Anatomy

CLINICAL ANATOMY for MEDICAL STUDENTS
By SNELL 6th edition

ANATOMY QUESTIONS
Choose the best answer:
1. The superior boundary of the epiploic foramen:

a. free border of the lesser omentum containing the portal triad
b. inferior vena cava
c. caudate process of the caudate lobe of the liver (p. 201)
d. first portion of the duodenum
2. Less likely to produce ascites:
a. hepatic cirrhosis
b. gastritis (p. 260)
c. cancer of the ovary
d. congestive hear failure
3. Important factor in the production of an ulcer in the anterolateral wall of the first part of the duodenum:
a. acid chime squired as the stomach empties (p. 265)
b. high level of pepsin
c. bile secretion after food intake
d. digestive enzymes excreted out by the pancreas
4. Which of the following does not contribute to why the appendix is prone to infection:
a. it has a large amount of lymphoid tissue in its wall
b. the lumen has a tendency to become obstructed by hardened intestinal contents
c. it is supplied by a long small artery that does not anastomose with any other artery (p. 266)
d. it is a long narrow blind-ended tube which encourages stasis of large bowel contents
5. Occurring at points where the circular muscle is weakest. Where the blood vessels pierce the muscles, herniation of the
lining mucosa through the circular muscle between taenia coli occurs:
a. volvulus
b. intussusceptions
c. diverticulosis (p.265)
d. achalasia
6. Which is not true regarding aneurysm of the abdominal aorta:
a. usually occur below the origin of the renal arteries
b. majority result from atherosclerosis which weakens the wall
c. occur most commonly in elderly women (p.274)
d. large aneurysms should be surgically excised and replaced with a graft
7. Common cause of colic, EXCEPT:
a. compression of the inferior vena cava (p. 274)
b. intestinal obstruction
c. passage of gallstone in the biliary duct
d. passage of the stone in the ureter
8. Total gastrectomy for gastric cancer does not include the removal of:
a. lower end of esophagus
b. head of the pancreas (p.264)
c. first part of duodenum
d. spleen
9. Herniorrhaphy of an indirect inguinal hernia constitute the repair of the floor of the inguinal canal, the floor is formed by:
a. internal oblique
b. lateral umbilical ligament
c. inguinal ligament (p. 149)
d. external oblique
10. While doing a spinal tap, the spinal needle is inserted in between the:
a. L1 and L2 vertebrae
b. L3 and L4 vertebrae
c. L2 and L3 vertebrae
d. L4 and L5 vertebrae (p.834)
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11. The cresenteric inferior border of the posterior rectus sheath:
a. spigelian line
b. semilunar line
c. arcuate line of Douglas (p.144)
d. linea alba
12. Intraperitoneal organ:
a. lower third of rectum
b. kidney
c. jejunum (p.197)
d. pancreas
13. The femoral ring:
a. is the medial opening of the inguinal canal
b. is the base of the femoral canal (p.532)
c. forms the medial border of the Hesselbachs triangle
d. contains the spermatic cord
14. In the neck:
a. the anterior rami of the C1-C4 spinal nerves supply the skin antero-laterally
b. the investing layer of the deep cervical fascia forms the stylomandibular ligament (p.638)
c. the pretracheal fascia is attached superiorly to the hyoid bone
d. all of the above are correct
15. Forms the floor of both the submental and the digastric triangle:
a. hyoglossus
b. thyrohyoid
c. mylohyoid (p.644)
d. geniohyoid
16. Surgical procedures at the digastric triangle could possibly injure the following nerves, except:
a. vagus nerve
b. hypoglossal nerve
c. spinal accessory nerve (p. 643)
d. glossopharyngeal nerve
17. In doing cricothyroidotomy, hemorrhage can occur from accidental injury to branches of:
a. thyroidea ima artery
b. superior thyroid artery (p. 791)
c. superficial cervical artery
d. external laryngeal artery
18. In doing stellate ganglion block, the needle of the anesthetic syringe is inserted through the skin over the carotid tubercle;
this carotid tubercle is a part of:
a. cricoid cartilage
b. 1st rib
c. hyoid bone
d. 6th cervical vertebra (p.795)
19. Due to the close proximity of their drainages in the nasal cavity, frontal sinusitis nearly always involves this sinus:
a. maxillary (p. 805)
b. anterior ethmoidal
c. posterior ethmoidal
d. sphenoidal
20. The trigeminal nerve provides sensory innervation to the face except for a small area which is supplied by the:
a. zygomaticotemporal nerve
b. great auricular nerve (p. 664)
c. lesser occipital nerve
d. auriculotemporal nerve
21. On its way to the tongue, the chorda tympani:
a. passes through the mastoid wall of the tympanic cavity
b. enters the infratemporal fossa through the petrotympanic fissure
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c. join a branch of the posterior division of mandibular nerve
d. all of the above are correct (p. 675)
22. In the living subject, the foramen lacerum of the cranial fossa is closed inferiorly by cartilage and fibrous tissue; above this
closed inferior opening, foramen lacerum receives the:
a. carotid canal (p. 691)
b. foramen cecum
c. condylar canal
d. inferior orbital fissure
23. The artery supplying the leg area of the cerebral cortex:
a. is the biggest branch of the internal carotid artery (p. 705)
b. passes in the longitudinal fissure of the cerebrum
c. is a component of the circulus arteriosus
d. all of the above are correct
24. The sensory nerve supplying the tip of the nose is the distal continuation of the:
a. infraorbital nerve
b. anterior ethmoidal nerve (p.665)
c. long sphenopalatine nerve
d. buccal nerve
25. The following extraocular muscle is supplied by the most slender cranial nerve:
a. superior oblique (p.713)
b. superior rectus
c. lateral rectus
d. none
26. The retina extends anteriorly as far as the:
a. ora serrata
b. ciliary processes
c. iris (p. 724)
d. limbus
27. True regarding the walls of the middle ear:
a. the inferior wall transmits a branch from glossopharyngeal nerve
b. the roof separates the middle ear from the temporal lobe of cerebrum
c. the posterior wall contains the origin of stapedius
d. all of the above are correct (p.727)
28. Epistaxis usually occur upon rupture of the anastomosing branches of:
a. greater palatine and sphenopalatine arteries
b. sphenopalatine and superior labial arteries (p. 805)
c. greater palatine and maxillary arteries
d. facial and superior labial arteries
29. The vestibular ligaments of the larynx represent the inferior margin of the:
a. fibroelastic membrane of the larynx
b. quadrangular membrane (p. 747)
c. cricothyroid ligament
d. false vocal cords
30. Freys syndrome is due to damage to the following nerves:
a. auriculotemporal and zygomaticotemporal
b. zygomaticotemporal and zygomaticofacial
c. great auricular and auriculotemporal (p.796)
d. chorda tympani and buccal branch of facial nerve
31. In the pelvic cavity, the ureter turns medially to enter the urinary bladder at the level of:
a. greater sciatic foramen
b. ischial spine (p. 236)
c. sacral promontory
d. upper border of symphysis pubis
32. In the Caldwell-Moloy pelvic classification, a transversely wide pelvis is:
a. gynecoid
b. platypelloid (p. 306)
c. android
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d. anthropoid
33. Components of anorectal ring, except:
a. internal anal sphincter
b. puborectalis
c. external anal sphincter (deep part)
d. valves of Houston (p.317)
34. The following branches of internal iliac artery pass through the greater sciatic foramen, except:
a. superior gluteal
b. inferior gluteal
c. internal pudendal
d. obturator (p. 298)
35. In the pelvic cavity, this structure lies at the apex of the V-shaped root of the sigmoid mesocolon:
a. left ureter
b. superior rectal artery
c. origin of the internal iliac artery
d. sacral promontory
36. Boundaries of pelvic inlet, except:
a. sacral promontory
b. symphysis pubis
c. ischial spine (p. 286)
d. arcuate line
37. Voluntary control of micturition is done at the level of:
a. internal urethral meatus
b. fossa navicularis
c. urogenital diaphragm (p.323)
d. apex of the urinary bladder
38. The pudendal nerve:
a. has 3 major branches in the perineum (p. 363)
b. passes out from the pelvic cavity via the lesser sciatic foramen
c. enters the perineum via the greater sciatic foramen
d. none of the above is correct
39. Which of the following components of the respiratory tract wall increase/s in amount from trachea to alveoli:
a. cilia
b. elastic fibers
c. smooth muscle
d. cartilage
40. The presence of iron deposits in the cytoplasm of which of the following lung cell type is a diagnostic feature of congestive
heart failure:
a. goblet cell
b. dust cell
c. pneumocyte type II
d. Clara cell
41. In hypersensitivity reactions, this cell functions as an antigen-presenting cell in the skin:
a. keratinocyte
b. Langerhans cell
c. melanocytes
d. Merkels cell
42. Which of the following cell types comprises the visceral layer of Bowmanns capsule affected in glomerular filtration
disorders:
a. endothelial cell
b. mesangial cell
c. juxtaglomerular cell
d. podocyte
43. Which of the following hormone is most likely affected in hypothalamic tumors:
a. ADH
b. ACTH
c. FSH
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d. TSH
44. Diarrhea may result if which of the following organs fails to carry out its primary role in absorbing water from the feces:
a. anal canal
b. colon
c. jejenum
d. ileum
45. Increase aqueous humor of the eye is due to the secretion by:
a. ciliary epithelium
b. Schlemms canal
c. choriocapillary layer
d. corneal endothelium
46. Contraction of the muscles of the forearm that commonly follows fractures of the distal end of the humerus or fractures of
the radius and ulna:
a. compartment syndrome of the forearm
b. Dupuytrens contracture
c. Volkmanns ischemic contracture
d. Bontonniera deformity
47. Fracture of the distal end of the radius which occurs from a fall on the back of the hand:
a. Colles fracture
b. Monteggias fracture
c. Smiths fracture
d. Bennetts fracture
48. A young boy sustained a superficial laceration in front of his right wrist which was bleeding profusely. He had sensory loss
over the palmar aspect of the medial 1 fingers but normal sensation on the back of these fingers over the middle and
proximal phalanges. Which of the following statements about the patient is true:
a. the radial artery was cut in front of the flexor retinaculum
b. the loss of skin sensation was caused by the injury to the ulnar nerve as it crossed in front of the flexor retinaculum
c. there was no sensory loss in the palm of the hand because the palmar cutaneous branch of the ulnar nerve was cut
d. this will lead to carpal tunnel syndrome
49. Which of the following is not part of the rotator cuff muscles:
a. infraspinatus
b. subscapularis
c. supraspinatus
d. teres major (p. 412)
50. Tennis elbow is characterized by pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle of the humerus. It is caused by:
a. repeated friction between the anconeus and abductor pollicis longus
b. partial tearing of the extensor muscles from the lateral epicondyle of the humerus
c. supracondylar fracture of the humerus
d. dislocation of the elbow joint
51. Klumpkes palsy is characterized by:
a. upper lesion of the brachial plexus
b. waiters tip position
c. lower lesions of the brachial plexus (p. 489)
d. excessive traction or tearing of C5 & C6
52. Which blood vessel passes along the deltopectoral groove:
a. axillary artery
b. cephalic vein (p. 485)
c. suprascapular artery
d. basilic vein
53. Nerve supply of the anterior fascial compartment of the leg:

a. deep peroneal nerve (p. 561)
b. posterior tibial nerve
c. superficial peroneal nerve
d. sciatic nerve
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54. A 17 year old boy was crossing a busy street when he was bumped by a car on the lateral part of his right knee. X-ray showed
a fracture of the head of the fibula. The patient was seen to be dragging his right foot and catches his toes on the ground as
he walks. This of the following explains this:
a. the patient injured his common peroneal nerve
b. the medial meniscus was injured
c. skin sensation on the posterior leg is lost
d. the patient will not be able to plantarflex his right foot
55. The dorsalis pedis artery lies between the tendons of extensor hallucis longus and:
a. peroneus tertius
b. extensor digitorum brevis
c. extensor digitorum longus (p. 581)
d. extensor hallucis brevis
56. Arch of the foot which consists of the bases of the metatarsal bones and the cuboid and the 3 cuneiform bones:
a. medial longitudinal arch
b. transverse arch
c. lateral longitudinal arch
d. posterior arch
57. Pain in myocardial infarction is referred to the areas of distribution of the following spinal nerves:
a. C2 C4
b. C5 C6
c. T1 T4 (p. 129)
d. T5 T9
58. In what division of the mediastinum is thoracic duct to the duct to the left side of the vertebral column:
a. superior (p. 111)
b. inferior
c. middle
d. posterior
59. A patient with cancer of esophagus develops hoarseness. This is suggestive of direct invasion of the following structures:
a. larynx
b. left recurrent laryngeal nerve (p. 130)
c. nasal cords
d. bronchus
60. Sound of closure of the cardiac valve is heard best over the sternal end of right 4th intercostal space:
a. aortic
b. pulmonic
c. ventral
d. tricuspid (p. 106)
61. Apex beat has the some auscultation area as the following heart valve:
a. aortic
b. mitral (p. 106)
c. pulmonic
d. tricuspid
62. Composed the medial and lateral bronchopulmonary segments:
a. superior lobar
b. middle lobar
c. apical bronchopulmonary segment
d. inferior lobar
63. The cardiac area of dullness extends as far left as the:
a. midclavicular line (p. 65)
b. anterior axillary line
c. parasternal line
d. midaxillary line
64. At what reference line in the thorax would you find the lower border of the lung and its visceral pleura at the lower border of
the 8th rib:
a. midclavicular
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b. anterior axillary
c. mid axillary (p. 64)
d. scapular line
65. The base of an adult female breast extends up to the following:
a. lower border of clavicle
b. 2nd rib (p. 66)
c. 1st rib
d. 3rd rib
66. A stab wound in an the anterior chest wall just to the right of sternum at 4th ICS would most likely injure the following
structure:
a. superior vena cava
b. right ventricle
c. right atrium (p. 64)
d. inferior vena cava
67. A 48 year old female teacher was admitted to the hospital and diagnosed on a CT scan to have a thrombosis of pontine
vessels supplying the medial left sector of caudal pons. Expected neurologic findings of the patient would be:
a. ipsilateral hemiplegia
b. inability to close the right eye
c. inability of the left eye to look laterally (p. 800)
d. dysphagia
(Nos. 68-70 taken from CLINICAL NEUROANATOMY for MEDICAL STUDENTS by SNELL, 5th edition)
68. Initial manifestation of syringomyelia at the level of C6 T1 involves:

a. flaccid paralysis at the level of injury
b. positive Babinski reflex on the ipsilateral side
c. bilateral loss of pain and temperature at the upper extremities (p. 175)
d. bilateral proprioceptive loss
69. Upper motor neuron lesions involving the spinal cord can be produced by the damage to the:
a. spinothalamic tract
b. spinocerebellar tract
c. posterior columns
d. Lissauers tract
e. corticospinal tract (p. 170)
70. Stimulation of the middle frontal cortex of the cerebral cortex would most likely produce:
a. contraction of the muscles of the contralateral leg
b. visual agnosis
c. auditory hallucination
d. conjugate eye movements (p. 287)
71. The inferior angle of the trigone of the urinary bladder has opening/s for:
a. urethra (p. 322)
b. ureters
c. renal papilla
d. ejaculatory ducts
72. Attached to the central tendon of perineum:

a. bulbospongiosus
b. superficial transverse perineal muscle
c. external anal sphincter
d. all of the above
73. The pudendal nerve and/or its branches have the following characteristics, EXCEPT:
a. traverse the pudendal (Alcocks) canal
b. enter the perineum through the lesser sciatic foramen
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c. gives origin to the posterior scrotal nerves
d. supply the ischiocavernosus muscle
e. arise from S1, 2 and 3 spinal nerves (p. 363)
74. The broad ligament contains all of the following , EXCEPT the:
a. round ligament of the ovary
b. uterine tubes
c. uterine artery
d. ureters (p. 335)
e. round ligament of the uterus
Clinical Anatomy, Clinical Scenario Application, 7th Ed.

By R. Snell
Anatomy Questions
1. A 60 year old man consults at your clinic with the complain of occasional deep-seated retrosternal discomfort radiating to the
left shoulder, 2 months duration, associated with exertion. Upon auscultation, you take note of bradycardia and dysrthmia.
By incidence, the slowly occluding vessel would be the:
a. Coronary sinus
b. Right Coronary artery (p. 117)
c. Circumflex artery
d. Anterior Descending artery
2. A 70 year old chronic hypertensive patient consults with you regarding difficulty of swallowing solid food, 3 months duration.
You proceed to request for a chest X-ray and note of a 0.7 cardio-thoracic ratio. As far as the heart is concerned, the best
explanation you can give the patient regarding her swallowing difficulty is:
a. Impingement of the vagus nerve by an overriding ascending aorta
b. Compression of the thoracis esophagus by an enlarged left atrium (p. 113)
c. Compression of the recurrent laryngeal nerve underneath the aorta
d. Overly stretched pericardiophrenic and pericardiosternal ligaments, compromising swallowing
3. In the emergency evacuation of a massive hemopericardium compromising cardiac and systemic circulation, the best and
safest area to make your access incision en route to the pericardial cavity is via:
a. 5th left ICS immediately lateral to the sternum
b. 7th left ICS immediately lateral to the sternum
c. 6th left ICS 10 cm from the midsternal line
d. Immediately subxiphoidal (p. 107)
4. A 70 year old male suffered massive myocardial infarction involving the right coronary artery. With your recent knowledge,
want part/s of the heart does the right coronary artery supplies?
a. SA node
b. Right ventricle
c. AV node
d. Right atrium
e. All of the Above (p. 117)
5. Which of the following nerve will most likely to be injured in surgical repair of a patent ductus arteriosus?
a. right phrenic
b. left phrenic
c. right recurrent laryngeal
d. left recurrent laryngeal (p. 117)
6. If blood regurgitates back in the right atrium during systole. Which of the following valve is most likely to be damaged?
a. Mitral
b. Aortic
c. Tricuspid (p. 117)
d. Pulmonic
7. In the auscultation of heart valves, what valve is heard best behind the right half of the sternum opposite the 4 th intercostal
space?
a. Tricuspid valve (p. 122)
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b. Mitral valve
c. Pulmonary valve
d. Aortic valve
8. The lower border of the heart is formed mainly by what structure?
a. Right ventricle (p. 111)
b. Left ventricle
c. Right atrium
d. Left atrium
9. An 80 year old presents to your clinic with the complaint of easy fatigability. Upon auscultation of the left upper sternal
border you note a systolic murmur. On X-ray of the chest, you observe a cardiothoracic ratio of .60 with mainly right
ventricular enlargement. These findings point to:
a. Aortic stenosis
b. Pulmonary insufficiency
c. Aortic insufficiency
d. Pulmonary stenosis (p. 112)
10. A 40 year old male comes to you regarding dizziness and occasional chest pain. Upon auscultation you note a land apical
murmur. X-rays of the chest reveal normal cardio-thoracic ratio. This finding point to a:
a. Aortic valve incompetence
b. Mitral valve stenosis (p. 115)
c. Pulmonary stenosis
d. Tricuspid valve stenosis
11. Which of the following structures prevents the spread of urine inferiorly to the thigh in case of ruptured penile urethra due
to straddle injury?
a. Campers fascia
b. conjoint tendon
c. Scarpas fascia (p. 155)
d. rectus sheath
12. Which of the following structures protects an abdominal viscus from herniation into the inguinal triangle?
a. inguinal ligament
b. rectus abdominis muscle (p. 196)
c. conjoint tendon
d. lacunar ligament
13. The triangle of Calot is used to identify the:
a. hepatic artery proper
b. cystic duct
c. bile duct
d. cystic artery
14. The Celiac artery arises from the abdominal aorta approximately at the level of:
a. T6
b. T8
c. T10
d. T12 (p. 261)
15. A 25 year old female was hit on her left side by a car and thrown about 10 feet. Aside from multiple fractures, the patient
was diagnosed to have internal bleeding upon initial physical exam. What organ was most likely injured?
a. Liver
b. Kidneys
c. Intestines
d. Spleen (p. 294)
16. Swallowed gas within the proximal GIT will almost always collect in this region, as appreciated on antero-posterior X-ray
views of the abdomen:
a. Esophageal hiatus
b. Cardia (p. 234)
c. Fundus
d. Pylorus
17. What part of the posterior cranial fossa occupies the central area of the floor and transmits the Medulla oblongata?
a. Cerebellar fossa
b. Tentorium cerebella
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c. Foramen magnum (p. 799)
d. Foramen rotundum
Application
1. A 20-year old male was involved in a riot and was allegedly hit by a baseball bat at the back of the head. What injury would
the patient sustain?
A. Rupture of the Middle meningeal artery
B. A large tear in the Circle of Willis
C. Tearing of the Superior cerebral veins
D. Rupture of the Lenticulostriate artery
Answer: C (807)
2. A 15-year old girl consulted because of a growing abscess on the side of her nose. The following statements are true, Except:
A. The blood in the facial vein is unable to spread upward because of the presence of valves.
B. The danger area is drained by the facial vein
C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis can occur by the spread of infection by the venous blood
D. The facial vein communicates with the cavernous sinus via the superior and inferior ophthalmic veins
Answer: A (Page 820)
Given a laboratory finding/ radiographic finding, identify the structure involved
Application
1. Ischemia due to thrombosis in the anterior spinal artery would affect the following sensory modalities of that particular spinal
segment, EXCEPT:
A. pain C. temperature
B. light touch D. proprioception
Answer D. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p. 945, Clinical notes)
Given a patient problem, identify errors in development (germ cell, cell division, genetic disorders)
Application
1. What congenital anomaly results from the failure of development of the spines and arches of one or more vertebra?
A. Scoliosis
B. Anencephaly
C. Spina bifida
D. Lordosis
Answer: C (Page 953)
Given a clinical scenario, identify the structure involved

Recall
1. Bone will be able to heal properly as long as which of the following structures remains intact?
A. epiphysis C. medullary cavity
B. endosteum D. periosteum
2. The muscle that initiates the first 15 degrees of shoulder abduction is the:
A. trapezius C. subscapularis
B. supraspinatus D. deltoid
Answer B. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p. 490, Clinical notes)
3. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause a loss of the median nerve function?
A. Dupuytrens contracture
B. Carpal Tunnel syndrome
C. Fracture of the spiral groove of the humerus
D. Fracture of the anatomical neck of the humerus
Answer B. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p.538 , Clinical scenario Recall)
4. Femoral neck fractures may disrupt which of the following vessels?
A. femoral artery C. circumflex femoral artery
B. deep femoral artery D. artery to the head of the femur
Answer C. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p.628 , Clinical scenario Recall)
2. If the medial border of the cubital fossa is severed by a knife, which of the following structure most likely suffers damage?
A. radial nerve C. pronator teres
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B. brachioradialis D. ulnar nerve
Answer C. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p.521 , Clinical scenario Application)
3. To maintain balance and prevent the hips from tilting and sagging in the unsupported side of the pelvis while walking, the muscle
involved is the:
A. gluteus maximus C. piriformis
B. gluteus medius D. quadratus femoris
Answer B. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p.609 , Clinical scenario Application)
Identify anatomic landmarks used in Physical examination

Recall
1. The bony protruberance on the dorsal aspect of the wrist is part of what bone?
A. Radius
B. Ulna
C. Phalanges
D. Metacarpals
Answer: B (Page 468)
Application
1. A patient suffering from Wrist drop is most likely caused by injury to the:
A. Median nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Lateral cutaneous nerve
Answer: C (Page482)
2. A patient suffering from Claw hand is most likely caused by injury to the:
A. Median nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Lateral cutaneous nerve
Answer: B (Page482)

Recall
1. Fractures of the surgical neck of the humerus will most likely injure which of the following nerves?
A. musculocutaneous C. axillary
B. median D. radial
Answer C. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p. 468, Clinical notes)
Application
1. Which of the following nerve is jeopardized in a fracture of the medial epicondyle (X-ray) of the humerus?
A. Ulnar C. median
B. Radial D. musculocutaneous
Answer A. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p. 529, X-ray findings Application)
Application
1. A knife wound immediately below the right 4th rib along the midclavicular line will most likely injure the following
bronchopulmonary segment:
A. apical and posterior segment C. medial basal and anterior basal
B. medial and lateral segment D. posterior basal and lateral basal
Answer B. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p. 72, 98, Clinical notes)
2. The driver of a van involved in a vehicular accident comes in with contusions in his anterior chest wall. On X-ray, you check for rib
fractures. The most likely portion of the rib to be fractured is the:
A. neck C. anterior to the costal angle
B. attachments to its costal cartilages D. posterior to the costal angle
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Recall
1. The costal margin is the lower boundary of the thorax. It is formed by the cartilages of the:
A. 8th and 9th rib only
B. 9th and 10th rib only
C. 8th, 9th and 10th rib only
D. 8th, 9th,10th rib and the ends of the 11th and 12th rib
Answer: D (Page 67)
2. The trachea extends from the lower border of the cricoid cartilage in the neck to approximately the level of the:
A. 10th thoracic vertebra
B. Sternal angle
C. Xiphisternal joint
D. Suprasternal notch
Answer: B (Page 71)

Recall
1. An impalement injury at the area of the sternal angle would most likely injure the following structures, EXCEPT:
A. T4/T5 IV disc C. carina
B. ascending aorta D. larynx
Answer D.

Recall
1. Which of the following ligaments transmits the uterine artery as it supplies the uterus?
A. round ligament C. cardinal ligament
B. broad ligament D. uterosacral ligament
2. Which of the following provide dynamic support to the uterus?

A. position of the uterus relative to the uinary bladder C. uterosacral ligament
B. transverse cervical ligament D. muscles of the pelvic diaphragm
Application
1. In females, the rectouterine pouch is best accessible to examination via:
A rectal vault C. lateral vaginal fornix
B. anterior vaginal fornix D. posterior vaginal fornix
3. Prostatic cancer cells metastasize to the skull via the:

A. pampiniform venous plexus C. lumbar nodes
B vertebral venous plexus D. internal iliac nodes
Answer B. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p. 381, Clinical notes)

Recall
1. The normal anatomic position of the uterus is:
A. Anteverted and anteflexed
B. Retroverted and anteflexed
C. Retroverted and retroflexed
D. Anteverted and retroflexed
12
1. A culdocentesis was performed on a 27-year old female suspected to have a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. She had a 10 week
history of amenorrhea and presented with severe hypogastric pain. In culdocentesis, blood pools in the area of the
rectouterine pouch because:
A. It is the most dependent part of the entire peritoneal cavity
B. The pouch lies anteriorly to the vagina
C. The pouch has a direct contact with the uterine tubes
D. All of the above

Recall
1. A 22 year old male was rushed to the emergency room semiconscious with multiple hematomas on the right lumbar area of the
posterior abdominal wall, right gluteal region and right lateral area of the thigh. The organ most likely to be traumatized is the:
A. Liver C. Pancreas
B. Kidney D. Spleen
2. Having inserted approximately 11-12cm. of the catheter, you note some difficulty in insertion. The catheter tip is most probably in
what part of the urinary system?
A. Spongy urethra C. Prostatic urethra
B. Membranous urethra D. Urinary bladder
Recall
1. Relative anatomy of the kidney, EXCEPT:
A. Retroperitoneal
B. In the Paravertebral gutter
C. At the level of T10 and L1 vertebral bodies
D. Right kidney is lower than the left
Application
1. A 55-year old man was diagnosed to have ureteric stones. With your knowledge in the anatomy of the ureters, the following
are considered to be the anatomic narrowings, except:
A. The pelviureteral junction
B. Pass the level of L3
C. The pelvic brim
D. Upon entering the urinary bladder
2. The renal artery arises approximately from the level of the:

A. L1
B. L2
C. L3
D. L4

Recall
1. A 40 year old male complained of episode of severe pain which starts in the costovertebral angle radiating to the left scrotal area.
His urinalysis showed microscopic RBCs. He is diagnosed to have ureterolithiasis (ureter stone). Blood in the urine is most likely to
come from the following vessels, EXCEPT:
A. Testicular C. Superior vesical
B. Renal D. Left colic
Answer D. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p.284 , Lab findings Recall)
13
Application
1. A KUB-IVP was done and showed a dilated left ureter from the renal pelvis up to the level of L4. You then suspect the uterolith to be
lodged in the:
A. renal pelvis C. ureterovesical junction
B. pelvic brim D. bladder
Answer B. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p.286 , X-ray findings Application)
2. Which part of the pituitary gland is really a downward continuation of the hypothalamus?
A. Neurohypophysis C. both
B. Adenohypophysis D. neither
Answer: A
3. Which of the following is NOT a part of neurohypophysis?

A. pituitary stalk C. intermediate lobe
B. posterior lobe D. all of the above
Answer: C
7. The thyroid gland synthesizes the following hormones, EXCEPT for the:
A. T3 C. calcitonin
B. T4 D. melatonin
Answer: D

Application
1. You are manipulating the external ear canal of a 6 year old boy, attempting to remove an insect using a cotton bud. All of a sudden,
the boy starts coughing continuously and the mother begins to show concern. You should assure her that this is merely due to:
A. The insect beginning to enter the middle ear space
B. Stimulation of branches of the vagus nerve
C. Beginning effusion within the middle ear cavity due to the presence of the insect
D. None of the above
Answer B. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p.834 , Clinical scenario Application)
Recall
1. In chronic otitis media, the part of the ossicular chain that is usually first to undergo necrosis due to its poor blood supply is the:
A. lenticular process of the incus
B. stapes footplate
C. capitulum of the stapes
D. manubrium of the malleus
Answer A. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p. 839, Clinical scenario Recall)
Recall
1. The optic nerve enters the orbit passing through the optic canal is accompanied by the:
A. Ophthalmic artery
B. Suspensory ligaments of the eye
C. Ophthalmic vein
D. Trochlear nerve
2. What structure in the middle ear separates the tympanic cavity from the meninges and temporal lobe of the brain?
A. Floor of the middle ear
B. Anterior wall of the middle ear
C. Tegmen tympani
D. Mastoid antrum
Application
1. Inadequate treatment of otitis media can result in acute mastoiditis due to spread via what structure?
14
A. Semicircular ducts
B. Mastoid antrum
C. Petrous bone
D. Tegmen tympani

Histology
1. In an asthmatic person, you expect the peripheral blood smear to have higher than normal amount of:
A. Basophils C. Lymphocytes
B. Eosinophils D. Neutrophils
Answer: B
2. In a person with multiple abscess formation due to bacterial infection, you expect the peripheral blood smear to show higher than
normal values of:
A. Basophils C. Lymphocytes
B. Eosinophils D. Neutrophils
Answer: D

Histology
1. On surfaces constantly exposed to abrasion, such as the skin and esophagus, the most suitable epithelium that can afford
protection is:
A. simple squamous C. stratified squamous
B. transitional D. pseudostratified
Answer: C
SIMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE. CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER.
UPPER LIMB
1. A spiral fracture in the middle to distal third of the humerus may injure this structure:
a. axillary artery c. radial artery
b. radial nerve d. axillary nerve
Chapter 9 Page 439
THORAX
2. Chest radiograph taken during the inspiratory phase of respiration will show a vertically elongated cardiac shadow because :
a. the heart is compressed by the expanded lungs
b. the fibrous pericardium is adherent to the mediastinal pleura
c. parietal pericardium is fused to the central tendon of the diaphragm
d. of increased intrathoraic pressure
Chapter 3 Page 105
3. The hormone calcitonin is produced by what particular endocrine cell?

a. thyrocyte c. parafollicular cells
b. chief cell of the parathyroid d. oxyntic cells of the prathyroid
Chapter Page
4. Surfactant production is a function of which of the following cells of the pulmonary system?
a. pneumocytes type I c. endothelium
b. pneumocytes type II d. Clara cells
Chapter 3 Page 100
5. The following are features of the right primary bronchus, EXCEPT that:
a. It is shorter c. it is more vertical
b. It is narrower d. It has 3 branches
Chapter 3 Page 90
15
6. The blood supply of the heart are branches of:
a. ascending aorta c. thoraic aorta
b. arch of aorta d. bronchial artery
Chapter 3 Page 117
7. A blood clot detached from the right ventricular wall will likely cause obstruction to the blood vessel that supply the following
organ:
a. lungs c. brain
b. kidney d. liver
Chapter 3 Page 112
8. Deoxygenated blood from the fetus is brough back to the maternal circulation through the following blood vessels
a. ductus venosus c. umbilical artery
b. umbilical vein d. vitteline vein
Chapter 3 Page 111
9. Sternal angle of Louis refers to a

a. depression at the upper border of the sternum
b. joint between manubrium and body of sternum
c. joint between body and xiphoid process of sternum
d. junction of 1st rib, clavicle and manubrium sterni
Chapter 2 Page 67
HEAD AND NECK
10. The following intrinsic muscles of the larynx are supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve EXCEPT the:
a. oblique arytenoid c. thyroarytenoid
b. cricothyroid d. posterior cricoarytenoid
Chapter 16 Page 869
11. ACTH is release by released by the pituitary gland through the influence of:
a. thalamus c. hypothalamus
b. cerebellum d. basal ganglia
Chapter Page
12. Parathyroid hormone stimulates this cell to increase the blood calcium level:
a. Osteoclast c. chondroblast
b. Osteoblast d. chondrocyte
Chapter 11 Page 747
13. Thyroid hormones, T3 and T4 are secreted by what cell of thyroid gland?
a. acidophil c. follicular
b. basophil d. parafollicular
Chapter 11 Page 745
14. The veins which drain the tongue, tonsils and the rest of the oral cavity all drain in the:
a. external jugular vein c. external carotid vein
b. internal jugular vein d. external carotid vein
Chapter 11 Page 847
15. The nerve supply for general sensations of the mucous membrane covering the anterior two thirds of the tongue is the:
a. glossopharyngeal nerve c. lingual nerve
b. hypoglossal nerve d. chorda tympani branch of facial nerve
Chapter 11 Page 847
16
ABDOMEN
16. Which of the following arteries supplies the lower part of the greater curvature of the stomach?
a. left gastric artery c. left gastroepiploic artery
b. right gastric artery d. right gastroepiploic artery
Chapter 5 Page 237
17. The submucosallayer is seen in the following organs of the digestive system EXCEPT:
a. oesophagus c. large intestines
b. gallbladder d. duodenum
Chapter Page
18. Which of the following structures is NOT a component of the portal triad of the liver?
a. bile ductile c. central vein
b. hepatic arteriole d. portal vein
Chapter 5 Page 266
19. Which cell consist monocyte marcophage system of the liver?

a. Ito cells c. Kupffer cells
b. Fibroblast in the space of Disse d. hepatocytes
Chapter Page
20. The cells of zona glomerulosa of adrenal cortex procedure what hormone that influences the electrolyte and water balance
of the body?
a. cortisone c. aldosterone
b. vasopressin d. epinephrine
Chapter 4 Page 217
21. The renal facia is derived from the fascia of the abdominal wall
a. lumbodorsal c. psoas
b. transversalis d. diaphragmatic
Chapter 5 Page 281
22. Which of the following organs is located anterior to the right kidney?
a. Pancreas c. duodenum
b. Jejunum d. spleen
Chapter 5 Page 281
23. The arrangement of the structures in the renal pedicle from anterior to posterior is:
a. vein, artery, ureter c. ureter, vein artery
b. artery, vein ureter d. vein, ureter, artery
Chapter 6 Page 357
24. Which of the following statement regarding the bladder is NOT true?
a. Its a muscular receptacle for storage of urine
b. The empty bladder in adults is located entirely in the pelvis
c. Its posterior wall is also its base
d. It is an intraperitoneal organ
Chapter 6 Page 357
25. The blood vessels that conveys 70% of blood to the liver is the:
a. hepatic artery c. hepatic vein
b. portal vein d. inferior vena cava
Chapter 5 Page 267
26. Among the following tributaries, which vein joins the splenic vein to form the portal vein
a. left gastric vein c. right gastric vein
b. inferior mesenteric vein d.superior mesenteric vein
Chapter 5 Page 277
17
27. Which of the following represents an internal difference between the small and large intestines?
a. Longitudinal muscle arrangement c. plicae circulares
b. Appendices epiploicae d.intestinal sasculation
Chapter 5 Page 265
28. The part of the duodenum which is posterior to the fundus of the gallbladder, right hepatic lobe and transverse colon and
anterior to the hilium of the right kidney is:
a. duodenal cap (superior) c. transverse part
b. descending part d. ascending part
Chapter 5 Page 245
29. The structure along the gastrointetinal tract that is formed from the most caudal protion of the foregut and the most
cephalic end of the midgut is the:
a. gastroesophageal junction c. iloececal junction
b. duodenum d. left colic flexure
Chapter 5 Page 239
PERINEUM AND PELVIS
30. The endocrine part of the testis that secretes the hormone Testosterone?
a. sertoli cells c. spermatocyte
b. Lyedig cells d. spermatogonia
Chapter 8 Page 448
31. The integrity of the blood-testis barrier is a function of which cell of the male reproductive tract?
a. sertoli cells c. germinal epithelium
b. Leydg cells d. spermatozoons
Chapter 8 Page 469
32. After traumatic rupture of penile urethra distal to urogenital diaphragm, urine would likely extravasate to the:
a. scrotum c. anal triangle
b. posterior abdominal wall d. deep perineal pouch
Chapter 8 Page 437
33. Fertilization of an egg by a sperm normally occurs at the:

a. infusdibulum of the fallopian tube c. isthmus of the fallopian tube
b. ampulla of the fallopian tube d. entrauterine portion of the fallopian tube
Chapter 7 Page 344
34. The structure that maintains the normal position of the uterus is the:
a. broad ligament c. peritoneum
b. round ligament d. ureter
Chapter 4 Page 392
35. The vas deferens end by joining the ducts of the:

a. epididymis c. bulbourethral glands
b. prostate gland d. seminal vesicles
Chapter 4 Page 176
36. Which of the following parts of the male reproductive system is supplied by a branch of the abdominal aorta?
a. epididymis c. seminal vesicles
b. vas deferens d. prostate gland
Chapter 4 Page 179
37. The narrowest part of the male urethra is the:

a. Prostatic c. spongy
18
b. membranous d. external orifice
Chapter 8 Page 436
38. When doing hysterctomy one should be careful in cutting the following ligaments because it contains the ovarian artery and
veins and may cause bleeding if anadvertently cut
a. broad ligaments c. round ligaments
b. suspensory ligaments d. ovarian ligaments
Chapter 4 Page 397
39. This uterine ligament extends from the utherus to the labia majora
a. transverse cervical ligament c. round ligament
b. uterosacral ligament d. broad ligament
Chapter 7 Page 394
INTRODUCTION TO BASIC ANATOMIC STRUCTURES
40. The endothelium of capillaries is well adapted for the function of exchange of gases and nutrients because it is made up of
what type of epithelium?
a. stratified c. transsitional
b. psuedostratified d. simple
Chapter 1 Page 21
41. The main cell in connective tissue involved in tissue repair:
a. plasma cell c. fibroblast
b. mast cell d. adipose cell
Chapter Page
42. The type of specialized connective tissue which has a rigid consistency due to disposition of inorganic salts:
a. cartilage c. myeloid
b. bone d. blood
Chapter Page
BACK
43. The spinal cord is anchored vertically to the coccyx by the:
a. denticulate ligament c. filum terminale
b. cauda equina d. ligamentum flavum
Chapter 12 Page 143
44. The fasciculus cuneatus is found at this spinal cord segment:

a. lumbar c. sacral
b. thoracic d. cervical
Chapter 12 Page 941
45. The lateral coticospinal tract carry these impulses to the effector organs:
a. motor c. sysmpathetic
b. sensory d. parasympathetic
Chapter Page
46. Pain and temperature impulses on the left sole ascends to the thalamic are via:
a. ipsilateral lateral spinothalamic tract c. ipsilateral posterior column
b. contralateral lateral spinothalamic tract d. contralateral posterior column
Chapter 11 Page 810
47. Loss of pain ad temperature sensation at the level of the umbilicus points to a lesion at this cord level:
a. T10 c. T8
b. L2 d. T12
Chapter Page
48. The fiber tract that coordinates the functions of cranial nevers II, IV and VI:
a. medial lemniscus c. medial longitudal fasciculus
19
b. fasciculus gracilis d. lateral lemniscus
Chapter Page
49. The efferent nucleus of the pupillary light reflex is:

a. lateral geniculate body c. Edinger-Westpal
b. oculomotor nucleus d. trouchlear nucleus
Chapter Page
50. CSF flows from the 3rd ventricle to the 4th ventricle via:
a. Formina of Monro c. cerebral aqueduct
b. Foramina of Magendie d. Foramina of Luschka
Chapter 12 Page 947
51. Pain and temperature sensation from the head is received in the brainstrem by the:
a. mesencphalic nucleus of V c. motor nucleus of V
b. trigeminal spinal nucleus d. nucleus ambigous
Chapter Page
Source: Clinical Anatomy

Richard S. Snell 7th Edition (Lippincott Williams & Wilkins)
7. Postoperative hoarseness after thyroidectomy results if one of the recurrent nerves is accidentally cut while ligating which of the
following vessels?
A. superior thyroid artery C. superior thyroid vein
B. inferior thyroid artery D. middle thyroid vein
Page 746
9. Which of the following nerves is the largest branch of the lumbar plexus and supplies all the muscles of the anterior fascial
compartment of the thigh?
A. femoral
B. sciatic
C. obturator
D. deep peroneal
Page 621
10. A 50 year old male patient sustains an injury to the lateral aspect of the right knee. Due to the heavy impact on the injured area
the nerve most likely to be injured is likely to produce:
A. plantar flexion C. dorsiflexion
B. knee flexion D. foot enversion
Page 653, 655-660
11. The safest area to administer intramuscular medications in the gluteal area is at the
A. upper inner quadrant C. lower inner quadrant
B. upper outer quadrant D. lower outer quadrant
Page 608
12. The medial umbilical fold in the posterior surface of the anterior abdominal wall covers the
A. internal epigastric vessels C. obliterated umbilical artery
B. remnant of the urachus D. linea alba
Page 352
20
13. Which of the following is an example of a saddle joint?
A. carpometacarpal joint of the thumb
B. metacarpophalangeal joint of the index finger
C. shoulder joint
D. wrist joint
Page 17
15. All of the following statements about the adrenal gland are correct EXCEPT:
A. They are retroperitoneal organs.
B. Both adrenal veins drain into the inferior vena cava.
C. The superior adrenal arteries are branches of the inferior phrenic arteries.
D. They are innervated predominantly by preganglionic sympathetic fibers.
Page 290-291
16. Which is an INCORRECT statement about an intervertebral disc?

A. during aging, fluid within the nucleus pulposus is replaced by fibrocartilage
B. atlanto-axial joint possesses no disc
C. nucleus pulposus is most likely to herniate in an anterolateral direction
D. disc are thickest in the lumbar region
Page 929-932
17. After extensive surgical dissection in the posterior cervical triangle, drooping of the skin in the neck was noted postoperatively.
This is due to injury of what nerve?
A. trigeminal C. spinal accessory
B. hypoglossal D. facial
Page 771-773
18. Not found in the CNS

A. astrocytes C. bipolar cells
B. Schwann cell D. oligodendrocytes
Page 330 Bloom and Fawcett
24. Which of the following structures does not form the anterior surface of the heart?
A. right ventricle
B. right atrium
C. left ventricle
D. left atrium
Page 110
26. An occlusion of the superior mesenteric artery would result in necrosis of

of each of the following EXCEPT the:
A. ascending colon
B. rectum
C. cecum
D. ileum
Page 261
21
27. Space between the cornea and the iris and lens
A. anterior chamber
B. posterior chamber
C. vitreous cavity
D. aqueos humor
Page 831-832
28. A severe infection that obstructs the middle meatus would affect drainage from each of the following sinuses EXCEPT the
A. maxillary sinus
B. frontal sinus
C. nasolacrimal duct
D. anterior ethmoid air cells
Page 860
29. A patient is unable to taste a piece of sugar placed on the anterior part of
the tongue.which cranial nerve is likely to have a lesion?
A. hypoglossal nerve
B. vagus nerve
C. glossopharyngeal nerve
D. facial
Page 904
30. When a patient attempts protrusion of the tongue,the tongue deviates to the right. This would indicate damage to which of the
following nerves?
A. right glossopharyngeal
B. left accessory
C. right hypoglossal
D. left hypoglossal
Page 910
31. If a patient presented with a permanently dilated pupil, which one of the following nerves could be assumed to be involved?
A. optic
B. sympathetic trunk
C. ophthalmic
D. occulomotor
Page 903
33. Damage to the anatomic snuffbox might be expected to injure the

A. ulnar nerve
B. median nerve
C. ulnar artery
D. radial artery
Page 533
34. Following a tonsillectomy, a patient noted loss of general sensation and taste from the posterior 1/3 of the tongue. It could be
assumed that the injured nerve was a branch of the
A. glossopharyngeal nerve
B. facial nerve
C. lingual nerve
D. vagus nerve
Page 904
35. A stab wound on the neck which injures the spinal root of CN XI results to the following signs and symptoms EXCEPT:
22
A loss of pain sensation on the shoulder and upper chest
B. drooping of the shoulder
C. inability to elevate the shoulder
D. weakness and atrophy of the trapezius
Page 909-910
38. The cerebral aqueduct is located in the

A. cerebrum C. midbrain
B. diencephalons D. pons
Page 810
41. This histologic structure of the duodenum that neutralizes the highly acidic content of the stomach:
A. crypts of Leiberkuhns
C. Brunners gland
B. microvilli D. glycocalyx
Page 633-635 Bloom and Fawcet
42. Extensor compartment of the leg

A. anterior compartment
C. peroneal compartment
B. lateral compartement
D. posterior compartment
Page 660
43. The thoracic duct passes through the diaphragm through the
A. aortic hiatus
C. caval foramen
B. esophageal hiatus
D. sternocostal hiatus
Page 62-64
44. Posterior to the neck of the pancreas this vessel is formed

A. inferior vena cava C. portal vein
B. celiac trunk D. thoracic duct
Page 262-263
45. The sternal angle is a useful landmark in counting the intercostal space and it corresponds to the level of
A. 1st costal cartilage C. 3rd costal cartilage
nd th
B. 2 costal cartilage D. 4 costal cartilage
Page 67
47. Damage to the anterior division of the middle meningeal artery may results into what type of intracranial hemorrhage
A. extradural hemorrhage C. subdural hemorrhage
B. subarachnoid hemorrhage D. cerebral hemorrhage
Page 897
23
48. Granular leukocytes EXCEPT:
A. neutrophil C. monocyte
B. basophil D. eosinophil
Page 129 Bloom and Fawcett
50. Clinical findings of epistaxis, cerebrospinal rhinorrhea or exophthalmos is due to fracture of the
A. anterior cranial fossa C. posterior cranial fossa
B. middle cranial fossa D. none of the above
Page 798 802
51. The structure that serves as a landmark in doing pudendal block anesthesia through a transvaginal approach is the:
A. iliac crest C. ischial spine
B. ischial tuberosity D. sacral promontory
Page 339 423
53. To what vein does the left ovarian vein drain into?
A. renal C. portal
B. IVC D. iliac vein
Page386
55. In doing thoracentesis, which of the following layers is not penetrated by the needle?
A. intercostal muscles C. superficial fascia
B. endothoracic D. visceral pleura
Page 61
59. The powerful extension of the thigh required when one is standing from the sitting position is the function of the
A. gluteus maximus muscle
B. psoas major muscle
C. piriformis muscle
D. iliacus muscle
Page 603
60. The osseous labyrinth of the internal ear consists of the
A. vestibule
B. sacculus
C. semicircular duct
D. utriculus
Page 842
63. The main venous drainage of the heart is the
A. great cardiac vein C. azygos vein
B. coronary sinus D. inferior vena cava
Page 121
65. A patient with an isolated injury to the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve would present with
A. atrophy of the temporalis muscle on the affected side
B. flattened nasao-labial fold on the affected side
24
C. numbness of the cheek on the affected side
D. A and C only
Page 768
66. For a soccer player to have a strong kick he must develop his
A. hamstring muscles C. quadriceps femoris
B. pes anserinus muscles D. gluteal muscles
Page 624
68. A massive infarction of the heart involving the septum, apex, ventricle (left) is likely due to obstruction of the:
A. right coronary artery C. L-ant. descending artery
B. circumflex artery D. right interventricular\
Page 119-120
70. Fate of the Graafian follicle immediately after ovulation

A. corpus luteum
B. atretic follicle
C. corpus albicans
D. none of the above
Page 825-826 Bloom and Fawcett
71. Following a hard blow to the anterior shoulder, a weakness of the flexion of the arm at the shoulder joint would suggest damage
to which of the following muscles?
A. rhomboid major
B. supraspinatus
C. pectoralis minor
D. biceps brachii
Page 500 505
72. Loss of function of the muscles of the posterior compartment of the leg and the sole of the foot is associated with paralysis of
A. tibial nerve
B. common fibular nerve
C. deep fibular nerve
D. superficial fibular nerve
Page 662
73. All of the following forms the boundary of the perineum, EXCEPT:
A. pubic symphysis C. coccyx
B. ischial tuberosities D. sacrospinous ligaments
Page 416
76. Which of the following muscles will be paralyzed if there is a lesion of the ulnar nerve?
A. medial two lumbricals and opponens pollicis
B. palmar interossei and adductor pollicis
C. dorsal interossei & lateral two lumbricals
D. medial and lateral lumbricals
Page 546
77. In males, the mucus-secreting glands found within the deep perineal pouch are the:
25
A. seminal cuneatus C. Cowper's glands
B. Skene's glands D. prostate glands
Page 435
79. The following is a subdivision of the posterior triangle of the neck

A. Digastric C. Subclavian
B. Submental D. Carotid
Page 730
81. The gastrohepatic ligament attaches to this part of the stomach

A. fundus C. lesser curvature
B. greater curvature D. none of the above
Page 219
82. The following are sources of blood supply of the stomach; EXCEPT:
A. right gastric artery C. hepatic proper artery
B. left gastric artery D splenic artery
Page 237
83. Lateral wall of middle ear:

A. tympanic membrane C. carotid wall
B. tegmen tympani D. ventricular wall
Page 834
84. Paranasal sinus that communicates with the nasal cavity through its opening in the superior meatus:
A. posterior ethmoidal C. frontal
B. anterior ethmoidal D. sphenoid
Page 863-864
85. This bone forms part of the nasal septum:
A. sphenoid C. ethmoid
B. nasal bone D. frontal
Page 790
89. The dorsalis pedis artery is a terminal branch of the
A. anterior tibial artery
C. peroneal artery
B. posterior tibial artery
D. saphenous artery
Page 627
90. Structure that is easily damaged/cut during abdominal hysterectomy

A. obturator nerve C. internal iliac artery
B. ureter D. umbilical artery
Page397
93. A 47 y.o. man was riding his motorcycle when a jaywalker suddenly crossed his path.
His sudden brake and turn caused him to lose control and he subsequently fell hitting
the pavement with his head and shoulder. On examination his upper limb hung
limply on the side, medially rotated and forearm pronated. Diagnosis: Erb-Duchenne
26
Palsy. Which statement is true regarding Erb-Duchenne Palsy?
A. involves upper brachial plexus
B. caused by excessive abduction of the arm
C. there is no paralysis of the arm muscles
D. skin sensation of the whole arm is intact
Page 577
94. All of the following vessels are part of the Circle of Willis EXCEPT:
A. Posterior communicating artery
B. Anterior cerebral artery
C. Lateral striate arteries
D. Posterior cerebral arteries
Page 814
96. Motor nerve supply of the face
A. VI C. VIII
B.VII D. X
Page 771-772
97. The origin of the axillary vein :
A. basilic vein
C. vena comitantes of brachial art.
B. subclavian vein D. A & C
Page 477
98. The junction between the anterior 2/3 and posterior 1/3 of the tongue is marked by the
A. circumvallate
C. palatopharyngeal fold
B. sulcus terminalis
D. glossoepiglottic fold
Page 846
100. In the cardiac silhouette of a radiograph the right border of the heart is formed by:
A. right ventricle
C. left atrium
B. right atrium
D. pulmonary trunk
Reference: Clinical Anatomy for Medical Students by Richard Snell, 7th ed.
A 2 Transection of the costocervical artery will disrupt blood flow to this artery 56
A. 2nd posterior intercostal
B. 3rd posterior intercostal
C. 2nd anterior intercostal
D. 3rd anterior intercostal
MPL:0.25
B 3 Apex beat of the heart is normally located at the left 70

th
A. 4 intercostal space
B. 5th intercostal space
C. 3rd intercostal space
D. 6th intercostal space
MPL:1
27
B 4 Penetrating stab wound at the root of the neck will likely injure the 74
A. arch of aorta
B. apex of lung
C. azygous vein
D. trachea
MPL:0.5
B 5 This structure is located between 2 adjacent bronchopulmonary segments 97

A. segmental bronchus
B. segmental vein
C. segmental artery
D. segmental autonomic nerves
MPL:0.25
C 6 Embolus that forms in the left ventricle will may enter the ff: structure EXCEPT 121
A. arch of aorta
B. brachiocephalic artery
C. left pulmonary artery
D. right subclavian artery
MPL:1
B 7 Injury or disruption of the moderator band will also disrupt this part of the 116
conducting system
A. atrio-ventricular node
B. right bundle branch
C. left bundle branch
D. D. Purkinje fibers
MPL:0.5
B 9 The delay in impulse conduction thru the AV node is necessary 116

A. to strengthen contraction of atrium
B. adequate filling of the ventricles
C. prevent turbulent flow
D. allow coronary blood flow
MPL:0.25
C 10 Malignant tumors of the mediastinum will result in 133

A. pneumothorax
B. paralysis of intercostal muscles
C. paralysis of diaphragm
D. pnemomediastinum
MPL:0.5
A 13Rectus sheath hematoma sustained from trauma to the abdomen results from injury 164
to this vessel
A. inferior epigastric artery
B. deep circumflex iliac vein
C. superficial epigastric artery
D. superficial epigastric vein
MPL:0.33
A 14 The location of the superficial inguinal ring is 172

A. external oblique aponeurosis
B. internal oblique
C. transversalis fascia
D. Campers fascia
MPL:0.33
28
D 15 An indirect inguinal hernia passes thru deep inguinal ring lateral to this structure 194
A. superficial epigastric artery
B. deep circumflex iliac artery
C. rectus abdominis
D. inferior epigastric artery
MPL:.0.5
C 16 This structure is located outside the femoral sheath 624

A. femoral artery
B. femoral vein
C. femoral nerve
D. lymphatic vessels
MPL:0.33
B 18 Blunt trauma to the anterior abdominal wall will most likely injure this part of the 243
duodenum
A. first part ( superior)
B. third part (horizontal)
C. second part ( descending)
D. 4th part ( ascending)
MPL:0.25
C 19 This structure can be traced towards the base of the appendix and be used as 246
a guide for looking for the appendix
A. haustra
B. appendices epiplocae
C. taenia coli
D. mesoappendix
MPL:0.5
D 20The presence of mesocolon in this segment of large intestine also makes it prone 251
to volvulus
A. ascending colon
B. cecum
C. descending colon
D. sigmoid colon
MPL:0.5
B 21 True regarding Meckels diverticulum 259

A. its a pseudodiverticulum
B. possess gastric mucousa
C. located 20 ft. from the ileo-ceal valve
D. due to persistence of urachus
MPL:0.5
B 22 The quadrate lobe of the liver is located at 265

A. between the ligamentum venosum and the inferior vena cava
B. between the round ligament and the gallbladder bed
C. behind the porta hepatis
D. lateral to the falciform ligament
MPL:0.5
C 23 The fundus of the gallbladder is located at the level of 268

A. 7th costal cartilage
B. 8th costal cartilage
C. 9th costal cartilage
29
D. 6t cartilage
MPL:0.25
C 24 Most common origin of the cystic artery 268

A. celiac artery
B. left hepatic artery
C. right hepatic artery
D. gastroduodenal
MPL:0.5
D 25 Which is NOT true regarding the blood supply of the pancreas 275
A. inferior pancreatico-duodenal artery supplies the head
B. venous drainage is to the portal vein
C. splenic artery gives branches to the body
D. origin of the superiorpancreaticoduodenal artery is the celiac artery
MPL:1
C 26 Space in the kidney that receives the renal pelvis 281

A. renal papilla
B. major calyx
C. renal sinus
D. renal hilum
MPL:0.5
C 27 Branch of the anterior division of the internal iliac artery 351

A. Ilio-lumbar
B. superior gluteal
C. Inferior gluteal
D. lateral sacral
MPL:0.25
B 28 This nerve accompanies the lumbosacral trunk as it descends into the pelvis 350
A. sciatic nerve
B. obturator nerve
C. pudendal nerve
D. superior gluteal nerve
MPL:0.25
A 29 Part of the urinary bladder that lie behind the upper border of the symphysis 383
pubis
A. Apex
B. base
C. neck
D. lateral surface
MPL:0.5
D 30 This is true regarding the relation of the prostate to other structures 378
A. superiorly related to the uro-genital diaphragm
B. inferiorly related to the perineal membrane
C. anteriorly related to the levator ani
D. posteriorly related to the Denonvilliers fascia
MPL:0.25
C 31 During hysterectomy the ureter is prone to injury at this level 397

A. isthmus of the fallopian tube
B. ovarian artery
C. internal os
30
D. body of the uterus
MPL:0.25
D 32 Supports the middle part of the vagina 403

A. pubocervical
B. perineal body
C. levator ani
D. urogenital diaphragm
MPL:0.33
A 33 Content of the carotid triangle of the neck 735

A. hypoglossal nerve
B. anterior belly of digastrics
C. sternothyroid
D. inferior belly of omohyoid
MPL:0.5
D 34 The pulsation felt anterior to the crus of the helix of the ear is 737
A. maxillary artery
B. facial artery
C. posterior auricular artery
D. superficial temporal artery
MPL:0.33
C 36 Branch of the maxillary division of trigeminal that supplies the skin of cheek 766
and nose
A. infratrochlear
B. external nasal
C. infraorbital
D. mental nerve
MPL:0.5
C 37 This is a muscle of mastication 775

A. buccinators
B. risorius
C. temporalis
D. orbicularis oris
MPL:0.5
B 38 Prevents posterior dislocation of the mandibular head 783

A. tympanic plate
B. lateral temporomandibular ligament
C. articular disc
D. sphenomandibular ligament
MPL:0.25
C 41 Tear in the superior cerebral vein results in hemorrhage into the 807
A. subarachnoid space
B. epidural space
C. subdural space
D. intracerebral
MPL:0.5
A 42 Lacerated wound up to the first layer of the foot will transect 668
A. abductor digiti minimi
B. quadrates plantae
C. flexor digiti minimi
31
D. adductor hallucis
MPL:0.25
C 46 Most medially located structure in the femoral triangle 620

A. femoral artery
B. femoral nerve
C. femoral lymph vessels
D. femoral vein
MPL:1
D 47 Derived from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus 477

A. radial nerve
B. median nerve
C. ulnar nerve
D. musculo-cutaneous nerve
MPL:0.25
B 48 The thoracodorsal nerve is derived from this part of the brachial plexus 480
A. superior trunk
B. posterior cord
C. roots of plexus
D. medial cord
MPL:0.25
B 49 Extra-occular muscle of the eye is innervated by the trochlear nerve 824

A. lateral rectus
B. superior oblique
C. superior rectus
D. inferior oblique
MPL:0.5
C 52 The cell that secretes Calcitonin which lowers blood Calcium level by inhibiting 315
the rate of decalcification of bone is:
A. Follicular
B. Principal
C. Parafollicular
D. Oxyphil
MPL:0.5
D 54 The phase of the Menstrual cycle that coincides with the functional activity 746
of the corpus luteum and primarily influenced by progesterone secretion:
A. Menstrual
B. Luteal
C. Proliferative
D. Secretory
MPL:0.5
C 55 The properties of motility and ability to fertilize an oocyte are acquired by mature 703
sperm cell in what portion of Male reproductive system?
A. Ductus deferens
B. Seminiferous tubules
C. Epididymis
D. Ejaculatory duct
MPL:0.5
B 56 Destruction of these cells will lead to a clinical condition known as Multiple 297
sclerosis:
32
A. Astrocytes
B. Oligodendrocytes
C. Ependymal cells
D. Schwann cells
MPL:0.5
A 57 What cell forms part of the Blood Testis barrier performing protective and 334
Nutritive functions for the developing sperm cells?
A. Sertoli
B. Principal
C. Leydig
D. Spermatogonium
MPL:0.5
B 58 The Stratum Functionalis of Endometrium that undergoes changes during 351

Menstrual cycle and is shed during Menstruation; is histologically and functionally
made up of what layers?
A. Stratum Compactum and Stratum Basalis
B. Stratum Compactum and Stratum Spongiosum
C. Stratum Basalis and Stratum Spongiosum
D. Stratum Compactum, Stratum Spongiosum and Stratum Basalis
MPL:1
D 59 The part of the Adrenal gland which secretes Aldosterone that functions in the 665
control of blood pressure is:
A. Adrenal medulla
B. Zona Fasciculata
C. Zona Reticularis
D. Zona Glomerulosa
MPL :0.33
C 60 Parkinsons disease is a slowly progressive neurologic disorder caused by loss of 292

Dopamine secreting cells in the _______________ of the brain.
A. Red nucleus
B. Globus pallidus
C. Substantia nigra
D. Putamen
MPL:0.25
D 61 Second Meiotic division in the process of Oogenesis will only be completed if 735
there is:
A. Implantation
B. Menstruation
C. Ovulation
D. Fertilization
MPL:0.25
B 62 In cases of nerve fiber injury, what structure in the perikaryon will be decreased 314
in number?
A. Mitochondria
B. Nissl body
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Ribosome
MPL:0.25
C 63 Fertilization occurs in what segment of the Uterine tube? 742
33
A. A.Infundibulum
B. B.Isthmus
C. Ampulla
D. Intramural
MPL:1
A 64 Glaucoma is a clinical condition resulting from increased intraocular pressure as 798

a result of obstruction of the drainage or excessive secretion of Aqueous humor.
The structure that secretes Aqueous humor is the:
A. Ciliary processes
B. Corneal stroma
C. Choroid
D. Iris
MPL:0.5
D 66 Infections of the membranous labyrinth will result to what clinical condition? 832
A. Dizziness
B. Conductive hearing loss
C. Vertigo
D. Sensorineural hearing loss
MPL:0.5
C 67 In older men, calcified and concentric lamellated bodies known as Corpora 709
Amylacea are seen in the alveoli of what gland?
A. Pineal
B. Pituitary
C. Prostate
D. Cowpers
MPL:1
B 68 Destruction of these cells in the Pancreas leads to increase blood glucose levels 557
And presence of glucose in the urine, a condition known as Diabetes Mellitus.
A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Delta
D. Sigma
MPL:1
A 69 Retinal detachment involves separation of the neural retina from what structure? 799
A. Pigment epithelium
B. Descemets membrane
C. Bruchs membrane
D. Corneal epithelium
MPL:0.25
D 70 The smallest of the neuroglial cells that forms part of the Mononuclear phagocytic 297
System is:
A. Astrocyte
B. Oligodendrocyte
C. Ependyma
D. Microglia
MPL:1
C 71 Melatonin which regulates daily body rhythms and day /night cycle is secreted by 655
What endocrine gland?
A. Pituitary
B. Thyroid
34
C. Pineal
D. Adrenal
MPL:0.5
A 72 Lack of menstruation during lactation and infertility exhibited by fully breast 763
feeding women is due to high levels of Prolactin which suppress secretion of:
A. Luteinizing hormone
B. Follicle stimulating hormone
C. Estrogen
D. Progesterone
MPL:0.33
C 74 In Graves disease, these cells are stimulated and increased in number and size leading to abnormal secretions of
Thyroid hormones: 659
A. Parafollicular
B. Oxyphil
C. Follicular
D. Chief
MPL:0.5
B 75 The secretions of this endocrine gland prepares the body for fight or flight 665
response:
A. Adrenal cortex
B. Adrenal medulla
C. Anterior Pituitary
D. Posterior Pituitary
MPL:0.5
D 93 What organ system contains transitional epithelium? 309

A. A.Cardiovascular system
B. Gastrointestinal system
C. Nervous system
D. Urinary system
MPL:1
D 95 Which of the following gastric cells secretes pepsin? 255

A. Betz cells
B. Oxyntic cells
C. Leydigs cells
D. Zymogenic cells
MPL:0.5
D 96 Where is the impulse conducting system of the heart located? 344

A. Endocardium
B. Epicardium
C. Myocardium
D. Subendocardium
MPL:0.5
D 99 Which of the following cells contains Barr bodies? 50

Eosinophil
Lymphocyte
Mast cell
Segmenter
MPL:0.25
D 100 What is the principal organelle involved in detoxification and conjugation of 39
35
Noxious substances?
A. Golgi apparatus
B. Lysosome
C. Mitochondrion
D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
MPL:0.5
2. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the superior vena cava?

A. It has a valve at the atrial orifice.
B. It is formed by the union of brachiocephalic veins.
C. It conducts returning blood from the superior half of the body.
D. Its atrial orifice is at the level of the right third costal cartilage.
Answer: A, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p111
3. An intern would like to auscultate the aortic valve. He should put his stethoscope at which of the following areas?
A. right 2nd ICS, sternal margin C. right 5th ICS, sternal margin
nd th
B. left 2 ICS, sternal margin D. 5 ICS, left midclavicular line
4. Which of the following veins drain directly into the right atrium?
A. great cardiac C. smallest cardiac
B. small cardiac D. posterior cardiac
Answer: C, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p121
7. Which of the following statements is TRUE of the tricuspid valve?

A, It consists of 3 semilunar cusps.
B. The bases of the cusps are attached to chordae tendinae.
C. It guards the left atrio-ventricular orifice.
D. The valve is open during diastole.
Answer: D, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p112
8.The baroreceptor within the wall of the internal carotid artery is the?
A. aortic body C. carotid sinus
B. carotid body D. glomus
Basic Histology: Text and Atlas, Junqueira and Carneiro. 10th Ed., p225
9. Injury to which of the following layers of the arterial wall would initiate plaque formation in atherosclerosis?
A. basement membrane C. tunica adventitia
B. smooth muscles of tunica media D. tunica intima
Answer: D, Basic Histology: Text and Atlas, Junqueira and Carneiro. 10th Ed., p223
10. During fetal circulation, blood from the pulmonary trunk goes to the aorta via the:
A. ductus arteriosus C. foramen ovale
B. ductus venosus D. umbilical vein
Answer: B, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p131
13. What structure passes through the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm?
A. azygos vein C. phrenic nerve
B. thoracic duct D. vagus nerve
14. The blood vessel that bridges above the hilum of the RIGHT lung is the:
A. aortic arch C. pulmonary artery
36
B. azygos arch D. superior vena cava
15. Chest X-ray finding of a patient having difficulty of breathing showed blunting of the costodiaphragmatic angle. If the patient will
undergo thoracentesis to evacuate pleural fluid, the physician should insert the needle at the midaxillary line:
A. 6th ICS, midclavicular line, superior border of the lower rib
B. 7th ICS, posterior axillary line, superior border of the lower rib
C. 7th ICS, midaxillary line, inferior border of the upper rib
D. 8th ICS, posterior to midaxillary line, inferior border of the upper rib
16. Bronchopulmonary segments are named after their corresponding:

A. secondary bronchus C. pulmonary artery
B. tertiary bronchus D. pulmonary vein
17. What structure does NOT pass through the diaphragmatic opening at T12 level?
A. aorta C. esophagus
B. azygous vein D. thoracic duct
18. The horizontal fissure of the right lung meets the oblique fissure on which line of
orientation ?
A. anterior axillary line C. midclavicular line
B. midaxillary line D. right parasternal line
19. On deep inspiration, the tracheal bifurcation descends to which of the following
vertebral levels?
A. T2 C. T6
B. T4 D. T8
20. A drunken man, sitting upright, aspirates a peanut. Into which of the following bronchopulmonary segments would it likely lodge?
A. left inferior lingular C. right posterior basal
B. left anteromedial basal D. right medial
21. Blood from the pulmonary arteries is eventually drained from the lungs primarily through the:
A. azygos vein C. lymphatic system
B. bronchial vein D. pulmonary vein
24. An intern is trying to elicit the presence of corneal blink reflex on a patient. Which of the following cranial nerves is the afferent
arm of this reflex?
A. II C. V
B. III D. VII
Answer: C, Clinical Neuroanatomy, Richard S. Snell, 5th Ed., p337
26. A patient with tertiary syphilis has impairment of his sense of orientation and
position in space. This is indicative of a damage to the:
A. pyramidal tract C. antero-lateral spinothalamic tract
B. dorsal column pathway D. corticospinal tract
Answer: B, Clinical Neuroanatomy, Richard S. Snell, 5th Ed., p150
27. Special somatic afferent fibers are found in which of the following cranial nerves?
A. II C. VIII
37
B. VI D IX
Answer: A, Clinical Neuroanatomy, Richard S. Snell, 5th Ed., p332
30. A blind-folded woman was made to guess the letter written on her palm. The second-
order neuron of the involved sensory pathway is located at the:
A. dorsal horn C. nucleus cuneatus
B. fasciculus cuneatus D. nucleus gracilis
Answer: C, Clinical Neuroanatomy, Richard S. Snell, 5th Ed., p150-152
35. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about the ileum?
A. It has fewer plicae circulares.
B. It has fewer mesenteric arterial arcades.
C. It has more fat.
D. It has shorter vasa recta.
Answer: B, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p243-244
36. Which of the following best describes the inguinal canal?

A. It is located parallel and above the lacunar ligament.
B. It transmits the iliohypogastric nerve.
C. The deep inguinal ring is located lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels.
D. The superficial inguinal ring is a defect in the parietal peritoneum.
Answer: C, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p172-174
37. The duodenum is identified histologically by the presence of:

A. Brunners glands C. Paneth cells
B. Goblet cells D. Peyers patches
Answer: A, Basic Histology: Text and Atlas, Junqueira and Carneiro. 10th Ed., p318
38. Choose the CORRECT statement about the Hesselbachs triangle.

A. It is the site of indirect inguinal hernia.
B. The lateral boundary is formed by the inferior epigastric vessels.
C. It transmits the spermatic cord.
D. It is found below the inguinal ligament.
Atlas of Human Anatomy, Frank Netter, plate 243
39. Which of the following arteries may be eroded in a patient with perforated ulcer on
the posterior wall of the first part of the duodenum?
A. right gastric C. gastroduodenal
B. right gastroepiploic D. splenic
41. Which of the following best describes the esophagus?

A. It is lined by simple columnar epithelium.
B. It is entirely made up of skeletal muscle.
C. Mucus secreting glands are found in the lamina propria and submucosa.
D. The abdominal portion is covered by adventitia.
Answer: C, Basic Histology: Text and Atlas, Junqueira and Carneiro. 10th Ed., p299
42. The superior mesenteric and splenic veins unite at the region of the head of the pancreas to form the:
A. hepatic vein C. portal vein
B. azygos vein D. inferior vena cava
43. The superior mesenteric artery was inadvertently cut and ligated. Which of the following structures would NOT be devascularized?
A. ascending colon C. descending colon
B. jejunum D. appendix
38
44. At the outpatient clinic, a patient came in with an anal mass. On further examination,
bilateral inguinal lymph nodes were palpated. This mass probably originates from
which of the following structures?
A. rectum C. lower anal canal
B. upper anal canal D. sigmoid colon
45. While examining a patient with suspected appendicitis, there was tenderness noted on the right lower quadrant. This tenderness
is due to irritation of which of the following structures?
A. parietal peritoneum C. mesocolon
B. visceral peritoneum D. A & C are correct
46. Which of the following structures arise from the midgut?

A. pancreas C. duodenum
B. liver D. stomach
47. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the sartorius?

A. It roofs over the femoral triangle.
B. It crosses both the hip and knee joints.
C. It flexes the thigh but not the leg.
D. It forms part of the triceps surae muscles.
48. Which tendon of the following muscles is tapped to illicit the knee-jerk reflex?
A. quadriceps femoris C. sartorius
B. tibialis anterior D. popliteus
49. A laboratory technician not aware of the gluteal anatomy gave his friend a flu shot at the lower aspect of the right gluteus.
Afterwards, his friend noted decreased sensation over the anterolateral aspect of the right leg and foot. Also his right foot was
noted to drop and drag to the floor. Which of the nerves was probably injured?
A. common peroneal nerve C. sciatic nerve
B. tibial nerve D. obturator nerve
50. Which of the following veins is often harvested as grafts for coronary arterial bypass
procedures?
A. cephalic C. lesser saphenous
B. basilic D. great saphenous
51. A 20 year old patient sustains a deep cut on the volar surface of right wrist. Median nerve injury would affect which of the
following muscles?
A. medial lumbricals C. thenar
B. dorsal interossei D. palmar interossei
Answer : C, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p482
52. Which of the following ligaments is traversed by the needle in performing a lumbar tap?
A. posterior longitudinal C. cruciate
B. anterior longitudinal D. ligamentum flavum
39
53. When a persons neck and trunk are flexed, as in preparation for a spinal tap, the spinous process of C7 becomes visible and it is
for this reason that it is called:
A. spina bifida C. vertebra prominens
B. atlas D. intervertebral disc herniation
54. In patient with fracture of the middle humerus ; the following muscles will be denervated EXCEPT:
A. triceps brachii C. extensior digitorum communis
B. abductor pollicis brevis D. supinator
55. Which branch of the brachial plexus DOES NOT give off branch(es) to the upper arm and shoulder?
A. musculocutaneous nerve C. radial nerve
B. ulnar nerve D. circumflex nerve
56. Which of the following muscles of mastication protracts the jaw?

A. masseter C. lateral pterygoid
B. temporalis D. medial pterygoid
57. Which layer of the scalp contains the muscle responsible for raising the eyebrows in expression of surprise or horror?
A. connective tissue C. loose areolar tissue
B. aponeurotic layer D. pericranium
Answer: B, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., pp760-761
58. The flexor of the elbow joint found at the lateral fascial compartment of the forearm is:
A. brachialis C. triceps brachii
B. brachioradialis D. biceps brachii
59. Midline calcified bodies called corpora arenacea (brain sands) visible on skull radiograph are structures found in which of the
following organs?
A. Pineal gland C. Hypothalamus
B. Hypophysis D. Epithalamus
67. For the fight, fright, flight response which of the following cells would secrete epinephrine?
A. ganglion cells of the medulla C. chromaffin
B. follicular cells of the thyroid D. pinealocytes
Answer: C, Basic Histology: Text and Atlas, Junqueira and Carneiro. 10th Ed., p418-419
69. Which structure/s would most likely be injured if the doctor incorrectly incised the superior half of the tympanic membrane?
A. promontory C. cone of light
B. ossicles D. All of the above
70. Which of the following extraocular muscles are weak if a patient has difficulty looking straight down?
A. superior oblique - inferior rectus
B. medial rectus superior oblique
C. superior inferior oblique
D. lateral rectus inferior oblique
71. Optic nerves are formed by axons of neurons found in the ___ layer of the retina.
A. ganglion C. inner nuclear
40
B. outer nuclear D. photoreceptor
73. Which of the following structures forms part of the vascular coat of the eyeball?
A. choroid C. retina
B. conjunctiva D. sclera
Answer: A, Basic Histology: Text and Atlas, Junqueira and Carneiro. 10th Ed., pp470-472
74. Which of the following nerves subserve/s taste sensation from the posterior third of the tongue?
A. Vagus C. Glossopharyngeal
B. Facial D. All of the above
76. Which of the following diameters is the narrowest A-P diameter of the true pelvis?
A. obstetric conjugate C. oblique
B. interspinous D. posterior sagittal
Answer: A, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S. Snell, 7th Ed., p334-337
77. Which of the following muscles is NOT incised during a median episiotomy done during vaginal delivery?
A. Bulbocavernosus C. superficial transverse perineal
B. external anal sphincter D. ischiocavernosus
Answer: D, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S. Snell, 7th Ed., p438
79. Which of the following structures DOES NOT form the urogenital diaphragm?
A. sphincter urethrae muscle
B. perineal membrane
C. deep transverse perineal muscle
D. Colles fascia
Answer: D, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p435, p439
85. The modified smooth muscle cells in the tunica media of the afferent arteriole are
called:
A. macula densa C. juxtaglomerular cells
B. mesangial cells D. juxtaglomerular apparatus
Answer: C, Basic Histology: Text and Atlas, Junqueira and Carneiro. 10th Ed., p394
88. During dissection, M.C. noticed a dilated portion of the spongy urethra. This is the:
A. external meatus C. urethral crest
B. fossa navicularis D. veromontanum
89. Which of the following is related to the LEFT kidney anteriorly?

A. duodenum C. 12th rib
B. spleen D. ascending colon
Answer: B, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., pp281-283
90. Choose the CORRECT statement regarding the autonomic supply to the bladder.
A. Sympathetic fibers come from S2, S3 & S4.
B. Parasympathetic innervation promote emptying of the bladder.
C. Both A & B
D. Neither A nor B
91. Referred pain secondary to stones in the lower two-thirds of the ureter is LEAST likely to be felt in which area?
A. Flank C. Thigh
B. Anterior abdominal wall D. Groin
Answer; B, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p286
41
92. Gerotas fascia(renal fascia) is an effective anatomic barrier which tends to confine pathological processes in the kidney except on
which area?
A. Superiorly C. Laterally
B. Inferiorly D. Medially
Answer: B, Atlas of Human Anatomy, Frank Netter, plate 328
95. Azurophilic granules are only produced in what stage of granulopoiesis?

A. myeloblast C. myelocyte
B. promyelocyte D. metamyelocyte
Answer: B, Basic Histology: Text and Atlas, Junqueira and Carneiro. 10th Ed., pp256-257
1. A high velocity bullet penetrates the posterior aspect of the shoulder and severely injures the origin of the posterior cord of
the brachial plexus. Each of the following nerves might possible be affected EXCEPT the
A. upper subscapular
B. thoracodorsal
C. radial
D. medial pectoral
Page 477-480
2. A patient was noted to have atrophy of the temporalis and masseter muscles on one side of the face. His corneal reflex on
the affected side was normal and he had no sensory deficit in the cheek area. This patient most probably has a lesion
involving the
A. mandibular division of CN V
B. maxillary division of CN V
C. ophthalmic division of CN V
D. terminal branches of CN VII
Page 766-768
3. The following secretions are correctly paired with their cells of origin in every pair EXCEPT
A. glucagon - pancreatic alpha cells

B. intrinsic factor- parietal cells of the stomach
C. insulin - pancreatic beta cells
D. hydrochloric acid - chief cells of the stomach
Page 602-604, 695
10. Tendinous center of the perineum which is an important structure in childbearing women
A. sphincter urethrae muscle

B. bulbospongiosus
C. transverse perineal muscle
D. perineal body
Page 394
Netter 7th edition

Bloom and Fawcett Textbook of Histology 12th ed
(A)1. Neurologic examination of a 37-year old alcoholic man with clumsiness of his right hand revealed poor dorsiflexion of the
hand at the wrist. He most likely injured his:
A. median nerve
42
B. brachioradialis nerve
C. musculocutaneous nerve
D. radial nerve
(A)4. Which of the following statement is true regarding transection of the optic nerve?
A. direct pupillary light reflex would be unaffected
B. the affected eye will be blind
C. there would be bitemporal hemianopsia
D. consensual light reflex would be lost on the affected eye
5. Which of the following reflexes is a monosynaptic reflex?
A. Achilles reflex
B. pupillary light reflex
C. corneal reflex
D. extensor plantar reflex
(I)7. Which of the following blood vessels would be most likely involved in patient showing homonymous hemianopsia with macular
sparing?
A. internal carotid artery
B. posterior cerebral artery
C. middle cerebral artery
D. anterior cerebral artery
8. Which of the following statements is true of the middle cerebral artery?
A. it supplies the occipital and posterior portion of the temporal lobe
B. it is the continuation of the internal carotid artery
C. it supplies the portion of the motor cortex corresponding to the legs
D. it gives rise to the medial striate artery
9. Which of the following centers is located in the frontal lobe?
A. Brocas speech area
B. Wernikes speech area
C. primary visual area
D. primary auditory area
(I)13. Above the arcuate line, the aponeurosis of this muscle splits to form the rectus sheath:
A. external oblique
B. internal oblique
C. transversus abdominis
D. rectus abdominis
21. The common boundary between the true and false pelvis is the
A. sacroiliac joint
B. symphysis pubis
C. anterior superior spine
D. iliopectineal line
25. Which of the following amino acids is needed by the epidermal melanocytes to produce melanin?
A. valine
B. tyrosine
C. phenylalanine
D. tryptophan
27. The common sweat gland is structurally classified as

A. simple acinar
B. simple tubular
C. simple coiled tubular
D. simple branched tubular
30. The interatrial communication in the fetus through which caval blood is shunted to the left atrium
A. foramen ovale
B. fossa ovalis
C. ductus venosus
D. sinus venosus
43
31. It divides the atrium into a sinus venosus and auricle
A. atrial septum
B. musculo pectini
C. crista terminals
D. tricuspid valve
33. The visceral pericardium is also called the
A. epicardium
B. endocardium
C. myocardium
D. fibrous pericardium
34. Which of the following cardiac tissues has the slowest conduction velocity?
A. SA node
B. AV node
C. Purkinje fibers
D. ventricular muscle fibers
35. Valves are present in
A. capillaries
B. medium caliber veins
C. lymphatic ducts
D. venules
38. The most active site for hemopoiesis in adults
A. femur
B. hip bones
C. skull bones
D. tibia
39. T Lymphocyte differentiation occurs in the
A. bone marrow
B. lymph node
C. thymus
D. bursa equivalent in man
40 The structure which is NOT composed of lymphoid tissue
A. tonsils
B. appendices epiploicae
C. lymph node
D. spleen
41. Which of the following cells are responsible for antibody production?
A. lymphocyte
B. macrophage
C. monocyte
D.plasma cell
44. The Hassals corpuscles of the thymus consist of
A. densely packed T-lymphocytes
B. concentric layers of epitheloid reticular cells
C. clusters of multinucleated macrophages
D. immature blood cells
(I)45. The most active mobile leukocyte of the body
A. basophil
B. eosinophil
C. neutrophil
D. macrophage
47. The epithelial lining of the pulmonary alveoli
A. simple squamous
B. simple columnar
C. stratrified squamous non-keratinized
D. pseudostratified columnar ciliated
53. The motor nerve supply of the diaphragm is derived from
44
A. vagus nerve
B. long thoracic nerve
C. thoracodorsal nerve
D. phrenic nerve
(A)57. The midgut loop normally herniates through the primitive umbilical ring into the extraembryonic coelom during week 6 of
development. Failure of the intestinal loops to return to the abdominal cavity by week 11 results in the formation of
A. omphalocoele
B. anal agenesis
C. ileal diverticulum
D. intestinal stenosis
59. The pharynx joins with the esophagus at the level of
A. C3
B. C4
C. C5
D. C6
60. The valves of Houston are found in the
A. ileocecal junction
B. rectum
C. pylorus
D. ascending colon
(A)61. A 40 year old male sustained from a motor vehicular accident resulting to fracture of the 9 th to the 11th ribs left posterior. He
is in hypovolemic shock.The most likely organ injured is the
A. stomach
B. liver
C. spleen
D. pancreas
(A)63. A 30 year old female with history of 2 weeks fever developed peritonitis and was diagnosed as Typhoid Fever with
perforation. The organ involved is the
A. stomach
B. duodenum
C. jejunum
D. ileum
(I)65. The esophagus is related to which portion of the heart?
A. right atrium
B. left atrium
C. right ventricle
D. left ventricle
66. The vein of Mayo is the anatomical landmark demarcating the
A. esophagus and stomach
B. stomach and duodenum
C. duodenum and jejunum
D. sigmoid and rectum
67. The external hemorrhoidal plexus drains into the
A. pudendal vein
B. internal iliac vein
C. middle rectal vein
D. superior rectal vein
68. Which is closely related to the fundus of the stomach?
A. jejunum
B. ileum
C. sigmoid
D. spleen
69. The gastro-duodenal artery is a branch of the
A. right gastro-epiploic
B. hepatic
C. superior mesenteric
D. splenic
45
71. As one proceeds outward from the renal medulla, the three separate functional layers of the adrenal cortex, in correct order, are
A. zona reticularis, zona fasciculata then zona glomerulosa
B. zona fasciculata, zona reticularis then zona glomerulosa
C. zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata then zona reticularis
D. zona glomerulosa, zona reticularis then zona fasciculate
72. The normal kidney of an average-sized adult man weighs approximately
A. 150 gms
B. 300 gms
C. 600 gms
D. 1,200 gms
73. The location of the narrowest portion of the ureter
A. ureteropelvic junction
B. across the iliac vessels
C. ureterovessical junction
D. upper third
75. The main blood supply of the prostate gland is the
A. uperior prostatic artery
B. median vesical artery
C. inferior vesical artery
D. superior vesical artery
(A)76. A 28 year old man sustained a pelvic fracture due to a motorcycle accident. Which portion of the urethra was most likely
injured?
A. prostatic urethra
B. membranous urethra
C. bulbous urethra
D. penile urethra
77. The motor nerves supplying the urinary bladder come mostly from
A. parasympathetic nerves
B. pelvic nerves
C. pudendal nerves
D. sympathetic nerves
79. The Dartos layer beneath the skin of the penis is continuous with the superficial layer of the anterior abdominal wall fascia
called the
A. fascia lata
B. campers fascia
C. bucks fascia
D. scarpas fascia
80. The dull whitish connective tissue covering of the ovary is called
A. tunica albuginea
B. theca externa
C. zona pellucida
D. corona radiata
82. The right ovarian vein drains into the
A. right renal vein
B. hypogastric vein
C. inferior vena cava
D. common iliac vein
83. Lymphatics from the vulva drain into the
A. hypogastric nodes
B. inguinal nodes
C. para-aortic nodes
D. common iliac nodes
85. The layer of endometrium that remains to regenerate after menstruation
A. compact layer
B. spongy layer
C. functional layer
D. basal layer
46
88. The male homologue of the Gartners duct of females
A. epididymis
B. inguinal ligament
C. gubernaculum testis
D. vas deferens
(I)89. Which of the following statements concerning the development of the reproductive system in the female is correct?
A. the clitoris is analogous to the penis
B. the urethral folds fail to fuse
C. the urethral folds form the labia minora
D. All of the above
92. Fructose, a source of energy for the spermatozoa, is primarily present in the secretions of
A. seminal vesicle
B. epididymis
C. bulbourethral gland
D. vas deferens
97. In which bone is the inner ear located?
A. sphenoid
B. temporal
C. parietal
D. occipital
98. Regarding the tympanic cavity, which of the following statements is/are true?
A. an airfilled space in the petrous portion of the temporal bone
B. communicates with the pharynx via the eustachian tube
C. houses the incus, malleus and stapes
D. All of the above
99. All are supplied by the oculomotor nerve, EXCEPT
A. superior rectus
B. medial rectus
C. inferior oblique
D. lateral rectus
100. The inability to focus horizontally or vertically is a problem inherent to the
A. cornea
B. lens
C. vitreous humor
D. retina
47

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CLINICAL ANATOMY for MEDICAL STUDENTS

By SNELL 6th edition

Choose the best answer:

1. The superior boundary of the epiploic foramen:

53. Nerve supply of the anterior fascial compartment of the leg:

68. Initial manifestation of syringomyelia at the level of C6 T1 involves:

72. Attached to the central tendon of perineum:

Clinical Anatomy, Clinical Scenario Application, 7th Ed.

Answer: C (Page 953)

Given a clinical scenario, identify the structure involved

Identify anatomic landmarks used in Physical examination

Given a laboratory finding/ radiographic finding, identify the structure involved

Given a laboratory finding/ radiographic finding, identify the structure involved

Given a clinical scenario, identify the structure involved

2. Which of the following provide dynamic support to the uterus?

3. Prostatic cancer cells metastasize to the skull via the:

Identify anatomic landmarks used in Physical examination

Given a clinical scenario, identify the structure involved

2. The renal artery arises approximately from the level of the:

Answer: B (Page 282)

Given a laboratory finding/ radiographic finding, identify the structure involved

3. Which of the following is NOT a part of neurohypophysis?

Given a clinical scenario, identify the structure involved

Given a clinical scenario, identify the structure involved

Given a clinical scenario, identify the structure involved

SIMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE. CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER.

3. The hormone calcitonin is produced by what particular endocrine cell?

9. Sternal angle of Louis refers to a

HEAD AND NECK

19. Which cell consist monocyte marcophage system of the liver?

PERINEUM AND PELVIS

33. Fertilization of an egg by a sperm normally occurs at the:

35. The vas deferens end by joining the ducts of the:

37. The narrowest part of the male urethra is the:

44. The fasciculus cuneatus is found at this spinal cord segment:

49. The efferent nucleus of the pupillary light reflex is:

Source: Clinical Anatomy

Page 653, 655-660

16. Which is an INCORRECT statement about an intervertebral disc?

18. Not found in the CNS

Page 330 Bloom and Fawcett

26. An occlusion of the superior mesenteric artery would result in necrosis of

33. Damage to the anatomic snuffbox might be expected to injure the

38. The cerebral aqueduct is located in the

Page 633-635 Bloom and Fawcet

42. Extensor compartment of the leg

44. Posterior to the neck of the pancreas this vessel is formed

Page 129 Bloom and Fawcett

Page 798 802

Page 339 423

70. Fate of the Graafian follicle immediately after ovulation

Page 825-826 Bloom and Fawcett

Page 500 505

79. The following is a subdivision of the posterior triangle of the neck

81. The gastrohepatic ligament attaches to this part of the stomach

83. Lateral wall of middle ear:

90. Structure that is easily damaged/cut during abdominal hysterectomy

B 3 Apex beat of the heart is normally located at the left 70

B 5 This structure is located between 2 adjacent bronchopulmonary segments 97

B 9 The delay in impulse conduction thru the AV node is necessary 116

C 10 Malignant tumors of the mediastinum will result in 133

A 14 The location of the superficial inguinal ring is 172

C 16 This structure is located outside the femoral sheath 624

B 21 True regarding Meckels diverticulum 259