Professional Documents
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5. An irreversible process
a. is the analog of linear frictionless motion in machines
b. is an idealized visualization of behavior of a system
c. yields the maximum amount of work
d. yields the amount of work less than that of a reversible process.
6. In a adiabatic process
a. heat transfer is zero b. temperature change is zero
c. work done is a path function d. enthalpy remains constant
7. Enthalpy H is defined as
a. H = U PV b. H = U TS
c. H U = PV d. none of these
8. Efficiency of heat engine working on Carnot cycle between two temperature levels
depends upon
a. the two temperatures only b. the pressure of working fluid
c. the mass of the working fluid d. both mass and pressure of the
working fluid
9. What is the degree of freedom for a system comprising liquid water equilibrium with
its vapor?
a. 0 b. 1
c. 2 d. 3
10. Efficiency of a Carnot engine working between temperatures T1 and T2 (T1 < T2 ) is
a. (T2 T1) / T2 b. (T2 T1) / T1
c (T1 T2) / T2 d. (T1 T2) / T1
11. For a constant pressure reversible process, the enthalpy ( H) change of the system is
a. C vdT b. Cp dT
c. Cp dT d. Cv dT
13. Equation which relates pressure, volume, and temperature of a gas is called
a. Equation of state b. Gibbs Duhem equation
c. ideal gas equation d. none of these
29. Number of components (C) phase (P) and degrees of freedom (F) are related by Gibbs
phase rule as
a. P + F C = 2 b. C =P F +2
c. F = C P 2 d. P = F C 2
30. Degrees of freedom at triple point will be
a. 0 b. 1
c. 2 d. 3
36. The absolute entropy for all crystalline substances at absolute zero temperature
a. is zero b. is negative
c. is more than zero d. cant be determined
51. Which of the following equation is obtained on combining 1sT and 2nd law of
thermodynamics, for a system of constant mass?
a. dU = TdS PdV b. dQ = Cv dT + PdV
c. dQ = Cp dT + Vdp d. TdS = dU PdV
54. If different processes are used to bring about the same chemical reaction, the enthalpy
change is same for all of them.
a. Hesss law b. Kirchhoffs law
c. Lavoisier and Laplace law d. none of these
55. Change of heat content when one mole of the compound is burnt in oxygen at
constant pressure is called
a. calorific value b. heat of reaction
c. heat of combustion d. heat of formation
63. A chemical reaction will occur spontaneously at constant pressure and temperature, if
free energy is
a. zero b. positive
c. negative d. none of these
67. Free energy charges for two reaction mechanism X and Y are respectively 15 and 5
units. It implies that X is
a. slower than Y b. faster than Y
c. three times slower than Y d. three times faster than Y
68. Chemical potential is
a. an extensive property
b. an intensive property
c. a force which derives the chemical system to equilibrium
d. both b and c
72. Fugacity and pressure are numerically equal when the gas is
a. in standard state b. at high temperature
c. at low temperature d. in ideal state
73. The relation connecting the fugacities of various components in a solution with one
another and to composition at constant temperature and pressure is called
a. Gibbs-Duhem equation b. Van Laar equation
c. Gibbs-Helmholtz equation d. Margules equation
78. The point at which both liquid and gas phases are identical is called
a. critical point b. triple point
c. freezing point d. boiling point
85. As the entropy of the universe is increasing day by day the work producing capacity
of a heat engine is
a. not changed b. decreasing
c. increasing d. data insufficient cant be predicted
92. Which of the following have minimum value of COP for a given refrigeration effect?
a. reverse Carnot cycle
b. ordinary vapor compression cycle
c. vapor compression process with a reversible expansion engine
d. air refrigeration cycle
99. Coefficient to performance for a reversed Carnot cycle working between temperatures
T1 and T2 (T1> T2) is
a. T2 /(T1 - T2) b. T1 /(T1 T2)
c. (T2 T1) / T1 d. (T1 T2) /T2
6. Dimension of viscosity is
(a) ML-1T-1 (b) MLT-1
(c) MLT-1T (d) MLT
11. The pressure intensity is the same in all direction at a point in a fluid
(a) only when the fluid is frictionless
(b) only when the fluid is at rest having zero velocity
(c) when there is no motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
(d) regardless of the motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
13. For a fluid rotating at constant angular velocity about vertical axis as a rigid body, the
pressure intensity varies as the
(a) square of the radial distance
(b) radial distance linearly
(c) averse of the radial distance
(d) elevation along vertical direction
15. A rectangular surface 3x4, has the lower 3 edge horizontal and 6 below a free oil
surface (sp. gr. 0.8). The surface inclination is 300 with the horizontal. The force in
one side of the surface is :(y = specific weight of water)
17. Mass velocity is the independent of temperature and pressure when the flow is
(a) unsteady through uncharged cross-section
(b) steady through changing cross-section
(c) steady and the cross-section is unchanged
(d) unsteady ant the cross-section is changed
22. Which of the following must be followed by the flow of fluid (real or ideal)?
(i) Newtons law of viscosity
(ii) Newtons second law of motion
(iii) the continuity equation
(iv) velocity of boundary must be zero relative to boundary
(v) fluid cannot penetrate a boundary
(a) I, II, III (b) II, III, V
(c) I, II, V (d) II, III, V
26. The kinetic energy correction factor for velocity distribution of laminar flow is
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.66
(c) 1 (d) 2
27. The momentum correction factor for the velocity distribution of laminar flow is
(a) 1.3 (b) 1.66
(c) 2.5 (d) none of these
31. Reynolds number flow of water at room temperature through 2 cm diameter pipe at
average velocity of 5 cm/sec is around
(a) 2000 (b) 10
(c) 100 (d) 1000
35. The friction factor for turbulent flow in a hydraulically smooth pipe
(a) depends only on Reynolds number
(b) does not depend on Reynolds number
(c) depends on the roughness
(d) none of these
36. For a given Reynolds number, in hydraulically smooth pipe, further smoothing
(a) brings about no further reduction of friction factor
(b) increases the friction factor
(c) decreases the friction factor
(d) none of these
42. The velocity profile for turbulent flow through a closed conduit is
(a) logarithmic (b) parabolic
(c) hyperbolic (d) linear
46. Consider two pipes of same length and diameter through which water is passed at the
same velocity. The friction factor for rough pipe is f1 and that for smooth pipe is f2.
Pick out the correct statement.
(a) f1 = f2 (b) f1 < f2
(c) f1 > f2 (d) data not sufficient to relate f1 and f2
47. Bernoullis equation for steady frictionless, continuous flow states that
(a) total pressure at all sections is same
(b) total energy at all section is same
(c) velocity head at all section is same
(d) none of these
54. For flow of fluid through packed bed, the superficial velocity is
(a) less than the average velocity through channels
(b) more than the average velocity through channels
(c) dependent on the pressure drop across the bed
(d) same as the average velocity through channels
61. For the free settling of a spherical particle through a fluid, the slope of CD log NRe,
plot is
(a) 1 (b) 1
(c) 0.5 (d) 0.5
71. The maximum depth from which a centrifugal pump can draw water
(a) dependent on the speed N of the pump
(b) dependent on the power of the pump
(c) 34 feet (d) 150 feet
72. Boiler feed pump is usually a
(a) reciprocating pump (b) gear pump
(c) multisatge centrifugal pump (d) diaphragm pump
77. The maximum head that can be developed with a single impeller is
(a) 25 ft. (b) 1000 ft.
(c) 250 300 ft. (d) 1000 ft.
78. A fluid jet discharging from a 2 diameter orifice has a diameter of 1.75 at its vena-
contracta. The co-efficient of contraction is
(a) 1.3 (b) 0.766
(c) 0.87 (d) none of these
87. For a specific centrifugal air blower operating at constant speed and capacity the
power requirement and pressure vary
(a) directly as squares of gas density
(b) directly as gas density
(c) directly as square root of density
(d) inversely as gas density
88. Foot valves are provided in the suction line of a centrifugal pump to
(a) avoid priming every time we start the pump
(b) remove the contaminant present in the liquid
(c) minimize the fluctuation in dischrarge
(d) control the liquid discharge
91. While starting a centrifugal pump, its delivery valve should be kept
(a) opened (b) closed
(c) either opened or closed; it does not make any difference
(d) either opened or closed; depending on the fluid viscosity
92. Path followed by water jet issuing from the bottom of a water tank will be a
(a) parabola (vertex being at the opening)
(b) hyperbolic
(c) horizontal straight line
(d) zig-zag path (which is geometrically undefined)
93. A centrifugal pump loses prime after starting. The reason of this trouble may be
(a) incomplete priming (b) too high a suction lift
(c) low available NPSH and air leaks in the suction pipe
(d) all a, b, and c
95. For liquid flow through a packed bed, the superficial velocity as compared to average
velocity through the channel in the bed is
(a) more (b) less
(c) equal (d) independent of porosity
99. If more than two branches of pipes are to be connected at the same point, then use
(a) elbow (b) union
(c) tee (d) none of these
100. The most economical valve for use with large diameter pipes is
(a) butterfly valve (b) globe valve
(c) needle valve (d) none of these
101. Which of the following factors does not contribute to the pressure drop in a
pipeline?
(a) velocity of liquid (b) size of pipe
(c) length of pipe and number of bends (d) none of these
102. Which of the following can be used to create a flow of gas where no significant
compression is required?
(a) reciprocating compressor (b) blower
(c) axial flow compressor (d) centrifugal compressor
103. Erosion and pits formation on the impeller of a centrifugal pump may be due to
(a) cavitation (b) low speed of impeller
(c) its operation with delivery valve closed for considerable time after starting the
pump
(d) off centering of pump with motor
104. Which of the following valves will incur maximum pressure drop for the same
discharge of water?
(a) globe valve (b) gate valve
(c) needle valve (d) butterfly valve
105. While starting on axial flow pump, its delivery valve should be kept
(a) open (b) closed
(c) either open or closed (d) none of these
113. Disc compensators are provided in large diameter gas carrying pipelines to
(a) keep the pipe in proper orientation
(b) make the pipe joint leak-proof
(c) account for contraction/ expansion of pipe due to temperature changes of
the surroundings
(d) account for pressure variation inside the pipelines
114. Nominal Pipe Size (NPS) of a pipe less than 12 inches in diameter indicates its
(a) inner diameter (b) outer diameter
(c) thickness (d) neither inner or outer
115. The most important factor which determines the maximum height to which water
can be lifted by a pump at standard temperature (62F) is
(a) barometric pressure (b) speed of the impeller
(c) diameter of the impeller (d) both b and c
117. When the water is warm, the height to which it can be lifted by a pump
(a) decreases due to reduced velocity
(b) decreases due to reduced vapor pressure
(c) increases due to increased vapor pressure
(d) decreases due to increased frictional resistance
121. A pump operating under specific conditions delivers insufficient quantity of liquid.
This may be set right by
(a) decreasing the size of the inlet pipe
(b) increasing the size of the inlet pipe
(c) lowering the pump position
(d) both b and c
125. Horsepower requirement for given pump capacity depends upon the
(a) specific gravity of the liquid (b) suction lift
(c) discharge head (d) all a, b and c
DRYING
1. The vapor pressure exerted by the moisture contained in a wet solid depends
upon the
a) nature of the moisture
b) temperature
c) nature of the solid
d) all a, b, and c
6. If moisture content of a solid on dry basis is X then the same on wet basis is
a) X
X+1
b) X
1-X
c) 1+X
X
d) 1X
X
12. Moisture in a solid exerting an equilibrium vapor pressure equal to that of the
pure liquid at
the same temperature is
a) unbound moisture
b) critical moisture
c) free moisture
d) bound moisture
14. Heat sensitive materials like certain pharmaceuticals and food stuff can be
dried
a) in indirect tray dryer
b) in spray dryer
c) by freeze drying
d) none of these
17. In the constant rate period of the rate of drying curve for batch drying
a) cracks develop on the surface of the solid
b) rate of drying decreases abruptly
c) surface evaporation of unbound moisture occurs
d) none of these
22. A solid material shows case hardening properties while drying. Which of the
following
should be controlled to control the drying process?
a) flow rate of inlet air
b) relative humidity of outlet air
c) humidity of inlet air
d) temperature of the solid
23. Capacity of a rotary dryer depends on
a) its r.p.m
b) its inclination with ground surface
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
24. Air at a particular humidity is heated in a furnace. The new dew point
a) decreases
b) increases
c) depends on the extent of heating
d) remains unchanged
26. A slurry is to be dried to produce flaky solid. Which dryer would you
recommend?
a) spray dryer
b) drum dryer
c) rotary dryer
d) dielectric dryer
27. For continuous drying of granular or crystalline material, the dryer used is
a) tunnel
b) tray
c) rotary
d) none of these
29. During constant rate period, the rate of drying decreases with
a) decrease in air temperature
b) increased air humidity
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
30. Which is the controlling factor for a drum dryer?
a) diffusion
b) heat transfer
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
HUMIDIFICATION
1. Humidification involves mass transfer between a pure liquid phase and a fixed
gas which is:
a) insoluble in the liquid
b) soluble in the liquid
c) non-ideal in nature
d) at a fixed temperature
6. Heat is BTU necessary to increase the temperature of 1 lb. of gas and its
accompanying
vapor by 1o F is called the
a) latent heat
b) humid heat
c) specific heat
d) sensible heat
8. The temperature to which a vapor gas mixture must be cooled (at varying
humidity)
to become saturated is
a) dew point
b) wet bulb temperature
c) dry bulb temperature
d) none of these
9. The dew point of a saturated gas phase equals the
a) gas temperature
b) room temperature
c) wet bulb temperature
d) none of these
12. The difference of wet bulb temperature and adiabatic saturation temperature
of unsaturated
mixture of any system is
a) positive
b) negative
c) zero
d) none of these
13. When the temperature and humidity of air is low we usually use
a) natural draft cooling tower
b) forced draft cooling tower
c) induced draft cooling tower
d) none of these
21. Which of the following processes is followed by unsaturated air (with dry bulb
temperature
12oC and relative humidity 47%) passing through water spray washer
(temperature of water being constant at 40oC)?
a) humidification only
b) heating only
c) both heating and humidification
d) evaporative cooling
22. Which of the following remains constant during sensible cooling process?
a) specific humidity
b) partial pressure of vapor
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
23. During sensible cooling process
a) relative humidity decreases
b) relative humidity increases
c) wet bulb temperature increases
d) both b and c
24. A mixture of 10% C6H6 vapor in air at 25oC and 750 mm Hg has a dew point
of 20oC. Its
dew point at 30oC and 700 mm Hg will be around
a) 21.7oC
b) 20oC
c) 27.3oC
d) 18.7oC
25. Which of the following remains constant during evaporative cooling process
with
recirculated water supply?
a) relative humidity
b) partial pressure of vapor
c) wet bulb temperature
d) none of these
27. Which of the following decreases during evaporative cooling process with
recirculated water
supply?
a) wet bulb temperature
b) relative humidity
c) partial pressure of vapor
d) none of these
28. Which of the following increases during evaporative cooling process with
recirculated water
supply?
a) wet bulb temperature
b) relative humidity
c) partial pressure of vapor
d) both b and c
29. The relative saturation of a partially saturated mixture of vapor and gas can
be increased by
a) reducing the total pressure of the mixture
b) increasing the total pressure of the mixture
c) reducing the temperature of the mixture
d) both b and c
31. Unsaturated air (with dry and wet bulb temperatures being 35oC and 25oC
respectively) is
passed through water spray chamber maintained at 35oC. The air will be
a) cooled
b) humidified
c) both a and b
d) dehumidified
33. Unsaturated air (with dry bulb temperature and dew point being 35oC and
18oC respectively)
is passed through a water spray chamber maintained at 15oC. The air will be
a) cooled and humidified
b) cooled and dehumidified with increase in wet bulb temperature
c) cooled at the same relative humidity
d) cooled and dehumidified with decrease in wet bulb temperature
34. Which of the following parameters remains almost constant during adiabatic
saturation of
unsaturated air?
a) dry bulb temperature
b) dew point
c) wet bulb temperature
d) none of these
35. Unsaturated air (with dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures being 45 oC and
25oC respectively)
is passed through a water spray chamber maintained at 23oC. The air will be
a) cooled and humidified with wet bulb temperature decreasing
b) cooled and humidified at constant wet bulb temperature
c) cooled and dehumidified
d) none of these
Diffusion
1. The unit of volumetric diffusivity is
a.) cm2/ec b.) cm/sec
c.) cm3/sec d.) cm3/sec3
2. The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture is related to the temperature (T)
as
a.) D T b.) D T0.5
c.) D T1.5 d.) D T3
3. The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture is related to the pressure (P) as
a.) D T1.5 b.) D 1
P0.5
c.) D 1 d.) D 1
P P1.5
18. Which of the following has the same dimension as mass diffusivity?
a.) momentum flux b.) kinematic viscosity
c.) thermal diffusivity d.) both b and c
20. The value of Lewis number Le = Sc for air-water vapour system is around
Pr
a.) 1 b.) 0.24
c.) 3.97 d.) 600.
GAS ABSORPTION
1. For absorbing a sparingly soluble gas in a liquid, the
a.) gas side coefficient should be increased
b.) liquid side coefficient should be increased
c.) gas side coefficient should be decreased
d.) liquid side coefficient should be decreased
6. Flooding results in
a.) High tray efficiency
b.) Low tray efficiency
c.) High gas velocity
d.) Good contact between the fluids
11. The operating line for an absorbed is curved when plotted in terms of
a.) mole fractions b.) mole ratios
c.) partial pressure d.) mass fractions
13. For an absorber, both equilibrium and operating line will be straight for
a.) concentrated solution and non-isothermal operation
b.) dilute solution and non-isothermal operation
c.) dilute solution and isothermal operation
d.) concentrated solution and isothermal operation
22. Out of the following properties of a solvent for absorption, which combination
of properties provides a good solvent?
I. high viscosity II. Low viscosity
III. high vapour pressure IV. Low vapour pressure
V. high gas solubility VI. High freezing point
VII. low freezing point
24. Ammonia present in the coke oven gas is removed by washing with
a.) caustic solution b.) dilute ammoniacal liquor
c.) dilute HCl d.) ethanolamine
25. Which of the following is not fixed by process requirements in the design of
absorbers?
a.) flow rate of the entering gas
b.) composition of the entering liquid
c.) terminal concentration of gas stream
d.) none of these
28. Very tall packed towers are divided into series of beds to
a.) reduce the over-all pressure drop
b.) avoid channeling
c.) reduce liquid hold-up
d.) avoid flooding
29. For the same system, if the same liquid used in an absorber is decreased, the
tower height will
a.) increase
b.) decrease
c.) remain unaffected
d.) decrease or increase depends on the type of liquid
33. Co-current absorbers are usually used when the gas to be dissolved in the
liquid is
a.) sparingly soluble b.) highly soluble
c.) a pure substance d.) a mixture
35. Diameter of raschig rings used in packed tower in industry is normally around
a.) 2" b.) 8"
c.) 12" d.) 18"
FILTRATION
1. For a classification of potable water, we use
a.) gravity sand filter b.) plate and frame filter
c.) vacuum leaf filter d.) rotary vacuum filter
10. In continuous filtration (at a constant pressure drop) filtrate flow rate varies
inversely as the
a.) square root of the velocity
b.) square root of the viscosity
c.) filtration time only
d.) washing time only
11. For separation of sugar solution from settled out mud we use
a.) sparkler filter b.) plate and frame
c.) centrifugal filter d.) rotary drum vacuum filter
15. The speed of a rotary drum vacuum filter (in rpm) may be
a.) 1 b.) 50
c.) 100 d.) 500
17. For laminar of flow of filtrate through the cake deposited on septum which of
the following with the valid?
a.) Kozency-Carman Equation b.) Leva's equation
c.) Clack-Plummer equation d.) none of these
18. Which of the following may prove unsuitable for filtering volatile liquids?
a.) pressure filter b.) gravity filter
c.) centrifugal filter d.) vacuum filter
19. In washing type plate and frame filter press the ratio of washing rate to the
final filtrate rate is
a.) 4 b.) 1/4
c.) 1 d.) 1/2
22. Flow of filtrate through cake in a plate and frame filter press is best described
by
a.) Kozency-Carman equation b.) Hagen-Poiseu equation
c.) Fanning's equation d.) Kremser equation
23. A straight line is obtained on plotting reciprocal of filtration rate vs the
volume of filtrate
a.) compressible cakes and laminar flow of filtrate
b.) incompressible cakes and laminar flow of filtrate
c.) compressible cake and turbulent flow of filtrate
d.) incompressible cake and turbulent flow of filtrate
25. Which of the following represents the plot of filtrate cvolume versus time for
constant pressure filtration?
a.) parabola b.) straight line
c.) hyperbola d.) exponential curve
26. With increase in drum speed, in a rotary drum filter, the filtration rate
a.) increases b.) increases linearly
c.) decreases d.) is not affected
29. Addition of filter aid to the slurry before filtration is done to .. of the coke
a.) increase the porosity
b.) increase the compressibility coefficient
c.) decrease the porosity
d.) decrease the compressibility coefficient
30. The cake resistance increases steadily with the time of filtration in a plate and
frame filter employing constant .. filtration
a.) rate b.) pressure
c.) both a and b d.) neither a nor b
31. The controlling resistance in a rotary drum vacuum filter is the . Resistance
a.) piping b.) cake
c.) filter medium c.) none of these
ADSORPTION
1. Physical adsorption is
a. an irreversible phenomenon
b. a reversible phenomenon
c. accompanied by evolution of heat
d. both b and c
7. In case of physical adsorption, the difference between heat of adsorption and heat of normal
condensation is
a. equal to the heat of formation of surface compound
b. equal to the heat of wetting
c. zero
d. called integral heat of adsorption
10. With increase in concentration of the adsorbate the integral heat of adsorption
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains unchanged
d. may increase or decrease; depends on type of adsorbate
11. The change in enthalpy when a unit quantity of gas is adsorbed by a relatively large quantity
of adsorbent (on which a definite concentration of the adsorbed gas already exists) is termed
as the
a. differential heat of adsorption c. integral heat of adsorption
b. heat of wetting d. heat of normal condensation
CENTRIFUGATION
3. Which of the following can be most effectively used for clarification of tube oil and printing
ink?
a. sparkler filter c. disc-bowl centrifuge
b. precoat filter d. sharpless supercentrifuge
4. If the radius of a basket centrifuge is halved and the rpm is doubled, then
a. linear speed of the basket is doubled
b. linear speed of the basket is halved
c. centrifugal force is doubled
d. capacity of centrifuge is increased
5. Where the difference in density of the two liquid phases to be separated is very small (as in
milk cream separator), the most suitable separator is
a. disc bond centrifuge c. batch basket centrifuge
b. sharpless supercentrifuge d. sparkler filter
FLOTATION
4. Which of the following is the most suitable for cleaning of fine coal dust (< 0.5 m)?
a. Through washer c. Spiral separator
b. Baum Jig Washer d. Froth Flotation
LEACHING
1. Heats sensitive materials with very high latent heat of vaporization may be
economically separated using
a. liquid extraction c. evaporation
b. distillation d. absorption
3. Choose the best combination or properties for a good solvent for extraction out of the
following
(i) high selectivity
(ii) low selectivity
(iii) high viscosity
(iv) low viscosity
(v) large distribution coefficient
(vi) small distribution coefficient
(vii) high interfacial tension
(viii) low interfacial tension
7. Which of the following is the most suitable for extraction in a system having very low density
difference?
a. mixer-settler extractor c. pulsed extractor
b. centrifugal extractor d. packed extraction tower
8. In extraction, as the temperature increases, the area of heterogeneity (area covered by binodal
curve)
a. decreases c. remains unchanged
b. increases d. none of these
10. In a countercurrent extractor as the axial mixing increases, the extraction efficiency
a. increases c. remains unchanged
b. decreases d. depends on the pressure of the system
11. The solvent used in liquid extraction should not have high latent heat of vaporization because
a. the pressure drops and hence the pumping cost will be very high
b. it cannot be recovered by distillation
c. its recovery cost by distillation may be prohibitively high
d. it will decompose while recovering by distillation
12. In a countercurrent liquid extractor
a. both liquids flow at fixed rate
b. both liquids can have any desired flow rate
c. only one of the liquids may be pumped at any desired rate
d. liquids flow rate depends upon the temperature and pressure
13. Sides of equilateral triangular coordinates (on which ternary liquid system is plotted)
represent
a. a pure component c. a ternary mixture
b. a binary mixture d. partially miscible ternary system
14. As the reflux ratio, in a continuous counter current extraction is increased, the number of
stages
a. increase c. remain unchanged
b. decrease d. can either increase or decrease, depends on
the system
15. Acetic acid will be most economically separated from a dilute solution of acetic acid in water
by
a. solvent extraction c. evaporation
b. continuous distillation d. absorption
MATERIALS HANDLING
4. The capacity of a belt conveyor depends upon two factors. If one is the cross section of the
load, the other is the
a. speed of the belt c. thickness of the belt
b. length of the belt d. material to be transported
SCREENING
1. The ratio of the actual mesh dimension of Taylor series to that of the next smaller screen is
a. 2 b. 2 c. 1.5 d. none of these
3. The ratio of the area of opening in one screen (Taylor series) to that of openings in the next
smaller screen is
a. 1.5 b. 1 c. 2 d. none of these
4. Cumulative Analysis for determining surface is more precise than differential analysis
because of the
a. assumption that all particles in single fraction are equal in size
b. fact that screening is more effective
c. assumption that all particles in a single fraction are equal in size is not needed
d. none of these
6. Screen efficiency is
a. recovery rejection b. recovery c. rejection d. none of these
18. The critical speed of a trommel (n) is related to its diameter (D)
1
a. N c. N D
D
1
b. N D d. N
D
20. Vibrating screens have capacity (tons/ft2 hr mm mesh size) in the range of
a. 0.2 to 0.8 c. 50 to 100
b. 5 to 25 d. 100 to 250
21. The material passing one screening surface and retained on a subsequent surface is called
a. intermediate material c. plus material
b. minus d. none of the above
SEDIMENTATION
Questions 1 and 2 are based on the following information and illustration
In an experiment, a sphere of density 1 and radius r is dropped in a tank of oil of
viscosity 1 and density 2 . The time of descent for the sphere through the first section of height
d is recorded as t1 and through the second section of the same height as t2, 0 < t2 t1 << 1.
Sphere
d V (1)
d 2
2. The drag force exerted on the sphere during its descent through the second section is
4 4 3 d
a. 1 2 g r 3 c. r 1 g 61r
3 3 t2
4 4 3 d
b. 1 g r 3 d. r 1 g 61r
3 3 t2
13. For the free settling of a spherical particle through a fluid, the slope of CD vs log NRe plot is
a. 1 c. 1
b. 0.5 d. 0.5
14. The terminal velocity of a small sphere settling in a viscous fluid varies as the
a. first power of its diameter
b. inverse of the fluid viscosity
c. inverse square of the diameter
d. square of the difference in specific weights of solid and fluid
15. Buoyant force
a. for non symmetrical bodies is not vertical
b. depends on the depth of the submergence of the floating body
c. depends on the weight of the floating body
d. none of these
17. The line of action of the buoyant force passes through the center of gravity of the
a. submerged body
b. displaced volume of the fluid
c. volume of fluid vertically above the body
d. horizontal projection of the body
19. Sphericity of raschig ring (whose length and diameter are equal) is
a. >1 c. <2
b. 1 d. 2
23. Sphericity of a cubical particle when its equivalent diameter is taken as the height of the tube
is
a.0.5 c. 2
b.1 d. 3
24. For raschig rings, the sphericity is
a. 0.5 c. < 1
b. 1 d. 3
where: V and S are volume and surface area respectively of one particle
D = equivalent diameter of particles
SIZE REDUCTION
1. Shape factor for a cylinder whose length equals its diameter is
a. 1.5 b. 0.5 c. 1 d. 0
2. Equivalent diameter of a particle is the diameter of the sphere having the same
a. ratio of surface to volume as the actual volume
b. ratio of volume to surface as the particle
c. volume as the particle
d. none of these
15. As the product becomes finer, the energy required for grinding
a. decreases c. is same as for coarser grinding
b. increases d. is 1.5 times than for coarser grinding
20. Choke crushing (in case of a jaw crusher) compared to free crushing
a. results in increased capacity c. consumes more power
b. consumes less power d. both a and c
24. To get fine talc powder from its granules, the equipment used is
a. roller crusher c. jaw crusher
b. ball mill d. gyratory crusher
26. The main differentiation factor between tube mill and ball mill is the
a. length to diameter ratio c. final product size
b. size of the grinding media d. operating speed
29. Which of the following gives the crushing energy required to create new surface?
a. Taggarts rule c. Rittingers law
b. Ficks Law d. none of these
a. Diopt 3.9 q f
0.45
c 0.95 d. Diopt 3 q f
0.36
c 0.18
where q f = fluid flow rate, ft3/sec
= fluid density, lb/ft3
c = fluid viscosity, centipoise
Diopt = optimum inside pipe diameter, inches
48. For laminar flow (NRe < 2100) in steel pipe, the optimum inside pipe
diameter is given by
a. Diopt 3.6 q f c c. Diopt q f c0.025
0.45 0.28 0.487
a. Diopt 3 q f
0.36
c 0.18 d. Diopt q f
0.364
c0.182
49. The necessary wall thickness for a metallic storage vessel is a function of the
a. ultimate tensile strength (or yield point) of the material and operating
temperature
b. operating pressure and welding / joint efficiency
c. diameter of the vessel
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
50. Bubble cap plate column is
a. a finite stage contactor
b. used only for distillation, not for absorption
c. a differential stage contactor
d. a continuous contactor
51. The most common standard size of bubble caps used in industrial operation
is
a. 1" diameter cap with 0.5" diameter riser
b. 6" diameter cap with 4" diameter riser
c. 8" diameter cap with 1" diameter riser
d. 4" diameter cap with 8" diameter riser
52. Pick out the wrong statement pertaining to the design of the distillation
column
a. Generally, a skirt clearance of 0.5 to 1.5 is recommended to prevent
plugging of the slots by residue build up.
b. The purpose of the slot is to disperse the gas into the liquid in the form of
small bubbles.
c. If sufficient slot area is not provided, the gas may pass through the skirt
clearance
d. none of these
53. For a given design of bubble cap, the number of bubble caps to be used per
tray is set by the
a. allowable gas velocity through the slots b. plate spacing
c. diameter of the column d. all (a), (b) and (c)
54. Maximum and minimum linear slot velocities (in the distillation column design) as
recommended by Davies are respectively
a. 12/ 0.5 and 3.4/ 0.5 b.3.4/ 0.5 and 12/ 0.5
c. 3.4/ 0.5 and 12/ 0.5 d. 3.4/ 0.5 and 12/ 0.5
55. Normally, the ratio of the total riser area to the tower cross sectional area
(for bubble cap towers of
diameter more than 3 ft) is around
a. 0.4 - 0.6 b. 0.35 - 0.75
c. 0.1 - 0.2 d. 0.55 - 0.85
56. An adequate clearance between the tray and the shell wall of a distillation
column is provided to
a. drain the liquid from the tray when the unit is not in operation.
b. allow for thermal expansion and facilitate installation
c. avoid back-trapping
d. none of these
57. The function of manholes provided in the shell of a distillation column is to
a. keep a check on the liquid gradient over the plate by direct
visual observation
b. give access to the individual trays for cleaning,
maintenance and installation
c. guard against foaming and entrainment by dumping anti-
forming agent through it.
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
58. Weep holes provided in the plates of a distillation column
a. facilitate draining out liquid from a tray when the unit is not in operation
b. are normally located near the overflow weir so that any delivery of liquid
during operation follow approximately the same path as the overflow fluid
c. must be large enough (usually 1/4 inch to 5/8 inch diameter) to prevent
plugging but should not deliver excessive amount of fluid during operation
d. all (a), (b) and (c).
59. Excessive liquid gradient on a tray may result in
a. maldistribution of gas
b. back trapping
c. gas blowing beneath cap skirt
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
60. The maximum liquid gradient over a tray must not exceed
a. 0.5" - 1.25" b. 2"-3.5"
c. 5" d. half the tray spacing
61. Liquid gradient over the tray results due to
a. the resistance offered to flow of liquids by caps and risers and
the flow of gas.
b. low gas velocity
c. large plate spacing
d. large reflux ratio
62. Liquid gradient over a tray can be minimized by
a. providing a higher skirt clearance or a higher weir
b. decreasing the number of rows of caps through which the liquid flows or
by decreasing the
velocity of liquid flow past the caps or by reducing the distance along the
tray through which the
liquid must flow.
c. using split flow, radial flow or cascade flow for column diameter larger than
4 ft.
d. all (a), (b) and (c).
63. Which of the following factors determine the amount of entrainment in a
distillation column?
a. plate spacing
b. depth of liquid above the bubble cap slots
c.vapor velocity in the volume between the plates
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
64. Larger depth of liquid on the trays of a distillation column
a. lead to high tray efficiency
b. results in higher pressure drop per tray
c. both (a) and (b)
d. neither (a) nor (b)
65. The minimum tray spacing in distillation column of diameter than 3 ft is
normally
a. 6" b. 18" c. 24" d. 34"
66. The minimum plate spacing in most of the petroleum refinery distillation
columns (of diameter 73 ft)
is normally
a. 6" b. 12" c. 18" d. 34"
67. Back-trapping in a distillation column results due to
a. low gas velocity b. high gas velocity
c. excessive liquid gradient over the tray d. low reflux ratio
68. A calming section below the liquid flows into the downcomer is provided to
a. permit release of entrained vapor in the liquid
b. reduce the discharge fluctuation
c. ensure better vapor liquid contract
d. cool the liquid before it flows down.
69. The length of straight rectangular weir used on cross-flow trays is generally
a. 0.6 - 0.8 times the column diameter
b. equal to the column diameter
c. twice the column diameter
d. 2 ft irrespective of column diameter (for column 73 ft diameter)
70. Pick out the wrong statement
a.If sufficient residence time (around 8 seconds) is not provided to the
downcoming liquid in the
downcomer, it may entrain some vapor.
b. The liquid head in the downcomer should not be greater than one half the
plate spacing to avoid
flooding.
c. The discharge end of the downcomer must project far enough into the tray
liquid so that no gas
bubbles can enter the open end and bypass the bubble caps.
d. none of these
(c)
e2 dt (d) both a and b
0
55. Cascade control means
(a) feed forward control (b) more than one feed-back loop
(c) on-off control (d) one feed-back loop
56. Which of the following controllers has the least maximum deviation?
(a) P-controller (b) P-I controller
(c) P-I-D controller (d) P-D controller
57. Measurement of pressure in ammonia reactor is done by
(a) Bourdon gauge (b) U-tube manometer
(c) Inclined tube manometer (d) Pirani gauge
58. Pressure of 0.01 psi (absolute) can be measured by
(a) Ionization gauge (b) Pirani gauge
(c) Mcleoid gauge (d) Bourdon gauge
59. Continuous measurement of moisture in paper is done by
(a) sling psychrometer
(b) hair-hygrometer
(c) weighing
(d) high resistance, Wheatstones bridge circuit
60. Pressure of 0.0001 absolute psi can be measured by
(a) Meloid gauge (b) Pirani gauge
(c) Thermocouple gauge (d) Bourdon gauge
61. E.m.f. generated by thermocouples is of the order of
(a) millivolts (b) microvolts
(c) volts (d) bi-metallic thermometer
62. Measurement of sub-zero Celsius temperature in industry is done by
(a) thermocouples (b) resistance thermometers
(c) gas thermometer (d) bi-metallic thermometer
63. Starting temperature of optical radiation pyrometer is
(a) 800C (b) 400C
(c) 1200C (d) 1500C
64. Which thermocouple can be used to measure temperature around 1400C?
(a) copper-constantan (b) aluminum-chromel
(c) platinum-platinum+rhodium (d) copper-aluminum
65. pH meter has
(a) one cell (b) two cells
(c) three cells (d) no cell
66. Maximum differential pressure in liquid manometer is
(a) 20 psi (b) 30 psi
(c) 40 psi (d) 50 psi
67. Interfacial level in pressure vessel is measured by
(a) float (b) manometers of float type
(c) U-tube manometer (d) Bourdon gauge
68. Flow rate of sludge is measured by
(a) V-notch (b) rectangular notch
(c) circular pipe (d) Kennison nozzle
69. Composition of natural gas can be determined by
(a) chromatograph (b) orsat apparatus
(c) spectrometer (d) photometer
70. Bellows are made of
(a) leather (b) paper
(c) plastic (d) thin copper
71. Flapper nozzle is a
(a) pneumatic controller (b) hydraulic controller
(c) electronic controller (d) both a and b
72. Weir valve is used for
(a) slurries (b) acids
(c) neutral solutions (d) bases
73. Valve used to supply oil to burner is
(a) gate valve (b) butterfly valve
(c) rotary plug valve (d) both a and b
74. Mode used for transmitting signal for one kilometer distance is
(a) hydraulic (b) pneumatic
(c) electronic (d) all a, b and c
75. Use of pilot in transmission (pneumatic) is to
(a) speed up signal (b) change the flow of air
(c) adjust the signal (d) all a, b and c
76. Final control element is a
(a) valve (b) switch
(c) signal (d) both a and b
77. Example of a second order instrument is a
(a) mercury-glass thermometer with covering
(b) bare mercury-glass thermometer
(c) pressure gauge
(d) Bourdon gauge
78. Offset
(a) varies with time (b) varies exponentially with time
(c) does not vary with time (d) varies as square of the time
79. Regulator problem means that
(a) set point is constant (b) load is constant
(c) both set point and load are constant (d) neither set point nor load is
constant
80. Servo problem means that
(a) set point is constant (b) load is constant
(c) both a and b (d) neither a nor b
81. Critically damped system means that the damping coefficient is
(a) 1 (b) < 1
(c) > 1 (d) 0
82. In Bode stability criterion, amplitude ratio at 180 should be
(a) 1 (b) < 1
(c) > 1 (d) 0
83. Phase plane method is used for
(a) linear-behavior (b) non-linear behavior
(c) both a and b (d) neither a nor b
84. Laplace transform method is used for
(a) linear behavior (b) non-linear behavior
(c) both a and b (d) neither a nor b
85. Phase lag of first order system is
(a) tan-1 (T) (b) tan-1 (T)
(c) /2 (d) 0
86. P-I controller as compared to P-controller has a
(a) higher maximum deviation (b) longer response time
(c) longer period of oscillation (d) all a, b and c
87. Difference at any instant between the value of controlled variable and the
set point is
called
(a) deviation (b) derivative time
(c) error ratio (d) differential gap
88. The time difference by which the output of a P-D controller leads the input
when the input changes linearly with time is called
(a) error ratio (b) derivative time
(c) proportional sensitivity (d) gain
89. Steady state deviation resulting from a change in the value of the load
variable is called
(a) offset (b) error ratio
(c) deviation (d) static ratio
90. Time required for the output of a first order system to change from a given
value to within 36.8% of the final value when a step change of input is made is
called
(a) time constant (b) settling time
(c) rise time (d) derivative time
91. A controller action in which there is a continuous linear relation between
value of the controlled variable and rate of change of controlled output signal is
called
(a) proportional action (b) integral action
(c) derivative action (d) proportional-integral action
92. A controller action in which there is a continuous relation between value of
the controlled variable and the value of the output signal of the controller is
called
(a) proportional action (b) derivative action
(c) integral action (d) proportional-derivative action
93. Steady state ratio of the change of proportional controller output variable
and the
change in actuating signal is called
(a) proportional sensitivity (b) reset rate
(c) rangeability (d) integral action
94. In case of flow measurement by an orifice, the pressure difference signal is
proportional to
(a) Q (b) Q
(c) Q 3 (d) 1 /Q
where Q= volumetric flow rate
95. Thermistor is a
(a) semiconductor whose resistance decreases with temperature
rise
(b) metal whose resistance increases linearly with temperature rise
(c) metal whose resistance does not vary with temperature
(d) device for measuring nuclear radiation
96. Which of the following factors does not influence measurement accuracy?
(a) static and dynamic error (b) reproducibility
(c) dead zone (d) none of these
97. Which of the following is suitable for measuring the temperature of a red
hot moving object
(e.g. steel ingots on roller table) ?
(a) thermocouple (b) radiation pyrometer
(c) thermistor (d) radiograph
98. Thermocouples
(a) have very slow speed of response
(b) cant be connected to the measuring instrument remotely located
(c) need cold junction compensation
(d) are much less accurate compared to bimetallic or vapor pressure
thermometer
99. Selection of material for thermocouple depends on the
(a) depth of immersion in the hot fluid
(b) minimum and maximum temperature
(c) pressure and velocity condition of the fluid whose temperature is to be
measured
(d) both a and b
100. Radiation pyrometers
(a) have very low speed of response
(b) need not see the temperature source; it is measuring
(c) cant measure temperature of objects without making physical contact
(d) none of these
101. V-notch is used to measure flow rate of a liquid in
(a) an open channel (b) a non-circular cross-section closed
channel
(c) vertical pipeline (d) horizontal pipeline
102. Which of the following is not a head flowmeter?
(a) segmental orifice plate (b) pitot tube
(c) rotameter (d) flow nozzle
103. Flow rate of a liquid containing heavy solids (e.g. sand) can be best
measured by
(a) pitot tube (b) concentric orifice
(c) eccentric orifice (d) rotameter
104. Orifice plates for flow measurement
(a) incurs very low permanent pressure loss
(b) has poor accuracy on high orifice ratios (above 0.75)
(c) cant be easily interchanged
(d) is best for very large liquid flows and big pipelines
105. Pitot tube is used
(a) for highly accurate flow measurement
(b) when the fluid contains lot of suspended material
(c) when the line is large and the velocity is high
(d) both a and c
106. In an area meter (e.g. rotameter), the flow rate is
(a) proportional to the square root of the differential pressure
(b) inferred from the change in area of an orifice in the flow line
across which the pressure differential is constant zero
(c) inferred from change in flow cross-section across which the pressure
differential is zero
(d) all a, b and c
107. A rotameter
(a) incurs constant and small permanent pressure drop
(b) incurs constant but very large permanent pressure drop
(c) is inaccurate for low flow rates
(d) need not be mounted always vertically
108. On-off control
(a) fully opens the final control element when the measured variable is
below the set point
(b) fully closes the final control element when the measured variable is
above the set point
(c) is a two position (fully open or fully closed) control adequate to
control a process with slow reaction rate and minimum dead time
or transfer lag
(d) all a, b, and c
109. Floating control action
(a) moves the final control element at constant speed in either
direction in
response to an error signal
(b) changes the position of the final control element from on to off
(c) is used to counteract rapid load changes
(d) both b and c
110. Cascade control is
(a) the continuous adjustment of the set point index of an automatic
control loop by a primary (master) controller
(b) used when changes in process conditions cause serious upsets
in controlled variable
(c) useful to control flow from temperature
(d) all a, b and c
MATERIALS OF CONSTRUCTION
1. Bog iron is used for adsorption of H2S from coke oven gas is
a. an intimate mixture of saw dust and iron dust (i.e. moist ferric
hydroxide)
b. iron impregnated with resin (usually bakelite)
c. carbon free iron
d. none of these
2. Iron alloyed with carbon up to 2% is called
a. pig iron b. wrought iron
c. high carbon steel d. none of these
3. The softest material in Mhos scale (for measuring hardness) is
a. talc b. gypsum
c. rubber d. none of these
4. Karbate is
a. a mixture of iron dust and saw dust
b. carbon impregnated with resin (usually bakelite)
c. acid resistant material
d. both (b) and (c).
5. Duralumin is an alloy of
a. aluminum, copper and manganese
b .aluminum, nickel and silicon
c. aluminum and nickel
d. none of these
6. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by the addition of
a. phosphorus and tungsten
b. nickel and chromium
c. lead and vanadium
d. molybdenum and tungsten
7. White metal is an alloy of
a. lead, tin and cadmium b. copper, tin and zinc
c. copper and lead d. none of these
8. Presence of cobalt in steel improve its
a. cutting ability b. corrosion resistance
c. tensile strength d. none of these
9. The impure iron (Pig iron) that is taped out from blast furnace contains
about
a. 0.2% carbon b. 2% carbon
c. 4% carbon d. 8% carbon
10. Carbon content in steel is
a. 0.1 2% b. 4 6%
c. 5- 10% d. 0
11. An ideal material of construction for the storage of 50% caustic soda
solution would be
a. Karbate b. high silica cast iron
c. monel d. none of these
12. For storing water and acid free benzol, use
a. steel vessel b. karbate vessel
c. stainless steel vessel d. none of these
13. Brine (15% concentration) can be stored in a vessel made of
a. monel b. karbate
c. cast iron d. none of these
14. Most suitable material of construction for the storage of concentrated
nitric acid is
a. cast iron
b. monel
c. karbate
d. aluminum or chromium alloys (Cr > 18% for cold acid).
15. Babbit metal (used for making bearings) comprises
a. mainly tin (85%) and lead
b. saw dust and iron dust mixture
c. zinc and aluminum
d. copper and aluminum
16. The material of construction of pressure mills used for squeezing out the
juice from sugar cane is
a. stainless steel b. cast iron
c. mild steel d. monel.
17. Chlorination of benzene is done to produce benzene hexachloride (a
pesticide) in a photochemical reactor lined with
a. karbate b. lead or glass
c. fire clay bricks d. PVC
18. Polymerization reactor used for the production of styrenebutadiene rubber
(SBR) is made of
a. vessel b. stainless steel or glass lined vessel
c. karbate d. wrought iron
19. Which of the following is the most suitable material of construction for
evaporator and its tubes for concentrating NaOH solution to 70%?
a. cast iron b. steel
c. nickel d. karbate
20. Most common stainless steel type 316, which it highly resistant to
corrosion contains
a. 16 13% chromium, 10 14% nickel and 2 3%
molybdenum
b. 20 22% chromium, and 8 10% nickel
c. 2 4% chromium, 22% nickel and 2 4% molybdenum
d. none of these
21. Caustic soda can be stored in
a. steel drums b. cast iron drums
c. brass drums d. gun metal drums
22. Brass is an alloy of
a. nickel and tin b. copper and zinc
c. tin and lead d. copper, nickel and zinc
23. The carbonating tower used in Solvay Process of soda ash manufacture is
made of
a. cast iron b. stainless steel
c. karbate d. lead lined steel
24. Gun metal is an alloy of
a. nickel, tin and copper
b. copper, tin and zinc
c. copper, phosphorus and nickel
d. manganese, phosphorus and nickel
25. Marcy ball mills are usually made of
a. steel b. cast iron
c. stainless steel d. bronze
26. Bronze is an alloy of
a. lead and copper b. copper and tin
c. nickel and copper d. copper and zinc
27. Rotary kilns in cement industry are lined with
a. fire clay b. silica
c. lead d. high alumina and high magnesia
bricks
28. In the Kraft (sulfate) process for the paper manufacture the digester is
made of
a. cast iron b. stainless steel
c. karbate carbon d. wrought iron
29. Dry chlorine can be handled in a vessel made of
a. iron or steel b. PVC
c. nickel d. brass
30. Tank furnace used for melting of glass is made of
a. mild steel b. cast iron
c. refractory blocks d. stainless steel
31. Stainless steel contains
a. chromium and nickelb. copper
c. aluminum d. vanadium
32. Caustic soda is reduced in a mercury cell having anode and cathode made
respectively of
a. moving mercury and graphite
b. graphite and moving mercury
c. moving mercury and carbon
d. moving mercury and crimped steel wire
33. Monel metal is an alloy of
a. molybdenum and nickel
b. nickel and copper
c. molybdenum and aluminum
d. molybdenum and zinc
34. German silver is an alloy of
a. copper, nickel and zinc
b. copper, aluminum and silver
c. silver, zinc and aluminum
d. silver, nickel and zinc
35. Chromel (Nichrome) is an alloy of
a. chromium and molybdenum
b. nickel and chromium
c. molybdenum and nickel
d. chromium and aluminum
36. Urea autoclave is made of
a. cast iron b. refractory blocks
c. stainless steel d. lead lined steel
37. Steel tower used for storage of oleum
a. is lined with lead b. need not be lined
c. is lined with rubber d. is lined with acid-proof bricks
38. Hydrochloric acid is stored in
a. lead lined steel vessel b. rubber-lined steel vessel
c. stainless steel vessel d. cast iron vessel
39. Photographic plates are coated in
a. silver nitrate b. silver halide
c. calcium silicate d. metallic silver
40. Aqueous nitric acid is stored in
a. steel drum
b. stainless steel vessel
c. cast iron vessel lined with acid-proof masonry brick
d. cast iron vessel
41. SO3 is absorbed using H2SO4 in
a. cast iron packed tower
b. stainless steel plate tower
c. packed steel tower lined with acid proof bricks
d. none of these
42. Hydrochloric acid absorber is made of
a. cast iron b. mild steel
c. karbate d. stainless steel
43. Sulfuric acid is mixed with ground phosphate rock (to produce phosphoric
acid) in a steel digester lined with
a. acidic refractory b. rubber
c. karbate d. lead or acid-proof bricks
44. Fill up the blanks from among the following alternatives:
Hydrochloric acid is _______ corrosive to common metals
a. least b. not
c. mildly d. highly
45. In SO3 absorber (Contact Process), packing material used is of
a. cast iron b. chemical stoneware
c. karbate d. mild steel
46. Valves in pipe sizes of 2 and under are normally made of
a. wrought iron b. brass
c. bronze d. monel
47. Acid proof stoneware
a. has very low strength
b. cannot be heated
c. is broken by small temperature changes
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
48. Duriron is
a. acid resistant, brittle and very hard
b. high silicon iron
c. prone to breakage due to thermal expansion because of very high co-
efficient of thermal expansion.
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
49. Lead pipe is
a. especially resistant to solutions containing H2SO4
b. usually joined by burning (e.g. by melting to adjacent pieces with a
torch)
c. having very low elastic limit resulting in permanent deformation from
either mechanical or thermal strain
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
50. The most resistant material to alkaline corrosion is
a. duriron b. nickel
c. aluminum d. karbate
51. Presence of nickel in steel improves its
a. corrosion resistance b. cutting ability
c. wear resistance d. all (a), (b) and (c)
52. An alloy of iron containing 4% carbon is called
a. high carbon steel b. wrought iron
c. mild steel d. none of these
53. Bell metal is an alloy of
a. copper and zinc b. copper and tin
c. copper and nickel d. zinc and tin
54. Inconel is an alloy of
a. tin, zinc and nickel b. iron, nickel and chromium
c. copper and nickel d. zinc and tin
55. Hastelloy comprises
a. copper and tin b. copper and nickel
c. molybdenum and nickel d. lead and tin
56. Ability of a material to absorb energy in deformation in the plastic range is
characterized as its
a. ductility b. toughness
c. creep d. resilience
57. Slow and progressive deformation of a material with time under constant
stress is called
a. creep b. erosion
c. resilience d. none of these
58. Wrought iron is
a. high carbon iron
b. highly resistance to acid corrosion
c .malleable and ductile; hence used for chain links, hooks and couplings
d. an alloy of iron, chromium and carbon
59. Which of the following constituents of cast iron is mainly responsible for
imparting it an anti-corrosive property?
a. silicon b. phosphorus
c. sulfur d. none of these
60. Mild steel is
a. a low carbon steel (0.05 0.3% carbon)
b. highly resistance to corrosion (as much as stainless steel)
c. a high carbon steel (0.5 1.5% carbon)
d. very poor in strength and ductility
61. Presence of manganese in alloy steel improves its
a. corrosion resistance
b. cutting ability
c. abrasion resistance and toughness
d. elasticity and creep resistance
62. H2SO4 (<50% concentration) is corrosive to
a. aluminum, mild steel, stainless steel, concrete and tin
b. copper, cast iron and high silicon iron (14% Si)
c. rubber (butyl and hard) silicon rubber and teflon
d. glass, graphite, porcelain and stoneware
63. Aluminum storage vessel can be used to store
a. aqua regia b. ferrous sulfate
c. hydrochloric acid (10%) d. none of these
64. Brass container is suitable for storing
a. aqueous ammonia b. beer
c. H2SO4 (95% concentration) d. phosphoric acid (95%)
65. Cast iron vessels are not suitable for the storage of
a. Freon b. H2SO4 (95%) at room temperature
c. H2SO4 (fuming) d. Wet SO2
66. Out of the following, copper vessels are most suitable for the storage of
a. bromine
b. dry chlorine and dry fluorine
c. nitric acid (95% and fuming)
d. phosphoric acid (95%) and sulfuric acid (95% and fuming)
67. Gun metal and bronze are not corroded by the action of
a. wet chlorine b. synthetic detergent
solution
c. hydrochloric acid (10%) d. nitric acid (<25%)
68. Containers made of high silicon cast iron (14% Si) are not suitable for the
storage of
a. acetic acid
b. benzoic and boric acids
c. phosphoric acid (95%) and sulfuric acid (95%)
d. hydrochloric acid (concentrated)
69. Lead lined equipments and vessels are suitable for handling
a. hydrochloric acid (10%) b. nitric acid
c. sulfuric acid up to 60C d. all (a), (b) and (c)
70. Mild steel storage vessels are suitable for the storage of
a. anhydrous ammonia b. fatty acids
c. hydrochloric acid (95%) d. sulfuric acid (25%)
71. Nickel made clad equipments are suitable for handling
a. ammonia (both aqueous and anhydrous)
b. fruit juices, milk and its products and caustic soda solution
c. nitric acid and hydrochloric acid (concentrated)
d. sulfuric acid (concentrated)
72. Platinum and silver are corroded by
a. caustic soda solution b. phosphoric acid
c. sulfuric acid (10%) d. none of these
73. 18-8 stainless steel means that it contains
a. 18% chromium and 8% nickel
b. 18% chromium and 8% molybdenum
c. 18% nickel and 8% chromium
d. 18% molybdenum and 8% chromium
74. Stainless steel is not corroded by
a. hydrochloric acid (10%) b. nitric acid (10%)
c. sulfuric acid (10%) d. saturated brine
75. Tin vessels are corroded by
a. anhydrous ammonia b. aromatic solvents
c. synthetic detergent solution d. none of these
76. Rubber lined vessels are corroded by the action of
a. aqua regia b. chloroform
c. sulfuric acid (95%) d. all (a), (b) and (c)
77. Silicon rubber is not resistant to the corrosive action of
a. sulfuric acid (10%) b. sulfuric acid (95%)
c. ether d. both (b) and (c)
78. Perspex is nothing but
a. acrylic sheet b. an elastomer
c. an alloy of lead and tin d. aluminum foil clad with bakelite
79. Teflon is corroded by
a. hydrochloric acid (10%) b. hydrochloric acid (95%)
c. sulfuric acid d. none of these
80. Polythene (low or high density) containers are not corroded by
a. sulfuric acid (10%) at room temperature
b. nitric acid (95%) at room temperature
c. sulfur trioxide at 60C
d. any of these
81. The most commonly used resin for making reinforced plastic is
a. unsaturated polyester b. polyproplylene
c. polyurethane d. nylon 6
82. Carbon tetrachloride can be stored in a storage vessel made of
a. high silicon iron (14%) b. tin
c. stainless steel d. all (a), (b) and (c)
83. Concrete tank can be used to store
a. alum b. sulfuric acid
c. sulfuric acid d. saturated brine
84. Glass is corroded by
a. fluorine (dry or wet) b. sulfuric water
c. phosphoric acid d. none these
85. Graphite is corroded by
a. sulfuric acid (10%) b. sea Water
b. hydrochloric acid d. none of these
86. Wood is corroded by
a. hydrochloric acid b. SO2 (dry or wet)
c. chlorine (dry or wet) d. all (a), (b) and (c)
87. The 'bomb' in the bomb calorimeter is made of
a. molybdenum stainless steel b. mild steel
c. high silicon iron (14% Si) d. copper
88. Most suitable material for high pressure vessel operating at 500 atm and
500C is
a. molybdenum stainless steel b. 18-8 stainless steel
c. mild steel d. high silicon iron (14% Si)
89. Centrifugal pump made of pyrex or glass can't be used to pump
a. mild and fruit juices b. alkaline solutions
c. dilute H2SO4 at room temperature d. brine
90. Rubber lined pumps can be used to pump
a. caustic soda b. chlorinated brine
c. hypochlorous acid d. all (a), (b) and (c)
91. Copper is dissolved from its ore by H2SO4 in percolation tanks made of
a. wood b. stainless steel
c. reinforced concrete lined with lead d. high silicon iron (14% Si)
92. Rotary dryers are generally made of
a. cast iron b. mild steel
c. high silicon iron (14% Si) d. tin lined with refractory bricks
93. Kel-F is
a. nothing but polycholorotrifluroethylene
b. having excellent chemical and high temperature resistance (up to
200C)
c. an elastomer
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
94. Zircaloy used as a fuel cladding material in a nuclear reactor (thermal) is an
alloy of zirconium
a. tin, nickel, iron and chromium b. and graphite
c. and copper d. none of these
95. Which of the following would not be a suitable material of construction for
handling aqueous
hydrofluoric acid (HF) at 100C?
a. none b. stainless steel
c. graphite d. Kel-F and Teflon
96. Specify the materials of construction suitable for handling concentrated
HNO3 at 100C.
a. high silicon iron, Kel-F and Teflon b. silicon rubber
c. tin and wood d. stainless steel
97. Concentrated HCl at 30C can be stored in a vessel made of
a. PTFE and porcelain
b. cast iron and aluminum
c. stainless steel and high silicon cast iron
d. copper, nickel and monel
98. Which of the following material of construction may be recommended by a
chemical engineer
for handling a gaseous chlorine (dry or wet) stream in a fluid flow system?
a. High silicon iron, silicone rubber, Kel-F and teflon
b. Mild steel and stainless steel
c. Cast iron, tin and aluminum
d. Copper, nickel and monel
99. Which of the following materials may prove unsuitable for handling acetic
(glacial and
anhydrous) at 40C?
a. silicone rubber, teflon, porcelain and wood
b. nickel, monel, stainless steel and graphite
c. aluminum, copper, high silicon iron
d. brass, cast iron, mild steel and tin
100. 100% H2SO4 at 30C can't be used and stored in a vessel made/ lined with
a. cast iron and high silicon iron b. mild steel and stainless steel
c. aluminum, tin and rubber d. teflon, glass and porcelain
ENGINEERING ECONOMY
1. The following cost item which in common both the fixed and operating cost of
an enterprise is:
a. interest b. depreciation
c. taxes d. supplies
2. The length of time, usually in years for the cumulative net annual profit to
equal the investment is called:
a. receivable turnover b. return of investment
c. price earning ratio d. payback period
3. The reduction in value and marketability due to competition from newest
products / model
a. depreciated cost b. fixed cost
c. indirect cost d. obsolescence
4. Form of summary of assets, liabilities and net worth
a. production b. break even point
c. balance method d. balance sheet
5. The worth of property which is equal to the original cost less depreciation.
a. earning value b. scrap value
c. book value d. face value
6. The type of interest that is periodically added to the amount of loan so that
subsequent interest is based on the cumulative amount.
a. compound interest b. simple interest
c. interest rate d. sinking fund
7. Output or sales at which income is insufficient to equal operating cost
a. break even point b. investment
c. depreciation d. cash flow
8. The price at which a given product will be supplied and purchased is the price
that will result in the supply and the demand being equal.
a. law of demand and supply b. law of diminishing returns
c. present worth method d. obsolescence
9. An estimate of an assets' net market value at the end of its estimated life.
a. break even point b. cash flow
c. interest d. book value
10. An estimate of an assets' net market value at the end if its estimated life.
a. book value c. salvage value
c. depreciation d. cash flow
11. A lessening of the value of an asset due to a decrease in the quantity
available as a coal, oil and timber in forests.
a. depletion b. depreciation
c. amortization d. investment
12. A certificate of indebtedness of a corporation usually for a period of net loss
that ten years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of the
corporation or its subsidiaries.
a. appraisal b. bond
c. written contract d. equity capital
13. Funds supplied and used by owners of an enterprise in the expectation that
profit will be earned.
a. equity capital b. investment
c. working capital d. present
14. Funds supplied by others on which a fixed rate of interest must be paid and
the debt be repaid at a specific place and time
a. discount b. cash flow
c. working capital d. borrowed capital
15. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price
at a given place and time
a. supply b. demand
c. discount d. investment
16. The quantity of a certain commodity that is bought at a certain price at a
given place and time.
a. supply b. demand
c. discount d. investment
17. A condition where only few individuals produce a certain product that action
of one will lead to almost the same action by the other.
a. monopoly b. oligopoly
c. semi monopoly d. perfect competition
18. Is the simplest form of business organization
a. sole proprietorship b. enterprise
c. partnership d. corporation
19. An association of two or more persons for a purpose of engaging in a
profitable business
a. sole proprietorship b. enterprise
c. partnership d. corporation
20. A distinct legal entity which can practically transact any business transaction
which a real person could do.
a. sole proprietorship b. enterprise
c. partnership d. corporation
21. An increase in the value of capital asset is called
a. profit b. capital gain
c. capital expenditure d. capital stock
22. The reduction in the money value of a capital asset is called
a. capital expenditure b. capital loss
c. loss d. deficit
23. The difference between sales revenue and the cost of goods sold
a. net income b. gross profit
c. rate of return d. gross national product
24. A currency traded in a foreign exchange market for which the demand is
consistently high in relation to its supply
a. money market b. hard currency
c. treasury bill d. certificate of deposit
25. Defined as the certificate of indebtedness of a corporation usually for a period
not less than 10 years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of a
corporation
a. bonds b. T-bills
c. stock d. all of these
26. It is a negotiable claim issued by a bank in lieu of a term deposit
a. time deposit b. bond
c. capital gain d. certificate of deposit
27. The amount of a company's profit that the board of directors of the
corporation decides to distribute to ordinary shareholders
a. dividend b. return
c. share stock d. par value
28. a document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security
a. bond b. bank note
c. coupon d. check
29. The process determining the value of certain properties for definite reasons
a. valuation b. appraisal
c. estimate d. both a and b
30. Represent ownership and enjoys certain preferences than ordinary stock
a. authorized capital stock b. preferred stock
c. common stock d. incorporators stock
31. It is the difference between present worth and the worth of the paper at
some time in the future
a. discount b. amortization
c. depletion d. investment
32. The value which is usually determined by the disinterested third party in
order to establish a price that is fair to both seller and buyer.
a. fair value b. market value
c. salvage value d. book value
33. The price that can be obtained from the sale of property or second hand
a. book value b. salvage value
c. fair value d. market value
34. The process of determining the value of certain property for specific reasons
a. amortization b. appraisal
c. investment d. depreciation
35. A bond whereby the security behind it are the equipments of the issuing
corporation
a. debenture bond b. lien bond
c. collateral bond d. mortgage bond
36. An annuity where the payment period extends forever or in which the
periodic payment continue indefinitely.
a. ordinary annuity b. deferred annuity
c. annuity due d. perpetuity
37. It is the span of life of an equipment during which it produces the product it
is designed to produce at a profit
a. write off period b. physical life
c. economic life d. perpetual life
38. It is a depreciation method whereby the decrease in value of the unit is
constant each year
a. Matheson formula b. Straight line method
c. SYD method d. Sinking fund method
39. It is a distinct legal entity separate from the individual who own it and which
can engage in practically any business transaction which a real person can
do.
a. sole proprietorship b. partnership
c. corporation d. all of the above
40. These are costs which remain relatively constant regardless of any change in
operation or policy which is made.
a. fixed cost b. increment cost
c. variable cost d. differential cost
41. The length of time at which the original cost of capital used to purchase a
unit have already been recovered.
a. economic life b. write off period
c. physical life d. salvage life
42. The actual interest earned by a given principal is known as:
a. compound interest b. nominal interest
c. simple interest d. effective interest
43. The exclusive right of a company to provide a specific product / services in a
given region of the country.
a. franchise b. branch
c. extension d. outlet
44. It occurs when a commodity or service is supplied by a number of vendors
and there is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market
a. free market b. perfect competition
c. open market d. law of supply and demand
45. In making economy studies, a minimum required profit on the invested
capital is included as a cost.
a. rate of return b. annual cost pattern
c. present worth pattern d. capital cost
46. Depreciation method where the value of an asset decreases at a decreasing
rate.
a. SYD method b. sinking fund
c. straight line method d. declining balance
47. Cost of things that are neither labor nor materials
a. construction cost b. expenses
c. labor cost d. investment
48. Kind of obligation which has no condition attached
a. analytic b. gratuitous
c. private d. pure
49. Gross, profit, sales less cost of goods sold as a percentage of sale is called
a. profit margin b. gross margin
c. ROI (rate of return) d. price earnings
50. The series of equal payments at equal intervals of time
a. interest b. depreciation
c. annuity d. amortization
51. A legally binding agreement on promise to exchange goods or services
a. contract b. barter
c. memorandum d. pro-forma
52. An index of short term paying ability is called
a. current ratio b. receivable turnover
c. acid test ratio d. profit margin ratio
53. Used to produce consumer goods
a. producer goods b. supply
c. consumer goods d. cash flow
54. It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time where the
first payment is made several periods after the beginning of the payment
a. deferred annuity b. delayed annuity
c. progressive annuity d. simple annuity
55. A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there are no
goods substitute
a. monopoly b. monopsony
c. oligopoly d. oligopsony
56. The amount of a property in which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller
for the property when neither one is under the compulsion to buy or sell
a. fair value b. goodwill value
c. book value d. market value
57. A type of annuity where the payments are made at the start of each period,
beginning from the first period
a. ordinary annuity b. annuity due
c. deferred annuity d. perpetuity
58. A method of computing depreciation in which the annual charge is a fixed
percentage of the depreciated book value at the beginning of the year to
which the depreciation applies
a. straight line b. sinking fund method
c. SYD method d. declining balance method
59. The cumulative effect of elapsed time on the money value of an event based
on the earning power of equivalent invested funds capital should or will earn
a. present worth factor b. interest rate
c. time value of money d. yield
60. Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization?
a. sole proprietorship b. partnership
c. corporation d. enterprise
61. The function of interest rate and time that determines the cumulative amount
of a sinking fund resulting from specific periodic deposits
a. sinking fund factor b. present worth factor
c. capacity factor d. demand factor
62. The intangible item of value from the exclusive right of the company to
provide a specific product or service in a stated region of the country
a. market value b. book value
c. goodwill value d. franchise value
63. The length of time during which it is capable of performing the function for
which it was designed and manufactured.
a. economic life b. business life
c. insular life d. physical life
64. Products that are directly used by people to satisfy their wants.
a. supply b. consumer goods
c. producer goods d. cash flows
65. A change in cost for a small change in volume of production.
a. fixed cost b. sunk cost
c. first cost d. differential cost
66. An amount which has been spent and for some reasons cannot be recovered.
a. sunk cost b. first cost
c. increment d. fixed cost
67. The difference between the book value and the actual lower resale value is
a. salvage value b. resale value
c. sunk cost d. fixed cost
68. It occurs when a unique product or service is available only from a single
supplier and entry of all other possible suppliers presented.
a. competition b. monopoly
c. inventory d. profitability
69. A place where buyer and seller come together
a. market b. shop
c. department store d. parlor
70. Ratio of annual net profit and the capital invested
a. proportion b. rate of return
c. load factor d. use factor
71. The price of which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for a commodity
a. resale value b. market value
c. book value d. scrap value
72. The price of property when sold for a junk
a. scrap value b. book value
c. resale value d. market value
73. An interest earning fund in which equal deposits are made at equal intervals
of time
a. annuity b. sinking fund
c. interest d. investment
74. A term describing wealth which is placed in a business and could include cash
equipment, raw materials and finished products
a. capital b. investment
c. collateral d. assets
75. The first cost of any property includes
a. the original purchase price and freight and transportation charges
b. installation expenses
c. initial taxes and permits' fee
d. all of the above
ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY
1. The hydrogen or deuterium discharge tube can be used as a source of continuous ultraviolet
radiation for spectrophotometers because of
a. the characteristics of chopper-modulated radiation
b. pressure broadening of hydrogen or deuterium emission lines
c. the great sensitivity of photomultiplier tube
d. the narrow band pass of modern grating of monochromators
2. Chopping the source beam in conjunction with the use of a tuned ac amplifier in an atomic
absorption spectrophotometer accomplishes the following
a. a recording potentiometer can be used instead of a voltmeter for the readout
b. a less sensitive detector can be used instead of the usual photomultiplier tube
c. a cooler can be used without decreasing the population of ground-state atoms
d. radiation emitted by excited atoms in the flame will not interfere with the absorbance
measurement
3. Line spectra are emitted by
a. hot solids
b. excited polyatomic molecules
c. molecules in the ground electronic state
d. excited atoms and monatomic ions
4. Recording spectrophotometers sometimes operate with feedback loops that vary the power of
the reference beam until it matches the power of the beam through the sample. This mode of
operation
a. eliminates the need for a continuous source
b. requires two monochromators
c. eliminates the need for nonabsorbing solvents
d. makes the detector a null device, with the result that nonlinear response to radiant
power would not be deleterious
5. Which of the following best explains why atomic absorption is sometimes more sensitive than
flame emission spectroscopy?
a. At the temperature of a typical flame, the population of ground-state atoms is much
greater than the population of excited atoms.
b. Detectors employed in absorption work are inherently more sensitive than those used to
measure emission.
c. Hollow cathode discharge tubes have a much greater radiant power output than do
ordinary flames .
d. An absorption line in a flame is always much sharper than an emission line because of the
Doppler effect.
6. The method of standard addition compensates for matrix effects provided
a. the addition does not dilute the sample appreciably and does not itself introduce
appreciable quantities or interfering substances
b. the addition dilutes the sample enough that the concentrations of interfering substances
are lowered to negligible values
c. the addition contains none of the substance being determined
d. the addition contains a large enough quantity of some substance to swamp out sample
variations
7. Fe and Cu2+ form complexes with EDTA. The ferric complex is colorless , as is Fe 3+ itself, at
3+
the concentration involved here: the copper complex is a deep blue color (deeper than the
color of Cu2+ itself), while EDTA is colorless. The photometric titration curve below was
obtained when a solution containing both Fe3+ and Cu2+ was titrated with EDTA using a
spectrophotometer set at a wavelength of 745 nm in the visible region of the spectrum.
A
B
A
ml of EDTA solution
a. A is the iron end point.
b. B is the iron end point
c. The distance from A to B on the milliliter axis represents the quantity of iron
d. The quantity of iron could not be calculated from a graph like this unless the quantity of
copper in the solution was known ahead of time
8. In chromatography, a substance for which the distribution of the coefficient, K, is zero may be
used to estimate
a. the volume within the column occupied by the packing materials
b. the total volume of the column
c. the volume within the pores of the packing material
d. the volume within the column available to the mobile phase
9. The purpose of the solid support material in a GLC column is to
a. immobilize the stationary liquid phase
b. adsorb sample components that are insufficiently soluble in the stationary liquid phase
c. provide a "backup" stationary phase in the event that the liquid is lost by evaporation
d. remove impurities from the carrier gas
10. Helium, rather than nitrogen, is sometimes used as the carrier gas in GLC because
a. being lighter than nitrogen, helium elutes the sample components more rapidly
b. helium is less expensive than nitrogen
c. nitrogen has stable isotopes which separate and cause anomalous column behavior
d. of its much higher thermal conductivity
11. An important feature of open-tubular GLC column is
a. they can accept much larger samples than can packed column because of their great
length
b. solute partitioning between stationary and mobile phases is very rapid and the C
term in the Van Deemter equation is relatively small
c. they permit the use of a wider variety of carrier gases
d. they can be operated at temperatures closer to the boiling point of the stationary liquid
phase than can packed columns and thus handle less volatile examples
12. Raising the column temperature in GLC decreases solute retention times primarily because
a. solute diffusion coefficients in the liquid phase decrease with increasing temperature
b. van der Waals interactions between solutes and stationary phase are stronger at higher
temperatures
c. gases are generally less soluble in liquids at higher temperatures
d. detector sensitivity is a function of temperature, especially with a thermal conductivity cell
13. Which of the following would have practically no effect upon the retention volume of a solute in
GLC?
a. changing the carrier-gas flow-rate
b. increasing the stationary liquid loading of the column packing from 5 to 10% by weight
c. increasing the column temperature
d. changing the chemical nature of the stationary liquid
14. The separation factor, S, in chromatography depends upon
a. the length of the column
b. the square root of the length of the column
c. the nature of the stationary liquid phase
d. the number of theoretical plates in the column
15. In GLC, interaction of solutes with the solid support will often cause
a. unusually narrow elution bands
b. asymmetric elution band
c. excessive eddy diffusion
d. decreased detector sensitivity
16. Increasing the quantity of stationary liquid phase applied to the column packing will, with
everything else the same,
a. increase tR for a solute
b. decrease tR for a solute
c. not influence tR for a solute
d. decrease the nonequilibrium term in the van Deemer equation
17. A neutral molecule such as ethanol or sugar which has found its way into the pores of a typical
anion-exchange resin can be eliminated
a. only by replacement with a cation
b. only by replacement with an anion
c. only if replaced by another organic molecule on a one-for-one exchange basis
d. by flushing out the water
18. In chromatography, a substance for which the distribution coefficient, K, is zero may be used to
estimate
a. the volume within the column available to the moving phase
b. the volume within the column occupied by the packing
c. the volume within the pores of the packing material
d. the total volume of the column
19. Which of the following statements is false in normal phase absorption?
a. The more polar a compound, the more strongly it will be adsorbed from a solution
b. A high molecular weight favors adsorption, other factors being equal
c. The more polar the solvent, the stronger the adsorption of the solute
d. The adsorption isotherm is usually nonlinear
20. The best measure of the quantity of a solute in LC is
a. the height of the elution band
b. the area of the elution band
c. the baseline width of the elution band
d. the retention volume
21. Which of the following would be the fastest way to decide which adsorbent and what solvent
system to use for a larger-scale chromatographic separation of an organic reaction product
from materials formed in side reactions?
a. Paper chromatography
b. Affinity chromatography
c. TLC
d. Adsorption chromatography with gradient elution
22. To deionize tap water by ion exchange for laboratory use, the best approach employs
a. a column containing a strong-acid cation exchange in the hydrogen form
b. a column containing a strong-base anion exchanger in the hydroxyl form
c. a mixed-bed column containing a strong-acid cation exchanger in the sodium form and a
strong-base anion exchanger in the chloride form
d. a mixed-bed column containing a strong-acid cation exchanger in the hydrogen
form and a strong-base anion exchanger in the hydroxyl form
23. Line spectra are emitted by
a. incandescent solids
b. excited molecules
c. molecules in the ground electronic state
d. excited atoms and monatomic ions
24. Band spectra are emitted by
a. tungsten lamps and Nernst glowers
b. excited molecules in the vapor phase
c. excited atoms and monatomic ions
d. incandescent solids
25. A chemical engineer is conducting research on the development of analytical methods based
upon chemiluminescence. If a conventional spectrofluorometer is used for the measurements,
an the instrument has separate switches for its various circuits, which switch will be left in the
"off" position?
a. detector power supply
b. amplifier
c. source power supply
d. power to the motor drive of the scanning monochromator on the emission side of the
instrument
26. In flame spectroscopy, the highest temperature fuel oxidant combination available as yet is
a. hydrogen-oxygen
b. hydrogen-nitrous oxide
c. acetylene-oxygen
d. acetylene-nitrous oxide
27. If the change in a molecule caused by absorption of light energy involves change in the
average separation of the nuclei of two or more atoms, then the change is
a. electronic
b. vibrational
c. translational
d. rotational
28. The nephelometric method of analysis is based upon
a. Beer's law
b. Fajar's law
c. Bouger law's
d. Beer Lambert's Law
29. IR spectro-photometers have practically the same basic components as visible and UV
spectro-photometers. In which of the following basic components could the devices be used
interchangeable in both:
a. sources of radiant energy
b. optical system
c. sample holders
d. detectors
30. Which of the following may not be used in the determination of sugars?
a. TLC chromatography
b. Polarimetry
c. Copper reduction methods
d. Lane and Eynon methods
31. Which is not the recommended device for a filter photometry?
a. hydrogen arc lamp
b. glass filter
c. barrier layer photocell
d. none of these
32. This law states that the amount of light absorbed or transmitted by a solution is an
experimental function of the concentration of absorbing substance present and the sample
path length
a. Bouger's Law
b. Beer's Law
c. Lambert's Law
d. Bouger-Beer Law
33. Deviation's from Beer's Law may be due to
a. instrumental
b. intermolecular reactions
c. formation of complexions with varying number of ligonds
d. all of these
34. IR spectrophotometers have the same basic components as UV spectrophotometers, except:
a. source of radiant energy and the kind of detectors
b. materials used in the optical system
c. materials used in the sample cells
d. all of these
35. Which of the following involves emission of radiation by excited atoms:
a. Ultra-violet spectrophotometry
b. Infra-red spectrophotometry
c. Atomic absorption spectrometry
d. Nephelopmetry
36. The absorption of a solution of a particular substance does not depend on the :
a. wavelength of the incident light
b. intensity of the incident light
c. concentration of the substance
d. thickness of the sample cell
37. If we compare flame spectrophotometry and emission spectroscopy, which of the following
statements will be true?
a. Flame photometry is more senstive than emission spectroscopy
b. Flame photometry can analyze more metals than emission spectroscopy
c. Flame photometry is less sensitive to the matrix than emission spectroscopy
d. Flame photometry is simpler to use than emission spectroscopy
38. Atomic absorption spectrophotometry (AAS) differs from visible absorption spectrophotometry
because AAS
a. has no light source
b. does not need a monochromator
c. does not follow Beer's Law
d. destroys the sample when a reading is made
39. Gas chromatography does not use this detector
a. thermal conductivity detector
b. refractive index detector
c. flame ionization detector
d. electron capture detector
40. In gas chromatography, the retention time is not dependent on
a. carrier gas velocity
b. column temperature
c. volume of compound analyzed
d. volatility of compound analyzed
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
31. The phenomenon in which a steel needle can, with proper care, be made to
float on the surface of some water illustrates a property of liquid known as:
a. compressibility b. polarizability c. surface tension
d. triple point e. viscosity
32. The property of liquid that measures its resistance to flow is called:
a. capillarity b. polarizability c. resistivity d. viscosity
e. wetability
33. A liquid will wet a surface if:
a. the liquid has a lesser density than the surface
b. the forces between the liquid molecules are weak
c. the liquid has a low vapor pressure
d. the forces between the molecules and the surface are greater
than the forces between the molecules of the liquid
e. none of these answers
34. Which of the following statements concerning molecules in the liquid state is
true?
a. Cohesive forces are not important
b. The molecules contract to fit the size of the container
c. The molecules have no motion
d. The molecules in a patterned (oriented) arrangement
e. The molecules are mobile and relatively close together
35. The temperature ate which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the external
pressure is called the :
a. boiling point b. critical point c. melting point
d. sublimation point e. thermal point
36. Liquid and vapor phases of a substance become indistinguishable at the:
a. triple point b. normal point c. permanent point
d. critical point e. absolute point
37. When a liquid is in dynamic equilibrium with its vapor at a given temperature,
the following conditions could exist:
(I) There is no transfer of molecules between liquid and vapor
(II) The vapor pressure has a unique value
(III) The opposing processes, (liquid to vapor) and (vapor to liquid),
proceed at equal rates
(IV) The concentration of vapor is dependent on time
Which of the above choices are applicable?
a. I b. II and III c. I, II, and III
d. II and IV e. none of these combination
38. Which of the following does NOT describe the critical point of a liquid?
a. The temperature and pressure at which a liquids meniscus disappears
b. The point where the vapor pressure curve intersects the fusion
temperature
c. The highest temperature at which a liquid can exist
d. The temperature and pressure at which a liquid and its vapor are identical
e. The highest temperature at which it is possible to obtain a liquid form its
vapor by increasing pressure
39. A container holds a small amount of liquid and its vapor in equilibrium If the
volume of the container is decreased, which of the following has occurred
once equilibrium is reestablished?
a. the temperature is lower b. the temperature is higher
c. the pressure is higher
d. the pressure is lower e. none of these
40. When the vapor pressure of a liquid equals atmospheric pressure, the
temperature of the liquid equals:
a. 100C b. boiling point c. the normal boiling point
d. the vaporization point e. none of these
41. When a liquid is in equilibrium with its vapor in a closed container:
a. The rate at which molecules from the liquid phase enter the gas
phase exactly equals the rate at which molecules from the gas
phase pass into the liquid phase
b. A change in temperature will not change the pressure in the container
c. The amount of gas in the container must exactly equal the amount of
liquid
d. Molecules cannot go from the liquid phase to the gas phase because the
amount of liquid in the container is constant
e. The vapor will gradually change back to the liquid state, that is, no vapor
will be left
42. Under which of the following conditions will vaporization best occur?
a. high mass, large surface area, high kinetic energy
b. weak forces between molecules, high kinetic energy, large
surface area
c. high molecular energy, small surface area
d. low kinetic energy, strong molecular forces, large surface area
e. small surface area, low kinetic energy, low molecular mass
43. Which of the following does NOT decrease rate of vaporization?
a. closing container lid b. increasing forces between molecules
c. increasing mass of molecule
d. decreasing temperature e. decreasing surface area
44. Which of the following factors does NOT affect the normal boiling point of a
liquid?
a. atmospheric pressure b. strength of forces between molecules
c. rate of evaporation
d. rate of condensation e. none of these answers
45. A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapor. If some of the vapor is allowed to
escape, what is the immediate result?
a. condensation rate decreases b. vaporization rate increases
c. condensation rate increases
d. vaporization rate decreases e. none of these
46. The phenomenon of supercooling refers to the existence of a metastable:
a. the liquid at a temperature below that of its critical point
b. liquid at a temperature below that of its sublimation point
c. liquid at a temperature below that of its freezing point
d. gas at a temperature below that of its critical point
e. two-phase liquid/solid mixture at the freezing point
47. All of the following are true about crystals EXCEPT
a. A crystal softens and melts over a wide range of temperature
b. A crystal tends to shatter along defined planes
c. Crystals generally have a specific shape for a specific substance
d. Crystal usually have a high degree of symmetry
48. All of the following are logical consequences of the observed macroscopic
properties of crystals EXCEPT
a. The atoms or molecules of a crystal are arranged in a regularly repeating
pattern
b. The forces holding the atoms in a metal crystal are the same for
essentially every atom except at the surface
c. The distances between adjacent atoms or molecules vary greatly
d. Some defects are present in the crystals
49. Which of the following has the largest number of lattice points per unit cell?
a. The primitive (simple) cubic lattice
b. The face centered cubic lattice
c. The body centered cubic lattice
d. All these lattices have the same number of lattice points per unit cell
50. All of the following are true about lattice points in a crystal structure EXCEPT
a. The first lattice point can be placed at any location
b. All lattice points have identical environments
c. The corners of unit cells are located at lattice points
d. Atoms are always located on lattice points
51. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT
a. The face-centered cubic lattice is identical to the cubic closest packed
lattice
b. The body-centered cubic lattice is identical to the hexagonal
closest packed lattice
c. The cubic closest packed and hexagonal closest packed structures have
identical fractions of space which are occupied by atoms
d. The density of a metal sample is independent of the size of the sample
considered
52. Which of the following represents the minimal amount of date necessary to
determine the atomic mass of a metal?
a. Avogadros number and the density of the metal
b. Avogadros number, the density of the metal and the length of the unit
cell edge
c. Avogadros number, the density of the metal, the length of the
unit cell edge and the type of lattice
d. Avogadros number, the density of the metal, the length of the unit cell
edge, the type of lattice and the atomic radius of the metal
53. Which of the following is assumed when calculating atomic radii of metals
form crystallographic data?
a. The atoms are soft spheres that are deformed in the structure
b. The atoms are almost perfect cubes
c. The atoms are of different sizes and the value calculated for the radius is
an average
d. The atoms in the structure are touching
54. What is the usual relationship between the number of valence electrons and
the number of nearest neighbors of a metal atom in a solid metal?
a. The number of valence electrons is less than the number nearest
neighbors
b. The number of valence electrons is greater than the number of nearest
neighbors
c. The number of valence electrons is equal to the number of nearest
neighbors
d. The number of valence electrons can be less than, greater than, or equal
to the number of nearest neighbors
55. All of the following are consequences of the theory of the structure of metals
EXCEPT
a. Metals conduct electricity b. Metals are malleable c. Metals are ductile
d. Metals break easily when they are bent
56. Which of the following is the reason that metals conduct electricity?
a. The metal atoms are close together
b. There are no empty spaces in metal structures
c. Electrons in the structure can move freely
d. Electrons and protons in the structure can move freely
57. Which of the following is the reason why salt stay bonded in the solid state?
a. There are strong covalent bonds between the ions
b. The structure consists of salt molecules tat bind tightly to other salt
molecules
c. They are held together by electrostatic attractions and the structure
includes no electrostatic repulsions
d. There are both electrostatic attractions and repulsions within the
structure but the total of the attractions is greater
58. All of the following are possible crystal defects EXCEPT
a. An atom or ion out of its regular position and occupying a normally empty
hole
b. A crystal in which he only defect is one pair of ions of the same
charge which are missing
c. An electron occupying a site that is normally occupied by a 1 anion
d. A crystal containing some ion sites empty and some ions not bearing the
expected charge
59. Which of the following is the most important explanation for the conductivity
of metals?
a. they are almost all solids b. their coordination numbers are high
c. Their numbers of valence electrons are high d. Their densities are high
60. Which of the following pairs is isoelectronic?
a. AIS and P b. GeAs and Se c. GeAs and GaSe
d. Al and SiP
61. Which of the following is always the same for allotropes of the same
element?
a. The atomic mass b. the molar mass c. the structure d. the
chemical and physical properties
62. The semiconductor crystalline Si has a low electrical conductivity in the dark
because
a. crystalline Si is a molecular solid
b. the band gap energy is much greater than 3RT at 23C
c. the chemical bonding in the crystal is strong in all three dimensions
d. Si has fewer valence electrons that elements that form metallic solids
63. A laser pointer of a doped semiconductor junction (i.e., a region of A1 doped
semiconductor bonded to a region of P doped semiconductor) with a flowing
current due to an applied voltage from a battery. Which of the following
statements is TRUE?
a. The color of the light is determined by the semiconductor band gap
b. The device works better warm rather than cold because the number of
thermally generated electrons is higher
c. Light is emitted at the interface when a hole from the A1 region combines
with an electron from the P region
d. Both (a) and (c)
64. In order to dope crystalline Si with extra electrons, which element should be
incorporated into the lattice?
a. P b. A1 c. C d. O
65. All of the following statements about NaCl crystalline lattice are true, EXCEPT
a. Every Cl is surrounded by 4 Na at equal bond lengths, and vice
versa
b. The structure along the x,y and z axes of the unit cell is all the same
c. If the length of one side of the unit cell and the atomic weights of Na and
Cl are known, then the density can be calculated
d. The unit cell is cubic even though the Na and Cl ions have different ionin
radii
66. All of the following statements about the different forms of solid C are true,
EXCEPT
a. Diamond is transparent and shows no color because its band gap
is quite large
b. Graphite slides easily because the C atoms are strongly bonded in only
two dimensions
c. In diamond the structure around each C atom is due to C sp3 hybridization
d. Diamond is hard yet brittle because the band gap is large
67. Solids with long-range microscopic order in their structures are called
a. amorphous b. crystalline c. glasses d. metals
e. none of these
68. A specimen is subjected to x-ray diffraction. The resulting diffraction pattern
contains many sharply defined spots. The specimen is
a. gaseous b. crystalline c. amorphous
d. plastic e. liquid
69. A specimen is subjected to x-ray diffraction. The resulting diffraction pattern
contains three diffuse rings close to primary x-ray beam. The specimen is
a. gaseous b. crystalline c. amorphous
d. polycrystalline e. colloidal
70. The colors in the gemstone opal result from
a. the diffraction of visible light by colloidal crystals in the stone
b. absorption by transition metal complexes
c. contamination by large organic molecules which absorb light in the visible
region
d. radioactivity
e. none of these
71. Which of the following symmetry elements can be found in an equilateral
triangle?
a. a 2-fold rotation b. a 3-fold rotation c. as mirror line or plane
d. all of these e. none of these
72. About half of all the crystals studied so far belong to the ______ crystal
system
a. hexagonal b. orthorhombic c. cubic
d. triclinic e. monoclinic
73. The crystal system with the minimum symmetry requirement of one 4-fold
rotation is
a. orthorhombic b. cubic c. tetragonal
d. triclinic e. trigonal
74. Crystalline substances are ________. Amorphous substances are ________.
a. isotropic, isotropic b. anisotropic, anisotropic
c. isotropic, anisotropic d. anisotropic, isotropic
75. The three-dimensional array made up of all points within a crystal that have
the same environment in the same orientation is called the
a. unit cell b. primitive cell c. crystal system
d. crystal lattice e. symmetry pattern
76. The basic repeating structural unit of a crystal lattice is the
a. unit cell b. atom c. molecule
d. atomic cluster e. symmetry pattern
77. The number of lattice points in a primitive unit cell is
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8 e. this
depends on the crystal system
78. The conditions --- a b c, alpha= beta =gamma = 90 --- describe the
_________ unit cell.
a. tetragonal b. orthorhombic c. monoclinic
d. hexagonal e. trigonal
79. The conditions --- a b c, alpha = gamma = 90, 90--- describe the
_______ unit cell
a. tetragonal b. orthorhombic c. monoclinic d. hexagonal
e. trigonal
80. The number of lattice points in the unit cell for the body-centered cubic
lattice is
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 8
81. For a face-centered cubic unit cell, each corner contributes _____ lattice
points to the unit cell
a. 1/8 b. c. d. 1 e. none of these
82. In a face-centered cubic lattice, each lattice, each lattice point located in a
face of the unit cell is shared equally with ___ other unit cell
a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7 e. none of
these
83. A metal crystallizes in a body-centered cubic lattice. Which of the following
correctly relates the atomic radius r of the metal to the length of an edge a of
the unit cell?
a. r = a b. r = a2 c. r = a3
2 4 4
d. This cannot be determined without additional information
e. none of these
84. The forces holding the molecules together in the lattice of a molecular solid
are
a. van der Waals forces b. ionic bonds c. covalent bonds
d. all of these e. none of these
85. Molecular crystals typically
a. are soft b. have low melting points c. are insulators
d. all of these e. none of these
86. Most ionic solids crystallize in the ______ system
a. hexagonal b. orthorhombic c. cubic
d. tetragonal e. monoclinic
87. The rock salt structure can be viewed as a _______ lattice of anions, with
cations occupying positions exactly between pairs of anions
a. face-centered cubic b. monoclinic c. trigonal
d. body-centered cubic e. primitive cubic
88. In the rock salt structure, each ion is surrounded by ________ equidistant
ions of opposite charge
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8
e. none of these
89. Which of the following cannot possibly crystallize in the rock salt structure?
a. VN b. Na2S c. ZrSe d. NH4I
e. MgO
90. How many chloride ions are contained in a unit cell of CsCl?
a. 1/8 b. c. d. 1 e. 2
91. The coordination number of each cesium atom in CsCl is
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8 e. 12
92. A certain solid is a good insulator, is brittle, and has a high melting point. The
substance readily conducts electricity when molten. This substance is most
likely _____ in nature.
a. molecular b. covalent c. ionic d. metallic
e. it could be more than one of these
93. In a metallic solid, _______ are located at the lattice points.
a. neutral metal atoms b. molecules c. positively charged core ions
d. electrons e. atomic clusters
94. The metal with the highest melting point is
a. Pt b. Rh c. Nb d. Ga e. W
95. A structure that forms naturally when identical rigid spheres are placed as
close together as possible is called a ____ arrangement.
a. primitive b. close-packed c. face-centered d. dense
e. nematic
96. A crystal structure which yields close packing for uniform rigid spheres is
a. primitive cubic b. tetragonal c. body-centered cubic d. all of
these e. none of these
97. In the hexagonal close-packed structure, each atom has a coordination
number of
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 e. 12
98. In diamond, each carbon is covalently bonded to ________ other carbon
atoms
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6 e. 8
99. The most stable form of sulfur at room temperature is
a. gaseous atoms b. long chains of sulfur atoms c. S4 tetrahedral
d. S2 molecules with double bonds e. S8 rings
100. Which element in group V does not form a solid with each atom bonded to
three others?
a. As b. Bi c. N d. P e. Sb
101. Which of the following forms a layered structure?
a. graphite b. white tin c. sulfur
d. red phosphorous e. all of these
102. Which of the following forms a solid with the diamond structure?
a. sulfur b. white tin c. red phosphorous
d. sodium e. gray tin
103. The crystal defect in which an atom or ion is displaced from its regular
position in the lattice to an interstitial site is called a(n)
a. Schottky defect b. Frenkel defect c. F-center
d. site defect e. berthollide
104. Irradiation of NaCl with ultraviolet light can cause
a. chloride ions to lose electrons to the crystalline lattice
b. formation of an F-center
c. formation of a nonstoichiometric crystal
d. all of these
e. none of these
105. In a plastic crystal,
a. the molecules tumble before the lattice s disrupted
b. the lattice is disrupted before the molecules begin to tumble
c. the molecules are rod-like
d. all of these
e. none of these
106. The rate constant of a reaction depends upon
a. initial concentration of reactants
b. extent of reaction
c. temperature
d. time of reaction
107. Which of the following factors does not influence the rate of a reaction?
a. Concentration of reactants
b. Nature of reactants
c. Molecularity of the reaction
d. Temperature
108. The mechanism of a reaction can sometimes be reduced from
a. the temperature dependence of the rate
b. the rate law
c. the net equation
d. the activation energy
109. The activation energy of a reaction may be lowered by
a. raising the temperature
b. lowering the temperature
c. removing the products of the reaction
d. adding a catalyst
110. The equilibrium constant in a reversible chemical reaction at given
temperature
a. depends on the initial concentrations of the reactants
b. depends on the concentration of one of the products at equilibrium
c. does not depend on the initial concentrations
d. is not characteristic of the reaction
Answer the following questions 111-113 with the help of the hypothetical
reaction and its rate law
3A(g) + B(g) +2C(g) D(g) + 2E(g)
Rate of formation of D = k[A] [B]2
111. Doubling of the concentration of A increases the rate of reaction by a
factor of
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 9
112. Doubling of the concentration of B increases the rate of the reaction by a
factor of
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 9
113. If the volume of the container is suddenly reduced to one-half its original
volume the rate will increase by a factor of
a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 16
114. The value of k, the specific rate constant, may be increased by
a. decreasing the concentration of D
b. increasing the concentration of A
c. increasing the concentration of C
d. increasing the temperature
115. What effect does an increase in temperature of 10C have on the rate of
the reaction?
a. Halved b. Multiplied by 1.5
c. Doubled d. Tripled
116. Which of the following is the best explanation for the effect of increase in
temperature on the rate of the reaction?
a. It increases the number of particles with the necessary activation
of energy
b. It enables the reacting particles with the necessary activation energy
c. It lowers the activation energy for the reaction
d. It enables the activated complex to be more easily converted to the
products
117. The reactions of high molecularity are rare because
a. activation energy of many body collisions is very high
b. many body collisions have low probability
c. many body collisions are not favoured energetically
d. none of the above statement is true
118. At 25C , the half life for the decomposition of N2O5 is 5.7 hours, and is
dependent of the initial pressure of N2O5 the specific rate constant is
a. ln 2 b. (1/5.7)hr-1
c. (ln2/5.7) hr
-1 -1 d. (ln2/5.7)hr
119. If the rate of reaction is independent of the concentration of the reactant,
the reaction is of
a. zero order b. first order
c. second order d. third order
120. Who among the following gave the law of photochemical equivalence?
a. Drapper b. Einstein
c. Grotthus d. Lambert
121. The energy of electromagnetic radiation depends on
a. its amplitude b. its frequency
c. its wave length d. none of the above
122. What term is used to define the phenomenon of emission of light in a
chemical reaction?
a. Chemical luminescence
b. Photosensitization
c. Both chemical luminescence and photosensitization
d. None of the above
123. Raman spectra may be obtained in
a. IR and Visible region
b. Visible region only
c. IR and micro wave region
d. UV and visible region
124. ESR spectra mainly helps in study of
a. compounds having hydrogen
b. compounds having carbons
c. free radicals
d. ionic compounds
125. Which one of the following rate laws has an overall order of 0.5 for the
reactions involving substances X, Y, Z.?
a. Rate = k(Cx) (Cy) (Cz)
b. Rate = k (Cx)0.5 (Cy) 0.5 (Cz)0.5
c. Rate = k (Cx)1.5 (Cy) 1 (Cz)0
d. Rate = k (Cx) (Cz)0/(Cy)2
126. Chemical reaction rates in solution do not depend to any great extent
upon
a. pressure b. temperature
c. concentration d. catalyst
127. Which of the following might be used as an electrode?
a. A stick b. A nail
c. A glass rod d. A soda straw
128. The e.m.f. value for oxidation from H2 at 1.0 atm to H+ at 1.0 x 10-1 M is
a. 0.00V b. 0.059V
c. 0.059V d. 0.030V
129. A good reducing agent
a. will always react rapidly
b. has a negative oxidation potential
c. is readily oxidized
d. shows a negative oxidation number
130. A Faraday of electricity is
a. one ampere per second
b. 96,500 coulombs per second
c. 6.02 x 1023 electrons per second
d. 6.02 x 1023 electronic charges
131. When aqueous HCl is electrolyzed
a. chlorine gas is produced at the anode
b. hydrogen gas is produced at the anode
c. oxygen gas is produced at the anode
d. oxygen gas is produced at the cathode
132. The number of electrons necessary to produce 1.00gm of Cu from Cu2+
at the cathode of an electrolytic cell is
a. 1.89 x 1022 b. 3.04 x 103
c. 9.47 x 10 21 d. 1.91 x 1025
133. A possible advantage to using the half reaction method for balancing
oxidation-reduction equation is
a. electrons need not be balanced
b. oxidation numbers are not assigned
c. charges are not balanced
d. atoms need not be balanced
134. In a galvanic cell the cathode
a. is always made of copper
b. is always made of zinc
c. may be made of an inert metal
d. always attracts negative ions in the solution
135. Hydrogen ions are more readily reduced than
a. Ag+ b. Cu++
c. Cl2 d. Zn++
136. Not all galvanic cells contain
a. a cathode b. an anode
c. a porous partition d. ions
137. When a cell of a lead storage battery is being charged, it is
a. a galvanic cell b. an electrolytic cell
c. a Daniel cell d. a dry cell
138. A current of 9.65 ampere is drawn from a Daniel cell for exactly 1 hour.
The loss of mass of anode is
a. 0.180g b. 23.6g
c. 0.197g d. 11.8g
139. The following reaction does not occur spontaneously (all ions at 1m
concentration; all gases at 1 atmosphere pressure)
a. 2Cr(s) + 3Cl2(g) 2 Cr+3 + 6 Cl-
b. NO3- + 2 H+ + Ag(s) Ag+ + H2O + NO2(g)
c. NO3- + 4 H+ + 3 Ag(s) 3 Ag+ + NO(g) +2H2O
d. Cl2(g) + 2 Br- 2 Cl- + Br2
140. If 0.200 liter of 0.100 M NaCl are electrolyzed until the OH - concentration
is 0.0500M, how many moles of Cl2 gas are produced?
a. 5.00 x 10-3mole b. 1.00 x 10-2mole
c. 5.00 x 10-2mole c. 1.00 x 10-1mole
141. As the lead storage battery is charged,
a. the amount of sulfuric acid decreases
b. the lead electrode becomes coated with lead sulfate
c. sulfuric acid is regenerated
d. lead dioxide dissolves
142. If an aqueous solution of KI is electrolyzed (with platinum electrodes) one
would expect to find
a. potassium deposited at the cathode
b. oxygen liberated at the anode
c. the solution around the cathode becoming alkaline
d. the solution around the anode becoming brown
143. When an aqueous solution of NaCl is electrolyzed, a product formed at the
cathode is
a. Na b. H+
c. OH - d. Cl2
144. If aqueous Cu SO4 is electrolyzed for one minute with a current of 2.00 ampere,
the volume of ozygen produced at STP at the anode is
a. 3.10 x 10-4 liter b. 6.96ml
c. 1.16 x 10-4 liter d. 1.16 ml
145. As a lead storage battery is discharged
a. water is used up
b. lead is formed
c. lead sulfate is consumed
d. sulfuric acid is consumed
146. If a large quantity of cobalt metal were dropped into a solution containing Ag+,
Fe+2, Cu+2, the products of the reaction will be:
a. Ag, Fe and Cu b. Ag, Fe++ and Cu+
c. Fe++, Cu and Co++ d. Fe++, Cu, Ag and Co++
147. Which of the following instruments makes use of the standard electrode potentials
and the variation of electrode potential with concentration?
a. Polarimeter b. pH meter
c. Electrophorous d. Electrophotometer
148. The series in which the electrode potentials of metals are arranged in an order is
known as:
a. electrical conductivity series
b. electrode potential series
c. electrochemical series
d. chemical affinity series
149. In a salt-bridge KCl is used because
a. agar-agar forms a good jelly with it
b. KCl is an electrolyte
c. K+ and Cl- have the same transference number
d. KCl is present in calomel electrode
150. Four colorless salt solutions are placed in separate test-tubes and a strip of copper
is dipped in each.. which solution finally turns blue?
a. Pb (NO3)2 b. Zn (NO3)2
c. AgNO3 d. Cd (NO3)2
151. When an electric current is passed through a cell containing an electrolyte,
positive ions move towards the cathode and negative ions towards the anode. What
will happen if the cathode is pulled out of solution?
a. The positive ions will start moving towards the anode and negative ions will stop
moving
b. The negative ions will continue to move towards the anode and the positive ions
will stop moving
c. Both negative and positive ions move towards the anode
d. None of these movements will take place
152. What is the standard cell potential for the cell Zn; Zn+2 (IM) ll Cu+2 (IM); Cu (E
for Zn+2 l Zn = -.76; E for Cu+2 l Cu = +0.34)
a. -0.076 + 0.34 = -0.42 V
b. 0.34 (-0.76) = +1.10V
c. 0.34 (-0.76) = +0.42V
d. 0.76 (+0.34) = -1.10V
153. One Faraday of current was passed through the electrolytic cells placed in series
containing solutions of Ag+, Ni+2 and Cr+3 respectively. The amount of Ag (At.Wt.
108), Ni (At. Wt. 59) and Cr (At. Wt. 52) deposited will be:
Silver Nickel Chromium
a. 108g 29.5g 17.5g
b. 108g 59g 52.0g
c. 108g 108g 108g
d. 108g 117.5g 166g
154. Given standard electrode potentials
E
Fe++ + 2e Fe -0.440V
Fe+++ + 3e Fe -0.036V
The standard electrode potential (E) for Fe+++ + e Fe++ is
a. 0.476V
b. 0.404V
c. +0.404V
d. +0.771V
155. The magnitude of the individual half cell potentials are given
(i) CO2+ + 2e Co 0.28V
(ii) Hg2+ + 2e 2Hg 0.78V
when both the half cells (a) and (b) are connected with SHE, the metallic
electrode Co is found to be ve and Hg electrode is found to be +ve. The correct sign
for the electrode potentials will be:
a. +ve for half cell (I)
b. +ve for half cell (ii)
c. ve for half cell (ii)
156. When an iron wire is immersed in an acidic solution of CuSo4, the blue color of
the solution is lost after some time. This is due to
a. reduction of Cu++
b. oxidation of CuSO4
c. formation of double complex between iron and copper sulfate
d. formation of a colorless salt of Cu++
157. Magnesium cannot displace from solution the ions of
a. sodium b. lead
c. copper d. gold
158. The mathematical statement of Gibbs phase rule is
a. F = C-P+2 b. C = F-P+2
c. C = F-P+1 d. P = C+F+2
159. The homogenous physically distinct and mechanically separable parts of the
heterogeneous system in equilibrium are called
a. phases b. components
c. degrees of freedom d. none of the above
160. What is the degree of freedom of a system consisting of a gaseous mixture of
carbon dioxide and nitrogen?
a. 0 b. 1
c. 2 d. 3
161. How many phases are present in the water system?
a. 0 b. 1
c. 2 d. 3
162. How many phases will be there in the system made of water and methyl alcohol?
a. 3 b. 1
c. 1 d. 0
163. How many components are necessary to define the following equilibrium?
CaCO3 CaO + CO2
Solid solid gas
a. 0 b. 1
c. 2 d. 3
164. The minimum number of phases existing in a system is
a. 0 b. 1
c. 2 d. 3
165. The incongruent melting point is so called
a. peritectic temperature
b. meritectic temperature
c. transition temperature
d. all of the above