Aiatsoymeo2016t05 Solution

Test - 5 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
Time : 3 Hrs. T EST 5 MM : 720
[ PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
1. In the figure the electric lines on the right have twice 4. The intensity of electric field inside capacitor is E.
the separation of those on the left. If a charge The work done to move a charge q in a closed
particle takes time t to move a distance x in left rectangular loop (once) is
region, then how much time will it take to travel
same distance in right side region? + a
+
+ b
+
+
(1) E(2a + 2b) (2) E(2a)

t (3) Ea (4) Zero
(1) (2) t
2 5. Charges Q and Q are placed at some distance.
What is the locus of points in the plane of charges
(3) 2t (4) 2t where potential is zero?
(1) Straight line (2) Circle

2. A surface has area vector A = (2i + 3j) m2. Find the (3) Parabola (4) Ellipse
6. The displacement of charge Q in the electric field
flux of an electric field through it if the field is E =
4i V/m. E = e1i + e2j + e3k is r = ai + bj. The magnitude
of work done by the field, is
(1) 8 V-m (2) 12 V-m
(1) Q(ae1 + be2) (2) Q (ae1 )2 (be2 )2
(3) 20 V-m (4) Zero
3. A loop of diameter d is rotated in a uniform electric (3) Q(e1 e2 ) a2 b2 (4) Q e12 e22 (a b )
field until the position of maximum electric flux is
found. The flux in this position is measured to be . 7. For the given surface the Gausss Law is stated as
What is the electric field strength?
E d A = 0. From this we can conclude that
4 2
(1) 2 (2) (1) E is necessarily zero on the surface
d d 2
(2) E is perpendicular to the surface at every point
d 2 (3) The total flux through surface is zero
(3) 2 (4)
d 4 (4) The flux is only going out of surface
Space for Rough Work
1/20
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 5 (Code A)
8. An infinitely long, uniform line charge (linear charge 11. Electric potential at any point is
density ) passes through a sphere of radius R as
shown. The electric flux through the surface is V = 5 x 3 y 15z volt. Find the magnitude of
electric field at the point.
+ (1) 3 2 V/m (2) 4 2 V/m
+
+
+ (3) 5 2 V/m (4) 7 V/m
+
R +
+ 12. Q charge is uniformaly distributed on the
O x +
+ circumference of a ring of radius R. The magnitude
+ of maximum electric field intensity on its axis is
+
+ given by
+
1 Q 1 3Q
(1) 4 2 (2) 4
R2 x2 2 R 2 x 2 0 3 3R 0 3R 2
(1) (2)
0 0
1 2Q 1 Q
(3) 4 (4) 4
2
2 R x 2 2
R x 2 0 3 3R 2 0 3R 2
(3) (4)
0 0 13. The grid (each square of 1 m 1 m), represents a
9. Two spheres of radii a and b respectively are region in space containing a uniform electric field. If
charged and joined by a wire. Find the ratio of potentials at point O, A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H are
electric field on the surface of the spheres. respectively 0, 1, 2, 1, 2, 0, 1, 1 and 0 volts.
(Separation between spheres is much larger than Find the electric field intensity.
their radii).
y
(1) a/b (2) b/a
(3) a2/b2 (4) b2/a2 D G H
10. Three charges (Q each) are kept at corners of an C E F

equilateral triangle and another charge q is kept at O A B x
its centre as shown. The ratio of q and Q so that
system is in equilibrium. 1m
Q
(1) (i + j) V/m (2) (i j) V/m
(3) ( i + j) V/m (4) ( i j) V/m
l l
14. Two concentric spherical shells of radii a and 1.2a
q have charges +Q and 2Q respectively. At what
Q Q distance from centres the numerical value of potential
l will be same as that of centre?
(1) 1: 2 3 (2) 1: 2 3 (1) 2a (2) 1.5a
(3) 1: 3 (4) 1: 3 (3) 2.5a (4) 3a
2/20
15. If electric field between plates of parallel plate 18. Two conducting spherical shells of radius a and b
capacitor is 2 N/C and charge on two plates are are connected by conducting wire as shown in
10 C and 3 C then force on one of the plates is figure. Find the capacity of system.
(1) 20 N (2) 13 N
60 7 a b
(3) N (4) N
7 2
16. Find the resultant capacitance of the given circuit
between points P and Q.
P ab
2C (1) 40 (2) 40(a + b)
ba
(3) Zero (4) Infinite
2C
2C 19. Two spherical conductors each of capacity C are
C charged to potentials V and V. These are then
connected by means of a fine wire. Find the loss of
C C energy.
Q 1
(1) Zero (2) CV 2
(1) 3C (2) 2C 2
(3) CV 2 (4) 2CV 2
C
(3) C (4)
3 20. In the adjoining figure three capacitors C1, C2 and C3
joined to a battery, are shown. The correct condition
17. In the given network find the equivalent capacitance will be (symbols have their usual meaning)
between A and B (C1 = C4 = 1 F, C2 = C3 = 2 F)
V2 C2
C1 Q2
V1 Q1 Q3
C1
C2 V3 C3
A
B
C3
C4
+
V
(1) 3 F (1) Q1 = Q2 = Q3 and V1 = V2 = V3 = V
(2) 6 F (2) Q1 = Q2 + Q3 and V = V1 + V2 + V3
(3) 4.5 F (3) Q1 = Q2 + Q3 and V = V1 + V2

(4) 2.5 F (4) Q2 = Q3 and V2 = V3
3/20
21. Find the effective capacitance between P and Q of 24. A circuit consists of a source of emf and internal
the arrangement shown in figure. resistance r, capacitors, each of capacitance C and
2 F resistors, each of value R. Find the voltage across
any of the capacitor.
P
5 F 2 F 1 F C
R
Q C
2 F
r R
2 F 1 F
R R
1 (1) 2(R r ) (2)
F Rr
(1) (2) 1 F
2
(3) 2 F (4) 1.33 F (R r )
(3) (4) Zero
22. In the figure potential of +1200 V is given to point A 2R
and point B is earthed. What is the potential at point 25. Five metal plates are parallel to each other. The
P? separation between adjacent plates is d and area of
4 F each plate is A. The equivalent capacitance between
points a and b is
3 F
B
d a
A P
d
2 F d
(1) 100 V (2) 200 V
d
(3) 400 V (4) 600 V
b
23. Find the charge on a capacitor of capacitance 10 F
connected as shown in figure, in steady state.
0 A
2 (1)
d
3 10 F 2 0 A
(2)
d
5 0 A
(3)
2d
2V
(1) 20 C (2) 15 C 5 A 0
(4)
(3) 10 C (4) Zero 3 d
4/20
26. A parallel plate capacitor C with plates of unit area 29. The resistance of 4 is bent to form a circle. The
and separation d is filled with a liquid of dielectric resistance between A and B is
2d A
constant k = 2. The level of liquid is . Find the
3
capacitance of capacitor. 60
B
2d
3
30 6 0 5
(1) (2) (1) (2) 4
d d 9
30 0
(3)
2d
(4)
3d 9 2
(3) (4)
5 3
27. Outer shell of two concentric shells of radii a and b
is earthed. Find the charge on the outer shell if inner 30. Six equal resistances are connected between P, Q
shell is given charge Q. (Shells are made of and R as shown in figure. Find between which
conducting material) points, the net resistance will be maximum.
b
P
a
Q
(1) Zero (2)
2 Q R
Qb
(3) (4) Q
a (1) P and Q (2) Q and R
28. Find the equivalent resistance between A and B. (3) P and R (4) Any two points
R4 D 31. In the circuit element given here. If the potential at
A point B, VB = 0 then potentials of points A and D
can be given as :
R1 R2 R3 1.5 2.5 2V
1A
A B D
B (1) VA = 1.5 V, VD = +2 V
C
(1) R1 + R2 + R3 (2) R2 (2) VA = + 1.5 V, VD = +2 V
R2R4 R1R4 (3) VA = + 1.5 V, VD = +0.5 V

(3) R R R1 (4) R R (4) VA = + 1.5 V, VD = 0.5 V
2 4 1 4
5/20
32. If the switch S is closed in the circuit shown in 35. Two resistances R1 and R2 are made of different
figure, how much current will pass through it? materials. The temperature co-efficient of material of
R 1 is and of the material of R 2 is . The
20 V 2 4 5V
resistance of the series combination of R1 and R2
B will not change with temperature, then find ratio of R1
2 and R2.
S
(1) (2)

(1) 4.5 A (2) 6.0 A
(3) 3.0 A (4) Zero 2 2
(3) (4)

33. The equivalent resistence between A and B is :
36. Five identical capacitors each of capacity C are
connected as shown in the figure. The equivalent
1
1 capacitance between points A and B, is
1
1 1
1
1
1 A
1 1 1
1
1 1 1
B
A B
1 1 1 3C 7C
(1) (2)
33 22 4 4
(1) (2)
21 15 3C C
(3) (4)
8 15 7 4
(3) (4)
7 22 37. In the part of circuit shown in figure, the potential
34. Find the value of unknown resistor for null deflection difference between G and H (VG - VH) will be :
in galvanometer, as shown in meter bridge.
G 1A
55 R 2A
4
2 +
+
G 3V 5V
1
20 cm H
3A
(1) 0 V (2) 15 V
(1) 220 (2) 110
(3) 55 (4) 13.75 (3) 7 V (4) 3 V
6/20
38. All the wires have same resistance and equivalent 41. Three resistors of equal resistance (R = 2 ) are
resistance between A and B is R0. Now keys are connected in different ways as shown. They are
closed, then equivalent resistance can be expressed arranged in increasing order of power dissipation, in
as
k1 i i i
A
B C
B (1) B < C < A
(2) A < B < C
A (3) B = C < A
(4) B < A < C
k2 42. Which of the following effects, is associated with
7R0 7R0 single conductor?
(1) (2)
3 9 (1) Seebeck effect
R0 (2) Peltier effect
(3) 7R0 (4)
3
(3) Thomsons effect
39. In the following circuit, key is closed at time t = 0,
then what will be current through battery at that (4) All of these
time?
43. If power dissipated in the 9 resistor in the circuit
C shown is 36 watt, then potential difference across
2 resistor is
2 9
C
2
() 6
k 6V 2
(1) 3 A (2) 1.5 A
(3) 2 A (4) 6 A V 2
40. A 1000 W heating unit is designed to operate on a (1) 5 volt
120 V line. The line voltage drops to 110 V. Find the
percentage drop in heat output. (2) 10 volt
(1) 9% (2) 27% (3) 18 volt

(3) 16% (4) 30% (4) 20 volt
7/20
44. In the network shown in figure, charges on 45. In the given circuit each resistor has resistance R.
capacitors are equal, then find the ratio of C1 and C2. Then find the effective resistance between terminals
C1 A and B.
R
A
2 3
R
1
R R
C2
2V R B
5 R
(1) (2) 1
3 3R R
(1) (2)
1 1 8 2
(3) (4)
3 5 (3) R (4) 2R
[ CHEMISTRY ]
46. Calamine is an ore of 49. Which of the following metal is obtained by self
(1) Zn (2) Mg reduction process?
(3) Ca (4) Pb (1) Copper (2) Iron
47. NaCN is added in the froth flotation process as a (3) Aluminium (4) Magnesium
depressant during metallurgy of galena, where 50. In the leaching of Ag2S with NaCN, a stream of air
unwanted ZnS is present as impurity, because is also passed. It is because of
(1) Pb(CN)2 is precipitated while no effect on ZnS (1) Reversible nature of reaction between Ag2S and
(2) ZnS forms soluble complex Na2[Zn(CN)4] while NaCN
PbS forms froth (2) To oxidise Na2S formed into Na2SO4 and sulphur
(3) PbS forms soluble complex Na2[Pb(CN)4] while
(3) To make Ag2S insoluble
ZnS forms froth
(4) NaCN is never added in froth flotation process (4) Both (1) & (2)
48. Selection of temperature to carry out a reduction 51. In electrolysis of Al2O3 by Hall Heroult process
process depends so as to make : (1) Cryolite Na3[AlF6] lowers the melting point of
(1) G negative Al2O3 and increases its electrical conductivity
(2) G positive (2) Al is obtained at cathode and O2 at anode
(3) H negative (3) Graphite anode is converted into CO2
(4) H positive (4) All of these
8/20
52. Poling process 58. Which method of purification is represented by the
equation?
(1) Reduce SnO2 to Sn
500 K 1675 K
(2) Involves purification of metals containing their Ti + 2I2 TiI4 Ti + 2I2
own oxides (Impure) (Pure)
(3) Uses green poles (1) Cupellation (2) Poling

(4) All of these (3) Van Arkel method (4) Zone refining
53. High purity copper metal is obtained by 59. In the alumino-thermite process, Al acts as
(1) An oxidising agent (2) A flux
(1) Carbon reduction (2) Hydrogen reduction
(3) Solder (4) A reducing agent
(3) Electrolytic reduction (4) Thermite reduction
60. Which of the following elements constitutes a major
54. The zone refining of metal is based on the principle impurity in pig iron?
of
(1) Carbon (2) Oxygen
(1) Greater mobility of pure metal than that of
(3) Sulphur (4) Silicon
impurity
61. The donor sites of (EDTA)4 are
(2) Higher melting point of the impurity than that of
the pure metal (1) O atoms only
(3) Greater noble character of the solid metal than (2) N atoms only
that of the impurity (3) Two N atoms and four O atoms
(4) Greater solubility of the impurity in the molten (4) Three N atoms and three O atoms
state than in the solid
62. Coordination number of platinum in [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]2+
55. During the process of electro-refining of copper some ion is
metals present as impurity settle as anode mud, (1) 4 (2) 2
may contain :
(3) 8 (4) 6
(1) Sn and Ag (2) Pb and Zn
63. The correct IUPAC name for the compound
(3) Ag and Au (4) Fe and Ni [Co(NH3)4Cl(ONO)]Cl is
56. The slag consists of molten impurities, generally in (1) Tetraamminechloridonitrito-N-cobalt (III) chloride
the form of (2) Chloridonitrito-O-tetraammine cobalt (II) chloride
(1) Metal carbonate (2) Metal silicate (3) Dichloridonitrito-O-tetraammine cobalt (III)
(3) Metal oxide (4) Metal nitrate (4) Tetraamminechloridonitrito-O-cobalt (III) chloride
57. During extraction of iron from haematite, which of the 64. The EAN of platinum in potassium
following acts as flux? hexachloridoplatinate (IV) is
(1) Silica (2) Calcium silicate (1) 90 (2) 86
(3) Limestone (4) Coke (3) 76 (4) 88
9/20
65. On adding AgNO 3 solution to a solution of 73. The spin only magnetic moment value (in Bohr
[Pt(NH3)3Cl3]Cl, the percentage of total chloride ion magneton) of Cr(CO)6 is
precipitated is
(1) 0 (2) 2.84
(1) 100 (2) 75
(3) 4.90 (4) 5.92
(3) 50 (4) 25 74. In Fe(CO)5, the FeC bond possesses
66. The square planar complex is formed by hybridization (1) -character only
of which atomic orbitals?
(2) Both and characters
(1) s, px, py, dxy (2) s, px, py, dx2 y2
(3) Ionic character only
(3) s, px, py, dz2 (4) s, px, py, dxz
(4) -character only
67. Which one of the following has square planar
75. The bond length in CO is 1.128 , what will be the
geometry?
bond length of CO in Fe(CO)5?
(1) [NiCl4]2 (2) [PtCl4]2
(1) 1.158 (2) 1.128
(3) [CoCl4]2 (4) [FeCl4]2 (3) 1.108 (4) 1.118
68. Amongst the following complexes most stable is 76. The melting point of Zn is lower as compared to
(1) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Fe(CN)6]3 those of the other element of 3d series because
(3) [Fe(C2O4)3]3 (4) [FeCl6]3 (1) The d-orbitals are completely filled
(2) The d-orbitals are partially filled
69. Which of the following ligand can show linkage
isomerism? (3) Zn is a transition element
(1) CNS (2) NO2 (4) All of these
(3) CN (4) All of these 77. First IE of 5d series elements are higher than those
of 3d and 4d series elements. This is due to
70. The number of geometrical isomers of
[Co(NH3)3(NO3)3] are (1) Bigger size of atoms of 5d-series elements than
the size of 3d-series elements
(1) 0 (2) 2
(2) Greater effective nuclear charge is experienced
(3) 3 (4) 4 by valence electrons because of the weak
shielding of the nucleus by 4f-electrons in 5d
71. Which of the following will show optical isomerism?
series
(1) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (2) [ZnCl4]2 (3) d-d transition
(3) [Cr(C2O4)3]3 (4) [Co(CN)6]3 (4) All of these
72. Formula of ferrocene is 78. Maximum oxidation state is shown by
(1) [Fe(CN)6]4 (2) [Fe(CN)6]3+ (1) Os (2) Mn
(3) [Fe(CO)5] (4) [Fe(5 C5H5)2] (3) Cr (4) Co
10/20
79. Magnetic moment of Cr2+, Mn2+ and Fe2+ are x, y, 86. The lanthanoids contraction is responsible for the
z. They are in order fact that
(1) x < y < z (2) x > y > z (1) Zr and Y have about the same radius
(3) z < x = y (4) x = z < y (2) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
80. MnO4() is of pale pink colour due to (3) Zr and Hf have about the same radius
(1) Charge transfer from metal to oxygen (4) Zr and Zn have same oxidation number
(2) Charge transfer from oxygen to metal 87. Larger number of oxidation states are exhibited by
(3) d-d transition the actinoids than those by the lanthanoids, the main
reason being
(4) All of these
(1) Lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d than
81. The yellow colour of chromates changes to orange between 4f and 5d orbitals
on acidification due to formation of
(2) More energy difference between 5f and 6d than
(1) Cr3+ (2) Cr2O3 between 4f and 5d orbitals
(3) Cr2O72 (4) CrO4 (3) More reactive nature of the actinoids than the
82. The catalytic activity of the transition metal and their lanthanoids
compound is due to their (4) 4f orbitals more diffused than the 5f orbitals
(1) Chemical reactivity 88. The product of oxidation of I with MnO4 in alkaline
(2) Magnetic behaviour medium is
(3) Filled d-orbitals (1) IO3 (2) I2
(4) Ability to adopt multiple oxidation state and their (3) IO (4) IO4
complexing ability
89. Which of the following group of transition metal is
83. Which of the following forms interstitial compounds? called coinage metals?
(1) Fe (2) Co (1) Cu, Ag, Au
(3) Ni (4) All of these (2) Ru, Rh, Pb
84. In dilute alkaline solution, MnO4 changes to (3) Fe, Co, Ni
(1) MnO42 (2) MnO2 (4) Os, Ir, Pt
(3) Mn2O3 (4) MnO 90. Among the following, the coloured compound is
85. The radius of La3+
(Z = 57) is 1.06 , which one of (1) CuCl
the following given values will be closest to the radius
of Lu3+ (Z = 71)? (2) K3[Cu(CN)4]
(1) 1.60 (2) 1.40 (3) CuF2xH2O
(3) 1.06 (4) 0.85 (4) [Cu(CH3CN)4]BF4
11/20
[ BIOLOGY ]
91. The correct statement about sexual reproduction in 96. Life span of an organism
organisms is/are
(1) Depends on size of an organism
(a) Elaborate and complex process as compared to
vegetative reproduction (2) Depends upon complexity of organisms
(b) Always needs two parents (3) Is not necessarily correlated to the size of
organisms
(c) Offsprings are not identical to the parents
(4) Refers period from birth to accidental death
(d) Diverse organisms do not share a similar pattern
of sexual reproduction 97. Vegetative propagation in terror of Bengal occurs
through
(e) Organisms can reproduce sexually even before
the end of juvenile phase (1) Bulbil (2) Offset
(1) (b), (c) & (e) (2) (a), (d) & (e) (3) Stolon (4) Tuber
(3) (b), (d) & (e) (4) Only (a) & (c) 98. Select correct statement w.r.t. Chara.
92. Choose the correct match. (1) Sex organs are multicellular and jacketed
(1) Complementary genes 9 : 7 (2) Jacket of nucule is formed by shield cells
(2) Supplementary genes 15 : 1 (3) Male and female sex organs are borne on same
(3) Dominant epistasis 9 : 3 : 4 branch towards adaxial and abaxial sides
respectively
(4) Inhibitory genes 9 : 6 : 1
(4) The antherozoids are spirally coiled, band
93. Common asexual spore in fungi and simple plants shaped, biflagellate and are produced in nucule
such as algae are respectively.
99. Vital link between two successive generations
(1) Conidia and zoospores
(1) Is always one celled
(2) Sporangiospores and zoospores
(3) Zoospores and aplanospores (2) Contains a pair of genome
(4) Conidia and chlamydospore (3) Ensures the continuity of race from generation
to generation
94. Which of the following feature is not related to
monocot embryo? (4) All options are correct
(1) Scutellum (2) Hilum 100. Which of the following is not the adaptive strategy for
seed?
(3) Coleoptile (4) Coleorhiza
(1) Seeds cant be stored for longer duration
95. A portion of underground stem bearing bud forms a
new plant in (2) They protect embryo
(1) Dalbergia (2) Aspidium (3) They are excellent means of dispersal
(3) Kalanchoe (4) Dioscorea (4) They provide reserve food to embryo
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101. Artificial method of vegetative reproduction in which 106. Anther wall layer possessing dense cytoplasm and
adventitious roots are induced to develop on a soft many nuclei
stem while it is still attached to the parent plant is
known as (1) Is inner to middle layers of anther wall
(1) Layering (2) Grafting (2) Contributes to formation of sporopollenin wall of

pollen
(3) Cutting (4) Approach grafting
(3) Provides nourishment to developing pollen grain
102. Asexual spore in unicellular green alga
(4) All options are correct
Chlamydomonas is
107. Pollinium is found in
(1) Motile with unequal flagella
(1) Drosera (2) Calotropis
(2) Endogenous and flagella are borne laterally
(3) Aristolochia (4) Cuscuta
(3) Formed by meiosis inside zoosporangium
108. In which of the following flowers autogamy is
(4) By zoospores possessing two flagella of equal prevented but not geitonogamy?
size
(1) Cucurbits (2) Hibiscus
103. Life span of organisms represents juvenile,
reproductive and senescence phase. Which of these (3) Papaya (4) Mulberry
plants do not possess these three distinct phases? 109. Choose incorrect statement for pollen grains in
(1) Mango, Peepal, Coconut angiosperms.
(2) Radish, Wheat, Mustard (1) In over 60% of angiosperms, pollens are shed at
two-celled stage
(3) Radish, Mango, Bamboo
(2) Generally spherical about 2550 m in diameter
(4) Rice, Banana, Coconut
(3) Can withstand high temperature and strong acids
104. The events essentially found in all sexually
reproducing organisms is all, except (4) Cannot be stored at low temperature as a source
of germplasm
(1) Gametogenesis (2) Fertilisation
110. During regulation of gene expression in lac-operon of
(3) Meiosis (4) Embryogenesis prokaryotes
105. Read the following statements and identify the type a. Lactose act as inducer
of reproduction.
b. Regulator gene is a constitutive gene
a. Involves formation of seed without fertilisation
c. It is only under negative control
b. It mimics sexual reproduction
(1) Only a and c are correct
(1) Vegetative propagation
(2) Amphimixis (2) Only a and b are correct
(3) Both (1) & (2) (3) Only b and c are correct
(4) Apomixis (4) All are correct
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111. In nucellus, megaspore mother cell 117. Choose the correct match.
(1) Generally differentiates at micropylar end
(1) Multiple alleles Presence of more than one
(2) Possess dense cytoplasm and inconspicuous allele for a gene at different
nuclei
gene locus
(3) Divides by free nuclear divisions to form embryo
sac (2) Codominance Alleles for IA and i for blood
group A in humans
(4) Small in size but possesses prominent nucleus
112. The ovule in which micropyle, chalaza and funicle are (3) Incomplete F1 hybrid resembles both
in a straight line. dominance parents
(1) Orthotropous (2) Anatropous
(4) Pleiotropy A gene produces multiple
(3) Amphitropous (4) Circinotropous phenotypic effect
113. Inbreeding device that ensures assured seed set in
118. A colourblind male marries a normal female, who is
angiosperms is
a daughter of colourblind man. What percentage of
(1) Homogamy (2) Cleistogamy her children can have colourblindness?
(3) Bisexuality (4) Dicliny
(1) 75% (2) 100%
114. How many meiosis and mitosis division are required
respectively to form seven female gametophytes (3) 25% (4) 50%
most commonly found in angiosperms? 119. Synergids in female gametophyte
(1) 2, 21 (2) 7, 21 (1) Are present towards chalazal end
(3) 7, 7 (4) 2, 14
(2) Has micropylar nucleus
115. Wind pollinated flowers are characterised by
(3) Also known as vegetative cells
(1) Single ovule in each ovary
(4) Have filiform apparatus at chalazal end.
(2) Large and bright colour
(3) Producing small number of pollens 120. Endosperm development in angiosperms
(4) Stamens usually not well exposed (1) Precedes the development of embryo
116. Choose incorrect statement. (2) Can occur even before fertilisation
(1) Pistil has ability to recognise the pollen w.r.t. its (3) Is mostly of free nuclear type
compatibility
(4) More than one option is correct
(2) Pollen tube enters one of the synergids through
the filiform apparatus 121. Percentage of offsprings with genotype AabbCc
expected from the parents AaBbCc and aaBbcc will
(3) Bagging prevents contamination of stigma with be
unwanted pollen
(1) 12.5% (2) 6.25%
(4) Emasculation is needed when female parent
produces unisexual flowers (3) 25% (4) 3.12%
14/20
122. Select correct statements. 126. T.H. Morgan recorded 37.2% recombinants in F2
generation of Drosophila for cross between
(a) Dominance is an autonomous feature of a gene
or product that it has information for (1) Brown body and red eyed males and yellow body
white eyed females
(b) Dominance depends on the gene product
(2) White eyed miniature wing females and red-eyed
(c) Product of a single gene always produces one long wing males
effect (3) Brown bodied white eyed males and yellow
(1) Only (b) (2) (b) & (c) bodied red eyed females
(3) (a) & (c) (4) (a) & (b) (4) Red eyed yellow bodied females and white eyed
brown bodied females
123. Recessive trait of Pisum sativum is
127. How many types of gametes are produced from
(1) Violet flower colour genotype AaBbCc if genes B and C are completely
linked?
(2) Round seed shape
(1) Eight (2) Six
(3) Axial flower position
(3) Four (4) Two
(4) Constricted pod shape 128. Find out incorrect match.
124. Which of the following option do not follow the law (1) Birds Heterogametic females
of independent assortment?
(2) Mammals Heterogametic males
(1) Very close genes present on same chromosome
(3) Bonnelia Environmental sex determination
(2) F2 phenotypic ratio 9:3:3:1 of a typical dihybrid (4) Drosophila X/A ratio is 1 in super female
cross
129. Which one is correctly exemplified?
(3) Segregation of one pair of character is
independent of the other pair of character in a (1) Sickle cell anaemia Point mutation
typical dihybrid cross (2) CML Deletion
(3) Cri-du-chat Translocation
6
(4) Formaton of phenotypic recombinants in F2
16 (4) Barr eye in Drosophila Deficiency
generation of a typical dihybrid cross 130. Downs syndrome in human beings is
125. Law of dominance is not followed in all, except (1) Due to non-disjunction of autosome during
gametogenesis
(1) Inheritance of flower colour in dog flower
(2) Characterised by short statured individuals with
(2) AB blood group of humans small round head
(3) Starch grain size in pea seeds (3) Example of trisomic hyperploid
(4) Pod colour in pea (4) All options are correct
15/20
131. Study in given pedigree and find correct answer. 134. The map distance between gene A and B is 4 units,
B and C is 10 units and C and A is 6 units. The
I order of the gene in a linkage map constructed on
the above data will be
(1) B, A, C (2) A, B, C
II
(3) C, B, A (4) B, C, A
III 135. Sum total of genotypes and phenotypes in F 2
IV
generation when a trait is controlled by three
polygenes is
(1) The trait is X-linked recessive (1) 35 (2) 27
(2) The trait understudy is Y-linked (3) 34 (4) 13
(3) The trait may be autosomal dominant 136. Oblique binary fission is present in
(4) The trait does not show criss-cross inheritance (1) Gonyaulax (2) Ceratium
132. Choose incorrect for sickle cell anaemia. (3) Trypanosoma (4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) Mendelian disorder 137. Find out the incorrect statement regarding the life
span.
(2) HbAHbS individuals appear apparently unaffected
but are carrier (1) Life span cannot be correlated with size of an
organism
(3) 6th amino acid valine is replaced by glutamic
acid (2) Average life span is the average number of
years survived by the members of a population
(4) Transmitted from parents to the offsprings and
expressed when both the partners are carrier for (3) Maximum life span is the characteristic of
the gene population
133. Consider the following statements and answer the (4) Life expectancy is based on average life span
correct option. 138. In oestrous cycle of non-primates, in which stage
(a) Chromosomal sex-determination in organisms corpus luteum secretes progesterone?
was initially studied in insects. (1) Oestrous
(b) Henking traced X-body in 50% sperms during (2) Metestrous
spermatogenesis in few insects.
(3) Anoestrous
(c) In a large number of insects the sex-
(4) Proestrous
determination is of XX - XY type.
139. The vital link that ensures continuity of species
(1) (a) & (b) are incorrect
between organisms of one generation and the next
(2) (b) & (c) are correct is
(3) (c) is incorrect (1) Ovum (2) Zygote
(4) (a) & (c) are correct (3) Embryo (4) Foetus
16/20
140. Gamete transfer event occur during 144. Which one of the following includes diploid cells?
(1) Prefertilization event (2) Fertilization event (1) Spermatogonia, primary spermatocyte, oogonia,
ovum
(3) Gametogenesis (4) Embryogenesis
(2) Spermatogonia, primary spermatocyte,
141. Read the following statements secondary oocyte, sperm
(A) Gubernaculum is the fibrous connective cord (3) Spermatogonia, primary spermatocyte, primary
which connects testis to kidney oocyte, oogonia
(B) Sertoli cells are found in the germinal epithelium (4) Oogonia, spermatogonia, secondary
of the seminiferous tubules in between spermatocyte, ovum
spermatogenic cell
145. Find out the incorrect statement.
(C) LH acts on Leydig cell and stimulates (1) Two sperms are formed from a secondary
synthesis at androgen spermatocyte
(D) Rete testis open directly into vas deferens in (2) Bartholins glands of female are homologous to
human being Cowpers gland of male
Choose the option which includes correct (3) Clitoris in a mammalian female is analogous to
statements. penis of male
(1) (A), (B) & (C) (2) (B), (C) & (D) (4) Vaginal orifice and urethral orifice open into vulva
(3) (B) & (C) only (4) (C) & (D) only 146. A cross section at the mid-point of the middle piece
of a human sperm will show
142. In human female, uterus is suspended by a
mesentery called (1) Centriole and mitochondria
(1) Mesosalpinx (2) Mesometrium (2) Mitochondria and 9 + 2 arrangement of

microtubules
(3) Myometrium (4) Endometrium
(3) Centriole, mitochondria and 9 + 2 arrangement
143. Match the following. of microtubules
Column I Column II (4) 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules and proximal
centriole
a. Leydig cell (i) Sperms are temporarily
stored and matured 147. Two million secondary oocytes and two million
secondary spermatocytes will give
b. Prepuce (ii) Yellow body
(1) 2 million ova and 2 million sperms
c. Corpus luteum (iii) Secretes androgens
d. Epididymis (iv) Skin covering the glans
penis
(4) 4 millon ova and 4 million sperms
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
148. A condition where the motility of the sperms is
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) highly reduced is called
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (1) Asthenozoospermia (2) Teratozoospermia
(4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (3) Azoospermia (4) Oligozoospermia
17/20
149. How many mature eggs are typically produced by 154. The fast block to check polyspermy during
each ovary of a non-pregnant women each year? fertilization develops in response to the
(1) 12 (2) 6 (1) Zona reaction
(3) 24 (4) 48 (2) Filling of mucopolysaccharide into perivitelline
150. In the human female, menstruation can be stopped space
by the administration of (3) Rupturing of cortical granules
(1) LH only (4) Depolarisation of plasma membrane
(2) FSH only
155. Cleavage in mammals is
(3) Progesterone
(1) Unequal holoblastic (2) Equal holoblastic
(4) Combination of FSH and LH
(3) Meroblastic (4) Discoidal
151. Read the following statements
156. Which one of the following statements with regard to
(A) During normal menstruation about 40 ml to embryonic development in humans is correct?
60 ml blood is lost
(1) Cleavage division results in a hollow ball of cells
(B) At menopause in the female, there is abrupt
called morula
increase in gonadotropic hormones
(2) The human blastula is called stereoblastula
(C) Ovary secretes large quantity of estrogen during
follicular period (3) Cleavage division bring about considerable
(D) Shortest phase in the menstruation cycle of increase in the mass of protoplasm
women is ovulatory phase (4) The body of embryo is formed by inner cell mass
Choose the correct option. 157. The organs formed by endoderm during embryonic
(1) Only (A) & (B) are correct development are
(2) Only (B) & (D) are correct (1) Lungs, Trachea, Endoskeleton
(3) Only (B), (C) & (D) are correct (2) Kidneys, Tongue, Thymus
(4) All are correct (3) Parathyroids, Liver, Pancreas
152. During menstrual cycle, degeneration of corpus (4) Vascular system, Gonads, Pituitary
luteum is due to
158. The placenta of human being is
(1) Low level of progesterone
(1) Chorionic, haemochorial, deciduous and
(2) Low level of estrogen
metadiscoidal
(3) Low level of LH
(2) Allanto chorionic, haemochorial, deciduous and
(4) High level of FSH metadiscoidal
153. Once sperms are ejaculated, it lives only for about (3) Yolk sac, haemochorial, non-deciduous and
(1) Many week (2) 24 hrs metadiscoidal
(3) 48-72 hrs (4) 4-5 days (4) Chorionic, haemochorial, deciduous and discoidal
18/20
159. The portion of the endometrium that covers the 163. Which one of the following is not the function of
embryo and is located between the embryo and placenta?
uterine cavity is (1) Secretion of HCG, chorionic thyrotropin, human
(1) Decidua capsularis (2) Decidua basalis placental lactogen
(3) Decidua parietalis (4) Decidua umbilicus (2) Antibodies against diphtheria cannot pass from
mother to foetus
160. Read the statements:
(3) Connects the foetus with uterine wall
(A) Immediately after implantation, ectoderm,
(4) Secretion of estrogen and progesterone
endoderm and the mesoderm of embryo is
formed from trophoblast 164. Let-Down of milk from mammary gland is due to
(B) Cortisol, HCG, progesterone hormones are (1) Prolactin (2) Somatomammotropin
produced in women during pregnancy only (3) Oxytocin (4) Nitric oxide
(C) Trophoblast is not involved in the formation of 165. Centrolecithal eggs are present in
chorionic villi (1) Amphibia (2) Insects
(D) Fertilization in human beings occur at ampullary- (3) Reptile (4) Birds
isthmic junction
166. Which hormone will be seen in urine if a female has
The correct statement is/are to check her fertile period by using home use kit?
(1) (A) & (D) are correct (1) HCG (2) LH
(2) (C) & (D) are correct (3) Progesterone (4) FSH
(3) (A), (B) & (D) are correct 167. Which of the following malformation/s will be seen in
the developing embryo, if female is taking
(4) Only (D) is correct thalidomide drug in the first trimester?
161. A female who has menstrual cycle of 32 days, the (1) Kidney disorder (2) Phocomelia
ovulation will be on
(3) Heart disorder (4) Both (2) & (3)
(1) 14th day (2) 18th day 168. The cells of Rauber are
(3) 16th day (4) 20th day (1) Inner cell mass of blastocyst
162. Which one of the following statements about human (2) Secretory cells of endometrium
sperm is incorrect?
(3) Outer cells of trophoblast in contact with uterine
(1) The tail piece of human sperm shows the 9 + 2 wall
microtubular arrangement (4) Cells of trophoblast in contact with inner cell
(2) The acrosome of sperm contains hydrolytic mass of blastocyst
enzymes 169. In a developing foetus, the body is covered with hair,
(3) Mitochondrial cloud is called manchette in eye separate and eyelashes are formed by the end
human sperm of
(1) 5th month (2) 6th month
(4) The middle piece of the sperm provides energy
for the movement of sperm (3) 7th month (4) 4th month
19/20
170. All of the following STDs are curable if detected early 175. In vitro-fertilization is a technique that involves
and treated properly, except transfer of which one of the following into the fallopian
tube?
(1) Genital warts
(1) Embryo only upto eight-celled stage
(2) Chlamydia
(2) Either zygote or early embryo upto eight cell
(3) Chancroid stage
(4) Genital herpes (3) Zygote only
171. Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives (4) Embryo of 32 cell stage
because of
176. Action of which of the following hormones is blocked
(1) These help in reducing the risk of STDs by the use of mifepristone?
(2) They prevent fertilisation (1) HCG (2) Progesterone
(3) They do not interfere with coitus act (3) FSH (4) LH
(4) All of these 177. Which of the following statements is incorrect
about Saheli?
172. Which of the following can be included under
emergency contraception? (1) It is once a week pill
(1) An antiprogesterone pill (2) It is non-steroidal preparation
(2) Insertion of IUD within 72 hours of unprotected (3) It checks ovulation

sexual contact (4) Its chemical compound is centchroman
(3) Lactational amenorrhea 178. If a person is suffering from severe male infertility due
to very few sperms or even no live sperms in the
(4) Both (1) & (2)
ejaculate. It can be overcome by using donor sperm
173. The stage of demographic transition will be when with _____ technique.
(1) Birth rate is higher than death rate (1) ZIFT (2) GIFT
(2) Birth rate and death rate are equal (3) ICSI (4) IVF
(3) Death rate is higher than birth rate 179. Skin rash, fever and aches in the joints and muscles
are characterised by which of the following stages of
(4) Crude birth rate is higher than crude death rate syphilis?
174. Which of the following STDs cannot be treated with (1) Primary stage (2) Secondary stage
antibiotics?
(3) Tertiary stage (4) Quaternary stage
(1) Syphilis
180. Medical termination of pregnancy is considered safe
(2) Gonorrhoea up to how many weeks of pregnancy?
(3) Chlamydia (1) 6 weeks (2) 12 weeks
(4) Genital warts (3) 20 weeks (4) 8 weeks

20/20
Test - 5 (Code A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
TEST - 5 (Code-A)
Test Date : 24-01-2016 ANSWERS
1. (3) 37. (3) 73. (1) 109. (4) 145. (3)
2. (1) 38. (2) 74. (2) 110. (2) 146 (2)
3. (1) 39. (1) 75. (1) 111. (1) 147. (2)
4. (4) 40. (3) 76. (1) 112. (1) 148. (1)
5. (1) 41. (1) 77. (2) 113. (2) 149. (2)
6. (1) 42. (3) 78. (1) 114. (2) 150. (3)
7. (3) 43. (2) 79. (4) 115. (1) 151. (4)
8. (2) 44. (1) 80. (2) 116. (4) 152. (3)
9. (2) 45. (1) 81. (3) 117. (4) 153. (3)
10. (4) 46. (1) 82. (4) 118. (4) 154. (4)
11. (4) 47. (2) 83. (4) 119. (2) 155. (2)
12. (3) 48. (1) 84. (2) 120. (4) 156. (4)
13. (2) 49. (1) 85. (4) 121. (2) 157. (3)
14. (2) 50. (4) 86. (3) 122. (1) 158. (1)
15. (3) 51. (4) 87. (1) 123. (4) 159. (1)
16. (1) 52. (4) 88. (1) 124. (1) 160. (4)
17. (1) 53. (3) 89. (1) 125. (4) 161. (2)
18. (4) 54. (4) 90. (3) 126. (2) 162. (3)
19. (3) 55. (3) 91. (4) 127. (3) 163. (2)
20. (3) 56. (2) 92. (1) 128. (4) 164. (3)
21. (2) 57. (3) 93. (1) 129. (1) 165. (2)
22. (3) 58. (3) 94. (2) 130. (4) 166. (2)
23. (1) 59. (4) 95. (2) 131. (1) 167. (4)
24. (1) 60. (1) 96. (3) 132. (3) 168. (4)
25. (4) 61. (3) 97. (2) 133. (3) 169. (2)
26. (3) 62. (4) 98. (1) 134. (1) 170. (4)
27. (4) 63. (4) 99. (4) 135. (3) 171. (4)
28. (4) 64. (2) 100. (1) 136. (4) 172. (4)
29. (1) 65. (4) 101. (1) 137. (3) 173. (2)
30. (1) 66. (2) 102. (4) 138. (2) 174. (4)
31. (4) 67. (2) 103. (1) 139. (2) 175. (2)
32. (1) 68. (3) 104. (4) 140. (1) 176. (2)
33. (2) 69. (4) 105. (4) 141. (3) 177. (3)
34. (1) 70. (2) 106. (4) 142. (2) 178. (3)
35. (4) 71. (3) 107. (2) 143. (1) 179. (2)
36. (1) 72. (4) 108. (1) 144. (3) 180. (2)
1/10
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 5 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)
Hints to Selected Questions

[ PHYSICS]
1. Answer (3) 5. Answer (1)
d
E2 p
E1
r1 y r2
E 1 qE1 2
E2 = 1 x= t
2 m
...(i) in field E1
2
Q Q
x dx
1 qE2 2
x= ( t )
2 m
...(ii) in field E2 Potential at point P.
From (i) and (ii), kQ k (Q )

=0
r1 r2
1 qE1 2
t
x
= 2 m kQ k ( Q )
x 1 qE2 =
(t )2 2
x y 2
(d x )2 y 2
2 m
E1t2 = E2(t)2 (d x )2 y 2 = x2 y 2
E1
t = E t = 2t
(d x)2 + y2 = x2 + y2
2
(d x)2 = x2
2. Answer (1)
d
E = 4i V/m x= Hence all the point on perpendicular bisector

2
A = (2i + 3j) m2 will have zero potential.
6. Answer (1)
Flux = E A = 8 V-m

3. Answer (1)
dV = E dr
= EA cos
Magnitude of potential difference
For maximum flux, cos = 1
= EA
|dv| = E dr = (e1i + e2j + e3k).(ai + bj)
d 2
= E = ae1 + be2
4
Work done W = Q|dv|
4
E=
d 2 = Q(ae1 + be1)
+ a
+ total =
+ b E dA
+

+ If E dA = 0
W = qE(a)cos0 + qE(b) cos 90 + qE(a) cos 180
+ qE(b) cos 90 total = 0
W = qEa + 0 qEa + 0 = 0 8. Answer (2)
2/10
V1 = V2
10 C 3C
+ +
kQ1 kQ2 + +
=
a b + +
+ +
+ +
Q1 a
Q1 Q2
Q2 b
E = E1 E2
kQ1
E1 2 Q1 b2 b Q1 Q2
a 2 =
E2 = = A A
kQ2 Q2 a a 2=
2 20 20
b
Q1 Q2
10. Answer (4)
20 A = 2
11. Answer (4)
7 7
15z
20 A = 2 0A = 4
V = 5x + 3y +
v v v
E = i j k Q1
x y z
F = A Q2
= 5i 3j 15k 20
10 3 10 3 4
E = 25 9 15 = 7 F = 2 A =
0 27
12. Answer (3)
20 3 60
13. Answer (2) F= = N.
7 7
v (0, 0) v (1, 0) 0 ( 1)
Ex = =1 16. Answer (1)
1 0 1
P
v (0, 0) v (0, 1) 0 1
Ey = 2C
1 0 1 0 = 1
2C 2C
E = Exi + Eyj = i j C
14. Answer (2) 2C

Q
kQ 2kQ
V(at centre) =
a 1.2a
C = 2C || (C)
kQ 1 2kQ C = 2C in series with 2C
= 1
a 0.6 3a C = Ceq
kQ 2kQ kQ Ceq = 2C + C = 3C
V (out side) = =
r r r 17. Answer (1)
3a C = C2 in series with C3 = 1 F
Comparing we get, r = = 1.5 a
2 Ceq = C1 + C + C4 = 3 F
3/10
V = 0 (Due to earthing) Current will not flow in capacitor branch. Hence there
is no potential drop across 3 resistor.
Q
C= Potential across capacitor
V
C V=2V
19. Answer (3) Q = CV = 10 F 2 V = 20 C
C1V1 C2V2 24. Answer (1)

V = C1 C2
Total voltage drop across both capacitors
C(V ) C( V )
=
C C
=0
V= R
R r
1 1 1
U = C1V12 C2V22 (C1 C2 )V 2
2 2 2 Voltage across one capacitor
1 1 1
= CV 2 CV 2 (2C )(0)2 R
2 2 2 =
2(R r )
U = CV2
25. Answer (4)
20. Answer (3)
C2 and C3 are in parallel. Potential difference between plates
V2 = V3 1 and 2 = V V = 0
V = V1 + V3 = V1 + V2 Q = C(V) = C(0) = 0
By charge conservation, 26. Answer (3)
Q1 = Q2 + Q3 0 A
C =
t
21. Answer (2) d t
k
The capacitance of Wheatstone bridge = 2F
The capacitance in series with 0 A 3 0 A

= =
2d 2d 2d
wheatstone bridge = 2F d
3 32
Ceq = 2 + 2 = 4F
27. Answer (4)
22. Answer (3)
1
3 +Q
VAP = 1 1 VAB
a Q
3 6
6
VAP = 1200 = 800
9
VA VP = 800
The outer shell has induced charge of Q on its
VP = VA 800 = 400 V inner face.
4/10
R4 VB = 0
A
VA 1.5 = VB
VA = VB + 1.5 = 1.5 V
R1
VB 2.5 + 2 = VD
B VD = 0 2.5 + 2 = 0.5 V
R2 and R3 are shorted.
32. Answer (1)
R1R4
Hence Req = R R 20 V V 4 5V
1 4
2
29. Answer (1) 2
S
0V
A
R1
60 20 V 5 V V 0
B =
2 4 2
V =9V
R2
Current through switch
R1 + R2 = 4
V 0
i = = 4.5 A
2
60
R1 = (R1 R2 )
360 33. Answer (2)
4 2 1
R1 = 1
6 3
1 1 1
2 10 1 1
R2 = 4 1 1
3 3
1 1
1
20 1 1 1
R1R2 5
Req = = = A B
R1 R2 3 12 9
1 1 1
30. Answer (1) 5/2
5 A 1 2 1 B
RPQ = R
11
4
3
RPR = R
11
4R 3
RQR =
11
22
Req =
RPQ is maximum. 15
5/10
34. Answer (1) 121

P2 = 1000 840
55 20 1 144
= 100 20 =
R 4 Drop in power (P1 P2) = 160
R = 220 Option (1) is correct. 160

Percentage drop in power = 100% = 16%
35. Answer (4) 1000
1R1 2R2 41. Answer (1)
series = R1 R2 =0
42. Answer (3)
R1 R2 43. Answer (2)

R1 R2 = 0 44. Answer (1)
R1 = R2
C1 i
R1
R2 =
i
36. Answer (1)
37. Answer (3)
i C2
VG 8 + 3 4 + 2 = VH
VG VH = 8 + 4 4 = 7 V
38. Answer (2) i
Let R be the resistance of each resistor.
R0 = 3R
R be the resistance after closing switch. R
2V
7R Voltage across C1 = 3i
R =
3
Hence charge on C1 = C1(3i )
7 R0 7R0
R = = Voltage across C2 = 5i
3 3 9
39. Answer (1) Hence charge on C2 = C2(5i)
Capacitance offers zero resistance at t = 0. C1(3i) = C2(5i)
Hence circuit at t = 0 C1 5
C2 =
3
2
45. Answer (1)
A
R
R R
6V 2
Req = 2 B R
6 R
i= =3A
2 3R R
40. Answer (3) and are parallel.
2 2
V2 (120)2 1 2 2 8
P1 = 1000 W R = = So, =
P1 1000 R AB 3R R 3R
(110)2 (110)2 3R
P2 = = 1000 RAB =
R (120)2 8
6/10
[ CHEMISTRY]
Calamine is a ore of Zn. 64. Answer (2)
47. Answer (2) K2[PtCl6] E.A.No. = 76 2 + 2 6 = 86
ZnS froms soluble complex Na2[Zn(CN)4] while PbS 65. Answer (4)
forms froth.
Only one Cl precipitated in form of AgCl, % =
48. Answer (1)
1
G = ve 100 = 25%
4
Copper Cu2S + 2Cu2O 6Cu + SO2 s, px, py, dx2 y2
Fact
[PtCl4]2, dsp2, square planar.
51. Answer (4)
68. Answer (3)
Fact
[Fe(C2O4)3]3 contain chelate ring.
52. Answer (4)
69. Answer (4)
Fact
All are ambidentate ligands.
53. Answer (3)
70. Answer (2)
By electrolytic reduction of copper.
54. Answer (4) Facial and meridional.
Fact 71. Answer (3)
55. Answer (3) [m(AA)3] type complex compound show optical

isomerism.
Ag and Au.
72. Answer (4)
56. Answer (2)
Fact
Metal silicate eg: FeO + SiO2 FeSiO3
CaCO3(Limestone) CaO + SiO2 CaSiO3 Zero (No unpaired electron).

Flux (Impurity) 74. Answer (2)
58. Answer (3) Sigma and characters both due to synergic
bonding.
Van Arkel.
A reducing agent. Due to synergic bonding bond length of CO

increases.
60. Answer (1)
76. Answer (1)
Fact
Fact
61. Answer (3)
O O 77. Answer (2)
Fact
C O C O
78. Answer (1)
O CH2 CH2 O
Osmium = + 8

O C CH2 N CH2 CH2 N CH2 C O 79. Answer (4)
62. Answer (4) Number of unpaired electron in Cr+2 = 4, Mn+2 = 5,
Total number of coordinate bond are = 6 Fe+2 = 4
7/10
Due to charge transfer spectra. From La to Lu size decrease due to lanthanoide
contraction.
81. Answer (3)
86. Answer (3)
Cr2O72

+ H2O
2CrO42 + H+ Size of 4d and 5d series are similar due to
lanthanoide contraction.
Orange Yellow
87. Answer (1)
82. Answer (4)
Fact
Fact
88. Answer (1)
83. Answer (4)
MnO4 + I IO3 + MnO2
Transition element form interstitial compound due to
large size. 89. Answer (1)
84. Answer (2) Cu, Ag, Au
Slightly 90. Answer (3)

MnO4
Mn+4
Alkaline Cu in +2 oxidation state.
[ BIOLOGY ]
Sexual reproduction may be monoparental. In fungi and algae zygote do not form embryo.
Gene interactions.
Apomixis.
93. Answer (1)
106. Answer (4)
94. Answer (2)
107. Answer (2)
95. Answer (2)
Drosera Compound pollen grains.
Aspidium is fern and reproduces by rhizome.
Cuscuta Polyspory .
96. Answer (3)
108. Answer (1)
Life span may be short or very long.
Monoecious plants.
97. Answer (2)
Eichhornia is terror of Bengal. 109. Answer (4)
98. Answer (1) Pollens can be stored at 196C.
Jacket of nucule is formed by tube cells. 110. Answer (2)
99. Answer (4) Lac operon is under both positive and negative
control.
100. Answer (1)
111. Answer (1)
Seeds can be stored for longer duration.
Megaspore mother cell possess prominent nucleus.
101. Answer (1)
102. Answer (4) 112. Answer (1)
Zoospores in Chlamydomonas have two equal 113. Answer (2)

flagella. Cleistogamy assured seed setting.
103. Answer (1) 114. Answer (2)
Interflowering period only in perennials. 115. Answer (1)
8/10
116. Answer (4) 128. Answer (4)
Emasculation is done if female parent produces Super female Drosophila = AA + XXX
bisexual flower. X/A ratio is 1.5
117. Answer (4) 129. Answer (1)
Multiple alleles-presence of more than one allele for 130. Answer (4)
a gene at same gene locus on homologous
chromosome. 131. Answer (1)
118. Answer (4) The disease is colour-blindness.

132. Answer (3)
X Y c
c
X X 133. Answer (3)
Colourblind male Normal female (carrier) In a large number of insects the sex determination
gametes Xc Y is of XX - XO type.
Xc Xc Xc Y
Colourblind 134. Answer (1)
Progeny X
c Colourblind
female male 135. Answer (3)
c
XX XY No. of genotypes = 3n = 33 = 27
X Normal (carrier) Normal
female male No. of phenotypes = 2n + 1 = 2 x 3 + 1 = 7
Sum of total = 27 + 7 = 34
50% affected children. 136. Answer (4)
119. Answer (2) 137. Answer (3)
120. Answer (4) Maximum life span is the characteristic of species.
Endosperm formation cannot occur before fertilisation. 138. Answer (2)
121. Answer (2) In oestrous stage ovulation occurs due to high LH

surge and anoestrus stage is the resting period.
Parents AaBbCc aaBbcc 139. Answer (2)
1 1 1 1 140. Answer (1)
Progeny = AabbCc 100 6.25%
2 4 2 16 141. Answer (3)
122. Answer (1) Gubernaculum connects testis to scrotum, rete
testis open to vasa efferentia.
Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene.
142. Answer (2)
123. Answer (4)
143. Answer (1)
124. Answer (1)
144. Answer (3)
Linked genes are exception to Mendelian inheritance.
145. Answer (3)
125. Answer (4)
Clitoris is homologous to male penis.
Flower colour in dog flower = Incomplete dominance
146. Answer (2)
AB blood group - Codominance
147. Answer (2)
Starch grain size in pea = Incomplete dominance
One primary oocyte forms three polar body and one
126. Answer (2) ovum while one primary spermatocyte produce four
sperms.
127. Answer (3)
148. Answer (1)
AaBbCc 4 types of gamete
149. Answer (2)
Both ovaries produce 12 eggs in a year.
9/10
150. Answer (3) 164. Answer (3)
151. Answer (4) 165. Answer (2)
152. Answer (3) 166. Answer (2)
153. Answer (3) Ovulation/fertility period is due to LH surge.
154. Answer (4) 167. Answer (4)
Formation of fertilization membrane and bursting of 168. Answer (4)
cortical granules occur in slow block.
169. Answer (2)
155. Answer (2)
170. Answer (4)
Unequal holoblastic division occurs in amphibian,
while meroblastic cleavage occurs in aves and 171. Answer (4)
reptiles. 172. Answer (4)
156. Answer (4)
173. Answer (2)
157. Answer (3)
Demographic transition or zero growth rate is when
Vascular system, gonads, endoskeleton, kidneys are birth rate is equal to death rate.
formed by mesoderm while pituitary gland is formed
174. Answer (4)
by ectoderm.
Genital warts is caused by Human papilloma virus.
158. Answer (1)
159. Answer (1) 175. Answer (2)
160. Answer (4) 176. Answer (2)
161. Answer (2) Mifepristone is antagonistic to action of progesterone.
Luteal phase fixed (14 days). 177. Answer (3)
162. Answer (3) Saheli checks implantation.
Mitochondrial cloud is called Nebenkern. 178. Answer (3)

163. Answer (2) 179. Answer (2)
Antibodies for diphtheria can cross the placenta. 180. Answer (2)

10/10

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Test - 5 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

Time : 3 Hrs. T EST 5 MM : 720

(1) E(2a + 2b) (2) E(2a)

Space for Rough Work

10. Three charges (Q each) are kept at corners of an C E F

Space for Rough Work

(2) 6 F (2) Q1 = Q2 + Q3 and V = V1 + V2 + V3

(3) 4.5 F (3) Q1 = Q2 + Q3 and V = V1 + V2

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

R2R4 R1R4 (3) VA = + 1.5 V, VD = +0.5 V

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

(1) 9% (2) 27% (3) 18 volt

Space for Rough Work

(3) Ca (4) Pb (1) Copper (2) Iron

(3) Uses green poles (1) Cupellation (2) Poling

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

(1) Layering (2) Grafting (2) Contributes to formation of sporopollenin wall of

(4) Apomixis (4) All are correct

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

(1) Mesosalpinx (2) Mesometrium (2) Mitochondria and 9 + 2 arrangement of

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

(2) Insertion of IUD within 72 hours of unprotected (3) It checks ovulation

Space for Rough Work

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

Hints to Selected Questions

From (i) and (ii), kQ k (Q )

W = qEa + 0 qEa + 0 = 0 8. Answer (2)

14. Answer (2) 2C

C1V1 C2V2 24. Answer (1)

C2 and C3 are in parallel. Potential difference between plates

By charge conservation, 26. Answer (3)

The capacitance in series with 0 A 3 0 A

34. Answer (1) 121

R = 220 Option (1) is correct. 160

R1 R2 43. Answer (2)

Fact 71. Answer (3)

55. Answer (3) [m(AA)3] type complex compound show optical

CaCO3(Limestone) CaO + SiO2 CaSiO3 Zero (No unpaired electron).

A reducing agent. Due to synergic bonding bond length of CO

84. Answer (2) Cu, Ag, Au

Slightly 90. Answer (3)

98. Answer (1) Pollens can be stored at 196C.

Jacket of nucule is formed by tube cells. 110. Answer (2)

Zoospores in Chlamydomonas have two equal 113. Answer (2)

118. Answer (4) The disease is colour-blindness.

Endosperm formation cannot occur before fertilisation. 138. Answer (2)

121. Answer (2) In oestrous stage ovulation occurs due to high LH

160. Answer (4) 176. Answer (2)

161. Answer (2) Mifepristone is antagonistic to action of progesterone.

Luteal phase fixed (14 days). 177. Answer (3)

162. Answer (3) Saheli checks implantation.

Mitochondrial cloud is called Nebenkern. 178. Answer (3)

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