Blue Jeans History

2017 Bull CAT 03
Directions of Test
Test Name 2017 Bull CAT 03 Total Questions 100 Total Time 180 Mins
Section Name No. of Questions Time limit Marks per Question Negative Marking
Verbal Ability 34 1:0h:m 3 1/3
DI & Reasoning 32 1:0h:m 3 1/3
Quantitative Ability 34 1:0h:m 3 1/3
Section : Verbal Ability
DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it.
Question No. : 1
The radio and telephone technologies on which cellular systems are based each claim a distinct commercial and engineering
tradition, and the segment of the radio industry from which cellular derives is even more distinct. The radios were produced by
large, sophisticated companies that specialized in radio technology. The customers were a multitude of small, dispersed
organizations for whom the radio was an accessory to their mission rather than a central component. Radio engineers had a
reputation in the industry as cowboys: their knowledge was empirical, ad hoc, handson. They jiggled the system in the field
until it worked. Signal quality was often indifferent, fading inand out and none of this seemed to bother the end users.
Telephone equipment producers were also large and technically sophisticated, but the customers for their equipment were
large and sophisticated companies too. In the telephone equipment industry, quality was an obsession.
The companies that pioneered cellular typically came from either the radio or the telephone side of the business. AT & T was a
telephone company. Motorola and Matsushita were radio companies. Each faced the major challenge of finding a partner who
understood the other side of the technology and then learning to work intimately with that partner to create the new product.
Not an easy task. The cultural differences between radio and telephone engineering were deeprooted.
Blue Jeans
The centerpiece of the blue jeans case study was Levi Strauss and Co., which started out as a manufacturer of workmen's blue
jeans. "Levi's" remains the company's defining product. In the United States, blue jeans are the standard work clothing. They are
produced in very large volume and have been sold in a limited number of standard cuts and styles since they were first
introduced by Levi Strauss in San Francisco in 1873. Levi's are the prototypical commodity of American mass consumption, the
Model T of the garment industry. Clothing production is notoriously difficult to mechanize, but the cutting and assembly of
jeans is as close to assemblyline production as can be found in the outer garment industry.
Historically, blue jeans have had very little fashion content. This changed dramatically inthe early 1970s, propelled by the
sudden popularity of Americanmade jeans in Europe. Levi Strauss moved to take advantage of this trend by selling its Levi's
products abroad for two and three times the retail price they commanded in the United States. The spread between European
prices and costs created enormous profits that attracted local producers into the industry. To compete with the cachet of
Americanmade jeans, these new entrants sought to stylize their garments, differentiating the product through new cuts,
finishes, and variations uponthe standard darkblue denim. These fashions were then imported into the United States in the
early 1980s, invading Levi's home market. Levi Strauss was forced to defend its brand by adopting many of the European
fashions and, ultimately, to preempt the Europeans by introducing innovations of its own.
The focus in blue jeans fashion, almost from the beginning and certainly inrecent years, has been the finishing process and the
way this affects the look and "hand," or feel, of the garment. The basic technology involves laundering the garment to soften
the texture of the fabric. The finished garment is typically abraded as well. The standard abrading technique is to wash the jeans
with "stones" or pumice. There is continual experimentation with new techniques, both to produce effects already achieved in
other ways and to create new effects. In the pursuit of a fashion edge, manufacturers expend as much as 80 percent of the life
of the garment during the finishing process.
These new finishing techniques have led to a cascade of changes in cooperating industries. Textiles have been redesigned to
better withstand the extensive abrasion. Washing machines have been redesigned to survive the abuse of stone washing.
Continuing changes in raw materials and equipment have the incidental effect of subtle and not so subtle changes in the look
and feel of the finished garment; this in turn becomes a new fashion element.
Thus, the conversion of Levi Strauss from a manufacturing company to a fashion house involved crossing the boundaries that
separated manufacturing from style and design and from the previously distinct industries of textiles, laundering and finishing,
and washing machines. In many ways the cultures of these industries were as different as the cultures of telephone and radio.
Levi's old garmentassembly operations and the design and manufacture of washing machines were highly structured and
engineered, although based of course on quite different technologies. Both style and finishing tended to be much more free
wheeling, ad hoc, intuitive, or empirical, although the kind of intuition involved in producing new finishing effects was very
different from the intuition involved in fashion.
What is the main idea conveyed in the passage?
AThe passage suggests that historical transformation of the jeans from a commodity of mass consumption to a product of
fashion statement.
BCultural differences between radio and telephone equipment industries posed challenges to establishing an effective
partnership between them.
CCompanies with different cultural environments technologies and practices can create meaningful synergies by
understanding each others requirements and competencies.
DCellular companies and blue jeans companies are not able to change and develop with time due to lack of cooperation
among their respective cooperating industries.
Question No. : 2
Which of the following is not false as per context of the passage?
AUse of jeans as a fashion product by introduction newer styles originated in America during later half of the 20th century.
BRequirements of introducing desired changes in blue jeans look or feel subsequently resulted in changes in various
cooperating industries.
CFinishing enhanced durability of a garment as compared to a non finished product.
DLevi Strauss & co. initially manufactured jeans for influential classes only which later on became a commodity of mass
consumption.
Question No. : 3
Which of the following statement is in consonance with the idea of model "T" mentioned in the passage?
AJeans were quite affordable due to large scale production and hence became very popular among the masses.
BThe production of the jeans was difficult to mechanize and hence it resulted in costlier products for the masses.
CJeans were produced incorporating a large number of cuts and styles which made it popular.
DJeans were popular among the elite classes rather than the masses.
DIRECTIONS for the question: The five sentences (labelled 1,2,3,4, and 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form
a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper order for the sentence and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer.
Question No. : 4
1. For most, it was taken to be what nowadays would be called a 'lifestyle', as exemplified by the habitus of two famous Saint
Germain cafes, which are still going strong, though with fantastically inflated prices: the Flore and the nearby Deux Magots.
2. Much was made, for instance, of the singer Juliette Greco, who, with her black poloneck sweaters and long straight black
hair, established the 'existentialist look'.
3. And what a right royal time they had of it.
4. The popular fascination with existentialism in the two decades or so after the second World War was extremely peculiar,
given that very few people, especially in the Englishspeaking world, knew what existentialism was.
5. But the reigning king and queen of the era were JeanPaul Sartre and his lover and lifelong companion, Simone de Beauvoir.
A41253 B C D
Question No. : 5
1. According to this, revisionist reading, our contemporary offerings are now made not for the worship of God, but to placate
Mammon, since our economic salvation depends on this ritual of excessive spending.
2. The narrative that Jesus came to save our economic skins was given extra credibility with news that retails sales in November
were significantly up on last year, thanks to the shopping scrum that was Black Friday.
3. To the modern cynic, the arrival of the magi in Bethlehem uncannily foreshadows how Christmas would become primarily
about the giving of useless gifts.
4. This is a myth now more potent than the story of the baby of the manger.
5. It persists, however, because it's a story that is equally convenient for both defenders and detractors of the economic status
quo.
A31245 B C D
DIRECTIONS for the question: Identify the most appropriate summary for the paragraph and write the key for most appropriate
option.
Question No. : 6
The obsession with speed now borders on the absurd. In the world of highspeed trading, investors in Chicago, for example,
can no longer trade on New York markets because of the additional nanoseconds required to transmit buy and sell orders over
networks that can never be fast enough. Far from making place irrelevant, speed has made location more important than ever.
Financial firms, following a practice known as "colocation," now build facilities for their servers located as close as possible to
the servers of the markets on which they trade. But speed has limits. As acceleration accelerates, individuals, societies,
economies, and even the environment approach meltdown. We have been conned into worshiping speed by an economic
system that creates endless desire where there is no need. The world that speed continues to create is unsustainable. Contrary
to Thomas L. Friedman's insistence that today's highspeed global capitalism creates a flat world whose horizons are infinitely
expandable, the world is both literally and figuratively round and, as such, imposes inescapable constraints. On this finite earth,
there can no longer be expansion without contraction"any more than there can be growth without redistribution. When limits
are transgressed, the very networks that sustain life are threatened.
1. The speed at which the world works, including the financial markets, are expanding at an unsustainable speed that will lead
to their collapse
2. The speed at which today's capitalist world is operating and growing, of which the financial markets are a symbol, is bound
to face resistance at some point of time as it runs of its scope for expansion on this finite planet
3. The breakneck speed at which the capitalist world is growing will some point of time break the existing finite structures of
the world and provides a redistributed mechanism that ensures survival of the life on the planet
4. The world is poised at a juncture where it can inflect either to a redistributed mechanism to sustain life or head down a path
which provides even greater for expansion of the capitalist system
write the answer key
A2 B C D
Question No. : 7
According to the author of the passage:
AEnglish is a language that does not easily give in to manipulation and its structure maintains its form under most use
cases.
BEnglish is a language of extremes, with jargon and simplicity coexisting and flourishing.
CEnglish, by virtue of being a simpleton's method of communication, is inherently uncomplicated.
DThere is more to English than meets the eye and its assumed simplicity is not something you can take for granted.
Question No. : 8
The author of the passage used the example of the word "love" in order to showcase:
AThe incoherent use of pidgin in English. BThe complicated use of disparate terminology in English.
CThe use of vague terminology in English that is difficult for others to understand DAll of the above
Question No. : 9
The author of the passage will agree with which of the following statements:
I. The users of a particular language are prone to extol their own language.
II. The easy and simplified use of pronouns in English gives it a distinct advantage over other languages.
III. The English language is thankfully free of the third gender, which leads to uncomplicated use of the language.
AI & II BII & III CI & III DAll of the above
Question No. : 10
The author sees the succinctness of English as
Aas a bane when used in conjunction with other languages. Bas a boon when used in conjunction with other languages.
Cas a bane in juxtaposition to other languages. Das a boon in juxtaposition to other languages.
Question No. : 11
The tone of the author of the passage can be said to be:
AExpounding BCarping CCritical DDenunciatory
Question No. : 12
The author of the passage can be said to be:
ADemarcating lexical boundaries BHighlighting semantic preferences COutlining vernacular influences

DComparing linguistic expediency
DIRECTION for the question: The six sentences (labelled 1,2,3,4,5 and 6) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a
coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper order for the sentence and key in this sequence of six numbers as your answer.
Question No. : 13
1 I tend to match a persons years to events in the world, a man of 20, say, who died in the years of war, or a person who lived a
long life, or a short one.
2. My rabbi, Jacob Rosner, once observed that the real meaning in an epitaph is not the years of birth and death at all, but the
space in between them, sometimes noted in a hyphen, sometimes just blank.
3. Epitaphs, even spare ones, can tell us a lot, and elicit all kinds of responses.
4. In the minimalist version, the cemetery becomes a kind of directory.
5. Grandfather elicits no feeling in me, but grandchild intimates great sadness, and I wonder what someone might have died
from and if their premature death really was the only legacy they left behind.
6. Those are the years in which a person made choices that shaped their life.
A341526 B C D
Question No. : 14
1. If human rights are used as a cloak by governments to put on or cast away according to political expediency, can the
international community of states be trusted to bring about that vision?
2. Bypassed in the Iraq war and marginalized in its aftermath, discredited by its perceived vulnerability to pressure from
powerful states, the UN seemed virtually paralysed in its efforts to hold states to account for their adherence to international
law and their performance on human rights.
3. As one of the most prominent international human rights defenders lay dying in the rubble, the world had good cause to
ponder how the legitimacy and credibility of the UN could have been eroded to such a fatal degree.
4. It was easy at that moment to wonder whether the events of 2003 had also dealt a mortal blow to the vision of global justice
and universal human rights that first inspired the creation of global institutions such as the UN.
5. And what can the international community of citizens do to rescue human rights from the rubble?
write the answer key
A32415 B C D
option.
Question No. : 15
Affective responses to material objects are integral to their biographical meaning to their owners and their participation in
intimate relationships. Writers on material culture and affect have noted the entangling of bodies/selves with physical objects
and how artefacts act as extensions or prostheses of the body/self, becoming markers of personhood. Objects become invested
with sentimental value by virtue of their association with specific people and places, and thus move from anonymous, mass
produced items to biographicallyinscribed artefacts that bear with them personal meanings. Over use and with time, such
initially anonymised objects become personalised prosthetics of the self, their purely functional status and monetary value
replaced by more personal and sentimental value.
1. In the material world, over a period of time, most objects obtain a certain sense of personlisation and attain a certain position
in the life of their owner.
2. Material objects, though devoid of life and ability to emote, paradoxically hold the power to associate with their owner and
develop an attachment that has a personal and sentimental value.
3. With material objects, there is a chance that the owner might see them more than just bulk manufactured items and might
attach a sentimental or personal value of these items.
4. Material objects, through a process of association, move away from just being factoryproduced items to things that hold
emotional value for their owner.
A4 B C D
Question No. : 16
Stop me if youve heard this one before. On 19 December 1984, The New York Times ran a story about parents who feared the
risks of routine vaccinations. The parent quoted in the article was a lawyer who blamed vaccines for the death of his daughter.
The story was framed as a conflict between parents such as him and medical experts, who pointed out that serious sideeffects
of vaccines were extremely rare, and that the diseases vaccines prevented were far worse.
On 27 April 1999, The New York Times ran a story about parents who feared the risks of routine vaccinations. The parent
quoted in the article was collegeeducated, an author and professional activist, who blamed vaccines for her sons brain
damage.
On 21 March 2008, The New York Times ran a story about parents who feared the risks of routine vaccinations. The article
noted that parents who refused vaccines for their children were often welleducated and financially stable.
These stories were framed as a conflict between those parents and medical experts, who worried that geographical pockets of
vaccine refusal could help spread preventable diseases, such as measles. Parents today just havent seen the devastation
vaccinepreventable diseases can cause, the scientists said.
For more than 30 years now, we journalists have been telling the same story, with the same actors, playing the same roles, and
speaking the same lines. The authors change, but the news doesnt. It barely even counts as new.
There are two groups of people you can blame for this pattern of repetitive storytelling. Maybe its them: maybe the problem is
parents whose antiscience proclivities have carried them so far away from the facts that journalists have no choice but to
repeat ourselves ad nauseum. The story doesnt change because the story hasnt changed.
That could be true. But theres also another option. Maybe its us: maybe journalists arent listening. The story never changes
because we stopped looking for the other stories we could tell.
If thats true, its a big deal. And not just for journalists. Vaccination is a deeply important part of public health. Whether to
vaccinate or not isnt simply a decision you make for yourself or your family, independent of the choices of everyone else.
Vaccines work in two ways. They decrease your personal risk of contracting a disease, and they reduce the number of potential
hosts and carriers in the population. That means the more vaccinated people there are, the harder it is for a disease to spread.
Vaccines can stop an outbreak before it happens. This socalled herd immunity protects children who are too young to get a
vaccine, people who are too sick to get one, and anybody whose vaccination isnt working as well as it should.
Thats why medical experts really care about vaccination and why theyre worried about vaccine rejection, even though,
nationwide in the United States, children are vaccinated at rates of 90 per cent or better for most vaccines. In specific places,
and for specific vaccines, uptake can be a lot lower, enough to give diseases a foothold. Measles, for instance, is highly
contagious. To prevent its spread, you need at least a 96 per cent vaccination rate. In California, where a measles outbreak last
year infected nearly 200 people and spread to 23 other states, the measles vaccination rate is about 92 per cent and scientists
have estimated that regions near where the outbreak began could have rates as low as 50 per cent and certainly no higher than
86 per cent.
We still seem to be pretty clueless when it comes to why those people fear vaccines and what could be done to change their
minds. Case in point, a paper published in 2014 tested different strategies for improving the likelihood that skeptical parents
would vaccinate their kids. None of the tested techniques worked. When the researchers tried debunking vaccine
misinformation, they succeeded in convincing more parents that vaccines dont cause autism. But those same parents were
actually more likely to reject vaccines afterwards.
Clearly, something is amiss here, and it matters to all of us. What I hadnt done, at least until recently, was question whether
those stories were accurate. I dont mean in the sense that Id published incorrect information. Instead, Ive come to believe that
I havent been asking the right people the right questions, and thats leading me to write stories that are factually correct, but
dont accurately reflect whats really happening. What if scientists are wrong about the reasons parents dont vaccinate? What
if, as a journalist, Ive been steering the national conversation in the wrong direction by not questioning the reasons put forth?
Herd immunity matters a lot, and theres good reason to think we arent listening well enough to what the herd has to say.
The author of the passage uses the news stories at the start of the passage:
Ato establish a conjecture Bto highlight an incongruity Cto establish a narrative Dto point out pattern
Question No. : 17
The author of the passage clearly believes that:
Aparents can do more to educate themselves about the benefits of vaccination

Bjournalists can do more to steer the debate on vaccination in the right direction
Cscientists can do more to effectively convey the benefits of vaccination Dnone of the above
Question No. : 18
In the given context of the passage, the phrase 'ad nauseum' means:
ATo a resounding extent BTo a niggling extent CTo a deafening extent DTo a sickening extent
Question No. : 19
It can be inferred from the passage that the author of the passage is suggesting:
I. Parents who reject vaccination prefer to put the public good below their children
II. Parents who reject vaccination prefer to put their children below the public good
III. Parents who reject vaccination prefer to put the public good above their children
IV. Parents who reject vaccination prefer to put their children above the public good
AI & III BII & III CI & III DI & IV
Question No. : 20
Athe decision to vaccinate your child has wider implications.

Bherd immunity has an impact on those who are not vaccinated.
Cone can contract a disease even if one has taken the vaccination for the same. Dall of the above
Question No. : 21
The primary purpose of the author of the passage is:
Ato provide an explanation for a certain set of actions Bto explain a contentious issue and its widespread implications
Cto highlight an oversight on part of a specific set of people
Dto stir a debate over an issue that deserves deeper understanding
DIRECTIONS for the question: Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a
meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out. Choose its number as your answer and key it in.
Question No. : 22
1. When an American general arrived to confer with the papal nuncio, the U.S. Army blared music from loudspeakers to prevent
journalists from eavesdropping.
2. Although the media delighted in the spectacle, President George H. W. Bush and General Colin Powell, then the chairman of
the Joint Chiefs of Staff, took a dim view of it.
3. To escape capture, he took refuge in the Papal Nunciatura in Panama City.
4. In December, 1989, the Panamanian dictator Manuel Noriega was expelled from power by American forces.
5. Members of a psychologicaloperations unit then decided that nonstop music might aggravate Noriega into surrendering.
A2 B C D
option.
Question No. : 23
Conflict theory emphasizes the role of coercion and power in producing social order. This perspective is derived from the works
of Karl Marx, who saw society as fragmented into groups that compete for social and economic resources. Social order is
maintained by domination, with power in the hands of those with the greatest political, economic, and social resources. When
consensus exists, it is attributable to people being united around common interests, often in opposition to other groups. Marx
theorized that the work of producing consensus was done in the "superstructure" of societywhich is composed of social
institutions, political structures, and cultureand what it produced consensus for was the "base," the economic relations of
production. Following on the heels of Marx, Italian scholar and activist Antonio Gramsci argued that consensus to rule is
achieved in large part through cultural hegemony, which refers to the dominant group's ability to attain consent to their rule
through ideas, norms, values, and beliefs..
1.Conflict theory, as established by Marx and taken forward by Gramsci, highlights how coercion and power are used by the
powerful and dominant groups of society to establish social order.
2. Conflict theory, a theory with major derivations of Marx and Gramsci, goes on to establish the rules for establishment of
social order and how power and force are used to structure society.
3.Conflict theory, in part driven by the works of Marx and Gramsci, explores the superstructures of society and highlights how
those in power take control of social structures and effectively run the world.
4. Conflict theory, with contributions from scholars such as Marx and Gramsci, highlights how force and common interests
brings together powerful elements in societies, which in turn use their dominion to produce social order.
A4 B C D
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.
Question No. : 24
The tale of reading begins when the retina receives photons reflected off the written page. But the retina is not a homogeneous
sensor. Only its central part, called the fovea, is dense in highresolution cells sensitive to incoming light, while the rest of the
retina has a coarser resolution. The fovea, which occupies about 15 degrees of the visual field, is the only part of the retina that
is genuinely useful for reading. When foveal information is lacking, whether due to a retinal lesion, to a stroke having destroyed
the central part of the visual cortex, or to an experimental trick that selectively blocks visual inputs to the fovea, reading
becomes impossible."
The need to bring words into the fovea explains why our eyes are in constant motion when we read. By orienting our gaze, we
"scan" text with the most sensitive part of our vision, the only one that has the resolution needed to determine letters.
However, our eyes do not travel continuously across the page.' Quite the opposite: they move in small steps called saccades. At
this very moment, you are making four or five of these jerky movements every second, in order to bring new information to
your fovea. Even within the fovea, visual information is not represented with the same precision at all points. In the retina as
well as in the subsequent visual relays of the thalamus and of the cortex, the number of cells allocated to a given portion of the
visual scene decreases progressively as one moves away from the center of gaze. This causes a gradual loss of visual precision.
Visual accuracy is optimal at the center and smoothly decreases toward the periphery. We have the illusion of seeing the whole
scene in front of us with the same fixed accuracy, as if it were filmed by a digital camera with a homogeneous array of pixels.
However, unlike the camera, our eye sensor accurately perceives only the precise point where our gaze happens to land. The
surroundings are lost in an increasingly hazy blurriness
One might think that, under these conditions, it is the absolute size of printed characters that determines the ease with which
we can read: small letters should be harder to read than larger ones. Oddly enough, however, this is not the case. The reason is
that the larger the characters, the more room they use on the retina. When a whole word is printed in larger letters, it moves
into the periphery of the retina, where even large letters are hard to discern. The two factors compensate for each other almost
exactly, so that an enormous word and a minuscule one are essentially equivalent from the point of view of retinal precision. Of
course, this is only true provided that the size of the characters remains larger than an absolute minimum, which corresponds
to the maximal precision attained at the center of our fovea. When visual acuity is diminished, for instance in aging patients, it
is quite logical to recommend books in large print .Our eyes impose a lot of constraints on the act of reading. The structure of
our visual sensors forces us to scan the page by jerking our eyes around every two or three tenths of a second Reading is
nothing but the wordbyword mental restitution of a text through a series of snapshots. 'file some small grammatical words
like "the," "it or "is" can sometimes be skipped, almost all content words such as nouns and verbs have to be fixated at least
once.
These constraints are an integral part of our visual apparatus and cannot be lifted by training. One can certainly teach people to
optimize their eye movements patterns, but most good readers, who read four hundred words per minute, are already close to
optimal. Given the retinal sensor at our disposal, it is probably not possible to do much better. A simple demonstration proves
that eye movements are the ratelimiting step in reading. If a full sentence is presented, word by word, at the precise point
where gaze is focalized, thus avoiding the need for eye movements, a good reader can read five hundred words per minute at
staggering speeda mean of eight hundred words per minute, and up to sixteen hundred words per minute for the best
readers, is about one word every forty milliseconds and three to four times faster than normal reading! With this method, called
rapid sequential visual presentation, or RSVP, identification and comprehension remain satisfactory, thus suggesting that the
duration of those central steps does not impose a strong constraint on normal reading. Perhaps this computerized presentation
mode represents the future of reading in a world where screens progressively replace paper.
At any rate, as long as text is presented in pages and lines, acquisition through gaze will slow reading and impose an
unavoidable limitation. Thus, fast reading methods that advertise gains in reading speed of up to one thousand words per
minute or more must be viewed with skepticism. One can no doubt broaden one's visual span somewhat, in order to reduce
the number of saccades per line, and it is also possible to learn to avoid moments of regression, where gaze backtracks to the
words it has just read. However, the physical limits of the eyes cannot be overcome, unless one is willing to skip words and thus
run the risk of a misunderstanding. Woody Allen described this situation perfectly: "I took a speedreading course and was able
to read War and Peace in twenty minutes. It involves Russia."
Why does the author recommend books in larger print for old people?
AA larger word occupies more space on retina and thus easily visualized.
BA larger word and smaller word are equivalent from point of view of retinal precision.
CThe absolute minimum size of characters, to be able to be seen, is more in old people due to lower ocular sharpness.
DIn old people the fovea has higher resolution cells requiring larger letters.
Question No. : 25
What can be inferred regarding the evolvement of reading in the coming times?
AReaders will be able to read more in less time by reducing the number of saccades per line and in the process, they will
generally not experience any loss of comprehension.
BReading will be more effective in future because a reader can read at a staggering speed with the help of rapid sequential
visual presentation method.
CReading speed may increase due to computerized presentation involving fixing of gaze and obviating the need for eye
movement.
DReaders will be able to read fast by overcoming the physical limitation of eyes.
Question No. : 26
According to the passage, which of the following options determines the rate of reading?
i Our perceptual abilities which exclusively depend on the number of letters in the words not space these words occupy on
our retina.
ii The requirement of moving the gaze across the page.
iii Twitching of our eyes while reading the text.
iv The requirement of maintaining a fixed gaze on the page without any eye movement.
ABoth ii and iv BBoth i and ii CBoth ii and iii DOption i, ii and iii
DIRECTIONS for question: Four sentences related to a topic are given below. Three of them can be put together to form a
Question No. : 27
1. The anticorruption agenda and the sledgehammer solutions demanded by the 'India against Corruption' IAC movement
spoke to the daily tyranny of corruption in every Indian citizen's life, and kept the movement open for people with different
agendas to come together.
2. Corruption, as a public rallying point, has few parallels, at least in the Indian mindscape.
3. One may argue with the specific ways adopted by the IAC to put across its point, but it is an undeniable achievement of the
movement that it was successful in bringing ordinary folk onto the streets.
4. Such singlepoint movements have hardly any parallels elsewhere but logic and experience suggest that it may have to go
beyond its raison de'tre to stay relevant.
A2 B C D
DIRECTIONS for the question: Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a
Question No. : 28
1. Selfcontrol is 'like' a muscle in that muscles get tired with use over the short term and, second, that muscles get stronger
with use over the long term.
2. Muscles are a bit like foreign languages and health flexible spending accounts: use it or lose it.
3. Or, at least, my sense is that people think that in order for muscles to get big and stay that way, they need to be used.
4. Human muscles seem to atrophy with disuse, as anyone will tell you who has had to take a six week hiatus from the gym
because of a bunch of injuries.
5. My sense is that many people think that this is a general property of muscles.
write the ans key
A1 B C D
Question No. : 29
In 2005, the University of Chicago Library held an exhibition entitled Book Use, Book Theory: 15001700. Its curators, Bradin
Cormack and Carla Mazzio, displayed various books from the librarys collection that sought to reveal the agency and character
of early modern readers by way of the marginalia, marks, lists, and doodles left behind within the blank spaces of the texts
themselves. They used the motto of Geoffrey Whitneys Choice of Emblemes 1586, the very first English emblem book, as a
sort of speculative opening: Ususlibri, non lectioprudentesfacit. Roughly: "Using a book, not reading it, makes us wise."
This, it seems to me, is a quietly remarkable phrase, one whose dichotomy may strike the modern reader as curious. After all, is
not reading a book "using" it, in the most fundamental sense? A couplet from the emblems accompanying poem may clarify
Whitneys meaning:
First reade, then marke, then practise that is good,
For without vse, we drink but LETHE flood.
Mere reading, he says, is not enough; rather, we must mark our texts lest we forget the wisdom so recently acquired. Inscription
is a critical part of "use." Far from being passive, readers, in their act of marking a conscious deciding to remember become
participants in a historical body of understanding. Cormack and Mazzio argue that this places readers "at the center of a
cultural process of book use that secures the continuity of knowledge."
This is the provenance of Stephen OrgelsThe Reader in the Book: A Study of Spaces and Traces.Orgel, a professor in the
Humanities Department at Stanford, has written what he calls "a book about individual acts of reading"; while this is strictly
accurate, it also undersells this brisk, varied, and often fascinating study, one that engages with, among other things, the
materiality of reading early modern psychology and 16thcentury book graffiti more on "graffiti" later. The thrust of the work
is that "the history of any particular book does not conclude with its publication." Over five indepth studies, including an
investigation of a school boys 500yearold Latin grammar book and a deep dive into a bold countesss library and letters, he
conducts a kind of archaeology of margins, gleaning sociological insight and human depth from the calcified life at the edge of
the text, cases in which "reading constitutes an active and sometimes adversarial engagement with the book." This
interrogation of textual space, presented in blessedly jargonfree prose, constitutes a significant contribution to the study and
interpretation of contemporary responses to nowclassic texts, while also placing us squarely in the midst of that most
mysterious element: the opaque substance of the reading mind.
The manifestation of this fragmentary, spectral presence is likely to surprise readers whose familiarity with marginalia begins
and ends with checkmarks and interpretive gloss; indeed, a great deal of 16th and 17thcentury marginalia has nothing
whatsoever to do with the text it is written in.
Orgel believes these marks constitute a kind of graffiti, albeit one stripped of its transgressive connotations. He argues this
graffiti reveals a material dimension and a material value of old books that has been lost to time: that is, the bound object as
not merely text but also "a place and a property", a locus of particular ownership benefitting from incremental enhancement.
According to the information given in the passage, the phrase 'adversarial engagement with the book' will stand for which of
the following interpretations?
Aengaging a book presents a challenge in itself Bengaging with a book does not mean that you learn from the book
Cengaging with a book can lead to disagreement with the given content Dreading a book is not a passive exercise
Question No. : 30
Athe mind of a reader can be clearly understood by the graffiti he scribbles on book margins
Bthe mind of a reader cannot be understood from the inscriptions in the margins
Cthe mind of a reader is not something is which is necessarily open to precise understanding Dboth a and c
Question No. : 31
According to Orgel:
I. books served the purpose of supplying information to the text.

II. books carried an intrinsic material values in themselves, which is often forgotten.
III. publication is not the beall and endall of books.
AI & II BII & III CI & III DAll of these
Question No. : 32
According to Geoffrey Whitney:
AThe act of marking in a book mentally liberates a reader BThe act of marking in a book acts like a postit for the reader
CThe act of marking in a book is a superficial act of posterity DBoth A and B
Question No. : 33
For the given usage in the second paragraph, the word 'dichotomy' means:
Acontrast Bdivorce Cgulf Dsplit
Question No. : 34
The primary purpose of the author of the passage is:
ATo highlight an inconsistency that has dogged a certain interpretation for long
BTo highlight an alternate way of interpreting a certain action that has been viewed from a traditional lens so far
CTo provide additional evidence for a certain academic viewpoint that has existed for long
DTo highlight the use the of an additional argument that helps clear a certain ambiguity
Section : DI & Reasoning
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.
Question No. : 35
A circular railway track going through a city has eight stations, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, at equal distances arranged in the
clockwise direction in that order. Four trains a red train, a blue train, a green train and an orange train ply this track at one
hour intervals, leaving their starting points between 6:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m., both inclusive. Starting at 6:00 a.m., the red train
plies from A in the clockwise direction and takes 40 minutes to complete the track. Starting at 6:15 a.m., the blue train plies
from E in the anticlockwise direction and takes one hour to complete the track. Starting at 6:30 a.m., the green train plies from
D in the anticlockwise direction and takes 40 minutes to complete the track. Starting at 6:45 a.m., the orange train plies from G
in the clockwise direction and takes one hour to complete the track.
At which stations will the blue train and the orange train meet?
AD and H BC and G CB and F DA and E
Question No. : 36
Seven teachers at a Bschool Anand, Lalit, Prashant, Rajanikant, Shridhar, Vishal, Yogesh have enrolled in a Faculty
Development Programme on Teaching Case Studies. At the end of the programme, the teachers must analyse and discuss a
case before the trainers and the directors of their institute. Each teacher must discuss a case in exactly one field Financial
Management, Operations Management or Marketing Management.
Lalit discussed a case on Marketing Management.

Anand and Rajanikant discussed cases in the same field of management.
Yogesh discussed a case on either Financial Management or Operations Management.
Shridhar and Yogesh discussed cases in different fields of management.
Anand and Vishal discussed cases in different fields of management.
Half as many teachers discussed cases on Financial Management as discussed cases on Marketing Management.
Which of the following group of teachers cannot have discussed cases in the same field of management?
AAnand, Lalit, Rajanikant BLalit, Prashant, Vishal CLalit, Vishal, Yogesh DPrashant, Rajanikant, Anand
Question No. : 37
Seven teachers at a Bschool Anand, Lalit, Prashant, Rajanikant, Shridhar, Vishal, Yogesh have enrolled in a Faculty
Development Programme on Teaching Case Studies. At the end of the programme, the teachers must analyse and discuss a
case before the trainers and the directors of their institute. Each teacher must discuss a case in exactly one field Financial
Management, Operations Management or Marketing Management.
Lalit discussed a case on Marketing Management.

Anand and Rajanikant discussed cases in the same field of management.
Yogesh discussed a case on either Financial Management or Operations Management.
Shridhar and Yogesh discussed cases in different fields of management.
Anand and Vishal discussed cases in different fields of management.
Half as many teachers discussed cases on Financial Management as discussed cases on Marketing Management.
Which of the following cannot be true?
AOnly Prashant discussed a case on Financial Management BRajanikant discussed a case on Operations Management
CShridhar discussed a case on Operations Management DVishal discussed a case on Financial Management
Question No. : 38
Which of the following is true?
ARajanikant and Yogesh each discussed cases on Financial Management while Vishal discussed a case on Operations
Management
BPrashant, Shridhar and Vishal discussed cases on Financial Management, Operations Management and Marketing
Management respectively
CVishal, Rajanikant and Shridhar discussed cases on Financial Management, Marketing Management and Operations
Management respectively
DLalit discussed a case on Operations Management while Prashant and Vishal each discussed cases on Marketing
Management
Question No. : 39
If exactly one teacher discussed a case on Operations Management, which of the following must be true?
APrashant discussed a case on Financial Management BRajanikant discussed a case on Marketing Management
CVishal discussed a case on Operations Management DYogesh discussed a case on Financial Management
DIRECTIONS for the question: Study the table/s given below and answer the question that follows.
Question No. : 40
The table below provides the information on some of the leading Thai cuisine restaurants in Delhi.
No
Name of restaurant Food Decor Service Price Music Liquor smoking
facility
Baan Thai 4.5 4.5 4 20002400 No Yes Yes
Sukhothai 3.5 3 3 600800 Yes Yes No
Blue Elephant 3.5 5 3 20003000 No Yes Yes
Spice 3.5 3.5 3 10002000 No No Yes
Spice Route 3.5 5 3 12002000 Yes Yes Yes
Turquoise Cottage 2.5 3.5 3.5 8001000 No No Yes
Arindam and Suzy are Thai food lovers. Food, decor and service are the only factors for Arindam to choose a restaurant, while
for Suzy, price is also an additional factor. Arindam does not visit a restaurant without a 'no smoking zone', while Suzy does not
enjoy visiting a restaurant playing music. The figures in the columns under Food, Decor and Service refer to ratings for the same
on a scale of 5 with 1 being the worst and 5 the best. The price refers to price of average meal for two persons.
The consolidated rating for the restaurant is the weighted sum of food, decor and service. If decor was twice as important as
both food and service, which restaurant is Arindam most likely to visit?
ASukhothai BSpice Route CBaan Thai DBlue Elephant
Question No. : 41
A Common Friend wants to treat both Arindam and Suzy together for liquor and dinner. Which are the two likely restaurant
options are available for them to go to?
ASpice or Spice Route BBaan Thai or Sukhothai CBaan Thai or Blue Elephant DSpice or Blue Elephant
Question No. : 42
Assuming a total budget of Rs. 1,150 and relative weightages for food, decor and service being in the proportion 2 : 1: 2, what
should be the restaurant to choose for the two people on the basis of consolidated rating Given the consolidated rating for the
restaurant is the weighted sum of food, decor and service?
ATurquoise Cottage BSpice Route CSukhothai DSpice

Question No. : 43
In a Singing Competition, seven males and seven females participated. P, Q, R, S, T, U and V were the Female participants.while
A, B, C, D, E, F and G were the male participants. Organizers divided them into Seven groups. Each group consisted of one male
and one female. After the end of the programme, each group was assigned a score according to its performance. For the
purpose of scoring, seven letters were used K, L, M, N, O, P and Q in that order indicating descending order of scores:
F's group got score L. The score of B's group was better than that of at least three groups, while the score of C's group was
better than that of at least four. E's partner was T. R's partner was not D. S's group got score K.
A was not the partner of U. The score of exactly one group was the same as the name of a member of that group. The scores of
Q's group and U's group were better than those of U's group and V's group respectively.
The score of B's group was better than that of C's. The score of A's group was neither P nor Q. T's group didn't get score O.R's
group got the score Q.
Which of the following is the correct pair?first is a female and second is a male
ARB BPD CSG DQE
Question No. : 44
Which of the following statement/s is/are true?
I. Ps group got the score P

II. Qs group got the score O.
AOnly I BOnly II CEither I or II DCannot say
Question No. : 45
Who among these was the partner of C?
AP BU CV DCannot say
Question No. : 46
Score O was assigned to which person's group?
AR BQ CS DNone of these
DIRECTIONS for the question: Analyse the graph/s given below and answer the question that follows.
Question No. : 47
The questions are based on the following graph showing the prices per can of mineral water and soda, and per 800 gm pack,
price of juice. Assume that the volume of a can is 800 ml and the density of juice, defined as the weight in grams per ml, is 0.8.
Ignoring constant prices in successive years, the least increase in price per 800 ml of above mentioned drinks over any two
successive years is:
A20 paise B25 paise C40 paise D50 paise
Question No. : 48
If the density of soda is 1.25 gm per ml, the difference between the prices of 800 gm each of soda and juice is the greatest in:
A1996 B1998 C2000 D2001

Question No. : 49
Between 1997 and 2001 which product had the least percentage increase in price per can/pack?
AMineral water BSoda CJuice DMore than 1 product
Question No. : 50
The difference between the prices of mineral water and juice cans is the least in:
A1996 B1998 C2000 D1995
Question No. : 51
The Controller of Examinations has to schedule six subjects Biology, Chemistry, English, Hindi, Mathematics and Physics for
the HSC examination, from Monday to Saturday. In scheduling these six subjects, he must ensure that
The Biology examination, which is scheduled after the Hindi examination, is scheduled on the day immediately after the
Chemistry examination.
The Physics examination, which is scheduled on the day immediately before or immediately after the English examination,
is scheduled before the Mathematics examination.
In how many different ways can the six subjects be scheduled from Monday through Saturday?
A6 B12 C16 D24
Question No. : 52
If the Mathematics examination is scheduled before the Hindi examination, then the Biology examination is scheduled on which
day of the week?
AWednesday BThursday CFriday DSaturday
Question No. : 53
If the Hindi examination is scheduled on Monday, on which day of the week can Chemistry not be scheduled?
ATuesday BWednesday CThursday DFriday
Question No. : 54
If the Mathematics examination is scheduled on Saturday, which examination cannot be scheduled on Monday?
AChemistry BEnglish CHindi DPhysics

DIRECTIONS for the question: Go through the graph and the information given below and answer the question that follows.
Question No. : 55
Table 1 shows the number of ships that arrived at Mumbai port on different days of the week from October 9th to
15th i.e., from Sunday to Saturday.
Table " 1
Oct Oct Oct Oct Oct
Oct 9th Oct 10th th th th th
Day 11 12 13 14 15th
Sunday Monday
Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday Saturday
Number
of ships 28 47 40 45 40 35 25
arrived
Each of the ships mentioned in Table 1 departs from the port in the next week, starting from October 16th to October 22nd
i.e., Sunday to Saturday. Table 2 shows the number of ships that departed from the port on different days.
Table " 2
Oct Oct Oct Oct Oct
th Oct 17th th th th Oct 22nd
Day 16 18 19 20 21th
Monday Saturday
Sunday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday
Number
of ships 37 43 50 45 35 30 20
arrived
Further, no ship arriving at the port can depart from the port on or before the 5th day after the day on which it arrived. Also, no
ship can remain at the port after the 10th day after the day on which it arrived. For example, a ship which arrived on
Wednesday cannot depart on or before the next Monday but it must definitely depart on or before the next Saturday.
If, of the ships that arrived on Monday, October 10th, 22 ships departed on the next Sunday then the number of ships that
arrived on Sunday, October 9th, and departed after the next Sunday is
A13 B15 C22 DCannot be determined
Question No. : 56
If in the above table, all the ships that arrived on or before Tuesday, left on or before next Tuesday, then the number of ships
that arrived on Wednesday and departed on the next Tuesday is
A10 B15 C20 DCannot be determined
Question No. : 57
If 20 ships that arrived on Wednesday departed on Friday, the number of ships that arrived on Friday and departed on Thursday
is at least
A5 B10 C25 D30
Question No. : 58
The number of ships that arrived on Tuesday and departed on Monday is at least
A0 B3 C5 D10
DIRECTIONSforthequestion:Analysethegraph/sgivenbelowandanswerthequestionthatfollows.
Question No. : 59
After Indian Institute of Technology Joint Entrance Examination IIT JEE 380 students took admission in five branches of IIT
Kanpur namely Computer Science, Electronics, Mechanical, Electrical and Civil. After completion of one year, students tried to
change their branch but only few could do it. Priority for opting a branch is Computer Science, Electronics, Mechanical,
Electrical and Civil respectively, which all students follow. For example if a student of Mechanical wants to change his/her
branch he/she will first opt for Computer Science and then Electronics. He/she never opts for branches of lower priority than
him/her. Priority of students decided on the basis of their Cumulative grade point accrued CGPA scored in the first year
exams. CGPA varies from 1 to 10. The student with higher CGPA will get the higher branch mentioned in the priority order. For
example if there are two students from Mechanical branch with CGPA 10 and 9 respectively, and there are only one place
vacant in each of the branches Computer Science and Electronics then the student with higher CGPA10 will get the Computer
Science branch and the student with lower CGPA 9will get the Electronics branch. The following Bar Graph shows the number
of students in IIT Kanpur in first year and second year in different branches. Pie chart shows CGPA scored by the students in first
year.
Find sum of maximum and minimum possible number of mechanical students who can opt for electronics when 5 students of
civil chooses computer science? in numerical value
A50 B C D
Question No. : 60
Find the maximum number of students who can change their branch? in numerical value
A170 B C D
Question No. : 61
If 50% of civil students who changed their branch got C.G.P.A. of 10 out of 10, the maximum number of people of electrical
engineering changing their branch is in numerical value
A40 B C D
Question No. : 62
If only those students were allowed to change their branch, who got C.G.P.A. 8 or more than 8 then find the difference of
minimum and maximum number of students who could change their branch?
A38 B C D
Question No. : 63
In a college every student, except physically handicapped students, has to participate in at least one sport. There are 1200
students in the college, of which 40% are girls. The table below gives the number of boys and girls participating in a sport.
Boys Girls
Cricket 120 80
Football 240 100
Hockey 160 120
Chess 320 240
Volley Ball 100 50
Table tennis 200 60
Badminton 160 150
Cricket, Football, Hockey and Volley ball are outdoor games and rest are indoor games. 30 boys and 10 girls do not participate
in any of the games.
Note:One student can participate in at most one outdoor and one indoor game.
How many boys participate in only one game? in numerical value
A80 B C D
Question No. : 64
6 % of the girls participating in indoor games are physically handicapped. Also, the number of physically handicapped boys
participating in indoor games is twice that of the physically handicapped girls participating in indoor games. If no physically
handicapped person participates in outdoor games, then how many students are physically handicapped?
A121 B C D
Question No. : 65
A chess tournament was organized and all students who participated in the college chess competition took part in it. It was
arranged in the following pattern: Pairs of randomly selected players play against each other. The winners proceed to the next
round. In case there are an odd number of players in a round, one player plays with one of the winners in the same round. Then
depending on who wins either one the earlier winner or both proceed to the next round. There is no draw possible and the
player winning a game gets one point. Then after how many rounds can we surely find out a winner? in numerical value
A10 B C D
Question No. : 66
If only mixed doubles and doubles games are possible in badminton and every student who participated in badminton
participated in at least one doubles game and one mixed doubles game, then what is the minimum number of students who
formed more than two teams?Ignoring the note given in the information: for this question only)
A1 B C D
Section : Quantitative Ability
DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option

Question No. : 67
In the figure shown below, ABC is a triangle, where E is a point on BC such that BE : EC = 6 : 5 and D is a point on AE, such that
AD : DE = 2 : 3. If, BD when produced meets AC in F, such that AF = 8cm, find the length of AC.
A24 B28 C30 D35

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option
Question No. : 68
A220 210 + 1 B220 1 C220 210 1 D220 + 210 + 1
DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.
Question No. : 69
10digit positive integers are formed by using the digits 2 and 3 so that the integer has at least one 2 and one 3 and no two 3s
come together. How many of these integers are divisible by 3? in numerical value
A45 B C D
Question No. : 70
Mehtaab Singh promises his girlfriend Mehboob Kaur a necklace of pearls for her birthday. In order to determine the number
of pearls in the necklace, he asks her to choose a 2digit number. Having done that, he asks her to divide that number by the
sum of its digits and find out the remainder. The remainder determines the number of pearls in the necklace. Mehboob Kaur is
good at math and chooses an integer so that the remainder is the highest. How many pearls are there in the necklace?
A9 B15 C11 D17
Question No. : 71
A company producing brass alloy buys copper and zinc from another firm, the price of copper being twice that of zinc. The
company sells the brass atRs. 196 per kg, thereby making a profit of 40 %. If the ratio of copper to zinc in brass is 2 : 3 and
brass contains only these two metals, find the cost price per kg of each metal.
ARs.200, Rs.100 BRs.140, Rs.70 CRs.196, Rs.98 DRs.100, Rs.50
DIRECTIONS for the question : Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.
Question No. : 72
If log x + y = 1/2{ log k 14 + log xy }, what is the minimum value that integer k can take? in numerical value
A18 B C D
Question No. : 73
If |x|< 1 and |y|< 1, find the sum to infinity of the series x + y + x2 + xy + y2 + x3 + x2y + xy2 + y3 + ...............
A B C D
Question No. : 74
The roots of the equation x2 + 4x 5 = 0 are also the roots of 2x3 + 9x2 6x 5 = 0. Find the third root of the second equation.
A1 B2 C5 DNone of these
Question No. : 75
The population of a city is 200,000. If the annual birth rate and annual death rate are 6 % and 3 % respectively, then calculate
the population of the city after 2 years? in years
A212180 B C D
Question No. : 76
A man bought goods for Rs. 800 and sold half at a gain of 5%. Find at what % gain, he must sell the remaining so as to gain
20% on the whole ?
A25% B30% C40% DNone of these
Question No. : 77
In XYZ, YXZ = 90, XY = 20, YZ = 25 and XZ = 15. A perpendicular, XA, is dropped from vertex X on to hypotenuse YZ and
divides XYZ into two right triangles. Again, perpendiculars are dropped from vertex A on to hypotenuse XZ and hypotenuse
XY to divide XAZ and XAY into two right triangles each. This process is repeated once more. Including the original triangle,
what is the sum of the perimeters of all the triangles formed?
A164.64 B426.24 C196.35 D261.6
Question No. : 78
Rohit has a bag full of red and green balls. If 50% of the red balls were green, then there would be 50% more green balls than
red balls. What percentage of the total balls is green?
A20% B25% C60% D33.33%
Question No. : 79
P, Q, R, S are four stations in order on a railway; the single fare, third class, is Rs. 10 a km., but the company issues weekend
return tickets between any two of these stations at the single fare and a third; the weekend tickets, third class, between P and
R, Q and S, P and S, cost Rs. 3,600, Rs. 3,200 and Rs. 4,800 respectively; how many kms is R distant from Q?
A250 km B200 km C100 km D150 km
Question No. : 80
A flask had some milk in it. One third of the milk was taken out and replaced with water. Then onethird of the resultant mixture
was again taken out and replaced with water. This procedure was repeated 6 times. The volume of mixture in the flask after 2nd
time was 81 liters. Find the milk left in the flask after 6th time?
A7.11 liters B8.5 liters C11.11 liters DCannot be determined
Question No. : 81
Ankita sold an article to Bhavna at 30 % profit. Bhavna in turn sold it to Harsha at 20 % profit. Harsha sold it to Tapsi at 20 %
loss and Tapsi sold it to Jatin at 10% loss. By what percentage was Jatins cost price more/less than Ankitas cost price?
A12.32 % less B12.32 % more C6.16 % less D6.16 % more

Question No. : 82
ABC is a triangle such that AB=20& BC=32. Also,ABC=1500. Find area of ABC in sq.units
A160 B C D
Question No. : 83
In a plane there are 300 seats. The price of each ticket when the plane is full is Rs. 60. For every Rs. 5 increase in the ticket, the
number of tickets sold goes down by 10. Find the price of ticket for which the plane's owner earns the maximum revenue.
A95 B100 C105 D110
Question No. : 84
A grasshopper hops 1 meter in four directions north, south, east and west and leaves a blot wherever it lands, and returns to
the original position before hopping again. In the first stage, the grasshopper starts from a point S and hops in all four
directions. In the second stage, the grasshopper uses the previous blots as starting points and hops in all four directions. In the
third stage, the grasshopper uses the new blots left in the second stage as starting points and hops in all four directions. If the
grasshopper continues this pattern of hopping from new starting points and leaving blots where ever it lands, which of the
following cannot be the total number of distinct blots, other than S, left by the grass hopper after any stage?
A112 B312 C480 D860
Question No. : 85
A vertical tower OA stands at the center O of a square PQRS. Let h and b denote the length OA and PQ respectively. Suppose
angle PAQ = 60o, then the relationship between h and b can be expressed as
A3h2 = 2b2 B2b2 = h2 C2h2 = b2 DNone of these
Question No. : 86
The 3 dimensions of a cuboid are increased by p%, q% and r% respectively. Due to this increase, the volume increases by K%,
where K is an integer. How many values of K are possible if p, q, r are real numbers and can take any value between 10 to 30
both inclusive?
A17 B86 C52 DNone of these
Question No. : 87
The sum of the first n terms of a GP is 2n and the sum of the first 2n terms of the GP is n. What is the sum of the first 3n terms?
An / 2 B3n / 2 Cn / 4 D3n
Question No. : 88
Three friends Ram, Shyam and Mohan have decided to complete a work together. The time taken by Ram alone to the
complete the work is 81/3% more than the time taken by Shyam and Mohan together to complete the work. The time taken
by Shyam alone is 25% more than the time taken by Ram and Mohan together to complete the work. If Mohan alone takes 75
days to complete the work, find the time taken by all three of them together to complete the work.
A B C DNone of these
Question No. : 89
If m and n are integers and mn = 10, then which of the following cannot be the value of m + n?
A29 B25 C52 D50
Question No. : 90
The percentage profits on three articles A, B, and C is 10%, 20% and 25% and the ratio of their cost price is 1:2:4. Also, the ratio
of the number of articles sold of A, B and C is 2:5:2.The overall profit percentage is:
A15 B17 C19 D21
Question No. : 91
In how many ways can 34300 be written as a product of 8 different integers?
A5 B6 C7 D8
Question No. : 92
Consider a hemispherical dome like concrete structure on the ground with its centre P on the ground. The radius of the
hemisphere isx. Rohit stands at a distance 2x from the centre. A lamp post rises from the point diametrically opposite the Rohit
position i.e. at a distance 3x from the Rohit is the base of the lamp post. From this position, Rohit is just able to see the top of
the lamp post. What is the height of the lamp post? Neglect the Rohit height
A B C D3x
Question No. : 93
In a quadrilateral ABCD, which is not a trapezium, it is known that DAB = ABC= 600. Moreover CAB = CBD. Then
AAB = BC + CD BAB = AD + CD CAB = BC + AD DAB = AC + AD
Question No. : 94
Electricity bill is directly proportional to the number of units of electricity consumed. If Rs 16100 is charged for 2300x units, how
much should be the bill for 13y units?
A B C91 Rs. D
Question No. : 95
If 2x2 6x + 6 > x2 + 2x 9, which of the following represents a range for x where this inequality must hold true? write the
correct option
1. 1, 5 2. 5, 3. 3, 5 4. 3,
A2 B C D
Question No. : 96
The difference between two positive numbers is 72. The smaller number exactly divides the greater number and gives a
quotient 4. Find the numbers.
A12, 48 B24, 96 C18, 90 D36, 108
DIRECTIONS for the question: Answer the following question as per the best of your ability.
Question No. : 97
In an A.P., the pth term is q and p + qth term is 0.Then qth term is
A p Bp + q Cp Dp q
Question No. : 98
Three friends Arun, Tarun and Varun run a race of 100 m. All of them run at constant speeds. Tarun beats Varun by 20 m and
Varun beats Arun by 20 m. How many meters does Tarun beats Arun? in numerical value
A36 B C D
Question No. : 99
The government decides to provide employment to the adult population of a drought affected village for 180 days under the
MGNREGA scheme. It is decided that man will get Rs. 180 per day and women will get Rs. 240 per day as compensation. Of the
3553 people, 1/9 of the men and 1/12th of women turned up to work.
How much approximate money in all was spent by the government?
A12 million B13 million C14 million DData insufficient
Question No. : 100
At the 2008 Olympics, ShellyAnn Fraser won the women's 100 m in a time of 10.78 s. If she had continued running, how much
further would she have run by the time an athlete running at the qualifying speed 11.32 s would have crossed the line? in m,
to the closest integer
A5 B C D
QNo:1,Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
Option A is not the major idea. The main idea is the way in which different companies having different cultural environments
adapted to each other's requirements to make jeans a fashionable clothing and introducing newer designs. This same idea is
further extended to possible cooperation between radio and telephone companies on similar lines in order to develop cellular
technology. Hence option C captures this idea. Option B is merely a statement that is true in context of passage but not the main
idea. Option D is clearly opposite to the idea expressed in passage.
QNo:2,Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect as jeans as a fashion product originated in Europe, option C is incorrect as finishing reduces the durability by
almost 80%, option D is incorrect as Levi Strauss manufactures jeans for the masses from beginning itself. Option B is true as per
the lines 'These fashions were then imported into the United States in the early 1980s, invading Levi's home market. Levi Strauss
was forced to defend its brand by adopting many of the European fashions and, ultimately, to preempt the Europeans by
introducing innovations of its own' and as per the lines 'These new finishing techniques have led to a cascade of changes in
cooperating industries. Textiles have been redesigned to better withstand the extensive abrasion. Washing machines have been
redesigned to survive the abuse of stone washing. Continuing changes in raw materials and equipment have the incidental effect
of subtle and not so subtle changes in the look and feel of the finished garment; this in turn becomes a new fashion element'.
QNo:3,Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
Model T implies a product which is consumed by the masses. Option B is incorrect because unlike normal clothing production
jeans could be produced using assembly line production (mechanization is possible) and option C is incorrect because jeans were
popular in america inspite of the limited no. of cuts and styles. Option D is incorrect as it was meant for mass consumption. Model
T highlights jeans being a commodity of mass consumption due to large scale production (as a result of assembly line) and lower
prices (hence affordable). Option A is true as per the lines 'Levi's are the prototypical commodity of American mass consumption,
the Model T of the garment industry. Clothing production is notoriously difficult to mechanize, but the cutting and assembly of
jeans is as close to assemblyline production as can be found in the outer garment industry'.
QNo:4,Correct Answer:41253
Explanation: In the given case, statement 4 is the opening sentence of the paragraph as it clearly introduces the subject of the
paragraph, existentialism.
Statement 1 then takes this forward and provides further details for the same. Statement 2 provides an example for the topic of
statement 2. Statement 5 introduces a contradiction and statement 3 wraps up the given context.
Explanation:
The two mandatory pairs that help you solve this question is: 24 and 45. Sentence 3 will open the sequence.
Explanation:
This is a dense paragraph that requires close understanding and evaluation. Most of the options in this case are close to the actual
paragraph and make sure that your job is a fairly tough one. Let's analyse each option and use elimination to identify the correct
answer:
Option 1: this only contains partial information and does not provide a complete summary; misses out capitalism.
Option 2: this option contains all the aspects and highlights the correct relationship.
Option 3: this option provides an incorrect relationship. According to this option, the speed at which we are operating will provide
a redistributed mechanism to the world. This is completely incorrect in the given case.
Option 4: No such point is mentioned in the paragraph.
QNo:7,Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
The answer to this question can be derived from the lines: But perhaps the single most notable characteristic of English" for better
and worse"is its deceptive complexity. Nothing in English is ever quite what it seems. Take the simple word what. We use it every
day"indeed, every few sentences.
Options 1 and 2 are not mentioned in the passage.
Option 3 is just one side of the given argument presented by the author of the passage
Explanation:
Refer to the lines: Against this, however, there is an occasional tendency in English, particularly in academic and political circles,
to resort to waffle and jargon. At a conference of sociologists in America in 1977, love was defined as "the cognitiveaffective state
characterized by intrusive and obsessive fantasizing concerning reciprocity of amorant feelings by the object of the amorance."
That is jargon"the practice of never calling a spade a spade when you might instead call it a manual earthrestructuring
implement" and it is one of the great curses of modern English.
The word waffle means: Vague and lengthy writing or talk.
The word jargon means: special words or expressions used by a profession or group that are difficult for others to understand.
In this case, option 3 combines the meanings of these two words and provides us the correct answer.
Explanation:
Statement I can be derived from the lines: In The English Language, Robert Burchfield writes: 'As a source of intellectual power and
entertainment the whole range of prose writing in English is probably unequalled anywhere else in the world.' I would like to think
he's right, but I can't help wondering if Mr Burchfield would have made the same sweeping assertion had he been born Russian or
German or Chinese.
Statement II can be derived from the lines: For one thing its pronouns are largely, and mercifully, uninflected.
Statement III is incorrect. Refer to the lines: Above all, English is mercifully free of gender.
Statement III is clearly incorrect in the given context.
Explanation:
The first thing is that the author views the succinct nature of English as a positive. This rules out options 1 and 3.
Also, he is comparing English with other languages and not talking about using English in conjunction with other languages.
Juxtaposition means 'the act of positioning closetogether (or sidebyside), generally for comparison'.
Explanation:
Let us understand the meanings of the options in order to identify the correct answer:
1. Expounding: explanatory; present and explain (a theory or idea) in detail.
2. carping: persistent petty and unjustified criticism
3. critical: marked by a tendency to find and callattention to errors and flaws
4. denunciatory: containing warning of punishment
We can clearly see that option 1 is the best answer in the given case.
Explanation:
In this case, you need to possess a strong vocabulary in order to understand the meanings of the options. Let's explore these one by
one:
Lexicon: A language user's knowledge of words
Semantics: The study of language meaning
Vernacular: Being or characteristic of or appropriate to everyday language
Linguistic: Consisting of or relatedto language
Expediency: The quality of being suited to the end in view
Combining the last two meanings, we can see that option 4 is the best answer in the given case.
Explanation:
In this case, you need to identify the right pairs in order to identify the correct answer. The two most significant pairs in this case
are 15 (statement 5 follows statement 1 as it provides an example of what the author is talking about) and 26 (linked by the
pronoun those). Statement 3 forms the generic opening sentence for the paragraph and this helps us in finding the correct answer
sequence..
Explanation:
The eroding of the legitimacy and credibility of the UN is reflected in 2, which talks about the UN being bypassed in the Iraq war
and the perceived vulnerability to pressure from powerful states. 3 is an opening sentence and it is linked to 2.
4 takes the idea further. 1 and 5 are again a mandatory pair because of the key word 'international'.
Explanation:
You need to be really careful with the option you select for this question. Most of the answer options in this question are very close
and carefully consider each before selecting the right answer. Remember, this is a paragraph summary question and you need to
identify the answer that carries the most significant points of the paragraph. Let us analyze each option one at a time:
Option 1: The option uses the phrasing 'most objects', something which is not stated in the passage.
Option 2: This option almost treats a material object as something that has some conscious power to bring about a certain effect;
the option assigns power to these objects which is actually incorrect. The paragraph states that the owners attach themselves to
objects and not the other way round.
Option 3: The paragraph does not talk in terms of 'chances' and is simply describing a certain phenomenon that takes place with
material objects when their owners assign value to them.
Option 4: This is the apt answer as it covers the central aspect of the passage and does not commit any mistake (like the options
above).
Explanation: In the given case, the author of the passage uses the given example to point out a repetitive pattern in news
reporting. He wishes to highlight how a certain event is happening over and over and we are not doing enough to reach the logical
conclusion. Keeping this in mind, we can see that option 4 is the best answer.
Explanation: The answer can be directly derived from the lines: That could be true. But theres also another option. Maybe its
us: maybe journalists arent listening. The story never changes because we stopped looking for the other stories we could
tell...What if, as a journalist, Ive been steering the national conversation in the wrong direction by not questioning the reasons put
forth? Herd immunity matters a lot, and theres good reason to think we arent listening well enough to what the herd has to say.
Explanation: Ad nauseum is used to refer to the fact that something has been done or repeated so often that it has become
annoying or tiresome to a great degree i.e sickening extent.
Explanation: In the given passage, the author suggests that by choosing not to vaccinate their kids, these parents are putting
the general public at risk. In other words, they place the welfare of their children above public good. Now statements I and IV refer
to this.
Explanation: All of the options can be derived from the lines: That means the more vaccinated people there are, the harder it is
for a disease to spread. Vaccines can stop an outbreak before it happens. This socalled herd immunity protects children who are
too young to get a vaccine, people who are too sick to get one, and anybody whose vaccination isnt working as well as it should.
Explanation: In the given case, the author of the passage wants us to explore a certain subject and wants deeper questions to
be asked about the same. He goes on explain the urgent need to consider important points related to vaccinations and how our
understanding of the subject might be incorrect. Considering this, option 4 is the apt answer.
Explanation: The connected set of statements is: 4315. These form set of introductory sentences that provide us the details
about the incidence. Statement 2 is not connected to the descriptive nature of the other statements.
Explanation:
Option 1 incorrectly quotes Marx and Gramsci as founders of conflict theory.
Option 2 is incorrect as there are no rules mentioned in the passage (rules with respect to conflict theory).
Option 3 sporadically picks up words from the paragraph but actually does not stick to the main idea of the paragraph.
Option 4 is the apt choice in this case as it covers all the important aspects of the paragraph.
Explanation:
Refer to the lines 1115 of the third para"When visual acuity......large print". A word printed in larger letters moves into the
periphery of the retina and thus it is hard to discern for the eye. Therefore option A is false. Option B is not true as smaller and
larger letters are different for the retina. Option C seems to be the best answer. Option D is factually wrong.
Explanation:
Refer to the last sentence of the second last para "Perhaps...replace paper." Option B represents a twisted form of the given
information in the passage. Option A is only partially correct. Its first half is correct but in the second half, wherein it states that
there is no loss of comprehension, the option commits a mistake and goes against the passage. Option D is irrelevant and was
nowhere mentioned in the passage.
Explanation:
Statement (i) is nowhere mentioned in the passage whereas statement (iv) is false as per the information given in the passage.
Refer to the first 56 line of the 2nd para .Both the statements (ii) and (iii) are mentioned in 2nd paragraph.
Explanation:
Except line 2, which talks of corruption in general terms, the rest focus on the anticorruption movement called the IAC.
Explanation: This is an easy question. Statements 4253 form the connected set of statements. Statement 1 is the odd one out
here as the subject of the statement (selfcontrol) is absent from the other statements. Considering the easy nature of this question,
you should have easily spotted the correct answer.
Explanation: In this case, you need to know the meaning of the word 'adversarial'. It means 'involving or characterized by
conflict or opposition.' Considering this, we can see that option 3 is the best fit for the given case.
Explanation: The answer to this question can be found from the lines: This interrogation of textual space, presented in blessedly
jargonfree prose, constitutes a significant contribution to the study and interpretation of contemporary responses to nowclassic
texts, while also placing us squarely in the midst of that most mysterious element: the opaque substance of the reading mind.
The last line is particularly significant in the given case.
Explanation: Statements I and II can be derived from the lines: He argues this graffiti reveals a material dimension (and a
material value) of old books that has been lost to time: that is, the bound object as not merely text but also "a place and a
property", a locus of particular ownership benefitting from incremental enhancement.
Statement III can be derived from the lines: The thrust of the work is that "the history of any particular book does not conclude
with its publication."
Explanation: Refer to the lines: Far from being passive, readers, in their act of marking a conscious deciding to remember
become participants in a historical body of understanding.
A postit is a nothing else but a sticky note for remembering things. We can see that option 2 is the perfect fit in the given case.
Explanation: The meaning for the word: a division or contrast between two things that are or are represented as being opposed
or entirely different.
Synonyms for dichotomy: division, separation, divorce, split, gulf, chasm
Refer to the lines now: This, it seems to me, is a quietly remarkable phrase, one whose dichotomy may strike the modern reader as
curious. After all, is not reading a book "using" it, in the most fundamental sense?
In the given case, we can see that the word 'contrast' best fits as a replacement for the word. This makes option 1 the correct
answer.
This is a close question as the other words are also synonyms for the word. But remember, we need to select a word which best fits
in the given context.
Explanation: In the given case, option 2 is the best answer option. It highlights how the activities of the reader can be
interpreted in a different manner and how his inscriptions can be seen in another light.
Explanation:
The eight stations are equally spaced, so each of the eight gaps is of the same length. Suppose the length of the entire track is 8x,
so that each gap is x. Since the red and the green trains cover the entire track in 40 minutes each, their speeds are 12x each so that
they cover each gap in 5 minutes. Since the blue and the orange trains cover the entire track in 1 hour each, their speeds are 8x
each so that they cover each gap in 7.5 minutes. The red trains will leave at 6:00 a.m., 7:00 a.m., and the last red train will leave
at 5:00 p.m. The blue trains will leave at 6:15 a.m., 7:15 a.m., and the last red train will leave at 4:15 p.m. The green trains will
leave at 6:30 a.m., 7:30 a.m., and the last red train will leave at 4:30 p.m. The orange trains will leave at 6:45 a.m., 7:45 a.m.,
and the last red train will leave at 4:45 p.m.
At 6:45 a.m., the blue train has covered 4 gaps to reach station A. The distance between the blue and the orange train at 6:45 is 2
gaps and since their speeds are the same, they will meet at station H. Now considering station H as the starting point, the two
trains are moving in opposite directions at the same speed. So, the two trains will meet at station D, which is diametrically
opposite station H and this cycle will continue. Thus the blue and the orange train will always meet at stations D and H.
Explanation:
From the given information, we know that Lalit discussed a case on Marketing Management and Yogesh discussed a case on either
Financial Management or Operations Management. Since Lalit and Yogesh have discussed cases in different fields of management,
the answer is option 3
Explanation:
In option 1, suppose Prashant is the only teacher discussing a case on Financial Management. Yogesh must then discuss a case on
Operations Management. Since Lalit is discussing a case on Marketing Management, there should be one other teacher discussing
a case in the same field. So, Anand and Rajanikant must discuss a case on Operations Management. Now, Shridhar and Vishal
cannot discuss a case on Operations Management or Financial Management and must therefore discuss cases on Marketing
Management. In this case, there would be three teachers discussing cases on Marketing Management, which is not twice as much
as the number of teachers discussing cases on Financial Management. Hence option 1.
Explanation:
In option 1, if Rajanikant and Yogesh discuss cases on Financial Management, then Anand also discusses a case on Financial
Management. In this case, there should be six teachers discussing cases on Marketing Management. This is not possible. So, option
1 is false.
In option 2, if Vishal discusses a case on Marketing Management, the other teacher discussing a case on Marketing Management is
Lalit. Since Shridhar discusses a case on Operations Management, Yogesh must discuss a case on Financial Management. Since
Prashant and Yogesh discuss cases on Financial Management, there should be four teachers discussing cases on Marketing
Management. Since Anand and Vishal discuss cases in different fields, this would not be possible. So option 2 is false.
Option 4 is obviously false as the original information clearly states that Lalit discusses a case on Marketing management.
Explanation:
If exactly one teacher discussed a case on Operations Management, then 2 teachers must discuss cases on Financial Management
and four teachers must discuss cases on Marketing Management. If Rajanikant discusses a case on Marketing Management, then
Lalit and Anand also discuss cases on Marketing Management. The fourth teacher discussing a case on Marketing Management
could be either Shridhar or Prashant. The teacher discussing the case on Operations Management could be Vishal or Yogesh, so
options 3 and 4 need not be true. Since Prashant could discuss a case on Marketing Management, option 1 need not be true.
Hence the best answer is option 2.
Explanation:
Since Arindam does not visit places without no smoking zone, Sukhothai or (a) gets eliminated. For the other three options, the
objective is to identify the consolidated rating for (Food) + (2 Dcor) + (Service)
Spice Route = 3.5 + 2 5 + 3 = 16.5
Bann Thai = 4.5 + 2 4.5 + 4 = 17.5
Blue Elephant = 3.5 + 2 5 + 3 = 16.5
Since 17.5 > 16.5, the right answer is (C).
Explanation:
Since Suzy does not visit a restaurant with music, Sukhothai and Spice Route and eliminated. Since Arindam does not visit a
restaurant without a no smoking zone, Sukhothai is eliminated. Since liquor is on the agenda, Spice is eliminated. Hence, among
the choices, (A),(B) and (D) are eliminated.
Hence, the common friend is likely to treat Suzy and Arindam at Baan Thai or Blue Elephant. The right answer is thus (C)
Explanation:
Since the budget is Rs. 1,150, the only restaurants which cater to that budget are Sukhothai, Spice and Turquoise Cottage.
Consolidated rating for Sukhothai = 2 3.5 + 1 3 + 2 3= 16
Consolidated rating for Spice = 2 3.5 + 1 3.5 + 2 3 = 16.5
Consolidated rating for Turquoise Cottage = 2 2.5+1 3.5 + 2 3.5 = 15.5
Since 16.5 is the highest rating, the right answer is (D).
Explanation:
Males Females Score
P Q R S T U V K L M N O P Q

A

B

C

D

E

F

G a

As B's group is better than at least three groups, score of B's group cannot be O, P, Q. Similarly, the score of C's group is K or M as
L is the score of F. As the score of B is better than C. it can be seen that B gets score K and C gets score M. Also S's group got score
K implies that B and S are in one group. R's score is Q. Therefore, score of P's group must be P as the score of exactly one group is
same as the name of the member of that group. E and T are partners. O is not the score of this group. The only remaining score for
E is score N. Now, remaining scores are O, P, Q. Hence, now it can be seen that A's group got the score O. R's group got score Q
and R's partner was not D, so D's group did not get score Q. Now, it will be clear that D's group got score P and G's group got
score Q. Hence, R is G's partner and P is D's partner.
Again, the scores of Q's group and U's group were better than those of U's group and V's group respectively. Hence, among scores
L, M and O, Q's group got score L. U's group got score M and V's group got score O.
Hence, the results would be as follows
Male Female Score
A V O
B S K
C U M
D P P
E T N
F Q L
G R Q
Explanation:
Males Females Score

A

B

C

D

E

F

G a

Male Female Score
A V O
B S K
C U M
D P P
E T N
F Q L
G R Q
Explanation:
Males Females Score

A

B

C

D

E

F

G a

Male Female Score
A V O
B S K
C U M
D P P
E T N
F Q L
G R Q
Explanation:
Males Females Score

A

B

C

D

E

F

G a

Male Female Score
A V O
B S K
C U M
D P P
E T N
F Q L
G R Q
Explanation:
0.8 gm of juice = 1 ml
1 pack = 800 gm = 1000 ml.
Price of 1 can of juice = price of a pack = 0.8 price of a pack
Least increase for mineral water = 25 paise (in 1997) and least increase for soda = 50 paise.
Least increase for juice = 25paise per pack in 1999
0.8 25 = 20 paise increase per can. Hence, 1.
Explanation:
1 ml of soda = 1.25 gm
800ml = 1.25 800 = 1000 gm.
Price of 800 gm of soda = 0.8 Price of a can. The distance between the two price lines is maximum in 1996. Hence, 1.
Explanation:
[Notice that percentage increase in price of a pack of a juice equals the percentage increase in the price of a can.]
Explanation:
The difference in prices in a can of mineral water and juice is the least in the year in which the difference in the price of a pack of
juice and the price of a can of mineral water is the least. Visually, the distance between the coordinates of the respective graphs is
the least in 1995 and 1999 = Rs.3. But, 1999 is not there in the list of alternatives. Hence, [4].
Explanation:
From the first clue, we know that Biology is scheduled on the day immediately after Chemistry, and both these subjects are
scheduled on some days after Hindi. From the second clue, we know that Physics and English are scheduled on consecutive days in
some order and Mathematics is scheduled for some day after both subjects. Based on these, we can consider the following
possibilities for scheduling the six subjects.
Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday Saturday

Hindi Chemistry Biology English Physics Mathematics
Hindi Chemistry Biology Physics English Mathematics
Hindi Physics English Mathematics Chemistry Biology
Hindi English Physics Mathematics Chemistry Biology
Hindi Physics English Chemistry Biology Mathematics
Hindi English Physics Chemistry Biology Mathematics
Physics English Mathematics Hindi Chemistry Biology
English Physics Mathematics Hindi Chemistry Biology
Physics English Hindi Mathematics Chemistry Biology
English Physics Hindi Mathematics Chemistry Biology
Physics English Hindi Chemistry Biology Mathematics
English Physics Hindi Chemistry Biology Mathematics
Thus there are 12 different ways in which the six subjects can be scheduled.
Explanation:

If the Mathematics examination is scheduled before the Hindi examination, then the Biology examination is scheduled on
Saturday.
Explanation:
If the Hindi examination is scheduled on Monday, then the Chemistry examination can be scheduled on Tuesday, Thursday or
Friday, but not on Wednesday.
Explanation:

If the Mathematics examination is scheduled on Saturday, then the Chemistry examination cannot be scheduled on Monday.
Explanation:
From the given data the following table can be constructed.
Departure Day
Sun Mon Tue Wed Thu Fri Sat
Sun a b c d 28
Mon e f g h i 47
Tue j k l m n 40
Arrival
Wed o p q r s 45
Day
Thu t u v w 40
Fri x y z 35
Sat a' b' 25
37 43 50 45 35 30 20
Given that e = 22
a is (37 22) = 15
b + c + d is (28 15) = 13
The number of ships that arrived on Sunday and departed after the next Sunday is 13.
Explanation:
Departure Day
Sun a b c d 28
Mon e f g h i 47
Tue j k l m n 40
Arrival
Wed o p q r s 45
Day
Thu t u v w 40
Fri x y z 35
Sat a' b' 25
37 43 50 45 35 30 20
From the table
d+h+i+l+m+n=0
a + b + c + e + f + g + j + k = 28 + 47 + 40 = 115
And also a + b + c + e + f + g + j + k + o = 37 + 43 + 50 = 130
o = 15
o is 15.
Explanation:
Departure Day
Sun a b c d 28
Mon e f g h i 47
Tue j k l m n 40
Arrival
Wed o p q r s 45
Day
Thu t u v w 40
Fri x y z 35
Sat a' b' 25
37 43 50 45 35 30 20
From the table n + r + s + v + w + y + z + a' + b' = 50. But a' + b' = 25.
So, n + r + s + v + w + y + z = 25
As r = 20, the maximum value of y + z = 5
As, x + y + z = 35, the least possible value of x is 30.
Explanation:
Departure Day
Sun a b c d 28
Mon e f g h i 47
Tue j k l m n 40
Arrival
Wed o p q r S 45
Day
Thu t u v W 40
Fri x y Z 35
Sat a' b' 25
37 43 50 45 35 30 20
From the table a + b + e + f + j = 80
(a + b + e + f) is at the most 75.
j is at the least 5.
Explanation:
Mechanical students can opt for either Computer Science or Electronics.
When students of Civil choose Computer Science, others joining Computer Science will be 30 5 = 25.
Maximum Mechanical students who can make shift is 30 + 25 = 55.(i.e. if all Civil and Electrical students who changes their
branch opt for Mechanical)
Now if 25 students of Electronics choose Computer Science maximum Mechanical people who can choose Electronics is 25 + 25 =
50.
Minimum Mechanical students opting for Electronics is 0 (Since Electrical or Civil students can directly opt for Electronics as they
may get more CGPA then Mechanical students).
So, answer = 0 + 50 = 50
Explanation:
To maximize the students who can change their branch is only possible when students of a particular branch changes to the
immediate next branch in priority.
1. Maximum civil students changing = 90 60 = 30.
2. Maximum Electrical students changing (if all 30 students of Civil joins Electrical in second year, is only possible if total Electrical
students shifting from their branch) is 25 + 30 = 55.
3. Maximum Mechanical students changing their branch is (if all 55 students of Electrical shifts to Mechanical) = 55.
4. Maximum Electronics students changing their branch (if 55 students of Mechanical joins Electronics which is only possible if 75
50 = 25, so 55 25 = 30. So 30 students of Electronics shifts to Computer Science
Computer Science students cannot change their branch.
Thus, total maximum students changing their branch = 30 + 55 + 55 + 30 = 170
Explanation:
50% of civil students who changed their branch got C.G.P.A. of 10 out of 10 = 50 30/100 = 15.
Students of Civil Engineering will move to Computer Science.
So only 15 students of Civil are left who changed to any of the branch.
Maximum Electrical Engg. students changed their branch in this case would be 25 + 15 = 40 which can happen only if rest 15
students of Civil joins Electrical.
Explanation:
CGPA No. of Students
810 15 380/100 = 57
68 10 380/100 = 38
Maximum students getting CGPA 8 or more
= 57 + 38 = 95 (when all 38 students get CGPA 8).
Minimum = 57.
So, Answer is 9557=38.
Explanation:
There are total of 1200 0.6 = 720 boys; out of these 30 do not play any game.
Hence total number of boys playing at least one game = 690
Now by the given condition one can participate at most in two games, one outdoor and one indoor.
Now total number of boys playing = 120 + 240 + 160 + 320 + 100 + 200 + 160 = 1,300
Now as 690 boys play and they can play at most two games, then number of boys playing more than one game = 1,300 690 =
610. Hence, number of students playing only one game = 690 610 = 80.
Note: Answer = 2 * 690 1,300 = 80
Explanation:
No. of girls participating in indoor games = 450.
6 % of 450 = 27 are physically handicapped girls
As physically handicapped boys are twice that ofphysically handicapped girls, so there are 54 are boys
Also 40 physically handicappedstudents do not participate in any of the outdoor games
Total = 27 + 54 + 40 = 121
Explanation:
There are 560 players in the first round.
here are 280 matches.
Thus we have
Round Players Winners
1 560 280
2 280 140
3 140 70
4 70 35
5 35 17 or 18
6 17 or 18 8 or 9
7 8 or 9 4 or 5
8 4 or 5 2 or 3
9 2 or 3 1 or 2
Thus, in 10 rounds one winner can be clearly determined
Explanation:
There are 160 boys and 150 girls who play badminton.
Hence, 150 mixed doubles teams can be easily formed.
But 10 boys are left with no girl partner.
Hence at least 1 girl has to form more than two " mixed doubles teams i.e., she will participate in 11 mixed doubles apart from one
doubles team.
Hence, minimum number of students participating in more than two teams is one.
Explanation:
Explanation:
So we get 4th option as answer.
Explanation: The sum of the digits should add up to a multiple of 3. So, the integer can have nine 2s and one 3 or six 2s and
four 3s. In the first case, the nine 2s can be arranged in 1 way and the one 3 can now be arranged in 10 different ways. So there
are 10 such integers.
In the second case, let the 3s are placed as follows:
x1 3 x2 3 x3 3 x4 3 x5
where x1 is the no. of places before first 3, x2 is the no. of places between 1st & IInd 3 and so on such that
x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 + x5 = 6 & x10, x2 1, x3 1, x4 1, x5 0
As the lest value of x2, x3, x4 is 1, so assigning this value we get
=> x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 + x5 = 3 where xi i = 0,1, 2, 3, 4, 5
No. of ways of arranging 3s = 3 + 5 1C51 = 7C4 = 35 & at remaining 6 places, 2s can be placed
in 1 way. So total cases here are 35. Thus, in total 10 + 35 = 45 integers can be formed.
Explanation:
To maximise the remainder the quotient should be maximum , hence we start with the maximum sum of digits
99 / 18 leaves remainder 9.
98 / 17 leaves remainder 13 and 89 / 17 leaves remainder 4.
We can conclude that she chooses 79 so that the necklace contains 15 pearls.
Explanation:
Ratio in which the cheaper and dearer is mixed = 3 : 2. Let zinc be price at Rs. x per kg. so that copper is priced at Rs. 2x per kg. By
applying the allegation rule,
420 3x = 4x 280 7x = 700, x = 100, Copper is Rs. 200 / kg and zinc is Rs. 100/kg.
Hence the answer is option A
Explanation:
log (x + y)2 = log {(k 14) + xy}
So (x + y)2 = (k 14) * xy
x2 + y2 = (k 16) * xy
Given that logs exist only of positive numbers, we know that xy is positive and x + y is positive.
So we can infer that both x and y are positive.
Log of 0 is not defined, so k cannot be 16.
What comes to mind now is that probably the minimum value of k is 17.
However let us try with a few real numbers to check

If x = y, we get solution as k = 18
If 2x = y, we get solution as k = 16 + 5/2 = 18.5
Hence, we can say that the minimum is at k = 18
Explanation:
Hence the answer is option A

Explanation:
The roots of the first equation are 1, 5.
We can rewrite the second equation as 2x(x2 + 4x 5) + x2 + 4x 5 = 0.
(2x + 1) (x2 + 4x 5) = 0, So the third root is 1/2.
Explanation: The difference in the two rates is 3%.

Now at the end of first year, there will be an increase of 3% of 200,000 i.e. 6,000.
In the second year the growth of 3% will be on the population of 206,000 i.e. 6180.
Thus the population at the end of 2 years will be 206,000 + 6,180 = 212,180.
Explanation:
SP of 1st half = 400 x 105/100 = Rs. 420
SP of whole = 800 x 120/100 = Rs. 960
Therefore, Second half he should sell at = (540400)x100/400 = 140x100/400 = 35% profit.
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
Explanation:
Explanation: Let number of red balls = x (after applying condition)

Then by given condition = number of green balls = 1.5x
Total balls = 2.5x
Original number of red balls = 2x
Original number of green balls = 0.5x
Explanation:
Let the distance from P to Q, Q to R and R to S be X, Y and Z km. Then 10 (X + Y) (4 / 3) = 3600...(i),
10 (Y + Z) (4 / 3) = 3200.....(ii)
10 (X + Y + Z) (4 / 3) = 4800..... (iii).
On solving, we get X = 120, Y = 150 & Z = 90 km, i.e., the distance of R from Q is 150 km.
Explanation:
Let 'a' be the initial quantity of milk and 'b' be the quantity of milk or mixture replaced each time and b = a/3. the volume of
mixture left after 2nd (or nth)operation is equal to the initial quantity of milk in the flask as every time, the quantity taken out and
replaced is the same.
Thus milk left after 6th operation:initial milk = (ab/a)n= 64/729
Now, here n = 6 and a = 81. on solvingMilk left after 6th operation = 64/729 * 81 = 7.11 litres .
Explanation:
Let the cost price for Ankita be Rs. 100:
Thus, we form the following table
Cost Price Profit/Loss Selling Price
Ankita 100 30 130
Bhavna 130 26 156
Harsha 156 31.2 124.8
Tapsi 124.8 12.48 112.32
Jatin 112.32
112.32 is more than 100 by 12.32 %.
Explanation:
Explanation:
Let the price of the ticket be Rs. (60 + 5X)
The number of people in the plane would be 300 10X
The revenue of the plane owner would be : (60 + 5X) (300 10X)
= (18000 + 900X 50X2 ) = 18000 + 50 X[(18 X)]
When the sum of 2 or more quantities is constant, then the sum of their product is maximum when the quantities are equal.
In X(18 X) , X and 18 X have a constant sum of 18 .
So, X(18 X) would be maximum when X = 18 X = 9.
Thus, maximum revenue would be at a price = 60 + (5 9) = 105.
Explanation:
Explanation:
Explanation:
The increase in volume will be minimum when p, q and r are 10% each.
The new volume will be 1.1 1.1 1.1 = 1.331 times of the original volume.
So the percentage increase in volume will be 33.1%.
Similarly, the increase in volume will be maximum when p, q and r are 30% each.
The new volume will be 1.3 1.3 1.3 = 2.197 times of the original volume.
So the percentage increase in volume will be 119.7%.
As the final percentage increase in volume is an integer, the value must be an integer from 34 to 119 i.e. 86 distinct values are
possible.
Explanation:
Suppose the GP has 9 terms, a, ar, ar2, , ar8. The sum of the first 3 terms of the GP is a(1 + r + r2) = 2n. The sum of the first 6
terms of the GP is a(1 + r + r2) + ar3(1 + r + r2) = 2n + ar3(1 + r + r2) = n. So, ar3(1 + r + r2) = n. Substituting for a(1 + r + r2) =
2n, we get 2nr3 = n or r3 = 1/2. The sum of the first 9 terms of the GP is a(1 + r + r2) + ar3(1 + r + r2) + ar6(1 + r + r2) = n +
r3[ar3(1 + r + r2)] = n + (1/2)(n) = 3n/2.
Explanation:
Explanation: Given that mn = 100. m and n can be any of the following pairs 25, 4 or 20, 5 or 50, 2 or 100,1 or 10, 10 whose
sum is 29 or 25 or 52 or 101 or 20 but there are no factors of 100 whose sum can be 50.
Explanation: Let the costs be 100, 200, 400 per unit.

Let the no. of units be 2, 5, 2
The costs will be 200, 1000, 800 and total cost will be 2000.
10, 20 and 25 % resp. = 20, 200, 200
The overall profit = 420.
Overall profit % = 420 100/2000 = 21
Explanation:
34300 = 225273
As we need eight different integers so we will try to break 34300 into maximum possible number of different integers
34300 =(11225577)7
now we have 9 integers out of which eight are different and 7 is getting repeated so we can multiply one of the 7 with every other
number to get eight different integers and this can be done in 8 ways but when we multiply 7 with 1 or 1 we do not get eight
different integers as 7 and 7 gets repeated respectively.
So total number of ways = 6
Explanation:
Explanation:
Since DAB = ABC = 600

ABCD is a section of equilateral ABE and DBC = CAB
ACB BDE, DE = CB & AB = AE = AD + DE = AD + BC
So, option (3)
Explanation: Very Simple question.

Just apply unitary method.
Electricity bill for 2300 x units =16100 Rs.
Electricity bill for 1 unit =7/x Rs.
Explanation:
x2 8x + 15 > 0
(x 3) (x 5) > 0
So either x > 5 Or x < 3
Explanation: Let the two numbers be x and x + 72. = 4 x = 24.
The other number is 96. Hence, [2]

Alternatively,
Looking at the options you can easily make out that only [2] satisfies the given conditions.
Explanation:
a + (p 1)d = q,
a + (p + q 1)d = 0.
From both the equations we get d = 1.
Putting in * we get a = q + p 1.
Now qth term will be a + (q 1)d.
Putting value of d and a we get Tq = p.
Explanation: Lets say Tarun completes 100m in t time.

Varun completes 80 m in time t. Therefore he takes t + t/4 time to complete his 100 m.
Arun completes 80 m in time t + t/4.
Therefore he takes t + t/4 + (t + t/4 ) = 25/16 t time to complete his 100 m.
Therefore, in t time he must have covered 100 16/25 = 64 m.
Thus Arun lagged 36m behind Tarun when Tarun finished his 100m.
Explanation: Let us assume that there are m male citizens

Then, the number of females will be (3553 m)
According to question,
m/9 people received Rs.180
And (3553 m)/12 received Rs.240
Thus, total money spent by the Government per day = (180 (m / 9)) + (240 (3553 m) / 12) = 20 3553 = 71060
Hence total money spent = 71060 180 = 12.7m or approximately 13 million.
Explanation: She runs for an additional 11.32 10.78 = 0.54 s

If she runs 100 m in 10.78 s, so she would have run in 0.54 s, 100/10.78 0.54 = 5 m.

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2017 Bull CAT 03

Section : Verbal Ability

Which of the following is not false as per context of the passage?

According to the author of the passage:

AI & II BII & III CI & III DAll of the above

The author sees the succinctness of English as

The tone of the author of the passage can be said to be:

AExpounding BCarping CCritical DDenunciatory

The author of the passage can be said to be:

ADemarcating lexical boundaries BHighlighting semantic preferences COutlining vernacular influences

The author of the passage clearly believes that:

Aparents can do more to educate themselves about the benefits of vaccination

AI & III BII & III CI & III DI & IV

According to the author of the passage:

Athe decision to vaccinate your child has wider implications.

The primary purpose of the author of the passage is:

According to the author of the passage:

I. books served the purpose of supplying information to the text.

AI & II BII & III CI & III DAll of these

According to Geoffrey Whitney:

Acontrast Bdivorce Cgulf Dsplit

The primary purpose of the author of the passage is:

Section : DI & Reasoning

AD and H BC and G CB and F DA and E

Lalit discussed a case on Marketing Management.

Lalit discussed a case on Marketing Management.

Which of the following cannot be true?

Which of the following is true?

ASukhothai BSpice Route CBaan Thai DBlue Elephant

ATurquoise Cottage BSpice Route CSukhothai DSpice

ARB BPD CSG DQE

Which of the following statement/s is/are true?

I. Ps group got the score P

AOnly I BOnly II CEither I or II DCannot say

Who among these was the partner of C?

Score O was assigned to which person's group?

A20 paise B25 paise C40 paise D50 paise

A1996 B1998 C2000 D2001

AMineral water BSoda CJuice DMore than 1 product

A1996 B1998 C2000 D1995

A6 B12 C16 D24

AWednesday BThursday CFriday DSaturday

ATuesday BWednesday CThursday DFriday

AChemistry BEnglish CHindi DPhysics

A13 B15 C22 DCannot be determined

A10 B15 C20 DCannot be determined

A5 B10 C25 D30

How many boys participate in only one game? in numerical value

Section : Quantitative Ability

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option

A24 B28 C30 D35

A220 210 + 1 B220 1 C220 210 1 D220 + 210 + 1

A9 B15 C11 D17

ARs.200, Rs.100 BRs.140, Rs.70 CRs.196, Rs.98 DRs.100, Rs.50

A25% B30% C40% DNone of these

A164.64 B426.24 C196.35 D261.6

A20% B25% C60% D33.33%

A250 km B200 km C100 km D150 km

A7.11 liters B8.5 liters C11.11 liters DCannot be determined

A12.32 % less B12.32 % more C6.16 % less D6.16 % more

A95 B100 C105 D110

A112 B312 C480 D860

A3h2 = 2b2 B2b2 = h2 C2h2 = b2 DNone of these