Heber Institute of Management Studies

Bishop Heber College (Autonomous)

TOTAL QUALITY MANAGEMENT - U16MS3:3 (II BBA)

Unit I

1. Quality is __________ to use

a, Power b, Efficiency c, Fitness d, Accuracy
2. During which century, the manufacturers began to include quality processes in quality
practices?
a. 17th century b. 18th century c. 19th century d.20thcentury
3. The products manufactured during 1800s were unique. How quality was ensured in this
era?
a. Through renovation b. Through inspection c. Through calculation d. Through repair
4. The no. of principles in Dr. W. Edwards Deming's quality principles is ___________
a. 8 b. 10 c.12 d.14
5. What is quality?
a. Meeting and exceeding the customers expectations b. Adding extras to make the
customer happy c. The degree to which the project meets requirements d. Conformance
to managements objectives
6. What is the objective of a TQM system?
a. Continuous improvement b. Continual improvement
b. Business improvement d. Process improvement
7. Big Q is:
a. Quality of services b. Quality of people c. Quality of processes d. All of the above
8. TQM refers to _____.
a. total quantity management b. total quality management
c. total quantity marketing d. total quality marketing
9. Total Quality Management (TQM) focuses on
a. Employee b. Customer c. Both (a) and (b) d. None of the above
10. Malcolm Baldrige national quality award is for (MBNQA)
a. Total Quality Management b. International Standard Organization
C. Total Productive Maintenance d. Total Quality Control
11. The majority of advertisers appeal the public on the basis of which of the following?
a. Quality of product b. Quality of staff c. Inferiority of product d. Inferiority of service
12. ________ refers to general processes of improvement and encompasses discontinuous
improvements
a. Continuous improvement b. continual improvement
c. Constant improvement d. Consecutive improvement
13. Which of the following document is included in the quality system?
a. Quality policy b. Customer focus c. Commitment d. All of the above
14. The primary components of quality management are quality ______.
a. inspections, certifications and validations b. Philosophy, assurance and control
c. form fit and function d. reliability, maintainability and availability
15. Inspection assures that
a. The process is in control b. Workers are motivated
c. Product meets specification d. Quality problems are solved
16. Problem solving begins with
a. Team discussions b. SPC c. Design of experiments d. Problem identification
17. Service quality cannot be managed when
a. No vendors are involved b. Customer expectations are not known
c. Workers don't meet regularly with management d. Consultants are not consulted
18. A service cannot be___
a. Stored b. Inspected c. Targeted d. Appraised
19. A stakeholder is generally
a. Someone who manages the company b. People who run the company's payroll
c. Interested in the success of the enterprise d. Only the customer
20. Rework _____ the cost of quality
a. decreases b. Increases c. neutralizes d. Does not affect
21. Quality management deals with all of the following except
a. Conformance to requirements b. Fitness for use
c. Making products more desirable and luxurious d. satisfying the customers
22. Which one of the following depicts feature, which is a dimension of quality?
a. Product looks and sounds b. Brand name and price
c. Bells and whistles of the product d. Ability to repair a product
23. Which of the following results in low costs?
a. High productivity and high capacity utilization
b. Low productivity and low capacity utilization
c. Low productivity and high capacity utilization
d. High productivity and low capacity utilization
24. Quality applies to which aspect(s) of the organization?
a. Products only b. Products and services
c. People and product d. Products, services, and people
25. Quality includes _________
a, Functionality b, Customer Service c, Delivery Quality d, All the above
26. Quality planning roadmap was evolved by ___________
a, Deming b,Ishikawa c, Juran d, None of these
27. Total Quality cost include _____
a, Prevention cost b, Appraisal cost c, Failure cost d, All the above
28. TQM is ______
a, Cost effective quality management b, Preventive Quality Management
c, Continuous quality improvement d, all the above
29. Elements of TQM include ________
a, Quantitative methods b, Focus on process c, Leadership d, All the above
30. For TQM to happen, top management must ______
a, Be Proactive b, Communicate rarely c, Maintain processes d, All the above
31. Change is _____
a, Liked by everybody b, Essential c, Comfortable d, Both (a) and
(b)
32. Some of the measures of TQM could be _________
 a, Customer perception about quality b, Productivity
c, Quantum of network d, All the above
33. TQM gives benefit to ________
a, Customers b, Employees c, Society d, All the above
34. Building virtual organization leads to ________
a, More employees b, More trouble c, Improved quality management d, None of these
35. In a TQM environment, changes will be _______
a, Frequent b, Once in a year c, Few d, All the above
36. Right decision calls for _________
a, Fast action b, Breaking teams c, Involving concerned employees d, All the above
37. Doing right things include ______
a, Reducing wages b, Increasing working hours c, Choosing right methods d, None of these
38. Why things go wrong? Because
a, Requirements are not defined correctly b, Right tools are available
c, Lot of motivation to do the job d, All the above
39. TQM facilities
a, Achieving business results b, Achieving the required growth rate
c, Improving response to customer needs d, All of the above
40. Quality of measures for business include
a, Failure cost b, Employee absenteeism

c, Number of employees involved in process improvement d, All of the above

Unit II

1. The three managerial process of Jurans Quality Triology are Planning, ________ and Control.
a, Sustainability b, Improvementc, Threshold d, None of these
2. Which of the following are not the Demings Deadly diseases?
a, Lack of consistency b, Short term Profits b, Performance Appraisal d, None of these
3. The concepts of quality planning, quality control, quality improvement known as Trilogy
of quality was introduced by .
a. Philip B. Crosby b. Edward Deming c. A. Shewhart d. Dr. Juran
4. Quality is most difficult to measure and analyze under which of the following definitions
approaches?
a. Product-based view b. User-based view c. Transcendent view d. Value-based view
5. Which of the following is the final step in the Quality Trilogy?
a. Quality control b. Quality planning c. Quality documentation d. Quality improvement
6. Crosbys approach to management is
a. A problem that can never be solved b. Absolutes of Quality management
c. Interim management d. ISO
7. Vision states
a. Where the workers want to go after work b. Whether we should use SPC
c. Whether we should use inspection d. Where the company wants to be in the long run
8. Demings 14 points include
a, Giving quantitative targets b, Depend on inspection c, Institute Learning d, None
9. Process definition consists of
 a. Entry criteria b, Exit criteria c, Task d, All of the above
10. Defects can be found early in
a, Person orientation b, Product orientation c, Process orientation d, None of the above
11. Product Quality depends an
a, Inspector b, Inspection c, Process d, None of the above
12. Strengthening includes
a, Training employees b, Motivating Employees
c, Measuring process performance d, All of the above
13. An employee may have
a, Internal customer b, Internal supplier c, External supplier d, All of the above
14. Customer Supplier- Chains
a, Reduce communication gap b, Help in finalizing verification methodology
c, Facilitate immediate feedbackd, All of the above
15. Jurans Triology includes
a, Quality Planning b, Quality Control c, Quality improvement d, All the above
16. In Service Industry
a, Understanding customer requirement is easy b, Each service offering is different
c, Measuring customer satisfaction is easy d, None of the above
17. Difficulties in service industry include
a, Customer is always late b, Marketing c, Handling d, All the above
18. Customer service personnel should be
a, Caring b, Obliging c, Tactful d, All the above
19. Additional requirements of customers should be
a, Ignored b, Accepted c, Accepted with additional price d, None of the above
20. Customers leave because of
a, Unhappiness with customer service personnel b, Higher cost
c, Found a provider next door d, All the above
21. Non contractual requirements include
a, Waiver of fee b, Dismissal of an employee of organization
c, Value for money spent d, All the above
22. Requirements should be agreed to by
a, Customer b, Supplier c, Supplier and customer d, None of the above
23. Contract Review is required in
a, Supplier organization b, Customer c, All the above d, None of the above
24. Measures for customer satisfaction shall be identified by
a, Customers b, Suppliers
c, The top management of the concerned organization d, All the above
25. For computing Customer Satisfaction Index, identify
a, At least 10 measures b, As many measures as possible
c, Vital Few measure d, None of the above
26. Examples of right measures include
a, Cycle time b, Defects on delivery c, Defects found the during the process d, All the above
27. Complaints can be handled by
a, Purchase Department b, Production Department c, QA division d, None of the above
28. Problem solving begins with
 a.Team discussions b.SPC c.Design of experiments d.Problem identification
29. Complaints should be analysed by
a, CEO b, Authorized team c, Purchase department d, All the above
30. Feedback form should be
a, Clear b, Unambiguous c, Easy to fill d, All the above
31. Every Employee should communicate with
a, Peers b, Subordinates c, Seniors d, All the above
32. Proper communications is facilitated by
a, Discussions during tea time b, Newsletters
c, Union meetings d, None of the above
33. Orientation training should address
a, Objectives of the organizationb, Skills needed for the job in question
c, Specialized trainings on the job d, All the above
34. Training program should be
a, Formal activity b, Evaluated at the end c, Must for every one d, All the above
35. Recognition is conveyed through
a, Appreciation letters b, Cash awards c, Oral appreciation d, All the above
36. Rewards
a, Are detrimental to the organization b, Disrupt teamwork
c, Should not be given to teams d, None of the above
37. Feedback to employees
a, De motivates them b, Improve their performance
c, Can be given by peers d, None of the above
38. Empowerment is an organizational state where employees
a, Are aligned with organizational goal b, Take responsibility for improvement
c, Function as empowered teams d, All the above
39. Empowerment may fail due to
a, Supervisor resistance b, Lack of training
c, Lack of management sponsorship d, All the above
40. The success of Japanese manufacturers is due to ________, small and incremental
improvements in design and production.
a. Continuous b. Abrupt c. Continual d. None of the above

Unit III

1. Separating the Vital Few from the Trivial Many can be done using ________
a, Histogram b, Pareto Chart c, Cause and effect Diagram d, Scatter Diagram
2. _______ are another form of bar chart in which measurements are grouped into bins and each
bin representing a range of values of some parameter.
a, Histogram b, Pareto Chart c, Cause and effect Diagram d, Scatter Diagram
3. _______ are graphical, rather than statistical means of examining whether or not two
parameters are related to each other.
a, Histogram b, Pareto Chart c, Cause and effect Diagram d, Scatter Diagram
4. In _____ tool, the charts are plotted in sequence of the measured values of samples and mean,
variance are calculated.
a, Pareto Chart b, Control chart c, Cause and effect Diagram d, Affinity Diagram
5. In control charts, UCL stands for _________
a, Upper central Limit b, Unlimited Control Limit c, Upper Control Limit d, None of these
6. _______ Diagram allows the team to creatively generate a large number of ideas and then
logically group them for problem understanding and finding solution.
a, Pareto Chart b, Control chart c, Cause and effect Diagram d, Affinity Diagram
7. Cause and effect Diagram is also called as ______
a, Ishikawa Diagram b, Fish Bone diagram c, Both of these d, None of these
8. ________ clarifies the inter-relationship of many factors of a complex situation.
a, Cause and Effect Diagram b, Interrelationship Diagraph c, Affinity Diagram d, Tree Diagram
9. _______ is a tool to reduce any broad objective into increasing levels of details in order to
achieve the objective.
a, a, Cause and Effect Diagram b, Interrelationship Diagraph c, Affinity Diagram d, Tree Diagram
10. QFD stands for __________
a, Quality Function Deployment b, Quality Fitness Delivery c, Quality Function Delivery d, None
11. PDPC stands for _______
a, Process Decision Purpose Chart b, Process Decision Program Chart
c, Process Decision Predictive Chart d, None of these
12. AON stands for _______
a, Activity on Network b, Activity on Node c, Activity on Needs d, None of these
13. PERT stands for _____
a, Program Evaluation and Review Technique b, Project Evaluation and Review Technique
c, Process Evaluation and Review Technique d, None of these
14. CPM stands for _____
a, Critical project Method b, Critical program Method c, Critical path Method d, None of these
15. The main purpose of _________ is to ensure the data is collected carefully and accurately by
operating personnel.
a, Histogram b, Check Sheet c, Control chart d, None of these
16. SPC stands for ________
a, Statistical Process Control b, Statistical Program control
c, Statistical Periodic control d, None of these
17. The common measures of central tendency are _________
a, Mean b, Median c, Mode d, All of these
18. Flow charts indicate
a. Causes of process variation b. The kind of forms to fill out
c. Who reports to whom d. How inputs get processed into outputs
19. Seven tools include
a. Team meetings b. Management meeting regularly c. Workers' toolkit d. Histogram
20. A Pareto chart shows
a. That the process is in control b. The vital few from the trivial many
c. Process capability d. A line drawn as production proceeds
21. A structured tool, usually industry or activity specific, use to verify that the steps are
performed is called
a. Quality policy b. Check list c. Trend Analysis d. Pareto diagram
22. A tool that analyses the input to a process to identify the causes of errors is called
 a. Cause and effect diagram b. Scatter diagram c. Histogram d. Pareto diagram
23. The tool used to show movement of product is
a. Histogram b. Control chart c. Process flow chart d. Scatter diagram
24. Which tool is also named as Fishbone diagram
a. Pareto diagram b. Scatter diagram c. Ishikawa diagram d. Histogram
25. Measures of dispersion include
a, Mean b, Mode c, Variance d, All the above
26. Measures of central tendency include
a, Mean b, Mode c, Median d, All the above
27. Histogram is depicted as
a, Column graph b, Bar graph c, Bell shaped curve d, All the above
28. Tool that helps prioritization include
a, Histogram b, Pareto Analysis c, Tally chart d, None of the above
29. Tally cart can be used for
a, Counting b, Take immediate action c, Know the trends of defects d, All the above
30. Process Specification limit is
a, 3 b, -3 c, USL d, None of the above
31. Random variations are due to
a, Special causes b, Common causes c, Internal causes d, All the above
32. The tool suitable to capturing variations in processes is a
a, Cause and effect diagram b, Flow chart diagram c, Control chart d, None of the above
33. Rectangular distribution is
a, Normal b, Uniform c, Gaussian d, All the above
34. Range chart has
a, UCL b, LCL c, Mean Range d, All the above
35. R bar indicates
a, Centering of the processes b, Percentage defectives c, Variation d, None of the above
36. X bar indicates
a, Centering of the processes b, Percentage defectives c, Variable d, None of the above
37. Cause-effect diagram is used in
a.Problem identification b.Field visits c.Vendor surveys d.Problem analysis
38. Six sigma does not call for
a, Top management commitment b, Employee involvement
c, Quality department d, None of the above
39. Six sigma initiated at
a, Allied signal b, Motorola c, General Electric d, None of the above
40. The Balanced Scorecard is a
a, Measurement system b, Management system
c, Strategy for growth d, All the above

Unit IV

1. P-D-C-A stands for

a. Plan-Do-check-Act b. Plan-Do-correct-Act
 c. Proceed-Do-check-Act d. Proceed-Do-correct-Act
2. What do the initials of the PDCA cycle stand for?
a. Problem, diagnosis, conclusion, action b. Plan, do, check, act
c. Plan, design, control, assess d. Purpose, develop, carry out, assess
3. JIT requires
a, Materials arriving on time b, No work in progress
c, The items made to order d, All the above
4. Practicing JIT can save
a, Space b, Inventories c, Cycle-time d, All the above
5. Performance standard should be
a, AQL b, Something closer to zero defects c, Zero defects d, All the above
6. To make zero defect happen
a, Right mind set of the employees are required b, Management commitment required
c, Will power required d, None of the above
7. The tenets of lean manufacturing include
a, 5S system b, Cellular manufacturing c, TPM d, All the above
8. Kanban process
a, Card is attached to parts b, No extra piece produced
c, Helpful in case of fluctuations d, All of these
9. Business Process Benchmarking aims at improving the performance of
a, Products b, Processes c, Services d, None of the above
10. Triggers for process based benchmarking include
a, Excessive warranty costs b, High employee attrition
c, High value of scrap and rework d, All the above
11. Types of benchmarking include
a, Functional b, Competitive c, Internal d, All the above
12. The goal of benchmarking is
a, Establishing a rational performance goal b, Search of best industry practices
c, Just comparison of performance with best practices d, All the above
13. Benchmarking requires determining
a, What? b, How? c, Whom? d, All the above
14. In Toyota Production system Muda means
a, Over burden b, Waste c, Inconsistency d, None of these
15. Poka yoke is a _________ device
a, Productive Maintenance b, Waste reduction c, Mistake proofing d, None of these
16. __________ is a small group of employees meet on a regular basis to identify improvements in
their respective work areas.
a, Focus Group b, Quality Circles c, TPM d, None of these
17. ______ is a committee establishes policy, plans and directs the programme and meets usually
once a month.
a, Steering Committee b, Kaizen c, Benchmarking d, None of these
18. ________ is a type of Benchmarking, where there is no need to look outside the organization for
best practices.
a, Competitive Benchmarking b, Internal Benchmarking
c, Functional Benchmarking d, None of these
19. _________ is a basis for establishing rational performance goals through the search for industry
best practices that will lead to superior performance.
a, TPM b, Kaizen c, Benchmarking d, None of these
20. PEEP in 5S stands for ____________
a, Place for Everything b, Everything in its place c, Both of these d, None of these
21. The parameters for vendor rating include
a, Price b, service c, Delivery d, All the above
22. Supplier should be treated as
a, Adversary b, Friend c, Partner d, None of the above
23. Communications with the vendor should be
a, Oftenb, Rarely c, As needed d, None of the above
24. Supplier performance should be monitored
a, Once a year b, Lot to Lot c, Never d, None of the above
25. Incoming inspection of supplier should be
a, Carried out on 100% basis b, Eliminated
c, Carried out on sampling basis d, None of the above
26. 5S improves
a, Quality of the product and processes b, Efficiency c, Employee morale d, All the above
27. Seiri means
a, Throwing away all items b, Throwing away unnecessary items
c, Sorting in a database d, None of these
28. Seiton is
a, Applicable to waste also b, Not part of 5S
c, To arrange necessary items in a neat and proper manner d, None of the above
29. Visual Management is a part of
a, Seiketsu b, Seiri c, Seiton d, None of the above
30. 5S is
a, A part of Kaizen tools b, Management tool c, Used for inspection d, All the above
31. Kaizen is a technique for
a, Gradual improvement b, Continuous improvement
c, Does not require capital investment d, All the above
32. Kaizen Blitz involves
a, Training of cross functional teams b, Carry out the job quickly
c, Aimed at dramatic improvement d, All the above
33. Kaizen is aimed at
a, Application of 5S b, Standardization of processes
c, Waste Elimination d, All the above
34. BPR is aimed at
a, Continuous improvement b, Gradual improvement
c, Radical` redesign and dramatic improvement d, All the above

35. JIT is a philosophy of

a. re-engineering for breakthrough b. variability increase.

 c. push production. d. waste reduction

36. An effective JIT effort should result in increased

a. costs b. queue time c. quality d. delay time

37. Goals of JIT partnerships include

a. elimination of all in-plant inventory b. elimination of in-transit inventory

c. complete backwards vertical integration. d. elimination of all activities.

38. A key to just-in-time production is

a. the elimination of all or most product options b. the elimination of all inventories c.
production in large lot sizes d. to rely very heavily upon purchased items rather than in-
house production

39. JIT has an internal focus and Lean Production begins with an external focus on

a.supplier relationships b. logistics c. customers d. design.

40. The 5S checklist item that calls for the removal of variation from the process via consistent
training, tooling, and procedures is

a. standardize. b. shine c. simplify d. segregate

41. Which of the following is not true regarding kaizen?

a. Kaizen requires substantial investment to fund cutting-edge innovation. b.Kaizen is different
than reengineering.
c.Kaizen concentrates on small, gradual improvements over the long term. d.Any improvement
activity is a part of the kaizen philosophy.
42. In the implementation of kaizen, the principle asset is considered to be
a.technology. b.automation c. financial investment. d.people
43. Benchmarking
a.is a cost -benefit tool for justifying investment.
b.is a process improvement technique for assigning workers to the correct workstations. c.is a
form of process variance reduction.
d.uses information from industry leaders to set stretch goals.
44. _________ refers to the ability to adapt quickly and effectively to changing requirements.
a.Best practices b.Flexibility c.Process benchmarking d. Kaizen

45. Which phase of 5S are you in when you clean machines, windows, floors etc

a. Sort b. Shine c. Standardize d.Systemize

46. What are the 5 phases of 5S?

 a. Shine, Shut-Up, Sustain, Sort, Standardize b. Sustain, Sort, Standardize, Sushi mi, Shine
c. Sustain, Sort, Standardize, Sushi mi, Shine d. Shine, Standardize, Sustain, Set-In-Order,
Self-discipline

47. What is the Japanese term for sort?

a. Seiri b. Seiton c. Seiso d. Shitsuke

48. What is the Japanese term for Shine or Clean?

a. Seiri b. Seiton c. Seiso d. Shitsuke

49. What is the full form of TPS?

a.Toyota Production System b. Total production system c. Total Predictive system d. Toyota
Predictive system

50. Lean production originated in ______. a. North America b. Japan c. China d. Korea

Unit V

1. What is ISO?
a. Indian organization for standard b. internal organization for standard
c. International organization for standard d. None of the above
2. ISO 9000 certification cost is _______
a, Appraisal cost b, Internal Failure cost c, External Failure cost d, None of these
3. Cost on account of incoming inspection is_______
a, Internal Failure Cost b, External Failure Cost c, Appraisal Cost d, None of these
4. QFD team may consist of
a, Marketing persons b, Designer c, QA d, All the above
5. Benefits of QFD includes
a, Consensus building and better coordination b, Increase companys efficiency
c, Cutting costs d, All the above
6. The voice of the customer includes
a, Customers unspoken requirements b, Technical requirements
c, Prioritized technical requirements d, None of the above
7. WHATs include
a, Stated customer requirements b, Unstated customer requirements
c, Important requirements to customers d, All the above
8. The voice of the organization includes
a, Technical requirements b, HOWs

c, Product performance requirements d, All the above

9. Degree of relationship between WHATs and HOWs is contained in
 a, Roof b, Bottom c, Inter-relationship diagram d, None of the above
10. Father of QFD is
a, Deming b, Taguchi c, Yoji Akao d, None of the above
11. Technical Correlation Matrix is
a, Relationship between HOWs b, Relationship between WHATs
c, Prioritized technical requirements d, None of the above
12. TPM is
a, TQM b, TQC c, Preventive Maintenance d, None of the above
13. Toyota production system elements include
a, JIT b, TPM c, TEI d, All the above
14. Availability is
a, MTTR/MTBF b, MTBF-MTTR c, 1-MTTR/MTBF d, All the above
15. 16 major losses of organization include
a, Speed b, Logistic c, Yield d, All the above
16. 12 major losses of office TPM include
a, Accuracy b, Set up c, Processing loss d, All the above
17. Failure mode critically depends on
a, Beta b, Alpha c, Mission time t d, All the above
18. Failure mode ratio arise because
a, Component may have more than one failure mode
b, Effect of failure of one components on the other
c, All the above
d, None of the above
19. Possibility of mission loss is
a, Failure effect probability b, Varies from 0 to 1 c, Qualitatively assessed d, All the above
20. FEMA includes
a, Design FEMA b, Process FEMA c, Software FEMA d, All the above
21. In exponential distribution the hazard rate is
a, Exponentially increasing b, Exponentially decreasing c, Constant d, None of the above
22. RPN is the product of
a, Severity b, Ease of detection c, Probability of occurrence d, All the above
23. ISO 9000 is standard for
a, Product quality b, Process quality c, Quality Management systems d, All the above
24. Quality audit phases include
a, Planning b, Preparation c, Carrying out the audit d, All the above
25. QS 9000 provide requirements of
a, ISO 9000 b, Sector Specific c, Company specific d, All the above
26. TL 9000 layers include
a, Sector specific requirements b, Measurements of software
c, Measurements of services d, All the above
27. Documents say
a, What has to be done b, What has been done
c, What are the objectives of the process d, None of the above
28. QS 9000 initiated by
a, Toyota b, Benz c, Ford Motors d, None of the above
29. Certification body should be selected based on their
a, Accreditation status b, Reputation c, Cost and Lead time d, All the above
30. Resource includes
a, Work environment b, Infrastructure c, Human resource d, All the above
31. EMS stands for
a, Environmental Maintenance System b, Environmental Management System
c, Environmental Marketing System d, None of the above
32. EMS certification is against
a, ISO 14000 b, ISO 14004 c, ISO 14001 d, None of the above
33. EMS is aimed at
a, Protecting health b, Sustained development c, Protecting environment d, All the above
34. ISO 14001 suggests the following for EMS
a, Plan b, Do c, Check d, All the above
35. ISO 14001 requires
a, EMS Manual b, Targets c, Objectives d, All the above
36. ISO 14001 certificate will be given after
a, Audit by team sponsored by registrar b, Internal audit
c, Audit of external experts d, All the above
37. National quality award are given to
a, Processes b, Employees c, Organization d, None of the above
38. RGNQA is awarded in
a, USA b, India c, Europe d, All the above
39. RGNQA stands for
a, Required Green National Quality Award b, Rational Ground National Quality Award
c, Rajiv Gandhi National Quality Award d, None of these
40. MBNQA stands for
a, Malcom Baldridge National Quality Award b, Member Board National Quality Award
c, Maximum Baldridge National Quality Award d, None of these
41. The most important parameter in MBNQA is
a, Leadership b, Process c, Customer satisfaction d, None of these
42. MBNQA is awarded to an organization in
a, Manufacturing b, Service c, Small Businesses d, All the above
43. Which of the following was developed by Motorola to improve its processes by minimizing
defects?
a. ISO 9000 b. Six sigma c. QS 9000 d.TQM

44. According to ISO 9001, the causes of nonconforming product should be

a) deleted b) eliminated c) identified d) eliminated and identified

45. ISO 9001 is not concerned with ____________ of quality records.

a) collection b) maintenance c) verification d) dis-positioning
 Total Quality Management Answer Key

UNIT - 1 UNIT -2 UNIT -3 UNIT 4 Unit - 5

1 C 1 b 1 b 1 a 1 c

2 d 2 d 2 a 2 b 2 d

3 b 3 d 3 d 3 d 3 c

4 d 4 d 4 c 4 d 4 d

5 a 5 d 5 c 5 c 5 d

6 b 6 b 6 d 6 a 6 a

7 d 7 d 7 c 7 d 7 d
8 b 8 c 8 b 8 d 8 d

9 c 9 d 9 d 9 b 9 c

10 a 10 c 10 a 10 d 10 c

11 a 11 c 11 b 11 d 11 A

12 b 12 d 12 b 12 b 12 c

13 a 13 d 13 a 13 d 13 d

14 b 14 d 14 c 14 b 14 c

15 c 15 d 15 b 15 c 15 d

16 d 16 b 16 a 16 b 16 d

17 b 17 d 17 d 17 a 17 d

18 a 18 d 18 d 18 b 18 a

19 c 19 c 19 d 19 c 19 d

20 b 20 a 20 b 20 c 20 d

21 C 21 c 21 b 21 d 21 c

22 d 22 c 22 a 22 c 22 d

23 a 23 c 23 c 23 c 23 c

24 d 24 c 24 c 24 b 24 d

25 d 25 c 25 c 25 c 25 d

26 c 26 d 26 D 26 a 26 d

27 d 27 c 27 A 27 b 27 a

28 d 28 b 28 B 28 c 28 c

29 d 29 d 29 D 29 c 29 d

30 a 30 d 30 C 30 a 30 d
31 b 31 d 31 B 31 a 31 b

32 d 32 b 32 C 32 d 32 c

33 d 33 a 33 B 33 d 33 d

34 c 34 d 34 D 34 c 34 d

35 a 35 d 35 A 35 d 35 d

36 c 36 d 36 A 36 c 36 a

37 e 37 b 37 D 37 a 37 c

38 a 38 d 38 D 38 b 38 b

39 d 39 d 39 B 39 a 39 c

40 a 40 a 40 D 40 a 40 a

41 d 41 c

42 d 42 d

43 d 43 b

UNIT 4 Unit - 5

44 b 44 b

45 b 45 d

46 c

47 a

48 c

49 b

50 b