MCQs On Computer by Dr. Alok Kumar

Multiple Choice Questions on Computer
Fundamental, Application and Advance Topics
By
Dr. Alok Kumar
Centre for Innovative Leadership
UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA2

Publishers
Publishers
UPKAR PRAKASHAN
(An ISO 9001 : 2000 Company)
2/11A, Swadeshi Bima Nagar, AGRA282 002

Phone : 4053333, 2530966, 2531101
Fax : (0562) 4053330, 4031570
E-mail : care@upkar.in
Website : www.upkar.in
Branch Offices
4845, Ansari Road, 1-8-1/B, R.R. Complex (Near Sundaraiah Park, Pirmohani Chowk,
Daryaganj, Adjacent to Manasa Enclave Gate), Kadamkuan,
New Delhi110 002 Bagh Lingampally, Hyderabad500 044 (A.P.) Patna800 003
Phone : 01123251844/66 Phone : 04066753330 M. : 9334137572
The publishers have taken all possible precautions in publishing this book, yet if
any mistake has crept in, the publishers shall not be responsible for the same.
This book or any part thereof may not be reproduced in any form by
Photographic, Mechanical, or any other method, for any use, without written
permission from the Publishers.
Only the courts at Agra shall have the jurisdiction for any legal dispute.
ISBN : 978-81-7482-988-7
Price : 9500
(Rs. Ninety Five Only)
Code No. 1664
Printed at : UPKAR PRAKASHAN (Printing Unit) Bye-pass, AGRA

A Word to Reader
This book will be useful of all those who are preparing for interviews and various
competitive examinations, where the most basic and also in-depth understanding of
computers is required. The book is divided in three parts
* FundamentalCover basic questions on computers from day to day
awareness of computers.
* ApplicationCover questions related to computer applications, it includes
Windows Operating System and Keyboard Shortcuts, Microsoft Office,
Microsoft Word, PowerPoint, Access and Excel.
* AdvanceCovers questions on advance topics on computer, it includes
Operating system, Software Engineering, Data Structures and Algorithms,
Electronics Data Processing, Data Mining and Data ware house, Parallel
Computing and Window Programming, Data Base Management Systems.
Author hopes that this book will fulfil the needs of those who are in search of
relevant questions on computers.
With best wishes,
Dr. Alok Kumar

CONTENTS
Computer : Fundamental
Computer Awareness 313
Computer Security 1416
Computer : Application
Microsoft Windows Operating System 1919
Microsoft Windows Keyboard Shortcuts 2023
Microsoft Office.. 2425
Microsoft Word 2628
Microsoft Excel 2942
Microsoft PowerPoint.. 4354
Microsoft Access 5560
Computer : Advance
Operating System. 6384
Software Engineering... 85110
Data Structures and Algorithms... 111114
Data Mining and Data Ware House. 115124
Electronics Data Processing 125127
Parallel Computing.. 128131
Window Programming. 132135
Data Base Management System (DBMS) 136144

COMPUTER : FUNDAMENT
FUNDAMENTAL
AMENTAL
( Computer A
Awwar eness
areness
( Computer Security
COMPUTER AWARENESS
1. The following device allows the user to add 8. A process of collecting, organizing, storing
external components to a computer system and otherwise maintaining a complete
(A) Storage devices historical record of programs and other
(B) Keyboards documents used or prepared during the
(C) Ports/ system boards different phases of the system is called
(D) Diskettes (A) Documentation (B) Document reader
2. Software that manages data in more than (C) Data process (D) None of these
one file at a time and these files are treated 9. What are connector symbol?
as tables with rows and columns rather than (A) They are used in a flowchart
as lists of records is (B) It represents a junction in a flow line
(A) Relational Data Base Management (C) Often used to transfer flow between
Package different pages of a lengthy chart
(B) Data Base Management Package
(D) All the above
(C) Documentation Package
(D) None of these 10. Console is
3. A program that remains in the memory while (A) A device that enables human operators
other programs are executing to communicate with the computer
(A) Resident Program (B) A device that enables human operators
(B) Non-Resident Program not to communicate with the computer
(C) Permanent Program (C) Communication between computers
(D) None of these (D) None of these
4. The total time elapsed between submission 11. Constant is a value written into a program
of command and data to a computer and instruction
getting the result of computation is the (A) that does not change during the
(A) Access time (B) Response time execution of the program
(C) Entrance time (D) None of these (B) that can change during the execution of
5. An automatic machine that is made to the program
perform routine human tasks is (C) that can vary during the execution of the
(A) Computer (B) Robot program
(C) Tanker (D) None of these (D) none of these
6. The time required to complete a single, 12. A removable direct-access storage medium
continuous execution of an object program containing multiple magnetic disks mounted
is called vertically on a single-shaft is referred as
(A) Run time (B) Access time
(A) Tape pack (B) Disk pack
(C) Random time (D) Response time
(C) Cylinder (D) None of these
7. Computer network is a
(A) A distributed data processing system 13. Diskette is a
(B) Multiple computers are linked together (A) A low-cost, thin flexible magnetic disk
for the purpose of data communication storage device
and resource sharing (B) High volume storage device
(C) Both A & B are false (C) Primary storage device
(D) Both A & B are true (D) None of these
4 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
14. An optical input device that is used to read 23. A storage devices where the access time is
documents printed in a special type font is effectively independent of the location of the
known as data is referred as
(A) Document reader (B) Documentation (A) Direct access (B) Secondary storage
(C) Printer (D) None of these (C) Primary storage(D) None of these
15. For checking spelling one uses 24. A pictorial representation that uses pre-
(A) Dictionary Disk (B) Index disk defined symbols to describe either the logic
(C) Directory (D) None of these of a computer program or the data flow and
16. Process of finding/ correcting program errors processing steps of a system is referred as
is (A) Flowchart (B) Algorithm
(A) Bugs (B) Debugging (C) Program (D) None of these
(C) Hacking (D) Cracking
25. A flat, circular plate coated with a magnetic
17. Diagnostic routines is a material on which data can be stored by
(A) Programs used to print error messages magnetization of portions of the flat surface
(B) Indicates system problems and is
improper program instructions. (A) Disk (B) Tape
(C) Both A & B are true (C) Pen drive (D) None of these
(D) None of these
26. Disk operating system is referred for
18. The term DBMS is referred to
(A) DOS
(A) Data Base Management system
(B) Operating system which contains the
(B) The software used for the management,
maintenance and retrieval of the data disk-oriented commands and uses disk
stored in a data base devices for permanent storage
(C) Both A & B are true (C) Both A & B
19. The speed at which data is transferred from 27. Document reader is
the main memory to another medium on (A) An optical input device used to read
which data are recorded is referred as documents
(A) Data transfer rate (B) Byte (B) A device that arrange the documents
(C) Buds (D) None of these (C) A device that is used to edit document
20. The time period during which a computer is (D) None of these
malfunctioning or not operating correctly due 28. One or more identifying lines printed at the
to machine failures is referred as bottom of a page are referred as
(A) Downtime (B) Uptime (A) Header (B) Footer
(C) Runtime (D) None of these (C) Index (D) None of these
21. Automatic execution of high-priority computer 29. FORTRAN is
programs that have been designed to pre-
(A) Formula Translation
empt the use of computer resources is
(B) A high-level mathematically oriented
referred as
(A) Foreground processing programming language
(B) background processing (C) Both A & B
(C) black processing (D) None of these
(D) white processing 30. A CPU designed specifically to handle the
22. Digitizer is an input device communications processing task with main
(A) Used to convert graphic and pictorial purpose is to off-load communications
data into binary inputs for a digital processing task from the host computer so
computer that the host computer can be dedicated for
(B) Used to convert graphic and pictorial applications and data processing jobs.
data into analog inputs for a digital (A) Backend processor
computer. (B) Front-end processor
(C) Used for debugging (C) Node processor
M.C.Qs. on Computer | 5
31. An adder which adds three binary digits and 39. Digital Computer is a computer
outputs a result bit and a carry bit is referred (A) that works with discrete quantities
as (B) that works with analog quantities
(A) Half adder (B) Quarter adder (C) Both A & B
(C) Full adder (D) None of these (D) None of these
32. Emulator is a program that 40. The subdivision of fields
(A) Permits one computer to execute the (A) always done to give the programmer
machine-language instructions of greater flexibility
another computer of a different make (B) dependent on programming language
(B) Which is not broken down into smaller used
units (C) never accomplished on fields containing
(C) Permits one computer to execute the numeric data
machine-language instructions of (D) all the above
another computer of same make. 41. The checking operation performed on input
(D) None of these is called
33. Emulator is a program that (A) validation of data (B) verification of data
(A) Permits one computer to execute the (C) vilification of data (D) control of data
machine-language instructions of 42. A device that attaches to both ends of an
another computer of a different make electrical bus and prevents reflection of
(B) Which is not broken down into smaller echoes of signals that reach the end of the
units bus is called
(C) Permits one computer to execute the (A) Terminator (B) Connector
machine-language instructions of (C) Processor (D) None of these
another computer of same make.
43. A device mounted on a communication
(D) None of these
satellite which receives, amplifies and
34. EDP is referred to retransmits signals from earth stations is
(A) Electronic Data Processing called
(B) Data processing through equipment (A) Terminator (B) Connector
that is predominantly electronic such as (C) Processor (D) Transponder
digital computer
44. Technique of using disk space to make
(C) Both A & B programs believe that the system contains
(D) None of these more random access memory (RAM) than
35. Internet banking is an example of is actually available is called
(A) Electronic funds transfer (EFT) (A) Virtual memory
(B) EDP (Electronic Data Processing ) (B) Secondary memory
(C) EBCDIC (C) Primary memory
(D) ASCII (D) None of these
36. EBCDIC is 45. A term means that the application software
(A) 6-bit coding system is priced separately from the computer
(B) 7-bit coding system hardware is called
(C) 8-bit coding system (A) Unbundled (B) Bundled
(D) 9-bit coding system (C) Utility (D) None of these
37. A data communication facility on which data 46. Following is not the operating system
can be transmitted in two directions is (A) UNIX (B) DOS
referred as (C) WINDOWS (D) BASIC
(A) Duplex (B) Simplex 47. Which of the following is true concerning
(C) Triplex (D) None of these personal computers?
38. Electronic Mail /Message System (EMMS) (A) They have been most successful in the
best suits to home.
(A) Postal service (B) They are user friendly
(B) Telephone service (C) No specific programming technique
(C) Telegraph service required
(D) None of these (D) All the above.
48. While buying a PC system, one should first 58. The following magazine covers only the IBM
(A) identify hardware components PC and its compatibles
(B) define computing needs (A) Byte (B) PC Magazine
(C) both A and B (C) Personal Computing (D) Interface Age
(D) None of these 59. The word size of a microprocessor refers to:
49. The microcomputers which have the same (A) the number of machine operations
operating characteristics as the IBM performed/ second
microcomputers are called (B) the amount of information that can be
(A) IBM desk top stored / cycle
(B) IBM PC (C) the amount of information that can be
(C) IBM advanced computers stored in bytes
(D) None of theses (D) none of these
50. The personal computers are also referred 60. The primary memory of a personal computer
as consists
(A) desk top micros (A) ROM only
(B) advanced computers (B) RAM only
(C) palmtop computers (C) Both ROM and RAM
(D) all the above (D) Memory module
51. POS data-entry system is used extensively 61. Microsoft Excel is
by (A) financial planning package
(A) banking industry (B) electronic spreadsheet
(B) grocery industry (C) graphics package
(C) railroad industry (D) data-base management package
(D) word-processing industry 62. All the keys on the IBM PC keyboard repeat
52. Primary advantage of key-to-tape data-entry as long as one holds them down. These
systems keys are known as
(A) A large percentage of editing can be (A) typematic keys (B) functional keys
performed at the time of data entry (C) automatic keys (D) alphabetic keys
(B) Key verification is easily performed 63. Distributed data processing configuration
(C) The tape is reusable where all activities passes through a
(D) Keying errors can be detected as they centrally located computer is
occur (A) ring network
53. Maximum character EBCDIC can code (B) spider network
(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) hierarchical network
(C) 64 (D) 256 (D) data control network
54. The hexadecimal number system has a 64. Communications device, combines
base of transmissions from several devices into on
(A) 2 (B) 4 line is
(C) 8 (D) 16 (A) concentrator (B) modifier
(C) multiplexer (D) full-duplex line
55. The use of parity bit is for
(A) coding (B) indexing 65. Data communications involving telegraph
(C) error-detection (D) none of these lines uses
(A) simplex lines
56. The following are basic types of record- (B) wideband channels
access methods (C) narrowband channels
(A) sequential and random (D) dialed service
(B) direct and immediate
(C) sequential and indexed 66. An advantage of the laser printer respect to
(D) on-line and real-time impact printer is
(A) it is quieter/ faster
57. Which of the following is input/output device? (B) output is of a high quality
(A) monitors (B) punched cards (C) support wide range of type fonts
(C) optical scanners (D) all the above (D) all the above
67. Data entry can be performed with all of the 76. A sequential electronic circuit which can be
following except placed in one out of two stable states where
(A) OCR / OMR each state may be used to represent a binary
(B) COM digit is stated as
(C) Voice-recognition systems (A) Integrated circuit (B) Firmware
(D) MICR (C) Flip-flop (D) None of these
68. Magnetic tape can serve as 77. A sequence of instruction (software) that is
(A) input media substituted for hardware and stored in read-
(B) output media only memory (ROM) is called
(C) secondary-storage media (A) Integrated circuit (B) Firmware
(D) all the above (C) Flip-flop (D) None of these
69. The advantages of COM are its_____and__. 78. Anonymous FTP is the
(A) compact size; readability (A) Internet file transfer protocol
(B) compact size; speed (B) Protocol that requires password
(C) readability; speed (C) None access files
(D) compact size; low cost (D) None of these
70. Elementary data item are 79. EFF sites allows anonymous FTP that
(A) data item which is not broken down into (A) Do not require a password or access
smaller units (B) Requires password or access
(B) data item that can be broken down into (C) Is a none access file
smaller units (D) None of these
(C) data item which is not decomposed into 80. ANSI is
smaller units (A) American National Standards Institute
(D) none of these (B) A USA based national organization that
71. A semiconductor memory which allows the establishes uniform standards in
eraser of the information stared in it so that several fields of computers.
new information can be stared in it is referred (C) Both A & B are true
as (D) None is true
(A) EPROM (B) ROM 81. APL is
(C) RAM (D) None of these (A) A high level language for specifying
72. Extended ASCII uses complex algorithms.
(A) 8 bits for coding (B) 9 bits for coding (B) A real-time language primarily for
(C) 10 bits for coding (D) 11 bits for coding scientific applications.
(C) Only A is true
73. A device used for transmission of images (D) Both A & B are true
scanned at a transmitting point and
82. The overall design, construction, organiza-
duplicated at a receiving point is
tion and interconnecting of the various
(A) Facsimile (FAX) (B) Telephone
components of a computer system is
(C) Photocopier (D) None of these
referred as
74. A data transmission medium made of tiny (A) Computer Architecture
threads of glass or plastic that can transmit (B) Computer Flow chart
huge amount of information at the speed of (C) Computer Algorithm
light is (D) None of these
(A) Fiber optic cable (B) Copper cable 83. Asynchronous communication is
(C) Twisted wire cable (D) None of these (A) Communication between independently
75. A method of using a communication channel operating units
in which signals can be transmitted between (B) Communication between dependent
a source and a destination in both directions operating units
simultaneously is called (C) Communication between independent
(A) Full duplex (B) Half duplex and dependent operating units
(C) Quarter duplex (D) None of these (D) None of these
84. Audio response is 93. A program that translates mnemonic

(A) output medium statements into executable instructions is
(B) produces verbal responses from the referred as
computer system (A) Software (B) Assembler
(C) Both A & B true (C) Translator (D) None of these
(D) None is true 94. An assembler is a
85. Automated Office refers to the merger of (A) Translator (B) Hardware
___________ in an office environment. (C) Assembly language (D) None of these
(A) Computers (B) office 95. In a disk system time required for a read/
(C) telecommunications (D) All the above write head to move to the track where the
86. Auxiliary storage is record to be read or written is stored is
(A) Secondary storage (B) Primary storage (A) Access time (B) Random time
(C) Processing device (D) None of these (C) Response time (D) Seek time
87. Archive is 96. Computer output which is displayed on the
(A) Backup storage (B) Forward operation screen of a terminal without a permanent
(C) Primary storage (D) None of these copy is called
(A) Soft copy (B) Hard copy
88. A branch of computer science that deals with (C) Hardware (D) None of these
computers that possess reasoning,
97. A storage device or medium where the
learning and thinking capabilities that
access time is dependent upon the location
resemble those of human beings is
of the data is called
recognized as?
(A) Serial access (B) Parallel access
(A) Software engineering
(C) Null access (D) None of these
(B) Artificial intelligence
(C) Hardware engineering 98. The set of computer programs, procedures,
(D) None of these and associated documentation related to
the effective operation of a computer system
89. ASCII is
is referred as
(A) A standard coding system for computers
(A) Software (B) Hardware
(B) Hardware device
(C) Hardcopy (D) Softcopy
(C) Software
(D) None of these 99. An adder in which the bits of the operands
are added one after another is called
90. Following is true for Bandwidth (A) Serial adder (B) Parallel adder
(A) The wider the bandwidth of a (C) Full adder (D) Half adder
communications system the more data
it can transmit in a given period of time. 100. A method of providing virtual memory
(B) The narrow the bandwidth of a (A) Segmentation (B) De-fragmentation
communications system the more data (C) Paging (D) None of these
it can transmit in a given period of time. 101. Transmission of data in one direction is
(C) The wider the bandwidth of a called
communications system the less data (A) Simplex (B) Duplex
it can transmit in a given period of time. (C) Triplex (D) None of these
(D) None is true 102. SNOBOL is
91. ASCII-8 is (A) string oriented symbolic language
(A) An extended version of ASCIl-7 (B) high-level language
(B) Is a 8-bit code (C) both A & B
(C) Both A & B are true (D) None of these
(D) Both A & B are false 103. Speech recognition is
92. ASCII File is (A) Ability to input data directly into a
(A) document file in the universally computer system by speaking to it
recognized text format (B) Ability to output data directly from a
(B) Word processor computer system by speaking.
(C) System file (C) Processing of voice in computer systems
104. Speech synthesis is 111. A unit of a computer system that interprets

(A) The ability to input data directly into a instructions and executes them is known as
computer system by speaking to it (A) Processor (B) Storage
(B) The ability to output data directly from a (C) Peripherals (D) None of these
computer system in spoken words 112. A register in CPU used to store the address
(C) Processing of voice in computer of the next instruction to be executed is
systems known as
(D) None of these. (A) Program counter (B) Program library
105. A technique used to reduce the speed (C) Programmer (D) None of these
mismatch between slow speed I/O devices 113. One who designs, writes, tests and
and fast CPU is called maintenance computer programs is called
(A) Spooling (B) Paging (A) Programmer (B) Operator
(C) Segmentation (D) None of these (C) User (D) None of these
106. Storing programs on disk and then 114. Which of the following terms applies to
transferring these programs into main communication between two computer
storage as and when they are needed. The systems?
technique is used to process large (A) computer literacy
programs or several programs with limited (B) power supply
memory is called (C) applications software
(A) Swapping (B) Spooling (D) connectivity
(C) Paging (D) Segmentation 115. A memory in CPU that holds program
107. Terminals is instructions, input data, intermediate results
(A) An input device which allows a user to and the output information produced during
communicate directly with a computer processing is
system. (A) Secondary memory
(B) An output device which allows a user to (B) Primary memory
communicate directly with a computer (C) Auxiliary memory
system. (D) None of these
(C) Both A & B 116. A collection of complete programs,
(D) None of these subroutines, and program modules that
have already been developed, tested and
108. A symbol to indicate beginning (START),
documented to be used by programming
ending (STOP) and pauses (HALT) in
projects.
program logic flow are referred as
(A) Program counter (B) Program library
(A) Terminal symbol (B) Decision symbol (C) Programmer (D) None of these
(C) Processing symbol (D) None of these
117. The following typically happens in the output
109. Portability is program ability to run on phase of a computer based information
(A) dissimilar machines with minimum system
modification (A) Data is put into the computer for
(B) similar machines with maximum processing
modification (B) Information is produced in hardcopy /
(C) dissimilar machines with maximum softcopy form
modification (C) Mathematical calculations are
(D) similar machines with maximum performed
modification (D) All of the above.
110. A protocol that specifies how a personal 118. Which of the following best describes a
computer can connect to a mail server on computer-based information system?
the Internet and download E-mail is known (A) system where computer is used to turn
as data into information
(A) Post office protocol (B) inputting data
(B) System protocol (C) processing data
(C) Network protocol (D) data is put into the computer for
(D) None of these processing
119. The following piece of hardware is used as 130. Which of the following is not true of a
input phase of a computer-based information magnetic disk?
system (A) Users can update records by writing
(A) Printer (B) Diskette over the old data
(C) Monitor (D) Keyboard (B) It provides sequential access to stored
120. Software instructions intended to satisfy a data
user specific processing needs are called (C) It is slow relative to magnetic tape
(A) systems software (D) All of the above are true
(B) microcomputer
131. Which of the following was (were) not used
(C) documentation
(D) applications software in first-generation computers?
(A) vacuum tubes (B) punch cards
121. A term used for diskette is (C) magnetic core (D) all of the above
(A) disk cartridge (B) disk pack
(C) floppy disk (D) none of these 132. Following is not true for Backup files
(A) These are the files which are generated
122. Following is true for the digital computer
(A) Information is in form of a string of binary automatically in when one saves a
digits document.
(B) It can be used as analog processor (B) These files help in protecting the
(C) It is less accurate than the analog document due to out of order of the
computer computer or power failure.
(D) None of these. (C) These files delete as soon as computer
123. Comparing with secondary storage, primary is turned off
storage is (D) None of these
(A) slow and inexpensive 133. An algebra that deals with logical
(B) fast and inexpensive propositions which are either true or false is
(C) fast and expensive referred as
(D) slow and expensive (A) Boolean algebra (B) Modern Algebra
124. CPU performs read/write operations (C) Abstract Algebra (D) None of these
at any point in time in
134. Bandwidth is
(A) ROM (B) PROM
(C) EPROM (D) RAM (A) The range of frequencies available for
data transmission
125. Following is not the from of secondary
(B) Data transmission rate
storage
(C) Alternate for rubber band
(A) Magnetic tape (B) CDs
(C) Disk (D) Hard disk (D) None is true
126. Technique of placing software/programs 135. A coding structure in which characters are
in a ROM semiconductor chip is called represented by means of a series of parallel
(A) PROM (B) EPROM bars is
(C) firm ware (D) microprocessor (A) Bar Code (B) Menu bar
127. Following is not true for magnetic tape (C) Numeric bar (D) None of these
(A) low cost 136. In Broadband system a network system
(B) direct-access storage medium (A) Several analog signals share the same
(C) compact and portable physical network channel.
(D) highly reliable (B) Only digital signals share the same
128. The following is an nonvolatile memory physical network channel.
(A) ROM (B) RAM (C) Single analog signals share the same
(C) LSI (D) VLSI physical network channel.
129. The ________ can be programmed one (D) None of these.
time by either the manufacturer or the 137. Bit stands for
computer user. Once programmed, it cannot (A) binary digit
be modified. (B) one binary piece of information
(A) RAM (B) ROM (C) Both A and B are true
(C) PROM (D) EPROM (D) None is true
138. Broadband channel is the 147. Buffer is device/ storage area

(A) The fastest carriers where data transfer (A) Where data are temporarily stored
rates is of 1 million baud (bits/secon(D) (B) Where data is permanently stored
or more. (C) Where data error occurs
(B) The slower carriers where data transfer (D) None of these
rates is of 56k baud 148. A network geometric arrangement in which
(C) Musical channel a single connecting line is shared by a
(D) None of these number of nodes is called
139. BLOB is (A) Car Topology (B) Bus Topology
(A) Binary Large Object (C) Truck Topology (D) None of these
(B) A long bit string representing complex 149. An error in a computer program is referred
data as
(C) Object oriented language (A) Bug (B) Bit
(D) Only A & B are true (C) Virus (D) None of these
140. A group of related items / section of program 150. Circuits that provide a communication path
coding treated as a unit is referred as between two or more devices of a digital
(A) Block (B) Duplex computer system is
(C) Street (D) None of these (A) Car (B) Bus
141. An operation in which data is moved to a (C) Truck (D) None of these
different location is referred as 151. A fixed number of adjacent bits that represent
(A) Block move (B) Street move a particular character or symbol are referred
(C) Delete (D) None of these as
(A) Byte (B) Octal
142. The following is responsible for number of
(C) Bubble (D) None of these
logical records in a physical record
(A) Blocking factor (B) Block 152. Cache memory is a
(C) Boolean algebra (D) None of these (A) Small buffer storage
(B) Permanent storage
143. Boolean variable assumes (C) Main memory
(A) Values that are true only (D) None of these
(B) Values that are false only
153. The total number of digits (symbols)
(C) Values that are either true or false
available to represent numbers in a
(D) None of these
positional number system is referred as
144. Bubble Memory is (A) Number system (B) Base
(A) nonvolatile (B) volatile (C) Power (D) None of these
(C) permanent (D) None of these
154. Cache memory is
145. In Nonvolatile memory device (A) Smaller and faster than main storage
(A) Data contained in them is not lost when (B) Bigger and slower then main storage
the power turned off (C) Smaller but slower than main memory
(B) Data contained in them is lost when the (D) Bigger and faster than main memory
power turned off. 155. Cache memory
(C) data contained in them is permanent (A) Is a Static RAM
and not be rewrite (B) Increases the speed of processing by
(D) None of these making current programs and data
146. Following is true for Bubble Memory available to the CPU at a rapid rate
(A) A compact data storage device made of (C) Both A & B are true
thin wafers of garnet (a semiconductor (D) Both A & B are false
material) in a magnetic field. 156. Following is false for BASIC
(B) Nonvolatile memory (A) Beginners All-Purpose Symbolic
(C) Data contained in them is not lost when Instruction Code
the power turned off (B) High-level interactive programming
(D) All are true language
(C) Works in timesharing environment 165. Programs developed by an outside supplier

(D) Low level object oriented language and provided to the user in a machine
157. A unit for measuring data transmission readable form is known as
speed that describes the capacity of a carrier (A) Canned Programs
is referred as (B) Beta program
(A) Baud (B) Bit (C) Alpha program
(C) Bond (D) Batch (D) None of these
158. A process of trying out a new product by 166. A binary numbers are represented by
independent users before it is finally (A) Digits 0 and 1 (B) Digits 0,1,.,8
manufactured/ developed (C) Digits A,B, C, (D) None of these
(A) Alpha test (B) Beta Test 167. BIOS is responsible for
(C) Gamma test (D) None of these (A) handling the particulars of input/output
operations
159. A selection, choice, or condition involving two
(B) output operations
possibilities is referred as
(C) input operations
(A) Unary (B) Binary
(D) None of these
(C) Octal (D) None of these
168. BIOS is an abbreviation for
160. Base band System is (A) Binary Input/Binary Output
(A) A networking system (B) Binary synchronous
(B) Where the channel support. a single (C) Binary digit
digital signal. (D) None of these
(C) Both A & B are true
169. BISYNC is an abbreviation for
(D) None is true
(A) Binary Input/Binary Output
161. One of the early coding systems, based on (B) Binary synchronous
the idea of converting each digit of a decimal (C) Binary digit
number into its binary equivalent rather than (D) None of these
converting the entire decimal value into a 170. The overall design, construction, organization
pure binary form is and interconnecting of the various compo-
(A) ASCII code (B) BCD nents of a computer system is referred as
(C) ASCIl-8 (D) None of these (A) Computer Architecture
162. In Batch processing (B) Computer Flow chart
(A) Several computer programs runs one (C) Computer Algorithm
after another without human interaction (D) None of these
to run each program individually. 171. A number system with a base of two is
(B) Several computer programs runs one referred as
after another with human interaction to (A) Unary number system
run each program individually (B) Binary number system
(C) Selected computer programs runs one (C) Octal number system
after another with human interaction to (D) None of these
run each program individually 172. In the IBM PCs, the CPU, the device drives,
(D) None is true memory, expansion slots and active
163. BISYNC is components are mounted on a single board
(A) Binary synchronous referred as
(B) A process of transmitting data (A) Motherboard (B) Breadboard
(C) A half-duplex, character-oriented, (C) Daughter board (D) Father board.
synchronous data communications 173. Instead of buying new computer, productivity
transmission method of old one can be economically enhanced
(D) All the above with the help of?
164. A device that is used to transmit data from (A) Motherboard
one location to another is referred as (B) Breadboard
(A) Storage (B) Memory (C) Daughter board
(C) Carrier (D) None of these (D) Grandmother board.
174. Following communications lines, best suites 31. (C) 32. (A) 33. (A) 34. (C) 35. (A)
to interactive processing applications 36. (C) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (B)
(A) narrowband channels 41. (A) 42. (A) 43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (A)
(B) simplex lines 46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (C) 49. (B) 50. (A)
(C) full-duplex lines 51. (B) 52. (C) 53. (D) 54. (D) 55. (C)
(D) mixed-band channels 56. (A) 57. (D) 58. (B) 59. (B) 60. (C)
175. Advantage of a multiprogramming system 61. (B) 62. (A) 63. (B) 64. (C) 65. (C)
is 66. (D) 67. (B) 68. (D) 69. (B) 70. (A)
(A) simultaneous execution of program 71. (A) 72. (A) 73. (A) 74. (A) 75. (A)
instructions from two applications 76. (C) 77. (B) 78. (A) 79. (A) 80. (C)
(B) concurrent processing of two or more 81. (D) 82. (A) 83. (A) 84. (C) 85. (D)
programs 86. (A) 87. (A) 88. (B) 89. (A) 90. (A)
(C) single processing at a time 91. (A) 92. (A) 93. (B) 94. (A) 95. (D)
(D) none of these 96. (A) 97. (A) 98. (A) 99. (A) 100. (A)
176. A remote batch-processing operation where 101. (A) 102. (C) 103. (A) 104. (B) 105. (A)
data is solely input to a central computer 106. (A) 107. (C) 108. (A) 109. (A) 110. (A)
would require 111. (A) 112. (A) 113. (A) 114. (D) 115. (B)
(A) telegraph line 116. (B) 117. (B) 118. (A) 119. (D) 120. (D)
(B) simplex lines 121. (C) 122. (A) 123. (C) 124. (C) 125. (D)
(C) mixed-band channel 126. (C) 127. (B) 128. (A) 129. (C) 130. (B)
(D) none of these 131. (C) 132. (C) 133. (A) 134. (A) 135. (A)
136. (A) 137. (C) 138. (A) 139. (D) 140. (A)
Answer Sheet 141. (A) 142. (A) 143. (C) 144. (A) 145. (A)
146. (D) 147. (A) 148. (B) 149. (A) 150. (B)
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (B) 151. (A) 152. (A) 153. (B) 154. (A) 155. (C)
6. (A) 7. (D) 8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (A) 156. (D) 157. (A) 158. (B) 159. (B) 160. (C)
11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (A) 161. (B) 162. (A) 163. (D) 164. (A) 165. (A)
16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (A) 166. (A) 167. (A) 168. (A) 169. (A) 170. (A)
21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (A) 25. (A) 171. (B) 172. (A) 173. (C) 174. (C) 175. (B)
26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (C) 30. (B) 176. (B)
COMPUTER SECURITY
1. A vulnerability scanner is 6. It is a software program designed to record
(A) a prepared application that takes (log) every keystroke on the machine on
advantage of a known weakness. which it runs
(B) a tool used to quickly check computers
(A) Keylogger (B) Worm
on a network for known weaknesses.
(C) an application that captures TCP/IP data (C) Virus (D) Cracker
packets, which can maliciously be used 7. It is a self-replicating program that infects
to capture passwords and other data computer and spreads by inserting copies
while it is in transit either within the
of itself into other executable code or
computer or over the network.
(D) a situation in which one person or documents.
program successfully masquerades as (A) Keylogger (B) Worm
another by falsifying data and thereby (C) Virus (D) Cracker
gaining illegitimate access. 8. Like a virus, it is also a self-replicating
2. A packet sniffer is program. The difference between a virus and
(A) a prepared application that takes it is that a worm does not create copies of
advantage of a known weakness.
itself on one system: it propagates through
(B) a tool used to quickly check computers
on a network for known weaknesses. computer networks.
(C) an application that captures TCP/IP data (A) Keylogger (B) Worm
packets, which can maliciously be used (C) Cracker (D) None of these
to capture passwords and other data
while it is in transit either within the 9. Viruses that fool a user into downloading
computer or over the network. and/or executing them by pretending to be
(D) a situation in which one person or useful applications are also sometimes
program successfully masquerades as called?
another by falsifying data and thereby (A) Trojan horses (B) Keylogger
gaining illegitimate access.
(C) Worm (D) Cracker
3. These hacker breaks security for altruistic
or at least non-malicious reasons. 10. These are program designed as to seem to
(A) White hat (B) Grey hat being or be doing one thing, but actually
(C) Blue hat (D) None of these being or doing another.
4. This hacker is a hacker of ambiguous ethics (A) Trojan horses (B) Keylogger
and/or borderline legality, often frankly (C) Worm (D) Cracker
admitted.
(A) White hat (B) Grey hat 11. It is a toolkit for hiding the fact that a computers
(C) Blue hat (D) None of these security has been compromised, is a general
5. This hacker is someone outside computer description of a set of programs which work
security consulting firms that are used to bug to subvert control of an operating system from
test a system prior to its launch, looking for its legitimate (in accordance with established
exploits so they can be closed. rules) operators.
(A) White hat (B) Grey hat (A) Rootkit (B) Keylogger
(C) Blue hat (D) None of these (C) Worm (D) Cracker
12. Packet Sniffer is 15. Security exploit is

(A) an application that captures TCP/IP data (A) a prepared application that takes
packets, which can maliciously be used advantage of a known weakness.
to capture passwords and other data (B) a tool used to quickly check computers
while it is in transit either within the
on a network for known weaknesses.
(B) a situation in which one person or (C) an application that captures TCP/IP data
program successfully masquerades as packets, which can maliciously be used
another by falsifying data and thereby to capture passwords and other data
gaining illegitimate access. while it is in transit either within the
(C) a toolkit for hiding the fact that a computer or over the network.
computers security has been (D) a situation in which one person or
compromised, is a general description program successfully masquerades as
of a set of programs which work to another by falsifying data and thereby
subvert control of an operating system
gaining illegitimate access.
from its legitimate (in accordance with
established rules) operators. 16. A spoofing attack is
(D) None of these (A) a prepared application that takes
13. Rootkit is advantage of a known weakness.
(A) an application that captures TCP/IP data (B) a tool used to quickly check computers
packets, which can maliciously be used on a network for known weaknesses.
to capture passwords and other data (C) an application that captures TCP/IP data
while it is in transit either within the packets, which can maliciously be used
to capture passwords and other data
(B) a situation in which one person or
program successfully masquerades as while it is in transit either within the
another by falsifying data and thereby computer or over the network.
gaining illegitimate access. (D) a situation in which one person or
(C) a toolkit for hiding the fact that a program successfully masquerades as
computers security has been another by falsifying data and thereby
compromised, is a general description gaining illegitimate access.
of a set of programs which work to
17. White hat is
subvert control of an operating system
from its legitimate (in accordance with (A) hacker breaks security for altruistic or at
established rules) operators. least non-malicious reasons.
(D) None of these (B) hacker of ambiguous ethics and/or
14. Spoofing attack is borderline legality, often frankly admitted.
(A) an application that captures TCP/IP data (C) someone outside computer security
packets, which can maliciously be used consulting firms that are used to bug
to capture passwords and other data test a system prior to its launch, looking
while it is in transit either within the for exploits so they can be closed.
(B) a situation in which one person or (D) None of these
program successfully masquerades as 18. Grey hat is
another by falsifying data and thereby (A) hacker breaks security for altruistic or at
gaining illegitimate access. least non-malicious reasons.
(C) a toolkit for hiding the fact that a (B) hacker of ambiguous ethics and/or
computers security has been borderline legality, often frankly admitted.
compromised, is a general description
(C) someone outside computer security
of a set of programs which work to
subvert control of an operating system consulting firms that are used to bug
from its legitimate (in accordance with test a system prior to its launch, looking
established rules) operators. for exploits so they can be closed.
19. Blue hat is (B) a person, usually not an expert in

(A) hacker breaks security for altruistic or at computer security, who breaks into
least non-malicious reasons. computer systems by using pre-
(B) hacker of ambiguous ethics and/or
packaged automated tools written by
borderline legality, often frankly admitted.
others.
(C) someone outside computer security
consulting firms that are used to bug (C) hacker who utilizes technology to
test a system prior to its launch, looking announce a political message.
for exploits so they can be closed. (D) None of these
(D) None of these 23. It is a prepared application that takes
20. Black hat is advantage of a known weakness.
(A) someone who subverts computer (A) security exploit
security without authorization or who (B) vulnerability scanner
uses technology (usually a computer or
(C) packet sniffer
the Internet) for terrorism, vandalism
(D) rootkit
(malicious destruction), credit card
fraud, identity theft, intellectual property 24. It is a tool used to quickly check computers
theft, or many other types of crime. on a network for known weaknesses.
(B) a person, usually not an expert in (A) security exploit
computer security, who breaks into (B) vulnerability scanner
computer systems by using pre- (C) packet sniffer
(D) rootkit
others.
(C) hacker who utilizes technology to 25. It is an application that captures TCP/IP data
announce a political message. packets, which can maliciously be used to
(D) None of these capture passwords and other data while it
21. Script kiddie is is in transit either within the computer or over
(A) someone who subverts computer the network.
security without authorization or who (A) security exploit
uses technology (usually a computer or
(B) vulnerability scanner
the Internet) for terrorism, vandalism
(malicious destruction), credit card (C) packet sniffer
fraud, identity theft, intellectual property (D) rootkit
theft, or many other types of crime. 26. It is a situation in which one person or
(B) a person, usually not an expert in program successfully masquerades as
computer security, who breaks into another by falsifying data and thereby gaining
computer systems by using pre- illegitimate access.
(A) security exploit
others.
(B) vulnerability scanner
(C) hacker who utilizes technology to
announce a political message. (C) packet sniffer
(D) None of these (D) rootkit
22. Hacktivism is
(A) someone who subverts computer
Answer Sheet
security without authorization or who 1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (C)
uses technology (usually a computer or 6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (A)
the Internet) for terrorism, vandalism 11. (A) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (A)
(malicious destruction), credit card 16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (A)
fraud, identity theft, intellectual property 21. (B) 22. (C) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (C)
theft, or many other types of crime. 26. (A)
COMPUTER : APPLICATION
APPLICATION
( Microsoft Windows Oper
Microsoft ating Sy
Opera stem
System
( Microsoft Windows K
Microsoft eyboar
Ke d Shor
yboard tcuts
Shortcuts
( Microsoft Of
Microsoft Offf ice
( Microsoft W
Microsoft or
Word
ord
( Microsoft Ex
Microsoft cel
Excel
( Microsoft P
Microsoft ow
Pow er
ower point
erpoint
( Microsoft Access
Microsoft
MICROSOFT WINDOWS
OPERATING SYSTEM
1. In Windows operating system the 8. Word Processors that is the part of Windows
is the main screen area that one sees operating system
after he turn on a computer and log on to
(A) Wordpad
Windows.
(A) Desktop (B) Icons (B) Notepad
(C) Taskbar (D) None of these (C) Adobe Photoshop
2. In Windows operating system it sits at the (D) Jasc Paint Shop
bottom of windows desktop screen. It shows 9. Microsoft Windows provides a graphics
you which programs are running and allows
you to switch between them. It also contains application named
the Start button which one can use to access (A) Paint (B) Adobe Photoshop
programs, folders, and computer settings. (C) Jasc Paint Shop(D) None of these
(A) Sidebar (B) Icons
(C) Taskbar (D) None of these 10. Text Editor that is the part of Windows
operating system
3. In Windows operating system these are
small pictures that represent files, folders, (A) Wordpad
programs, and other items. Each one is (B) Notepad
used to make the computer do something. (C) Adobe Photoshop
(A) Sidebar (B) Icons (D) Jasc Paint Shop
(C) Taskbar (D) None of these
11. It is a visual aspect that indicates that a
4. In Windows operating system it is the long
horizontal bar at the bottom of a screen. control is ready to receive input from you in
Unlike the desktop, which can get obscured Windows operating system
by the windows on top of it, it is visible almost (A) Controls Focus
all the time.
(B) Dialog Boxes
(A) Sidebar (B) Icons
(C) Taskbar (D) None of these (C) Command Buttons
5. In Windows operating system it is a very (D) Text Boxes
important part of Windows, clicking on it 12. In Windows operating system it is a window
opens up what is called the start menu that is used to display text or to receive text
(A) Start button (B) Sidebar
from you. The type of text it displays or the
(C) Icons (D) None of these
type of text you are asked to provide depends
6. In Windows operating system when you
on the application or the situation.
delete a file or folder, it doesnt actually get
deleted right away, it goes to the . (A) Controls Focus (B) Dialog Boxes
(A) Recycle Bin (B) Dust Bin (C) Command Buttons (D) Text Boxes
(C) Cycle Bin (D) None of these
7. In Windows operating system the clock in Answer Sheet
windows xp sits on the and
displays the system time. 1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (A)
(A) Taskbar (B) Start menu 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (B)
(C) Desktop (D) None of these 11. (A) 12. (D)
MICROSOFT WINDOWS
KEYBOARD SHORTCUTS
1. In Windows operating system to display or 8. In Windows operating system shortcut key
hide the Start menu Windows Logo+R
(A) Windows Logo (A) Display Windows Help
(B) Windows Logo + BREAK (B) Lock the keyboard
(C) Windows Logo + D (C) Open the Run dialog box
(D) Windows Logo + M (D) Open Utility Manager
2. In Windows operating system the shortcut 9. In Windows operating system to Display the
key Windows Logo+SHIFT+M is used for System Properties dialog box
(A) Restore the minimized windows (A) Windows Logo
(B) Open My Computer
(B) Windows Logo + BREAK
(C) Search for a file or a folder
(D) Search for computers (C) Windows Logo + D
(D) Windows Logo + M
3. In Windows operating system the shortcut
key Windows Logo+E is used for 10. In Windows operating system to Display the
(A) Restore the minimized windows desktop
(B) Open My Computer (A) Windows Logo
(C) Search for a file or a folder (B) Windows Logo + BREAK
4. In Windows operating system the shortcut (D) Windows Logo + M
key Windows Logo+F 11. In Windows operating system to minimize
(A) Restore the minimized windows all of the windows
(B) Open My Computer (A) Windows Logo
(C) Search for a file or a folder (B) Windows Logo + BREAK
5. In Windows operating system shortcut key (D) Windows Logo + M
CTRL+Windows Logo+F
12. In Windows operating system to move for-
(A) Restore the minimized windows
(B) Open My Computer ward through the tabs
(C) Search for a file or a folder (A) CTRL+TAB (B) CTRL+SHIFT+TAB
(D) Search for computers (C) SHIFT+TAB (D) None of these
6. In Windows operating system shortcut key 13. In Windows operating system to move back-
Windows Logo+F1 ward through the tabs
(A) Display Windows Help (A) CTRL+TAB (B) CTRL+SHIFT+TAB
(B) Lock the keyboard (C) SHIFT+TAB (D) None of these
(C) Open the Run dialog box 14. In Windows operating system to move back-
(D) Open Utility Manager ward through the options
7. In Windows operating system shortcut key (A) CTRL+TAB (B) CTRL+SHIFT+TAB
Windows Logo+ L (C) SHIFT+TAB (D) None of these
(A) Display Windows Help 15. In Windows operating system one press F1
(B) Lock the keyboard key to
(C) Open the Run dialog box (A) Display help (B) Cut
(D) Open Utility Manager (C) Paste (D) None of these
16. In Windows operating system after you 22. In Windows operating system after you
double-click a character on the grid of char- double-click a character on the grid of char-
acters, keyboard shortcut DOWN ARROW is acters, keyboard shortcut CTRL+END is
used for used for
(A) Move to the right or to the beginning of (A) Move to the first character
the next line (B) Move to the last character
(B) Move to the left or to the end of the previ- (C) Switch between Enlarged and Normal
mode when a character is selected
ous line
(D) None of these
(C) Move up one row
(D) Move down one row 23. In Windows operating system after you
double-click a character on the grid of charac-
17. In Windows operating system after you ters, keyboard shortcut SPACEBAR is used
double-click a character on the grid of char- for
acters, keyboard shortcut PAGE UP is used (A) Move to the first character
for (B) Move to the last character
(A) Move up one screen at a time (C) Switch between Enlarged and Normal
(B) Move down one screen at a time mode when a character is selected*
(C) Move to the beginning of the line (D) None of these
(D) Move to the end of the line 24. In Windows operating system to copy some-
18. In Windows operating system after you thing the following shortcut is used
(A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X
double-click a character on the grid of char-
(C) CTRL+V (D) None of these
acters, keyboard shortcut PAGE DOWN is
used for 25. In Windows operating system to cut some-
thing the following shortcut is used-
(A) Move up one screen at a time
(B) Move down one screen at a time (C) CTRL+V (D) None of these
(C) Move to the beginning of the line
26. In Windows operating system Shortcut
(D) Move to the end of the line
CTRL+Z is for
19. In Windows operating system after you (A) Undo something
double-click a character on the grid of char- (B) Delete something
acters, keyboard shortcut HOME is used for (C) Paste something
(A) Move up one screen at a time (D) None of these
(B) Move down one screen at a time 27. In Windows operating system shortcut DE-
(C) Move to the beginning of the line LETE is for
(D) Move to the end of the line (A) Undo something
(B) Delete something
20. In Windows operating system after you
(C) Paste something
double-click a character on the grid of char- (D) None of these
acters, keyboard shortcut END is used for
28. In Windows operating system shortcut
(A) Move up one screen at a time
SHIFT+DELETE is used for
(B) Move down one screen at a time
(A) Delete the selected item permanently with-
(C) Move to the beginning of the line out placing the item in the Recycle Bin
(D) Move to the end of the line (B) Copy the selected item
21. In Windows operating system after you (C) Rename the selected item
double-click a character on the grid of char- (D) Create a shortcut to the selected item
acters, keyboard shortcut CTRL+HOME is 29. In Windows operating system shortcut CTRL
used for while dragging an item
(A) Move to the first character (A) Delete the selected item permanently with-
(B) Move to the last character out placing the item in the Recycle Bin
(C) Switch between Enlarged and Normal (B) Copy the selected item
mode when a character is selected (C) Rename the selected item
(D) None of these (D) Create a shortcut to the selected item
30. In Windows operating system shortcut 37. In Windows operating system CTRL+SHIFT
CTRL+SHIFT while dragging an item with any of the arrow keys
(A) Delete the selected item permanently (A) Highlight a block of text
without placing the item in the Recycle (B) Delete something
Bin (C) Paste something
(B) Copy the selected item (D) None of these
(C) Rename the selected item 38. In Windows operating system SHIFT with any
(D) Create a shortcut to the selected item of the arrow keys
31. In Windows operating system to delete the (A) Highlight a block of text
selected item permanently without placing (B) Delete something
the item in the Recycle Bin (C) Paste something
(A) Shortcut SHIFT+DELETE (D) Select more than one item in a window
(B) Shortcut CTRL while dragging an item or on the desktop, or select text in a
(C) Shortcut CTRL+SHIFT while dragging document
an item 39. In Windows operating system shortcut
(D) None of these CTRL+A is to
32. In Windows operating system move the in- (A) Select all
sertion point to the beginning of the next word. (B) Highlight a block of text
(A) Shortcut CTRL+RIGHT ARROW (C) Delete something
(B) Shortcut CTRL+LEFT ARROW (D) Paste something
(C) Shortcut CTRL+DOWN ARROW
40. In Windows operating system shortcut for
(D) None of these
paste is
33. In Windows operating system move the in- (A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X
sertion point to the beginning of the previ- (C) CTRL+V (D) None of these
ous word
41. In Windows operating system Shortcut for
(A) Shortcut CTRL+RIGHT ARROW
copy is
(B) Shortcut CTRL+LEFT ARROW
(D) None of these
42. In Windows operating system to paste some-
34. In Windows operating system move the in-
thing after cutting the following shortcut is
sertion point to the beginning of the next para-
used
graph
(C) Shortcut CTRL+DOWN ARROW 43. In Windows operating system shortcut
(D) None of these CTRL+C is used for
(A) Cut (B) Paste
35. In Windows operating system move the in-
(C) Copy (D) None of these
sertion point to the beginning of the previ-
ous paragraph 44. In Windows operating system the shortcut
(A) CTRL+RIGHT ARROW key CTRL+B is used for
(B) CTRL+LEFT ARROW (A) Open the Organize Favorites dialog box
(C) CTRL+DOWN ARROW (B) Open the Search bar
(D) None of these (C) Start the Find utility
36. In Windows operating system move the in- (D) Open the History bar
sertion point to the beginning of the previ- 45. In Windows operating system the shortcut
ous paragraph key CTRL+E is used for
(A) CTRL+RIGHT ARROW (A) Open the Organize Favorites dialog box
(B) CTRL+LEFT ARROW (B) Open the Search bar
(C) CTRL+DOWN ARROW (C) Start the Find utility
(D) CTRL+UP ARROW (D) Open the History bar
46. In Windows operating system the shortcut 51. In Windows operating system the shortcut
key CTRL+F is used for key CTRL+O is used for
(A) Open the Organize Favorites dialog box (A) Open the Favorites bar
(B) Open the Search bar (B) Open the Open dialog box
(C) Start another instance of the browser
(C) Start the Find utility
with the same Web address
(D) Open the History bar (D) Open the Open dialog box, the same as
47. In Windows operating system the shortcut CTRL+L
key CTRL+H is used for 52. In Windows operating system the shortcut
(A) Open the Organize Favorites dialog box key CTRL+P is used for
(B) Open the Search bar (A) Open the Print dialog box
(C) Start the Find utility (B) Update the current Web page
(D) Open the History bar (C) Close the current window
(D) None of these
key CTRL+I is used for
key CTRL+R is used for
(A) Open the Favorites bar (A) Open the Print dialog box
(B) Open the Open dialog box (B) Update the current Web page
(C) Start another instance of the browser (C) Close the current window
with the same Web address (D) None of these
(D) Open the Open dialog box, the same as 54. In Windows operating system the shortcut
CTRL+L key CTRL+W is used for
49. In Windows operating system the shortcut (A) Open the Print dialog box
(B) Update the current Web page
key CTRL+L is used for
(C) Close the current window
(A) Open the Favorites bar
(D) None of these
(B) Open the Open dialog box
(C) Start another instance of the browser Answer Sheet
with the same Web address
(D) Open the Open dialog box, the same as 1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (D)
CTRL+L 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (A)
16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (D)
key CTRL+N is used for 21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (B)
(A) Open the Favorites bar 26. (A) 27. (B) 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (D)
(B) Open the Open dialog box 31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (D)
(C) Start another instance of the browser 36. (D) 37. (A) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (C)
with the same Web address 41. (C) 42. (C) 43. (A) 44. (A) 45. (B)
(D) Open the Open dialog box, the same as 46. (C) 47. (D) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50. (C)
CTRL+L 51. (D) 52. (A) 53. (B) 54. (C)
MICROSOFT OFFICE
1. Microsoft Office is 8. Microsoft Office Suite spreadsheet program
(A) Desktop applications is
(B) Operating system (A) Microsoft Excel
(C) Command window (B) Microsoft Word
(D) None of these (C) Microsoft Powerpoint
2. Microsoft Office is an office suite, for the (D) None of these
(A) Microsoft Windows operating systems 9. A competitor to the dominant Lotus 1-2-3 is
(B) Mac OS X operating systems (A) Microsoft Excel
(C) Both A and B are true (B) Microsoft Word
(D) None is true (C) Microsoft PowerPoint
3. Microsoft Word, Microsoft Excel, and (D) None of these
Microsoft PowerPoint are the part of 10. A personal information manager and e-mail
(A) Microsoft Office Suite communication software in MS Office is
(B) Microsoft Windows (A) Microsoft Outlook
(C) Mac OS X (B) Microsoft Word
(D) None of these
(C) Microsoft PowerPoint
4. The very first version of Microsoft Office was (D) None of these
released for
11. A popular presentation program for Windows
(A) Windows operating system
and Mac in Microsoft Office is
(B) Apple Macintosh OS
(A) Microsoft Word
(C) Unix
(B) Microsoft PowerPoint
(D) None of these
(C) Microsoft Access
5. The first version of MS Office to be released (D) None of these
for the Microsoft Windows operating system
is 12. To create slideshows, composed of text,
(A) Microsoft Office 3.0 graphics, movies and other objects, which
(B) Microsoft Office 2003 can be displayed on-screen and navigated
(C) Microsoft Office 2007 through by the presenter or printed out on
(D) Microsoft Office XP transparencies or slides one uses
(A) Microsoft Word
6. The word processor in MS office suite is
(B) Microsoft PowerPoint
(A) Microsoft Word
(C) Microsoft Access
(B) Microsoft Excel
(D) None of these
(C) Microsoft PowerPoint
(D) None of these 13. For Database management one uses
7. Microsoft Word is a word processor that (A) Microsoft Access
saves in its proprietaryformat. (B) Microsoft PowerPoint
(A) .doc (B) .pdf (C) Microsoft Access
(C) .txt (D) None of these (D) None of these
14. It is software for creating newsletters, busi- 20. Microsoft Office Communicator is
ness cards, flyers, greeting cards or post- (A) Integrated communications client for
cards. conferences and meetings in real time
(A) Microsoft Publisher (B) Project management software to keep
(B) Microsoft PowerPoint track of events and to create network
(C) Microsoft Access charts and Gantt charts
(D) None of these (C) Diagram and flowcharting software
15. It is a Note-taking software for use with tab- (D) None of these
let PCs or regular PCs.
(A) Microsoft OneNote 21. Microsoft Office Document Imaging is
(B) Microsoft PowerPoint (A) An application that supports editing
(C) Microsoft Access scanned documents
(D) None of these (B) A scanning and OCR application
16. Microsoft Office SharePoint Designer is (C) Diagram and flowcharting software
used for (D) None of these
(A) A WYSIWYG HTML editor and web de-
22. Microsoft Office Document Scanning is
sign program for customizing
SharePoint applications, it replaces (A) An application that supports editing
Microsoft Office FrontPage scanned documents
(B) Project management software to keep (B) A scanning and OCR application
track of events and to create network (C) Diagram and flowcharting software
charts and Gantt charts (D) None of these
(C) Diagram and flowcharting software
23. Microsoft Office Groove is
(D) None of these
(A) A proprietary peer-to-peer software pack-
17. Microsoft Project is age aimed at businesses
(A) A WYSIWYG HTML editor and web de-
(B) An application that supports editing
sign program for customizing Share
scanned documents
Point applications, it replaces Microsoft
(C) A scanning and OCR application
Office FrontPage
(B) Project management software to keep (D) Diagram and flowcharting software
track of events and to create network 24. Microsoft Office InterConnect is
charts and Gantt charts (A) Business-relationship database
(C) Diagram and flowcharting software (B) An application that supports editing
(D) None of these scanned documents
18. Microsoft Visio is a (C) A scanning and OCR application
(A) A WYSIWYG HTML editor and web de- (D) None of these
sign program for customizing
SharePoint applications, it replaces 25. Microsoft Office Picture Manager is
Microsoft Office FrontPage (A) Basic photo management software
(B) Project management software to keep (B) An application that supports editing
track of events and to create network scanned documents
charts and Gantt charts (C) A scanning and OCR application
(C) Diagram and flowcharting software (D) None of these
(D) None of these
19. Microsoft Office Accounting is
(A) A tool for managing business finances Answer Sheet
(B) Project management software to keep 1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (A)
track of events and to create network 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (A)
charts and Gantt charts 11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (A)
(C) Diagram and flowcharting software 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (A)
(D) None of these 21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (A) 25. (A)
MICROSOFT WORD
1. In Microsoft Word to cut something the 9. Why are headers and footers used in
following shortcut is used document?
(A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X (A) To enhance the overall appearance of
(C) CTRL+V (D) None of these the document
2. In Microsoft Word shortcut CTRL+Z is for (B) To mark the starting and ending of a
(A) Undo something page
(B) Delete something (C) To make large document more readable
(C) Paste something (D) To allow page headers and footers to
(D) None of these appear on document when it is printed
3. In Microsoft Word shortcut DELETE is for 10. Which of the following shortcut key is used
(A) Undo something to check spelling?
(B) Delete something (A) F1 (B) F2
(C) Paste something (C) F7 (D) F9
(D) None of these
11. What does Ctrl + B shortcut accomplish in
4. A program which helps to create written Ms-Word?
document and lets you go back and make (A) It converts selected text into the next
corrections as necessary larger size of the same font
(A) Home row keys (B) Tool bar
(B) It adds a line break to the document
(C) Spreadsheet (D) Word processor
(C) It makes the selected text bold
5. Graphics for word processor (D) It applies Italic formatting t the selected
(A) Peripheral (B) Clip art text.
(C) Highlight (D) Execute
12. What is the minimum number of rows and
6. What type of software is used for creating columns that a word table can have?
letters papers and other documents?
(A) Zero
(A) Database
(B) 2 rows and 1 column
(B) Word Processor
(C) 2 rows and 2 column
(C) Spreadsheet
(D) Operating Program (D) 1 row and 1 column
7. What does the Ctrl + I shortcut key 13. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+R is
accomplish in Ms-Word? used for
(A) It converts selected text into the next (A) Open the Print dialog box
larger size of the same font (B) Update the current Web page
(B) It adds a line break to the document (C) Close the current window
(C) It makes the selected text bold (D) None of these
(D) It applies Italic formatting t the selected 14. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+W is
text. used for
8. What is the file extension of Ms-Word97- (A) Open the Print dialog box
2003 document? (B) Update the current Web page
(A) Dot (B) Doc (C) Close the current window
(C) Dom (D) Txt (D) None of these
15. In Microsoft Word system to copy something 23. In Microsoft Word move the insertion point to
the following shortcut is used the beginning of the previous paragraph
(A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X (A) CTRL+RIGHT ARROW
(C) CTRL+V (D) None of these (B) CTRL+LEFT ARROW
16. In Microsoft Word shortcut SHIFT+DELETE (C) CTRL+DOWN ARROW
is used for (D) None of these
(A) Delete the selected item permanently 24. In Microsoft Word move the insertion point to
without placing the item in the Recycle the beginning of the previous paragraph
Bin (A) CTRL+RIGHT ARROW
(B) Copy the selected item (B) CTRL+LEFT ARROW
(C) Rename the selected item (C) CTRL+DOWN ARROW
(D) Create a shortcut to the selected item (D) CTRL+UP ARROW
17. In Microsoft Word shortcut CTRL while
25. In Microsoft Word using CTRL+SHIFT with
dragging an item
any of the arrow keys
(A) Delete the selected item permanently
(A) Highlight a block of text
without placing the item in the Recycle
(B) Delete something
Bin
(C) Paste something
(B) Copy the selected item
(D) None of these
(C) Rename the selected item
(D) Create a shortcut to the selected item 26. In Microsoft Word using SHIFT with any of
18. In Microsoft Word shortcut CTRL+SHIFT the arrow keys
while dragging an item (A) Highlight a block of text
(A) Delete the selected item permanently (B) Delete something
without placing the item in the Recycle (C) Paste something
Bin (D) Select more than one item in a window
(B) Copy the selected item or on the desktop, or select text in a
(C) Rename the selected item document
(D) Create a shortcut to the selected item 27. In Microsoft Word shortcut CTRL+A is to
19. In Microsoft Word to delete the selected item (A) Select all
permanently without placing the item in the (B) Highlight a block of text
Recycle Bin (C) Delete something
(A) Shortcut SHIFT+DELETE (D) Paste something
(B) Shortcut CTRL while dragging an item
28. In Microsoft Word shortcut for paste is
(C) Shortcut CTRL+SHIFT while dragging
an item
(D) None of these
20. In Microsoft Word move the insertion point to 29. In Microsoft Word shortcut for copy is
the beginning of the next word (A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X
(A) Shortcut CTRL+RIGHT ARROW (C) CTRL+V (D) None of these
(B) Shortcut CTRL+LEFT ARROW 30. In Microsoft Word to paste something after
(C) Shortcut CTRL+DOWN ARROW cutting the following shortcut is used
(D) None of these (A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X
21. In Microsoft Word move the insertion point to (C) CTRL+V (D) None of these
the beginning of the previous word
31. In Microsoft Word shortcut CTRL+C is used
for
(A) Cut (B) Paste
(C) Copy (D) None of these
(D) None of these
22. In Microsoft Word move the insertion point to 32. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+B is
the beginning of the next paragraph used for
(A) Shortcut CTRL+RIGHT ARROW (A) Open the Organize Favorites dialog box
(B) Shortcut CTRL+LEFT ARROW (B) Open the Search bar
(C) Shortcut CTRL+DOWN ARROW (C) Start the Find utility
(D) None of these (D) Open the History bar
33. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+E is 38. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+N is
used for used for
(A) Open the Organize Favorites dialog box (A) Open the Favorites bar
(B) Open the Search bar (B) Open the Open dialog box
(C) Start the Find utility (C) Start another instance of the browser
(D) Open the History bar with the same Web address
34. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+F is (D) Open the Open dialog box, the same as
used for CTRL+L
(A) Open the Organize Favorites dialog box
(B) Open the Search bar 39. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+O is
(C) Start the Find utility used for
(D) Open the History bar (A) Open the Favorites bar
35. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+H is (B) Open the Open dialog box
used for (C) Start another instance of the browser
(A) Open the Organize Favorites dialog box with the same Web address
(B) Open the Search bar (D) Open the Open dialog box, the same as
(C) Start the Find utility CTRL+L
(D) Open the History bar 40. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+P is
36. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+I is used used for
for (A) Open the Print dialog box
(A) Open the Favorites bar (B) Update the current Web page
(B) Open the Open dialog box
(C) Close the current window
(C) Start another instance of the browser
with the same Web address (D) None of these
(D) Open the Open dialog box, the same as
CTRL+L Answer Sheet
37. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+L is 1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (B)
used for 6. (B) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (C)
(A) Open the Favorites bar 11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (A)
(B) Open the Open dialog box 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (A) 20. (A)
(C) Start another instance of the browser 21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (D) 24. (D) 25. (A)
with the same Web address 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (C)
(D) Open the Open dialog box, the same as 31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (D)
CTRL+L 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (D) 40. (A)
MICROSOFT EXCEL
1. In Excel default header for a worksheet is 8. In Excel which functions will calculate the
(A) Your name number of workdays between 6/9/2004 and
(B) The date and time 8/12/2004
(C) None (A) Workday (B) Date
(D) The sheet tab name (C) Networkdays (D) All of the above
2. In Excel which of the following is not an option
9. In Excel data marker on a chart are linked to
in the spelling dialog box
(A) Edit (B) Ignore data points in a worksheet, therefore,
(C) Ignore all (D) Change (A) You can automatically apply formatting
to a data series
3. Excel uses the . Function when creating a
data table (B) You can change the position of a data
(A) Average (B) Count marker and automatically change the
(C) Sum (D) Table data point value in the worksheet
4. In Excel you can copy cell formats from one (C) You can change a data print value and
cell to another by using the automatically are draw the chart
(A) Backspace key (B) Default font (D) (A) and (B)
(C) Format painter (D) Formatting toolbar 10. In Excel when you group worksheets
5. In Excel accounting style shows negative (A) You can enter variable data on multiple
numbers in worksheets at one time
(A) Bold (B) Brackets (B) You can print more than one worksheet
(C) Parentheses (D) Quotes at a time
6. In Excel you can use drag and drop to embed (C) You can enter common data, formats,
excel worksheet data in a word document and formulas on multiple worksheets
(A) By dragging a range of excel data to the
at one time
word button on the taskbar while
(D) (B) and (C)
pressing the Ctrl key
(B) By dragging a range of excel data to the 11. In Excel you can zoom a worksheet
Word button on the taskbar while (A) With the mouse pointer in Print Preview
pressing Shift key (B) With the zoom button on the Print
(C) By displaying both applications side-by- Preview toolbar
side and dragging a selected range of (C) With the Zoom command on the view
Excel data into the word application
menu
window while pressing the Ctrl key
(D) (A) and (C) (D) All of the above
12. You cannot link Excel worksheet data to a
7. In Excel the chart wizard
Word document
(A) Can place a chart on a new chart sheet
or on any sheet in the workbook (A) With the right drag method
(B) Can only place a chart on new chart sheet (B) With a hyperlink
(C) Can only place a chart on a new blank (C) With the copy and paste special
worksheet commands
(D) Can only be used to create embedded (D) With the copy and paste buttons on the
charts standard toolbar
13. In Excel this type of software is similar to an (C) Automatically creates formulas and
accountants worksheet adds them to a worksheet
(A) Word processing (B) Database (D) None of the above
(C) Spreadsheets (D) Graphics
23. In Excel to protect a worksheet, you can
14. In Excel you can use the format painter choose Protection and the Protect Sheet from
multiple times before you turn it off by
the .. menu
(A) You can use the format painter button
only one time when you click it (A) Edit (B) Format
(B) Double clicking the format painter button (C) Tools (D) Data
(C) Pressing the Ctrl key and clicking the 24. In Excel you can open the Highlight Changes
format painter button dialog box by choosing Track Changes from
(D) Pressing Alt key and clicking the format the . Menu.
painter button (A) Edit (B) Insert
15. In Excel default header for a worksheet is (C) Format (D) Tools
(A) Your name (B) The date and time
25. In Excel which of the following is not a
(C) None (D) The sheet tab name
worksheet design criterion
16. In Excel which of the following is not an option
(A) Efficiency
in the spelling dialog box
(A) Edit (B) Ignore (B) Auditability
(C) Ignore all (D) Change (C) Description
(D) Clarity Correct Answer:
17. In Excel you can quickly change the
appearance of your work by choosing Auto 26. In Excel to copy cell contents using drag and
Format from the .. Menu drop, press the
(A) Edit (B) View (A) End key (B) Shift key
(C) Format (D) Tools (C) Esc key (D) None of above
18. In Excel.. is a group of cells that form a 27. In Excel if you press .., the cell accepts
rectangle on the screen. your typing as its contents.
(A) Calculation (B) Formula
(A) Enter (B) Ctrl + Enter
(C) Range (D) Range address
(C) TAB (D) Insert
19. In Excel following term describes explanatory
28. In Excel the auto fill feature
text attached to a cell
(A) Extends a sequential series of data
(A) Callout (B) Comment
(C) Dialog (D) Extension (B) Automatically adds a range of cell
values
20. In Excel the drag and drop method of copying
(C) Applies a boarder around selected cells
or moving
(D) None of above
(A) Can be used between worksheets but
not workbooks 29. In Excel the keyboard shortcut (button or
(B) Can be used between workbooks but buttons to be presse(D) for creating a chart
not worksheets from the selected cells
(C) Can be used between workbooks but (A) F3 (B) F5
not worksheets (C) F7 (D) F11
(D) None
30. In Excel you can use the formula palette to
21. In Excel 3-D reference in a formula (A) Format cells containing numbers
(A) Cannot be modified (B) Create and edit formulas containing
(B) Only appears on summary worksheets functions
(C) Limits the formatting options (C) Entered assumptions data
(D) Spans worksheets (D) Copy a range of cells
22. In Excel the auto calculate feature
31. What excel feature can you use if you want to
(A) Can only add values in a range of cells
work with one record at a time?
(B) Provides a quick way to view the results
(A) Auto Complete (B) Auto Filter
of an arithmetic operation on a range of
cells (C) Data Form (D) Sub Totals
32. In Excel what chart object is horizontal or 40. Files created with Lotus 1-2-3 have an
vertical line that extends across the plot area extension
to make it easier to read and follow the (A) DOC (B) XLS
values? (C) 123 (D) WK1
(A) Category axis (B) Data marker 41. In Excel to delete an embedded objects, first
(C) Data point (D) Gridline (A) Double click the object
33. In Excel value used in a formula that does (B) Select the object by clicking it
not change is called a (C) Press the Shift + Delete keys
(A) Cell address (B) Constant (D) Select it and then press the delete key
(C) Function (D) Range 42. In Excel comments can be added to cells
34. In Excel which elements of worksheet can using
be protected from accidental modification ? (A) Edit > Comments
(A) Contents (B) Objects (B) Insert > Comments
(C) Scenarios (D) All of above (C) File > Comments
35. In Excel you can use the drag and drop (D) View > Comments
method to 43. In Excel which of the following is not a
(A) Copy cell contents worksheet design criterion?
(B) Move cell contents (A) Efficiency (B) Aditibility
(C) Add cell contents (C) Description (D) Clarity
(D) (A) and (B) 44. In Excel suppose you have columns of data
36. In Excel it is acceptable ot let long text flow that span more than one printed page. How
into adjacent cells on a worksheet when can you automatically print the column
(A) Data will be entered in the adjacent cells headings on each page?
(B) No data will be entered in the adjacent (A) Click page setup on the file menu, click
cells the sheet tab, and enter the row that
(C) There is nt suitable abbreviation of the contains these column headings under
text print titles.
(D) There is not time to format the next (B) Click page setup on the file menu, click
37. In Excel how can you delete a record? the page tab, click the options button,
(A) Delete the column from the worksheet then enter your choices.
(B) Select Data > Form from the menu to (C) Click page setup on the finle menu, click
open the Data Form dialog box, find the the sheet tab, and make a selection
record and Click the Delete button under the print heading.
(C) Select Data > Delete Record from the (D) All of above
menu 45. In Excel a fast way to add up this column of
(D) Click the Delete button on the Standard number is to click in the cell below the
toolbar numbers and then
38. Right clicking something in Excel (A) Click subtotals on the data menu
(A) Deletes the object (B) View the sum in the formula bar
(B) Nothing the right mouse button is there (C) Click the autosum button on the
for left handed people standard toolbar, then press enter
(C) Opens a shortcut menu listing (D) All of above
everything you can do to the object 46. In Excel which of the following is an absolute
(D) Selects the object cell reference?
39. In Excel Documentation should include (A) !A!1 (B) $A$1
(A) Destination and users of the output data (C) #a#1 (D) A1
(B) Source of input data 47. In Excel what symbol is used before a
(C) Information on the purpose of the number to make it a label?
workbook (A) (quote) (B) = (equal)
(D) All of the above (C) _ (underscore) (D) (apostrophe)
48. In Excel which symbol must all formula begin 58. In Excel getting data from a cell located in a
with? different sheet is called
(A) = (B) + (A) Accessing (B) Referencing
(C) ( (D) @ (C) Updating (D) Functioning
49. In Excel which of the following formulas is 59. In Excel Tab scrolling button
not entered correctly? (A) Allow you to view a different worksheet
(A) =10+50 (B) =B7*B1 (B) Allow you to view additional worksheet
(C) =B7+14 (D) 10+50 rows down
(C) Allow you to view additional worksheet
50. In Excel which of the following formulas will columns to the right
Excel not be able to calculate? (D) Allow you to view additional sheets tabs
(A) =SUM(Sales)-A3
60. In Excel numeric value can be treated as a
(B) =SUM(A1:A5)*.5
label value if it precedes with
(C) =SUM(A1:A5)/(10-10) (A) Apostrophe () (B) Exclamation (!)
(D) =SUM(A1:A5)-10 (C) Hash (#) (D) Ampersand (&)
51. In Excel typical worksheet has . Number 61. In Excel concatenation of text can be done
of columns using
(A) 128 (B) 256 (A) Apostrophe () (B) Exclamation (!)
(C) 512 (D) 1024 (C) Hash (#) (D) Ampersand (&)
52. In Excel how many characters can be typed 62. In Excel data can be arranged in a worksheet
in a single cell? in a easy to understand manner using
(A) 256 (B) 1024 (A) Auto formatting (B) Applying styles
(C) 32,000 (D) 65,535 (C) Changing fonts (D) All of above
53. In Excel worksheet can have a maximum of 63. In Excel you can use drag-and-drop to
. Number of rows embed excel worksheet data in a word
(A) 256 (B) 1024 document
(C) 32,000 (D) 65,535 (A) By dragging a range of excel data to the
word button on the taskbar while
54. In Excel the following is not an example of a pressing the Ctrl key
value (B) By dragging a range of excel data to the
(A) 350 (B) May 10, 2001 word button on the taskbar while
(C) 57&per cent;(D) Serial Number 50771 pressing Shift key
55. In Excel chart wizard term data series refers (C) By dragging a range of excel data to the
to word button on the taskbar while
(A) A chart legend pressing Alt key
(B) A collection of chart data markers (D) None of above
(C) A set of values you plot in a chart 64. In Excel the auto calculate feature
(D) A data label (A) Can only add values in a range of cells
56. In Excel Chart wizard term data categories (B) Provides a quick way to view the result
refers to of an arithmetic operation on a range of
cells
(A) A chart plot area
(C) Automatically creates formulas and
(B) A horizontal axis
adds them to a worksheet
(C) The organization of individual values
(D) (A) and (C)
with a charts data series
(D) The data range that supply chart data 65. In Excel to view a cell comment
(A) Click the edit comment commands on
57. In Excel worksheet range is a the Insert menu
(A) A command used for data modeling (B) Click the Display comment command
(B) A range of values such as from 23 to on the window menu
234 (C) Position the mouse pointer over the cell
(C) A group of cells (D) Click the comment command on the
(D) A group of worksheets view menu
66. In Excel say that you want to paste a formula 74. In Excel on an Excel sheet the active cell in
result but not the underlying formula to indicated by
another cell. In excel 2002, you would copy (A) A dark wide border
the cell with the formula, then place the (B) A dotted border
insertion point in the cell you want to copy to (C) A blinking border
what next? (D) None of above
(A) Click the Paste button on the standard 75. In Excel using the F11 shortcut key to create
toolbar a chart on chart sheet creates
(B) Click the arrow on the paste button on (A) A default chart
the standard toolbar, then click formulas (B) A 2-dimensional column chart
(C) Click the arrow on the paste button on (C) A 2-dimensional bar chart
(D) A 3-dimensional line chart
the standard toolbar, then click values.
(D) All of above 76. In Excel you can print
(A) A range of cells by range name
67. In Excel you can select a single range of cells (B) An entire worksheet
by (C) A single worksheet
(A) Clicking the upper-left cell in a group of (D) All of the above
cells and then pressing the Shift key
77. In Excel you can create only a horizontal page
while clicking the lower right cell in a
break by first selecting
group of cells (A) A row below the row where you want the
(B) Pressing the Ctrl key while dragging page break to occure
over the desired cells (B) A cell in row 1
(C) Pressing the Shift key and an arrow key (C) A cell in column A
(D) Dragging over the desired cells (D) (A) and (C)
68. All formula in Excel start with 78. In Excel you can create hyperlinks from the
(A) &percent; (B) + Excel workbook to
(C) = (D) - (A) A webpage on company internet
(B) A web page on the internet
69. In Excel you can use a function to combine
(C) Other Office application documents
text from two cells into one cell. But you can
(D) All
use an operator to do the same thing. Which
operator is that? 79. In Excel cell reference for a range of cells
that starts in cell B1 and goes over to column
(A) & (ampersan(D) (B) = (equal sign)
G and down to row 10 is
(C) (space) (D) All of the above
(A) B1-G10 (B) B1.G10
70. In Excel two common wildcard characters (C) B1;G10 (D) B1:G10*
that Excel recognizes are 80. In Excel advantage of using a spreadsheet
(A) * and ? (B) < and > is
(C) ^ and / (D) + and - (A) calculations can be done automatically.
71. In Excel divide symbol is (B) changing data automatically updates
(A) / (B) D calculations
(C) \ (D) ) (C) more flexibility
(D) all of the above
72. In Excel to add two cells (A1 and A2) together
you use the following formula 81. In Excel intersection of a row and column is
called :
(A) =A1 + A2 (B) =Add(A1+A2)
(A) Cata (B) A field.
(C) =together(A1:A2) (D) A1 plus A2
(C) A cell (D) An equation.
73. In Excel on an excel sheet the active cell in
82. There are three types of data found in a
indicated by spreadsheet
(A) A dark wide boarder (A) data, words, numbers
(B) A dotted border (B) equations, data, numbers
(C) A blinking border (C) words, numbers, labels
(D) None of above (D) numbers formulas, labels
83. In Excel to select a column the easiest 90. In Excel to copy cell contents using drag and
method is to drop press the
(A) Double click any cell in the column (A) End key (B) Shift key
(B) Drag from the top cell in the column to (C) Ctrl key (D) Esc key
the last cell in the column 91. In Excel when you copy a formula
(C) Click the column heading (A) Excel erases the original copy of the
(D) Click the column label formula
(B) Excel edits cell references in the newly
84. In Excel if you press , the cell accepts copied formula
your typing as its contents. (C) Excel adjusts absolute cell references
(A) Enter (B) Ctrl+Enter (D) Excel doesnt adjust relative cell
(C) Tab (D) Insert references
85. In Excel to view a cell comment 92. In Excel autofill feature
(A) Click the edit comment command on (A) Extends a sequential series of data
(B) Automatically adds range of cell values
the insert menu (C) Applies a boarder around the selected
(B) Click the display comment command cells
on the window menu (D) None of the above
(C) Position the mouse pointer over the cell 93. In Excel which menu option can be sued to
(D) Click the comment command on the split windows into two
view menu (A) Format > window
86. In Excel when you want to insert a blank (B) View > window > split
imbedded excel object in a word document (C) Window > split
you can (D) View > split
(A) Click the object command on the insert 94. In Excel which of the following special
menu function keys allow the content in cell
(B) Click the office links button on the (A) Esc (B) Shift
(C) Return (D) Tab
standard toolbar
(C) Click the create worksheet button on the 95. In Excel which is not an advantage of using
computerized spreadsheets?
formatting toolbar
(A) Flexibility of moving entries
(D) Click the import excel command on the (B) Speed of calculation
file menu (C) Ability of generate tables
87. In Excel to save a workbook, you (D) Cost of initial setup
(A) Click the save button on the standard 96. In Excel To hold row and column titles in
toolbar from the menu place so that they do not scroll when you
(B) Press Ctrl+F5 scroll a worksheet click the
(C) Click Save on the Windows Start button (A) Unfreeze panes command on the
(D) Select Edit>Save window menu
(B) Freeze panes command on the window
88. In Excel you can edit a cell by menu
(A) Clicking the formula button (C) Hold titles command on the edit menu
(B) Double clicking the cell to edit it in-place (D) Split command on the window menu
(C) Selecting Edit>Edit Cell from the menu 97. In Excel the following will not cut information
(D) None of above (A) Pressing Ctrl + C
89. In Excel you can select a single range of cells (B) Selecting Edit>Cut from the menu
by (C) Clicking the Cut button on the standard
(A) Clicking the upper-left cell in a group of (D) Pressing Ctrl+X
cells and then pressing the Shift key 98. In Excel which of the following is not a way to
while clicking the lower right cell in a complete a cell entry?
group of cells (A) Pressing enter
(B) Pressing the Ctrl key while dragging (B) Pressing any arrow key on the keyboard
over the desired cells (C) Clicking the Enter button on the Formula
(C) Pressing the Shift key and an arrow key bar
(D) Dragging over the desired cells (D) Pressing spacebar
99. In Excel you can activate a cell by (C) Enter the formula using any input values
(A) Pressing the Tab key and the appropriate mathematical
(B) Clicking the cell operators that make up your formula
(C) Pressing an arrow key (D) Choose the new command from the file
(D) All of the above menu
100. In Excel Text formulas 106. In Excel to center worksheet titles across a
(A) Replace cell references range of cells, you must
(B) Return ASCII values of characters (A) Select the cells containing the title text
(C) Concatenate and manipulate text plus the range over which the title text is
(D) Show formula error value to be centered
(B) Widen the columns
101. In Excel how do you insert a row?
(C) Select the cells containing the title text
(A) Right-click the row heading where you
plus the range over which the title text is
want to insert the new row and select to be enfettered
Insert from the shortcut menu (D) Format the cells with the comma style
(B) Select the row heading where you want
107. In Excel how do you delete a column?
to insert the new row and select Edit
(A) Select the column heading you want to
>Row from the menu
delete and select the Delete Row button
(C) Select the row heading where you want on the standard toolbar
to insert the new row and click the Insert (B) Select the column heading you want to
Row button on the standard toolbar delete and select Insert Delete from the
(D) All of the above menu
102. In Excel the following is not a basic step in (C) Select the row heading you want to
creating a worksheet delete and select Edit>Delete from the
(A) Save workbook menu
(B) Modifiy the worksheet (D) Right click the column heading you want
(C) Enter text and data to delet and select delete from the
(D) Copy the worksheet shortcut menu
103. In Excel how do you select an entire column? 108. In Excel how can you find specific information
(A) Select Edit > Select > Column from the in a list?
menu (A) Select Tools > Finder from the menu
(B) Click the Find button on the standard
(B) Click the column heading letter
toolbar
(C) Hold down the shift key as you click
(C) Select Insert > Find from the menu
anywhere in the column.
(D) Select Data > Form from the menu to
(D) Hold down the Ctrl key as you click open the Data Form dialog box and click
anywhere in the column the Criteria button
104. In Excel how can you print three copies of a 109. In Excel when integrating word and excel,
workbook? word is usually the
(A) Select File>Properties form the menu (A) Server (B) Destination
and type 3 in the Copies to print text box. (C) Client (D) Both (A) and (C)
(B) Select File >Print from the menu and 110. In Excel when a label is too long to fit within
type 3 in the Number of copies text box. a worksheet cell, you typically must
(C) Click the Print button on the standard (A) Shorten the label
toolbar to print the document then take (B) Increase the column width
it to Kinkos and have 2 more copies (C) Decrease the column width
made (D) Adjust the row height
(D) Press Ctrl+P+3 111. In Excel name box
105. In Excel to create a formula, you first (A) Shows the location of the previously
(A) Select the cell you want to place the active cell
formula into (B) Appears to the left of the formula bar
(B) Type the equals sign (=) to tell Excel that (C) Appears below the status bar
youre about to enter a formula (D) Appears below the menu bar
112. In Excel Comments put in cells are called (C) use the key combination Ctrl+$
(A) Smart tip (B) Cell tip (D) double click the selection
(C) Web tip (D) Soft tip 121. In Excel the cell labeled F5 refers to
113. In Excel which is used to perform what if (A) row F column 5
analysis? (B) column F row 5
(A) Solver (B) Goal seek (C) function available in cells
(C) Scenario Manager (D) All of above (D) function key F4
114. In Excel you can use the horizontal and 122. In Excel when you are typing an equation
vertical scroll bars to into a cell the first thing that must be entered
(A) Split a worksheet into two panes is
(B) View different rows and columns edit (A) the first cell referenced
the contents of a cell (B) parenthesis
(C) Edit the contents of a cell (C) quotation marks
(D) View different worksheets (D) an equal sign
115. In Excel Multiple calculations can be made 123. In Excel using the AutoSum button will
in a single formula using replace in the selected cell
(A) standard formulas
(A) the sum of values in the cells column
(B) array formula
(B) nothing until you select a range of cells
(C) complex formulas
(C) the sum of the cells row unless you
(D) smart formula
change the range
116. In Excel To select several cells or ranges (D) a formula which will add values in the
that are not touching each other, you would range Excel guesses you want to add
while selecting
124. In Excel Book1 is an example of how are
(A) hold down the Ctrl key
numbered and named during each work
(B) hold down the Shift key
session
(C) hold down the Alt key
(A) Active cell (B) Formula bar
(D) hold down Ctrl + Shift key
(C) Menu bar (D) Name box
117. In Excel A certain spreadsheet shows in Page
125. In Excel the following displays the contents
Break Preview that cells in Rows 1-25 have
of the active cell
white background. The cells in row 26 that
contain data have a dark grey background, (A) Active cell (B) Formula bar
when you click the Print button (C) Menu bar (D) Name box
(A) nothing will print because some cells 126. In Excel Graphics objects on a chart are used
with data have been omitted to
(B) only the cells with gray background will (A) Add emphasis to chart data
print (B) Add interest to a chart
(C) the whole sheet will print (C) Help explain the chart data
(D) only the cells with white background will (D) All the above
print 127. In Excel to select a column the easiest
118. In Excel constant is another name for this method is to
type of data (A) Double click any cell in the column
(A) number (B) equation (B) Drag from the top cell in the column to
(C) formula (D) description the last cell in the column
119. In Excel the view that puts a blue a blue line (C) Click the column heading
around each page that would be printed is (D) Click the column label
the 128. In Excel to select an individual data marker
(A) Print Preview (B) Normal View or data label, you must
(C) Page Break Preview (D) Split View (A) Double click the data series
120. In Excel AutoCalculate will quickly add (B) Right click selected marker
selected cells if you (C) Click once to select the series markers
(A) right click on the status bar and select Sum or labels and click the desired marker
(B) click the AutoCalculate button on the or label again
toolbar (D) Double click the marker or label
129. In Excel to delete and embedded object, first 139. In Excel the following is not a basic step in
(A) Double click the object creating a worksheet
(B) Select the object by clicking it (A) Save the workbook
(C) Press the Shift + Delete keys (B) Modify the worksheet
(D) Select it and then press Delete key (C) Enter text and data
130. This type of software contains rows and (D) Copy the worksheet
columns.
140. In Excel what does SUMIF function do?
(A) Drawing (B) Spreadsheet
(C) Database (D) Word processing (A) Adds up cell values based on a condition
(B) Adds all the numbers in a range of cells
131. In Excel to open an existing workbook, you
(C) Returns a subtotal in a list or database
can click the Open button on the toolbar.
(D) All of above
(A) Drawing (B) Formatting
(C) Forms (D) Standard 141. In Excel you can insert labels for
132. In Excel you can activate a cell by (A) All the data markers on a chart
(A) Pressing the Tab key (B) A data series
(B) Clicking the cell (C) A selected data marker
(C) Pressing an arrow key (D) All of the above
(D) All of above 142. In Excel Tab scrolling buttons
133. In Excel the following setup options cannot (A) Allow you to view a different worksheet
be set in the page setup dialog box? (B) Allow you to view additional worksheet
(A) Printer selection row down
(B) Vertical or horizontal placement (C) Allow you to view additional worksheet
(C) Orientation
columns to the right
(D) Row and column titles
(D) Allow you to view additional sheet tabs
134. In Excel term refers to a specific set of values
saved with the workbook 143. In Excel All macro keyboard shortcuts include
(A) Range (B) Scenario the .. key
(C) Trend line (D) What-if analysis (A) Alt (B) Ctrl
135. In Excel got functions? No? You need the (C) F11 (D) Shift
insert function dialog box. How do you get it? 144. In Excel to open the Format Cells dialog box,
(A) Right click a cell and then click insert press
(B) Click the insert menu and then click (A) Alt + 1 (B) Ctrl + 1
function (C) Ctrl + Shift + 1 (D) F1
(C) Type = in a cell
(D) All of the above 145. In Excel you can add a hyperlink to your
worksheet by pressing
136. In Excel the following describes how to select
(A) Alt + K (B) Ctrl + H
all the cells in a single column?
(A) Right click on column and select Pick (C) Ctrl + K (D) Ctrl + Shift + K
from list 146. In Excel to move to the previous worksheet,
(B) Use data text to columns menu item press
(C) Left click on the gray column title button (A) Alt + PgUp (B) Ctrl + PgUp
(D) Pressing Ctrl + A on the keyboard (C) Ctrl + PgDn (D) Shift + Tab
137. In Excel when you use the fill effects in the 147. In Excel you can select a single range of cells
format data series dialog box, you cannot
by
(A) Rotate text on the chart
(A) Clicking the upper-left cell in a group of
(B) Select a fore ground color
(C) Select a pattern cells and then pressing the Shift key
(D) Select a background color while clicking the lower right cell in a
group of cells
138. In Excel Paper spreadsheets can have all
the same advantages as an electronic (B) Pressing the Ctrl key while dragging
spreadsheet except which of the following? over the desired cells
(A) Rows and columns (B) Headings (C) Pressing the Shift key and an arrow key
(C) Speed (D) None (D) Dragging over the desired cells
148. In Excel which of these will not select all the 156. In Excel all worksheet formula
cells in a document? (A) Manipulate values
(A) Clicking three times with the right (B) Manipulate labels
mouse button in the spreadsheet (C) Return a formula result
(B) Using the Edit Select All menu (D) Use the addition operator
(C) Pressing Ctrl + A on the keyboard 157. In Excel which of the following is a correct
(D) Pressing Ctrl + A on the keyboard order of precedence in formula calculation?
149. In Excel you can use the formula palette to (A) Multiplication and division exponentia-
tion positive and negative values
(A) Format cells containing numbers
(B) Multiplication and division, positive and
(B) Create and edit formulas containing
negative values, addition and subtraction
functions
(C) Addition and subtraction, positive and
(C) Enter assumptions data negative values, exponentiation
(D) Copy a range of cells (D) All of above
150. In Excel you can convert existing excel 158. In Excel the Paste Special command lets you
worksheet data an charts to an HTML copy and paste
document by using (A) Multiply the selection by a copied value
(A) FTP wizard (B) Cell comments
(B) Internet assistant wizard (C) Formatting options
(C) Intranet wizard (D) The resulting values of a formula
(D) Import wizard instead of the actual formula
151. In Excel circular reference is 159. In Excel the numbers in our worksheet look
(A) Geometric modeling tool like this: 1000. You want them to look like
(B) A cell that points to a drawing object this: $1,000.00. How can you accomplish
(C) A formula that either directly or indirectly this?
depends on itself (A) None of these
(D) Always erroneous (B) Select Format > Money from the menu
(C) Click the Currency Style button on the
152. In Excel when you insert an excel file into a formatting toolbar
word document. The data are (D) You have to retype everything and
(A) Hyperlinked placed in a word table manually add the dollar signs, commas,
(B) Linked and decimals.
(C) Embedded 160. In Excel which of the following is not a valid
(D) Use the word menu bar and toolbars data type in excel
153. In Excel the following is not information you (A) Number (B) Character
can specify using the solver (C) Label (D) Date/time
(A) Input cells (B) Constraints 161. Excel worksheet cells work very similarly to
(C) Target cell (D) Changing cells what common element of the windows
154. In Excel each excel file is called a workbook graphical user interface
because (A) Option buttons (B) List boxes
(A) It can contain text and data (C) Text boxes (D) Combo boxes
(B) It can be modified 162. In Excel which of the following options is not
(C) It can contain many sheets including located in the Page Setup dialog box?
worksheets and chart sheets (A) Page Break Preview.
(D) You have to work hard to create it (B) Page Orientation
(C) Margins
155. In Excel you can enter which types of data
(D) Headers and Footers
into worksheet cells?
(A) Labels, values, and formulas 163. In Excel one want to track the progress of the
stock market on a daily basis. Which type of
(B) Labels and values but not formulas
chart should one use?
(C) Values and formulas but not labels
(A) Pie chart (B) Row chart
(D) Formulas only
(C) Line chart (D) Column chart
164. In Excel without using the mouse or the arrow 172. In Excel which formula can add the all the
keys, what is the fastest way of getting to cell numeric values in a range of cells, ignoring
A1 in a spreadsheet? those which are not numeric, and place the
(A) Press Ctrl +Home resulting a difference cell
(B) Press Home (A) Count (B) Average
(C) Press Shift + Home (C) Sum (D) None of above
(D) Press Alt + Home 173. In Excel to name a constant, you use the
165. Which of the following methods cannot be dialog box
used to edit the contents of a cell In Excel? (A) Create names (B) Define name
(A) Press the Alt key (C) Paste name (D) Format cells
(B) Clicking the formula bar 174. In Excel to cancel the marquee, press
(C) Pressing the F2 key (A) Ctrl + End (B) End
(D) Double clicking the cell (C) Esc (D) Shift + Esc
166. In Excel if you begin typing an entry into a cell 175. In Excel the function calculates depreciation
and then realize that you dont want your entry at the same amount each year over an
placed into a cell, you assets useful life
(A) Press the Erase key (A) DB (fixed-declining balance)
(B) Press Esc (B) SLN (straight line)
(C) Press the Enter button (C) DDB (double-declining)
(D) Press the Edit Formula button (D) All of above
167. In Excel default style for new data keyed in a 176. In Excel the following is not an underline
new workbook is option in the format cells dialog box
(A) Comma (B) Currency (A) Double
(C) Normal (D) Per cent (B) Single Engineering
(C) Single Accounting
168. In Excel LEN function does what?
(D) Double Accounting
(A) Compares the content in two cells
(B) Counts the numbers of characters in a 177. In Excel to center worksheet titles across a
range of cell, you must
cell
(A) Select the cells containing the title text
(C) Deletes extra space in text
and use the fill handle to center the text
(D) All of above
across a range of cells
169. In Excel this function converts miles to (B) Widen the columns
kilometers, kilograms to pounds, and so on (C) Select the cells containing the title text
(A) Convert (B) Product and use the fill handle to center the text
(C) Change (D) All of above across a range of cells
170. In Excel you can use the drag and drop (D) Widen the column
method to 178. In Excel when integrating Ms-Word and Excel,
(A) Copy cell contents Word is usually the
(B) Delete cells contents (A) Server (B) Source
(C) Add cell contents (C) Client (D) None
(D) All of above 179. In Excel Charts tips can
171. In Excel to balance your checkbook, your best (A) Show the formatting of a data label
method is (B) Show the name of a data series
(A) Copy your check amounts into Excel so (C) Show the value of data point
that youll have a neat printout to work (D) Both (B) and (C)
on 180. In Excel the Name box
(B) Use Excel to check your arithmetic (A) Shows the location of the previously
(C) Download the Checkbook register active cell
templates from Templates on Microsoft (B) Appears t the left of the formula bar
Office Online (C) Appears below the status bar
(D) All of above (D) Appears below the menu bar
181. In Excel how do you change column width to 190. In Excel when the formula bar is activated,
fit the contents? you can see
(A) Single-click the boundary to the left to (A) The Edit Formula button
the column heading (B) The Cancel button
(B) Double click the boundary to the right of (C) The Enter button (D) All of above
the column heading 191. In a worksheet you can select
(C) Press Alt and single click anywhere in (A) Etire worksheet (B) Rows
the column (C) Columns (D) All of the above
(D) All of above 192. When you print preview a worksheet
182. In Excel when you work with large (A) the entire worksheet is displayed
worksheets, you may need to (B) the selected range is displayed
(A) Size the worksheet to fit on the specific (C) the active portion of the worksheet is
number of pages displayed
(B) Add and remove page breaks (D) All of the above
(C) Specify only certain print areas 193. In Excel to access the Go To Special feature,
(D) All of above you can press
183. In Excel Hyperlinks cannot be (A) Ctrl + G (B) Ctrl + O
(A) Special shapes like stars and banners (C) Ctrl + Shift + G (D) Ctrl + 1
(B) Drawing objects like rectangles ovals 194. In Excel which do you press to enter the
(C) Pictures current date in a cell?
(D) All can be hyperlinks (A) Ctrl + Shift + : (B) Ctrl + ;
(C) Ctrl + F10 (D) All of above
184. In Excel you can use the horizontal and
vertical scroll bars to 195. In Excel it is acceptable to let long text flow
(A) Split a worksheet into two panes into adjacent cells on a worksheet when
(B) View different rows and columns (A) Data will be entered in the adjacent cells
(C) Edit the contents of a cell (B) No data will be entered in the adjacent cells
(D) View different worksheets (C) There is no suitable abbreviation for the
text
185. What do we call a computer program that (D) There is not time to format the text
organizes data in rows and columns of cells? 196. In Excel you can group noncontiguous
You might use this type of program to keep a worksheets with
record of the money you earned moving (A) The group button on the standard
lawns over the summer. toolbar
(A) Spreadsheet program (B) The shift key and the mouse
(B) Database program (C) The ctrl key and mouse
(C) Word processor program (D) The alt+enter key
(D) Desktop publisher program 197. In Excel Weight refers to
186. In Excel you can add an image to a template (A) The print density of characters
by clicking the Insert Picture From File button (B) The height of the printed character
on the . Toolbar. (C) Upright or slanted shape
(A) Standard (B) Formatting (D) The design and appearance of
(C) Drawing (D) Picture characters
187. In Excel to drag a selected range of data to 198. When you link data maintained in Excel
another worksheet in the same workbook, workbook to a Word document
use the (A) The Word document cannot be edited
(A) Tab key (B) Alt key (B) The Word document contains a refe-
(C) Shift key (D) Ctrl key rence to the original source application
(C) The word document must contain a
188. In Excel when creating a vertical page break hyperlink
(A) The active cell must be A1 (D) The word document contains a copy of
(B) The active cell can be anywhere in the the actual data
worksheet
199. In Excel when you see a cell with a red
(C) The active cell must be in row 1
triangle in the top right corner, what does
(D) The active cell must be in column A
this signify?
189. In Excel to activate the previous cell in a pre- (A) There is an error in the cell
selected range, press (B) There is a comment associated with the cell
(A) The Alt key (B) The Tab key (C) The font color for text in the cell is red
(C) The Enter key (D) None of above (D) A formula cannot be entered into the cell
200. In Excel to hold row and column titles in 207. An excel workbook is a collection of
places so that they do not scroll when you (A) Workbooks
scroll a worksheet, click the (B) Worksheets
(A) Unfreeze panes command on the (C) Charts
window menu (D) Worksheets and charts
(B) Freeze panes command on the window
menu 208. Excel files have a default extension of
(C) Hold titles command on the edit menu (A) Xls (B) Xlw
(D) Split command on the window menu (C) Wk1 (D) 123
201. In Excel which of these is a quick way to copy 209. In Excel one can use the format painter
formatting from a selected cell to two other multiple times before one turn it off by
cells on the same worksheet? (A) You can use the format painter button
(A) Use Ctrl to select all three cells, then on ly one time when you click it
click the paste button on the standard (B) Double clicking the format painter button
toolbar (C) Pressing the Ctrl key and clicking the
(B) Copy the selected cell, then select the format painter button
other two cells, click style on the Format
(D) Pressing the Alt key and clicking the
menu, then click Modify
format painter button
(C) Click format painter on the Formatting
toolbar twice then click in each cell you 210. In Excel Status indicators are located on the
want to copy the formatting to (A) Vertical scroll bar
(D) All of above (B) Horizontal scroll bar
202. To edit data in an embedded Excel (C) Formula bar
worksheet object in a Word document (D) Formatting toolbar
(A) Use the Excel menu bar and toolbars 211. In Excel you can open the scenario Manager
inside the word application dialog box by choosing scenarios from the
(B) Edit the hyperlink .. menu.
(C) Edit the data in a Excel source (A) View (B) Insert
application (C) Format (D) Tools
(D) Use the Word menu bar and toolbars 212. In Excel you can open the Sort dialog box by
203. In Excel Status indicators are located on the choosing Sort from the .. menu
(A) Vertical scroll bar (A) View (B) Format
(B) Horizontal scroll bar (C) Tools (D) Data
(C) Formula bar
213. In Excel to edit in an embedded excel
(D) Standard toolbar
worksheet object in a word document
204. In Excel Rounding errors can occur (A) Use the excel menu bar and toolbars
(A) When you use multiplication, division, inside the word application
or exponentiation in a formula (B) Edit the hyperlink
(B) When you use addition and subtraction (C) Edit the data in a excel source
in a formula application
(C) Because excel uses hidden decimal (D) Use the word menu bar and toolbars
places in computation
(D) When you show the results of formulas 214. In Excel to create a formula, you can use
with different decimal places that the (A) Values but not cell references
calculated results (B) Cell references but not values
(C) Values or cell references although not
205. In Excel one can copy data or formulas both at the same time
(A) With the copy, paste and cut commands
(D) Value and cell references
on the edit menu
(B) With commands on ta shortcut menu 215. In Excel when working in the page break
(C) With buttons on the standard toolbars preview, you can
(D) All of the above (A) View exactly where each page break
206. In Excel you cannot link excel worksheet data occurs
to a word document (B) Add or remove page breaks
(A) With the right drag method (C) Change the print area
(B) With a hyperlink (D) All of above
(C) With the copy and paste special 216. In Excel A data map is helpful
commands (A) When you have too much data to chart
(D) With the copy and paste buttons on the (B) To show a geographic distribution of
standard toolbar data
(C) To compare data points (C) The word document must contain a
(D) To show changes in data over time hyperlink
217. In Excel Rounding errors can occur (D) The word document contains a copy of
(A) When you use multiplication, division or the actual data
exponentiation in a formula 225. Which area in an excel window allows
(B) When you use addition and subtraction entering values and formulas ?
in a formula (A) Title bar (B) Menu bar
(C) Because Excel uses hidden decimal (C) Formula bar (D) Standard toolbar
places in computation
(D) When you show the results of formulas Answer Sheet
with different decimal places than the 1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (C)
calculated results 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (D)
218. In Excel you can copy data or formulas 11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (C)
(A) With the copy, paste and cut commands 16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (C)
on the edit menu 21. (D) 22. (B) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (C)
(B) With commands on a shortcut menu 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (D) 30. (B)
(C) With buttons on the standard toolbar 31. (C) 32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (D) 35. (D)
(D) All of the above 36. (B) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (D) 40. (C)
219. In Excel Hyperlinks can be 41. (D) 42. (B) 43. (C) 44. (A) 45. (C)
(A) Text (B) Drawing objects 46. (B) 47. (B) 48. (A) 49. (D) 50. (A)
(C) Pictures (D) All of above 51. (B) 52. (D) 53. (D) 54. (D) 55. (B)
220. In Excel to activate the previous cell in a pre- 56. (B) 57. (C) 58. (B) 59. (D) 60. (A)
selected range, press 61. (D) 62. (D) 63. (A) 64. (B) 65. (C)
(A) The Alt key (B) The Tab key 66. (C) 67. (D) 68. (D) 69. (A) 70. (A)
(C) The Enter key (D) None of the above 71. (A) 72. (A) 73. (A) 74. (A) 75. (B)
221. In Excel when the formula bar is active, you 76. (D) 77. (D) 78. (D) 79. (D) 80. (D)
can see 81. (C) 82. (D) 83. (C) 84. (A) 85. (C)
(A) The edit formula button 86. (A) 87. (A) 88. (B) 89. (D) 90. (D)
(B) The cancel button 91. (B) 92. (B) 93. (C) 94. (C) 95. (D)
(C) The enter button 96. (B) 97. (A) 98. (D) 99. (D) 100. (C)
(D) All of the above 101. (A) 102. (D) 103. (A) 104. (B) 105. (A)
222. To copy formatting from one area in a 106. (A) 107. (D) 108. (D) 109. (D) 110. (B)
worksheet and apply it to another area you 111. (B) 112. (B) 113. (D) 114. (B) 115. (B)
would use 116. (A) 117. (D) 118. (A) 119. (C) 120. (B)
(A) The Edit>Copy Format and Edit>Paste 121. (B) 122. (D) 123. (D) 124. (D) 125. (B)
Format commands form the menu. 126. (D) 127. (C) 128. (D) 129. (D) 130. (B)
(B) The Copy and Apply Formatting dialog 131. (D) 132. (D) 133. ( A) 134. (B) 135. (B)
box, located under the Format>Copy and 136. (C) 137. (A) 138. (C) 139. (D) 140. (A)
Apply menu. 141. (D) 142. (D) 143. (A) 144. (B) 145. (C)
(C) There is no way to copy and apply 146. (D) 147. (D) 148. (A) 149. (B) 150. (B)
formatting in Excel You have to do it 151. (C) 152. (B) 153. (A) 154. (C) 155. (A)
manually 156. (C) 157. (D) 158. (D) 159. (C) 160. (B)
(D) The Format Painter button on the
161. (C) 162. (A) 163. (C) 164. (A) 165. (A)
standard toolbar
166. (B) 167. (C) 168. (A) 169. (A) 170. (A)
223. In Excel In a worksheet you can select 171. (C) 172. (C) 173. (B) 174. (C) 175. (B)
(A) The entire worksheet 176. (B) 177. (A) 178. (C) 179. (D) 180. (B)
(B) Rows 181. (B) 182. (D) 183. (D) 184. (B) 185. (A)
(C) Columns 186. (D) 187. (D) 188. (C) 189. (D) 190. (D)
(D) All of the above 191. (D) 192. (D) 193. (A) 194. (B) 195. (B)
224. When you link data maintained in an excel 196. (C) 197. (A) 198. (B) 199. (B) 200. (B)
workbook to a word document 201. (C) 202. (A) 203. (C) 204. (A) 205. (D)
(A) The word document cannot be edit 206. (D) 207. (D) 208. (A) 209. (B) 210. (C)
(B) The word document contains a 211. (D) 212. (D) 213. (A) 214. (D) 215. (D)
reference to the original source 216. (B) 217. (A) 218. (D) 219. (D) 220. (D)
application 221. (D) 222. (D) 223. (B) 224. (B) 225. (C)
MICROSOFT POWERPOINT
1. In Microsoft PowerPoint to add a header or 8. In Microsoft PowerPoint the easy way to apply
footer to your handout, you can use varied animations to test on slides
(A) The title master (A) Apply effects in the custom animation
(B) The slide master text pane
(C) The handout master (B) Apply an animation scheme
(C) Customize bullets with animated clipart
(D) All of above
(D) All of above
2. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following will not
9. In Microsoft PowerPoint using a custom
advance the slides in a slide show view animation effect, how do you make text
(A) Esc key (B) The spacebar appear on a slide by letter
(C) The Enter key (D) The mouse button (A) Apply the animation scheme fade in one
3. In Microsoft PowerPoint to select all of the by one.
boxes of an organization chart (B) Apply an entrance effect, and then set it
(A) Clicking and edit and select all to by letter in the effect option dialog box*
(B) Right click the chart background and (C) Apply the fly in entrance to the text, and
then click select all then set its speed to very slow.
(C) Press and hold the SHIFT key and click (D) All of above
each box 10. In Microsoft PowerPoint to exit the
(D) All of above PowerPoint application, you should
(A) Click the application minimize button
4. In Microsoft PowerPoint what are lines, curve, (B) Click the document close button
freeform, and scribble (C) Double click the application control
(A) Emphasis effects that can be applied to menu icon
animations (D) Double click the document control menu
(B) Types of custom motion paths icon
(C) Predefined entrance and exit effects
11. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can create a new
(D) All of the above presentation by completing all of the following
5. When using PowerPoint, to play a PowerPoint except
show for previewing the show, select (A) Clicking the new button on the standard
(A) View, slide sorter (B) View, slide toolbar
(C) View, slide show (D) View outline (B) Clicking file, new
6. In Microsoft PowerPoint in order to see all (C) Clicking file open (D) Pressing Ctrl + N
the slides on one screen use 12. In Microsoft PowerPoint you have
(A) View, slide sorter customized a design template in one
(B) View, slide presentation and you want to use it in another
(C) View, master presentation. What the best way to do this?
(D) View, slide show (A) Use the browse feature in the slide
design task pane to find the file that has
7. In Microsoft PowerPoint the best place to your design template and apply it to the
find animated images for your presentation current file.
(A) Microsoft online (B) Copy and paste the slide with the design
(B) Word clipart template you want to include the new
(C) PowerPoint tools and ins presentation; inserted slide will inherit
(D) All of the above the design
(C) Save the presentation that has the 20. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can tell when
design template with a new name, and an object is active because
then use a new file to your presentation (A) The object is highlighted
(D) All of the above. (B) Eight small sizing handles appear
surrounding the text
13. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following
(C) A box frame appears surrounding the
displays when an image is selected
text
(A) Add clip art only if it relates to your topic
(D) (B) and (C) both
(B) Be sure to place at least one clipart
image per slide 21. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following is not
(C) Resize the image so it takes up as much an option when printing handouts
space as your text (A) Six slides per page
(D) Both (A) and (B) (B) Five slides per page
(C) Three slides per page
14. The Microsoft clip gallery allows you to (D) Two slides per page
(A) Add word art images to a slide
22. In Microsoft PowerPoint the best way to
(B) Spell check your presentation
design the layout for your slides
(C) Add clip art images to a slide or slides
(A) Create layouts for slides, handouts and
(D) Add slides to a presentation
notes using the Master Layout dialog
15. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following box in slide master view
command select all object at one time when (B) For each new slide, select a layout from
selecting multiple objects to be deleted the Slide Layout task pane
(A) Alt + A (B) Ctrl + A (C) Apply templates from the Slide Design
(C) Shift + Enter (D) Edit, Select All task pane
16. In Microsoft PowerPoint to edit the text within (D) None of above
the boxes of an organization chart, you 23. In Microsoft PowerPoint any and every
(A) Select the box and text, then make command can be found on the
changes (A) Drawing toolbar (B) Formatting toolbar
(B) Select the box, then make the dchanges (C) Standard toolbar (D) Menu bar
(C) Highlight the text, them make the 24. In Microsoft PowerPoint slide that is used to
changes introduce a topic and set the tone for the
(D) (A) and (B) both presentation is called the
17. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following allow (A) Table slide (B) Graph slide
you to select more than one slide in a (C) Bullet slide (D) Title slide
presentation 25. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following
(A) Alt + Click each slide features should you use when typing in he
(B) Shift + drag each slide notes text box
(C) Shift + Click each slide (A) Slide shows (B) Insert
(D) Ctrl + Click each slide (C) Slide master (D) Zoom
18. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following options 26. In Microsoft PowerPoint following should be
in the printer dialog box would you select to used when you want to add a slide to an
prit slides 5 and 12 in a presentation? existing presentation
(A) Slides (B) Custom shows (A) File, add a new slide
(C) Current slide (D) All of the above (B) Insert, new slide
19. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following (C) File, open
toolbars provides different options in various (D) File, new
master views 27. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following is the
(A) Common tasks toolbar default page setup orientation for notes
(B) Drawing toolbar pages, outlines and handouts
(C) Formatting toolbar (A) Vertical (B) Landscape
(D) Standard toolbar (C) Portrait (D) None of above
28. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following is the 36. In Microsoft PowerPoint slide show options
default page setup orientation for slides in available to the presenter include all of the
PowerPoint following except
(A) Vertical (B) Landscape (A) Transitions command
(C) Portrait (D) None of above (B) Speaker notes command
(C) Meeting reminder command
29. In Microsoft PowerPoint are symbols used
(D) Navigation commands
to identify items in a list
(A) Icons (B) Markers 37. In Microsoft PowerPoint presentation
(C) Bullets (D) Graphics designs regulate the formatting and layout
for the slide and are commonly called
30. In Microsoft PowerPoint toolbars that are (A) Design plates (B) Templates
displayed by default in the PowerPoint (C) Placeholders (D) Blueprints
window includes
(A) Menu bar, standard toolbar, formatting
bypasses the print dialog box when printing
toolbar, drawing toolbar, status bar
individual slides or an entire presentation
(B) Menu bar, standard toolbar, formatting
(A) File, print, preview
toolbar, drawing toolbar, status bar
(B) The print button
(C) Standard toolbar, formatting toolbar, (C) File, print
drawing toolbar, status bar (D) Ctrl + P
(D) Menu bar, standard toolbar, status bar,
39. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can show the
drawing toolbar
shortcut menu during the slide show by
31. In Microsoft PowerPoint view that displays (A) Clicking the shortcut button on the
the slides on a presentation as miniature formatting toolbar
representations of the slides is called (B) Right clicking the current slide
(A) Slide show (B) Slide sorter view (C) Clicking an icon on the current slide
(C) Notes page view (D) Outline view (D) (A) and (B) both
32. In Microsoft PowerPoint view that displays 40. In Microsoft PowerPoint auto clipart is a
only text (title and bullets) is feature that
(A) Slide show (B) Slide sorter view (A) Automatically places clipart in your
(C) Notes page view (D) Outline view presentation
33. In Microsoft PowerPoint the entry effect as (B) Scans your presentation for incorrect
one slide replaces another in a show is spelling in your words on each slide
(C) Scans your presentation for incorrect
called
spelling in Word Arts objects
(A) Animation
(D) All of above
(B) Slide transition
(C) Custom animation 41. Which file format can be added to a
(D) Preset animation PowerPoint show?
(A) .jpg (B) .giv
34. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following (C) .wav (D) All of the above
presentation elements can you modify using
42. In Microsoft PowerPoint two kind of sound
the slide master
effects files that can be added to the
(A) Slide comments
presentation are
(B) Slide transitions (A) .wav files and .mid files
(C) Speaker note font and color (B) .wav files and .gif files
(D) All of above (C) .wav files and .jpg files
35. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following (D) .jpg files and .gif files
provides a printed copy of your presentation 43. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following
(A) Outline includes special effects that can be applied
(B) Speaker notes to drawing objects
(C) Audience handouts (A) Gradient fills (B) Line color and style
(D) All of the above (C) Rotating (D) All of above
44. In Microsoft PowerPoint the term used when 52. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following format
a clip art image changes the direction it faces options should be used to display dollars
(A) Group (B) Flip on an axis
(C) Rotate (D) (A) and (B) both true (A) Normal (B) Percentage
45. In Microsoft PowerPoint the term used when (C) Currency (D) Comma
you press and hold the left mouse key and 53. In Microsoft PowerPoint to maintain the
move the mouse around the slide perspective (height and width ratio) of an
(A) Highlighting (B) Dragging
object when resizing, you need to
(C) Selecting (D) (B) and (C) both true
(A) Press and hold the shift key while
46. In Microsoft PowerPoint size of a table object dragging a corner sizing handle
(A) Is dependent on the amount of text (B) Press and hold the alt + ctrl keys while
within the table dragging a middle handle
(B) Is determined by the presentation (C) Drag a corner sizing handle
design but can be changed (D) (A) and (C) both true
(C) Is determined by the presentation
design and cannot be changed 54. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following is/are
(D) (A) and (C) both are true true about rulers and guides
(A) Rulers and guides can be turned on or
47. In Microsoft PowerPoint size of an
off
organization chart object
(B) Rulers and guides print on the slide
(A) Is determined by the presentation
(C) Rulers and guides help place objects
design and cannot be changed
on the slide
(B) Is determined by the presentation
(D) (A) and (C) both true
design but can be changed in
PowerPoint 55. In Microsoft PowerPoint to edit the text within
(C) Is dependent on the amount of text the boxes of an organization chart, you
within the organization chart (A) Select the box and text, then make the
(D) Both (A) and (C) are true changes
(B) Select the box, then make the changes
48. In Microsoft PowerPoint special effects used
(C) Highlight the text, then make the
to introduce slides in a presentation are
changes
called
(D) Highlight the text then make the change
(A) Effects (B) Custom animations
(C) Transitions (D) Present animations 56. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following best
describes serifs
49. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can edit an
(A) Serifs on characters help to differentiate
embedded organization chart object by
between similar looking letters
(A) Clicking edit object
(B) Serifs fonts are best for viewing test at a
(B) Double clicking the organization chart
distance
object
(C) Serifs are fine cross strokes that appear
(C) Right clicking the chart object, then
at the bottom and top of a letter
clicking edit MS-Organizaiton Chart
(D) Serif font are very simple in appearance
object
(D) (B) and (C) are true 57. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following options
changes the fill color of an object back to the
50. In Microsoft PowerPoint the term used when
default color
you press and hold the left mouse key and
more the mouse around the slide (A) Template (B) Automatic
(A) Highlighting (B) Dragging (C) Patterns (D) Fill colors
(C) Selecting (D) Moving 58. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following you
51. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following is not use to add shading to a drawing object on or
one of PowerPoints views an auto shape object
(A) Slide show view (B) Slide view (A) Text box tool (B) Line tool
(C) Presentation view (D) Outline view (C) Fill color (D) (B) and (C) both true
59. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following tools 67. In Microsoft PowerPoint in order to edit a
enable you to add text to a slide without using chart, you can
the standard placeholders (A) Triple click the chart object
(A) Text box tool (B) Line tool; (B) Click and drag the chart object
(C) Fill color (D) Auto shapes tool (C) Double click the chart object
60. In Microsoft PowerPoint cell is defined as (D) Click the chart objects
(A) The intersection of a column and a row 68. In Microsoft PowerPoint an image is
(B) An input box selected, it displays which of the following?
(C) A rectangular marker (A) Two corner handles
(D) All of the above (B) Six middle handles
61. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following must (C) Eight sizing handles
be used with the mouse when you want to (D) Six boxes
resize an image from the center and keep it
proportioned 69. In Microsoft PowerPoint material consisting
(A) The space bar (B) The alt key of text and numbers is best presented as
(C) The ctrl key (D) The shift key (A) A table slide (B) A bullet slide
(C) A title slide (D) All of the above
62. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following should
be used with the mouse when you want to 70. In Microsoft PowerPoint is a motion path
draw a perfect shape (A) A type of animation entrance effect
(A) The spacebar (B) The alt key (B) A method of advancing slides
(C) The ctrl key (D) The shift key (C) A method of moving items on a slide
63. In Microsoft PowerPoint on which part of the (D) All of the above
chart are the values entered in a data sheet 71. In Microsoft PowerPoint what is a slide-title
displayed master pair?
(A) The title area (B) The legend (A) The title area and text area of a specific
(C) The y-axis (D) The x-axis slide
64. In Microsoft PowerPoint one way to make a (B) A slide master and title master merged
PowerPoint slide display animations is to into a single slide
(A) Select the slide in normal view; and click (C) A slide master and title master for a
Format, Animation specific design template
(B) Click the PowerPoint window and move
(D) All of above
it around vigorously with the mouse for
a manual animation effect 72. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following should
(C) Select the slide in slide sorter view, right you use if you want all the slide in the
click and choose preset animations presentation to have the same look
from the shortcut menu (A) The slide layout option
(D) PowerPoint does not have an animation (B) Add a slide option
feature (C) Outline view
65. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following is not (D) A presentation design template
a way to cut ext 73. In Microsoft PowerPoint in the context of
(A) Select the text and press the delete animations, what is a trigger?
button (A) An action button that advances to the
(B) Select the text and select Edit, Cut from
next slide
the menu
(B) An item on the slide that performs an
(C) Select the text and click the Cut button
on the toolbar action when clicked
(D) Select the text and press Ctrl + X (C) The name of a motion path
(D) All of above
66. In Microsoft PowerPoint which of the
following can you use to add times to the 74. In Microsoft PowerPoint if you have a
slides in a presentation PowerPoint show you created and want to
(A) Slice Show menu send using email to another teacher you can
(B) Rehearse timing button add the show to your email message as
(C) Slide transition button (A) Inclusion (B) Attachment
(D) All of the above (C) Reply (D) Forward
75. In Microsoft PowerPoint in order to edit a 83. Which of the following is an example for
chart, you can automatic text formatting
(A) Triple click the chart object (A) Underlining hyperlink
(B) Click and drag the chart object (B) Adjusting extra space
(C) Double click the chart object (C) Replacing two -s with an em hyphens
(D) Click the chart object (D) All of above
76. In Microsoft PowerPoint to exit the PowerPoint 84. Which of the following is not a way to create
(A) Click the application minimize button a new presentation?
(B) Click the document close button (A) Using the Scan-In Slides feature
(C) Double click the applications control (B) From scratch (create a blank
menu icon
presentation
(D) Double click the document control menu
(C) Using a template
icon
(D) Using the auto content wizard
77. In Microsoft PowerPoint to preview a motion
path effect using the custom animation task 85. The quickest way to create a PowerPoint
pane, you should presentation is to use the
(A) Click the play button (A) Word for windows templates
(B) Click the show effect button (B) Auto creation wizard
(C) Double click the motion path (C) Auto content wizard
(D) All of above (D) Presentation wizard
78. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can create a new 86. Which of the following toolbars provide
presentation by completing all of the different options in various master views?
following except (A) Common tasks toolbar
(A) Clicking the new button on the standard (B) Drawing toolbar
toolbar (C) Formatting toolbar
(B) Clicking file, new (D) Standard toolbar
(C) Clicking file open
(D) Pressing Ctrl + N 87. How can you create a uniform appearance
79. Which of the following will not advance the by adding a background image to all slides?
slides in a slide show view? (A) Create a template
(A) The esc key (B) The space bar (B) Edit the slide master
(C) The enter key (D) The mouse button (C) Use the autocorrect wizard
(D) All of the above
80. To import text from a word document that
uses headings into a PowerPoint 88. How do you create speaker note pages that
presentation: show the slides, related notes, and your
(A) This can not be done in PowerPoint company logo on each page?
(B) Click Insert, Slides from Outline (A) Edit the notes master and add your
(C) Click Import, Word Document Headings company logo
(D) Click File, New, Presentation from Word (B) Edit the slide master and insert your
Headings company logo and notes pane
81. Format painter (C) Edit the handout master to include your
(A) To paint pretty pictures on your slides company logo and one slide per page
(B) To copy formatting from one object or with additional note space
piece of text and then apply it elsewhere (D) All of the above
(C) To change the background color of your
slides 89. Which option on the custom animation task
(D) To paint pretty pictures on background pane allows you to apply a preset or custom
of slides motion path?
82. Slide show options available to the presenter (A) Add effect (B) Emphasis
include all of the following except (C) Animate now (D) All of the above
(A) Transitions command 90. What is the term used when a clip art image
(B) Speaker notes command changes the direction of faces?
(C) Meeting minder command (A) Group (B) Flip
(D) Navigation commands (C) Rotate (D) All of the above
91. The slide that is used to introduce a topic 100. Which of the following tool enables you to
and set the tone for the presentation is called add text to a slide without using the standard
the placeholders?
(A) Table slide (B) Graph slide (A) Text tool box (B) Line tool
(C) Bullet slide (D) Title slide (C) Drawing tool (D) Auto shapes tool
92. Which of the following features should you 101. Want your logo in the same position on every
use when typing in the notes text box? slide, automatically. Insert it on the
(A) Slide show (B) Insert (A) Handout master (B) Notes master
(C) Slide maser (D) Zoom (C) Slide master (D) All of the above
93. Which option allows you to select line, curve, 102. Which of the following views is the best view
freeform or scribble tools? to use when setting transition effects for all
(A) Create effect slides in a presentation?
(B) Insert motion path (A) Slide sorter view (B) Notes pages view
(C) Draw custom path (C) Slide view (D) Outline view
(D) All of the above 103. Objects on the slide that hold text are called
94. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can embed a (A) Placeholders (B) Object holders
MS-Organization Chart in a slide by (C) Auto layouts (D) Text holders
(A) Clicking the object command on the edit 104. Which of the following provides a means of
menu printing out feature notes with a miniature
(B) Clicking the object command on the edit slide on a printed page?
menu (A) Slide with animation
(C) Clicking the insert new slide button the (B) Outline view
standard toolbar, then double click the (C) Notes page
organization chart button on the (D) Audience handout
formatting toolbar 105. Which command brings you to the first slide
(D) Clicking the MS-Organization Chart in your presentation?
button on the standard toolbar (A) Next slide button (B) Page up
95. In Microsoft PowerPoint to select one (C) Ctrl + Home (D) Ctrl + End
hyperlink after another during a slide 106. In normal view, how can you quickly change
presentation, what do you press? to handout master view?
(A) Tab (B) Ctrl + K (A) Click the outline tab and select handout
(C) Ctrl + h (D) All of above master view
96. In Microsoft PowerPoint which application (B) Press the shift key and click the handout
view works best for adding slide transitions? master view button
(A) Slide show view(B) Slide sorter view (C) On the view menu, click slide sorter, and
(C) Slide view (D) Notes view click handouts.
97. Which of the following views is the best view (D) All of above
to use when setting transition effects for all 107. How can you quickly reinstate a deleted
slides in a presentation ? footer placeholder in master view?
(A) Slide sorter view (B) Notes page view (A) Create a new slide master
(C) Slide view (D) Outline view (B) Re-apply the footer placeholder
98. Which option can be used to set custom (C) Re-apply the slide layout
timings for slides in a presentation? (D) All of the above
(A) Slider Timings (B) Slider Timer 108. Which of the following can you use to add
(C) Rehearsal (D) Slide Show Setup times to the slides in a presentation?
99. Which of the following should be used when (A) Slide show menu
you want to add a slide to an existing (B) Rehearse timings button
presentation? (C) Slide transition button
(A) File, add a new slide (D) All of the above
(B) Insert, New slide 109. Objects on the slide that hold text are called
(C) File Open (A) Placeholders (B) Object holders
(D) File, New (C) Auto layout (D) Text holders
110. You have got a bunch of digital holiday photo (C) Scans your presentation for incorrect
you want to put into a slide show. What the spelling in word art objects
quickest method? (D) All of the above
(A) Apply a multiple-picture layout to several 117. In Microsoft PowerPoint to select all the
slides, and use the clipart icon on the boxes of an organization chart
slides to import your picture (A) Click edit, select all
(B) On the insert menu, point to the picture, (B) Right click the chart background click
click from file, and select your picture in select all
a group for each slide (C) Press and hold the shift key and click
(C) On the insert menu, point the picture and each box
click new photo album (D) All of the above
118. In Microsoft PowerPoint to adjust the width
111. In Microsoft PowerPoint Line spacing refers of table columns, you
to (A) Click table menu. Column width, then
(A) The space between the lines of text make adjustments
(B) The height of the line (B) Drag the vertical gridline between two
(C) The length of the line
columns
(D) (A) and (C) both
(C) Drag the column markers on the table
112. In Microsoft PowerPoint which of the ruler bar
following uses the spelling and grammar (D) Both (B) and (C)
feature to indicate an incorrect spelling?
119. In Microsoft PowerPoint to add a new row to
(A) The incorrect word appears in all capital
a table you would
letters
(A) Click the insert rows command on the
(B) The incorrect word has a wavy red line
insert menu
under it
(B) Press the enter key
(C) The incorrect word appears italicized
(C) Click the insert rows button on the
(D) The incorrect word appears bold
standard toolbar
113. In Microsoft PowerPoint in Microsoft (D) None of the above
PowerPoint which of the following bypasses
120. In Microsoft PowerPoint after moving a clip
the print dialog box when printing individual
art image to a particular location on the slide,
slides or an entire presentation?
(A) File, Print Preview (B) The print button you can immediately reverse the action using
(C) File, print (D) Ctrl + P the
114. In Microsoft PowerPoint how do you add (A) Click the not do move object command
degrees of transparency to shapes such as on the edit menu
arrows, so that the slide background shows (B) Click on the undo button
though? (C) Click on redo button
(A) Use #D style 4 button on the drawing (D) All of above
toolbar 121. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can edit an
(B) Use the Set Transparent Color button embedded organization chart object by
on the Picture toolbar (A) Clicking the edit object
(C) Use the Transparency slider in the (B) Double clicking the organization chart
Format AutoShapes dialog box object
(D) All of above (C) Right clicking the chart object, then
clicking edit MS-Organization Chart
115. In Microsoft PowerPoint material consisting
object
of text and numbers is best presented as
(D) (B) and (C) both are true
(A) A table slide (B) A bullet slide
(C) A title slide (D) All of above 122. You edit an embedded table object by
(A) Clicking the edit sub command of the
116. In Microsoft PowerPoint auto clip art is a document object command on the edit
feature that menu
(A) Automatically places clip art in your (B) Double clicking the table object
presentation (C) Right clicking the table object, then
(B) Scans your presentation for incorrect clicking edit document on the edit menu
spelling of words on each slide (D) All of above
123. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can embed a 129. In Microsoft PowerPoint you were giving your
Microsoft Word tale in a slide by presentation, and you need to click a slide
(A) Clicking the insert new slide button on thats few slides back. How do you get there?
the standard toolbar, then double (A) Press ESC to get back into a normal
clicking table view; click the slide thumbnail in normal
(B) Clicking the insert Microsoft word table view; then click the resume slide show
button on the formatting toolbar button
(C) Clicking the insert Microsoft word table (B) Press backspace until your desired
button on the standard toolbar slide
(D) Both (A) and (C) (C) Right click, point to go on the shortcut
124. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can embed a menu, point to by title, and click the slide
organization chart in a slide by you want to go to
(A) Clicking the object command on the edit (D) All of above
menu 130. In Microsoft PowerPoint which of the
(B) Clicking the insert new slide button on following should you do to bring a bullet back
the standard toolbar, then double clicking to a previous level?
the organization chart auto layout (A) Press the shift + tab keys
(C) Clicking the ms organization chart (B) Press the shift key
button on the formatting toolbar (C) Press the enter key
(D) Clicking the ms organization chart (D) Press the tab key
button on the standard toolbar 131. In Microsoft PowerPoint good design
125. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can add multiple determines
subordinates to a position by (A) Credibility (B) Readability
(A) Clicking the subordinate button as you (C) First impression (D) All of above
press and hold shift 132. In Microsoft PowerPoint your presentation is
(B) Clicking the subordinate button each ready to go, but you dont know if PowerPoint
and every time you add a subordinate is installed on the computer, you will use to
(C) Clicking the subordinate button as many present with whats the safe way
times as the desired boxes (A) Save your presentation as a web page
(D) All of above (B) Set up your presentation to be browse
126. How would you create the following diagram as a kiosk
in PowerPoint (C) Use the Pack and Go wizard
(A) Use auto shapes and the drawing toolbar (D) All of the above
to create the diagram and design it 133. In Microsoft PowerPoint view that displays
(B) Open the diagram gallery from the the slides of a presentation as miniature
drawing toolbar and choose this representations of the slides is called
diagram type (A) Slide show (B) Slide sorter view
(C) Use the chart command on the insert (C) Notes page view (D) Outline view
menu to import the diagram 134. In Microsoft PowerPoint view that displays
(D) All of above only text (title and bullets) is
127. Which of the following provides a means of (A) Slide show (B) Slide sorter view
printing out features notes with a miniature (C) Notes page view (D) Outline view
slide on a printed page? 135. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following
(A) Slides with animation provides a printed copy of your presentation
(B) Outline view (A) Outlines (B) Speaker notes
(C) Notes page (C) Audience handouts (D) All of above
(D) Audience handout 136. In Microsoft PowerPoint presentation
128. Which command brings you to the first slide designs regulate the formatting and layout
in your presentation? for the slide and are commonly called
(A) Next slide button (B) Page up (A) Design templates (B) Templates
(C) Ctrl + home (D) Ctrl + end (C) Placeholders (D) Blueprints
137. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following should 144. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can show the
you use if you want all the slides in the shortcut menu during the slide show by
presentation to have the same look (A) Clicking the shortcut button in the
(A) The slid layout option formatting toolbar
(B) The add a slide option (B) Right clicking the current slide
(C) Outline view (C) Clicking an icon on the current slide
(D) A presentation design template (D) A and b
145. In Microsoft PowerPoint to insert a new slide
138. In Microsoft PowerPoint the key deletes text
in the current presentation, we can choose
before, or the left of, the insertion point (A) Ctrl + M (B) Ctrl + N
(A) Backspace (B) Page up (C) Ctrl + O (D) Ctrl + F
(C) Delete (D) Page down
146. Microsoft PowerPoint is a
139. Which of the following is not a transition (A) Database program
effect? (B) Spreadsheet program
(A) Blinks diagonal (B) Dissolve (C) Presentation program
(C) Fade through black (D) Blinds vertical (D) Word processing program
140. In Microsoft PowerPoint to create a 147. In Microsoft PowerPoint the name of the form
PowerPoint presentation from a template used to input chart values
(A) Click File, New, select the presentations (A) Datasheet (B) Microsoft Excel
tab and choose a template (C) Microsoft graph (D) Auto form
(B) Click File, New Template and choose a 148. In Microsoft PowerPoint Right clicking
template something in PowerPoint
(C) Import a presentation template from (A) Deletes the object
PowerPoints template wizard (B) Selects the object
(C) Opens a shortcut menu listing for the
(D) Click Create Template from scratch,
object
Now
(D) Nothing he right mouse button for
141. In Microsoft PowerPoint to save a operation
presentation you 149. In Microsoft PowerPoint after choosing a
(A) click save on the windows start button predefine template, . option has to
(B) press Ctrl + F5 be chosen to change a background color
(C) select File, Save from the menu (A) Design template (B) Color scheme
(D) click the saver button on the formatting (C) Animation scheme (D) Color effects
toolbar 150. In Microsoft PowerPoint ellipse Motion is a
142. In Microsoft PowerPoint to change font size predefined
of a selected slide title, you (A) Design template (B) Color scheme
(A) Click the toolbars font dropdown arrow (C) Animation scheme (D) None of these
and choose the font you prefer 151. In Microsoft PowerPoint we can replace a
(B) Click format, title and choose a font from font on all slides with another font using the
the font tab . option
(C) Click the toolbars increase font size (A) Edit, Fonts
button (B) Tools, Fonts
(C) Tools, Replace Fonts
(D) Click title, new font, ok.
(D) Format, Replace Fonts
143. In Microsoft PowerPoint to change font size 152. In Microsoft PowerPoint special effects used
of a selected slide title, you to introduce slides in a presentation are
(A) Click the toolbars Font dropdown arrow called
and choose the font you prefer (A) Effects (B) Custom animations
(B) Click Format, Title and choose a font (C) Transitions (D) Preset animations
from the font tab 153. In Microsoft PowerPoint the key on the
(C) Click the toolbars Increase Font Size keyboard can be used to view slide show
button (A) F1 (B) F2
(D) Click Title, New Font, OK (C) F5 (D) F10
154. In Microsoft PowerPoint it is the name of the 162. In Microsoft PowerPoint Animation schemes
form used to input chart values can be applied to .. in the presentation
(A) Datasheet (B) Microsoft Excel (A) All slides (B) Select slides
(C) Microsoft graph (D) Auto form (C) Current slide (D) All of the above
155. Which of the following you must first complete 163. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following feature
in order to delete an object? allows you to select more than one slide in
(A) Double click the image slide sorter view
(B) Select the image (A) Alt + Click each slide
(C) Resize the image (B) Shift + drag each slide
(D) Move the image to a new location (C) Shift + Click each slide
156. In Microsoft PowerPoint the term used to (D) Ctrl + Click each slide
describe the separation of a clip art object 164. In Microsoft PowerPoint one thing the
into different parts so that it becomes a common tasks button allows you to do is
PowerPoint object (A) Apply a design template to a slide
(A) Embedding (B) Regrouping (B) Insert a new slide
(C) Ungrouping (D) Grouping (C) Choose a new layout for a slide
157. In Microsoft PowerPoint auto shapes tool (D) All of above
provides you with 165. In Microsoft PowerPoint file which contains
(A) Fancy text to place on your slide readymade styles that can be used for a
(B) usually found shapes presentations is called
(C) Any shape you want to add on a slide (A) Auto style (B) Template
(D) Clip art that is related to your (C) Wizard (D) Pre-formatting
presentation
166. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following fill
158. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following should effects can you use for the slide background
be used when you want to add a slide to an (A) Gradient (B) Texture
existing presentation (C) Picture (D) All of the above
(A) File, add a new slide
(B) Insert, new slide
statements is not true
(C) File, open (A) Holding down the Shift key while you
(D) File, new draw an object creates perfect squares,
159. An organization has a president, vice circles and straight lines
president, managers and supervisors. On (B) The text in a text box cant be formatted
what level of an organization chart are the (C) The drawing toolbar contains tools for
vice presidents drawing shapes, lines, arrows, and
(A) Fourth level (B) Third level more
(C) Second level (D) First level (D) Ctrl + S save the document
160. In Microsoft PowerPoint press animation 168. In Microsoft PowerPoint chart can be put as
effects allows you to a part of the presentation using
(A) Add clip art images to your slides (A) Insert -> Chart
(B) Create a custom transition to the nect (B) Insert -> Pictures -> Chart
slide (C) Edit -> Chart
(C) Show bullet items as they are discussed (D) View -> Chart
(D) None of above 169. The arrangement of elements such as Title
161. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following and Subtitle text, pictures, tables etc. is called
features allows you to view slides in a slide (A) Layout (B) Presentation
show without manually advancing each slide (C) Design (D) Scheme
(A) Adding build effects 170. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following are
(B) Setting slide times types of sound files
(C) Adding transitions (A) LOG files (B) DAT files
(D) All of these (C) WAV files (D) DRV files
171. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following can you 180. In Microsoft PowerPoint the handout master
use to add times to the slides in a contains placeholders fro all of the following
presentation except
(A) Microsoft graph (B) Microsoft Table (A) Slide number (B) Title
(C) Microsoft Excel (D) Microsoft Word (C) Footer (D) Header
172. In Microsoft PowerPoint view can be used
to enter speaker comments
Answer Sheet
(A) Normal (B) Slide show
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (C)
(C) Slide sorter (D) Notes page view
6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (C)
173. In Microsoft PowerPoint best way to insert a
new slide in a presentation is to use the 11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (D)
(A) Normal view 16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (A)
(B) Special view 21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (D) 25. (D)
(C) Slide show view 26. (B) 27. (C) 28. (B) 29. (C) 30. (B)
(D) Slide sorter view
31. (B) 32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (B) 35. (C)
174. In Microsoft PowerPoint the best view for
36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (D) 39. (B) 40. (D)
getting your thoughts for a presentation out
on the computer 41. (D) 42. (A) 43. (D) 44. (D) 45. (D)
(A) Outline view (B) Notes page view 46. (B) 47. (D) 48. (C) 49. (D) 50. (B)
(C) Slide sorter view (D) Slide view 51. (C) 52. (C) 53. (A) 54. (D) 55. (A)
175. In Microsoft PowerPoint boxes that are 56. (C) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (A) 60. (A)
displayed to indicate that the text, pictures or
61. (C) 62. (D) 63. (C) 64. (C) 65. (A)
objects are placed in it is called
(A) Placeholder (B) Auto text 66. (B) 67. (C) 68. (C) 69. (A) 70. (C)
(C) Text box (D) Word art 71. (C) 72. (D) 73. (B) 74. (B) 75. (C)
176. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following is not 76. (C) 77. (A) 78. (C) 79. (A) 80. (B)
a feature of PowerPoint 81. (B) 82. (A) 83. (D) 84. (A) 85. (C)
(A) Printing transparencies
86. (A) 87. (B) 88. (A) 89. (B) 90. (C)
(B) Printing the speakers notes along with
slide images 91. (D) 92. (D) 93. (C) 94. (B) 95. (B)
(C) Linking a slide transition with a laser 96. (B) 97. (A) 98. (C) 99. (B) 100. (C)
pointer 101. (C) 102. (A) 103. (A) 104. (D) 105. (C)
(D) Drawing with a pen
106. (B) 107. (B) 108. (B) 109. (A) 110. (A)
177. In Microsoft PowerPoint the option can be
111. (D) 112. (B) 113. (B) 114. (C) 115. (A)
used to create a new slide show with the
current slides but presented in a different 116. (D) 117. (D) 118. (D) 119. (D) 120. (B)
order 121. (D) 122. (D) 123. (D) 124. (B) 125. (D)
(A) Rehearsal 126. (B) 127. (D) 128. (C) 129. (C) 130. (A)
(B) Custom slider show 131. (D) 132. (C) 133. (B) 134. (D) 135. (C)
(C) Slide show setup
136. (B) 137. (D) 138. (A) 139. (A) 140. (A)
(D) Slide show view
141. (C) 142. (C) 143. (C) 144. (B) 145. (A)
178. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following are
actions you can assign to an action button 146. (C) 147. (A) 148. (C) 149. (B) 150. (C)
or slide object 151. (D) 152. (C) 153. (C) 154. (A) 155. (B)
(A) Run a macro (B) Play a sound 156. (C) 157. (B) 158. (B) 159. (C) 160. (C)
(C) Hyper link (D) All of above
161. (B) 162. (D) 163. (C) 164. (D) 165. (B)
179. Which option in PowerPoint allows to carry
166. (D) 167. (B) 168. (B) 169. (A) 170. (C)
slides from one computer to another?
(A) Save As (B) Save and Go 171. (A) 172. (D) 173. (D) 174. (A) 175. (A)
(C) Pack and Go (D) Web and Go 176. (C) 177. (B) 178. (D) 179. (B) 180. (B)
MICROSOFT ACCESS
1. In Access to open new database press 11. Press the following keys in Access to Save a
(A) CTRL+N (B) CTRL+O database object
(C) ALT+F4 (D) None of these (A) CTRL+P
2. In Access to open an existing database (B) P or CTRL+P
(C) CTRL+S or SHIFT+F12
press
(D) F12
(A) CTRL+N (B) CTRL+O
(C) ALT+F4 (D) None of these 12. Press the following keys in Access to Open
the Save As dialog box
3. In Access, to Exit Office Access 2007Access (A) CTRL+P
(A) CTRL+N (B) CTRL+O (B) P or CTRL+P
(C) ALT+F4 (D) None of these (C) CTRL+S or SHIFT+F12
4. In Access press CTRL+N to (D) F12
(A) Open a new database 13. In Access to Open a combo box
(B) Open an existing database (A) F4 or ALT+DOWN ARROW
(C) Exit Office Access 2007Access (B) DOWN ARROW
(D) None of these (C) PAGE DOWN
5. In Access press CTRL+O to (D) F9
(A) Open a new database 14. In Access to Refresh the contents of a
(B) Open an existing database Lookup field (Lookup field: A field, used on a
(C) Exit Office Access 2007Access form or report in an Access database, that
(D) None of these either displays a list of values retrieved from
6. In Access press ALT+F4 to a table or query, or stores a static set of
(A) Open a new database values.) list box or combo box
(A) F4 or ALT+DOWN ARROW
(B) Open an existing database
(B) DOWN ARROW
(C) Exit Office Access 2007Access
(C) PAGE DOWN
(D) None of these
(D) F9
7. Press the following keys in Access to Print 15. In Access to Move down one page
the current or selected object (A) F4 or ALT+DOWN ARROW
(A) CTRL+P (B) P or CTRL+P (B) DOWN ARROW
(C) S (D) C or ESC (C) PAGE DOWN
8. Press the following keys in Access to Open (D) F9
the Print dialog box from Print Preview 16. When using Access Database, use this
(A) CTRL+P (B) P or CTRL+P feature to have Access select only certain
(C) S (D) C or ESC records in the database to prepare form
9. Press the following keys in Access to Open letters.
the Page Setup dialog box from Print Preview (A) Report (B) Table
(A) CTRL+P (B) P or CTRL+P (C) Query (D) Tools
(C) S (D) C or ESC 17. In Access to Move down one line
10. Press the following keys in Access to Cancel (A) F4 or ALT+DOWN ARROW
Print Preview or Layout Preview (B) DOWN ARROW
(A) CTRL+P (B) P or CTRL+P (C) PAGE DOWN
(C) S (D) C or ESC (D) F9
18. In Access press.to Move 27. In Access press to Toggle the focus forward
the selected control to the left (except between controls in the wizard
controls that are part of a layout) (A) TAB (B) ALT+N
(A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X (C) ALT+B (D) ALT+F
28. In access press to Move to the next page of
19. In Access press .to Move the wizard
the selected control to the right (except (A) TAB (B) ALT+N
controls that are part of a layout) (C) ALT+B (D) ALT+F
29. In Access press UP ARROW to
(A) Move up one line
20. In Access press .to Paste (B) Move up one page
the contents of the Clipboard in the upper-
(C) Exit the combo box or list box
left corner of the selected section
(D) None of these
(C) CTRL+V (D) None of these 30. In Access press PAGE UP
(A) Move up one line
21. In Access press .to Cut the
(B) Move up one page
selected control and copy it to the Clipboard
(A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X (C) Exit the combo box or list box
(C) CTRL+V (D) None of these (D) None of these
22. In Access press .to Copy 31. In Access press TAB
the selected control to the Clipboard (A) Move up one line
(A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X (B) Move up one page
(C) CTRL+V (D) None of these (C) Exit the combo box or list box
(D) None of these
23. In Access press RIGHT ARROW or
CTRL+RIGHT ARROW 32. In Access to find the next occurrence of the
(A) Move the selected control to the right text specified in the Find and Replace dialog
(except controls that are part of a layout) box when the dialog box is closed
(B) Move the selected control to the left (Datasheet view and Form view only)
(except controls that are part of a layout) (A) CTRL+F (B) CTRL+H
(C) Move the selected control up (C) SHIFT+F4 (D) None of these
(D) None of these 33. In Access to open the Find tab in the Find
24. In Access press LEFT ARROW or and Replace dialog box (Datasheet view and
CTRL+LEFT ARROW Form view only)
(A) Move the selected control to the right (A) CTRL+F (B) CTRL+H
(except controls that are part of a layout) (C) SHIFT+F4 (D) None of these
(B) Move the selected control to the left
34. In Access to open the Replace tab in the Find
(except controls that are part of a layout)
and Replace dialog box (Datasheet view and
(C) Move the selected control up
Form view only)
(D) None of these
(A) CTRL+F (B) CTRL+H
25. In Access press ALT+F11 to (C) SHIFT+F4 (D) None of these
(A) Display the Control menu
(B) Display the shortcut menu 35. In Access to switch between Edit mode (with
(C) Close the active window insertion point displaye(D)
(D) None of these (A) F2 (B) F4
(C) F5 (D) F6
26. In Access press ALT+F11 to
(A) Display the Control menu 36. In Access to switch to the property sheet
(B) Display the shortcut menu (Design view in forms and reports in both
(C) Close the active window Access databases and Access projects)
(D) Switch between the Visual Basic Editor (A) F2 (B) F4
and the previous active window (C) F5 (D) F6
37. In Access to switch between the upper and 47. In Access press DOWN ARROW or CTRL+
lower portions of a window (Design view of DOWN ARROW
queries, and the Advanced Filter/Sort (A) Move the selected control to the right
window) (except controls that are part of a layout)
(A) F2 (B) F4 (B) Move the selected control to the left
(C) F5 (D) F6 (except controls that are part of a layout)
38. In Access to switch to Form view from form (C) Move the selected control up
Design view (D) None of these
(A) F2 (B) F4 48. In Access to Increase the height of the
(C) F5 (D) F6 selected control
39. In Access press to Cycle through the field (A) SHIFT+RIGHT ARROW
grid, field properties, Navigation Pane, (B) SHIFT+DOWN ARROW
access keys in the Keyboard Access System, (C) DOWN ARROW or CTRL+DOWN
Zoom controls, and the security bar (Design ARROW
view of tables) (D) None of these
(A) F6 (B) F7
(C) F8 (D) None of these 49. In Access press F11 to
(A) Toggle the Navigation Pane
40. In Access press to Open the Choose Builder
(B) Cycle between open windows
dialog box (Design view window of forms
(C) Restore the selected minimized window
and reports)
when all windows are minimized
(A) F6 (B) F7
(C) F8 (D) None of these (D) Turn on Resize mode for the active
window when it is not maximized; press
41. In Access press to Open the Visual Basic the arrow keys to resize the window
Editor from a selected property in the property
sheet for a form or report 50. In Access press CTRL+F6 to
(A) F6 (B) F7 (A) Toggle the Navigation Pane
(C) F8 (D) None of these (B) Cycle between open windows
42. In Access press to Switch from the Visual (C) Restore the selected minimized window
Basic Editor back to form or report Design when all windows are minimized
view (D) Turn on Resize mode for the active
(A) F6 (B) F7 window when it is not maximized; press
(C) F8 (D) None of these the arrow keys to resize the window
43. Switch from the Visual Basic Editor back to 51. In Access press ENTER to
form or report Design view in Access press (A) Toggle the Navigation Pane
(A) ALT+F11 (B) Cycle between open windows
(B) SHIFT+F7 (C) Restore the selected minimized window
(C) A and B both are true when all windows are minimized
(D) None is true (D) Turn on Resize mode for the active
44. In Access press to Move to the previous page window when it is not maximized; press
of the wizard the arrow keys to resize the window
(A) TAB (B) ALT+N 52. In Access press CTRL+F8 to
(C) ALT+B (D) ALT+F (A) Toggle the Navigation Pane
45. In Access press to Complete the wizard (B) Cycle between open windows
(A) TAB (B) ALT+N (C) Restore the selected minimized window
(C) ALT+B (D) ALT+F when all windows are minimized
46. In Access press UP ARROW or CTRL+UP (D) Turn on Resize mode for the active
ARROW window when it is not maximized; press
(A) Move the selected control to the right the arrow keys to resize the window
(except controls that are part of a layout) 53. In Access press ALT+SPACEBAR to
(B) Move the selected control to the left (A) Display the Control menu
(except controls that are part of a layout) (B) Display the shortcut menu
(C) Move the selected control up (C) Close the active window
54. In Access press SHIFT+F10 to 62. You add a table to the query design window
(A) Display the Control menu (A) Select Edit>Add Table from the menu
(B) Display the shortcut menu (B) Select Tools>Add table from the menu
(C) Close the active window (C) Click the Show Table button on the
(D) None of these toolbar
55. In Access press CTRL+W or CTRL+F4 to (D) Select the table from the Table list on
(A) Display the Control menu the toolbar
(B) Display the shortcut menu 63. Which of the following type s of queries are
(C) Close the active window action queries?
(D) None of these (A) Update queries.
56. In Access to reduce the height of the selected (B) Crosstab Queries
control (C) Parameter queries
(A) SHIFT+RIGHT ARROW (D) Append Queries
(B) SHIFT+DOWN ARROW 64. A query prompts a user for a data and then
(C) DOWN ARROW or CTRL+DOWN displays only records that contain the
ARROW specified date. The type of of query is this
(D) None of these (A) A parameter query
57. In Access to increase the width of the (B) A crosstab query
selected control (C) An update query
(A) SHIFT+RIGHT ARROW (D) An action query
(B) SHIFT+DOWN ARROW 65. Which of the following is NOT a report
(C) DOWN ARROW or CTRL+DOWN section?
ARROW (A) Report Header section
(D) None of these (B) Summary section
58. In Access to move the selected control down (C) Page header section
(A) SHIFT+RIGHT ARROW (D) Details section
(B) SHIFT+DOWN ARROW 66. You can display a database object in design
(C) DOWN ARROW or CTRL+DOWN view by
ARROW (A) Opening the database object and
(D) None of these clicking the view button on the toolbar
59. A- Press DOWN ARROW or CTRL+DOWN (B) Selecting the database object and
ARROW , B- Press SHIFT+LEFT ARROW: 1- clicking the design button on the
Move the selected control down, 2- Reduce database window
the width of the selected control. (C) Selecting the database object and
(A) A-1, B-2 (B) A-2, B-2 press Ctrl + V
(C) A-1, B-1 (D) A-2, B-1 (D) Opening the database object and
60. According to Access Help, whats a good way selecting Tools>Design view
to design a database? 67. How can you display the relationship in a
(A) Start from data access pages and work database?
backward (A) Select View > Relationship form the
(B) Sketch the design of your database menu
using a pencil and paper (B) Click the Relationship button on the
(C) Use the Table Analyzer to reverse- toolbar
engineer your flat source data. (C) Select Edit >Relationship from the menu
(D) None of above (D) All the above are true
61. Which editor was provided for use with 68. If you are creating a cross tab query, what
Access Basic? must table you are querying contain?
(A) The Visual Basic 1.0 editor (A) Lots of confusing information
(B) Notepad (B) More than 100 records
(C) The QuickBasic editor (C) At least one field
(D) All of above (D) None of the above
69. A query summarizes information in a grid, 76. How can you display Pivot Table report
organized by regions and months. Which summary data in a currency format?
type of query is this? (A) Use custom calculation
(A) A cross tab query (B) Type in the currency symbol
(B) An update query (C) Modify the field settings
(C) A parameter query (D) None of the above
(D) An action query 77. What method can you use to add a new table
to your database?
70. What type of text box does the toolbox and to
(A) Use Design View to create a table
a form?
(B) Enter data directly by using a datasheet
(A) Unbound (B) Bound (C) Both of above
(C) Rebound (D) Calculated (D) All of the above
71. The filter by selection feature allows you to 78. Which action do you use in a a macro to
filter automatically send a report snapshot in an
(A) Those records that match an entity in a email message?
field (A) Use mail (B) Send object
(B) Records based on a criterion you (C) Run macro (D) All of the above
specify 79. How can you display sales grouped by
(C) Records that meet any of several criteria country, region, and salesperson, all at the
you specify same time?
(D) All of above (A) Use the Sort Descending command.
72. What is the memo data type field used for? (B) Use the Pivot table view command
(A) To add table (C) Use the find command on specified
groups
(B) To store objects created in other
(D) All of above
programs
(C) For long text entries 80. The checking operation performed on
(D) For shout text entries of no more than input data is called the
(A) Validation of data
255 characters
(B) Verification of data
73. What is the purpose of the description (C) Cross check
column in Table Design View? (D) Control of data
(A) To define the data type applied to each 81. A form defines
field within the table (A) Where data is placed on the screen
(B) To describe the data that should be (B) The width of each field
entered in each field (C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) To enter lookup data that the field should (D) All of the above
refer to. 82. The following method you can use to add a
(D) None of the above new table to your database
74. What is the propose to a sub datasheet? (A) Use Design View to create a table
(A) To provide a hierarchial view of related (B) Enter data directly by using a datasheet
tables or queries in a single window (C) Both of above
(B) To display grouped data in a report (D) All of the above
(C) To display summarized data. 83. The following you can use in a macro to
(D) All of the above automatically send a report snapshot in an
email message
75. Which of the following is not a selection (A) Use mail (B) Send object
technique ? (C) Run macro (D) All of the above
(A) To select a word, double click the word
84. To display sales grouped by country, region,
(B) To select an entire table click the empty
and salesperson, all at the same time
bosx to the left of the field names (A) Use the Sort Descending command.
(C) To select a row, click the record selector (B) Use the Pivot table view command
box to the left of the row (C) Use the find command on specified
(D) To select a column, double click groups
anywhere in the column (D) All of above
85. The checking operation performed on (C) Double click the form selector box in the
input data is called the upper left corner of the form
(A) Validation of data (B) Verification of data (D) All of the above
(C) Cross check (D) Control of data
94. You can keep the sum([Sales]) to calculate
86. A form defines the totals for each month in
(A) Where data is placed on the screen (A) the report footer section
(B) The width of each field
(B) the page footer section
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) the month group footer section
(D) the summary section
87. To insert a graphic of your companys logo
on a report 95. The procedure for selecting multiple controls
(A) Click the image button on the toolbox on a report?
and drag on the report to draw a place (A) Hold down the Shift key as you click each
holder for the graphics object that you want to select
(B) You cant. Microsoft Access wont let you (B) If the controls are aligned along a
insert graphics files. horizontal or vertical line, click the
(C) Select Insert > Picture from the menu horizontal or vertical ruler above or to
(D) Select Tools > Insert Picture from the the left of the controls
menu (C) Hold down the Ctrl key as you click each
88. The Fill/Back Color button on the formatting object that you want to select
toolbar applies color to: (D) All of these above are true
(A) The border fo the selected control
96. The following database object can you
(B) The text in the selected control
(C) All aspects of the control import from one Microsoft Access database
(D) The background of the selected control to another?
(A) Queries (B) Tables
89. The type of query extract the data and put
them into separate table (C) Forms (D) All of the above
(A) A parameter query 97. What field type is used to store picture in a
(B) A make-table query table?
(C) An update query (A) Memo (B) OLE
(D) A crosstab query (C) Hyperlink (D) None
90. The following criterion is NOT written using
the proper syntax? Answer Sheet
(A) Haris (B) <500
(C) NO VALUE 1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (B)
(D) Between #1/1/2000# and #12/31/2000# 6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (D)
91. (IF [Age]>65, Senior,Adult) This 11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (C)
expression is an example of: 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (D) 20. ()
(A) A conditional expression 21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (D)
(B) Algebraic expression 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (B)
(C) Something that belongs in a Microsoft 31. (C) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (A) 35. (A)
Excel book 36. (B) 37. (D) 38. (C) 39. (A) 40. (B)
(D) A financial expression 41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (D)
92. The following property determines what is 46. (C) 47. (D) 48. (B) 49. (A) 50. (B)
displayed in a control. 51. (C) 52. (A) 53. (A) 54. (B) 55. (C)
(A) The control source property 56. (D) 57. (A) 58. (C) 59. (A) 60. (B)
(B) The display property 61. (B) 62. (C) 63. (D) 64. (A) 65. (B)
(C) The comes from property 66. (B) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (A) 70. (A)
(D) The data property 71. (A) 72. (C) 73. (B) 74. (A) 75. (D)
93. You view the properties of a form 76. (C) 77. (C) 78. (B) 79. (B) 80. (A)
(A) Select View>Form properties form the 81. (C) 82. (C) 83. (B) 84. (B) 85. (A)
menu 86. (C) 87. (A) 88. (B) 89. (B) 90. (C)
(B) Right click anywhere on the form and 91. (A) 92. (A) 93. (B) 94. (C) 95. (A)
select properties from the shortcut menu 96. (D) 97. (B)
COMPUTER : ADVANCE
ADV
( Oper
Opera ating Sy stem
System
( Softw
Softwarar
aree Engineering
( Da ta Str
Data uctur
Structur es &
uctures
Alg orithms
Algorithms
( Da ta Mining and Da
Data ta
Data
War e House
are
( Electr onics Da
Electronics ta
Data
Pr ocessing
Processing
( Par allel Computing
arallel
( Window Pr ogrramming
og
Prog
( Da ta Base Mana
Data Manag gement
System (DBMS)
OPERATING SYSTEM
1. The main memory of the computer 8. I/O tables are used
(A) Controls the operations of computer. (A) To assign I/O devices of computer
(B) Performs data processing functions. (B) To manage I/O devices of computer
(C) Stores data and programs. system
(D) None of these. (C) A and B both true
(D) A and B both false.
2. Program counter (P(C) contains
9. The operating system control tables
(A) Address of an instruction to be fetched
maintains file table, because
(B) Instructions most recently fetched
(A) These tables manage I/O devices and
(C) Data to be written into memory
channels of the computer system.
(D) Data to be read from memory (B) These tables provide information about
3. MAR (memory address register) the existence of files, their location on
(A) Contains data to be written into memory. secondary memory and their current
(D) Contains data to be read from memory. status.
(C) Specifies location in memory for next (C) These tables provide information to
read/or writer. manage process.
(D) Contains address of next instruction to (D) None of these.
be fetched. 10. Processor in computer
4. IR (Instruction register) (A) Controls the operations of the computer/
processes data functions.
(A) Contains the address of an instruction
(B) Stores data and program.
to be fetched.
(C) Moves data between computer and its
(B) Contains the instruction most recently external environment.
fetched (D) None of these.
(C) Specifies memory addresses.
11. Memory buffer register (MBR) contains
(D) None of these.
(A) Data that is to be written into memory
5. Which of the following is not an address (B) A particular I/O device.
register? (C) Exchange data between I/O module and
(A) Index register (B) Segment pointer the processor.
(C) Stack pointer (D) Data register. (D) The instruction most recently fetched.
6. Following is not the state of Five-State 12. I/O modules move data
process model (A) Between external environment and
(A) Ready (B) Running computer.
(C) Not Running (D) New. (B) In the computer main memory.
(C) In Processors
7. Memory table is used
(D) None of these.
(A) To allocate main memory to processes
(B) To allocate secondary memory to 13. I/O OBR (I/O Buffer register) is
processes (A) Used for the exchange of data between
(C) To manage virtual memory an I/O module and the processor.
(D) A, B and C are true. (B) Specifies particular I/O device.
(C) (A) and (B) both true. (C) Multiple user processes with multiple
(D) (A) and (B) both false. threads per process.
14. User-visible register (D) None of these.
(A) Enables machine language 21. The Windows 2000, operating system
programmer to minimize main memory supports
reference by optimizing register use. (A) Multiple user processes with single
(B) Enables assembly language thread per process.
programmer to minimize main memory (B) Multiple processes with multiple thread
reference by optimizing register use. per process.
(C) A and B both true. (C) Single process with single thread.
(D) Single process with multiple threads.
15. The operations of the processor are
supervised by 22. In the pure User Level Threads (ULT)
(A) Control and Status register (i) Thread management is done by
(B) Data register. application,
(C) Address register. (ii) Thread management is done by kernel,
(iii) Kernel is not aware of the existence of
16. User-Visible register Which of the following
do not support GUI (Graphical User thread,
Interface) (iv) Application program interface (API) to
(A) DOS (B) WINDOWS the kernel thread facility.
(C) Linux (D) None of these. (A) i, iii are true
17. In the given operating system match the (B) i, ii and iii are true
correct (C) All are false
(i) Thread (ii) Process (D) None of these are true
(A) The unit of resource ownership. 23. The Window 2000 (W2K) and Linux are the
(B) The unit of dispatching. example of
(A) (i) A and (ii) B (C) (i) B and (ii) A (A) User Level Thread (ULT)
(D) (i) A, B (E) (ii) A, B. (B) Kernel Level Thread (KLT)
(C) A and B both
18. The MS-DOS an operating system supports
(D) None of these.
(A) Single user process and multiple
24. The following is not an advantage of User
threads
Level Threads (ULT).
(B) Multiple user process and single thread
(A) Thread switching does not requires
(C) Single user process and single thread
kernel mode privileges because all of
(D) Multiple user processes and multiple the thread management are within the
threads.
user address space of a single process.
19. The UNIX, an operating system supports (B) Here scheduling can be application
(A) Multiple user processes and single specific.
thread per process. (C) ULT can be run an any operating system.
(B) Multiple user processes and multiple (D) When ULT executes a system call, not
threads per process. only that thread blocked, but all of the
(C) Single user process and single thread threads within the process are blocked.
per process. 25. The Linux operating system supports
(D) Single user process and multiple (A) Single thread per process and single
threads per process. process.
20. The Java run time environment is an (B) Multiple thread per process and single
example of process.
(A) Single user process with multiple (C) Single thread per process and multiple
threads processes.
(B) Multiple user processes with single (D) Multiple thread per process and multiple
thread per process. processes.
26. The Vector and array processors fall into 34. Operating System is
(A) Single Instruction Single Data (SIS(D) (A) Software
stream (B) Hardware
(B) Single Instruction Multiple Data (SIM(D) (C) Software and Hardware both
stream. (D) None of these.
(C) Multiple Instruction Single Data (MIS(D)
35. The concept used to support multi
stream.
programming environment on a computer
(D) Multiple Instruction Multiple Data
(MIM(D) system. is
(A) Virtual memory
27. In cluster
(B) Hierarchy of physical memory
(A) Computers communicate with each
others via fixed paths or via some (C) Display of multiple windows
network facilities (D) None the above.
(B) Computer communicates with each 36. Which combination of the following features
others via a shared memory. will suffice to characterize an OS as a multi
(C) Both (A) and (B) programmed OS ?
(D) None of these. (i) More than one program may be loaded
28. The cluster is a case of into main memory at the same time for
(A) Distributed memory execution.
(B) Shared memory (ii) If a program waits for certain events such
(C) Master/slave architecture as I/O, another program is immediately
(D) Symmetric multi processor. scheduled for execution.
29. The master/slave architecture is an example (iii) If the execution of a program terminates,
of another program is immediately
(A) Distributed memory processing scheduled for execution.
(B) Shared memory processing (A) (i) only (B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) Symmetric multi processing
(C) (i) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii).
(D) None of these.
37. Turnaround time is defined as
30. I/O modules in computer
(A) Delay between job submission and job
(A) Controls the operation of the computer.
completion
(B) Stores data and program.
(B) A waiting time
(C) Move data between the computer and
(C) Both (A) and (B) above
external environment.
(D) None of these
(D) Provides communication among
processors and main memory. 38. The only state transition initiated by the user
31. Instruction register contains process itself in an operating system is
(A) The address of an instruction to be (A) Block (B) Timer run out
fetched. (C) Dispatch (D) Wake up
(B) The instructions most recently fetched. 39. Window 98 is a
(C) The data to be written into memory. (A) Single user system
(D) The data to be read from memory. (B) Multi user system
32. The following (C) Single tasking system
(A) Start? Fetch next instruction? (D) None of these.
Execute Instruction ? Halt, represents 40. OS/390 is a
(B) Instruction cycle with interrupt (A) Single user system
(C) Instruction cycle without interrupt (B) Multi user system
(D) Instruction cycle with two interrupts (C) Single tasking system
(E) None of these. (D) None of these.
33. Instruction processing consists of 41. Thread is
(A) Fetch cycle only (A) Dispatch able unit of work
(B) Execution cycle only (B) Can be interrupted
(C) Fetch and Execution cycle both (C) A and B both true
(D) None of these. (D) A and B both false.
42. Multithreading allows (3) Memory fault C- The operating

(A) To run threads concurrently system determines
(B) To run threads independently the I/O action that
(C) A is true, B is false occurs.
(D) A and B both true. (A) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C (B) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A
43. For multithreading (C) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C (D) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A.
(A) Tasks to be performed can be 49. With trap in process control
independent (A) Operating system determines the error
(B) Task to be performed is essentially or exception condition that is fatal.
serialized. (B) Operating system interrupted for
(C) Tasks cannot be divided into number of maximum allowable time.
threads. (C) Are tables that manage information
(D) None is true. process
44. The principal function of a process is (D) None of these.
(A) To execute machine instructions
50. Process control block is also referred as
residing in main memory.
(A) Fast control block
(B) To execute assembly instructions
(B) Process descriptor
residing outside main memory.
(C) Task descriptor
(C) A and B both true.
(D) A, B, C are all true.
45. The trace of the process is 51. The operating system control tables
(A) A set of instructions that execute process maintain process tables, because
(B) A listing of sequence of instructions that (A) These tables manages I/O devices
execute process (B) These tables manages files
(C) A track of network (C) These tables manages memory
(D) None of these. (D) None of these.
46. The two state process models have the 52. Windows XP is
following states (A) Uni-programming processes
(A) Running and Not Running (B) Multi programming processes
(B) Running and Ready (C) Hardware
(C) Ready and Blocked (D) None of these.
(D) New and Ready. 53. The OS/2 is the operating system that
47. The process control blocks are referred for support
(A) Process control (A) Single thread per process
(B) I/O devices (B) Multiple thread per process
(C) Memory allocation (C) Single process
48. Given three switch processes, when they 54. In shared memory multi processor
occur match them (A) Computer communicate to each other
(1) Clock Interrupt A- The processor by fixed paths
encounters a virtual (B) Computer communicates to each other
memory address via a shared memory.
reference for a w o r d
(C) Each processing element is a self
that is not in the main
contained computer.
memory.
(D) None of these.
(2) I/O Interrupt B- The operating
system determines 55. The following is not true for master/slave
whether the currently architecture
running process has (A) A failure of master brings down the
been executed for the whole system
maximum allowable (B) Operating system kernel runs on
time slice. master processor only.
(C) Operating system kernel can run on any (C) The semaphore value becomes non-
processor either master or slave. positive
(D) All scheduling and process manage- (D) The semaphore value becomes non-
ment is done on master processor. negative.
56. In monolithic operating system 64. In semaphore when the order of processes
(A) Virtually any procedure can call any that are waiting to be removed from the queue
other procedure. is first in first out (FIFO) then it is called
(B) Virtually specific procedure can call any (A) Weak semaphore
other procedure. (B) Strong semaphore
(C) Virtually specific procedure can call (C) Binary semaphore
specific procedure. (D) None of these.
(D) None of these. 65. In semaphore the process blocked by wait
57. In Layered operating system following operation is unblocked if
statement is false (A) Semaphore value becomes non-
(A) Most or all the layers execute in kernel negative
mode. (B) Semaphore value becomes non-
(B) Interaction only takes place between positive
adjacent layers. (C) Semaphore value is negative
(C) Functions are organized hierarchically. (D) Semaphore value is positive.
(D) None of these. 66. The compaction is the technique in memory
58. When operating system always run on a management that is used to over come
particular processor and that particular (A) Internal fragmentation
processor do all scheduling and process (B) External fragmentation
management then this is an example of (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Master/slave architecture (D) None of these.
(B) Symmetric multiprocessor 67. Physical address (absolute address) in
(C) Cluster memory partitioning is
(D) None of these.
(A) Actual location in main memory
59. In micro kernel architecture following is false.
(B) A reference to memory location
(A) Intersection takes place only between
independent of current assignment
adjacent layers.
(C) A logical address
(B) Intersection takes place via micro kernel.
(D) None of these.
(C) It supports portability.
(D) It supports object-oriented operating 68. The frame
system. (A) Can hold exactly one page of data
60. In the following processes: a = a + 1; b = 2 (B) Can hold more than one page of data
b; b = b + 1; a = 2 a;the output is. (C) Can hole two page of data
(A) a > b (B) a < b (D) None of these.
(C) a = b (D) None of these. 69. The page table that is maintained by
61. A Semaphore is initialized to operating system
(A) Negative integer value (A) Shows frame location for each page of
(B) Positive integer value the process
(C) Non-negative integer value (B) Shows actual address in main memory
(D) Non-positive integer value. (C) Referrer memory location to memory
62. The wait operation (D) None of these.
(A) Decrements the semaphore value 70. Match the following pairs
(B) Increments the semaphore value A. Logical address
(C) Fixes the semaphore value (1) An actual location in main memory
(D) None of these. B. Relative address
63. In semaphore, the process executing the wait (2) An address is expressed as a location
is blocked if relative to some known point.
(A) The semaphore value becomes C. Physical address
negative (3) A memory location independent of the
(B) The semaphore value become positive current assignment of data to memory
(A) A 3, B 2, C1 (C) A global queue of ready thread is

(B) A 2, B 1, C 3 maintained and each processor, when
(C) A 3, B 1, C 2 idle, selects a thread from queue.
(D) A 1, B 2, C 3 (D) None of these.
71. The resident set of process is 77. The real time task
(A) A process that are actually in main (A) The tasks that reacts to events that take
memory at anytime. place in out side world.
(B) A process that are actually in virtual
(B) The tasks that do not reacts to the
memory at any time.
outside world events.
(C) A process that are actually in disk.
(C) The tasks are independent of the time
(D) None of these.
when it occurs.
72. Physical address in memory management (D) None of these.
is
(A) Actual location in main memory 78. Hard real-time tasks are
(B) Memory location independent of current (A) A real time task that do not require dead
assignment of data to memory. line constraints.
(C) Memory location dependent to some (B) A real time task that requires dead line
known point. constraints.
(D) None of these. (C) A task independent to time when it
73. Relative address in memory management occurs.
is (D) None of these.
(A) Independent of some known point 79. The deterministic operating system
(B) Dependent to some known point (A) Where operations are performed with
(C) Actual location in the main memory in pre-determined time interval.
(D) None of these. (B) Where operations can be performed
74. A Absolute loading B Re-locatable loading with out pre-determined time interval.
C Dynamic Run-Time loading; 1. For loader, (C) The operating time can not be
load module, either is an absolute main determined.
memory address or specific address (D) None of these.
reference. 2. For loader, load modules have
80. In Responsive real time operating system
no absolute address. 3. For loader, load
modules have all memory reference in (A) The interruption is acknowledge and
relative form. operating system response to interrupt.
(A) A 1, B 2, C 3 (B) Once the operation starts no interrupt is
(B) A 2, B 3 , C 1 acknowledge.
(C) A 1, B 3, C 2 (C) The operation completes in fixed inter
(D) A 3, B 2, C 1 of time.
(D) None of these.
75. For Load-time dynamic linking
(A) Load module (application module) to be 81. In multi processor scheduling; A: Gang
loaded is read into memory. scheduling, B: Dynamic scheduling, C:
(B) Some of the linking is postponed until Dedicated processor management.; 1- The
execution time. number of threads in a process can be
(C) External references to target modules altered during the course of execution. 2-
remain in the loaded program. This provides implicit scheduling defined by
(D) None of these. the assignment of threads to processors, 3-
76. In thread scheduling, load sharing is referred It is applied to the simultaneous scheduling
to of threads that make up a single process.
(A) Simultaneous scheduling of threads (A) A 1, B 2, C 3
that make up a single process. (B) A 2, B 1, C 3
(B) Implicit scheduling defined by the (C) A 1, B 3, C 2
assignment of threads to processors. (D) A 3, B 1, C 1
82. In real time computing (C) Statement B is true but statement A is

(A) The result of computation does not false.
depend on the time at which computa- (D)
tion is done. 88. Resident set of process is
(B) The result of computation also depends (A) Portion of a process that is actually in
on the time at which computation is main memory at any time.
done. (B) Portion of a process that is actually in
(C) The results are independent of the time virtually memory at any time.
considered. (C) A and b both true.
83. In soft real time tasks 89. Main memory is referred as
(A) The dead line is always mandatory. (A) Virtual memory (B) Real memory
(B) The dead line is desirable but not (C) A and B both (D) None of these.
mandatory. 90. Memory that is located on the disk either
(C) The results are independent of the time, Hard or floppy is referred as
when it took place. (A) Virtual memory
(D) None of these. (B) Real memory
84. In real time scheduling: A: Static table driven (C) Main memory
approach, B: Static priority driven preemptive (D) None of these.
approach, C: Dynamic planning based 91. The principle of locality states
approach; 1- A static analysis of feasible (A) The program and data references within
scheduler of dispatching is done and a process tend to cluster.
implemented. 2- A static analysis of feasible (B) The program and data references within
schedules of dispatching is done and a process do not tend to cluster.
assigns priorities to tasks. 3- Feasibility is (C) A process actually referred in virtual
memory.
determined at run time.
(D) None of these.
(A) A 1, B 2, C 3
92. In memory management : A- Fetch Policy B-
(B) A 2, B 3, C 1
Cleaning Policy C- Placement Policy: 1- It
(C) A 3, B 1, C 2
determines when a modified page should
(D) None of these.
be written out to secondary memory. 2- It
85. Match the following I/O devices : A- Keyboard,
determines when a page should be bought
1- Human readable, B- Disk and tape drives, into main memory. 3- It determines where in
2- Communication, C- Modems, 3-Machine real memory a process piece is to be reside.
readable (A) A 1, B 2, C 3
(A) A 1, B 3, C 2 (B) A 2, B 1, C 3
(B) A 1, B 2, C 3 (C) A 2, B 1, C 3
(C) A 3, B 2, C 1 (D) A 3, B 1, C 2
(D) A 2, B 1, C 3 93. In memory management when demand
86. Arrange the following I/O device in increasing cleaning policy is applied
data rate Hard disk, Floppy disk, Key board (A) A modified page is written before their
(A) Key board, Floppy disk, Hard disk page frames are needed to so that
(B) Floppy disk, Key board, Hard disk pages can be written out in batches.
(C) Key board, Hard disk, Floppy disk (B) A page is written out to secondary
(D) Hard disk, Floppy disk, Key board. memory only when it has been selected
87. In I/O management when buffering is for replacement.
allowed then : Statement A: Input transfer is (C) A and B both true.
performed before request is made. (D) None of these.
Statement B: Output transfer is performed 94. In two level scheme for page table, if one
after request is made. Statement A and B are assume byte-level addressing and 4-kbyte
both true (2 12 pages) then the 4-Gbyte (232) virtual
(A) Statement A and B are both false address space is composed of
(B) Statement A is true but Statement B is (A) 210 pages (B) 220 pages
false (C) 230 pages (D) 240 pages
95. When pre cleaning policy is applied in (C) Replacement policy for virtual memory
memory management management.
(A) A page is written out to secondary (D) None of these.
memory only when it has been selected (i) A- Fetch, B-Demand paging, C-Pre-
for replacement. paging; 1-Determines when a page
(B) Modified pages are written before their should be bought into main memory. 2-
page frames are needed so that can be A page is bought into main memory only
written out in batches. when a reference is made to a location
(C) A and B both true. on that page. 3-Pages other than the
(D) None of these. one demanded by a page fault are
96. In virtual memory management, when local bought in.
control policy is applied (E) A 1, B 2, C 3
(A) It determines the number of processes (F) A 3, B 2, C 1
that are to be resident in main memory. (G) A 2, B 3, C 1
(B) It determines the number of processes (H) A 3, B 1, C 2
that are to be resident in virtual memory. 101. When process is swapped out of main
(C) It determines when a modified page memory and put in a suspended state
should be written out to secondary (A) All of its resident pages are moved out.
memory. (B) All of the pages that were previously in
(D) None of these. main memory are returned to main
97. In two level scheme if each page is mapped memory.
by 4-byte (22) page table entry then to create (C) Pages other than the one demanded by
a page table composed of 220 page table a page fault are bought in main memory.
entry one requires (D) None of these.
(A) 222 bytes (B) 212 bytes 102. Statement A: The placement policy
(C) 216 bytes (D) None of these. determines where in real memory a process
98. In defining page table structure in virtual piece is to reside. Statement B: The fetch
memory, A page number portion of a virtual policy determines when a page should be
address is mapped into a hash table using bought into main memory.
simple hash function, where hash table (A) A and B both true
contains a pointer to the inverted page table, (B) A and B both false
which contains page table entries, this (C) A is true, B is false
approach is referred as (D) A is false, B is true
(A) One page table per process structure. 103. When a frame in main memory is locked
(B) Two level page table structure. (A) The page currently stored in that frame
(C) Inverted page table structure. can be replaced.
(D) None of these. (B) The page currently stored in that frame
99. A fetch policy for virtual memory determines cannot be replaced.
(A) When a page should be bought into (C) Pages currently in frame can be
main memory. removed in round-robin style.
(B) Where in real memory a process piece (D) None of these.
is to be reside.
104. Statement A : In memory management, the
(C) The selection of a page in memory that
replacement policy deals with the selection
is to replaced.
of pages in memory to be replaced by arrived
(D) The page in memory that is not been
new page. Statement B: In memory
referenced for long time.
management, the policy the fetch policy
100. The demand paging and pre paging of virtual determines when a page should be bought
memory management are into main memory.
(A) Fetch policy for virtual memory (A) A and B both false
management. (B) A and B both true
(B) Placement policy for virtual memory (C) A is true, B is false
management. (D) A is false, B is true
105. The Least Recently Used (LRU) policy 111. A policy in memory management referred as
(A) Replaces the page in memory that has clock policy because one can visualize the
not been referenced for the least time. page frames as laid out in
(B) Replaces the page in memory that has (A) Straight line (B) Rectangle
not been referenced for the longest (C) Circle (D) Square
time. 112. In memory management :A-Fixed allocation
(C) Replaces the page in memory in round policy, B-Variable allocation policy: 1-It gives
robin fashion. a process a fixed number of frames in main
(D) None of these. memory within which to execute. 2-It allows
106. In memory management where replacement the number of page frames allocated to a
is allowed in First-in-First-out (FIFO) fashion process to be varied over the life time of the
(A) The page frames are allocated to a process. 3-In it a number of allocated frames
are decided at initial load time.
process as circular buffer and pages
(A) A 1, 3, B 2 (B) A 1, B 3
are removed in random order.
(C) A 2, B 1, 3 (D) A 1, 2, B 3
(B) The page frames are allocated to a
process as circular buffer and pages 113. In uni-processor scheduling :A : Turnaround
are removed in round-robin order. time, B : Response time, 1: A time interval
(C) Replaces the pages that are least between the submission of a process and
referred. its completion. 2: For interactive process, it
(D) Replaces the pages that are most is a time from the submission of a request
until the response begins to received. 3: It
referred.
includes actual execution time plus time
107. By principle of locality, in least recently used spent waiting for resources.
policy, in memory management (A) A 2, 2, B 3 (B) A 1, 3, B 2
(A) The page replaced in memory is least (C) A 2, B 1, 2 (D) A 2, B 1, 3
likely to be referenced in the near future. 114. In uni-processor management processor
(B) The page replaced in memory is most through put
likely to be referenced in the near future. (A) Is a measure of how much work is being
(C) The pages replaced in memory in performed
round-robin fashion. (B) Is the percentage of time that the
(D) None of these. processor is busy
108. In First-In-First-out (FIFO) replacement policy (C) Is a time interval between the
used in memory management, the page submission of a process and its
frames to allocated to a process as circular completion
buffer and (D) None of these
(A) The most recent page is removed at first 115. In uni-processor scheduling, a priorities
(B) The most recent page is removed at the enforcement is
last (A) When processes are assigned priorities
(C) The most recent page is removed any and scheduling policy favor higher
time priority processes.
(D) None of these (B) The scheduling keeps resources of
system busy.
109. The memory management, y one clock policy (C) Here currently running process can be
is applied then the page first loaded into a interrupted and moved to ready state by
frame in memory its use bit is set to the operating system.
(A) Zero (B) One (D) None of these.
(C) Two (D) Three 116. In uni-processor scheduling, if non-
110. In memory management Free page list is: preemptive policy is applied then
A- A list of page frames available for reading (A) Once a process is in running state, it
in pages. B- A list where replaced page is continues to execute until it terminates
assigned without modification. C-A list where or block itself.
replaced page is assigned with modification. (B) Currently running process can be
(A) A, B, C are true (B) A and B are true interrupted and moved to ready state by
(C) A and C are true (D) B and C are true. the operating system.
(C) The clock interrupt is generated at (C) A policy where process with shortest
periodic intervals. expected processing time is selected
(D) None of these. next.
117. In aperiodic (real time) tasks (D) None of these.
(A) The dead line for start is mandatory, but
123. In round robin (time slicing) policy applied
for finish it is not.
(B) The dead line for finish is mandatory, on uni-processor scheduling
but for start it is not. (A) When interrupt occurs, the currently
(C) The dead line for finish and start is running process is placed in ready
mandatory. queue, and next ready job is selected in
(D) The dead line for finish and start is not First come First serve basis.
mandatory. (B) When interrupt occurs, the currently
118. The time table of railway, and airline which running process is placed in ready
defines arrival and departure can be queue and next ready job is selected in
considered as random order.
(A) Hard real time scheduling
(C) No interruption is entertained.
(B) Soft real time scheduling
(C) None real time scheduling. (D) None of these.
(D) None of these. 124. If normalized turnaround time of different
119. When preemptive policy is applied to uni- process are given. Then Highest
processor scheduling then response ratio next policy in uni-
(A) Once a process is in running state, it processor scheduling policy selects.
continues to execute until it terminates (A) The ready process with lowest
or block itself. normalized turnaround time.
(B) Currently running process can be
(B) The ready process with highest
interrupted and moved to ready state by
the operating system. normalized turnaround time.
(C) The processes are assigned priorities. (C) The process with shortest expected
(D) None of these. processing time.
120. The normalized turnaround time is (D) The process with highest expected
(A) Ratio of turnaround time to service time processing time.
(B) Ratio of turnaround time to waiting time 125. In multi processor scheduling, independent
(C) Ratio of service time to waiting time parallelism indicates
(D) Ratio of waiting time to service time.
(A) There is synchronization among
121. In uni-processor scheduling, shortest processes at gross level.
process next policy is
(B) There is no explicit synchronization
(i) A: Non-preemptive policy
(ii) B: Preemptive policy among processes.
(iii) C: A policy where the process with (C) A parallel processing or multi tasking is
shortest expected processing time is done within a single application.
selected next. (D) None of these.
(iv) D: A policy where the process with 126. In multi processor scheduling : A: Course
shortest expected processing time is
gained parallelism, B: Medium grained
not selected.
(B) A and D are true (C) B and C are true parallelism, C: Fine grained parallelism; 1-
(D) A and C are true (e) B and D are true. Concurrent processes running on a multi
122. In uni-processor scheduling, shortest programmed uni- processor. 2- Parallel
remaining time policy is processing or multi tasking is done within a
(A) A policy where scheduler chooses the single application. 3- Parallel processing is
process that has the shortest expected done within a single instruction stream.
remaining processing time. (A) A 1, B 2, C 3
(B) A policy where scheduler discards the (B) A 2, B 3, C 1
process that has the shortest expected (C) A 3, B 2, C 1
remaining process time. (D) A 1, B 3, C 2
127. In round robin (time slicing) policy applied 132. Par begin (P1)
on uni processor scheduling (A) Suspends main program, execute
(A) When interrupt occurs, the currently procedure P1 and after execution
running process is placed in ready resume main program.
queue, and next ready job is selected in (B) Procedure P1 is delayed infinitely due
First come First serve basis. to other procedure are given preference.
(B) When interrupt occurs, the currently (C) Procedure P1 is not considered for
running process is placed in ready execution.
queue and next ready job is selected in (D) None of these.
random order. 133. The mail box and ports are examples of
(C) No interruption is entertained. (A) Indirect process communication
(D) None of these. (B) Direct process communication.
(C) Both A and B true
128. If normalized turnaround time of different
(D) None is true
process are given. Then Highest response
ratio next policy in uni processor scheduling 134. In Dynamic partition of main memory in
policy selects memory management, the sized of process
and memory partition is
(A) The ready process with lowest
(A) of exactly same size
normalized turnaround time.
(B) of different size.
(B) The ready process with highest
(C) Both A and B true
normalized turnaround time. (D) None is true
(C) The process with shortest expected
135. In the simple paging in memory
processing time.
management where
(D) The process with highest expected
(A) Process can be loaded into a partition
processing time.
of equal or greater size.
129. In multi processor scheduling, independent (B) Process is loaded into a partition of
parallelism indicates exactly same size.
(A) There is synchronization among (C) Process is divided into a number of
processes at gross level. equal size pages of same length as of
(B) There is no explicit synchronization frames.
among processes. (D) None of these.
(C) A parallel processing or multi tasking is 136. A. Absolute Loading B. Relocatable Loading
done within a single application. C. Dynamic Run-Time Loading; 1- It requires
(D) None of these. that a load module always be loaded into
130. In multi processor scheduling; A: Coarse some location in main memory. 2- A load
gained parallelism, B: Medium grained module can be located anywhere in main
parallelism, C: Fine grained parallelism; 1- memory.
Concurrent processes running on a multi (A) A 2, B 1, C 1
(B) A 1, B 1, C 2
programmed uni processor, 2 Parallel
(C) A 1, B 2, C 2
processing or multi tasking is done within a
(D) A 1, B 2, C 1
single application, 3-Parallel processing is
done within a single instruction stream. 137. The disk and tape devices are referred as
(A) A 1, B 2, C 3 (A) Block oriented I/O devices
(B) A 2, B 3, C 1 (B) Stream oriented I/O devices
(C) Logical I/O devices
(C) A 3, B 2, C 1
(D) None of these
(D) A 1, B 3, C 2
138. Which of the following is not human readable
131. A situation where two or more processes
I/O device ?
coordinate their activities based on a
(A) Video display terminals
condition is referred as (B) Key board
(A) Synchronization (B) Dead lock (C) Printers
(C) Starvation (D) Par begin (D) Disk drives
139. Following is not the stream oriented I/O 147. In RAID scheme, which of the RAID level does
device not use parity calculation in redundancy
(A) Printer achievement
(B) Mouse (A) RAID 4 (B) RAID 3
(C) Communication modules (C) RAID 2 (D) RAID 1
(D) Disk/tape 148. In system buffer cache, used in UNIX,
140. The direct memory access (DM(A) module following not true
(A) Controls the data exchange between (A) It is a disk cache
main memory and I/O module. (B) It is not a disk cache
(B) The processor issues I/O command, (C) Data transfer between buffer cache and
execute subsequent instructions and user process space always occurs
interrupt I/O module. using DMA.
(C) The processor issues I/O commands (D) I/O operations with disk are handled
to an I/O module. through buffer code.
(D) None of these.
149. In disk scheduling, the shortest service time
141. In disk scheduling, the seek time is
first policy selects the disk request that
(A) The time taken to position the head at
(A) In cure the maximum seek time
the track.
(B) In cure the minimum seek time
(B) The time taken to reach the beginning
(C) Is received first
of sector once the track is selected.
(D) Is received at last.
(C) A and B both.
(D) None of these. 150. The CSCAN, in disk scheduling states
142. The access time in disk scheduling is (A) The arm movement is uni directional
(A) The time taken to position the head at (B) The arm movement is bidirectional
the track. (C) The are is to be state fixed
(B) The time taken to reach the beginning (D) None of these.
of the sector of the track. 151. RAID-O does not support the following
(C) The sum of seek time and rotational characteristics: A: RAID is a set of physical
delay. disk drives viewed by the operating system
(D) None of these. as a single logical drive. B: Data distributed
143. The transfer time in disk scheduling is across the physical drives of an array. C: Re-
(A) Proportional to rotation speed. demdant disk capacity is used to store parity
(B) Inversely proportional to rotation speed. information, which guarantees data
(C) Equal to rotation speed. recoverability in case of a disk failure.
(D) None of these. (A) A and B (B) A only
144. In last- in-first- out, disk scheduling policy (C) B only (D) C only
(A) Recently received request is entertained 252. The UNIX scheduling gives
at the last. (A) Highest preference to real time
(B) Recently received request is entertained processes
first. (B) Highest preference to kernel mode
(C) Requests are selected at random processes
(D) None of these. (C) Highest preference to user mode
145. In disk scheduling, SCAN algorithm states processes
(A) The arm is required to move in one (D) Highest preference to shared
direction only. processes.
(B) The arm can be moved in any direction. 153. In disk scheduling when SCAN (Look) policy
(C) The arm is fixed. is applied and when last track reached
(D) None of these. in one direction
146. RAID (Redundant Array of Independent (A) The service direction is reversed and
Disks) scheme consists of scan proceeds in opposite direction.
(A) Five levels from one to six. (B) The arm returns to the opposite end of
(B) Six levels, from zero to five. the disk and scan begins again.
(C) Seven levels, from zero to six. (C) A and B both true.
154. In RAID (Redundant Array of Independent 161. Which of the RAID level does not employ
Disks) scheme, which of the following RAID independent access technique ?
level does not include redundancy to improve (A) RAID 6 (B) RAID 5
performance ? (C) RAID 4 (D) RAID 3
(A) RAID level 0 (B) RAID level 1
(C) RAID level 2 (D) RAID level 4 162. Which of the following RAID level uses
independent access technique and
155. In which of the following RAID scheme,
redundancy is achieved by the simple distributes the parity strips across all disks?
expedient of duplicating all the data ? (A) Two (B) Three
(A) RAID level 0 (B) RAID level 1 (C) Four (D) Five
(C) RAID level 2 (D) RAID level 3 163. Cache memory is
156. In shortest service time first policy, applied (A) Bigger and slower than main memory
on disk scheduling, the disk request is (B) Bigger and faster that main memory
selected (C) Smaller and slower than main memory
(A) That requires the least movement of disk (D) Smaller and faster than main memory
arm from its current position.
(B) That requires the maximum movement 164. By principle of locality, cache memory
of disk arm from its current position. (A) Increases average memory access
(C) That is recently received. time.
(D) On random. (B) Reduces average memory access time
157. The RAID (Redundant Array of Independent (C) Does not affect the average memory
Disks) level one requires access time
(A) Same disk space of the logical disk that (D) None of these
it support. 165. Following is not true for disk cache
(B) Twice disk space of the logical disk that
(A) It is a buffer in main memory for disk
it support.
sector
(C) Thrice disk space of the logical disk that
(B) It contains the copy of some of the sector
it support.
(D) Half disk space of the logical disk that it on the disk
support. (C) It is bigger is size than main memory
(D) It is smaller is size than main memory
158. Match the following in RAID scheme : A-
Parallel access array, B-Independent 166. In disk storage devices, data are recorded
access array, 1- All member disks participate on and later retrieved from disk via a
in the execution of every I/O request. 2- Each conducting coil named
member disk participates separately in the (A) Tail (B) Foot
execution of every I/O request. 3- Here (C) Head (D) Hand.
spindles of the individual drives are 167. In disk storage devices during read and write
synchronized so that each disk head is in operation
the same position on each disk at any given
(A) Head is rotate while platter is stationary
time.
(B) Head is stationary while platter rotates
(A) A 1, 3 and B 2
(C) Head and platter are both stationary
(B) A 1, and B 2, 3
(C) A 2 and B 1, 3 (D) None is true
(D) A 1, 2 and B 3 168. In magnetic disk, density that is in bits per
159. The following RAID level employer parallel linear inch
access technique and single redundant disk (A) Increases in moving from the outer most
(A) RAID level 0 (B) RAID level 1 track to the inner most track.
(C) RAID level 2 (D) RAID level 3 (B) Decreases in moving from the outer
160. The RAID scheme indicate most track to the inner most track.
(A) Random access of information data. (C) Remains same in moving from the outer
(B) Random array of independent disks. most track to the inner most track.
(C) Redundant array of independent disks. (D) Randomly distributed in moving from the
(D) Redundant access of information data. outer most track to the inner most track.
169. Data from and to magnetic disk is 178. For file management, in file operations
transformed in device drivers are
(A) Continuation (A) Disk drivers (B) Tape drivers
(B) Blocks (C) A and B both (D) None of these.
(C) Block and Continuation both 179. In file management, the primary interface of
(D) None of these. computer system with external environment
170. On magnetic disks, the data on the platter is is done through
organized in a concentric sets of rings called (A) Device drivers
(B) Basic file system
(A) Sectors (B) Gaps
(C) Basic I/O supervisor
(C) Rings (D) Tracks
(D) Logical I/O.
171. In disk storage devices the width of head is:
180. In file management, users and applications
(A) Same of the track access records via
(B) More than of the track (A) Physical I/O (B) Basic I/O supervisor
(C) Less than of the track (C) Logical I/O (D) None of these.
(D) None is true.
181. Match the following for file system
172. In a fixed head disk, the number of read/write architecture : A-Basic file system, B-Logical
head per track are I/O module, 1- Deals with blocks of data, 2-
(A) One (B) Two Deals with file records, 3- Provides general
(C) Three (D) Four. purpose record I/O capacity.
173. CD defines (A) A 1, B 2, 3 (B) A 1, 2, B 3
(A) Computer device (C) A 2, 3, B 1 (D) A 1, 3, B 2
(B) Computer disk 182. Match the following access rights :A-Specific
(C) Compact disk user, B-User group, C-All ; 1- Individual user
(D) None of these who are designated by user I, 2-A set of users
who are individually defined, 3-Every user
174. A-Fixed-Head disk, B-Movable-Head disk, 1-
has access to the system.
One head per track and al head are mounted
(A) A 1, B 2, C 3
on rigid arm that extends across all tracks.
(B) A 2, B 1, C 3
2- Only one head and head is mounted on (C) A 1, B 3, C 2
the arm, such that it can position the track. (D) A 3, B 2, C 1
(A) A 1, B 2 (B) A 2, B 1
183. In file management, the pile
(C) A 1, B 1 (D) A 2, B 2
(A) The collection of data in order which they
175. The record is the collection of arrive.
(A) Fields (B) Files (B) A fixed format used for records.
(C) Data base (D) None of these. (C) Records keep with some key sequence.
176. In File system architecture which is the (D) None of these.
correct arrangement from lower level to 184. In file management, in the following record
higher. blocking method, the optional use of space
(A) Device drives, basic file system, basic I/ is made, without unused space left
O supervisor, logical I/O. (A) Fixed blocking
(B) Basic file system, basic I/O, logical I/O, (B) Variable-length spanned blocking
device drives. (C) Variable-length un-spanned blocking
(C) Basic I/O, basic file system, logical I/O, (D) None of these.
device drives. 185. In secondary storage management, If
(D) None of these. allocation of file is made on an individual
177. In file management system the following block basis and each block contains a
communicate directly with periphing I/O pointer to the next block in the chain then it
devices. is referred as
(A) Device drives (A) Contiguous allocation
(B) Basic file system (B) Chained allocation
(C) Basic I/O supervisor (C) Indexed allocation
(D) Logical I/O. (D) None of these.
186. In secondary storage management, bit table, 193. UNIX was developed by
for each block on disk a vector contains (A) Bell Labs for PDP-7 in 1970
(A) One bit each block (B) Microsoft for IBM computers
(B) Two bit each block (C) Macintosh
(D) None of these.
(C) Three bit each block
(D) Four bit each block. 194. UNIX is a
(A) Operating system
187. In bit table used for Free space management (B) Hardware
in secondary storage (C) Programming language
(A) Bit zero corresponds to free block (D) None of these.
(B) Bit one corresponds to free block 195. In UNIX process management, the system
(C) Bit zero corresponds to block in use process runs in
(D) None of these (A) Kernel mode only
188. The amount of memory (in bytes) required (B) Kernel and user mode both
for a block bitmap is (C) User mode only
(A) Disk size 8 (D) None of these.
(B) Disk size/ (8 file system block size) 196. In UNIX process management, the user
(C) File system block size/disk size processes runs in
(D) None of these. (A) Kernel mode only
(B) Kernel and user mode both
189. In 16 G byte disk with 512-bit block, the bit (C) User mode only
table requires (D) None of these.
(A) 1 M bytes (B) 2 M bytes
197. In UNIX process management, the following
(C) 3 M bytes (D) 4 M bytes.
is true
190. Application Programming Interface is (A) User process enters kernel mode by
(A) A set of function and call programs that issuing a system call when interrupt
allows clients and servers to occurs.
intercommunicate. (B) Kernel mode is executed in user
(B) A database, where information access process.
is limited to the selection of rows that (C) User process enters kernel mode with
satisfy all search criteria. out issuing a system call when interrupt
(C) A computer usually a high powered work occurs.
(D) None of these.
station.
(D) None of these. 198. The number of process states recognized
by UNIX
191. If in a computer networking environment
(A) Two (B) Nine
when all the processing is done on single (C) Eight (D) Seven.
computer can be referred as
199. In process management of UNIX system,
(A) Host based processing
which of the following process states are
(B) Server based processing
running states in respect of whether the
(C) Client based processing process is executing in user or kernel mode
(D) None of these. (A) Ready to run (in memory) state
192. In three tier client/server architecture (B) Ready to run (in swappe(D) state
application software match the following: A- (C) Preempted state
User machine, 1-Client, B- Middle-tier, 2- (D) A and C are true
Application server, C- Backend server, 3 Data 200. A task in a blocked state is
servers. (A) Executable
(A) A 1, B 2, C 3 (B) Waiting for some temporarily unavailable
(B) A 1, B 3, C 2 resource
(C) A 2, B 1, C 3 (C) Running
(D) A 3, B 2, C 1 (D) None of these
201. Semaphores 208. I/O redirection

(A) are used to do I/O (A) implies changing the name of a file
(B) Synchronize critical resources to prevent (B) can be employed to use an exiting file
contention as input file for a program
(C) synchronize critical resources to prevent (C) implies connection to programs through
deadlock. a pipe
(D) allow processes to communicate with
(D) none of the above
one another.
209. When an interrupt occurs, an operating
202. Priorities
(A) are used to schedule processes system
(B) increase as a process remains in the (A) ignores the interrupt
processor (B) always changes state of interrupted
(C) are attached to each page in the system process after processing the interrupt
(D) are assigned by the user. (C) always resumes execution of interrupted
203. Dijkstras bankers algorithm in an process after processing the interrupt
operating-system solves the problem of (D) may change state of interrupted process
(A) deadlock avoidance to blocked and schedule another
(B) deadlock recovery process
(C) mutual exclusion
210. Thrashing
(D) context switching
(A) reduces page I/O
204. Which structure prohibits the sharing of files (B) decreases the degree of multi-
and directories
programming
(A) tree structure
(C) implies excessive page I/O
(B) one level structure
(C) two level structure (D) improve the system performance
(D) none of these 211. Dirty bit for a page in a page table
205. With round-robin CPU scheduling in a time (A) helps avoid unnecessary writes on a
shared system paging device
(A) using very large time slices (B) helps maintain LRU information
degenerates into First-Come First (C) allows only read on a page
Served Algorithm (D) none of the above
(B) using extremely small time slices
improves performance 212. A set of resources allocations such that the
(C) using very small time slices degenerate system can allocate resources to each
into Last-In-First-Out algorithm process is some order, and still avoid a dead
(D) using medium sized time slices leades lock is called
to Shortest Request Time First (A) unsafe state (B) safe state
algorithm. (C) Starvation (D) Greedy allocation
206. The portion of the process scheduler in an 213. A disk scheduling algorithm in an operating
operating system that dispatches system causes the disk arm to seek back
processes is concerned with and forth access the disc surface servicing
(A) activating suspended I/O-bound
all request in its path, this is a
processes
(B) temporarily suspending processes (A) first come first served
when CPU load is too great (B) shortest seek time first
(C) assigning ready processes to the CPU (C) scan
(D) all of the above (D) None of these
207. Following is the correct definition of a valid 214. An attached processor
process transition within an operating (A) is used one only a few computers
system (B) causes all processor to function equally
(A) wake up : ready running (C) is more difficult to implement than a co-
(B) dispatch: ready running processor
(C) block: ready blocked (D) is used only for limited, specific
(D) timer run out : ready blocked functions
215. Process is 224. The following resources can cause

(A) a program in high level language kept deadlocks
on disk (A) Read only files (B) Shared programs
(B) contents of main memory (C) Printers (D) All of the above
(C) a program in execution 225. Complex scheduling algorithms
(D) a job in secondary memory (A) use more resources than they gain
216. Situations where two or more processes are (B) recover more resources than they use
reading or writing some shared data and (C) always use many resources
the final result depends on who runs (D) are most appropriate for very large
precisely which are called computers
(A) race condition 226. The intensive jobs
(B) critical sections (A) use less processor time than most jobs
(C) mutual exclusions (B) you are constrained by their I/O
(D) message passing requirements
217. Producer consumer problem can be solved (C) run more quickly than processor-
using intensive jobs
(A) Semaphores (B) Event counters (D) should all be executed at the same time
(C) Monitors (D) All of the above 227. The FIFO algorithm
218. The strategy of allowing process that are (A) executes first the job that last entered
logically run able to be temporarily the queue
suspended is called (B) executes first the job that first entered
(A) preemptive scheduling the queue
(B) non preemptive scheduling (C) executes first the job with the least
(C) shortest job first processor needs
(D) first come first served (D) executes first the job that has been in
the queue the longest
219. Moving process from main memory to disk
is called 228. Check pointing a job
(A) Scheduling (B) Cache (A) allows it to be completed successfully
(B) allows it to continue executing later
(C) Swapping (D) Spooling
(C) prepares it for finishing
220. Bankers algorithm for resource allocation (D) occurs only when there is an error in it
deals with
229. Windows is an
(A) deadlock prevention
(A) operating system
(B) deadlock avoidance
(B) operating environment
(C) deadlock recovery
(C) user interface
(D) mutual exclusion
(D) programming platform
221. The dispatcher
230. Following is/are operating system used in
(A) actually schedules the tasks into the computers
processor (A) MS-DOS (B) OS/2
(B) is always very small and simple (C) UNIX (D) All of the above
(C) puts tasks in wait
231. The following operating system writes
(D) None of these
through catches?
222. A set or resource allocations such that the (A) UNIX (B) DOS
system can allocate resources to each (C) ULTRIX (D) XENIX
process in some order, and still avoids a 232. Which is/are the most important features of
deadlock is called Microsoft windows program?
(A) unsafe state (B) safe state (A) Windows (B) Pull-down menus
(C) starvation (D) greedy allocation (C) Icons (D) All of the above
223. Processor-bound tasks 233. Multiprocessing models have
(A) use the processor more often (A) symmetric multiprocessing model
(B) use more processor time (B) asymmetric multiprocessing model
(C) use less processor time (C) both (A) and (B) above
(D) always take longer to execute (D) None of these
234. Real-time systems are 242. Round robin is a

(A) primarily used on mainframe computers (A) kind of magnetic drum
(B) used for monitoring events as they occur (B) process scheduling policy
(C) used for program development (C) process synchronization policy
(D) used for real-time interactive users. (D) memory allocation policy
235. Multiprogramming systems 243. Which is the correct definition of a valid
(A) are easier to develop than single process transition in an operating system?
programming systems (A) Wake up: ready ? running
(B) execute each job faster (B) Dispatch: ready? running
(C) execute more jobs in the same time (C) Block: ready ? running
period (D) Timer runout : ready ? blocked
(D) are used only one large mainframe 244. A critical section is a program segment
computers (A) which should run in a certain specified
amount of time
236. Virtual memory is
(B) which avoids deadlocks
(A) simple to implement (C) where shared resources are accessed
(B) used on all major commercial operating (D) which must be enclosed by a pair of
systems semaphore operations.
(C) less efficient in utilization of memory
245. Which of the following is an example of a
(D) useful when fast I/O devices are not spooled device?
available (A) A line printer used to print the output of a
237. Memory management is number of jobs
(A) not used in modern operating systems (B) A terminal used to enter input data to a
(B) replaced with virtual memory on current running program
systems (C) A secondary storage device in a virtual
(C) not used on multiprogramming systems memory system
(D) critical for even the simplest operating (D) A graphic display device
systems 246. A solution to the Dining Philosophers
238. Scheduling is Problem which avoids deadlock is
(A) allowing job to use the processor (A) ensure that all philosophers pick up the
left fork before the right fork.
(B) making proper use of processor
(B) ensure that all philosophers pick up the
(C) Both A and B right fork before the left fork.
(D) None of these (C) ensure that one particular philosopher
239. Following is true for Multiprocessing picks up the left fork before the right fork,
(A) It makes the operating system simpler and all other philosophers pick up the
(B) It allows multiple processes to run right fork before the left fork.
simultaneously (D) none of the above
(C) It allows the same computer to have 247. Locality of reference implies that the page
multiple processors reference being made by a process
(D) None of these (A) will always be to the page used in the
240. A monitor program is a program that previous page reference
(A) interprets the interrupt calls (B) is likely to be to one of the pages used
(B) restores the status of the CPU after a in the last few page references
(C) will always be to one of the pages
function call
existing in memory
(C) interprets the input from a keyboard and
(D) will always lead to a page fault
converts the input into its binary
equivalent 248. The correct matching for the following pairs
(D) checks the status of the I/O devices is - (A) Disk sucheduling, (1) Round robin,
(B) Batch processing, (2) SCAN ,(C) Time
241. The process scheduler in the processor sharing, (3) LIFO, (D) Interrupt processing,
management unit (4) FIFO,
(A) gives all jobs to the job scheduler (A) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(B) selects a job to run (B) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(C) selects a process to run (C) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(D) co-ordinates the process synchronization (D) None of these
249. Shared sub-directories and files are 259. Fragmentation of the file system
example of (A) can always be prevented
(A) cyclic graph directory (B) occurs only if the file system is used
(B) tree structured direction improperly
(C) one level directory (C) can be temporarily removed by
(D) none of these compaction
250. The lowest level of I/O control consists of (D) is a characteristic of all file systems
(A) device drivers 260. File record length
(B) interrupt handlers
(A) should always be fixed
(C) both A and B above
(B) should always be variable
(C) depends upon the size of the file
251. Which type of design problem in file system (D) should be chosen to match the data
(A) how the file system should look to the character
user
(B) algorithm and data structure must be 261. Disaster recovery
created to map the logical file system (A) is needed by every installation
onto the secondary storage device (B) is never needed
(C) Both A and B above (C) varies in degree between installations
(D) none of the above (D) requires off-site computer for immediate
252. Of the following which is the methods for use
allocating disks 262. Wild-card specifies
(A) Contiguous (B) Linked (A) provide an easy way of finding groups
(C) Indexed (D) All of the above of related files
253. External fragmentation solved by which (B) are only used when printing the contents
allocation? of files
(A) contiguous allocation (C) can be used when writing a file
(B) linked allocation (D) allow several files to be read
(C) index allocation simultaneously
(D) both B and C 263. The allocation map
254. Which O/I are best method for allocating? (A) is used to store program data
(A) Contiguous (B) Linked (B) specifies which blocks are used by
(C) Index (D) All of the above which file
255. Allocate the first hole that is big enough is (C) is updated by applications programs
called (D) allows programs to erase files
(A) first fit (B) best fit 264. The activity of a file
(C) worst fit (D) all of the above (A) is a low percentage of number of
256. Allocate the smallest hole that. is big enough records that are added to or deleted
is called from a file
(A) first fit (B) best fit (B) is a measure of the percentage of
(C) worst fit (D) all of the above existing records updated during a run
(C) refers to how closely the files fit into the
257. The most efficient data set organization is
allocated space
(A) a sequential file
(B) an ISAM file (D) is a measure of the number of records
(C) variable depending upon the usage of added or deleted from a file compassed
the data set with the original number of records
(D) a partitioned data set 265. The volatility of a file refers to
258. A partitioned data set is most used for (A) The number of records added or deleted
(A) storing program data from a file composed to the original
(B) storing ISAM files number of records in that file
(C) a program or source library (B) Efficiency with which non-sequential
(D) storing backup information files are processed
(C) The extent where the records of the file (C) if the process can be moved during its
are contiguous and in proximity to others execution from one memory segment
(D) Percentage of records that has changed to another
in a given time period (D) all of the above
266. Which types of file organization are 271. In dynamic loading
supported by magnetic tape? (A) for better memory utilization use
dynamic loading
(A) random files
(B) it does not requires special support
(B) contiguous sequential file from the operating system
(C) indexed sequential file (C) disadvantage is unused routine is never
(D) all of the above loaded
267. Address Binding is defined as (D) all of the above
(A) Compiler will typically bind these 272. Fragmentation of the file system
symbolic addresses to relocatable (A) occurs only if the file system is used
addressees improperly
(B) Each binding is a mapping from one (B) can always be prevented
address space to another (C) can be temporarily removed by
(C) The linkage editor or loader win in turn compaction
bind these relocatable addresses to (D) is the characteristic of all files system
absolute addresses 273. Stub
(D) All of the above (A) is included in the image for each library
268. Compile time routine reference
(A) where the process will reside in (B) is small piece of code that indicates how
memory, then absolute code can be to locate the appropriate memory
resident library routine
generated
(C) how to load the library if the routine is
(B) where the process will reside in
not already present
memory, then the compiler must
generate relocatable code
(C) if the process can be moved during its 274. Local replacement
execution from one memory segment (A) allows a process to select a replacement
to another,the binding must be delayed frame from the set of all frames
(B) requires that each process selects from
until run time
only its own set of allocated frames
(C) both (A) and (B) above
269. Load time (D) none of the above
(A) where the process will reside in
275. Thrashing
memory, then absolute code can be
(A) the high paging activity
generated
(B) is spending more time in paging than
(B) where the process will reside in executing
memory, then the compiler must (C) both A and B above
generate relocatable memory (D) none of the above
(C) if the process can be moved during its
276. Thrashing can be avoided if
execution from one memory segment
(A) the pages, belonging to the working set
to another, then binding must be
of the programs are in main memory
delayed until run time
(B) the speed of CPU is increased
(C) the speed of I/O processor is increased
270. Execution time (D) all of the above
(A) where the process will reside in 277. The memory allocation scheme subject to
memory, then absolute code can be external fragmentation is
generated (A) segmentation
(B) where the process will reside in (B) swapping
memory, then the compiler must (C) pure demand paging
generate relocatable code (D) multiple contiguous fixed partitions
278. In virtual memory systems, dynamic address 285. The total time to prepare a disk drive
translation mechanism for a block of data to be read
(A) is the hardware necessary to implement from it is
paging (A) seek time
(B) stores pages at a specific location on disk
(B) Latency
(C) is useless when swapping is used
(D) is the part of the operating system (C) latency plus seek time
paging algorithm (D) transmission time
279. Relocatable programs 286. Following illustrates Associative Memory
(A) cannot be used with fixed partitions (A) The address of the data is supplied by
(B) can be loaded almost anywhere in the user
memory (B) Same as the tracks associated with disk
(C) do not need a linker memory
(D) can be loaded only at one specific
(C) No need for address; information is
location
used as address
280. Fixed partitions (D) Data is accessed serially
(A) are very common in current operating
systems 287. A disk scheduling algorithm in an operating
(B) are very efficient in memory utilization system causes the disk arm to seek back
(C) are very inefficient in memory utilization and forth across the disk surface servicing
(D) are most used on large mainframe all requests in its path, based on
operating systems (A) First Come First Served
281. Virtual system swapping (B) Shortest Seek Time First
(A) allocates all of memory to one program (C) Sean
(B) pages working set pages in and out as (D) None of these
a group
(C) is never as efficient as normal paging 288. Access to moving head disks requires three
(D) is used only on systems that are periods of delay before information is
thrashing brought into memory. The response that
282. The term paging refers to correctly lists the three time delays for the
(A) boosting up the priority of a process in physical access of data in the order of the
multilevel of queues without feedback relative speed from the slowest to the fastest
(B) gradually increasing the priority of jobs is
that wait in the system for a long time to (A) latency time, cache overhead time, seek
remedy infinite blocking
time
(C) keeping track of the time a page has
been in memory for the purpose of LRU (B) transmission time, latency time, seek
replacement time
(D) letting job reside in memory for a certain (C) seek time, latency time, transmission
amount of time, so that the number of time
pages required can be estimated (D) cache overhead time, latency time, seek
accurately time
283. With a segmentation, if there are 64 289. An unpaged cache associates disk domains
segments, and the maximum segment size
with the address of the read and continues
is 512 words, the length of the logical
address in bits is for a specific length. The major disadvantage
(A) 12 (B) 14 of unpaged cache is that
(C) 15 (D) 16 (A) it allows cache domain to contain
284. High paging rate redundant data
(A) may cause high I/O rate (B) it does not allow writes to be cached
(B) keeps the systems running well (C) its access time is greater than that of
(C) is a symptom of too much processor paged caching
activity (D) read ahead cache domain blocks are
(D) always creates a slow system necessarily fixed in size
290. UNIX recognizes following I/O devices 126. (A) 127. (A) 128. (B) 129. (B) 130. (A)
(A) Disk and Tape drives 131. (A) 132. (A) 133. (A) 134. (A) 135. (C)
(B) Terminals 136. (C) 137. (A) 138. (D) 139. (D) 140. (A)
(C) Communication lines 141. (A) 142. (C) 143. (A) 144. (B) 145. (A)
(D) All the above. 146. (C) 147. (D) 148. (B) 149. (B) 150. (C)
151. (D) 152. (A) 153. (A) 154. (A) 155. (B)
Answer Sheet 156. (A) 157. (B) 158. (A) 159. (D) 160. (D)
161. (D) 162. (D) 163. (D) 164. (B) 165. (C)
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (D) 166. (C) 167. (B) 168. (A) 169. (B) 170. (D)
6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (A) 171. (A) 172. (A) 173. (C) 174. (A) 175. (A)
11. (A) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (A) 176. (A) 177. (A) 178. (C) 179. (B) 180. (C)
16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (A) 181. (A) 182. (A) 183. (A) 184. (B) 185. (B)
21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (D) 186. (A) 187. (A) 188. (B) 189. (D) 190. (A)
26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (C) 191. (A) 192. (A) 193. (A) 194. (A) 195. (A)
31. (B) 32. (C) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (C) 196. (B) 197. (A) 198. (B) 199. (D) 200. (B)
36. (D) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (B) 201. (C) 202. (A) 203. (A) 204. (D) 205. (A)
41. (C) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (A) 45. (B) 206. (C) 207. (B) 208. (B) 209. (D) 210. (C)
46. (A) 47. (A) 48. (B) 49. (A) 50. (D) 211. (A) 212. (B) 213. (C) 214. (D) 215. (C)
51. (D) 52. (B) 53. (B) 54. (B) 55. (C) 216. (A) 217. (D) 218. (A) 219. (C) 220. (B)
56. (A) 57. (D) 58. (A) 59. (A) 60. (D) 221. (A) 222. (B) 223. (B) 224. (C) 225. (D)
61. (C) 62. (A) 63. (A) 64. (B) 65. (B) 226. (B) 227. (B) 228. (B) 229. (C) 230. (D)
66. (B) 67. (A) 68. (A) 69. (A) 70. (A) 231. (B) 232. (D) 233. (C) 234. (B) 235. (C)
71. (A) 72. (A) 73. (B) 74. (A) 75. (A) 236. (C) 237. (B) 238. (C) 239. (C) 240. (C)
76. (C) 77. (A) 78. (B) 79. (A) 80. (A) 241. (C) 242. (B) 243. (B) 244. (C) 245. (A)
81. (D) 82. (B) 83. (B) 84. (A) 85. (A) 246. (C) 247. (B) 248. (A) 249. (A) 250. (C)
86. (A) 87. (D) 88. (A) 89. (B) 90. (A) 251. (C) 252. (B) 253. (D) 254. (B) 255. (A)
91. (A) 92. (C) 93. (B) 94. (B) 95. (B) 256. (B) 257. (C) 258. (C) 259. (C) 260. (C)
96. (A) 97. (A) 98. (C) 99. (A) 100. (A) 261. (C) 262. (A) 263. (B) 264. (A) 265. (A)
101. (A) 102. (A) 103. (B) 104. (B) 105. (B) 266. (B) 267. (D) 268. (A) 269. (B) 270. (C)
106. (B) 107. (A) 108. (B) 109. (B) 110. (B) 271. (D) 272. (C) 273. (D) 274. (B) 275. (C)
111. (C) 112. (A) 113. (B) 114. (A) 115. (A) 276. (A) 277. (A) 278. (A) 279. (B) 280. (C)
116. (A) 117. (C) 118. (A) 119. (B) 120. (A) 281. (D) 282. (B) 283. (C) 284. (A) 285. (C)
121. (D) 122. (A) 123. (A) 124. (B) 125. (B) 286. (C) 287. (C) 288. (C) 289. (A) 290. (D)
SOFTWARE ENGINEERING
1. Computer system is a 9. Sub system is
(A) Hardware (B) Software (A) Dependent system
(C) Bioware (D) Virtual ware (B) Independent system
2. Object model is a (C) Component
(A) Rule (B) Process guidance (D) None of these
(C) System model (D) Entity 10. System architecture model identifies
3. Software engineering is an engineering (A) Hardware components
discipline concerned with (B) Software components
(A) Software development (C) Virtual components and software
(B) Software production
components
(C) Software implementation
(D) All the above (D) Hardware and software components
both
4. A workflow model represents
(A) Sequence of activities 11. Which one is functional component ?
(B) Role of users involved (A) Reliability (B) Maintainability
(C) Set of activities (C) Computation (D) Performance
(D) None of these 12. A class room in a school is a
5. Sensor component (A) System (B) Sub-system
(A) Causes changes in system (C) Module (D) None of these
environment
(B) Communicate with other components 13. Floating point process is a
(C) Collects information from system (A) Communication component
environment (B) Computation component
(D) Coordinate the operation of other (C) Coordination component
components. (D) Sensor component
6. Which is the correct order ? 14. Digital-analog converter that converter digital
(A) System development ? system input into analog output is a
installation ? system operation (A) Communication component
(B) System installation ? system operation?
(B) Computation component
system development
(C) Sensor component
(C) System decomposition? system
installation ? system design (D) Interface component
(D) None of these. 15. In software system requirements, the
7. Sensor component is a functional requirement for the system
(A) Functional component describes
(B) Non-functional component (A) Services the system is expected to
(C) Reliability component provide
(D) None of these (B) Factors of system development
8. Which one is not the non-functional activity ? (C) Reliability, response time or system
(A) Reliability (B) Performance capacity
(C) Coordination (D) Maintainability (D) None of these
16. In software system requirements, the 23. In block diagrams, relationship between
interface requirements are components is shown by
(A) Requirements that are derived from the (A) Boxes (B) Ovals
interface of existing system (C) Circular (D) Lines/Arrows
(B) Requirements that are derived from the 24. Cities, states and country can be defined as
interface of proposed system
(A) Subsystem Cities, states: System
(C) Requirements that are derived from the
country
interface of existing and proposed
(B) Subsystem state :System country,
systems
(D) None of these cities
(C) Subsystem Country: System cities,
17. Validation plan describes state
(A) Quality procedure
(D) Subsystem Country, state: System
(B) Schedule procedure
Cities
(C) Management procedure
(D) None of these 25. Which of the following is correct system
18. Software requirement specification is design process ?
(A) The official statement of what is required (A) Identify system requirement define
of the system developers system develop system
(B) The non official statement of system (B) Define system develop system
interface identify system
(C) Non specified format of system working (C) Identify system develop system
(D) None of these operate system
19. What is Ethnography (D) None of these
(A) A graphic tool 26. Making different sub-system to work together
(B) Observational technique used to is
understand social and organizational (A) System definition
requirements (B) System operation
(C) A graph with nodes (C) System integration
(D) None of these (D) System decomposition
20. In Data Processing model 27. System procurement process involves
(A) Here data-flow diagram show, how data (A) Specifying system requirement
is processed at different stages in the (B) Choosing suppliers
system. These are behavioral models (C) A and B both
(B) It registers all/ selected activities of a (D) None of these
computer system.
(C) Technique used to transform raw data 28. System decommissioning normally takes
into a more useful form. place
(D) Data is shifted to modern data base (A) At the beginning of the development
management system. process
(B) At the middle of the development
21. In Data recording
process
(A) Here data-flow diagram show, how data
(C) After the end of useful operational time
is processed at different stages in the
system. (D) At the beginning of the useful
(B) It registers all/ selected activities of a operational time
computer system. 29. System operation takes place after
(C) Technique used to transform raw data (A) System specification
into a more useful form. (B) System design
(D) Data is shifted to modern data base (C) System installation
management system. (D) System decomposition
22. Thermo couple in furnace is a 30. Software processes are
(A) Communication component (A) Activities involved in producing software
(B) Computation component system
(C) Sensor component (B) Activities involved in selling software
(D) Interface component systems
(C) Activities involved in system design 38. Aperiodic stimuli is

(D) Activities involved in managing systems (A) It supports system modeling during the
31. Iterative model includes analysis and design stages of the
(A) Waterfall model software process
(B) Organization responsible for approving
(B) Sequential model
U.S. standards
(C) Incremental development
(C) Stimuli that occurs irregularly
(D) Random model (D) Formalized set of software calls and
32. In iterative process model, software process routines that can be referenced by an
represents application program in order to access
(A) Sequential activities supporting system or network services
(B) Cycle of activities 39. Which is not the part of software process ?
(C) Random activities (A) Software specification
(D) None of these (B) Software design
33. In spiral development the software process (C) Software evolution
(D) Software selling
form
(A) Sequences (B) Loops 40. Which one is not the generic process model ?
(C) Zigzag (D) None of these (A) Waterfall model
(B) Evolutionary development
34. Spiral development involves (C) Re-use oriented development
(A) Risk assessment (D) Marketing model
(B) Reduction of risk
41. Spiral model is
(C) A and B both
(A) Iterative model
(D) None of these (B) Non-iterative model
35. Requirement Engineering involves (C) Random model
(A) Feasibility studies (D) None of these
(B) Requirement analysis 42. Software design activities involved
(C) Requirement validation (A) System programming
(D) All the above (B) System operations
36. Analysis and design workbench (C) Component design
(A) It supports system modeling during the (D) Component development
analysis and design stages of the 43. Software implementation converts system
software process specifications into
(B) Organization responsible for approving (A) Development system
U.S. standards (B) System decomposition
(C) Stimuli that occurs irregularly (C) Executable system
(D) None of these
(D) Formalized set of software calls and
routines that can be referenced by an 44. Which one is not be structured design model ?
application program in order to access (A) Data flow model
supporting system or network services (B) Entity relation model
(C) Object-oriented model
37. ANSI (American National Standards Institute) (D) Debugging
is
45. Software process models are
(A) It supports system modeling during the (A) Abstract representation of software
analysis and design stages of the process
software process (B) Software running the systems
(B) Organization responsible for approving (C) Software managing the systems
U.S. standards (D) Software implementation
(C) Stimuli that occurs irregularly 46. Debugging is a process of
(D) Formalized set of software calls and (A) Developing faults
routines that can be referenced by an (B) Removing faults
application program in order to access (C) Ignoring faults
supporting system or network services (D) None of these
47. Software validation is 57. Maintenance plan describes

(A) Checking system conformations to its (A) Quality procedure
specifications (B) Schedule procedure
(B) Developing system conformations to its (C) Maintenance procedure
specifications (D) Configuration procedure
(C) Operating system 58. Failure of schedule is
(D) None of these (A) People risk
48. Unit testing process is (B) Organizational risk
(A) Software designing process (C) Estimation risk
(B) Software operating process (D) Requirement risk
(C) Software validation process 59. Risk planning involves
(D) Software decomposition process (A) Avoidance strategies
49. CASE environment supports (B) Minimization strategies
(A) Individual process tasks (C) Contingency plan
(B) Individual process phases (D) All the above
(C) Most process tasks and process 60. Which is not the part of scheduling process?
phases (A) Creating project chart
(D) None of these (B) Defining roles/activities
50. CASE work benches support (C) Estimating failures
(A) Individual process tasks (D) Selling product
(B) Process phases and activities 61. Use of Email instead of post & telegraph is
(C) Development software due to
(D) Operation software (A) Technology changes
51. Error location and repair is (B) Requirement changes
(A) System modeling process (C) Users access
(D) All the above
(B) System design process
(C) System verification process 62. Using P-IV instead of P-I is due to
(D) System decomposition process (A) Requirement change
(B) Faster access
52. Quality plan describes
(C) Technology improvement
(A) Quality procedure and standards
(D) All the above
(B) Approaches, resources and schedules
(C) Configuration management and 63. The term user requirements
(A) Are statements, made in natural
structure
language and diagrams of services that
(D) None of these
system is expected to provide and the
53. Which one is not true for risk analysis ? constrains on the system
(A) It estimate risks (B) It removes risks (B) The system services and details, can
(C) It reduces risks (D) It develops risks serve as contract between buyer and
54. Project schedule can be illustrated in software developers
(A) Bar-charts (B) Activity-networks (C) An abstract description of software
(C) Figures (D) None of these design
(D) None of these
55. Change in technology is a
64. Software design specification
(A) Technology risk
(A) Are statements, made in natural
(B) People risk
language to specify the system
(C) Tool risk specification and constraints
(D) Implementation risk (B) An abstract description of software
56. Under estimate of cost is design, which is an extension of system
(A) Technology risk requirement specification
(B) People risk (C) Discusses the market policy of the
(C) Estimation risk system
(D) Organizational risk (D) None of these
65. Software consists of 75. User documentation defines

(A) Computer program only (A) Computer program
(B) Computer program and associated (B) Computer system
documentations (C) Use of computer systems
(C) Documentation only (D) Structure of computer system
(D) Hardware 76. System documentation defines
66. Software engineering deals with (A) Computer programs
(A) Software development (B) Computer systems
(B) Hardware development (C) Use of computer systems
(C) System development (D) Structure of computer system
(D) Network development 77. System engineering is concerned with
67. System engineering deals with (A) Hardware development
(A) Software development only (B) System development
(B) Hardware development only (C) Software engineering
(C) Software and Hardware development (D) All of the above
(D) Network development 78. Software process involves
68. Work flow model includes (A) Software specification and
(A) Inputs (B) Out puts developments
(C) Dependencies (D) All the above (B) Software validation and evolution
69. Rules are (C) A and B both
(A) Constraints define for system models (D) None of these
(B) Input data 79. Mutable requirements are
(C) Out put data (A) Requirements that change due to the
(D) Activities in involved in the system environment in which the organization
70. Hardware represents is operating
(A) Documentations (B) Emerges due to users understanding
(B) Programs of system
(C) Computer systems (C) Dependent on particular system
(D) Rules (D) None of these
71. The system failure due to power failure is 80. Requirement Engineering process does not
considered under involves
(A) Hardware reliability (A) Feasibility study
(B) Software reliability (B) Requirement elicitation and an analysis
(C) Operation reliability (C) Requirement validation and
(D) None of these management
(D) Data processing
72. Components such as wheel, chain, handle
81. User requirements are written in
etc are assembled to produce bicycle. The
(A) Natural language
use of bicycle as transportation device is
(B) FORTRAN
considered to be
(C) Assembly language
(A) Functional property
(D) None of these
(B) Non-functional property
(C) Software system 82. The system modeling is normally referred
(D) None of these to
(A) An abstract viewing of a system
73. A computer program is a (B) The system running
(A) Software (B) Hardware (C) Programming language
(C) System (D) None of these (D) None of these
74. Software system consists of 83. In system modeling : A-Complementary
(A) Programs system model : B-Context model: C-
(B) Configuration files Composition model
(C) Documentation (1) Here entity-relation (E-R) diagram show how
(D) All of the above entities in the system are composed of other
entities.2-Shows how the system being 88. Taxonomy is

modeled is positioned, in an environment (A) Classification scheme, which shows
with other systems and process. 3-Present who object class is related to other
class through common attributes and
different information about the system.
services
(A) A-1, B-2, C-3 (B) A-3, B-2, C-1 (B) Standard modeling language, used for
(C) A-2, B-3, C-1 (D) A-2, B-1, C-3 object oriented modeling
84. Operability is (C) Set of tools to support software process
(A) Extent to which a system or component (D) None of these
complies with standards 89. In system modeling : A-Model;B-Prototype;;1-
(B) Trustworthiness of operating the its an abstract view of a system that ignores
software. system details; 2-Its an initial version of
(C) Measures that estimates system cost system software which givers end-users a
to operate and maintain. concrete impression of the system
(D) None of these capacities
85. In system modeling: A-Architectural model: (A) A-1, B-2 (B) A-1, B-1
B-Stimulus-response model: C-Behavioral (C) B-1, A-2 (D) A-2, B-2
models::1-Used to describe the overall 90. Sub-systems in a system are
behavior of the system: 2-State transition (A) Independent systems that compro-
diagram show how the system reacts to mises the system
internal and external events:3-Shows (B) Dependent systems that compromises
principal sub-systems which makes the the system
system (C) A and B both true
(A) A-1, B-2, C-3 (B) A-2, B-3, C-1 (D) None of these
(C) A-3, B-2, C-1 (D) C-2, B-1, A-3 91. The following is not true for client-server
86. In system modeling : A-Classification model; model
B-Stimulus-response model; C-Data (A) It contains the set of stand alone servers
processing model: 1-Here data-flow diagram (B) A set of clients that can use services
show how data is processed at different offered by servers
stages; 2-Here object class/inheritance (C) A network which allows the clients to
diagram show, how entities have the access these services
common characteristics;3-Here state (D) An intersection between clients by
transition diagram shows the how the passing the server
system reader to internal and external events 92. Computer Aided Software Engineering
(A) A-2, B-3, C-1 (B) A-3, B-1, C-2 (CASE) is
(C) A-1, B-2, C-3 (D) A-1, B-3, C-2 (A) Extent to which all the parts of a software
87. In system modeling system or component are present and
Statement-1: State-machine model is used each of its parts is fully specified and
to model the behavior of a system in developed.
response to internal and external events. (B) Testing of individual hardware/software
Statement-2: Stimulus response model components
represents state transition diagram that (C) An Entity-relation (E-R) diagram show
show how system reacts to internal and how entities in the system are
external events. composed of other entities
(A) Statement-1 and 2 both correct (D) It consists of wide range of different
(B) Statement-1 and 2 both false types of computer programs, which be
(C) Statement-1 is true and Statement-2 is used to support software process
false activities such as a requirement
(D) Statement-1 is false and Statement-2 is analysis, system modeling, debugging
true and testing.
93. A control model, where one system is 100. If the server is only responsible for data
designed as the system controller and has management and software on the client
responsibility for managing the execution of implements the application logic, then one
other sub-systems can be referred as
can referrer this model as
(A) Centralized control model
(B) Call-return control model (A) Client server model
(C) Object oriented model (B) Fat client server model
(D) None of these (C) Thin client server model
94. A sequential control model where control (D) None of these
starts at the top of a subroutine hierarchy 101. In system models, object is
and through sub-routine calls, passes to
(A) An entity that has a state and defined
lower levels is referred as
(A) Manager control model set of operations that operates on that
(B) Call-return control model state
(C) Object oriented model (B) Software program
(D) None of these (C) Programming language, that develops
95. A control model where one system any given program
component is designed as system manager (D) None of these
which controls the starting, stopping and
coordination other system processes can 102. When the state of object changes by internal
be referred as operations, executing within the object it self,
(A) Manager control model then these objects are referred as
(B) Object oriented model (A) Active object (B) Inactive object
(C) Event driven control model (C) Silent object (D) None of these
(D) None of these
103. The objects that are realized on call as
96. When is a system where each sub-system
can respond to generated event are referred parallel process with method corresponding
as ? to defined object operations can be referred
(A) Event driven control system as
(B) Object oriented model (A) Active object (B) Servers
(C) Manager control model (C) Modules (D) None of these
(D) None of these
104. For real time system following is not true
97. An event driven control system, when an
event is transmitted to each sub-system and (A) Correct functioning of the system
each sub-system that handles that event depends on the result produced by the
responds to it is referred as system
(A) Broadcast model (B) Correct functioning of the system
(B) Manager control model depends on the time at which the results
(C) Call-return control model
are produced
(D) None of these
(C) The time of processing affects the
98. Embedded system
system output
(A) Run on single processor
(B) Run on integrated group of process (D) The time of processing does not affects
linked by network the system out-put
(C) Network models 105. If in a software system, the operation is
(D) None of these degraded if results are not produced
99. If all the application processing and data according to the specified timing require-
management is carried out on the server and
ments then the software system is referred
client is only responsible for running the
system then this is referred as as
(A) Client-server model (A) Soft real time system
(B) Thin client server model (B) hard real time system
(C) Thick client server model (C) Real time system
106. If in a software system, the operation is 113. An Acquisition cycle time is

incorrect if results are not produced accor- (A) Unplanned events, which results in
ding to the specified timing requirements injury, damage to property, or to the
then the software system is referred as environment
(A) Soft real time system
(B) Quantitative measure of the magnitude
(B) Hard real time system
(C) Real time system of error
(D) None of these (C) Period that starts when a system is
107. Degree to which a system or component considered and ends when the product
performs only the necessary functions meets its initial operational capability
relevant to a particular purpose (D) All the above
(A) Abstractness 114. An accuracy is
(B) Acceptable risk
(A) Unplanned events, which results in
(C) Acceptance testing
(D) None of these injury, damage to property, or to the
108. Subject to probability of hazard, arising will environment
not raise cost factors is referred as (B) Quantitative measure of the magnitude
(A) Abstractness of error
(B) Acceptable risk (C) Period that starts when a system is
(C) Acceptance testing considered and ends when the product
(D) None of these meets its initial operational capability
109. Formal testing conducted to determine (D) All the above
whether a system satisfies its acceptance
criteria and to enable the customer to 115. Here the state of the object changes by
determine whether to accept the system internal operations executing within the
(A) Abstractness object itself. And also object continually
(B) Acceptable risk executes and operations never suspend
(C) Acceptance testing itself is referred as
(D) None of these (A) Active objects (B) Activity
110. Truthfulness with which software satisfies (C) Adaptability (D) None of these
differing system constraints and user needs
is 116. A clearly defined objective, entry and exit
(A) Active objects (B) Activity conditions which is normally is atomic is
(C) Adaptability (D) None of these referred as
111. Adaptive measures are (A) Active objects (B) Activity
(A) Quality measures that address how (C) Adaptability (D) None of these
easily a system can evolve or migrate 117. Agents are
(B) Piece of software that acts to accomplish
tasks on behalf of its user (A) Quality measures that address how
(C) A quantitative option analysis that allows easily a system can evolve or migrate
the cost of various options to be compu- (B) Piece of software that acts to accomplish
ted, and options can be compared on tasks on behalf of its user
objective basis (C) A quantitative option analysis that allows
(D) Extent to which a software system or the cost of various options to be compu-
component allows for or supports
ted, and options can be compared on
anonymous transactions
objective basis
112. An accident is
(D) Extent to which a software system or
(A) Unplanned events, which results in
injury, damage to property, or to the component allows for or supports
environment anonymous transactions
(B) Quantitative measure of the magnitude 118. Anonymity is
of error (A) Quality measures that address how
(C) Period that starts when a system is
easily a system can evolve or migrate
considered and ends when the product
meets its initial operational capability (B) Piece of software that acts to accomplish
(D) All the above tasks on behalf of its user
(C) A quantitative option analysis that allows (C) A system continues in operation after
the cost of various options to be compu- some system faults have manifested
ted, and options can be compared on themselves.
objective basis (D) A system whose operation is incorrect,
(D) Extent to which a software system or if results are not produced according to
component allows for or supports the timing specifications
anonymous transactions 124. The misuse of system vulnerability is
119. Algorithmic cost modeling is (A) As low as reasonably practical (ALARP)
(A) Quality measures that address how risk
easily a system can evolve or migrate (B) Architectural design
(B) Piece of software that acts to accomplish (C) Attack
tasks on behalf of its user (D) None of these
(C) A quantitative option analysis that allows
125. Attribute-based identification is
the cost of various options to be
(A) Here each component has a unique
computed, and options can be
compared on objective basis name and an associated set of attribute,
(D) Extent to which a software system or which differs for each version of
component allows for or supports component
anonymous transactions (B) Extent to which a software system
records information concerning
120. Application program interface is
transactions performed against the
(A) It supports system modeling during the
system.
analysis and design stages of the
(C) Extent to which a system or component
software process
is operational and accessible when
(B) Organization responsible for approving
U.S. standards required for use
(C) Stimuli that occurs irregularly (D) They are used to describe the over all
(D) Formalized set of software calls and behavior of the system.
routines that can be referenced by an 126. Auditable is
application program in order to access (A) Here each component has a unique
supporting system or network services* name and an associated set of attribute,
121. Method of defining a collection of hardware which differs for each version of
and software components and their component
interfaces to establish the framework for the (B) Extent to which a software system records
development of a computer system information concerning transactions
(A) As low as reasonably practical (ALARP) performed against the system
risk (C) Extent to which a system or component
(B) Architectural design is operational and accessible when
(C) Attack required for use
(D) None of these (D) They are used to describe the over all
122. Probability of an accident arising because behavior of the system
of hazard is minimum subject of other costs 127. Availability is
(A) As low as reasonably practical (ALARP)
(A) Here each component has a unique
risk
name and an associated set of attribute,
(B) Architectural design
(C) Attack which differs for each version of
(D) None of these component
(B) Extent to which a software system
123. Fault tolerance system are
records information concerning transac-
(A) These system runs on a single proce-
ssor or an integrated group of processors tions performed against the system.
(B) A system where each sub-system can (C) Extent to which a system or component
respond to generated events where the is operational and accessible when
events might be generated from other required for use
sub-systems or from the environment (D) They are used to describe the over all
of the system. behavior of the system.
128. Behavioral models is (C) An event driven control system, where

(A) Here each component has a unique an event is broadcasted to each sub-
name and an associated set of attribute, system and any sub-system that can
which differs for each version of handle that event responds to it.
component (D) Control starts of the top of a sub routine
(B) Extent to which a software system hierarchy and through sub routine calls
records information concerning transac- passes to lower levels.
tions performed against the system.
(C) Extent to which a system or component 132. In Call-return control model
is operational and accessible when (A) The low-level components of a system
required for use are integrated and tested before the
(D) Used to describe the over all behavior higher-level components have been
of the system developed.
129. In Bottom-up integration (B) The testing process starts with modules
(A) The low-level components of a system at lower levels in the hierarchy and
are integrated and tested before the works up the hierarchy of modules until
higher-level components have been the final module is tested.
developed (C) An event driven control system, where
(B) The testing process starts with modules an event is broadcasted to each sub-
at lower levels in the hierarchy and system and any sub-system that can
works up the hierarchy of modules until handle that event responds to it.
the final module is tested. (D) Control starts of the top of a sub routine
(C) An event driven control system, where hierarchy and through sub routine calls
an event is broadcasted to each sub- passes to lower levels
system and any sub-system that can 133. Capacity is
handle that event responds to it.
(A) A measure of the amount of work a
(D) Control starts of the top of a sub routine
system can perform
hierarchy and through sub routine calls
(B) It provides automated support for
passes to lower levels.
software process.
130. In Broadcast models (C) Support individual process tasks
(A) The low-level components of a system
(D) Set of tools to support a particular
are integrated and tested before the
phase of software process such as
higher-level components have been
design, implementation or testing.
developed.
(B) The testing process starts with modules 134. CASE (Computer Aided Software
at lower levels in the hierarchy and Engineering) is
works up the hierarchy of modules until (A) A measure of the amount of work a
the final module is tested system can perform
(C) An event driven control system, where (B) It provides automated support for
an event is broadcasted to each sub- software process.
system and any sub-system that can (C) Support individual process tasks
handle that event responds to it. (D) Set of tools to support a particular
(D) Control starts of the top of a sub routine phase of software process such as
hierarchy and through sub routine calls design, implementation or testing:
passes to lower levels.
135. CASE Tools
131. Bottom-up testing (A) A measure of the amount of work a
(A) The low-level components of a system system can perform
are integrated and tested before the
(B) It provides automated support for
higher-level components have been
software process.
developed.
(C) Support individual process tasks
(B) The testing process starts with modules
at lower levels in the hierarchy and (D) Set of tools to support a particular
works up the hierarchy of modules until phase of software process such as
the final module is tested. design, implementation or testing
136. CASE Workbench 140. Classification model

(A) A measure of the amount of work a (A) One system is designed as the system
system can perform controller and has responsibility for
(B) It provides automated support for managing the execution of other
software process. subsystems.
(C) Support individual process tasks (B) Each system is named as in attribute-
(D) Set of tools to support a particular phase based identification and associated with
of software process such as design, one or more change requests.
implementation or testing (C) An object class inheritance diagram, how
entities have common characteristics.
137. Centralized control models (D) The objective of this software develop-
(A) Here one system is designed as the ment is zero-defect software.
system controller and has responsibility
141. Clean room software development
for managing the execution of other
(A) One system is designed as the system
subsystems. controller and has responsibility for
(B) Each system is named as in attribute- managing the execution of other
based identification and associated with subsystems.
one or more change requests. (B) Each system is named as in attribute-
(C) An object class inheritance diagram, based identification and associated with
how entities have common one or more change requests.
characteristics. (C) An object class inheritance diagram,
(D) The objective of this software how entities have common
development is zero-defect software. characteristics.
138. Change-oriented identification (D) The objective is to develop zero-defect
(A) One system is designed as the system software.
controller and has responsibility for 142. COCOMO cost model
managing the execution of other (A) It takes project, product hardware and
subsystems. personnel attributes into account when
(B) Each system is named as in attribute- formulating a cost estimate.
based identification and associated with (B) In it server provides set of services and
one or more change requests. set of clients uses these services.
(C) An object class inheritance diagram, (C) Extent to which standards are used to
achieve interoperability.
how entities have common
(D) None of these
characteristics.
(D) The objective of this software 143. Client server architecture
development is zero-defect software. (A) It takes project, product hardware and
personnel attributes into account when
139. Hard real time systems are formulating a cost estimate.
(A) These system runs on a single (B) In it server provides set of services and
processor or an integrated group of set of clients uses these services.
processors (C) Extent to which standards are used to
(B) A system where each sub-system can achieve interoperability.
respond to generated events where the (D) None of these
events might be generated from other 144. Commonality
sub-systems or from the environment (A) It takes project, product hardware and
of the system. personnel attributes into account when
(C) A system continues in operation after formulating a cost estimate.
some system faults have manifested (B) In it server provides set of services and
themselves. set of clients uses these services.
(D) A system whose operation is incorrect, (C) Extent to which standards are used to
if results are not produced according to achieve interoperability
the timing specifications (D) None of these
145. Transforming of logic and data from design 151. Composition model is
specifications (design descriptions) into a (A) Extent to which all the parts of a software
programming language
system or component are present and
(A) Compatibility (B) Compactness
(C) Coding (D) Communication each of its parts is fully specified and
146. An inter change of information between developed.
computer systems and peoples or between (B) Testing of individual hardware/software
people. components
(A) Compatibility (B) Compactness (C) An Entity-relation (E-R) diagram show
(C) Coding (D) Communication how entities in the system are
147. Extent to which a system or component composed of other entities
makes efficient use of its data storage
(D) It consists of wide range of different
space- occupies a small volume.
(A) Compatibility (B) Compactness types of computer programs, which be
(C) Code (D) Communication used to support software process
148. Entity-relation model is activities such as a requirement
(A) It describes the basic entities in the analysis, system modeling, debugging
design and relation between them. and testing.
(B) Observational techniques used to
understand social and organizational 152. Match the following : A-Control metrics : B-
requirements. Process metrics: C- Control: D-Correctness:
(C) It is based on the idea of developing an 1- They are associated with software
initial implementation, exposing it uses process. 2- They are associated with
on requirement and refining it through
software products. 3- Protective measure
many versions until an adequate system
has been developed. that reduces system vulnerability. 4- Extent
(D) Based on an idea of developing an initial to which a system or component is free from
implementation, exposing this to uses faults in its specification, design, and
comment and retiring it until and implementation
adequate system has been developed. (A) A-1, B-2,C-3,D-4 (B) A-4,B-3,C-2,D-1
149. Ability of two or more systems or components (C) A-3, B-2,C-1,D-4 (D) None is true
to perform their required functions while
sharing the same hardware or software 153. Corrective maintenance is
environment (A) Maintenance performed to correct faults
(A) Compatibility (B) Compactness in hardware or software
(C) Code (D) Communication (B) A failure of software-controlled systems
150. Completeness in software system is in convenience, but there are source
referred as
systems where system failure is
(A) Extent to which all the parts of a software
system or component are present and resulted in significant critical losses.
each of its parts is fully specified and (C) Failure that corrupts system state or data
developed. (D) None is true
(B) Testing of individual hardware/software
154. Corrupting failure is
components
(C) An Entity-relation (E-R) diagram show (A) Maintenance performed to correct faults
how entities in the system are in hardware or software
composed of other entities. (B) A failure of software-controlled systems
(D) It consists of wide range of different in convenience, but there are source
types of computer programs, which be
systems where system failure is
used to support software process
activities such as a requirement resulted in significant critical losses.
analysis, system modeling, debugging (C) Failure that corrupts system state or data
and testing. (D) None is true
155. Cost estimation is 158. Event-driven control systems are

(A) Process of estimating the costs (A) These system runs on a single proce-
associated with software development ssor or an integrated group of processors
projects that include the effort, time, and (B) A system where each sub-system can
labor required. respond to generated events where the
(B) Overall cost of maintaining a computer events might be generated from other
system that includes the costs sub-systems or from the environment
associated with personnel/training/ of the system.
maintenance of hardware and software/ (C) A system continues in operation after
requirements growth. some system faults have manifested
(C) Overall cost of operating a computer themselves.
system that includes the costs (D) A system whose operation is incorrect,
if results are not produced according to
associated with personnel / training /
the timing specifications
system operations.
(D) Overall cost of a computer system to an 159. Cost of operation is
organization that includes the costs (A) Process of estimating the costs
associated with operating/ maintaining associated with software development
the system, and the lifetime of projects that include the effort, time, and
operational use of the system. labor required.
(B) Overall cost of maintaining a computer
156. Cost of ownership is
system that includes the costs
(A) Process of estimating the costs
associated with personnel / training/
associated with software development maintenance of hardware and software/
projects that include the effort, time, and requirements growth.
labor required. (C) Overall cost of operating a computer
(B) Overall cost of maintaining a computer system that includes the costs
system that includes the costs associated with personnel / training /
associated with personnel/training/ system operations.
maintenance of hardware and software/ (D) Overall cost of a computer system to an
requirements growth. organization that includes the costs
(C) Overall cost of operating a computer associated with operating/ maintaining
system that includes the costs the system, and the lifetime of
associated with personnel / training / operational use of the system.
system operations.
(D) Overall cost of a computer system to an 160. In Data reduction
organization that includes the costs (A) Here data-flow diagram show, how data
associated with operating/ maintaining is processed at different stages in the
the system, and the lifetime of system.
operational use of the system. (B) It registers all/ selected activities of a
computer system.
157. Cost of maintenance (C) Technique used to transform raw data
(A) Process of estimating the costs into a more useful form.
associated with software development (D) Data is shifted to modern data base
projects that include the effort, time, and management system.
labor required.
161. Ethnography is
(B) Overall cost of maintaining a computer
(A) It describes the basic entities in the
system that includes the costs
design and relation between them.
associated with personnel/training/ (B) Observational techniques used to
maintenance of hardware and software/ understand social and organizational
requirements growth. requirements.
(C) Overall cost of operating a computer (C) It is based on the idea of developing an
system that includes the costs initial implementation, exposing it uses
associated with personnel / training / on requirement and refining it through
system operations. many versions until an adequate system
(D) Overall cost of a computer system to an has been developed.
organization that includes the costs (D) Based on an idea of developing an initial
associated with operating/ maintaining implementation, exposing this to uses
the system, and the lifetime of comment and retiring it until and
operational use of the system. adequate system has been developed.
162. In Data migration (C) It is responsible for the definition,

(A) Here data-flow diagram show, how data operation, protection, performance, and
is processed at different stages in the recovery of a database.
system. (D) Development of a database to meet a
(B) It registers all/ selected activities of a
users requirements
computer system.
(C) Technique used to transform raw data 167. Exploratory development is
into a more useful form (A) Trustworthiness with which a system or
(D) Data is shifted to modern data base component can be modified to take
management system advantage of new software or hardware
163. In Data flow (Activity model) technologies.
(A) It shows the software process as a set (B) An error of some kind or an unexpected
of activities each of which carries out event occurs during the execution of a
data transformation. program
(B) Data and associated programs are re- (C) Here the objective of the process is to
engineered to remove limits on the data work with uses to explore their
processing. requirement and deliver a final system.
(C) It is responsible for the definition, (D) Possible loss or harm in computing
operation, protection, performance, and system.
recovery of a database. 168. Collection of logically related data stored
(D) Development of a database to meet a together in one or more computerized files.
users requirements.
(A) Database
164. In Data tension (B) Debugging
(A) It shows the software process as a set (C) Defect testing
of activities each of which carries out (D) Defensive programming
data transformation.
(B) Data and associated programs are re- 169. Exception is
engineered to remove limits on the data (A) Trustworthiness with which a system or
processing component can be modified to take
(C) It is responsible for the definition, advantage of new software or hardware
operation, protection, performance, and technologies.
recovery of a database. (B) An error of some kind or an unexpected
(D) Development of a database to meet a event occurs during the execution of a
users requirements program
165. Database administration (C) Here the objective of the process is to
(A) It shows the software process as a set work with uses to explore their
of activities each of which carries out requirement and deliver a final system.
data transformation. (D) Possible loss or harm in computing
(B) Data and associated programs are re- system.
engineered to remove limits on the data 170. When the program is developed, it is to be
processing. tested and defects are to be removed from
(C) It is responsible for the definition,
the program.
operation, protection, performance, and
(A) Database
recovery of a database.
(D) Development of a database to meet a (B) Debugging
users requirements (C) Defect testing
(D) Defensive programming
166. Database design
(A) This model shows the software process 171. Evolutionary Development
as a set of activities each of which carries (A) It describes the basic entities in the
out data transformation. design and relation between them.
(B) Data and associated programs are re- (B) Observational techniques used to
engineered to remove limits on the data understand social and organizational
processing. requirements.
(C) It is based on the idea of developing an (C) Pertaining to a system or component

initial implementation, exposing it uses that continues to provide partial
on requirement and refining it through operational capability in the event of
many versions until an adequate system
has been developed certain failures.
(D) Based on an idea of developing an initial (D) None of these
implementation, exposing this to uses 177. Represents the number of discrete levers in
comment and retiring it until and the inheritance tree where subclasses
adequate system has been developed.
inherit attributes and operations from super
172. Exposure is
classes.
(A) Trustworthiness with which a system or
component can be modified to take (A) Depth of inheritance tree
advantage of new software or hardware (B) Breath of inheritance tree
technologies. (C) Radius of inheritance tree
(B) An error of some kind or an unexpected (D) None of these
event occurs during the execution of a
program 178. Fan- out is referred to
(C) Here the objective of the process is to (A) It is a measure of number of function
work with uses to explore their that calls some other function.
requirement and deliver a final system. (B) It is measure of number of functions that
(D) Possible loss or harm in computing
are called by a function.
system.
(C) In it server is only responsible for data
173. Fault tolerance is
(A) It is the process of modifying the state management.
space of the system so that the effects (D) None of these
of the fault are minimized and system 179. Fail soft is
can continue in operation in some
degraded state.
(B) Capacity of a system or component to component can be modified to increase
continue normal operation despite the its storage or functional capacity
presence of hardware or software faults. (B) Pertaining to a system/component that
(C) It is the widely used hazard technique automatically places itself in a safe
(D) Incorrect step, process, or data operating mode in the event of a failure.
definition in a computer program
(C) Pertaining to a system or component
174. It is intended to find inconsistencies between
that continues to provide partial
a program and its specification. These
inconsistencies are usually due to program operational capability in the event of
faults or defects. certain failures
(A) Database (D) None of these
(B) Debugging
180. Embedded systems are
(C) Defect testing
(D) Defensive programming (A) These system runs on a single
processor or an integrated group of
175. It is a property of the system that equates to
its trustworthiness. It is the degree of users processors
confidence that the system will operate as (B) A system where each sub-system can
one expect, that the system would not fail in respond to generated events where the
normal use. events might be generated from other
(A) Dependability (B) Availability sub-systems or from the environment
(C) Maintainability (D) None of these
of the system.
176. Fail safe is (C) A system continues in operation after
some system faults have manifested
component can be modified to increase
its storage or functional capacity themselves.
(B) Pertaining to a system/component that (D) A system whose operation is incorrect,
automatically places itself in a safe if results are not produced according to
operating mode in the event of a failure. the timing specifications
181. Fault is 185. Enduring requirements

(A) It is the process of modifying the state (A) Emerges due to users understanding
space of the system so that the effects of system develops, during system
of the fault are minimized and system development
(B) Requirements derived from the core
activity of the organization and directly
degraded state.
related to the domain of the system*
(B) Capacity of a system or component to (C) Extent to which a system allowed the
continue normal operation despite the user to intentionally or unintentionally
presence of hardware or software faults. introduce errors into or misuse the
(C) It is the widely used hazard technique system.
(D) Incorrect step, process, or data (D) None of these.
definition in a computer program 186. Match the following : A- Error handling : B-
Error proneness: C- Error tolerance:: 1-
182. Emergent requirements
Extent to which a system or component to
(A) Emerges due to users understanding continue normal operation despite the
of system develops, during system presence of erroneous inputs.: 2- Extent to
development which a system allowed the user, to
(B) Requirements derived from the core intentionally or unintentionally introduce
activity of the organization and directly errors into or misuse the system.: 3- Function
related to the domain of the system. of a computer system/ component that
identify and respond to user or system errors
(C) Extent to which a system allowed the
to maintain normal or at the very least
user to intentionally or unintentionally
degraded operations.
introduce errors into or misuse the (A) A-3,B-2,C-1 (B) A-1,B-2,C-3
system. (C) A-2,B-1,C-3 (D) None of these
(D) None of these. 187. Hazard avoidance
183. Fat-client model is (A) Hazard cannot arise due system design.
(A) It is a measure of number of function (B) The probability of the event occurring
that calls some other function. which create a hazard.
(C) An assessment of the worst possible
(B) It is measure of number of functions that
damage, which could result from a
are called by a function. particular hazard.
(C) In it server is only responsible for data (D) A condition with the potential for causing
management. or contributing to an accident.
(D) None of these 188. Evolutionary prototyping is
184. Fault recovery is (A) It describes the basic entities in the
(A) It is the process of modifying the state design and relation between them.
(B) Observational techniques used to
space of the system so that the effects
understand social and organizational
of the fault are minimized and system requirements.
can continue in operation in some (C) It is based on the idea of developing an
degraded state initial implementation, exposing it uses
(B) Capacity of a system or component to on requirement and refining it through
continue normal operation despite the many versions until an adequate system
has been developed.
presence of hardware or software faults.
(D) Based on an idea of developing an initial
(C) It is the widely used hazard technique implementation, exposing this to uses
(D) Incorrect step, process, or data comment and retiring it until and
definition in a computer program adequate system has been developed.
189. Match the following : A- Managed device : B- 193. Match the following A- Functional
Managed object: C- Managed processes: 1- requirements: B- Functional scope : C-
Type of node residing on a network, such as Function-point count: D- Function-related
a computer, printer or routers that contain a measures: 1- It describe the functionality or
management agent. 2- Characteristic of a services that system is expected to provide.
managed device that can be monitored, 2- Range to which a system component is
modified or controlled. 3- It is a defined capable of being applied. 3- These are
language independent productive measure..
process model. Procedures used are
4- It is related to the overall functionality of
defined and scheduling and relationship
the delivered software.
between them is defined.
(A) A-4,B-2,C-3,D-1 (B) A-2,B-1,C-3,D-4
(A) A-1, B-3,C-2 (B) A-1,B-2,C-3 (C) A-1,B-3,C-2,D-4 (D) A-1,B-2,C-3,D-4
(C) A-2,B-3,C-1 (D) A-3,B-2,C-1
194. Lehmans Second Law (Lehman and
190. Goal is Belady 1985) is
(A) Extent to which a system or component (A) Continuing change: A program used in
performs a broad range of functions. real-world environment must change
(B) The objective of an organization to necessarily or become progressively
achieve. less useful in that environment.
(C) Methods and techniques for converting (B) Increase complexity: As an evolving
data to or from graphic display via program change, its strictures tend to
computers. become more complex. Extra resources
(D) None of these must be devoted to preserving and
simplifying the structure.
191. Implementation phase is (C) Large program evolution: Program
(A) Period in the software life cycle in which evolution is a self-regulating process.
a software product is created from (D) None of these
design documentation and debugged.* 195. Hazard probability
(B) Period in the software life cycle in which (A) Hazard cannot arise due system design.
a software product is integrated in its (B) The probability of the event occurring
operational environment, and tested in which create a hazard.
this environment to ensure it performs (C) An assessment of the worst possible
as required. damage, which could result from a
(C) Period in the software life cycle during particular hazard.
which the basic version of a software (D) A condition with the potential for causing
product is adapted to a specified set of or contributing to an accident.
operational environments and is 196. Flexibility
distributed to a customer base. (A) The software and hardware system
(D) None of these architectures that provide explicit
support for tolerance, which includes
192. Evolvability is software redundancy and fault-
(A) Trustworthiness with which a system or tolerance controller that detects
component can be modified to take problems and supports fault recovery
advantage of new software or hardware (B) It is an initial step for requirements
technologies. engineering process, includes the
(B) An error of some kind or an unexpected outline description of system, its use in
event occurs during the execution of a an organization and recommending the
program system feasibility.
(C) Trustworthiness with which a system or
(C) Here the objective of the process is to
component can be modified for use in
work with uses to explore their applications or environments other than
requirement and deliver a final system. those for which it was specifically
(D) Possible loss or harm in computing designed.
system. (D) None of these
197. Extendibility is 201. Manufacturing phase is

(A) Trustworthiness with which a system or (A) Period in the software life cycle in which
component can be modified to increase a software product is created from
its storage or functional capacity design documentation and debugged.
(B) Pertaining to a system/component that (B) Period in the software life cycle in which
a software product is integrated in its
automatically places itself in a safe
operational environment, and tested in
operating mode in the event of a failure.
this environment to ensure it performs
(C) Pertaining to a system or component as required.
that continues to provide partial (C) Period in the software life cycle during
operational capability in the event of which the basic version of a software
certain failures. product is adapted to a specified set of
(D) None of these operational environments and is
198. Generality is distributed to a customer base.
(A) Extent to which a system or component (D) None of these
performs a broad range of functions. 202. Human engineering is
(B) The objective of an organization to (A) It is concerned with the design,
evaluation, and implementation of
achieve.
interactive computing systems for
(C) Methods and techniques for converting human use and with the study of major
data to or from graphic display via phenomena surrounding them.
computers. (B) Extent to which a software product fulfills
(D) None of these its purpose without wasting users time/
energy/degrading their morale.
199. Feasibility studies (C) Human behavior that results in the
(A) The software and hardware system introduction of faults into a system.
architectures that provide explicit (D) None of these
support for tolerance, which includes 203. Hazard severity
software redundancy and fault- (A) Hazard cannot arise due system design.
tolerance controller that detects (B) The probability of the event occurring
which create a hazard.
problems and supports fault recovery
(C) An assessment of the worst possible
(B) It is an initial step for requirements damage, which could result from a
engineering process, includes the particular hazard.
outline description of system, its use in (D) A condition with the potential for causing
an organization and recommending the or contributing to an accident.
system feasibility. 204. Latency is
(C) Trustworthiness with which a system or (A) Ability of two or more systems, to
component can be modified for use in exchange information and to use the
information that has been exchanged.
applications or environments other than
(B) Time taken to respond to an event.
those for which it was specifically (C) Either the hazard not arises, if arise; it
designed. will not result in an accident.
200. Fan-in is referred to 205. Fault tree analysis is
(A) It is a measure of number of function (A) It is the process of modifying the state
that calls some other function. space of the system so that the effects
of the fault are minimized and system
(B) It is measure of number of functions,
which are called by a function. degraded state.
(C) In it server is only responsible for data (B) Capacity of a system or component to
management. continue normal operation despite the
(D) None of these presence of hardware or software faults.
(C) It is the widely used hazard technique analysis. It is abstract and only defines the
(D) Incorrect step, process, or data principal process activities and deliverables.
definition in a computer program 3-Specifications expressed in a language
206. Lehmans Fourth Law (Lehman and Belady whose vocabulary, syntax and semantics are
1985) is formally defined. 4-It is more common to
(A) Organizational stability: Over a waterfall model, but here the development
programs lifetime, its rate of process is based on formal mathematical
development is approximately constant transformation of a system specification to
and independent of the resources an exactable program.
devoted to system development. (A) A-1,B-2,C-3,D-4
(B) Increase complexity: As an evolving (B) A-4,B-2,C-3,D-1
program change, its strictures tend to (C) A-2,B-1,C-3,D-4
become more complex. Extra resources (D) A-1,B-3,C-2,D-4
must be devoted to preserving and 210. Lehmans First Law (Lehman and Belady
simplifying the structure. 1985) is
(C) Large program evolution: Program (A) Continuing change: A program used in
evolution is a self-regulating process. real-world environment must change
(D) None of these necessarily or become progressively
207. Human error is less useful in that environment.
(A) It is concerned with the design, (B) Increase complexity: As an evolving
evaluation, and implementation of program change, its strictures tend to
interactive computing systems for become more complex. Extra resources
human use and with the study of major must be devoted to preserving and
phenomena surrounding them. simplifying the structure.
(B) Extent to which a software product fulfills (C) Large program evolution: Program
its purpose without wasting users time/ evolution is a self-regulating process.
energy/degrading their morale. (D) None of these
(C) Human behavior that results in the 211. Graphics
introduction of faults into a system. (A) Extent to which a system or component
(D) None of these performs a broad range of functions.
208. Fault-tolerant architectures is (B) The objective of an organization to
(A) The software and hardware system achieve.
architectures that provide explicit (C) Methods and techniques for converting
support for tolerance, which includes data to or from graphic display via
software redundancy and fault- computers.
tolerance controller that detects (D) None of these
problems and supports fault recovery*
(B) It is an initial step for requirements 212. Intolerable risk is
engineering process, includes the (A) Ability of two or more systems, to
outline description of system, its use in exchange information and to use the
an organization and recommending the information that has been exchanged.
system feasibility. (B) Time taken to respond to an event.
(C) Trustworthiness with which a system or (C) Either the hazard not arises, if arise; it
component can be modified for use in will not result in an accident.
applications or environments other than (D) None of these
those for which it was specifically 213. Hazard
designed.
(A) Hazard cannot arise due system design.
(D) None of these
(B) The probability of the event occurring
209. Match the following: A- Formal mathematical which create a hazard.
transformation: B- Formal process model: (C) An assessment of the worst possible
C-Formal Specifications: D-Formal System damage, which could result from a
development: 1- Here the formal mathema- particular hazard.
tical representation of the system takes (D) A condition with the potential for causing
place. 2- It is a starting point for process or contributing to an accident.
214. Human Computer Interaction is 218. Software implementation is

(A) It is concerned with the design, (A) It is concern with modification of existing
evaluation, and implementation of system to meet changing requirements.
interactive computing systems for (B) It is a process of converting system
human use and with the study of major specifications into an executable
phenomena surrounding them. system.
(B) Extent to which a software product fulfills (C) It analyzes and checks system
its purpose without wasting users time/ representation such as the
energy/degrading their morale. requirements document, design
(C) Human behavior that results in the diagrams and program source code.
introduction of faults into a system. (D) None of these
(D) None of these 219. An object-oriented model of system
215. Match the following : A- Maintenance control: architecture structures the system into a set
B- Maintenance prediction: C- Maintenance of loosely coupled objects with well-defined
process: 1-Cost of planning and scheduling interfaces.
hardware preventive maintenance, and (A) Object design models
software maintenance and upgrades, (B) Object interface design
managing the hardware and software (C) Object oriented models
baselines, and providing response for (D) None of these
hardware corrective maintenance. 2- 220. Interoperability is
Predicting the number of change requires a (A) Ability of two or more systems, to
system understanding and the relationship exchange information and to use the
between the system and external information that has been exchanged.
environment. 3- It is triggered by a set of (B) Time taken to respond to an event.
change requests from system users, (C) Either the hazard not arises, if arise; it
management or customers. will not result in an accident.
(A) A-1, B-3,C-2 (B) A-1,B-2,C-3 (D) None of these
(C) A-2,B-3,C-1 (D) A-3,B-2,C-1 221. Parkinsons Law is
216. Installation and checkout phase (A) The cost is determined by available
(A) Period in the software life cycle in which resources rather than by objective
a software product is created from assessment.
design documentation and debugged. (B) A program used in real-world
(B) Period in the software life cycle in which environment must change necessarily
a software product is integrated in its or become progressively less useful in
operational environment, and tested in that environment.
this environment to ensure it performs (C) As an evolving program change, its
as required. strictures tend to become more complex.
(C) Period in the software life cycle during (D) Program evolution is a self-regulating
which the basic version of a software process.
product is adapted to a specified set of 222. An object-oriented model of system
operational environments and is architecture structures the system into a set
distributed to a customer base. of loosely coupled objects with well-defined
(D) None of these interfaces.
217. A- Interface requirement: B-Interface testing: (A) Object design models
C-Interfaces design: 1- Requirements (B) Object interface design
derived from the interfaces of existing system (C) Object oriented models
and developing system. 2- It detects faults (D) None of these
that have been arise in the system because 223. Retirement phase is
of interface errors or invalid assumptions (A) Reason for a computer program to
about interface. 3-Activity concerned with the resume execution after a failure, using
interfaces of the software system contained status and results recorded at a
in the software requirements and software checkpoint.
interface requirements documentation. (B) Period of time in the software life cycle
(A) A-1,B-2,C-3 (B) A-2,B-1,C-3 during which support for a software
(C) A-2,B-3,C-1 (D) A-3,B-2,C-1 product is terminated.
(C) The fault detection mechanism is (C) The anticipate risks which night affect
initiated after the system state has been the project schedule or the quality of the
changed to check if a fault has occurred. software being developed and to take
(D) None of these action to avoid these risks.
224. Retrospective Fault detection is (D) None of these
(A) Reason for a computer program to 229. ROCOF (Rate of failure occurrence) is
resume execution after a failure, using (A) The probability that the system will
status and results recorded at a cause an accident
checkpoint. (B) Extent to which a system or component
(B) Period of time in the software life cycle can function correctly in the presence of
during which support for a software invalid inputs or stressful environment
product is terminated. conditions.
(C) The fault detection mechanism is (C) The frequency of occurrence with which
initiated after the system state has been unexpected behavior is likely to occur
changed to check if a fault has occurred* (D) None of these
(D) None of these 230. Software system is
225. Risk planning process (A) Associated with functionality of software
(A) Extent to which a software module can and constraints of operations defined.
be used in more than one computing (B) It consists of computer programs,
program configuration files that are used to set
(B) It involves regular monitoring of the risks up these programs system
identified and of new risks that develops. documentation for describing to
(C) It considers each of the key risks that structure of the system and used
are identified and identifies strategies documentation that describes use of the
to manage the risk. system.
(D) None of these (C) It involves executing an implementation
226. Software engineering method is of the software with test data and
(A) Associated with production of software examines the outputs of the software
as per specification and its operational behavior to check
(B) Structured approach to software that it is performing as required
development, whose aim is to facilitate (D) None of these
the production of high-quality software 231. Scalability is
in a cost-effective way. (A) Avoiding catastrophic moment
(C) An engineering discipline, concern with (B) Ease with which a system or component
software development. are modified to fit the problem area.
(D) None of these (C) It is a bounded area of responsibility.
227. Restart is (D) None of these
(A) Reason for a computer program to 232. Risk analysis process is
resume execution after a failure, using (A) Here each identified risk is analyzed and
status and results recorded at a prioritized
checkpoint. (B) It begins after all hazards are identified.
(B) Period of time in the software life cycle For each hazard, the outcome of the risk
during which support for a software assessment process is a statement of
product is terminated. acceptability.
(C) The fault detection mechanism is (C) The anticipate risks which night affect
initiated after the system state has been the project schedule or the quality of the
changed to check if a fault has occurred. software being developed and to take
(D) None of these action to avoid these risks.
228. Risk Management is (D) None of these
(A) Here each identified risk is analyzed and 233. Reusability is
prioritized (A) Extent to which a software module can
(B) It begins after all hazards are identified. be used in more than one computing
For each hazard, the outcome of the risk program.
assessment process is a statement of (B) It involves regular monitoring of the risks
acceptability. identified and of new risks that develops.
(C) It considers each of the key risks that (C) It is concerned with establishing a
are identified and also identifies confidence level in the system that might
strategies to manage the risk. vary from low to high
(D) None of these
(D) None of these
234. Safety argument is
(A) Associated with the role of people 239. Role is
involved in software process and the (A) Avoiding catastrophic moment
activities for which they are responsible. (B) Ease with which a system or component
(B) The most effective technique for are modified to fit the problem area.
demonstrating the safety of a system is (C) It is a bounded area of responsibility
proof by contradiction. (D) None of these
(C) It is concerned with establishing a 240. Robustness is
confidence level in the system that might
(A) The probability that the system will
vary from low to high
cause an accident
(D) None of these
(B) Extent to which a system or component
235. Risk assessment is can function correctly in the presence of
(A) Here each identified risk is analyzed and invalid inputs or stressful environment
prioritized conditions
(B) It begins after all hazards are identified. (C) The frequency of occurrence with which
For each hazard, the outcome of the risk unexpected behavior is likely to occur.
assessment process is a statement of (D) None of these
acceptability.
241. Risk monitoring process
(C) The anticipate risks which night affect
the project schedule or the quality of the (A) Extent to which a software module can
software being developed and to take be used in more than one computing
action to avoid these risks. program
(D) None of these (B) It involves regular monitoring of the risks
identified and of new risks that develops.
236. Risk is
(C) It considers each of the key risks that
(A) The probability that the system will
are identified and identifies strategies
cause an accident
to manage the risk.
(B) Extent to which a system or component
(D) None of these
can function correctly in the presence of
invalid inputs or stressful environment 242. These objects can be realized as parallel
conditions. process with method corresponding to
(C) The frequency of occurrence with which defined object operations.
unexpected behavior is likely to occur. (A) Self-descriptiveness
(D) None of these (B) Servers
237. Safety is (C) Simplicity
(A) Avoiding catastrophic moment (D) None of these
(B) Ease with which a system or component 243. Safety validation is
are modified to fit the problem area. (A) Associated with the role of people
(C) It is a bounded area of responsibility. involved in software process and the
(D) None of these activities for which they are responsible.
238. Role/action model is (B) The most effective technique for
(A) Associated with the role of people demonstrating the safety of a system is
involved in software process and the proof by contradiction.
activities for which they are responsible (C) It is concerned with establishing a
(B) The most effective technique for confidence level in the system that might
demonstrating the safety of a system is vary from low to high
proof by contradiction. (D) None of these
244. Software process model 250. Software evolution is

(A) Time-period that begins when a (A) It is concern with modification of existing
software product is conceived and ends system to meet changing requirements.
when the software is no longer available (B) It is a process of converting system
for use. specifications into an executable
(B) Adaptive maintenance, performed to system.
make a computer program usable in a (C) It analyzes and checks system
changed environment. representation such as the require-
ments document, design diagrams and
(C) A simplified description of a software
program source code.
process that is presented from a
(D) None of these
particular perspective. 251. Software maintenance is
(D) None of these (A) It is the general process of changing
245. Extent to which a system or component system after it has been delivered. The
contains enough information to explain its changes can be to correct coding error
objectives and properties is referred as to correct design error, or adding new
(A) Self-descriptiveness components to system.
(B) Servers (B) It is concerned with deriving a numeric
(C) Simplicity value for some attribute of a software
(D) None of these product or a software process.
246. Degree to which a system or component has (C) It is any type of measurement, which
a design and implementation that is relates to software system, process and
straightforward and easy to understand is related documentation.
referred as (D) None of these
(A) Self-descriptiveness 252. Software Engineering is
(A) Associated with production of software
(B) Servers
as per specification
(C) Simplicity
(B) Structured approach to software
(D) None of these
development, whose aim is to facilitate
247. Software attributes are the production of high-quality software
(A) Maintainability (B) Reliability in a cost-effective way.
(C) Portability (D) All the above (C) An engineering discipline, concern with
248. Software measurement is software development.
(A) It is the general process of changing (D) None of these
system after it has been delivered. The 253. Software inspection is
changes can be to correct coding error (A) It is concern with modification of existing
to correct design error, or adding new system to meet changing requirements.
components to system. (B) It is a process of converting system
(B) It is concerned with deriving a numeric specifications into an executable system.
value for some attribute of a software (C) It analyzes and checks system
product or a software process. representation such as the require-
(C) It is any type of measurement, which ments document, design diagrams and
relates to software system, process and program source code.
related documentation. (D) None of these
254. Software life cycle is
(D) None of these
(A) Time-period that begins when a
249. Software development is
software product is conceived and ends
(A) Associated with production of software when the software is no longer available
as per specification for use.
(B) Structured approach to software (B) Adaptive maintenance, performed to
development, whose aim is to facilitate make a computer program usable in a
the production of high-quality software changed environment.
in a cost-effective way. (C) A simplified description of a software
(C) An engineering discipline, concern with process that is presented from a
software development. particular perspective.
255. Software requirements specification are (B) Here one sub system encapsulates a
(A) A set of activities and associated results set of procedures, which can be called
that produce a software product. by other sub-systems.
(B) It is concerned with re-implementing (C) It is concerned with studying existing
legacy system to make them more process to understand the relationship
maintainable. between different parts of the process.
(C) It is the official statement of what is (D) None of these
required of the system developers; it 260. Software metric is
includes uses requirements for a (A) It is the general process of changing
system and detailed specification of the system after it has been delivered. The
system requirements changes can be to correct coding error
(D) None of these. to correct design error, or adding new
256. Software migration and evolution is components to system.
(A) Time-period that begins when a (B) It is concerned with deriving a numeric
software product is conceived and ends value for some attribute of a software
when the software is no longer available product or a software process.
for use. (C) It is any type of measurement, which
(B) Adaptive maintenance, performed to relates to software system, process and
make a computer program usable in a related documentation.
(D) None of these
changed environment.
(C) A simplified description of a software 261. Software specification is
process that is presented from a (A) Associated with functionality of software
particular perspective. and constraints of operations defined.
(D) None of these (B) It consists of computer programs,
configuration files that are used to set
257. Software process is up these programs system documen-
(A) A set of activities and associated results tation for describing to structure of the
that produce a software product system and used documentation that
(B) It is concerned with re-implementing describes use of the system.
legacy system to make them more (C) It involves executing an implementation
maintainable. of the software with test data and
(C) It is the official statement of what is examines the outputs of the software
required of the system developers; it and its operational behavior to check
includes uses requirements for a that it is performing as required
system and detailed specification of the (D) None of these
system requirements 262. System is
(D) None of these. (A) The set of system services and
258. Software re-engineering is constraints in details
(B) System functions that restricts the use
(A) A set of activities and associated results
of objects to certain users.
that produce a software product.
(C) Purposeful collection of interrelated
(B) It is concerned with re-implementing components that work together to
legacy system to make them more achieve some objective.
maintainable (D) None of these
(C) It is the official statement of what is
263. Software testing is
required of the system developers; it
(A) Associated with functionality of software
includes uses requirements for a
and constraints of operations defined.
system and detailed specification of the (B) It consists of computer programs,
system requirements configuration files that are used to set
(D) None of these. up these programs system
259. Procedural interface documentation for describing to
(A) Trustworthiness with which a system structure of the system and used
are transferred from one hardware documentation that describes use of the
environment to another system.
(C) It involves executing an implementation (C) It is concerned with studying existing

of the software with test data and process to understand the relationship
examines the outputs of the software between different parts of the process.
and its operational behavior to check (D) None of these
that it is performing as required 270. Lehmans Third Law (Lehman and Belady
(D) None of these
1985) is
264. It is concerned with making decision about (A) Continuing change: A program used in
the best way for an organization that acquire real-world environment must change
a system and deciding on the best suppliers necessarily or become progressively
of that system. less useful in that environment.
(A) System procurement (B) Increase complexity: As an evolving
(B) System quality assessment
program change, its strictures tend to
(C) System release management
(D) System reliability become more complex. Extra resources
must be devoted to preserving and
265. It is responsible for deciding when the simplifying the structure.
system can be released to customers, (C) Large program evolution: Program
managing the process of creating the evolution is a self-regulating process.
release and distribution media and documen-
(D) None of these
ting the release.
(A) System procurement 271. Model is
(B) System quality assessment (A) These measurements need to be
(C) System release management collected to help answers to the
(D) System reliability questions and to confirm whether
266. Process analysis process improvements have achieved
(A) Trustworthiness with which a system the desired goal.
are transferred from one hardware (B) Approximation, representation, or
environment to another idealization of selected aspects of the
(B) Here one sub system encapsulates a structure, behavior, operation, or other
set of procedures, which can be called characteristics of a real-world process
by other sub-systems. (C) Extent to which a system or component
(C) It is concerned with studying existing facilitates the incorporation of changes,
process to understand the relationship once the nature of the desired change
between different parts of the process. has been determined.
267. System requirements are 272. Lehmans Fifth Law (Lehman and Belady
(A) The set of system services and 1985) is
constraints in details (A) Organizational stability: Over a pro-
(B) System functions that restricts the use grams lifetime, its rate of development
of objects to certain users. is approximately constant and
(C) Purposeful collection of interrelated independent of the resources devoted
components that work together to to system development.
achieve some objective.
(B) Conservation of familiarity: Over the
(D) None of these
lifetime of a system, the incremental
268. System security is change in each release is approxima-
(A) The set of system services and tely constant.
constraints in details (C) Large program evolution: Program
(B) System functions that restricts the use evolution is a self-regulating process.
of objects to certain users (D) None of these
(C) Purposeful collection of interrelated
components that work together to 273. Match the following : A- Maintenance control:
achieve some objective. B-Maintenance measures: C-Maintenance
(D) None of these personnel : 1-Cost of planning and
269. Portability scheduling hardware preventive main-
(A) Trustworthiness with which a system tenance, and software maintenance and
are transferred from one hardware upgrades, managing the hardware and
environment to another software baselines, and providing response
(B) Here one sub system encapsulates a for hardware corrective maintenance. 2-
set of procedures, which can be called Measures that address how easily a system
by other sub-systems. can be repaired or changed. 3-Number of
personnel needed to maintain all aspects Answer Sheet

of a computer system, including the support
personnel and facilities needed to support 1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (C)
that activity. 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (D)
(A) A-1, B-3,C-2 (B) A-1,B-2,C-3 11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (D) 15. (B)
(C) A-2,B-3,C-1 (D) A-3,B-2,C-1 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (A)
274. Organizational measures 21. (B) 22. (C) 23. (D) 24. (A) 25. (C)
(A) Extent to which a system or component 26. (C) 27. (C) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (A)
complies with standards 31. (D) 32. (B) 33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (D)
(B) Trustworthiness of operating the 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (D) 40. (D)
software. 41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (C) 44. (D) 45. (A)
(C) Measures that estimates system cost 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (C) 49. (D) 50. (B)
to operate and maintain 51. (C) 52. (A) 53. (D) 54. (D) 55. (A)
(D) None of these 56. (C) 57. (C) 58. (C) 59. (D) 60. (D
275. Metric is 61. (D) 62. (D) 63. (A) 64. (B) 65. (B)
(A) These measurements need to be 66. (A) 67. (C) 68. (D) 69. (A) 70. (C)
collected to help answers to the 71. (A) 72. (A) 73. (A) 74. (D) 75. (C)
questions and to confirm whether 76. (D) 77. (D) 78. (C) 79. (A) 80. (D)
process improvements have achieved 81. (A) 82. (A) 83. (B) 84. (B) 85. (C)
the desired goal. 86. (A) 87. (A) 88. (A) 89. (A) 90. (A)
(B) Approximation, representation, or 91. (D) 92. (C) 93. (A) 94. (B) 95. (A)
idealization of selected aspects of the 96. (A) 97. (A) 98. (A) 99. (B) 100. (B)
structure, behavior, operation, or other 101. (A) 102. (A) 103. (B) 104. (D) 105. (A)
characteristics of a real-world process 106. (A) 107. (A) 108. (B) 109. (C) 110. (C)
(C) Extent to which a system or component 111. (A) 112. (A) 113. (C) 114. (B) 115. (A)
facilitates the incorporation of changes, 116. (B) 117. (B) 118. (D) 119. (A) 120. (A)
once the nature of the desired change 121. (B) 122. (A) 123. (C) 124. (C) 125. (A)
has been determined. 126. (B) 127. (C) 128. (D) 129. (A) 130. (C)
(D) None of these 131. (B) 132. (D) 133. ( A) 134. (B) 135. (C)
276. It shows the objects and object classes in a 136. (A) 137. (A) 138. (B) 139. (D) 140. (C)
system and the relationship between these 141. (D) 142. (A) 143. (B) 144. (C) 145. (C)
entities. 146. (D) 147. (B) 148. (A) 149. (A) 150. (A)
(A) Object design models 151. (C) 152. (A) 153. (A) 154. (C) 155. (A)
(B) Object interface design 156. (D) 157. (B) 158. (B) 159. (C) 160. (C)
(C) Object oriented models 161. (B) 162. (D) 163. (A) 164. (B) 165. (C)
(D) None of these 166. (D) 167. (C) 168. (A) 169. (B) 170. (B)
277. It is concerned with specifying the details of 171. (B) 172. (C) 173. (B) 174. (C) 175. (A)
interface to an object or to a group of objects 176. (D) 177. (A) 178. (B) 179. (B) 180. (A)
(A) Object design models 181. (D) 182. (A) 183. (C) 184. (A) 185. (B)
(B) Object interface design 186. (A) 187. (A) 188. (D) 189. (B) 190. (B)
(C) Object oriented models 191. (A) 192. (A) 193. (D) 194. (B) 195. (B)
(D) None of these 196. (C) 197. (A) 198. (A) 199. (B) 200. (A)
201. (C) 202. (B) 203. (C) 204. (B) 205. (C)
278. Modifiability is 206. (A) 207. (C) 208. (A) 209. (A) 210. (A)
(A) These measurements need to be
211. (C) 212. (C) 213. (D) 214. (A) 215. (B)
collected to help answers to the 216. (B) 217. () 218. (B) 219. (C) 220. (A)
questions and to confirm whether
221. (A) 222. (C) 223. (B) 224. (C) 225. (C)
process improvements have achieved
226. (B) 227. (A) 228. (C) 229. (C) 230. (B)
the desired goal. 231. (B) 232. (A) 233. (A) 234. (B) 235. (B)
(B) Approximation, representation, or
236. (A) 237. (A) 238. (A) 239. (C) 240. (B)
idealization of selected aspects of the
241. (B) 242. (B) 243. (C) 244. (C) 245. (A)
structure, behavior, operation, or other 246. (C) 247. (D) 248. (B) 249. (A) 250. (A)
characteristics of a real-world process*
251. (A) 252. (C) 253. (A) 254. (A) 255. (C)
(C) Extent to which a system or component
256. (B) 257. (A) 258. (B) 259. (B) 260. (A)
facilitates the incorporation of changes, 261. (A) 262. (C) 263. (C) 264. (A) 265. (C)
once the nature of the desired change
266. (C) 267. (A) 268. (B) 269. (A) 270. (C)
has been determined.
271. (B) 272. (B) 273. (B) 274. (C) 275. (A)
(D) None of these 276. (A) 277. (B) 278. (C)
DATA STRUCTURES &
ALGORITHMS
1. Each data item in a record may be a group 8. In a binary tree, certain null entries are re-
item composed of sub-items; those items placed by special pointers which point to
which are indecomposable are called nodes higher in tree for efficiency. These
(A) Elementary items special pointers are called
(B) Atoms (A) Leaf (B) Branch
(C) Scalars (C) Path (D) Thread
(D) All of above
9. In a graph if e=(u, v) means
2. Which of the following statement is false ?
(A) e begins at u and ends at v
(A) Arrays are dense lists and static data
(B) u is processor and v is successor
structure
(C) both B and C are true
(B) Data elements in linked list need not be
stored in adjacent space in memory (D) none is true
(C) Pointers store the next data element of 10. If every node u in G is adjacent to every other
a list node v in G, A graph is said to be
(D) Linked lists are collection of the nodes (A) Isolated (B) Complete
that contain information part and next (C) Finite (D) Strongly connected
pointer
11. A variable P is called pointer if
3. Binary search algorithm cannot be applied (A) P points to the address of first element
to in DATA
(A) Sorted binary trees (B) P can store only memory addresses
(B) Sorted linear array (C) P contain the DATA and the address of
(C) Pointer array
DATA
(D) Sorted linked list
(D) P contains the address of an element
4. When new data are to be inserted into a data in DATA.
structure, but there is no available space;
12. The Worst case occur in linear search algo-
this situation is usually called
(A) Housefull (B) Saturated rithm when
(C) Underflow (D) Overflow (A) Item is not in the array at all
(B) Item is the last element in the array
5. The situation when in a linked list
(C) Item is the last element in the array or is
START=NULL is
(A) Underflow (B) Overflow not there at all
(C) Housefull (D) Saturated (D) None of above
6. The following is two-way list 13. The Average case occur in linear search al-
(A) Grounded header list gorithm
(B) Circular header list (A) When Item is somewhere in the middle
(C) Linked list with header and trailer nodes of the array
(D) None of above (B) When Item is not in the array at all
7. The following name does not relate to stacks (C) When Item is the last element in the ar-
(A) FIFO lists (B) LIFO list ray
(C) Piles (D) Push-down lists (D) All the above
14. The complexity of the average case of an 24. When in order traversing a tree resulted E A
algorithm is C K F H D B G; the preorder traversal would
(A) Much more complicated to analyze than return
that of worst case (A) FAEKCDBHG (B) FAEKCDHGB
(B) Much more simpler to analyze than that
(C) EAFKHDCBG (D) FEAKDCHBG
of worst case
(C) Sometimes more complicated and 25. When representing any algebraic expression
some other times simpler than that of E the following uses only binary operations
worst case in a 2-tree
(D) None of the above (A) the variable in E will appear as external
nodes and operations in internal nodes
15. The following data structure allows deleting (B) the operations in E will appear as exter-
data elements from front and inserting at rear nal nodes and variables in internal
(A) Stacks (B) Queues nodes
(C) Deques (D) Binary search tree (C) the variables and operations in E will
16. This data structure allows deletions at both appear only in internal nodes
ends of the list but insertion at only one end. (D) None of the above
(A) Input-restricted deque 26. When converting binary tree into extended
(B) Output-restricted deque binary tree, all the original nodes in binary
(C) Priority queues tree are
(D) None of the above (A) internal nodes on extended tree
(B) external nodes on extended tree
17. The following data structure is non-linear (C) vanished on extended tree
type (D) None of the above
(A) Strings (B) Lists
27. The post order traversal of a binary tree is
(C) Stacks (D) None of the above DEBFCA. Find out the pre order traversal
18. The following data structure is linear type (A) ABFCDE (B) ADBFEC
(A) Strings (B) Lists (C) ABDECF (D) None of the above
(C) Queues (D) All of the above 28. Which of the following data structure is lin-
19. To represent hierarchical relationship be- ear data structure?
tween elements, the following data structure (A) Trees (B) Graphs
is not suitable (C) Arrays (D) None of the above
(A) Deque (B) Priority 29. The operation of processing each element
(C) Tree (D) All of above in the list is known as
(A) Merging (B) Inserting
20. A binary tree whose every node has either
(C) Traversal (D) All the above
zero or two children is called
30. Finding the location of the element with a
(A) Complete binary tree
given value is called
(B) Binary search tree
(A) Traversal (B) Search
(C) Extended binary tree (C) Sort (D) All of the above
(D) None of above
31. Arrays are best data structures for
21. The depth of a complete binary tree is given (A) relatively permanent collections of data
by (B) the size of the structure and the data in
(A) Dn = n log2n (B) Dn = n log2n+1 the structure are constantly changing
(C) Dn = log2n (D) Dn = log2n+1 (C) both of above situation
(D) none of above situation
22. The complexity of Binary search algorithm is
(A) O(n) (B) O(log ) 32. Linked lists are best suited for
(C) O(n log n) (D) None of the above (A) relatively permanent collections of data
(B) the size of the structure and the data in
23. The complexity of Bubble sort algorithm is the structure are constantly changing
(A) O(n) (B) O (n2) (C) both of above situation
(C) O(n log n) (D) None of the above (D) none of above situation
33. Each array declaration need not give, implicitly 41. Which of the following is not a limitation of
or explicitly, the information about the binary search algorithm ?
(A) name of array (A) binary search algorithm is not efficient
(B) data type of array when the data elements are more than
(C) first data from the set to be stored 1000.
(D) index set of the array (B) must use a sorted array
34. The complexity of merge sort algorithm is (C) requirement of sorted array is expen-
(A) O(n) (B) O(log n) sive when a lot of insertion and dele-
(C) O(n log n) (D) None of these tions are needed
35. The indirect change of the values of a vari- (D) there must be a mechanism to access
able in one module by another module is middle element directly
called 42. Two dimensional arrays are also called
(A) internal change (A) tables arrays
(B) inter-module change (B) matrix arrays
(C) side effect (C) both of the above
(D) all the above (D) none of the above
36. Two main measures for the efficiency of an 43. The term push and pop is related to the
algorithm are (A) Array (B) Lists
(A) Time and space (C) stacks (D) all of above
(B) Processor and memory
44. A data structure where elements can be
(C) Complexity and capacity
added or removed at either end but not in
(D) Data and space
the middle is referred as
37. The time factor when determining the effi- (A) Linked lists (B) Stacks
ciency of algorithm is measured by (C) Queues (D) Deque
(A) Counting the number of key operations
(B) Counting the number of statements 45. The following sorting algorithm is of divide-
(C) Counting the kilobytes of algorithm and-conquer type
(D) None of the above (A) Bubble sort (B) Insertion sort
(C) Quick sort (D) None of the above
38. The space factor when determining the effi-
ciency of algorithm is measured by 46. An algorithm that calls itself directly or indi-
(A) Counting the maximum memory rectly is known as
needed by the algorithm (A) Recursion
(B) Counting the minimum memory needed (B) Polish notation
by the algorithm (C) Traversal algorithm
(C) Counting the average memory needed (D) None of the above
by the algorithm 47. The elements of an array are stored suc-
(D) Counting the maximum disk space cessively in memory cells because
needed by the algorithm (A) by this way computer can keep track only
39. All the above* Which of the following data the address of the first element and the
structures are indexed structures addresses of other elements can be
(A) linear arrays (B) linked lists calculated
(C) both of above (D) none of above (B) the architecture of computer memory
40. Which of the following is not the required does not allow arrays to store other than
condition for binary search algorithm serially
(A) there must be mechanism to delete and/ (C) A and B both false
or insert elements in list (D) A and B both true
(B) the list must be sorted 48. The memory address of the first element of
(C) there should be the direct access to the an array is called
middle element in any sublist (A) base address (B) floor address
(D) none of the above (C) foundation address (D) first address
49. The memory address of fifth element of an 54. A connected graph T without any cycles is
array can be calculated by the formula called
(A) LOC(Array[5])=Base(Array[5])+(5-lower (A) tree graph (B) free tree
boun(D), where w is the number of (C) tree (D) All of the above
words per memory cell for the array 55. The difference between linear array and a
(B) LOC(Array[5])=Base(Array[4])+(5-Upper record is
boun(D), where w is the number of (A) An array is suitable for homogeneous
words per memory cell for the array data but hte data items in a record may
(C) LOC(Array[5]=Base(Array)+w(5-lower have different data type
boun(D), where w is the number of (B) In a record, there may not be a natural
words per memory cell for the array ordering in opposed to linear array.
(D) None of the above (C) A record form a hierarchical structure but
a linear array does not
50. The following data structure cant store the (D) All of above
non-homogeneous data elements
56. The following data structure store the ho-
(A) Arrays (B) Records
mogeneous data elements
(C) Pointers (D) None of the above
(A) Arrays (B) Records
51. The in order traversal of tree will yield a sorted (C) Pointers (D) None of the above
listing of elements of tree in 57. Which of the following data structure is not
(A) Binary trees linear data structure?
(B) Binary search trees (A) Arrays (B) Linked lists
(C) Heaps (C) A and B are true (D) None is true
(D) None of above
Answer Sheet
52. In a Heap tree values in a node is greater
1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (A)
than 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (B)
(A) every value in left sub tree and smaller 11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (B)
than right sub tree 16. (A) 17. (D) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (C)
(B) every value in children of it 21. (D) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (A)
(C) Both of above conditions are true 26. (A) 27. (C) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (B)
(D) None of above conditions are true 31. (A) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (C) 35. (C)
53. In a graph if e=[u, v], Then u and v are called 36. (A) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (A)
(A) endpoints of e 41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (C) 44. (D) 45. (B)
(B) adjacent nodes 46. (A) 47. (A) 48. (A) 49. (C) 50. (A)
(C) neighbors 51. (B) 52. (B) 53. (D) 54. (D) 55. (D)
(D) all of the above 56. (B) 57. (C)
DATA MINING AND DATA

WARE HOUSE
1. Adaptive system management is 5. Bayesian classifiers is
(A) It uses machine-learning techniques. (A) A class of learning algorithm that tries
Here program can learn from past to find an optimum classification of a
experience and adapt themselves to set of examples using the probabilistic
new situations theory.
(B) Computational procedure that takes (B) Any mechanism employed by a learning
some value as input and produces system to constrain the search space
some value as output. of a hypothesis.
(C) Science of making machines performs (C) An approach to the design of learning
tasks that would require intelligence algorithms that is inspired by the fact
when performed by humans that when people encounter new
(D) None of these situations, they often explain them by
2. Algorithm is reference to familiar experiences,
(A) It uses machine-learning techniques. adapting the explanations to fit the new
Here program can learn from past situation.
experience and adapt themselves to (D) None of these
new situations 6. Bias is
(B) Computational procedure that takes (A) A class of learning algorithm that tries
some value as input and produces to find an optimum classification of a
some value as output set of examples using the probabilistic
(C) Science of making machines performs theory.
tasks that would require intelligence (B) Any mechanism employed by a learning
when performed by humans system to constrain the search space
(D) None of these of a hypothesis.
3. Background knowledge referred to (C) An approach to the design of learning
(A) Additional acquaintance used by a algorithms that is inspired by the fact
learning algorithm to facilitate the that when people encounter new
learning process situations, they often explain them by
(B) A neural network that makes use of a reference to familiar experiences,
hidden layer. adapting the explanations to fit the new
(C) It is a form of automatic learning. situation.
4. Back propagation networks is 7. Case-based learning is
(A) Additional acquaintance used by a (A) A class of learning algorithm that tries
learning algorithm to facilitate the to find an optimum classification of a
learning process set of examples using the probabilistic
(B) A neural network that makes use of a theory.
hidden layer (B) Any mechanism employed by a learning
(C) It is a form of automatic learning. system to constrain the search space
(D) None of these of a hypothesis.
(C) An approach to the design of learning (C) A mathematical conception of space

algorithms that is inspired by the fact where the location of a point is given by
that when people encounter new reference to its distance from two or
situations, they often explain them by three axes intersecting at right angles
reference to familiar experiences, (D) None of these
adapting the explanations to fit the new
13. Cardinality of an attribute is
situation.
(A) It is a memory buffer that is used to store
(D) None of these
data that is needed frequently by an
8. Binary attribute are algorithm in order to minimize input/
(A) This takes only two values. In general, output traffic
these values will be 0 and 1 and they (B) The number of different values that a
can be coded as one bit given attribute can take
(B) The natural environment of a certain
(C) A mathematical conception of space
species
where the location of a point is given by
(C) Systems that can be used without
reference to its distance from two or
knowledge of internal operations
three axes intersecting at right angles
(D) None of these
(D) None of these
9. Biotope are
14. Cartesian space is
(A) This takes only two values. In general,
these values will be 0 and 1 and they (A) It is a memory buffer that is used to store
can be coded as one bit. data that is needed frequently by an
(B) The natural environment of a certain algorithm in order to minimize input/
species output traffic
(C) Systems that can be used without (B) The number of different values that a
knowledge of internal operations given attribute can take
(D) None of these (C) A mathematical conception of space
where the location of a point is given by
10. Black boxes
reference to its distance from two or
(A) This takes only two values. In general,
three axes intersecting at right angles
these values will be 0 and 1 and they
(D) None of these
can be coded as one bit.
(B) The natural environment of a certain 15. Classification is
species (A) A subdivision of a set of examples into a
(C) Systems that can be used without number of classes
knowledge of internal operations (B) A measure of the accuracy, of the
(D) None of these classification of a concept that is given
11. Artificial intelligence is by a certain theory
(A) It uses machine-learning techniques. (C) The task of assigning a classification
Here program can learn from past to a set of examples
experience and adapt themselves to (D) None of these
new situations 16. Classification accuracy is
(B) Computational procedure that takes (A) A subdivision of a set of examples into a
some value as input and produces number of classes
some value as output. (B) Measure of the accuracy, of the
(C) Science of making machines performs classification of a concept that is given
tasks that would require intelligence by a certain theory
when performed by humans (C) The task of assigning a classification
(D) None of these to a set of examples
12. Cache is (D) None of these
(A) It is a memory buffer that is used to store 17. Cluster is
data that is needed frequently by an (A) Group of similar objects that differ
algorithm in order to minimize input/ significantly from other objects
output traffic (B) Operations on a database to transform
(B) The number of different values that a or simplify data in order to prepare it for
given attribute can take a machine-learning algorithm
(C) Symbolic representation of facts or 24. Data dictionary is

ideas from which information can (A) Large collection of data mostly stored
potentially be extracted in a computer system
(D) None of these (B) The removal of noise errors and
18. Data is incorrect input from a database
(A) Group of similar objects that differ (C) The systematic description of the
significantly from other objects
syntactic structure of a specific
(B) Operations on a database to transform
or simplify data in order to prepare it for database. It describes the structure of
a machine-learning algorithm the attributes the tables and foreign key
(C) Symbolic representation of facts or relationships.
ideas from which information can (D) None of these
potentially be extracte(D) 25. Data mining is
(D) None of these
(A) The actual discovery phase of a
19. A definition of a concept isif it recognizes knowledge discovery process
all the instances of that concept.
(B) The stage of selecting the right data for
(A) Complete (B) Consistent
(C) Constant (D) None of these a KDD process
(C) A subject-oriented integrated time-
20. A definition or a concept is if
variant non-volatile collection of data in
it does not classify any examples as
coming within the concept support of management
(A) Complete (B) Consistent (D) None of these
(C) Constant (D) None of these 26. Data selection is
21. Classification task referred to (A) The actual discovery phase of a
(A) A subdivision of a set of examples into a knowledge discovery process
number of classes (B) The stage of selecting the right data for
(B) A measure of the accuracy, of the
a KDD process
classification of a concept that is given
by a certain theory (C) A subject-oriented integrated time-
(C) The task of assigning a classification variant non-volatile collection of data in
to a set of examples support of management
22. Database is 27. Data warehouse is
(A) Large collection of data mostly stored (A) The actual discovery phase of a
in a computer system
knowledge discovery process
(B) The removal of noise errors and
incorrect input from a database (B) The stage of selecting the right data for
(C) The systematic description of the a KDD process
syntactic structure of a specific (C) A subject-oriented integrated time-
database. It describes the structure of variant non-volatile collection of data in
the attributes the tables and foreign key support of management
relationships. (D) None of these
(D) None of these
23. Data cleaning is 28. Coding is
(A) Large collection of data mostly stored (A) Group of similar objects that differ
in a computer system significantly from other objects
(B) The removal of noise errors and (B) Operations on a database to transform
incorrect input from a database or simplify data in order to prepare it for
(C) The systematic description of the a machine-learning algorithm
syntactic structure of a specific
(C) Symbolic representation of facts or
database. It describes the structure of
the attributes the tables and foreign key ideas from which information can
relationships. potentially be extracted
29. DB/2 is (C) An extremely complex molecule that

(A) A family of relational database manage- occurs in human chromosomes and
ment systems marketed by IBM that carries genetic information in the
(B) Interactive systems that enable decision form of genes.
makers to use databases and models (D) None of these
on a computer in order to solve ill- 34. DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid)
structured problems (A) It is hidden within a database and can
(C) It consists of nodes and branches only be recovered if one is given certain
starting from a single root node. Each clues (an example IS encrypted
node represents a test, or decision. information).
(D) None of these (B) The process of executing implicit
30. Decision support systems (DSS) is previously unknown and potentially
(A) A family of relational database useful information from dat (A)
management systems marketed by IBM (C) An extremely complex molecule that
(B) Interactive systems that enable decision occurs in human chromosomes and
makers to use databases and models that carries genetic information in the
on a computer in order to solve ill- form of genes.
structured problems (D) None of these
(C) It consists of nodes and branches 35. Enrichment is
starting from a single root node. Each (A) A stage of the KDD process in which
node represents a test, or decision. new data is added to the existing
(D) None of these selection
31. Decision trees is (B) The process of finding a solution for a
(A) A family of relational database problem simply by enumerating all
management systems marketed by IBM possible solutions according to some
(B) Interactive systems that enable decision pre-defined order and then testing them.
makers to use databases and models (C) The distance between two points as
on a computer in order to solve ill- calculated using the Pythagoras
structured problems theorem.
(C) It consists of nodes and branches (D) None of these
starting from a single root node. Each 36. Enumeration is referred to
node represents a test, or decision. (A) A stage of the KDD process in which
(D) None of these new data is added to the existing
32. Deep knowledge referred to selection.
(A) It is hidden within a database and can (B) The process of finding a solution for a
only be recovered if one is given certain problem simply by enumerating all
clues (an example IS encrypted possible solutions according to some
information) pre-defined order and then testing them
(B) The process of executing implicit (C) The distance between two points as
previously unknown and potentially calculated using the Pythagoras
useful information from dat(A) theorem.
(C) An extremely complex molecule that (D) None of these
occurs in human chromosomes and 37. Euclidean distance measure is
that carries genetic information in the (A) A stage of the KDD process in which
form of genes. new data is added to the existing
(D) None of these selection.
33. Discovery is (B) The process of finding a solution for a
(A) It is hidden within a database and can problem simply by enumerating all
only be recovered if one is given certain possible solutions according to some
clues (an example IS encrypted pre-defined order and then testing them.
information). (C) The distance between two points as
(B) The process of executing implicit calculated using the Pythagoras theo-
previously unknown and potentially rem
useful information from dat(A) (D) None of these
38. Heuristic is 43. Expert systems

(A) A set of databases from different (A) Combining different types of method or
vendors, possibly using different information
database paradigms (B) Approach to the design of learning
(B) An approach to a problem that is not algorithms that is structured along the
guaranteed to work but performs well in lines of the theory of evolution.
most cases. (C) Decision support systems that contain
(C) Information that is hidden in a database an Information base filled with the
and that cannot be recovered by a knowledge of an expert formulated in
simple SQL query. terms of if-then rules
39. Heterogeneous databases referred to 44. Extendible architecture is
(A) A set of databases from different (A) Modular design of a software application
vendors, possibly using different that facilitates the integration of new
database paradigms modules
(B) An approach to a problem that is not (B) Showing a universal law or rule to be
guaranteed to work but performs well in invalid by providing a counter example
most cases. (C) A set of attributes in a database table
(C) Information that is hidden in a database that refers to data in another table
and that cannot be recovered by a (D) None of these
simple SQL query.
(D) None of these 45. Falsification is
(A) Modular design of a software application
40. Hidden knowledge referred to
that facilitates the integration of new
(A) A set of databases from different
modules
vendors, possibly using different
(B) Showing a universal law or rule to be
database paradigms
invalid by providing a counter example
(B) An approach to a problem that is not
(C) A set of attributes in a database table
guaranteed to work but performs well in
that refers to data in another table
most cases.
(D) None of these
(C) Information that is hidden in a database
and that cannot be recovered by a 46. Foreign key is
simple SQL query. (A) Modular design of a software application
(D) None of these that facilitates the integration of new
41. Hybrid is modules
(A) Combining different types of method or (B) Showing a universal law or rule to be
information invalid by providing a counter example
(B) Approach to the design of learning (C) A set of attributes in a database table
algorithms that is structured along the that refers to data in another table
lines of the theory of evolution. (D) None of these
(C) Decision support systems that contain 47. Hybrid learning is
an Information base filled with the (A) Machine-learning involving different
knowledge of an expert formulated in techniques
terms of if-then rules. (B) The learning algorithmic analyzes the
(D) None of these examples on a systematic basis and
42. Evolutionary computation is makes incremental adjustments to the
(A) Combining different types of method or theory that is learned
information (C) Learning by generalizing from examples
(B) Approach to the design of learning (D) None of these
algorithms that is structured along the 48. Incremental learning referred to
lines of the theory of evolution. (A) Machine-learning involving different
(C) Decision support systems that contain techniques
an Information base filled with the (B) The learning algorithmic analyzes the
knowledge of an expert formulated in examples on a systematic basis and
terms of if-then rules. makes incremental adjustments to the
(D) None of these theory that is learned
(C) Learning by generalizing from examples 54. Integrated is

(D) None of these (A) The amount of information with in data
49. Information content is as opposed to the amount of redundancy
(A) The amount of information with in data or noise
(B) One of the defining aspects of a data
as opposed to the amount of redundancy
warehouse
or noise
(C) Restriction that requires data in one
(B) One of the defining aspects of a data
column of a database table to the a sub-
warehouse set of another-column.
(C) Restriction that requires data in one (D) None of these
column of a database table to the a sub-
55. Knowledge engineering is
set of another-column.
(A) The process of finding the right formal
(D) None of these
representation of a certain body of
50. Inclusion dependencies knowledge in order to represent it in a
(A) The amount of information with in data knowledge-based system
as opposed to the amount of redundancy (B) It automatically maps an external signal
or noise space into a systems internal
(B) One of the defining aspects of a data representational space. They are useful
warehouse in the performance of classification
(C) Restriction that requires data in one tasks.
column of a database table to the a sub- (C) A process where an individual learns
set of another-column how to carry out a certain task when
(D) None of these making a transition from a
situation in which the task cannot be
51. KDD (Knowledge Discovery in Databases) carried out to a situation in which the
is referred to same task under the same
(A) Non-trivial extraction of implicit circumstances can be carried out.
previously unknown and potentially (D) None of these
useful information from dat(A)
56. Kohonen self-organizing map referred to
(B) Set of columns in a database table that (A) The process of finding the right formal
can be used to identify each record representation of a certain body of
within this table uniquely. knowledge in order to represent it in a
(C) collection of interesting and useful knowledge-based system
patterns in a database (B) It automatically maps an external signal
(D) none of these space into a systems internal
52. Key is referred to representational space. They are useful
(A) Non-trivial extraction of implicit in the performance of classification
previously unknown and potentially tasks
useful information from dat(A) (C) A process where an individual learns
(B) Set of columns in a database table that how to carry out a certain task when
can be used to identify each record making a transition from a
situation in which the task cannot be
within this table uniquely
carried out to a situation in which the
(C) collection of interesting and useful
same task under the same
patterns in a database
circumstances can be carried out.
(D) none of these (D) None of these
53. Inductive learning is 57. Learning is
(A) Machine-learning involving different (A) The process of finding the right formal
techniques representation of a certain body of
(B) The learning algorithmic analyzes the knowledge in order to represent it in a
examples on a systematic basis and knowledge-based system
makes incremental adjustments to the (B) It automatically maps an external signal
theory that is learned space into a systems internal
(C) Learning by generalizing from examples representational space. They are useful
(D) None of these in the performance of classification tasks.
(C) A process where an individual learns (C) A prediction made using an extremely
how to carry out a certain task when simple method, such as always
making a transition from a situation in predicting the same output.
which the task cannot be carried out to (D) None of these
a situation in which the same task under 63. Naive prediction is
the same circumstances can be carried
(A) A class of learning algorithms that try to
out.
derive a Prolog program from examples
(D) None of these
(B) A table with n independent attributes can
58. Learning algorithm referrers to be seen as an n- dimensional space.
(A) An algorithm that can learn (C) A prediction made using an extremely
(B) A sub-discipline of computer science simple method, such as always
that deals with the design and predicting the same output.
implementation of learning algorithms. (D) None of these
(C) A machine-learning approach that
abstracts from the actual strategy of an 64. Knowledge is referred to
individual algorithm and can therefore (A) Non-trivial extraction of implicit
be applied to any other form of machine previously unknown and potentially
learning. useful information from dat(A)
(D) None of these (B) Set of columns in a database table that
can be used to identify each record
59. Meta-learning is within this table uniquely.
(A) An algorithm that can learn
(C) collection of interesting and useful
(B) A sub-discipline of computer science
patterns in a database
that deals with the design and
(D) none of these
implementation of learning algorithms.
(C) A machine-learning approach that 65. Node is
abstracts from the actual strategy of an (A) A component of a network
individual algorithm and can therefore (B) In the context of KDD and data mining,
be applied to any other form of machine this refers to random errors in a
learning. database table.
(D) None of these (C) One of the defining aspects of a data
60. Machine learning is warehouse
(A) An algorithm that can learn (D) None of these
(B) A sub-discipline of computer science 66. Projection pursuit is
that deals with the design and (A) The result of the application of a theory
implementation of learning algorithms. or a rule in a specific case
(C) An approach that abstracts from the (B) One of several possible enters within a
actual strategy of an individual algorithm database table that is chosen by the
and can therefore be applied to any other designer as the primary means of
form of machine learning. accessing the data in the table.
(D) None of these (C) Discipline in statistics that studies ways
61. Inductive logic programming is to find the most interesting projections
(A) A class of learning algorithms that try to of multi-dimensional spaces
derive a Prolog program from examples* (D) None of these
(B) A table with n independent attributes can 67. Statistical significance is
be seen as an n- dimensional space. (A) The science of collecting, organizing,
(C) A prediction made using an extremely and applying numerical facts
simple method, such as always (B) Measure of the probability that a certain
predicting the same output. hypothesis is incorrect given certain
(D) None of these observations.
62. Multi-dimensional knowledge is (C) One of the defining aspects of a data
(A) A class of learning algorithms that try to warehouse, which is specially built
derive a Prolog program from examples around all the existing applications of
(B) A table with n independent attributes can the operational dat(A)
be seen as an n- dimensional space (D) None of these
68. Prediction is (C) Describes the structure of the contents

(A) The result of the application of a theory of a database.
or a rule in a specific case (D) None of these
(B) One of several possible enters within a 74. Massively parallel machine is
database table that is chosen by the (A) A programming language based on logic
designer as the primary means of (B) A computer where each processor has
accessing the data in the table. its own operating system, its own
(C) Discipline in statistics that studies ways memory, and its own hard disk
to find the most interesting projections (C) Describes the structure of the contents
of multi-dimensional spaces. of a database.
69. Primary key is 75. Meta-data is
(A) The result of the application of a theory (A) A programming language based on
or a rule in a specific case logic
(B) One of several possible enters within a (B) A computer where each processor has
database table that is chosen by the its own operating system, its own
designer as the primary means of memory, and its own hard disk.
accessing the data in the table (C) Describes the structure of the contents
(C) Discipline in statistics that studies ways of a database
to find the most interesting projections (D) None of these
of multi-dimensional spaces. 76. n(log n) is referred to
(D) None of these (A) A measure of the desired maximal
70. Noise is complexity of data mining algorithms
(A) A component of a network (B) A database containing volatile data used
(B) In the context of KDD and data mining, for the daily operation of an organization
this refers to random errors in a (C) Relational database management
database table. system
(C) One of the defining aspects of a data (D) None of these
warehouse 77. Operational database is
71. Quadratic complexity is complexity of data mining algorithms
(A) A reference to the speed of an algorithm, (B) A database containing volatile data used
which is quadratically dependent on the for the daily operation of an organization
size of the dat(A) (C) Relational database management
(B) Attributes of a database table that can system
take only numerical values. (D) None of these
(C) Tools designed to query a database. 78. Oracle is referred to
complexity of data mining algorithms
72. Query tools are
(B) A database containing volatile data used
(A) A reference to the speed of an algorithm,
for the daily operation of an organization
which is quadratically dependent on the
(C) Relational database management
size of the dat(A) system
(B) Attributes of a database table that can (D) None of these
take only numerical values.
(C) Tools designed to query a database. 79. Paradigm is
(D) None of these (A) General class of approaches to a
problem.
73. Prolog is (B) Performing several computations
(A) A programming language based on simultaneously.
logic (C) Structures in a database those are
(B) A computer where each processor has statistically relevant.
its own operating system, its own (D) Simple forerunner of modern neural
memory, and its own hard disk. networks, without hidden layers.
80. Patterns is (C) One of the defining aspects of a data

(A) General class of approaches to a warehouse, which is specially built
problem. around all the existing applications of
(B) Performing several computations the operational dat(A)
simultaneously. (D) None of these
(C) Structures in a database those are
statistically relevant 86. Search space
(D) Simple forerunner of modern neural (A) The large set of candidate solutions
networks, without hidden layers. possible for a problem
81. Parallelism is (B) The information stored in a database
(A) General class of approaches to a that can be, retrieved with a single query.
problem. (C) Worth of the output of a machine-
(B) Performing several computations learning program that makes it
simultaneously understandable for humans
(C) Structures in a database those are (D) None of these
statistically relevant.
(D) Simple forerunner of modern neural 87. Transparency
networks, without hidden layers. (A) The large set of candidate solutions
possible for a problem
82. Perceptron is
(A) General class of approaches to a (B) The information stored in a database
problem. that can be, retrieved with a single query.
(B) Performing several computations (C) Worth of the output of a machine-
simultaneously. learning program that makes it under-
(C) Structures in a database those are standable for humans
statistically relevant. (D) None of these
(D) Simple forerunner of modern neural 88. Quantitative attributes are
networks, without hidden layers. (A) A reference to the speed of an algorithm,
83. Shallow knowledge which is quadratically dependent on the
(A) The large set of candidate solutions size of the dat(A)
possible for a problem (B) Attributes of a database table that can
(B) The information stored in a database
take only numerical values.
that can be, retrieved with a single query.
(C) Tools designed to query a database.
(C) Worth of the output of a machine-
learning program that makes it under- (D) None of these
standable for humans 89. Unsupervised algorithms
(D) None of these (A) It do not need the control of the human
84. Statistics operator during their execution.
(A) The science of collecting, organizing, (B) An arrow in a multi-dimensional space.
and applying numerical facts It is a quantity usually characterized by
(B) Measure of the probability that a certain an ordered set of scalars.
hypothesis is incorrect given certain (C) The validation of a theory on the basis
observations. of a finite number of examples.
(C) One of the defining aspects of a data (D) None of these
warehouse, which is specially built
around all the existing applications of 90. Vector
the operational dat(A) (A) It do not need the control of the human
(D) None of these operator during their execution.
(B) An arrow in a multi-dimensional space.
85. Subject orientation
(A) The science of collecting, organizing, It is a quantity usually characterized by
and applying numerical facts an ordered set of scalars.
(B) Measure of the probability that a certain (C) The validation of a theory on the basis
hypothesis is incorrect given certain of a finite number of examples.
observations. (D) None of these
91. Verification 94. Synapse is

(A) It does not need the control of the (A) A class of graphic techniques used to
visualize the contents of a database
human operator during their execution.
(B) The division of a certain space into
(B) An arrow in a multi-dimensional space.
various areas based on guide points.
It is a quantity usually characterized by (C) A branch that connects one node to
an ordered set of scalars. another
(C) The validation of a theory on the basis (D) None of these
of a finite number of examples
(D) None of these
Answer Sheet
92. Visualization techniques are 1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (A)
(A) A class of graphic techniques used to 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (A)
visualize the contents of a database
16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (B)
(B) The division of a certain space into 21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (A)
various areas based on guide points. 26. (B) 27. (C) 28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (B)
(C) A branch that connects one node to 31. (C) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (A)
another 36. (B) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (C)
(D) None of these 41. (A) 42. (B) 43. (C) 44. (A) 45. (B)
46. (C) 47. (A) 48. (B) 49. (A) 50. (C)
93. Voronoi diagram 51. (A) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (B) 55. (A)
(A) A class of graphic techniques used to 56. (B) 57. (C) 58. (A) 59. (C) 60. (B)
visualize the contents of a database 61. (A) 62. (B) 63. (C) 64. (C) 65. (A)
(B) The division of a certain space into 66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (A) 69. (B) 70. (B)
various areas based on guide points. 71. (A) 72. (C) 73. (A) 74. (B) 75. (C)
76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (A) 80. (C)
(C) A branch that connects one node to
81. (B) 82. (D) 83. (B) 84. (A) 85. (C)
another 86. (A) 87. (C) 88. (B) 89. (A) 90. (B)
(D) None of these 91. (C) 92. (A) 93. (B) 94. (C)
ELECTRONICS DATA PROCESSING

1. The computers communicate by sending (C) It refers to means whereby sellers can
each other small of data communicate their offerings to potential
(A) Packets (B) Bags buyers.
(C) Bunch (D) None of these (D) None of these
2. Every computer in the network can 8. Electronic Commerce referred to
communicate
(A) The conduct of business with the
(A) directly with every other computer in the
network assistance of telecommunications and
(B) indirectly with other computer in the telecommunications-based tools
network (B) The conduct of commerce in goods and
(C) only to some computers in network services, with the assistance of
(D) none of these telecommunications and telecommuni-
3. Every computer in a network has a network cations-based tools
address, often called a (C) It refers to means whereby sellers can
(A) hardware address communicate their offerings to potential
(B) software address buyers.
(C) computer address (D) None of these
(D) none of these
4. A computer can be joined to more than one 9. Electronic catalogues referred to
network through (A) The conduct of business with the
(A) Gateways (B) Passages assistance of telecommunications and
(C) Connector (D) None of these telecommunications-based tools
5. The examples of TCP/IP are (B) The conduct of commerce in goods and
(A) HTTP (Hyper-Text Transfer Protocol) services, with the assistance of
(B) FTP (File Tranfer Protocol), telecommunications and telecommuni-
(C) SSH (Secure SHell) cations-based tools
(D) All the above (C) It refers to means whereby sellers can
6. It refers to a particular family of standards for communicate their offerings to potential
expressing the structured data that represent buyers
electronic commerce transactions; and (D) None of these
electronic auctions for a particular set of
mechanisms for setting prices. 10. It is an electronic commerce in digital goods
(A) Electronic data interchange (EDI) and services, intended for consumption by
(B) Electronic Publishing the human senses. It encompasses a
(C) Electronic Services Delivery (ES(D) range of formats, including text, structured
(D) None of these data, image, raster/bit-map and vector,
7. Electronic Business referred to moving image (animation and video), sound,
(A) The conduct of business with the and combinations of the above (multi-
assistance of telecommunications and
medi(A).
telecommunications-based tools
(B) The conduct of commerce in goods and (A) Electronic data interchange (EDI)
services, with the assistance of (B) Electronic Publishing
telecommunications and telecommuni- (C) Electronic Services Delivery (ESD)
cations-based tools (D) None of these
11. It is an electronic commerce in services, i.e. 15. In Ordering Phase

the provision of services with the assistance (A) the buyer and seller are concerned with
of telecommunications and telecommunica- the gathering of market intelligence.
tions-based tools. It excludes traffic in (B) a formal relationship is established
physical goods, and hence is concerned with between buyer and seller, including
applications of electronic business where, terms and conditions to be applied to
at least in principle, the entire activity can be
transactions under the contract.
performed electronically.
(A) Electronic data interchange (EDI) (C) this involves the placement and
(B) Electronic Publishing processing of purchase orders (or, in
(C) Electronic Services Delivery (ES(D) contractual terms, an offer), and
(D) None of these acknowledgement by the seller of its
12. In The Pre-Contractual Phase preparedness to deliver (in contractual
(A) the buyer and seller are concerned with terms, an acceptance).
the gathering of market intelligence (D) deals with the delivery of goods and/or
(B) a formal relationship is established the performance of services. In addition,
between buyer and seller, including some post-delivery functions may be
terms and conditions to be applied to involved, in particular inspection, and
transactions under the contract. acceptance or rejection.
(C) this involves the placement and
processing of purchase orders (or, in 16. Services are referred as
contractual terms, an offer), and (A) an identifiable physical entity
acknowledgement by the seller of its (B) an act, which is performed.
preparedness to deliver (in contractual (C) (A) and (B) both false
terms, an acceptance). (D) (A) and (B) both true
(D) deals with the delivery of goods and/or 17. In Logistics Phase
the performance of services. In addition, (A) the buyer and seller are concerned with
some post-delivery functions may be
the gathering of market intelligence.
involved, in particular inspection, and
acceptance or rejection. (B) a formal relationship is established
between buyer and seller, including
13. In Contractual Phase
terms and conditions to be applied to
(A) the buyer and seller are concerned with
the gathering of market intelligence. transactions under the contract.
(B) a formal relationship is established (C) this involves the placement and
between buyer and seller, including processing of purchase orders (or, in
terms and conditions to be applied to contractual terms, an offer), and
transactions under the contract. acknowledgement by the seller of its
(C) this involves the placement and preparedness to deliver (in contractual
processing of purchase orders (or, in terms, an acceptance).
contractual terms, an offer), and (D) deals with the delivery of goods and/or
acknowledgement by the seller of its the performance of services. In addition,
preparedness to deliver (in contractual some post-delivery functions may be
terms, an acceptance).
involved, in particular inspection, and
(D) deals with the delivery of goods and/or
acceptance or rejection.
the performance of services. In addition,
some post-delivery functions may be 18. In Settlement Phase
involved, in particular inspection, and (A) the goods or services are paid for.
acceptance or rejection. Relevant transactions include invoicing,
14. A physical item is one which may be delivered payment authorisation, payment, and
or performed remittance advice transmission.
(A) entirely through a telecommunications (B) the buyer and seller are concerned with
network the gathering of market intelligence.
(B) involves logistical activities such as the (C) a formal relationship is established
transportation of goods, or of the person between buyer and seller, including
and/or facilities whereby the service will terms and conditions to be applied to
be performed transactions under the contract.
(D) this involves the placement and 21. An audio-CD is

processing of purchase orders (or, in (A) a physical good
contractual terms, an offer), and
(B) a digital good
acknowledgement by the seller of its
preparedness to deliver (in contractual (C) (A) is false, (B) is true
terms, an acceptance). (D) (A) and (B) both true
19. Goods are referred as 22. An audio-file downloaded over the Internet
(A) an identifiable physical entity is
(B) an act, which is performed (A) a physical good
(C) (A) and (B) both true
(D) None is true (B) a digital good
(C) (A) is true, (B) is false
20. A digital item is one which may be delivered
or performed (D) (A) and (B) both true
(A) entirely through a telecommunications
network Answer Sheet
(B) involves logistical activities such as the
transportation of goods, or of the person 1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (D)
and/or facilities whereby the service will 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (B)
be performed 11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (C)
(C) (A) and (B) both false 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (A)
(D) None is true 21. (A) 22. (B)
PARALLEL COMPUTING
1. It is the simultaneous use of multiple (C) A program or set of instructions that is
compute resources to solve a computational executed by a processor.
problem (D) None of these
(A) Parallel computing 6. Shared Memory is
(B) Single processing (A) A computer architecture where all
(C) Sequential computing processors have direct access to
(D) None of these common physical memory
2. Parallel Execution (B) It refers to network based memory
(A) A sequential execution of a program, access for physical memory that is not
one statement at a time common.
(B) Execution of a program by more than (C) Parallel tasks typically need to exchange
one task, with each task being able to dat(A) There are several ways this can
execute the same or different statement be accomplished, such as through, a
at the same moment in time shared memory bus or over a network,
(C) A program or set of instructions that is however the actual event of data
executed by a processor. exchange is commonly referred to as
(D) None of these communications regardless of the
method employe(D)
3. Scalability refers to a parallel systems (D) None of these
(hardware and/or software) ability
(A) To demonstrate a proportionate 7. Distributed Memory
(A) A computer architecture where all
increase in parallel speedup with the
processors have direct access to
removal of some processors
common physical memory
(B) To demonstrate a proportionate
(B) It refers to network based memory
increase in parallel speedup with the
access for physical memory that is not
addition of more processors
common
(C) To demonstrate a proportionate (C) Parallel tasks typically need to exchange
decrease in parallel speedup with the dat(A) There are several ways this can
addition of more processors be accomplished, such as through, a
(D) None of these shared memory bus or over a network,
4. Parallel computing can include however the actual event of data
(A) Single computer with multiple exchange is commonly referred to as
processors communications regardless of the
(B) Arbitrary number of computers connec- method employe(D)
ted by a network (D) None of these
(C) Combination of both A and B 8. Parallel Overhead is
(D) None of these (A) Observed speedup of a code which has
5. Serial Execution been parallelized, defined as: wall-clock
(A) A sequential execution of a program, time of serial execution and wall-clock
one statement at a time time of parallel execution
(B) Execution of a program by more than (B) The amount of time required to coordi-
one task, with each task being able to nate parallel tasks. It includes factors
execute the same or different statement such as: Task start-up time, Synchro-
at the same moment in time nizations, Data communications.
(C) Refers to the hardware that comprises (C) Multiple processors can operate
a given parallel system - having many independently but some do not share
processors the same memory resources
9. Massively Parallel 14. In designing a parallel program, one has
(A) Observed speedup of a code which has to break the problem into discreet chunks
been parallelized, defined as: wall-clock of work that can be distributed to multiple
time of serial execution and wall-clock
tasks. This is known as
time of parallel execution
(B) The amount of time required to coordinate (A) Decomposition (B) Partitioning
parallel tasks. It includes factors such as: (C) Compounding (D) Both A and B
Task start-up time, Synchronizations, Data 15. Latency is
communications. (A) Partitioning in that the data associated
(C) Refers to the hardware that comprises with a problem is decompose(D) Each
a given parallel system - having many parallel task then works on a portion of
processors the dat(A)
(D) None of these
(B) Partitioning in that, the focus is on the
10. Fine-grain Parallelism is computation that is to be performed
(A) In parallel computing, it is a qualitative rather than on the data manipulated by
measure of the ratio of computation the computation. The problem is
to communication
decomposed according to the work that
(B) Here relatively small amounts of
computational work are done between must be done. Each task then performs
communication events a portion of the overall work.
(C) Relatively large amounts of (C) It is the time it takes to send a minimal
computational work are done (0 byte) message from one point to
between communication / synchroni- other point
zation events (D) None of these
(D) None of these 16. Domain Decomposition
11. In shared Memory (A) Partitioning in that the data associated
(A) Changes in a memory location effected with a problem is decompose(D) Each
by one processor do not affect all other parallel task then works on a portion of
processors. the dat(A)
(B) Changes in a memory location effected (B) Partitioning in that, the focus is on the
by one processor are visible to all other computation that is to be performed
processors rather than on the data manipulated by
(C) Changes in a memory location effected
the computation. The problem is
by one processor are randomly visible
decomposed according to the work that
to all other processors.
(D) None of these must be done. Each task then performs
a portion of the overall work.
12. In shared Memory: (C) It is the time it takes to send a minimal (0
(A) Here all processors access, all memory
byte) message from point A to point (B)
as global address space
(D) None of these
(B) Here all processors have individual
memory 17. Functional Decomposition:
(C) Here some processors access, all (A) Partitioning in that the data associated
memory as global address space and with a problem is decompose(D) Each
some not parallel task then works on a portion of
(D) None of these the dat(A)
13. In shared Memory (B) Partitioning in that, the focus is on the
(A) Multiple processors can operate computation that is to be performed
independently but share the same rather than on the data manipulated by
memory resources the computation. The problem is
(B) Multiple processors can operate decomposed according to the work that
independently but do not share the must be done. Each task then performs
same memory resources a portion of the overall work.
(C) It is the time it takes to send a minimal (0 22. Asynchronous communications

byte) message from point A to point (B) (A) It involves data sharing between more
(D) None of these than two tasks, which are often specified
18. Synchronous communications as being members in a common group,
(A) It require some type of handshaking or collective.
between tasks that are sharing dat(A) (B) It involves two tasks with one task acting
This can be explicitly structured in code as the sender/producer of data, and the
by the programmer, or it may happen at other acting as the receiver/consumer.
a lower level unknown to the pro- (C) It allows tasks to transfer data
grammer. independently from one another.
(B) It involves data sharing between more (D) None of these
than two tasks, which are often specified 23. Granularity is
as being members in a common group, (A) In parallel computing, it is a qualitative
or collective. measure of the ratio of computation
(C) It involves two tasks with one task acting to communication
as the sender/producer of data, and the (B) Here relatively small amounts of
other acting as the receiver/consumer. computational work are done
(D) It allows tasks to transfer data between communication events
independently from one another. (C) Relatively large amounts of computa-
tional work are done between
19. Collective communication communication / synchronization
(A) It involves data sharing between more events
than two tasks, which are often specified (D) None of these
as being members in a common group,
24. Coarse-grain Parallelism
or collective.
(A) In parallel computing, it is a qualitative
(B) It involves two tasks with one task acting
measure of the ratio of computation
as the sender/producer of data, and the
to communication
other acting as the receiver/consumer.
(B) Here relatively small amounts of
(C) It allows tasks to transfer data
computational work are done between
independently from one another. communication events
(D) None of these (C) Relatively large amounts of computa-
20. Point-to-point communication referred to tional work are done between
(A) It involves data sharing between more communication / synchronization
than two tasks, which are often specified events
as being members in a common group, (D) None of these
or collective. 25. Cache Coherent UMA (CC-UMA) is
(B) It involves two tasks with one task acting (A) Here all processors have equal
as the sender/producer of data, and the access and access times to memory
other acting as the receiver/consumer.* (B) Here if one processor updates a
(C) It allows tasks to transfer data location in shared memory, all the
independently from one another. other processors know about the
(D) None of these update.
21. Uniform Memory Access (UMA) referred to (C) Here one SMP can directly access
(A) Here all processors have equal memory of another SMP and not all
access and access times to memory processors have equal access time
(B) Here if one processor updates a to all memories
location in shared memory, all the (D) None of these
other processors know about the 26. Non-Uniform Memory Access (NUMA) is
update. (A) Here all processors have equal
(C) Here one SMP can directly access access and access times to memory
memory of another SMP and not all (B) Here if one processor updates a
processors have equal access time location in shared memory, all the
to all memories other processors know about the
(D) None of these update.
(C) Here one SMP can directly access instructions and then sequentially performs
memory of another SMP and not all them.
processors have equal access time (A) Single Program Multiple Data (SPMD)
to all memories (B) Flynns taxonomy
(D) None of these (C) Von Neumann Architecture
27. It distinguishes multi-processor computer (D) None of these
architectures according to how they can be 32. Load balancing is
classified along the two independent (A) Involves only those tasks executing a
dimensions of Instruction and Dat(A) Each communication operation
of these dimensions can have only one of (B) It exists between program statements
two possible states: Single or Multiple. when the order of statement execution
(A) Single Program Multiple Data (SPMD) affects the results of the program.
(B) Flynns taxonomy (C) It refers to the practice of distributing
(C) Von Neumann Architecture work among tasks so that all tasks are
(D) None of these kept busy all of the time. It can be
28. In the threads model of parallel considered as minimization of task idle
programming time.
(A) A single process can have multiple, (D) None of these
concurrent execution paths 33. Synchronous communication operations
(B) A single process can have single, referred to
concurrent execution paths. (A) Involves only those tasks executing a
(C) A multiple process can have single communication operation
concurrent execution paths. (B) It exists between program statements
(D) None of these when the order of statement execution
29. These applications typically have multiple affects the results of the program.
executable object files (programs). While the (C) It refers to the practice of distributing
application is being run in parallel, each task work among tasks so that all tasks are
can be executing the same or different kept busy all of the time. It can be
program as other tasks. All tasks may use considered as minimization of task idle
different data time.
(A) Single Program Multiple Data (SPMD) (D) None of these
(B) Multiple Program Multiple Data (MPMD) 34. Data dependence is
(C) Von Neumann Architecture (A) Involves only those tasks executing a
(D) None of these communication operation
30. Here a single program is executed by all (B) It exists between program statements
tasks simultaneously. At any moment in time, when the order of statement execution
tasks can be executing the same or different affects the results of the program.
instructions within the same program. These (C) It refers to the practice of distributing
programs usually have the necessary logic work among tasks so that all tasks are
programmed into them to allow different kept busy all of the time. It can be
tasks to branch or conditionally execute only considered as minimization of task idle
those parts of the program they are designed time.
to execute. (D) None of these
(A) Single Program Multiple Data (SPMD)
(B) Multiple Program Multiple Data (MPMD) Answer Sheet
(C) Von Neumann Architecture 1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (A)
(D) None of these 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (B)
31. These computer uses the stored-program 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (C)
concept. Memory is used to store both 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (B)
program and data instructions and central 21. (A) 22. (C) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (B)
processing unit (CPU) gets instructions and/ 26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (A)
or data from memory. CPU, decodes the 31. (C) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (B)
WINDOW PROGRAMMING
1. Frames is 8. Checkbox in window programming
(A) the exterior of a window. (A) displays text and can be clicked with the
(B) the interior of a frame window. mouse or spacebar
(C) windows used for input/output that are (B) a checkmark which the user can select
placed on a panel window (C) a list from which one item can be se-
(D) None of these lected.
(D) area in which text may be entered.
2. Panels is
(A) the exterior of a window. 9. Combobox in window programming
(B) the interior of a frame window (A) displays text and can be clicked with the
mouse or spacebar
(C) windows used for input/output that are
(B) a checkmark which the user can select
placed on a panel window
(C) a list from which one item can be se-
(D) None of these
lected.
3. Controls are (D) area in which text may be entered.
(A) the exterior of a window. 10. Edit in window programming
(B) the interior of a frame window. (A) displays text and can be clicked with the
(C) windows used for input/output that are mouse or spacebar
placed on a panel window (B) a checkmark which the user can select
(D) None of these (C) a list from which one item can be se-
4. In frame windows lected.
(A) One can put another frame windows (D) area in which text may be entered
(B) One can not put another frame windows 11. Groupbox in window programming
5. A panel window is a window (A) does nothing except draw a rectangle, it
(A) which can only exist inside a frame win- is used to visually group controls to-
dow gether
(B) which can not exist inside a frame win- (B) displays text
dow (C) for input of multiple lines of text
(C) which can exist outside the frame win- (D) none of these
dow 12. Label in window programming
(D) none of these (A) does nothing except draw a rectangle, it
is used to visually group controls to-
6. These exist panel windows inside gether
the same frame window. (B) displays text
(A) Several (B) Only one (C) for input of multiple lines of text
(C) None (D) None of these (D) none of these
7. Button in window programming 13. Memo in window programming
(A) displays text and can be clicked with the (A) does nothing except draw a rectangle, it
mouse or spacebar is used to visually group controls to-
(B) a checkmark which the user can select gether
(C) a list from which one item can be se- (B) displays text
lected. (C) for input of multiple lines of text
(D) area in which text may be entered. (D) none of these
14. All the classes necessary for Windows pro- 20. Window class, onActivate/2, defines
gramming are in the module (A) is executed when a window is becom-
(A) win.txt (B) win.std ing visible or is being hidden
(C) win.main (D) none of these (B) when a window is being disabled or en-
15. Window class, onCreate/1 ,defines abled this event is executed
(A) is executed when a visible window is (C) this event is executed when the user
being created switches to another window of the same
(B) is executed when a window is being application
closed, it is possible to prevent the win- (D) when a window receives the keyboard
dow from closing
focus this event is executed
(C) when the background of a window must
be erased this event is executed 21. Window class, onEnable/1, defines
(D) when a window must be re-painted this (A) is executed when a window is becom-
event is executed ing visible or is being hidden
16. Window class, on Close/2 (B) when a window is being disabled or en-
(A) is executed when a visible window is abled this event is executed
being created (C) this event is executed when the user
(B) is executed when a window is being switches to another window of the same
closed, it is possible to prevent the win- application
dow from closing (D) when a window receives the keyboard
(C) when the background of a window must focus this event is executed
be erased this event is executed
(D) when a window must be re-painted this 22. Window class, onKBFocus/3, defines
event is executed (A) is executed when a window is becom-
17. Window class, onEraseBackground/1, de- ing visible or is being hidden
fines (B) when a window is being disabled or en-
(A) is executed when a visible window is abled this event is executed
being created (C) this event is executed when the user
(B) is executed when a window is being switches to another window of the same
closed, it is possible to prevent the win- application
dow from closing (D) when a window receives the keyboard
(C) when the background of a window must focus this event is executed
be erased this event is executed
(D) when a window must be re-painted this 23. Window class, onSetCursor/3, defines
event is executed (A) the window wants to know what cursor
it must display for the mouse pointer
18. Window class, onPaint/2, defines
(A) is executed when a visible window is (B) the mouse is moved over a window
being created (C) when a mouse button is pressed this
(B) is executed when a window is being event is executed
closed, it is possible to prevent the win- (D) a mouse button is released
dow from closing 24. Window class, onMouseMove/5 , defines
(C) when the background of a window must (A) the window wants to know what cursor
be erased this event is executed it must display for the mouse pointer
(D) when a window must be re-painted this
(B) the mouse is moved over a window
event is executed
(C) when a mouse button is pressed this
19. Window class, onShow/2, defines event is executed
(A) is executed when a window is becom-
(D) a mouse button is released
ing visible or is being hidden
(B) when a window is being disabled or en- 25. Window class, onMouseDown/5, defines
abled this event is executed (A) the window wants to know what cursor
(C) this event is executed when the user it must display for the mouse pointer
switches to another window of the same (B) the mouse is moved over a window
application (C) when a mouse button is pressed this
(D) when a window receives the keyboard event is executed
focus this event is executed (D) a mouse button is released
26. Window class, onMouseUp/5 , defines 34. Window class, onSize/2, defines
(A) the window wants to know what cursor (A) during the processing of a key this event
it must display for the mouse pointer is executed with the ASCII value of the
(B) the mouse is moved over a window key pressed
(C) when a mouse button is pressed this (B) a menu command was selected
event is executed (C) a menu item is selected
(D) a mouse button is released (D) a window was resized
27. Window class, onMouseDoubleClick/5, de- 35. Window class, onMove/2, defines
fines (A) a window is moved to a new position
(A) a mouse button was double clicked (B) the user wants to view a floating popup
(B) the user clicks on a window menu for the window
(C) a key on the keyboard is pressed (C) an event from the vertical scrollbar of
(D) a key on the keyboard is released the window
(D) an event from the horizontal scrollbar of
28. Window class, onClick/1, defines
the window
(A) a mouse button was double clicked
(B) the user clicks on a window 36. Window class, onInitPopupMenu/2, defines
(C) a key on the keyboard is pressed (A) a window is moved to a new position
(D) a key on the keyboard is released (B) the user wants to view a floating popup
menu for the window
29. Window class, onKeyDown/3 , defines (C) an event from the vertical scrollbar of
(A) a mouse button was double clicked the window
(B) the user clicks on a window (D) an event from the horizontal scrollbar of
(C) a key on the keyboard is pressed the window
(D) a key on the keyboard is released
37. Window class, onVScroll/3, defines
30. Window class, onKeyUp/3, defines (A) a window is moved to a new position
(A) a key on the keyboard is pressed (B) the user wants to view a floating popup
(B) a key on the keyboard is released menu for the window
(C) a mouse button was double clicked (C) an event from the vertical scrollbar of
(D) the user clicks on a window the window
31. Window class, onChar/3, defines (D) an event from the horizontal scrollbar of
(A) during the processing of a key this event the window
is executed with the ASCII value of the 38. Window class, onHScroll/3, defines
key pressed (A) a window is moved to a new position
(B) a menu command was selected (B) the user wants to view a floating popup
(C) a menu item is selected menu for the window
(D) a window was resized (C) an event from the vertical scrollbar of
32. Window class, onCommand/2, defines the window
(D) an event from the horizontal scrollbar of
(A) during the processing of a key this event
the window
is executed with the ASCII value of the
key pressed 39. SizerClient in window programming ?
(B) a menu command was selected (A) this type of sizer ensures that a panel
(C) a menu item is selected window fills the complete client rect-
(D) a window was resized angle of a frame window
(B) this sizer class makes a panel stick to
33. Window class, onMenuSelect/2, defines one side of a frame window and the
(A) during the processing of a key this event size of the panel window is a fixed num-
is executed with the ASCII value of the ber of pixels.
key pressed (C) this sizer ensures that a panel window
(B) a menu command was selected is percentage of the size of a frame win-
(C) a menu item is selected dow.
(D) a window was resized (D) None of these
40. SizerFixed in window programming (C) this sizer ensures that a panel window
(A) this type of sizer ensures that a panel is percentage of the size of a frame win-
window fills the complete client rect-
dow.
angle of a frame window
(B) this sizer class makes a panel stick to (D) None of these
one side of a frame window and the
size of the panel window is a fixed num- Answer Sheet
ber of pixels
(C) this sizer ensures that a panel window 1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (A)
is percentage of the size of a frame win- 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (D)
dow.
(D) None of these 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (A)
41. SizerPercent in window programming 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (D) 19. (A) 20. (C)
(A) this type of sizer ensures that a panel 21. (B) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (C)
window fills the complete client rect-
angle of a frame window 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (C) 30. (B)
(B) this sizer class makes a panel stick to 31. (A) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (D) 35. (A)
one side of a frame window and the
size of the panel window is a fixed num- 36. (B) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (B)
ber of pixels. 41. (C)
DATA BASE MANAGEMENT

SYSTEM (DBMS)
1. The following term applies to a collection of 9. Which command is used to replace ?
related records in a database (A) REPLACE
(A) File (B) Layout (B) REPLACE ALL
(C) File (D) Field (C) Add record from edit menu
2. This set of related data items is known as a (D) All of above
(A) File (B) Record 10. The following part of a database that holds
(C) Table (D) None of the above only one type of information
3. The framework for storing records in (A) Report (B) Query
database is a (C) Record (D) Field
(A) Form (B) Report 11. All of the following terms are related to
(C) Query (D) Table computerized databases except which one?
4. The following command is used to search (A) Search (B) Sort
the record that satisfies the specified criteria (C) Field names (D) Record grab
(A) FOUND (B) SEARCH 12. Need to see all the information from two
(C) GET (D) LOCATE tables on one form. Insert
5. The data in a record is of the following types (A) A page break
(A) four text fields and three numeric fields (B) A subform
(B) two integer fields and five text fields (C) A linked command button
(C) three text fields and four numeric fields (D) None of the above
13. What is the primary difference between a pivot
6. A treelike structure of records in a database. table report and a cross tab query?
Select the best fit for answer (A) A pivot table report can contain sums,
(A) Hierarchical database structure counts, and averages while a cross tab
(B) Relational database structure query cannot.
(C) Multidimensional database structure (B) You cant pivot a cross tab query
(D) Sequential database access (C) A cross tab query lets you group similar
7. The following language used by most of the items. A pitot table report does not
DBMSs for helping their users to access (D) None of above
data
14. The largest unit of a database is
(A) High level language
(A) A record (B) A field
(B) Query language
(C) A subfield (D) None of above
(C) SQL
(D) 4GL 15. Whats the best Access object for an invoice
youll mail to customers?
8. What is a largest collection of data stored in
(A) A report (B) A form
a computer? You might use this type of
(C) A table (D) All of the above
program to keep a record of all the friends in
your address book. 16. What is a Grouped Report?
(A) Information Processing (A) A type of report that can be generated by
(B) Spreadsheet the Report Wizard
(C) Operating system (B) A report that displays data that has been
(D) Database sorted in ascending or descending order
(C) A report that displays data grouped by 24. DBMS is

fields you specify (A) Collection of data
(D) None (B) Set of programs to access those data
17. Which field allow to select items from drop (C) Set of programs to update those data
down list? (D) All of the above
(A) An OLE field (B) A Memo Field 25. COPY STRUCTURE command is used to
(C) A lookup Field (D) A hyperlink field (A) Copy contents of an active database to
18. What did the first Table Analyzer do? a new file
(A) Analyze the data in a set of flat files and (B) Copy all records of an active database
automatically create a relational to disk
database system from that information (C) Copy contents of an active database to
(B) Provide a graphic way to design disk
relational databases (D) Copy structure of an active database to
a new file
(C) Automate process of connecting tables
to SQL Server 26. COUNT command is used to
(D) None (A) Count the number of data fields in an
active database file
19. Pivot Table reports are good for
(B) Count the number of data files which
(A) Analyzing large amounts of data
are active
(B) Turning tables upside down
(C) Count the records which are updated
(C) Breaking spreadsheet data into multiple
(D) Count the number of records in an active
worksheet
database file
(D) None of above
27. What is the term to ask the computer to pt
20. Which of the following are common ways to
information in order numerically or
enforce data validation when entering data
alphabetically ?
into an Access form?
(A) Crop (B) Report
(A) Create an input mask to restrict the kind
(C) Sort (D) Organize
of value that can be entered in positions
across the field. 28. The raw facts are called
(B) Define a validation rule for that field (A) Data (B) Programs
(C) A and B (C) Commands (D) Responses
(D) none of the above 29. The term refers to a collection of related
information
21. The purpose of the Add-in Manager is to
(A) Database (B) List
(A) Create macros and automate data
(C) Outline (D) Record
processing
(B) Add or remove data in an existing 30. A form that is used to collect data in a
database structured manner for entry to a database is
(C) Add or remove templates, macros, and called a
(A) Database deign form
wizards
(B) Systems flowchart
(D) All of above
(C) Data capture form
22. Sub-schema can be used to (D) None of above
(A) Create very different, personalized views 31. The following command is used for inserting
of the same data records
(B) Present information in different formats (A) INSERT
(C) Hide sensitive information by omitting (B) ADD
fields from the subschemas description (C) Both of the above
(D) All of the above (D) None of the above
23. If you are entering data in a form, a quick way 32. The Query is a statement requesting for
to cpy a value from the previous record is to (A) Insertion of information
press (B) Deletion of information
(A) Ctrl+ (B) F6 (C) Update of information
(C) Ctrl+D (D) None of the above (D) Retrieval of information
33. The activity of a file 42. You can switch back and forth between
(A) Is a low percentages of number of design and datasheet view by clicking the
records added or deleted from a file (A) queries object tab
(B) If high, reduces processing efficiency for (B) switch command on the view menu
sequential and non sequential files (C) view button
(C) Is a measure of the percentage of (D) select query title bar
existing records updated during a run 43. The table wizard
(D) Refers to how closely the files fit into the (A) Quickly creates a default report
allocated (B) Displays a subset of the data in a
34. The following statement is not valid about database
indexing (C) Contains sample tables and fields you
(A) it stores the index fields can use to create a table
(B) it stores the corresponding record (D) Automatically edits your data as you
number enter it
(C) it maintains the alphabetically order 44. The names, address, and account balance
(D) it duplicate the database file of all of your customers, select the best fit for
35. The following devices can be used to input answer
data into a database (A) record (B) file
(A) Keyboard, fax roller ball (C) database (D) key field
(B) Mouse, keyboard, monitor 45. An integrated collection of all of the data
(C) Mouse, keyboard, touch screen about your customers. Select the best fit for
(D) None of the above answer
36. The following command is used for sorting (A) Record (B) File
(A) list (B) browse (C) Database (D) Key field
(C) index (D) sort 46. An identification field in a record. Select the
37. List command is used to get best fit for answer
(A) List of database contents (A) Record (B) File
(B) List of database contents (C) Database (D) Key field
(C) List of variables used in database file 47. What is part of database that holds all of the
(D) None of the above information about one item or subject?
38. A field that uniquely identifies a record is (A) Record (B) File
called a (C) Query (D) Chart
(A) Main field (B) Header 48. What is a stored question about information
(C) Key field (D) None of above in a database?
39. Corrupted index file is corrected using (A) Record (B) Field
(A) Modifyindex (B) Recreateindex (C) Report (D) Query
(C) Reindex (D) None of the above 49. RDBMS stands for
40. The navigation buttons enable you to (A) Relational Database Management
(A) move from record to record in a table or System
form (B) Relation Data Module System
(B) move from page to page in report (C) Right Data Base Management System
(C) (A) and (B) both (D) None of the above
(D) None of the above 50. Pack command is used to
41. Different levels of access are assigned to (A) Remove records permanently
personnel records in the health and fitness (B) Remove records temporarily
gym. Only the system manager is able to (C) Restore records permanently
create delete or edit records. Certain other (D) Restore records temporarily
personnel are allowed to view all the records, 51. Modules are
whereas others are not permitted to view (A) selection of commands used to
complete records. The levels of access are automate repetitive tasks
controlled by (B) programs written in Visual C++
(A) Password (B) User ids (C) Object tabs
(C) Status (D) None of the above (D) Group of records
52. APPEND command is used to 60. A specialist in charge of the database of an

(A) Add record to the end of active database organization select the best fit for answer
file and starts full screen data entry (A) Database management approach
(B) Add Record to the start of active (B) DBMS uses
database file (C) Database administrator
(C) Add record to the start of active database (D) Query language
file and starts full screen data entry
(D) Add record to the end of database file 61. This DBMS feature allows users to easily
interrogate a database. Select the best fit for
53. Append from command is used to
answer
(A) Add records from information in an array
(B) Adds records from a file (A) Database management approach
(C) Add records from a variable (B) DBMS uses
(D) Add records from stock (C) Database administrator
(D) Query language
54. Examples of centralized multi-user
databases are 62. The .. presents data in a way similar to an
(A) Barclays Bank customer accounts excel spreadsheet
(B) Supermarket stock control, organ donor (A) Datasheet view (B) Design view
database, client database (C) Print preview (D) Layout preview
(C) Airline reservations and other national 63. It Is used to build and modify database
global booking systems objects and also to create new queries
(D) None of above
(A) Datasheet view (B) Design view
55. New record is added using (C) Print preview (D) Layout preview
(A) Append record from browse menu
64. It shows the appearance and layout of a
(B) Append record into from browse menu
(C) Add record from edit menu report, table or form in order to confirm what
(D) All of above will be printed.
(A) Datasheet view (B) Design view
56. When a customer makes an online hotel
(C) Print preview (D) Layout preview
booking, the database is updated in
(A) Batch mode (B) Pseudo real-time 65. It examines a small portion or sample of your
(C) One month (D) All of above data in a report before printing it.
57. A database that contains tables linked by (A) Datasheet view (B) Design view
common fields is called a (C) Print preview (D) Layout preview
(A) Centralized database 66. A report form
(B) Flat file database (A) Appears on the computer monitor during
(C) Relational database data entry
(D) None of above (B) Is used during report generation to
58. The use of integrated collections of database format data
records and files for data storage and (C) Both (A) and (B)
processing. The best fit for answer: (D) All of above
(A) Database management approach
67. Which of the following columns can not be
(B) DBMS uses
found in the macro design window?
(C) Database administrator
(D) Query language (A) Arguments column
(B) Comment column
59. DBMS allows you to create, interrogate, and
(C) Conditions column
maintain a database, create reports, and
(D) Actions column
develop application programs, select the
best fit answer 68. The ascending order of a data hierarchy ios:
(A) Database management approach (A) Bit, byte, field, record, file, database
(B) DBBMS uses (B) Bit, byte, record, field, file, database
(C) Database administrator (C) Byte, bit, field, record, file, database
(D) Query language (D) Byte, bit, record, field, file, database
69. A good query system 77. Creating a data file means

(A) Can accept English language (A) Designing base and defining the
commands structure of the database
(B) Allows non-programmers to access (B) Getting the information about database
information stored in a database (C) Selecting data from database
(C) Can be accessed only by data prssing (D) Deleting data from database
professionals 78. In a large DBMS
(D) Both (A) and (B) (A) each user can see only a small part of
70. How do you freeze a field a column or field in the entire database
Microsoft Access? (B) each user can access every
(A) Click anywhere in the column and select subschema
Edit>Freeze Column form the menu (C) each subschema contains every field
(B) Place an ice cube in the column in the logical schema
(C) Click anywhere in the column and click (D) none of the above is true
the freeze button on the toolbar 79. You want to keep track of addresses, phone
(D) Right click the column and select freeze numbers, parent/guardian names as well
columns from the shortcut menu as class attendance, average and grades.
71. Within Table Datasheet view, how can you Every so often you want to send reports home
display associated records from another that select failing grades and excessive
table? absences. The following of the Microsoft
(A) Click the expand indicator (+) next to a Office suit used in this course is best suited
record for this kind of information
(A) Excel (B) PowerPoint
(B) Double click the record.
(C) Access (D) Word
(C) Apply the filter by form command
(D) None of the above 80. Each individual data items of record is called a
(A) Field (B) Data type
72. Which of the following is not a command to
(C) Comment (D) All of the above
find specific word or phrases in a database?
(A) Click the find button on the toolbar 81. A large collections of files are called
(B) Click the find button on the record (A) Fields (B) Records
navigation button area (C) Databases (D) File system
(C) Press Ctrl+F 82. Memo field in database file is used to
(D) Select Edit>Find from the menu. (A) Store lengthy number
73. One of the type libraries that you can use to (B) Store images
programmatically connect to Microsoft (C) Store audio files
Access data is (D) Store long textual information
(A) Collaborative Data Objects 83. Applications that rely on databases are
(B) ActiveX Data Objects (A) Supermarket stock control, theater
(C) Dynamic Data Interfaces bookings and payroll
(D) None of the above (B) Accounts, online banking, PowerPoint
presentations
74. The data in a Pivot Table report is categorized
(C) Internet shopping, robotics, computer
using
games
(A) Column headings
(D) None of above
(B) Items from the Pivot Table field list
(C) Header rows 84. Which of the following is not a Access
(D) All of above database object ?
(A) table (B) form
75. Records are deleted using (C) query (D) datasheet
(A) DELETE command followed by pack
(B) DELETE command without pack 85. Data owners must protect their data against
(C) DELETE command followed by zap corruption or loss. One sensible method to
(D) DELETE command without zap achieving this is to
(A) Take regular backups
76. You can enter data in a table in (B) Keep a hardcopy printout of all data
(A) design view (B) datasheet view (C) Keep fingers crossed at all times
(C) format view (D) None of the above (D) None of above
86. Facilities offered by databases are 95. When you save an Access project, what file
(A) The ability to store a large amount of format do you use?
data in a structured format, easy update, (A) .adp (B) .xm.
sort, query, production of reports (C) .mdb (D) All of above
(B) Easy editing, spell check, perform 96. Which of the following criterion would find
calculations, library of mathematical records whose personality field does not
functions, replication equal Nice?
(C) The ability to rotate images, copy and (A) <>Nice (B) NOT Nice
paste, fill scale (C) <>Nice (D) IS NOT Nice
(D) None of above
97. What is the maximum character field size
87. Users who store data about real people for you can set for a field that has a text data
marketing purposes must register the data type?
and its potential use with (A) 64 (B) 255
(A) The computer misuse controller (C) 512 (D) All of above
(B) The data protection controller
(C) HM customs and excise 98. Which of the following fields would not make
(D) None of above a suitable primary key ?
(A) A date field
88. When you double click a query object, you
(B) An invoice number
open
(C) An autoNumber field
(A) The object in design view
(B) The object in print preview (D) A customers social security number
(C) The result of the query 99. Auto reports can contain each of the
(D) The underlying table on which the query following elements except
is based (A) A detail section (B) A page footer
89. Checks that are added to databases to detect (C) A group header (D) All of the above
unsuitable data on inpt are called 100. What is the abbreviation used for a software
(A) validation (B) verification package that permits the user to create,
(C) vegetation (D) none of above retrieve and maintain records in a database?
90. Auto Report allows you to (A) DASD (B) FMS
(A) View a subset of your data (C) EMMS (D) DBMS
(B) Create a simple report 101. A repository for data, usually covering some
(C) Create a data entry form specific topic is called
(D) Enter records (A) Data acquisition (B)Data bank
91. Auto Form allows you to (C) Real time (D) Database
(A) View a subset of your data 102. A notation for defining the form and structure
(B) Create a simple report
of data is known as
(C) Create a data entry form
(A) Data description language
(D) Enter records
(B) Binary language
92. The asterisk (*) is sometimes used in (C) Data channels
database queries. This character is then (D) Data definition language
called a
(A) Wildcard (B) Dummy 103. A data item, which is not broken down into
(C) Ditto (D) All of the above smaller units, is
(A) Data element
93. When performing a look-up operation using
(B) Elementary data item
a form
(A) You enter the search value into the form (C) Data entry
(B) You look at each form sequentially until (D) Database management
you see the one you want 104. Which of the following terms refers to the
(C) You type the key in an entry line, and the degree to which data in database system
correct form is displayed are accurate and correct?
(D) All of the above (A) Data security (B) Data validaity
94. Which custom date format displays the (C) Data independence (D) Data integrity
numeric day of the year when a date is 105. A repository for data, usually covering specific
entered? topic is
(A) YY (B) YYYY (A) Database (B) Data requisition
(C) Y (D) All of above (C) Data bank (D) Data collection
106. A set of programs that handle firms data 116. DDP stands for
base responsibilities is called a (A) Distributed Double Processing
(A) Database Management System (DBMS) (B) Double Decimal Processing
(B) Database Processing System (DBPS) (C) Distributed Data Programming
(C) Data Management System (DMS) (D) Distributed Data Processing
(D) All of above
117. To see sales amount figures totaled, into
107. Which of the following is not a relational
database? which drop area would you drag that field?
(A) dBase IV (B) 4th Dimension (A) Drop column fields here
(C) FoxPro (D) Reflex (B) Drop row fields here
108. Which is used to provide the sight (C) Drop data items here
information to the right person at the right (D) None of the above
time for proper decision making ? 118. Which access feature do you use to develop
(A) DBMS (B) MIS applications that host access data on the
(C) ISO (D) PSO web?
109. Dbase-III was developed by (A) Dynamic web data
(A) Dec (B) IBM (B) Data access pates
(C) Ashton-tate (D) All of the above (C) Html data pages
110. Which of the following database objects asks (D) None of the above
a question of information in a database and 119. What is the common name for a column of
then displays the result?
data within an Access table?
(A) Tables (B) Reports
(C) Queries (D) Forms (A) Field (B) Record
(C) Row (D) None of the above
111. What data type should you choose for a zip
code field in a table? 120. A data structure consisting of several fields,
(A) Text (B) Number some or all of which are instances of the
(C) Memo (D) All of above same data structure, is called
112. A list consists of last names, first names, (A) Field (B) Bead
address and pin codes if all people in the (C) Database (D) Data collection
list have the same last and the same pin 121. A group of characters used to identiry a given
code, a useful key would be low level instruction is
(A) The pin code (A) File (B) Record
(B) The last name
(C) A compound key consisting of the first (C) Key field (D) Label
name and the last name 122. One or more characters used to identify a
(D) All of the above data field in a computer program is
113. What happens when you add the asterisk (() (A) File name (B) Database
from any field list ot a query? (C) Label (D) Group
(A) The table will not include any fields from 123. In Form view, which command displays
the table records alphabetically?
(B) The query sorts the tables record in the
order you specify (A) Find (B) Advanced Filter/Sort
(C) The query will include every field from (C) Sort (D) All of the above
the table* 124. Where do report and forms get their
(D) The query uses the records from the information form?
table without displaying them (A) Forms (B) Modules
114. The modify operation is likely to be done after (C) Tables (D) Queries
(A) delete (B) look up 125. The number of logical records in a physical
(C) insert (D) all of above
record is
115. The criteria BETWEEN 1/1/99 and 12/31/99 (A) group (B) blocking factor
would which is proper (C) sector (D) field
(A) Display records between the dates 1/2/
99 and 1/1/00 126. A top to bottom relationship among the items
(B) Display records between the dates 1/1/ in a database is established by a
99 and 12/31/99 (A) Hierarchical schema
(C) Display records whose dates equaled (B) Network Schema
1/1/99 or 12/31/99 (C) Relational schema
(D) All of the above (D) All of the above
127. A command that lets you cange one or more 135. The way a particular application views the
fields in a record is data from the database that the applicaton
(A) Insert (B) Modify uses is a
(C) Look up (D) All of the above (A) Module (B) Relational model
128. A logical schema (C) Schema (D) Sub-schema
(A) Is the entire database 136. Which of the following is a database
(B) Is a standard way of organizing management system?
information into accessible parts (A) Ms-Word (B) Lotus 1-2-3
(C) Describes how data is actually stored (C) Oracle (D) None of above
on disk 137. What is the corresponding text for the <#1/1/
(D) All of the above 95# validation rule setting?
129. What is the purpose of the page field on a (A) Neter a value less or more than 1,195
pivot table report? (B) Value must be less than 95 characters
(A) It creates a new page for each type of (C) Enter a date before 1995
data (D) All of above
(B) It allows the data within the the Pivot 138. What is the name of the Visual Basic Editor
Table report to be filtered utility that allows you to view the Microsoft
(C) It displays a title for the Pivot Table report Access type librarys available objects and
(D) None of the above members?
130. What does the Special Effect button on the (A) Object Viewer (B) Object Browser
formatting toolbar do? (C) Type Library Spy (D) None of above
(A) It lets you add animation to your forms 139. A computer language for informing the DBMS
and reports to make them more regarding the data structure used is
entertaining and amusing (A) PASCAL (B) DDL
(B) It lets you select a transitional effect for (C) PROLOG (D) FORTRAN
how a form opens and closes. 140. Which of the following is not a data type ?
(C) It applies a 30d effect to a selected (A) Picture/graphic (B) Data/time
control (C) Texst (D) Number
(D) None of these
141. The executive responsible for the data
131. Pivot Table report data must meet which of processing function in an organization is
the following criteria? (A) PM (B) DBMS
(A) It must be in tabular form, have unique (C) DP (D) DPM
column labels, and each row must 142. Which of the following is NOT a type of
represent a unique piece of data Microsoft Access database object?
(B) Any dates should be formatted with the (A) Queries (B) Workbooks
data format and blank rows or columns (C) Forms (D) Tables
should be removed
(C) It must be in tabular form, have unique 143. A file containing relatively permanent data is
column lagels, and all rows must be (A) Random file (B) Transaction file
sorted (C) Master file (D) Sequential file
(D) Both (A) and (B) 144. The complete picture of data stored in
132. Customers, Orders. Whats their best database is known as
relationship? (A) Record (B) Scheme
(A) Many-to-many (B) One-to-one (C) System flowchart (D) DBMS
(C) One-to-many (D) All of the above 145. A subset of characters within a data field is
133. Which control does access use to link data known as
access page components to access data? (A) Record (B) File
(A) Microsoft Dynamic Data Control (C) Data string (D) Byte
(B) Microsoft Data Connection Control 146. Data items groped together for storage
(C) Microsoft Office Data Source Control purposes are called a
(D) None of the above (A) Record (B) Title
134. Which program do you use to edit code for (C) List (D) string
data access pages? 147. Which of the following terms does not
(A) Microsoft script editor describe a database structure used by a
(B) Microsoft code editor DBMS to link data from several files?
(C) Microsoft data access pages editor (A) Relational (B) Structural
(D) None of above (C) Network (D) All of the above
148. In a relational schema, each tuple is divided 156. Which action will optimize your database
into fields called performance?
(A) Relations (B) Domains (A) Set the record set type to Snapshot
(C) Queries (D) All of the above (B) Use the compact and repair database
149. How do you filter by selection? tool
(A) Right click the field value and select filter (C) Create a replica of the database
by selection from the shortcut menu (D) All of the above
(B) Find and double click the value on which 157. The arranging of data in a logical sequence
you want to base the filter is called
(C) Find and select the value on which you (A) Sorting (B) Classifying
want to base the filter and select (C) Reproducing (D) Summarizing
tools>filter by selection from the menu
(D) None of the above 158. If a piece of data is stored in two places in
the database, then a
150. What is a fast way to adjust the width of a (A) Storage space is wasted
column? (B) Changing the data is one spot will cause
(A) Right click the left side of the column data inconsistency
heading
(B) Double click the left side of the column (C) It can be more easily accessed
heading (D) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Double click the right side of the column 159. A relational database management
heading (RDBMS) package manages data in more
(D) Select tools>adjust column width from than one file at once. How does it organize
the menu these file? As
151. What are the columns in a Microsoft Access (A) Tables (B) Relations
table called? (C) Tuple (D) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Rows (B) Fields
(C) Cells (D) Records Answer Sheet
152. How do you update Pivot Table report data 1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (B)
after changes are made to the source data? 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (D)
(A) Save your changes, close the workbook, 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A)
and then reopen it. 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (C)
(B) Select the Pivot Table worksheet and 21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (D)
press F9 on the keyboard 26. (D) 27. (C) 28. (A) 29. (C) 30. (C)
(C) Click the report, and on the Pivot Table 31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35. (C)
toolbar, click the refresh data button 36. (C) 37. (A) 38. (C) 39. (C) 40. (C)
(D) All of the above 41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (D) 45. (B)
153. In access, the best types of queries to use 46. (C) 47. (A) 48. (D) 49. (A) 50. (A)
for data analysis are: 51. (A) 52. (A) 53. (A) 54. (C) 55. (A)
(A) Select queries (B) Parameter queries 56. (B) 57. (C) 58. (D) 59. (D) 60. (B)
(C) Action queries (D) All of the above 61. (C) 62. (C) 63. (C) 64. (B) 65. (D)
66. (B) 67. (B) 68. (D) 69. (B) 70. (D)
154. How can you add a table to the relationship 71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (B) 74. (B) 75. (A)
window? 76. (C) 77. (A) 78. (A) 79. (C) 80. (B)
(A) Select Tools>Add table from the menu 81. (B) 82. (D) 83. (A) 84. (D) 85. (A)
(B) Select the table from the table list on the 86. (A) 87. (B) 88. (B) 89. (A) 90. (B)
toolbar
(D) Click the show table button on the 91. (B) 92. (A) 93. (D) 94. (C) 95. (A)
toolbar 96. (C) 97. (B) 98. (A) 99. (D) 100. (D)
(D) Select Edit>Add table from the menu 101. (B) 102. (D) 103. (B) 104. (D) 105. (C)
106. (D) 107. (D) 108. (B) 109. (C) 110. (C)
155. What is the first step in creating a form or 111. (A) 112. (C) 113. (C) 114. (B) 115. (B)
report with the form wizard or report wizard?
(A) Selecting the fields that you want to 116. (D) 117. (C) 118. (B) 119. (A) 120. (B)
appear in the form or report 121. (D) 122. (C) 123. (C) 124. (C) 125. (D)
(B) Selecting the underlying table or query 126. (A) 127. (B) 128. (B) 129. (B) 130. (C)
on which you want to base the form or 131. (D) 132. (C) 133. (C) 134. (A) 135. (D)
report 136. (C) 137. (A) 138. (B) 139. (B) 140. (A)
(C) Reading several screens of mostly 141. (B) 142. (B) 143. (C) 144. (B) 145. (C)
useless information and clicking next 146. (A) 147. (B) 148. (B) 149. (A) 150. (C)
(D) Selecting how the form or report should 151. (B) 152. (C) 153. (A) 154. (B) 155. (B)
be formatted 156. (B) 157. (A) 158. (D) 159. (D)

MCQs On Computer by Dr. Alok Kumar

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

MCQs On Computer by Dr. Alok Kumar

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Multiple Choice Questions on Computer

Fundamental, Application and Advance Topics

UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA2

2/11A, Swadeshi Bima Nagar, AGRA282 002

Printed at : UPKAR PRAKASHAN (Printing Unit) Bye-pass, AGRA

Dr. Alok Kumar

Computer Security 1416

Microsoft Windows Keyboard Shortcuts 2023

Microsoft Office.. 2425

Microsoft Word 2628

Microsoft Excel 2942

Microsoft PowerPoint.. 4354

Microsoft Access 5560

Operating System. 6384

Software Engineering... 85110

Data Structures and Algorithms... 111114

Data Mining and Data Ware House. 115124

Electronics Data Processing 125127

Parallel Computing.. 128131

Window Programming. 132135

Data Base Management System (DBMS) 136144

84. Audio response is 93. A program that translates mnemonic

104. Speech synthesis is 111. A unit of a computer system that interprets

138. Broadband channel is the 147. Buffer is device/ storage area

(C) Works in timesharing environment 165. Programs developed by an outside supplier

12. Packet Sniffer is 15. Security exploit is

19. Blue hat is (B) a person, usually not an expert in

42. Multithreading allows (3) Memory fault C- The operating

(A) A 3, B 2, C1 (C) A global queue of ready thread is

82. In real time computing (C) Statement B is true but statement A is

201. Semaphores 208. I/O redirection

215. Process is 224. The following resources can cause

234. Real-time systems are 242. Round robin is a

(C) Activities involved in system design 38. Aperiodic stimuli is

47. Software validation is 57. Maintenance plan describes

65. Software consists of 75. User documentation defines

entities.2-Shows how the system being 88. Taxonomy is

106. If in a software system, the operation is 113. An Acquisition cycle time is

128. Behavioral models is (C) An event driven control system, where

136. CASE Workbench 140. Classification model

155. Cost estimation is 158. Event-driven control systems are

162. In Data migration (C) It is responsible for the definition,

(C) It is based on the idea of developing an (C) Pertaining to a system or component

181. Fault is 185. Enduring requirements

197. Extendibility is 201. Manufacturing phase is

214. Human Computer Interaction is 218. Software implementation is

244. Software process model 250. Software evolution is

(C) It involves executing an implementation (C) It is concerned with studying existing

personnel needed to maintain all aspects Answer Sheet

DATA MINING AND DATA

(C) An approach to the design of learning (C) A mathematical conception of space

(C) Symbolic representation of facts or 24. Data dictionary is

29. DB/2 is (C) An extremely complex molecule that

38. Heuristic is 43. Expert systems

(C) Learning by generalizing from examples 54. Integrated is

68. Prediction is (C) Describes the structure of the contents

80. Patterns is (C) One of the defining aspects of a data

91. Verification 94. Synapse is

ELECTRONICS DATA PROCESSING

11. It is an electronic commerce in services, i.e. 15. In Ordering Phase

(D) this involves the placement and 21. An audio-CD is

(C) It is the time it takes to send a minimal (0 22. Asynchronous communications

DATA BASE MANAGEMENT