a. Complains a lot b. Stresses failures c. Displays a loss of intellectual capacity d. Appears to be completely unconcerned 2. Gerontology is best defined as the study of the; a. Aging process b. Psychology of aging c. Illnesses of the aged d. ADL levels of the aged 3. One of the current proposals regarding the developmentally disabled stre sses changing the emphasis in active treatment to: a. One of choice b. Independent living c. Occupational therapy d. Acquiring social skills 4. The most important factor in the treatment and care of the developmental ly disabled is: a. The process b. The end result c. Documentation d. Record keeping 5. A resident cannot be discharged or transferred if the: a. Resident contracts HIV b. Resident’s needs cannot be met c. Resident’s health has improved significantly d. Resident had failed to pay after reasonable notice 6. Assume that 150 doses of medication were prescribed by the resident’s ph ysician to be administered in a given time period. However, 2 doses ordered wer e not given and 3 doses were incorrectly administered as prescribed. What was t he medication error rate? a. 2.0 % b. 3.0% c. 3.3% d. 5.0% 7. It is standard operating procedure to: a. Monitor restraints every 2 hours b. Monitor restraints every 30 minutes c. Release patients from restraints every two hours and leave them out of t he restraint for at least one hour d. Release patients from restraints every hour and leave them out of the re straint for at least 10 minutes 8. The DON may serve as charge nurse only if the facility: a. Has applied for a waiver b. Is licensed for less than 100 beds c. Has an average daily occupancy of 60 residents or less d. Accepts only residents requiring minimal nursing services 9. The OBRA outcome-oriented survey is focused on the: a. Review of physical resources b. Quality of care actually provided c. Monitoring of management procedures d. Compliance with state and federal regulations 10. When a new resident is admitted, the social worker should help the famil y during the initial separation period by: a. Maintaining family contact regarding the resident’s condition b. Telling the family that the facility will handle the resident’s conditio n c. Advising the family not to visit until the resident has adjusted to the facility d. Advising the family to have someone visit each day until the resident is adjusted 11. Empathy may be best defined as the: a. Capacity to share the interest of another person b. Process whereby one strives to be like another person c. Unconscious conferring of undesirable traits or tendencies on another pe rson d. Ability to comprehend the meaning and relevance of the thoughts and feel ings of another 12. In most states, which of the following cannot be appointed as the agent under an advance directive? a. A friend b. An attorney c. A family member d. The attending physician 13. The Resident Self-Determination Act should be: a. Enforced by the social service department b. Discussed during the resident assessment c. Mailed out annually to all residents and families d. Given to the resident and family at the time of admission 14. The be effective a resident council should: a. Be controlled by the administrator b. Have the participation of residents and employees c. Be given the opportunity to control the activities of the facility d. Have continued support by the administrator and the residents 15. A curator, as used in civil law, equates to a: a. Payee b. Guardian c. Next of kin d. Family member 16. The most common cause of food poisoning is: a. Infected food handlers b. Communication with sick persons c. Contamination of food by insects d. Improper refrigeration of perishable foods 17. Nursing personnel should encourage a resident to eat in the dining area unless the resident: a. Is incontinent b. Cannot eat unassisted c. Is confined to a wheelchair d. Has been contraindicated to do so by physician’s orders 18. According to research studies, the most indispensable mineral found to b e lacking in the diet of the elderly is: a. Iron b. Sodium c. Potassium d. Magnesium 19. To maximize the destruction of bacteria on dinnerware, the temperature o f rinse water in dishwashers should be: a. 110 F b. 140 F c. 160 F d. 180 F 20. Proper food storage is very important. Of the following problems listed, which is usually the most significant? a. Dented cans b. Temperature control c. Labeling of cans and leftovers d. Utensils left in large containers 21. An unplanned and/or undesired weight loss would be classified as signifi cant if the percentage of loss during a six-month interval was: a. 4% b. 6% c. 8% d. 10% 22. Carcinoma is the medical term for: a. Cancer b. Cataracts c. Liver spots d. Heart disease 23. The physician who is primarily involved with the causes and histories of diseases is: a. An internist b. A pathologist c. A geriatrician d. A general practitioner 24. Who is responsible for implementation of the resident-care policies in t he facility? a. Medical director b. DON c. The assessment team d. Licensed nursing home administrator 25. The physician must write, sign, and date progress notes: a. Each month b. At each visit c. As deemed necessary d. Monthly for the first 90 days 26. The Social Security Act provides that a facility must have a written tra nsfer agreement with one or more hospitals that are: a. Equipped with CAT scan and MRI b. Within a radius of 5 miles of the facility c. Able to provide ambulance transportation d. Approved for participation under both Medicare and Medicaid 27. Under OBRA, the quality improvement committee is required to meet at lea st: a. Weekly b. Monthly c. Quarterly d. Annually 28. Under OBRA, the implementation of which of the following policies is not the responsibility of the Medical Director? a. Dietary b. Admission c. Personnel d. Infection control 29. A “re-motivation” program as applied to the senile resident generally re fers to a: a. Procedure used to recruit residents for group activities b. Procedure used to encourage resident-staff cooperation c. Program designed to stimulate the resident’s interest in community affai rs d. Group therapy program designed to stimulate the resident’s interest in t he real world around him 30. Care plans address activities that are appropriate for each resident bas ed on the: a. Age and sex of the resident b. Comprehensive assessment c. Former lifestyle of the resident d. Recommendations of the nursing staff 31. Which of the following would not usually be a primary interdisciplinary team member? a. Activity director b. Rehabilitation staff c. Nursing facility administrator d. Therapeutic recreation staff 32. A resident spends most of his time in his room alone and he has few inte rests except he watches the news on television. Which of the following activity approaches would perhaps be the most beneficial? a. Take him on group walks in the community b. Enroll him in male craft projects like building bird houses c. Invite him to participate in current events including small group discus sions d. Suggest to the attending physician that antidepressant medication be con sidered 33. The resident activity director has many roles and duties. However, the f irst responsibility should be: a. Maintaining adequate records b. Planning and organizing activity programs c. Preparing care plans and writing progress notes d. Completing the assessments and identifying the interests and needs of th e residents 34. Activity coordinators must plan, coordinate, and direct the resident act ivity programs and in addition: a. Supervise therapeutic programs b. Record notes in the resident’s medical record c. Conduct the interdisciplinary assessment program d. Conduct in-service training programs for all employees 35. Medical records are also referred to as clinical records and are utilize d by various members of the staff. However, the person ultimately responsible f or accurate and adequate medical records is the: a. Administrator b. DON c. Attending physician d. Medical records librarian 36. Medical records may be released by written permission of the resident an d if required by any of the following except: a. A court order b. An attorney at law c. A third party contract including Medicare d. Another nursing home to which the resident is being transferred 37. In cases in which facilities have created the option for an individual’s record to be maintained by computer, rather than hard copy: a. Electronic signatures are acceptable b. Electronic signatures are acceptable only for the medical staff c. Signatures must be recorded both electronically and on hard copy d. Electronic signatures can only be used by full-time employees of the fac ility 38. The person designated as the clinical record clerk must be: a. Certified b. Licensed c. A consultant d. A full-time staff member 39. According to Medicare and Medicaid requirements, upon an oral or written request, the residents shall have access to all records, including clinical rec ords, pertaining to himself/herself within: a. 24 hours b. 48 hours c. 3 days d. 1 week 40. Which of the following types of drugs are for external use only? a. Topical b. Diuretic c. Laxative d. Sedative 41. Stop-order procedures were formerly developed by the pharmaceutical serv ice committee but are now developed by the: a. Pharmacist b. Medical director c. Pharmacist and the medical director d. Pharmacist and the DON 42. If a medication has an automatic stop order, the nurse must: a. Notify the pharmacist b. Never renew the medication c. Notify the physician before the last dose is administered d. Notify the physician at the time the drug is last administered 43. Drugs prepared (poured) for administration at 8:00 am should be administ ered and recorded before subsequent doses are prepared and administered before: a. 9:00 am b. 10:00 am c. 11:00 am d. 12:00 noon 44. Abbreviations are used by nurses in completing charts and other medical records. The abbreviation stat means: a. Status b. Statistic c. Continue d. Immediately 45. The 1987 OBRA regulation changed the role of the pharmacists in nursing facilities and greatly increased their responsibility. Therefore, today the pha rmacist must perform all of the following duties except: a. Destroy all unused prescriptions b. Determine that drug records are in order c. Conduct a review of each resident’s drug regimen d. Determine that an account of all controlled drugs is maintained and peri odically reconciled 46. If a resident wants to self-administer medication, who is responsible fo r drug storage and recording the self-administered doses? a. The resident b. The nursing staff c. A family member d. The legal guardian 47. According to OBRA, the facility is required to offer therapeutic activit ies that: a. Must include games and crafts b. Support, maintain, and empower c. Are first approved by the medical staff d. Are based upon past interests and hobbies 48. Flexion, rotation, abduction, and adduction are all terms referring to: a. Menus b. Exercises c. Nursing modalities d. Treatment to be provided only be a therapist 49. Which of the following statements relative to range of motion is incorre ct? a. Passive ROM is performed by the staff b. Active ROM is performed by the resident c. Adequate preventive care must include ROM d. Active assistive ROM exercises are performed by the resident and the sta ff 50. If specialized rehabilitation services are required in the resident’s co mprehensive plan of care, the facility must provide the services or: a. Dismiss the resident b. Transfer the resident c. Obtain the required services from an outside resource d. Utilize the services available in the nursing department and in the acti vity department 51. The administrator may want to ensure that a rehabilitative team approach is being implemented for a resident and that: a. Some family members assist b. The staff, including nursing, is involved c. The physician observes the process and follows up d. Therapy has its own department and dedicated room 52. Which of the following is not considered a life-sustaining treatment? a. Physical therapy b. Dialysis treatment c. Use of ventilators d. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation 53. In monitoring work performance, the most essential activity for the admi nistrator is to: a. Hold individual conferences with department heads b. Review written reports from all department heads and consultants c. Visit each department and observe daily activities and the environment d. Conduct staff meetings and secure verbal reports from each department 54. Placing a message in an oral form or in written words, a diagram, pictur e, or chart is called: a. Encoding b. Decoding c. Formatting d. Transmitting 55. The key to understanding communication is: a. Reading b. Listening c. Watching d. Interpreting 56. This of the following relationships is not regarded as having “privilege d communication?” a. Husband/wife b. Attorney/client c. Physician/patient d. Administrator/family 57. The lack of adequate communication creates a vacuum which will cause the staff to: a. Listen to rumors b. Reject any information c. Cease communication d. Ignore all communication 58. It is very important that staff meetings do not become a: a. Time to complain b. Learning situation c. Sharing experience d. Time to share challenges 59. The 1996 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act: a. Encourages all employees to elect the option of participating in COBRA b. Caps health care plans pre-existing condition limitation of exclusion at 12 months c. Provides for insurance coverage for children and spouses at the time of death of the employee d. Allows for divorced parents to continue insurance coverage for the forme r spouse and children up to age 21 60. Under FMLA, if paid leave is provided by the employer: a. Company rules apply in lieu of FMLA b. The employee is not eligible for coverage under FMLA c. The rate paid to the employee must equal the employee’s current salary d. The employer can require the employee to substitute eligible leave for a ny part of the 12 weeks required by the Act 61. Under the American with Disabilities Act, an employer may: a. Test and applicant for drugs b. Require a “fitness for duty examination” providing it is job related c. Ask questions relative to family members who may have disabilities d. Require a pre-employment medical examination to determination if the app licant has a disability 62. Which of the following determines the tasks, the employee behavior, and the knowledge and skills necessary to carry out a certain job? a. Job analysis b. Job assignment c. Job relationship d. Job classification 63. Pay scales are required for: a. Only wage employees b. Only salaried employees c. Only non-administrative personnel d. Both salaried and wage employees 64. During an employee interview you may ask: a. For a photograph b. About child care plans c. About willingness to work religious holidays d. About willingness to work a required schedule 65. Over 75% of the administrator’s problems relate to: a. Families b. Residents c. Employees d. Community 66. “Job” is a term that refers to: a. A collection of tasks that can be performed by an employee b. The behavior, knowledge, and skills necessary to perform a duty c. The duties, authority, and qualifications of each employees classificati on d. A classification of employees such as secretaries, housekeepers, and nur ses 67. Affirmative action relates to: a. Firing practices b. Hiring practices c. Benefit programs d. Compensation programs 68. To develop effective staff rapport, an administrator should: a. Establish a program of peer review b. Discourage all formal and informal “grapevines” c. Promote employees from within the organization d. Establish clear lines of authority and responsibility 69. What is the average daily absentee rate for a facility with a total of 8 0 full-time employees and 184 lost workdays or absences during a 60-day period? a. 2.3 b. 2.5 c. 2.6 d. 3.8 70. The primary function of disciplinary action is to: a. Extract compliance b. Impose punishment c. Effect a desired behavior change d. Ensure that the behavior will never be tolerated in the future 71. It is reasonable to expect that employees who are formally evaluated by their supervisor will: a. Experience no effect from the lack of evaluation b. Make less progress than those who are not evaluated c. Make more progress than those who are not evaluated d. Make about the same progress as those who are evaluated 72. EEOC enforces all of the following laws except the: a. Equal Pay Act b. Fair Labor Standards Act c. Title VII of the Civil Rights Acts d. Age Discrimination in Employment Act 73. The “employment-at-will relationship” provides that employer may: a. Discharge an employee without cause b. Not discharge an employee without due notice c. Discharge an employee only with a valid reason d. Not discharge an employee if the employee is following the job descripti on 74. Any effective sexual-harassment policy should contain all of the followi ng essential elements except: a. The establishment of a complaint procedure b. A statement clearly prohibiting sexual harassment c. A description of conduct that constitutes sexual harassment d. A warning that anyone who violates the policy will be immediately dismis sed 75. Under COBRA, continuation of employee group medical insurance must be of fered except if the: a. Employee retires b. Employee’s marriage is dissolved c. Employee’s work hours are reduced d. Employee is fired for gross misconduct 76. In planning a budget, it is most important to know: a. Assets and liabilities b. Net profit and net worth c. Past cost and future cost d. Past experience and projected expectations 77. After liquidity, the second major objective of financial management is u sually: a. Payroll b. Inventory c. Profitability d. Rate structure 78. The accrual method of accounting is required by Medicaid and Medicare an d therefore income and expenses are recorded: a. On a monthly basis b. As they are capitalized c. When they are incurred d. When they are paid or received 79. Depreciation is correctly defined as: a. A declining balance b. A cost allocation of equipment c. The change in value over a stipulated period d. The decrease in value due to obsolescence, wear, and tear 80. Working capital equals the current assets: a. Minus fixed assets b. Minus current liabilities c. Divided by current assets d. Minus inventories divided by current liabilities 81. Which paid fringe benefit is usually the most costly? a. Holidays b. Jury duty c. Vacations d. Sick leave 82. If an employee works 40 hours in a one-week period and worked 10 hours p er day at a rate of $8.00 per hour, what would be the total salary before deduct ions and including overtime pay if required? a. $200.00 b. $256.00 c. $320.00 d. $386.00 83. When a facility is being sold, which of the following is an intangible a sset that is very marketable? a. Supplies b. Goodwill c. Buildings d. Equipment 84. In which of the following areas will an employed nursing home administra tor usually have the most input? a. Budget b. Benefits c. Salary schedules d. Mission statement 85. The income of a proprietary corporation remaining after all costs, taxes , and dividends have been paid is known as: a. Profit b. Net profit c. Gross income d. Retained earnings 86. Which of the following is not a primary source of health care malpractic e suits: a. Breach or violation of a contract or promise b. Rendering substandard or poor quality care c. Failure to obtain effective consent before intervening in the life of a resident d. Agreeing to withhold prescribed treatment at the request of a competent resident 87. Risk management is identifying and solving problems: a. As soon as possible b. Before they get out of hand c. That only involve a legal risk d. To adhere to federal guidelines 88. Workers’ compensation insurance premium rates depend upon the claim expe rience, state regulations, and: a. Are discounted based upon volume b. The risk class of the occupations involved c. Safety programs provided for the employees d. The number of years insured by the same carrier 89. The key to purchasing supplies is to: a. Obtain bids and accept the lowest price available b. Purchase in the largest quantity available to reduce cost c. Let each department purchase their own supplies their own supplies since they will use them and know what is needed d. Standardize the products and vendors used, organize a central purchasing department, and minimize the people authorized to purchase. 90. Which of the following ratios will reflect the facility’s ability to mee t obligations? a. ROI b. Equity ratio c. Current ratio d. Acid test ratio 91. The best way to maintain an inventory is to: a. Place all orders with a single supplier b. Observe supply levels in the storeroom c. Limit access to supplies and requisitioning to specified individuals d. Record requisitions in an inventory-control system utilizing reorder lev els 92. A fiscal intermediary is usually: a. A CPA b. An HMO c. An insurance company d. A state nursing home association 93. The percentage of gross profit for a facility with a gross income of $55 5,000, fixed expenses of $195,000, and variable expenses of $305,000 is approxim ately: a. 2.5% b. 5.5% c. 9.9% d. 11.1% 94. Employees pay only 50% of the cost of: a. FICA b. FUTA c. Workers’ Compensation d. Federal Withholding Tax 95. Which of the following financial statements includes assets and liabilit ies? a. Balance sheet b. Statement of cash flow c. Statement of revenues and expenses d. Statement of changes in fund balances 96. Payroll checks should include all of the following information except: a. Gross pay b. FICA deductions c. Income tax withholdings d. Federal unemployment tax 97. An administrator has been advised that utility costs far exceed those of comparable facilities. The first action should be to: a. Arrange for an energy audit b. Determine whether excessive hot water is being used c. Have all lights and equipment turned off when not in use d. Check all heating and air conditioning units for efficiency 98. When two agencies or governmental bodies do not agree on interpretation s relative to requirements and standards, it is prudent to comply with the order that is: a. More stringent b. Outlined in OBRA c. Federal versus state d. More recently enforced 99. According to surveyors, to determine the comfortable and safe levels of the air temperature in resident rooms and in dining areas, the air temperature s hould be measured: a. 2 feet above the floor b. 3 feet above the floor c. 4 feet above the floor d. 4.5 feet above the floor 100. An administrator determines that his laundry is slightly understaffed, b ut the shortage is not enough to hire a full-time employee. What would be the l east economical solution? a. Hire a part-time employee b. Allow laundry employees to work overtime c. Stagger employee schedules to provide extended daily laundry service d. Assign underutilized personnel in another department to the laundry on a part-time basis 101. According to OSHA, all contaminated sharps shall be discarded in sharp c ontainers: a. Immediately after used b. At the end of every shift c. Within a reasonable time period d. After being sheared and broken 102. The principal cause of odors in an NF is: a. Ventilation systems b. Incontinent residents c. Not using disinfectants d. Improper garbage storage 103. The major advantage in contracting with a professional pest control comp any is that: a. Contracting is less expensive than operating the facility’s own program b. The facility staff is not efficient in identifying key areas to target f or control c. Contractors are more thorough in their pest control measures than facili ty staff. d. Contractors are generally more knowledgeable than staff about rotating a ppropriate pesticides to ensure effectiveness. 104. The most common accident occurring to employees in a health-care facilit y is caused by: a. Lifting b. Burns c. Falling d. Lacerations 105. The handrails in stairwells must extend beyond the first and last steps by: a. 6 inches b. 8 inches c. 10 inches d. 12 inches 106. According to Safe Medical Device Reporting, user facilities must keep re cords for: a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 5 years 107. The safety program should include which of the following policies regard ing the personal electrical appliances residents bring into the facility? a. Personal appliances should not be allowed in the facility b. Personal appliances should be inspected prior to initial use and at regu lar intervals c. Personal appliances should always be removed from the resident’s room an d stored when not in use d. Personal appliances must be inspected and certified as safe by an outsid e appliance technician 108. The fires that involve energized electrical equipment are classified as: a. Class A fires b. Class B fires c. Class C fires d. Class D fires 109. Hazardous communication programs, hepatitis B virus, HIV immunization, a nd universal precautions are all enforced by a. ANSI b. DHHS c. OSHA d. EEOC 110. Chemical manufacturers and importers must convey the hazard information to employers by means of labels and: a. Seminars b. Suppliers c. A list provided by OSHA d. Material safety data sheets 111. All exit doors must swing a. To the egress b. To the ingress c. One to the egress and one to the ingress d. In either direction but never be propped open 112. According to the Life Safety Code, there must be at least one Class A fi re extinguisher for every travel distance of: a. 25 feet b. 50 feet c. 75 feet d. 100 feet 113. OSHA accident reports must be posted a. Annually b. At the end of the fiscal year c. Every year from February 1 through April 30 d. When an accident involves more than three persons 114. The primary advantage of the fire-detection systems is: a. A warning time b. That everyone is informed c. That communication problems are reduced d. That the fire department is always notified immediately 115. Backup batteries for generators must provide light for certain areas in a nursing home during emergency situations, however waivers may be obtained for all areas except: a. Entrances b. Nurse’s station c. Exits and doors d. Resident call system 116. A Medicaid agency need not be notified if a change occurs in the: a. Facility’s stock value b. Ownership of the facility c. Facility’s nursing home administrator d. Officers of the managing company of the facility 117. HIPAA requires nursing homes to: a. Give hospitals immediate access to a resident’s records b. Employ a person who handles all HIPAA requirements c. Have written policies and procedures to ensure the protection of clinica l records d. Have a family member or legal representative approve all transfers of re sident clinical information 118. Which of the following is paid for under Part B of Medicare? a. Dentures b. Prostheses c. Eye glasses d. Hearing aids 119. Which of the following does not license, register, or certify profession als such as nurses and therapists? a. Associations b. State boards c. State Agencies d. Federal government 120. Disclosure of ownership is required of: a. Corporations b. Governmental agencies c. Non-profit organizations d. Individuals operating as sole proprietors 121. In which type of business entity does the owner have the most limited li ability? a. Partnership b. Corporation c. Joint venture d. Sole proprietorship 122. Bylaws usually contain all of the following except: a. Rules b. Regulations c. Job descriptions d. The mission statement 123. It is not the role of the ethics committee to: a. Make decisions b. Evaluate alternate solutions c. Review policies and procedures from an ethical perspective d. Educate the residents, families, and staff about ethical decision-making 124. When a facility wishes to transfer a resident for reasons other than the health of the resident being in danger, generally the notice to transfer must b e provided at least: a. 1 week prior to the transfer b. 10 days prior to the transfer c. 15 days prior to the transfer d. 30 days prior to the transfer 125. A resident has the right to work in a facility under certain circumstanc es except when the: a. Position replaces a full-time employee b. Resident agrees to the work arrangement c. Compensation is at or above prevailing wage rates d. Plan of care specifies the nature of the service performed 126. Which of the following may not be considered abuse? a. Threats b. Hand mitts c. Deprivation d. Voluntary seclusion 127. Which of the following is seldom handled by the governing board? a. Hiring all staff b. Practicing stewardship c. Establishing goals and objectives d. Appointing the licensed nursing home administrator 128. The primary purpose of departmentalization is to: a. Reduce cost b. Increase personal goals c. Promote efficient operation d. Prevent employee arguments 129. All of the following are usually functions of the governing body of a he alth-care facility except the: a. Funding sources b. Organizational structure c. Creation of a mission statement d. Creation and implementation of procedures 130. A resident who dies without leaving a will is said to have died: a. Testate b. Intestate c. Inter vivos d. Without probate 131. It is considered a good administrative practice in a nursing facility to adopt regulations covering emergency nursing care for residents who may suffer acute coronary attacks. Which one of the following approaches to assuring such care is likely to be most effective? a. Obtain signed standing cardiac orders for all residents in advance b. Frequently review standing orders for a procedure to be followed in the event of such an emergency c. Institute an ongoing in-service training program to teach the nursing pe rsonnel the use of cardiac monitoring equipment d. Insist that all physicians who admit residents with histories of cardiac disorders write cardiac orders at the time of admission 132. The ombudsman cannot: a. Have access to facility records b. Issue citations against a facility c. Serve as an advocate for the elderly d. See resident records without written consent or a court order 133. The goals of providing resident support and increasing public awareness may be accomplished by the: a. Resident council b. Ethics committee c. Community council d. Quality improvement team 134. Demographic information relates primarily to: a. Topography b. Health care institutions c. Educational institutions d. Statistics regarding population 135. The number of those who need and who will purchase the services offered by a facility can be determined by: a. A market-opportunity analysis b. A study of hospital census ratios c. A review of existing advertisements d. As assessment of competitive institutions 136. Marketing is oriented to: a. Research b. Advertising c. Consumers’ wants and needs d. Various public relation programs 137. Which of the following marketing efforts is perhaps the least effective to increase occupancy? a. Supplementing the work of the nursing staff b. Meeting the personal needs of the resident c. Changing attitudes toward the physically disabled d. Bringing the nursing facility and the community closer together 138. Effective delegation has been established when decisions are made: a. Very quickly b. By first-line supervisors c. At the lowest level authorized to make them d. Through the contribution of ideas by several people 139. When comparing leadership with management, leadership: a. Is rigid b. Inspires c. Specializes d. Requires authority 140. When a resident feels that everyone is against him/her, it is best to: a. Try to help by agreeing b. Be logical and explain everything c. Realize that there is usually no truth in such statements d. Have clear communication among staff so all will be consistent 141. Conflict is best resolved by: a. Orientation b. Problem solving c. In-service training d. Professional training 142. Which of the following is not a type of authority? a. Line b. Staff c. Functional d. Span of management 143. A basic management principle is to put one person in charge when there a re: a. Two or more employees working together b. Three or more employees working together c. Five or more employees working together d. Seven or more employees working together 144. A governing body or designated person(s) is required by: a. ANSI b. OSHA c. OBRA d. EEOC 145. Goal orientation focuses on: a. Missions b. Strategies c. Controlling d. Future accomplishments 146. Purpose or mission is the basic task assigned to an enterprise by: a. Law b. Society c. Ownership d. The board of directors 147. The maximum number of shareholders in a closely held corporation is: a. 25 b. 50 c. 100 d. 250 148. Employees are primarily concerned with which three plans? a. Plans, budgets, and missions b. Policies, budgets, and programs c. Policies, procedures, and rules d. Policies, budgets, and procedures 149. Laissez-faire, autocratic, and paternal are all forms of: a. Staffing b. Authority c. Goal setting d. Leadership styles 150. Before attempting to improve its public image, it is mandatory that the nursing facility: a. Involve all staff b. Provide good resident care c. Hire specialists in public relations d. Develop a public relations program