Test - 7 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

Time : 3 Hrs. T EST 7 MM : 720

[ PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
1. A transparent cylinder has its right half polished so 3. A point object is placed in front of a thick plane
as to act as a mirror. A paraxial ray incident from mirror as shown in figure below. Find the location of
left, exits parallel to the incident ray as shown. The final image w.r.t. object
refractive index n of the material of the cylinder is

10 cm 3
o 2

5 cm

15
(1) cm
2
(1) 1.2 (2) 1.5 (2) 15 cm

(3) 1.8 (4) 2.0

40
(3) cm
2. Let r and r' denote the angle inside an equilateral 3
prism as usual, in degrees. Consider that during
some time interval from t = 0 to t = t, r' varies with 80
(4) cm
time as r' = 10 + t2. During this time, r will vary as 3

4. A fish looks upwards at an unobstructed overcast

sky. What total angle does the sky appear to
subtend? (Take refractive index of water as 2)
r r
(1) 180

(2) 90
(1) 50 t2 (2) 50 + t2 (3) 75
(3) 60 t2 (4) 60 + t2 (4) 60

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 7 (Code A)

5. The given lens is broken into four parts rearranged as
shown. If the initial focal length is f, then after
rearrangement the equivalent focal length is
1 2
8. To produce a minimum under reflection of
wavelength near the middle of visible spectrum (550
nm) how thick should a coating of MgF2 (= 1.38)
be vacuum - coated on a glass surface?
(1) 107 m (2) 1010 m

3 4 (3) 109 m (4) 108 m

9. Two point sources separated by 2.0 m are radiating
in phase with = 0.50 m. A detector moves in a
(1) f (2) f 2
circular path around two sources in a plane
(3) f 4 (4) 4f containing them. How many maxima are detected?

6. A lens forms a real image of an object. The distance

from the object to the lens is x cm and that from the
lens to the image is y cm. The graph shows the
variation of y with x.
y s1 s2
2m
10
20
40
(1) 16 (2) 20
20
(3) 24 (4) 32
10 20 40 20 10 x
It can be deduced that the lens is 10. Light wave travels in vacuum along the y-axis. Which
of the following may represent the wavefront ?
(1) Converging and of focal length 10 cm
(1) x = constant
(2) Converging and of focal length 20 cm
(2) y = constant
(3) Converging and of focal length 40 cm
(4) Diverging and of focal length 20 cm (3) z = constant

7. In a double-slit experiment, the distance between the (4) x + y + z = constant

slits is d. The screen is at a distance D from the
11. Light from a hydrogen discharge tube is incident on
slits. If a bright fringe is formed opposite to a slit on
the cathode of a photoelectric cell. The work function
the screen, the order of the fringe is
of cathode surface is 4.2 eV. In order to reduce the
d2 d photocurrent to zero, the voltage of the anode relative
(1) (2) to cathode must be made
2 D 2D
(1) 4.2 eV (2) 9.4 eV
d2
(3) (4) Zero
4 D (3) 17.8 eV (4) 19.4 V
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Test - 7 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

12. Representing the stopping potential V along y-axis 16. In which of the following transitions will the
wavelength be minimum?
1
and along x-axis for a given photocathode, the
(1) n1 = 5, n2 = 4 (2) n1 = 4, n2 = 3
curve is a straight line, the slope of which is equal (3) n1 = 3, n2 = 2 (4) n1 = 2, n2 = 1
to
17. The angular momentum of an electron in first orbit of
Li++ ions is
hc
(1) e he (2)
e 3h 9h
(1) (2)
4 2
ec he
(3) (4) h h
h c (3) (4)
2 6
13. An atom emits a spectral line of wavelength when 18. The fraction of a radioactive material which remains
an electron makes a transition between levels of
9
energy E 1 and E 2 . Which expression correctly active after time t is . The fraction which remains
relates E1 and E2 ? 16
t
hc 2hc active after
2
will be
(1) E E (2) E E
1 2 1 2
4 7
(1) (2)
2hc hc 3 8
(3) E E (4) E E 3 3
1 2 1 2
(3) (4)
5 4
14. The ratio of maximum to minimum possible radiation
19. A freshly prepared radioactive source of half life 2 h
energy in Bohr's hypothetical hydrogen atom is equal
emits radiation of intensity which is 64 times the
to
permissible safe level. The minimum time after which
(1) 2 (2) 4 it would be possible to work safely with the source
is
4 3 (1) 6 h (2) 12 h
(3) (4)
3 2
(3) 24 h (4) 128 h
15. Transition between three energy levels in a particular
20. A stationary Thorium nucleus (A = 220, Z = 90)
atom gives rise to three spectral lines of
emits an -particle with kinetic E. What is the
wavelengths, in increasing order, 1, 2 and 3. Which
kinetic energy of recoiling nucleus?
of the following correctly relates 1, 2 and 3 ?
E E
(1) 1 = 2 3 (2) 1 = 3 2 (1) (2)
108 110
1 1 1 1 1 1 E E
(3) (4) (3) (4)
1 2 3 1 3 2 55 54

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 7 (Code A)

21. A proton and a neutron are both shot at 100 ms 1 24. In the diagram, the input is across the terminal A
towards 12
C nucleus. Which particle is more likely and C and the output is across B and D, then the
6
output signal is
to be absorbed by the nucleus?
B C
(1) The proton
(2) The neutron
(3) Both particles are about equally likely to be
absorbed A D
(4) Neither particles will be absorbed (1) Half wave rectified (2) Full wave rectified
22. In the following CE configuration an npn transistor (3) Same as input (4) Zero
with current gain = 100 is used. The output voltage 25. The output of the given circuit
of amplifier will be

10 k Vm sint
Out
1k
1 mV

(1) Would be zero at all times

(1) 10 mV (2) 0.1 V (2) Would be like half wave rectifier with positive
cycle in output
(3) 1.0 V (4) 10 V
(3) Would be like a half wave rectifier with negative
23. The output of shown logic circuit is represented by cycle in output
w (4) Would be like full wave rectifier
x 26. Two ideal diodes are connected to a battery as
shown in the circuit. The current supplied by the
z battery is
w 10
y D1

(1) w + (xy)
D2 20
(2) w + (x + y)

(3) w x y 5V
(1) 0.25 A (2) 0.5 A
(4) w xy (3) 0.75 A (4) Zero

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Test - 7 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

27. A Zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal
to 15 V, is used in a voltage regulation circuit. The
current through the diode is
250
31. Two immiscible transparent liquids of refractive
indices 1.5 and 4/3 are arranged as shown in figure
The apparent depth of mark at the bottom from top
surface is

20 V 15 V 1k 4 cm

(1) 5 mA (2) 10 mA
6 cm
(3) 15 mA (4) 20 mA
28. In a full wave rectifier circuit operating from 50 Hz
mains frequency, the fundamental frequency in the (1) 10 cm (2) 7 cm
ripple would be 43
(3) cm (4) 12 cm
(1) 50 Hz (2) 25 Hz 3
(3) 100 Hz (4) 707 Hz 32. The lens in the figure is equiconvex (= 1.5). The
radius of curvature of the lens is (Image for parallel
29. The circuit rays forms at 20 cm)

NOR NAND NOT 20 cm

Is equivalent to
(1) OR gate
(2) NOR gate (1) 15 cm (2) 20 cm
(3) AND gate (3) 40 cm (4) 50 cm

(4) NAND gate 33. A particle is moving with speed V along the principal
axis towards a concave mirror of radius of curvature
30. In common emitter amplifier, the phase difference R. The speed of the image as observed, when object
between the input signal voltage and output voltage is at a distance x from mirror is
is
R 2V R 2V
(1)
2x R (2)
x R
2 2
(1) (2)
4
2R 2V R 2V
(3)
2x R (4)
2x R
(3) Zero (4) 2 2
2
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 7 (Code A)

34. In placing a thin sheet of mica of thickness 38. The correct curve between fringe width B and
12 105 in the path of one of the interfering beams distance between the slits (d) is
in YDSE the central fringe shifts equal to fringe
width. Refractive index of mica ( = 600 nm)
B B
(1) 1.5 (1) (2)
(2) 1.48 d d
(3) 1.61
(4) 1.56 B B
(3) (4)
35. When an unpolarised light of intensity I0 is incident
on a polarising sheet, the intensity of the light which d d
does not get transmitted is 39. Two coherent sources of light of wavelength
6.2 10 6 m produce interference. The path.
I0 difference corresponding to 10th order maximum will
(1)
2 be
(1) 6.2 106 m (2) 3.1 106 m
I0
(2) (3) 1.5 106 m (4) 6.2 105 m
4
40. An object ABED is placed in front of a concave
(3) Zero mirror beyond the centre of curvature C as shown
(4) I0 in figure. State the shape of image.
E
36. When unpolarised light beam in air is incident onto B
glass (n = 1.5, at polarising angle)
(1) Reflected beam is 100% polarised P
A D C F
(2) Reflected and refracted beams are partially
polarised (1) |mAB| < 1 and |mED| < 1
(3) Refracted ray is 100% polarised (2) |mAB| > 1 and |mED| < 1

(4) All of these (3) |mAB| < 1 and |mED| > 1

(4) |mAB| > 1 and |mED| > 1
37. In YDSE find the missing wavelength in front of one
of the slits. 41. A point source S is placed at a distance of 15 cm
from a converging lens of focal length 10 cm on its
d2 2d 2 principal axis. Where should a diverging mirror of
(1) (2) focal length 12 cm be placed so that a real image
2D D
is formed on source itself.

d2 d2 (1) 30 cm (2) 6 cm
(3) (4)
3D 4D (3) 20 cm (4) 5 cm

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Test - 7 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

42. The musles of normal eye are least strained when the 44. In an electron microscope if the potential is
eye is focussed on an object increased from 20 kV to 80 kV, the resolving power
(1) Far away from eye of the microsope will change from R to

(2) Very close to eye

R
(1) (2) 4R
(3) At about 25 cm from the eye 4
(4) At about 1 m from the eye (3) 2R (4) R/2
43. A telescope has an objective lens of focal length
45. In compound microscope, the intermediate image is
200 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 2 cm. If this
telescope is used to see a 50 m tall building at a (1) Virtual, erect and magnified
distance of 2 km, what is the height of the image of
the building formed by objective lens? (2) Real, erect and magnified

(1) 5 cm (2) 10 cm (3) Real inverted and magnified

(3) 1 cm (4) 2 cm (4) Virtual, erect and reduced

[ CHEMISTRY ]
46. Grignard reagent produces alkane if reacts with 51. Tert. amine reacts with H2SO5 to produce
(1) Phenol (2) Carboxylic acid (1) Amine N-oxide
(3) Amine (4) All of these (2) Tert. alcohol + alkene
47. Reagent used in Etards reaction is (3) Alcohol + Alkane
(1) K2Cr2O7 (2) Cr2O3
(4) Nitro alkane
(3) CrO2Cl2 (4) KMnO4
52. Libermann nitroso test is given by
48. CH3CHO + HCN [A]. Product is
(1) 1 Amine (2) 2 Amine
(1) Optically active
(3) 3 Amine (4) 3 Alcohol
(2) Cyanohydrin
53. Electrophile could be used in Riemer-Tiemann
(3) Produce by nucleophilic addition
reaction is
(4) All of these

49. Which is best leaving group? (1) CCl2 (2) CCl3
(1) CH3O (2) OH

(3) CCl3 (4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) C2H5O (4) NH2
50. Which acid derivative have highest boiling point? 54. Glycerol reacts with KHSO4 to produce

(1) Acid chloride (2) Ester (1) Trinitro glycerine (2) Acrolein
(3) Acid anhydride (4) Amide (3) Glyceraldehyde (4) Formic acid

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 7 (Code A)
55. Catalyst used in Wackers process is 59. The given reaction
(1) PdCl2 (2) PbCl2 C2H5 C2H5
NaI
H C Cl acetone I C H
(3) Zn/HCl (4) SnCl2
H3C CH3
56. Which among the following species is an ambident is an example of which reaction?
nucleophile?
(1) SN1 (2) SN2
(1) CH 3 CH 2 (2) CH2 CH2 (3) E2 (4) E1
60. How many geometrical isomers are possible for given
(3) CN (4) NH3 compound?
57. In which alkyl halide SN2 reaction is most favourable? C6H5 CH CH CH CH COOH
(1) 3 (2) 4
CH3
(3) 2 (4) 1
(1) CH3 C CH2 Br 61. Which alkene will give meso form with Br2?

CH3 CH3 CH3

(1) C C
H H
CH3 Br
CH3 H
(2) CH3 C CH CH3 (2) C C
H CH3
CH3
C6H5 COOH
Br (3) C C
H H
(3) CH 3 CH H
C6H5 H
(4) C C
CH3 H COOH

(4) CH3 CH2 C Br 62. Which of the following amino acids is optically
inactive?
CH3 (1) Glycine (2) Aspargine

58. Which one of the following is most reactive towards (3) Glutamine (4) Phenylalanine
nucleophilic substitution reaction? 63. Given reaction, C2H5Br + NaOH C2H5OH + NaBr
is called
(1) CH 2 CH Cl
(1) Electrophilic substitution
(2) C6H5 Cl
(2) Nucleophilic substitution
(3) CH 3 CH CH Cl (3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) CH 2 CH CH2 Cl (4) Nucleophilic addition
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Test - 7 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
64. For which of the following molecules (Dipole O
moment) 0
C6H5COOOH
70. CH3 C CH3 (A) . Product is
Cl Cl NC CN
(1) Carboxylic acid
(A) (B)
(2) Alcohol

HO OH HS SH (3) Ester

(C) (D) (4) Ether

(1) Only (A) (2) (A) & (B) 71. Which of the following has the highest
nucleophilicity?
(3) Only (C) (4) (C) & (D)
(1) F (2) OH
65. Which of the following is aromatic?

O (3) CH3 (4) NH2

72. Which of the following compounds will exhibit

(1) (2) geometrical isomerism?

O (1) 1-phenyl-2-butene
(2) 3-phenyl-1-butene
C H
(3) 2-phenyl-1-butene
(3) (4) All of these
(4) 1,1-diphenyl-1-propene
66. Cannizzaros reaction may be of
73. -D-glucose and -D-glucose are
(1) Second order (2) Third order
(3) Fourth order (4) Both (2) & (3) (1) Anomers (2) C2 Epimers

67. How many isomers of C 5H11OH will be primary (3) C4-Epimers (4) Enantiomers
alcohol?
74. The sweetest carbohydrate is
(1) 2 (2) 3
(1) Sucrose (2) Glucose
(3) 4 (4) 5
68. HBr reacts fastest with (3) Fructose (4) Lactose

(1) 2-methyl propan-2-ol (2) Propan-2-ol 75. Which of the following is true about sucrose?
(3) Propanol (4) 2-methyl propan-1-ol (1) It gives fructose and glucose on hydrolysis
69. Phenol reacts with CCl4 in excess of NaOH will (2) It is a reducing sugar
produce
(1) Picric acid (2) Salicylaldehyde (3) It is a monosaccharide

(3) Salicylic acid (4) Benzoic acid (4) All of these

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 7 (Code A)
76. Increasing rate of reaction in a base catalyzed 79. Calcium acetate on heating gives
hydrolysis reaction
(1) Acetic anhydride (2) Acetone
Me O Me H O Me (3) Acetaldehyde (4) Methane
80. Formic acid and acetic acid can be distinguished by
Me Me Me H (1) Phenyl hydrazine (2) NaHCO3
(A) (B)
(3) Tollens reagent (4) All of these
H O H Et O Et 81. Primary nitro compounds react with nitrous acid to
form nitrolic acids which dissolve in NaOH giving

H H Et Et (1) Yellow solution (2) Blue solution

(C) (D) (3) Colourless solution (4) Red solution

(1) (C) < (B) < (A) < (D) 82. Gabriel phthalimide reaction is used for preparation of

(2) (B) < (A) < (D) < (C) (1) Primary aromatic amines
(3) (D) < (A) < (B) < (C) (2) Secondary amines
(4) (D) < (C) < (B) < (A) (3) Primary aliphatic amines
77. Which of the following compounds would react most (4) Tertiary amines
rapidly with iodide ion by SN2 reaction?
83. Nitrobenzene on electrolytic reduction in conc.
(1) CH3Cl (2) CH3 Cl sulphuric acid solution gives
(1) Aniline (2) Nitrosobenzene
CH3 Cl (3) Hydrazobenzene (4) p-aminophenol
(3) (CH3)2CHCH2Cl (4) 84. Which one of the following will yield a hydrocarbon
CH3 H when treated with CH3MgBr?
(1) C6H6
OH
OH OH
O2N O O
78. (2) C6H5 C CH2 C C6H5
NO2 (3) C6H5
NO2 CHO
(B) (C)
(A) (4) C6H5COCl

The order of the CO bond lengths among these 85. Which one of the following compounds is least
compounds is reactive for hydrolysis?
(1) (A) > (B) > (C) (2) (C) > (B) > (A) (1) CH3COCl (2) (CH3CO)2O
(3) (B) > (A) > (C) (4) (C) > (A) > (B) (3) C6H5COOCH3 (4) C6H5CONH2

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Test - 7 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

86. In the given reaction
(i) conc. NaOH
C6H5COCHO
(ii) H
(1) C6H5COOH
(3) C6H5CH(OH)COOH
87. Gutta percha is
(1) Cis-polyisoprene
(2) Trans-polyisoprene
(3) Polyethylene
88. Lactic acid on oxidation by alkaline potassium
permanganate gives
[X] [X] is (1) Tartaric acid (2) Pyruvic acid
(3) Cinnamic acid (4) Propionic acid
(2) C6H5COCH2OH
89. Which of the following polymers has ester linkage?
(4) C6H5CH2OH
(1) Terylene (2) Nylon-6,6
(3) PVC (4) Neoprene
90. Morphine is
(1) Antiseptic (2) Antibiotic

(4) Polyisobutene (3) Analgesic (4) Anaesthetic

[ BIOLOGY ]
91. Annual variations in the intensity and duration of 94. In the given figure, identify the treeless biomes from
which of the following factors account for the the markings AF and select the correct option.
formation of major biomes over the earths surface?
30
(1) Temperature A
25 B
Mean annual temperature (C)

(2) Precipitation 20
C
15 D
(3) Incident solar radiation 10
(4) More than one option is correct 5 E
0
92. The Ecological Niche of a population is the 5
(1) Place where they live 10 F
15
(2) Ecologically acclamatised zone 50 100 150 200 250 300 350 400 450
Mean annual precipitation (cm)
(3) Range of conditions it tolerates and resources it
uses (1) A & F (2) C & D

(4) Geographical areas it covers (3) B & F (4) E & F

93. Which of the following statements does not hold true 95. According to Bergmann's Rule, the birds and
for regulators? mammals from colder climates have
(1) Maintain constant internal environment (1) Shorter extremities
(2) Osmotic concentration of the body fluids change (2) Large body size
(3) Able to maintain homeostasis (3) Long ears and short limbs
(4) Body fluids have fixed osmotic concentrations (4) Large number of vertebrae
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 7 (Code A)
96. The influence of environmental resistance over the 100. The shape of age pyramids reflects the growth status
biotic potential is denoted by of population because

dN KN (1) More the pre-reproductive age individual, slower

(1) rN (2) is the population growth
dt K
(2) Shorter generation time results in slower growth
(3) r = b d (4) Nt = N0ert of population
97. The phenomenon of competitive release is shown by
(3) Reproductive capacity of different age groups are
(1) Extinction of Abingdon tortoise in a decade after different
introduction of goats in Galapagos islands
(4) Older females have more reproductive potential
(2) Visiting flamingoes and resident fishes for
common food, the zooplanktons in South 101. Select the correct option w.r.t the following
American lakes diagrammatic representation, where A, B, C and D
are four different species?
(3) Dramatic increase in population of Cathamalus
when the superior barnacle Balanus is removed C
from sea coasts of Scotland A
D
(4) Five closely related species of warblers avoiding B
competition due to change in foraging activities C
B
98. Match items of column-I with column-II. A
B
D
Column - I Column - II
D C
a. Commensalism (i) Sea anemone hermit
crab (1) Population level organisation where individuals
interact with each other
b. Predation (ii) Orchid as epiphyte on
(2) Community level organisation where more than
mango
one species and their members interact with
c. Mutualism (iii) Fig tree - wasp each other
d. Protocooperation (iv) Biological pest control (3) A biome and community level organisation
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) All four levels of biological organisation is shown
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) 102. Which of the following organisms show behavioural
99. Kangaroo rat is adapted in North American deserts responses to cope with variations in their
in the absence of an external source of water by environment?

(1) Morphological change (1) Desert lizards

(2) Biochemical means (2) Kangaroo rat
(3) Physiological means (3) Seals in the polar sea
(4) Behavioural change (4) Marine invertebrates in deep ocean
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Test - 7 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
103. Consider the following statements : 107. Select the correct match w.r.t. decomposition.
(A) Ecology at the organismic level is essentially (1) Fragmentation Done by detritivores
physiological. (2) Leaching Water soluble organic
(B) Under normal conditions, births and deaths are nutrients only go
the most important factors influencing population down into soil horizon
density. (3) Catabolism Breakdown of detritus
(C) Population evolves to minimise their reproductive into smaller organic
fitness, also called Darwinian fitness. substance by
(1) Only (A) is correct earthworm
(2) (A) & (C) are correct (4) Mineralisation Formation of humus
(3) Only (C) is incorrect 108. Pyramid of numbers is concerned with the number
(4) (A) & (B) are incorrect of

104. Select the odd one out w.r.t endoparasites (1) Species in an area
(1) Life cycles are more complex (2) Individuals in a population
(2) Morphological features are greatly simplified (3) Individuals in a trophic level
(3) Anatomical features are complex and elaborate (4) Individuals in an ecosystem
(4) Reproductive potential is high
109. Absence of decomposers will adversely affect the
105. Select the correct match for population interaction, functioning of the ecosystem because
where + sign is for beneficial, sign for
detrimental and 0 for neutral interaction. (1) Energy flow will be blocked

Species-A Species-B Types of interaction (2) Herbivores will get detritus

(1) Mutualism (3) Mineral recycling and movement will be blocked
(2) + Competition (4) Rate of decomposition will be optimised
(3) + 0 Commensalism 110. A peacock eats a snake, the snake eats a frog and
(4) + + Amensalism the frog eats insects, while the insect eats green
leaves of the plant. In this food chain the peacock
106. Primary productivity
occupies the position of
(1) Equals the standing crop of ecosystem
(1) Primary producer
(2) Is the amount of organic matter produced by
plants in an ecosystem (2) Secondary consumer

(3) Becomes highest in freshwater ecosystem (3) Tertiary consumer

(4) Depends only on availability of nutrients. (4) Top consumer at the apex of food pyramid

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 7 (Code A)
111. Which of the following shows the pyramid of 116. Select the incorrect statement.
numbers on a big tree?
(1) Oceanic reservoir regulates the amount of CO2
in atmosphere
(2) Atmospheric inputs of carbon through rainfall are
much smaller than phosphorous inputs
A B C D (3) The reservoir pool of sedimentary cycles is
(1) A & B (2) A & C lithosphere
(3) B & D (4) C & D (4) Phosphorous rich guano are deposited on land
by sea-birds
112. Select the mismatch.
117. Species area relationship pioneered by Alexander von
(1) Ecosystem services Pollination
Humboldt explains that within a region
(2) Succession Pioneer species
(1) Larger species occupy larger habitat
(3) Population growth Mortality
(2) Majority of species are endemic
(4) Detritivore Earthworm
(3) Species richness increased with increasing
113. Net primary productivity is the available biomass for explored area but only upto a limit
the consumption of
(4) Extinction rate of species increases with
(1) Herbivores and carnivores increased area
(2) Herbivores and decomposers 118. What was the main objective of the historic
(3) Carnivores and decomposers convention on biological diversity (The Earth Summit)?
(4) More than one option is correct (1) Conservation of biodiversity
114. Select the odd one out w.r.t detritus food chain (2) Sustainable utilisation of biodiversity
(DFC).
(3) Equitable share of profits from genetic resources
(1) Mainly made up of fungi and bacteria
(4) More than one option is correct
(2) Major conduit for energy flow in aquatic
ecosystem 119. Exploration of molecular, genetic and species-level
diversity for products of economic importance like
(3) Begins with dead organic matter medicines is called
(4) Ends at top carnivores (1) Bioexploration (2) Bioremediation
115. A climax community shows (3) Bioprospecting (4) Bioutilisation
(1) Simple food chains and food webs 120. India has different varieties of mango with various
(2) A xeric condition shape, colour, flavour and taste because of
(3) Equilibrium with environment (1) Ecological diversity (2) Species diversity
(4) Herbs and shrubs (3) Genetic diversity (4) Community diversity

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Test - 7 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

121. Which of the following features is not observed in 126. Match items of column-I with column-II and select the
biodiversity hot spot regions? correct option.
(1) Very high level of species richness Column-I Column-II
(2) High degree of endemism a. Electrostatic (i) Removes gases like
(3) Accelerated habitat loss precipitator SO2 from exhaust

(4) Very low interspecific competition and interaction b. Scrubber (ii) Inactivated by leaded
petrol
122. Most of the critically endangered species facing
threat of extinction are the victims of c. Catalytic convertor (iii) By UV-B radiation
(1) Habitat destruction d. Snow blindness (iv) Attracts charged dust
particles by producing
(2) Pollution
a corona
(3) Co-extinctions
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(4) Competition with alien species
(2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
123. Which of the following methods, is the most effective
way of conserving biodiversity of an area in your (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
opinion? (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(1) Creation of biosphere reserve 127. Select the incorrect match
(2) Establishment of botanical garden (1) Kyoto Protocol Reduce greenhouse
(3) By tissue culture gas emission

(4) Off-site conservation (2) CoP-8 Held at New Delhi in

124. Keystone species must be protected because they 2002

(1) Are dominant species of ecosystem (3) Dobson units Measures GHGs like
(2) Can tolerate stressful condition CFC

(3) Support other species in period of scarcity (4) Euro Norms Regulates sulphur and
aromatic content in
(4) Have maximum representation in the community fossil fuel
125. Select the correct statement w.r.t. Ethical argument
128. Estimation of biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is
for conserving biodiversity :
a method used to
(1) Humans derive countless direct economic
(1) Know the amount of biodegradable organic
benefits from nature
matter in sewage water
(2) Aesthetic pleasures of walking through thick
woods and watching spring flowers in full bloom (2) Measure suspended solids like sand, silt and
clay in a pond
(3) Biodiversity plays a major role in many
ecosystem services which nature provides (3) Indicate intense level of non-biodegradable
pollutant in water
(4) Every species has an intrinsic value and is a
part of biological legacy to future generations (4) Workout the oxygen carrying capacity of Flora
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 7 (Code A)
129. Photochemical smog differs from London or classical 133. Greenhouse gases absorb a major fraction of which
smog in form of radiation re-emited by Earths surface to
cause heating.
(1) Being sulphurous
(1) UV-radiations
(2) Producing an oxidising atmosphere
(2) Infra-red radiations
(3) Being the main cause of acid rain and stone (3) Short wave radiations
cancer
(4) Photosynthetically active radiation
(4) Its composition being made of primary pollutants 134. Find out the incorrect match :
130. UV-radiations are harmful to plants and other (1) Most effective green CFCs
organisms because it house gas
(1) Damages the ozone layer (2) Cultural By thermal pollution
(2) Causes dehydration eutrophication

(3) Increases respiration (3) Incineration Disposal of hospital

wastes
(4) Damages DNA and can cause genetic changes
(4) Integrated organic Zero waste procedure
131. Consider the following statements regarding Ecosan
toilets. farming

(A) Uses water to dispose off human excreta 135. Deforestation results in
(1) Maintenance of hydrologic cycle
(B) Recycles human excreta as a natural fertilizer
(2) Reduced soil erosion
(C) This is a hygienic and efficient solution in
human waste disposal (3) Loss of biodiversity by habitat formation
(D) It is not a cost effective and practical solution (4) Enhanced CO2 concentration in atmosphere
The correct statements are 136. The following drugs have hallucinogenic properties,
except
(1) (A) & (D) (2) (B) & (C)
(1) LSD (2) Jimsons weed
(3) (B) & (D) (4) (A) & (C)
(3) Methamphetamine (4) Hashish
132. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. biomagnification. 137. Cigarette smoking is associated with
(1) The phenomenon is well-known for mercury and (a) Increase in carboxyhaemoglobin content in
DDT blood.
(2) Happens as the toxic substance is not (b) Increase in carbaminohaemoglobin content in
metabolised or excreted and is passed to next blood
trophic level (c) Hypertension
(3) Causes natural ageing of lakes by enrichment of (d) Tachycardia
nutrients (e) Emphysema
(4) Refers to increase in concentration of a toxicant (1) (c), (d) & (e) (2) (a), (c), (d) & (e)
at successive trophic level (3) (b), (c), (d) & (e) (4) (a) & (e)
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Test - 7 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

138. Which of the following type of drug is obtained from 142. Which of the following is true of all cancer cells? The
the plant whose flowering branch is shown? rapid growth and division of cancer cells is caused
by
(1) Bacterial infection
(2) Breakdown of normal gene regulation
(3) Viruses
(4) Toxic chemicals
143. Migration of malignant cells from the site of origin to
other parts of the body forming secondary tumours
is called
(1) Metagenesis (2) Diapedesis
(1) Hallucinogen (2) Depressant
(3) Metastasis (4) Metamorphosis
(3) Stimulant (4) Painkiller
144. Which of the following is not associated with
139. Choose the statement which is incorrect for alcoholism?
adolescence. (1) CNS depressant effect
(1) The period from 12-18 year of age is thought of (2) Fatty liver syndrome
as adolescent period.
(3) Loss of motor control
(2) This period is marked by several biological and (4) Increased release of ADH
behavioural changes.
145. Largest part of an alcoholic beverage gets absorbed
(3) There is enhancement of cognitive skills and the in
adolescent can understand abstract concepts.
(1) Buccal cavity (2) Small intestine
(4) Adolescents have firm belief in their self-esteem (3) Stomach (4) Brain
and are not wavered by peer pressure.
146. Which of the following constitutes chemotherapy for
140. The receptors of opiates in the human body are treatment of cancer?
located in (1) Irradiation of tumor cells by gamma radiations.
(1) Gastrointestinal tract and CNS (2) Spraying liquid nitrogen on cancer cells
(2) CNS and kidneys (3) Administering doses of vincristine and taxol
(3) CNS only (4) Administering -interferons.
(4) Iridial muscles of eye only 147. Transmission of HIV infection generally occurs by
141. The diagnostic test for cancer where a piece of following methods, except
suspected tissue is cut into thin, sections stained (1) Protected sexual contact with infected person
and examined under microscope by pathologist is (2) By transfusion of contaminated blood
(1) Biopsy (2) Autopsy (3) By sharing infected needles
(3) Mammography (4) Pap Smear (4) From infected mother via placenta
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 7 (Code A)
148. A person received a blood transfusion and he 153. Aseel, Brahma, Busra are some indigeneous breeds
suspects that the donors blood was not properly of
tested. The recipients blood does not have any anti-
(1) Poultry (2) Pig
HIV antibodies as yet. Which of the following tests
would be of best diagnostic value? (3) Camel (4) Indian horses
(1) ELISA 154. During spread of bird flu, the sick birds are separated
(2) Western bolt and killed. This process is known as

(3) PCR (1) Deworming (2) Culling

(4) Northern bolt (3) Dubbing (4) Cannibalism

149. The cells that will be least affected by exposure to 155. Out of the following crosses, choose the odd one
ionizing radiations are out.
(1) Neurons (1) Holstein Friesian Sahiwal
(2) Neuroglial cells (2) Brown Swiss Sahiwal
(3) Pluripotent cells in bone marrow
(3) Merino Bikaneri ewes
(4) Stratum germinativum
(4) Equus cabalus Equus asinus
150. The fruiting bodies of certain fungi are sources of
hallucinogens. These are 156. Crustacean fishery is connected with exploitation of

(1) LSD (2) Psilocybin (1) Oysters & crabs (2) Mussels & squids
(3) Mescaline (4) Both (1) & (2) (3) Shells & cuttle fish (4) Lobsters & prawns
151. Leaves and young twigs of ________ yield a 157. Developing high yielding breeds of cattle involves all
stimulant which is usually snorted. of the following, except
(1) Cannabis sativa (1) MOET (2) Artificial insemination
(2) Erythroxylum coca (3) Micropropagation (4) IVF
(3) Coffea arabica
158. The restriction fragments of DNA are [A] charged and
(4) Amphetamines move through agarose gel according to their [B] and
152. The anabolic steroids abused by sports-person to reach the [C] end of the gel. The correct option that
enhance their performance have several side-effects satisfies A, B & C is
too. These side-effects in males are all of the [A] [B] [C]
following, except
(1) Positively Charge Anode
(1) Depression and mood swings
(2) Negatively Size Anode
(2) Enlargement of prostate gland
(3) Increased sperm production (3) Negatively Size Cathode

(4) Increased aggressiveness (4) Positively Size Cathode

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Test - 7 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

159. Visualization of DNA on an agarose gel is achieved 164. Which of the following is indirect method of gene
with the help of transfer?
(1) Tracking dye (2) Ethidium bromide (1) Chemical mediated gene transfer
(3) Vital dye (4) All of these (2) Biolistic
160. If the gene gun is used to transfer the gene of (3) Electroporation
interest, the most suitable competent host must be
(4) Ti plasmid
(1) E. coli
165. If the gene for brazzein is transferred in maize and
(2) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
is thus expressed in its kernels, then these kernels
(3) Arabidopsis thaliana can be used to extract
(4) C. elegans (1) More starch from maize
161. The gene of interest was cloned at Bam HI site of (2) More sugar from maize
pBR322. Which of the following is most likely to be
one of the observations w.r.t. successful (3) A sweat protein from maize
transformants? (4) More oil from maize
(1) Resistance for both ampicillin and tetracycline 166. Refer to this sketch of a gel with four samples of
remain intact
DNA. Which well contained DNA that did not
(2) The transformants remain resistant to ampicillin undergo restriction digestion and which lane contains
but are sensitive to tetracycline the smallest fragment of DNA?
(3) Transformants are sensitive to both ampicillin
1 2 3 4
and tetracycline.
(4) Transformants are resistant to tetracycline while
sensitive to ampicillin.
162. Which of the following is not required to amplify a
gene of interest by PCR?
(1) Denatured DNA of interest
(2) T4 DNA ligase
(3) DNA Polymerase
(4) Mg2+ ions
163. If in a linear DNA, the sequence GAATTC appears
at two sites. How many restriction fragments will
result if we use Eco RI ?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) (1) & (2) (2) (2) & (3)
(3) 4 (4) Cannot be predicted (3) (3) & (2) (4) (1) & (4)

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 7 (Code A)

167. Which is true about biotechnology techniques? 172. The maximum length of an insert of DNA of interest
can be carried by which of the following vectors?
(1) PCR is used to cut DNA molecules
(1) Plasmid (2) Cosmid
(2) A DNA probe consists of radioactive single strand
of DNA (3) BAC (4) YAC

(3) Restriction enzymes were first discovered in 173. Nutrient enrichment of rice through biotechnology led
bacteriophages to the creation of the variety of rice named as

(4) Pvu I is a name for a DNA probe. (1) Golden rice (2) Starlink

168. In a human proinsulin, the number of amino acids in (3) Texmati (4) Lerma roja
the A & B polypeptide chains respectively is 174. Mark the incorrect statement regarding an event in
(1) 30 & 21 (2) 21 & 30 the application of biotechnology.

(3) 20 & 31 (4) 22 & 31 (1) Introduction of human -lactalbumin gene is a

cow named Rosie in 1997.
169. Genetic engineering has been useful in synthesizing
a recombinant protein which can help haemophiliacs. (2) Production of humulin by Eli Lilly, an American
It is firm is 1983.

(1) TPA (2) Factor VIII (3) Clinical therapy given to treat adenosine
deaminase deficiency to a 4-year old girl in
(3) Factor III (4) Human albumins 1997.
170. Which of the following statements is not true (4) In 2001, a Canadian firm transferred spider silk
regarding -1-antitrypsin ? gene in lactating goats so as to obtain silk from
(1) It is a naturally occurring protein found in human milk.
blood. 175. A technique of molecular diagnosis that aims at
detection of pathogen through antigen-antibody
(2) It regulates the activity of elastase enzyme
interaction is
(3) It is inhibited by smoking.
(1) PCR (2) Southern blot
(4) Its excess production in the body can lead to
(3) ELISA (4) Northern blot
emphysema
176. If the transformed bacterial cells are selected by
171. The vectors used for transforming bacterial cells are
blue/white screening, it means that the reporter
(a) Lambda ( ) phage (b) SV 40 enzyme/protein in this case is

(c) Papillomavirus (d) Geminivirus (1) GFP

(e) pBR322 (2) -galactosidase

(1) (a) & (c) (2) (a), (b) & (e) (3) TetR

(3) (a) & (e) (4) (c), (d) & (e) (4) -galactosidase

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Test - 7 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

177. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a natural genetic 179. Herbicide resistant plants are genetically modified to
engineer for be resistant against
(1) Monocot plants (2) Dicot plants (1) 2, 4 -D (2) Glyphosate
(3) Yeast (4) Mushrooms (3) Sodium arsenite (4) Acrolein
178. Bt cotton, a transgenic crop is resistant to 180. Which of the following terms describes when gene
regulation occurs by short dsRNA molecules
(1) Cotton boll worm belonging to order coleoptera of
triggering an enzymatic reaction that degrades the
insecta
mRNA of a target gene?
(2) Helicoperpa armigera belonging to order
(1) Post-transcriptional gene silencing
Lepidoptera of insecta
(2) Anti-sense RNA technology
(3) Army worm of order diptera of insecta
(3) RNA interference
(4) Cotton boll worm is order Hymenoptera of
Insecta (4) All of these

  

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Test - 7 (Code A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

TEST - 7 (Code-A)
Test Date : 14-02-2016 ANSWERS
1. (4) 37. (3) 73. (1) 109. (3) 145. (2)
2. (1) 38. (2) 74. (3) 110. (4) 146. (3)
3. (4) 39. (4) 75. (1) 111. (2) 147. (1)
4. (2) 40. (1) 76. (3) 112. (3) 148. (3)
5. (2) 41. (2) 77. (1) 113. (2) 149. (1)
6. (1) 42. (1) 78. (2) 114. (2) 150. (4)
7. (1) 43. (1) 79. (2) 115. (3) 151. (2)
8. (1) 44. (3) 80. (3) 116. (2) 152. (3)
9. (1) 45. (3) 81. (4) 117. (3) 153. (1)
10. (2) 46. (4) 82. (3) 118. (4) 154. (2)
11. (2) 47. (3) 83. (4) 119. (3) 155. (4)
12. (2) 48. (4) 84. (2) 120. (3) 156. (4)
13. (4) 49. (1) 85. (4) 121. (4) 157. (3)
14. (3) 50. (3) 86. (3) 122. (1) 158. (2)
15. (3) 51. (1) 87. (2) 123. (1) 159. (2)
16. (4) 52. (2) 88. (2) 124. (3) 160. (3)
17. (3) 53. (4) 89. (1) 125. (4) 161. (2)
18. (4) 54. (2) 90. (3) 126. (2) 162. (2)
19. (2) 55. (1) 91. (4) 127. (3) 163. (2)
20. (4) 56. (3) 92. (3) 128. (1) 164. (4)
21. (2) 57. (3) 93. (2) 129. (2) 165. (3)
22. (3) 58. (4) 94. (3) 130. (4) 166. (1)
23. (1) 59. (2) 95. (2) 131. (2) 167. (2)
24. (2) 60. (2) 96. (2) 132. (3) 168. (2)
25. (3) 61. (2) 97. (3) 133. (2) 169. (2)
26. (2) 62. (1) 98. (1) 134. (2) 170. (4)
27. (1) 63. (2) 99. (3) 135. (4) 171. (3)
28. (3) 64. (4) 100. (3) 136. (3) 172. (4)
29. (2) 65. (4) 101. (2) 137. (2) 173. (1)
30. (2) 66. (4) 102. (1) 138. (4) 174. (3)
31. (2) 67. (3) 103. (3) 139. (4) 175. (3)
32. (3) 68. (1) 104. (3) 140. (1) 176. (4)
33. (1) 69. (3) 105. (3) 141. (1) 177. (2)
34. (1) 70. (3) 106. (2) 142. (2) 178. (2)
35. (1) 71. (3) 107. (1) 143. (3) 179. (2)
36. (1) 72. (1) 108. (3) 144. (4) 180. (4)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 7 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)

Hints to Selected Questions

[ PHYSICS]
1. Answer (4) 5. Answer (2)
u= f1 = f2 = f3 = f4 = 2f
v = 2R 1 1 1 1 1
= f f f f f
eq 1 2 3 4
n 1 n 1
1 1 1 1 1
2R R
feq 2f 2f 2f 2f
n n 1 2f f
feq
2R R
4 2
n = 2n 2 6. Answer (1)
n=2 Since image is real
2. Answer (1) u + v = 4f
r + r' = A 20 + 20 = 4f
r + r' = 60 40 = 4f

r + 10 + t2 = 60 f = 10 cm.
7. Answer (1)
r = 60 (10 + t2)
r = 50 t2
3. Answer (4)
y
1 10
x = t 1

2 5
= 5 1 d sin = n
3 3
y
There will be two shift d n
D
10
x = cm nD
3 y
d
10
Position from object 10 5 15 d nD
3
2 d
10 10 90 10 80 d2
15 15 30 cm n=
3 3 3 3 2D
4. Answer (2) 8. Answer (1)

1
sin ie = 2t
2

ie = 45 550 10 9
100 mm = 1 10 7m
Total angle = 2 ic = 90 2 2 4 4 1.38

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Test - 7 (Code A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
9. Answer (1) 15. Answer (3)
d 2 E1 = E2 + E3
nmax 4
0.5
1 1 1

1 2 3
16. Answer (4)

1
E

17. Answer (3)

n = 4 4 = 16
h
10. Answer (2)
2
y = constant
18. Answer (4)

t
9 1 T

16 2

t
11. Answer (2) N 1
2T

H discharge tube means max hv = 13.6 eV N0 2

w = 4.2V
2 t
N 1 T
So 13.6 4.2 V 9.4 V
N0 2
So required voltage is 9.4V
12. Answer (2) 9
=
hc 16
ev = w

N 3

hc 1 w N0 4
v=
e e
19. Answer (2)
hc
slope n
e N0 1
N0
13. Answer (4) 64 2

hc n
E = hf = 1 1

64 2
hc hc

E E1 E2 n=6
14. Answer (3)
T
Emax = 13.6 eV 6
t
1 3 2
Emin = 13.6 1 2 13.6
2 4
t
T 6 62 h
Emax 4 2

Emin 3
= 12h

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 7 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)
20. Answer (4) 28. Answer (3)
29. Answer (2)
p2
E
24 NOR gate
p2
E X Y
2 216
Z
E 216
54
E 4
z y x.x A.B = NOT + OR
E
E = NOR
54
21. Answer (2) 30. Answer (2)
22. Answer (3) 31. Answer (2)

Io Vo Ro d
100 =
Iin Vi Ri dapp =
Vo Ri d1 d 2
100 = V R ...
i o 1 2

Vo 1k 4 6
100 = 1mV 10k
4 3
3 2
100 1mV 10k
Vo = 1k = 3 + 4 = 7 cm

= 1000 mV 32. Answer (3)

=1V u cm
23. Answer (1)
v 20 cm
Z = (w + x) (w + y) = w2 + wy + wx + xy
= w2 + w (x + y) +xy 1 1 2

= w [1 + x + y] +xy v f
= w + xy
1 2
24. Answer (2) =
20 f
25. Answer (3)
In forward condition PD across diode 0 1 2
1
26. Answer (2) f R

5 1 2
0.5A 1.5 1
10 40 R
27. Answer (1)
0.5 2 1
15 =
I1k 15 mA R R
1 k
R = 40 cm
5 1 33. Answer (1)
I 0.02A
250 50 Let u = x
= 20 mA v=y
ID = I I1k 1 1 1

= 20 mA 15 mA = 5 mA x y f

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Test - 7 (Code A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

x 1 y 1 f 1 d 2n 1 D

differential w.r.t. t 2 2d

2 x 2
dx

2y 2
dy
0
d2

d2 d2 d2
, , ...
dt dt 2n 1 D 3D 5D 7D
2 2
2 im
V 2 v ob 38. Answer (2)
y x

1
y 2 Vob
d
Vim = x 2 V
im
39. Answer (4)
1 1 1 2
= x d sin n
x y f R
= 10 6.2 106m
2
R
v = 6.2 105m
2x R
2

40. Answer (1)

x 2x
= 1
y R 1 1 1

v u f
x 2x
1
y R 1 1 1 u f

v f u uf
2x R

R
uf f
v
34. Answer (1) u f 1 f u
D D
1 t 41. Answer (2)
d d

X
1
t
s 15 cm 24 cm
600 10 9 m
1 = 1
t 12 10 7 m

= 0.5 + 1 = 1.5 1 1 1

35. Answer (1) x 24 15 10
36. Answer (1) 1 1 1 5

37. Answer (3) x 24 10 15 150

For using wavelength x + 24 = 30

y
2n 1 D x = 6 cm
2d 42. Answer (1)

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 7 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)

43. Answer (1) 44. Answer (3)

h2 V0 f0 1
RP V
h1 u0 u0 f0

2 1
= R 20 1
2000 2 1000
R1 80 4
1 50
h2 h1 100 cm
1000 1000 R1 = 2R
= 5 cm 45. Answer (3)

[ CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (4) 64. Answer (4)
RMgx reacts with acidic hydrogen to form alkane. OH and SH have sp3 hybridization and have bent
arrangement.
47. Answer (3)
65. Answer (4)
Chromyl chloride used in etards reaction
66. Answer (4)
48. Answer (4)
67. Answer (3)
49. Answer (1)
68. Answer (1)
Nucleophile which form strong conjugate acid is
3 alcohols are more reactive with HBr.
better leaving group.
69. Answer (3)
50. Answer (3)
Riemer Tiemann reaction
51. Answer (1)
52. Answer (2) OH
COOH
Libermann nitroso test used to identify 2 amine. NaOH
C6H5OH + CCl4
53. Answer (4)
54. Answer (2) 70. Answer (3)
Oxidation of ketone by peroxide compound.
Glycerol reacts with KHSO4 to form acrolein.
71. Answer (3)
55. Answer (1)
72. Answer (1)
56. Answer (3)
CH3 H
57. Answer (3)
C C
Less stable alkyl halide gives SN2 reaction. Ph CH3
58. Answer (4) will show geometrical isomerism.
More stable carbocations are more reactive for SN 73. Answer (1)
reaction. -D-glucose and -D-glucose are anomer.
59. Answer (2) 74. Answer (3)
60. Answer (2) Fructose is sweetest sugar.
61. Answer (2) 75. Answer (1)
Br2 gives anti addition product 76. Answer (3)
62. Answer (1) Less substituted carbon atoms are more reactive.
63. Answer (2) 77. Answer (1)

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Test - 7 (Code A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
78. Answer (2) 84. Answer (2)
Less electron density, less withdrawing group have 85. Answer (4)
more bond length.
79. Answer (2) Poor leaving group present at acid derivatives are
less reactive.
dry dist.
(CH3COO)2Ca CH3COCH3 + CaCO3 86. Answer (3)
80. Answer (3)
87. Answer (2)
Formic acid gives Tollens test.
88. Answer (2)
81. Answer (4)
82. Answer (3) 89. Answer (1)
83. Answer (4) Terylene has ester linkage.
NO2 very dil. acid
NHOH 90. Answer (3)
Morphine is analgesic in nature.

[ BIOLOGY ]
91. Answer (4) 103. Answer (3)
Temperature, precipitation and solar radiation play a Darwinian fitness is high r-value.
role in formation of biome. 104. Answer (3)
92. Answer (3) Anatomical features are simple.
Ecological Niche represents functional role and 105. Answer (3)
status of a species in environment.
In commensalism one is benefitted and the other
93. Answer (2) remains unaffected.
Regulators have fixed osmotic concentrations of 106. Answer (2)
body fluids. Primary productivity is related to autotrophs.
94. Answer (3) 107. Answer (1)
Grassland and tundra are treeless. Fragmentation is breakdown of detritus into smaller
95. Answer (2) particles.
Warm-blooded animals have larger body size in cold 108. Answer (3)
climate than in hotter areas. Pyramids show trophic levels.
96. Answer (2) 109. Answer (3)
97. Answer (3) Decomposers do mineral recycling.
Absence of competitively superior species expands 110. Answer (4)
the distributional range of a species. Top consumer.
98. Answer (1) 111. Answer (2)
Sexual deceit is shown by Ophrys for pollination by Inverted or spindle shaped.
Colpa.
112. Answer (3)
99. Answer (3)
Natality does population growth.
100. Answer (3)
113. Answer (2)
Age pyramid decides population growth. 114. Answer (2)
101. Answer (2) GFC is the major conduit in aquatic ecosystem.
Show interactions in a community. 115. Answer (3)
102. Answer (1) Climax community is in near equilibrium with
Desert lizards show behavioural responses. environment.

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 7 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)
116. Answer (2) 136. Answer (3)
Reservoir of phosphorus is in Earths crust. Methamphetamine is a stimulant. Jimsons weed is
117. Answer (3) datura, a hallucinogen.
Species richness increases with increasing area. 137. Answer (2)
118. Answer (4) CO content is increased leading to formation of
Conserving and utilising the diversity. carboxyhaemoglobin.
119. Answer (3) 138. Answer (4)
Bioprospecting It is poppy plant from which morphine is obtained.
120. Answer (3) 139. Answer (4)
121. Answer (4)
140. Answer (1)
High inter-specific competition is seen at biodiversity
hot spots. 141. Answer (1)

122. Answer (1) Pap smear and mammography are also tests to detect
cancer but do not involve removing tissue by scalpel.
Habitat destruction
123. Answer (1) 142. Answer (2)

Biosphere reserves Cancer occurs when DNA of a cell has been

transformed and normal cell cycle cannot be regulated.
124. Answer (3)
Support other species of community. 143. Answer (3)

125. Answer (4) 144. Answer (4)

It relates to what we owe to millions of plants. Alcohol suppresses ADH release
126. Answer (2) 145. Answer (2)
Catalytic convertor needs unleaded petrol. Larger the surface area, more would be the absorption.
127. Answer (3) 146. Answer (3)
Dobson unit measures ozone thickness.
Vincristime and taxol are mitotic poisons.
128. Answer (1)
147. Answer (1)
BOD indicates water pollution.
148. Answer (3)
129. Answer (2)
Photochemical smog is made of PAN, O3 and NOX. The viral genome can be detected by PCR.

130. Answer (4) 149. Answer (1)

UV rays are mutagen. Ionizing radiations can cause mutations during division.
131. Answer (2) Neurons do not divide.

Ecosan toilets are Green solutions. 150. Answer (4)

132. Answer (3) LSD from Clavicaps Purpurea (Ergot Ascomycetes)
Natural ageing of lakes is Eutrophication. and Psilocybin from Psilocybe mexicana (Mexican
mushroom Agaricaceas)
133. Answer (2)
151. Answer (2)
Infra-red radiations (Long wave radiations)
134. Answer (2) 152. Answer (3)

Thermal pollution is due to heat. Sperm production decreases.

135. Answer (4) 153. Answer (1)
Trees hold a lot of carbon in their biomass. 154. Answer (2)

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Test - 7 (Code A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

155. Answer (4) 169. Answer (2)

Option (4) is inter specific hybridisation while remaining Most common type of haemophilia is due to absence
three are cross-breeding examples. of factor VIII.
156. Answer (4) 170. Answer (4)
157. Answer (3) Lack of -1-antitrypsin causes emphysema in
Micropropagation is part of plant tissue culture. smokers.
158. Answer (2) 171. Answer (3)
159. Answer (2) SV 40 and papillomavirus are used to transform animal
Ethidum bromide intercalates in between DNA strands. cells and geminivirus for plant cells.

160. Answer (3) 172. Answer (4)

This method is suitable for plants. YAC can carry a load of 1Mbp.
161. Answer (2) 173. Answer (1)
Insertional inactivation for tetracycline resistance gene. 174. Answer (3)
162. Answer (2) Gene therapy was given in the year 1990.
PCR required DNA, of interest, DNA polymerase, 175. Answer (3)
dNTPs, Mg2+ and primers.
176. Answer (4)
163. Answer (2)
For blue/white screening the lac Z gene is insertionally
inactivated.
177. Answer (2)
164. Answer (4)
178. Answer (2)
165. Answer (3)
Cotton boll worm is Helicoperpa armigera (Order
Brazzein is a protein which is 2000 times sweeter Lepidoptera)
than the sugar.
179. Answer (2)
166. Answer (1)
Other three options are also herbicides but with diferent
167. Answer (2) mode of action.
168. Answer (2) 180. Answer (4)

  

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