UWorld Self-Assessment 2

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1. Mitral stenosis Most commonly caused by rheumatic 13. What type of Systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur
fever. murmur is heard between the apex and left sternal
Diastolic thrill palpable over cardiac characteristic in border radiation to the suprasternal
apex. hypertrophic notch. Murmur becomes quieter with
Low-pitched diastolic murmur best heard cardiomyopathy? increases in preload or afterload and
over the apex. louder with decreases in preload or
Rupture of high pressure bronchial veins afterload.
may lead to hemoptysis.
14. What is the DNA polymerase III synthesizes DNA in
2. Infective Causes mitral/tricuspid regurgitation difference the presence of RNA primers. Primase is
endocarditis between DNA necessary for the proper functioning of
polymerase I and DNA polymerase III. In contrast, DNA
3. Peutz-Jegher's AD serine/threonine kinase 11 mutation on
DNA polymerase polymerase I is responsible for the
syndrome chromosome 19.
III? removal of RNA primers and synthesis of
Hyperpigmented buccal mucosa, lips,
new DNA in their place. Defects in DNA
hands, genitalia and hamartomatous
polymerase I would result in retention of
polyps in GI tract.
RNA primers in newly replicated DNA.
4. Liposarcoma Most common soft tissue tumor.
15. What is the most CA-125
Numerous lipoblasts producing non-
commonly used
membrane-bound cytoplasmic lipid.
marker for
Causes nuclear indentations and
ovarian cancer?
scalloping of nuclear membrane.
Note that lipomas, in contrast, consist of 16. hCG is used as a Hydatidiform mole, choriocarcinoma,
mature fat cells without pleomorphism. marker for which testicular cancer, pregnancy
4 conditions?
5. Pemphigus IgG anti-desmoglein antibodies in the
vulgaris epidermis. Desmosomal junctions 17. AFP is used as a Hepatocellular carcinoma, endodermal
mediate adherence of epidermal marker for which sinus (yolk sac) tumors
keratinocytes to one another. 2 conditions?
6. Bullous IgG anti-hemidesmosome antibodies in 18. CEA is used as a Colorectal, breast, and pancreatic cancer
pemphigoid the basement membrane. marker for which
3 conditions?
7. Dermatitis IgA deposition in the papillary dermis
herpetiformis 19. CA 19-9 is used Pancreatic adenocarcinoma
as a marker for
8. Epidermolysis Anti-type VII collagen antibodies in the
which condition?
bullosa acquisita dermoepidermal junction.
20. Aspiration of Bilious vomitus, upper GI bleeding
9. Neonatal RDS Reduced compliance (increased lung
brown fluid from
recoil) due to decreased surfactant. The
NG tubes may
majority of lung recoil force may be
indicate which
attributed to alveolar surface tension.
conditions?
10. Horner syndrome MAP: Miosis, Anhydrosis, Ptosis.
21. What is the AR homogentisic acid oxidase defect
Compression of the superior cervical
enzymatic defect
ganglion.
in alkaptouria?
11. What is the best IVF. Most patients are infertile secondary
22. What is the Debilitating arthritis
way to achieve to ovarian failure and premature follicular
typical Dark colored urine upon standing
fertility in atresia. Thus, viable ova must be obtained
presentation of Ochronosis - dark discoloration of the
patients with from an external source for pregnancy to
alkaptouria? sclera, ear cartilage, and joints.
Turner occur.
syndrome? 23. Tamm-Horsfall Exclusively secreted in the ascending
glycoprotein limb of the loop of Henle. May
12. Lining of Meckel Ileal mucosa or ectopic gastric,
accumulate and form hyaline casts in
diverticula pancreatic, jejunal, or colonic tissue.
prerenal azotemia and low urine flow
rate.
24. Which 4 tests Lecithin:sphingomyelin ration, 33. What is the only Smoking cessation. Note that it
are used to surfactant:albumin ratio, slide intervention known to does not improve pulmonary
assess fetal agglutination test, foam stability index reduce the function but prevents further
lung maturity? (amniotic fluid - ethanol mixture). progression of decline.
obstructive pulmonary
25. What is the Disordered eating, amenorrhea,
disease?
"female athlete osteoporosis. Estrogen deficiency may
triad"? result in infertility, vaginal atrophy, breast 34. What is recidivism? Resumption of harmful activity
atrophy, and osteopenia. after a period of abstinence of
rehabilitation.
26. What is the Cystathione synthetase, which is essential
defective for the degradation of methionine. Causes 35. Influenza viruses Genetic reassortment / antigenic
enzyme in high serum levels of homocysteine and obtain new infectivity shift. Combination of two distinct
homocystinuria? methionine as well as homocystinuria. through mechanism? viruses results in creation of a novel
Features include downward displacement strain to which humans are newly
of the lens, osteoporosis, mental susceptible but have no
retardation, and thromboembolism. immunologic resistance.
27. What amino Cysteine, as the amino acid cannot be 36. How do beta blockers Beta receptors are linked to
acid is essential formed from homocysteine by cystathione affect serum calcium-gated potassium channels,
in synthetase. potassium levels? which mediate entrance of
homocystinuria? potassium into cells. Beta clockers
would therefore inhibit this uptake
28. What is the Chronic abdominal pain; epigastric mass
and result in hyperkalemia.
typical tender to palpation.
presentation of 37. What causes proptosis Lymphocytic infiltrates secrete
pancreatic in Graves disease? cytokines that stimulate fibroblasts
pseudocysts? to secrete glycosaminoglycan
ground substance (i.e. hyaluronic
29. Pancreatic Body or tail
acid). Increased oncotic pressure
pseudocysts
draws water into the orbit, resulting
typically occur
in extraocular muscle edema and
which region of
pushes the globe outward.
the pancreas?
38. How does squatting In tetralogy of Fallot, eventual
30. Why is heparin Heparin (charged molecule), compared to
improve circulatory right-to-left shunting causes
more safe for warfarin (uncharged molecule), is more
function in tetralogy of cyanosis. Squatting serves to
use in water soluble. In general, water soluble
Fallot? improve venous return, which
pregnancy materials do not readily cross the
would in turn increased to volume
compared to placenta. In contrast, lipophilic molecules
of blood which enters the
warfarin? may easily cross the placenta. Warfarin
pulmonary circulation.
can cause "warfarin embryopathy" if used
during pregnancy and is characterized by 39. Intestinal stem cells Crypts of Lieberkuhn
midfacial hypoplasia, chondrodysplasia reside in which region?
punctata, hemorrhage, organ hypoplasia,
40. What is the most Rotavirus, which causes secretory
and CNS defects.
common cause of diarrhea by enterocyte destruction
31. What is the most Pili. Organisms which do not express pili secretory diarrhea in in the small bowel.
important are not able to bind to host cells and children?
virulence factor cannot cause infection.
41. Thiamine deficiency Cerebellum (alcoholic cerebellar
in gonoccoccal
results in Wernicke degeneration). Wide-based gait
infections?
encephalopathy ataxia, truncal instability, intention
32. What is the Metabolized into deoxynucleotide characterized by tremor, and rhythmic postural
mechanism of analogs that competitively inhibit viral confusion, tremors are characteristic.
action of DNA polymerase and prevent chain ophthalmoplegia, and
acyclovir and elongation. ataxia. Damage to
ganciclovir? which region of the
brain causes ataxia?
42. What is the Alpha-1 agonist. Causes increased 52. What conditions Cystic hygromas are cystic lymphatic
mechanism of peripheral vascular resistance and BP as are associated malformations (lymphangiomas) that
action of well as decreased HR and pulse with cystic most commonly occur in the head and
phenylephrine? pressure (due to increased afterload). hygromas? neck, generally on the left side.
Examination reveals a painless,
43. What is the Like the TATA box, the CAAT box serves
compressible mass that transilluminates.
function of the as a transcription promotor. Promotor
They are associated with karyotype
CAAT box in DNA regions act as binding sites for RNA
abnormalities (i.e. Down syndrome,
transcription? polymerase II.
Edward syndrome, Patau syndrome, and
44. What are the Enhance or repress the binding of Turner syndrome)
functions of transcription machinery to a promotor
53. Which congenital ASD, VSD, AV septal defect (endocardial
positive and region. Enhancer elements may act
cardiac defects cushion defect)
negative either upstream or downstream of a
are associated
regulators in DNA promotor region and can act on
with Down
transcription? multiple promotor regions.
syndrome?
45. What is the Lysyl hydroxylase, which is involved in
54. What congenital Preductal coarctation of the aorta
enzymatic defect posttranslational modification of
cardiac defect is
in Ehlers-Danlos procollagen to mature collagen. Defects
associated with
syndrome? result in impaired collagen crosslinking
Turner
and decreased strength, resulting in
syndrome?
hypermobile joints and skin as well as
scurvy-like symptoms. Most commonly 55. What is the most Decreased expression of the lactase
affects type I and type V collagen common cause of gene. Lactase expression is high during
lactose infancy when the mother's milk is a
46. What is the Mediates the process of fibrosis
intolerance in primary source of nutrition. However,
function of following hepatocyte damage. In
adults? expression declines steadily with age in
stellate cells in cirrhosis, regenerative nodules
most age groups, as milk is no longer the
the liver? consisting of hepatocytes is surrounding
primary source of nutrition.
by bridging fibrous septae. Hepatocytes
are the primary cell population within 56. Kluver-Bucy Increased sexual activity, oral fixation,
regenerative nodules. syndrome hyperphagia, visual agnosia, aphasia,
loss of normal anger and fear reactions,
47. What is the Inhibits 23S rRNA component of
placidity, amnesia, distractibility, seizures,
mechanism of prokaryotic 50S ribosomal subunit.
and dementia. Most commonly
action of Other drugs which act on the 50S
associated with HSV-1 encephalitis due
macrolides? subunit include chloramphenicol (inhibits
to pathologic destruction of the
50S peptidyltransferase) and linezolid.
temporal lobes (in particular the
48. What is the Inhibits 50S peptidyltransferase amygdala).
mechanism of
57. What is the Mental retardation, thromboembolism,
action of
typical osteoporosis, downward displacement of
chloramphenicol?
presentation of lens
49. What is the Inhibits formation of the initiation homocysteinuria?
mechanism of complex for translation by the 30S
58. Rituximab Anti-CD20 antibody; removes B cells
action of ribosomal subunit.
from the circulation and impaired
aminoglycosides?
antibody synthesis.
50. What is the Blocks aminoacyl-tRNA binding to the A
59. Tardive Dyskinesia which persists following
mechanism of site on the ribisome, thus inhibiting
dyskinesia discontinuation of the offending
action of elongation.
medication. Likely occurs due to
tetracyclines?
upregulation of dopamine receptors,
51. What is the Inhibits DNA gyrase (topoiosmerase resulting in hypersensitivity to DA.
mechanism of II/IV), which prevents formation of
action of negative coils and relief of helical
fluoroquinolones? tension.
60. What are the steps in 1) Conversion of phenylalanine to 70. Acitretin Retinoid; promotes cellular
catecholamine tyrosine by phenylalanine differentiation. Used in psoriasis.
synthesis? hydroxylase Other diseases which utilize retinoids
2) Conversion of tyrosine to DOPA as treatment include AML and acne.
by tyrosine hydroxylase Alcohol consumption causes
3) Conversion of DOPA to dopamine esterification of acitretin to etretinate,
by aromatic amino acid which as a extremely long half-life and
decarboxylase (AAAD) increases toxicity.
4) Conversion of dopamine to NE by
71. What are the Poor drug penetration (use with
dopamine hydroxylase
mechanisms of penicillins to increase drug efficacy),
5) Conversion of NE to epinephrine
aminoglycoside mutations in ribosomal proteins, drug
by PNMT
resistance? metabolism by bacterial enzymes (i.e.
61. What is the benefit Killed vaccines do not have the transferase enzymes which induce
of inactivated (killed) ability to revert to active forms. acetylation, phosphorylation,
vaccine over oral adenylation)
vaccines?
72. Orlistat Inhibits intestinal lipase, preventing fat
62. What is the benefit Attenuated vaccines are able to absorption from the GI tract. Used for
of oral attenuated induce herd immunity. the treatment of obesity.
vaccines over
73. What is the function Metabolizes glycogen to G1P, which is
inactivated vaccines?
of converted to G6P by
63. What is the The aorta is anterior to the trachea, myophosphorylase? phosphoglucomutase.
relationship amongst which is anterior to the esophagus.
74. GPCR structure 7 transmembrane domains arranged in
the aorta, trachea,
alpha helical structure with projection
and esophagus?
of hydrophobic R groups outward to
64. Which muscles are BEST: increases stability. Nonpolar,
innervated by the Brachialradialis hydrophobic amino acids include
radial nerve? Extensors of the wrist and hand glycine, alanine, valine, leucine,
Supinator isoleucine, phenylalanine, tryptophan,
Triceps methionine, and proline.
65. The medial Inferior cords, prior to the formation 75. What are the VITAL GMPP:
cutaneous nerves of of the ulnar nerve. nonpolar Valine
the arm and forearm hydrophobic amino Isoleucine
are derived from acids? Tryptophan
which region of the Alanine
brachial plexus? Leucine
Glycine
66. What is the function Mechanoreception with bone.
Methionine
of osteocytes? Derived from osteoblasts when they
Proline
are trapped within the cortical bone
Phenylalanine
they produce.
76. The cavernous sinus The cavernous sinus is the only dural
67. What is the Naked, dsDNA. Following infection,
differs from other sinus that receives venous blood from
classification of viral mRNA is synthesized by cellular
dural sinuses in cerebral veins as well as facial veins
adenoviridae? DNA-dependent RNA polymerases.
what way? (i.e. superior/inferior ophthalmic veins)
68. Rabies virus Eosinophilic intracellular inclusions
(Negri bodies). Fever malaise, What is a typical presentation of
followed by agitation, photophobia, mucormycosis?
and hydrophobia due to pharyngeal
spasm. Paralysis, coma, and death Facial pain with thin bloody nasal
ultimately results. discharge, impaired ocular movement,
69. Filtration fraction FF = GFR/RPF and necrosis of nasal turbinates. May
RPF = (1 - Hct)RBF cause cavernous sinus thrombosis.
Note the GFR is independent of renal
blood flow.
77. Tet spells Cyanosis induced by feeding, crying, or 85. What is the Statins inhibit hepatic cholesterol synthesis,
exercise. Squatting increases peripheral mechanism of which results in increased expression of LDL
vascular resistance, which improves action of ACE receptors on hepatocyte cell surfaces.
pulmonary blood flow by increased venous inhibitors Receptor mediated endocytosis lowers
return as well as decreases magnitude of (statins)? serum LDL levels.
right to left shunt.
86. Probenecid is Inhibits renal tubular secretion of various
78. Mumps Adults and inadequately immunized. most drugs, increasing serum drug concentrations
infections commonly and prolong drug actions.
are typically known for
more severe what drug-
in what drug
populations? interactions?
79. Lumbar Typically caused by anterior pelvic tilting 87. What is the To inhibit imipenem hydrolysis by renal
lordosis secondary to excessive contracture of hip function of tubular dehydropeptidase.
flexors and weakness of hip extensors. cilistatin?
Associated conditions include obesity,
88. What are the Discoloration of teeth and inhibition of bone
pregnancy, osteoporosis, dscitis, kyphosis
adverse growth in children (contraindicated in
with secondary lordosis, spondylolisthesis,
reactions of pregnancy), photosensitivity.
and achondroplasia.
tetracyclines?
80. What is the Membranous glomerulonephritis.
89. What Administration with intake of milk, antacids,
most Characterized by subepithelial immune
practices or iron containing preparations (divalent ions
common complex deposition, thickening of glomerular
inhibit the inhibit absorption). Tetracyclines readily cross
cause of capillary loops. Commonly occurs in setting
absorption of the placenta and are present in breast milk.
nephrotic of chronic infection, autoimmune disease, or
tetracyclines?
syndrome in underlying carcinoma.
adults? 90. What is the Corticosterone
precursor of
81. Incretins GI hormones which stimulate pancreatic
aldosterone?
insulin secretion in response to sugar-
containing meals. Two hormones with incretin 91. Cough Increased intrathoracic pressure decreases
effects include glucagon-like peptide (GLP) syncope venous return, thereby transiently decreasing
and gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP). Oral cardiac output and cerebral perfusion.
glucose tends to stimulate insulin release Syncope may also be observed in patients
more effectively than IV glucose due to during the Valsalva maneuver by the same
effect of incretins. mechanism. Typically occurs in obses
patients with COPD.
82. ACE Maternal intake of ACE inhibitors resulting in
inhibitor inhibition of fetal angiotensin II, which is 92. Xeroderma Defected nucleotide excision repair (i.e.
fetopathy essential in renal development. Affected pigmentosum endonuclease), which prevents reparation of
fetuses have renal atrophy, renal pyrimidine dimers resulting from ultraviolet
hypoperfusion/ischemia, defective urine light exposure. Increases risk of skin cancer
concentrating ability, and anuria. (i.e. squamous cell carcinoma melanoma,
basal cell carcinoma). Symptoms include
83. ApoB100 is Hepatocytes
photosensitivity, increased pigmentation,
synthesized
xerosis (dry skin).
by which
cells? 93. Ataxia Defects in ATM gene (DNA repair following
telangiectasia ionizing radiation). Characterized by
84. ApoB48 is Intestinal enterocytes
telangiectasias to the eyes and ears, ataxia,
synthesized
and lymphoproliferative malignancies.
by which
cells?
94. Which Small cleaved cells without nucleoli and 103. What type of Orthomyxovirus: single-stranded RNA virus
populations of larger, non-cleaved cells containing virus is which replicates in the nucleus. All RNA
neoplastic multiple nucleoli. influenza A? viruses other than the influenza virus and
lymphocytes are t(14;18) retroviruses (HIV) replicate in the cytoplasm.
characteristic in 14 = Ig heavy chain
104. The most Ornithine transcarbamoylase, which
follicular 18 = bcl2
common combines carbamoyl phosphate with
lymphoma?
defect of the ornithine to form citrulline. Deficiency results
95. Spider angiomas Caused by excess estrogen. May urea cycle in accumulation of orotic acid and high
appear in pregnant women or patients involves ammonia levels due to impaired urea cycle
with cirrhosis (decreased steroid which function.
degradation). Not that it is not an effect enzyme?
of portal hypertension. Both portal
105. What Arginase, which cleaves arginine to form
hypertension and spider angiomas are
enzyme ornithine and urea.
caused can be caused by liver cirrhosis.
catalyzes the
96. Neurofibromatosis Multiple cutaneous neurofibromas, production
I (von Caf-au-lait macules, pigmented iris of urea in
Reckinghausen hamartomas (Lisch nodules). the final step
disease) Neurofibromas consist of disorganized of the urea
proliferations of Schwann cells, cycle?
fibroblasts, and neurites.
106. Uncal Unces (apex of the temporal lobe containing
Also assoiciated with optic gliomas
herniation the hippocampus) pressed through the
(pilocytic astrocytoma) and
tentorium cerebelli. May result in
pheochromocytoma.
compression of CN3 (pupillary dilation),
97. Which drug is Niacin. Use with aspirin to decrease posterior cerebellar artery (occipital lobe
most effect at symptoms of flushing. visual defects, and contralateral cerebral
increasing serum peduncles (false localizing sign)
HDL levels?
107. Cerebellar Brain stem compression may result in coma
98. What are the side Flushing, hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia tonsillar or death. May also cause secondary Duret
effects of niacin? hernation hemorrhages due to compression of
penetrating vertebrobasilar arteries.
99. What are the Erythematous, edematous, friable, and
typical granular mucosa (pseudopolyps) that 108. Which Glycine and succinyl CoA. All carbon atoms
endoscopic begins at the anal verge and extends substrates in heme are directly derived from these two
findings of proximally. Loss of haustra leads to lead are required molecules.
ulcerative colitis? pipe appearance on imaging. Crypt for
abscesses (neutrophil accumulation in porphyrin
crypt lumina) are common. (heme)
synthesis?
100. Ovarian follicles Programmed apoptosis
become atretic 109. What are the OH DANG
over time via what adverse Ototoxicity
mechanism? effects of Hypokalemia (may lead to muscle weakness)
loop Dehydration
101. What is the A state in which the cell is not actively
diuretics? Allergy (sulfa)
definition of participating in the cell cycle or
Nephritis (interstitial)
quiescence? increasing in mass, but may be induced
Gout
to enter the cell cycle for further
division.
What are the characteristic radiologic
102. Restriction Single nucleotide polymorphisms. findings in osteoarthritis?
fragment length Restriction enzymes depend on the
polymorphisms recognition of a specific DNA sequence Joint space narrowing, subchondral bony
are most often in order to cleave DNA. Any changes in sclerosis (eburnation), and cyst formation in
caused by what DNA sequens will result in restriction high pressure areas of the joint. Osteophytes
event? fragments of different lengths. in low pressure areas of the joint.
Uniparental disomy may also lead to
RFLP but is less common than SNP.
110. Endometriosis Severe dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and 122. Dilated Enlarged ventricular chambers with
is infertility. cardiomyopathy unchanged or slightly decreased
characterized transmural thickness; fibrosis and
by what eccentric (series) myocyte
symptoms? hypertrophy.
111. IVC New onset bilateral lower extremity edema 123. What is the Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis and
obstruction in the absence of CHF, cirrhosis, and mechanism of prevents formation of mycobacterial
should be nephrotic syndrome. action of INH? cell wall.
suspected
124. What is the Smoking
under what
greatest risk factor
circumstances?
for coronary artery
112. Protease -navir; inhibits cleavage of gag and pol disease?
inhibitors gene products into active components.
125. Diaphragmatic I ate ten eggs at twelve:
Point mutations in the viral protease region
structures IVC (T8)
of the HIV pol gene are the typical
Esophagus (T10), with the vagus trunks
mechanism by which HIV develops
Aorta (T12), with the azygous vein and
resistance to protease inhibitors.
thoracic duct
113. HIV pol gene Encodes protease, integrase, and reverse
126. What is the most Glucokinase deficiency. Glucokinase is
transcriptase.
common cause of the primary form of hexokinase in the
114. What are the Cerebellar and retinal hemangioblastomas, maturity onset liver and pancreatic beta cells whose
common renal cell carcinoma, and diabetes of the action is responsible for inducing
manifestations pheochromocytoma young (MODY)? insulin release.
of vHL
127. Which sugars Fructose and galactose, as they
syndrome?
should be avoided cannot be converted to glucose due
115. In what portion Descemet's membrane of the cornea in von Gierke to defects in gluconeogenesis
of the eye is disease? (glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency)
copper
128. Glucose-6- SER
deposited in
phosphatase
Wilson's
resides within
disease?
which intracellular
116. Nonsense Point mutations resulting in premature stop organelle?
mutation codons: UGA, UAA, UAG
129. Which drugs are MAGIC RACKS GQ:
117. Missense Point mutations result in altered amino acid potent inhibitors of Macrolides
mutation at the site of alteration P450 enzymes Amiodarone
Grapfruit juice
118. Chromosome Melanoma susceptibility locus CDKN2A ,
INH
9p21 which encodes for CDK inhibitor 2A (p16).
Cimetidine
Mutation increases likelihood of melanoma.
Ritonavir
119. What is the Increase cardiac output by increasing both Acute alcohol abuse
normal heart the heart rate and stroke volume. Stroke Ciprofloxacin (fluoroquinolones)
response to volume is increased by a) increased LVEDV Ketoconazole (azoles)
exercise? and b) decreased peripheral vascular Gentamicin (aminoglycosides)
resistance (musuclar artery vasodilation) Quinidine
120. Activation of Gq = Phospholipase C (phospholipid 130. Which drugs are Modafinil
GPCRs affects hydrolysis) potent inducers of Barbiturates
which Gs, Gi = Adenylate cyclase P450 enzymes (8)? St. John wort
proteins? Phenytoin
121. Which enzyme Carbamoyl phosphate synthase II, which is Rifampin
is involved in located in the cytosol. Substrates include Carbamazepine
the initial step glutamine, CO2, and ATP. Note that Chronic alcohol abuse
of pyrimidine carbamoyl phosphate synthase I of the
synthesis? urea cycle is located in the mitochondria.
131. What is the Degradation of phenylalanine and 141. How does Hypercalcemia adversely affects renal
function of tyrosine. Defect in the enzyme results in hypercalcemia concentrating ability and may produce
homogentisic acid alkaptouria. Homogentisic acid lead to polyuria, polydipsia, and dilute urine.
oxidase? accumulates in the dermis, cartilage, dehydration? Pathophysiology is similar to nephrogenic
and sclerae resulting in blue-black diabetes insipidus. However, hypercalcemia
discoloration (ochronosis). does not contribue to osmotic diuresis, as
calcium does not contribute to total blood
132. Pontine Pinpoint pupils, loss of horizontal gaze,
osmoles.
hemorrhages are quadriparesis, decerebrate posturing,
associated with coma, death. 142. Name 3 Abciximab, eptifibatide, tirofiban
which findings? glycoprotein
IIb/IIIA
133. Hypertension- Basal ganglia, thalamus, pons,
antagonists.
related cerebellum, and other brainstem sites.
intracranial 143. Why is Clopidogrel is a prodrug that must be
hemorrhages clopidogrel activated by cytochrome P450 enzymes.
most often affect less effective
which regions of in the
the brain? presence of
P450
134. Intracerebral Obstruction of normal CSF flow,
inhibition?
neoplasms disruption of the blood-brain barrier,
increase ICP by resulting in vasogenic edema.
which two major
mechanisms?
135. Cytotoxic edema Increased intracellular fluid within cells
resulting from impaired sodium-
potassium ATPase function (i.e.
ischemia)
136. What are the Keratoderma blenorrhagica in the
common palms/soles and balanitis circinata
cutaneous
findings in
reactive arthritis?
137. What is the most C. Trachomatis; may also occur due to
common cause of infections with Salmonella, Shigella,
reactive arthritis? Campylobacter, and Yersinia.

What is the treatment for Cryptococcus

infections?

Amphotericin B with flucytozine and

fluconazole
138. What is the Binds to egosterol to form pores within
mechanism of the fungal cell membrane.
action of
Amphotericin B?
139. What are the Nephrotoxicity, hypokalemia,
adverse effects of hypomagnesemia, renal tubular
amphotericine B? acidosis.
140. What is the Inhibits fungal cell wall synthesis
mechanism of
action of
echinocandins (i.e.
caspofungin)?