QUESTIONS
FOR
SURGERY
5. Full
thickness
skin
grafts
are
indicated
MD3
2017-2018
for
coverage
in
which
of
these
situations?
Plastic
Surgery,
Head
and
Neck
a. lower
eyelid
defect
following
ablation
of
BCC
1. Early
signs
&
symptoms
of
life-
b. full
thickness
V-shaped
defect
of
threatening
smoke
inhalation
injury
the
lower
lip
post
excision
of
include:
capillary
hemangioma
a. stridor
c. wound
defect
due
to
deep
partial
b. wheezes
thickness
burns
over
the
R
cheek
c. progressive
hoarseness
of
voice
d. full
thickness
scalp
defect
with
d. laryngeal
edema
exposure
of
calvarium
2. Silver
sulfadiazine
the
gold
standard
6. abdominal
dermolipectomy
is
a
for
topical
management
of
wounds:
cosmetic
surgical
procedure
that
a. has
a
broad
spectrum
involves
antimicrobial
coverage
against
a. removal
of
excess
localized
fat
both
gram
(+)
and
gram
(-)
from
the
ant
abdomen
through
bacteria
including
Pseudomonas
liposuction
spp,
E.
coli,
P.
vulgaris
b. excision
of
skin
+fat
on
the
ant
b. may
cause
leukocytosis
as
a
abdominal
wall
from
below
the
reversible
side
effect
umbilicus
down
to
the
suprapubic
c. penetrates
burn
eschar
area
effectively
to
reach
the
surface
of
c. repositioning
of
the
umbilicus
wound
downwards
through
the
new
skin
d. delays
wound
epithelialization
drape
d. thinning
out
of
the
fascia
and
3. Cleft
palate
repair
is
done:
repair
of
the
linea
alba
on
the
ant
a. under
local
anesthesia
abdominal
wall
b. simultaneously
with
cleft
lip
repair
at
3
months
of
age
7. lab
exam
included
in
the
systemic
c. between
ages
18
months
to
15
prep
of
Px
w/
wound
defects
yrs
of
age
requiring
coverage:
d. as
early
as
possible
in
order
to
a. wound
biopsy
&
culture
maximize
the
recovery
b. total
CHON
determination
c. FBS
determination
4. Thin
split-
thickness
skin
grafts
are
d. 2D-echocardiography
characterized
as:
a. containing
epidermis
and
the
8. The
rule
of
tens
used
as
criteria
for
upper
half
of
the
dermis
timing
of
repair
of
cleft
lip
deformities
b. ranging
between
.008-.020
inch
in
prescribes
surgery
at:
thickness
a. 10
months
of
age
c. more
prone
to
primary
&
b. Hgb
level
at
least
10gm/dl
secondary
contaction
c. WBC
count
of
at
least
10,000
d. with
cosmetic
appearance
better
d. Weight
of
at
least
10kg
than
thicker
grafts
9. A
tripod
facial
bone
fracture
involves
b. Mn
which
of
these
bones?
c. Fe
a. mandible
d. Cu
b. orbit
c. nasal
15.
The
MC
cause
of
skin
graft
failure
is:
d. ethmoid
a. infection
b. seroma
formation
10. Primary
survey
of
the
Px
w/
traumatic
c. necrosis
injuries
entails:
d. hematoma
a. ensuring
a
patent
airway
free
of
foreign
materials
16.
Recommended
management
of
a
fresh
b. local
wound
management
mandibular
condyle
fracture
without
c. nutritional
support
dislocation
is
d. infection
control
a. conservative
non-surgical
approach
11. Deterrents
of
wound
healing
include:
b. intermaxillary
fixation
alone
a. chemotherapeutic
agents
c. open
reduction
+
interosseous
b. zinc
plate
fixation
c. ascorbic
acid
d. open
reduction
+
interosseous
d. corticosteroids
plate
fixation
+
intermaxillary
fixation
12. Alginates,
hydrogels
&
hydrocolloids
are
considered
ideal
dressing
17.
Valid
statement
regarding
management
of
materials
for
wounds
because
they
facial
bone
fractures:
a. prevent
maceration
of
the
a. conservative
non
surgical
approach
is
periwound
area
reserved
for
unstable
fractures
b. maintain
enough
moisture
on
the
b. open
reduction
+
interosseous
plate
wound
surface
fixation
+
intermaxillary
fixation
is
c. prevent
punctate
hemorrhages
surgical
procedure
for
Lefort
II
on
the
wound
bed
fractures
d. have
broad
spectrum
c. generally,
mandibular
fractures
heal
antibacterial
coverage
faster
than
maxillary
fractures
d. pure
blowout
orbital
fractures
13. in
which
of
the
following
chemical
present
with
orbital
rim
and
floor
processes
does
the
action
of
Vit
C
or
involvement
ascorbic
acid
become
important
in
wound
healing?
18.
Rhytidoplasty
is
a
cosmetic
surgical
a. hydroxylation
of
AA
procedure
to
remove:
b. prevention
of
bacterial
a. eye
bags
translocation
b. facial
wrinkles
c. collagen
fiber
re-alignment
c. witchs
chin
d. blocking
the
adverse
effects
of
d. crows
feet
steroids
19.
Which
of
the
ff
statements
regarding
SIRS
14. Which
among
these
materials
has
the
the
MC
cause
of
mortality
among
burn
Px
is/
same
action
as
Vit
C
in
wound
are
valid?
healing?
a. Langhans
cells
and
keratinocytes
in
a. Zn
skin
lose
their
immune
function
due
to
coagulation
of
CHONs
on
the
c. Better
drainage
of
seroma/
surface
of
the
burn
wounds
hematoma
b. Burn
wound
infection
and
pneumonia
d. Lower
failure
rates
often
progressing
into
sepsis
usher
in
SIRS
24.
Sequelae
of
burn
injuries:
c. Clinical
S/S
of
SIRS
like
fever,
a. Sepsis
tachycardia,
changes
in
sensorium
&
b. Marjolins
ulcer
restlessness
usually
manifest
w/in
the
c. Burn
scar
contractures
1st
72
hrs
ff
burn
injuries
d. Loss
of
limbs
(post
amputation)
d. Use
of
systemic
broad
spectrum
antibiotics
together
w/
topical
25.
Among
the
ff
burn
Px,
who
will
need
to
be
antibacterial
like
silver
sulfadiazine
admitted
to
hospital
for
Tx?
prevent
SIRS
a. Middle
aged
housewife
w/
multiple
small
scalding
burn
lesions
both
20.
The
most
preferred
dressing
materials
for
upper
extremities
sustained
while
wounds
are
those
that:
frying
milkfish
a. Are
both
bacteriostatic
and
b. Grade
school
pupil
w/
a
5cm
bulla
at
bactericidal
the
R
calf
area
from
contact
w/
b. Dont
require
frequent
change
thus
motorcycle
muffler
cost
effective
c. 20
yr
old
coed
w/
extensive
sunburn
c. Lessen
the
pain
on
the
wound
area
over
the
whole
back
extending
from
such
that
the
Px
doesnt
need
the
nape
down
to
the
lumbar
area
analgesics
then
the
back
of
both
thighs
d. Maintain
moisture
on
the
surface
of
d. electrician
w/
a
.3cm
point
of
contact
wound
burn
on
the
palm
of
the
R
hand
&
no
point
of
grounding
evident
elsewhere
21.
The
goals
of
reconstruction
include
a. Provision
of
cosmetically
superior
26.
Which
of
the
ff
fat
soluble
Vit
reverses
the
coverage
effects
of
glucocorticoids
which
in
turn
delay
b. Restoration
of
form
and
function
wound
healing?
c. Primary
closure
of
wide
defects
a. A
d. Use
of
grafts
or
flaps
depending
on
b. D
the
nature
and
extent
of
defect
c. E
d. K
22.
Random
pattern
flaps
are
characterized
as
a. Having
better
vascular
supply
than
27.
Among
the
ff
wound
defects
which
should
axial
pattern
flaps
be
covered
w/
a
skin
graft?
b. Dependent
on
the
cutaneous
blood
a. Full
thickness
scalp
loss
supply
b. Partial
avulsion
of
the
nasal
tip
c. Subject
to
width
and
length
ratio
of
c. Complete
defect
of
the
oral
cavity
1:3
wall
ff
wide
excision
of
SCC
d. Always
pedicled
d. Full
thickness
burn
injuries
23.
Advantages
of
meshed
split
thickness
skin
A
16
month
old
baby
boy
is
admitted
due
to
grafts
include:
scalding
injuries
over
the
ant
chest,
abdomen
a. Superior
cosmetic
appearance
&
thighs
after
accidental
spillage
of
hot
water
b. Easier
revascularization
from
dispenser
sustained
about
15
min
prior
to
consultation
at
ER.
Based
on
the
Lund- c.
topical
SSD+
cerium
nitrate
over
burn
Browder
chart
TBSA
amounted
to
15%
wounds
d.
enteral
feedings
instead
of
parenteral
28.
Using
the
Parkland
formula,
how
much
hyperalimentation
fluid
should
be
ordered
in
the
1st
8
hrs?
a. 250-300
ml
33.
Recommended
timing
of
debridement
of
b. 500-600ml
burns
in
this
case
must
be:
c. 800-1000
cc
a.
as
soon
as
patients
vital
signs
stabilize
d. 1,200-
1500cc
b.
within
the
first
48-72
hours
c.
after
5-7
days
post
burn
29.
Primary
survey
in
this
patient
includes
d.
direct
to
OR
from
ER
which
of
the
following
measures?
a.
local
wound
care
34.
Which
of
the
following
statements
b.
NGT
insertion
regarding
hypospadias
is
/are
valid?
c.
tracheostomy
d.
warm
blankets
a. Recommended
timing
of
surgical
repair
is
at
pre-school
age
to
spare
Physical
examination
revelaed
a
well- the
child
some
psychosocial
nourished,
well
developed
male
infant,
crying
problems.
uncontrollably,
afebrile,
with
stable
VS.
Chest
b. Multistage
repair
procedures
present
auscultation
revealed
occasional
respiratory
less
risk
for
fistula
formation
wheezes,
R
basal
rales,
tachycardia,
with
c. Creation
of
a
neo-urethra
on
the
normal
heart
rhythm.
Multiple
bullous
lesions
ventral
aspect
of
the
penis
is
done
on
admixed
with
pale
skin
patches
are
scattered
stage
II
repair.
all
over
the
anterior
chest,
abdomen,
and
d. Circumcision
is
recommended
during
anteriror
thighs.
the
neonatal
period
ensure
proper
urination.
30.
Considering
the
offending
agent
and
the
35.
Nasal
bone
fractures;
manner
of
the
injury,
the
burns
are
most
probably;
a.
if
without
accompanying
dislocation,
are
a.
superficial
usually
managed
conservatively
with
b.
superficial
+
deep
partial
thickness
analgesics
and
alternating
cold
&
hot
nasal
c.
deep
partial
thickness
compress.
d.
full
thickness
b.
may
not
be
shown
on
skull
x-rays
but
usually
diagnosed
on
proper
&
thorough
31.
Monitoring
parameters
useful
during
the
physical
examination
first
48
hrs
include:
c.
will
usually
heal
externally
with
2-3weeks
a.
conversion
of
burn
depth
d.
are
ideally
managed
with
open
reduction,
b.
body
temperature
interosseous
plate
fixation
and
application
of
c.
bipedal
edema
nasal
splint
for
1-2
weeks.
d.
hourly
urine
output
36.
How
long
will
the
maturation
of
scar
32.
Prevention
of
SIRS
entails
institution
of
generally
require?
which
therapeutic
course;
a. 4-6
weeks
after
injury
a.
emergency
escharectomy
in
the
first
8
b. 3-6
months
in
children
hours
after
burn
injury
c. 9-12
months-
beyond
12
y.0
b.
systemic
broad
spectrum
antibiotics
d. 12-18
months
between
0-12
y.o
starting
on
admission
37.
Radiologic
signs
of
facial
bone
fractures.
a. A
random-pattern
flap,
dependent
on
a. enophthalmos
the
cutaneous
blood
supply
of
b. malocclusion
overlying
skin.
c. diplopia
b. The
coverage
of
choice
for
composite
d. periorbital
ecchymoses
defects
over
the
upper
half
of
the
face
and
neck.
38.
Which
of
the
following
statements
c. Difficult
to
delineate
with
a
skin
regarding
hemangiomas
is/are
valid?
paddle
in
female
patients
with
big
breasts.
a. Carvenous
heamangiomas
are
d. Used
as
an
osteomyocutaneous
flap,
generally
superficial
and
grow
using
the
7th
or
8th
rib
to
cover
alarmingly
in
the
first
year
of
life.
complex
oral
cavity
lesions
in
b. Strawberry
type
of
hemangiomas
conjunction
segmental
appear
reddish,
with
skin
tags
and
do
mandibulectomy.
not
resolve
with
age
if
mucosal
tissues
are
involved.
41.
The
most
common
site
for
squamous
cell
c.
Port
wine
nevus
requires
surgery
carcinoma
over
the
face
is
the;
because
of
its
predilection
for
malignant
degeneration
later
in
life.
a. lower
lip
d. Scharotics
and
iiradiation
are
b. eyelids
effective
modalities
for
treatment
of
c. nose
small
hemangiomas.
d. upper
lip
39.
Biologic
dressings
maintain
moisture
on
42.
The
Lund-Browder
chart
measures
which
the
surface
of
the
wound,
thereby
enhancing
characteristics
of
the
burn
wounds?
wound
healing.
What
other
statement
is
about
them
is/are
true?
a. depth
b. severity
a. irradiated
frozen
cadaver
skin
can
c. body
surface
area
involved
acts
as
skin
graft
substitute.
Wounds
d. infection
heal
underneath
them
since
the
skin
is
revascularized
within
4-6
weeks.
43.
Forces
or
pressure
applied
anteriorly
to
b. Amnion
taken
from
healthy
placentas
the
chin,
as
when
a
patient
fails
facedown
on
can
be
used
directly
over
wounds
a
concrete
pavement
with
the
chin
jutting
with
less
pain
and
better
scar
out,
commonly
results
in
fracture
over
the;
formation.
c. Porcine
xenografts
work
like
human
a. shaft
of
the
mandible
cadaver
grafts
in
hastening
and
being
b. mandibular
condyle
subsequently
revascularized
and
c. angles
of
the
mandible
become
definitive
coverage.
d. parasymphyseal
area
d. Honey
impreganated
on
gauze
and
applied
over
the
wounds
hasten
A
64
y.o
traffic
policeman
presents
with
a
wound
healing
by
nourishing
the
5cm
lesion
on
R
nasolabial
area,
characterized
bacteria
on
the
wound
surface.
as
a
central
ulcer,
with
hyperpigmented
borders,
which
easily
come
off
when
washing
40.
The
pectorlais
major
mm.
myocutaneous
the
face,
with
resultant
minimal
bleeding.
flap
is:
44.
Whats
the
most
possible
diagnosis?
d. Post
nasal
Drip
a. Squamous
cell
Carcinoma
b. Basal
Cell
Carcinoma
50.
A
45
y.o.
Man
brought
to
the
ED
due
to
c. Malignant
Hematoma
MVA.
On
P.E
patient
able
to
open
his
eyes
d. Soft
Tissue
Carcinoma
with
painful
stimuli,
confused
and
able
to
localized
pain.
What
is
his
GCS?
45.
Diagnosis
is
confirmed
using
which
procedure?
a. 13
b. 12
a. FNAC
c. 11
b. Incisional
Biopsy
d. 10
c. Excisional
biopsy
d. Wide
exclusion
51.
A
28yo
male
sustained
a
sucking
chest
(R)
wound
secondary
to
stab
wound.
What
would
46.
The
recommended
margins
of
resection
be
the
most
initial
treatment
for
the
patient?
during
definitive
surgical
ablation
for
this
conditionare:
a. Suture
the
wound
do
a
needle
thoracotomy
a. 0.1-0.2
cm
b. CTT
(R)
b. 0.5-
1.5
cm
c. Do
an
immediate
Chest
x-ray
c. 1.5-3.0
cm
d. Occlusive
Dressing
on
3
out
4
sides
d. 3.0-
5
cm
52.
Which
trauma
patient
that
47.
Using
the
reconstructive
ladder-elevator
cricothyroidotomy
is
contraindicated?
principle,
the
best
form
of
coverage
of
the
ensuing
defect
in
this
case
would
be;
a. a
43yo
male
with
facial
fractures
a.
a
random-pattern,
advancement
flap
b. a
78yo
female
with
GSW
to
the
neck
b.
full-thickness
skin
graft
c. a
15yo
male
with
stab
wound
to
the
c.
median
forehead
flap
neck
d.
rhomboid
flap
d. a
5yo
female
with
blunt
neck
trauma
48.
Cleft
lip
deformities
are;
53.
A
4yo
female
patient
brought
to
the
ED
due
to
fall
from
a
height
of
10feet.
On
PE,
a.
More
common
among
females
than
in
patient
able
to
open
his
eyes
with
painful
males.
stimuli,
persistently
irritable
and
shows
b.
Mostly
heredofamilial
than
environmental
abnormal
flexion.
What
is
the
GCS
of
the
etiology
patient?
c.
Associated
with
short
stature
in
about
1/3
of
cases.
a. 10
d.
More
common
on
the
right
than
on
the
b. 8
left.
c. 6
d. 4
49.
These
are
all
major
factors
associated
with
a
history
of
rhinosinusitis,
except?
54.
All
are
life-threatening
injuires
to
be
identified
during
the
primary
survey
under
a. Facial
Congestion
Breathing
except?
b. Facial
pain
c. Maxillary
dental
pain
a. Massive
Hemothorax
b. Tension
Pneumothorax
59.
In
the
above
case,
what
would
be
your
c. Open
Pneumothorax
initial
management?
d. Flail
Chest
with
underlying
pulmonary
contusion
a. Occlusive
Dressing
on
3
of
sides
b. CTT
left
55.
A
36yo
male
sustained
a
stab
wound
c. Needle
Thoracotomy
above
the
angle
of
the
mandible,
brought
to
d. Observation
the
ED.
The
patient
is
hemodynamically
stable
and
asymptomatic.
All
of
the
following
are
60.
In
Otitis
Externa,
the
most
common
correct
management
except?
causative
organism
is?
a. Mandatory
neck
exploration
a. Streptococcus
pneumonia
b. CT
Angiography
b. Staphylococcus
aureus
c. Esophagoscopic
examination
c. Pseudomonas
aeruginosa
d. Observation
d. Viruses
56.
All
of
the
following
are
soft
sign
in
61 .
The
following
statement
are
true
penetrating
neck
injuries,
except?
about
Ramsay
Hunt
Syndrome,
except?
a. Subcutaneous
Emphysema
b. Stridor
a. Full
recovery
in
all
patients
c. Chest
pain
b. The
causative
agent
is
Varicella
zoster
d. Odynophagia
virus
c. Patient
has
severe
otalgia
57.
A
32yo
male
was
brought
to
the
ED
with
a
d. Treatment
is
similar
to
Bells
Palsy
GSW
below
the
angle
of
the
mandible,
with
unstable
vital
sign
a
have
a
massive
62 .
Which
of
the
following
statement
do
hemoptysis,
what
is
the
most
appropriate
not
describes
the
anatomy
of
the
oral
management
to
the
patient?
activity?
a. Mandatory
neck
exploration
a. Superiorly,
hard-palate/soft-palate
b. Request
for
a
CT
Angiography
junction
c. Flexible
Esophagoscopic
Examination
b. Laterally;
anterior
tonsillar
pillars
d. Observation
c. Extends
from
the
posterior
nasal
septum
and
choana
to
the
skull
base
58.
A
24yo
male
patient
with
a
stab
wound
on
d. Regional
metastatic
spreads
to
the
the
left
anterior
thorax
was
brought
to
the
ED
submandibular
and
the
upper
jugular
with
the
following
VS
BP-80/60,
HR
115bpm,
region.
RR
35
cpm.
Upon
PE
decrease
breath
sounds
on
the
affected
side,
subcutaneous
63.
These
are
the
major
sites
within
the
emphysema.
What
would
be
your
diagnosis?
oropharynx,
except?
a. Cardiac
tamponade
a. Hard
palate
b. Tension
Pneumothorax
b. Soft
palate
c. Open
Pneumothorax
c. Tonsillar
region
d. Sucking
Chest
Wound
d. Base
of
the
tongue
64.
Which
of
the
following
Statements
68.
Factors
associated
with
increased
about
Recurrent
Respiratory
Papillomatosis
incidence
of
the
head
and
neck
cancers
(RRP)
is
true?
include
all
of
the
following,
except?
a. Long
term
use
of
the
betel
nut
quid
a. Infected
with
HPV
subtype
16
&
18
b. Reflux
esophagus
b. Pharynx
is
the
most
frequently
c. Ultraviolet
light
exposure
involved
site
d. Plummer-Vinson
Syndrome
c. Present
in
early
childhood
secondary
69.
Most
common
site
of
mandibular
fracture
to
viral
acquisition
during
vaginal
is?
delivery
a. Condylar
process
d. Can
be
treated
and
be
cured
if
b. Angle
of
the
mandible
diagnosed
early
c. Body
of
the
mandible
65.
A
52yo
male
smoker
has
a
painless
1
cm
d. Ramus
of
the
mandible
nodule
in
her
right
anterior
cervical
triangle
found
to
be
SCC.
On
examination
of
the
head
70.
All
of
the
following
are
included
in
the
and
neck
is
unremarkable.
The
most
likely
supraglottic
larynx,
except?
source
for
the
primary
tumor
is?
a. False
Vocal
cords
b. Epiglottis
a. tonsil
c. Medial
surface
of
the
aryepiglottic
b. tongue
folds
c. palate
d. Floor
of
the
laryngeal
ventricle
d. pharynx
71.
A
64yo
man
with
history
of
chronic
66.
A
55yo
male
diagnose
to
have
thyroglossal
smoking
with
a
biopsy
result
showed
SCC
duct
cyst,
underwent
a
systrunk
procedure
to
from
a
3cm
ulcerating
located
at
the
right
a
2
cm
midline
neck
mass,
the
thyroid
is
anterior
portion
of
the
tongue.
CT
of
the
neck
normal
and
there
is
no
palpable
adenopathy.
showed
an
enlarged
2cm
lymph
node
in
the
Final
pathologic
report
showed
a
0.5cm
well- level
II
region
on
the
right
side.
Chest
X-ray
differentiated
papillary
carcinoma
within
the
are
negative,
what
is
the
TNM
score
of
the
wall
of
the
cyst,
negative
margins.
The
next
patient?
step
in
management
should
be?
a. T1,
N1,
M0
a. Observation
b. T2,
N2a,
M0
b. Subtotal
thyroidectomy
with
central
c. T2,
N1,
M0
neck
dissection
d. T2,
N2c,
M0
c. Total
thyroidectomy
d. MRND
72.
In
the
above
case,
what
is
the
stage
of
the
patient?
67.
A
60yo
female
consulted
for
a
2cm
a. Stage
I
painless
nodule
on
the
anterior
border
of
the
b. Stage
II
sternocleidomastoid
inferior
to
the
angle
of
c. Stage
III
the
mandible.
Which
is
the
most
appropriate
d. Stage
IV
next
step?
a. FNA
73.
Which
of
the
major
salivary
gland
have
a
b. Core
needle
Biopsy
higher
incidence
of
malignancy?
c. Incisional
Biopsy
a. Parotid
Gland
d. Endoscopic
Biopsy
b. Submandibular
gland
c. Sublingual
Gland
d. None
of
the
above
b. Stage
II
74.
All
of
the
statements
are
true
about
the
c. Stage
III
salivary
glands,
except?
d. Stage
IV
a.
All
major
salivary
glands
are
paired
Matching
Type
b.
2/3
of
malignant
tumors
occur
in
the
parotid
Patterns
of
Lymph
Node
Metastasis
c.
Benign
parotid
tumors
are
common
in
the
a. Level
I
superficial
lobe
b. Level
II
d.
70%
of
all
malignant
salivary
tumor
occur
in
c. Level
III
the
submandibular
gland
d. Level
IV
e. Level
V
75.
A
56yo
female
have
a
SCC
of
the
midline
C
79.
Middle
jugular
chain
nodes;
inferior
to
of
the
upper
lip,
primary
lymphatic
drainage
the
hyoid,
superior
to
the
level
of
the
cricoid,
of
the
midline
of
the
upper
lip?
deep
to
SCM
muscle
from
posterior
border
of
the
muscle
to
the
strap
muscles
medially.
a. Preauricular
nodes
E
80.
Posterior
triangle
Nodes
b. Submandibular
Nodes
A
81.
The
submental
and
submandibular
c. Submental
Nodes
nodes
d. Level
IV
D
82.
Lower
jugular
chain
nodes
B
83.
Submuscular
recess;
superior
to
spinal
76.
Nodes
located
in
the
inferior
to
the
hyoid,
accessory
nerve
to
the
level
of
the
skull
base
superior
to
the
suprasternal
notch,
medial
to
the
lateral
extent
of
the
strap
muscles
Primary
site
for
metastatic
disease
of
cervical
bilaterally
is?
lymph
nodes.
a. Level
IV
A. Level
I
b. Level
V
B. Level
II
c. Level
VI
C. Level
III
d. Level
VII
D. Level
IV
E. Level
V
77.
A
64yo
man
with
a
history
of
chronic
smoking
with
a
biopsy
result
showed
SCC
E
84.
Breast
from
a
3cm
ulcerating
located
at
the
right
A
85.
Floor
of
the
mouth
anterior
portion
of
the
tongue.
CT
of
the
neck
B
86.
Parotid
gland
showed
an
enlarged
2cm
lymph
node
in
the
D
87.
Virchows
Node
level
II
region
on
the
left
side.
Chest
Xray
are
A
88.
Anterior
Tongue
negative,
what
is
the
TNM
score
of
the
patient?
Matching
Type
a.
T1,
N1,
M0
b.
T2,
N2a,
M0
A
89.
The
Palatal
vault
is
mobile
while
C.
T2,
N2b,
M0
the
nasal
pyramid
and
orbital
ruins
d.
T2,
N2c,
M0
are
stable.
A
90.
Involve
the
inferior
nasal
78.
In
the
above
case,
what
is
the
stage
of
the
aperture
patient?
C
91.
Also
known
as
craniofacial
disjunction
a. Stage
I
B
92.
Fracture
arch
passes
through
b. Medial
posterior
alveolar
ridge,
lateral
walls
of
c. Posterior
maxillary
sinuses,
inferior
orbital
rim
and
d. Lateral
nasal
bones
B
93.
The
nasal
dorsum,
palate
and
5. In
the
functional
anatomy
of
the
liver,
medial
part
of
the
infraorbital
rim
are
mobile.
what
structure
is
located
in
the
main
scissura
and
separates
the
right
and
Matching
Type
left
lobes?
A. Supraomohyoid
Neck
Dissection
a. Left
hepatic
vein
B. Jugular
Neck
Dissection
b. Common
bile
duct
C. Central
Compartment
Neck
Dissection
c. Common
hepatic
artery
D. Posterolateral
Neck
Dissection
d. Middle
hepatic
vein
E. Classical
radical
Neck
Dissection
E
94.
Includes
removal
of
the
SCM,
UV
and
6. What
is
the
origin
of
the
common
SAN
hepatic
artery?
A
95.
Levels
I,
II,
I&
III
a. Direct
from
the
abdominal
aorta
D
96.
Nodes
at
the
posterior
and
occipital
b. Gastroduodenal
artery
triangles
c. Celiac
axis
B
97.
Also
called
anterolateral
neck
Dissection
d. Splenic
artery
C
98.
Usually
done
in
thyroid
cancer.
7. What
main
veins
formed
the
portal
Liver,
Mesentery
and
Omentum
vein?
a. Inferior
mesenteric
and
splenic
1. What
ligament
of
the
liver
separates
veins
the
left
lateral
from
the
left
medial
b. Superior
and
inferior
mesenteric
segment?
veins
a. Coronary
c. Hepatic
and
splenic
veins
b. Round
d. Splenic
and
superior
mesenteric
c. Triangular
veins
d. Falciform
8. What
ligament
of
the
liver
is
the
2. The
caudate
lobe
corresponds
to
ligamentum
teres
found?
what
specific
segment
of
the
liver?
a. Coronary
a. Segment
II
b. Falciform
b. Segment
I
c. Right
triangular
c. Segment
III
d. Left
triangular
d. Segment
IV
9. The
left
portal
vein
divides
which
3. Segment
IV
is
also
known
as
what
particular
segments
of
the
liver?
lobe
of
the
liver?
a. II,
III,
and
IV
a. Caudate
lobe
b. IV,
V,
and
VI
b. Right
lobe
c. I,
II,
and
III
c. Quadrate
lobe
d. VI,
VII,
and
VIII
d. Left
lobe
10. What
is
the
normal
pressure
of
the
4. Segments
V
and
VIII
are
located
on
portal
vein?
which
side
of
the
right
lobe?
a. 4-8
mmHg
a. Anterior
b. 0-3
mmHg
c. 2-5
mmHg
c. Serum
albumin
and
PT
d. 5-10
mmHg
d. ALT
and
Alkaline
phosphatase
11. Which
particular
segments
of
the
liver
17. Prothrombin
time
is
a
test
used
to
drain
into
the
middle
hepatic
vein?
determine
or
measure
which
of
the
a. II
and
III
following
clotting
factors
produced
in
b. V
to
VIII
the
liver?
c. IV,
V,
and
VIII
a. II,
V,
VII,
and
X
d. III
to
VII
b. II,
VII,
IX,
and
X
c. V,
VII,
VIII,
and
IX
12. What
biliary
duct
has
a
longer
d. V,
VIII,
IX,
and
X
extrahepatic
course
and
divides
into
segmental
branches?
18. How
much
is
the
bilirubin
blood
level
a. Cystic
duct
if
one
presents
with
b. Common
hepatic
duct
hyperbilirubinemia
in
the
test
and
c. Pancreatic
duct
jaundice
clinically?
d. Common
bile
duct
a. >1-1.5
mg/dL
b. >1.5-2.0
mg/dL
13. The
Calots
triangle
node
are
c. >2.0-2.5
mg/dL
described
as
enlarged
lymph
nodes
d. >2.5-3.0
mg/dL
found
primarily
where?
19. What
radiologic
procedure
of
the
liver
a. Common
bile
duct
can
be
used
intra-operatively
and
is
b. Retropancreatic
area
the
standard
for
detecting
lesion
of
c. Celiac
area
the
liver?
d. Hilar
cystic
duct
a. Ultrasound
b. Computed
tomography
14. Ammonia
is
produced
in
the
liver
c. Magnetic
resonance
imaging
coming
what
process?
d. Positron
emission
tomography
a. Protein
metabolism
b. Gluconeogenesis
20. In
the
classification
of
acute
liver
c. Lipid
metabolism
failure,
which
type
does
jaundice
and
d. Glycogenolysis
encephalopathy
occur
29
days
12
weeks
with
infrequent
cerebral
15. Of
the
following
enzymes
requested
edema
and
has
a
poor
prognosis?
in
the
liver
function
test,
which
of
the
a. Hyper-acute
following
is
found
more
in
the
liver
b. Acute
but
non-specific?
c. Sub-acute
a. Aspartate
transaminases
d. Late
onset
b. Alkaline
phosphatase
c. Alpha-glutaryl
transpeptidase
21. What
is
the
particular
stage
of
hepatic
d. Alanine
transaminases
encephalopathy
wherein
one
feels
drowsy,
disoriented,
agitated
and
16. Among
the
following
liver
function
with
the
presence
of
asterixis?
test,
which
is
considered
as
the
best
a. Stage
I
test
to
indicate
hepatic
synthesis
b. Stage
II
function?
c. Stage
III
a. AST:ALT
ratio
d. Stage
IV
b. Prothrombin
time
and
INR
22. How
do
you
call
a
liver
described
as
a
b. Hydatid
disease
final
sequelae
of
chronic
hepatic
c. Ascariasis
insult
with
the
presence
of
fibrous
d. Amebic
liver
abscess
septa
throughout?
a. Chronic
liver
failure
28. Which
condition
produces
a
liver
b. Hepatic
encephalopathy
mass
which
is
hereditary
in
nature
c. Hepatic
steatosis
and
causes
intra-cystic
haemorrhage,
d. Liver
cirrhosis
infection
and
post-traumatic
rupture?
a. Biliary
cystadenoma
23. Which
of
the
following
imaging
b. Congenital
cyst
procedures
is
considered
the
most
c. Hydatid
cyst
accurate
in
detecting
portal
d. Polycystic
liver
disease
hypertension?
a. Ultrasound
abdomen
29. What
liver
disease
or
condition
is
b. Doppler
ultrasound
considered
a
syndrome
wherein
there
c. Hepatic
venography
is
a
malformation
of
the
intrahepatic
d. CT
arteriography
bile
ducts?
a. Polycystic
liver
disease
24. What
major
group
in
portal
b. Hemangioma
hypertension
does
the
c. Carolis
disease
schistosomiasis
belong
to?
d. Biliary
cystadenoma
a. Pre-sinusoidal
b. Intra-hepatic
sinusoidal
30. Which
among
the
benign
liver
c. Intra-hepatic
post-sinusoidal
diseases
is
described
as
solid,
d. Post-hepatic
post-sinusoidal
common
in
women,
do
not
rupture
spontaneously
nor
undergo
malignant
25. The
gastro-esophageal
varices
gets
its
transformation?
major
blood
supply
from
which
of
the
a. Focal
nodular
hyperplasia
following
veins?
b. Adenoma
a. Right
gastric
vein
c. Hemangioma
b. Left
gastroepiploic
vein
d. Bile
duct
hamartoma
c. Left
gastric
vein
d. Right
gastroepiploic
vein
31. The
presence
of
the
Klatskins
tumor
is
associated
with
what
type
of
26. The
caput
medusa
are
collaterals
malignant
liver
tumor?
and
dilated
veins
formed
by
which
a. Metastatic
liver
disease
vein?
b. Hepatocellular
carcinoma
a. Inferior
hemorrhoidal
veins
c. Cholangiocarcinoma
b. Superior
epigastric
veins
d. Gallbladder
cancer
c. Umbilical
veins
d. Inferior
epigastric
veins
32. From
where
is
the
most
common
primary
source
of
cancer
that
cause
27. Which
of
the
following
infections
of
liver
metastasis?
the
liver
produces
anaphylactic
a. Lung
reactions
and
usually
involves
the
b. Gastric
anterior
or
posterior
inferior
c. Small
bowel
segments
of
the
right
lobe?
d. Colorectal
a. Pyogenic
liver
abscess
33. Which
one
of
the
following
37. Which
of
the
following
is
not
true
descriptions
best
describes
the
about
the
epithelial
cells
of
the
mesentery?
stomach?
a. Single
layer
of
peritoneum
that
a. Chief
cell
production
of
walls
the
abdomino-pelvic
pepsinogens
I
and
II,
and
of
lipase
cavities
b. Mucous
neck
cell
b. Double
layer
of
visceral
Heterogeneous
granules
1-2
m
peritoneum
in
diameter
dispersed
throughout
c. Double
layer
of
parietal
the
cytoplasm
peritoneum
c. Surface-foveolar
mucous
cells
d. Single
layer
of
peritoneum
that
Apical
stippled
granules
up
to
1
walls
the
abdominal
cavity
only
m
in
diameter
d. Oxyntic
(parietal)
cell
34. Among
the
ligaments
found
in
the
production
of
pepsinogen
II
lesser
omentum,
which
of
them
contains
the
common
bile
duct,
38. An
incidental
findings
on
a
chest
x-ray
hepatic
proper
artery,
and
portal
PA
of
a
35
y/o
male
showed
an
air- vein?
fluid
level
behind
the
cardiac
shadow,
a. Hepatoduodenal
what
is
your
diagnosis?
b. Hepatoesophageal
a. Paraesophageal
hernia
c. Hepatogastric
b. GERD
d. Hepatosplenic
c. Schatzkis
ring
d. Zenker
diverticulum
35. Upper
respiratory
tract
infection
is
considered
as
a
common
precedence
39. True
about
the
thoracic
portion
of
the
for
this
particular
condition
which
esophagus?
may
not
be
surgical
in
nature.
What
is
a. Approximately
5cm
long
this
called?
b. Recurrent
laryngeal
nerves
lie
in
a. Tabes
mesenterica
the
right
and
left
grooves
b. Mesenteric
cyst
c. Crosses
both
the
bifurcation
of
c. Omental
adhesions
the
trachea
and
the
left
main
d. Mesenteric
lymphadenitis
stem
bronchus
d. Descends
between
the
trachea
36. Which
of
the
following
is
true
and
the
vertebral
column
regarding
the
anatomy
of
the
stomach?
40. A
45
y/o
male
consulted
at
the
ER
due
a. The
left
and
right
gastric
arteries
to
dysphagia,
associated
.
form
an
anastomotic
arcade
characteristic
wet
voice.
What
is
along
the
greater
curvature.
your
initial
diagnosis?
b. Right
gastric
artery
arises
directly
a. Paraesophageal
hernia
from
the
celiac
trunk.
b. GERD
c. The
veins
draining
the
stomach
c. Schatzkis
ring
generally
parallel
the
arteries.
d. Zenkers
diverticulum
d. Left
gastroepiploic
artery,
which
arises
consistently
from
the
41. In
the
above
patient,
what
is
the
best
gastroduodenal
artery.
diagnostic
modality
to
be
requested?
a. Manometry
b. Contrast
esophagogram
c. Endoscopy
motility
disorder
that
the
patient
d. Plain
chest
x-ray
have?
a. Achalasia
42. The
most
appropriate
treatment
for
b. DES
the
above
patient?
c. Nutcracker
esophagus
a. Observe
d. Hypertensive
lower
esophageal
b. Acid
suppression
sphincter
c. Partial
fundoplication
(Toupet)
d. Diverticulectomy
with
primary
47. Surgical
option
in
the
treatment
in
repair
and
cricopharyngeal
patient
with
intractability/nonhealing
myotomy
duodenal
ulcer,
except?
a. Highly
selective
vagotomy
43. A
48
y/o
male
come
in
due
to
chest
b. Gastrojejunostomy
pain
and
dysphagia.
A
barium
swallow
c. Vagotomy
and
drainage
was
requested
and
revealed
a
ringed
d. Vagotomy
and
antrectomy
esophagus?
The
most
appropriate
management
would
be,
except?
48. Which
of
the
following
gastric
cells
a. Proton
pump
inhibitors
secrete
intrinsic
factor?
b. Corticosteroids
a. Chief
cells
c. Elimination
of
food
allergies
b. Parietal
cells
d. Rigid
dilators
c. G
cells
d. D
cells
44. Most
of
the
parietal
cells
are
located
in
the?
49. Which
of
the
following
gastric
ulcer
is
a. Fundus
associated
with
acid
hypersecretion?
b. Cardia
a. Cardia
c. Body
b. Fundus
d. Antrum
c. Angularis
Incisiura
d. Pylorus
45. All
of
the
following
statements
are
true
about
left
gastric
artery
to
the
50. Procedure
of
choice
in
low-risk
stomach,
except?
patient
with
perforated
duodenal
a. Largest
artery
to
the
stomach
ulcer?
b. Arises
directly
from
the
celiac
a. Graham
patch
with
HSV
trunk
b. Distal
gastrectomy
c. Divides
into
an
ascending
and
c. Truncal
vagotomy
with
descending
branch
along
the
antrectomy
greater
gastric
curvature
d. Vagotomy
and
drainage
d. Supplies
the
aberrant
vessel
that
travels
in
the
gastrohepatic
51. All
of
the
following
stimulate
gastric
ligament
acid
secretion
except?
a. Acetylcholine
46. Patients
manometric
study
showed
b. Gastric
distention
an
incomplete
lower
esophageal
c. Intraluminal
protein
sphincter
(LES)
relaxation
and
d. Somatostatin
aperistalsis
in
the
esophageal
body,
what
type
of
primary
of
primary
52. What
is
the
stage
of
the
patient
with
SCC
that
invades
muscularis
propria,
with
no
regional
lymph
node
metastasis
nor
distant
metastasis?
56. Repetitive
and
multipeaked
a. Stage
I
contractions
with
intermittent
normal
b. Stage
II
peristalsis
c. Stage
IIIA
57. Incomplete
lower
esophageal
d. Stage
IIIB
sphincter
(LES)
relaxation
(<75%
relaxation)
and
aperistalsis
in
the
53. Which
of
the
following
is
not
true
esophageal
body
about
Mallory-Weiss
Syndrome?
58. Elevated
LES
pressure
(26mmHg)
a. Presents
with
upper
GI
bleeding,
and
normal
LES
relaxation
often
with
hematemesis
59. Dilated
esophagus
with
a
tapering,
b. Endoscopy
confirms
the
diagnosis
birds
beak-like
narrowing
of
the
and
may
be
useful
in
controlling
distal
end
the
bleeding
60. Decreased
or
absent
amplitude
of
c. A
congenital
arteriovenous
esophageal
peristalsis
(<30mmHg)
malformation
61. Elevated
LES
pressure
26
mmHg
and
d. Use
of
balloon
tamponade
to
increased
intraesophageal
baseline
control
bleeding
pressures
relative
to
gastric
baseline
62. Barium
esophagogram
showed
54. Indication
to
an
antireflux
procedure
pseudodiverticulosis
in
patients
with
GERD,
except?
63. A
disorder
resulting
from
increased
a. Extraesophageal
atypical
reflux
intensity
of
esophageal
contraction
is
symptoms
rather
than
disordered
contraction
b. Ulceration
64. Barium
studies
are
usually
normal
c. Barretts
mucosa
with
high-grade
65. Pathogenesis
is
presumed
to
be
a
dysplasia
neurogenic
degeneration,
which
is
d. Noncompliance
with
medical
either
idiopathic
or
due
to
infection
therapy
Benign
gastric
ulcer
55. Three
normal
areas
of
esophageal
narrowing,
except?
a. Type
I
a. Level
of
the
cricopharyngeal
b. Type
II
muscle
c. Type
III
b. Level
of
the
aortic
arch
d. Type
IV
c. Level
of
the
carina
e. Type
V
d. Level
of
the
diaphragm
66. Body
of
stomach,
incisura
+
duodenal
Matching
type:
ulcer
(active
or
healed)
Manometry
in
primary
esophageal
motility
67. Prepyloric
disorder
68. 60%
of
benign
gastric
ulcers
and
not
associated
with
acid
hypersecretion
a. Achalasia
69. Treatment
is
cessation
of
the
b. DES
offending
agent
and
the
addition
of
a
c. Nutcracker
esophagus
proton
pump
inhibitor
(PPI)
or
d. Hypertensive
lower
esophageal
histamine
blocker
sphincter
70. Proximal
location
along
the
lesser
e. Ineffective
esophageal
motility
curvature
near
the
gastroesophageal
disorder
junction
Gallbladder
d. Choledochal
cyst
1. Regarding
the
extrahepatic
biliary
and
5. What
would
be
the
most
common
vascular
anatomy,
which
of
the
etiology
for
the
diagnosis
made?
following
is
true?
a. Primary
pigment
stones
a. The
boundaries
of
the
triangle
of
b. Secondary
CBD
stones
calot
include
the
common
hepatic
c. Hepatitis
virus
duct,
cystic
duct,
and
cystic
d. Adenocarcinoma
artery.
b. The
CBD
courses
downward
6. Which
of
the
following
radiologic
posterior
to
the
portal
vein
in
the
studies
is
not
indicated
for
the
free
edge
of
the
lesser
omentum.
diagnosis
of
this
disorder?
c. The
right
branch
of
the
hepatic
a. Abdominal
CT
scan
artery
crosses
the
main
bile
duct
b. ERCP
posteriorly.
c. HIDA
scan
d. The
cystic
artery
usually
crosses
d. PTC
the
common
hepatic
duct
posteriorly.
7. What
is
the
most
appropriate
treatment
for
this
patient?
2. What
is
the
normal
amount
of
bile
a. Antibiotics
and
urgent
surgical
produced
by
the
liver
daily?
biliary
a. 500-1000
mL
b. Antibiotics
and
endoscopic
biliary
b. 1000-2000
mL
decompression
c. 1000-1500
mL
c. Antibiotics
and
percutaneous
d. 200-400
mL
transhepatic
biliary
decompression
3. A
30-year-old
male
with
a
known
d. Antibiotics,
surgical
haemolytic
disorder
comes
to
the
decompression,
and
surgery
clinic
with
an
ultrasound
that
cholecystectomy
shows
gallstones.
What
type
of
gallstones
would
you
expect
to
find?
8. What
is
the
most
common
gallbladder
a. Cholesterol
stones
tumor?
b. Black
pigmented
stones
a. Adenocarcinoma
c. Brown
pigmented
stones
b. Papillary
carcinoma
d. Ca+
stones
c. Mucinous
carcinoma
d. Oat
cell
carcinoma
Questions
no.
4-7
A
42-year-old
female
comes
to
ER
9. After
uneventful
laparoscopic
complaining
of
RUQ
abdominal
pain
for
the
cholecystectomy
in
a
55-year-old
last
36h
associated
with
fever
up
to
39C,
male,
the
biopsy
demonstrates
a
bilious
emesis,
and
jaundice.
Direct
bilirubin
gallbladder
carcinoma
invading,
but
2.2,
alkaline
phosphatase
450,
WBC
19,000,
not
penetrating
the
muscularis
layer.
AST
24,
ALT
19.
What
is
the
most
appropriate
next
step
in
the
management
of
this
4. What
is
the
most
probable
diagnosis?
patient?
a. Acute
cholecystitis
a. No
more
treatment
needed
b. Acute
cholangitis
b. En
bloc
resection
of
gallbladder
c. Pancreatic
cancer
bed
including
the
segment
four
to
five
of
the
liver
and
region
at
a. Cystic
artery
from
right
hepatic
lymph
nodes
artery,
about
70-80%
c. Postoperative
chemotherapy
b. Cystic
artery
from
right
hepatic
d. Biliary
enteric
bypass
artery,
about
60-70%
c. Cystic
artery
from
right
hepatic
10. A
50-year-old
male
underwent
artery,
about
80-90%
laparoscopic
cholecystectomy
for
GB
d. Cystic
artery
from
right
hepatic
stones.
On
post-op
day
4,
he
artery,
about
90-100%
complains
of
abdominal
pain
and
nausea.
Labs
showed
WBC
10,000
14. Indications
for
prophylactic
and
direct
bilirubin
2.5.
What
is
the
cholecystectomy
in
asymptomatic
most
appropriate
study?
patient,
except?
a. MRC
a. Populations
with
increased
risk
of
b. Abdominal
US
gallbladder
cancer
c. ERCP
b. Porcelain
gallbladder
d. HIDA
scan
c. For
individuals
who
will
be
isolated
from
medical
care
for
11. The
following
are
true
regarding
the
extended
periods
of
time
ERC,
except?
d. Young
patients
with
RUQ
pain
a. The
common
bile
duct
can
be
cannulated
and
a
cholangiogram
Questions
no.
15-16
performed
using
fluoroscopy
A
75-year-old
man
presents
with
cholangitis,
b. Is
the
diagnostic
and
often
choledocholithiasis
and
asymptomatic
therapeutic
procedure
of
choice
cholelithiasis
for
obstruction
c. Direct
visualization
of
the
15. The
best
treatment
for
him
ampullary
region
and
direct
a. ERCP
followed
by
access
to
the
distal
CBD
cholecystectomy
d. No
needs
of
IV
sedation
for
the
b. Laparoscopic
cholecystectomy
patient
with
common
bile
duct
exploration
12. Which
of
the
following
statement
is
c. ERC
and
endoscopic
false?
sphincterotomy
a. Women
are
three
times
more
d. ERC
followed
by
open
likely
to
develop
gallstones
cholecystectomy
b. Most
patients
will
remain
asymptomatic
from
their
16. What
antibiotics
will
you
give
him?
gallstones
throughout
life
a. Cefuroxime
+
Metronidazole
c. Approximately
3%
of
b. Cefuroxime
+
Clindamycin
symptomatic
individuals
become
c. Cefuroxime
+
Cefoxitin
asymptomatic
per
year
d. Cefuroxime
+
Ceftriaxone
d. Gallstones
in
patients
without
biliary
symptoms
are
commonly
Questions
no.
17-25
diagnosed
incidentally
A
44-year-old
woman
presented
to
the
emergency
department
with
a
1-day
history
13. Which
is/are
true
regarding
the
of
constant
abdominal
pain
and
vomiting.
The
arterial
supply
to
the
gallbladder?
pain
came
on
suddenly,
shortly
after
eating
her
evening
meal.
This
was
followed
by
intermittent
bouts
of
bilious
vomiting.
She
21. What
definitive
diagnostic
test
will
has
diabetes
and
is
concerned
about
her
you
request?
blood
sugars
as
she
has
not
been
able
to
eat
a
a. Ultrasound
of
the
HBT
normal
diet
since
the
pain
started.
Her
bowels
b. Ultrasound
of
the
upper
have
opened
normally
and
she
has
no
urinary
abdomen
symptoms.
c. CT
scan
d. ERCP
Examination:
The
patient
is
febrile
with
a
temperature
of
38C
and
a
pulse
rate
of
22. Whats
your
initial
treatment
on
the
116/min.
She
is
clinically
jaundiced.
On
above
case?
examination
of
the
abdomen,
she
is
found
to
a. Emergency
decompression
by
PTC
have
tenderness
in
the
right
upper
quadrant,
b. Emergency
decompression
under
which
is
worsened
by
placing
two
fingers
local
anesthesia
beneath
the
tip
of
the
ninth
costal
cartilage
c. ERC
and
PTC
during
inspiration.
A
tender
mass
is
palpable
d. IV
antibiotics
and
fluid
in
the
right
upper
quadrant.
The
urine
is
clear
resuscitation
and
rectal
examination
is
normal.
23. What
sign
is
elicited
on
examination
17. On
the
above
case,
all
of
the
following
of
the
abdomen?
organ
or
anatomic
part
are
directly
a. Murphys
sign
affected,
except?
b. Morphys
sign
a. CBD
c. Murphys
sign
b. Intrahepatic
duct
d. Memphys
sign
c. Cystic
duct
d. Gallbladder
24. Once
the
patient
normalized,
when
will
you
schedule
your
patient
for
18. Working
diagnosis?
definitive
surgery?
a. Acute
cholecystitis
a. 3rd-5th
hospital
days
b. Acute
cholangitis
b. 2nd-3rd
hospital
days
c. Chronic
cholecystitis
c. 7th
hospital
day
d. Chronic
cholangitis
d. 6
weeks
after
decompression
19. If
blood
pressure
drop
to
80/50
25. If
the
jaundice
of
the
patient
is
mmHg
with
change
in
mental
status,
continuous
and
deepening,
what
is
what
findings
do
you
notice?
your
consideration?
a. Reynold
pentad
a. Choledocholithiasis
b. Reymonds
pentad
b. Cystolithiasis
c. Renolds
pentad
c. Malignancy
d. Reynolds
pentad
d. Cholelithiasis
20. On
the
case
above,
what
findings
did
26. Initial
investigation
of
any
patient
you
notice?
suspected
of
disease
of
the
biliary
a. Reynolds
pentad
tree?
b. Becks
triad
a. MRCP
c. Charcots
triad
b. UTZ
or
U/S
d. Ponce
octad
c. CT
scan
d. ERC
27. UTZ
sensitivity
and
specificity?
c. 30%
chance
of
metastasis
a. Sensitivity
and
specificity
of
>60%
d. 40%
chance
of
metastasis
b. Sensitivity
and
specificity
of
>70%
e. 50%
chance
of
metastasis
c. Sensitivity
and
specificity
of
>80%
d. Sensitivity
and
specificity
of
>90%
3. The
following
belong
to
the
translocation-associated
sarcomas,
28. Indicative
of
chronic
cholecystitis
as
except:
seen
on
U/S?
a. Ewings
sarcoma
a. Contracted,
thin-walled
b. Dermatofibrosarcoma
gallbladder
protuberance
b. Contracted,
thick-walled
c. Pleomorphic
sarcoma
gallbladder
d. Synovial
sarcoma
c. Contracted,
thick-walled
e. Myxoid
liposarcoma
gallbladder
2
hours
after
meal
d. Thick-walled
gallbladder
4. Most
common
site
of
Gastro-
intestinal
Stromal
Tumors:
29. Biliary
leaks
as
a
complication
of
a. Esophagus
surgery
of
the
gallbladder
or
the
b. Stomach
biliary
tree
can
be
confirmed
and
c. Small
intestine
frequently
localized
by?
d. Large
intestine
a. MRCP
e. Anus
b. ERCP
c. HIDA
scan
5. The
gold
standard
for
histologically
d. UTZ
documenting
sarcomas:
a. Fine
needle
aspiration
cytology
30. What
is
your
important
tool
in
staging
b. Core
needle
biopsy
carcinoma
of
the
gallbladder?
c. Incisional
biopsy
a. UTZ
d. Excisional
biopsy
b. ERCP
e. Frozen
section
biopsy
c. HIDA
d. CT
scan
6. Non-operative
management
may
be
an
option
for
this
sarcoma:
Urology,
small
and
large
intestines,
soft
a. Leiomyosarcoma
tissue
sarcomas
and
appendix
b. Fibroids
c. Rhabdomyosarcoma
1. The
following
sarcoma
has
very
low
d. Synovial
sarcoma
propensity
for
lymph
node
e. Desmoid
metastasis:
a. Liposarcoma
7. Which
is
not
a
chronic
effect
of
b. Pediatric
rhabdomyosarcoma
radiation
therapy:
c. Angiosarcoma
a. Osteitis
d. Clear
cell
sarcoma
b. Lymphedema
e. Synovial
sarcoma
c. Contractures
d. Stomatitis
2. Intermediate
grade
sarcomas,
e. Fractures
generally
have:
a. 10%
chance
of
metastasis
b. 20%
chance
of
metastasis
8. The
technique
whereby
radio-active
d. Commonly
found
in
the
lower
beads
are
embedded
in
the
tumor
extremities
site
is:
e. Can
metastasize
a. Adjuvant
chemotherapy
b. Induction
chemotherapy
14. The
grading
system
which
provides
c. Neo-adjuvant
irradiation
the
best
prognostic
capability
is
the:
d. Isolated
limb
perfusion
a. AJCC
e. Brachytherapy
b. NCCN
c. FFCC
9. Sarcomas
most
commonly
d. NCI
metastasize
to
the:
e. ACS
a. Other
extremity
b. Lungs
15. In
Dermatofibrosarcoma
c. Liver
protuberance,
the
gene
involved
in
d. Bone
the
mutation
is
the:
e. Brain
a. JAZFI-JJAZI
b. PDFGB-COL1A1
10. The
following
are
endodermal
c. FUS-CREB312
derivatives
except:
d. FUS-ATFI
a. Lung
e. EWS-ATFI
b. Liver
c. Stomach
16. A
marine
derived
alkaloid
which
d. Kidneys
shows
benefit
for
advanced
e. Pancreas
leiomyosarcoma:
a. Ifosfamide
11. According
to
FNCLCC,
Grade
2
tumors
b. Sorafenib
have
a
5-year
survival
rate
of:
c. Dasatinib
a. 40%
d. Imatinib
b. 50%
e. Trabectedin
c. 60%
d. 70%
17. The
recommended
number
of
cycles
e. 80%
pre-operative
chemotherapy
is
given:
a. Two
12. The
oncogenes
associated
with
b. Three
sarcomas
are
the
following,
except:
c. Four
a. C-erbB2
d. Five
b. MDM2
e. Six
c. PDGFRA
d. N-myc
18. The
most
important
prognostic
factor
e. RAS
for
sarcomas
is:
a. Tumor
size
13. The
following
characteristics
of
the
b. Patients
age
myxoid
type
of
liposarcoma
are
true,
c. Patients
sex
except:
d. Nodal
status
a. Peaks
at
old
age
e. Histologic
grade
b. Low
grade
c. Deep
tumors
19. One
of
the
following
is
linked
to
radiation
exposure
as
a
risk
factor:
a. Malignant
Fibrous
Histiocytoma
e. 8
cm
b. Malignant
Mixed
Muellerian
tumor
25. From
the
time
of
diagnosis,
without
c. Dermatofibrosarcoma
intervention,
sarcomas
metastasize
to
protuberance
the
lungs
in:
d. Rhabdomyosarcoma
a. 6
months
e. Myxoid
liposarcoma
b. 12
months
c. 18
months
20. Neo-adjuvant
imatinib
allows
surgery
d. 24
months
to
be
performed
in
patients
with
large
e. 48
months
GIST:
a. 1
month
after
26. Also
known
as
Lobsteins
cancer:
b. 2
months
after
a. Gastrointestinal
Stromal
Tumor
c. 3
months
after
b. Gastro
intestinal
Sarcoma
d. 5
months
after
c. Cystosarcoma
phyllodes
e. 6
months
after
d. Desmoids
e. Retroperitoneal
sarcomas
21. Rhadomyosarcomas
have
a
disease
free
survival
rate
of:
27. Most
common
presenting
sign
of
a. 55%
Gastrointestinal
sarcoma
is:
b. 60%
a. Abdominal
pain
c. 65%
b. Abdominal
mass
d. 70%
c. Abdominal
distension
e. 75%
d. Gastrointestinal
colic
e. Gastrointestinal
bleeding
22. Generally
not
considered
a
sarcoma:
a. Cystosarcoma
Phyllodes
28. The
following
cancer
syndromes
are
b. Ewings
sarcoma
associated
with
pediatric
sarcomas,
c. Desmoid
except:
d. Dermatofibrosarcoma
a. Retinoblastoma
protuberans
b. Werners
syndrome
e. Malignant
Mixed
Mullerian
c. Familial
adenomatous
polyposis
Tumor
d. Neurofibromatosis
e. Wernickes
syndrome
23. The
retroperitoneal
space
is
bordered
by
the
following,
except:
29. Primary
resistance
to
imatinib
usually
a. Diaphragm
occurs
in:
b. Peritoneum
a. 6
months
c. Psoas
b. 9
months
d. Spine
c. 12
months
e. Pelvic
diaphragm
d. 24
months
e. 36
months
24. The
following
are
acceptable
radiation
margins,
except:
30. In
FNCLLC
grading,
Grade
2
has
a
a. 4
cm
score
of:
b. 5
cm
a. 1
c. 6
cm
b. 3
d. 7
cm
c. 5
d. 7
invested
in
a
fibro-fatty
layer:
e. 9
fascia
of
Zuckerkandl
posteriorly
and
Gerotas
fascia
anteriorly.
31. Trauma
is
a
risk
factor
in
developing
b. Posterolaterally,
the
kidneys
are
which
of
the
following
sarcomas:
bordered
by
the
quadratus
a. Fibrosarcoma
lumborum
and
posteromedially
b. Ewings
sarcoma
by
the
psoas
muscle.
c. Synovial
sarcoma
c. Anteriorly,
they
are
confined
by
d. Angiosarcoma
the
posterior
layer
of
the
e. None
of
the
above
peritoneum.
d. All
of
the
above
32. Radiation
is
usually
associated
with
e. None
of
the
above
sarcomas
with
mutations
in:
a. KIT
37. True
about
the
adrenal
glands
except:
b. P53
a. The
adrenal
glands
lie
c. cErb
superomedially
to
the
kidneys
d. N-myc
within
Gerotas
fascia
e. MDM2
b. The
arterial
supply
of
the
adrenals
derives
from
the
inferior
phrenic,
33. Sarcoma
common
at
the
reproductive
aorta,
and
small
branches
from
age:
the
renal
arteries
a. Leiomyosarcoma
c. The
venous
drainage
on
the
left
is
b. Endometrial
Stromal
Sarcoma
mainly
through
the
inferior
c. Malignant
Mixed
Mullerian
phrenic
vein
and
through
the
left
Tumor
renal
vein
via
the
inferior
adrenal
d. Undifferentiated
Endometrial
vein
Sarcoma
d. All
of
the
above
e. Desmoid
e. None
of
the
above
34.
tumors
are
tumors
that
are:
38. Which
of
the
following
is/are
true
of
a. 5
cms
in
size
the
ureters
b. More
than
5
cms
in
size
a. The
blood
supply
of
the
proximal
c. 15
cms
in
size
ureter
derives
from
the
aorta
and
d. More
than
15
cms
in
size
renal
artery
and
comes
mainly
e. None
of
the
above
from
the
lateral
direction.
b. Distally,
it
derives
its
blood
supply
35. The
following
includes
features
that
medially
from
branches
from
the
define
the
grade
of
the
tumor,
iliac
arteries.
except:
c. Mobilizing
the
distal
ureter
for
a. Pleomorphism
anastomosis
requires
releasing
its
b. Mitoses
medial
attachments,
which
c. Necrosis
results
in
ischemia.
d. Cellularity
d. All
of
the
above
e. No
exception
e. None
of
the
above
36. True
about
the
kidneys
except:
39. True
about
the
anatomy
of
the
a. The
kidneys
are
paired
urinary
bladder,
except:
intraperitoneal
organs
that
are
a. Urinary
bladder
is
situated
in
the
function
as
two
separate
retropubic
space
in
an
compartment.
extraperitoneal
position.
d. The
sinusoidal
tissue
is
innervated
b. A
portion
of
the
bladder
dome
is
by
the
cavernosal
nerves,
which
adjacent
to
the
peritoneum,
so
are
autonomic
nerves
that
ruptures
at
this
point
can
result
in
originate
in
the
hypogastric
intraperitoneal
urine
leakage.
plexus
and
play
a
critical
role
in
c. At
physiologic
volumes
(200-400
erection.
mL),
the
bladder
projects
e. The
tip
of
the
penis,
called
the
modestly
into
the
abdomen.
glans,
is
in
continuity
with
the
d. All
of
the
above
corpus
spongiosum
e. None
of
the
above
42. A
27y/o
patient
was
rushed
into
the
40. Which
of
the
following
statements
ER
after
a
vehicular
accident.
Kidney
is/are
true
of
the
prostate:
injury
is
suspected.
As
the
ER
resident
a. The
prostate
has
a
significant
on
duty,
you
know
that
several
component
of
smooth
muscle
structures
would
be
compromised
and
can
provide
urinary
should
the
left
renal
vein
be
injured
continence
even
in
the
absence
of
as
it
receives
drainage
from
the
the
external
striated
sphincter.
following,
except?
b. The
puboprostatic
ligaments
a. Left
gonadal
vein
connect
the
prostate
to
the
pubic
b. Left
inferior
phrenic
vein
symphysis,
and
pelvic
fractures
c. Left
internal
pudendal
vein
often
result
in
proximal
urethral
d. Left
suprarenal
gland
injuries
due
to
the
traction
that
these
ligaments
provide.
43. Which
of
the
following
is/are
true
of
c. Between
the
prostate
and
the
the
ureters
rectum
lies
Denonvilliers
fascia,
a. The
blood
supply
of
the
proximal
which
is
the
main
anatomic
ureter
derives
from
the
aorta
and
barrier
that
prevents
prostate
renal
artery
and
comes
mainly
cancer
from
regularly
penetrating
from
the
lateral
direction.
into
the
rectum.
b. Distally,
it
derives
its
blood
supply
d. All
of
the
above
medially
from
branches
from
the
e. None
of
the
above
iliac
arteries.
c. Mobilizing
the
distal
ureter
for
41. True
about
the
penis,
except:
anastomosis
requires
releasing
its
a. The
corpora
cavernosum
are
the
medial
attachments,
which
paired,
cylinder-like
structures
results
in
ischemia.
that
are
the
main
erectile
bodies
d. All
of
the
above
of
the
penis.
e. None
of
the
above
b. The
corpora
cavernosum
consist
of
a
tough
outer
layer
called
the
44. On
physical
examination,
which
tunica
albuginea
and
spongy,
technique
is
better
for
diagnosing
a
sinusoidal
tissue
inside
that
fills
distended
bladder?
with
blood
to
result
in
erection.
a. Inspection
c. The
two
corpora
cavernosum
b. Auscultation
have
no
vascular
c. Palpation
interconnections,
so
they
d. Percussion
d. Category
III
45. All
of
the
following
statements
about
the
physical
examination
are
true,
49. Following
documentation
of
a
firm
except:
mass
in
the
testes
by
ultrasound
in
a
a. The
left
kidney
is
generally
32
year
old
male,
tissue
sample
for
palpable
in
men
biopsy
should
be
obtained
for
b. Transillumination
of
the
kidney
diagnosis
by
may
be
helpful
in
children
a. Fine
needle
aspiration
younger
than
1
year
of
age
b. Core
needle
biopsy
c. The
adult
bladder
cannot
usually
c. Open
scrotal
biopsy
be
palpated
or
percussed
until
d. Inguinal
orchiectomy
there
is
150
mL
of
urine
in
it
d. Bimanual
examination
of
the
50. A
28-year-old
white
male
presents
bladder
to
assess
tumour
extent
with
asymptomatic
testicular
is
best
done
under
anaesthetic
enlargement.
Which
of
the
following
e. A
lower
ureteric
calculus
may
be
statement(s)
is/are
true
concerning
palpable
per
vagina
his
diagnosis
and
management?
a. Tumor
markers,
-fetoprotein
46. A
60
year
old
male
patient
with
a
PSA
(AFP)
and
-human
chorionic
of
>100ng/mL,
is
suspected
for
a
gonadotropin
(HCG)
will
both
be
metastatic
prostate
cancer.
Biopsy
of
value
in
the
patient
regardless
confirmed
your
suspicion.
The
most
of
his
ultimate
tissue
type
common
site
of
spread
of
prostate
b. Orchiectomy
should
be
cancer
is:
performed
via
scrotal
approach
a. Kidney
and
liver
c. The
diagnosis
of
seminoma
b. Testes
and
urinary
bladder
should
be
followed
by
c. Lungs
and
Mediastinum
postoperative
radiation
therapy
d. Pelvic
lymph
nodes
and
bones
d. With
current
adjuvant
chemotherapy
regimens,
47. Diagnostic
imaging
to
demonstrate
retroperitoneal
the
site
of
metastasis
in
this
pt
(#46)
lymphadenectomy
is
no
longer
except:
indicated
for
non-seminomatous
a. CT
scan
of
the
abdomen
testicular
tumors
b. Bone
scan
c. Both
A
&
B
51. A
23-year-old
man
has
a
solid
mass
in
d. None
of
the
above
his
left
testis
about
10
cm
in
size.
Which
of
the
following
is
an
48. A
52
year
old
patient
was
suspected
appropriate
work-up
for
the
patient:
as
having
kidney
CA
and
was
a. Request
for
tumor
markers
AFP,
submitted
for
CT
scan
for
BHCG
and
LDH
classification.
Upon
imaging,
the
scan
b. Obtain
a
complete
history
and
showed
homogeneously,
hyperdense
physical
examination
cysts
measuring
about
7
cm,
and
few
c. Scrotal
US
hairline
septa.
What
would
be
the
d. All
of
the
above
interns
answer?
a. Category
II
52. If
the
serum
levels
of
alpha
b. Category
II
F
fetoprotein
is
elevated
in
this
patient
c. Category
VII
(#51)
with
a
firm
testicular
mass,
which
of
the
following
diagnoses
d. Surgical
resection
with
most
likely?
radiotherapy
a. Seminomatous
germ
cell
tumor
b. Nonseminomatous
germ
cell
56. A
68
year
old
man
with
a
history
of
tumor
radical
prostatectomy
4
years
earlier
c. Leydig
cell
tumor
for
Prostatic
CA,
but
was
d. Sertoli
cell
tumor
subsequently
to
follow-up,
came
to
your
office
for
pain
on
the
ribs.
If
you
53. After
radical
orchiectomy
(#51),
the
are
the
physician,
the
next
best
step
pathology
reveals
an
embryonal
in
managing
this
patient
is
to:
carcinoma
with
a
teratoma.
Which
a. Tell
him
its
normal
additional
tests
is
appropriate?
b. Perform
a
rib
biopsy
a. Repeat
the
serum
tumor
markers
c. Give
medications
that
lower
b. Chest
CT
scan
serum
testosterone
c. Abdominal
CT
scan
d. Order
for
PSA
testing
d. All
of
the
above
e. Perform
orchiectomy
e. None
of
the
above
57. Which
of
the
following
statement
is
54. The
CT
scan
of
the
abdomen
(#51)
false
concerning
the
detection
and
reveals
8cm
of
lymphadenopathy
in
diagnosis
of
prostatic
cancer?
the
periaortic
nodes.
What
is
the
a. An
elevation
of
prostate
specific
recommended
treatment?
antigen
(PSA)
is
highly
sensitive
a. Modified
nerve-sparing
and
specific
for
prostatic
retroperitoneal
lymph
node
carcinoma
dissection
b. American
blacks
have
an
b. Full
bilateral
retroperitoneal
increased
risk
of
prostatic
lymph
node
dissection
carcinoma
c. Chemotherapy
with
Paclitaxel
c. Autopsy
series
would
suggest
that
(Taxol),
Gemcitabine
and
Cisplatin
10%
of
men
in
their
50s
will
have
d. Chemotherapy
with
Cisplatin,
small
latent
prostatic
cancers
Etoposide,
and
Bleomycin
d. Transrectal
prostatic
biopsy
is
e. Chemotherapy
plus
indicated
for
a
palpable
1
cm
retroperitoneal
radiation
prostate
nodule
e. Serum
prostatic
acid
phosphatase
55. A
59
year
old
Filipino
man
is
told
by
remains
the
most
useful
tumor
his
primary
care
physician
that
his
marker
for
prostatic
carcinoma
prostatic
specific
antigen
(PSA)
has
gone
up
significantly
since
his
last
58. A
70-year-old
man
with
a
long
visit.
He
has
no
palpable
smoking
history
presents
with
abnormalities
in
his
prostate
by
rectal
painless
gross
hematuria.
A
CT
exam.
Whats
the
initial
urogram
is
performed
as
part
of
the
management?
diagnostic
evaluation.
CT
urogram
a. Transrectal
needle
biopsy
shows
nonvisualization
of
the
left
b. Transrectal
needle
biopsy
guided
kidney.
There
is
a
filling
defect
in
the
by
finger
bladder,
in
addition,
the
right
kidney
c. Transrectal
needle
biopsy
guided
has
a
standing
column
of
contrast
to
by
sonogram
or
MRI
the
middle
third
of
the
ureter
and
early
hydronephrosis
evidenced
by
blunting
of
the
forniceal
angles.
examination.
The
most
appropriate
Which
of
the
following
statements
initial
diagnostic
test
is:
are
true:
a. IVP
a. The
likely
diagnosis
is
muscle
b. Retrograde
urethrogram
invasive
transitional
cell
c. Cystogram
carcinoma
of
the
bladder
d. Pelvic
CT
scan
b. Obstruction
of
the
left
ureter
can
e. Peritoneal
lavage
cause
nonfunction
of
the
left
kidney
62. A
26
y/o
male
patient
goes
to
the
ER
c. The
findings
on
the
right
are
with
a
complaint
of
hematuria
after
a
suspicious
for
transitional
cell
motor
vehicle
accident
which
cancer
of
the
ureter
happened
3
days
prior.
You
suspect
d. All
are
true
an
isolated
urinary
system
injury
and
e. None
would
suggest
imaging
studies.
What
is
the
gold
standard
for
genitourinary
59. A
20
y/o,
male
patient
came
in
due
to
imaging
in
renal
trauma?
a
blunt
trauma
on
the
flank,
a. Retrograde
pyelogram
secondary
to
motor
vehicular
b. Radiographic
imaging
accident.
What
is/are
the
finding/s
on
c. Contrast-enhanced
computed
CT
that
will
raise
suspicion
for
major
tomography
renal
injury?
d. MRI
a. Medial
hematoma
b. Medial
urinary
intravasation
63. A
55-year-old
male
patient
is
c. Lack
of
contrast
enhancement
of
admitted
@
ED
due
to
severe
scrotal
the
parenchyma
and
perineal
pain.
Upon
history
and
d. Both
A
and
C
physical
examination,
the
patient
is
diagnosed
with
Fourniers
Gangrene.
60. If
a
patient
with
documented
Which
of
the
following
is
LEAST
likely
uncomplicated
extraperitoneal
the
anticipated
management
in
this
bladder
rupture,
what
is
your
initial
case?
management?
a. Prompt
debridement
of
the
a. Cystoscopy
is
necessary
to
verify
nonviable
tissue
the
rupture
b. Broad
antibiotics
should
be
b. Urethral
catheter
drainage
alone
administered
c. Schedule
the
patient
for
surgery
c. Damage
to
external
anal
immediately
sphincter
requires
colostomy
d. None
of
the
above
d. Testes
are
usually
threatened
and
need
to
be
removed
61. A
25-year-old
pedestrian
is
struck
by
an
automobile.
On
arrival
in
the
64. A
patient
came
in
for
penile
swelling.
emergency
room,
a
plain
film
of
the
Patient
reported
hearing
an
audible
pelvis
reveals
a
left
superior
and
pop
during
sexual
intercourse
with
inferior
pubic
ramus
fracture
as
well
his
partner.
Upon
inspection
of
the
as
a
fracture
of
the
sacroiliac
joint.
perineum,
you
noticed
a
butterfly
Examination
of
the
patient
reveals
a
sign.
What
is
your
initial
diagnosis?
suprapubic
mass.
Blood
is
noted
at
a. Penile
fracture
only
the
meatus
and
the
prostate
is
in
the
b. Penile
fracture,
with
disrupted
normal
position
on
digital
tunica
albuginea
c. Penile
fracture,
with
disrupted
a. It
is
useful
to
apply
firm
pressure
Bucks
fascia
to
the
edematous
distal
penis
for
d. Penile
fracture,
with
disrupted
several
minutes
to
reduce
the
Dartos
fascia
glans
b. Reduction
in
penile
edema
can
be
65. A
12-year-old
boy
presents
in
the
the
key
to
success
emergency
room
with
very
severe
c. If
the
foreskin
cannot
be
manually
pain
of
sudden
onset
in
his
right
reduced,
surgical
intervention
is
testicle.
There
is
no
fever,
pyuria,
or
required
history
of
recent
mumps.
Testis
is
d. None
of
the
above
swollen,
tender,
exquisitely
painful,
e. All
of
the
above
and
high-riding.
What
is
your
diagnosis?
69. A
45-year-old
male
patient
presented
a. Testicular
cancer
with
complaints
of
high
grade
fever
b. Acute
epididymitis
and
fairly
rapid
onset
unilateral
c. Testicular
torsion
painful
swelling
of
the
testis.
Upon
d. Epididymo-orchitis
inspection,
the
scrotum
was
also
erythematous.
Blood
work
shows
66. Patricio,
37-year-old
taxi
driver
came
elevated
WBC.
What
is
your
in
for
persistent
penile
erection
that
management
for
this
condition?
lasted
for
4
hours.
On
examination,
a. Continue
observation
the
penis
is
very
tender
and
both
b. Oral
antibiotics
cavernosal
bodies
are
rigid
while
the
c. Hospitalization
and
parenteral
glans
are
flaccid.
What
is
the
most
antibiotics
likely
diagnosis?
d. Penile
block
a. Testicular
torsion
b. Paraphimosis
70. Patient
in
#69
was
observed
and
the
c. Fourniers
gangrene
next
day
you
noted
pus
coming
out
d. Priapism
from
the
scrotum
with
areas
of
necrosis.
Fever
persisted
despite
the
67. A
5
y/o
male
child
was
brought
to
antibiotics.
On
examination,
you
your
office
for
a
possible
tuli.
On
noted
crepitations
on
the
scrotum.
examination,
you
forcedly
retracted
Your
impression
at
this
time
is:
the
prepuce
to
visualize
the
glans.
a. Acute
epididymitis
However,
several
hours
later,
the
b. Acute
orchitis
patient
was
rushed
to
the
ER.
On
c. Fourniers
gangrene
examination,
the
prepuce
is
d. Scrotal
abscess
edematous
and
engorged
distal
to
the
phemotic
ring.
In
this
patient,
the
71. A
25
y/o
woman
is
40
weeks
most
likely
problem
is:
pregnant,
consulted
at
the
ER
for
a. Acute
urinary
retention
right-sided
abdominal
pain,
b. Testicular
torsion
associated
with
nausea
and
vomiting,
c. Fourniers
gangrene
fever
with
leucocytosis.
What
is
the
d. Priapism
best
management
of
this
patient?
e. Paraphimosis
a. Antibiotics
alone
b. Perform
an
abdominal
ultrasound
68. True
about
paraphimosis:
c. Schedule
for
laparoscopic
surgery
d. Schedule
for
E
explor
lap
b. Arterial
supply
of
the
appendix
is
72. A
32
y/o
male,
consulted
at
the
ER
for
from
the
appendicular
branch
of
a
hx
of
6
hours
of
migratory
right
the
ileocolic
a.
quadrant
pain,
associated
with
c. Immunologic
organ
that
secretes
nausea
and
vomiting,
anorexia
at
PE,
immunoglobulin
A
positive
for
direct
and
rebound
d. Lymphoid
aggregates
occur
in
the
tenderness
and
laboratory
showed
submucosal
layer
leucocytosis.
What
is
your
Alvarado
score
to
this
patient?
77. A
27-year-old
male
consulted
at
the
a. 6
ER
due
to
abdominal
pain
associated
b. 7
with
vomiting
and
fever.
PE
revealed
c. 8
equivocal
findings
at
the
abdomen,
d. 9
what
would
be
the
preferred
management
for
this
patient?
73. In
the
above
patient,
what
would
be
a. Discharged
and
prescribed
the
best
management?
analgesic
a. Request
for
UA
b. Abdominal
ultrasound
b. Do
abdominal
ultrasound
c. CT
scan
of
the
abdomen
c. Schedule
for
E
appendectomy
d. Schedule
for
E
appendectomy
d. Discharge
the
patient
78. The
following
statement
are
true
74. A
32
y/o
male
diagnosed
as
acute
about
the
anorectal
vascular
supply,
abdomen
prob
secondary
to
ruptured
except?
viscus
most
prob
sec
to
ruptured
a. Superior
rectal
a.
upper
rectum
acute
appendicitis,
what
is
the
b. Inferior
rectal
vein
drains
into
the
recommended
antibiotics
to
this
internal
pudendal
vein
patient?
c. Inferior
rectal
artery
arises
from
a. Cefoxitin
the
internal
pudendal
artery
b. Enapenem
d. Middle
rectal
artery
arises
from
c. Ampicillin-sulbactam
the
terminal
branch
of
the
d. Gentamicin
+
clindamycin
inferior
mesenteric
artery
75. Differential
diagnosis
of
acute
79. Type
of
adenomatous
polyp
that
have
appendicitis
depends
on
four
major
a
higher
risk
for
malignant
factors,
except?
degeneration?
a. Patients
age
a. Tubular
b. Gender
b. Villous
c. Timing
of
the
pain
c. Tubulovillous
d. Anatomic
location
of
the
inflamed
d. Hamartomatous
appendix
80. Patient
with
colorectal
cancer
with
76. The
following
statement
are
true
TNM
scoring
of
T3,
N0,
M0.
What
is
about
the
appendix,
except?
the
stage
of
the
patient?
a. The
tip
of
the
appendix
is
located
a. Stage
IIa
at
the
confluence
of
the
3
tenia
b. Stage
IIb
coli
c. Stage
IIIa
d. Stage
IIIc
81. A
45
y/o
male
consulted
for
d. Cigarette
smoking
is
protective
hematochezia
and
pain
with
defecation.
Pt.
is
diagnosed
as
acute
87. Which
of
the
following
pathology
anal
fissure.
What
is
the
treatment
of
warrants
APR?
choice
for
this
patient?
a. Circumferential
adenocarcinoma
a. Lateral
internal
sphincterotomy
just
above
the
dentate
line
b. Botulinum
injection
b. Intraluminal
mass
at
the
c. Laxatives
and
warm
sitz
baths
rectosigmoid
d. Observe
c. Intraluminal
adenocarcinoma
12
cm
from
the
anal
verge
82. An
internal
haemorrhoid
that
d. Upper
rectal
mass
prolapses
past
the
dentate
line
with
straining
is
a
88. A
disorder
in
which
patients
develop
a. First-degree
haemorrhoid
gastrointestinal
polyposis
in
b. Second-degree
haemorrhoid
association
with
cutaneous
c. Third-degree
haemorrhoid
pigmentation,
and
atrophy
of
the
d. Fourth-degree
haemorrhoid
fingernails
and
toenails?
a. Peutz-Jehgers
syndrome
83. The
treatment
of
choice
for
first- b. Cronkite-Canada
syndrome
degree
internal
haemorrhoids
is?
c. Cowdens
syndrome
a. PPH
d. Familial
juvenile
polyposis
b. Infrared
coagulation
c. Dietary
and
lifestyle
changes
89. True
about
Goodsalls
rule,
except?
d. Surgical
procedure
a. Used
as
a
guide
in
determining
the
location
of
the
external
84. All
are
characteristics
of
ulcerative
opening
colitis,
except?
b. Fistulas
with
an
external
opening
a. Bimodal
age
distribution
posteriorly
track
in
a
curvilinear
b. Involves
the
small
bowel
fashion
to
the
posterior
midline
c. Backwash
ileitis
c. Anteriorly
based
fistulas
typically
d. Cigarette
smoking
is
protective
have
a
radial
course
to
the
internal
opening
85. A
disorder
in
which
patient
manifest
d. External
opening
is
greater
than
3
hamartomas
of
the
colon
and
rectum
cm
from
the
anal
margin,
usually
associated
with
melanin
spots
on
the
track
to
the
posterior
midline
buccal
mucosa
and
lips
of
the
patient?
90. A
1
cm
appendiceal
carcinoid
located
a. Peutz-Jeghers
syndrome
at
the
base
of
the
appendix.
What
is
b. Cronkite-Canada
syndrome
the
appropriate
management?
c. Cowdens
syndrome
a. Observe
d. Familial
juvenile
polyposis
b. Appendectomy
alone
c. Right
hemicolectomy
86. All
of
the
following
statements
are
d. Total
colectomy
true
about
Crohns
colitis,
except?
a. Complex
anal
fistulae
and/or
Matching
type
abscesses
b. Creeping
fat
a. Somatostatin
c. Cobble
stone
b. Cholecystokinin
c. Motilin
b.
Internal
spermatic
fascia
d. Neurotensin
c.
Peritoneum
and
extraperitoneal
e. Secretin
connective
tissue
d.
Weak
fascia
of
the
transversus
91. Inhibits
gastrointestinal
secretion,
abdominis
muscle
lateral
to
the
falx
motility,
and
splanchnic
perfusion
(A)
92. Stimulates
exocrine
pancreatic
2. During
explorative
surgery,
the
secretion,
stimulates
intestinal
incidental
finding
is
herniation
secretion
(E)
between
the
lateral
edge
of
rectus
93. Stimulates
intestinal
motility
(C)
muscle,
the
inguinal
ligament
and
the
94. Stimulates
pancreatic
exocrine
inferior
epigastric
vessels.
Based
on
secretion,
stimulates
gallbladder
the
boundaries,
the
type
of
hermia
is
emptying,
inhibits
sphincter
of
Oddi
a. Congenital
inguinal
hernia
contraction
(B)
b. Direct
inguinal
hernia
95. Stimulates
intestinal
mucosal
growth
c. Femoral
inguinal
hernia
(D)
d. Indirect
inguinal
hernia
e. Incisional
inguinal
hernia
a. Right
colectomy
b. Extended
right
colectomy
3. The
processus
vaginalis
regresses
to
c. Total
and
subtotal
colectomy
form
what
structure?
d. Low
anterior
resection
A. Tunica
vaginalis
e. Abdominoperineal
resection
B. Canal
of
nuck
C. Spermatic
cord
96. Removal
of
the
entire
rectum,
anal
D. Falx
inguinalis
canal,
and
anus
with
construction
of
a
permanent
colostomy
from
the
4. Most
common
inguinal
hernia
in
descending
or
sigmoid
colon.
women
97. Required
for
patients
with
fulminant
A.
Direct
colitis
B.
Femoral
98. Most
appropriate
operation
for
C.
Indirect
curative
intent
resection
of
proximal
D.
Umbilical
colon
carcinoma
99. Used
for
curative
intent
resection
of
5. Where
does
protrusion
occur
in
lesions
located
at
the
hepatic
flexure
indirect
(congenital)
hernia?
or
proximal
transverse
colon
A. Deep
inguinal
ring
100. Used
to
remove
lesions
in
the
B. Superficial
inguinal
ring
upper
and
mid
rectum
C. ?
D. Canal
of
nuck
Breast,
Thyroid,
Parathyroid,
Venous
and
E. Falx
inguinalis
Lymphatics
6. Virchows
triad
except:
1. A
45-year-old
poerter
develops
a
A. Endothelial
Injury
direct
inguinal
hernia.
If
the
hernia
B. Stasis
of
blood
flow
extended
through
the
superficial
C. Hypercoagulability
inguinal
ring,
it
would
be
surrounder
D. Hypersensitivity
by
all
of
the
abdominal
layers
EXCEPT
the:
7. A
35-year
old
professional
dancer
a. External
spermatic
fascia
presents
with
a
well-defines,
tense,
smooth
mass
in
the
upper
outer
C.
Left
thyroid
lobectomy
w/
postop
I- quadrant
of
the
left
breast.
She
states
131
that
the
mass
becomes
larger
just
D.
Total
thyroidectomy
w/
postop
I- before
onset
of
her
periods.
131
Aspiration
yeilds
a
clear
yellow
fluid
E.
Total
thyroidectomy
alone
and
the
mass
disappears.
The
most
likely
diagnosis
is:
13. 17
y.o.
with
right
cervical
node.
A. Fibroadenoma
in
a
cyst
positive
calcitonin
serum
calcium
B. Fibrocystic
disease
of
the
breast
elevated.
What
is
the
diagnosis?
C. Carcinoma
in
a
cyst
A. Familial
mtc
D. Lipoma
B. FTC
E. Galactocele
C. Men1
D. Men2a
E. Men2b
8. Varicose
veins
are
common
and
are
present
in
atleast
10%
of
the
general
14. All
is
true
about
the
anatomy
of
the
population.
Findings
may
include:
thyroid.
Review
lg
guys.
Choices
are
in
a. Dilated
and
tortuous
veins
long
statements.
b.Telangiectasias
b. fine
reticular
varicoses
15. Which
of
the
following
is
"produced?"
c. all
of
the
above
by
the
thyroid
follicle?
d. none
of
the
above
A.
Triiodothyronine
9. Risk
factors
for
varicose
veins:
B.
Calcitonin
A. Malignancy
C.
Iodine
B. Obesity
D.
Nakalimot
ko
huhu
C. Female
D. Inactivity
16. Which
of
the
ff
is
correct
in
the
E. Family
history
thyroid
hormone
A. Formation
of
thyroif
hormone
10. Primary
varicose
veins
results
from
depends
on
endogenous
A.) Deep
venous
insufficiency
B. Iodine
converted
to
iodide
in
B.) Supeficial
venous
insufficiency
diodenum
C.) Intrinsic
abnormalities
of
venous
wall
C. Iodine
is
pass
through
.......
blablabla
D.) DVT
ATP
D. Iodine
is
linked
....
blablabla
g
11. Patient
with
varicose
may
complain
of
something
blablabla
A.) Aching
B.) Heaviness
17. Thyroid-stimulating
antibodies
C.) Pruritus
stimulate
the
thyrocytes
to
grow
and
D.) All
of
the
above
synthesize
excess
thyroid
hormone.
12. 27
y/o
woman
Left
sided
neck
mass
Nakalimut
ko
sa
choices
guys
ug
sa
2.5
cm
FNA
-
papillary
thyroid
answer
haha
sorry
neoplasm
No
palpable
Lymph
Node
A.
Left
thyroid
lobectomy
w/
radical
18. 20
yr-old
college
student.
Fatigability,
neck
dissection
Irritibality,
weight
loss.
PROMINENCE
B.
Total
thyroidectomy
w/
bilateral
OF
THE
EYES.
choices:
modified
radical
neck
dissection
A.
GRAVE's
disease
B.
Hashimotos
C.
Plummers
disease
D.
Subacute
thyroiditis
19. The
management/treatment
at
this
moment
is:
A.
Anti
thyroid
drugs
B.
Surgery
C.
Radioactive
ablation
D.
Iodone
20. 45
yr
old
woman
had
a
thyrodectomy.
But
the
nurse
reported
6
packs
of
dressing
was
already
in
use
due
ro
bleesding.
What
shpuld
the
doctor
do.
A
.
CT,
BT
and
PTT
B.
K
drip
Mao
ra
ako
madumduman
taas
au
ang
case
21. A
30
years
old
patient
post
total
thyroidectomy
complain
of
fatigue
and
numbness
in
her
finger.
What's
your
immediate
management?
A. Check
ionized
calcium
level
B. Give
O2
per
cannula
C. Start
IV
Ca
immediately
D. Check
serum
Na
and
K
level
22. The
ff
drugs
that
may
help
relieve
pain
in
Px
with
severe
mastalgia
except:
a. danozol
b. tamoxifen
Because everyday we make a choice-- to LIVE or
to EXIST. I choose to move and not just wait, to
live, to experience pain and happiness, to reach
my goals and be with the people who truly matter.
I hope you would too
Raising Mentally Strong Kids: How to Combine the Power of Neuroscience with Love and Logic to Grow Confident, Kind, Responsible, and Resilient Children and Young Adults
Dark Psychology & Manipulation: Discover How To Analyze People and Master Human Behaviour Using Emotional Influence Techniques, Body Language Secrets, Covert NLP, Speed Reading, and Hypnosis.