Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Paper Solution
NEET(UG) - 2017
PHYSICS
Q.1 A spring of force constant k is cut into lengths of ratio 1 : 2 : 3 . They are connected in series and the new force
constant is k ' . Then they are connected in parallel and force constant is k " . Then k ': k " is : -
(1) 1 : 9 (2) 1 : 11
(3) 1 : 14 (4) 1 : 16
Sol: (2)
Ratio of lengths of the spring segments 1 : 2 : 3 1: 2:3
1 x, 2 2x, 3 3x
1
As we know k . i
So in parallel combination
k '' k1 k 2 k 3
1 1 1
k '' fro i
1 2 3
1 1 1 11
k '' . ii
x 2x 3x 6x
In series combination
1 1 1 1
k ' k1 k 2 k 3
Using (i),
1
1 2 3 6x
k'
1
k' iii
6x
Dividing (iii) by (ii),
k ' 1 6x 1
k '' 6x 11 11
Thus k ': k " 1:11.
Q.2 The ratio of resolving powers of an optical microscope for two wavelengths 1 4000 and 2 6000 is:
(1) 9 : 4 (2) 3 : 2
(3) 16 : 81 (4) 8 : 27
Sol: (2)
1
Resolving power
o
RP1 2 6000 A 3
o
RP2 1 4000 A 2
Q.3 The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one end and open at other end are 220 Hz and
260 Hz . What is the fundamental frequency of the system?
(1) 20 Hz (2) 30 Hz
(3) 40 Hz (4) 10 Hz
Sol: (1)
v
Fundamental frequency of open closed pipe f ?
4
Frequency of n th harmonic is given as
v
fn nf n where n 1,3,5,.....
4
Difference between any two consecutive frequencies of
1
NEET(UG) - 2017
v 2v
f3 f1 (3 1) 260 220 40 Hz
4 4
v
20 Hz
4
So fundamental frequency 20 Hz
Q.4 Consider a drop of rain water having mass 1 g falling from a height of 1 km . It hits the ground with a speed of 50 m / s .
Take ' g ' constant with a value 10 m / s 2 . The work done by the (i) gravitational force and the (ii) resistive force of air is :-
(1) (i) 1.25 J (ii) 8.25 J
(2) (i) 100 J (ii) 8.75 J
(3) (i) 10 J (ii) 8.75 J
(4) (i) 10 J (ii) 8.25 J
Sol: (3)
Given: m 1g 103 kg, h 1km 1000 m, v 50 m / s
Work done by the gravity (Wg ) mgh
Wg 103 10 103 10 J
1
By work-energy theorem, Wg Wres KE mv 2
2
1
10 Wres 10 3 (50) 2
2
Wres 8.75 J
e2
Q.5 A physical quantity of the dimensions of length that can be formed out of c, G and is [ c is velocity of light, G
4 0
is universal constant of gravitation and e is charge] :-
1/2 1/2 1/2
e2 1 e2 1 e2 1 e2
(1) c2 G (2) (3) G (4) 2
G
4 0 c 2 G 4 0 c 4 0 c 4 0
Sol: (4)
c
e2
[L] [c]a [G ]b
4 0
[L] [LT1]a[M1L3T2 ]b[ML3T2 ]c
[L] [La3b3cMbcTa2b2c ]
On comparison of powers,
a 3b 3c 1
b c 0
a 2b 2c 0
On solving,
1 1
a 2, b ,c
2 2
1
1 e2 2
L 2 G
c 4 0
Q.6 Two rods A and B of different materials are welded together as shown in figure. Their thermal conductivities are K1
and K 2 . The thermal conductivity of the composite rod will be :-
2
NEET(UG) - 2017
3 K1 K 2 K 1 K2
(1) (2) K1 K2 (3) 2 K1 K 2 (4)
2 2
Sol : (4)
Thermal resistance is given as
d
R . i
KA
1 1 1
In parallel
R e q R1 R 2
K eq (2A) K 1A K 2 A
fro i
d d d
K1 K 2
K eq
2
Q.7 A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is removed and another identical uncharged capacitor
is connected in parallel. The total electrostatic energy of resulting system :-
(1) Decreases by a factor of 2
(2) Remains the same
(3) Increases by a factor of 2
(4) Increases by a factor of 4
Sol: (1)
Energy stored in capacitor is given as
1
U CV 2
2
1
Initially, U i CV 2
2
After connecting identical capacitor in parallel, equivalent capacitance will be
Ceq C C 2C
Q
Q CV V
C
Q V
Charge remains same, Vf
2C 2
2
Q.8 In a common emitter transistor amplifier the audio signal voltage across the collector is 3V . The resistance of collector
is 3 k . If current gain is 100 and the base resistance is 2 k , the voltage and power gain of the amplifier is :-
(1) 15 and 200 (2) 150 and 15000
(3) 20 and 2000 (4) 200 and 1000
Sol: (2)
Given: RC 3k, 100, RB 2k, VC 3V
RC 3k
Voltage gain, A v 100 150
RB 2k
Power gain Av 100 150 15000
3
NEET(UG) - 2017
(1) P c, Q a, R d, S b
(2) P c, Q d, R b, S a
(3) P d, Q b, R a, S c
(4) P a, Q c, R d, S b
Sol: (1)
Process (1) volume constant Isochoric
Process (2) adiabatic
Process (3) Temperature constant Isothermal
Process (4) Pressure constant isobaric
Q.10 Suppose the charge of a proton and an electron differ slightly. One of them is e , the other is (e e) . If the net of
electrostatic force and gravitational force between two hydrogen atoms placed at a distance d (much greater than atomic
size) apart is zero, then e is of the order of [Given mass of hydrogen mh 1.67 1027 kg ]
(1) 1023 C (2) 1037 C (3) 1047 C (4) 1020 C
Sol: (2)
K (e)2 Gm 2
2
d2 d
G 6.67 1011
e m 1.67 1027 C
K 9 109
e 1.436 1037 C
Q.11 The resistance of a wire is ' R ' ohm. If it is melted and stretched to ' n ' times its original length, its new resistance
will be :-
R R
(1) (2) n 2 R (3) (4) nR
n n2
Sol: (2)
Resistance of wire is
2
R
A volume
R 2
2
R2
2
R1 1
2
R n
2 1 ( R1 R given)
R 1
R 2 n2R
(1) OR gate (2) NOR gate (3) NOT gate (4) AND gate
4
NEET(UG) - 2017
Sol: (2)
y1 A B
y 2 y1 y1 y1 A B A B
y y2 A B
NOR GATE
Q.13 The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron in thermal equilibrium with heavy water at a temperature T
(Kelvin) and mass m , is :-
h 2h 2h h
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3mkT 3mkT mkT mkT
Sol: (1)
Kinetic energy of thermal neutron with equilibrium is
3
K .E. KT . i
2
In general kinetic energy is given as
1
K.E. mv 2
2
m2 v 2
K.E.
2m
2mK.E p2
p 2mK.E .. ii
De-Broglie wavelength is given as
h h
.fro ii
p 2m K.E
h
.fro i
3
2m KT
2
h
3 mKT
(3) (4)
Sol: (4)
In forward bias V1 V2
only
is in forward bias
5
NEET(UG) - 2017
Q.15 A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2 104 turns per meter. At the centre of the solenoid, a coil of 100 turns and
radius 0.01 m is placed with its axis coinciding with the solenoid axis. The current in the solenoid reduces at a constant rate
to 0A from 4A in 0.05 s . If the resistance of the coil is 10 2 . The total charge flowing through the coil during this time
is:-
(1) 16C (2) 32C (3) 16C (4) 32C
Sol: (2)
Given: n 2 104 , N 100, r 0.01 m, i1 0A, i 2 4 A, dt 0.05, R 10 2
d
By Faraday law of electromagnetism, i
dt
By Oh s la , IR
dq
R dt
d dq
Rdt dt
d
q .. ii
R
Magnetic flux is given as
d NAdB NA(B 2 B1 )
d Nr 20n(i 2 i1 ) ( B 0ni)
Substituting this in equation (ii), we get,
1
q 0nNr 2 (i 2 i1 )
R
1
q 4 10 7 2 10 4 100 (10 2 ) 2 (4 0)
10 2
q 32C
Q.16 Preeti reached the metro station and found that the escalator was not working. She walked up the stationary
escalator in time t1 . On other days, if she remains stationary on the moving escalator, then the escalator takes her up in
time t 2 . The time taken by her to walk up on the moving escalator will be
t1t 2 t1t 2 t1 t 2
(1) (2) (3) t1 t 2 (4)
t 2 t1 t 2 t1 2
Sol: (2)
v1 velocity of Preeti
v 2 Velocity of escalator
length of escalator
As Preeti walks up the stationary escalator in time t1
velocity time v1t1 . i
Escalator moves a distance in time t 2
v2 ii
t2
Whe alki g up the o i g escalator, perso s elocity v1 v2
Time taken is
t1t 2
t
v1 v 2 t1 t 2
t1 t2
Q.17 Young's double slit experiment is first performed in air and then in a medium other than air. It is found that 8th bright
fringe in the medium lies where 5th dark fringe lies in air. The refractive index of the medium is nearly:-
(1) 1.59 (2) 1.69 (3) 1.78 (4) 1.25
Sol: (3)
6
NEET(UG) - 2017
mD
For bright fringe, y m m
d
(2n 1) D
For dark fringe, y n
2d
(y8 )Bright , medium (y5 )Dark , air
8 m D 2(5) 1 D
d 2 d
8 D 9 D
m
d 2 d
16
1.78
9
Q.18 A beam of light from a source L is incident normally on a plane mirror fixed at a certain distance x from the source.
The beam is reflected back as a spot on a scale placed just above the source I . When the mirror is rotated through a small
angle , the spot of the light is found to move through a distance y on the scale. The angle is given by:-
y x x y
(1) (2) (3) (4)
x 2y y 2x
Sol: (4)
On keeping the incident ray fixed, if the mirror is turned through an angle , then the reflected ray turns by an angle 2
from its initial path.
y
tan 2
x
y
2
x
y
2x
Q.19 If 1 and 2 be the apparent angles of dip observed in two vertical planes at right angles to each other, then the true
angle of dip is given by :-
(1) tan2 tan21 tan22
(2) cot 2 cot 21 cot 22
(3) tan2 tan21 tan22
(4) cot 2 cot 21 cot 22
Sol: (4)
At angle from magnetic meridian ,
tan tan
tan 1 cos
cos tan 1
For other plane,
tan tan tan
tan 2 sin
cos (90 ) sin tan 2
sin 2 cos2 1
tan 2 tan 2
1
tan 2 2 tan 2 1
1 1 1
tan 2 tan 1 tan 2
2 2
7
NEET(UG) - 2017
Q.20 Tow cars moving in opposite directions approach each other with speed of 22 m / s and 16.5 m / s respectively. The
driver of the first car blows a horn having a a frequency 400 Hz . The frequency heard
by the driver of the second car is [velocity of sound 340 m / s ] :-
(1) 361 Hz (2) 411 Hz
(3) 448 Hz (4) 350 Hz
Sol: (3)
Q.21 Two blocks A and B of masses 3 m and m respectively are connected by a massless and inextensible string. The
whole system is suspended by a massless spring as shown in figure. The magnitudes of acceleration of A and B
immediately after the string is cut, are respectively :-
g g g g
(1) ,g (2) g, g (3) , (4) g ,
3 3 3 3
Sol: (1)
Before cutting the strip:-
8
NEET(UG) - 2017
Q.22 A thin prism having refracting angle 10 is made of glass of refractive index 1.42 . This prism is combined with
another thin prism of glass of refractive index 1.7 . This combination produces dispersion without deviation. The refracting
angle of second prism should be :-
(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 4
Sol: (1)
For dispersion without deviation
1 2
A1(1 1) A2 (2 1)
10(1.42 1) A2 (1.7 1)
A 2 6o
Q.23 The acceleration due to gravity at a height 1 km above the earth is the same as at a depth d below the surface of
earth. Then :-
3 1
(1) d 1 km (2) d km (3) d 2 km (4) d km
2 2
Sol: (3)
2h d
gh g 1 , gd g 1
R R
g h gd
2h d
g 1 g 1
R R
d 2h 2 km
Q.24 A potentiometer is an accurate and versatile device to make electrical measurements of E.M.F. because the method
involves :-
(1) Potential gradients
(2) A condition of no current flow through the galvanometer
(3) A combination of cells, galvanometer and resistances
(4) Cells
Sol: (2)
In zero deflection condition, potentiometer draws no current.
Q.25 A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm radiates 450 watt power at 500 K . If the radius were halved and the
temperature doubled, the power radiated in watt would be :-
(1) 450 (2) 1000
(3) 1800 (4) 225
Sol: (3)
r1
Given: r1 12 cm, P1 450 watt, T1 500 K , r2 , T2 2T1 , P1 ?
2
By Stefa s la ,
P r 2T4
2 4
P r T
1 1 1
P2 r2 T2
P2 1800 watt
Q.26 Figure shows a circuit that contains three identical resistors with resistance R 9.0 each, two
identical inductors with inductance L 2.0 mH each, and an ideal battery with emf 18 V . The
current ' i ' through the battery just after the switch closed is,...... :-
9
NEET(UG) - 2017
18
i1 2A
R 9
Current through the battery is
i 2i1 2 2 4A (Bonus)
OR
According to question language :
Capacitor is not mentioned so i 2 A
Q.27 Radioactive material ' A ' has decay constant '8 ' and material ' B ' has decay constant ' ' . Initially they have same
1
number of nuclei. After what time, the ratio of number of nuclei of material ' B ' to that ' A ' will be ?
e
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
7 8 9
Sol: (1)
A 8, B
N(t ) N0et
NA
NB (given)
e
8 t
N 0e
N 0et
e
t 8t 1
7t 1
1
t
7
1
Best answer is t
7
(1) In all the four cases the work done is the same
(2) Minimum work is required to move q in figure (a)
(3) Maximum work is required to move q in figure (b)
(4) Maximum work is required to move q in figure (c)
Sol: (1)
10
NEET(UG) - 2017
W qV
As V is same in all conditions, work will be same.
Q.29 Two astronauts are floating in gravitational free space after having lost contact with their spaceship.
The two will :-
(1) Move towards each other.
(2) Move away from each other.
(3) Will become stationary
(4) Keep floating at the same distance between them.
Sol: (1)
Astronauts move towards each other under mutual gravitational force.
Q.30 The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time are x 5t 2 2t 2 and y 10t respectively, where x and y are
in meters and t in seconds. The acceleration of the particle at t 2s is :-
(1) 5 m / s2 (2) 4 m / s2 (3) 8 m / s2 (4) 0
Sol: (2)
Given: x 5t 2 2t 2 and y 10t
dx dy
vx 5 4t , v y 10
dt dt
dv dv y
ax x 4, ay 0
dt dt
Acceleration is given as
a axi ay j
a 4i m / s 2
Q.31 One end of string of length l is connected to a particle of mass ' m ' and the other end is connected
to a small peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the particle moves in circle with speed ' v ' the net force on the particle
(directed towards centre) will be
( T represents the tension in the string):-
mv 2 mv 2
(1) T (2) T (3) Zero (4) T
l l
Sol: (4)
Net force on the particle in uniform circular motion is centripetal force, which is provided by the tension in string.
mv 2
i.e. T F
l
Q.32 A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion with amplitude of 3 cm . When the particle is at
2 cm from the mean position, the magnitude of its velocity is equal to that of its acceleration. Then its time period in
seconds is :-
5 4 2 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 5 3
Sol: (2)
Amplitude A 3 cm
When particle is at x 2 cm
Its |velocity| = |acceleration|
i.e., A2 x2 2x
A2 x2 9 4 5
x 2 2
Time period is given as
2 2 4
T 2
5 5
11
NEET(UG) - 2017
Q.33 Two Polaroids P1 and P2 are placed with their axis perpendicular to each other. Unpolarised light I 0 is incident on P1
. A third polaroid P3 is kept in between P1 and P2 such that its axis makes an angle 45 with that of P1 . The intensity of
transmitted light through P2 is :-
I0 I0 I0 I0
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 8 16 2
Sol: (2)
I0
I1 I 0 cos 2 450
2
I0 I
I 2 cos 2 45o 0
2 4
I0 I
I 3 cos 2 45o 0
4 8
Q.34 The bulk modulus of a spherical object is ' B ' . If it is subjected to uniform pressure ' p ' , the fractional decrease in
radius is :-
B 3p p p
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3p B 3B B
Sol: (3)
Bulk modulus is given as
P V 3R
B and
V V R
V
P
B
3R
R
R P
( P P )
R 3B
Q.35 In an electromagnetic wave in free space the root mean square value of the electric field is Erms 6V / m . The peak
value of the magnetic field is :-
(1) 2.83 108 T (2) 0.70 108 T (3) 4.23 108 T (4) 1.41108 T
Sol: (1)
E0 cB0
E0
Erms
2
Erms 2 cB 0
Erms 2 6 2
B0 2.83 108 T
c 3 108
Q.36 A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 40 cm . What is the angular acceleration of the
cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force of 30 N ?
(1) 0.25 rad / s 2 (2) 25 rad / s 2 (3) 5 m / s2 (4) 25 m / s 2
12
NEET(UG) - 2017
Sol: (2)
Torque, I .. i
RF, I mR 2
So equation (i) becomes
RF mR 2
F 30
25 rad / s 2
mR 30 40
100
Q.37 Two discs of same moment of inertia rotating about their regular axis passing through centre and perpendicular to
the plane of disc with angular velocities 1 and 2 . They are brought into contact face to face coinciding the axis of
rotation. The expression for loss of energy during this process is:-
1 I 1
I 1 2 (2) I 1 2 I 1 2 I 1 2
2 2 2 2
(1) (3) (4)
4 8 2
Sol: (1)
Angular momrntum, L I
By conservation of angular momentum,
I1 I2 2I
1 2
2
1 2 1 2
(K .E.)1 I1 I 2
2 2
2
2
1
(K.E.)f 2 I 2 I 1
2 2
1
Loss in K.E. (K.E.)1 (K.E.)f I (1 2 ) 2
4
Q.38 The photoelectric threshold wavelength of silver is 3250 1010 m . The velocity of the electron ejected from a silver
surface by ultraviolet light of wavelength 2536 1010 m is :-
(Given h 4.14 1015 eVs and c 3 108 ms1 )
(1) 0.6 106 ms1 (2) 61103 ms1
(3) 0.3 106 ms1 (4) 6 105 ms1
Sol: (1 or 4)
o o
Given: 0 3250 A and 2536 A
Kinetic energy of photoelectron,
1
mv 2 h h 0
2
1 1 1
mv 2 hc
2 0
2hc 1 1
v
m 0
13
NEET(UG) - 2017
Q.39 A 250 -Turn rectangular coil of length 2.1 cm and width 1.25 cm carries a current of 85 A and subjected to
magnetic field of strength 0.85 T . Work done for rotating the coil by 180 against the torque is:-
(1) 4.55 J (2) 2.3 J
(3) 1.15 J (4) 9.1 J
Sol : (4)
Work MB[cos 1 cos 2 ]
Work MB[cos 0 cos 180o ]
W NiAB [1 (1)]
W 9.1 J
Q.40 The ratio of wavelengths of the last line of Balmer series and the last line of Lyman series is :-
(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 0.5 (4) 2
Sol: (2)
For last line of Balmer : n1 2 & n2
1 1 1 1 1
RZ 2 2 2 RZ 2 2 2
B 1
n n 2 2
4
B i
RZ 2
For last line of Lyman series : n1 1 & n2
1 1 1 1 1
RZ 2 2 2 RZ 2 2 2
L 1
n n 2 1
1
L . ii
RZ 2
Dividing (i) by (ii),
4
B R
4
L 1
R
1
Q.41 A carnot engine having an efficiency of as heat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on the system is
10
10 J , the amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower temperature is :-
(1) 90 J (2) 99 J (3) 100 J (4) 1 J
Sol: (1)
W
Efficiency of heat engine is
Q1
10
0.1
Q1
10
Q1 100 J
0.1
Q1 Q 2 W
Q 2 Q1 W 100 10 90 J
Q.42 A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of O 2 and 4 moles of Ar at temperature T . Neglecting all vibrational modes, the
total internal energy of the system is :-
(1) 15 RT (2) 9 RT (3) 11 RT (4) 4 RT
Sol: (3)
f
U nRT
2
5 3
U total (2)RT (4) RT
2 2
14
NEET(UG) - 2017
Utotal 11RT
Q.43 An arrangement of three parallel straight wires placed perpendicular to plane of paper carrying same current 'I
along the same direction is shown in fig. Magnitude of force per unit length on the middle wire ' B ' is given by :-
2 0i 2 2 0i 2 0i 2 0i 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
d d 2 d 2 d
Sol: (3)
0i1i 2
F force per unit length
2 d
( i)i i 2
F1 0 0 F2
2d 2d
0i 2
Fnet F12 F22
2d
Q.44 A U- tube with both ends open to the atmosphere, is partially filled with water. Oil, which is immiscible with water, is
poured into one side until it stands at a distance of 10 mm above the water level on the other side. Meanwhile the water
rises by 65 mm from its original level (see diagram). The density of the oil is :-
15
NEET(UG) - 2017
16
NEET(UG) - 2017
BIOLOGY
Q.46 Which one of the following statements is correct, with reference to enzymes?
(1) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
(2) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
(3) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Co-factor
(4) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
Sol: (1)
Holoenzyme is a catalytically active enzyme consisting of an apoenzyme combined with its cofactor. Cofactors can be
inorganic ions or non-protein, organic molecules, known as coenzymes.
Hence, Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
Q.47 A decrease in blood pressure / volume will not cause the release of:
(1) Atrial natriuretic factor (2) Aldosterone
(3) ADH (4) Renin
Sol: (1)
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP), exerts a vasodilator effect on the kidney and also reduces tubular reabsorption of sodium.
Both actions result in increased urinary elimination of salt and water and tend to restore atrial pressure toward the normal.
Hence, Its main function is to lower blood pressure and to control electrolyte homeostasis.
This shows it is involved in decreasing the blood pressure and hence is A decrease in blood pressure / volume will not cause the
release of Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP).
It will be released when there is need of lowering blood pressure.
17
NEET(UG) - 2017
Q.55 Adult human RBCs are enucleated. Which of the following statement(s) is/are most appropriate explanation for this
feature?
(a) They do not need to reproduce
(b) They are somatic cells
(c) They do not metabolize
(d) All their internal space is available for oxygen transport
(1) only (a) (2) (a), (c) and (d) (3) (b) and (c) (4) only (d)
Sol: (4)
Red blood cells are initially produced in the bone marrow with a nucleus. They then undergo a process known
as enucleation in which their nucleus is removed.
The absence of a nucleus is an adaptation of the red blood cell for its role.
It allows the red blood cell to contain more hemoglobin and, therefore, carry more oxygen molecules.
It also allows the cell to have its distinctive bi-concave shape which aids diffusion.
He e, the orre t hoi e is All their i ter al spa e is a aila le for o ge tra sport .
18
NEET(UG) - 2017
Q.59 Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk output represents:
(1) Directional as it pushes the mean of the character in one direction
(2) Disruptive as it splits the population into two, one yielding higher output and the other lower output
(3) Stabilizing followed by disruptive as it stabilizes the population to produce higher yielding cows
(4) Stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this character in the population
Sol: (1)
Artificial Selection is a form of selection in which humans actively choose which traits should be passed onto offspring.
This selection leads to the offspring becoming more and more productive with each generation the character is pushed in
one direction.
For a quantitative character, the effects of directional selection show increased values of a trait.
Directional selection pushes the mean value of the character in one direction.
In stabilizing selection, the organisms with the mean value of the trait are selected. In disruptive selection, both extremes
get selected.
He e, the orre t hoi e Dire tio al as it pushes the ea of the hara ter i o e dire tio .
19
NEET(UG) - 2017
Sol: (1)
Common carotenoids found in foods are beta-carotene, alpha-carotene, lutein, zeaxanthin, lycopene, and cryptoxanthin.
Among these, beta-carotene is most efficiently converted to retinol.
Retinol is also called preformed vitamin A.
It can be converted to retinal and retinoic acid, other active forms of the vitamin A family.
Thus, Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin A
Photopigments are unstable pigments that undergo a chemical change when they absorb light. Retinal is the light-absorbing
portion of all the visual photopigments.
He e, the orre t hoi e is a , a d d .
Q.62 The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualised after staining with:
(1) Acetocarmine (2) Aniline blue
(3) Ethidium bromide (4) Bromophenol blue
Sol: (3)
The separated DNA fragments can be visualised only after staining the DNA with a compound known as ethidium bromide
followed by exposure to UV radiation ( pure DNA fragments cannot be seen in the visible light without staining).
Hence, the correct choice is Ethidium bromide.
Q.65 Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select the correct
statement:
(1) Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin chain synthesis
(2) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin molecules
(3) Sickel cell anemia is due to a quantitative problem of globin molecules
(4) Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin chain synthesis
Sol: (2)
Thalassemia is an inherited blood disorder in which the body makes an abnormal form of hemoglobin.
Sickle cell anemia causes the body to produce abnormally shaped red blood cells.
In thalassemia, patients have defects in either the or globin chain, causing less or abnormal production of
hemoglobin.
Hence, the correct choice is Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin molecules
Q.66 The genotypes of a husband and Wife are IAIB and IAi
Among the blood types of their children, how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?
(1) 3 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
(2) 4 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
(3) 4 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
(4) 3 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
20
NEET(UG) - 2017
Sol: (2)
IA IB
IA IA IA Blood type A IA IB Blood type AB
i IA i Blood type A IB i Blood type B
Q.69 Which one of the following is related to Ex-situ conservation of threatened animals and plants?
(1) Biodiversity hot spots (2) Amazon rainforest
(3) Himalayan region (4) Wildlife safari parks
Sol: (4)
Ex-situ conservation is the preservation of components of biological diversity outside their natural habitats.
In-situ conservation is on site conservation or the conservation of genetic resources in natural populations of plant or animal
species, such as forest genetic resources in natural populations of tree species.
Out of the given options wildlife safari park is example of ex-situ conservation whereas biodiversity hotspots, amazon
rainforests and Himalayan region are examples of in-situ conservation.
Hence, the correct choice is wildlife safari park.
21
NEET(UG) - 2017
the body. This type of Down syndrome, which accounts for 95% of cases, is called Trisomy 21.
Hence, the correct choice is Down syndrome.
Q.73 Which of the following options gives the correct sequence of events during mitosis?
(1) Condensation nuclear membrane disassembly arrangement at equator centromere division segregation
telophase
(2) Condensation crossing over nuclear membrane disassembly segregation telophase
(3) Condensation arrangement at equator centromere division segregation telophase
(4) Condensation nuclear membrane disassembly crossing over segregation telophase
Sol: (1)
The correct sequence of events during mitosis would be as follows
(i) Condensation of DNA so that chromosomes become visible occurs during early to mid-prophase.
(ii) Nuclear membrane disassembly begins at late prophase or transition to metaphase.
(iii) Arrangement of chromosomes at equator occurs during metaphase, called congression.
(iv) Centromere division or splitting occurs during anaphase forming daughter chromosomes.
(v) Segregation also occurs during anaphase as daughter chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles.
(vi) Telophase leads to formation of two daughter nuclei.
Hence, the correct choice is Condensation nuclear membrane disassembly arrangement at equator
centromere division segregation telophase.
Q.74 The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is called:
(1) Downstream processing (2) Bioprocessing
(3) Postproduction processing (4) Upstream processing
Sol: (1)
Biosynthetic stage for synthesis of product in recombinant DNA technology is called upstreaming process while after
completion of the biosynthetic stage, the product has to be subjected through a series of processes before it is ready for
marketing as a finished product. The processes include separation and purification, which are collectively referred to as
downstream processing.
Hence, the correct choice is downstream processing.
22
NEET(UG) - 2017
Sol: (1)
Volvox is motile colonial fresh water alga with definite number of vegetative cells.
Q.78 Match the following sexually transmitted diseases (Column-I) with their causative agent (Column-II) and select the
correct option :
Column I Column II
(a) Gonorrhea (i) HIV
(b) Syphilis (ii) Neisseria
(c) Genital Warts (iii) Treponema
(d) AIDS (iv) Human papilloma-Virus
(i) Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by bacteria called Neisseria gonorrhoeae or gonococcus.
Hence, Gonorrhoea Neisseria (Bacteria).
(ii) Syphilis is caused by the bacteria Treponema pallidum.
Hence , Syphilis Treponema (Bacteria)
(iii) Genital warts are symptoms of a contagious sexually transmitted disease caused by some types of human papillomavirus
(HPV).
Hence, Genital Warts Human papilloma virus (Virus) .
(iv) AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome) is a syndrome caused by a virus called HIV (human immunodeficiency
virus).
Hence , AIDS HIV (Virus)
Hence, the correct choice is a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i.
23
NEET(UG) - 2017
Q.82 The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came from the experiments of:
(1) Hershey and Chase (2) Avery, Mcleod and McCarty
(3) Hargobind Khorana (4) Griffith
Sol: (1)
Hershey and Chase concluded that DNA, not protein, was the genetic material.
Hershey and Chase gave unequivocal proof which ended the debate between protein and DNA as genetic material.
He e, the orre t hoi e is Hershe a d Chase .
Q.83 Among the following characters, which one was not considered by Mendel in his experiments on pea?
(1) Trichomes - Glandular or non-glandular (2) Seed - Green or Yellow
(3) Pod - Inflated or Constricted (4) Stem - Tall or Dwarf
Sol: (1)
During his experiments Mendel studied seven characters.
The seven different traits are Pea shape (round or wrinkled) Pea color (green or yellow) Pod shape (constricted or inflated)
Pod color (green or yellow) Flower color (purple or white) Plant size (tall or dwarf) Position of flowers (axial or terminal).
The Nature of trichomes i.e., glandular or non-glandular was not considered by Mendel.
He e, the orre t hoi e is Tri ho es Glandular or non-gla dular .
Q.84 Plants which produce characteristic pneumatophores and show vivipary belong to:
(1) Halophytes (2) Psammophytes
(3) Hydrophytes (4) Mesophytes
Sol: (1)
Halophytes growing in saline soils show Vivipary which is in-situ seed germination and Pneumatophores for gaseous
exchange
He e, the orre t hoi e is Haloph tes .
Q.85 The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of:
(1) Cartilaginous joint (2) Synovial joint
(3) Saddle joint (4) Fibrous joint
Sol: (2)
Synovial joints are freely movable joint which allow considerable movements. Pivot joint is a type of synovial joint which
provide rotational movement as in between atlas and axis vertebrae of vertebral column.
He e, the orre t hoi e is S o ial joi t .
Q.86 With reference to factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis, which of the following statements is not correct?
(1) Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration up to 0.05% can enhance CO2 fixation rate
(2) C3 plants respond to higher temperatures with enhanced photosynthesis while C4 plants have much lower temperature
optimum
(3) Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be grown in CO2 enriched atmosphere for higher yield
(4) Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10% of full sunlight
Sol: (2)
In C3 plants photosynthesis is decreased at higher temperature due to increased photorespiration. C 4 plants have higher
temperature optimum because of the presence of pyruvate phosphate dikinase enzyme, which is sensitive to low
temperature.
He e, the orre t hoi e is C3 plants responds to higher temperatures with enhanced photosynthesis while C 4 plants have
u h lo er te perature opti u .
24
NEET(UG) - 2017
Q.88 Which of the following components provides sticky character to the bacterial cell?
(1) Nuclear membrane (2) Plasma membrane
(3) Glycocalyx (4) Cell wall
Sol: (3)
Sticky character of the bacterial wall is due to glycocalyx or slime layer.
This layer is rich in glycoproteins.
He e, the orre t hoi e is Gl o al .
Q.89 Which of the following options best represents the enzyme composition of pancreatic juice ?
(1) amylase, pepsin, trypsinogen, maltase
(2) peptidase, amylase, pepsin, rennin
(3) lipase, amylase, trypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase
(4) amylase, peptidase, trypsinogen, rennin
Sol: (3)
Pancreatic juice is a liquid secreted by the pancreas, which contains a variety of enzymes, including trypsinogen,
chymotrypsinogen, elastase, carboxypeptidase, pancreatic lipase, nucleases and amylase.
Rennin and Pepsin enzymes are present in the gastric juice. Maltase is present in the intestinal juice.
He e, the orre t hoi e is lipase, a lase, tr psi oge , pro ar o peptidase .
Q.91 Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be prevented by the application of:
(1) Ethylene (2) Auxins (3) Gibberellic acid (4) Cytokinins
Sol: (2)
Auxins prevent premature leaf and fruit fall.
NAA prevents fruit drop in tomato; 2,4-D prevents fruit drop in Citrus.
He e, the orre t hoi e is Au i s .
Q.92 Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in male frogs:
(1) Testes Vasa efferentia Kidney Seminal Vesicle Urinogenital duct Cloaca
(2) Testes Vasa efferentia Bidder's canal Ureter Cloaca
(3) Testes Vasa efferentia Kidney Bidder's canal Urinogenital duct Cloaca
(4) Testes Bidder's canal Kidney Vasa efferentia Urinogenital duct Cloaca
Sol: (3)
In male frog the sperms will move from Testes Vasa efferentia Kidney Bidder s a al Urinogenital duct Cloaca.
Q.93 In case of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm count, which technique will be suitable for fertilization?
(1) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer
(2) Artificial Insemination
(3) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
(4) Intrauterine transfer
Sol: (2)
Infertility cases due to inability of the male partner to inseminate the female or due to very low sperm count in the
ejaculates, could be corrected by artificial insemination (AI).
25
NEET(UG) - 2017
Q.95 Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful expiration, because of:
(1) Inspiratory Reserve Volume (2) Tidal Volume (3) Expiratory Reserve Volume (4) Residual Volume
Sol: (4)
Volume of air present in lungs after forceful expiration as residual volume which prevents the collapsing of alveoli even after
forceful expiration.
Q.96 Presence of plants arranged into well defined vertical layers depending on their height can be seen best in:
(1) Tropical Rain Forest (2) Grassland (3) Temperate Forest (4) Tropical Savannah
Sol: (1)
The tropical rain forest have five vertical strata on the basis of height of plants. i.e., ground vegetation, shrubs, short canopy
trees, tall canopy trees and tall emergent trees.
Q.100 If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at position 901 is
deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be altered?
(1) 11 (2) 33 (3) 333 (4) 1
Sol : (2)
If deletion occurs at 901st position the remaining 98 bases specifying for 33 codons of amino acids will be altered.
Q.101 Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by:
(1) Bee (2) Wind (3) Bat (4) Water
Sol: (2)
Wind pollination or anemophily is favoured by flowers having a single ovule in each ovary, and numerous flowers packed in
an inflorescence. Wind pollination is a non-directional pollination.
Q.102 Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to non-acceptance by the patient's body. Which type of immune-
response is responsible for such rejections?
(1) Cell - mediated immune response (2) Hormonal immune response
(3) Physiological immune response (4) Autoimmune response
Sol: (1)
Non-acceptance or rejection of graft or transplanted tissues/organs is due to cell mediated immune response.
26
NEET(UG) - 2017
Q.104 A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as:
(1) Vector (2) Plasmid (3) Structural gene (4) Selectable marker
Sol: (4)
In recombinant DNA technology, selectable markers helps in identifying and eliminating non-transformants and selectively
permitting the growth of the transformants.
Q.109 Which of the following RNAs should be most abundant in animal cell?
(1) t RNA (2) m RNA (3) mi RNA (4) r RNA
Sol: (4)
rRNA is most abundant in animal cell. It constitutes 80% of total RNA of the cell.
27
NEET(UG) - 2017
Q.111 What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis ?
(1) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves
(2) Positively charged fragments move to farther end
(3) Negatively charged fragments do not move
(4) The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves
Sol: (1)
During gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments separate (resolve) according to their size through sieving effect provided by
agarose gel.
Q.112 Hypersecretion of Growth Hormone in adults does not cause further increase in height, because:
(1) Epiphyseal plates close after adolescence.
(2) Bones loose their sensitivity to Growth Hormone in adults.
(3) Muscle fibres do not grow in size after birth.
(4) Growth Hormone becomes inactive in adults.
Sol: (1)
Epiphyseal plate is responsible for the growth of bone which close after adolescence so hypersecretion of growth hormone
in adults does not cause further increase in height.
Q.116 MALT constitutes about ________ percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body.
(1) 20% (2) 70% (3) 10% (4) 50%
Sol: (4)
MALT is Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue and it constitutes about 50 percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body.
Q.117 Which of the following is correctly matched for the product produced by them?
(1) Methanobacterium : Lactic acid (2) Penicillium notatum : Acetic acid
(3) Sacchromyces cerevisiae : Ethanol (4) Acetobacter aceti : Antibiotics
Sol: (3)
Saccharomyces cerevisiae is o o l alled Bre er s east. It auses fer e tatio of ar oh drates produ i g etha ol.
Q.118 Which among the following are the smallest living cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic to plants as
well as animals and can survive without oxygen?
(1) Pseudomonas (2) Mycoplasma (3) Nostoc (4) Bacillus
Sol: (2)
Mycoplasmas are smallest, wall-less prokaryotes, pleomorphic in nature. These are pathogenic on both plants and animals.
28
NEET(UG) - 2017
Sol: (1)
Horse belongs to order perissodactyla of class mammalia. Perissodactyla includes odd-toed mammals.
Q.120 Frog's heart when taken out of the body continues to beat for sometime. Select the best option from the following
statements.
(a) Frog is a poikilotherm.
(b) Frog does not have any coronary circulation.
(c) Heart is "myogenic" in nature.
(d) Heart is autoexcitable
Options:
(1) Only(d) (2) (a) and (b) (3) (c)and(d) (4) Only(c)
Sol: (3)
Frog or the vertebrates have myogenic heart having self contractile system or are autoexcitable; because of this condition, it
will keep on working outside the body for some time.
Q.123 Anaphase Promoting Complex APC is a protein degradation machinery necessary for proper mitosis of animal
cells. If APC is defective in a human cell, which of the following is expected to occur?
(1) Chromosomes will be fragmented
(2) Chromosomes will not segregate
(3) Recombination of chromosome arms will occur
(4) Chromosomes will not condense
Sol: (2)
Anaphase Promoting Complex (APC) is a protein necessary for separation of daughter chromosomes during anaphase. If APC
is defective then the chromosomes will fail to segregate during anaphase.
Q.124 Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for extracting energy from carbohydrates to form ATP ?
(1) Ribosome (2) Chloroplast (3) Mitochondrion (4) Lysosome
Sol: (3)
Mitochondria are the site of aerobic oxidation of carbohydrates to generate ATP.
29
NEET(UG) - 2017
Q.126 Out of ' X ' pairs of ribs in humans only ' Y ' pairs are true ribs. Select the option that correctly represents values of
X and Y and provides their explanation:
(1) X 12, Y 5 True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and sternum on the two ends.
(2) X 24, Y 7 True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column but are free on ventral side.
(3) X 24, Y 12 True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column but are free on ventral side.
(4) X 12, Y 7 True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum.
Sol: (4)
In human, 12 pairs of ribs are present in which 7 pairs of ribs ( 1st to 7th pairs) are attached dorsally to vertebral column
and ventrally to the stemum.
Q.127 In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells called:
(1) oscula (2) choanocytes (3) mesenchymal cells (4) ostia
Sol: (2)
Q.128 Which one of the following statements is not valid for aerosols?
(1) They alter rainfall and monsoon patterns
(2) They cause increased agricultural productivity
(3) They have negative impact on agricultural land
(4) They are harmful to human health
Sol (2)
Choanocytes (collar cells) form lining of spongocoel in poriferans (sponges). Flagella in collar cells provide circulation to
water in water canal system.
Q.129 A baby boy aged two years is admitted to play school and passes through a dental check - up. The dentist observed
that the boy had twenty teeth. Which teeth were absent?
(1) Canines (2) Pre-molars (3) Molars (4) Incisors
Sol: (2)
Total number of teeth in human child 20 . Premolars are absent in primary dentition.
30
NEET(UG) - 2017
Q.135 The region of Biosphere Reserve which is legally protected and where no human activity is allowed is known as:
(1) Buffer zone (2) Transition zone (3) Restoration zone (4) Core zone
Sol: (4)
Biosphere reserve is protected area with multipurpose activities.
It has three zones
(a) Core zone without any human interference
(b) Buffer zone with limited human activity
(c) Transition zone human settlement, grazing cultivation etc., are allowed.
31
NEET(UG) - 2017
CHEMISTRY
Q.136 Name the gas that can readily decolourise acidified KMnO4 solution :
(1) SO2 (2) NO2 (3) P2O5 (4) CO2
Sol : (1)
7 4
KMnO 4 SO2 MnSO 4 H2SO 4 K 2SO 4
(O.A.) (R.A.) Colourless
Q.138 The element Z 114 has been discovered recently. It will belong to which of the following family/group and
electronic configuration ?
(1) Carbon family, [Rn] 5f 14 6d10 7s2 7p2
(2) Oxygen family, [Rn] 5f 14 6d10 7s2 7p4
(3) Nitrogen family, [Rn] 5f 14 6d10 7s2 7p6
(4) Halogen family, [Rn] 5f 14 6d10 7s2 7p5
Sol : (1)
Z 114 [Rn]86 7s2 5f 14 6d10 7p2
14th gp. (carbon family)
32
NEET(UG) - 2017
Q.141 Predict the correct intermediate and product in the following reaction :
H3C C CH
H2 O, H2 SO2
HgSO4
Intermediate
Pr oduct
(A) (B)
2
K 2 K 33 K2 K3 K 32 K 3 K1 K 33
(1) (2) (3) (4)
K1 K1 K1 K2
Sol : (1)
N2 3H2 2NH3 K1 ...(1)
N2 O2 2NO K2 ....(2)
1
H2 O2 H2O K3 .....(3)
2
5
For reaction 2NH3 O2 K
2NO 3H2O ....(4)
2
Equation (4) = Equation (2) 3 Equation (3) equation (1)
K 2 .K 33
K
K1
33
NEET(UG) - 2017
Sol : (3)
Q.144 The correct increasing order of basic strength for the following compounds is :
In p-toluidine, the presence of electron-donating CH3 group increases the electron density on the N-atom.
Thus, p-toluidine is more basic than aniline.
On the other hand, the presence of electron-withdrawing
NO2 group de reases the ele tro de sit o er the Nato i p-nitroaniline. Thus, p-nitroaniline is less basic than aniline.
Hence, the increasing order of the basic strengths of the given compounds is as follows:
p-Nitroaniline < Aniline < p-Toluidine
Q.145 Ionic mobility of which of the following alkali metal ions is lowest when aqueous solution of their salts are put under
an electric field ?
(1) K (2) Rb (3) Li (4) Na
Sol : (3)
Li being smallest, has maximum charge density.
LI is most heavily hydrated among all alkali metal ions. Effective size of Li in aq solution is therefore, largest .
Moves slowest under electric field.
34
NEET(UG) - 2017
Q.146 The most suitable method of separation of 1: 1 mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols is :
(1) Chromotagraphy (2) Crystallisation (3) Steam distillation (4) Sublimation
Sol : (3)
The ortho and para isomers can be separated by steam distillation o-Nitrophenol is steam volatile due to intramolecular
hydrogen bonding while p-nitro phenol is less volatile due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding which cause association of
molecule.
Q.147 HgCl2 and I2 both when dissolved in water containing I ions the pair of species formed is :
(1) HgI2 , I (2) HgI24 , I3 (3) Hg2I2 , I (4) HgI2 , I3
Sol : (2)
In a solution containing HgCl2,12 I , both HgCl2 and 12 complete for I since formation constant of [Hgl4 ]2 is 1.9 1030
which is very large as compared with I3 (kf 700)
I will preferentially combine with HgCl2
HgCl2 2I Hgl2 2Cl Re d ppt
Hgl2 2I [HgI4 ]2 so lub le
Q.150 A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate of 102 sec1 . How much time will it take for 20g of the reactant to
reduce to 5g ?
(1) 138.6 sec (2) 346.5 sec (3) 693.0 sec (4) 238.6 sec
Sol : (1)
2.303 [A]
t log 0
K [A]t
2.303 20
t 2
log t 138.6 sec
10 5
Q.151 Match the interhalogen compounds of Column-I with the geometry in column II and assign the correct. Code.
Column-I Column-II
(a) XX ' (i) T-shape
(b) XX '3 (ii) Pentagonal bipyramidal
(c) XX '5 (iii) Linear
(d) XX '7 (iv) Square-pyramidal
(v) Tetrahedral
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
35
NEET(UG) - 2017
Sol : (1)
XX ' Linear
XX3 ' T shape sp3d Example:CIF3
XX5 ' Square pyramidal sp3d2 Example : BrF5
XX7 ' Pentagonal bipyramidal sp3d3 Example : IF7
Q.152 Concentration of the Ag ions in a saturated solution of Ag2C2C4 is 2.2 104 mol L1 Solubility product of Ag2C2O4 is
:-
(1) 2.66 1012 (2) 4.5 1011 (3) 5.3 1012 (4) 2.42 108
Sol : (3)
Ag2C2O4(s) 2Ag(aq) C2O24(aq)
When Ag2C2O4 dissociates, it produces 2 moles Ag and 1 mol C2O24
K sp [Ag ]2 [C2O24 ]
[Ag ] 2.2 104 M
2.2 10 4
[C2O24 ] M 1.1 10 4 M
2
K sp [Ag ]2 [C2O24 ]
Ksp (2.2 104 )2 (1.1 104 )
5.324 1012
Q.153 In the electrochemical cell : - Zn|ZnSO4 (0.01M) | | CuSO4 (1.0 M) | Cu , the emf of this Daniel cell is E1 . When the
concentration of ZnSO4 is changed to 1.0 M and that of CuSO4 changed to 0.01M , the emf changes to E2 . From the
RT
following, which one is the relationship between E1 and E2 ? Given, 0.059
F
(1) E1 E2 (2) E1 E2 (3) E2 0 E1 (4) E1 E2
Sol : (2)
For cell Zn| ZnSO4 (0.01 M) | | CuSO4 (1 M) | Cu
Cell reaction Zn Cu2
Zn2 Cu
0.059 Zn2
E1 Eo log 2
2 Cu
0.059 0.01
E1 E
o
log
2 1
0.059 1
E
o
log . i
2 100
When concentrations are changed,
For cell Zn | ZnSO4 (1M) || CuSO4 (0.01M) | Cu
0.059 1
E 2 Eo log
2 0.01
0.059
Eo log 100 . ii
2
E1 E2
36
NEET(UG) - 2017
Is :-
Aldehydes get higher priority over ketone and alkene in numbering of principal C-chain.
3 keto 2 methylhex 4 ena
Q.159 For a given reaction, H 35.5 kJ mol1 and S 83.6 JK 1mol1 . The reaction is spontaneous at : (Assume that H
and S do not vary with temperature)
(1) T 425 K (2) All temperatures (3) T 298 K (4) T 425 K
Sol : (1)
G H TS
For equilibrium G 0
H TS
37
NEET(UG) - 2017
H 35.5 1000
Teq 425 K
S 83.6
Since the reaction is endothermic it will be spontaneous at T 425 K
Q.161 If molality of the dilute solutions is doubled, the value of molal depression constant (K f ) will be :-
(1) Halved (2) Tripled (3) Unchanged (4) Doubled
Sol : (3)
K f does not depend on concentration of solution. If only depends on nature of solvent so it will be unchanged.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
38
NEET(UG) - 2017
Sol : (4)
Q.165 The correct order of the stoichometries of AgCl formed when AgNO3 in excess is treated with the complex :
CoCl3 .6NH3, CoCl3.5NH3,CoCl3.4NH3 respectively is :-
(1) 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl, 2AgCl (2) 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl, 1 AgCl
(3) 2 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl (4) 1 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl
Sol : (2)
[CO(NH3 )6 ]Cl3
AgNO3
3 mol AgCl
[CO(NH3 )5 Cl]Cl2
AgNO3
2 mol AgCl
[CO(NH3 )4 Cl2 ]Cl
AgNO3
1 mol AgCl
Q.167 A gas is allowed to expand in a well insulated container against a constant external pressure of 2.5 atm from an initial
volume of 2.50 L to a final volume of 4.50L . The change in internal energy U of the gas in joules will be :-
(1) 500 J (2) 505 J (3) 505 J (4) 1136.25 J
Sol : (2)
Work done in irreversible process
W Pext V
2.5 [4.5 2.5] 5 L atm
5 101.3 J 505 J
Since system is well insulated q 0
By FLOT E q W
E W 505 J
39
NEET(UG) - 2017
Q.168 Which of the following reaction is appropriate for converting acetamide to methanamine ?
(1) Hoffmarnn hypobromamide reaction
(2) Stephens reaction
(3) Gabriels phithalimide synthesis
(4) Carbylamine reaction
Sol : (1)
Q.169 With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the following statements is true ?
(1) Bond angle changes but bond length remains same
(2) Both bond angle and bond length change
(3) Both bond angles and bond length remains same
(4) Bond angle remains same but bond length changes
Sol : (3)
In which pair of ions both the species contain S-S bond ?
Q.170 In which pair of ions both the species contain S-S bond ?
(1) S4O62 ,S2O32 (2) S2O72 , S2O82 (3) S 4O62 , S2O72 (4) S2O72 , S2O32
Sol : (1)
Q.171 It is because of inability of ns2 electrons of the valence shell to participate in bonding that :-
(1) Sn2 is oxidizing while Pb4 is reducing
(2) Sn2 and Pb2 are both oxidizing and reducing
(3) Sn4 is reducing while Pb4 is oxidizing
(4) Sn2 is reducing while Pb4 is oxidizing
Sol : (4)
Inability of ns2 electrons of the valence shell to participate in bonding on moving down the group in heavier p-block
elements is called inert pair effect.
Sn2
Sn4
(R.A) Sn2 Sn4 Stability order
Pb4
Pb2
(O.A) Pb2 Pb4 Stability order (Inert pair effect)
Q.172 Correct increasing order for the wavelengths of absorption in the visible region the complexes of Co3 is :-
(1) [Co(H2O)6 ]3 ,[Co(en)3 ]3 , [Co(NH3 )6 ]3
(2) [Co(H2O)6 ]3 ,[Co(NH3 )6 ]3 , [Co(en)3 ]3
(3) [Co(NH3 )6 ]3 , [Co(en)3 ]3 ,[Co(H2O)6 ]3
(4) [Co(en)3 ]3 , [Co(NH3 )6 ]3 , [Co(H2O)6 ]3
Sol : (4)
The order of the ligand in the spectrochemical series
H2O NH3 en
Hence, the wavelength of the light observed will be in the order
[Co(H2O)6 ]3 [Co(NH3 )6 ]3 [CO(en)3 ]3
40
NEET(UG) - 2017
Identify A, X, Y and Z
(1) A - Methoxymethane, X - Ethanol, Y - Ethanoic acid, Z - Semicarbazide
(2) A Ethanal, X Ethanol, Y But-2-enal, Z Semicarbazone
(3) A Ethanol, X Acetaldehyde, Y Butanone, Z Hydrazone
(4) A Methoxymethane, X Ethanoic acid, Y Acetate ion, Z hydrazine
Sol : (2)
Si e A gi es positi e sil er irror test therefore, it ust e a aldeh de or -Hydroxyketone.
Reaction with semicarbazide indicates that A can be an aldehyde or ketone.
Reaction with OH i.e., aldol condensation (by assuming alkali to be dilute) indicates that A is aldehyde as aldol reaction of
ketones is reversible and carried out in special apparatus..
Q.174 Of the following, which is the product formed when cyclohexanone undergoes aldol condensation followed by heating
?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Sol : (1)
This is aldol condensation reaction
Mechanism
41
NEET(UG) - 2017
Q.175 Which of the following pairs of species have the same bond order ?
(1) O 2 ,NO (2) CN , NO (3) N2 , N2 (4) CO, NO
Sol : (2)
Total no. of electron in CN is 14
Total no. of electron in CO is also 14
Hence bond order of both CN & CO is 3
Q.176 Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with CN ion. Silver is later recovered by:-
(1) Distillation (2) Zone reflining (3) Displacement with Zn (4) Liquation
Sol : (3)
Mac arther forect process/cyanide process
Ag2S 4NaCN
O2
2Na [Ag(CN)2 ] Na2SO 4
2Na [Ag(CN)2 ]
Zn
Na2 [Zn(CN)4 ] Ag()
Soluble complex
Q.177 A 20 litre container at 400K contains CO2 (g) at pressure 0.4 atm and an excess of SrO (neglect the volume of
solid SrO ). The volume of the container is now decreased by moving the movable piston fitted in the container. The
maximum volume of the container, when pressure of CO2 attains its maximum value, will be :-
(Given that : SrCO3 (s) SrO(s) CO 2 (g) , Kp 1.6 atm )
(1) 10 litre (2) 4 litre (3) 2 litre (4) 5 litre
Sol : (4)
SrCO3(s) SrO(s) CO2(g)
K p PCO2
Maximum pressure of CO2 1.6 atm
P1V1 P2 V2
0.4 20 1.6 V2
V2 5L
42
NEET(UG) - 2017
Q.179 The reason for greater range of oxidation states in actinoids is attributed to :-
(1) Actinoid contraction
(2) 5f,6d and 7s levels having comparable energies
(3) 4f and 5d levels being close in energies
(4) The radioactive nature of actinoids
Sol : (2)
Minimum energy gap between 5f,6d & 7s subshell. That why e excitation will be easier.
43
StudMonk is the best entrance exam preparation app that helps
students prepare for their NEET/AIPMT, MHT CET exams without
distraction. Equipped with multiple personalized features and over
30,000+ test questions, the app aims at providing uninterrupted
practice anytime anywhere.
Full Tests
Analytics
Solutions
Practice full length test Detailed view of the amount Detailed solutions for all
for NEET and MHT CET of time taken to complete a the questions in the test
test and its score for better understanding
Personalization
Question of the day
Tracking
Freedom to create your Challenge yourself with a Keep track of your tests taken
own test anytime new NEET or MHT CET online or oine in terms of
anywhere question each day chapters and diculty level
www.studmonk.com
Join Us on
Email: support@studmonk.com
studmonk.com/blog/