bay of
25. Goods and Services Tax Bill is a: Bengal branch.
(a) Money Bill 2. It lies in the rainshadow area of the
(b) Finance Bill-I Arabian Sea branch.
(c) Finance Bill- II
given below.
(d) None of the above (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
26. With reference to Himalayan Brown Bears, (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. They are found in Jammu & Kashmir

29. In Assam, tea garden labourers, shouting
and Himachal Pradesh. "Gandhi Maharaj ki Jai", demanded a big
2. They go into aestivation to cope with increase in their wages. They left the British-
owned plantations amidst declarations that
winter related problems.
they were following Gandhiji's wish.
3. They are included in the Schedule I of Interestingly, in the Assamese Vaishnava
the Wildlife Protection Act. songs of the period the reference to Krishna
was substituted by "Gandhi Raja".
Which of the following movements is
correct?
associated with the description provided in
(a) 1 and 2 only the above paragraph?
(b) 1 and 3 only (a) Quit India Movement
(b) Civil Disobedience Movement
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Non-Cooperation Movement
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Kisan Sabha Movement
30. Which among the following is NOT a 33. Consider the following statements about
Fundamental Duty? Project Tiger :
(a) to protect and improve the natural 1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme of the
environment including forests, lakes, Ministry of Environment and Forests.
rivers and wild life, and to have 2. Under the scheme an executive body
compassion. National Tiger Conservation Authority
(b) to protect monuments, place and objects
was established.
of artistic or historic interest which are
3. It is not being implemented in any of the
declared to be of national importance.
union territories (UTs).
(c) to defend the country and render
national service when called upon to do
so. correct?
(d) to safeguard public property and to (a) 1 and 2 only
abjure violence. (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
31. Consider the following statements regarding (d) 1, 2 and 3
Marginal Cost of funds based Lending rate
(MCLR): 34. The Expert Committee that was constituted
1. It refers to the minimum interest rate for to examine the "Specific Relief Act, 1963"
loans that is determined by a bank. submitted its report and the Centre is
2. It is not sensitive to changes in the contemplating amendments to the Act with a
policy rates thereby improving monetary primary objective of:
transmission.
(a) Nuclear Accidents Compensation
(b) Ease of Doing Business
correct?
(c) National plan for disaster management
(a) 1 only
(d) Reforms in Agriculture subsidies
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 35. With reference to the powers Comptroller
and Auditor General (CAG), consider the
32. ISRO recently made a record with the following statements:
PSLV-C34 after successfully launching 20 1. He ascertains and certifies the net
satellites. In this context, consider the proceeds of any tax or duty.
following statements about PSLV-C34: 2. He audits all the expenditure from
1. It deployed satellites in the Geo- contingency fund and public accounts of
synchronous orbit. India.
2. All the launched satellites were 3. He submits the audit reports relating to
Navigational and communication the accounts of Centre and states to the
satellites. President.
3. It used both solid and liquid propellants.
correct?
NOT correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
36. Arrange the following events in the 39. The Treaty of Lisbon, recently seen in news
chronological order of their occurrence : is related to which of the following?
1. Formation of the Deccan Traps. (a) It led to the creation of a common
2. Breaking up of Pangea.
market within European Union.
3. Collision of Indian Plate with Asiatic
(b) It allows a nation to secede from the
Plate.
European Union.
4. Formation of Great Plains of North
India. (c) It led to the largest enlargement of
Select the correct answer using the code European Union adding ten countries at
given below. once.
(a) 1-2-3-4 (d) It creates a common immigration policy
(b) 2-1-3-4
for Europe.
(c) 2-3-4-1
(d) 1-3-4-2
40. "This region is a delta region of about 900
sq. km situated in the west coast of Kerala
37. Which among the following schools of
philosophy believed in the existence of God? State, India. The farming System practiced
1. Samkhya here is unique as it is the only system in
2. Lokayata India that practices rice cultivation below sea
3. Yoga level. It is one of the Globally Important
Select the correct answer using the code Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS)
given below.
sites in India."
(a) 1 and 2 only
The above passage describes which of the
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only following places?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Koratpur

(b) Pampore
38. What is the significance of centralised cash (c) Kuttanad
reserves with Central Bank? (d) Munnar
1. To offer financial help to the
commercial banks during emergencies
41. Which among the following offices/post are
2. To increase or decrease the credit
deemed to be 'Office of Profit'?
creation capacity of commercial banks
1. President
3. To have a say in appointments in
commercial banks board of directors 2. Governor
4. To inspire the confidence of public in 3. Union Minister
commercial banks Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) None
42. Consider the following statements regarding 45. Consider the following pairs:
'Duar Formations': Inter/Intra Example
Specific
1. These formations are associated with
interactions
Himachal and Uttaranchal Himalayas.
1. Mutualism : Suckerfish attached
2. They have been used for the to a shark
development of coffee gardens. 2. Competition : Bees in colony
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Predation : Biological pest

control
NOT correct?
(a) 1 only Which of the pairs given above is/are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
43. The split in Arya Samaj in 1893 occurred
due to difference in opinion of: 46. With reference to Real Estate Investment
(a) Consumption of Meat vs. Vegetarianism Trusts (REITs), consider the following
statements:
(b) Anglicised vs. Sanskrit based education
1. They allow investment in in income-
(c) Underage marriage generating real estate assets.
(d) Both a and b 2. They can be traded on stock exchange.
3. 100% FDI has been permitted in REITs.
44. Consider the following statements regarding Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
National Disaster Management Plan:
(a) 1 and 2 only
1. It is the first ever national plan for (b) 1 and 3 only
disaster management prepared in the (c) 2 and 3 only
country. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The plan is based on the four priority

47. The 86th constitutional amendment inserted/
themes of the "Hyogo Framework". changed articles in which of the following
3. It also calls for ethical guidelines for the parts of the constitution?
media for coverage of disasters. 1. Part III
2. Part IV
3. Part IV-A
correct? Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 and 2 only given below.
(b) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
48. Consider the following pairs: 51. Which of the following diseases can be
Island in News Nations involved in classified as water-borne diseases?
conflict 1. Hepatitis A
2. Typhoid
1. Kuril Islands : Russia and Japan
3. Cholera
2. Paracel Islands : China and Vietnam
4. Polio
3. Spartly Islands : Britain and
Argentina given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Which of the pairs given above is/are
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
correctly matched?
(c) 1 and 4 only
(a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only 52. Critical Wildlife Habitats have been defined
(d) 1, 2 and 3 under which of the following acts?
(a) Environment Protection Act, 1986
49. 'Hutti' in Karnataka and 'Ramgiri' in Andhra (b) Forest Rights Act 2006
Pradesh are associated with which of the (c) Biological Diversity Act, 2002
following? (d) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
(a) Anthracite Coal Fields

53. Which of the following qualifications are
(b) Gold Fields
laid down by the Indian Constitution, for a
(c) Uranium Deposits
person to be chosen a member of the state
(d) Potential Geothermal Energy areas
legislature?
1. He must be not less than 30 years of age
50. Consider the following statements:
in case of legislative council.
1. Evidence of water harvesting and 2. A person to be elected to the legislative
management have been found in the assembly must be an elector for an
Indus Valley civilisation. assembly constituency in the concerned
2. Both Arthashastra and Kalhan''s state.
Rajtarangiri give detailed account of 3. He must be a member of SC/ST if he

wants to contest a seat reserved for
irrigation systems.
them.
correct?
given below.
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

54. Consider the following statements about 57. Which of the following was/were associated
World Investment Report: with Dr B R Ambedkar?
1. It is an annual report released by 1. Mahad Satyagraha
International Monetary fund. 2. Independent Labour Party
2. In 2016 report, India ranked first in FDI 3. Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha
inflows. 4. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code
NOT correct? given below.
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
55. Which of the following are classified as 58. ISRO has been working to test a 'Scramjet
erosional landforms? engine'. What is the significant feature of
1. Stalactites these engines?
2. Cirque (a) They utilize solar energy to produce
3. Playas thrust.
4. Sea Stacks (b) They obtain oxygen from the
Select the correct answer using the code atmosphere for combustion.
given below. (c) They work on a 4-stage cryogenic
(a) 1 and 3 only engine sequenced between solid and
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only liquid propellant.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) They are made up of a super light
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 material Silica Aerogel and require very
little thrust.
56. With reference to the FCNR (B) accounts,
consider the following statements: 59. With reference to Bharatnatyam, consider
1. The deposits in FCNR(B) accounts the following statements:
cannot be used to make any local 1. Natya Shastra provides information on
payments in India. this dance form.
2. Deposits in the FCNR (B) accounts 2. In this dance one dancer takes on many
increase external debt of India. roles in a single performance.
3. Currency risks due to exchange rate 3. The face of the artist is painted over to
fluctuations are borne by the banks. appear as though a mask is worn.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
60. Consider the following statements regarding 63. With reference to trends in expenditure on
Coal Bed Methane (CBM): social services as a proportion of the GDP in
1. It refers to a reserve of coals stored in last five years, consider the following
statements:
deep ocean basins.
1. There has been a constant increase in the
2. Currently, there are no CBM producing
expenditure on education.
blocks in the country.
2. The expenditure on health as a
Which of the statements given above is/are proportion of GDP has remained
NOT correct? constant.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 only correct?
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
61. With reference to Kushanas, consider the
following statements: 64. Which of the following is/are common
1. They introduced satrap system of between American (USA) and Indian Polity?
government in India. 1. Manner of election of president
2. They controlled the Silk Route, which 2. System of collective responsibility
became great source of income to them. 3. Single citizenship
4. Integrated Judiciary
3. They patronised both Buddhism and
Vaishanavism.
given below.
Which of the pairs given above is/are
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
correct? (b) 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 4 only
(b) 1 only (d) None
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 65. With reference to Rajasthani or Rajput
painting, consider the following statements:
1. They were completely indigenous and
62. Which of the following is/are spread over
were not influenced by sultanate
only one State in India?
paintings.
1. Bundelkhand Upland 2. Paintings were done for decoration on
2. Ajanta Range walls and illustration in books.
3. Dandakaranya 3. Majority of the themes were centered
Select the correct answer using the code around Krishna and his adventures.
given below. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
66. The term 'biofouling' refers to: 69. Consider the following statements:
(a) use of microorganisms to control foul 1. The Wassenaar Arrangement through
export controls aims to prevent the
smell emanating from waste disposal development of chemical or biological
sites weapons.
(b) a foul smell emitted by diseased plants 2. The Australia Group aims to promote
transparency and greater responsibility
like sugarcane in transfers of conventional arms and
(c) the undesirable accumulation of dual-use goods and technologies.
microorganisms, plants and animals on
correct?
submerged structures (a) 1 only
(d) growth of undesirable weeds in (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
agricultural fields
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
67. Which among the following are present in 70. With reference to the constitution of
the blood group AB? Monetary Policy Committee, consider the
following statements:
1. Antibody A
1. It will determine the inflation targets in
2. Antibody B the medium term for RBI.
3. Antigen A 2. The decision of the Committee would be
binding on the RBI.
4. Antigen B
3. The establishment of the committee is
Select the correct answer using the code brought through an amendment to the
given below. RBI Act.
(a) 1 and 2 only
correct?
(b) 3 and 4 only (a) 1 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None
(d) 1, 2 and 3
68. Consider the following statements regarding 71. Consider the following statements:
conditions of growth of tea and coffee crops: 1. Wood's Education Dispatch, 1854
advocated extension of education in
1. Both are shade-loving crops. vernacular languages.
2. Both are grown at elevations from 600 to 2. Raja Rammohun Roy supported the
1600 mts above sea level. foundation of Sanskrit College as he
believed in educating the masses in
3. Both thrive well in hot and humid ancient Indian philosophy.
climate. 3. Sir Syed Ahmed Khan founded Aligarh
Which of the statements given above is/are Scientific society for development of
scientific education in India.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

72. "When water becomes scarce, the vegetation 75. Consider the following statements regarding
turns brown to limit water loss. It stores distribution of temperature on Oceans:
necessary moisture and nutrients in its roots
1. The annual range of temperature is
while awaiting the return of the rainy season.
greater in the Atlantic Ocean than in the
With food and water reserves stored below
ground, it is able to survive the effects of fire Pacific Ocean.
as well." 2. In the temperate zone, the eastern

Which of the following ecosystems/biomes sections of the oceans are warmer than
is best described by the above passage? the western sections.
(a) Tropical Rainforest
(b) Tropical Desert
correct?
(c) Tropical Savannah
(d) Tropical Deciduous (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
73. Consider the following statements: (c) Both 1 and 2
1. If Prime Minister of India is from upper
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
house he will not be able to vote in his
favour in case of a no-confidence
76. A rise in which of the following macro-
motion.
2. If any member of Council of Minister is economic variables may lead to a fall of
from upper house he can not make level of output in an economy?

statements in lower house. 1. Savings
2. Export
correct?
3. Government taxes
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only Select the correct answer using the code
(c) Both 1 and 2 given below.

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
74. Consider the following pairs:
(c) 1 and 3 only
Script Period
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Brahmi : Mauryan
2. Siddhamatrika : Gupta 77. Which of the following countries is/are
3. Modi : Marathas
NOT the members of the Missile
Which of the pairs given above is/are Technology Control Regime (MTCR)?
correct? (a) Pakistan
(a) 1 only
(b) China
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) India
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Both a and b

78. Consider the following statements regarding 81. In the hey days of the Mughal empire after
Nutrient Immobilization: the 'Treaty of Allahabad', 1765 , the East
1. In this process, nutrients are converted India Company got diwani functions from
from the inorganic to organic form by the Emperor Shah Alam and the Nizamat
microorganisms. functions from the Subahadar of Bengal The
2. Due to this process, there is an increased Governor of Bengal endeavoured to correct
availability of nutrients to the plants. the abuses of the Company's civil and
Which of the statements given above is/are military services but his reforms were
correct? temporary expedients. The above description
(a) 1 only is best suited for which of the following
(b) 2 only Governors?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) Lord Cornwallis
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Lord Warren Hastings
(c) Lord Clive
79. Consider the following statements about (d) Lord Ripon
Alvars:
1. They along with Naynars were examples 82. Consider the following statements:
of early bhakti movements originating in 1. Out of the total utilisable water resource,
Tamil Nadu. surface water dominates over ground
2. They were inspired from Tantricism and water.
Lingayat school of philosophy. 2. Agriculture accounts for most of the
3. Their composition Silappadikaram is both surface and ground water
frequently described as significant as utilization.
four Vedas. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
83. With reference to 'Income elasticity of

80. Consider the following pairs: demand', which of the following statements
Schedule Added by is/are correct?
1. 9th Schedule : 4th Amendment 1. Normal goods have a positive income
2. 10th Schedule : 25th Amendment elasticity of demand.
3. 12th Schedule : 73rd Amendment. 2. Inferior goods have a negative income

elasticity of demand.
Which of the pairs given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code
NOT correctly matched? given below.
(b) 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

84. Consider the following statements regarding 87. With reference to role of women in Indian
United Nations Framework Convention on national movement and reforms related to
Climate Change (UNFCCC): them, which of the statement given below is
1. It was adopted at the "Rio Earth NOT correct?
(a) Nari Bahinis or women brigades were
Summit" in 1992.
formed during Tebhaga movement to
2. It is a legally binding as it sets
resist colonial police.
mandatory limits on greenhouse gas
(b) The Government of India Act, 1935
emissions. provided women reserved seats in the
3. Its ultimate objective is to eliminate legislatures.
greenhouse gas in the atmosphere. (c) Women's Indian Association, the first
Which of the statements given above is/are women association all India level was
correct? established under leadership of Sarojini
(a) 1 only Naidu.
(b) 1 and 3 only (d) Subash Chandra Bose raised a Congress
women's volunteer corps under
(c) 2 and 3 only
leadership of Colonel Latika Ghosh.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
88. Which of the following factors affect

85. Which of the following terms is/are the
cropping pattern in India?
focus of the Fiscal Responsibility and 1. Temperature
Budget Management Act? 2. Rainfall
1. Fiscal Deficit 3. Irrigation
2. Revenue Deficit 4. Size of land holdings
3. Current Account Deficit 5. Availability of Insurance
4. Rupee Convertibility 6. Availability of Investment
Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
89. Under which of the following conditions the
86. Which of the following are used as Governor has to mandatorily reserve the bill
performance enhancing drugs and are also for the reconsideration of the President?
synthesised naturally in the body? 1. If it endangers the position of High
1. Erythropoietin (EPO) Court.
2. Human growth hormone (hGH) 2. If it is opposed to the Directive
Principles of State Policy
3. Testosterone
3. If it is against the larger interest of the
4. Insulin
country
given below. given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3

90. In which of the following zones of lakes and 93. What is common between Mahabalipuram,
ponds photosynthesis does NOT take place? Hampi and Pattadakal?
(a) They all are sites of Vesara style of
1. Profundal
Architcture, a unique combination of
2. Limnetic
Nagara and Dravida style.
3. Littoral (b) The major Monuments at these places
4. Benthic were bulit by Raja Raja Chola and his
Select the correct answer using the code son Rajendra Chola.
(c) These sites are part of United Nations
given below.
Educational, Scientific and Cultural
(a) 1 and 2 only
Organization (UNESCO) World
(b) 2 and 3 only Heritage list.
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) These three are the sites of Ashokan
(d) 3 and 4 only inscription in Southern India signifying
his conquest across Aryavrat.
91. Consider the following statements regarding

94. Consider the following statements:
Human Genome Project's write (HGP- 1. The extra tropical cyclones have a clear
write): frontal system which is not present in the
1. It seeks to build an artificial human tropical cyclones.
genome with sophisticated 2. In Northern Hemisphere, the extra
tropical cyclones rotates clockwise
bioengineering tools.
whereas tropical cyclones rotate
2. Technologies developed through HGP- anticlockwise.
write will be universally applicable to all 3. The wind velocity in a tropical cyclone
organisms. is much higher and it is more destructive
Which of the statements given above is/are than the extra tropical cyclones.
Which of the statements give above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
95. Which of the following statements regarding

92. Two major biomes are represented in this
ceramic-polymer hybrid (CASPOL) is
site - the grassland biome and the forest NOT correct?
biome. It is the only site in the world which (a) It has been developed by the Indian
hosts viable population of the critically Space Research Organization (ISRO).
(b) It makes surfaces waterproof and
endangered pygmy hog. Identify the site.
protects against fire and high
(a) Nilgiri Biosphere reserve
temperature.
(b) Manas National Park (c) It is eco-friendly as it is free of toxic
(c) Agastyamalai Biosphere reserve materials.
(d) Namdapha National Park (d) All of the above statements are correct.

96. The Start-up India Action Plan of Union 99. With reference to agricultural sector, what is
Government is an initiative of:

the aim of agricultural extension services?
(a) Department of Industrial Policy &
Promotion (a) bringing more area under cultivation
(b) Ministry of Skill Development And

(b) extending agricultural finance at
Entrepreneurship
subsidised rates
(c) Department of Economic Affairs
(d) Ministry of Corporate Affairs (c) transmission of scientific technologies to
agricultural practices
97. The term 'Dark sky reserve' is often seen
news is: (d) efficient post-harvest management and
(a) a zone showing most evidences of
marketing
presence of dark matter
(b) an area kept free of light pollution
(c) an area of high ozone layer depletion 100. What is the correct sequence of occurrence
(d) an area of high poaching activities on of the following cities in Africa as one
migratory routes of birds
proceeds from North to South?
98. With reference to the Tejas combat aircraft,

1. Cape Town
2. Maputo
1. It is the lightest multi-role supersonic
aircraft of its class. 3. Nairobi
2. It was developed by India in
4. Dodoma
collaboration with Israel.
3. Due to strategic reasons the aircraft will Select the correct answer using the code
not be available for export to any other

given below.
country.
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 3-4-2-1
correct? (b) 4-1-3-2

(a) 1 only
(c) 1-3-2-4
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 4-2-1-3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

VISION IAS
www.visionias.in
ANSWERS & EXPLANATION

GENERAL STUDIES (P) OPEN TEST 2016 5 (2139)
Q 1.A
Landslide Vulnerability Zones
o Very High Vulnerability Zone: Highly unstable, relatively young mountainous areas in the Himalayas
and Andaman and Nicobar, high rainfall regions with steep slopes in the Western Ghats and Nilgiris.
o High Vulnerability Zone: All the Himalayan states and the states from the north-eastern regions
except the plains of Assam are included in the high vulnerability zones.
o Moderate to Low Vulnerability Zone: Areas that receive less precipitation such as Trans-Himalayan
areas of Ladakh and Spiti (Himachal Pradesh), undulated yet stable relief and low precipitation areas
in the Aravali, rain shadow areas in the Western and Eastern Ghats and Deccan plateau.
o Other Areas: The remaining parts of India, particularly states like Rajasthan, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh,
Bihar, West Bengal (except district Darjiling), Assam (except district Karbi Anglong) and Coastal
regions of the southern States are safe as far as landslides are concerned.
Q 2.A
Budget 2016-17 has introduced a new classification system for the Centre's spending .The new system
divides Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) into three categories: Core of the Core, Core, and Optional
Schemes. This system is based on the recommendations of a sub-committee of chief ministers formed by
Niti Aayog in March 2015 for the rationalisation of the CSS.
Accordingly, existing CSS should be divided into: Core and Optional schemes.
o Amongst the Core Schemes, those for social protection and social inclusion should form the Core of
the Core and be the first charge on available funds for the National Development Agenda.
o Ordinarily, in any sector there should be one Umbrella scheme having the same funding pattern for
all its sub-components.
o Investment levels in Core Schemes should be maintained so as to ensure that the optimum size of
the programme does not shrink.
o Funds for Optional Schemes would be allocated to States by the Ministry of Finance as a lump sum
and States would be free to choose which Optional Schemes they wish to implement. Additionally,
the States have been given the flexibility of portability of funds from optional schemes ( should it
choose not to utilize to utilize its entire allocation under that head) to any other CSS component
within the overall allocation for the state under CASP.
Core of the Core Schemes (6)
o Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGA)
o National Social Assistance Programme
o Umbrella Scheme for the Development of Scheduled Castes
o Umbrella Programme for Development of Scheduled Tribes (Tribal Education and Van Bandhu
Kalyan Yojana)
o Umbrella Programme for Development of Backward Classes and other vulnerable groups
o Umbrella Programme for Development of Minorities (a) Multi Sectoral Development Programme
for Minorities. (b) Education Scheme for Madaras and Minorities

Swachch Bharat Abhiyan (Rural and Urban) forms part of Core schemes whereas National River
Conservation Plan and Shyama Prasad Mukherjee RURBAN Mission forms part of Optional Schemes.
Q 3.D
Features of a democracy form of government:
o In a democracy the final decision making power must rest with those elected by the people.
o a democracy must be based on a free and fair election where those currently in power have a fair
chance of losing.
o in a democracy, each adult citizen must have one vote and each vote must have one value.
o a democratic government rules within limits set by constitutional law and citizens' rights.
Q 4.B
o An investment is an asset or item that is purchased with the hope that it will generate income or
appreciate in the future. In an economic sense, an investment is the purchase of goods that are not
consumed today but are used in the future to create wealth.
o Capital stock implies production capacity of the producers. Producers always try to increase their capital
stock, so that their capacity to produce increases over time. Increase in the stock of capital during the
year is called investment during the year. Change in stock of capital is also called capital formation. So
the terms investment and capital formation can be used interchangeably.
Q 5.C
The proposal for Round Table conference was made in announcement of Viceroy Irwin in October 31,
1929.
Congress attended the Second Round Table Conference. Mahatma Gandhi was appointed the
representative of the Congress to the Second Round Table Conference.
The principal sources from where the Government of India Act, 1935 drew it inspiration from were:
o the Nehru report
o the discussions at the Round Table Conferences
o the White paper
o the Joint Select Committee Report
o the Simon Commission Report
o the Lothian Report.
Q 6.A
o The Centre approved the culling of wild animals such as nilgai and wild boar in Bihar and rhesus monkey
in Himachal Pradesh by declaring them 'vermin', under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, in December
2015.
o As per Section 62 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, States can send a list of wild animals to the Centre
requesting it to declare them vermin for selective slaughter. The Central Government may by
notification, declare any wild animal other than those specified in Schedule I and part 11 of Schedule H
of the law to be vermin for any area for a given period of time. As long as the notification is in force such
wild animal shall be included in Schedule V of the law, depriving them of any protection under that law.
Q 7.C
o The latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India, are roughly about 30 degrees, whereas the actual
distance measured from north to south extremity is 3,214 km, and that from east to west is only 2,933
km. This difference is based on the fact that the distance between two longitudes decreases towards the
poles whereas the distance between two latitudes remains the almost the same everywhere.
Q 8.B
o A highly decorated halo behind the head of Buddha was characteristic feature of the Mathura school.
The Gandhara school had a plain halo while the Sarnath school had a halo with little decoration. Hence,
statement 1 is not correct.

o Theme of Mathura school included Buddhism, Jainism and Brahmanism. Several Brahmanical Deities
were first crystallized by this school.The Jina Image and indigenous style of Buddhas image was a
remarkable features of Mathura art. The Sarvatobhadrika image of 4 jain Jinas standing back to back
belongs to the Mathura school. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o In Gandhara school more stress is given to the bodily features and external beauty. In the Mathura
school more stress is given to the inner beauty and facial emotions rather than bodily gesture. Hence,
statement 3 is not correct.
Q 9.C
o About United Nations Security Council (UNSC): UNSC is one of the five principal organs of the United
Nations (UN). It is charged with the maintenance of international peace and security.
o Powers: (i) establishment of peacekeeping operations, (ii) establishment of international sanctions, (iii)
authorization of military action through UNSC resolution.
o All members of the United Nations agree to accept and carry out the decisions of the Security Council.
While other organs of the United Nations make recommendations to member states, only the Security
Council has the power to make decisions that member states are then obligated to implement under
the Charter.
o Members: It consists of five permanent, veto-wielding members - China, Russia, France, UK and US
along with 10 non-permanent members. The non-permanent seats are allocated according to a rotation
pattern set by the UNGA in 1963, to ensure a proportionate representation over time from different
parts of the world. Of the 10 members, 5 are from African and Asian states, 1 from Eastern European
states, 2 from Latin American states and 2 from Western European and Other states.
o Recently The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) has elected Ethiopia, Bolivia, Sweden and
Kazakhstan as the non-permanent members of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC).
Q 10.C
o Skewflation is a situation in which there is a price rise of one or a small group of commodities over a
sustained period of time.
o Stagflation is a condition of slow economic growth and relatively high unemployment - a time of
stagnation - accompanied by a rise in prices, or inflation. Stagflation occurs when the economy isn't
growing but prices are, which is not a good situation for a country to be in.
o Reflation is a situation often deliberately brought by the government to reduce unemployment and
increase demand by going for higher levels of economic growth. Reflation policies can include reducing
taxes, changing the money supply and lowering interest rates.
Q 11.A
o Khangchendzonga National Park also Kanchenjunga Biosphere Reserve is a National Park and a
Biosphere reserve located in Sikkim, India. It was inscribed to the UNESCO World Heritage Sites list on
July 17, 2016, becoming the first "Mixed Heritage" site of India.
o The park gets its name from the mountain Kanchenjunga, the third-highest peak in the world.
o There are many glaciers in the park including the Zemu glacier.
o Animals like musk deer, snow leopard and Himalayan tahr all make their home in this park.
o Mixed Heritage sites have both cultural and natural significance.
Q 12.D
o Prohibition of discrimination on ground of religion is a fundamental right under the right to equality
under Article 15. (Article 15: Prohibition of Discrimination on Grounds of Religion, Race, Caste, Sex or
Place of Birth.)
o Article 17: Constitution of India. Untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden The
enforcement of any disability arising out of Untouchability shall be an offence punishable in accordance
with law. Abolition of untouchability and prohibition of its practice is fundamental right under rights to
equality.

o Right to free and compulsory education to all children between 6 to 14 years is a fundamental right
under right to freedom. (Article 21A).
o Hence, all the statements are incorrect.
Q 13.C
o Juno is a NASA space probe orbiting the planet Jupiter. It was launched from Cape Canaveral Air Force
Station on August 5, 2011, as part of the New Frontiers program, and entered Jupiter orbit on July 4,
2016. The spacecraft is in a polar orbit to study Jupiter's composition, gravity field, magnetic field, and
polar magnetosphere. Juno will also search for clues about how the planet formed, including whether it
has a rocky core.
o Rosetta is a space probe built by the European Space Agency launched on 2 March 2004. Along with
Philae, its lander module, Rosetta is performing a detailed study of comet 67P/Churyumov-Gerasimenko
(67P).
o New Horizons is an interplanetary space probe that was launched as a part of NASA's New Frontiers
program. The spacecraft was launched with the primary mission to perform a flyby study of the Pluto
system, and a secondary mission to fly by and study one or more other Kuiper belt objects (KBOs).
Q 14.C
o There are nine primitive tribe groups in Jharkhand - Asur, Mal Paharia, Birhor, Birjia, Parhaiya, Sauria
Paharia, Hill Kharia, Korwa and Savar.
o In 1973, the Dhebar Commission created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate category, who are
less developed among the tribal groups. In 2006, the Government of India renamed the PTGs as
Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). PVTGs have some basic characteristics -they are mostly
homogenous, with a small population, relatively physically isolated, social institutes cast in a simple
mould, absence of written language, relatively simple technology and a slower rate of change etc.
Q 15.D
o SDG 2: Zero Hunger i.e. End hunger, achieve food security and improved nutrition and promote
sustainable agriculture: The nodal Ministry implementing it is Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.
o SDG 8: Decent work and economic growth i.e. Promote sustained, inclusive and sustainable Economic
growth, full and productive employment and decent work for all : The nodal Ministry implementing it is
Ministry of Labour and Employment.
o SDG 11: Sustainable cities and communities i.e. Make cities and human settlements inclusive, safe,
resilient and sustainable: The nodal Ministry implementing it is Ministry of Urban Development.
Q 16.D
o Through Permanent Settlement British aimed that the landlords would invest money in improving the
land, as with the state demand being fixed the whole of the benefit from increased production and
enhanced income would accrue to them.
o Further reasons to introduce the permanent settlement:
It was easier to collect revenue from a small number of zamindars than from the innumerable
peasants, it would also require a small administrative machinery.
It would ensure the loyalty of a powerful class of the local population.
o Hence, all the statements are correct.
Q 17.C
o Srinagar, capital city of the state of Jammu and Kashmir is located on the banks of Jhelum river. Rivers
generally form meanders in its mature stage but Jhelum, flowing through the Kashmir valley, forms
meanders in its youth stage.
o About 2 million years ago when the Kashmir valley, surrounded by Great Himalayan Range in north-east
and Pir Panjal Range in southeast, was submerged under water.

o Due to tectonic upliftment of Pir Panjal range, drainage of the region was impounded and a big lake of
about 5000 sq km area was formed.
o Because of endogenic forces, Baramullah Gorge was created and this vast lake was drained through this
gorge leaving behind sediments and these deposits are called Karewas. ("Karewa" in Kashmiri means
"elevated table-land").
o These sediments are of fluvio-lacustrine and glacio-lacustrine in origin and composed of fine silt, clay,
sand, gravel etc and also characterised with fossils of mammals ; thickness of about 1300-1400 m.
o Meanders: Meanders are formed when moving water erodes outer banks whereas inner part of river,
having less intensity, deposits silt and sediments which results in a snake-like pattern of the water
stream.
o River Jhelum: So, meanders are formed by Jhelum river due to these local base levels of Karewas ,
provided by that formerly existing large lake which drained leaving behind finer sediments. It gets silt
and sediments to deposit when it is in its upper course or youth stage.
Q 18.A
o GDP at market price does not include subsidies while the GVA at factor cost includes both production
and product subsidies. GVA at basic prices though donot includes production subsidies, but includes
product subsidies.
o GVA at factor cost + (Production taxes less Production subsidies) = GVA at basic prices
o GDP at market prices = GVA at basic prices + Product taxes- Product subsidies
Q 19.D
Biopesticides have following advantages:
o Prevents soil erosion - Soil is the foundation of the farming. But chemically fertilized soil is used
excessively for getting extra yield which causes the soil erosion.
o Protect Water quality - Chemical pesticides contaminate the ground water thus polluting the
primary source of our drinking water.
o Promote Biodiversity- Promote Biodiversity - Due to the use of biopesticides, soil becomes rich in
minerals and nutrients which help in promoting biodiversity.
Q 20.D
o Unlike the members of the legislative assembly, the members of the legislative council are indirectly
elected. The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly
and the minimum strength is fixed at 406. It means that the size of the council depends on the size of
the assembly of the concerned state. This is done to ensure the predominance of the directly elected
House (assembly) in the legislative affairs of the state. Though the Constitution has fixed the maximum
and the minimum limits, the actual strength of a Council is fixed by Parliament.
o This scheme of composition of a legislative council as laid down in the Constitution is tentative and not
final. The Parliament is authorised to modify or replace the same. However, it has not enacted any such
law so far.
Q 21.C
o Black Soils: They are generally clayey, deep and impermeable. They swell and become sticky when wet
and shrink when dried. So, during the dry season, these soil develop wide cracks. Thus, there occurs a
kind of 'self ploughing'. Self ploughing occurs in black soil.
o Red and Yellow Soils: The soil develops a reddish colour due to a wide diffusion of iron in crystalline and
metamorphic rocks. It looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form.
o Laterite Soils: They are widely cut as bricks for use in house construction.
o Arid Soils: Lower horizons of the soil are occupied by 'kankar' layers because of the increasing calcium
content downwards. The 'Kankar' layer formation in the bottom horizons restricts the infiltration of
water, and as such when irrigation is made available, the soil moisture is readily available for a
sustainable plant growth.

Q 22.A
o The Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and other Subsidies, benefits and services) Act, 2016 is a
money bill of the Parliament of India. It aims to provide legal backing to the Aadhaar unique
identification number project.
o The Aadhaar Bill plans to use the identification number issued by the Unique Identification Authority of
India (UIDAI), to deliver State subsidies directly into the hands (or actually, bank accounts) of
beneficiaries.
o Identity information and authentication records may be disclosed in the interest of national security.
This will be on the direction of an officer who is at least a Joint Secretary in the central government.
o Demographic information will include name, date of birth, address and other information that is
specified by the UID authority. However, such information cannot include race, religion, caste, tribe,
ethnicity, language, records of entitlement, income or medical of the individual.
o Hence, only statement 1 is correct.
Q 23.B
GDP is the sum total of value of goods and services created within the geographical boundary of a
country in a particular year. However, higher level of GDP of a country may not be a good index of
greater well-being of the people of that country.
There are at least three reasons:
o Distribution of GDP: how uniform is it: if the GDP of the country is rising, the welfare may not rise as
a consequence. This is because the rise in GDP may be concentrated in the hands of very few
individuals or firms. For the rest, the income may in fact have fallen.
o Non-monetary exchanges: It does not take non-monetary transactions into account. Many activities
in an economy are not evaluated in monetary terms. For example, the domestic services women
perform at home are not paid for. Hence, statement 1 is wrong.
o Externalities: Externalities refer to the benefits (or harms) a firm or an individual causes to another
for which they are not paid (or penalised). Externalities do not have any market in which they can be
bought and sold. For example, pollution caused by an oil refinery in the nearby river and the
subsequent loss to environment is not counted in GDP. This is a negative externality. Similarly
positive externality is not included in calculation of GDP.
Q 24.C
o In Jainism the three jewels (also referred to as ratnatraya) are understood as samyagdarshana ("right
faith"), samyagjnana ("right knowledge"), and samyakcharitra ("right action"). One of the three cannot
exist exclusive of the others, and all are required for spiritual liberation. The Triratna is symbolized
frequently in art as a trident.
o In Buddhism the Triratna comprises the Buddha, the dharma (doctrine, or teaching), and the sangha (the
monastic order, or community). One becomes a Buddhist by saying the words "I go to the Buddha for
refuge, I go to the Doctrine for refuge, I go to the Order for refuge."
Q 25.D
o The Goods and Services Tax Bill or GST Bill, officially known as The Constitution (One Hundred and
Twenty-Second Amendment) Bill, 2014, proposes a national Value added Tax to be implemented in
IndiA from June 2016. "Goods and Services Tax" would be a comprehensive indirect tax on manufacture,
sale and consumption of goods and services throughout India, to replace taxes levied by the Central and
State governments.
Q 26.B
o The Himalayan brown bear is the smallest sub-species of the brown bear. They are distributed among
the states of Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand.
o Aestivation or stivation is a state of animal dormancy, similar to hibernation, characterized by
inactivity and a lowered metabolic rate, that is entered in response to high temperatures and arid
conditions. It takes place during times of heat and dryness, the hot dry season, which are often the
summer months. Bears are known to go in hibernation and not in aestivation.
o They are included in the Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act.
Q 27.C
o The Nobel Prize in Physics 2015 recognised Takaaki Kajita in Japan and Arthur B. McDonald in Canada,
for their key contributions to the experiments which demonstrated that neutrinos change identities. This
metamorphosis requires that neutrinos have mass.
o The Standard Model of particle physics is a theory concerning the electromagnetic, weak, and strong
nuclear interactions, as well as classifying all the subatomic particles known.
o According to the Standard Model of particle physics there are three types of neutrinos - electron-
neutrinos, muon-neutrinos and tau-neutrinos. It predicts that neutrinos, which rarely interact with
matter, have no mass.
o The discovery has changed our understanding of the innermost workings of matter and can prove crucial
to our view of the universe. It violates the standard model of particle physics and concluded that
Neutrinos have mass.
Q 28.C
The Tamil Nadu coast remains dry during this season. There are two factors responsible for it:
o The Tamil Nadu coast is situated parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch of southwest monsoon.
o It lies in the rainshadow area of the Arabian Sea branch of the south-west monsoon.
Hence, both the statements are correct.
Q 29.C
During Non-Cooperation Movement many interpreted the message of Mahatma Gandhi in their own
ways; mostly to suit their local grievances:
o The Patidar peasants of Kheda (Gujarat) organized non-violent campaigns against the high land
revenue demand.
o Liquor shops were picketed in coastal Andhra and interior Tamil Nadu.
o The tribals and poor peasants in Guntur district (Andhra Pradesh) staged a number of forest
satyagrahas; to protest against the new forest laws.
o The Khilafat-Non-Cooperation Movement gave enormous support in Sind and Bengal.
o In Punjab, the Akali agitation of the Sikhs demanded to remove the corrupt mahants from
gurdwaras.
o In Assam, the tea garden labourers demanded a big hike in their wages. They shouted the slogan,
"Gandhi Maharaj ki jai". In many folk songs of Assam; Gandhiji was referred to as "Gandhi Raja".
Q 30.B
Fundamental Duties are provided under Article 51A: It shall be the duty of every citizen of India-
o to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the
National Anthem;
o to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom;
o to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;
o to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;
o to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India
transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices
derogatory to the dignity of women;
o to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
o to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to
have compassion for living creatures;
o to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform;
o to safeguard public property and to abjure violence;

o to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation
constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement.
Whereas, to protect monuments, place and objects of artistic or historic interest which are declared to
be of national importance is a DPSP provided under Article 49.
Q 31.A
o The marginal cost of funds based lending rate (MCLR) refers to the minimum interest rate of a bank
below which it cannot lend, except in some cases allowed by the RBI. It is an internal benchmark or
reference rate for the bank. MCLR actually describes the method by which the minimum interest rate for
loans is determined by a bank - on the basis of marginal cost or the additional or incremental cost of
arranging one more rupee to the prospective borrower.
o RBI decided to shift from base rate to MCLR because the rates based on marginal cost of funds are more
sensitive to changes in the policy rates. This is very essential for the effective implementation of
monetary policy. Prior to MCLR system, different banks were following different methodology for
calculation of base rate /minimum rate - that is either on the basis of average cost of funds or marginal
cost of funds or blended cost of funds.
Q 32.A
o India's Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, in its thirty sixth flight (PSLV-C34), launched the Cartosat-2 series
satellite for earth observation and 19 co-passenger satellites together weighing about 560 kg at lift-off
into a 505 km polar Sun Synchronous Orbit (SSO). The co-passenger satellites are from USA, Canada,
Germany and Indonesia as well as two satellites (SATHYABAMASAT and SWAYAM) from Indian
University/Academic Institute.
o With a launch mass of 320,000 kilograms (710,000 lb) and payload mass of 1,288 kilograms (2,840
lb), the C34 set a new record of deploying maximum number of satellites by Indian Space Research
Organisation in a single mission.
o It used both solid and liquid propellants in subsequent stages.
Q 33.B
o The Government of India has taken a pioneering initiative for conserving its national animal, the tiger, by
launching the 'Project Tiger' in 1973.
o Project Tiger is an ongoing Centrally Sponsored Scheme of the Ministry of Environment, Forests and
Climate Change providing central assistance to the tiger States for tiger conservation in designated tiger
reserves.
o The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body of the Ministry, with an
overarching supervisory/coordination role, performing functions as provided in the Wildlife (Protection)
Act, 1972.
o Under Project Tiger, 100% central assistance is provided for non-recurring items of expenditure to the
States, besides 50% matching grant for recurring items (90% for North Eastern States), based on the
Annual Plan of Operations of tiger reserve, proposed by the State vis- -vis the Tiger Conservation Plan.
o Wild tigers are found in 18 of our States, viz. Andhra Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Bihar,
Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Mizoram, Odisha, Rajasthan,
Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal. Project Tiger is being
implemented in these States in collaboration with the respective State Governments. Thus it is not being
implemented in any of the UTs.
Q 34.B
o In the last week of January 2016, the government constituted a five-member expert committee to
review the Specific Relief Act, 1963 and suggest changes needed to remove bottlenecks in execution of
contract-based infrastructure development, public private partnerships and other public projects.
o The Centre is contemplating amendments to the Specific Relief Act, 1963, to limit the compensation and
relief that courts can grant in cases relating to execution of infrastructure and development projects.
o The proposed changes, among other things, seek to lay down guidelines for reducing the discretion
granted to courts and tribunals while granting performance and injunctive relief. This move is among a
series of actions contemplated by the Centre to enhance "ease of doing business". In the government's
assessment, some provisions in the existing law are an impediment for investors, as they fear a long-
drawn litigation process.
Q 35.B
o Article 279: He ascertains and certifies the net proceeds of any tax or duty. His certificate is final. The net
proceeds means the proceeds of a tax or a duty minus the cost of collection.
o Article 151: He submits his audit reports relating to the accounts of the Centre to President, who shall, in
turn, place them before both the Houses of Parliament whereas audit reports relating to the accounts of
a state to Governor, who shall, in turn, place them before the state legislature. Hence, 3rd statement is
not correct.
o He audits all expenditure from the Contingency Fund of India and the Public Account of India as well
as the contingency fund of each state and the public account of each state.
o He audits the accounts related to all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, consolidated fund
of each state and consolidated fund of each union territory having a Legislative Assembly.
Q 36.B
o India was a large island situated off the Australian coast, in a vast ocean. The Tethys Sea separated it
from the Asian continent till about 225 million years ago. India is supposed to have started her
northward journey about 200 million years ago at the time when Pangaea broke.
o During the movement of the Indian plate towards the Asiatic plate, a major event that occurred was the
outpouring of lava and formation of the Deccan Traps. This started somewhere around 60 million years
ago and continued for a long period of time.
o India collided with Asia about 40-50 million years ago causing rapid uplift of the Himalayas.
o Great Plains of North India were formed as a result of filling of a deep depression lying between the
Peninsular and the Himalayan regions by the depositional work of the rivers coming from these two
landmasses.
o Therefore, the correct answer is (b).
Q 37.C
o Both Samkhya and Lokayata schools did not believe in existence of God.
o Samkhya is an atheistic and strongly dualistic orthodox (Astika) school of Indian philosophy. The
Samkhya Sutra (14th c. CE) and its commentaries explicitly attempt to disprove god's existence through
reasoned argument.
o The Lokayata school aslo known as Charvaka school was an atheist school. Its followers rejected the
authority of Vedas and Brahmans.
o The metaphysical ideas of Yoga school were originally close to those of Samkhya school, but they
differed in that they brought a deity in to the picture.
Q 38.B
o Central bank acts as the custodian of the cash reserves of commercial banks and helps in facilitating their
transactions. There are many advantages of keeping the cash reserves of the commercial banks with the
central bank.
o In the first place, the centralisation of cash reserves in the central bank is a source of great strength to
the banking system of a country and inspire the confidence of public in commercial banks. Secondly,
centralised cash reserves can serve as the basis of a large and more elastic credit structure than if the
same amount were scattered among the individual banks.
o Thirdly, centralised cash reserves can be utilised fully and most effectively during periods of seasonal
strains and in financial crises or emergencies. Fourthly, by varying these cash reserves the central bank
can control the credit creation by commercial banks. Lastly, the central bank can provide additional
funds on a temporary and short term basis to commercial banks to overcome their financial difficulties.
o It doesn't keep centralised cash reserves to have a say in appointment in in commercial banks board of
directors. Hence only statement 3 is not correct. Hence only statement 3 is not correct.
Q 39.B
o The Treaty of Lisbon, which came into effect in 2009, does allow a nation to secede from the European
Union.
o Paragraph 1 of Article 50 of the treaty states: "Any Member State may decide to withdraw from the
Union in accordance with its own constitutional requirements."
Q 40.C
o Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) are regions of outstanding biodiversity that
reflect the natural evolution of farming and may help provide natural solutions to changing climates in
the future. India has three Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) sites-
Pampore (J&K)
Koratpur (Odisha)
Kuttanad (Kerala)
o The Kuttanad Below Sea-level Farming System (KBSFS) is unique, as it is the only system in India that
practices rice cultvation below sea level. The major land use structure of KBSFS is at stretches of rice
fields in about 50,000 ha of mostly reclaimed delta swamps. The rice fields, which are popularly known
as "Puncha Vayals" exist in three landscape elements: Karapadam (upland rice filelds), Kayal (wetland
rice fields) and Kari (land buried with black coal like materials).
o Farmers of Kuttanad have developed and mastered the spectacular technique of below sea level
cultivation over 150 year ago. They made this system unique as it contributes remarkably well to the
conservation of biodiversity and ecosystem services including several livelihood services for local
communities.
Q 41.D
o A sitting President or Vice-President of the Union, the Governor of any state and a minister of the Union
or any state is not deemed to hold any office of profit.
o The expression "office of profit" has not been defined in the Constitution or in the Representation of
the People Act, 1951. It is for the courts to explain the significance and meaning of this concept. Over
the years, courts have decided this issue in the context of specific factual situations.
Q 42.C
o The two distinguishing features of Himachal and Uttaranchal Himalayas region from the point of view of
physiography are the 'Shiwalik' and "Dun formations".
o Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas along with the Arunachal Himalayas are conspicuous by the absence of
the Shiwalik formations. In place of the Shiwaliks here, the 'duar formations' are important, which have
also been used for the development of tea gardens (and not coffee gardens).
Q 43.D
o The Arya Samaj Movement was an outcome of reaction to Western influences. Dayanand Saraswati, its
founder, rejected Western ideas and sought to revive the ancient religion of the Aryans. He disregarded
the authority of later Hindu scriptures like the Puranas and described them as the work of lesser men
and responsible for the evil practices of idol worship and other superstitious beliefs in Hindu religion.
o In 1893, the Arya Samaj split on two issues of meat eating vs Vegetarianism and Anglicised vs. Sanskrit
based education.
Q 44.B
National Disaster Management Plan (NDMP):
o This is the first ever national plan prepared in the country.
o It aims to make India disaster resilient and significantly reduce the loss of lives and assets.

o The plan is based on the four priority themes of the "Sendai Framework", namely: understanding
disaster risk, improving disaster risk governance, investing in disaster risk reduction (through
structural and non-structural measures) and disaster preparedness, early warning and building back
better in the aftermath of a disaster.
o It calls for ethical guidelines for the media for coverage of disasters as well as self-regulation.
o The plan also spells out the roles and responsibilities of all levels of Government right up to
Panchayat and Urban Local Body level in a matrix format. The plan has a regional approach, which
will be beneficial not only for disaster management but also for development planning.
o It is designed in such a way that it can be implemented in a scalable manner in all phases of disaster
management.
o It also identifies major activities such as early warning, information dissemination, medical care, fuel,
transportation, search and rescue, evacuation, etc. to serve as a checklist for agencies responding to
a disaster.
o It also provides a generalized framework for recovery and offers flexibility to assess a situation and
build back better.
To prepare communities to cope with disasters, it emphasizes on a greater need for Information,
Education and Communication activities.
Q 45.C
o In Mutualism, the interaction confers benefits on both the interacting species. Examples of mutualism
are found in plant-animal relationships. Plants need the help of animals for pollinating their flowers and
dispersing their seeds whereas, in Commensalism interaction, one species benefits and the other is
neither harmed nor benefited e.g. Suckerfish attached to a shark.
o Competition is most typically considered the interaction of individuals that vie for a common resource
that is in limited supply, but more generally can be defined as the direct or indirect interaction of
organisms that leads to a change in fitness when the organisms share the same resource. The outcome
usually has negative effects on the weaker competitors.
o Predation requires one individual, the predator, to kill and eat another individual, the prey. Biological
control methods adopted in agricultural pest control are based on the ability of the predator to regulate
prey population. Besides acting as conduits for energy transfer across trophic levels, predators play
other important roles. They keep prey populations under control. But for predators, prey species could
achieve very high population densities and cause ecosystem instability. Predators also help in
maintaining species diversity in a community, by reducing the intensity of competition among competing
prey species.
Q 46.A
o REITs are similar to mutual funds. While mutual funds provide for an opportunity to invest in equity
stocks, REITs allow one to invest in income-generating real estate assets. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o REITs raise funds from a large number of investors and directly invest that sum in income-generating real
estate properties (which could be offices, residential apartments, shopping centres, hotels and
warehouses). The trusts are listed in stock exchanges so that investors can buy units in the trust. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
o FDI is prohibited in lottery, gambling, atomic energy, real estate investment trusts (ReIT), and railway
operations. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Q 47.D
86th Amendment:
o Insertion of new article 21A.- After article 21 of the Constitution, the following article shall be
inserted, namely:
o Right to education: "21A. The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of
the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine".
o Substitution of new article for article 45. - For article 45 of the Constitution, the following article
shall be substituted, namely: Provision for early childhood care and education to children below the
age of six years. "45. The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all
children until they complete the age of six years".
o Amendment of article 51A. In article 51A of the Constitution, after clause (J), the following clause
shall be added, namely: "(k) who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his
child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years".
o Thus it has bearing on part III, IV and IVA of the constitution.
Q 48.B
Kuril Island: All the islands are currently under Russian jurisdiction. Japan claims the two southernmost
large islands (Iturup and Kunashir) as part of its territory.
Both Paracel Islands and Spartly Islands are associated with South China sea conflict.
o The Paracel Islands: disputed between the People's Republic of China, the Republic of China, and
Vietnam.
o The Pratas Islands, disputed between the People's Republic of China and the Republic of China.
o The Macclesfield Bank, disputed between the People's Republic of China, the Republic of China and
the Philippines, with no land above sea level.
o The Scarborough Shoal, disputed between the People's Republic of China, the Philippines, and the
Republic of China, with only rocks above sea level.
o Spratly Islands: Brunei, China, Malaysia, Philippines and Vietnam are involved in the conflict.
o Falkland Island is the region of conflict between Britain and Argentina.
Q 49.B
o There are three gold fields in the country, namely Kolar and Hutti Gold Field in Karnataka and Ramgiri
Gold Field in Andhra Pradesh.
o In India, Anthracite coal is found only in Jammu and Kashmir and that too in small quantity.
o Potential Geothermal Energy in India include Manikaran (Himachal Pradesh), Puga Valley (J&K) and
Tattapani (Chhatisgarh).
Q 50.C
o Evidence of water harvesting and management have been found even in the Indus Valley civilization.
Archaeological evidence of irrigation and drinking water supply systems through a large number of wells
with bricks lining have been found at several Indus valley sites. Dholavira, an Indus valley site had several
reservoirs to collect rain water. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o Kautilya's Arthashastra mentions dams and bunds that were built for irrigation during the period of the
Mauryan empire. Rajatarangini of Kalhana gives a detailed account of irrigation systems developed in
the 12th century Kashmir. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Q 51.D
o Water borne diseases spread by contamination of drinking water systems with the urine and faeces of
infected animal or people. Examples - Hepatitis A, Typhoid, Cholera, Diarrhoea, E Coli, Polio etc.
o This is likely to occur where public and private drinking water systems get their water from surface
waters (rain, creeks, rivers, lakes etc.), which can be contaminated by infected animals or people. Runoff
from landfills, septic fields, sewer pipes, residential or industrial developments can also sometimes
contaminate surface water.
o The germs in the faeces can cause the diseases by even slight contact and transfer. This contamination
may occur due to floodwaters, water runoff from landfills, septic fields, and sewer pipes.
Q 52.B
o Critical wildlife habitats (CWH) are defined under the Forest Rights Act, 2006, as the areas of national
parks and sanctuaries where it has been specifically and clearly established, case by case, on the basis of
scientific and objective criteria, that such areas are required to be kept as inviolate for the purposes of
wildlife conservation.
o Critical Wildlife Habitats are to be declared by the Central Government in the Ministry of Environment
and Forests after a process of consultation by Expert Committees.
Q 53.A
The Constitution lays down the following qualifications for a person to be chosen a member of the state
legislature.
o He must be a citizen of India.
o He must make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the person authorised by the Election
Commission for this purpose. In his oath or affirmation, he swears:
To bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India
To uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India
o He must be not less than 30 years of age in the case of the legislative council and not less than 25
years of age in the case of the legislative assembly.
o He must posses other qualifications prescribed by Parliament.
Accordingly, the Parliament has laid down the following additional qualifications in the Representation
of People Act (1951):
o A person to be elected to the legislative council must be an elector for an assembly constituency in
the concerned state and to be qualified for the governor's nomination, he must be a resident in the
concerned state.
o A person to be elected to the legislative assembly must be an elector for an assembly constituency in
the concerned state.
o He must be a member of a scheduled caste or scheduled tribe if he wants to contest a seat reserved
for them. However, a member of scheduled castes or scheduled tribes can also contest a seat not
reserved for them.
o Hence, statements 2 and 3 are not a constitutional provisions but are provided in Representation
of People Act (1951).
Q 54.C
o India continues to be among the top ten countries in terms of foreign direct investment (FDI) inflows
globally and the fourth in developing Asia, as per the World Investment Report 2016 by the United
Nations Conference for Trade and Development (UNCTAD).
o India ranks 10th after USA, Hongkong China, China, Ireland, Netherlands, Switzerland, Singapore, Brazil
and Canada. Hence both statements are wrong.
Q 55.B
Groundwater
o Erosional Landforms - Pools, Sinkholes, Lapies and Limestone Pavements, Caves
o Depositional Landforms - Stalactites, Stalagmites and Pillars
Glaciers
o Erosional Landforms - Cirque, Horns and Serrated Ridges, Glacial Valleys/Troughs
o Depositional Landforms - Moraines, Eskers, Outwash Plains, Drumlins
Winds
o Erosional Landforms - Pediments and Pediplains, Playas, Deflation Hollows and Caves, Mushroom, Table
and Pedestal Rocks
o Depositional Landforms - Sand Dunes, Barchans
Waves and Currents
o Erosional Landforms - Cliffs, Terraces, Caves and Stacks
o Depositional Landforms - Beaches and Dunes, Bars, Barriers and Spits
Q 56.C
o An FCNR account is a term deposit account that can be maintained by NRIs and PIOs in foreign currency.
FCNRs are not savings accounts but fixed deposit accounts.
o The balance in FCNR account for making local payments in India.
o India's external debt at the end of 2015-16 grew $10.6 billion or 2.2 per cent, year on year, to $485.6
billion, primarily on account of a rise in non-resident Indian (NRI) deposits, including the FCNR(B)
deposits.

o The primary feature of FCNR (B) deposits is that depositors do not face currency risk, the currency risk is
borne by banks.
Q 57.C
o Pune Sarvajanik Sabha, was a sociopolitical organisation established in 1870 which started with the aim
of working as a mediating body between the government and people of India. The organisation was a
precursor to the Indian National Congress which started with its first session from Maharashtra itself. It
was formed in 1870 by S. H. Chiplunkar, Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi, Mahadev Govind Ranade. Bal Gangadhar
Tilak was also associated with it.
o Dr Ambedkar was associated with Poona Pact annd not Poona Sarvajanik Sabha.
o Mahad Satyagraha was a satyagraha led by B. R. Ambedkar in 1927 to allow untouchables to use water
in a public tank in Mahad (currently in Raigad district), Maharashtra.
o Independent Labour Party (ILP) was an Indian political organisation formed under the leadership of Dr. B.
R. Ambedkar in August 1936 against the brahmanical and capitalist structures in the society. ILP argued
for Indian labour class while also stressing on the nature of caste structures and need for its annihilation.
o Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha established in 1924 is a central institution formed by B.R.Ambedkar for
removing difficulties of the untouchables and placing their grievances before government.
Q 58.B
o While conventional rocket engines need to carry both fuel and oxidiser on board for combustion to
produce thrust, scramjets obtain oxygen from the atmosphere by compressing the incoming air before
combustion at hypersonic speed. The scramjet engine can also liquefy the oxygen and store it on board.
Q 59.B
o Bharatnatyam Dance is considered to be over 2000 years old. Several texts beginning with Bharata
Muni's Natya Shastra (200 B.C.E. to 200 C.E.) provide information on this dance form. The Abhinaya
Darpana by Nandikesvara is one of the main sources of textual material, for the study of the technique
and grammar of body movement in Bharatnatyam Dance. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o Bharatnatyam dance is known to be ekaharya, where one dancer takes on many roles in a single
performance. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o In Kathakali, the face of the artist is painted over to appear as though a mask is worn. Hence, statement
3 is not correct.
Q 60.C
o Coal bed methane refers to a reserve of natural gas stored in coal seams. Methane is associated with
coal as a by product of the coal formation process. It is trapped in coal beds and released during and
after mining. This methane does cause disasters in underground coal mines.
o With India having the fourth largest proven reserves of coal globally, according to the Directorate
General of Hydrocarbons, the country holds significant prospects for exploration and production of CBM,
which is also seen as a clean energy source.
o Currently, Great Eastern Energy Corporation and Essar Oil are the only two CBM-gas producing blocks
in the country, both from separate reserves in Raniganj, West Bengal. Reliance Industries has reportedly
begun test production from its two blocks in Madhya Pradesh.
Q 61.D
o The Kushanas introduced the satrap system of government. The empire was divided into numerous
satrapies, and each satrapy was placed under the rule of a satrap. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o The Kushans controlled the Silk Route, which started from China and passed through their empire in
Central Asia and Afghanistan to Iran. This route was a source of great income to the Kushans and they
built a large prosperous empire because of the tolls levied from the traders. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
o The Kushana rulers worshipped both Shiva and the Buddha and the images of these two gods appeared
on the Kushana coins. Several Kushan rulers were worshippers of Vishnu such as the Kushan ruler
Vasudev. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q 62.B
o Bundelkhand Uplands - It is spread over the states of Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
o Ajanta Range - It lies completely inside Maharashtra.
o Dandakaranya - It is spread over the states of Orissa, Chattisgarh and Andhra Pradesh.
Q 63.D
Q 64.D
o USA is an example of presidential form of government while India follows parliamentary system. The
manner of election of president is entirely different in India and USA.
o System of collective responsibility is a constitutional convention in governments using the Westminster
System that members of the cabinet must publicly support all governmental decisions made in Cabinet,
even if they do not privately agree with them. It is a feature of parliamentary system and not of
presidential system.
o While there is single citizenship in India, in USA there is dual citizenship (Citizenship of both country and
state).
o While in India, there is integrated judiciary, in USA there is a dual court system. All states have their own
supreme court along with federal Supreme Court. Thus D is the correct answer.
Q 65.C
o Rajasthani or Rajput paintings developed under patronage of different kingdoms of Rajputana area in
western India. Rajasthani painting consists of four principal schools that have within them several artistic
styles and sub styles that can be traced to the various princely states that patronised these artists. The
four principal schools are as follows:
The Mewar School
The Marwar school
The Hadoti school
The Dhundar school

Q 66.C
o Biofouling is considered as one of the main vectors for bioinvasions and is described as the undesirable
accumulation of microorganisms, plants, algae and animals on submerged structures (especially ships
hulls).
o Studies have shown that biofouling can be a significant vector for the transfer of invasive aquatic
species. Biofouling on ships entering the waters of States may result in the establishment of invasive
aquatic species which may pose threats to human, animal and plant life, economic and cultural activities
and the aquatic environment.
o The potential for invasive aquatic species transferred through biofouling to cause harm has been
recognized by the IMO, the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), several UNEP Regional Seas
Conventions (e.g. Barcelona Convention for the Protection of the Mediterranean Sea Against Pollution),
the Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation forum (APEC) and the Secretariat of the Pacific Region
Environment Programme (SPREP).
Q 67.B
o Blood group system, the classification of human blood based on the inherited properties of red blood
cells (erythrocytes) as determined by the presence or absence of the antigens A and B, which are carried
on the surface of the red cells. Persons may thus have type A, type B, type O, or type AB blood.
o An antigen is any substance to which the immune system can respond. For example, components of the
bacterial cell wall can trigger severe and immediate attacks by neutrophils.
o If the immune system encounters an antigen that is not found on the body's own cells, it will launch an
attack against that antigen. Conversely, antigens that are found on the body's own cells are known as
"self-antigens", and the immune system does not normally attack these.
o An antibody (Ab), also known as an immunoglobulin (Ig), is a large, Y-shaped protein produced mainly by
plasma cells that is used by the immune system to identify and neutralize pathogens such as bacteria
and viruses.
o People with blood group AB do not have antibodies in it but both A and B antigens.
o People with blood group AB are called universal receptor as they do not have antibodies so they can
take blood from all other blood groups.

Q 68.D
o All the three statements are correct.
o Tea - It thrives well in hot and humid climate. The ideal conditions for its growth is 20-30 degree C. It
requires 150-300 cm annual rainfall. It is a shade-loving plant. It is grown at elevations from 600 to 1600
mts above sea level.
o Coffee - It requires hot and humid climate with temperatures varying between 15-28 degree C and
rainfall from 150 to 250 cm. It is also a shade-loving plant. It is also grown at elevations from 600 to 1600
mts above sea level.
Q 69.D
o The Wassenaar Arrangement has been established in order to contribute to regional and international
security and stability, by promoting transparency and greater responsibility in transfers of conventional
arms and dual-use goods and technologies, thus preventing destabilising accumulations.
o The Australia Group (AG) is an informal forum of countries which, through the harmonisation of export
controls, seeks to ensure that exports do not contribute to the development of chemical or biological
weapons.
Q 70.B
o MPC was set up consequent to the agreement reached between Government and RBI to task RBI with
the responsibility for price stability and inflation targeting. The Reserve Bank of India and Government of
India signed the Monetary Policy Framework Agreement.
o Subsequently, the government, while unveiling the Union Budget for 2016-17 in the Parliament,
proposed to amend the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 for giving a statutory backing to the
aforementioned Monetary Policy Framework Agreement and for setting up a Monetary Policy
Committee (MPC).
o Under the Monetary Policy Framework Agreement, the RBI will be responsible for containing inflation
targets at 4% (with a standard deviation of 2%) in the medium term.
o The Central Government will determine the inflation target in terms of the Consumer Price Index,
once in every five years in consultation with the RBI. (Hence Statement 1 is wrong).
o The MPC takes decisions based on majority vote (by those who are present and voting). In case of a tie,
the RBI governor will have the second or casting vote. The decision of the Committee would be binding
on the RBI.
o Composition: The six-member Committee will comprise three members from RBI, including the
Governor, who will be the ex-officio chairperson, a Deputy Governor and one officer of the central bank.
o The other three members will be appointed by the Centre on the recommendations of a search-cum-
selection committee to be headed by the Cabinet Secretary.
Q 71.B
o Charles Wood's Education Dispatch signalled a shift away from the downward filtration policy, as it
recommended the extension of vernacular elementary education.
o Raja Rammohun Roy sent a memorandum to the governor general protesting against the founding of
the Sanskrit College in Calcutta. Roy represented a generation of Indians who beleived that
modernisation of India would come through English education and the dissemination of knowledge of
the western sciences.
o The Aligarh Scientific Society started in 1868, by Syed Ahmed Khan contributed to discourse of science in
India.
Q 72.C
o In the Savannah biome, in order for the grasses to survive the dry season and the periodic fires, they
have developed an adaptation that allows them to grow quickly when there is adequate water. Then
when water becomes scarce, the grasses turn brown to limit water loss. They store necessary moisture
and nutrients in their roots while they await the return of the rainy season. With food and water
reserves stored below ground, the grasses are able to survive the effects of fire as well. In fact, fire
stimulates new growth and replenishes the soil with nutrients.
Q 73.A
o Statement 1 is correct: If Prime Minister of India is from upper house he will not be able to vote in his
favour in case of a no-confidence motion.
o Statement 2 is not correct: A Council of Minister from upper house can make statements in lower house
also.
Q 74.D
o The Brahmi script is one of the most important writing systems in the world by virtue of its time depth
and influence. It represents the earliest post-Indus corpus of texts, and some of the earliest historical
inscriptions found in India. Most importantly, it is the ancestor to hundreds of scripts found in South,
Southeast, and East Asia.
o This elegant script appeared in India most certainly by the 5th century BCE. (Mauryan Age).
o The Gupta script (c. 300 A.D. to 550 A.D.) is considered to be the successor of the Kushana script in
north India.
o Thus, from the 6th to about 10th century A.D., the inscriptions in north India were written in a script
which was called by different names like Siddhamatrika and Kutila. From the 8th century A.D., the
Siddhamatrika script developed into Sarada script in Kashmir and Punjab, into Proto-Bengali or Gaudi in
Bengal and Orissa and into Nagari in other parts of north India. Nagari script was used widely in northern
India from the 10th century onwards. The use of Nandinagari, a variant of Nagari script, is mostly
confined to the Karnataka region.
o The Modi script was used to write the Marathi language spoken in the Indian state of Maharashtra. It
originated as a cursive variant of the script during the 17th century CE. Modi script was used until the
1950's when Devanagari replaced it as the written medium of the Marathi language.
Q 75.C
o The apparent annual oscillation of the sun causes a seasonal change in the surface temperature.
However, this change on the surface water of the oceans is comparatively less, than on the land
surfaces. The annual range of temperature is greater in the Atlantic Ocean than in the Pacific Ocean. This
is due to difference in their sizes.
o The isotherms over the oceans do not run parallel to the lines of latitudes. They are affected by the
prevailing winds and the ocean currents. In the temperate zone, the eastern sections of the oceans are
warmer than the western sections. This is due to the influence of the westerlies.
Q 76.C
o There are macro variables, a rise in level of which leads to a fall in the level of output in the economy.
These include (i) saving (ii) imports (iii) government taxes. A rise in level of any of these variables implies

a fall in level of demand for the domestically produced goods. This leads to a fall in the level of the
output in the economy.
o There are macro variables, a rise in the level of which leads to a rise in the level of output in the
economy. These include (i) government consumption expenditure (ii) government investment
expenditure (iii) exports. A rise in the level of any these variables implies a rise in the level of demand for
goods produced in the domestic economy. This is expected to cause a rise in the level of output in the
economy.
Q 77.D
o India was recently admitted into the MTCR.
o Except China, all other BRICS countries are member of MTCR. In 2004 China applied to join the MTCR,
but members did not offer China membership because of concerns about China's export control
standards.
o Pakistan is also not a member of MTCR
Q 78.A
Nutrient transformations and interactions:
o Mineralization is the conversion of a nutrient from the organic (i.e. bound to carbon and hydrogen)
form to the inorganic form. The process occurs when organic materials, such as soil organic matter,
manure, plant residue, or biosolids, are decomposed by soil microorganisms. The nutrient is
released, and is available for uptake by new plants.
o Immobilization is the reverse process of mineralization, wherein nutrients are converted from the
inorganic to organic forms (i.e. taken by soil microbes and incorporated into their cells), making
them unavailable to plants.
o Nutrient uptake antagonism refers to the competition between nutrients for uptake by plants. The
two nutrients, often ions with the same charge, are said to be antagonistic with regard to the other.
Some examples include:
Phosphorus excess can lead to reduced zinc uptake
Potassium excess has been found to reduce magnesium uptake and vice versa
Calcium excess can cause boron or magnesium deficiencies
Q 79.A
o Some of the earliest bhakti movements (c. sixth century) were led by the Alvars (literally, those who are
"immersed" in devotion to Vishnu) and Nayanars (literally, leaders who were devotees of Shiva). They
travelled from place to place singing hymns in Tamil in praise of their gods. Alvars and Nayanars initiated
a movement of protest against the caste system and the dominance of Brahmanas or at least attempted
to reform the system.
o One of the major anthologies of compositions by the Alvars, the Nalayira Divyaprabandham,was
frequently described as the Tamil Veda, thus claiming that the text was as significant as the four Vedas
in Sanskrit.
o One of the most striking features of these traditions was the presence of women. For instance, the
compositions of Andal, a woman Alvar, were widely sung (and continue to be sung to date).
o Both Tantricism and Lingayat developed after Alvars and Naynars and didn't influence Alvars and
Naynars.
Q 80.D
o Ninth Schedule: Added by 1st amendment in 1951. Contains acts & orders related to land tenure, land
tax, railways, industries.
o Tenth Schedule: Added by 52nd amendment in 1985. Contains provisions of disqualification of grounds
of defection.
o Eleventh Schedule: By 73rd amendment in 1992. Contains provisions of Panchayati Raj.
o Twelfth Schedule: By 74thamendment in 1992. Contains provisions of Municipal Corporation.
Q 81.C
o By the second Treaty of Allahabad (August 1765, fallout of Battle of Plassey) the Emperor Shah Alam was
taken under the company's protection and was to reside at Allahabad. He was assigned Allahabad and
Kora ceded by Nawab of Oudh. The Emperor in turn issued a firman on 12th August 1765 granting to the
Company in perpetuity the Diwani of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa in return for the company making an
annual payment of Rs.26 lakhs to him and providing for the expenses of the Nizamat of the said
provinces which was fixed at Rs. 53 lakhs.
o Clive's solution of the political tangle of Bengal was the setting up of the infamous Dual System or
Dyarchy i.e. 'rule of two', the Company and the Nawab.
o For the exercise of the Diwani functions , the Company appointed two Deputy Diwans, Mohammad Reza
Khan for Bengal and Raja Shitab Roy for Bihar. Mohammad Reza Khan also acted as Deputy Nizam. Thus,
the whole administration i.e. the Nizamat and Diwani, was exercised through Indian agency, though the
actual power rested with the Company.
Q 82.C
o Out of the total utilisable water resource (1122 km3), surface water (690 km3) dominates over ground
water (432 km3).
o Agriculture accounts for most of the both surface and ground water utilization. It accounts for close to
90 per cent of both surface water and ground water utilization.
o Hence, both the statements are correct.
Q 83.C
o The income elasticity of demand is a measure of the relationship between a change in the quantity
demanded for a particular good and a change in real income. It refers to the sensitivity of the quantity
demanded for a certain product in response to a change in consumer incomes.
o The formula for calculating income elasticity of demand is: Income Elasticity of Demand = % change in
quantity demanded / % change in income
o Normal goods have a positive income elasticity of demand. As incomes rise, more goods are demanded
at each price level. The quantity demanded for normal necessities will increase with income, but at a
slower rate than luxury goods. This is because consumers, rather than buying more of the necessities,
will likely use their increased income to purchase more luxury goods and services. During a period of
increasing incomes, the quantity demanded for luxury products tends to increase at a higher rate than
the quantity demanded for necessities. The quantity demanded for luxury goods is very sensitive to
changes in income.
o Inferior goods have a negative income elasticity of demand - the quantity demanded for inferior goods
falls as incomes rise. For example, the quantity demanded for generic food items tends to decrease
during periods of increased incomes.
Q 84.A
o The UNFCCC is a "Rio Convention", one of three adopted at the "Rio Earth Summit" in 1992. Its sister
Rio Conventions are the UN Convention on Biological Diversity and the Convention to Combat
Desertification.
o The treaty itself is not legally binding as it does not set mandatory limits on greenhouse gas emissions
for individual countries and doesn't contain any enforcement mechanisms.
o The ultimate objective of the Convention is to "stabilise (and not eliminate) greenhouse gas
concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that will prevent dangerous human interference with the
climate system." It states that "such a level should be achieved within a time-frame sufficient to allow
ecosystems to adapt naturally to climate change, to ensure that food production is not threatened, and
to enable economic development to proceed in a sustainable manner."
Q 85.B
o The FRBM Act specifies the annual reduction targets for fiscal indicators. The FRBM rules of 2004
specifies reduction of fiscal deficit to 3% of the GDP by 2008-09 with annual reduction target of 0.3% of
GDP per year by the Central government. Similarly, revenue deficit has to be reduced by 0.5% of the GDP
per year with complete elimination to be achieved by 2008-09.
o By the Finance Act 2015, the target dates for achieving the prescribed rates of effective revenue deficit
and fiscal deficit were further extended. The effective revenue deficit will now need to be eliminated by
March 2018. The 3% target of fiscal deficit to be achieved the end of 2017-18.
o In the Union Budget 2016-17 it was proposed to constitute a Committee to review the implementation
of the FRBM Act and give its recommendations on the way forward. This was in view of the new school
of thought which believes that instead of fixed numbers as fiscal deficit targets, it may be better to have
a fiscal deficit range as the target, which would give necessary policy space to the Government to deal
with dynamic situations. There is also a suggestion that fiscal expansion or contraction should be aligned
with credit contraction or expansion respectively, in the economy. While remaining committed to fiscal
prudence and consolidation, Budget stated that a time has come to review the working of the FRBM Act,
especially in the context of the uncertainty and volatility which have become the new norms of global
economy.
Q 86.D
All the given are used as Performance-enhancing drug:
o Erythropoietin (EPO): Taking erythropoietin, or EPO, increases red blood cell production without the
need for transfusions. The kidneys make the hormone naturally, although people with severe kidney
disease don't have enough.
o Human growth hormone (hGH): It mimics the muscle-building effects of anabolic steroids. It occurs
naturally in the body. In fact, the pituitary gland, the pea-sized organ located at the base of the
brain, produces hGH to stimulate growth in children and adolescents and to increase muscle mass in
adults.
o Testosterone: Occuring naturally in the body, testosterone has two distinct modes of action,
androgenic (masculinizing) and anabolic (tissue building).
o Insulin: Insulin is a popular performance-enhancing drug for bodybuilders, who use it to boost their
stamina.
Q 87.C
o Tebhaga movement saw involvement of women at high level. It saw widespread autonomous action of
the "proletariat and semi proletariat women:, belonging to dalit and tribal communities. Through their
own initiative they formed Nari Bahinis or women's brigades and resisted the colonial police with
whatever weapon they could lay their hands on.
o The Government of India Act of 1935 increased the ratio of female voters to 1:5 and gave women
reserved seats in the legislature.
o Women's Indian Association was started by enlightened European and Indian ladies, the most important
being Margaret Cousins and Annie Besant.
o In 1928, Subash Chandra Bose was instrumental in raising under the leadership of "Colonel" Latika
Ghosh a Congress women's volunteer corps that had marched on the streets of Calcutta in full uniform.
Q 88.D
The variations in cropping pattern in India are due to:
o Geographical factors: Relief, Soil, Temperature, Rainfall.
o Economic factors: Irrigation, size of land holdings, sale price of crops and income of farmers,
insurance and investment. eg- the main reasson of groundnut replacing cotton in Madhya Pradesh is
easy availability of better quality groundnut seeds to the farmers.
o Political Factors and Government Policies: e.g.- increase in production of foodgrains and decrease in
the cultivation of tobacco and poppy are largely the result of government policies.
Q 89.A
o Governor reserves the bill for the consideration of the President. In one case such reservation is
obligatory, that is, where the bill passed by the state legislature endangers the position of the state
high court. (Article 200)
o In addition, the Governor can also reserve the bill if it is of the following nature:
Ultra-vires, that is, against the provisions of the Constitution.
Opposed to the Directive Principles of State Policy.
Against the larger interest of the country.
Of grave national importance.
Dealing with compulsory acquisition of property under Article 31A of the Constitution.
Q 90.C
o A typical lake has distinct zones of biological communities linked to its physical structure: littoral,
limentic, benthic and profundal.
o The littoral zone is the near shore area where sunlight penetrates all the way to the sediment and allows
aquatic plants (macrophytes) to grow. The 1 % light level defines the euphotic zone of the lake, which is
the layer from the surface to the depth where light levels become too low for photosynthesis.
o The limnetic zone includes all the waters beyond the littoral zone and down to the light compensation
level. The community of the limnetic zone is composed only of plankton, nekton, and sometimes
neuston.
o The third component of the lake habitat is benthic zone (the bottom of the lake), covered by fine layers
of mud in which animals live.
o The deepest part of the open water forms profoundal zone. Photosynthesis does not take place in
benthic and profundal zones as light does not penetrate here.
Q 91.C
o Human Genome Project-write (HGP-write)- to write or build an artificial human genome with
sophisticated bioengineering tools.
o The Human Genome Project (HGP) was a large, international and multi-institutional effort that took 13
years [1990-2003] and $2.7 billion to produce a blueprint of the sequence of genes and spaces between
genes that make up a typical human genome. The original HGP was a "read" in that it used chemicals
and instruments to decipher the genome for the first time. Fast forward to 2016 and another project,
called the Human Genome Project-write (HGP-write), now underway to synthesise a human genome
from scratch.
o The tools, techniques and technologies that are going to be developed through HGP-write will be
universally applicable to all organisms, especially at an earlier stage for organisms with smaller genomes
(for example, viruses), towards building individual genes and genomes efficiently and in an inexpensive
manner.
o The potential benefits of HGP-write to India include providing new solutions to diseases like malaria,
dengue and chikungunya.
Q 92.B
o Two major biomes are represented in Manas - the grassland biome and the forest biome. Manas, at the
base of foot hills of the Bhutan-Himalayas in the state of Assam, with unique biodiversity and landscape
is one of the first reserves included in the network of tiger reserve under Project tiger in 1973.
o The last population of the Pygmy Hog survive in the wilds of Manas and nowhere else in the world.
Q 93.C
o Group of Monuments at Hampi: The austere, grandiose site of Hampi was the last capital of the last
great Hindu Kingdom of Vijayanagar. Its fabulously rich princes built Dravidian temples and palaces
which won the admiration of travellers between the 14th and 16th centuries.
o Group of Monuments at Pattadakal: Pattadakal, in Karnataka, represents the high point of an eclectic
art which, in the 7th and 8th centuries under the Chalukya dynasty, achieved a harmonious blend of
architectural forms from northern and southern India. An impressive series of nine Hindu temples, as
well as a Jain sanctuary, can be seen there. One masterpiece from the group stands out-the Temple of
Virupaksha, built c. 740 by Queen Lokamahadevi to commemorate her husband's victory over the kings
from the South.
o Group of Monuments at Mahabalipuram: This group of sanctuaries, founded by the Pallava kings, was
carved out of rock along the Coromandel coast in the 7th and 8th centuries. It is known especially for its
rathas (temples in the form of chariots), mandapas (cave sanctuaries), giant open-air reliefs such as the
famous 'Descent of the Ganges', and the temple of Rivage, with thousands of sculptures to the glory of
Shiva.
Q 94.B
The extra tropical cyclone differs from the tropical cyclone in number of ways:
o The extra tropical cyclones have a clear frontal system which is not present in the tropical cyclones.
o They cover a larger area and can originate over the land and sea. Whereas the tropical cyclones
originate only over the seas and on reaching the land they dissipate.
o The extra tropical cyclone affects a much larger area as compared to the tropical cyclone. The wind
velocity in a tropical cyclone is much higher and it is more destructive.
o The extra tropical cyclones move from west to east but tropical cyclones, move from east to west.
Both rotate in similar manner. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Q 95.D
o The scientists of the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) (a body of ISRO), Thiruvananthapuram, have
showcased the ceramic-polymer hybrid (CASPOL), a spin-off product that could protect public transport
systems and poor men residing in thatched homes from fire accidents.
o Besides its ability to protect against fire and high temperature, Caspol can also make surfaces
waterproof. When applied over the concrete surface of buildings, fill up the micro cracks and holes on
concrete to prevent water from seeping in. When applied over concrete surface of buildings, the high
emissivity of the product reduces the temperature inside the building by at least 5 to 6 degree Celsius.
o The centre has described the product as one which is eco-friendly as it is free of toxic materials. It could
be applied either by brushing or spraying on the desired surface. The economic, water-based
formulation with self-extinguishing properties could cure in room temperature and has good adhesion
and water repellent characteristics.
Q 96.A
o Start up India Action Plan is an initiative of Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP).
o Startup India campaign is based on an action plan aimed at promoting bank financing for start-up
ventures to boost entrepreneurship and encourage start ups with jobs creation. The campaign was first
announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in his 15 August, 2015 address from the Red Fort.
Q 97.B
o A dark-sky reserve is an area, usually surrounding a park or observatory, that is kept free of artificial light
pollution. The purpose of a dark sky preserve is generally to promote astronomy.
Q 98.A
o Tejas is India's first indigenous light combat aircraft (LCA), which is all set to replace the MiG-21 series. It
was designed and developed by Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) and HAL.
o Tejas is the smallest and lightest Multi-Role Supersonic Fighter Aircraft of its class.
o Defence Minister has pointed out that Tejas will also be available for export to friendly nations. Sri Lanka
is slated to be a possible export customer.
Q 99.C
o Agricultural extension is the application of scientific research and knowledge to agricultural practices
through farmer education. Generally, agricultural extension can be defined as the "delivery of
information inputs to farmers."
o Extension services are classified into 3 types:

Technology transfer: the traditional model of the transfer of advice, knowledge and information in a
linear manner;
Advisory: the use by farmers of a cadre of experts as a source of advice in relation to specific
problems faced by them;
Facilitation: the aim of this model is to help farmers to define their own problems and develop their
own solutions.
Q 100.A
o Cape Town, Maputo, Nairobi and Dodoma are important cities in South Africa, Mozambique, Kenya and
Tanzania respectively. Recently Prime Minister took a four nation Africa tour to these countries.
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VISION IAS

Test Booklet Series

GENERAL STUDIES (P) OPEN TEST 2016 5 (2139)

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

1 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

biopesticides? "The Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of

an individual will not be revealed in any

21. Consider the following pairs:

1. Alluvial Soil : Self ploughing in 1. It takes non-monetary transactions into

Yellow Soil in construction. account.

3. Arid Soils : Kankar layer 3. Growth in GDP may be concentrated in

formation the hands of few individuals.

correctly matched? given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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triratnas of jainism? For Work On Neutrinos Metamorphosis i.e.

below. Standard Model of particle physics.

1. They are found in Jammu & Kashmir

(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Koratpur

Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Predation : Biological pest

2. The plan is based on the four priority

following? (d) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972

(a) Anthracite Coal Fields

Rajtarangiri give detailed account of 3. He must be a member of SC/ST if he

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as well." 2. In the temperate zone, the eastern

from upper house he can not make level of output in an economy?

(c) Both 1 and 2 given below.

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83. With reference to 'Income elasticity of

3. 12th Schedule : 73rd Amendment. 2. Inferior goods have a negative income

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88. Which of the following factors affect

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91. Consider the following statements regarding

95. Which of the following statements regarding

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Government is an initiative of:

Promotion (a) bringing more area under cultivation

(b) Ministry of Skill Development And

98. With reference to the Tejas combat aircraft,

not be available for export to any other

correct? (b) 4-1-3-2

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 4-2-1-3

34 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

ANSWERS & EXPLANATION

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