Top One Review Masters

Pre Board Examination

Histopathology and Histotechniques and Medical Technology Laws

1. Recommended amount of fixative for routine purposes:

a. 10x the volume of the tissue c. 20x the volume of the tissue
b. 5x the volume of the tissue d. 100x the volume of the tissue
2. Recommended ratio of fluid to tissue volume for decalcification:
a. 5:1 b. 10:1 c. 1:10 d. 1:20 e. 20:1
3. The volume of dehydrating agent should NOT BE LESS THAN __ the volume of the tissue:
a. 5x b. 10x c. 25x d. 50x e. 100x
4. The volume of impregnating medium should be at least ___the volume of the tissue
a. 5x b. 10x c. 25x d. 50x e. 100x
5. This is the third amendment on the Medical Technology Act of 1969.
a. RA 6138 b. PD 1534 c. PD 498 d. RA 4688
6. Complete the statement taken from the Code of Ethics of medical technologists: To these principles, I
hereby subscribe and pledge to conduct myself at all times in a manner _____the dignity of my profession
a. Exemplifying b.befitting c. benefitting d. showing
7. Stated in the Code of Ethics that medtechs can accept employment from more than one employer at all
times. Also stated in the code is the fact that we should share knowledge and expertise with colleagues.
a. both statements are true c. first statement is true; second statement is false
b. both statements are false d. first statement is false; second statement is true
8. The title of section 20 of the RA 5527 is:
a. Title b. Minimum Required Course c. Oath Taking d. Roster of Med. Tech.
9. Sections 7 to 12 of RA 5527 provides information regarding the:
a. Certificate of Registration (COR) c. Medical Technology Board of Examiners
b. Council of Medical Technology education d. examination
10. In what section of RA 5527 can you find the statement: All successful examinees shall be required to take
a professional oath before the Board or before any person authorized to administer oaths prior to
entering upon the practice of medical technology in the Philippines?
a. 1 b. 18 c. 29 d. 13 e. none of the above
11. According to RA 5527, which of the following is NOT true regarding the issuance of the C. O. R?
a. It is issued to every applicant who passed the examination, regardless of his age
b. The C.O.R will be signed by all the board members attested by its Secretary
c. It is to be displayed by the RMT to the place where he works
d. Graduates of other paramedical courses who are civil service eligible practicing Med.Tech. for at
least 5 years prior to the enactment of RA 5527
e. None of the above
12. Section 25 of RA 5527 stated that the appeal to the Civil Service Commissioner shall become final _days
after its promulgation.
a. 25 b. 15 c. 30 d. 60
13. The license to operate (LTO) a clinical laboratory may NOT be issued in which of the following?
a. Use of expired reagents
b. Permitting unauthorized persons to perform technical procedures
c. Transferring of results of test done in an outside clinical laboratory to the result form of the
referring laboratory
d. Giving and receiving any commission, bonus, kickback or rebate or engaging in any split-free
arrangement in any form whatsoever with any facility
e. All of the above
14. One of the following is NOT tested in the newborn screening:
a. G6PD deficiency b. thalassemia c. phenylketonuria d. neonatal hypothyroidism
15. The last word in the Panunumpa ng Propesyunal is:
a. Diyos b. Panginoon c. Maykapal d. Bathala e. Amen
16. The National Organization of all registered Medical Technologists in the Philippines is:
a. PAMETH b. PASMET c. PASMETH d. PAMET
17. What term refers to the period of time during which an infected individual will test negative upon HIV
testing but can actually transmit the infection?
a. inactive state b. convalescent phase c. window period d. treated state
18. Which of the following is the authorized body for matters concerning nuclear/radioactive waste in the
Philippines?
a. DOH b. PNRI c. PNRC d. PRC e. PSP

19. RA 5527 a. June 21, 1969

20. RA 6138 b. August 31, 1970
21. PD 498 c. June 28, 1974
22. PD 1534 d. June 11, 1978

23. RA 4688 a. May 5, 1994

24. RA 7719 b. June 22, 1973
25. RA 1517 c. June 16, 1956
26. PD 223 d. June 18, 1966

27. RA 8981 a. April 7, 2004

28. RA 8504 b. June 7, 2002
29. RA 9288 c. December 5, 2000
30. RA 9165 d. February 13, 1998

31. CQI stands for:

a. computer quotient intelligence c. crime quotationindex
b. continuous quality improvement d. crucial quality intensity
32. These computers components are the physical pieces of the equipment like the monitor.
 a. hardware b. software c. programs d. people
33. _______provides the direction of where an organization is going whereas ____provides the road to get
there.
a. leadership; management b. management; leadership c. either d. neither
34. Which key leadership style provides high support and direction?
a. supportive b. directive c. delegating d. coaching
35. Which of the following is a function of primary management?
a. planning and prompt decision-making c. organizing e. all of the following
b. leading d. controlling
36. Which of the following is considered a middle manager?
a. supervisors b. division heads c. CEOs d. chief technologists
37. Which of the following histolopathologic step is the first and most important?
a. Fixation c. Numbering
b. Staining d. Labelling
38. Usual specimen size used for tissue processing:
a. 3x2cm 3-5mm thick c. 2x4cm 4mm thick
b. 3x3cm 5mm thick d. 3x5cm 4mm thick
39. Traditional Optimum temperature of fixing tissues:
a. 40C c. Refrigerator Temperature
b. Room Temperature d. Freezing Temperature
40. Considered as the most rapid fixative:
a. Heidenhain Susa c. Glacial Acetic Acid
b. Carnoys d. Acetone
41. Fixative very useful for microincineration techniques and sputum fixation
a. Gendres c. Formol Sublimate
b. 10% Formalin d. Glutaraldehyde
42. Fixative Chemically known as Trinitrophenol (TNT)
a. Formalin c. Glutaraldehyde
b. Glacial Acetic Acid d. Picric Acid
43. Ingestion of this fixative may cause blindness
a. Formalin c. Osmium Tetroxide
b. Methanol d. Lead Acetate
44. How do you prepare a 1L working solution of formalin?
a. 900mL stock formalin soln + 100mL dH2O c. 500mL stock formalin soln + 500mL dH2O
b. 100mL stock formalin soln + 900mL dH2O d. 400mL stock formalin soln + 600mL dH2O
45. Fixative recommended for acid mucopolysaccharides
a. Lead Fixatives c. Ethanol
b. Formalin d. Chromate Fixatives
46. Which of the following fixatives can be used to demonstrate rickettsia?
a. Orths c. Zenkers
b. Hellys d. B5 fixative
47. The optimal fixative to tissue ratio:
 a. 1:20 c. 1:30
b. 20:1 d. 1:10
48. Most common type of decalcifying fluid
a. Acids c. Ion Exchange Agents
b. Chelating Agent d. Electrophoresis
49. Commonly used decalcifying agent
a. 5-10% Nitric Acid c. TCA
b. Formic Acid d. Versene
50. Agent that acts both as a decalcifying agent and tissue softener
a. Nitric Acid c. Perenyls
b. Versene d. Formic Acid
51. Agent that acts both as a fixative and decalcifying agent
a. Nitric Acid c. Either
b. Chromic Acid d. Neither
52. Most reliable method for determining complete extent of decalcification?
a. Physical Method c. Xray Method
b. Mechanical Method d. Chemical Method
53. Which Decalcifying agent is carcinogenic?
a. Nitric Acid c. Versene
b. Flemmings Fluid d. Formic Acid
54. In the chemical method of determining the extent of decalcification, which of the following reaction would
indicate complete decalcification?
a. Clear Solution c. Both
b. Turbid Solution d. Neither
55. Usual optimum temperature for decalcification process
a. 1-6C c. 37C
b. 22-25C d. 55C
56. Process in which excess water is removed from a preserved tissue
a. Dehydration c. Decalcification
b. Clearing d. Fixation
57. Dehydration occurs usually makes use of
a. Increasing grades of alcohol c. Specific grade of alcohol
b. Decreasing grades of alcohol d. NOTA
58. Tissue to Dehydrating Agent Ratio
a. 1:10 c. 1:20
b. 10:1 d. 20:1
59. Considered as the best dehydrant:
a. Ethanol c. Butanol
b. Methanol d. Cellosolve
60. Dehydrating agent useful for BM and blood film preparations
a. Methanol c. Butanol
b. Ethanol d. Acetone
61. Which of the following dehydrates tissue rapidly except
a. Ethanol c. Butanol
b. Cellosolve d. Acetone
62. Serves as an indicator to determine and ensure complete dehydration
a. Calcium oxalate c. Litmus Paper
b. Anhydrous copper sulfate d. Sulfates
63. Dehydrating agent that is easily combustible
a. Cellosolve c. Xylene
b. Dioxane d. Ethanol
64. Clearing agent very useful for CNS tissues and cytological studies?
a. Clove Oil c. Chloroform
b. Cedarwood Oil d. Carbon tetrachloride
65. Clearing agent used for tough tissues, nervous tissues and large tissues
a. Cedarwood Oil c. Chloroform
b. THF d. Clove oil
66. Clearing agent for delicate tissues such as eyes
a. Terpineol c. Oil of origanum
b. Oil of wintergreen d. Phenol
67. Process in which the clearing agent is removed and replaced with wax
a. Infiltration c. Blocking
b. Casting d. Embedding
68. Simplest, most common and best embedding medium
a. Paraffin c. Gelatin
b. Plastic Resins d. Celloidin
69. Impregnating medium very useful for enzymatic histochemical studies
a. Gelatin c. Ester wax
b. Embeddol d. Paraplast
70. Generally, the volume of the infiltration medium should be at least how many times the tissue volume?
a. 10 times c. 25 times
b. 50 times d. 100 times
71. Wet celloidin method is intended for impregnating tissues except
a. Large brain sections c. Whole eye section
b. Teeth d. Bones
72. Melting point of paraffin wax
a. 56C c. 56-58C
b. 46-48C d. 38C
73. The most rapid method to wax infiltrate tissues
a. Manual Processing c. Vacuum Embedding
b. Automatic Processing d. Paraffin Embedding
74. Which of the following paraffin wax substitutes is harder than paraffin and has a lower melting point?
a. Ester Wax c. Paraplast
b. Carbowax d. Bioloid
75. Which of the following is used for embedding EM sections?
a. Epon c. Tissuemat
b. Araldite d. Paraplast
76. The paraffin oven is set at
a. 58-60C c. 45-50C
b. 65-70C d. 50C
77. Paraffin wax can only be reused for how many times?
a. 3x c. 2x
b. 1x d. 4x
78. All are employed in the dry method for celloidin impregnation method except
a. Gilsons mixture c. Cedarwood oil
b. Ether-Alcohol d. 70% Alcohol
79. It is a process by which a tissue is arranged in precise positions in the mold during embedding, on the
microtome before cutting and on the slide before staining
a. Waxing c. Paraplasting
b. Blocking d. Orientation
80. Which infiltrating medium does not need dehydration and clearing process
a. Ester wax c. Polyethylene glycol
b. Carbowax d. Either B or C
81. Adjustable type of embedding mold
a. Peel-away c. Leuckharts
b. Paper boat d. Tissue-tek
82. Which mold can be used to embed multiple tissues at the same time
a. Paper boat c. Peel away
b. Compound embedding unit d. Tissue-tek
83. The use of celloidin in embedding may be accomplished within
a. A day c. More than a day
b. Hours d. Minutes
84. A process in which excess is removed from a tissue block
a. Trimming c. Scraping
b. Blocking d. Stripping
85. A process that goes hand in hand with embedding
a. Trimming c. Scraping
b. Blocking d. Infiltration
86. Which microtome is appropriate for cutting tissues embedded in ester wax?
a. Rotary c. Base Sledge
b. Freezing d. AOTA
87. A trimmed tissue block is similar in appearance to
a. Truncated pyramid c. Either
b. Four sided prism d. Neither
88. An abscess is classifies under which type of inflammation:
a. Serous c. Fibrinous
 b. Suppurative d. Hemorrhagic
89. EA 65 differs from EA 50 or EA 36 only with respect to the concentration of:
a. Eosin Y c. Phosphotungstic acid
b. Light Green d. Bismarck Brown
90. Long thin filamentous bacteria that may indirectly tell possibility of infection
a. Candida c. Doderlain bacilli
b. Leptothrix d. Trichomonas
91. BAL can be performed to recover which organism
a. Pneumocystis c. HIV
b. Cryptosporidium d. Tubercle bacilli
92. Considered as the hallmark of acute inflammation
a. Monouclear infiltrates c. Swelling
b. Increased vascular permeability d. Edema
93. Pathology tissue blocks should be kept for a period of
a. 2 years c. Indefinite
b. 10 years d. 5 years
94. Average weight of the brain of a 70kg man is approximately
a. 1.4 kg c. 1600 g
b. 1275 g d. 1000 g
95. Nuclear segmentation or fragmentation is termed as
a. Karyorrhexis c. pyknosis
b. Karyolysis d. either A or B
96. Hypersecretion of the mucosa is characteristic of this form of exudation:
a. Serous Inflammation c. Catarrhal Inflammation
b. Suppurative Inflammation d. Hemorrhagic Inflammation
97. Which of the following are secreted by the zone reticularis of the adrenal gland?
a. Sex hormones c. Both
b. Glucocorticoids d. Neither
98. HPV serotypes associated with genital warts
a. HPV 11 c. Both
b. HPV 6 d. Neither
99. When using a spray fixative in preserving cytological smears, the slide be kept at a distance of about
a. 3 inches c. 10 inches
b. 5 inches d. 6 inches
100. retrogressive change in cellular growth patterns is characterized by non-appearance of an organ
a. aplasia b. agenesia c. hypoplasia d. atresia e. none