Hematology Quizzes 9.

The hemoglobin iron ion may become oxidized to the

Pre evals #2 +3 balance state by several pathological
1. Which RBC process does not require energy? mechanisms. What portion of the Embden-Meyerhof
A. Oxygen transport pathway reduces iron to the physiologic +2 valence
B. Cytoskeletal protein deformability state?
C. Preventing the peroxidation of proteins and lipids A. Methemoglobin reductase pathway
D. Maintenance of cytoplasmic cationic gradients B. Hexose monophosphate pathway
C. Rapoport-Luebering pathway
2. What pathway anaerobically generates energy in the D. 2,3-BPG shunt
form of ATP? A
A. Hexose monophosphate pathway 10. Which of the following is an example of a
B. Rapoport-Luebering pathway transmembrane or integral membrane protein?
C. Embden-Meyerhof pathway A. Glycophorin A
D. 2,3-BPG pathway B. Ankyrin
C. Spectrin
3. Which is true concerning 2,3-BPG? D. Actin
A. The least abundant of RBC organophosphates A
B. Enhances O2 release from hemoglobin 11. Abnormalities in the horizontal and vertical linkages
C. Source of RBC glucose of the transmembrane and cytoskeletal RBC
D. Source of RBC ATP membrane proteins may be seen as:
A. Shape changes.
4. To survive, the RBC must detoxify peroxides. What B. Methemoglobin increase.
hexose-monophosphate shunt product(s) C. Reduced hemoglobin content.
accomplishes detoxification D. Enzyme pathway deficiencies.
A. ATP A
B. 2,3-BPG 12. The eat me flag recognized on RBC membrane
C. Pyruvic and lactic acid which signals macrophage sequestration
D. NADPH and reduced glutathione A. Phosphatidylcholine
B. Phosphatidyl inositol
5. Which of the following helps maintain RBC shape? C. Phosphatidylserine
A. Membrane phospholipids D. Phosphatidyl ethanolamine
B. Cytoskeletal proteins C
C. GPI anchor 13. Which represents the normal composition of RBC
D. Glycocalyx membrane?
B A. 52% lipids, 40% proteins, 8% carbohydrates
6. RBC membranes block passage of most large B. 52% proteins, 40% lipids, 8% carbohydrates
molecules such as proteins, but allow passage of C. 52% lipids, 40% carbohydrates, 8% proteins
small molecules such as the cations Na+, K+, and D. 52% proteins, 40% carbohydrates, 8% lipids
Ca++. What is the term for this membrane properly? B
A. Semipermeable 14. The loss of GPI anchor on red cells will lead to
B. Deformable A. Acanthocytosis
C. Intangible B. Sickle cell anemia
D. Flexible C. Paroxymal nocturnal hemoglobin
A D. Hereditary elliptocytosis
7. RBC membrane phospholipids are arranged: C
A. In a hexagonal lattice. 15. Increase in RBC membrane elasticity due to
B. In chains beneath a protein exoskeleton. decrease in membrane cholesterol content will
C. In two layers whose composition is manifest as
asymmetric. A. Spherocytes
D. So that hydrophobic portions are facing the B. Elliptocytes
plasma. C. Target cells
D. Acanthocytes
8. RBC membrane cholesterol is replenished from the:
A. Plasma.
B. Mitochondria.
C. Cytoplasm.
D. EMB pathway.
Post evals #1 9. Involved in intrinsic regulation of stem cells EXCEPT
1. Markers for committed lymphoid progenitors A. Thrombopoietin
A. CD 38 and CD 33 B. KIT ligand
B. CD 10 and CD 38 C. Fit3 ligand
C. CD 33 and CD 10 D. GATA 2
D. CD 11 and CD 33 BONUS extrinsic dapat sa question

2. Cytokines that exert a negative influence on 10. Morphologic changes in the nucleus as the cell
hematopoiesis matures EXCEPT
A. IL-1 A. Condensation of chromatic
B. IL-9 B. Decrease in C:C ratio
C. IL-3 C. Loss of nucleoli
D. Interferons D. Appearance of intranuclear bodies

3. Characteristics of stem cells 11. Which of the following cell in found deep in the
A. Capable of self-renewal hematopoietic cords
B. Capable of differentiation A. Myeloblasts
C. Able to reconstitute hematopoietic system B. Megakaryocytes
after irradiation C. Erythroblasts
D. Undergo maturation abruptly D. Macrophages

4. Which of the following precursor cells is most 12. Method wherein splenic macrophages remove
sensitive to EPO? inclusions or damaged surface membrane from
A. CFU-GEMM circulating RBCs. Pitting
B. CFU-GM 13. Process of replacing the active marrow by adipose
C. BFU-E tissues during development. Retrogression
D. CFU-E 14. Macrophages in the spleen. Splenic macrophage
15. Part of the lymph node where T cells are numerous.
5. Characteristics of Interleukins Paracortex
A. Help other cytokines and growth actors 16. Specific glycoproteins that regulate the proliferation,
B. Not capable of interacting with other cytokines differentiation and maturation of hematopoietic
C. Exhibit multiple biologic activities precursor cells. Cytokine
D. Effective only at high concentration 17. Which model states that HSCs randomly commit to
renewal or differentiation? Stochastic model
6. Embryonic hemoglobin includes all of the following 18. Type of bone marrow which is abundant at age 5-7.
EXCEPT Yellow marrow
A. Hemoglobin F 19. Cells present in yolk sac which form the future blood
B. Portland vessels. Angioblast
C. Gower II 20. Name at least two organs capable of extra medullary
D. Gower I hematopoiesis production in case of bone marrow
shutdown. Liver, spleen
7. In which area of the thymus are mature T cells
primarily located 21. Why are the reference values for hematocrit, RBC
A. Cortex count and hemoglobin count higher in fetuses than
B. Medulla adults?
C. Cortico-medullary junction A. Splenic culling is not yet evident in fetus
D. Endothelium B. Hemoglobin F has higher affinity to oxygen
than does hemoglobin A in adults
8. Stromal cells which constitute the microenvironment C. Testosterone level is higher among fetuses than
of HSCs EXCEPT adults
A. Macrophage D. Due to hemoconcentration of blood in utero
B. Osteoblasts
C. Fibroblasts 22. Choose the correct order of hematopoieses
D. Synovial cells beginning from the embryonic to adult stages
A. Yolk sac, hepatic, thymus
B. Yolk sac, bone marrow, hepatic
C. Lymph nodes, yolk sac, thymus
D. Yolk sac, hepatic, bone marrow
23. The first recognizable precursor cell in the maturation Post evals #2
of series of RBCs: 1-6. List the RBC maturation series in proper order. Use
A. Pronormoblast the normoblastic terminology
B. Myelocyte 1. Pronormoblast
C. Myeloblast 2. Basophilic normoblast
D. Normocyte 3. Polychromatic normoblast
4. Orthrochromic normoblast
24. Splenectomy may be beneficial in all of the following 5. Polychromatic erythrocyte
conditions, EXCEPT: 6. Erythrocyte
A. Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia 7. Term referring the erythrocytes in the blood and bone
B. Hereditary Spherocytosis marrow. Erythron
C. Reactive thrombocytopenia 8. Inclusion body found from incomplete extrusion of
D. Megaloblastic anemia RBC nucleus. Howell Jolly bodies
9. The major cytokine involved in the erythropoiesis and
25. Which condition leads to autosplenectomy? prevention of apoptosis of RBC precursors. EPO
A. Megaloblastic anemia 10. The RBC progenitor cell that is most sensitive to
B. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia EPO. CFU-E
C. Sickle cell anemia 11-15: Name the specific RBC maturation stage referred
D. Pernicious anemia by the following. Use the rubriblastic terminology.
11. Last stage capable of mitosis. Rubricyte
26. The largest cell in the bone marrow 12. Last stage that possess a nucleus. Metarubricyte
A. Monocytes 13. Stage when globin production begins. Rubriblast
B. Macrophages 14. The immediate precursor of erythrocytes.
C. Megakaryoblast Polychromatic erythrocyte
D. Megakaryocyte 15. N:C ratio 8:1, possess 1-2 nucleoli. Rubriblast
16. What is the most important mechanism by which
27. The HSCs in the aorta-gonad-mesonephros region EPO increases the RBC mass?
and yolk sac to give rise to A. Early release of reticulocytes
A. Monocytes B. Inhibition of apoptosis
B. Platelets C. Decrease in the number of cellular divisions
C. Lymphocytes D. Decrease in the amount of maturation time
D. Primitive erythroblasts
17. The major adhesive molecule that bind formed
28. The bone marrow and bone are supplied nutrient and elements to bone marrow
oxygen by which artery(-ies)? A. Hypoxia-inducible factor 1
A. Nutrient artery B. Fas
B. Periosteal artery C. Fibronectin
C. Nutrient and periosteal artery D. Vimentin
D. Central longitudinal vein
18. What is the protein responsible for the extrusion of
29. Which of the following is NOT derived from CFU- RBC nuclei?
GEMM? A. Fibronectin
A. Erythrocyte B. Vimentin
B. Granulocyte C. Non-muscle myosin
C. Lymphocyte D. BcL protein
D. Megakaryocyte
19. The eat me flag marker on pyrenocytes
30. 30% of platelets are sequestered in which organ? A. Phosphatidylcholine
A. Bone marrow B. Phosphatidylethanolamine
B. Thymus C. Phosphatidylserine
C. Spleen D. Phosphatidylinositol
D. Lymph nodes
20. The protein ound on later RBC stages that signals
apoptosis of CFU-E
A. Non-muscle myosin
B. Fibronectin
C. Fas
D. FasL
Post evals #3 9. The reduction of ferric to ferrous iron by NAPDH is
1. Which statement if FALSE about embden- hastened by
Meyerhof___ has Pathway in red cells? A. Biphosphoglycerate mutase
A. Anaerobic B. Enolase
B. It produces 34-36 ATP C. Methemoglobin reductase
C. It happens in the cytoplasm D. G-6-PD
D. All of the above
10. What will happen if Luebering-Rapaport pathway is
2. In red cells, which of the following processes is ATP- inhibited?
independent? A. ATP depletion
A. Cellular entry of glucose B. Tissue hypoxia
B. Maintenance of membrane phospholipid C. Accumulation of intracellular oxidants
distribution D. Methemoglobinemia
C. Reduction of glutathione
D. Maintenance of iron in the ferrous state 11. What is the normal composition of RBC membrane?
A. 52% lipids, 40% carbohydrates, 8% proteins
3. Which phase o the EMP pathway consumes B. 52% carbohydrates, 40% lipids, 8% proteins
A. First C. 52% proteins, 40% lipids, 8% carbohydrates
B. Second D. 52% lipids, 40% proteins, 8% carbohydrates
C. Third
D. Fourth 12. What poikilocyte is formed when RBC membrane
ewan invreases due to deficiency of cholesterol?
4. What is the most common enzyme deficiency A. Acanthocytes
worldwide? B. Burr cells
A. Pyruvate kinase deficiency C. Target cells
B. Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency D. Spherocytes
C. G-6-PD deficiency
D. HGPRT deficiency 13. Which types of phospholipid is predominaasd found
in the cytoplasmic portion?
5. What is the enzyme that catalyze the production of A. Phosphatidylcholine and sphingomyelin
2,3-DPG from 1,3-biphosphogylcerate? B. Phosphatidylcholine and phosphatidylserine
A. Phosphogycerate kinase C. Phosphatidylserine and
B. Biphosphglycerate mutase phosphatidylethanolamine
C. Fructose-biphosphate aldolase D. Sphingolmyelin and phosphatidylserine
D. Enolase
14. Which of the following RBC proteins is integral?
6. The main function of hexose monophosphate A. Ankyrin
pathway is to B. Protein 4.2
A. detoxify peroxides C. Band 3
B. reduce ferric iron D. Spectrin
C. produce 2,3-DPG
D. produce ATP 15. Which statement is FALSE of paroxysmal nocturnal
A. Due to inherited mutation in the PIGA gene
7. Which pathway when activated will sacrifice the B. Loss of GPI-linked proteins CD55 and CD59
production of two ATPs? C. Red cells become more susceptible to lysis by
A. EMP complements
B. HMP D. None of the above
C. Methemoglobin reductase pathway
D. Luebering-Rapaport pathway 16. Which technique is used to analyze the protein
composition of RBC membrane?
8. How many percent of G6P is diverted to hexose A. Flow cytometry
monophosphate shunt B. SDS-PAGE
A. 1-5% C. Ultracentrifugation
B. 5-10% D. Chromatography
C. 10-15%
D. 15-20%
17. Which statement is TRUE about RBC membrane 15. Iron salvage protein that binds free hemoglobin
A. Glucose enters the red cells in an insulin- - Haptoglobin
mediated process 16. Iron salvage protein that binds free heme
B. Cation transport across RBC membrane is - Hemopexin
mediated by ATP pumps 17. The gold standard for assessment of body iron
C. RBC membrane is permeable to water and - Prussian blue staining
anions 18. The preferred sample for serum iron determination
D. All of the above - Early morning fasting sample
19. The reagent employed in colorimetric determination
18. Na+-K+-ATPse and Ca++-ATPse pumps maintain all of iron
of the following EXCEPT - Ferrozine
A. High intracellular calcium 20. The transport protein needed in the entry of ferrous
B. High intracellular potassium iron to enterocytes
C. Low intracellular sodium and calcium - Ferroportin
D. Low intracellular sodium and potassium 21. Given the following values, compute for the percent
transferrin saturation
19. The intracellular to extracellular ratio of sodium SI = 120 ug/Dl
A. 25:1 TIBC = 300 ug/Dl
B. 1:25 A. 40%
C. 12:1 B. 2.5%
D. 1:12 C. 55%
D. 180%
20. An autosomal dominant condition in which lipid
membrane peels off in small fragments called blebs 22. Which laboratory test is unreliable in a patient with
A. Hereditary elliptocytosis chronic inflammation?
B. Hereditary spherocytosis A. Serum iron
C. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria B. TIBC
D. Sickle cell anemia C. Serum ferritin
D. Prussian blue staining
Post evals #4
1. Regulates iron absorption by inhibiting ferroportin 23. Which laboratory test reflects the level of intracellular
- Hepcidin iron?
2. Part of iron-sensing system of the body A. Serum
- Hemojuvelin B. TIBC
3. Converts ferric into ferrous iron in the intestinal lumen C. Hemoglobin content of reticulocytes
- Duodenal cytochrome b D. Soluble transferrin receptor
4. Its expression on cell membrane is influence by
intracellular iron concentration 24. Which laboratory parameter increases when iron is
- TfR1 not incorporated into protoporphyrin?
5. The membrane receptor of transferrin A. Soluble transferrin receptor
- TfR1 B. TIBC
6. Transport protein of iron in the plasma C. Zinc protoporphyrin
- Transferrin D. Prussian blue staining
7. Partially degraded ferritin
- Hemosiderin 25. The first step in serum iron measurement is
8. Binds and store approximately 4000 Fe3+ iron A. Precipitation of iron
- Ferritin B. Saturation of apotransferrin
9. The soluble counterpart of transferrin receptor C. Release of iron from transferrin
- sTfR D. Reaction of iron with a clot reagent
10. Converts ferrous to ferric iron
- Hephaestin
11. Form of iron absorbed by duodenum
- Ferrous
12. Form of iron that binds to apotransferrin
- Ferric
13. Form of iron that binds to apoferritin
- Ferric
14. Form of iron found in methemoglobin
- Ferric