General Anaesthesia

Post RN Course
MCQ: 20
Passing Marks: 10 Time: 20 min

1- Anaesthetic having epileptogenic potential is:

a. Enflurane
b. Sevoflurane
c. Isoflurane
d. Halothane
e. Nitrous Oxide

2- The following causes increased intra ocular pressure:

a. Thiopentone
b. Althesin
c. Ketamine
d. Barbiturate
e. Propofol

3- Best uterine relaxation is seen with:

a. Chloroform
b. Nitrous oxide
c. Ether
d. Halothane
e. Isoflurane

4- Hallucinations are seen after anaesthesia:

a. Ketamine
b. Thiopentone
c. Fentanyl
d. Nitrous oxide
e. Propofol

5- Which of the following drugs are believed to be effective in the treatment of post-
operative shivering?
a. Ondansetron
b. Diclofenac sodium
c. Pethidine
d. Paracetamol
e. Morphine
6- MAC of Nitrous oxide is:
a. < 1.15
b. 20
c. 40
d. >100
e. 2.47

7- The minimal alveolar concentration of an inhalational anaesthetic is a measure

of its:
a. Potency
b. Therapeutic index
c. Diffusibility
d. Oil: water partition coefficient
e. Solubility

8- Which general anaesthetic selectively inhibits excitatory NMDA receptors:

a. Thiopentone
b. Halothane
c. Desflurane
d. Ketamine
e. Propofol

9- Second gas effect is exerted by which of the following gas when co-administered
with halothane:
a. Nitrous oxide
b. Isofluraine
c. Nitrogen
d. Helium
e. Enfluraine

10- Ketamine is the preferred anaesthetic for the following EXCEPT:

a. For electroconvulsive therapy
b. Trauma cases that have bled significantly
c. Burn dressing
d. Short operations on asthmatics
e. Head injury.

11- An i.v. bolus dose of thiopentone leads to loss of consciousness within 10-15 sec.
The patient regains consciousness in just a few minutes. This is because it is:
a. Renally excreted
b. Exhaled rapidly
c. Rapidly metabolised by hepatic enzymes
d. Redistributed from brain to other body tissues
e. because of short half life.
12- Induction agent of choice in day care surgery is:
a. Ketamine
b. Propofol
c. Methohexitone
d. Thiopentone sodium
e. Midazolam

13- True statements regarding halothane is:

a. Hepatitis occurs in susceptible individuals after repeated dose
b. It potentiates competitive neuromuscular blockers
c. Causes respiratory depression
d. have curare like effect
e. All of the above.

14- Dissociative anesthesia is seen on administration of:

a. Ether
b. Halothane
c. Enflurane
d. Ketamine
e. Propofol

15- Which of the following increase the speed of induction with an inhalational
agent?
a. Opiate pre-medication
b. Increased alveolar ventilation
c. Increased cardiac output
d. Reduced FIO2
e. Increased Solubility of inhalational Aesthetic agent.

16- Which of the following is a potent analgesic but a weak anesthetic?

a. Etomidate.
b. Halothane.
c. Midazolam.
d. Nitrous oxide.
e. Thiopental.

17- Which of the following determines the speed of recovery from intravenous
anesthetics used for induction?
a. Liver metabolism of the drug.
b. Protein binding of the drug.
c. Ionization of the drug.
d. Redistribution of the drug from sites in the CNS.
e. Plasma clearance of the drug.
18- Which one of the following is a potent intravenous anesthetic but a weak
analgesic?
a. Propofol.
b. Benzodiazepines.
c. Ketamine.
d. Fentanyl.
e. Isoflurane.

19- Which of the following is correct regarding malignant hyperthermia?

a. It is triggered by dantrolene.
b. It is triggered by local anesthetics.
c. It is generally mild and clinically insignificant.
d. It has no familial component.
e. It is caused by Halothane.

20- An 80-year-old patient with asthma and low blood pressure requires anesthesia
for an emergency surgical procedure. Which of the following agents would be
most appropriate for inducing anesthesia in this patient?
a. Desflurane.
b. Ketamine.
c. Propofol.
d. Thiopental
e. E- Halothane.
Key of MCQs

MCQs No Key MCQs No Key

1 A 11 D

2 C 12 A

3 D 13 E

4 A 14 D

5 C 15 B

6 D 16 D

7 A 17 D

8 D 18 A

9 A 19 E

10 E 20 B