Unit 5

3.
5 Unit 5:
We are going to give you some suggestions in this section on how to deal with portions of Unit-5. We
would be focusing on the following questions which generally one has in his/her mind when one thinks
about the easiest way to prepare for Unit-5.
Is this topic important keeping in mind CSIR-NET is in 2 months?
Which books to follow?
How many questions can I expect from this topic?
How to prepare in less time?
Topic-wise suggestion:
Is this topic important?
YES!!!! To be honest this Unit is very important. Development Biology contains all the very basic
concepts of Life Science and thus questions from various parts can be expected.
How shall I start?
This Unit being huge as most of the others, has to be dealt carefully. To start with, I would suggest
concentrating more on the topics related to Gametogenesis, fertilization and early development.
Going through the basic concepts in Section A is recommended.
Which books to follow?

You can follow any standard Book for this Unit. For Additional reference, I will suggest the following
books:
Developmental biology by Scott F. Gilbert:

o In addition to exploring and synthesizing the organismal, cellular and molecular
aspects of animal development, this book expands its coverage of the medical,
environmental, and evolutionary aspects of developmental biology.
The Embryology Of Angiosperms by S P Bhatnagar S S Bhojwan:

o Deals With The Study Of Structures And Processes Associated With The Formation Of
Gametes, Fertilization And Development Of Embryo And Its Nutritive And Protective
Tissues.
Time for this Unit:
This Unit consists of exhaustive Topics and sub topics like structure of gametes, zygote formation,
gastrulation and embryogenesis. Axes and pattern formation, post embryonic development-
larval, sex determination, floral development. Thus in this truncated time schedule, it demands
stress and even a slightly longer duration to prepare thoroughly. So In order to successfully
complete this Unit, I would suggest spending 3hrs a day for the next 2 months. A minimum of
2hrs each day is highly recommended for this Unit.
Prioritize the subtopics:

Go through all the basic concepts in section A. Then start with structure of gametes, zygote
formation, gastrulation and embryogenesis. axes and pattern formation, post embryonic
development-larval, sex determination, floral development
Suggestions:
The best suggested way to cover up this Unit is to put more stress on the topics related to
Gametogenesis, fertilization and early development.
These topics actually cover the entire basic portions of this Unit.
Then start with structure of gametes, zygote formation, gastrulation and embryogenesis. axes and
pattern formation, post embryonic development-larval, sex determination, floral development.
Topic-wise suggestion:
Basic Concepts of Development:
Most of the topics and sub topics in this Section are definition based. So simply go through
them thoroughly.
Gametogenesis, fertilization & early development:

Very important Section containing most of the significant topics of this Unit. Covering up
these topics would help in giving a complete glance of this Unit.
Morphogenesis & Organogenesis in Animals:
Cell aggregation & differentiation, limb development & regeneration in vertebrates;

differentiation of neurons, post embryonic development-larval formation,
metamorphosis are the topics to be dealt carefully from this Section.
Morphogenesis & Organogenesis in Plants:
Topics related to shoot and root development, leaf development and phyllotaxy are very
important from this section
Gametogenesis, fertilization, early development Morphogenesis and organogenesis in animals
1. Homeotic genes:
a. Determine the developmental fate of groups of cells in segments of an organism
b. Are unique to the development of flies and worms
c. Regulate the metabolism of lactose in prokaryotic cells
d. Regulate the cell cycle in eukaryotic cells
e. All of the above
2. What DOES NOT normally happen during gastrulation?

a. Three embryonic germ layers are established
b. A cavity forms inside the developing embryo that will become the primitive gut
c. The embryo increases dramatically in size
d. Embryonic germ layers begin to be committed toward distinct developmental fates
e. Cell migrations are a prominent feature of this developmental stage
3. At what stage of animal development do cells first move from the surface of the embryo into the
interior, resulting in a two- or three-layered embryo?
a. zygote formation
b. blastulation
c. neurulation
d. gastrulation
e. metamorphosis
4. The formation of the lens from the ectoderm layer during frog embryonic development is
dependent upon signals received from the underlying optic vesicle This is an example of:
a. embryonic induction
b. pattern formation
c. homeotic gene regulation
d. polarity in the embryo
e. apical dominance
5. Which embryonic germ layer has as one of its fates to become brain and nervous system:
a. mesoderm
b. archenteron
c. endoderm
d. blastocoel
e. ectoderm
6. A fertilized egg is called a:

a. germ cell
b. embryo
c. zygote
d. blastula
e. oocyte
7. Which of the following reflects Weismann's model of development?

a. Somatic development and change does not contribute directly to the characteristics of the next
generation.
b. Factors, or "determinants", in the nucleus regulate development.
c. Asymmetric divisions resulted in unequal distribution of developmental determinants to daughter
cells.
d. Development is "mosaic".
e. All of the above were important to Weismann's view of biological development.
8. The experiments of Spemann and Mangold first defined what feature of amphibian embryos?
a. the zygote
b. the blastopore
c. the neural tube
d. the organizer
e. the blastocoels
9. Genes control development by:

a. Controlling where and when proteins are synthesized.
b. containing small preformed body parts and organs that become "expressed" during development
c. Directly controlling phenotypes, without intermediates or influence from the environment.
d. Acting as enzymes to build proteins.
e. Containing instructions which describe in detail the final form to be achieved during development.
10. The folding of sheets of cells, the migration of cells, and cell death are all mechanisms of:
a. cleavage division
c. morphogenesis
d. differentiation
11. The process by which developing cells achieve their functional, mature identity as liver, or muscle,
or nerve is called:
a. cleavage division
c. morphogenesis
d. differentiation
e. growth
12. The establishment of the anterior-posterior or dorsal-ventral body axes is called:

a. division
c. morphogenesis
d. differentiation
e. growth
13. The pathway from a gene to a protein in eukaryotic cells involves:

a. First, transport of mRNA, then its processing, then transcription, then translation.
b. First, transcription of the RNA, then its transport, then processing, then translation.
c. First, translation of the RNA, then its transport, then its processing, then transcription.
d. First, transcription of RNA, then its processing, then its transport, then translation.
e. First, processing of the RNA, then its transport, then transcription, then translation.
14. Signal transduction can involve:

a. Interaction of a molecule with a receptor at the cell surface.
b. Intracellular modification of proteins by phosphorylation.
c. Production of second messengers such as cAMP.
d. All of the above can be components of a signal transduction pathway.
e. None of the above are components of signal transduction pathways.
15. The notochord is a ___ structure in vertebrate embryos that lies under the ___, and is flanked by
___.
a. mesoderm, neural tube, somites
b. endodermal, mesoderm, the gut
c. ectodermal, neural tube, mesoderm
d. mesodermal, ectoderm, endoderm
e. endodermal, epidermis, blastocoels
16. During gastrulation in Xenopus, the blastocoel:

a. Becomes the gut.
b. Is filled with endodermal cells and disappears.
c. is filled with mesoderm and disappears
d. Does not change, but develops into what is called the archenteron.
e. Is displaced, and its original location becomes an endoderm lined cavity, the archenteron, which
is a precursor to the gut.
17. The process in which the three germ layers form is called:
a. fertilization
b. cleavage
c. gastrulation
d. organogenesis
e. metamorphosis
18. During gastrulation in Xenopus, the future mesoderm and endoderm move inside the embryo
through the "blastopore"; in contrast, in chickens, gastrulation involves cells moving inward through the:
a. blastoderm
b. yolk
c. cleavage furrow
d. primitive streak
e. gut
19. In mammalian development, the embryo will form from which population of cells?
a. the blastocyst
b. the inner cell mass
c. the trophectoderm
d. the blastocoel
e. the extra embryonic membranes
20. Maternal factors are:

a. Energy rich proteins and lipids packaged into the vegetal pole.
b. Hormonal influences encountered in the uterus in mammals.
c. mRNAs and proteins packaged into the egg by the mother, which act to control early development
in the embryo.
d. genes contributed to the embryo by the maternal haploid genome.
e. components of the cortical granules which prevent polyspermy.
21. The role of maternal factors (such as Vg-1, Xwnt-1, and VegT) packaged into the vegetal region of
the Xenopus oocyte is:
a. in establishing the future dorso-ventral body axis.
b. to allow the vegetal region to divide during cleavage.
c. to make the vegetal region denser, so that the egg always floats with its animal pole upward.
d. to specify the future animal-vegetal body axis.
e. to provide energy and nutrients for the developing embryo.
22. Between fertilization and the first cleavage division, actin filaments pull the cytoplasm of the frog
egg toward the point of sperm entry in a process called:
a. cortical rotation
b. dorsalization
c. blastulation
d. gastrulation
e. determination
23. In frogs, maternally packaged Xwnt-1 leads to nuclear localization of _____ in the _____, which in
response signals to adjacent cells to become the _____.
a. -catenin, Nieuwkoop center, Spemann organizer
b. nodal, signaling center, shield
c. Vg-1, vegetal region, Nieuwkoop center
d. sonic hedgehog, limb bud, posterior
e. GFP, mesoderm, muscle and bone
24. The "mid-blastula transition" is the point in development when:

a. Translation of maternal mRNA is initiated.
b. Cell determination becomes fixed.
c. Cell division in the embryo ends.
d. Transcription of zygotic genes begins.
e. Blastocoel formation occurs.
25. The role of the Brachyury gene in ascidians is similar to that in Xenopus in that:
a. Brachyury sets up the animal-vegetal axis
b. Brachyury is characteristic of the organizer region
c. The Brachyury gene is expressed specifically in those cells that will form somites, and hence
muscle.
d. Signaling that leads to induction of the mesoderm results in expression of the Brachyury gene in
the mesoderm.
e. Brachyury is the master switch gene for muscle development on both organisms.
26. If embryos are disaggregated with chemicals or proteases, and the individual cells are mixed
together in culture, what will happen?
a. The cells will regulate to form one or more normal embryos.
b. The cells will often sort themselves so that like cells are together.
c. The cells will re-aggregate to form a normal embryo capable of continuing development.
d. The cells will associate with one another randomly.
e. The cells will undergo apoptosis, due to their lack of normal cell-cell adhesions.
27. During gastrulation in the frog, the very first cells to move into the interior of the embryo through
the blastopore come from the surface layer of cells in the marginal zone; they will become:
a. ectoderm
b. mesoderm
c. endoderm
d. yolk
e. neural ectoderm
28. Gastrulation in sea urchins, Drosophila, and Xenopus all begin with a change in cell shape, in which
the apical surface of an epithelial sheet contracts. This process is called:
a. involution
b. convergent extension
c. epiboly
d. invagination
e. intercalation
29. In Xenopus, the mesoderm moves in through the blastopore by rolling around the dorsal lip in a
process called:
a. involution
c. epiboly
d. invagination
e. intercalation
30. In Xenopus, the elongation of the mesoderm toward the anterior results from the intercalation of
cells during a process called:
a. involution
c. epiboly
d. invagination
e. intercalation
31. Neural crest cells will become:

a. Medullary cells of the adrenal gland.
b. Neurons in the sympathetic ganglia of the autonomic nervous system.
c. Neurons in the dorsal root ganglia of the peripheral nervous system.
d. Pigment cells in the dermis.
e. All of the above are derived from neural crest cells.
32. Neural crest cells taking the dorso-lateral route will become:
a. dorsolateral route ganglia
b. adrenal medulla
c. sympathetic ganglia
d. unsympathetic ganglia
e. melanocytes
33. Why is meiosis required for germ cell formation, yet is never used by somatic cells?
a. Meiosis is the cell division process that produces haploid products.
b. Meiosis is a process that produces one sperm and one egg from each dividing germ cell.
c. Meiosis is a specialized, highly efficient process of cell division, which is used because of the large
numbers of germ cells required by an organism.
d. Meiosis is a specialized form of cell division that produces four diploid cells instead of just two,
facilitating the production of large numbers of germ cells.
e. Meiosis is never used by somatic cells because the two rounds of division involved would take too
long for use by somatic cells.
34. What is the "acrosomal reaction"?

a. The acrosomal reaction is a repulsive interaction between the sperm and the egg.
b. The acrosomal reaction is the digestion of the acrosome by the sperm when it encounters an egg.
c. The acrosomal reaction is the digestion of the zona pellucida, permitting the sperm to contact the
egg.
d. The acrosomal reaction is the fusion of the sperm and egg plasma membranes.
e. The acrosomal reaction is the entry of eh sperm nucleus into the egg.
35. What is the cortical reaction, and why is it important?

a. The cortical reaction is the fusion of the egg cortex with the egg plasma membrane, which allows
the sperm to enter.
b. The cortical reaction is the entry of Ca2+ ions into the egg, which initiates development.
c. The cortical reaction is the exocytosis of the cortical granules during egg maturation, which
contain the components of the zona pellucida.
d. The cortical reaction is the depolarization of the plasma membrane after sperm entry, which helps
to block polyspermy.
e. The cortical reaction is the release of the cortical granules after sperm entry, which converts the
vitelline membrane into the fertilization membrane which blocks polyspermy.
36. In humans, an individual with an XXY chromosomal complement will develop as:
a. A male.
b. A female.
c. An hermaphrodite.
d. A super-female.
e. An individual with no secondary sexual characteristics.
37. Secretion of Mllerian-inhibiting substance by Sertoli cells:

a. Causes the Mllerian ducts to develop into the oviducts.
b. Causes the Mllerian ducts to develop into Wolffian ducts.
c. Causes the Wolffian duct to develop into the vas deferens.
d. Causes the testis to produce testosterone.
e. Causes the Mllerian duct to regress by apoptosis in males.
38. In mammals, dosage compensation is carried out by:
a. Decreasing the transcription of the X in males.
b. Increasing the transcription of the X in males.
c. Inactivating one X chromosome in females by condensation as heterochromatin.
d. Inactivating one X chromosome in males by condensation as heterochromatin.
e. Degrading one X chromosome in all female cells early in development.
39. Which of the following cells would be considered differentiated?

a. Blastomere
b. Spemann organizer
c. Myotome of the somite
d. Muscle cell
e. Stem cell
40. What is the difference between apoptosis and necrosis?

a. Apoptosis is a controlled program of cellular destruction; necrosis is cell death due to damage.
b. Apoptosis is a property of all differentiated cells; necrosis only occurs to undifferentiated cells.
c. Apoptosis is cell death due to damage that occurs during embryogenesis; necrosis is cell death
due to damage that occurs during adulthood.
d. Apoptosis is the death of a differentiated cell; necrosis is the death of an undifferentiated cell.
e. Apoptosis is a term used to refer to necrosis that happens during development.
41. What is the role of the caspases in apoptosis?

a. Caspase is a term used to refer to the initial signal that causes apoptosis.
b. Caspases are enzymes that are inactivated during apoptosis, and in their absence the cell dies.
c. Caspases are inhibitors of apoptosis; the destruction of the caspases causes apoptosis to begin.
d. Caspases are mitochondrial enzymes that are released when apoptosis is triggered.
e. Caspases are proteases that carry out the controlled destruction of the cell's components during
apoptosis.
42. Removal of the apical ridge leads to:

a. Regeneration of the entire limb bud from underlying mesoderm.
b. Formation of structures proximal to the apical ridge, but no formation of new distal structures.
c. Degeneration of the limb bud.
d. Regeneration of a new apical ridge from adjacent epidermal tissue.
e. Continued development in the progress zone, once the apical ridge has induced progress zone
formation.
43. The grafting of a second polarizing region into the anterior of a limb bud results in:
a. Degeneration of the bud.
b. Formation of a second bud at the site of the graft.
c. Formation of extra copies of the anterior-most digit, digit 2, is the only possible result.
d. Formation of extra copies of the posterior-most digit, digit 4, is the only possible result.
e. A new axis can be formed if the second polarizing region is large, and a second full set of digits
can form with mirror-image orientation to the normal set of digits.
44. The muscle-forming cells of the vertebrate limb come from:

a. The ectodermal epithelium of the limb bud.
b. The mesodermal mesenchyme of the limb bud, derived from lateral plate ectoderm.
c. Mesodermal cells that migrate into the limb bud from the somites.
d. The progress zone.
e. The polarizing region.
45. If apoptosis in the developing limb were blocked, what feature of a normal limb would not form?
a. The bones and muscles would not form.
b. The overlying epidermis would not form.
c. The proximo-distal patterning would not occur normally.
d. All the bones would form as the same structure.
e. The digits would be connected by webbing, and would not be separated.
46. Hedgehog signaling at the compartment boundary in the Drosophila wing disc leads to the
expression of what signaling molecule in the adjacent anterior cells?
a. engrailed
b. wingless
c. decapentaplegic
d. sonic hedgehog
e. BMP-4
47. Heart development begins as:

a. A folding process in the mesoderm below the notochord that is exactly like neural tube formation.
b. An outgrowth of the endoderm above the gut that forms a tube that will become the heart.
c. A pair of tubes in the lateral plate mesoderm that move together and fuse to form a single tube
that will become the heart.
d. A mesenchymal condensation below the notochord that forms the heart tube.
e. Cells from the somitic myotome, which migrate ventrally and form the heart.
48. The segmental identity of imaginal discs is determined by:

a. Hox genes
b. gap genes
c. segment polarity genes
d. maternal genes
e. pair-rule genes
49. The heart forms from:
a. dorsal ectoderm
b. lateral plate mesoderm
c. endoderm
d. mesenchyme
e. Henson's node
50. In developmental biology, what is meant by the concept of "growth"?

a. Growth occurs through increases in cell size.
b. Growth occurs through increases in cell number.
c. Growth can result from increases in the volume of extracellular matrix between cells.
d. Cell death is an important determinant of overall growth.
e. All of the above are mechanisms by which growth occurs.
51. Many cells in the body divide only rarely, if at all; neurons, red blood cells, and keratinocytes are
extreme examples. In which portion of the cell cycle would such cells be considered to be?
a. M phase
b. G1 phase
c. G0 phase
d. S phase
e. G2 phase
52. Insects such as Drosophila undergo three molts before becoming a pupa and undergoing
metamorphosis. Molting, which is also called "ecdysis", is controlled by what hormone?
a. ecdysone
b. juvenile hormone
c. auxin
d. cytokinin
e. growth hormone
53. Metamorphosis of amphibians is triggered by environmental cues that act on the:

a. thyroid
b. pituitary
c. hypothalamus
d. eye
e. embryo
54. Which of the following is consistent with a model for aging in which stresses leading to DNA
damage cause senescence and aging?
a. The DAF-16 protein of C. elegans is involved in the activation of stress responses.
b. Dietary restriction in mammals reduces the production of DNA-damaging free radicals in the
mitochondria.
c. Werner's syndrome is a premature aging illness, possibly caused by a defect in DNA repair.
d. All of the above are consistent with a model for aging based on DNA damage.
e. None of these observations has any relationship to a model for aging and senescence.
55. The term clone cannot be applied to offspring formed by sexual reproduction because:
a. Offspring do not possess exact copies of parental DNA
b. DNA of only one parent is copied and passed on to the offspring
c. Offspring are formed at different times
d. DNA of parent and offspring are completely different.
56. Amoeba and Yeast reproduce asexually by fission and budding respectively, because they are:
a. Microscopic organisms
b. Heterotrophic organisms
c. Unicellular organisms
d. Uninucleate organisms.
57. In the sperm, the function of the acrosomal vesicle is:

a. to form the centrosome of the zygote
b. to provide enzymes that digest the outer coat of the egg
c. to contain mitochondria that power sperm movement
d. to provide proteins necessary for sperm movement
e. all of the above
58. Which of the following are not necessary for movement of the sperm flagellum:
a. dynein
b. microtubules
c. mitochondria
d. centriole/centrosome
e. filopodia
59. The main purpose of gametogenesis is to:

a. make a haploid cell
b. specialize the gametes
c. organize the 3 germ layers
d. A and B
e. B and C
60. In the egg, _________ contain(s) proteolytic enzymes that are released by exocytosis after
fertilization and are important for preventing polyspermy
a. cortical granules
b. vitelline envelope
c. acrosome
d. jelly layer
e. centrosome
61. Which of the following is an example of a factor that helps to achieve species specificity in sea
urchin fertilization?
a. actin
b. microfilaments
c. bindin
d. cortical granules
e. centrosome
62. Which is NOT a property of resact?

a. influences flagellar movement
b. gives directional cues
c. confers species specificity
d. degrades jelly layer
e. acts as a chemokinetic
63. Fate mapping in a frog shows that cells in a specific region of a blastula stage embryo always give
rise to the blood cells. These cells in the blastula embryo are best described as:
a. specified
b. committed
c. determined
d. differentiated
e. none of the above
64. A specific chemical can prevent the degradation of the mitosis promoting factor (MPF). What
results if this chemical were added to early cleavage stage frog embryos?
a. the cells cannot exit mitosis and enter S phase
b. the cells cannot exit S phase and enter mitosis
c. the cell enters mid blastula transition
d. the cell begins zygotic transcription
65. The first step in sea urchin gastrulation is

a. the ingression of the primary mesenchyme into the blastocoel
b. the invagination of the primary mesenchyme into the blastocoel
c. the convergent extension of the primary mesenchyme into the blastocoel
d. the delamination of the vegetal plate into the blastocoel
e. the involution of the ectoderm into the blastocoel
66. During sea urchin gastrulation,

a. the cells that will form the ectoderm move inside the embryo
b. the cells that will form the endoderm and mesoderm move inside the embryo
c. the cells that will form the endoderm and mesoderm move outside the embryo
d. the cells that will form the ectoderm and mesoderm move inside the embryo
e. the cells that will form the archenteron move outside the embryo
67. You have a female fly that has mutations in both copies of the gurken gene. In her ovary, her cells
cannot produce functional gurken protein. What phenotype might you reasonably expect to obtain in her
progeny?
a. the embryos will develop normally
b. the embryos will be dorsalized
c. the embryos will be ventralized
d. the oocytes will be infertile
e. half the embryos will be normal, and half will be dorsalized
68. The following are important for setting up the anterior-posterior body axis in Drosphila
a. bicoid and pipe
b. bicoid and nanos
c. cactus and nanos
d. cactus and pipe
69. Frog embryos are injected with a morpholino against fibronectin. Which of the following
developmental processes will be affected:
a. neural tube closure
b. migration of cells during gastrulation
c. the first cell division will be blocked
d. the first nuclear division will be blocked
e. branching morphogenesis of the metanephric kidney
70. Dorsal endoderm with is cultured with ectoderm. The ectoderm is converted to:
a. ventral ectoderm
b. ventral mesoderm
c. ventral endoderm
d. organizer
e. Nieuwkoop Center
71. These 3 signaling pathways are important for induction and formation of the organizer:
a. TGF-, Wnt, Nodal
b. Notch, Wnt, Nodal
c. BMP, Fibronectin, Nodal
d. TGF-, FGF, Nodal
e. TGF-, Notch, Nodal
72. In a mammalian embryo, the trophectoderm

a. gives rise to the inner cell mass
b. gives rise to the embryo
c. gives rise to extraembryonic tissues
d. is pluripotent
e. all of the above
73. The neural tube becomes separated from the epidermis by

a. expression of N-cadherin in the epidermis
b. differential cadherin expression in epidermis versus neural plate
c. induction of medial hinge point cells by the notochord
d. pushing forces exerted by the migrating neural crest
e. wedge-shape morphological changes in the medial hinge point cells
74. Which pathway(s) relies on activated smads to transduce its signals?

a. Notch signaling
b. TGF- signaling
c. Wnt signaling
d. Hox gene signaling
e. both B and C
75. Which of the following is not derived from the ectoderm

a. neural tube
b. spinal cord
c. epidermis
d. muscle
e. pigment cells
76. Determination of dorsal ectoderm to become neural rather than epidermal requires:
a. BMP signals from the organizer
b. BMP antagonist signals from the organizer
c. BMP antagonist signals from the ventral mesoderm
d. BMP signals from the ventral mesoderm
e. maternally supplied Nodal signals
77. Injection of Noggin mRNA in cells that will become the future ventral side of a frog embryo mimics
the effect of an organizer graft to the ventral side. This experiment demonstrates
a. that Noggin is a transcription factor
b. that Noggin induces ventral fates
c. that Noggin is committed to organizer fates
d. that Noggin is required to induce a secondary axis
e. that Noggin is sufficient to induce a secondary axis
78. The neural crest is a population of cells that

a. form at the border between the epidermis and neural tube
b. undergo an epithelial to mesenchymal transition
c. migrate to distant parts in the body
d. none of the above
e. all of the above
79. After removing the epidermis, the neural tube:

a. lacks ventral neural fates
b. lacks dorsal neural fates
c. an ectopic roof plate is induced
d. more sensory relay neurons are formed
80. Removing the epidermis from a developing embryo and observing the effect on the neural tube,
is a
a. loss-of-function experiment
b. gain-of-function experiment
c. gene expression experiment
d. fate map experiment
e. knock-down experiment
81. One of the approaches of regenerative medicine is to:

a. treat disease using stem cells that have been grown in culture
b. facilitate improved transplantation of organs from non-human vertebrates
c. provide an alternative method for human reproduction
d. provide disease therapy by retrovirus-mediated gene delivery
e. E. none of the above
82. Knockdown of VegT in an amphibian embryo would be predicted to:

a. cause excess endoderm formation
b. cause a deficiency in endoderm formation
c. reverse the D-V axis
d. lead to an excess of mesoderm at the margin
83. Removal of the AER from a limb bud when the bud is first visible will:
a. lead to a limb with a duplicated proximal-distal axis
b. lead to a limb with an altered dorsal-ventral axis
c. lead to a limb that is missing muscle
d. lead to a limb that is only comprised of proximal elements
e. lead to a limb that is patterned normally in all three axes
84. The cardiogenic mesoderm derives from

a. intermediate mesoderm
b. paraxial mesoderm
c. the organizer
d. the epidermis
e. lateral plate mesoderm
85. While they are derived separately, hematopoietic stem cells and primordial germ cells share
which attribute?
a. ability to migrate
b. the ability to develop into the 3 germ layers
c. exist transiently, then are replaced in adulthood
d. are produced in only one embryonic site
e. are produced in association with vasculature
86. The mesenchymal cells of the limb bud

a. give rise to the bones in the limb
b. contribute to the skeletal muscles of the limb
c. give rise to the feathers of a chick
d. give rise to the fur of a mouse
e. receive uniform doses of Shh
87. Cardiac bifida is a condition that results from

a. failure of the heart tube to loop
b. failure of neural tube closure
c. failure of vasculogenesis around the heart
d. failure of the cardiogenic fields to migrate
e. both A and D are correct
88. Which of these organs does not contain cells derived from the endoderm?
a. lungs
b. ovary
c. esophagus
d. gall bladder
e. liver
89. X-chromosome dosage compensation can occur via

a. transcriptional repression of both X chromosomes
b. transcriptional repression of just one X chromosome
c. transcriptional up-regulation of one X chromosome
d. both A and B
e. options A,B, and C are known strategies
90. Hydra regeneration is accomplished by

a. neoblast proliferation
b. dedifferentiation of existing cells at the wound site
c. reorganization of existing cell types
d. donation of cells from other hydra
91. Mature mammalian gonads have the following in common:

a. a population of somatic cells that nurture germ cells
b. hormone producing germ cells
c. derivative of the Wolffian duct comprising the gonad duct system
d. derivative of the Mllerian duct comprising the gonad duct system
92. Genotypically XX mice that carry a transgene for SRY would:

a. develop testes
b. develop ovaries
c. develop both testes and ovaries
d. fail to form a gonad
e. form testes with primordial follicles in the tubules
93. Which is listed in the order of decreasing potency of a stem cell?

a. pluripotent totipotent multipotent
b. totipotent pluripotent multipotent
c. totipotent multipotent pluripotent
d. pluripotentmultipotent totipotent
94. In a salamander, after denervating and then amputating a limb,

a. a blastema is formed
b. morpholaxis occurs
c. absence of the nAG protein rescues regeneration
d. no regeneration occurs
95. Hox genes

a. are homeobox transcription factors
b. regulate dorsal ventral vertebral patterning
c. regulate anterior-posterior patterning of the gut tube
d. A, B and C
e. A and C
96. The following tissues are not important for proper pancreas development
a. notochord
b. dorsal aorta
c. lungs
d. vitelline vein
97. In endochondral ossification, bone forms by

a. mesenchyme directly converting to bone
b. mesenchymal cells becoming cartilage that is later replaced by osteocytes
c. osteocytes differentiate into cartilage and then bone
d. hypertrophic chondrocytes differentiate into osteocytes
98. The _______ will become the permanent adult kidney

a. pronephros
b. mesonephros
c. metanephros
d. ureteric bud
99. Kidney development requires the reciprocal interaction between these

Two tissues
a. metanephrogenic mesenchyme and endoderm
b. metanephrogenic mesenchyme and ureteric bud
c. metanephrogenic mesenchyme and pronephros
d. pronephros and ureteric bud
100. Transplantation of donor cells from the ZPA to an anterior host limb bud will
a. induce an ectopic limb bud in the trunk
b. cause loss of digits
c. cause loss of proximal structures
d. cause duplications of only the proximal structures
e. cause mirror image duplications of the digits
101. The concept of epigenesis meant that

a. embryos were pre-formed in the germ cells
b. embryos were pre-formed in certain genders gametes
c. embryos were born from eggs
d. embryos were formed from new materials
102. Which of the following does not require you to know the gene you want to study:
a. gene targeting
b. forward genetic screen
c. RNAi
d. mRNA overexpression using microinjection
103. Inductive interactions between two cells can involve:

a. secretion of a morphogen from one cell
b. direct signaling between membrane-bound proteins in neighboring cells
c. a receptor of one cell binding a secreted molecule
d. organizer activity by a group of cells in a tissue
e. all of the above are possible
104. Specialization, or the process by which cells become structurally and functionally distinct, is
known as:
a. specification
b. determination
c. differentiation
d. both A and C
e. both A and B
105. Studying the presence of mRNAs in a sample is useful because

a. it contains introns, which are the protein coding sequences
b. it lacks exons, which do not code for proteins
c. it reflects the genes that are being actively transcribed
d. it reflects the total number of genes in the genome
e. it contains enhancers and promoters
106. Transcription of a gene in the genome is affected by

a. chromatin methylation
b. chromatin acetylation
c. DNA methylation
e. all of the above
107. The reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) is useful because:

a. it can be used to measure protein levels in a cell population
b. it can be used to study chromatin
c. it can be used to detect the presence of specific transcripts in a tissue
d. it can be used to visualize distribution of transcripts in a tissue section
108. Something that is NOT characteristic of cancer:

a. evading apoptosis
b. limitless replication potential
c. metastasis
d. loss of both copies of a tumor suppressor gene
109. You wish to visualize muscle formation in live zebrafish embryos so you decide to make a transgenic fish.
To do this, you use a piece of DNA 5 to the start of a muscle-specific gene, containing the ______ to
express ______ in muscle cells.
a. control region, GFP
b. control region, LacZ
c. reporter, LacZ
d. reporter, myosin
e. enhancer, myosin
110. Transgenic animals are best described as the result of the ______of a piece of DNA that is
______the next generation.
a. removal, removed from
b. addition, removed from
c. addition, transmitted to
d. removal, transmitted to
111. Cancers of epithelial origin are called

a. glioma
b. sarcoma
c. leukemia
d. carcinoma
e. lymphoma
112. The most permanent way to fate map a group of cells is

a. performing in situ hybridization to detect transcripts
b. making chick-quail chimeras
c. labeling cells with vital dye
d. labeling cells with fluorescent dye
e. injecting RNAi
113. In mammals that are seasonal breeders, females are receptive only once a year. This is called
a. a follicular cycle
b. an estrous cycle
c. a menstrual cycle
d. a luteal cycle
114. After sperm are produced, they are delivered first to the
a. vas deferens
b. urethra
c. epididymis
d. seminal vesicle
115. Which of the following animals has an amniotic egg?

a. a frog
b. a sea turtle
c. a fish
d. all of the above
116. Progesterone is produced by the

a. corpus luteum
b. hypothalamus
c. seminiferous tubules
d. pituitary gland
e. oviduct
117. Ovulation is caused by the hormone

a. FSH
b. progesterone
c. oxytocin
d. estrogen
e. LH
118. How many chromosomes does a normal, mature, human sperm cell contain?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 23
d. 467.
119. What is the name of the vesicle at the tip of a sperm cell that contains enzymes that will help the
sperm cellpenetrate an egg cell it encounters?
a. scrotum
b. amnion
c. chorion
d. Sertoli cell
e. acrosome
120. Which of the following is the largest in size?

a. mature sperm cell
b. mature egg cell
c. polar body
d. they are all approximately the same size
121. The lining or inner layer of the uterus is called the

a. cervix
b. vagina
c. labia
d. endometrium
e. epididymis
122. Testosterone is produced by the

a. seminiferous tubules
b. germinal epithelium
c. interstitial cells
d. Sertoli cells
123. The majority of the semen is produced by the

a. seminal vesicles
b. prostate gland
c. bulbourethral gland
d. seminiferous tubules
e. they all contribute equally
124. In humans, fertilization of an egg normally takes place when the sperm and egg unite in the:
a. vagina
b. uterus
c. fallopian tube
d. ovary
e. All of the above are possible locations for fertilization.
125. The corpus luteum produces _______________, which inhibits ovulation.

a. LH
b. FSH
c. estrogen
d. progesterone
e. prolactin
126. Approximately two-thirds of the male ejaculate is produced and secreted by the:
a. Prostate gland.
b. Bulbourethral gland.
c. Testes and epididymis.
d. Cowper's gland.
e. Seminal vesicles.
127. Shortly before menstruation:

a. Blood levels of estrogen and progesterone decrease.
b. Blood levels of estrogen and progesterone increase.
c. Blood levels of FSH stabilize.
d. The corpus luteum secretes progesterone.
e. None of the above occurs.
128. During embryonic development, the testes form

a. in the scrotum
b. inguinal canal
c. in the thoracic cavity
d. in the abdominal cavity
129. The duct that transports the sperm into the urethra
a. vas deferens
b. epididymal duct
c. ureter
d. None of the above
130. Semen
a. is produced primarily by the testes
b. contains the sugar glucose which nourishes the sperm
c. contains prostaglandin which causes muscles of the uterus contract, thus helping sperm move up
the female reproductive tract
131. Which of the following is not true?

a. Sperm are produced in the germinal epithelium of the seminiferous tubules
b. The formation of sperm is known as spermiogenesis
c. Sperm are derived from spermatogonia is the germinal epithelium
d. The second meiotic produces four spermatids
132. The acrosome

a. is produced from the mitochondria of the spermatid
b. is produced from the nucleus of the spermatid
c. is produced from the rough endoplasmic reticulum
133. The hormone testosterone

a. stimulates cell growth in bone and muscle
b. is a protein hormone that causes the vocal cords to thicken
c. decreases activity in the sebaceous glands
d. is not present in women
134. In the female reproductive system, sperm follow the following route
a. Vagina, cervical canal, Fallopian tube, uterus
b. Vagina, Fallopian tube, cervical canal, uterus
c. Vagina, cervical canal, uterus, Fallopian tube
135. Which of the following is correct?

a. In humans, sperm are directly deposited in the uterus
b. The cervix is part of the uterus
c. The lining of the uterus is called the myometrium
d. The inner folds of the external genitalia are known as the labia majora
136. Which of the following is true regarding ovulation?

a. It is the name given to the process of gamete formation in women
b. It occurs at the beginning of each menstrual cycle
c. It begins at puberty and usually ends after a womans first birth
d. Is the name given to the release of ova or eggs from the ovaries
137. During the production of ova

a. the oogonia divide mitotically
b. oogonia divide to produce four eggs
c. the female germ cell undergoes two divisions producing an ovum and two polar bodies
d. the final meiotic division occurs just prior to fertilization
138. During the menstrual cycle,

a. the hormone LH stimulates estrogen production by follicles
b. the endometrium thickens in preparation for implantation
c. FSH stimulates growth of the ovarian follicles
d. The hormone LH stimulates the formation of a corpus luteum from the collapsed follicle.
e. All of the above
139. The periodic shedding of the endometrium is known as

a. ovulation
b. oogenesis
c. the secretory phase
d. menstruation
140. The interstitial cells in the testis produce _______________.

a. sperm
b. FSH
c. testosterone
d. prostaglandins
141. In the early weeks of pregnancy, ____________ gradually replaces LH, as LH production is
suppressed by negative feedback.
a. HPL
b. FSH
c. HCG
d. Prolactin
142. The hormone responsible for the thickening of the uterine lining in the first half of the menstrual cycle is
a. prolactin
b. estrogen
c. FSH
d. LH
e. e. progesterone
143. A sharp decrease in estrogen and progesterone levels 3 or 4 days before the end of the menstrual
cycle triggers
a. ovulation
b. degeneration of the corpus luteum
c. menstruation
d. menopause
144. In a male embryo, the ______________________ develop into the vas deferens and epididymis.
a. Wolffian ducts
b. Mullerian ducts
c. genital tubercle
d. urogenital folds
145. All of the following hormones are produced by the pituitary except
a. oxytocin
b. FSH
c. estrogen
d. LH
e. Prolactin
146. In the very early stages of reproduction, the step where a secondary oocyte is released from the
ovary and swept into the oviduct:
a. Step One: Ovulation
b. Step Two: Fertilization
c. Step Three: Cleavaged. Step Four: Morula
d. Step Five: Blastocyast
147. By day 4, successive divisions produce a morula, a solid ball of cells that enter the uterus.
a. One: Ovulation
c. Step Three: Cleavage
d. Step Four: Morula
e. Step Five: Blastocyast
148. A single sperm penetrates the secondary oocyte. Eventually, the sperm and egg nuclei will fuse,
resulting in a fertilized egg or zygote.
a. Step One: Ovulation
c. Step Three: Cleavage
d. Step Four: Morula
e. Step Five: Blastocyast
149. In what part of the male reproductive system are sperm stored and mature?
a. penis
b. urethra
c. epididymus
d. vas deferens
150. What is the most common cancer for males, ages 15-35?
a. lung cancer
b. testicular cancer
c. cervical cancer
d. prostate cancer
151. What are the two gamete cells?

a. androgen and testosterone
b. sperm and egg
c. zygotes
d. estrogen and progesterone
152. What are the only three chromosomes that can be tolerated in excess?
a. 21, 13, 18
b. 13, 15, 16
c. 21, 22, 23
d. 1, 2, 3
e. 2, 4, 6
153. The human prenatal period is divided into three period, except_____
a. Pre embryonic period
b. Embryonic period
c. Postnatal period
d. Fetal period
e. Period
154. Usually, how many weeks after fertilization does birth occur?
a. 24 hours after fertilization.
b. 40 days after fertilization.
c. 10 weeks after fertilization.
d. 38 weeks after fertilization.
155. The early stage in the reproductive process include:

a. Ovulation
b. Fertilization
c. Cleavage
d. Morula
e. All of the above
156. In what stage of mitosis does cytokinesis take place?

a. Interphase
b. Metaphase
c. Anaphase
d. Telophase
157. How many spermatozoas and eggs will be produced in the end of spermatogenesis and
oogenesis?
a. 4, 4
b. 1, 4
c. 1, 1
d. 4, 1
e. 3, 1
158. An Acrosome:
a. Contains the father's Chromosomes.
b. Is a sac that covers the head of the sperm, contains enzymes that will assist in fertilization.
c. Contains mitochondria that will provide metabolic energy to fuel the trip to the egg.
d. Contains mitochondria that will provide metabolic energy to fuel the trip to the egg.
e. Produces eggs and the hormones estrogen and progesterone.
159. How much sperm does a healthy man produce each day?
a. 10 million
b. 100 million
c. 1 million
d. 100,000
e. 1 billion
160. Capacitation of the sperm:

a. Occurs in the epididymis.
b. Occurs in the fallopian tube.
c. Occurs immediately after the acrosome reaction.
d. Is important to block polyspermy.
161. Which of the following types of placentas is incompatible with dizygotic twins:
a. Dichorionic diamnionic with separate discs.

b. Dichorionic diamnionic with fused discs.
c. Monochorionic monoamnionic with fused discs.
d. None of the above.
162. Destabilization of mitochondria by pro-apoptotic proteins does NOT involve:

a. release of cytochrome C into the cytoplasm
b. activation of caspase 9
c. activation of caspase 3, 6 and 7
d. release of cytochrome C into the nucleus
163. Which of these statements is true about the receptor mediated pathway of apoptosis:
a. does not involve the mitochondrial pathway
b. can be induced by TNF alpha
c. does not involve caspases
d. Involves caspase 9.
164. BMP (bone morphogenetic protein) produced in the mesenchyme underlying the AER is (directly
or indirectly)
a. Inhibitory to the production of FGF4 in the AER.
b. Inhibitory to the production of sonic hedgehog in the ZPA.
c. Is it (or its production) inhibited by gremlin (GRE).
d. All of the above.
165. Exposure to which of the following during the first trimester is most likely to be teratogenic?
a. Thalidomide.
b. Tylenol.
c. Cocaine
d. An X-ray of the arm.
166. Which of the following has NOT been associated with birth defects?
a. Amniotic bands.
b. Mutations in the transcription factor PAX6.
c. Retin A (a vitamin A derivative).
d. Folic acid supplements.
167. During limb development the mesenchyme begins to condese. It will then form:
a. a cartilage model of the bones in a proximal to distal direction over time
b. a cartilage model of the bones in a distal to proximal direction over time
c. bones directly without going through a cartilage model
d. all of the above
168. The skeletal elements of the limb are derived from the lateral plate mesoderm. The muscles of
the limb are derived from the:
a. Lateral plate mesoderm
b. intermediate mesoderm
c. migratory cells from the somites
d. nueral crest
169. One of the main functions of the apical ectodermal ridge of the limb bud is to:
a. signal the mesenchyme to produce forelimb or hindlimb skeletal elements
b. secrete SHH
c. inhibit cell division in the progress zone
170. All of the following occur during capacitation EXCEPT:

a. sperm motility is activated
b. there is an influx of Na+ which is balanced by an efflux of H+
c. Ca+ uptake is increased
d. sperm lose cell surface glycoproteins
171. During the acrosome reaction in mamallian sperm:

a. sperm motility increases
b. the inner acrosomal membrane becomes the outer boundry of the sperm head
c. a protease is released by exocytosis
d. the sperm nucleus begins to decondense to form pronucleus
172. The initial binding btw mamammlian sperm and eggs:

a. involves egg surface integrins
b. is affected by pretreatment of the egg with N-linked glycohydrolases
c. involves high energy sugar intermediates (UDP-sugars)
d. invovles only one of the three zona pellucia glycoproteins
173. As a result of sperm egg plasma membrane fusion:

a. cortical granule exocytosis is stimulated
b. the acrosomal reaction is completed
c. the zona pellucida is released
d. the block tp polyspermy is ended
174. Microvilli on the egg surface play an important role in incorporating the sperm during fertilization.
Based upon their structure, which drug would you think would block the contribution of microvilli to
incorporating the sperm into egg?
a. latrunculin, a microfilament inhibitor
b. colcemid, a MT inhibitor
c. puromycin, a protein synthesis inhibitor
d. tunicamycin, an inhibitor of the formation of N-glycosidic linkages
175. All the following are correct in formation of muscle tissue in the body EXCEPT:
a. all skeletal muscles in the trunk are derived from somites
b. limb musculature originates from the lateral plate mesoderm
c. smooth muscle tissue of the GI tract develops mainly form the splanchnic mesoderm
d. cardiac muscle develops from the splanchnic mesoderm surrounding the endothelial heart tube
176. Signalling between Notch and Delta:

a. occurs when Notch protein is secreted by the signaling cell
b. involves the interaction of two transmembrane proteins
c. occurs when Delta protein is secreted by the signaling cell
d. occurs when Nothch protein is "presented" to Delta via binding to ECM elements
177. The endometrium is "receptive":

a. during its proliferative phase
b. beginging at the time of ovulation
c. largely due to the influence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
d. 6 days following ovulation
178. The cells of the blastocyst that adhere to the endometrial lining at implantation are:
a. inner cell mass
b. synctiotrophoblasts
c. cytotrohoblasts
d. hypoblast
179. Cytochalasin D is an inhibitor of actin polymerization and is known to block mammalian

fertilization. At which step would you expect cytochalasin to block fertilization:
a. sperm-egg binding
b. sperm motility through the zona pellucida
c. incorporation of the sperm into the egg after plasma memebrane fusion
d. fusion of sperm and egg plasma membranes C
180. The barrier to species fertilization is due to:

a. differences in sperm fertilins
b. acrosin
c. ovoperoxidase
d. o-linked oligosaccharides in the zona pellucida
181. During compacitation the sperm acquires the ability to fertilize the egg. Of the processes that
occur during capacitation, which one is the most important in promoting the initial binding of the sperm
to the egg?
a. the change in the beat frequency of the sperm tail
b. the loss of glycoproteins from the sperm surface
c. the acrosome reaction
d. the uptake of Ca+ ions
182. After fusion of the sperm with the egg, the egg mounts a response that prevents additional sperm
from entering the egg. Which process below is NOT involved in this block to polyspermy?
a. excocytosis of corticl granules
b. digestion of zona pellucida glycproteins
c. release of ovoperoxidase
d. endocytosis of egg integrins
e. the propagation of a wave of Ca around the egg
183. Competition experiments with isolated zona pellucida componetns were used to id the egg
receptor for the sperm. Name the specific zona pellucida component id. O-linked oligosaccharides on the
ZPG III
The enbyro implants:
a. at the 16-cell stage
b. as a morula
c. as a blastula
d. as a gastrula
184. The skeletal elements of the limbs and body wall are formed by mesenchyme that is derived from:
a. paraxial mesoderm
b. somatopleuric mesoderm
c. splanchnopleuric mesoderm
d. intermediate mesoderm
185. Which of the following is NOT true of asexual reproduction?

a. It is more suitable for reproduction in animals in stable environments.
b. It results in offspring that are identical to each other.
c. It promotes genetic variation in each successive generation.
d. Budding is one type of asexual reproduction.
186. Which of the following animals would fit this description: "Eggs fertilized outside the body;
minimum of yolk; rapid development"?
a. bird
b. sea urchin
c. bony fish
d. reptile
e. human
187. At the end of gastrulation, which of the following are produced?

a. hollow balls of cells
b. embryos with germ layers
c. solid balls of cells
d. maternal messages
e. all of the choices
188. Which stage in development occurs first?

a. cleavage
b. morula
c. gastrula
d. zygote
e. blastula
189. The germ layers are formed in which of the following stages?
a. cleavage
b. morula
c. gastrula
d. zygote
e. blastula
190. The heart, muscles, bones, and blood develop primarily from
a. ectoderm
b. mesoderm
c. endoderm
d. the placenta
e. the gray crescent
191. The process of cleavage most commonly produces a

a. zygote
b. blastula
c. gastrula
d. puff
e. third germ layer
192. Which embryonic tissue is incorrectly associated with its derivative?

a. skin from mesoderm
b. nervous system from ectoderm
c. stomach lining from endoderm
d. circulatory system from mesoderm
e. skeletal system from mesoderm
193. Shortly after fertilization, successive cell divisions convert the zygote into a multicellular embryo
during a process known as
a. meiosis
b. parthenogenesis
c. embryonic induction
d. cleavage
e. invagination
194. Before gastrulation, the future phenotype of cell lineages is largely established by which of the
following acquired during cleavage?
a. the genotype
b. the portion of egg cytoplasm
c. surface recognition factors on the plasma membrane
d. the number and type of organelles
195. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Yolky eggs have most of their yolk near the vegetal pole.
b. The particular sector of the egg cytoplasm helps control the differences among cells.
c. The amount of yolk present in the egg influences cleavage patterns.
d. The cells of the animal pole are larger than the cells of the vegetal pole.
e. There is so much yolk in the eggs of reptiles and birds that cleavage is incomplete.
196. The gray crescent is

a. formed when the sperm penetrates the egg
b. not necessary for gastrulation
c. the portion of the egg where the yolk is found
d. at the vegetal pole of the egg
e. the point where the first cleavage occurs
197. The stimulus for the formation of the gray crescent is

a. provided by the RNA transcripts in the egg
b. the entry of the sperm
c. the responsibility of oocyte components
d. determined by the polarity of the egg
e. determined in part by all of the choices except the entry of the sperm
198. During which of the following stages do cells of identical genetic makeup become structurally and
functionally different from one another according to the genetically controlled developmental program
of the species?
a. cleavage
b. cell differentiation
c. morphogenesis
d. metamorphosis
e. ovulation
199. The differentiation of a body part in response to signals from an adjacent body part is
a. contact inhibition
b. ooplasmic localization
c. embryonic induction
d. pattern formation
200. The mechanism of embryonic induction involves

a. chemical signals
b. electrical signals
c. touch
d. chemical signals and touch only
e. electrical signals and touch only
201. Homeotic genes

a. cause lethal mutations
b. control blocks of genes necessary for pattern formation
c. are found only in fruit flies where they are responsible for odd placement of appendages
d. are also known as "fate maps"
e. operate only in individuals with two genes of the same kind
202. Signaling molecules responsible for embryonic induction are called

a. crystallins
b. morphogens
c. mutagens
d. inducagens
e. homeoboxes
203. Which of the following cells are diploid?

a. spermatids
b. primary spermatocytes
c. secondary spermatocytes
d. spermatogonia
e. both primary spermatocytes and spermatogonia
204. Cells inside the seminiferous tubules that aid in the development of sperm are the _____ cells.
a. follicle
b. hypothalmic
c. Leydig
d. prostatic
e. Sertoli
205. C. elegans is a powerful developmental model because

a. These nematodes are very small, so it is easy to maintain a large population in a laboratory.
b. The fate of every cell has been mapped.
c. The fate of cells that will become eggs and sperm are predetermined.
d. These nematodes have the same amount of DNA as Drosophila.
206. Which of the following best describes a morphogen?

a. a cell that secretes diffusible signaling molecules that play a role in specifying cell fate
b. a diffusible signaling molecule that plays a role in specifying cell fate
c. a protein that helps mediate direct cellcell interaction
d. a protein that enables cells to become totipotent
207. What would happen as a result of a transplantation experiment in a chick embryo in which cells
determined to become a forelimb were replaced by some cells determined to become a hindlimb?
a. A hindlimb would form in the region where the forelimb should be.
b. A forelimb would form in the region where the hindlimb should be.
c. Nothing; the forelimb would form normally.
d. Neither a forelimb nor a hindlimb would form because the cells were already determined.
208. Which group of genes, identified by Nusslein-Volhard and Caroll, is responsible for the final stages
of segmentation in Drosophila embryos?
a. morphogen gradient genes
b. gap genes
c. segment-polarity genes
d. pair-rule genes
209. Suppose that during a mutagenesis screen to isolate mutations in Drosophila, you came across a
fly with legs growing out of its head. What gene cluster is likely affected?
a. Bicoid
b. Hunchback
c. Bithorax
d. Antennapedia
210. What would be the likely result of a mutation of the bcl-2 gene on the level of apoptosis?
a. no change
b. a decrease in apoptosis
c. an increase in apoptosis
d. First it would increase, but later it would decrease.
211. The gene clock hypothesis is best described by which of the following explanations?
a. Mutations accumulate partially through the addition of an OH group to the base guanine.
b. Specific genes exist to promote longevity.
c. Free radicals can cause genetic mutations, particularly when we are sleeping.
d. Calorie restriction leads to an increased life span.
212. Which of the following types of blastulae may be formed as a result of holoblastic cleavage?
a. Blastocyst, stereoblastula & periblastula
b. Ceoloblastula, discoblastula & blastocyst
c. Blastocyst, periblastula & discoblastula
d. stereoblastula, Ceoloblastula & Blastocyst
213. Which one of the following type of blastula is found in chick?

a. discoblastula
b. amphiblastula
c. blastocyst
d. periblatula
214. The jelly found around the amphibians eggs exemplifies which one of the following type of
membrane?
a. Tertiary
b. Vitelline membrane
c. Secondary
d. Primary
215. Which of the following sequences best represents the life cycle of a typical angiosperm?
a. Gametophyte meiosis gametes fertilization sporophyte spores zygote
gametophyte
b. Gametophyte gametes meiosis fertilization sporophyte spores zygote
gametophyte
c. Sporophyte meiosis gametophyte spores fertilization zygote sporophyte
d. Sporophyte meiosis gametophyte gametes fertilization zygote sporophyte
e. Sporophyte spores gametophyte meiosis gametes fertilization zygote
sporophyte
216. The unequal division of the cytoplasm among frog embryo cells during early cleavage, as shown
in the diagram, results from
a. different amounts of DNA

b. gastrulation of the embryo
c. formation of the blastula
d. segregation of the maternal and paternal cells
e. uneven distribution of yolk
217. In Drosophila
I. sex is determined by the ratio of X chromosomes to sets of autosomes
II. the Y chromosome does not play a role in sex determination
III. there are no sex hormones, so each cell makes a sex determination decision
IV. Sxl gene is activated in females and is repressed in males
a. I and II
b. I and IV
c. I, II and III
d. I, II,III and IV
218. Cytokinesis in animal cells is caused by

a. the sliding movements of a band of microtubules around the circumference of the cell
b. the contraction of a band of actin filaments around the circumference of the cell
c. the movement of the mitotic spindle fibers
d. endocytosis of the plasma membrane around the equator of the cell
e. fusion of cytoplasmic membrane vesicles at the equator of the cell
219. When the nucleus of a frog red blood cell, which does not replicate DNA, is transplanted into an
enucleated frog egg, the egg goes through several cell divisions. Which of the following is the best
interpretation for this phenomenon?
a. Isolated red-blood-cell nuclei synthesize DNA.
b. The nucleus plays no role in cell division.
c. An enucleated frog egg can divide.
d. Genes do not function during early cleavage.
e. The cytoplasm controls nuclear DNA synthesis.
220. Dosage compensation in drosophila can be visualized using
a. A gel electrophoresis
b. Autoradiography
c. Chromosome banding
d. Tritium hydrogen labeled DNA
221. The main function of oxytocin is
a. A Relaxation of uterine muscles during pregnancy
b. Contraction of uterine muscles at birth
c. Ovaluation of egg from ovary
d. Maintenace of embryo attached to placenta
222. Drosophila shares more its genes with sister with sister (75%) as compare to its daughter(50%) due
to
a. Eusocialbility
b. Kin selection
c. Haploid diploid
d. Parthenogenesis
223. The stage of meiosis I in which crossing over takes place

a. Zygotene
b. Diplotene
c. Diakinesis
d. Pachytene
224. Drosophilla with chromosome complement XXXXY/AA will be

a. Ferile female
b. Meta male
c. Normal male
d. Intersex
225. Dosage compensation in drosophila is achieved by

a. Selective elimination of maternal X chromosomes
b. Heterochromatization of paternal X chromosomes
c. Hyperactivation of maternal x chromosomes
d. hyperactivation of paternal X chromosomes
226. Which is one of the major step during programmed cell death in plants
a. Systemic acquired resistance
b. Hypersensitivity
c. Cell lysis
d. cell necrosis
227. The hormone secreated by developing placenta is

a. Choronic gonadotropin
b. Estrogen
c. Relaxin
d. ADH
228. It has been observed the transfer of certain X segment in XO Caenorhhabditis elegans, restores
female character.It suggest that mode of sex determination is
a. X/A ratio
b. XY type
c. A/X
d. Ploidy difference
229. Which is true about Mitosis Promoting Factor (MPF)

a. Concentration cyclically varies during entire M phase
b. its concentration can be sensed during S
c. Its concentration can be sensed during G1
d. Control the replication of DNA
230. Insulin resistance females generally have problem in ovulation because

a. The elevated androgens cause an increase in free estrogen which results in a decrease in follicle
stimulating hormone (FSH)
b. The androgens are decreased thus follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) is increased
c. Amount of free estrogen decreases
d. ovary become non-functional
231. Circadian rhythms are controlled by

a. Medulla
b. Cortex
c. Pituatory gland
d. Suprachaismatic nucleus
232. Which is true for amount of yolk and cleavage in egg of amphibian?
a. Mesolecithal and holoblastic cleavage
b. Isolecithal and holoblastic cleavage
c. Mesolecithal and meroblastic cleavage
d. Microlecithal and meroblastic cleavage
233. During male gametogenesis, primary spermatocytes are formed

a. Before meiosis-I
b. After meiosis-I
c. After meiosis-II
d. Mature sperms
234. One of the most important gene, involved in dorsal ventral axis determination in Drosophila is
dorsal. It codes Dorsal protein which
a. is taken up into the nuclei of cells and this side will become the ventral side
b. remains in the cytoplasm of cell and this side will become ventral side.
c. is taken up into the nuclei of cells and this side will become the dorsal side.
d. degraded in one side and that will become dorsal side
235. In amphibian oocyte, the germplasm which gets segregated during cleavage to give rise to
primordial germ cells (PGC's) is normally
a. distributed evenly throughout the oocyte.
b. localized at animal pole.
c. localized at vegetal pole.
d. aggregated in central part of oocyte.
236. Cytoplasmic determinants coding for anterior structure of Drosophila embryo if injected elsewhere
in the recipient embryo, would lead to
a. normal development.
b. formation of additional ectopic head.
c. degeneration.
d. a phenotype with two heads and two tails.
237. Four of the five answers listed below are found in a seed. Select the exception.
a. ovary
b. cotyledon
c. meristem
d. coleoptile
e. endosperm
238. In a vertebrate embryo, the paraxial mesoderm gives rise to the

a. neural tube
b. neural crest
c. somites
d. notochord
239. In a vertebrate embryo, melanocytes differentiate from cells of the

a. dermatome
b. scelerotome
c. dorsolateral neural crest
d. ventral neural crest
240. In a mammalian embryo, which part of the blastocyst will give rise to the body of the offspring?
a. blastocoel
b. trophoblast
c. endometrium
d. inner cell mass
241. Formation of the neural crest is induced by signaling proteins secreted from the
a. epidermis
b. neural folds
c. neural groove
d. notochord
242. A normal female mammal experiences X chromosome inactivation during early embryogenesis.
How does this event benefit the survival of the embryo?
a. quantitative reduction in the level of X chromosome gene products
b. unmasking of recessive alleles on the X chromosome
c. compensation for the absence of Y chromosome gene products
d. genetic mosaicism
243. Elongating axons prefer to grow on substrates rich in the extracellular matrix (ECM) protein
laminin. This is an example of
a. attractive chemotaxis
b. attractive haptotaxis
c. repulsive chemotaxis
d. repulsive haptotaxis
244. Which of the following treatments will inhibit the segregation of lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN)
axons carrying information from the two eyes?
a. monocular visual deprivation
b. binocular visual deprivation
c. both A & B
d. neither A or B
245. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the role of the growth cone in axon
elongation?
a. undergoes membrane fusion with synaptic targets
b. synthesizes new gene products used to elongate the axon
c. transports newly synthesized gene products along the axon
d. selects direction in which the axon will elongate
246. A myeloid precursor cell is able to generate all of the following cell types except
a. erythrocyte
b. lymphocyte
c. monocyte
d. macrophage
247. The somite gives rise to all of the following tissues except
a. peripheral nervous system
b. dorsal (back) muscles
c. vertebrae of the spinal column
d. connective tissue of the skin
248. Down-regulation of the cell adhesion protein N-cadherin is required for which morphogenetic
event?
a. invagination of neural groove
b. separation of somites from presomitic mesoderm
c. epithelial-to-mesenchymal transformation of neural crest
d. epithelial-to-mesenchymal transformation of sclerotome
249. Which of the following is a function of the contents of the acrosome during fertilization?
a. to help propel the sperm
b. to digest the exterior coats of the egg
c. to trigger the completion of meiosis by the sperm cell
d. to nourish the mitochondria of the sperm
e. to block polyspermy
250. Which of the following statements is (are) true concerning the vitelline layer of the sea urchin
egg?
a. It is outside the fertilization membrane.
b. It has receptor molecules that are specific for binding acrosomal proteins.
c. It releases calcium, which initiates the cortical reaction.
d. Only A and B are correct.
e. A, B, and C are correct.
251. The cortical reaction functions directly in the

a. formation of a fertilization membrane.
b. generation of a nervelike impulse by the egg cell.
c. production of a fast block to polyspermy.
d. fusion of egg and sperm nuclei.
e. release of hydrolytic enzymes from the sperm cell.
252. What causes the "slow block" to polyspermy?
a. formation of the fertilization membrane
b. a transient voltage change across the membrane
c. the jelly coat blocking sperm penetration
d. inactivation of the sperm acrosome
e. the consumption of yolk protein
253. Which of the following is least related to the others?

a. cortical reaction
b. slow block to polyspermy
c. bindin
d. fertilization membrane
e. cortical granules
254. If an egg cell contained EDTA, a chemical that binds calcium and magnesium, what effect would
this have on reproduction?
a. The zygote would not contain 46 chromosomes.
b. The fusion of sperm and egg nuclei would be blocked.
c. The fertilization envelope would not be formed.
d. The acrosomal reaction would be blocked.
e. The fast block to polyspermy would not occur.
255. Which statement about egg developement is true?

a. The contents of the cortical granules contribute to the fast block to polyspermy.
b. The mRNA involved with early activation of the egg arises from the sperm nucleus.
c. A second messenger system is activated following fertilization.
d. Eggs without a nucleus cannot initiate division.
e. The sperm and egg micronuclei have fused by the end of the cortical reaction.
256. All of the following statements about fertilization are correct except:
a. It invaginates the blastula to form the gastrula.
b. A slow block to polyspermy occurs when cortical granules erect a fertilization membrane.
c. Gamete fusion depolarizes the egg cell membrane and sets up a fast block to polyspermy.
d. Egg cell depolarization initiates the cortical reaction.
e. It reinstates diploidy.
257. What part of the sperm first contacts the egg plasma membrane?
a. the posterior acrosomal membrane
b. the anterior plasma membrane
c. the fertilization membrane
d. the posterior plasma membrane
e. the anterior acrosomal membrane
258. All of the following occur during early cleavage of an animal zygote except:
a. The nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio of the cells increases.
b. The embryo grows significantly in mass.
c. The developing cell undergoes mitosis.
d. The developing cell undergoes cytokinesis.
e. The ratio of surface area to volume of the cells increases.
259. How does the animal pole differ from the vegetal pole of a zygote?
a. The animal pole has a higher concentration of yolk.
b. The polar bodies bud from this region.
c. The posterior end of the embryo forms here.
d. The animal pole gives rise to the hemisphere with yellow yolk.
e. The blastomere originates in the animal pole.
260. Which of the following is correct about the yolk of the frog egg?
a. It is concentrated at the animal pole.
b. It is homogeneously arranged in the egg.
c. It impedes the formation of a primitive streak.
d. It prevents gastrulation.
e. It leads to unequal rates of cleavage for the animal pole compared to the vegetal pole.
261. You observe an embryo in which the initial cleavage divisions are radial and meroblastic, extra
embryonic membranes develop, and a primitive streak is formed. How would you identify this organism,
based on the information given?
a. mammal
b. reptile or bird
c. fish or amphibian
d. bird or mammal
e. invertebrate
262. Meroblastic cleavage occurs in which of the following?

I. sea urchins
II. humans
III. birds
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. I and III only
e. II and III only
263. Why do genetic mutations in asexual organisms lead to more evolutionary change than genetic
mutations in sexual forms?
a. More genetic variation is present in organisms that reproduce asexually.
b. Asexual organisms have more dominant genes than organisms that reproduce sexually.
c. Asexual organisms devote more time and energy to the process of reproduction.
d. Sexual organisms can produce more offspring in a given time.
e. The haploid mutations of asexual organisms are immediately expressed.
264. Which of the following is a form of asexual reproduction?

a. parthenogenesis
b. protandry
c. protogyny
d. hermaphroditism
e. anadromesis
265. You observe an organism with the following characteristics: parthenogenetic reproduction,
internal development of embryos, presence of an amnion, lack of parental care of young. Of the following,
the organism is probably a(an)
a. mammal.
b. lizard.
c. bird.
d. frog.
e. earthworm.
266. Which animal would be least likely to be hermaphroditic?
a. liver fluke
b. tapeworm
c. lobster
d. earthworm
e. barnacle
267. Why is sexual reproduction important?

a. It can result in numerous offspring in a short amount of time.
b. The resulting diverse phenotypes may enhance survival of a population in a changing
environment.
c. It allows animals to conserve resources and reproduce only during optimal conditions.
d. It enables isolated animals to colonize a habitat rapidly.
e. Both A and D are important.
268. Which of the following is not required for internal fertilization?

a. internal development of the embryo
b. copulatory organ
c. sperm receptacle
d. behavioral interaction
e. All of the above are necessary for internal fertilization.
269. Why is internal fertilization considered more advantageous than external fertilization?
a. Usually fewer offspring are produced, so ample food supply is available.
b. The increased survival rate results in rapid population increases.
c. The smaller number of offspring often receive a greater amount of parental protection.
d. Usually a smaller number of genes are present, which promotes genetic stability.
e. The time and energy devoted to reproduction is decreased.
270. Internal and external fertilization both

a. produce a zygote.
b. occur in vertebrates.
c. occur in eutherian animals.
d. A and B only are correct.
e. A and C only are correct.
271. Organisms that produce amniote eggs, in general

a. invest more parenting energy than do placental animals.
b. invest most of their reproductive energy in the embryonic and early postnatal development of
their offspring.
c. produce more gametes than do those animals with external fertilization and development.
d. have a higher embryo mortality rate than do those with unprotected embryos.
e. All of the above are correct.
272. Which of these is not a correct statement about reproduction in invertebrates?

a. A few species split open to release gametes to the environment.
b. Some invertebrates have structures that store sperm.
c. Many invertebrates utilize external fertilization.
d. Many invertebrates have separate sexes.
e. Invertebrates do not engage in copulation.
273. A cloaca is an anatomical structure found in most vertebrates, which functions as

a. a common exit for the digestive, excretory, and reproductive systems.
b. a gland that secretes mucus to lubricate the vaginal opening.
c. a specialized sperm-transfer device produced by males.
d. a region bordered by the labia minora and clitoris in females.
e. a source of nutrients for developing sperm in the testes.
274. Two manor theories of thought have lead to how the embryo develops from the egg. One is
called perforation and the other is epigenesis. What was the proof that determined epigenesis was the
correct form?
a. using a microscope scientists discovered that all the stages of development are preformed within
one another
b. using a microscope scientists have shown that an embryo gradually forms from a single egg.
c. RNA analysis showed that perforation determines how the embryo will form.
d. The fossil record demonstrated that perforation develop first then evolved into epigenesis
275. One of the great mysteries of embryo development has been , how to differentiate gene
expression in the first cell. Modern biology has shown that.
a. gravity affects which part of the fist cell will become the head or the tail.
b. A concentration gradient of cytoplasmic material is determined by the mother and this affects
gene regulation in the developing egg.
c. Development of the first set of cells is random, then position effects the Organogenesis and
following development
d. This statement is false, we have no idea how embriogenesis occurs.
276. There are a number of methods that animals used in the development and Morphogenesis of the
embryo. These must function properly or the embryo will die. Which of the following are properly
matched.
a. movement improper movement results in the switching of the left and right side
b. Morphogenesis improper Morphogenesis results in a cleft palate
c. programmed cell death improper Morphogenesis results in extra structures liked webbed
fingers
d. folding - improper folding results in positional switching of arms and legs
277. The process that triggers development is

a. Morphogenesis
b. fertilization
c. acrosomal reaction
d. cortical reaction
278. the proper sequence after fertilization is
a. fertilized egg, gastrula, blastula, mordula
b. fertilized egg,, blastula, mordula, gastrula
c. blastula, mordula, gastrula fertilized egg.
279. Which of the following is involved in embryonic development?

a. cell differentiation
b. cell division
c. morphogenesis
d. A and B
e. A, B, and C
280. "Becoming specialized in structure and function" is a definition of

a. pattern formation.
b. development.
c. differentiation.
d. induction.
e. morphogenesis.
281. Without which of the following processes would all the others be impossible?
a. activation
b. cell division
c. induction
d. differentiation
e. morphogenesis
282. A model organism for genetic analysis must meet certain criteria. Which of these is not one of
the criteria?
a. readily observable embryos
b. relatively small genomes
c. short generation times
d. the ability to produce both egg and sperm
e. knowledge of the organism
283. Of the following, which has not proven to be a useful model organism in the study of
developmental genetics?
a. Caenorhabditis
b. humans
c. mice
d. Arabidopsis
e. Drosophila
284. The nematode Caenorhabditis elegans is used as a model organism for genetic studies. One of
the key advantages of using Caenorhabditis elegans for study is that
a. its genome is as large as ours.
b. it has a great variety of somatic cells.
c. early stages of development proceed quickly.
d. it is hermaphroditic, making it easy to detect recessive mutations.
e. morphogenesis and growth occur throughout life.
285. The process of cellular differentiation is a direct result of

a. cell division.
b. morphogenesis.
c. differences in cellular genomes.
d. differential gene expression.
e. induction.
286. The cloning of a plant from somatic cells is consistent with the view that
a. the differentiated state is normally very unstable.
b. genes are lost during differentiation.
c. differentiated cells retain all the genes of the zygote.
d. differentiated cells contain masked mRNA.
e. cells can be easily reprogrammed to differentiate and develop into another kind of cell.
287. The ability of a transplanted nucleus to support development

a. depends on the DNA base sequence.
b. only occurs in plants.
c. depends on the size of the genome.
d. is inversely related to the age of the donor.
e. depends on the nucleus not changing.
288. A cell that remains flexible in its developmental possibilities is said to be

a. totipotent.
b. epigenic.
c. determined.
d. genomically equivalent.
e. differentiated.
289. The cloning of "Dolly" was considered a major scientific breakthrough because
a. it was the first time a surrogate mother was used successfully.
b. it was evidence that DNA methylation regulates gene expression.
c. it showed that cells can be arrested in the cell cycle.
d. it showed that differentiated adult mammal cells can dedifferentiate.
e. it proved that the pattern of gene expression is controlled at transcription.
290. All of the following statements are true about stem cells except:
a. Stem cell DNA lacks introns.
b. Stem cells are found in the adult human brain.
c. Stem cells can differentiate into specialized cells.
d. Stem cells are found in bone marrow.
e. Stem cells can continually reproduce themselves.
291. The first evidence of differentiation is

a. determination.
b. changes resulting from induction.
c. changes in the size and shape of the cell.
d. cell division.
e. the occurrence of mRNAs for the production of tissue-specific proteins.
292. In most cases, differentiation is controlled at the level of

a. replication of the DNA.
b. nucleosome formation.
c. translation.
d. post-translational activation of the proteins.
e. transcription.
293. Which of the following serve as sources of developmental information?

a. signal molecules produced by neighboring cells
b. cytoplasmic determinants such as mRNAs and proteins produced before fertilization
c. tissue-specific proteins
d. A and B
e. A, B, and C
294. Which features of the unfertilized egg serve as sources of developmental information?
a. proteins
b. gradients of small molecules such as calcium ions
c. RNA molecules
d. A and B
e. A, B, and C
295. "The development of spatial organization in which the tissues and organs are all in their
characteristic places" is a definition of
a. induction.
b. pattern formation.
c. morphogenesis.
d. differentiation.
e. development.
296. One difference between development in plants and development in animals involves pattern
formation because
a. pattern formation is limited to specific locations in plants, but occurs in all parts of animals.
b. pattern formation is continuous in animals and limited to early development in plants.
c. pattern formation occurs in all parts of the plant, but is limited to specific locations in animals.
d. pattern formation is continuous in plants and limited to early development in animals.
e. A and C are correct.
297. Your brother, Todd, has just purchased a new plastic model of an airplane. He removes it from
the box and places all the parts on the table in approximately the positions they will finally be located
when the model is put together. Todd's actions are analogous to which process in development?
a. morphogenesis
b. development
c. differentiation
d. pattern formation
e. induction
298. A cell's location relative to the body axes in an animal embryo is determined by molecular clues
that control pattern formation. Which of the following contribute to positional information in Drosophila?
a. egg polarity genes
b. tissue-specific proteins
c. bicoid mRNA
d. A and C only
e. A, B, and C
299. Of the approximately 12,000 genes in Drosophila, what proportion are essential for embryonic
development?
a. 2% (about 240 genes)
b. 10% (about 1,200 genes)
c. 50% (about 6,000 genes)
d. 75% (about 9,000 genes)
e. 1% (about 120 genes)
300. The product of the bicoid gene in Drosophila provides essential information about
a. the left-right axis.
b. the head-tail axis.
c. segmentation.
d. lethal genes.
e. the dorsal-ventral axis.
301. Suppose a mutation occurred in Drosophila in the region of DNA that codes for the protein called
bicoid. What is most likely to happen during development?
a. The transcription of developmental genes will stop.
b. The fertilized egg will be bipolar.
c. The polarity of the fertilized egg will be disrupted.
d. Two sets of limbs will form in a mirror-image arrangement.
e. The embryos will express their father's genotype.
302. The product of the bicoid gene in Drosophila could be considered a

a. tissue-specific protein.
b. cytoplasmic determinant.
c. morphogen.
d. B and C.
e. A, B, and C.
303. Given the function of the bicoid gene product, if the gene were cloned and large amounts of the
product were injected into eggs, which of the following would be true?
a. The embryos would grow much larger.
b. The embryos would develop normally.
c. The embryos would grow extra wings and legs.
d. Anterior structures would form in the area of injection.
e. The embryos would die and probably show no anterior development.
304. What do gap genes, pair-rule genes, segment-polarity genes, and homeotic genes all have in
common?
a. They have no counterparts in animals other than Drosophila.
b. Their products act as transcription factors.
c. They act independently of other positional information.
d. Their products are all synthesized prior to fertilization.
e. They apparently can be activated and inactivated at any time of the fly's life.

a. morphogenesis
b. induction
c. bacterial transformation
d. cell division
e. differentiation

a. pair-rule genes
b. gap genes
c. cyclin genes
d. segment-polarity genes
e. segmentation genes

a. morphogens
b. induction
c. cytoplasmic determinants
d. homeotic genes
e. totipotent
308. All of the following are true concerning homeotic genes except:
a. A DNA sequence of 180 nucleotides is common to all of the genes.
b. They are translated into peptide sequences called homeodomains.
c. A mutation may cause misplacement of body segments.
d. They are the primary inducer of frog morphogenesis.
e. The peptide gene product is a regulatory protein that controls transcription.
309. Which of the following statements concerning homeotic genes is correct?

a. There is a sequence of 180 nucleotides common to all the genes.
b. They are translated into homeodomains that function as transcription factors.
c. They are egg-polarity genes that code for morphogens.
d. Only A and B are correct.
e. A, B, and C are correct.
310. The term homeobox refers to

a. a specific nucleotide sequence of some genes that regulate development.
b. a group of genes that determine polarity during development.
c. glycoproteins that assist cells during morphogenetic movements.
d. zones of polarizing activity commonly present during limb formation.
e. peptide sequences of 60 amino acids that turn other genes on or off.
311. Why is a certain 180-nucleotide sequence in many developmental genes called a homeobox?
a. because when it was first cloned, it could only be inserted into a bacterial plasmid called "box"
b. because virtually the same sequence is found in every homeotic gene
c. because it contains no introns
d. because it was first cloned by Dr. H. O. Meobox
e. because it reads the same forwards as backwards
312. A small, impermeable membrane is placed between the anchor cell and the other vulva precursor
cells in a larva of C. elegans. What would you expect the result to be?
a. The vulva would continue to develop normally.
b. The inner part of the vulva would develop, but the outer part would not.
c. The outer part of the vulva would develop, but the inner part would not.
d. The vulva would not develop at all.
e. Only the posterior part of the vulva would develop.
313. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Induction involves cells communicating with each other.
b. Induction can play an essential role in the formation of complex organs.
c. Induction signals are almost always small carbohydrates.
d. Induction may involve stimulating cells to die as well as to divide and grow.
e. Induction usually involves transcriptional regulation.
a. pattern formation
b. apoptosis
c. maternal effect genes
d. positional information
e. egg-polarity genes
315. In vertebrates, programmed cell death is essential for all of the following reasons except
a. normal triggering of the single-transduction pathways.
b. normal removal of damaged cells.
c. normal operation of the immune system.
d. normal morphogenesis of human feet.
e. normal development of the nervous system.
316. Drosophila lines with large, sometimes multiple,inversions in one or more chromosomes are often
used in maintaining laboratory stocks because of which of the following reasons?
a. Inversions maximize the process of chromosome pairing within and near the inversion.
b. Inversions in the male inhibit fertilization of non-inversion-containing females.
c. Inversion heterozygotes produce a greater number of viable offspring.
d. Inversion heterozygotes usually yield inviable gametes or zygotes when crossing-over occurs
within the inversion .
e. Inversion heterozygotes produce a greater number of recombinant offspring.
317. In Drosophila, regions of polytene chromosomes show puffs at different times in

development.Studies with labeled compounds have indicated that the localization to the puffs of tritiated
a. thymidine indicates that DNA is being synthesized
b. thymidine indicates that RNA is being synthesized
c. leucine indicates that new proteins are being synthesized
d. uridine indicates that DNA is being synthesized
e. uridine indicates that RNA is being synthesized
318. In Drosophila, a homeotic mutation would be the most likely explanation for which of the
following?
a. A decrease in the number of parasegments
b. A leg developing where an antenna would normally be located
c. Forked and dense body bristles instead of straight and sparse ones
d. A significantly shorter life span
e. An increase in wing length
319. Immediately after fertilization in animals, the first structural and biochemical changes in the egg
are initiated by
a. new gene transcription
b. the release of Ca2+ from internal reservoirs
c. the initiation of DNA synthesis
d. a lowering of cytosolic pH
e. a sudden drop in ATP levels
320. All of the following allow hermaphroditic animal species to avoid inbreeding EXCEPT
a. functioning as only one sex during mating
b. releasing eggs and sperm simultaneously
c. being protandrous
d. being protogynous
e. changing sex
321. All of the following occur during the cleavage stage of animal development EXCEPT
a. an increase in the nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio of the cells
b. an increase in the number of blastomeres
c. an increase in the mass of the embryo (D) an increase in the surface-to-volume ratio of the cells
d. rapid cell divisions
322. Fission is an asexual process

a. that allows regeneration of lost body parts.
b. that occurs in individuals that live in isolated areas.
c. in which a parent separates into two or more individuals.
d. in which a parent fragments into several pieces.
e. that is advantageous to individuals that produce gametes.
323. Hermaphrodites are animals that

a. possess both male and female reproductive systems.
b. have the gonads of one sex but the external appearance of the other.
c. develop from unfertilized eggs.
d. must fertilize themselves.
e. have abnormal reproductive systems.
324. Reproductive systems with external fertilization are most common in

a. terrestrial animals.
b. populations with many more males than females.
c. animals that are widely dispersed.
d. aquatic animals.
e. populations with many more females than males.
325. Which of the following statements about the reproductive system of human females is true?
a. In human females, eggs develop within the uterus.
b. The corpus luteum secretes progesterone, which helps maintain the uterine lining during
pregnancy.
c. After 9 months of development, an embryo is called a fetus.
d. The cervix is an important structure of sexual arousal.
e. The labia minora are a pair of thick, fatty ridges that protect the entire genital region.
326. Which of the following statements regarding sexual reproduction is true?

a. Sexual reproduction creates an individual that is a genetic copy of one parent.
b. Sexual reproduction generates greater genetic variation than asexual reproduction.
c. Sexual reproduction allows animals to expand their populations faster than asexual
reproduction.
d. Populations of organisms that reproduce through sexual reproduction generally have difficulty
adapting to changing environments.
e. Sexual reproduction produces 2n gametes.
327. The human egg is swept through the oviduct toward the uterus by
a. the beating of the eggs cilia.
b. the beating of the eggs flagella.
c. rhythmic contractions of the oviduct.
d. rhythmic contractions of the uterus.
e. the beating of cilia in the oviduct.
328. Human testes are positioned in an external sac rather than in the abdominal cavity
a. to shorten the distance that semen must travel during ejaculation.
b. to shorten the distance that sperm must swim during insemination.
c. so the testes can be kept away from the urinary bladder.
d. so the testes can be kept cooler than the bodys interior.
e. so the testes can enlarge during sexual maturation.
329. After being produced in the testes, sperm mature further in a structure called the
a. vas deferens.
b. epididymis.
c. prostate.
d. seminal vesicle.
e. bulbourethral gland.
330. Which of the following produces a thick fluid containing fructose, which is used for energy by
sperm?
a. prostate gland
b. bulbourethral gland
c. seminal vesicles
d. vas deferens
e. epididymis
331. Which of the following statements regarding spermatogenesis and oogenesis is true?
a. Meiosis in spermatogenesis produces two cells from one primary spermatocyte.
b. Meiosis in oogenesis produces one mature egg from one primary oocyte.
c. Oogenesis begins at puberty.
d. Spermatogenesis begins at birth.
e. Oogenesis is not completed without stimulation by estrogen.
332. The archenteron is lined with

a. Trophoblast
b. Endoderm
c. Ectoderm
b. Mesoderm
c. Echinoderm
333. The following events characterize mammalian development, but NOT chick development
a. compaction at the 8-cell stage
b. asynchronous cleavage
c. discoidal cleavage
d. formation of the primitive streak (or primitive groove)
e. implantation
334. The structure of the drosophila gene called Tinman is similar to a gene in humans that also
a. Promotes ear development.
b. Specifies the location of the heart
c. Determines structure in the eyes.
d. Specifies limb elongation points.
e. Filters lymphatic fluid.
335. As an embryo develops, new cells are produced as the result of

a. Differentiation
b. Preformation
c. Cell division
d. Morphogenesis
e. Epigenesis
336. Fertilization of egg without activation is most like

a. Placing the key in the ignition of a car but not starting the engine
b. Resting during half time of a basket ball game
c. Preparing a pie from scratch and baking it in the oven
d. Walking to the cafeteria eating lunch
e. Dropping a rock of a cliff & watching it land in the valley below
337. Contact of sperm with signal molecules in the coat of an egg causes the sperm to undergo
a. Mitosis
b. Depolarization
c. Apoptosis
d. Vitellogenesis
e. The acrosomal reaction
338. Even in the absence of a sperm, metabolic activity in an egg can be artificially activated by
a. Abnormally high levels of carbonic acid in the cytosol
b. Abnormally low levels of extracellular oxygen
c. Injection of calcium ions into the cytosol
d. Exposure to the low pH of the uterus
e. Depletion of its ATP supplies
339. The formation of the fertilization membrane requires an increase in the availability of
a. Bicarbonate ions
b. Calcium ions
c. Hydrogen ions
d. Potassium ions
e. Sodium ions
340. A sea urchin zygote undergoes its first cell division

a. 5 seconds after fertilization
b. 30 minutes after fertilization
c. 90 minutes after fertilization
d. 4 hours after fertilization
e. 24 hours after fertilization
341. A human zygote undergoes its first cell division

a. 5 seconds after fertilization
b. 30 minutes after fertilization
c. 90 minutes after fertilization
d. 4 hours after fertilization
e. 24 hours after fertilization
342. Contact of Sea urchin egg with signal molecules on sperm causes the egg to undergo a brief
a. Mitosis
b. Membrane depolarization
c. Apoptosis
d. Vitellogenesis
e. Acrosomal reaction
343. During fertilization, the acrosomal contents

a. Block polyspermy
b. Help propel more sperm towards the egg
c. Digest the protective jelly coat on the surface of the egg
d. Nourish the mitochondria of the sperm
e. Trigger the completion of meiosis by the sperm
344. The vitelline layer of the sea urchin egg

a. Is outside of the fertilization membrane
b. Releases calcium, which initiates the cortical reaction
c. Has receptor molecules that are specific for binding acrosomal proteins
d. Is first visible only one organogenesis is nearly completed
e. Is a mesh of proteins crossing through the cytosol of the egg
345. In a newly fertilized egg , the vitelline layer
a. Opens the eggs nuclear membrane to allow haploid sperm DNA to enter
b. Hardens to form a protective cover
c. Secretes hormones that enhance steroidogenesis by the ovary
d. Reduces the loss of water from the egg and prevents desiccation
e. Provides most of the nutrients used by the zygote
346. The cortical reaction functions directly in the

a. formation of a fertilization envelope
b. production of a fast block to polyspermy
c. release of hydrolytic enzymes from the sperm cell
d. generation of a nerve link impulse by the egg cell
e. fusion of egg and sperm nuclei
347. In sea urchins, the fast block and the longer lasting slow block to poltspermy, respectively,
are
a. the acrosomal reaction and the formation of egg white
b. the cortical reaction and the formation of yolk protein
c. the jelly coat of the egg and the vitelline membrane
d. membrane depolarization and the cortical reaction
e. inactivation of the sperm acrosome
348. In an egg cell treated with EDTA, a chemical that binds calcium and magnesium ions, the
a. acrosomal reaction would be blocked
b. fusion of sperm and egg nuclei would be blocked
c. fast block to polyspermy would not occur
d. fertilization envelope would not be formed
e. zygote would not contain maternal and paternal chromosomes
349. In mammals, the nuclei resulting from the union of the sperm and the egg are first truly diploid
at the end of the
a. acrosomal reaction
b. completion of spermatogenesis
c. initial cleavage
d. activation of egg
e. completion of gastrulation
350. Fertilization normally

a. reinstates diploidy
b. follows gastrulation
c. is required for parthenogenesis
d. merges two diploid cells into one haploid cell
e. precedes ovulation
351. In mammalian eggs, the receptors are found in the

a. fertilization membrane
b. zona pellucida
c. cytosol of the egg
d. nucleus of the egg
e. mitochondria of the egg
352. Compared to sea urchin eggs, those of mammals

a. complete the fertilization process more rapidly
b. have not already completed meiosis at the time of ovulation
c. have a more distinct animal pole
d. have a more distinct vegetal pole
e. have no requirement for the cortical reaction
353. A human blastomere is

a. an embryonic cell that is much smaller than the ovum
b. an embryonic structure that includes a fluid-filled cavity
c. that part of the acrosome that opens the eggs membrane
d. a component of the zona pellucida
e. a cell that contains a second polar body
354. at the moment of sperm penetration, human eggs

a. have used flagellar propulsion to move from the ovary to the oviduct
b. accept as many sperms as possible in order to select the one with the highest fertility
c. are still located with the ovary
d. have a paper thin cell of calcium carbonate that prevents desiccation
e. are still surrounded by follicular cells
355. in a developing frog embryo, most of the yolk

a. located near the animal pole
b. located near the vegetal pole
c. found within the cleavage furrow
d. found within the blastocoels
e. distributed equally throughout the embryo
356. among these choices, the largest cell involved in frog reproduction is
a. the spermatozoon
b. the ovum
c. a blastomere in the vegetal pole
d. a blastomere in the animal pole
e. one of the product of the first cleavage
357. the pattern of embryonic development in which only the cells lacking yolk subsequently undergo
cleavage is called
a. arcadian development, which is typical of insects
b. holoblastic development, which is typical of marsupial mammals
c. development which is typical of humans
d. development which is typical of amphibians
e. development which is typical of birds
358. as cleavage continues during frog development, the size of blastomeres

a. increases as the number of blastomeres decreases
b. increases as the number of blastomeres increases
c. decreases as the number of blastomeres increases
d. decreases as the number of blastomeres decreases
e. increases as the number of blastomeres stays the same
359. During the early part of the cleavage stage in frog development, the rapidly developing cells
a. Skip mitosis phase of cell cycle
b. Skip the S phase of cell cycle
c. Skip the G1 & G2 phases of cell cycle
d. Rapidly increase the volume and the mass of the embryo
e. Skip the cytokinesis phase of cell cycle
360. The vegetal pole of the zygote differs from the animal pole in that
a. The vegetal pole has a higher concentration of yolk
b. The blastomere originate only in the vegetal pole
c. The posterior end of the embryo forms at the vegetal pole
d. The vegetal pole cells undergo mitosis but not cytokinesis
e. The polar bodies bud from this region
361. The small portion of the embryo that will become its dorsal side develops from the
a. Morula
b. Primitive streak
c. Archenteron
d. Gray crescent
e. Blastocoels
362. The yolk of the frog egg

a. Prevents gastrulation
b. Is concentrated at the animal pole
c. Is homogenously arranged in the egg
d. Impedes the formation of a primitive streak
e. Supports the higher rate of cleavage at the animal pole compared to the vegetal pole
363. An embryo with meroblastic cleavage, extramembryonic membranes and a primitive streak
must be that of
a. An insect
b. A fish
c. An amphibian
d. A bird
e. A sea urchin
364. Meroblastic cleavage occurs in

a. Sea urchins, but not humans or birds
b. Humans, but not urchins or birds
c. Birds, but not sea urchins or humans
d. Both Sea urchins and birds, but not humans
e. Both humans and birds, but not sea urchins
365. cells move to new positions as an embryo establishes its three germ tissue layers during
a. determination
b. cleavage
c. fertilization
d. induction
e. gastrulation
366. if a gastrulation was blocked by an environmental toxin, then

a. cleavage would not occur on zygote
b. embryonic germ layer would not form
c. fertilization would be blocked
d. the blastula would not be formed
e. the blastopore would form above the gray crescent in the animal pole
367. the archenteron of the developing frog eventually develops into the
a. reproductive organs
b. blastocoels
c. heart & lungs
d. digestive tract
e. brain & spinal cord
368. the vertebrate ectoderm is the origin of the

a. nervous system
b. liver
c. pancreas
d. heart
e. kidneys
369. in frog embryos, the blastopore becomes the

a. anus
b. ears
c. eyes
d. nose
e. mouth
370. in a frog embryo, gastrulation

a. produces a blastocoels displayed into the animal hemisphere
b. occurs along the primitive streak in the animal hemisphere
c. is impossible because of the large amount of yolk in the ovum
d. proceeds by involution as cell roll over the lip of the blastopore
e. occurs within the inner cell mass that is embedded in the large amount of yolk
371. the earliest developmental stage among these choices is

a. germ layers
b. morula
c. blastopore
d. gastrulation
e. invagination
372. Which of the following is a correct description of an anatomical relationship?

a. The mesoderm gives rise to the notochord
b. The endoderm gives rise to the follicles
c. The ectoderm gives rise to the liver
d. The mesoderm gives rise to the lungs
373. An open space within the gastrula is the

a. Ectoderm
b. Mesoderm
c. Archenteron
d. Endoderm
e. Neural crest cells
374. Although it contributes no cells to the embryo, the formation of the primitive streak is guided by
the structure known as the
a. Endoderm
b. Mesoderm
c. Ectoderm
d. Neural crest
e. hypoblast
375. the primitive streak in a bird is the functional equivalent of

a. the lip of the blastopore in the frog
b. the archenteron in a frog
c. polar bodies in a sea urchin
d. the notochord in a mammal
e. neural crest cells in a mammal
376. in all vertebrate animals , development requires

a. a large supply of yolk
b. an aqueous environment
c. extra embryonic membranes
d. an amnion
e. a primitive streak
377. the least amount of yolk would be found in the egg of a

a. bird
b. fish
c. frog
d. eutherian mammal
e. reptile
378. a primitive streak forms during the early embryonic development of

a. birds, but not frogs or humans
b. frogs, but not birds or humans
c. humans but not birds or frogs
d. birds & frogs, but not humans
e. humans & birds, but not frogs
379. extra embryonic membranes develop in

a. Mammals, but not birds or lizards
b. Birds, but not mammals or lizards
c. Lizards, but not mammals or birds
d. Mammals, birds, but not lizards
e. Mammals, birds and lizards
380. At the time of implantation, the human embryo is called a

a. Blastocyst
b. Gastrula
c. Feotus
d. Somite
e. Zygote
381. Uterine implantation due to enzymatic digestion of the endometrium is initiated by the
a. Inner cell mass
b. Endoderm
c. Chorion
d. Mesoderm
e. Tropoblast
382. In placental mammals, the yolk sac

a. Transfers nutrients from the yolk to the embryo
b. Differentiates into the placenta
c. Becomes a fluid-filled sac that surrounds & protects the embryo
d. Produces blood cells that then migrate into the embryo
e. Stores waste products from the embryo until the placenta develops
383. Gases are exchanged in a mammalian embryo in the

a. Amnion
b. Hypoblast
c. Chorion
d. Tropoblast
e. Yolk sac
384. The migratory neural crest cells

a. Form most of the central nervous system
b. Serve as precursor cell for the notochord
c. Form the spinal cord in the frog
d. Form neural and non-neural structures in the periphery
e. Form the lining of the lungs and of the digestive tract
385. From the earliest to latest, the overall sequence of the early development proceeds in which of
the following sequences?
a. Gastrulation organogenesis cleavage
b. Ovulation Gastrulation fertilization
c. cleavage Gastrulation organogenesis
d. Gastrulation Blatulation neurulation
e. Preformation morphogenesis neurulation
386. Changes in both cell shape and cell position occur extensively during
a. Gastrulation, but not organogenesis or cleavage
b. organogenesis, but not Gastrulation or cleavage
c. cleavage, but not Gastrulation or organogenesis
d. Gastrulation & organogenesis, but not cleavage
e. Gastrulation, organogenesis & cleavage
387. Changes in the shape of the cell usually involve a reorganization of the
a. Nucleus
b. Cytoskeleton
c. Extracellular matrix
d. Transport proteins
e. Nucleolus
388. Animal development compares to plant development in that

a. Plant cells, but not animal cells, migrate during morphogenesis
b. animal cells, but not Plant cells, migrate during morphogenesis
c. Plant cells & animal cells migrate extensively during morphogenesis
d. Neither Plant cells nor animal cells, migrate during morphogenesis
e. Plant cells, but not animal cells, undergo convergent extension
389. Cadherins and other cell-adhesion molecules that guide cell migration are
a. Steroid hormones
b. Glycoproteins
c. Fatty acids
d. Prostacyclins
e. Ribonucleic acids
390. The first cavity formed during sea urchin development is the
a. Blastopore
b. Mouth
c. Blastocoels
d. Anus
391. Human tropoblasts

a. Form the inner cell mass
b. Form from ectoderm
c. Are the precursors of the mesoderm
d. Are of embryonic origin & function in embryo nutrition
e. Are of maternal origin and function in embryo gas exchange
392. The embryonic precursor to the human spinal cord is the

a. Notochord
b. Neural tube
c. Mesoderm
d. Archenteron
e. Set of bilateral somites
393. Animal cells that are present only for a brief developmental phase will, following completion of
that phase, undergo
a. Diapause
b. Apoptosis
c. Meiosis
d. Oxidative phosphorylation
e. Re-differentiation
394. The term applied to a morphogenetic process whereby cells extend themselves, making the
mass of the cells narrower and longer, is
a. Convergent extension
b. Induction
c. Elongational streaming
d. bi-axial elongation
e. blastomere formation
395. During gastrulation in frog embryos, fibronectin

a. Provides an extracellular anchorage for migrating cells.
b. Regulates actin-myosin interactions in the cytosol of migrating cells
c. Reduces the entry of calcium ions into migrating cells
d. Regulates mRNA movement out of the nucleus of a moving cell
e. Provides the pigment that accumulates in the primitive streak
396. Which of the following is the anatomical axis that is largely symmetrical in both frogs and
humans?
a. Medial to lateral
b. Dorsal to ventral
c. Anterior to posterior
d. Animal to vegetal
e. Rostral to caudal
397. In frogs, formation of the eye lens is induced by chemical signals from
a. Calls that will become the neural plate
b. Cells that are forming the inner ear
c. An outgrowth of the developing brain
d. Both cells that will become the neural plate and cells that are forming the inner ear
e. Both cells that will become the neural plate and an outgrowth of the developing brain
398. Which of the following is an adult organism that has fewer than 1000 cells?
a. Chickens, Gallus domesticus
b. African clawed frogs, Xenopus laevis
c. Humans, Homo sapiens
d. Fruit flies, Drosophila melanogaster
e. Nematodes, Caenorhabdidtis elegans
399. The developmental precursors to the gonadal tissues of C. elegans uniquely contain
a. Proteins of maternal origin
b. High concentrations of potassium ions
c. Haploid proteins
d. T tubules for the propagation of action potentials
e. P granules of mRNA and proteins
400. Two primary factors in shaping the polarity of the body axes in chick embryos are
a. Light & temperature
b. Salt gradients & membrane potentials
c. Gravity and pH
d. Moisture & mucus
e. Location of sperm penetration & cortical reaction
401. The arrangement of organs and tissues in their characteristic places in 3-D space defines
a. Pattern formation
b. Induction
c. Differentiation
d. Determination
e. Organogenesis
402. If the apical ectodermal ridges is surgically removed from an embryo, it will lose
a. Positional information for limb bud pattern formation
b. Guidance signals needed for correct gastrulation
c. Unequal cytokinesis of blastomeres
d. The developmental substrate for the gonads
e. The developmental substrate for the kidneys
403. The cortical reaction of a sea urchin eggs functions directly in

a. The formation of a fertilization envelope
b. The production of a fast block to polyspermy
c. The release of hydrolytic enzymes from the sperm
d. The generation of an electrical impulse by the egg
e. The fusion of egg and sperm nuclei
404. Which of the following is common to the development of both birds and mammals?
a. Holoblastic cleavage
b. Epiblast & hypoblast
c. Trophoblast
d. Yolk plug
e. Gray crescent
405. The archenteron develops into

a. The mesoderm
b. The blastocoels
c. The endoderm
d. The placenta
e. The lumen of the digestive tract
406. What structural adaptation in chickens allows them to lay their eggs in arid environment rather
than in water?
a. Extra embryonic membrane
b. Yolk
c. Cleavage
d. Gastrulation
e. Development of the brain from ectoderm
407. In an egg cell treated with EDTA a chemical that binds calcium and magnesium ions
a. The acrosomal reaction would be blocked
b. The fusion of sperm and egg nuclei would be blocked
c. The fast block to poly spermy would not occur
d. The fertilization envelope would not form
The zygote would not contain maternal & paternal chromosomes
Part c
1. Which of the following is not a mechanism by which cells communicate with each other?
a. Transcription factors are secreted from one cell and taken up by the target cell, where they
influence gene expression.
b. Cell surface molecules on adjacent cells interact and initiate a signal transduction process that
influences cellular behavior and gene expression.
c. Cells form gap junctions with adjacent cells, allowing the passage of small molecules.
d. Cells secrete proteins and small hydrophilic molecules, which interact with cell surface receptors
on target cells and initiate a signal transduction process that influences cellular behavior and gene
expression.
e. Cells secrete small hydrophobic molecules which diffuse into target cells, interact with
cytoplasmic receptors, and influence gene expression.
2. In frogs, maternally packaged Xwnt-1 leads to nuclear localization of _____ in the _____, which in
response signals to adjacent cells to become the _____.
a. -catenin, Nieuwkoop center, Spemann organizer
b. nodal, signalling center, shield
c. Vg-1, vegetal region, Nieuwkoop center
d. sonic hedgehog, limb bud, posterior
e. GFP, mesoderm, muscle and bone
3. In which portion of the frog's life-cycle would a frog appear most similar to a mammal?
a. The fertilized eggs of frogs and mammals are similar in size and look nearly identical.
b. A frog blastula is very similar to a mammalian blastocyst.
c. The events of gastrulation in frogs are highly similar to gastrulation and extra embryonic
membrane formation in mammals.
d. Late in organogenesis, at the phylotypic stage, the body plans of frogs and mammals are
remarkably similar.
e. Adult frogs are essentially indistinguishable from adult humans.
4. Remarkably, Vg-1 and wnt are used in both frogs and chicks to establish a body axis, although in
chicks this is the antero-posterior axis instead of the dorso-ventral axis. What is the region of the chick
embryo that is thus analogous to the Nieuwkoop center?
a. area pellucida
b. blastoderm
c. primitive streak
d. posterior marginal zone
e. Koller's sickle
5. Although the vertebrate body plan outwardly displays a mirror-image symmetry with regard to
left and right, the internal organs are not symmetrical. How does this left-right asymmetry develop?
a. The two cells of the Nieuwkoop center (at the 32-cell stage, see Figure 4.4) signal each other and
become either left or right.
b. Maternal factors that determine left and right are packaged into the egg, just as dorsalizing factors
are.
c. Differential release of Ca2+ ions on the left side leads to expression of Nodal and Pitx2 on the left.
d. Gravity determines the left-right axis: that side which is down becomes right and that side which
is up becomes left.
e. No special mechanism is required, since the formation of an antero-posterior axis and a dorso-
ventral axis automatically determines left and right.
6. What is the difference between "fate" and "specification"?

a. If cells are transplanted from their normal region in an embryo to a different region in a recipient
embryo, such cells will alter their fate, but not their specification.
b. Cell fate describes the allocation of cells to the germ layers, ectoderm, mesoderm, or endoderm,
whereas specification describes the exact tissues that each cell will ultimately become.
c. The fate map of an embryo does not change during development -- the fate map of an egg is the
same as the fate map of a late blastula -- whereas the specification map of an embryo changes
continually as the embryo's development proceeds.
d. The specification state of a cell is determined by transplantation of cells to recipient embryos,
whereas the fate of a cell is determined by the culture of those cells in an artificial medium.
e. The fate of a cell is determined by labelling that cell and following it during normal development,
whereas the specification state of a cell is determined by culturing a cell in an artificial medium
and observing what tissues form from it.
7. A fate map of a Xenopus blastula, just before gastrulation begins, shows (Figure) that the top
portion of the embryo will become ectoderm (skin and nerve), the central portion will become mesoderm
(bone, muscle, and blood), and the lowest portion will become endoderm (gut).
How is it that the endoderm and mesoderm, shown on the outside in the fate map, end up on the inside
in the embryo after gastrulation?
a. The endoderm ends up inside through a process that can be visualized as if one pokes their finger
into the bottom of a soft ball until the lowest endodermal portion ends up deep inside, the
marginal zone mesoderm also ends up inside, and the ectoderm now encloses the entire outer
surface.
b. The endodermal cells begin first to move into the embryo through the blastopore, displacing the
blastocoel and forming a gut; as gastrulation proceeds, the blastopore spreads sideways and the
mesoderm follows the endoderm in, ending up between the endoderm and the ectoderm.
c. The ectodermal cells divide and spread down over the rest of the embryo, so that the endoderm
ends up on the bottom, ventral, surface of the embryo, and the mesoderm ends up around the
middle, just as is shown in the fate map.
d. The three germ layers adopt their final positions through, first, the growth of the mesodermal
marginal zone down over the endoderm, followed by, secondly, the growth of ectoderm down
and over the mesoderm.
e. The cells, having already been fated to form endoderm and mesoderm, migrate directly into the
interior of the embryo and take up residence in appropriate places.
8. What property of the mammalian embryo permits the production of chimeric mice?
a. The inner cell mass is highly regulative, so that extra cells derived from the inner cell mass of a
different embryo are incorporated without causing defects.
b. If half of the cells of the inner cell mass are removed and replaced with cells from half of a different
embryo's inner cell mass, the embryo will heal and develop normally.
c. The embryo can develop outside the womb, making surgical manipulations possible.
d. Blastomeres separated at the two-cell stage will regulate and each forms a normal embryo.
e. Genetically determined pigmentation differences are incompatible in the developing embryo.
9. If cells from the animal pole of a frog blastula (animal cap cells) are placed into contact with cells
from the vegetal hemisphere, after removing the cells fated to form mesoderm, what is the result?
a. The cells regulate to form a normal embryo.
b. Animal cap cells are induced to form mesodermal derivatives.
c. Vegetal hemisphere cells are induced by the animal cap cells to form mesodermal derivatives.
d. An embryo forms with only ectodermal and endodermal derivatives.
e. Both animal and vegetal cells lose all specification and an undifferentiated ball of cells results.
10. What is the mechanism by which cells fated to be mesoderm form in the marginal zone of the
Xenopus embryo?
a. Vegetal region cells migrate toward the animal pole and become mesoderm.
b. Cells in the marginal zone are fated to be mesoderm, but they do not become specified or
determined as mesoderm until after they move internally during gastrulation.
c. Cells of the vegetal region are induced by their proximity to the animal region cells to become
mesoderm.
d. Maternal factors packaged into the marginal zone act on these cells to instruct them to become
mesoderm.
e. Secreted signals of the TGF- family are released by the cells of the vegetal region and act on the
adjacent cells of the marginal zone to instruct them to adopt a mesodermal fate.
11. How is the Spemann organizer distinguished from the other mesodermal cells during induction
by the cells of the vegetal region?
a. The cells of the Spemann organizer become different as they pass over the dorsal lip of the
blastopore during gastrulation.
b. -catenin, which has become localized to the nucleus in the Nieuwkoop center as a result of
cortical rotation, turns on high levels of the TGF- signalling molecule, Nodal, and this relatively
high level distinguishes the adjacent cells of the Spemann organizer from the rest of the
mesoderm.
c. The Spemann organizer is formed from cells of the Nieuwkoop center, which have migrated
upward in the embryo.
d. BMP-4 signalling from ventral mesodermal cells toward the dorsal region specify the dorsal-most
cells as organizer.
e. Signals from the animal region combine with signals from the vegetal region in the dorsal-most
mesoderm, and specify those cells as the Spemann organizer.
12. Patterning of the Xenopus mesoderm along the dorso-ventral axis involves an antagonistic
relationship between chordin and BMP-4. Is there an analogy here to dorso-ventral patterning in the
Drosophila embryo?
a. Yes, the Drosophila homolog of BMP-4, Decapentaplegic (Dpp), is antagonized by the Drosophila
homolog of chordin, short gastrulation (Sog), in patterning of the dorso-ventral axis.
b. Yes, Drosophila also uses BMP-4 to specify ventral fates and chordin to specify dorsal fates.
c. Yes, the Drosophila Dorsal protein is identical to the vertebrate BMP-4 protein, and specifies the
ventral region of the embryo.
d. No. the closest analogy from Drosophila would be the antagonism between Hunchback and
Nanos, but neither of those are signalling molecules, and they act to pattern the antero-posterior
axis.
e. No, insect development is totally different than that of real animals like frogs and chickens.
13. In flies, frogs, and chicks, gradients of morphogens determine the future antero-posterior and
dorso-ventral axes of the developing embryo. How is the antero-posterior axis determined in C. elegans?
a. Bicoid protein is translated in the anterior of the fertilized egg, leading to a gradient that
determines the antero-posterior axis.
b. Nodal triggers formation of an organizer that will determine the dorsal, and hence the anterior,
side of the embryo.
c. Opposing gradients of chordin and BMP-4 establish the antero-posterior axis.
d. -catenin becomes localized to the nucleus in the future anterior cells after fertilization.
e. Sperm entry leads to a reorganization of the cytoskeleton and redistribution of maternally
packaged PAR proteins, which in turn determine the antero-posterior axis.
14. Do HOX genes play a role in the development of C. elegans?

a. No, C. elegans does not have HOX genes.
b. No, C. elegans has HOX genes but none of them are used during development.
c. Yes, C. elegans has 4 clusters of HOX genes, just like mammals, that are required for specification
of the identity of structures during embryogenesis.
d. Yes, but only one HOX gene is required in the embryo; the others provide positional identity in
the larva.
e. Yes, and their genetic organization and role in development is nearly identical to that in
Drosophila.
15. What are the lin-4 and lin-14 genes of C. elegans?

a. lin-4 encodes a miRNA that represses lin-14 translation, which in turn regulates the timing of larval
development.
b. lin-4 and lin-14 are genes that are named for their control of the first division, and hence the
lineage of the AB and P1 cells.
c. lin-4 and lin-14 are C. elegans versions of the HOX genes.
d. lin-4 and lin-14 both encode miRNAs that serve as cell-cell signaling molecules in C. elegans
e. lin-4 controls the timing of transcription of lin-14 , and so is referred to as a "heterochronic" gene.
16. The ability of the sea urchin embryo to regulate its development illustrates the fact that there are
maternally-determined differences along the animal-vegetal axis that are necessary for normal
development. Which of the following statements about regulation in sea urchin embryos is consistent
with that fact?
a. Up until the hatching of the embryo as a pluteus larva, any blastomere can be separated from the
others and will regulate to go on and develop into a fully formed and full sized larva.
b. Up until the hatching of the embryo as a pluteus larva, any blastomere can be separated from the
others and will regulate to go on and develop into a fully formed, yet smaller, larva.
c. Blastomeres from the animal or vegetal poles of the embryo can be isolated and will go on to form
an embryo, as long as either an animal or vegetal pole is included.
d. Blastomeres at the 4-cell stage each still possesses a portion of the original animal-vegetal axis,
and if isolated will go on to form a fully formed, yet smaller, larva.
e. Any blastomeres at the 8-cell stage can still regulate to form a full larva, but by the 60-cell stage,
blastomeres will develop according to their presumptive fate.
17. In which way is the organizer region of the sea urchin similar to that in frogs?
a. The organizer induces the dorso-ventral axis.
b. The organizer forms near the dorsal lip of the blastopore.
c. The organizer accumulates -catenin, which in turn activates the expression of cell-cell signaling
molecules.
d. The organizer will become the mesoderm.
e. The organizer will express high levels of nodal.
18. Which one statement best describes gastrulation in sea urchins?

a. Gastrulation is initiated by invagination of the micromeres at the vegetal pole.
b. The mouth of the pluteus larva will form from mesomeres on the oral side of the 60-cell embryo.
c. The gut will form from the macromeres at the 16-cell stage.
d. Mesenchymal cells originating at the vegetal pole will invaginate first during gastrulation and will
form skeletal structures in the pluteus larva.
e. All of the above are true.
19. In the ascidian, Styela, the yellow pigmented myoplasm marks cells fated to become muscle cells
in the tail; however, at the molecular level, the key determinant of tail muscle seems to be:
a. localization of -catenin to the nuclei in the vegetal portion of the embryo
b. the sperm centrosome
c. the gene product of macho-1 gene
d. expression of the Brachyury gene
e. induction of muscle by FGF
20. What is the phenotype of a mutation in the AGAMOUS homeotic gene of Arabidopsis?
a. AGAMOUS mutants fail to restrict the expression of class A genes, resulting in four whorls
composed of sepals and petals, with no stamens or carpels.
b. AGAMOUS mutants fail to make the central-most whorl, which gives rise to carpels, and are thus
left with only three whorls.
c. AGAMOUS mutants make only the outer two whorls, resulting in two whorls composed of sepals
and petals, with no stamens or carpels.
d. AGAMOUS mutants make only the gamete-forming structures, stamens and carpels, with no
petals or sepals.
e. AGAMOUS mutants have no phenotype in the absence of further mutations in the APETALA and
PISTILLATA, since AGAMOUS is redundant to APETALA and PISTILLATA, and they substitute for it
in its absence.
21. How is the ABC model for floral identity in Arabidopsis reminiscent of the models for homeotic
gene function derived from studies in Drosophila?
a. In both organisms, homeobox genes specify the identity of regions of the mature organism.
b. The key responsibility of the homeotic genes in both organisms is patterning of dorso-ventral
asymmetry.
c. In both organisms, one homeotic gene is expressed at the two ends, a second expressed in to
domains more central to that of the first, and a third expressed most centrally, thus contributing
unambiguous identities to all regions of the organism.
d. In both organisms, the homeotic genes interact, so that it is often the combination of genes
present that is critical in unambiguously specifying structures in the adult.
e. The ABC model of Arabidopsis is essentially identical to the Drosophila model for homeotic gene
function, in that the Drosophila version of the A gene is abdominal-A, the Drosophila version of
the B gene is Abdominal-B, and the Drosophila version of the C gene is Ultrabithorax.
22. Adherens junctions play in important role in development; they are composed of:
a. Cadherins linked to other cadherins extracellularly, and to actin filaments intracellularly.
b. Cadherins linked to other cadherins extracellularly, and to intermediate filaments intracellularly.
c. Immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF) molecules linked to other IgSF molecules extracellularly, and
to the cytoskeleton intracellularly.
d. Integrins linked to extracellular matrix molecules extracellularly, and to the cytoskeleton
intracellularly.
e. Integrins linked to IgSF molecules extracellularly, and both types of transmembrane molecules
linked to the cytoskeleton intracellularly.
23. Which of the following is the only true statement regarding compaction in the mouse embryo?
a. Compaction involves the activation of cadherins, resulting in an increase in cell-cell adhesion
among the 8 cells of the embryo.
b. Compaction involves a polarization of the cells of the embryo, such that ions can be pumped from
the outer surface of the embryo into the central cavity, resulting in an influx of water into the
central cavity and formation of the blastocoel.
c. Compaction gives subsequent cell divisions an orientation, such that cell divisions that occur
tangential (parallel) to the cell surface will result in one cell being inside the embryo, where it can
contribute to the inner cell mass.
d. All of the above are true of compaction in the mouse embryo.
e. None of the above is true of compaction in the mouse embryo.
24. How do the endodermal cells of the sea urchin embryo carry out gut formation during
gastrulation?
a. They move inside the blastocoel, and form the skeletal structures that will support the adult
animal.
b. They move into the blastocoel as mesenchyme and crawl ventrally, to mark the location of the
future mouth.
c. Changes in cell shape initiate the invagination; convergent extension extends the sheet of cells
into the blastocoel, and finally, filopodia make contact with the future mouth region and pull the
tip of the gut to that point.
d. The crawl inside the blastocoel and form a solid rod, which is then hollowed out to form the tube
of the gut.
e. They enter the interior of the embryo through the dorsal lip of the blastopore and, through a
combination of cell movements and convergent extension, form the gut.
25. In chicks, the formation of the neural tube relies on what cell biological processes?
a. Changes in cell shape in the neural plate are the only process required for neural tube formation.
b. Changes in adhesiveness between the prospective neural tube cells and the prospective epidermis
in the ectoderm are the only changes required for neural tube formation.
c. Both changes in cell shape in the neural plate and changes in adhesion molecule expression in the
neural tube are required during formation of the neural tube.
d. Prospective neural tube cells in the ectoderm undergo medio-lateral intercalation, then involute
and form the neural tube.
e. Neural tube formation is a passive by-product of convergent extension in the notochord.
26. What generalization can be applied to the pole plasm of Drosophila, the P-granules of C. elegans,
the yolk-free vegetal cytoplasm of Xenopus, and the localized mRNA for vasa in zebrafish?
a. All mark the posterior end of the antero-posterior axis.
b. All are present at fertilization in the vegetal pole of the egg.
c. All are determinants that specify the dorso-ventral axis of the fertilized egg.
d. All mark the special region of cytoplasm, the germplasm, that is involved in specification of germ
cells.
e. All are different names for the cells that become the germ cells of the adult animal.
27. Two human disorders, Prader-Willi syndrome and Angelman syndrome, occur when a small
deletion in a specific region of chromosome 15 is contributed by either the father or mother, respectively.
Why does this small deletion not behave as a recessive allele for either syndrome, that is, why is its loss
not made up for by the good copy of the region on chromosome 15 contributed by the other parent?
a. This portion of chromosome 15 is invariably mutated, so the other parent contributes recessive
alleles that are thus homozygous and perturb development.
b. The copy of chromosome 15 from the other parent has genes in the region of the deletion that
are imprinted, and thus inactive; in the absence of any active copies of these genes, development
cannot proceed normally.
c. The genes in this portion of chromosome 15 are special in that they are required in two copies for
normal development, and so the loss of one set does not allow normal development.
d. Two copies of every gene in the genome are required for development, so loss of one of the copies
from this region perturbs development.
e. Chromosomes with deletions do not go through mitosis correctly, so cell divisions in the embryo
result in cells with abnormal numbers of chromosomes, and these cells do not contribute properly
to the development of the organism.
28. In what way, if any, does the chromosomal determination of sex differ in Drosophila and humans?
a. In humans, the Y chromosome determines maleness, with female development being a default
state, but in Drosophila, the presence of two X chromosomes determines femaleness, and male
development is the default state.
b. In humans, the Y chromosome determines maleness, but in Drosophila, the ratio of X
chromosomes to autosomes determines maleness or femaleness.
c. In humans, it is the presence of only one X chromosome that triggers male development, and two
X chromosomes trigger female development, just as occurs in Drosophila.
d. In human males, a single Y chromosome is present in the absence of an X chromosome, while in
Drosophila, a single X chromosome is present in the absence of a Y chromosome.
e. There is no fundamental difference: in both organisms, the Y chromosome determines maleness.
29. What is the molecular activity of the Sex-lethal protein of Drosophila?

a. Sex-lethal is a transcription factor that activates female-specific genes.
b. Sex-lethal is a repressor of the transcription of male-specific genes.
c. Sex-lethal controls the splicing of specific mRNAs such that certain proteins required for female
development are produced only in females.
d. Sex-lethal protein is equivalent to testosterone in mammals, in determining male development.
e. Sex-lethal protein is equivalent to estrogen in mammals, in determining female development.
30. What is the molecular activity of the Sex-lethal protein of Drosophila?

a. Sex-lethal is a transcription factor that activates female-specific genes.
b. Sex-lethal is a repressor of the transcription of male-specific genes.
c. Sex-lethal controls the splicing of specific mRNAs such that certain proteins required for female
development are produced only in females.
d. Sex-lethal protein is equivalent to testosterone in mammals, in determining male development.
e. Sex-lethal protein is equivalent to estrogen in mammals, in determining female development.
31. Differentiated cells express the genes and proteins characteristic of their final identity in the adult,
and that identity can be altered only under special circumstances. How does the concept of
differentiation, as described here, differ from the concept of determination?
a. Determined cells have begun to differentiate, but are not fully differentiated.
b. Determined cells are embryonic cells that will give rise to all the cell types of the adult organism,
but have not yet begun to express the genes and proteins characteristic of their final fates.
c. Determined cells will continue to follow their fate if grafted into a different place in a host embryo,
even though they do not yet express the genes and proteins characteristic of their final fate.
d. Determined cells are embryonic cells that will form certain cell types and structures if
development is allowed to proceed normally, but will alter their development in response to their
location if transplanted to a different place in a host embryo.
e. Determination describes fully differentiated cells whose identity can no longer be altered.
32. What is the role of stem cells with regard to the function of adult tissues and organs?
a. Stem cells are undifferentiated cells that divide asymmetrically, giving rise to one daughter that
remains a stem cell and one daughter that will differentiate to replace damaged and worn out
cells in the adult tissue or organ.
b. Stem cells are embryonic cells that persist in the adult, and can give rise to all of the cell types in
the body.
c. Stem cells are determined cells that reside in fully differentiated tissues and can, when needed,
differentiate to supply new cells for growth of the tissue.
d. Stem cells are differentiated cells that have yet to express the genes and proteins characteristic
of their differentiated state, and do so when needed for repair of tissues and organs.
e. Stem cells are fully differentiated cells that reside under the surface of epithelia, in position to
take over the function of the tissue when the overlying cells become damaged or worn out.
33. The immunoglobulin genes are expressed in B-cells, and the -globin gene is expressed in red
blood cells. What manipulations might be carried out to get the -globin gene to be expressed in B-cells?
a. The coding region of an immunoglobulin gene could be combined with the cis-regulatory region
of the -globin genes, and this artificial gene would then express -globin in B-cells.
b. The cis-regulatory region of the -globin gene could be inserted into B-cells, which would then
express their own version of the -globin gene.
c. The cis-regulatory region of an immunoglobulin gene could be combined with the coding region
of the -globin genes, and this artificial gene would then express -globin in B-cells.
d. The transcription factors GATA-1 and GATA-2 (which activate the -globin gene in erythrocytes)
could be introduced into B-cells, which would then express their own copy of the -globin gene.
e. Changing the colony stimulating factors present in the medium in which B-cells are growing could
be manipulated in a way that would cause the B-cells to reverse their differentiation, become
erythrocytes, and express -globin.
34. Imagine that in an attempt to get the -globin gene to be expressed in B-cells (see question 4
above), the transcription factors (GATA-1 and GATA-2) known to control the -globin gene in erythrocytes
were introduced into B-cells, yet the -globin gene was not expressed. What is a likely explanation for this
result?
a. The erythrocyte transcription factors are degraded rapidly in the B-cell, and so cannot act on the
-globin gene.
b. The -globin gene in the B-cells is packaged into heterochromatin, and the erythrocyte
transcription factors are insufficient to remodel that chromatin into an active state.
c. Erythrocyte transcription factors cannot interact with their target DNA sequences in B-cells, even
though those sequences are present and accessible.
d. Even though the necessary erythrocyte-specific transcription factors are now present in the B-
cells, the general transcription factors required for -globin gene expression would not be
present.
e. The cis-regulatory regions for the -globin gene are present only in erythrocytes, and not in B-
cells, so the erythrocyte transcription factors would be meaningless in a B-cell.
35. What is the developmental pathway by which the hematopoietic stem cell gives rise to a
macrophage?
a. the hematopoietic stem cell divides, giving rise to a daughter cell that remains a stem cell and a
daughter cell that differentiates directly into a macrophage.
b. the hematopoietic stem cell can give rise to either a lymphoid progenitor or a myeloid progenitor;
the myeloid progenitor differentiates directly into a macrophage.
c. The hematopoietic stem cell can follow two paths, one called lymphoid and the other called
myeloid, either of which can ultimately give rise to macrophages and other cell types such as
osteoclasts and T cells.
d. The hematopoietic stem cell gives rise to a variety of cells referred to as granulocytes, any one of
which can differentiate further into a macrophage.
e. the hematopoietic stem cell must first generate a cell of the myeloid lineage (as opposed to the
lymphoid lineage), then a granulocyte/macrophage progenitor, then a monocyte, and finally a
macrophage.
36. Hematopoietic stem cells can be isolated and grown in culture; if one wished to control their
differentiation into either neutrophils or macrophages, what colony stimulating factors could be used?
a. First, GM-CSF and IL-3 would be added to trigger formation of the granulocyte/macrophage
lineage; then, the addition of either G-CSF or M-CSF would select between further differentiation
as neutrophils or macrophages, respectively.
b. Since stem-cell factor (SCF) would maintain the cells as stem cells, the elimination of SCF would
trigger differentiation into granulocyte/macrophage precursors; no further manipulation would
be necessary.
c. The stem cells could be simultaneously stimulated with G-CSF, M-CSF, GM-CSF, and IL-3; half
would become neutrophils and the other half would become macrophages; no further control is
possible.
d. Since hematopoietic stem cells can become only erythrocytes, neutrophils, or macrophages, and
no other cell types, the elimination of erythropoietin (EPO) would be sufficient to trigger
formation of neutrophils and macrophages.
e. The addition of M-CSF alone to the medium would cause all the cells to become macrophages,
whereas the addition of G-CSF would cause all the cells to become neutrophils; no other
manipulation would be necessary, since this is the only difference between the two lineages.
37. What happens if you introduced the gene myoD into fibroblast cells growing in culture?
a. The fibroblasts will express muscle-specific proteins, fuse, and form functional muscle in culture.
b. Nothing will happen because fibroblasts are derived from a different cell population in the embryo
than are the muscle precursors that respond to myoD.
c. The fibroblasts will undergo apoptosis, due to the abnormal effects of myoD on their normal
differentiation.
d. myoD will activate expression of myogenin, but the muscle-specific genes will not be able to
activate.
e. Nothing will happen because fibroblasts do not have the genes required to become muscle.
38. In what way are mrf4, myoD, and the other muscle-inducing genes similar to the homeotic genes
of Drosophila?
a. mrf4, myoD, and the others encode homeobox- containing proteins.
b. mrf4, myoD, and the others encode "master-switch" transcription factors, which initiate a cascade
of gene expression that leads to the differentiation of cells.
c. mrf4, myoD, and the others act as homeotic genes in Drosophila
d. mrf4, myoD, and the others are expressed exclusively in muscle, as are the homeotic genes of
Drosophila.
e. There is no similarity between mrf4, myoD, and the others, since mrf4, myoD, and the others are
strictly vertebrate genes while the homeotic genes are strictly Drosophila genes.
39. Neural crest cells that follow a dorso-lateral route of migration under the skin will become
melanocytes; how is their differentiation into melanocytes triggered during their migration?
a. The neural crest cells are already determined to become melanocytes before they leave the
neural tube
b. N-cadherin and E-cadherin are lost from the neural crest cells when they initiate their migration,
and this signals the cells to become melanocytes.
c. BMP and noggin control the fate of neural crest cells.
d. The cells in the skin express a ligand (stem cell factor, SCF, also known as Steel) on their surface,
which interacts with a receptor (Kit, also known as white spotting) on the surface of the neural
crest derived cells; this interaction triggers their differentiation as melanocytes.
e. Melanocyte differentiation is the default pathway for neural crest cells, and requires no special
trigger to occur.
40. What important lesson for the mechanisms of development can we derive from the ability to
clone frogs by nuclear transfer?
a. that the selective gene expression seen in differentiated cells does not result from an irreversible
loss of genes, or their potential for expression
b. that a piece of a frog can be "planted" to obtain a new, cloned individual, just like in plants
c. that the pattern of gene expression in a differentiated cell can only be reversed if the nucleus is
removed from the cell
d. that the mechanisms of development are irreversible in all organisms except frogs
e. that a differentiated frog nucleus can be used to clone any species of animal, proving that
development is directed by the egg, not by the nucleus
41. Recently, it was reported that adult, differentiated cells can be made to behave as pluripotent
stem cells by the introduction of a few genes, one of which was Oct4. What was the rationale for this
experiment?
a. Oct4 is a master switch gene that turns on the stem cell program.
b. Oct4 expression is one of the requisites for the maintenance of pluripotent embryonic stem cells
in culture.
c. the Oct4 gene produces a cell-cell signaling protein that is used by stem cells to stimulate cell
division
d. Oct4 is only expressed in embryonic stem cells, and so its expression automatically reverses any
differentiation that may have gone on in a cell
e. the Oct4 gene is lost from differentiated cells through a genomic rearrangement, and its
reintroduction reverses that rearrangement and hence differentiation
42. Which of the following correctly describes the sequence of events by which the position of limbs
along the antero-posterior axis of vertebrates is specified?
a. Hox gene expression in the mesoderm activates Wnt signaling, which turns on FGF expression and
formation of the limb bud.
b. Wnt signaling activates Hox gene expression, which turns on FGF expression and formation of the
limb bud.
c. FGF expression in the mesoderm activates Wnt signaling, which turns on Hox gene expression and
d. Hox gene expression in the mesoderm activates FGF signaling, which turns on Wnt expression and
e. FGF expression in the mesoderm activates Hox genes, which turn on Wnt and formation of the
limb bud.
43. In thinking about the development of the wing imaginal disc of Drosophila, what is the significance
of "compartments"?
a. A compartment is a signaling center that controls antero-posterior patterning.
b. Compartments are developmental units, in that the wing forms from the "wing compartment".
c. Compartments are epithelial sacs, set aside during embryogenesis, that will give rise to adult
structures such as wings after metamorphosis.
d. Since cells in adjacent compartments have different lineage histories, adjacent compartments can
adopt different fates and differentiation patterns, as in the formation of the anterior and posterior
portions of the wing blade.
e. Compartments are morphologically similar whose ultimate identity becomes specified after their
formation by the homeotic selector genes.
44. Engrailed comes to be expressed in posterior compartments during Drosophila embryogenesis;

what is the consequence of engrailed activation of hedgehog (Hh) signaling from the posterior
compartment of the wing disc?
a. Hh activates decapentaplegic (Dpp) signaling at the compartment boundary; Dpp then acts as a
morphogen to pattern the development of veins in the wing blade.
b. Hh signaling from the posterior compartment specifies the adjacent compartment as an anterior
compartment.
c. Hh signaling in the posterior compartment acts as a morphogen to pattern the posterior portion
of the wing.
d. Hh signaling controls the identity of the Imaginal discs, in this case, specifying the disc as the wing
disc.
e. Hh signaling plays no crucial role, since it is Dpp signaling that is important.
45. Keeping in mind the fact that genes are often named for the phenotype of a mutation in that
gene, what might be the phenotype of a mutation of the Distal-less gene of Drosophila?
a. Mutations of distal-less would fail to pattern the wing veins along their antero-posterior axis.
b. Distal-less mutants would form only distal structures, like the tarsus (distal end) of the legs
without a coxa (proximal end).
c. Distal-less mutants would form only proximal structures, like the coxa (proximal end) of the legs
without a tarsus (distal end).
d. Distal-less mutants would fail to form the signaling center that controls dorso-ventral patterning.
e. Mutants in distal-less would have altered patterns of gene expression throughout the leg disc.
46. The development of drugs to block the activity of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) has
been applied to the control of the growth of cancers. What is the rationale for such a strategy?
a. VEGF acts as a growth factor to stimulate the growth of many solid tumors.
b. Tumor cells produce VEGF to stimulate angiogenesis in their vicinity, and tumors cannot continue
to grow without this supply of blood.
c. Blocking VEGF prevents vasculogenesis in the embryo, and if done properly prevents cancer later
in life.
d. VEGF causes blood vessels to grow toward cancers, which kills the cancer due to too much blood.
e. VEGF is a key controller of the adoption of tumor phenotypes by cells, so blocking it will help
control cancer.
47. In Drosophila, the neurectoderm is located ventrally during gastrulation, while in mice or frogs,
the neurectoderm is located dorsally. Which statement best describes how the two systems are similar or
different?
a. There are no similarities between flies and vertebrates in development of the nervous system.
b. Although gastrulation is completely different in invertebrates and vertebrates, the formation of a
neural tube is identical in the two types of animals.
c. There is little similarity, since the neurectoderm of invertebrates forms their nervous system with
no further morphological changes, while in vertebrates, the neural tube forms a bundle of
neurons running along the antero-posterior axis called the spinal cord.
d. Although the invertebrate nervous system is a ventrally located nerve cord, and the vertebrate
spinal cord is located dorsally, homologous genes play a role, and neurons are ultimately specified
through a process of lateral inhibition in both cases.
e. The development of the nervous system in vertebrates and invertebrates is a good example of
how evolution can accomplish the same goal, a nervous system, in two completely different ways.
48. What does the experiment in which a frog's eye is rotated tell us about the spatial relationships
between the retina and the tectum?
a. When the right retina makes connections to the right tectum, nasal (anterior) neurons go to the
anterior tectum, and temporal (posterior) neurons go to the posterior tectum.
b. When the right retina makes connections to the right tectum, nasal (anterior) neurons go to the
posterior tectum, and temporal (posterior) neurons go to the anterior tectum.
c. When the right retina makes connections to the left tectum, nasal (anterior) neurons go to the
posterior tectum, and temporal (posterior) neurons go to the anterior tectum.
d. When the right retina makes connections to the left tectum, nasal (anterior) neurons go to the
anterior tectum, and temporal (posterior) neurons go to the posterior tectum.
e. The right and left retina first make connections to each other, the send axon bundles to both the right
and left tectum.
49. Why can't babies see well when they are first born?
a. The multiple connections between the retina and the visual cortex present at birth become
refined in response to visual stimuli, through changes in connectivity and cell death.
b. At birth, the eyes are not yet connected to the visual cortex, and processing of visual stimuli occurs
only at the level of the geniculate nucleus.
c. Synapses have formed at birth, but are not functional until visual stimuli begin to occur.
d. The lens of the eye is not fully formed at birth.
e. Their eyes aren't open when they are first born.
50. The size of a cell is generally controlled by the amount of DNA in the nucleus: the more DNA, the
larger the cell. What do experiments in which the amount of DNA is doubled (tetraploidy in salamanders)
tell us about growth control?
a. The animals grow to a normal size, and contain only half as many cells, indicating that growth is
regulated at the level of absolute size, rather than cell number.
b. The animals grow to twice the normal size, indicating that growth is regulated at the level of the
number of cells present.
c. The animals end up with cells that are twice as big, but only half as many, resulting in an animal
that is half its normal size, indicating that the number of cells is the critical determinant of growth.
d. The animals grow to a normal size, and contain only half as many cells, indicating that growth is
regulated by the total amount of DNA present in an organism.
e. The animals form tadpoles that are twice as big as usual, but die during metamorphosis, indicating
that the abnormal ploidy is incompatible with adult survival.
51. Cancer is believed to often arise from stem cells, rather than fully differentiated cells. Which of
the following are consistent with this view?
a. Stem cells are actively dividing and express few differentiated functions, so they may have fewer
changes to undergo than do fully differentiated cells in becoming cancer cells.
b. DNA replication is necessary for mutations to occur, and stem cells are replicating their DNA
whereas differentiated cells are for the most part not replicating their DNA.
c. Teratocarcinomas are tumors that arise from germ cells or embryonic stem (ES) cells, under
certain circumstances, demonstrating that tumors can arise from stem cells without further
mutation.
d. Stem cells require genes like Wnt for the maintenance of their stem cell function, and many such
genes can also function as oncogenes.
e. All of the above are reasons that cancer cells may more readily arise from stem cells than from
fully differentiated cells.
52. What does it tell us about aging that cells from different organisms are capable of a fixed number
of divisions in culture, and that number of divisions reflects the relative life-span of the organism?
a. The cells from these different organisms are not all equally adapted to growth in culture.
b. In each organism, the cells seem to be capable of a genetically determined number of divisions,
after which the organism undergoes senescence and dies.
c. Cells growing in culture live for the same number of years that the organism from which they are
derived would be expected to live, indicating a genetically determined life span.
d. The conditions cells encounter in culture lead to oxidative damage which reflects the kind of
damage that normally leads to aging in the organism.
e. Conditions encountered by cells in culture are identical to the conditions encountered in vivo, so
cells in culture undergo their normal aging program.
53. A few statements describing certain features of reproduction are given below:
I. Gametic fusion takes place
II. Transfer of genetic material takes place
III. Reduction division takes place
IV. Progeny have some resemblance with parents
Select the options that are true for both asexual and sexual reproduction from the options given
below:
a. I and II;
b. (b ) II and III;
c. II and IV;
d. I and III.
54. A few statements with regard to sexual reproduction are given below:
I. Sexual reproduction does not always require two individuals
II. Sexual reproduction generally involves gametic fusion
III. Meiosis never occurs during sexual reproduction
IV. External fertilisation is a rule during sexual reproduction
Choose the correct statements from the options below:
a. I and IV
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. I and IV
55. Fate mapping in a 16-cell stage sea urchin embryo shows that the mesomere cells, which are in
the animal pole, always give rise to the ectoderm. You then perform a series of experiments. In the first
experiment, you remove the mesomeres, culture them alone in a dish, and see that they still give rise to
ectoderm. In the next experiment, you remove the mesomeres and transplant them adjacent to the
vegetal pole of another 16-cell stage embryo (in a region that will become endoderm). This time, your
transplanted cells develop into the endoderm. From these experiments, you can conclude that the
mesomere cells at the 16-cell stage are:
a. fated to become the ectoderm, but their state of commitment is not known
b. specified, but not determined to become ectoderm
c. specified but not determined to become endoderm
d. determined but not specified to become ectoderm
e. both specified and determined to become ectoderm
56. Fate mapping in a frog species shows that cells in a specific region of a blastula stage embryo
always give rise to the blood cells. Based on this information, these cells in the blastula embryo are best
described as:
a. specified
b. committed
c. determined
d. differentiated
57. The process of commitment proceeds in which of the following ways:

a. differentiation > specification > determination
b. specification > determination > differentiation
c. determination > specification > differentiation
d. determination > differentiation > specification
e. specification > differentiation > determination
58. In vertebrates a segmental pattern is established in the trunk mesoderm which is the followed by
homeotic transformation of each segment.
a. Underlying this transformation is the expression of HOX genes with each segment expressing a
unique member of the hox family.
b. Underlying this transformation is the expression of an overlapping combinatorial pattern of
HOX gene expression in a segment or series of segments.
c. Hox proteins encoded by hox genes are transmembrane receptors.
d. Hox proteins encoded by hox genes are Ca++ or Na+ channels.
59. In addition to the appropriate degree of elongation and phenotypic differentiation of, for
example, digits vs. long bones these structures must also be patterned. In the case of digits of the upper
limb we (primates) have thumbs that are very different from little fingers. Such patterning, using the hand
or foot as an example, is produced by
a. Corticosteroids such as cortisol.
b. Nerve growth factor.
c. Secretions of the apical ectoderm ridge (AER) only.
d. none of the above.
60. The presomitic mesoderm (paraxial mesoderm before somites appear) carries positional
information or is said to be pre-patterned. This is evidenced by:
a. retention of rib-bearing capability when thoracic paraxial presomitic mesoderm is transplanted to
the cervical region
b. loss of rib-bearing capability when thoracic paraxial presomitic mesoderm is transplanted to the
cervical region
c. loss of the ability to differentiate at all the following transposition to a different axial level
d. loss of the ability for sclerotome to form vertebrate but retention of the ability of myotome to
make axial musculature appropriate for the original site (thoracic)
61. It can be demonstrated that the cranial (anterior) half of the somite is not identical to the caudal
(posterior) half. The evidence includes:
a. only the caudal (posterior) half contains a protein that repels axonal growth cones
b. only the cranial half secretes an attractive signal to guide motor axons from the spinal cord
c. only the cranial half gives rise to the vertebral column
d. only the posterior half gives rise to the axial muscles
62. If you fertilized eggs that had been previousl injected with a Ca++ chelating agent to maintain
intracellular Ca++ at low level, what effect would this have on fertilization?
a. none
b. fetilization would be inhibited b/c the sperm would not be able to bind to the egg
c. fertilization would be inhibited b/c the sperm would not be able to undergo the acrosome reaction
d. fertilization would not be inhibited b/c the sperm would not fuse with the egg
e. fertilization would proceed normally, but the cortical reaction would be inhibited resulting in
polysermy
63. Fertilin AKA PH-30 is a heterodimeris sperm protein thought to participate in fusion of the egg
and sperm membranes. One of the sub-units has homology to viral fusion proteins; the other contains a
region of homology to disintegrins. How might a disintigrin work during fertilization:
a. disrupt the lipid bilayer allowing the other subunit to fuse the membranes together
b. would bind to sperm components after sperm-egg fusion and dispers them into the egg
c. bind to an integrin on the egg surface bringing the fusion protein subunit into proximity to the egg
plasma
d. distrupt the egg integrin that normally prevents fertilization
64. Which of the following series of events represents the path of vertebrate development?
a. formation of blastula, cleavage, neurulation, cell migration, gastrulation, organogenesis, growth
b. formation of blastula, cleavage, gastrulation, neurulation, cell migration, organogenesis, growth
c. cleavage, formation of blastula, gastrulation, neurulation, cell migration, organogenesis, growth
d. cleavage, gastrulation, formation of blastula, neurulation, cell migration, organogenesis, growth
65. Which of the following statements about Drosophila development is FALSE?

a. Drosophila go through four larval instar stages before undergoing metamorphosis.
b. During the syncytial blastoderm stage, nuclei line up along the surface of the egg.
c. Imaginal discs are groups of cells set aside that will give rise to key parts of the adult fly.
d. Maternal, rather than zygotic, genes govern early Drosophila development.
66. A piece of prospective belly epidermis of a newt neurula-stage embryo is grafted to the
prospective mouth region of a frog neurula, replacing the frog epidermal tissue at that spot. The grafted
embryo continues to develop and forms a newt mouth and teeth at the position of the graft. This result
is consistent with which of the following?
a. newt tissue develops autonomously according to its original fate, despite its new location in the
frog embryo
b. newt tissue dedifferentiates whenever it is grafted
c. tissues of the frog neurula induce the newt tissue to express frog-specific genes that it would not
normally express
d. the frog tissues of the neurula induce the newt tissue to form mouthparts
67. In one study on development in sea urchin eggs scientists exposed newly fertilized eggs either to
cycloheximide or actinomycin D immediately, following fertilization. In presence of cycloheximide, the
fertilized egg failed to divide while in presence of actinomycin D the egg divided several times to reach an
early embryonic stage blastula. Data is also obtained on effect of differential treatment on protein
synthesis (figure).
It can be concluded.
I. P. mRNA needed for earliest stages in sea urchin development must be present already
II. Q. gene expression is not necessary for earliest of sea urchin development
III. R. gene expression is necessary for further progression of cells beyond early stage
IV. S. from experiment it can be concluded that actinomycin D prevented cell cycle protein expression
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. I, II and III
d. I, II, III and IV
Questions 68-71
In Drosophila melanogaster, cinnabar eye (cn) and vestigial wing (vg) are simple recessive traits. A female,
heterozygous for both genes, was crossed with a male with cinnabar eyes and vestigial wings. The
offspring resulting from this cross are listed in the table below.
Class Phenotype Number
I Wild type 445
II Cinnabar eye, wild-type wing 51
III Wild-type eye, vestigial wing 49
IV Cinnabar eye, vestigial wing 455
68. Recombinant phenotypes include which of the following classes?

a. IV only
b. I and IV only
c. II and III only
d. I, II, and III only
e. II, III, and IV only
69. From the data shown, the distance between the cn and vg genes is approximately
a. 500 map units
b. 100 map units
c. 50 map units
d. 10 map units
e. 5 map units
70. If crossing-over were to occur in the male parent,the anticipated effect on phenotypic numbers
would be
a. a decrease in class I
b. a decrease in class II
c. a decrease in class III
d. a decrease in class IV
e. no significant difference
71. If cn and vg were unlinked, what percent of the offspring would be expected to have either
cinnabar eyes or vestigial wings or both?
a. 100%
b. 75%
c. 50%
d. 25%
e. 6%
72. If the egg cell of a megagametophyte of a flowering plant has a marker gene designated as X and
the sperm cell of a compatible pollen grain has a marker gene designated as Y, which of the following
represents the endosperm that will result from fertilization in most flowering plants?
a. XX
b. YY
c. XY
d. XXY
e. YYX
Questions 73-76
Protein X is a protein kinase encoded by mRNA X and is normally present in extracts of whole cleavage-
stage
frog embryos. Protein I, encoded by mRNA I, is an inactive mutant form of protein X and blocks the
function of protein X present in the same cell by competing for binding. The results shown in the table
below were obtained in a series of experiments in which all four cells in four-cell-stage embryos were
injected as shown and allowed to develop to the early larval stage. Control embryos were pierced by a
needle, but no material was injected. The larvae were scored for the presence or absence of eyes in the
normal dorsal body axis and for the presence of eyes in the ventrally located secondary body axis that
formed as a result of some of the treatments.
Material Injected Injection Location

Dorsal Body Axis with Eyes Ventral Body Axis with Eyes
Control Dorsal 100% 0%

mRNA X Dorsal 0% 0%
mRNA I Dorsal 100% 0%
Control Ventral 100% 0%
mRNA X Ventral 100% 0%
mRNA I Ventral 100% 100%
73. The results suggest that protein X has which of the following effects on formation of normal head
structures?
a. Weak inhibition
b. Weak stimulation
c. Strong inhibition
d. Strong stimulation
e. The effect cannot be evaluated from these data.
74. The data indicate that in at least some cells in the frog embryos, translation effectively occurs for
a. mRNA X but not mRNA I
b. mRNA I but not mRNA X
c. neither mRNA X nor mRNA I
d. both mRNA X and mRNA I
e. most types of mRNA molecules
75. If translation of mRNA X occurs during cleavage,the results suggest that protein X would most
likely be detectable at which location in untreated late-cleavage-stage frog embryos?
a. Primarily in the dorsal cells of the embryos
b. Primarily in the equatorial cells of the embryos
c. Primarily in the ventral cells of the embryos
d. In all of the cells of the embryos
e. In few, if any, of the cells of the embryos
76. In Mangold and Spemanns experiments pieces of dorsal lip tissue transplanted to the ventral
surface of amphibian embryos induced the formation of a secondary body axis. Their results can be
reconciled with the results shown above by assuming which of the following about the cells of the dorsal
lip of the blastopore (Spemanns primary inducer) ?
a. They secrete protein X into the extracellular matrix of the embryo.
b. They destroy protein X in the extracellular matrix of the embryo.
c. They contain relatively high concentrations of protein X.
d. They stimulate protein X synthesis or increase activity of protein X in neighboring cells in the
embryo.
e. They inhibit protein X synthesis or decrease activity of protein X in neighboring cells in the embryo.
77. You are studying the binding of proteins to the cytoplasmic face of cultured liver cells and have found
a method that gives a good yield of inside-out vesicles from the plasma membrane. Unfortunately, your
preparations are contaminated with variable amounts of right-side-out vesicles. Nothing you have tried
avoids this contamination. Somebody suggests that you pass the vesicles over an affinity column made of
lectin coupled to Sepharose beads. What is the rational of this suggestion?
a. Right-side-out-vesicles wIll be lysed by lectin coupled to Sepharose beads.
b. Right-side-out-vesicles will simply bind to the lectin coupled Sepharose beads.
c. Lectin will bind to the carbohydrate residues present only on the inside out vesicles.
d. Lectin will bind to only glycoproteins and glycolipids present on the inside-out vesicles.
78. During early cleavage of Caenorabditis elegans embryos, each asymmetrical division produces one
founder cell which produces differentiated descendants and one stem cell. The very first cell division
produces one anterior founder cell, namely AB and one posterior stem cell, namely P1. When these
blastomeres are experimentally separated and allowed to proceed further with development, one could
get the following possible outcomes:
a. P1 cell would develop autonomously while the AB would show conditional development.
b. P1 cells would show conditional development while AB would show autonomous development.
c. Both would show autonomous specification and result in mosaic development.
d. Both would show conditional specification and result in regulative development.
79. In case of sea urchin, which of the following is the correct sequence of events taking place during
the interaction of sperm and egg?
a. Chemoattraction of sperm to the egg by soluble molecules secreted by the egg exocytosis of
the sperm acrosomal vesicle to release its enzyme binding of the sperm to the extracellular
matrix of the egg passage of sperm through this extracellular matrixfusion of egg and sperm
cell membranes.
b. Chemoattraction of sperm to the egg by soluble molecules secreted by the egg binding of the
sperm to the extracellular matrix of the egg exocytosis of the sperm acrosomal vesicle to
release its enzymes passage of sperm through this extracellular matrix fusion of egg and
sperm cell membranes.
c. Chemoattraction of sperm to the egg by soluble molecules secreted by the egg binding of the
sperm to the extracellular matrix of the egg passage of sperm through this extracellular matrix
exocytosis of the sperm acrosomal vesicle to release its enzymes fusion of egg and sperm
cell membranes.
d. Chemoattraction of sperm to the egg by soluble molecules secreted by the egg passage of
sperm through this extracellular matrix binding of the sperm to the extracellular matrix of the
egg exocytosis of the sperm acrosomal vesicle to release its enzymes fusion of egg and
sperm cell membranes.
80. Injection of noggin mRNA into a 1-cell, UV-irradiated embryos of frog completely rescues dorsal
development and allows the fonnation of a complete embryo. Some of the following statements (A-D)
could possibly explain this observation.
I. Noggin is a secreted protein which induces dorsal ectoderm to form neural tissue and it
dorsalizes the mesoderm cells which would otherwise contribute to ventral mesoderm.
II. Noggin binds directly to BMP4 and BMP2 thus preventing complex formation with their
receptors.
III. Noggin along with other molecules prevents BMP from binding to and inducing ectodenn and
mesoderm cells near the organizer.
IV. Noggin is a secreted protein which induces the dorsal ectoderm to form the epidermis and it
ventralizes the mesoderm cells which would otherwise contribute to dorsal mesoderm.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a. I, II and III.
b. I and II.
c. II and III.
d. I and IV
81. Arrange the following stages of fertilization and early development into a proper sequence.
I. onset of new DNA synthesis
II. cortical reaction
III. first cell division
IV. acrosomal reaction; plasma membrane depolarization
V. fusion of egg and sperm nuclei complete
a. III, V, I, IV, II
b. IV, II, V, I, III
c. V, III, I, II, IV
d. V, I, IV, II, III
e. I, III, II, IV, V
82. Which of the following might involve apoptosis?

a. Cells from the top of the mouth combine with cells from the base of the brain to form the
pituitary.
b. As the bones of the spinal column form, they develop from blocks of undifferentiated tissue called
somites.
c. If part of the developing spinal chord in a frog embryo is transplanted to just under the skin of the
back, it will stimulate development of an eye in that location.
d. Interactions between muscle cells and bone cells that guide the growth of the muscle to a specific
location so it can attach to the bone.
e. Gonads begin as an undifferentiated organ that can form either an ovary or a testis. At a certain
time, hormonal signals trigger the growth of some cells and the death of others to form an ovary
or testis.
83. A piece of prospective belly epidermis of a new neurula-stage embryo is grafted to the prospective
mouth region of a frog neurula, replacing the frog epidermal tissue at that spot. The grafted embryo
continues to develop and forms a newt mouth and teeth at the position of the graft. This result is
consistent with which of the following?
a. New tissue develops autonomously according to its original fate, despite its new location in the
frog embryo.
b. New tissue dedifferentiates whenever it is grafted.
c. Tissues of the frog neurula induce the new tissue to express frog-specific genes that it would not
normally express.
d. The mouths and teeth of frogs and newts are the same in type.
e. The frog tissues of the neurula induce the newt tissue to form mouthparts.
84. If the egg cell of a megagametophyte of a flowering plant has a marker gene designated as X and
the sperm cell of a compatible pollen grain has a marker gene designated as Y, which of the following
represents the endosperm that will result from fertilization in most flowering plants?
a. XX
b. YY
c. XY
d. XXY
e. YYX
Questions 154-155
85. M-phase-promoting factor (MPF) triggers mitosis by activating other proteins that function in
cell division. Active MPF consists of two associated proteins, cyclin and Cdc2. The Cdc2 component of
active MPF is a proteinkinase. The relative concentrations of active MPF, Cdc2, and cyclin were
monitored during the cell cycle and are depicted in the figure below.
During the cell cycle, active MPF decreases at the end of mitosis. This can be best explained by the
a. increase in Cdc2 during mitosis
b. increase in cyclin during mitosis
c. decrease in cyclin during mitosis
d. decrease in Cdc2 during mitosis
e. decrease in inactive MPF during mitosis
86. If MPF activates a series of enzymes, one of which inactivates MPF, it is likely that one of the
enzymes activated by MPF
a. degrades cyclin only
b. degrades Cdc2 only
c. degrades cyclin and Cdc2
d. stimulates cyclin
e. stimulates Cdc2
87. Identify the correct statement regarding gastrulation

I. formation of archenteron surrounded by the endoderm
II. little growth so that overall size of the embryo does not increase significantly
III. greater activity of the nucleus and the formation of new proteins
IV. complex but orderly and irreversible morphogenetic movements
a. I, II
b. III
c. II, II
d. I, II, III, IV
88. In Drosophila
I. sex is determined by the ratio of X chromosomes to sets of autosomes
II. the Y chromosome does not play a role in sex determination
III. there are no sex hormones, so each cell makes a sex determination decision
IV. Sxl gene is activated in females and is repressed in males
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. I, II and III
d. I, II, III and IV
89. A piece of prospective belly epidermis of a newt neurula-stage embryo is grafted to the
prospective mouth region of a frog neurula, replacing the frog epidermal tissue at that spot. The grafted
embryo continues to develop and forms a newt mouth and teeth at the position of the graft. This result
is consistent with which of the following?
a. newt tissue develops autonomously according to its original fate, despite its new location in the
frog embryo
b. new tissue dedifferentiates whenever it is grafted
c. tissues of the frog neurula induce the newt tissue to express frog-specific genes that it would not
normally express
d. the frog tissues of the neurula induce the newt tissue to form mouthparts
90. Which of these statements is false?

a. In humans, the 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, determines whether the person is female (XX)
or male (XY).
b. Sexual life cycles differ in the timing of meiosis in relation to fertilization.
c. At sexual maturity, ovaries and testes produce diploid gametes by meiosis.
d. In humans, each of the 22 maternal autosomes has a homologous paternal chromosome.
e. Single, haploid (n) sets of chromosomes in ovum and sperm unite during fertilization, forming a
diploid (2n) single-celled zygote.
91. If we transplant an amphibian optic cup subjacent to head ectoderm, a lens forms from the ectoderm.
However if we transplant the optic cup subjacent to trunk ectoderm, no lens forms. The differential
response by the head and trunk ectoderm could due to differential expression of
a. extracelluar matrix
b. initiatior caspases
c. receptors
d. signal ligands
e. actin
92. A reproductive difference between sea urchins & human is

a. The sea urchin egg completes meiosis prior to fertilization, but meiosis in humans is
completed after fertilization
b. Sea urchin eggs are produced by meiosis, but human eggs are produced by mitosis
c. Sea urchin eggs and sperms are of equal size, but human eggs are much bigger than human
sperm
d. Sea urchins but not humans, have a need to block polyspermy because only in sea urchins
can there be more than one source of sperm to fertilize the eggs.
e. Sea urchin zygotes get their mitochondria from the sperm but human zygote get their
mitochondria from the egg
93. From earliest to latest the overall sequence of early development proceeds in which of the following
sequences?
a. First cell division synthesis of embryos DNA begins acrosomal reaction cortical
reaction
b. cortical reaction synthesis of embryos DNA begins acrosomal reaction First cell
division
c. cortical reaction acrosomal reaction First cell division synthesis of embryos DNA
begins
d. acrosomal reaction cortical reaction begins synthesis of embryos DNA First cell
division
94. Which of the following correctly displays the sequence of developmental milestones?
a. Cleavage blastula gastrula morula
b. Cleavage gastrula morula blastula
c. Cleavage morula blastula gastrula
d. gastrula morula blastula Cleavage
e. morula Cleavage gastrula blastula
95. The outer-to-inner sequence of tissue layers in a post gastrulation vertebrate embryo is
a. endoderm ectoderm mesoderm
b. mesoderm endoderm ectoderm
c. ectoderm mesoderm endoderm
d. ectoderm endoderm mesoderm
e. endoderm mesoderm ectoderm
96. Thalidomide, now banned for use as a sedative in pregnancy, was used in the early 1960s by many
women in their trimester of pregnancy. Some of these women gave birth to children with arm leg
deformities, suggesting that the drug most likely influenced
a. Early cleavage divisions
b. Determination of the polarity of the zygote
c. Differentiation of bone tissue
d. Morphogenesis
e. Organogenesis
97. To meet a zygotes metabolic and developmental requirements

a. Maternal RNA & maternal proteins must be present
b. Paternal RNA & maternal proteins must be present
c. The haploid DNA in the nucleus must be transcribed
d. The nucleus must have hundreds of copies of every gene, allowing a high rate of gene
expression
e. The zygote must continuously undergo endocytosis of proteins to take them from its
environment
98. Select the choice that correctly associates the organ with its embryonic sources
a. Anterior pituitary gland mesoderm and ectoderm
b. Thyroid gland mesoderm and ectoderm
c. Adrenal gland ectoderm and mesoderm
d. Skin endoderm and mesoderm
e. Brain mesoderm and endoderm
99. If an amphibian zygote is manipulated so that the first cleavage plane fails to divide the gray
crescent, then
a. The daughter cell with the entire gray crescent will die
b. Both daughter cells will develop normally because amphibians are totipotent at this stage
c. Only the daughter cell with the gray crescent will develop normally
d. Both daughter cells will develop abnormally
e. Both daughter cells will die immediately
100. In humans, identical twins are possible because

a. Of the heterogenous distribution of cytoplasmic determinants in unfertilized eggs
b. Of interactions between extra embryonic cells and the zygote nucleus
c. Of convergent extensions
d. Early blastomeres can form a complete embryo if isolated
e. The gray crescent divides the dorsal-ventral axis into new cells
101. Hans Spemann and colleagues developed the concept of the primary organizer in amphibian
embryos
While studying the
a. Medial cells between the optic cups
b. Anterior terminus of the notochord
c. Lateral margins of the neural tube
d. Posterior edge of the dorsal ectoderm
e. Dorsal lip of the blastopore
102. The nematode Caenorhabditis elegans
a. Is composed of a single cell in which the developmental origin of each protein has been
mapped
b. Is composed of about 1,000 cells, in which the developmental origin of each cell has been
mapped
c. Has only a single chromosome, which has been fully sequenced
d. Has about 1000 genes, each of which has been fully sequenced
e. Uniquely, among animals utilizes programmed cell death airing normal development
Use the following information to answer the next few questions
In a study of the development of frog embryos, researchers stained several early gastrulas with vital
dyes and noted the locations of the dyes after gastrulation, the results are shown in the following table
Tissue Stain
Brain Red
Notochord Yellow
Liver Green
Lens of the eye Blue
Lining of digestive Purple
tract
103. The ectoderm should give rise to issues containing
a. Yellow & purple colors
b. Purple & green colors
c. Green & red colors
d. Red & blue colors
e. Red & yellow colors
104. The mesoderm was probably stained with a

a. Blue color
b. Yellow color
c. Red color
d. Purple color
e. Green color
105. The endoderm was probably stained with

a. Red & yellow colors
b. Yellow & green colors
c. Green & purple colors
d. Blue & yellow colors
e. Purple & red colors
106. When you slice up a pie that contains a swirled mixture of chocolate & vanilla filling. You notice
that some slices have more chocolate than vanilla and that other slices have more vanilla than
chocolate. This uneven distribution of chocolate and vanilla is most like the uneven distribution of
a. Nuclei in a zygote
b. Nuclei in an early embryo
c. Nuclei in an egg prior to fertilization
d. Cytoplasmic determinants in a newly formed zygote
e. Cytoplasmic determinants in a baby just prior to birth
107. Assume that successful reproduction in a rare salamander species, wherein all individuals are
females, relies on those females having access to sperm from male of another species but that the
resulting embryos show no signs of a genetic contribution from the sperm. In this case, the sperm
appear to be used only for
a. Morphogenesis
b. Epigenesis
c. Egg activation
d. Cell differentiation
e. The creation of a diploid cell
108. Cells transplanted from the neural tube of a frog embryo to the ventral part of another embryo
develop into nervous system tissues. The result indicates that the transplanted cells were
a. Totipotent
b. Determined
c. Differentiated
d. Mesenchymal
e. Apoptotic
ANSWERKEYS:
1.A
2.C
3.D
4.A
5.E
6.C
7.E
8.D
9.A
10.C
11.D
12.B
13.D
14.D
15.A
16.E
17.C
18.D
19.B
20.C
21.A
22.A
23.A
24.E
25.D
26.B
27.C
28.D
29.A
30.B
31.E
32.E
33.A
34.C
35.E
36.A
37.E
38.C
39.D
40.A
41.E
42.B
43.E
44.C
45.E
46.C
47.C
48.A
49.B
50.E
51.C
52.A
53.C
54.D
55.A
56.C
57.B
58.E
59.D
60.A
61.C
62.D
63.E
64.A
65.A
66.B
67.C
68.B
69.B
70.D
71.A
72.C
73.B
74.B
75.D
76.B
77.E
78.E
79.B
80.B
81.A
82.B
83.D
84.E
85.A
86.A
87.D
88.B
89.E
90.C
91.A
92.A
93.B
94.D
95.E
96.C
97.B
98.C
99.B
100.E
101.D
102.B
103.E
104.C
105.C
106.E
107.C
108.E
109.A
110.C
111.D
112.B
113.B
114.C
115.B
116.A
117.E
118.C
119.E
120.B
121.D
122.C
123.A
124.C
125.D
126.E
127.A
128.D
129.A
130.C
131.D
132.D
133.B
134.C
135.B
136.D
137.A
138.E
139.D
140.C
141.C
142.B
143.C
144.A
145.C
146.A
147.D
148.B
149.C
150.B
151.B
152.A
153.C
154.D
155.E
156.D
157.D
158.B
159.B
160.B
161.C
162.D
163.B
164.D
165.A
166.D
167.A
168.C
169.D
170.B
171.B
172.D
173.A
174.A
175.B
176.B
177.D
178.B
179.C
180.D
181.B
182.D
183.C
184.B
185.C
186.B
187.C
188.D
189.C
190.B
191.B
192.A
193.D
194.B
195.D
196.A
197.B
198.B
199.C
200.A
201.B
202.B
203.E
204.E
205.B
206.B
207.A
208.C
209.D
210.C
211.B
212.D
213.A
214.A
215.D
216.E
217.D
218.B
219.E
220.B
221.B
222.B
223.D
224.A
225.D
226.B
227.D
228.A
229.A
230.A
231.D
232.A
233.A
234.A
235.C
236.B
237.A
238.C
239.C
240.D
241.A
242.A
243.B
244.B
245.D
246.B
247.A
248.C
249.B
250.B
251.A
252.A
253.C
254.C
255.C
256.A
257.A
258.B
259.B
260.E
261.D
262.B
263.E
264.A
265.B
266.C
267.B
268.A
269.C
270.D
271.B
272.E
273.A
274.B
275.B
276.B
277.B
278.B
279.E
280.C
281.B
282.D
283.B
284.D
285.D
286.B,C
287.D
288.A
289.D
290.A
291.E
292.E
293.D
294.E
295.B
296.D
297.D
298.D
299.B
300.B
301.C
302.C
303.C
304.E
305.D
306.D
307.A
308.B
309.D
310.C
311.B
312.e
313.a
314.b
315.a
316.d
317.e
318.b
319.b
320.b
321.c
322.c
323.a
324.d
325.b
326.b
327.e
328.d
329.b
330.c
331.b
332.c
333.c
334.B
335.C
336.A
337.E
338.C
339.B
340.C
341.E
342.B
343.C
344.C
345.B
346.A
347.D
348.D
349.C
350.A
351.B
352.B
353.A
354.E
355.B
356.B
357.E
358.C
359.C
360.A
361.D
362.E
363.D
364.C
365.E
366.B
367.D
368.A
369.A
370.D
371.B
372.A
373.C
374.E
375.A
376.B
377.D
378.E
379.E
380.A
381.E
382.D
383.C
384.D
385.C
386.E
387.B
388.B
389.B
390.C
391.D
392.B
393.B
394.A
395.A
396.A
397.E
398.E
399.E
400.C
401.A
402.A
403.A
404.B
405.E
406.A
407.D
PartC
1.a
2.a
3.d
4.c
5.c
6.e
7.b
8.b
9.d
10.e
11.b
12.a
13.e
14.d
15.a
16.d
17.c
18.e
19.c
20.a
21.d
22.a
23.d
24.c
25.c
26.d
27.b
28.b
29.c
30.c
31.c
32.a
33.c
34.b
35.e
36.a
37.a
38.b
39.d
40.a
41.b
42.a
43.d
44.a
45.c
46.b
47.d
48.c
49.a
50.a
51.e
52.b
53.c
54.b
55.b
56.e
57.b
58.b
59.d
60.a
61.a
62.e
63.c
64.c
65.a
66.d
67.c
68.c
69.d
70.b
71.b
72.d
73.c
74.d
75.c
76.e
77.b
78.a
79.b
80.b
81.b
82.c
83.e
84.d
85.c
86.a
87.d
88.d
89.d
90.C
91.C
92.A
93.D
94.C
95.C
96.D
97.A
98.C
99.C
100.D
101.E
102.B
103.D
104.B
105.C
106.D
107.C
108.B

Unit 5

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Unit 5

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3.

Is this topic important keeping in mind CSIR-NET is in 2 months?

Which books to follow?

How many questions can I expect from this topic?

How to prepare in less time?

Is this topic important?

How shall I start?

Which books to follow?

Developmental biology by Scott F. Gilbert:

The Embryology Of Angiosperms by S P Bhatnagar S S Bhojwan:

Time for this Unit:

Prioritize the subtopics:

Gametogenesis, fertilization & early development:

Cell aggregation & differentiation, limb development & regeneration in vertebrates;

2. What DOES NOT normally happen during gastrulation?

6. A fertilized egg is called a:

7. Which of the following reflects Weismann's model of development?

9. Genes control development by:

12. The establishment of the anterior-posterior or dorsal-ventral body axes is called:

13. The pathway from a gene to a protein in eukaryotic cells involves:

14. Signal transduction can involve:

16. During gastrulation in Xenopus, the blastocoel:

20. Maternal factors are:

24. The "mid-blastula transition" is the point in development when:

31. Neural crest cells will become:

34. What is the "acrosomal reaction"?

35. What is the cortical reaction, and why is it important?

37. Secretion of Mllerian-inhibiting substance by Sertoli cells:

39. Which of the following cells would be considered differentiated?

40. What is the difference between apoptosis and necrosis?

41. What is the role of the caspases in apoptosis?

42. Removal of the apical ridge leads to:

44. The muscle-forming cells of the vertebrate limb come from:

47. Heart development begins as:

48. The segmental identity of imaginal discs is determined by:

50. In developmental biology, what is meant by the concept of "growth"?

53. Metamorphosis of amphibians is triggered by environmental cues that act on the:

57. In the sperm, the function of the acrosomal vesicle is:

59. The main purpose of gametogenesis is to:

62. Which is NOT a property of resact?

65. The first step in sea urchin gastrulation is

66. During sea urchin gastrulation,

72. In a mammalian embryo, the trophectoderm

73. The neural tube becomes separated from the epidermis by

74. Which pathway(s) relies on activated smads to transduce its signals?

75. Which of the following is not derived from the ectoderm

78. The neural crest is a population of cells that

79. After removing the epidermis, the neural tube:

81. One of the approaches of regenerative medicine is to:

82. Knockdown of VegT in an amphibian embryo would be predicted to:

84. The cardiogenic mesoderm derives from

86. The mesenchymal cells of the limb bud

87. Cardiac bifida is a condition that results from

89. X-chromosome dosage compensation can occur via

90. Hydra regeneration is accomplished by

91. Mature mammalian gonads have the following in common:

92. Genotypically XX mice that carry a transgene for SRY would:

93. Which is listed in the order of decreasing potency of a stem cell?

94. In a salamander, after denervating and then amputating a limb,

95. Hox genes

97. In endochondral ossification, bone forms by

98. The _______ will become the permanent adult kidney

99. Kidney development requires the reciprocal interaction between these